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Bis Sci - I
Bis Sci - I
OMTEX CLASSES
SCIENCE AND
TECHNOLOGY
PART ONE
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STANDARD: - S.S.C
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SUCCESSFULLY
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IN ORDER TO
ACHIEVE ONCE AGAIN SUCCESS
INDEX
LESSON NAME
1. CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS
2. ELECTROLYSIS
3. STRENGTH OF SOLUTIONS
4. CURRENT ELECTRICITY
ELECTRICITY
5. EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC
ELECTRIC CURRENT
6. ENERGY SOURCES
7. TYPES OF ENERGY
8. POWER
9. SOUND
10. HEAT
11. LIGHT
7. COPPER IS FOUND TO GET DEPOSITED AT THE CATHODE WHEN CURRENT IS PASSED THROUGH
AQUEOUS COPPER CHLORIDE.
1. Decomposition of an electrolyte by passage of electric current through it, is called electrolysis.
2. During electrolysis of aqueous copper chloride the positively charged copper ions (Cu2+) move
towards the cathode and accept electrons from the cathode to form copper atoms.
3. This can be represented by cathode reaction
4. These copper atoms get deposited on cathode turning it reddish in colour. Hence, copper is found
to get deposited at the cathode when current is passed through aqueous copper chloride.
8. DURING THE ELECTROLYSIS OF AQUEOUS COPPER CHLORIDE USING CARBON ELECTRODES THE
COLOUR OF THE ELECTROLYTE GETS FADED.
1. Decomposition of an electrolyte by passage of electric current through it is called electrolysis.
2. During electrolysis of aqueous copper chloride the positively charged copper ions (Cu2+) move
towards the cathode and accept electrons from cathode to form copper atoms.
3. This can be represented by cathode reaction
4. These copper atoms get deposited on cathode turning it reddish in colour thus the concentration
of the solution goes on decreasing, fading the blue colour of the solution.
5. Hence, during the electrolysis of aqueous copper chloride using carbon electrodes the colour of
the electrolyte gets faded.
12. POTENTIAL DIFFERENCE OF SOURCE OF CURRENT (I.E. CELL) IS LESS THAN E.M.F. OR
THE P.D. IS ALWAYS LESS THAN THE E.M.F. OF THE CELL.
1. In e.m.f. the cell has to spend energy to overcome its external resistance as well as the internal
resistance.
2. In potential difference, the cell has to spend energy to overcome only its external resistance.
3. As energy cell has some internal resistance, potential different of a source of current (i.e. cell) is
less than e.m.f.
3. THE PLATES OF HEATING DEVICES SUCH AS A TOASTER, AN ELECTRIC IRON ETC. ARE MADE OF AN
ALLOY RATHER THAN A PURE METAL.
1. A pure metal like copper has low resistance due to which it produces less heat.
2. But alloys like nichrome have a very high resistance, thus the heat produced by it is more.
3. Hence, in heating devices like a toaster, an electric iron etc., alloys are used instead of pure
metals.
15. METALS ARE GOOD CONDUCTORS. OR METALS ARE GOOD CONDUCTORS OF ELECTRICITY. OR
AN ELECTRIC CURRENT CAN FLOW THROUGH SILVER WIRE.
1. A metal contains large number of free electrons.
2. When a metallic wire is connected between the two terminals (electrodes) of a cell, the
negatively charged free electrons flow from a point at a lower potential to a point at a higher
potential.
3. This motion of electrons in one direction constitutes an electric current.
4. Hence, metals are good conductors of electricity.
20. WHEN A COMPASS NEEDLE IS KEPT NEAR A WIRE CONDUCTING CURRENT, IT IS DEFLECTED.
1. When an electric current passes through a conductor, a magnetic field is produced around it.
Hence, if a compass needle is kept near such a conducting wire, it gets deflected
22. MINI HYDROELECTRIC POSER STATIONS ARE PREFERRED. (14, MARCH 2008)
1. Hydroelectric power plants can be constructed only at a limited number of places. Whenever a
dam is constructed, large land area gets submerged which causes long term problem of
rehabilitation.
2. Besides being free from the problem of pollution, mini – hydroelectric power plants are also free
from issues and controversies that are associated with bigger dams.
3. Mini – hydroelectric power stations can be constructed on rivers in the hilly regions.
4. Hence, mini hydroelectric power stations are preferred.
26. The work done on an object by a conservative force is zero if it has come back to the same
point from where it started.
1. Works is associated with displacement since W = F x S
2. If an object comes back to the same point from where it started, then its displacement is zero.
I.e. S = 0. Thus W = F x S = F x 0 = 0.
3. Hence, if an object comes back to its original starting position, then the work done on the object is zero.
27. Potential energy of our body will be minimum when we lie down on the ground.
1. The gravitational potential energy is conventionally taken to be zero at the ground level.
2. Thus if we lie down on the ground, the potential energy of our body will be minimum.
29. Electric fan blades rotate when we put the switch ‘ON’.
1. In the working of an electrical fan, electrical energy is converted into mechanical energy.
2. When the switch is put ‘ON’, electricity reaches to the fan. This electrical energy is used to rotate the
blades of the electric fan and the fan is set into motion.
3. Hence, the electric fan blades rotate when we put the switch ‘ON’.
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33. BATS CAN TRACE OUT PATH, EVEN IN THE DARK NIGHTS. OR BATS CAN FLY DURING NIGHT
AVOIDING OBSTACLES
1. Bats are able to emit as well as hear ultrasonic sound (sound waves having frequency more than 20 kHz).
2. While flying, bats emit ultrasonic sound. This sound is not audible to human beings.
3. An ultrasonic sound gets reflected from the obstacles in their path.
4. Bats hear the resulting echo enabling them to detect the obstacles, avoid collision and
change its path accordingly.
5. Thus bats can trace out path even in the dark nights.
38. If a piece of ice is dropped into a glass of water, it floats on the surface of the water.
1. Ice is the solid form of water but its density is much less than that of water.
2. We know as water – cools below 40 C its volume increases.
3. As a result density of ice is less that that of water and so it floats on the surface of the water.
40. When a water bottle is kept in the freezer (deepfreeze) compartment of a refrigerator, it burst.
1. The temperature of air in the freezer (deepfreeze) compartment of a refrigerator is less than 00C.
2. When a water bottle is kept in this compartment, the temperature of water falls below 40C and
the water expands. It exerts pressure on the sides of the bottle since there is no room for
expansion the bottle bursts.
43. A stick dipped in water obliquely appears bent at the surface of water. .
Answer.
a. When a straight stick is partly immersed in water and held in a slanting position, the rays of light coming
from the immersed part of the stick emerge from water (denser medium) and enter air (rarer medium).
During this propagation, they bend away from the normal on refraction.
b. As a result, the immersed part of the stick does not appear straight with respect to the part outside the water,
but appears to be raised.
Hence, a stick dipped obliquely in water appears bent at the surface of water.
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46. Radioactive transformation does not take place when an atom emits y – rays.
1. y – rays are electromagnetic waves of very short wave length.
2. They do not have charge or mass.
3. Therefore, when y – ray is emitted by a radioactive atoms, there is not change is its mass
number or atomic number.
4. Hence, radioactive transformation does not take place when an atom emits y – rays.
48. X – rays can penetrate through skin but not through bones.
1. Bones are made up of calcium phosphate.
2. X – rays can penetrate through materials like skin and flesh but can not penetrate through
dense materials like calcium.
3. Hence, X – rays can penetrate through skin but not through bones.
2. They carry a charge of 3.2 x 10-19C. 2. They carry a charge of -1.6 x 10-19C.
3. α – particles have velocity ranging from 106 3. β – Particles have velocity equal to 99 % of
m/s to 107 m/s. the velocity of light.
4. The penetrating power of α – particles is 4. The penetrating power of β - particles is
small i.e. 1/10000 times of y –rays. 1/100 times of y – rays.
5. When an atom of a radioactive element 5. When an atom of a radioactive element emits
emits a α – particles the mass number a β – a particle, its mass number remains the
decreases by 4 and atomic number decreases same and its atomic number increases by 1.
by 2.
DIAGRAM
1. ELECTROPLATING ASSEMBLY.
4. ANODISING TECHNIQUE
20. THE STORAGE TANK IN A SOLAR WATER HEATER IS KEPT AT HIGHER LEVEL.
21. EXPLAIN HOPE’S APPARATUS WITH THE HELP OF NEAT AND LABELLED DIAGRAM.
22. Describe an experiment to show that the quantity of heat given out by the bodies, having the same
mass but made of different substances, when thy cool through the same temperature range is
different in each case.
25. Describe construction of compound microscope and draw a ray diagram showing the format
of an image by a compound microscope.
Ans.
26. Experiment with diagram to show that radioactive substances emit three kinds of radiation.
ANSWER IN BRIEF
1. MOSELEY’S CONTRIBUTION AND THE MODERN PERIODIC TABLE.
MOSELEY’S CONTRIBUTION.
1. In 1913, Henry Moseley, an English physicist, found that it was the atomic number (Z) and not
the atomic mass, which was the fundamental property of an element, useful for an arrangement in
the periodic table.
2. At that time, the atomic number of an element signified only the ordinal number of that element
as it appeared in the periodic table.
3. Moseley recognized that the ordinal number of an element in periodic table is same as its nuclear
charge which is its atomic number.
1. On the basis of electronic configuration of elements, the periodic table is divided into four blocks, viz, s-
block, p-block, d-block and f –block.
2. The elements of s-block (except hydrogen) d-block and f-block are all metals.
3. In the p-block all the three types of elements i.e. metals, non – metals and metalloids, are present and these
elements are separated by a zig – zag line.
4. In the p-block of a modern periodic table, a zig – zag line separates the metals on the left side from the
non – metals on the right side.
5. The bordering elements along the zig – zag line are the metalloids. These are Boron (B), Silicon (Si),
Germanium 9Ge), Arsenic (As), Antimony (Sb), tellurium (Te) and Polonium (Po) and astatine (At).
4. DESCRIBE THE FOUR BLOCKS OF THE PERIODIC TABLE BASED ON THE ELECTRONIC
CONFIGURATION OF ELEMENTS. (14, MARCH 2008)
.
1. The distribution of electrons in the various shells around the nucleus of an atom of an
element is called as its electronic configuration.
2. Based on this electronic configuration of elements, the modern periodic table is divided into
four blocks viz. s-block, p-block, d-block and f-block.
a. S-block: - The group IA and group IIA together with hydrogen form the s-block elements.
They have 1 or 2 electrons in the last shell. The elements of s-block (except hydrogen) are all
metals.
b. P-block: - The group III A to group VII A and the zero groups together constitute the p-
block elements. They have 3 to 8 electrons in the outermost shell. In the p-block all the three
types of elements such as metals, non – metals and metalloids are present.
c. d-block: - The group III B to II B along with VIII group (group8, 9 and10) together are
called d – block elements. They have their last two shells incompletely filled. They are called
‘transition elements’. They are all metals.
d. f-block: - The two series at the bottom of the periodic table (the lanthanides and the
actinides) together form the f-block elements. They have their last three shells incompletely
filled. They are called as ‘inner transition elements’. They are all metals.
5. STATE ANY FOUR MAIN FEATURES OF THE LONG FORM OF PERIODIC TABLE.
Construct an electrolytic cell using 150 ml aqueous solution of 2g copper chloride as electrolyte and
two carbon rods as electrodes. Connect a 6 volt battery, a switch and a bulb in the electric circuit
properly. Switch on the current in the circuit. The bulb starts glowing indicating that the beaker
contains an electrolyte. Pass the current through the solution for some more time (about 15 min) and
observe the changes. Two important observations can be noted in this demonstration.
1. CHANGES AT THE ELECTRODES: - The portion of the cathode dipped in the electrolyte becomes
reddish. Bubbles of some gas are formed at the anode.
2. COLOUR OF THE ELECTROLYTE: - The blue colour of the copper chloride solution in the cell
appears to fade out over a period of about 15 minutes. The reddish colour acquired by the cathode
is typical copper red colour. Chemical test confirm that it is metallic copper. This tells us that
metallic copper is deposited at the cathode. Smell and chemical tests of the gas collected at the
anode indicate that it is chlorine gas.
Fading of the blue colour of copper chloride solution is indicative of decreasing concentration
of the solution with the passage of electric current through it. It means that copper is formed at
the cathode and chlorine is formed at anode by decomposition of copper chloride.
Thus, electrolysis of aqueous copper chloride using carbon electrodes results in deposition of copper at
the cathode and evolution of chlorine at the anode.
7. ELECTROPLATING
Electroplating is a process in which an object made up of a conducting material, is coated with less
active metal using electrolysis technique.
THE PROCESS: - Surface of the article to be electroplated is cleaned. An electrolytic cell is constructed as follows.
1. The article to be electroplated is used as cathode.
2. A rod or a plate of the less active metal to be coated on the article is used as anode.
3. These electrodes are immersed in a solution of an electrolyte having cations of the same metal
which is used as anode.
4. An electric current is passed through the electrolyte for a designated (chosen) period of time.
5. The article used as cathode, gets coated with metal used as anode.
8. ANODISING TECHNIQUE
Anodising technique is one of the applications of electrolysis.
1. This technique is used to make the aluminium surface resistant to corrosion and abrasion.
2. In this technique aluminium article is used as an anode. Electrolyte used is dilute sulphuric acid.
3. The anode reaction results in formation of a black coloured thin film of aluminium oxide on the
surface of aluminium anode.
4. Kitchen articles like anodised pressure cooker, anodised pan are applications of anodising
technique, anodised name plates are another very popular application.
5. By putting appropriate dyes in the electrolytic bath coloured surface with decorative finish can be
achieved. This finds applications in gift articles, home appliances and architectural decoration.
9. ELECTROLYTIC CELL
Decomposition of an electrolyte, by passage of electric current through it, is called electrolysis. The process of
electrolysis takes place in an electrolytic cell.
An arrangement in which cathode and anode are in contact with an electrolyte (placed in a vessel) so as to pass
electric current through it is called an electrolytic cell.
In the above diagram, the beaker holding an electrolyte and two electrodes is an electrolytic cell.
An electrolyte is a substance whose aqueous solution can conduct electric current. The points at which electric
current enters or leaves an electrolyte are called electrodes.
Electrodes are connected to the terminals of a source of electric power (like a battery). The electrode connected
to the positive terminal of a battery is called anode, while that connected to the negative terminal is called
cathode. Cathode is that electrode at which electrons enter the electrolyte while anode is that electrode at which
electrons leave the electrolyte. Metal plates, metal rods and carbon rods are some examples of commonly used
electrodes.
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11. STATE THE TYPES OF SOLUTIONS AND GIVE ONE EXAMPLE OF EACH.
There are give types of solutions, they are as follows.
i. SOLID IN LIQUID: - In this type, solute is solid and solvent is liquid. Solution exists in liquid
state. Example: Salt of sugar in water, Copper in mercury, sea water etc.
ii. GAS IN LIQUID: - In this type, solute is gas and solvent is liquid, solution exists in liquid state.
Example: Carbon dioxide gas dissolved in water i.e. soda water.
iii. GAS IN GAS: - In this type, the solute and solvent both are gases. Solution exists in gaseous state. Ex:
Air.
iv. LIQUID IN LIQUID: - In this type, the solute and solvent both are liquids. Solution exists in liquid
state. Example: Alcohol and water.
v. SOLID IN SOLID: - In this type, the solute and solvent both are solids. Solution exists in solid
state. Example Alloy of copper, iron etc.
1. LetR1, R2 and R3 be three resistances connected in a series combination and let R be their
equivalent resistance.
Let V1, V2 and V3 be the P.D. across resistances R1, R2 and R3 respectively.
Let ‘V’ be the P.D. of the cell.
Let ‘I’ be the current flow through each resistance.
Conclusion Therefore, equivalent resistance in series is equal to the sum of the individual resistances.
Three resistances R1, R2 and R3 are connected in parallel between the points A and B. Let R be
the equivalent resistance of the parallel combination.
A Cell E, Key K and the ammeters A are also connected with resistances.
Let the current passing through R1 be I1, R2 be I2, and R3 be I3 and that of R be I.
Thus, the reciprocal of the equivalent resistance is equal to the sum of the reciprocal of the individual resistance.
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15. WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF EARTH WIRE? WHY IT IS NECESSARY TO EARTH METALLIC APPLIANCES?
1. Most of the electric appliances are provided with three wires connected to a three pin plug.
2. One of the wires is connected to live wire in the mains, the other to the neutral wire and the third
one to the earthing wire.
3. The earth wire is a wire that carries away the current from the metal body of an appliance into
the earth.
4. The end of earth wire is connected to a metallic body deep inside earth.
5. When plug of appliances is inserted in socket and current is switched on, the live wire and
neutral wire come in contact with two wires of the appliance while the earth wire comes in
contact with the metal body of the appliance.
6. If an electrical appliance is faulty, the live wire comes in contact with the metal body of the
appliance and the current flows in the body of that appliance. Thus, if a person touches such an
appliance, he will get a shock.
7. By earthing metal appliances, the current flows from the metal body into the earth and there is
no danger to the person handling that appliance.
17. EXPLAIN IN DETAIL THE WORKING OF ELECTRIC BELL. DRAW DIAGRAM FROM DIAGRAM
SECTION
a. The electric bell consists of an electromagnet, gong, armature (i.e.) soft iron rod, contact screw
and spring.
b. When current is passed through the circuit, the Electromagnet acquires magnetism and attracts the
iron rod as a result of which the gong is struck by the hammer and the bell rings.
c. At the same time the contact between the contact screw and iron rod is lost and circuit is broken.
d. When the current stops the electromagnet losses its magnetisms and the soft iron rod goes to its
original position.
As the iron rod touches the contact screw, the circuit is complete the procedure is repeated and the
gong is struck again. The bell goes on ringing as long as the switch is closed.
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SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY – I OMTEX CLASSES S.S.C
1. WHILE USING ELECTRICAL APPLIANCE: - The two precautions to be taken while using electrical appliances are
1. All electrical appliances must be handled only with dry hands.
2. Always switch off the current and remove the plug from the socket before cleaning electric
appliances like refrigerator.
2. AGAINST BAD INSULATIONS: - The two precautions to be taken against bad insulation are
1. The live wire must always be insulated.
2. The live wire – even if it is insulated – must be replaced periodically i.e. every 3-4 years. But if
it has become exposed, then it must be replaced immediately.
3. AGAINST IMPROPER EARTHING: -The two precautions to be taken against improper earthing are
1. A three pin plug must always be used for all metal appliances.
2. The earth wire in a 3 pin – plug protects a person from the danger of electric shock.
The following are the general safety precautions that need to be observed while handling
electrical appliances.
1. Electric boards and sockets should be fixed at a height beyond the reach of children.
2. The current must be switched off and the plug must be removed from the socket before
cleaning electric appliances.
3. Electrical appliances must be only handled with dry hands.
4. Rubber soled footwear must be worn while using electrical appliances.
5. Do not touch with bare hands, a person who is stuck to a liver wire. Use a wooden object like
a stick of a chair in order to save him.
20. DESCRIBE ORESTED’S EXPERIMENT WITH THE HELP OF DIAGRAMS TO PROVE THAT ELECTRIC
CURRENT PRODUCES A MAGNETIC FIELD AROUND IT.
Answer.
1. Take a wire AB and stretch it above a compass needle in a direction parallel to the needle, so that the wire is along the
north - south direction. The wire should be held in this position by supporting it on the non - conducting stands.
Connect the wire in series with cell E and tap key K.
2. Press the tap key so that electric current through the wire form A to B. You will notice that the needle is deflected.
Release the tap key to cut off the current. You will notice that s soon as the current stops, the needle returns to its
original position.
3. Interchange the connections of the terminals of the cell. Press the tap key. Now the direction of the current in the wire
is reversed and the current flows from B to A. You will notice that in this case, the needle is deflected in the opposite
direction. Release the key to stop the current. You will notice that the needle returns to the original direction.
CONCLUSION: - From the above experiment we conclude that a current carrying conductor produces a
magnetic field around it.
23. How energy can be obtained from flowing water? Discuss the problems associated with it.
1. Energy of flowing water is utilized to produce electricity at hydroelectric power station. Dams
are constructed to store the water by obstructing flow of water of a river.
2. In this process, kinetic energy is converted into potential energy. The water from the top of the
dam is allowed to fall through pipes over the turbine blades at the bottom of dam.
3. When water falls on the turbine, potential energy is converted into kinetic energy and turbines
rotate with greater speed.
4. Moving turbines rotate the armature of the electric generator to produce electricity. Energy
obtained from flowing water is known as hydroelectric energy.
24. Explain the calorific value of fuels? Why hydrogen and alcohol could be best source of energy in future?
Answer. The heat liberated in joule on complete burning of one gram of fuel is expressed as it’s calorific
value.
1. Calorific value of hydrogen is the highest among the fuels (150kj/kg). Still it is not commonly used as a
fuel due to its highly explosive nature.
2. Safer and cheaper methods to use hydrogen as a fuel are being developed by the scientists.
3. Ethanol (alcohol) is a bio fuel produced from baggage and other starch material by fermentation. Its
calorific value is 30J/kg. At present ethanol is mixed with petrol and used as auto fuel. Technology is
being developed to use ethanol as a main fuel.
4. Hence, hydrogen and alcohol could be the best conventional sources of energy in future to cope up with
the energy crisis.
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25. CLASSIFY THE FOLLOWING EXAMPLES INTO POTENTIAL ENERGY AND KINETIC ENERGY.
•Many appliances is daily use are based on inter – changeability of different forms of
energy explain.
1. According to the law of conservation of energy, energy can neither be created nor destroyed.
But it can be transformed from one form to another.
2. Many appliances/devices work on this principle. Some examples of inter-changeability of
energy from one form to another are as follows.
No. Example From (Energy) To (Energy)
1. Charging of battery Electrical Chemical
2. Using a battery Chemical Electrical
3. Broadcasting stations Sound Electrical
4. Radio Electrical Sound
5. Electric fan Electrical Mechanical
6. Electric iron Electrical Heat
7. Hydro – electric power station. Mechanical Electrical
1. The law of conservation of energy states that “Energy can neither be created nor destroyed. It may be
converted from one form to another. The total amount of energy in the universe always remains constant.”
2. According to this law, the sum of various energies in the universe remains constant. Hence, if energy is
lost in one form, then an exactly equal amount of energy will be obtained in another form.
3. Foe instance, KE and PE together make up the total mechanical energy of an object. The sum of
KE and PE does not change with time. i.e. the total energy of an isolated system is constant.
Hence any decrease in the P.E. of an object will result in an equal increase in the KE of the object
and vice versa.
4. For example if a stone is kept at a height, all its energy is PE while it has no KE. When this stone
falls towards the ground under gravity, then at the instance when it touches the ground, all its
energy is KE. The magnitude of this KE is equal to the magnitude of the PE of the stone at the height.
a. Internal sources: -
b. External sources: -
Ans. Noise pollution is unwanted sound dumped into the atmosphere which is usually a mixture of
many tones combines together in a non – musical manner.
MEASURES TO CONTROL NOISE POLLUTION: -
1. Reduction of noise at the source: The noise can be controlled by reducing the amplitude of
source, charging the operating system and replacing old parts or machines.
2. Control of transmission path: In this technique the energy transmitted to the receiver is
controlled. This is achieved by increasing the distance between the source and the receiver,
careful designing and layout of building and using sound absorbers.
3. By using ear – plug and protective caps (or ear muffs) to block the outer ear passage.
4. By controlling the exposure to sound.
32. What is reflection of sound? Give any three practical applications of the phenomenon.
Ans. When one shouts into a well or inside an empty hall one hears his own sound after sometime.
This is known as reflection of sound. Practical applications of reflection of sound.
a) Megaphone:
1. A megaphone is used in fairs or at tourist spots to contact a large group of people.
2. A megaphone is a horn shaped tube. In such a tube, sound waves are prevented from spreading
out by multiple reflections.
3. The sound waves are confined to the air inside the tube.
b) Reflection of sound from curved surface:
1. Sound energy when reflected from the curved surface is more readily audible at a distance.
2. This arrangement is used in auditorium. Curved board placed behind the speaker in an
auditorium throw forward the sound waves that otherwise would get lost.
3. The boards also send sound waves from a speaker directly towards the audience making the
speech more audible at a distance.
c) Ultrasound:
1. Ultrasound is commonly used in medical diagnosis and therapy.
2. Ultrasound can be reflected from boundaries between the material of different densities.
3. Such waves are now used in place of X-rays to take picture of the interior of a body.
4. The ultrasound scanning helps to examine the defects in a foetus.
5. It is useful for detecting motion of heart valve and also to locate position of tumour in body.
6. In cold countries, during winter, the temperature of the atmosphere falls well below 00 C.
7. As the temperature decreases, the water at the surfaces of lakes and ponds starts contracting.
8. Hence, its density increases and it sinks to the bottom. This process continues till the temperature of all the
water in the lake falls to 40 C.
9. As the water at the surface cools further, its temperature falls below 40 C, it starts expanding instead of
contracting.
10. Therefore, its density decreases and it remains at the surface. The temperature of the water at the surface
continues to fall to 00 C.
11. Finally, the water at the surface is converted into ice, but the water below the layer of ice is at 40 C.
12. Ice is a bad conductor of heat. Hence, the layer of the ice at the surface does not allow transfer of heat from
the water to the atmosphere.
13. As the water below the layer of ice remains at 40 C, fish and other aquatic animals and plants can survive in
it.
35. A mountaineer climbing on the Everest experienced the following facts. Explain each fact with the scientific reason;
1. He found fished alive below the ice
2. Time required for cooking was more as he went higher
3. He saw many times cliffs falling suddenly
4. He saw broken tubes carrying water.
1. Water expands as its temperature decreases from 40C to 00C. Water is converted into ice at 00C. The density
of water is more than that of ice. Fishes can remain alive in the water (at 40C) below the ice.
2. At high altitudes, atmospheric pressure is low and hence water boils at a temperature lower than its normal
boiling point. Therefore, the time required for cooking food is more at higher altitudes.
3. Water expands while freezing. Hence, the water present in the crevices of the rocks
Exerts a tremendous pressure on the rocks, while freezing. Therefore, the cliffs fall.
4. Water expands while freezing. Hence, the water in the tube exerts a large pressure on the tube, while
freezing. Therefore, the tube carrying water breaks.
36. While climbing on an icy mountain, a mountaineer did the following acts.
1. He had to heat the ice to get water.
2. He dug the ice and caught the live fish.
3. He had to be very careful while walking on the ice.
4. He had to use shoes with nails on the lower side.
Give reason for his behaviour.
1. Water expands as its temperature decreases from 40C to 00C. Water is converted into ice at 00C. The density
of water is more than that of ice. Fishes can remain alive in the water (at 40C) below the ice.
[Note it is not the proper answer for 1 and 2, however students are required to modify the answer suitable to the
question had asked]
3 & 4. There is very little friction while walking on ice and hence one may slip. Therefore, one has to be very
careful while walking on ice and use shoes with nails on the lower side.
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37. Explain myopia (short sightedness) with the help of neat and labelled diagram. How is
myopia corrected?
MYOPIA (SHORT - SIGHTEDNESS): -
1. This defect of vision arises due to slight elongation of the eyeball or due to the eye lens.
2. In this case, the distance between the eye lens and retina is more than that in the case of a
normal eye.
3. A person suffering from this defect can see nearby objects clearly as the image of a nearby
object is formed on the retina, but cannot see distant object clearly because the image of a
distant object is formed a little in from of the retina instead of on the retina. (For reference see
the picture given below)
REMEDY
3. Myopia is corrected using spectacles having concave lenses of suitable focal length.
4. The concave lens diverges the rays of light passing through it.
5. Hence, the parallel rays of light coming from a distant object are diverged to some
extent before they are incident on the eye lens.
Therefore, the image of a distant object is formed on the retina of the eye and hence the distant object
can be seen clearly. (For reference see the picture given below).
38. Explain hypermetropia (long - sightedness) with the help of a neat diagram. (OR)
What is hypermetropia? How can it be corrected?
HYPERMETROPIA (LONG - SIGHTEDNESS): -
1. This defect arises due to slight flattening of the eyeball.
2. In this case, the distance between the eye lens and retina is less than that in the case of a
normal eye.
3. A person suffering from this defect can see distant objects clearly as the image of a distant
object is formed on the retina, but cannot see nearby objects clearly because the image of a
nearby object would be formed behind the retina instead of on the retina. (For reference see the
picture given below)
REMEDY:-
1. This defect can be corrected using spectacles having convex lenses of suitable focal length.
2. The convex lens converges the rays of light passing through it.
3. Hence, the rays of light coming from a nearby object are converged to some extent before they
are incident on the eye lens.
Therefore, the image of a nearby object is formed on the retina of the eye and hence the nearby object
can be seen clearly. (For reference see the picture given below)
1. Cornea: - It is a transparent spherical structure at the exposed surface of eyeball. Cornea reflects light on
the eye lens.
2. Iris: - iris is the opaque muscular diaphragm behind the cornea. The aperture at the centre of the iris is
called pupil. When the light is very bright, the muscles of the iris stretch over the pupil to reduce the size.
When the light is dim, the muscles of iris relax to increase the size of the pupil. Thus, the iris controls the
size of the pupil and there by regulates the intensity of light incident on the eye lens.
3. Retina: - The light sensitive screen in the eye is called ' Retina'. Eye lens focuses light on retina. Retina
consists of very large numbers of sensitive cells called rod cells and cone cells. These cells generate
electrical signals when light rays coming from an object are incident on them. These electrical
signals pass through the nerve to the brain. The brain interprets these signals and then we see the
object.
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42. Anil's friend cannot see the black board writing, but can see nearby objects.
What is the eye defect he is suffering from?
Why is it caused?
How is it corrected?
• Anil's friend cannot see the blackboard writing, but he can see nearby objects.
• This defect is called myopia (short – sightedness)
• It arises due to slight elongation of the eyeball or due to the eye lens.
• It is corrected using spectacle having concave lenses of suitable focal length.
44. Describe construction of compound microscope and draw a ray diagram showing the
format of an image by a compound microscope.
Ans.
1. A compound microscope is used to see very minute objects like blood corpuscles, plant and animal
cells, micro – organisms like bacterial.
2. A compound microscope consists of two convex lenses called as the objective and eyepiece.
3. Both lenses are placed inside a tube in such a way that they have a common axis. The distance between
the two lenses can be adjusted.
4. Magnification of the image of the object is produced in two stages. The image formed by one lens
(objective) serves as an object for the second lens (eyepiece).
5. Thus larger magnification is obtained by compounding effect of the two lenses.
6. The magnification (m) of the compound microscope is the product of two magnifications, the lateral
magnification produced by the objective and angular magnification produced by the eyepiece and is
given as:
Where,
D = Least distance of distinct vision
L = Distance between objective and eyepiece
= The focal lengths of objective and eyepiece respectively.
45. α – particles.
1. α – particles are positively charged helium nuclei.
2. They carry a charge of 3.2 x 10-19C twice of electronic charge.
3. The mass of α – particles is 6.62 10-27 Kg.
4. α – particles are emitted with velocity ranging from 106 m/s to 107 m/s.
5. They affect photographic plate.
6. Ionisation power is very high i.e. 10000 times than that of γ – rays.
7. Penetrating power is very small. i.e. 1/10000 times than that of γ – rays.
46. β – particles
1. β – particles are negatively charged particles called electrons.
2. They carry a charge of -1.6 x 10-19C.
3. The mass of a β – particles is 9.1 x 10-31Kg.
4. They are emitted with velocities equal to 99% of the velocity of light.
5. They affect photographic plate.
6. Ionising power of β – particles is 100 times that of γ – rays.
7. Penetrating power is 1/100 times than that of the γ – rays.
8. They are deflected by electric and magnetic field.
9. They produce fluorescence in fluorescent materials.
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47. γ – rays.
1. γ – rays are electromagnetic waves of short wavelength.
2. They do not have charge or mass.
3. Their velocity is same as the velocity of light (3 x 108 m/s)
4. They affect photographic plate.
5. Ionisation power is very small as compared with α and β particles.
6. Penetrating power is very strong.
7. They are not deflected by electric and magnetic fields.
8. They produce fluorescence in fluorescent materials.
9. Whey γ – rays are emitted there is no change in the mass number and the atomic number.
49. X – Rays
1. X – rays are electromagnetic waves having short wavelength.
2. X – rays possess all the properties of visible light i.e. rectilinear propagation, reflection,
refraction, diffraction etc.
3. They travel with the speed of light.
4. They are not deflected by electric and magnetic field.
5. They affect photographic plates.
6. They ionise the gas through which they pass.
7. They produce fluorescence in fluorescent materials.
8. X – rays have high penetrating power.
1. X – rays was discovered by Prof. W.C. Roentgen when he was studying in the properties of
cathode rays in a discharge tube.
2. Using a high voltage across the evacuated tube covered with black paper, he noticed that some
crystals placed near the bench glowed. Fluorescence was observed as long as discharge tube
was in operation.
3. He then placed a thick wooden block sheet between the discharge tube and fluorescent
substance, and found out that so long as cathode rays were being emitted in discharge tube, the
fluorescent substance was glowing.
4. Roentgen therefore, concluded that, the fluorescent effect must be due to some kind of
invisible, unknown and highly penetrating radiations emerging from the discharge tube.
5. Since the exact nature of these radiations was not known, hence the radiations were called X –
rays or Roentgen rays.
52. How X – rays are produced? What are the uses of X – rays?
1. Figure below represents a X – rays tube. In this tube electrons are produced by filament (F).
2. These electrons are accelerated through large potential difference between anode (A) and
Cathode (K).
3. These high speed electrons with high energy collide with the target (T), which is made up of
tungsten.
4. Most of the energy is released in the form of heat and a small fraction of energy is converted into X – rays.
5. Since the amount of heat produced is quite large and thus a cooling arrangement is done around
anode (A) to prevent it from melting.
Uses of X – rays
1. X – rays are widely used in medical field for diagnosis, treatment and follow up of patients.
2. X – rays photographs are used to detect fracture of bones or presence of solid materials in a human body.
3. They are used to detect diseases of teeth, lung, kidney etc.
4. X – rays are used to kill dangerous cells and tumours in the body.
5. X – ray imaging of brain from numerous angles gives images of brain tissue. This technique is
called X – ray computer Tomography.
6. X – rays are used in detecting flaws or cracks in the metal castings.
7. X – rays are used to distinguish between artificial diamonds and the real diamonds by observing
their characteristics under X – rays.
8. X – rays are used to detect smuggled of gold or silver.
9. X – ray diffraction technique is used to study the structure of crystals.
1. The continuous, self generating fission reaction due to multiplication of neutrons is called chain reaction.
emitted in turn can bring about the fission to another nine nuclei.
4. Due to multiplication of neutrons in this manner, continues self generating fission reaction
called chain reaction occurs.
5. Tremendous amount of energy is realized in such chain reactions.
55. What is nuclear fission? Explain how fission can be a source of energy?
1. The splitting of heavy nucleus like uranium into two lighter nuclei with release of large amount
of energy is called as ‘nuclear fission’.
2. When uranium was bombarded with thermal neutrons, it was split up into two separated
fragments known as Barium and krypton , with the ejection of three neutrons
and a large amount of energy in the form of heat is released.
3. It is found that the energy released per nuclear fission of uranium nuclear fission of uranium
nucleus is about 200 MeV (1 MeV = 106eV)
4. Thus, the amount of energy available from fission process is extremely large as compared to
the energy generated from other conventional energy sources.
5. The energy released is used to heat water to prepare steam, which is used to rotate turbines
that generate electricity.
Thus nuclear fission is considered as sources of energy.
2. In agriculture: -
i. The radioisotopes are used to study functions of fertilizers for different plants.
ii. They have also been used for developing new species of plant causing genetic mutation.
3. In industry: -
i. Radioisotopes are used to study wear and tear of pistons and gears of engines.
ii. They are also used for study of suitable lubricants that prevent wear and tear of engines.
57. What is carbon dating? How this process is used in determination of age of archaeological
artefacts?
Ans.
1. The length of time for which a specimen has been dead may be determined by activity of carbon
– 14 (14C) which is remained in it. This method is known as ‘carbon dating’.
2. There are small numbers of radioisotopes of low atomic number which occur naturally e.g.
carbon – 14. It is produced when a nitrogen atom is bombarded by neutrons. This reaction is
represented as_
3. Carbon – 14 (14C) has half life of about 5600 years i.e. in this time half of the nuclei of carbon –
14 completely disintegrated.
4. Carbon – 14 combines with hydrogen and oxygen and finds its way into the organic matter.
When animals or plants take food or breath they take 14C and 12C. The ratio of 14C to 12C is
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6. Since 12C is not radioactive the ratio of 14C to 12C Changes continuously for dead bodies or
plants. e.g. Old bones contains less 14C than new bones and old wood contains less 14C to 12C
than new wood.
7. By comparing the ratio of 14C to 12C in the remnants of dead organisms with the ratio of 14C and
12
C in living organisms ceased to exist.
8. Carbon dating has therefore become an important tool in archaeology and anthropology as it
provides information about age of archaeological artefacts, manuscripts etc.
58. Describe and experiment with diagram to show that radioactive substances emit three kinds
of radiation.
Ans.
1. Radioactive substance is kept inside a narrow cavity drilled in a thick lead block.
2. The lead block absorbs all the radiations emitted by the radioactive substance except those
which emerge through the cavity in upward direction.
3. These radiations pass through a strong electric field applied between metal plates P1 and P2 and
are then incident on a photographic plate ‘P’.
4. The whole apparatus is enclosed in an evacuated chamber kept in a dark room.
5. On developing the photographic plate three distinct spots were obtained. This shows that
applied electric fields splits the radiation in three different parts.
6. The radiation deflected towards the negative plate is called as α – radiation. The radiation
deflected towards the positive plate is called as β – radiation. The radiation which is not
deflected by electric field is called as γ-radiation.
7. As alpha (α) radiation is deflected slightly towards negatively charged electrode, it consists of
positively charged heavy particles.
8. As Beta (β) radiation is deflected sharply towards the positively charged electrode it consists of
negatively charged light particles.
9. As Gamma (γ) radiation is undeflected it has no mass and no charge.
10. Later it was proved that alpha (α) particles are similar to helium nuclei, beta (β) particles are
similar to electrons and gamma (γ) rays are electro – magnetic radiations.
1. CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS
Q1. REWRITE THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS BY SELECTING THE CORRECT OPTION:
2. The number of periods present in the modern periodic table is ________________.(7, 8, 16, 18)
3. The ______________ period is the longest period in the modern periodic table. (1st, 5th,6th,7th)
4. The group ____________ in the modern periodic table contains alkaline earth metals.
(IA,IIA,IIB,IB)
Column1 Column2
i. Chlorine a. IA group
ii. Sodium b. IIA group
iii. Argon c. VIIA group
iv. Magnesium d. Zero group
Answer. (i – C), (ii – a), (3 – d), (4 – b)
3. Alkaline earth metals are divalent. OR Alkaline earth metals have valency 2.
1. Position of an element in the periodic table is related to the electronic configuration.
2. Elements in a particular group have the same number of valence electrons.
3. Number of valence electrons is equal to the group number.
4. Alkaline earth metals are placed in 2nd group of modern periodic table and thus have 2 valence electrons.
5. They lose these valence electrons during chemical reaction. Hence, their valency is 2 or they are divalent.
4. The atoms of inert gases form neither ionic nor covalent bonds with other atoms.
1. Electronic configuration of an atom of an element reveals its ability to form a molecule.
2. In the atoms of inert gases, all the electronic shells including the outermost shells are completely filled.
3. They have stable electronic configuration with complete duplet (in case of He) or complete octet (in case
of Ne, Ar, etc).
4. Therefore, these elements do not lose, gain or share electrons. Hence these elements do not take part in
the chemical reactions.
5. Hence, the atoms of inert gases form neither ionic nor covalent bonds with other atoms.
5. Chlorine is placed in VII A group in modern periodic table. OR Fluorine, Chlorine, Bromine
And Iodine are placed in VII A group of the periodic table.
1. Atomic number of chlorine is 17. Its electronic configuration is (2, 8, and 7).
2. Number of electrons in the outermost shell is equal to the group number.
3. Chlorine has seven electrons in the outermost shell.
4. All other shells except the valence shell are complete. Thus, it is a normal element of group ‘A’.
5. Hence, chlorine is placed in VIIA group in modern periodic table.
2. ELECTROLYSIS
Q1. REWRITE THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS BY SELECTING THE CORRECT OPTION:
3. Anode is ___________________
(Any terminal of a battery, the negative terminal of a battery, the electrode connected to positive
terminal, the electrode connected to negative terminal)
Column I Column II
Electronic conductor i. Protection from corrosion
Non – electrolyte ii. Electrodes and electrolyte
Nerve signal iii. Electrons as charge carrier
Electrolytic cell iv. Urea
Electroplating v. Iron transport across cell membrane.
( 1 – c ), ( 2 – d ), ( 3 – e ), ( 4 – b ), ( 5 – a )
1. ELECTROLYTE: - A substance whose aqueous solution can conduct electric current is called
electrolyte.
2. ELECTROLYSIS: - Decomposition of an electrolyte, by passage of electric current through it is
called electrolysis.
3. ANODE: - Anode is that electrode at which electrons leave the electrolyte. Anode is connected to
the positive terminal of a battery.
4. CATHODE: - Cathode is that electrode at which electrons enter the electrolyte. Cathode is
connected to the negative terminal of a battery.
4. A FEW DROPS OF SULPHURIC ACID ARE ADDED TO WATER DURING THE ELECTROLYSIS OF
DISTILLED WATER.
1. Distilled water is purely a covalent compound and does not undergo dissociation. Thus it is a
bad conductor of electricity.
2. In order to make it a good conductor of electricity a few drops of sulphuric acid (H2SO4) are
added does it
3. Sulphuric acid dissociates in water to form H+ and SO24- ions, which carry the electric current.
4. Hence, a few drops of sulphuric acid are added to water during the electrolysis of distilled water.
5. Iron tools and instruments are often plated with nickel or chromium.
1. Electroplating is a process in which an object made up of conducting material, is coated with
less active metal using electrolysis technique.
2. It is done to protect objects of reactive metals.
3. Iron is very reactive metal, therefore iron tools and instruments rust when exposed to air.
4. An electroplating of nickel or chromium protects it against rusting.
5. Hence ions tools and instruments are plated with nickel and chromium.
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DEFINE
i. Non electrolyte: - A substance whose aqueous solution cannot conduct electric current is
called non – electrolyte.
ii. Electrodes: - The points at which electric current enters or leaves and electrolyte are called
electrodes.
iii. Electroplating: - Electroplating is a process in which an object made up of a conducting
material is coated with a less active metal using electrolysis technique.
iv. Anodising: - Anodising is a process which is used to make the aluminium surface resistant to
corrosion and abrasion by electrolysis technique.
DIAGRAM
1. TESTING ELECTRIC CONDUCTION OF SOLUTIONS.
1. ELECTROLYSIS:
Answer. A substance whose aqueous solution can conduct electric current is called electrolyte. All the acids, bases and
salts are electrolytes. Decomposition of an electrolyte, by passage of electric current through it, is called electrolysis. The
process of electrolysis takes place in an electrolytic cell.
An arrangement in which cathode and anode are in contact with electrolyte (placed in a vessel) so as to pass electric current
through it is called an electrolytic cell.
In this process of electrolysis, when an electric potential is applied across the electrodes in contact with an electrolyte, the
positively charged ions (cations) move towards the cathode and the negatively charged ions (anions) move towards the
anode where they are picked up from the electrolyte.
These movements of cations and anions of an electrolyte in opposite directions under the influence of electric potential are
responsible for conduction of electricity through the electrolyte. During electrolysis chemical changes occur at the
electrodes, this changes are called as electrode reactions and are represented as cathode reaction and anode reaction.
There are many industrial applications of electrolysis. The two important applications are electroplating and anodising.
A living cell contains about seventy percent by weight of water and about one percent by weight of
inorganic ions. Water in a cell is in the form of cell – sap. Simply speaking cell – sap plays the role of
aqueous solvent and the inorganic ions the role of electrolytes. The source of inorganic ions is the
mineral component of diet of organisms. For example, calcium, iron, phosphorus are taken up by
organisms mainly in the form of cations and anions when minerals are absorbed by living cells, the
ions are transported across the cell membrane.
Proper functioning of living cell requires high concentration K+ and very low concentration of Na+
inside the cell. A healthy heart requires proper balance in the body. Many phenomena in living
organisms are controlled by ion transport across cell membrane. Some examples initiated by transport
of certain ions across the cell membrane are:
1. A leaf closing response in mimosa plant.
2. Muscle contraction and transmittance of nerve signal in animals.
3. The passage of high electric current through the body of living organism causes damage to it,
as in the case of a bat hanging itself on a pair of overhead electrical wires leading to its death.
Electrolytes: - Copper chloride, sulphuric acid, Blue vitriol solution, sodium hydroxide
solution, Acetic acid.
CHROMIUM PLATING
SILVER PLATING
GOLD PLATING
3. STRENGTH OF SOLUTIONS
5. NORMALITY: - The normality of the solution is the number of gram equivalent weight of the
solute present per litre of the solution.
3. It dissociates to lesser extent in water and gives less number of hydrogen ions.
4. Hence, CH3COOH is a weak acid.
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3. They dissociates to a large extend in water and gives large number of hydrogen ions.
4. Hence, HCl and H2SO4 are called strong acids.
1. The bases which dissociate to large extent in water and give large number of hydroxyl ions in solution
are called strong bases.
2. NaOH and KOH, when dissolved in water dissociates as follows.
3. They dissociate to a large extent in water and gives large number of hydroxyl ions.
4. Hence, NaOH and KOH are called strong bases.
3. It dissociates to lesser extent in water and gives less number of hydroxyl ions.
4. Hence, NH4OH is a weak base.
BASE: - The substance which gives hydroxyl ions (OH)- when dissolved in water is called base. For
Example
FOR BASES: The relation between normality and molarity of a base depends upon the acidity of that
base.
Normality = Acidity x Molarity.
For monoacidic base such as NaOH, KOH
Normality = 1 x Molarity
I.e. Normality = Molarity
For diacidic base such as Ca (OH) 2
Normality = 2 x Molarity
For triacidic base such as Al (OH) 3
Normality = 3 x Molarity.
4. CURRENT ELECTRICITY
3. A substance which does not allow charges to pass through it easily is called as ___________
(Metal, conductor, insulator, semiconductor)
4. If a current of 0.1A is passed through a wire of resistance 20 ohm, the potential difference across
the wire is _____________
(2 ohm, 20 volt, 10 volt, 2 volt)
Q2. MATCH THE COLUMN (I) AND (II) AND FILL IN THE COLUMN (IV) TO MATCH THE COLUMN (III):
No. Column I Column II Column III Column IV
2. Copper Conductor Rubber Insulator
3. 1 Volt 1 J/ 1s 1 ampere 1 C / 1s
4. Electric charge Coulomb Resistance Ohm
5. -ve terminal Cathode +ve terminal Anode
Q3. FILL IN THE BLANKS WITH PROPER TERMS FROM THE BRACKET:
(Ampere, smaller, greater, Ohms, Coulombs, random, computer)
1. The equivalent resistance of a parallel combination is smaller than each of the individual resistance.
2. Diode does not obey Ohm’s law.
3. S.I. unit of electric current is ampere.
4. In conductors electrons are always in the state of random motion.
5. Superconductors are used in computer.
1. AMPERE: - It is the unit of electric current. If a charge of one coulomb passes across any section of
a conductor in one second, the current in the conductor is said to be one ampere. Therefore 1
ampere = 1 coulomb / 1 second.
2. VOLT: - It is the SI unit of potential difference. The potential difference is one volt, if one joule of
work is done in moving a charge of one coulomb. Therefore 1Volt = 1joule/ 1coulomb.
3. OHM: - It is the unit of resistance. The resistance of the conductor is one ohm, if a potential
difference of one volt applied between its ends causes a current of one ampere to flow through it.
Therefore 1 Ohm = 1 volt / 1 ampere.
4. POTENTIAL DIFFERENCE: - The difference between the electric potential of the two terminals of a
wire is called potential difference.
5. E.M. F: - The electromotive force (E.M.F) of a source is the work done by the source in raising a
unit positive charge from its lower potential end to the higher potential end. OR E.M.F of the
source is equal to the work done by the source in circulating unit positive charge round the
complete circuit.
1. RESISTANCE
Answer.
2. ELECTRIC CELL.
Answer.
3. VARIABLE RESISTANCE
Answer.
4. VOLTMETER
Answer.
5. CLOSED KEY
Answer.
Answer.
ANSWER IN BRIEF
Q.1 DISCUSSES HOW THE ELECTRIC CURRENT IS SET UP WHEN CHARGES ARE IN MOTION.
1. Metals (conductors) contain a large number of free electrons called ‘conduction electrons’.
They are in a state of random motion.
2. When the wire is connected between the two terminals of the cell, the negatively charges free
electrons move from a point at a lower potential to a point at a higher potential.
3. This motion of free electrons in one direction sets up an electric current in the wire.
4. The direction of the conventional current is assumed to be from the positive terminal to the
negative terminal of the cell.
1. The electric force (F) between two charged particles is given by the formula
2. The gravitational force between any two objects in the universe is given by the formula
3. Since both formulae are identical, the electric force and gravitational force are analogous.
2. PLASTIC IS AN INSULATOR.
1. Substances like plastic possess practically no free electrons since the electrons are tightly
bound to the parent nucleus.
2. Due to this the charges cannot pass easily through plastic.
3. Hence, plastic is an insulator.
1. Superconductors are materials that have no resistance and hence current passes through them
without loss of energy.
2. Thus, they are useful for transferring electricity from one place to another.
7. THERMISTORS ARE USED FOR TEMPERATURE MEASUREMENT AND IN TEMPERATURE CONTROL CIRCUITS.
1. Thermistors are non – Ohmic conductors.
2. Their resistance decreases as temperature increases.
3. Hence, they are used for temperature measurements and in temperature control circuits.
DEFINE
1. Resistances in Series: - If a number of resistances are connected in such a way that the same current
flows through each resistance, then such an arrangement is called resistances in series.
2. Static Electricity: - The physical phenomena produced by charges at rest are called static
electricity.
3. Current electricity: - The physical effects due to changes in motion are called current electricity.
4. Conductors: - Substances that allow charges to pass freely through them are called conductors.
5. Insulators: - Substances that do not allow charges to pass freely through them are called insulators.
6. Semi - conductors: - Insulators that allow electricity to flow through them under specific conditions
are called semi – conductors.
7. Electrolytes: - Solutions that are good conductors of electricity are called electrolytes.
8. Electrolysis: - The conduction of the electricity through electrolyte is called electrolysis.
9. Coulomb: - It is the SI unit of electric charge. If two like point charges of equal magnitudes are
placed in a vacuum at a distance of 1 metre from each other an if they repel each other with a force
of 9 X 109N, then each charge is called 1 coulomb.
10. Resistance in Parallel: - If a number of resistances are connected between two common points in
such a way that the potential difference across each resistance is the same, then such an arrangement
is called resistances in parallel.
11. Ohmic conductor: - Materials that obey Ohm’s Law are called Ohmic conductors. Their graph of
electric current against voltage is a straight line. The value of the resistance is a constant. E.g.
Copper, Aluminium, silver etc.
12. Non Ohmic conductor: - Materials that do not obey Ohm’s Law are called non – Ohmic
conductors. Their graph of electric current against voltage is a non – linear graph. The value of
resistance is not constant. E.g. Diodes, Thermistors.
Answer.
Answer.
3. Electric Bulb
Answer.
4. Battery of Cells
Answer.
5. Galvanometer
1. Explain the construction and working of a simple voltaic cell with the help of a neat and
labelled diagram.
Answer.
Construction: -
A simple voltaic cell consists of two metal plates immersed in a glass vessel containing dilute
sulphuric acid.
One of the plates is of Zinc which serves as the negative terminal while the other plate is of copper
which serves as the positive terminal.
The two plates are connected to a small bulb through a copper wire.
Working: -
1. When the copper and zinc plates are dipped in dilute sulphuric acid, the zinc and copper plates
get negatively and positively charged respectively.
2. This charging of the plates is due to the chemical reaction taking place within the cell. Hence
chemical energy gets converted to electrical energy.
3. The electrons in the wire move from the zinc plate (-ve) to the copper plate (+ve). Thus as the
current flows in the circuit, the bulb begins to glow.
2. EXPLAIN HOW MOTION OF IONS TOWARDS THE RESPECTIVE ELECTRODES KEPT IN A SOLUTION OF
COMMON SALT CONSTITUTES AN ELECTRIC CURRENT.
1. The conduction of electricity through an electrolyte is called ‘electrolysis’.
2. When Sodium chloride (common salt) is dissolved in water, it dissociates into Na+ and Cl- ions.
3. When electrodes are connected to a cell, the Cl- ions move towards the anode (+ve terminal)
while the Na+ ions move towards the cathode(-ve terminal).
4. At the cathode, Cl- loses electrons while at the cathode, Na+ gains electrons.
5. Thus, the motion of the ions towards their respective electrodes constitutes an electric current in a
solution of common salt.
4. STATE AND EXPLAIN THE FACTORS ON WHICH THE RESISTANCE OF A CONDUCTOR DEPENDS.
Answer. The resistance of a conductor depends upon the following factors:
1. Material of the conductor: - Conductors of different materials have different resistance.
2. Length (L) of the conductors: - The resistance (R) of a conductor is directly proportional to the
length of the conductor.
3. Area of cross section (A): - The resistance (R) of a conductor is inversely proportional to the area of
cross section (thickness) of the conductor.
I. SUPER CONDUCTORS
1. Materials which conduct electricity without resistance at very low temperature are called ‘Super
conductors’.
2. The temperature at which the resistance in a super conductor becomes zero is called the ‘Critical
Temperature’.
3. Since super conductors have zero resistance, electric current passes through them without loss of energy.
4. Super conductors are useful for transmission of electricity over long distances, making faster computers,
for frictionless transportation and Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (N.M.R.) technique.
5. The Dutch scientist H.K. Onnes was among the first to prepare a super conductors in 1911. He found that
the resistance of mercury becomes zero at a temperature of -2690C (4.2K).
Q5 ANSWER IN 2 TO 3 SENTENCES.
5. EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC
ELECTRIC CURRENT
Q1. REWRITE THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS BY CHOOSING THE CORRECT OPTION.
3. A coil of many circular turns of wire wrapped in the space of a cylinder forms _______
(torroid, solenoid, conductor, insulator)
4. Telephone ear piece works on the principle of __________ effect of electric current.
(Magnetic, heating, chemical, optical)
5. The relation between electricity and magnetism was fist established by __________
(Joule, Ohm, Orested, Fleming)
5. The magnetic field produced at the centre of circular wire is directly proportional to the______
(Radius of the loop, magnitude of the current passing through it, resistance of the wire, time
for which the current passes through it)
Q2. FILL IN THE BLANKS BY CHOOSING THE CORRECT OPTION FROM BRACKET.
(Magnetic field, 50 cycles per seconds, Right hand rule, Newton, calorie, area, radius)
1. Like magnetic poles attract each other, unlike magnetic poles repel.
2. The direct current always flows in one direction.
3. Fuse is made of wire having high melting point.
4. If there is fire caused by sparking, the main switch should be switched off immediately.
5. Two magnetic field lines may intersect each other.
1. Geyser, Heater, Electric iron, Refrigerator. Refrigerator: - In refrigerator magnets are used
while in the rest there are no magnets.
2. Magnet, Solenoid, Compass needle, Oven. Oven: - It is based on the heating effect of electric
current while the rest have magnetic properties.
3. Telephone ear piece, Electric bell, Electromagnet, Battery. Battery: - It is based on heating
effect of electric current while the rest are based on magnetic effect of electric current.
4. .
Answer. This does not follow mathematical for of Joule’s law while the rest are mathematical forms of Joule’s
law.
1. ELECTRIC POWER: - Electric power is defined as the rate of doing work. OR Electric power is
defined as the rate at which electrical energy is produced.
2. ALTERNATING CURRENT (A.C): - The current which varies in magnitude continuously and
changes direction after equal interval of time is called as alternating current. (A.C.)
3. DIRECT CURRENT (D.C):- The current that always flows in one direction and hence is non –
oscillating is known as direct current.
2. WHAT ARE THE FACTORS ON WHICH THE MAGNETIC FIELD PRODUCED AT THE CENTRE OF A
CIRCULAR WIRE DEPENDS?
The strength of the magnetic field produced at the centre of a circular wire depends upon the
following factors:
1. It is directly proportional to the magnitude of the current passing through it.
2. It is inversely proportional to the radius of the loop.
The characteristics of the magnetic field due to a current flowing in a solenoid are as follows:
1. One end of the coil acts like a north pole, while the other end acts like a south pole.
2. The magnetic field inside the coil is strong and uniform while outside the coil, the field is weak.
3. The strength (magnitude) of the magnetic field produced by a solenoid depends upon
I. the current passing through it and
ii. The number of turns per unit length.
7. WHAT ARE THE CHARACTERISTICS OF MAGNETIC FIELD DUE TO CURRENT FLOWING IN A SOLENOID?
Answer. The characteristics of the magnetic field due to a current flowing in a solenoid are as follows.
1. The magnetic field inside the coil is strong and uniform while outside the coil, the field is weak.
2. One end of the coil acts like a north pole, while the other end acts like a south pole.
3. The strength (magnitude) of the magnetic field produced by a solenoid depends upon
a. the current passing through it and
b. The number of turns per unit length.
8. The temperature of a conducting wire rises when an electric current flows through it. OR
A metal wire becomes hot when a current passes through it.
Answer.
1. When a potential difference is applied between the two ends of a wire, the free electrons move
thorough the conductor from the negative terminal to the positive terminal.
2. During their motion, the electrons collide with each other and also with the ions in the
conductor.
3. These collisions slow down the electrons there by resulting in a loss of their kinetic energy.
4. This loss in kinetic energy appears in the form of heat.
5. Hence, the temperature of the conducting wire rises when a current flows through it.
11. If there is a circular coil of ‘n’ turns, then the field produced due to current is ‘n’ times the
field produced by a single turn.
1. In a circular coil of ‘n’ turns, the current in each circular turn has the same direction.
2. Due to this the field due to each turn adds up.
3. Hence, if a circular coil has ‘n’ turns, then the field produced is ‘n’ times stronger than the field
produced by a single turn.
13. A three pin plug should be used instead of a two pin plug.
1. A two – pin plug consists of a ‘live’ wire and a ‘neutral’ wire. It does not have an earthing wire.
2. So a person using an electrical appliance like a geyser or electric iron may get a shock if live
wire comes in contact with the metal body of the appliance.
3. A three – pin plug has a provision for earthing. The earthing wire carries away the current
flowing through the metal body, into the earth. Thus the user remains safe.
4. Hence, a three – pin plug must be used instead of a two – pin plug.
14. Electric boards and sockets should be kept fixed at a height beyond the reach of children.
Children have a tendency to insert pins and nails into the holes of electrical sockets.
If the switch is ‘on’, the child inserting the pin/nail into the socket may get a severe shock.
Hence, electric boards and sockets should be fixed at a height beyond the reach of children.
16. It is necessary to put on rubber soled foot wear while using electric devices.
While handling electrical devices, there are chances of the current flowing through the body of the
person handling that appliance. Thus the person may get a nasty shock.
Rubber is a bad conductor of electricity and by wearing rubber footwear; a large current is
prevented from passing through the body of the user.
Hence, rubber – soled footwear must be used while handling electrical devices.
17. Artificial respiration is necessary for a person who gets a serve electric shock.
1. If a person gets a serve electric shock, his breathing may stop.
2. In order to revive him quickly, artificial respiration must be given to him immediately.
18. How does short circuit occur? What measures can be taken to avoid it?
1. In house wiring when two wires, live and neutral come in contact with each other short circuit
occurs.
2. This may happen either due to some damage to their insulation or due to a fault in electrical
appliance.
3. In such a situation, resistance of the circuit decreases to a very small value, the current in the
circuit increases enormously and as a result the liver wires are heated.
4. This produces spark at the place of short circuit which may even cause fire in the building.
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2. ELECTRIC FUSE.
1. An electric fuse is a safety device that works on the heating effect of electric current.
2. The fuse wire is made up an alloy of lead and tin and it has a low melting point.
3. It allows current upto a certain maximum value to flow through it. If the current exceeds this value, the
wire melts and the circuit is immediately broken.
4. In this way, the fuse protects our electrical appliances against damage, by limiting the current passing
through it.
1. When an electric current passes through a conductor, a magnetic field is produced around it. The
magnetic field is represented by drawing lines called ‘magnetic field lines’.
2. The strength of the magnetic field at a given point is directly proportional to the current passing through
the wire.
3. The strength of the magnetic field produced by a current in the wire decreases as we move away from
the wire.
4. The direction of the magnetic field around a straight conductor is obtained by the Right Hand Rule.
5. The magnetic effect due to an electric current lasts only as long as the current flows through the
conductor.
6. Galvanometer, ammeter, voltmeter, electric bell are the application of the magnetic effect of electric
current.
6. ENERGY SOURCES
Q2. FILL IN THE BLANKS WITH PROPER TERM FRO THE BRACKET AT THE END OF THE STATEMENT.
1. Tidal energy
1. Everyday movement of water level along the shore is known as tides. Tides are generated by
the gravitational attraction between the earth and the moon. Tides raise the water level by few
meters. The energy possessed by rising and falling water in tides are known as tidal energy.
2. Tidal energy is used to produce electricity.
3. To generate electricity from a tidal energy, a dam is constructed across narrow opening to the
sea.
4. The water moves in and out from these openings during tides.
5. This water flows over the turbines fixed in the dam. The turbine rotates and generates
electricity.
Limitations: -
1. Rise and fall of water during tide is insufficient to generate electricity on large scale.
2. There are few sites which are suitable to build dams along the coast line.
2. Geothermal energy.
Answer.
1. The heat from the interior part of the earth can be used as a source of energy under certain
conditions and this energy is called as geothermal energy.
2. Rocks melt due to heat from the interior part of the earth. These molten rocks are known as
magma.
3. Whenever there are some geological changes in some region, the magma is pushed upwards
which gets collected at some depth below the surface of the earth.
4. These places are called as spots which are the sources of geothermal energy.
5. When underground water comes in contact with spots, water gets converted into steam. This
steam is extracted by sinking pipes through the holes drilled upto spot.
6. This extracted steam can be utilised to turn the turbines of electric generator.
7. Geothermal energy can be obtained from natural Geysers also.
4. Biodiesel
Answer. Biodiesel is a renewable energy source. It is extracted from seeds of soyabin and corn.
1. Biodiesel is a renewable source of energy. It is produced from Jatropha plants.
2. Biodiesel is considered as clean fuel as it has almost o sulphur, no aromatics and has 10% built
5. Breeder Reactions.
Answer.
1. The reactions in which fertile material is converted into fissible material are known as breeder
reactions. The reactor in which such reactions takes place is known as ‘breeder reactor’.
2. E.g. Uranium – 238 is not a fissible material but it is a fertile material. It can be converted into
fissible material plutonium (239Pu) by neutron bombardment.
3. The neutrons generated in this reaction serve two purposes. First they convert fertile material
into fissible material and secondly they sustain fission reaction.
6. Nuclear fusion
Answer.
1. In nuclear fusion energy is released by joining very light atoms. Now a days fusion reactions
are controlled and fusion reactors are built. These are also ultimate source of energy.
2. Deuteron occurs naturally in the sea water and it is estimated that fusion of all deuteron in just
one cubic meter of sea water would yield 12 x 109 kj (Kilo – joules)
3. Fusion of deuteron is also another ultimate source of energy.
7. Petroleum.
Answer.
1. Petroleum is a complex mixture of hydrocarbons.
2. Petroleum is extracted from reservoir well in form of a thick – black liquid which is called as
crude oil.
3. Crude oil cannot be used in a natural form as fuel. Therefore it is refined by fractional
distillations.
4. After refining petroleum we get various fuels like petrol, diesel, kerosene, paraffin wax and
lubricant oil. Petrol, diesel, kerosene heat after combustion leaving no residue.
8. Natural gas.
Answer.
1. Natural gas is found in petroleum reservoir well.
2. It mainly contains methane.
3. It burns easily to produce heat and is supplied through pipes for various domestic as well as
industrial purposes.
4. Natural gas is subjected to high pressure to obtain compressed natural gas (CNG) which is in a
liquid form and can be transported at a long distance through tankers.
11. Coal.
Answer.
1. Coal deposits are formed on the surface of earth as well as below the surface of earth. Main
constituent of coal is carbon.
2. When coal burns, the carbon present in it reacts with oxygen to produce CO2.
3. During this process lot of heat energy is produced.
4. Therefore, coal is used as fuel as the source of heat energy in industries for generating
electricity.
5. Coal is also used as domestic fuel.
1. Renewable energy sources have an inherent capacity to regenerate and replenish themselves.
2. Wind is the effect of atmospheric pressure difference due to alternate heating and cooling of
the earth.
3. Hence, wind is a renewable source of energy.
1) The black surface absorbs 98% of the incident heat radiation. Solar energy from the glass cover
is concentrated inside the box.
2) Inner surface of the cooker absorbs heat and it becomes hot due to which base of the cooking
pot and sides get heated. Thus, food gets cooked.
3) Thus, the inner surface of solar cooker box is painted black.
1) Water in the collector is heated by solar energy. It expands and becomes lighter, it flows to the
top of the water tank.
2) Hot water is lighter and it remains in the upper part of the tank.
3) Its place is taken by the colder water from the bottom of the tank. Hot water from the top of the
tank is available for use.
4) Hence, the storage tank in a solar water heater is kept at higher level.
9. The sludge obtained from the biogas plant is used as an excellent fertilizer.
1) The sludge obtained from biogas plant is rich in nitrogenous, phosphatic and potassium
compounds.
2) These compounds are important nutrients for plants.
3) Thus the sludge obtained from a biogas plant is used as an excellent fertilizer.
11. Jatropha plantation has enormous employment generation potential in rural area.
1) If waste land in India is brought under Jatropha cultivation, it will give 1.5 tons of seed per
hectare.
2) It is estimated that equivalent amount of Biodiesel will be produced which will fulfil one tenth
requirement of diesel in our country.
3) Thus, Jatropha plantation has enormous employment generation potential in rural area.
12. Coal is used as fuel as the source of heat energy in industries for generating electricity.
1) The main constituent of coal is carbon.
2) When coal burns, the carbon present in it reacts with oxygen to produce CO2. During this
process lot of heat energy is produced.
3) Therefore, coal is used as fuels as the source of heat energy in industries for generating
electricity.
13. Name some solar energy devices and write its uses? OR
What are the applications of solar energy?
The various applications of solar energy are listed as follows.
1. Solar cooker: - It is used to cook food that requires slow cooking. E.g. rice, Dal etc.
2. Solar water heater: - It is used for heating water.
3. Solar cells: - They are used in artificial satellites. They are also used as a source of energy for radio and
wireless transmission at TV relay stations.
4. Solar dryer: - It is used to remove moisture from the grapes.
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17. What is biomass? Write two disadvantages in direct use of biomass resources as fuels.
The material contained in the bodies of plants and animals is called as biomass. The disadvantages in
the direct use of biomass resources as fuels are as follows: -
2. If the biomass wood is burnt in a traditional manner in chulha, it does not burn completely. This
result in the wastage of precious fuel.
3. Incomplete combustion of wood creates pollution which is hazardous to health.
4. Animal cowdung is rich in nitrogenous and phosphatic compounds which can also serve as best
fertilizers. Combustion of dung cakes causes a loss of vital nutrients of the soil and also leads to
pollution.
24. What is calorific value? State the calorific value of coal, LPG, Kerosene and wood.
The heat liberated in joule on complete burning of one unit of duel is expressed as it’s calorific
value.
2. Explain the working of solar cooker with the help of a neat and labelled diagram.
Answer. A solar cooker is a device that uses solar power to cook food. The first known solar cooker
was built by Horace de Saussure in 1767.
1. Solar cooker are available in many designs of different shapes and sizes.
2. A box type solar cooker is as shown in figure. The box is made up of a non – conducting
material like plastic or fibreglass.
3. The walls of the box are made thick with a linking of non – conducting material to prevent the
loss of heat.
4. The inner surface of the cooker is painted black which absorbs 98% of the incident solar
radiation.
5. It has a glass cover on the top which facilitates retention of heat inside the box.
6. Food to be cooked is kept in shallow vessel which is placed in the inner box. The outer
surfaces of the shallow vessel are also painted black.
7. A plane mirror is hinged on the top of the box which is adjusted in such a way that maximum
radiation is reflected into the enclosure.
8. The temperature inside the solar cooker is about 1000C – 1400C when kept in the sun for two
hours.
3. Explain the working of solar water heater with the help of a neat and labelled diagram.
Answer.
1. A simple type of solar water heater used for domestic purpose mainly consists of two parts
i. An insulated storage tank
ii. A flat plate collector.
2. In flat plate collector, copper pipes with it’s outer surface painted black are fixed in the form of
a coil in a box. Bending of pipes helps to increase the surface area for heating.
3. The insulated storage tank is connected to the flat plate collector by copper pipe. One end of
the pipe is connected to the bottom of the tank while other end is connected to the bottom of
the tank while other end is connected to the middle of the tank.
4. A reservoir or storage tank is kept at a higher level. It is used to store cold water and is
connected to the insulated storage water tank.
Working
1. The water in the flat plate collector continuously circulates through copper pipe absorbing
solar radiation and gets heated up.
2. Once the water gets heated up it expands and it becomes lighter and rises to the top of the
storage tank. Hot water is lighter and remains in the upper part of the tank. The hot water can
be drawn through a tap.
3. Its place is taken by the cold water from the bottom of the reservoir tank.
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7. TYPES OF ENERGY
Q1. A. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ALTERNATIVES AND REWRITE THE CORRECT SENTENCES.
1. Energy ______________
(is the stored ability to do work, can be created or can be destroyed, cannot be converted
from one form into another, exists only in mechanical form)
2. The energy stored in water in the reservoir at a height above the ground is __________ energy.
(Potential energy, kinetic energy, mechanical energy, electrical energy)
4. The potential energy of a body at rest on the earth’s surface is equal to _________
(zero J, 100 J, 50 J, 980 J)
2. A stone falling from a height makes a hole in the ground where it falls.
1. A stone at a height possesses potential energy.
2. As it falls towards the ground, its potential energy gets converted into kinetic energy.
3. As it reaches the ground, it uses its kinetic energy to make a hole at the place where it falls.
4. When stone is thrown up, it comes to rest momentarily after reaching certain height.
1. When a stone is thrown upwards it is acted upon acceleration due to gravity in the downward direction.
2. The velocity of the stone decreases and finally become zero at the highest point.
3. Thus, stone comes to rest momentarily after reaching a certain height.
5. For keeping some clocks working it is necessary to wind their springs from time to time.
1. When we wind the spring of a clock we do work on the spring and it gets compressed.
2. This work is stored in the spring in the form of ‘elastic potential energy’.
3. As the spring unwinds, its potential energy is converted into kinetic energy which is utilised
for turning the hands of the clock.
4. Hence, in order to keep some clock working, it is necessary to wind their springs from time to time.
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1. What is gravitational potential energy? What are the other forms of potential energy?
Answer.
1. The energy possessed by a body due to its height above the ground level is called
‘Gravitational Potential Energy’. It is denoted by the symbol ‘U’.
2. The other forms of potential energy are:
a. Elastic potential energy (Mechanical form)
b. Electric potential energy (Non – mechanical form).
6. Work done is related to the amount of energy transformed from one form to another.
Explain the statement with suitable examples.
1. Energy is the cause of work. When we do the work of lifting or throwing an object, the energy
stored within our body is converted into the “kinetic energy” of the object.
2. For example, when we use a pulley to draw water from a well. We do the work of pulling the
rope. The energy stored in our body is used to raise the bucket full of water through a height.
3. Hence our energy is transformed into the potential energy of the bucket.
8. Television is common example that uses conversion of energy from one form to another. Explain.
1. In a television, the audio (sound energy) and pictures (light energy) are first converted into
electrical signals. These signals are transmitted by the broadcasting stations.
2. Our television sets receive these electrical signals and once again re-converts them into
audio(sound energy) and pictures(light energy).
Thus television is common example that uses conversion of energy from one form to another.
9. When the potential energy of a body is lost, an exactly equal amount of kinetic energy is
gained by the body – Explain the statements with an example.
1. The total energy of an isolated system at any instance is the sum of its kinetic energy and potential
energy and it is always constant. i.e. K.E + P.E. = E (Where ‘E’ is the constant)
2. When a body of mass ‘m’ is at a height ‘h’, then its P.E. at that height is ‘mgh’. it has no KE
3. When the body falls towards the earth under the force of gravity and reaches the ground, then its KE at
Hence, when potential energy is lost, and exactly equal amount of kinetic energy is obtained.
10. Explain how the total energy of the stone is conserved when it is dropped from a height ‘h’ from the
ground. (OR) Explain how potential energy is converted into Kinetic Energy? (OR) Prove that
potential energy of a body is lost are exactly equal to kinetic energy of a body obtained.
A stone at rest on top of a hill possesses potential energy. If it rolls down the hill, its potential energy goes
on decreasing while its kinetic energy goes on increasing. When the stone reaches the bottom of the hill, all
its energy is kinetic. The potential energy of the stone when it is on the top of the hill gets converted into
kinetic energy when it reaches the bottom.
For Eg.
1. When a body (say stone) of mass (m) (say some kg.) is raised to a height (h) from the ground. The work is
done against the gravitational force. This work is stored in the body in the form of potential energy. Hence,
the potential energy of the body at the point A is mgh.
2. If the body is released from the point A its initial potential energy = mgh. Since, the body is initially at rest;
its kinetic energy is zero.
But, we know that,
Total energy of the body = Potential energy + Kinetic energy
3. When the body is released it falls down due to gravitational force. Its velocity goes on increasing. Let V be
the velocity of the body, Now
11. The energy gets converted from usable form to unusable form – Explain the statement with
example.
Answer.
1. When we use fossil fuels like coal or oil or natural gas, chemical energy is converted into heat energy.
2. But only a small portion of this heat energy is used by us drive to our vehicles or to generate electricity
at a thermal power station (usable form).
3. However a major portion of the heat energy is gained by the earth and the atmosphere and it is stored as
the internal energy of the earth.
4. The earth later radiates this energy into space (unusable form).
5. Hence the energy gets converted from usable form to unusable form.
12. “Energy can neither be created nor destroyed.” But still we say that fossil fuels will soon be
exhausted. Why?
1. When fossil fuels are burnt, their chemical energy is converted into heat energy. This heat
energy is utilised for driving our vehicles generating electricity etc.
2. This heat energy causes a rise in the temperature of the earth and is stored as the internal
energy of the earth. later, the earth radiates this energy into space and it is lost forever by us.
3. Thus when fossil fuels are burnt, the energy does not get destroyed. Only it is converted from
usable from to unusable form.
8. POWER
Q1. (A) CHOOSE THE CORRECT ALTERNATIVES AND REWRITE THE COMPLETE SENTENCES.
3. 1HP = ______________________
(746 Watt, 36 x 105 J/s, 1000 Watt, 1000 erg/s)
3. What is the difference in amount to work to climb up the staircase slowly or run up the stairs?
1. The amount of work done in climbing up a staircase slowly or running up the stairs is the same.
2. This is because the height to which a person climbs is the same in both the case.
3. Hence there is no difference in amount to work to climb up the staircase slowly or run up the stairs.
4. Why is the commercial unit of power different from the S.I. unit?
1. The S.I. unit of power is Watt (W). It is a very small unit and has no practical use.
2. The commercial unit of power is kilowatt (kW). It is a large unit and has practical usage. Thus
the commercial unit of power is different from its S.I. unit.
5. Show that power can be calculated if force and velocity are specified. OR
Derive the formula, Power = Force x Velocity.
9. SOUND
Q1. A. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ALTERNATIVES AND REWRITE THE COMPLETE SENTENCES.
4. After producing the sound at source and to convert it into echo, the minimum time period
required to hear echo is ____________________
(1sec, 0.5 sec, 0.1sec, 17 sec)
Q1. B. FILL IN THE BLANKS WITH APPROPRIATE NUMBER FROM THE COMMON BRACKET.
(0.01, 0.02, 0.4, 0.6, 10, 17, 34, 40, 332, 344)
1. The velocity of sound increases by about ______________ m/s for each degree Celsius rise in
temperature of air.
2. Velocity of sound in dry air at 00C is ___________ m/s.
3. Audible range of human ear is between ______________ kHz to 20 kHz.
4. For hearing distinct echo, the minimum distance of the reflecting surface from the source of
sound must be _____________ m.
5. The level of noise in silence zone should be below ______________ dB.
6. Velocity of sound in moist air is lower than the velocity of sound in dry air.
Ans. False -- Velocity of sound in moist air is greater than the velocity of sound in dry air.
1. SONAR
1. The principle of echo is used in the SONAR (Sound Navigation and ranging system)
2. SONAR system is used by the ships to detect the underwater obstacles and to measure the depth of the sea.
3. It consists of transmitter and receiver circuits. From transmitter sharp pulses of sound are emitted.
These pulses travel downward in the water and get reflected back from the sea bed.
4. The reflected sound is detected by the receiver in the ship.
5. The time interval between the production of sound and its detection is recorded.
6. Knowing the time and the velocity of sound in water the depth of the sea is calculated.
5. Explain with help of a neat labelled diagram an experiment to show that sound cannot travel
through vacuum (Or) sound requires a medium for propagation.
Ans.
1. Suspend an electric bell in a bell jar. Place the bell jar on a plat from provided with a side tube
connected to a vacuum pump. Connect the electric bell in series with a battery and key.
2. Pass the current through the circuit. The bell starts ringing and you hear the sound. You can
also see the hammer striking the gong.
3. Now, start the vacuum pump and gradually remove air from inside the bell jar. The sound you
hear will become weaker and weaker until finally no sound will be heard even though you can
see the hammer striking the gong.
4. Now strop the vacuum pump and allow air to enter the bell jar. You will again hear the sound
of the bell clearly.
Conclusion:- This experiment shows that sound cannot travel through vacuum.
6. A closed assembly hall is to be built in your school. Give your suggestions to avoid sound
pollution with reference to the following points while constructing the assembly hall.
a. Dimensions of assembly hall.
b. Inner surface of the wall.
c. Number of speakers.
d. Arrangement of the speakers.
a. The distance between the walls should be less than 17m. Te height of the ceiling should be less
than 17 m and the ceiling should be dome shaped.
b. Inner surface of the wall should be rough and not plane and smooth. If the walls are plane there
will be many reflections of sound within the hall.
c. There should be two speakers.
d. The speaker should be arranged in such a manner that they are not very close to the audience
and sound waves produced by them are not concentrated at a point.
7. ULTRASOUND.
1. Ultrasound is commonly used in medical diagnosis and therapy.
2. Ultrasound can be reflected from boundaries between the material of different densities.
3. Such waves are now used in place of X-rays to take picture of the interior of a body.
4. The ultrasound scanning helps to examine the defects in a foetus.
5. It is useful for detecting motion of heart valve and also to locate position of tumour in body.
8. ULTRASONIC SOUND.
1. Sound of high frequencies (720 kHz) is known as ultrasonic sound.
2. The ultrasonic sound is not audible to human beings because the audible range of human ear is between
0.02 kHz to 20 kHz.
3. Bats are able to emit as well as hear ultrasonic sound.
4. While flying bat emits ultrasonic sound. these ultrasonic waves are reflected by the obstacles. The
resulting echo enables the bats to detect the obstacle and avoid collision.
3. WHAT ARE THE TWO TYPES OF MECHANICAL WAVES? GIVE EXAMPLES OF EACH.
Ans. The two types of mechanical waves are as follows:
1. Transverse waves: - The waves in which the particles of the medium vibrate about their mean
position in a direction perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave are called as
transverse waves. E.g. Waves produced in surface of a liquid like water and in stringed musical
instrument.
2. Longitudinal waves: - The waves in which the particles of the medium vibrate about their
mean position in a direction parallel to the direction of propagation of waves. e.g. Sound waves
produced in air.
5. Write a short note of echo. OR What is an echo? Under what condition can echo be heard?
Ans. An Echo is the repetition of sound, caused by its reflection from a distant surface.
1. The effect of any sound lies on human ear for 1/10th of a second. Hence, human ear cannot
distinguish between two sounds if they are herd within an interval of 1/10th of a second.
2. Therefore, echo can be heard only if the time interval between the direct sound and the
reflected sound is greater than 1/10th of a second.
3. Velocity of sound in air at ordinary temperature is 340m/s. therefore, minimum distance covered by the
sound within 1/10th of second will be 340 x 1/10 = 34 m. In other words echo can be heard only if the
reflecting surface is at a distance greater then 17 meters (34/2 = 17 metres).
8. Explain the effect of temperature and humidity on the speed (velocity) of sound in air.
Ans. Effect of temperature on speed of sound in air.
1. The velocity of sound in air increases with the increase in temperature.
2. The velocity increases by about 0.6m.s for each degree Celsius rise in temperature of air.
Effect of humidity on speed of sound in air.
1. Humidity is the moistness of the air and it depends upon the water vapour present in the air.
2. Moist air contains more water vapour than dry air. As the water vapour contained in the air
increases, its density increases.
3. It is found that the velocity of sound in moist air is much greater then the velocity of sound in
dry air.
4. Therefore, an increase in humidity increases the velocity of sound in air.
3. If the wind is blowing in a direction inclined to the direction of the sound, the effective
velocity of the sound is affected by component of the wind velocity in the direction of velocity
of the sound.
1. Take two hollow tubes (T1 and T2) and keep them inclined to surface MN as shown in the figure.
2. Keep a clock near the rear end of one hollow tube (T1). Hold your ear close to the rear end of other
hollow tube (T2).
3. Place a screen in between the two tubes so that sound of the clock coming from one rube does not reach
directly to your ear.
4. Adjust the position of the second tube in such a way that the ticking sound is heard loudly and clearly.
5. Measure the angles between the axis of each tube and normal to the reflecting surface AB. You will
find that the two angles are equal i.e. angle of incidence (i) = angle of reflection (r)
4. Describe with the help of a diagram how SONAR is used to detect the depth of the sea.
Ans.
1. The principle of echo is used in the SONAR (Sound Navigation and ranging system)
2. SONAR system is used by the ships to detect the underwater obstacles and to measure the depth of the sea.
3. It consists of transmitter and receiver circuits. From transmitter sharp pulses of sound are emitted.
These pulses travel downward in the water and get reflected back from the sea bed.
4. The reflected sound is detected by the receiver in the ship.
5. The time interval between the production of sound and its detection is recorded.
6. Knowing the time and the velocity of sound in water the depth of the sea is calculated.
1. An observer 'A' is stationed with a gun on top of a hill. Another observer 'B' is stationed with a
stopwatch on top of another hill, a few kilometres away.
2. The observer 'A' fires the gun, as soon as the observer 'B' sees the flash, he starts the stopwatch and
when he hears the sound of the gun, he stops the stopwatch.
3. As the velocity of light is very large (i.e. 3, 00,000 km/s) the time taken for light to travel from A to B
is negligible. Therefore, the time recorded by the stopwatch is equal to the time taken for sound to
travel from A to B.
4. Now, dividing the distance between A and B by the time recorded by the stopwatch, we get the velocity
of sound in air.
10. HEAT
Q1. A. FILL IN THE BLANKS.
1. Aquatic plants and animals survive in the cold region because of an anomalous expansion of water.
2. The temperature at which, air becomes saturated with water vapour is called a dew point.
3. The dampness or moisture of air, due to water vapour it contains is humidity.
4. In CGS system unit of specific heat capacity is cal/kg0g.
5. The specific heat of water is maximum.
6. Density of water is maximum at 40C.
7. The mass of water vapour per unit volume of air is called absolute humidity.
8. At dew point relative humidity is Bu 100% .
9. The substance having specific heat 1 Kcal/kg0C water.
10. The quantity of heat that raises the temperature of a unit mass of substance by 10C is called specific heat.
11. When we rub our hands each other mechanical energy is converted into heat energy.
12. The steam engine drives a train because of conversion of the steam into the mechanical.
13. When liquid is heated it is converted into gas.
14. When water is heated from 00C to 40C is initially its volume contracts upto 40C.
2. In the winter pipelines carrying the water burst when the temperature of the atmosphere falls below 00C.
False: - In the winter, sometimes the pipelines carrying the water burst when the temperature of the
atmosphere falls below 40C.
3. The crumbling of the rock is due to an anomalous expansion of the water. True.
5. When relative humidity is below 60% we feel that air is moist. False: - When relative humidity is below
60% we feel that air is dry.
4. Absolute humidity: - The mass of water vapour present in one cubic meter of air is called absolute
humidity.
5. Principle of heat exchange: - If the system of two bodies is kept isolated from the surrounding so that no
heat enters or leaves the systems, then
Heat lost by hot body = Heat gained by cold body.
6. Relative humidity: - Relative humidity is the ratio of actual mass of water vapour present in a given
volume of air to the mass of water vapour required to saturate the same volume at the same temperature.
7.
Unit of specific heat capacity: - In M.K.S = K cal / kg 0C, in C.G.S = cal /g 0C.
8. Calorie: - The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water through 10C from
14.50C to 15.50C is called calorie.
6. In cold countries during winter even through the lakes are frozen, fish and other aquatic
animals and plants can survive in it.
.
1. In cold countries, during winter, the temperature of the atmosphere falls well below 00 C.
2. As the temperature decreases, the water at the surfaces of lakes and ponds starts contracting.
3. Hence, its density increases and it sinks to the bottom. This process continues till the
temperature of all the water in the lake falls to 40 C.
4. As the water at the surface cools further, its temperature falls below 40 C, it starts expanding
instead of contracting.
5. Therefore, its density decreases and it remains at the surface. The temperature of the water at
the surface continues to fall to 00 C.
6. Finally, the water at the surface is converted into ice, but the water below the layer of ice is at
40 C.
7. Ice is a bad conductor of heat. Hence, the layer of the ice at the surface does not allow transfer
of heat from the water to the atmosphere.
8. As the water below the layer of ice remains at 40 C, fish and other aquatic animals and plants
can survive in it.
7. If a beaker/glass containing ice cubes is placed in a table, its outer surface becomes wet in a little while.
1. When ice cubes are placed in a beaker, ice starts melting. The heat required for melting is
absorbed from the surrounding air and also from the beaker to some extent. Hence, the
temperature of the air and beaker falls.
2. The capacity of air to hold water vapour depends upon the temperature of the air, and this
capacity decreases as the temperature decreases. At a certain low temperature, the surrounding
air becomes saturated with water vapour present in it.
3. As the temperature falls further, the air is unable to hold all the water vapour. Hence, the extra
water vapour starts condensing on the cold outer surface of the beaker in the form of minute drops.
Therefore, the outer surface of beaker becomes wet after some time.
13. Spectacles of a person ‘steam up’ after coming from a frosty early morning.
1. The outside temperature of a cold morning air is below the ‘dew point’ of the warm air inside the room.
2. Thus, when a person enters a warm room after walking in the cold air outside, the water vapour on his
spectacles condense into tiny droplets of water.
3. hence, the spectacles of a person ‘steam up’ after coming from a frosty early morning
16. Explain Hope’s apparatus with the help of neat and labelled diagram.
1. Initially, the cylindrical vessel in Hope’s apparatus is filled with water at about 100C and the trough is
filled with a freezing mixture of ice and salt.
2. Initially, both the thermometers show the same temperature. In a short time, the temperature shown by
the lower thermometer starts decreasing, while the temperature shown by the upper thermometer
remains almost unchanged.
3. This process continues till the temperature shown by the lower thermometer shown by the lower
thermometer falls to 40C and remains constant thereafter. This shows that in the temperature range 10
0
C to 40C, the density of the water in the central part of the vessel goes on increasing and hence the
water sinks to the bottom. It means that water contracts as its temperature falls from 100C to 40C.
4. As the temperature of the water in the central part of the vessel becomes less than 40C, the temperature
shown by the upper thermometer begins to fall rapidly to 0 0C. After some time, a thin layer of ice is
formed at the surface of the water in the vessel. But the temperature shown by the lower thermometer
remains constant (i.e. 40C)
5. In the temperature range 40C to 0 0C, the water moves upward. This shows that the density of water
goes on decreasing in this range. It means that water expands as its temperature falls from 40C to 00C.
6. Thus the volume of a given mass of water is minimum at 40C, the density of water is maximum at 40C.
17. A piece of ice is melted by heating it, what will be the effects on its mass, volume, density and
molecular structure.
18. What changes will occur in the (1) volume (2) mass (3) density and (4) state when the
temperature of water is reduced from 40C to 00C?
Answer. When the temperature of water is reduced from 40C to 00C,
1. Its volume will increase
2. Its mass will remain the same
3. Its density will decrease
4. It will freeze at 00C (i.e. it will be converted into ice)
11. Describe an experiment to show that different substances have different specific heat
capacities. OR Describe an experiment to show that the quantity of heat required to raise the
temperature of the bodies, having the same mass but made of different substances, through
the same range is different in each case. OR
Describe an experiment to show that the quantity of heat given out by the bodies, having the
same mass but made of different substances, when thy cool through the same temperature
range is different in each case.
Procedure: -
1. Take three solid spheres of equal mass made of copper, iron and lead. Heat them together in
water.
2. When the water begins to boil, remove the three spheres and keep them on three thick slabs of
paraffin wax immediately.
Observation: -
1. We find that the three different spheres penetrate to different depths in the slab of wax and the
quantity of wax melted is different for the three spheres.
2. The iron sphere will go the deepest into the wax slab. This shows that iron has absorbed more
heat from the boiling water since its specific heat capacity is maximum.
3. Consequently it will also release more heat to the wax slab. This will result in more melting of
wax. The opposite will be the care for the lead sphere.
4. The copper sphere will penetrate in the wax slab, in between iron and lead sphere.
5. The sphere that radiates more heat melts more wax.
Conclusion:-
1. All the spheres have the same mass. Their initial temperature was the same. Also, their final
temperature (on cooling) is the same. Even then the quantity of wax melted is different in each
case.
2. This shows that the quantity of heat absorbed by each sphere from hot water must be different.
This shows that different substances have different specific heat capacities.
18. How will you determine the specific heat of a metal using the method of mixture?
1. The specific heat of a metal can be determined by the method of mixtures. The apparatus consists of a
calorimeter surrounded by wool (to prevent loss of heat by conduction) is kept in a wooden box.
2. When a hot solid is introduced into the water in a calorimeter, heat is transferred from a hot solid to the
water and the calorimeter.
3. Such transfer of heat continues till the solid, water and calorimeter attain same temperature.
4. Note that calorimeter is surrounded by non – conducting material like wood, thermacol and cotton to avoid
heat transfer due to radiation to surrounding vice versa.
5. Then according to the principle of heat exchange.
Heat lost by hot body = Heat gained by cold body.
Thus, Heat lost by hot solid = Heat gained by water + Heat gained by calorimeter
6. Using the above formula, we can determine the specific heat capacity of the metal.
19. What is a dew point? What information is obtained from the dew point?
1. Dew point is the temperature at which is saturated with the water vapour that it contains.
2. The dew point of the air depends upon the quantity of water vapour in the air.
3. Dew point conveys the information that whether air is saturated or unsaturated with the water
vapour that it contains.
If the temperature of air is equal to the dew point, it means the air is saturated. If the temperature is
below the dew point, it implies that the air is unsaturated.
11. LIGHT
Q1. FILL IN THE BLANKS.
1. Angle of incidence: - The angle between the normal and the incident ray is called as the angle
of incidence.
2. Angle of reflection: - The angle between the normal and the reflected ray is called as angle of
reflection.
3. Angle of refraction: - The angle between the normal and the refracted ray is called as angle of
refraction.
4. Angle of emergence: - The angle between the normal and the emergent ray is called as angle
of emergence.
5. Angle of deviation: - In propagation of a ray of light through a prism, the angle between the
directions of the incident ray and the emergent ray is called the angle of deviation.
6. Angle of minimum deviation: - The minimum value of the angle of deviation is called the
angle of minimum deviation.
7. Converging lens:- If the rays of light parallel to the principal axis of a lens, after passing
through the lens, converge to a point on the principal axis, the lens is called converging lens.
8. Diverging lens: - If the rays of light parallel to the principal axis of a lens, after passing
through the lens, appear to diverge from a point on the principal axis, the lens is called a diverging lens.
9. Centres of curvature of a lens: - The centres of the spheres, of which the surface of a lens
form parts, are called the centres of curvature of the lens.
10. Radii of curvature of a lens: - The radii of the spheres, of which the surface form parts, are
called the radii of curvature of the lens.
11. Principal axis of a lens: - A straight line passing through the centre of curvature of a lens is
called the principal axis of the lens.
12. Optical centre of a lens: - The optical centre of a thin lens is a point on the principal axis of
the lens such that a ray directed towards it emerges through the lens without deviation and
lateral displacement.
13. Focal length of a lens: - This optical centre of a thin lens is a point on the principal axis of the
lens such that a ray directed towards it emerges through the lens without deviation and lateral
displacement.
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14. Principal focus of a convex lens: - When rays of light parallel to the principal axis of a
convex lens pass through the lens, the point one the principal axis at which they converge, is
called principal focus of the convex lens.
15. Principal focus of a concave lens: - When rays of light parallel to the principal axis of a
concave lens pass through the lens, the point on the principal axis at which they appear to
diverge, is called the principal focus of the concave lens.
16. Magnification produced by a lens: - The ratio of the size of the image to the size of the
object is called the magnification produced by the lens.
17. Power of lens: - Power of a lens is defined as the degree of convergence or divergence
produced by the lens.
18. Short - sightedness / myopia: - The defect of vision in which a person can see nearby objects
clearly, but cannot see distant objects clearly, is called short - sightedness (Myopia).
19. Long - sightedness / hypermetropia:- The defect of vision in which a person can see distant
objects clearly, but cannot see nearby object clearly, is called long - sightedness
(hypermetropia).
20. Reflection of light: - The change in the direction of propagation of light on being incident on a
polished surface, to its original medium of propagation is called as reflection of light.
21. Refraction of light: - The change in direction of propagation of the ray of light when it enters
obliquely from one transparent medium to another transparent medium, is called refraction of
light.
22. Refractive index: - Refractive index or absolute refractive index of the medium is defined as
the ratio of speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in the medium.
3. WRITE A NOTE ON PRESBYOPIA DEFECT OF THE EYE. AND CAUSES AND REMEDY
PRESBYOPIA
CAUSE: - As one grows old, the ciliary muscles become weak. As a result of this the power of
accommodation is reduced. In this defect one is usable to see nearby objects clearly. It generally
occurs beyond the age of 40 years.
REMEDY: - It can be corrected by using spectacles having convex lenses of suitable focal length
Dispersion: - Separation of a beam of light into its seven constituent colours is known as dispersion of light.
Spectrum: - The coloured band of light when obtained on a screen is called spectrum of white light.
The spectrum has seven colours in the following order red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo and violet.
9. What will happen if two prisms are kept near each other, as shown in the figure and a beam
Of white light is made incident on the surface of one of them?
A spectrum will be formed due to the first prism. The rays corresponding to the various colours will
be combined by the second prism and hence white light will be obtained again.
4. A simple microscope is called a magnifying glass. Why? Explain with a neat diagram. Write
two uses of a simple microscope. OR
Write a short note on simple microscope. State the important uses of simple microscope.
Answer. Simple microscope:- Principle:- When an object is placed within the focal length of a
convex lens, its virtual, erect and magnified image is formed by the lens on the same side of the lens as
that of the object. The working of a simple microscope (a convex lens of suitable focal length) is based
on this principle.
5. Describe the experiment to determine the refractive index of glass using a glass slab. (OR)
Describe the experiment to verify the law of refraction of light.
1. Fix a white paper on the drawing board. Place the glass slab on it and mark its outline ABCD.
2. Fix two point P1 and P2 on the side AB such that the pins are vertical and the distance between them
Is about 5cm.
3. Observe through the glass slab from the side CD and fix two pins P3 and P4 on the side CD such that
These pins are exactly in the line with the images of the pins P1 and P2.
4. Remove the pins and mark their positions. Label the positions as P1, P2, P3 & P4 respectively.
Complete the ray diagram as shown in the figure (See below)
Draw the normal NQN' and MRM' Measure the angles, ∟PQN (i.e. angle i), ∟RQN' (i.e. angle r)
∟QRM (i.e. angle i1) and ∟SRM'(i.e. angle e).
It can be seen from the above description (and the measures of the angles i, r, i1and e) that, when a ray
of light is incident obliquely, on a glass slab, its patch changes.
With Q as the centre draw a circle of radius of 2 cm. Draw EF and GH perpendicular to NN'.
Find the refractive index of glass with respect to air using the formula.
Perform the experiment with the angle of incidence (i) as 300, 400, 500, etc. It is found that
2. The incident ray (PO), the refracted ray (QR) and the normal (NQN') at the point of incidence lie in
the same plane.
3. The incident ray and the refracted ray lie on the opposite sided of the normal.
Thus, the laws of refraction of light are verified.
17. Explain how you will locate an image formed by a concave lens. Draw a ray diagram for
object at any position.
Answer.
1. An incident rays parallel to the principal axis is after refraction moves away from principal
axis and appears to start from the focus on the same side as that of the object.
2. An incident ray passes through optical centre without any deviation.
3. A ray incident from one side of a concave lens and directed towards the focus on the other side
emerges after reflection, parallel to the principal axis.
4. A virtual, diminished and erect image is formed on the same side of the object.
18. How will you locate image formed by a convex lens. Explain it.
Answer.
1. An incident ray parallel to the principal axis after refraction passes through the focus on the
other side of the lens.
2. An incident ray passes through optical centre without any deviation.
3. An incident rays passing through the focus on the same side of the object, after refraction
emerges parallel the principal axis.
Any two of the above laws are sufficient to draw a ray diagram.
20. Describe an experiment with a diagram to determine the path of a ray of light passing
through prism. Explain what is angle of minimum deviation. (OR)
With the help of a neat and labelled diagram, describe an experiment to illustrate the refraction
of light through a prism.
1. Fix a white paper on a drawing board. Place the prism on it and mark its outline (ABC). Remove
the prism from the paper.
2. Draw LQ perpendicular to AB as shown in the figure. Draw PQ making an angle of 400 with LQ.
Replace the prism on the paper.
3. Fix two pins P1 and P2 on PQ such that the pins are vertical and the distance between them is about
5cm.
4. Observe through the prism from the side AC and fix two pins P3 and P4 on the side AC such that these
pins are exactly in line with the images of the pins P1 and P2.
5. Remove the prism and the pins from the paper. Mark the positions of the pins P1, P2, P3 and P4
respectively.
6. Complete the ray diagram as shown in the figure. Draw NR perpendicular to AC. Produce LQ and
NR as shown in the figure. Label their point of intersection as M.
7. Produce PQ and SR and label their point of intersection as T. Label the angles I, r, i1, e and δ as
shown in the figure.
21. Explain the formation of rainbow in the sky. What are the conditions necessary for a
rainbow to be seen in the sky?
Answer. The formation of a rainbow in the sky is a result of dispersion of sunlight by water droplets
present in the atmosphere after it has rained.
The sunlight is a mixture of seven colours: Violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red.
After it has dropped raining, the atmosphere contains a large number of water droplets. When sunlight
is incident on a water droplets, there is
i. Refraction of light as it passes from air to water.
ii. Internal reflection of light inside the droplet and
iii. Refraction of light as it passes from water to air.
The refractive index of water is different for different colours, being maximum for violet and
minimum for red. Hence, there is dispersion of light (separation into different colours) as it passes
from air to water. (For reference see the figure given below)
The combined action of different water droplets is to produce a rainbow with red colour at the outer
side and violet colour at the inner side. The rainbow is seen when the sun is on the back side of the
observer (person) and water droplets on the front side.
1. The rays of light coming from the fish bend away from the normal as they travel form water (denser
medium) to air (rarer medium).
2. Hence, the position of the fish in water appears to be above its real position.
Therefore, while shooting a fish in a lake, the gun is aimed below the apparent position of the fish.
1. The rays of light coming from the fish bend away from the normal as they travel form water (denser
medium) to air (rarer medium).
2. Hence, the position of the fish in water appears to be above its real position.
Therefore, it is difficult to shoot at a fish deep under water.
23. The sun is seen on the horizon a little before sunrise. (OR)
The sun is seen on the horizon for sometime even after sunset.
Answer.
1. The earth is surrounded by an atmosphere which is denser near the surface of the earth.
2. When the rays of light from the sun enter the earth's atmosphere from outer space, they travel from
a rarer medium to a denser medium. Hence, they bent towards the normal on refraction.
3. Hence, even when the sun is below the horizon while rising or setting, its rays reach us due to
refraction and it appears to be on the horizon.
Therefore, the sun is seen on the horizon a little before sunrise as well as for some time even after
sunset.
24. The pins fixed on one side of a prism, when observed through the prism from the other side,
appears to be shifted away from the base.
Answer.
1. When the rays of light coming from an object are incident on a prism, they are refracted.
2. The emergent rays bend towards the base of the prism as the prism is triangular.
Hence, the pins fixed on one side of a prism, when observed through the prism from the other side,
appear to be shifted away from the base.
17. An object held very close to the eye cannot be seen clearly.
Answer.
1. The eye lens is held in its position by the ciliary's muscles. When we look at a nearby object, the
ciliary's muscles compress the eye lens so that it bulges out. Hence, the focal length of the eye lens
decreases. Therefore the image is formed on the retina of the eye and hence the object is seen clearly.
2. Though the focal length of the eye lens is adjustable, it cannot be decreased below a certain limit.
3. For a normal human eye, the minimum distance at which an object can be seen clearly without any
strain on the eye is about 25 cm. It is called the least distance of distinct vision.
4. If an object is very close to the eye, it cannot be seen clearly.
18. A watch repairer uses a convex lens. OR A watch repairers use magnifying glass. OR
A palmist uses a convex lens.
Answer.
1. One gets a magnified view of a minute object by keeping it within the focal length of a convex lens.
2. A watch repairer can see the minute parts of the watch more clearly with the aid of a convex lens
than with a naked eye.
Hence, a watch repairer uses a convex lens.
19. Rapid movement of burning incense stick appears as a complete circle of red light.
Answer.
1. The impression of the image on the retina last for about 1/16th of a second after the removal of the
object.
2. If a burning stick of incense is moved at a rate of more than ten revolutions per second, we see a
complete circle of red light due to persistence of vision.
Hence, when a burning stick of incense is moved fast in a circle, a circle of red light is seen.
20. A person suffering from myopia (short sightedness) uses spectacles of concave lenses.
Answer.
1. Myopia arises due to slight elongation of the eyeball or due to the eye lens. In this cake, the distance
between the eye lens and retina is more than that in the case of a normal eye.
2. A person suffering from this defect can see nearby object clearly as the image of a nearby object is
formed on the retina, but cannot see distant objects clearly as the image of a distant object is formed a
little in front of the retina instead of on the retina.
3. A concave lens diverges the rays of light passing through it. When spectacles of concave lenses of
suitable focal length are used, the parallel rays coming from a distant object are diverged to some
extent before they are incident on the eye lens.
Therefore, the image of a distant object is formed on the retina of the eye and hence the distant object
can be seen clearly.
21. When we enter a dark room suddenly from bright light, we feel total darkness in the
beginning.
Answer.
1. When the light incident on the eyes is very bright, the muscles of the iris reduce the size of the
pupil. When the light is dim, the muscles of the iris increase the size of the pupil.
2. It requires some time for this change in the size of the pupil.
Hence, when we enter a dark room suddenly from bright light, we feel total darkness in the beginning.
23. The linear magnification produced by a concave lens is less than one.
1. The ratio of the size of the image to the size of the object is called magnification produced b
the lens.
2. The image produced by a concave lens is smaller than the object.
Hence, the linear magnification produced by a concave lens is less than one.
24. The rays of light travelling through the optical centre of a lens are not deviated or laterally
displaced.
Answer. The portion of a lens near the optical centre is like a very thin slab of glass. Hence, the rays of
light travelling through the optical centre of a lens are not deviated or laterally displaced.
25. The refractive index of any medium is related to the refractive index of air. (OR)
Why is it customary to state the refractive index of a medium with respect to air?
Answer.
1. By convention, the refractive index of a medium should be stated with respect to a vacuum.
2. But, the refractive index of a medium with respect to air is nearly equal to its refractive index
with respect to vacuum.
Hence, it is customary to state the refractive index of a medium with respect to air.
29. An object which is nearer to the eye appears to be bigger in size than the distant object.
1. The apparent size of the object depends upon the angle it subtends at the eye.
2. An object which is nearer to the eye subtends a larger angle at the eye than an object which is
farther from the eye.
3. Hence, an object which is nearer to the eye appears to be bigger in size than the distant object.
5. What do you find when the angle of incidence of a ray of light falling on a prism is increased gradually
from 350 to 600, and the angle of deviation and the angle of emergence are measured in each case?
1. When the angle of incidence ray of light falling on a prism is increased gradually from 350 to
600, the angle of deviation and the angle of emergence go on changing.
2. Initially, the angle of deviation becomes less and less. For a particular angle of incidence, the
angle of deviation becomes minimum.
3. When the angle of incidence is increased further, the angle of deviation also increases. When
the angle of deviation is minimum, the angle of incidence and the angel of emergence are
exactly equal to each other.
6. State the relation between the refractive index of glass with respect to air (ang) and the
refractive index of air with respect to glass (gna).
7. With the help of a neat and labelled diagram, describe the experiment to show that when a ray of light is incident
obliquely on a glass slab, its path changes. (OR)Explain with the help of an experiment, refraction of light.
1. Fix a white paper on the drawing board. Place the glass slab on it and mark its outline ABCD.
2. Fix two point P1 and P2 on the side AB such that the pins are vertical and the distance between them
is about 5cm.
3. Observe through the glass slab from the side CD and fix two pins P3 and P4 on the side CD such that
these pins are exactly in the line with the images of the pins P1 and P2.
4. Remove the pins and mark their positions. Label the positions as P1, P2, P3 & P4 respectively.
Complete the ray diagram as shown in the figure (See below)
Draw the normal (Perpendiculars) NQN' and MRM' Measure the angles, ∟PQN (i.e. angle i),
∟RQN' (i.e. angle r) ∟QRM (i.e. angle i1) and ∟SRM'(i.e. angle e).
It can be seen from the above description (and the measures of the angles i, r, i1and e) that, in
the absence of glass slab, the ray of light would have travelled along the path PQT. In the presence of
the glass slab in the path of light, the ray travelled along the path PQRS, i.e. there occurred a change in
its path.
Thus, when a ray of light is incident obliquely on a glass slab, its path changes.
8. With reference to the experiment 'Refraction of light through a glass slab' answers the
following question on the basis of the following figure.
i. What change occurs in the direction of the ray of light when it travels from air to glass?
Answer. When the ray of light travels from air to glass, it bends towards the normal (r < i).
ii. What change occurs in the direction of the ray of light when it travels from glass to air?
Answer. When the ray of light travels from glass to air, it bends away from the normal. (e > i1)
iii. What are the incident ray of refracted ray when the ray of light travels from glass to air?
Answer. When the ray of light travels from glass to air, QR is the incident ray and RS is the refracted
ray.
iv. What are the angle of incidence and the angle of refraction when the ray of light travels from
glass to air?
Answer. When the ray of light travels from glass to air, i1 is the angle of incidence and e is the angle of
refraction.
v. State the relation between the angles i and e and the relation between the angles r and i1.
Answer. i = e & r = i1.
vi. With the pins P1, P2, P3 & P4 fixed on the paper, what do you find if you observe through the
glass slab from the side CD?
What do you find if you observe through the glass slab from the side AB?
What conclusion do you draw from these observations?
Answer
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1. With the pins P1, P2, P3 & P4 fixed on the paper, when we observe through the glass slab from
the side CD, we find that the pins P3 & P4 are exactly in line with the images of the pins P1 &
P2.
2. When we observe through the glass slab from the side AB, we find that the pins P1 & P2 are
exactly in line with the images of the pins P3 & P4.
Conclusion:- In the first part, the path of the ray of light is PQRS, while in the second part, the path of
the ray of light is SRQP. Hence, it follows that the principle of reversibility of the path of light is
obeyed in the case of refraction of light.
1. What type of lens should be used to obtain a magnified image of a slide or a small filmstrip on
the screen? Where the slide should be placed?
Answer.
As the image is to be obtained on a screen, it must be a real image. We can obtain a real image only
with the help of a convex lens.
Hence, a convex lens should be used to obtain the image on the screen. Since we with to obtain a
magnified real image, the slide or the filmstrip should be placed between F and 2F on the other side of
the lens with respect to the screen.
2. When an object of height 2 cm is placed in from of a convex lens, the height of the image is
found to be 3 cm. State, giving reason, whether the given statement is true or false. If the
statement is true, state the nature and position of the image.
Answer.
1. When an object is placed between the optical centre and the principal focus of a convex lens, the
image formed by the lens is virtual and magnified (larger than the object). When an object is placed
between F and 2F, the image formed by the lens is real and magnified.
2. In the statement given in the question, the height of the image is reposted as greater than the height
of the object. Hence, the statement given in the question is correct and true.
3. In the above case, if the image is virtual, it will be erect and on the same side of the lens as that of
the object. If the image is real, it will be inverted and beyond 2F on the other side of the lens with
respect to the object.
3. You are given a lens which gives a virtual, erect and magnified image. What type of lens is it?
Answer. Since the lens gives a virtual, erect and magnified image, it must be a convex lens.
4. When an object of height 3 cm is placed in front of a concave lens, the height of the image is
found to be 6cm. State, giving the reason, whether the given statement is true or false.
Answer. When an object is placed in front of concave lens, the image formed by the lens always
smaller that the object. In the statement given in the question, the height of the image is reported as
greater than the height of object. Hence, the statement given in the question is false.
5. An object is kept in front of a lens of focal length +10cm. Describe the nature of the image if
the object distance is 8cm.
Answer. Since the focal length of the lens is positive, it is a convex lens. The object distance (8cm) is
less than the focal length of the lens (10cm). Therefore, the image will be virtual, erect and magnified
(larger than the object)
6. An object is kept in front of a lens of focal length +10cm. Describe the nature of the image in
the following cases. 1. The object distance is 25cm. 2. The object distance is 5cm.
Answer. Since the focal length of the lens (+10cm) is positive, it is a convex lens.
If an object is kept at 25cm from the lens, the image will be real, inverted and diminished (smaller
than the object)
If an object is kept at 5 cm from the lens, the image will be virtual, erect and magnified (larger than
the object).
7. Anu and Anand have concave and convex lenses respectively. They took lenses in sunlight and
tried to burn two pieces of paper of equal areas and temperature. Say whose paper will be get
burned. Give the reason.
Explain with the help of a diagram, why the other paper did not burn.
Answer.
The convex lens will burn the paper. The rays of sunlight will converge at the principal focus of the
lens. Hence, if the paper is held at the focus, it will burn due to the concentration of heat energy.
The paper held in front of the concave lens, will not burn, the concave lens will diverge the rays of
sunlight falling on it. Hence, the paper will not burn.
9. Ramesh from standard X uses spectacles. The number of his spectacles is -1. Answer the
following question.
i. Which lenses are used in his spectacles?
ii. Name the defect of vision
iii. What is your conclusion about the eyeball?
iv. Find the focal length of the lens.
Answer.
10. Sunitha from Standard XI uses spectacles. The number of her spectacles is +0.5. Answer the
following questions:
1. State the type of lenses used in her spectacles.
2. Name the defect of vision.
3. What is your conclusion about her eyeball?
4. Find the focal length of the lens.
Answer.
Convex lenses are used in the spectacles used by Sunitha.
Sunitha is suffering from hypermetropia (long – sightedness)
The eyeball of Sunitha must have slightly flattened.
Focal length of the lens.
11. Explain the phenomenon of persistence of vision. Give one example of persistence of vision.
OR Explain the meaning of the persistence of vision. Give one example with explanation. OR
Define: - Persistence of vision
Answer. Persistence of vision:- We see an object when its image is formed on the retina. The image
disappears as soon as the object is removed from our sight. But the impression of the image on the
retina lasts for about 1/16th of a second after the removal of the objects. This effect is known as the
persistence of vision. It is due to persistence of vision that we continue to see the object in its position
for about 1/16th of a second after it is removed.
Example: - When a burning stick of incense is moved fast in a circle, a circle of red light is seen.
12. Name two devices whose working is based on the phenomenon of persistence of vision. OR
Name any two application based on persistence of vision.
Answer. The two devices whose working is based on the phenomenon of persistence of vision are
1. The working of a television set
2. The working of a motion picture.
Write a short note on persistence of vision OR Explain persistence of vision. Give two examples
of persistence of vision
Ans. Write the above two answers jointly.
15. What will happen if the intensity of the rays in the cathode ray tube in a T.V. set is suddenly
increased?
Answer. If the intensity of the rays in the cathode ray tube in a T.V. set is suddenly increased, there
will be a sudden increase in the fluorescence of the material on the inner surface of the screen. This
will be painful to the eyes of the person watching the T.V.
16. Describe construction of an Astronomical telescope and draw a ray diagram showing the
format of an image by a Astronomical telescope.
1. A telescope is used to view large objects which are very far away e.g. stars, planets, comets
and stellar bodies.
2. A simple refracting Telescope consists of two convex lenses called as objective and eyepiece.
3. The objective has a large focal length (fo) and large aperture to gather more light to form
bright image of a distant object.
4. The eyepiece has a short focal length (fe) and small aperture so that whole light inside the
telescope may enter into the eye for distinct visibility.
5. Both the lenses are arranged co – axially so that the distance between them can be changed.
6. The angular magnification of the telescope is given by
Convex lens: - Convex lenses are thicker at the centre than at the edges. It can be further classified in
the following manner.
a. Double convex lens: - Convex surface on both sides.
c. Concavo convex lens: - Concave and convex surfaces on the same side.
Concave lens: - It is a lens which is thinner at the centre as compared to its edges. It is further
classified in the following manner.
c. Convexo – concave lens: - Convex and concave surfaces on the same side.
2. The process of splitting of a heavier nucleus into lighter nuclei with release of energy is called _____
(nuclear fusion, Nuclear fission, Chemical reaction, Combination reaction)
3. When an atom emits α radiation and gets converted into another atom, its _____________
a. Mass number decreases by 4 and atomic number decreases by 4.
b. Mass number decreases by 2 and atomic number decreases by 4.
c. Mass number increases by 4 and atomic number increases by 2.
d. Both mass number and atomic number remain same.
12. In order to compare radioactive substance with the other, quantity called half life is used.
1. Radioactive decay is a random process and different radioactive substances decay at different
rates.
2. Theoretically an infinite time would be required for a radioactive substance to decay
completely.
3. Thus, the total life span of a radioactive substance is meaningless.
4. Hence, in order to compare one radioactive substance with the other, a quantity called half life
is used.
13. Carbon dating is an important tool in archaeology.
1. Through carbon dating the length of time for which a specimen has been dead may be
determined by activity of carbon -14 (14C) which has remained it.
2. Carbon dating has therefore been an important tool in archaeology as it provides information
about age of archaeological artifacts, manuscripts etc.
2. A large amount of energy about 200 MeV is liberated in fission of one atom.
3. Secondary neutrons are produced.
3. Name the nuclear reactors at B.A.R.C. what are they used for?
Ans. The nuclear reactors at B.A.R.C are Apsara Cirus, Zerlina and Purnima. They are used to
produce radioisotopes.
PROBLEMS ON NORMALITY
1. Find the Normality of HCl, HNO3, H2SO4, KOH and NaOH.
2. 100 grams of NaOH are present in 4 litres of its solution. Find the normality of the solution.
3. If 2gm of KOH is dissolved in 500 ml water. Find the normality of the solution.
4. Sulphuric acid solution contains 4.9gm of sulphuric acid per litre. Find its normality.
Ex. 4.2
1. Two points in an electric field have a potential difference of 10V. How much work needs to be done to
move a charge of 5C between these points>\?
2. How much work needs to be done to move a charge of 2C between two points if the potential difference
between the points is 18 volts.
3. Calculate the work done in moving a charge of 4 coulombs from a point at 220 volts to another point at
230 volts.
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4. Find the work done in moving a charge of 100 coulomb between two points, if the potential difference
between the points is 0.5V.
5. Determine the P.D. if 150 Joule of work is done to carry a charge of 30 coulomb between 2 points.
6. If 18 joule of work is done to carry a charge of 12 coulomb between two ends of a wire, find the P.D.
across the wire.
Ex. 4.3
1. Calculate the current flowing through 5Ω resistor when a potential difference of 7.5 volt is applied
across it.
2. Calculate the current in circuit if the resistance of a wire is 10 Ω and P.D. across is 5 volt. (Text Book
Questions)
3. Calculate the potential difference ‘V’ across a 7 Ohm resistor carrying a current of 0.2 A. (Text Book
Questions)
4. Calculate the current flowing through 3 Ω resistor when a potential difference of 4.5 volt is applied
across it.
5. A metallic wire of 100 Ω resistance has a P.D. of 2 volts. How much electric current can flow through
the wire?
6. Calculate the potential difference when a current of 500 MA flows through a conductor having a
resistance of 25 Ω.
7. Calculate the Potential difference between the two terminals of a wire of resistance 35 Ohms when a
current of 250 MA flows through the wire.
8. Determine the P.D. which should be applied across a wire of resistance 50 Ohms in order to send a
current of 0.02 A through it.
Ex. 4.4
1. You are given three resistances of 1 Ω, 2 Ω and 3 Ω. What will be their equivalent resistance in series
and equivalent resistance in parallel combination?
2. Resistors of 10 Ohms and 2.5 Ohms are connected in parallel combination and 3 Ohm resistances are
connected in series combination with them. Find combined resistance. (Text Book Question)
3. Thee resistances of 6 Ohm each are connected in parallel combination. Determine their equivalent
resistance. (Text Book Questions)
4. Resistors of 3 Ohm and 6 Ohm are connected in parallel combination and 5 Ohm resistance is
connected in series combination with them. Find combined resistance.
5. You are provided with three resistances 4 Ω, 5 Ω and 20 Ω. What will be their equivalent resistance in
series and in parallel combinations?
6. Find the equivalent resistance of a parallel combination of resistances 20 Ω and 5 Ω.
7. You are provided with two resistances of 60 Ω and 40 Ω. What will be their equivalent resistance in
series and in parallel combinations?
8. Two resistances of equal value are connected in parallel. If their resultant resistance is 2.5Ω. Find the
value of each.
Ex. 4.5
1. 4 Ohm and 2 Ohm resistors are connected in parallel across the terminals of cell of e.m.f. 1.5V and
internal resistance 2/3 ohm. Find the total current in circuit. (Text Book Questions)
2. 7.2 Ohm and 4.8 Ohm resistors are connected in series across the terminals of cell of e.m.f. 6V and
internal resistance ½ ohms. Find the total current in the circuit.
3. A cell of e.m.f 12V and internal resistance 0.25 Ohm is connected in an electrical circuit shown below.
4. Two resistors of 15 Ω and 12.5 Ω are connected in series across the terminals of a cell of e.m.f. 1.5 V
and internal resistance 2.5 Ω. Find the current passing through the circuit.
5. The e.m.f. of a voltaic cell is 1.5 V with an internal resistance of 0.25 Ω. If the external resistance of the
circuit is 1.25 Ω, find the current.
Ex. 6.1
1. Calculate the hear generated in a coil of resistance 100 Ω in 6 minutes when P.D. of 10 V is
applied across it.
2. The heat generated in a coil of resistance 100 Ω in 5 seconds is 522.2 cal. Calculate the P.D.
applied across it to produce above heat.
3. Calculate the heat generated in a wire of resistance 500 Ω in 6 minutes when P.D. of 50V is
applied across it.
4. Calculate the heat in joule, generated in a coil of resistance 200 Ω in 3 minutes when a P.D. of
100 V is applied across it.
5. Calculate the heat generated in calories when a current flows through a wire of resistance 100
Ω and P.D. 100V for 3 min 29 sec.
6. The heat generated in coil of resistance 4.18 Ω in 1 minute is 540 cal. Calculate the P.D.
applied across it to produce above heat.
7. The heat generated in a coil of resistance 100 Ω in 2 minutes is 125.4 cal. Calculate the P.D.
applied across it to produce the above heat.
Ex. 6.2
1. Find resistance of 10W, 240V bulb.
2. Find resistance of 100W, 240V bulb.
3. Find resistance of 60W, 220V bulb.
4. The current flowing through a 12V Tungsten filament is 3A. Find the power of the bulb, if the
resistance of the filament is 4 Ω.
5. Calculate the current through a 60W bulb when a P.D. of 250V is applied across its filament.
Ex. 6.2
25. Calculate the heat generated in a coil of resistance 41.8 Ω in 5 min. When 0.5A current is passed
across it.
26. 240J heat is generated in a conductor of resistance 50 Ω and 0.2A current is passed across it. Find
how long current will pass through it.
27. Find the heat generated when a current of 5A flows through a wire of resistance 2.09 Ω for 4
minutes.
28. Calculate the heat generated in a coil of resistance of 8.36 Ω when a current of 1.5A flows through it for 2
minutes.
29. Calculate the heat generated in calories, when a current of 0.5A flows through a coil for 15 min. Resistance
of the coil is 2.09 Ω.
30. Find the resistance of a wire when 0.5A current flows through it for 1 min, producing 1500 cal of heat.
31. An electric current of 0.5A flows through a wire of resistance 41.8 Ω. How long does the current flow
through it to produce 300 calories of heat?
32. 300J heat is generated in a conductor of resistance 100 Ω and 0.5A current is passed across it. Find how
long current will pass through it.
33. 540 cal of heat is generated in a conductor of resistance 62.7 Ω and 2A current is passed across it. Find how
long current will pass through it.
34. The P.D. in an electrical circuit is 60V. An electric current of 0.3A flows through it. If 160J of heat is
produced, find the time for which the current is passed.
35. 300 calories of heat are generated in a wire of resistance 41.8 ohms when a current of 0.5 A flows through
it. Find the time in minutes for which the current is passes.
Ex. 7.1
1. Energy of 2J is used to lift a block of 0.5 kg. How high will it rise?
2. A rocket of mass 100 tonnes is propelled with a vertical velocity 1km/s. Calculate its kinetic
energy.
3. An object of mass 10kg is lying 10m above the ground. Calculate the potential energy
possessed by the object.
4. Calculate the power of a crane which lifts a load of mass 1000 kg to a height of 30m in one
minute.
5. An electric pump is used to lift water to a height of 60m. If the power of the pump is 3.92kw.
Find the mass of water raised in 2 minutes.
6. A body of 4 kg mass falls freely from the top of the tower. If it reaches the ground after 5 sec.
find the K.E.
Q6. Solve the following numerical.
Ex. 8.1
1. What is power used by microwave oven if 0.15 kW-hr of energy is used in 20 minutes.
2. What is the power used by a fridge in 4.80kW.-hr of energy is used in 24 hrs.
3. 5 tube lights uses 1.80 kW-hr energy in 6 hrs. Find power used by the tube lights.
4. If 60W electric bulb is lighted for 6 hours. How much electrical energy is consumed?
5. If an 80W electric bulb is lighted for 5 hrs, how much electrical energy is consumed.
6. If a television uses 0.90 kW. Power in 3 hrs, how much electrical energy is consumed?
7. If a refrigerator uses 0.25 kW power for working in a day, how much electrical energy is
consumed?
Ex. 8.2
1. A man draws a bucked of water from a well which is 10m deep in 20sec. If the mass of he
water drawn is 20kg, find the power used by the man. Can the power be calculated if the mass
of water is not known?
2. An electric pump is used to lift water to a height of 60m in 2 minutes. If the mass of the water
raised is 800 kg, find power of the pump.
3. Calculate the power of a crane which lifts a load of mass 1000 kg to a height if 30m in one
minute.
4. A crane has to lift a heavy object. Calculate the power requirement if the supplied energy to the
crane moves a load of 3000N over a distance of 20m in 2 minutes, assuming that the crane
works with 100% efficiency.
5. An electric motor is used to lift the water stored in a tank at the ground level to an overhead
tank at a height of 20m. If the power of the motor is 1HP, how much time will be required to
pump 7460 kg water? (Take g=10m/s2). If another motor of 0.5 HP is used what time it will
take to do the same work?
6. A crane has to lift a heavy object. Calculate the power requirement if the supplied energy to the
crane moves a load of 5000 N over a distance of 24m in 4 minutes assuming that the crane
works with 100% efficiency.
7. A 30 HP car is moving with a uniform velocity of 54km/hr. Find the forward force exerted by
its engine.
Ex. 8.3.
1. A car of mass 1000 kg is driven along a level road against a constant resistance of 200 N. The
output of the engine of the car is 8kW. Find the maximum speed that the car can achieve and
the acceleration of the car when its speed is around 10m/s.
2. An engine of a train has a useful power output of 4000kW and it pulls the train at a speed of 80
m/s. The total weight of the engine and the train is 60 tonnes. If the train is moving against a resistance
of 2 kN, find the acceleration of the trains.
3. A car of mass 1000kg moves at a steady speed of 20m/s up the slope of a hill, the slope makes an angle
with the horizontal whose sine is 0.25. Find the power output of the car assuming that no other resistive
forces are acting on the car and that the efficiency of its engine is 100%.
4. A force F of magnitude F 5N acts on a particle and moves it from a point A to another point B in 5s.
The distance AB is 2m and line AB makes an angle of 400 with the force F. Find the rate at which the
force works i.e., the power of the force F.
Ex. 9.2
1. A person observes a smoke from the cannon. After 1.5 seconds, he hears the bang. If the cannon is 510
away from the observer. Calculate the velocity of sound in air.
2. A person observes the smoke of a gun 0.5 seconds before he hears the bang. If the gun is 170m away from
the person. Find the speed of sound in air.
3. A person observes the smoke of the gun 1.4 seconds before he hears the bang. If the gun is 476 m away
from the person. Find the speed of sound in air.
Ex. 9.3
1. A person standing near the cliff shouts and hears the echo after 1.6 seconds. If the speed of sound in air
is 340 m/s. State the distance between the person and the cliff.
2. Using SONAR system sound pulses are emitted at the surface of water. The echo is heard after 3
seconds. Find the depth of sea?
3. A student shouted loudly on the school ground and he heard the echo after 1.4 seconds. Find the
distance between the student and the school building.
4. A person standing near a cliff fires a gun and hears the echo after 1.2 seconds. If the speed of sound in
air is 340 m/s, how far is the person from the cliff?
5. From the transmitter in the ship sharp pulses of sound are emitted. These pulses travel downward and
are reflected from the sea bed. The echo is heard after 10 seconds. Find the depth of the sea.
Ex. 9.4
1. Velocity of sound in air at 00C is 332 m/s. It increases by 0.6 m/s for each degree rise in temperature.
At what temperature of air, the velocity will be 350 m/s.
2. Velocity of sound in air at 00C is 332 m/s. At 400C what will be the velocity of sound in air?
3. Velocity of sound in air at 00C is 332 m/s. It increases by 0.6 m/s for each degree rise in temperature.
At what temperature of air will the velocity be 347 m/s.
Ex 9.5
1. A soldier standing between two cliff is X and Y fires a gun. After firing the gun hears the first echo
after 3.4 seconds and the second echo after 4 seconds. Find the distance between the two cliffs.
2. A soldier standing between the two buildings fires a gun. He heard the echo of the sound from the first
building after 2 second and from the second building after 3 second. Find the distance between two
buildings.
3. A boy is standing between the two cliffs A and B on a straight line joining them. After firing the gun he
hears the first echo after 2.4 seconds from A and the second echo after 3 seconds from B. Find the
distance between A and B.