QB For Mid2 - objective-IE

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Unit -3

1.Work study consists of ---------------------------

a. Effective use of plant and equipment


b. Effective use of human effort
c. Evaluation of human work
d. All of the above

2.Work study examines -------------------------------


a. method
b. duration of work
c. both ‘a’ and ‘b’
d. None of the above

3.Work study is also recognised as --------------------------


a. Time study
b. Motion study
c. both ‘a’ and ‘b’
d. None of the above

4.The correct order of procedure in method study is -----------------------------------


a. Select – Record – Examine – Develop – Define – Install – Maintain
b. Select – Define – Examine – Develop – Record – Install – Maintain
c. Select – Record – Develop – Examine – Define – Install – Maintain
d. Select – Record – Examine – Define – Develop – Install – Maintain

5.The following factors must be considered while selecting the work for method study -------
a. Economic considerations
b. Technical considerations
c. Human reactions
d. All of the above

6.In process charts, the symbol used for storage is ------------------


a. Circle
b. Square
c. Arrow
d. Triangle

7.In process charts, the symbol used for inspection is ----------------------


a. Circle
b. Square
c. Arrow
d. Triangle
8.Delay occurs when ----------------------------
a. someone stops the process
b. product wait for next event (operation)
c. both ‘a’ and ‘b’
d. None of the above

9.A milk powder tin is being weighed as it is filled is an example of -----------------


a. Operation cum transportation
b. Operation cum inspection
c. Transportation cum inspection
d. None of the above

10.In outline process chart, the horizontal lines represent ---------------------


a. general flow of process
b. materials being introduced
c. both ‘a’ and ‘b’
d. None of the above
11.In the outline (operation) process chart, the following symbols are used ----------
a. operation and inspection
b. operation and transportation
c. inspection and transportation
d. operation and storage

12.The following are the types of flow process chart


i. Man type ii. Material type iii. Equipment type
The correct answer is -------------------------------------
a. only i
b. i & ii
c. ii & iii
d. All of the above

13.Two hand process chart is commonly used for -------------------------


a. repetitive operations
b. short operations
c. both ‘a’ and ‘b’
d. none of the above

14.The following chart(s) record the movements ------------------


a. operation process chart
b. flow process chart
c. both ‘a’ and ‘b’
d. None of the above
15.Which of the following is a scale plan? ---------------------------
a. String diagram
b. Flow process chart
c. Operation process chart
d. All of the above

16.In THERBLIGS, colour for ‘search’ is --------------------------


a. black
b. grey
c. red
d. green

17. In THERBLIGS, ‘→’ symbol is used for ------------------------------


a. Search
b. Find
c. Position
d. Select

18.In THERBLIGS, abbreviation used for Disassemble is ---------------


a. D
b. DE
c. DA
d. DS

19.A ____ is based on film analysis ------------------------


a. SIMO chart
b. Flow process chart
c. String diagram
d. Operation flow chart

20.In SIMO chart, the movements are recorded against time measured in _____.
a. Minutes
b. Seconds
c. Micro seconds
d. Winks

21.As per principle of motion economy ----------------------------


a. Motion of arms should be symmetrical and in opposite direction
b. both the hand should not remain idle except during rest period
c. both hands should start and complete their work simultaneously
d. All of the above
22.The height of chair should be such that the top of work table is ________ the elbow level
of the operator.
a. at same level of
b. about 30 mm below
c. about 30 mm above
d. about 50 mm above

Unit-4
1. Which of the following is not an inventory? -------------------
a. Machines
b. Raw material
c. Finished products
d. Consumable tools

2. The following costs are usually involved in inventory decisions except ---------
a. Cost of ordering
b. Carrying cost
c. Cost of shortages
d. Machining cost

3. The cost of insurance and taxes are included in -------------------------


a. Cost of ordering
b. Set up cost
c. Inventory carrying cost
d. Cost of shortages

4. ‘Buffer stock’ is the level of stock -----------------------


a. Half of the actual stock
b. At which the ordering process should start
c. Minimum stock level below which actual stock should not fall
d. Maximum stock in inventory

5. The minimum stock level is calculated as ----------------------


a. Reorder level – (Normal consumption x Normal delivery time)
b. Reorder level + (Normal consumption x Normal delivery time)
c. (Reorder level + Normal consumption) x Normal delivery time
d. (Reorder level + Normal consumption) / Normal delivery time
6. Which of the following is true for Inventory control? -----------------
a. Economic order quantity has minimum total cost per order
b. Inventory carrying costs increases with quantity per order
c. Ordering cost decreases with lo size
d. All of the above

7.The time period between placing an order its receipt in stock is known as ----------
a. Lead time
b. Carrying time
c. Shortage time
d. Over time

8.Re-ordering level is calculated as -------------------------


a. Maximum consumption rate x Maximum re-order period
b. Minimum consumption rate x Minimum re-order period
c. Maximum consumption rate x Minimum re-order period
d. Minimum consumption rate x Maximum re-order period

9.Average stock level can be calculated as ------------------------


a. Minimum stock level + ½ of Re-order level
b. Maximum stock level + ½ of Re-order level
c. Minimum stock level + 1/3 of Re-order level
d. Maximum stock level + 1/3 of Re-order level

10.The Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) is calculated as -----------------


a. (2D*S/h)^1/2
b. (DS*/h)^1/2
c. (D*S/2h)^1/2
d. (D*S/3h)^1/2
Where, D=Annual demand (units), S=Cost per order, h=Annual carrying cost per unit

11.The order cost per order of an inventory is Rs. 400 with an annual carrying cost of Rs.
10 per unit. The EOQ for an annual demand of 2000 units is --------------------
a. 400
b. 440
c. 480
d. 500

12. The lead time is defined as: -----------------------------


a) The length of time before a stock-out occurs.
b) The length of time between ordering and receiving an inventory order.
c) The length of time that it takes to order inventory.
d) The time before production can be resumed.
13. The EOQ is defined as --------------------------
a) The optimal time at which to place an inventory order.
b) The optimal quantity of inventory to be ordered at regular intervals over the length of the
production run.
c) The optimal usage rate of an inventory item.
d) The lowest cost of ordering inventory.

14. With the A-B-C approach, items which have high unit costs are classified as A items. -------------
a) true b) false

15. A store that sells daily newspapers could use the single-period model for reordering ----------------
a) true b) false

16. Buffer stock is the level of stock ------------------------------------


a) Half of the actual stock
b) At which the ordering process should start
c) Minimum stock level below which actual stock should not fall
d) Maximum stock in inventory

17. If purchase order lead time is 35 minutes and number of units sold per time is 400 units
then reorder point will be -------------------------------
a)14000 units
b)14500 units
c)15000 units
d)15500 units

18. Which of the following is true for Inventory control? --------------------------


a)Economic order quantity has minimum total cost per order
b)Inventory carrying costs increases with quantity per order
c)Ordering cost decreases with lo size
d)All of the above

19. The time period between placing an order its receipt in stock is known as --------------
a)Lead time
b)Carrying time
c)Shortage time
d)Over time

20. If demand of one year is 25000 units, ordering cost for each purchase order is $210 and
carrying cost of one unit of stock is $25 then economic order quantity is ---------------
a)678 packages
b)648 packages
c)658 packages
d)668 packages
Unit-5
1. A fundamental attribute of TQM is ----------------------------
a) Drawing control charts
b) Having team meetings
c) Top management's direct involvement
d) Meeting ISO 9000 audit
2. Process capability =1 indicates that ------------------------
a) Suppliers can be trusted
b) Process is in control
c) There are no random variations
d) Some fraction of production is outside specs
3. Drawing control charts requires -----------------------------------
a) Calculation of statistics from data
b) Adjusting the machines
c) Teamwork training of workers
d) Meetings with suppliers
4. Inspection assures that ------------------------------------
a) The process is in control
b) Product meets specification
c) Quality problems are solved
d) Supplier quality is acceptable
5. A control chart displays ----------------------------------
a) Whether workers are motivated
b) Inspectors are doing their job
c) Process variability
d) Process capability
6. An assignable cause is generally known to ----------------------------
a) Vendors
b) Product designer
c) Workers
d) Customers
7. ISO 9000 determines -------------------------------
a) If the company practices its written procedures
b) Process capability
c) The kind of control chart to be used
d) Random causes of variation
8. A sampling plan helps in -------------------------
a) Keeping the process in control
b) Keeping workers motivated
c) Tuning the machines
d) Rejecting lots that are of unacceptable quality
9. Control charts help in --------------------------
a) Reaching six sigma
b) Rejecting parts supplied by vendors
c) Deciding when to investigate the process
d)Zero defect production

10. A Pareto chart shows --------------------------


a) That the process is in control
b) The vital few from the trivial many
c) Process capability
d) Fraction defective
11. Accuracy can be improved by --------------------------
a) Use of X-bar charts
b) Team meetings
c) TQM principles
d) Management talking to workers
12. Precision in production means --------------------------
a) Hi-tech equipment is used
b) Instruments are kept clean
c) Parts produced have little or no variation
d) Shop uses control charts
13. The American model for TQM is ------------------
a) ISO 9000
b) ISO 14000
c) The Baldrige Award criteria
d) Use of quality circles in the shop
14. Six Sigma implies -----------------------------
a) A statistical method
b) A trouble-shooting method
c) 3 defects per million in output
d) All above
15. SPC implies ----------------------------
a) Statistical process control
b) Use of control charts
c) Fixing assignable causes
d) All above
16. Fishbone diagrams are drawn --------------------------
a) To find customer needs
b) To brainstorm causes of an effect
c) To screen workers’ suggestions
d) To explain what the process does
17. A process is predictable if ---------------------
a) We can forecast its output
b) It is always at the same level
c) It has no humans involved
d) The data can be plotted on a chart
18. The quantity sigma (σ) indicates --------------------------------
a) Trend in the process
b) Dispersion in the data
c) Average
d) Range
19. Six sigma requires ------------------------
a) Process knowledge
b) Action on causes of defects
c) DOE trials
d) All above
20. Flow charts indicate ------------------------
a) Causes of process variation
b) Who reports to whom
c) How inputs get processed into outputs
d) How samples are rejected
Answers:
Unit – 3:
1-d 2-c 3-c 4-a 5-d 6-d 7-b 8-c 9-b 10-b 11-a 12-d
13-c 14-b 15-a 16-a 17-d 18-c 19-a 20-d 21-d 22-d

Unit – 4:
1-a 2-d 3-c 4-c 5-a 6-d 7-a 8-a 9-a 10-a 11-a 12-b
13-b 14-a 15-a 16-c 17-a 18-d 19-a 20-b

Unit – 5:
1-c 2-d 3-a 4-b 5-c 6-c 7-a 8-d 9-c 10-b 11-a
12-c 13-c 14-c 15-d 16-b 17-a 18-b 19-d 20-c

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