Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Dat Test Sample Items
Dat Test Sample Items
PROGRAM
Sample Test Items
These sample test items are reprinted for distribution in 2007 by the American Dental Association.
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1
7. The two daughter cells formed by mitosis 11. The movement of water soluble
and cytokinesis have molecules through cell membranes, from
higher to lower concentrations, by
A. half the number of chromosomes attachment to a carrier protein, describes
present in the parent cell.
B. half the number of the A. diffusions.
chromosomes present in the parent B. osmosis.
cell if this parent cell is found in the C. pinocytosis.
testicular or ovarian tissue. D. active transport.
C. the same number of chromosomes E. facilitated diffusion.
present in the parent cell.
D. twice the number of chromosomes 12. As far as their products are concerned,
present in the parent cell. all biosynthetic reactions in living cells
E. a variable number of chromosomes result in
so that an exact prediction cannot
be made. A. a more ordered state, therefore a
decrease in entropy.
8. Starch, cellulose and glycogen are all B. a more ordered state, therefore an
increase in entropy.
A. proteins. C. energy released in the form of ATP.
B. linked internally by hydrogen D. energy made available for motion.
bonds. E. a more ordered state with no
C. water soluble. entropy change.
D. polymers of glucose.
E. nucleic acids. 13. Which is the smallest organelle in the
cell?
9. Each of the following cell organelles have
a membranous structure EXCEPT one. A. Golgi body
Which one is the EXCEPTION? B. Nucleus
C. Mitochondrion
A. Golgi complex D. Ribosome
B. Centrioles E. Chloroplast
C. Mitochondria
D. Lysosomes 14. For a given diameter of an axon, one
E. Endoplasmic reticulum factor which increases the velocity of a
nerve impulse is
10. In anaerobic glycolysis in muscle cells,
one mole of glucose is oxidized to A. the length of the axon.
B. the ploidy of the nucleus.
A. six moles of carbon dioxide. C. the density of mitochondria along
B. two moles of acetic aid. the axon.
C. two moles of lactic acid. D. maximal stimulation of the neuron.
D. two moles of acetyl CoA. E. the presence of a myelin sheath.
E. two moles of carbon dioxide and six
moles of water.
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2
15. Which chiefly stimulates action of the 19. The addition of potassium iodide as a
respiratory center? nutritional supplement to common table
salt would most directly affect the function
A. Carbon dioxide in the blood of which of these glands?
B. Relaxin
C. Lack of oxygen in the blood A. Thyroid
D. Inflation of the alveolus B. Sweat glands
E. Vagus nerve C. Adrenal cortex
D. Kidneys
16. The term motor unit refers to E. Parathyroid
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3
23. Organisms that have the characteristics 27. Assuming no linkage, how many different
of radial symmetry, water vascular kinds of gametes can be produced by an
system, a spiny skin, and are found organism with the genotype AaBbcc?
exclusively in a marine habitat would be
in which phylum? A. 32
B. 16
A. Annelida C. 8
B. Chordata D. 6
C. Cnidaria E. 4
D. Porifera
E. Echinodermata 28. Which statement concerning alleles is
true for diploid organisms?
24. Of the following, which group of
invertebrates is apparently most closely 1. At most only two alleles occur at a
related to primitive vertebrates? given locus in an organisms
genome.
A. Annelida 2. Alleles occupy an identical locus in
B. Mollusca homologous chromosomes.
C. Cnidaria 3. Alleles of a given gene usually
D. Arthropoda occur on non-homologous
E. Echinodermata chromosomes.
4. A single chromosome usually
25. Under the five-kingdom classification, carries two alleles of each gene.
members of the kingdom Monera are
generally separated from the members of
all the other kingdoms by having A. 4
B. 1 and 2
A. heterotrophic nutrition versus C. 3
autotrophic nutrition. D. 1, 2 and 4
B. unicellular organization versus E. 3 and 4
multicellular organization.
C. microscopic size versus 29. In watermelons, the unlinked genes for
macroscopic size. green color (G) and for short length (S)
are dominant over alleles for striped color
D. prokaryotic cells versus eukaryotic
(g) and long length (s). Predict the
cells. phenotypes and their ratios for the cross
E. parasite-host relationship versus Ggss x ggSs.
predator-prey relationship.
A. All green short
26. A segment of DNA with the sequence B. 1:2:1 green short: striped long:
GGCATTAGG would be transcribed into a striped short
messenger RNA segment with the C. All striped long
sequence
D. 1:1:1:1 green short: striped short:
green long: striped long
A. CCGUAAUCC.
E. 1:1 green short: striped long
B. AATGCCGTT.
C. CCGTAATCC.
D. AAUGCCGUU.
E. CCGTUUTGG.
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4
30. Sexual and asexual reproduction usually 33. Embryonic induction is a process in
differ in which
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5
36. Of the following, the rate and type of 40. Each of the following changes the
cleavage occurring after fertilization frequency of alleles in a population
would be most affected by the EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
A. amount and distribution of yolk.
B. number of chromosomes. A. Mutation
C. thickness of the cell membrane. B. Natural selection
D. temperature. C. Immigration
E. thickness of the zona pellucida. D. Random interbreeding
E. Genetic drift
37. The long-term natural process by which a
pond eventually becomes a terrestrial 41. A 49-gram sample of sulfuric acid,
community is referred to as H2SO4 (98 gmol-1) contains
38. The initial step in the speciation process 42. If 1 mole of N2 and 1 mole of H2 are
often involves mixed and allowed to react according to
the equation N2 + 3H2 2NH3. What
A. inbreeding within the species. is the maximum number of moles of NH3
B. geographical separation of that could be produced?
populations.
C. intraspecific-random mating. A. 2/3
D. the inheritance of acquired B. 3/2
characteristics. C. 2/1
E. a Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. D. 1/2
E. 1/1
39. A complex behavioral response to a
specific cue or releaser, which is 43. A flask weighs 95 g when empty. When
exhibited by all members of the species filled with 200 mL of a certain liquid, the
as a stereotyped response to the same weight is 328 g. What volume (in
stimulus, is known as a milliliters) would 1,000 g of the liquid
occupy?
A. conditioned response.
B. fixed-action pattern.
C. reflex.
D. kinesis.
E. taxis.
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6
44. If 3.00 g of a nitrogen-oxygen compound 46. When the volume of a gas is decreased
is found to contain 2.22 g of oxygen, what at constant temperature, the pressure
is the percentage of nitrogen in the increases because the molecules
compound?
A. move faster.
B. move slower.
C. become heavier.
D. become lighter.
E. strike a unit area of the container
more often.
A. molecular.
B. ionic.
C. macromolecular.
D. metallic.
E. polymeric.
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7
49. How many grams of NaOH (40 gmol-1) 52. If 25 mL of 0.5 M NaOH neutralizes
are there in 250 mL of 0.4 M NaOH 35 mL of a monoprotic acid, which
solution? is the molarity of the acid?
A. 0.1
B. 0.4
C. 4
D. 10
E. 40
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8
55. For the equilibrium 57. Determine the heat in kcal/mol available
Ag2SO4(s)
2-
2Ag+(aq) + SO 4 (aq)
from the oxidation of one mole of glucose
(C6H12O6).
The solubility product expression (Ksp) is
C6H12O6(s) + 6O2(g) 6CO2(g) +
A.
2-
2[Ag+][SO 4 ] 6H2O(1)
A. -94 - 68 - 297
B. 6(-94) + 6(-68) + 1(-297)
56. The concentrations of silver ion and C. 6(-94) + 6(-68) - 1(-297)
chloride ion in an aqueous solution in
D. 1(-297) - 6(-94) - 6(-68)
equilibrium with solid silver chloride are
1.0 x 10-6 M. What is the value of Ksp for E. 297 - 94 - 68
AgCl equal to?
58. Which process is accompanied by a
decrease in entropy?
A. (2.0 x 10-6)(1.0 x 10-6)
A. Sublimation of carbon dioxide
B.
B. Evaporation of water
C. 1.0 x 10-6 C. Freezing of water
D. Shuffling a deck of cards
D. 1(1.0 x 10-6) E. Heating a balloon filled with a gas
A. 0.04 M.
B. 0.05 M.
C. 0.20 M.
D. 0.30 M.
E. 0.50 M.
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9
60. For the reaction A + B C, the 63. In which two compounds does nitrogen
experimentally determined rate of have the same oxidation number?
formation of C is given by:
Rate = k[A][B]2. Doubling the A. N2O3 and HNO3
concentration of B will
B. N2O5 and HNO3
A. quadruple the initial reaction rate. C. NO2 and N2O3
B. double the initial reaction rate. D. N2O4 and HNO2
C. have no effect on the initial rate. E. HNO2 and NH3
D. halve the initial reaction rate.
E. reduce the rate to one-fourth its
64. Which species is linear?
initial value.
A. H2O
61. The following is a spontaneous oxidation-
reduction reaction: B. H2Se
C. SO2
2-
Cr2O 7 + 14H+ + 6I- 2Cr3+ +7H2O + 3I2 D. ClO2
E. CO2
Which is the best reducing agent?
2- 65. The three common isotopes of oxygen:
A. Cr2O 7
16O, 17O, 18O, have
A. -2.38v
B. -1.70v
C. -1.02v
D. +1.02v
E. +1.70v
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10
66. A Lewis structure for the NO-3 ion is 70. In the reaction shown below a nitrogen
nucleus containing six neutrons emits a
positron. What is the second product of
the balanced reaction?
13 N 0
e +
7 +1
13
A. N
7
Including this structure, the total number
of ground state resonance structures for 14
B. N
this ion is 7
A. 1. 14
C. C
B. 2. 6
C. 3.
D. 4. 13
D. C
E. 5. 6
A. Atomic radius
B. Electronegativity
C. Metallic character
D. Normal boiling point
E. Melting temperature
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11
72. Which alkyl bromide will most readily 74. How does the energy content of the
undergo SN2 reaction with NaOH? transition state of a chemical reaction
compare with that of the reactants and
products?
Cl
CH3CH=CHCH3+HCl CH3CH2CHCH3
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12
76. 78. If partitioned between equal volumes of
ether and water, which would show the
greatest preference for the water layer?
A. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3
B. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2Cl
C. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2OH
D. HO CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2OH
OH OH OH
E. HO CH2 CH CH CH CH2OH
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13
80. Which of the structures below is chiral? 82. Which conformation of
1, 4- dibromocyclohexane is the most
stable?
A. Structural isomers
B. Enantiomers
C. Diastereomers
D. Identical compounds
E. Meso compounds
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14
83. Which structure represents a trans (E) 85. The reduction of a ketone
isomer?
A. 4-methyl-l-hexene
B. 4-ethyl-1-pentene
C. 2-ethyl-4-pentene
D. sec-butyl propylene
E. 3-methyl-5-hexene
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15
87. In the reaction, 89. Which reaction is an example of a free
radical chain termination step?
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16
91. Which could be used in the following 93. The two Bronsted-Lowry bases in the
conversion? equilibrium below are
A. HoAc + NACN
B. HOAc + NaOAc
C. NaCN + NaOAc
A. LiAlH4 D. NaCN + HCN
E. HOAc + HCN
B. CrO3, H+
C. SOCl2 94. The most acidic type of hydrogen in the
D. PBr3 following compound is
E. H3O+
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
E. e
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17
95. The conjugate acid of p-aminophenol 96. The structure below is shown without
complete geometrical detail. What is the
correct assignment of bond angles?
A. a = 90° b = 90°
B. a = 180° b = 109.5°
C. a = 120° b = 120°
D. a = 180° b = 120°
E. a = 180° b = 180°
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18
98. Which of the following is aromatic? 99. Treatment of benzoic acid with thionyl
chloride followed by addition of ethanol
gives which as the major product?
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19
100. What is the final product (B) of the
sequence below?
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Reading Comprehension Test Time limit: 15 minutes
RCT - Test Number 52 (Actual Test will contain three passages and
the time limit will be 60 minutes)
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1
x radiation. Moreover, they indicated that it has resulting from the radiation and that which is
not yet been possible to define the value of a spontaneous or due to other factors in
life saved in units of dose equivalence. environment. The only way to assess the
Because of these uncertainties, diagnostic magnitude of the risk would be to determine the
radiation is to be regarded as a potentially excess incidence of cancer or mutations in an
noxious agent. Hence radiological examination irradiated population. Where the excess
should be carried out only if it is likely that the incidence is expected to be small, extremely
information obtained will be useful for the large populations and long periods of
clinical management of the patient. observation are required. Land, for example,
suggested that the risk of breast cancer from
Undoubtedly ionizing radiation in high doses mammography is numerically so small when
can be harmful. The first report of patient injury compared to the spontaneous incidence of one
from a diagnostic radiological procedure, in 13 for breast cancer in U.S. women, that the
namely skin burns, was made within a few epidemiologic methods of evaluation would
months of Roentgen’s discover of the X-ray. In require a population of at least 60 million
that case the exposure time was one hour, but women followed from age 35 until death. Half
it is impossible to estimate the dose received. of them would receive mammograms and the
As early as 1902 the first case of cancer other half, the control group, would not. It goes
attributed to radiation injury was reported in the without saying, that such a study would take at
literature. Nonetheless, the magnitude of the least 40 years to conduct and would be so
risk (or even if there is a risk) from the small prohibitively expensive that it is not likely to be
doses of x radiation presently employed for carried out. Similar considerations apply to the
diagnostic purposes is still undetermined. evaluation of risks from small doses of ionizing
radiation of all human cancers and mutations.
Various accidents, such as the recent reactor Hence, it has been common practice to use
incident at Chernobyl in the Soviet Union, quantitative estimates and interpolations from
knowledge gained from follow-up studies on observations of human and animal populations
survivors from the atom bomb explosions in exposed to large radiation doses, when
Hiroshima and Nagasaki at the end of World attempting to make numeric estimates of the
War II, and experiments subjecting various risks to humans from low doses of ionizing
plant and animal species to ionizing radiation radiation.
indicate that radiation bioeffects can be divided
into two basic types where relatively high doses In view of the uncertainty surrounding possible
of radiation are concerned. One category of risks from the diagnostic use of X-rays, the
effects requires a threshold dose can be met International Commission on Radiological
before detectable change occurs. Such effects Protection has originated the concept of
are termed non-stochastic, and are primarily a keeping exposure levels “as low as reasonably
result of cell death. Examples are the acute achievable.” This concept has been
radiation syndrome and the development of summarized in cryptic acronym form as the
cataracts. On the other hand, stochastic effect ALARA Principle. The three key ways of
show statistical probability of occurrence as a minimizing exposure to radiation are minimizing
function of dose, but no threshold cut off for the the duration of exposure, maximizing the
effect. Examples of stochastic effects are distance from the source, and using barriers
carcinogenesis and genetic mutations. such as leaded clothing or screens. Diagnostic
X-ray production occurs only when the X-ray
The problem in evaluating the risk of cancer or tube is energized, and this is only necessary
mutation in human populations due to the when radiographs are being exposed. The time
diagnostic use of x radiation is that there is no that the X-ray tube is energized can be
known method to distinguish between disease reduced by using fast image receptors, and by
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2
reducing the number of radiographs taken by 3. From statements in the passage, it can be
high-yield selection criteria of the exposures to inferred that the author probably
be performed. As the intensity of the X-ray is a(n)
beam is inversely proportional to the square of
A. sentimentalist whose judgments are
the distance from the source (e.g. when the
influenced primarily by his emotions.
distance is doubled the intensity of the beam is
B. skeptic who refuses to believe
reduced by a factor of four, when tripled it is
anything without absolute proof.
reduced by a factor of nine…) the operation
C. realist who adheres to practical
should be as far as possible to stand behind a
considerations and rejects the
barrier impregnable to the X-rays being used.
impractical.
By conscientious use of ALARA Principle, the
D. idealist who places his own
practitioners reduce risks for themselves, their
standards of perfection before
staff and their patients.
practical matters.
E. conformists who follows the ideas of
authority without question.
1. Which was the earliest descriptor of ill
effects attributed to x radiation?
4. Wave motion for x radiation most closely
A. Cancer in atom bomb survivors resembles the oscillating movement of a
B. Genetic mutations following
mammography A. fast-moving helium radical.
C. Radiation burns due to prolonged B. coiled spring that has been sharply
exposure tapped at one end.
D. Acute radiation syndrome after the C. plucked stretched string of a musical
Chernobyl incident instrument.
E. Cataracts D. Wave in water caused by
disturbance from a fast moving motor
boat.
2. Of the following, which is the electro- E. transverse wave form.
magnetic radiation having the longest
wavelength?
5. The paradox of x radiation is stated to
A. Gamma radiation be that
B. Alpha radiation
C. Beta radiation A. it is used for diagnostic purposes
D. X radiation when the risks involved have not
E. Radiowave radiation been fully determined.
B. it was discovered, but not invented,
as gamma radiation is naturally
occurring counterpart.
C. it can be controlled by mankind.
D. it can both cause and cure cancer.
E. None of the above
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3
6. Which electromagnetic radiations carries 9. According to the inverse square law, the
the most energy, and is therefore most intensity of radiation received is reduced
penetrating? by a factor of ___ times when a practitioner
stands 4 meters away from a source of
A. Microwaves radiation rather than 1 meter.
B. Radiowaves
C. Visible light A. 4
D. Gamma rays B. 0.25
E. They all have the same energy. C. 16
D. 0.06
E. 2
7. With which statement would the author of
the passage agree?
10. The probability of genetic mutation being
A. Rigorous experimentation must be caused by low levels of x or gamma
carried out to more accurately asses radiation is believed to be
damage caused by the diagnostic
use of X-rays. A. stochastic in nature.
B. Epidemiologic data from individuals B. greater than the risk of cancer.
receiving high doses of radiation can C. threshold dose related.
accurately be interpolated to assess D. unrelated to dose.
the effects of low levels of radiation. E. a result of cell death.
C. Non-stochastic effects of radiation
are a more serious problem for
11. The principal difficulty encountered when
diagnostic radiology than are
evaluating the risk of cancer developing
stochastic effects. due to the use of diagnostic radiology is
D. The most effective way to improve
the risk-benefit ratio is to minimize A. inability to distinguish between
the number of exposures performed disease caused by radiation and that
by using careful radiographs due to other factors.
selection. B. the relatively long life span of
E. It is easy to differentiate between humans.
disease caused by exposure to C. the size of the population one needs
ionizing radiation and that from other to follow.
causes. D. the difficulty in obtaining a good
control group.
E. the financial outlay necessary for the
8. The beta particle is the same as a(n) study.
A. neutron.
B. photon of pure energy.
C. proton.
D. helium radical.
E. electron.
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4
12. Of the following, which according to the 15. Which electromagnetic radiations travels
text are definitely capable of causing at the greatest velocity?
ionization?
A. X-rays
1. Visible light B. Visible light
2. Gamma radiation C. Radiowaves
3. Microwaves D. Microwaves
4. Radiowave radiation E. None of these
5
Quantitative Reasoning Test Time limit: 45 minutes
QRT – Test Number 51 (An electronic calculator will be available for
the QRT section of the DAT at the test center)
A. 5 A. 32
B. 10 B. 96
C. 20 C. 132
D. 25 D. 220
E. 100 E. 256
equal to z?
A. 1/5
B. 4/5
A. 1.6 C. 5/4
B. 0.16 D. 5/2
C. 0.016 E. 5
D. 0.0016
E. 0.00016
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1
7. Which is the value of 11. If [b (c + d) + e]a = 135, then which
variable cannot be zero?
A. 0.003
B. 0.0003 A. a
C. 0.00003 B. b
D. 0.000003 C. c
E. 0.0000003 D. d
E. e
8.
12. Which is the equation of the line that
contains the point (3, -1) and is
A. 1.0 perpendicular to the line y = 3x + 3?
B. 15
C. 33.3 A. y = 3x - 8
D. 100 B. y = 3x - 10
E. 340 C. y = (-1/3)x + 2
D. y = (-1/3)x - 2
E. y = (-1/3)x
9. A rectangular room is 3 meters wide, 4
meters long and 2 meters high. How far is
it from the northeast corner at the floor to 13. 10 is to 2y as 25x is to
the southwest corner at the ceiling?
A. 5x.
A. meters B. 5xy.
C. 5x/y.
B. meters D. x/5y.
E. 5y/x.
C. meters
A. 90
10. A person travels to work at an average B. 85
speed of 40 mph, and returns home at 60 C. 47.5
mph. What, in mph, is the average speed D. 45
for the entire trip? E. 42.5
A. 45
B. 46 15. If 2x - 3 > 3x + 7, then which must be
C. 48 true?
D. 52
E. 54 A. x >
B. x > -4
C. x > -10
D. x < -4
E. x < -10
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2
16. Which represents 5% of 2% of 0.4? 20. If f(z) = 3z2 - 2z, then f(-1) equals
A. 4 A. 1.
B. 0.04 B. 4.
C. 0.004 C. 5.
D. 0.0004 D. 7.
E. 0.00004 E. 11.
17. One pump can fill a vat in 10 minutes. 21. Mary took 9 minutes to walk 3/8 of a mile.
Another pump can fill the vat in 15 At this rate, how many minutes will it take
minutes. How many minutes does it take to walk the rest of the mile?
to fill the vat if both pumps are operating
at the same time? A. 11
B. 12
A. 1/6 C. 15
B. 6 D. 18
C. 12 E. 24
D. 12.5
E. 25
22. What is the distance on a two-dimensional
graph between (7, 6) and (2, -6)?
18. If 1 inch equals 2.5 centimeters, then 25
meters equal how many inches? A. 5
B. 9
A. 0.01 C. 13
B. 0.1 D. 17
C. 10 E.
D. 62.5
E. 1,000
23. In a right triangle ABC with right angle at
C and AB = 6, BC = 3, find AC.
19. In a given course a student receives
preliminary examination grades of 81, 85, A. 3
and 95. The final examination is weighed B. 6
for one-third and the average of the C. 27
preliminary grades is weighed as 2/3 of D. 33
the final grade. What should the final E. 3
examination grade be for a semester
average of 90?
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3
25. A mother’s age is three times her 28. Which of the following is the length of the
daughter’s age. In twelve years the line segment BC, if AB = 14, AD = 5, and
mother’s age will be twice the daughter’s angle BAD = 30°?
age at that time. How old is the mother
now?
A. 18
B. 20
C. 24
D. 30
E. 36
A. 1/15
B. 9/100
C. 21/100
D. 47/90
E. 3/5
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4
31. If 1 meter = 3.28 feet, 4/5 of a foot is 36. Each of the circles I, II, and III is tangent
approximately what fraction of a meter? to the other two circles. The areas of the
circles are 4π, 9π, and 16π, respectively.
A. 1/5 Which represents the length of the
B. 1/4 perimeter of the triangle formed by joining
C. 1/3 the centers of three circles?
D. 1/2
E. 3/4
represents x?
A. (3y + 2)/(y - 1)
B. (3y + 2)/(y)
C. (3y - 2)/(y + 1)
D. (5y)/(y + 1)
A. 3.0
E. (3y - 2)/(y - 1)
B. 9.0
C. 14.5
33. For all y, the cos y is equal to D. 18.0
E. 29.0
A. sin y
B. cos (y + π)
C. sin (-y) 37. The numbers (1, 2, 3, 6) have an average
D. sin y + cos y (arithmetic mean) of 3 and a variance of
E. cos (-y) 3.5. What is the average (arithmetic
mean) and variance of the set of numbers
(3, 6, 9, 18)?
34. The value of cos (π/3) equals the
A. 9, 31.5
value of
B. 3, 10.5
A. -cos (2π/3). C. 3, 31.5
B. cos (2π/3). D. 6, 7.5
C. cos (6π/3). E. 9, 27.5
D. -cos (5π/3).
E. cos (4π/3).
38. Jill has six different books. She will select
one book on Monday and a different one
35. What is the maximum number of 3-inch to read on Wednesday. In how many ways
squares (squares that are three inches on can Jill select two different books?
a side) that can be cut from a sheet of tin A. 36
19 x 23 inches?
B. 30
A. 42 C. 18
B. 48 D. 15
C. 49 E. 12
D. 145
E. 146
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5
39. A vehicle covers 100 yards in 12.5
seconds. Find the average speed of the
vehicle in feet per second.
A. 2 2/3
B. 4
C. 8
D. 12
E. 24
40.
A.
B. 1/2
C. 1/58
D. 2
E. 58
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6
Dental Admission Preparation Material
Answer Keys
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ESTIMATING YOUR STANDARD SCORE
The Raw Score/Standard Score Conversion Table is designed to help you estimate the standard
scores that you would have received on the various tests if you had actually taken them. On the
DAT, eight standard test scores are reported: Quantitative Reasoning, a separate 40 item test;
Reading Comprehension, a 50 item test; Biology, the first 40 items of the Survey of the Natural
Sciences; General Chemistry, items 41 70 on the Survey of the Natural Sciences; Organic
Chemistry, items 71 100 on the Survey of the Natural Sciences; Total Science, combining the
three parts of the Survey of the Natural Sciences (100 items); and Perceptual Ability, a separate
90 item test; Academic Average, the average of the standard scores on the Quantitative
Reasoning, Reading Comprehension, Biology, and General and Organic Chemistry tests,
The following procedure will allow you to estimate your standard score.
1. Take the practice test under timed conditions to approximate the actual test administration.
2. There is no penalty for attempting an item and getting it wrong. You should attempt every
item, eliminating as many incorrect answers as possible when you are not sure of the
correct response.
3. Score the test using the answer key on the following page. Assign 1 point for every item
answered correctly and 0 points for every item answered incorrectly.
5. The next step is to convert your raw score to a standard score. The standard scores on
the DAT are reported on a scale ranging from 1 to 30. The mean of the test is
approximately 17 but varies from test to test, and test date to test date, depending on the
distribution of ability in the persons taking each test.
To find your standard score, locate the appropriate column for the test you just scored on
the Standard Score/Raw Score Conversion Table.
7. Go across that row to the left hand column headed "STD Score" to find your standard
score.
For example, if you answered 28 items correctly on the Quantitative Reasoning Test, look
to the column labeled QRT and go down that column until you find the score range that
includes "28", i.e., 27 28. Then proceed across that row to the column labeled "STD
Score" on the left. The row containing 27 28 for the QRT corresponds to a standard score
of 19 for that test.
This procedure can also be used for the Reading Comprehension, Biology, General
Chemistry, Organic Chemistry, and Perceptual Ability Tests.
8. To find your Total Science score, add together your raw scores on Biology, General
Chemistry, and Organic Chemistry. The maximum raw score is 100. (Please do not add
the standard scores together.)
9. In the column labeled "SNS" find the row that contains your raw score for the sum of the
three science subtests.
10. Go across the row to the left column to find your Total Science standard score. The Total
Science score is not an average of the Biology, General Chemistry and Organic Chemistry
standard scores.
For example, if you answered 21 items correctly on Biology, 14 on General Chemistry, and
13 on Organic Chemistry, your Total Science raw score would be 21 + 14 + 13, or 48.
Next, find the score range in the "SNS" column that contains "48", i.e., the fifteenth row
down when the range is 48 55. Proceed left across that row to the "STD Score" column.
In this example, the standard score for a raw score of 48 on the Survey of the Natural
Sciences is 15.
11. The Academic Average reported on the DAT is the arithmetic average of five standard
scores: Quantitative Reasoning (QRT), Reading Comprehension (RCT), Biology (BIO),
General Chemistry (GEN CHEM.), and Organic Chemistry (ORG CHEM). Therefore, if
your standard scores on the five tests were
QRT 16
RCT 18
BIO 14
GEN CHEM 15
ORG CHEM 15
78 ÷ 5 = 15.6,
the sum of those five scores would be 78. Dividing this total by five yields a score of 15.6.
Because the DAT scores are reported only in intervals of 1 point, this would be rounded
up to a score of 16. If the average had been 15.4, then the score would have been
rounded down to 15.
DENTAL ADMISSION TESTING PROGRAM
STANDARD SCORE-RAW SCORE CONVERSIONS
TEST PREPARATION MATERIALS
30 40 - - - 30 100 90
29 39 17 40 - - 99 89
28 - - - 30 29 98 88
27 - - - - - 97 -
26 38 - 39 - - 96 87
25 37 16 - 29 28 95 85-86
24 36 - 38 - - 94 84
23 35 15 - 28 27 92-93 81-83
22 33-34 - 37 - - 89-91 78-80
21 31-32 14 35-36 27 26 86-88 74-77
20 29-30 13 34 26 25 81-85 70-73
19 27-28 12 32-33 24-25 23-24 76-80 67-69
18 24-26 11 30-31 22-23 21-22 70-75 59-66
17 22-23 9-10 27-29 20-21 19-20 63-69 52-58
16 19-21 8 24-26 18-19 17-18 56-62 46-51
15 16-18 7 21-23 16-17 15-16 48-55 39-45
14 14-15 6 18-20 13-15 13-14 41-47 32-38
13 11-13 5 15-17 11-12 11-12 33-40 26-31
12 9-10 4 12-14 9-10 8-10 27-32 21-25
11 7-8 3 10-11 7-8 7 21-26 17-20
10 6 - 8-9 6 5-6 17-20 13-16
9 5 2 6-7 4-5 4 13-16 10-12
8 4 - 5 3 3 10-12 7-9
7 3 1 4 - - 7-9 6
6 2 - 3 2 2 5-6 4-5
5 - - 2 - - 4 3
4 - 0 - 1 1 3 2
3 1 - 1 - - 2 -
2 - - - - - - -
1 0 - 0 0 0 0-1 0-1
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Table 5 Table 6 Table 7 Table 8
Organic Chemistry Total Science Academic Average Perceptual Ability
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67