Carbon and Its Properties, Homologous Series and IUPAC Names

CHAPTER
SECTION
B
1 CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS
TOPIC-1
Carbon and its Properties, Homologous Series
and IUPAC Names
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT WORKSHEET-1
Ans. 1 : Name — Propene Formula — C3H6 [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] ½+½
Ans. 2 : Name — Ethane Formula — C2H6 [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2013] ½+½
Ans. 3 : (a) (i) Methanoic acid, (ii) Butanone. ½+½

(b) Carbon generally forms compounds by covalent bonds because carbon can neither donate nor
accept four electrons for completing its octet. So, it shares its four electrons with other atoms
forming covalent bonds. 1 [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2011]
Ans. 4 : (a) Functional group is an atom or a group of atoms in a carbon compound that gives the molecule its
characteristic physical and chemical properties. It is the site of reactivity in an organic compound.
For example —
(i) Alcohol is — OH
(ii) Carboxylic acid is — COOH. 1
(b) Two properties of carbon which lead to huge number of carbon compounds we see around us
are —
(i) Catenation
(ii) Tetravalency [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2011] ½+½
Ans. 5 : Isomers are the compounds which have the same molecular formula but different structural formula.
Isomers of Butane
(i) H H H H
| | | |
H— C—C— C—C —H
| | | |
H H H H
n-butane
(ii) H|
H — C—H
H
|
H— C — C—
| H
|
C—H
| | |
H H H
iso-butane
We cannot have isomers of the first three members of the alkane series because of the following laws
of isomers :
(i) The parent chain should have the most number of carbon atoms.
(ii) The branching cannot be done from the first on the last atom carbon atom of the structure.
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1+1+1
S O L U T I ON P-1
Ans. 6 : l Test 1 (Litmus Test) : Take two strips of blue litmus paper. Place a drop each of the alcohol and
carboxylic acid on these strips separately. The blue litmus paper turns red in the case of car-
boxylic acid and remains unaffected in the case of alcohol. 1
l Test 2 (Sodium hydrogen carbonate test/sodium carbonate test) : A pinch of sodium hydrogen
carbonate or sodium carbonate is added, to both separately. If brisk effervescence with the evolu-
tion of a colorless gas is observed, it indicates the presence of carboxylic acid. 1
If no change is observed then it confirms the presence of the alcohol.
l Test 3 Ester test or any other suitable test : (Any two) [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] ½ + ½
Detailed Answer
(i) We can distinguish between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid on the basis of their reaction with
sodium carbonate and sodium hydrogen carbonate. Carboxylic acids reacts with sodium carbon-
ate and sodium hydrogen carbonate to evolve CO2 gas that turns lime water milky.
Alcohol, on other hand, do not react with sodium carbonate and sodium hydrogen carbonate.
(ii) Alcohol reacts with sodium metal to produce hydrogen gas with rapid effervescence. On the other
hand, carboxylic acid does not show this type of chemical reaction with sodium metal. 1½+1½
Ans. 7 : (a) Three physical properties of carbon compounds are :
(i) Catenation property.
(ii) Low melting and boiling point compared to ionic compound.
(iii) Poor conductors of electricity.
(b) Carbon is a versatile element because it forms covalent bonds with large number of elements
and has catenation capacity to form compounds by chain of bonds with itself.
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 3 + 2
qqq
Ans. 1 : Seven covalent bonds. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1
Ans. 2 : Ten covalent bonds. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1
Ans. 3 : (a) Reactions between unsaturated hydrocarbons with simple substances to form a single saturated
product are addition reactions. 1
(b) Those reactions in which one or more hydrogen of a saturated hydrocarbon is replaced by an
atom or a group of atoms are substitution reactions. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2011 ] 1
Ans. 4 :
S. No. Saturated Hydrocarbons Unsaturated Hydrocarbons
1. Hydrocarbons having single bonds Hydrocarbons having one or more multiple
between carbon atoms are called saturated bonds between carbon atoms are called
hydrocarbons. unsaturated hydrocarbons.
2. Give a clean flame on burning. They give yellow flame with a lot of black
smoke on burning. 1+1
Ans. 5 : l All the members of a series have the same functional group, similar structure and same general
formula. (Any two) ½ + ½
l CH3OH, C2H5OH ½+½
l The physical properties are determined by alkyl group/hydrocarbon part/part other than the
functional group. ½
l The chemical properties are determined by functional group such as –OH group, or any other
example from any other homologous series. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] ½
Ans. 6 : A homologous series is a series of organic compounds which belong to the same family (i.e. pos-
sess same functional group) and show similar chemical properties. The members of this series are
called homologous and differ from each other by the number of CH2 units in the main carbon chain.
Molecular formula of two consecutive members of homologous series of aldehydes is
CH3-CHO and CH3-CH2-CHO.
In CH3—CHO compound, —CHO part and in CH3—CH2—CHO, —CH2—CHO part will determine
their physical and chemical properties. 1+1+1
P-2 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
Ans. 7 : l Carbon has 4 electrons in its outermost shell, and needs to gain or lose 4 electrons to attain noble
gas configuration. 1
l Losing or gaining 4 electrons is not possible due to energy considerations; hence it shares electrons
to form covalent bonds. 1
Two reasons for large number of carbon compounds :
l Catenation : The unique ability of carbon to form bonds with other atoms of carbon, giving rise
to long chains of different types of compounds. 1
l Tetravalency : Since carbon has a valency of 4, it is capable of bonding with four other atoms of
carbon or atoms of elements like oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulphur, chlorine, etc. 1
The reason for the formation of strong bonds by carbon is its small size which enables the nucleus to
hold on to on to the shared pairs of electrons strongly. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1
Detailed Answer
Since carbon has a valency of four, it is capable of bonding with four other atoms of carbon or atoms
of some other monovalent elements. In order to satisfy its tetravalency carbon can form double or
triple bonds also with other C-atoms or with oxygen, nitrogen etc.
Two reasons for carbon forming a large number of compounds are :
(i) Catenation : Carbon has the unique property or ability to form bonds with other atoms of carbon,
giving rise to large molecules. This property is called catenation. These compounds may have
long chains of carbon, branched chains of carbon or even carbon atoms arranged in rings.
(ii) Tetravalency : Carbon has four valence electrons in its valence shell so the valency of carbon is
four. Due to this valency, carbon is a tetravalent element and it has the capability of satisfying its
tetravalent by sharing its electrons with some monovalent elements and forming covalent bonds.
(iii) Carbon exhibits catenation much more than any other element due to its smaller size which makes
the C — C bonds strong which the bonds between any other element are comparatively weaker
due to its large size. 1+2+2
qqq
Ans. 1 : Hydrogenation. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1
Ans. 2 : Ethyne C2H2 [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1

Ans. 3 : In order to form ionic bond, carbon atom either has to lose four electrons to form C4+ ion or gain four
electrons to form C4– ions.
The loss or gain of four electrons is not easy for carbon since energy needed is very high. 2
Ans. 4 : The chemical bonds formed between two atoms by the sharing of electrons between them is known
as a covalent bond. The sharing of electrons between the two atoms takes place in such a way that
both the atoms acquire stable electronic configuration of their nearest noble gas. 1
(i) CCl4 — Covalent bond
(ii) CaCl2 — Ionic bond ½+½
Ans. 5 : l Ethene
H H
C C
H H
1
l Conc. H2SO4 acts as a dehydrating agent. 1
Conc H SO
CH3CH3OH  2 4
→ C2H4 + H2O [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1
443K
Ans. 6 : A homologous series is a series of organic compounds that belongs to the same family (i.e., possesses
the same functional group) and show similar chemical properties. The members of this series are called
homologues; they differ from each other by the number of CH2 units in the main carbon chain.
General Formula
Alkenes : CnH2n
Alkynes : CnH2n-2
Structures
S O L U T I ON P-3
The first member of alkenes is ethene and its structure is given below.
H
|
— C— H
H—C —
|
H
The first member of alkynes is ethyne and its structure is given below :
H—C = C—H 1+1+½+½
4+
Ans. 7 : Carbon has 4 electrons in its outermost shell. It cannot lose 4 electrons to form C because very high
energy is required to remove 4 electrons. 1½
In cannot gain 4 electrons to form C4– ions because it is difficult for 6 protons to hold on to 10 elec-
trons. 1½
l Ionic/Electrovalent Bonds. ½
l Covalent bonds. ½
l There are no charged particles in carbon compounds and hence poor conductors of electricity.
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1
qqq
Ans. 1 : Thirteen covalent bonds. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1
Ans. 2 : 0.02% . [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012, 13] 1

Ans. 3 : Molecular formula : C2H4 1
Electron dot formula : H C C H

H H
Structural formula : H—C —
—C—H
| |
H H ½+½
Ans. 4 : (i) Pentanoic acid
(ii) Butyne
(iii) Heptanal
(iv) Pentanol ½+½+½+½
Ans. 5 : Functional group is an atom or a group of atoms that is bonded to a carbon chain. It defines the chemi-
cal property of the organic compound.
Compound Functional Structure
Group
Ethanol Hydroxyl (–OH) CH3CH2OH
Ethanoic acid Carboxylic acid (–COOH) CH3COOH
1+1+1
Ans. 6 : Name and general formula of hydrocarbons undergoing addition reaction with hydrogen :
Name General Formula
Alkene CnH2n
Alkyne CnH2n-2
Essential conditions required for the addition reaction to occur :
(i) Multiple bonds (double and triple bonds) must be present between carbon atoms in the chain of
hydrocarbon.
(ii) Addition of hydrogen should be carried out in the presence of catalyst such as nickel or platinum.
Chemical Equation :
P-4 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
CH2=CH2 + H2 (Ni or Pt) → CH3—CH3
Ethene Ethane
CH ≡ CH + 2H2 (Ni or Pt) → CH2 = CH2 + H2 (Ni or Pt) → CH3—CH3
Ethyne Ethene Ethane
1+1+1
Ans. 7 : The atomic number of carbon is 6. This means that it has 4 electrons in its outermost shell and
it needs 4 more electrons to attain noble gas electronic configuration. It cannot form C4+ cation,
as the removal of 4 valence electrons requires a huge amount of energy. The cation formed has
6 protons and 2 electrons. This makes it highly unstable. Carbon cannot form C4– anion, as its
nucleus with 6 protons cannot hold 10 electrons. Thus, carbon achieves noble gas electronic con-
figuration by sharing its 4 electrons with other elements—that is, it forms covalent compounds.
In ionic compounds, ionic bonds are formed; while in carbon compounds, covalent bonds are formed.
Because carbon compounds are covalent in nature, they are bad conductors of electricity; they lack
free electrons. 3+1+1
qqq
TOPIC-2
Carbon Compounds, Soap and Detergents

KMnO4|{0}
Ans. 1 : CH3CH2OH  → CH3COOH
Ethanol Ethanoic acid [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2014] 1
Ans. 2 : Hydrogenation. 1
Ans. 3 : (a) 5 to 8% solution of acetic acid in water is called Vinegar. It is used as a preservative in pickles.
(b) Carbon compounds have low melting and boiling point because force of attraction between
carbon compounds are not very strong. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2011] 1+1
Ans. 4 : Butter and cooking oil can be distinguished by using alkaline KMnO4. Being unsaturated only cooking
oil decolourises the pink colour of alkaline KMnO4 where as butter does not, because it is saturated.
Bromine water test is also used where brown colour is discharged by the cooking oil.
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2011] 1+1
Ans. 5 :
O
—
—
Conc. H2SO4 + heat

CH3 — C — OH + H — OCH2CH3
(Esterification)
Ethanoic acid Ethanol
O
—
—
CH3 — C — OCH2CH3 + H2O

Ethyl acetate Water
Reverse reaction = Saponification [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 2 + 1
Ans. 6 : Molecular formula of ethyne = C2H2

Electronic formula = H C C H
Structural formula = H — C —
—C—H
S O L U T I ON P-5
Ans. 7 : When any molecule like H2 adds to unsaturated hydrocarbon because of double and triple bond.
Ni
CH2 = CH2 + H2  → C2H66 2
Use — Hydrogenation of vegetable oils.
Catalyst — Increase the rate of reaction.
Substitution reaction — CH4 + Cl2 →CH3Cl + HCl one atom is replaced by another ; two products
only one product in addition reaction. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 3
qqq
Ans. 1 : Sodium ethanoate, carbon-dioxide and water. 1
Ans. 2 : It is unsaturated compound because they have more carbon. It burns with sooty or smoky flame.
Ans. 3 : (a) Colour of KMnO4 disappears because it takes part in the oxidation of ethanol. 1
(b) Ethanol is oxidized to produce ethanoic acid. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2011] 1
Ans. 4 : (a) Soap molecules form micelles where ionic end of soap dissolves in water while carbon chain
dissolves in oil. The emulsion in water thus formed helps in dissolving the dirt in water and we
can wash our clothes clean. 1
(b) Soaps react with calcium or magnesium ions to form an insoluble substance which results in
wastage of soap. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2011] 1
Ans. 5 : The addition of hydrogen to an unsaturated hydrocarbon to get a saturated hydrocarbon is called
hydrogenation.
Example : Vegetable oils such as groundnut oils, cotton seed oils and mustard oils are unsaturated
and also conation double bonds (C=C). They are in the liquid state. On hydrogenation (addition of
hydrogen) in the presence of nickel as catalyst vegetable oil produces vanaspati ghee. This is solid at
room temperature.
R R H H
| |
Ni catalyst
C =C + H2 R — C — C —R
Heat | |
R R R R
Vegetable oil Vanaspati ghee

(liquid state) (Solid state)
The essential condition for the reaction is presence of Nickel as a catalyst and temperature.
Change observed in the physical property during hydrogenation is the change of the unsaturated
compound from the liquid state to the corresponding saturated compound in the solid state/its boil-
ing on melting point will increase. [CBSE Marking Scheme 2015] 1+2
Ans. 6 : Detergents are sodium salt of long chain benzene sulphonic acids.
Soaps are sodium or potassium salt of long chain fatty acids that have cleaning action in water. e.g.,
Sodium stearate.
Cleansing Action of Soap : A soap molecule consists of two dissimilar parts :
(i) A short ionic part comprising the carboxylate salt-- COO–Na+ which is water soluble.
(ii) A long hydrocarbon chain which is hydrophobic.
When soap is dissolved in water, it form a colloidal suspension. In this colloidal suspension, the
soap molecules cluster together to form micelles and remain radially suspended in water with the
hydrocarbon end towards the centre and the ionic end directed outward. The dirt particles always
adhere to the oily or greasy layer present on the skin or clothes. When a dirty cloth is dipped into a
soap solution, its non-polar hydrocarbon end of micelles attached to the grease or oil present in dirt
and polar end remains in water layer.
P-6 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
The mechanical action of rubbing subsequently, dislodges the oily layer from the dirty surface shaping
it into small globules. A stable emulsion of oil in water is formed. The emulsified oil or grease globules
bearing the dirt can now be readily washed with water. [CBSE Marking Scheme 2015] 3
Ans. 7 : l Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of long chain carboxylic acids. ½
l Detergents are ammonium or sulphonate salts. ½
l Cleansing action of soap - One part of soap molecule is ionic/hydrophilic and dissolves in water.
The other part is non-ionic/carbon chain/hydrophobic part which dissolves in oil. 1
l Thus soap molecules arrange themselves in the form of a micelle/diagram of a micelle. ½
On rinsing with water, soap is washed off, lifting the oily dirt particles with it. ½
Soap does not form lather in hard water because of the reaction of soap with Ca and Mg ions present
in hard water which forms insoluble ppt./scum. 1
Problems due to the use of detergents are :
l Detergents are non-biodegradable.
l It leads to water or soil pollution.
l It can also cause skin problems. (Any two) [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] ½ × 2
Detailed Answer
Soaps are sodium or potassium salt of long chain fatty acid (carboxylic acid) that have cleaning action
in water. Detergents are sodium salt of long chain benzene sulphonic acids.
Cleaning action of Soap : When soap is dissolved in water, it forms a colloidal suspension. In this, the
soap molecules cluster together to form micelles. When a dirty cloth is dipped into a soap solution,
its non-polar hydrocarbon and of micelles attach to the grease or oil present is dirt and polar and
remains in water layer. The mechanical action of rubbing subsequently, dislodges the oily layer from
the dirty surface shaping it into small globules, which can now be readily washed with water.
Soap does not give foam easily with hard water, which contains calcium and magnesium salts. Soap
first reacts with the calcium ions and magnesia ions to form insoluble precipitates of calcium and
magnesium salts of fatty acid.
Two problems arises due to the use of detergents—
(i) Detergents are non-boidegradable i .e they cannot be decomposed by microorganisms.
(ii) Detergents have strong cleaning action. 1+2+1+1
qqq
Ans. 1 : N N [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] 1

Ans. 2 : Acetic acid or vinegar. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] 1
Ans. 3 : When an ester reacts with water in presence of a base, a salt of carboxylic acid, and an alcohol are
produced. Such a reaction is called saponification. 1
For example : When ethyl ethanoate is heated with a solution of sodium hydroxide, sodium ethanoate
and ethanol are produced. ½
Boil
CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH  → CH COONa + C H OH.
3 2 5 [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2011]½
Ans. 4 : (a) 2C2H5OH + 2Na → 2C2H5ONa + H2 ½+½

‘X’ is ethanol and Y is hydrogen.
Conc. H SO
(b) CH3CH2OH  2
443 K
4
→ CH2 = CH2 + H2O [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2011] 1

S O L U T I ON P-7
Ans. 5 : The name of the compound formed in Ethene and its structural formula is
H H
| |
H—C=C—H
Chemical equation
Conc H SO
CH3CH2OH  2
443 K
4
→ CH2=CH3+H2O
Ethanol Ethene
Role of H2SO4 : It works as a catalyst to initiate the reaction to loses water molecule to form alkene.
[CBSE Marking Scheme 2015] 1+1+1
Ans. 6 :
H C C H H C C H
1
It pure oxygen, ethyne undergoes complete combustion and high temperature suitable for welding
is attained. 1
Whereas air contains less percentage/amount of oxygen which results in incomplete combustion of
ethyne and the temperature required for welding is not attained. [CBSE Marking Scheme 2015] 1
Detailed Answer
Electron dot structure of ethyne —
H C C H
No, the mixture of ethyne and air cannot be used for welding because when ethyne is burnt is air, it
gives a sooty flame. This is due to incomplete combustion caused by limited supply of air. However,
if ethyne is burnt with oxygen, it gives a clean flame with temperature 3000°C because of complete
combustion. This oxy-acetylene flame is used for welding. It is not possible to attain such a high tem-
perature without mixing oxygen. 1+2
Ans. 7 : Methane, CH4
H C H
Hydrogen atoms can form one covalent bond, while carbon atoms can form four covalent bonds.
Four pairs of electrons are shared in a methane molecule (CH4).
When a mixture of methane and chlorine is exposed to ultraviolet light - typically sunlight - a substi-
tution reaction occurs and the organic product is chloromethane.
CH4 + Cl2 → CH3Cl + HCl
However, the reaction doesn’t stop there, and all the hydrogens in the methane can in turn be replaced
by chlorine atoms.
CH4 + Cl2 → CH3Cl + HCl
CH3Cl + Cl2 → CH2Cl2 + HCl
CH2Cl2 + Cl2 → CHCl3 + HCl [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2014] 2+3
qqq
P-8 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
Ans. 1 : When pure ethanoic acid is cooled, it freezes to form a colourless, ice-like liquid. This pure ethanoic
acid is called ethanoic acid (or glacial acetic acid). 1
Ans. 2 : The alkyl part (carbon chain) of an organic compound determines its physical properties whereas the
functional group determines its chemical properties. 1
Ans. 3 : (a) ‘X’ is CH3COOH and ‘Y’ is CH3COO CH2CH3. 1
H 2 SO4
(b) CH3COOH + C2H5OH 
→ CH3COOC2H5 + H O [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2011] 1
2
Ans. 4 :
S. No. Soaps Detergents
1. They are sodium salts of long chain These are sodium or potassium salts of sulphonic acids
fatty acids. of hydrocarbons.
2. Soaps cannot be used with hard water. Detergents work well with hard and soft water both.
3. They are fully They are non-

biodegradable. biodegradable.
4. They take time to dissolve in water. They dissolve faster in water.
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2011]½+½+½+½

Ans. 5 : Esters are the derivatives of carboxylic acids which contains —COOR group. The –OH group in an
acid is replaced by —O— alkyl or aryl group to form an ester. Esters are represented by the formula
R1COOR2 where R1 and R2 represent an alkyl or aryl group.
Preparation of esters : When carboxylic acids are heated with alcohols in the presence of an acid
catalyst, esters are produced.
O O
R–C + R'OH R–C + H2 O
O–H O–H'
Uses of esters :
(i) Esters are used in food as flavours and fragrances.
(ii) In making of soaps
(iii) Esters are used as solvents
(iv) Esters are used in medicines.
(v) Esters are used as emulsifying agents. (Any two) 1+1+1
Ans. 6 : (i) Ethanol is oxidised to ethanoic acid with the help of acidified K2Cr2O7
CH3CH2OH + 2[O] —→ CH3COOH + H2O
(ii) Ethanol reacts with sodium metal to form sodium ethoxide and hydrogen gas.
2C2H5OH + 2Na —→ 2C2H5ONa + H2
(iii) Ethene is formed when ethanol is heated at 443 K with concentrated sulphuric acid. Concentrated
sulphuric acid acts as a dehydrating agent in this reaction and removes a molecule of water in
this reaction.
H SO
CH CH2OH  2 4
→ CH2 = CH2 + H2O [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2014] 1+1+1
3 443 K
Ans. 7 : (a) The force of attraction between the molecules of covalent compounds are not strong as ionic
compounds. So, they have low melting and low boiling points. 1
(b) Esters are organic compounds which have sweet smell.
Activity :
Aim : To demonstrate esterification process using ethanol and acetic acid. 1
Materials Required : Beakers, water, test-tube, ethanol, ethanoic acid, conc. H2SO4.
S O L U T I ON P-9
Test-tube
cantaining
ethanol
ethanoic acid, Beaker
conc. H2SO4
Wire
gauge
Water
Tripod Burner
Stand
Procedure :
(i) Take 2 ml of ethanol in a test-tube. 1
(ii) Add 2 ml of ethanoic acid into it.
(iii) Add few drops of conc. H2SO4.
(iv) Warm it in a beaker containing water.
(v) Observe the smell of the products formed.
Observation : Pleasant fruity smelling compound (called ester) is formed. 1
Chemical Reaction
Conc.H SO
CH3COOH(l) + C2H5OH(l)  2 4
→ CH3COO2H5 + H 2O
Ethanoic acid Ethanol Ethyl ethanoate Water 1
Conclusion : Carboxylic acid reacts with alcohol in presence of conc. H2SO4 which act as a dehydrating
agent to from esters.
qqq
PRACTICAL BASED QUESTIONS WORKSHEET-9
Ans. 1 : (A) a clear transparent colourless solution.
Ans. 2 : (C) Red litmus remains red and blue litmus turns red.
Ans. 3 : (B) When ethanoic acid and distilled water are mixed with each other, they form a clear solution, as
ethanoic acid is completely miscible with water.
Ans. 4 : (D) When acetic acid and distilled water are mixed, they form a clear solution because acetic acid is
completely miscible with water.
Ans 5 : (A) The flame will be extinguished when test tube Z is brought near a burning splinter due to evolu-
tion of carbon dioxide gas, which does not support combustion.
Ans 6 : (B) Smells like vinegar and this acid turns blue litmus red.
Ans 7 : (B) Bubbles of a colourless and odourless gas.
Ans. 8 : Blue litmus solution, water, sodium hydrogen carbonate and calcium hydroxide solution. 2
Ans. 9 : Litmus water, blue litmus water, test-tubes, Passing tubes (any four).
Ans. 10 : Acetic acid is colourless liquid. It is miscible/soluble in water. (any or other physical property) On
adding a pinch of sodium hydrogen carbonate Brisk effervescence is observed.
Evolution of a colourless/odourless gas. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 2
Ans. 11 : (a) Handle ethanoic acid carefully.
(b) Add only small amount (0.01 g) of NaHCO3 or Na2CO3 to ethanoic acid to control the intensity
of CO2 evolved. 1+1
Ans. 12 : Neutralization reaction.
It is used in the form of vinegar, which is a dilute solution of ethanoic acid in water. 1+1
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FORMATIVE ASSESSMENT WORKSHEET- 10
Students do these activities theirselves.
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P-10 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
SECTION
CHAPTER
PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF
B
2 ELEMENTS
TOPIC-1
Periodic Laws and their Limitations
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT WORKSHEET- 11
Ans. 1 : The total number of periods in modern periodic table is seven. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1
Ans. 2 : There are 18 vertical columns in the modern periodic table and these are known as groups. ½ + ½
Ans. 3 : “Properties of elements are the periodic function of their atomic number.”
(a) There are 18 groups.
(b) There are 7 periods in the modern periodic table. [C.B.S.E. Marking Scheme, 2012] 1 + ½ + ½
Ans. 4 : The position of elements depends upon number of valence electrons which depend upon electronic
configuration. Those elements which have same valence electrons, occupy same group.
Those elements which have one valence electron belong to group 1. 1
Elements which have two valence electrons belong to group 2.
Period number is equal to the number of shells.
Example : Atomic number of sodium (Na) is 11, so electronic configuration will be 2, 8, 1. Sodium has
one valence electron in valence shell so it belongs to group 1. As sodium has three shells, so it belongs
to 3rd period. 1
Ans. 5 : (a) Mercury
(b) Bromine
(c) Helium or Neon or Argon (Any one) [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1 + 1 + 1
Ans. 6 : l For systematic and simplified study of elements and their compounds. ½
l Basic property : Atomic Number. ½
l Modern periodic Law : The properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic num-
ber. ½
l Metals are found on the left side and centre of the Modern Periodic Table. ½
l Metalloids are found in a zig-zag manner between the metals and the non-metals. ½
l Non-metals are found on the right side of the Modern Periodic Table. ½
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015]
Ans. 7 : (a) To study the properties of elements and to keep the elements with similar properties together.
1
(b) Chemical properties of elements and atomic number. 1
(c) Metals lies on extreme left, metalloids lie in the middle and non-metals lie on the right side. 2
(d) They should be placed in the same slot. Since they have same numbers of electrons.
qqq
Ans. 1 : There are seven horizontal rows in the modern periodic table, these rows are called periods. ½ + ½
Ans. 2 : 2n2, where n is the number of shell. 1
Ans. 3 : Mendeleev’s Periodic Law : “Properties of elements are the periodic function of their atomic masses.”
Achievements :
(i) It could classify all the elements discovered at that time.
(ii) It helped in discovery of new elements.
(iii) It helped in correction of atomic mass of some of the elements. (Any two) 1+½+½
S O L U T I ON P-11
Ans. 4 : (a) Dobereiner’s system of classification was failed to arrange all the elements in the form of triads
having similar chemical properties. Dobereiner’s could identify only three triads from the elements
known at that time. 1
(b) Mendeleev left some gaps in his periodic table for the elements yet to be discovered. He even
predicted the properties of these elements by studying the properties of the neighbouring ele-
ments. 1
Ans. 5 : (a) (i) Increasing order of atomic mass as physical properties and similarities in chemical properties
of elements.
(ii) The formulae and nature of hydrides and oxides formed by elements was treated as basic
chemical properties for its classification.
(b) Mendeleev’s Periodic Law : The properties of elements are the periodic function of their atomic
masses.
(c) It is because it resembles both with alkali metals as well as halogens. 1+1+1
Ans. 6 : (a) Henry Moseley
(b) Atomic number
(c) Modern Periodic Law : Properties of elements are the periodic functions of their atomic numbers.
[C.B.S.E. Marking Scheme, 2012] 1 + 1 + 1
Ans. 7 : (a) Gaps were left for undiscovered elements in the Periodic Table.
(b) (i) Position of hydrogen was not justified.
(ii) Increasing order of atomic mass could not be maintained.
(iii) Isotopes have similar chemical properties but different atomic masses, they cannot be given
separate places.
(c) Number of shells remains the same, number of valence electrons goes on increasing from left to
right in a period till octet is complete. e.g.,
Li Be B C N O F Ne
2, 1 2, 2 2, 3 2, 4 2, 5 2, 6 2, 7 2, 8
1+3+1
qqq
Ans. 1 : (i) They are unreactive.
(ii) They have zero valency. ½+½
Ans. 2 : It states “Properties of elements are periodic function of their atomic number.” 1
Ans. 3 : (i) Physical properties of elements are periodic function of their atomic masses.
(ii) Similar formula of oxides and hydrides formed by elements of same group was selected as chemi-
cal property as basis of classification.
The atomic number of hydrogen is 1 and hence, it should occupy the first position in group 1
of the periodic table. But because of its chemical similarity with elements of group 1 and 17, the
position of hydrogen in the periodic is not fixed. 2
Ans. 4 : (a) There are 18 groups and 7 periods in Mendeleev’s periodic table. 1
(b) (i) Elements show similar chemical properties in a group.
(ii) Same group of elements have similar outer electronic configuration having same valence
electrons. 2
Ans. 5 : (a) Borderline elements which are intermediate in properties between metals and non-metals are
called metalloids.
(b) Boron, silicon, germanium and arsenic. 1+½+½+½+½
Ans. 6 : (a) In the periodic table, elements are placed according to their electronic configuration. If an ele-
ment has only one shell in its electron configuration, it is placed in the first period. If the element
has two shells then it is placed in the second period. And so on. Vertical columns in the periodic
table are called groups.
There are eighteen groups and in a group all the elements have same number of valence
electrons. 1+1
(b) They will be placed at the same slot as their atomic number is same, valence electron and valency
are same and have same chemical properties. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] 1
P-12 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
Ans. 7 : (a) (i) Increasing order of atomic mass as physical property and similarities in chemical properties
of elements.
(ii) The formulae and nature of hydrides and oxides formed by elements was treated as basic
chemical property for its classification.
(b) Mendeleev’s Periodic Law : Properties of elements are the periodic functions of their atomic
masses.
(c) It is because it resembles both with alkali metals as well as halogens.
(d) (i) Atomic size goes on decreasing from left to right because one proton and one electron is be-
ing added successively therefore, force of attraction between valence electrons and nucleus
increases, therefore, atomic size decreases.
(ii) The atomic size goes on increasing from top to bottom in a group because number of shells
keep on increasing therefore, distance between nucleus and valence electrons increases.
1+1+1+2
qqq
TOPIC-2
Periodic Elements and Periodic Properties

Ans. 1 : Due to the presence of 2 electrons in the valence shell and similar chemical.
Ans. 2 : First group elements are also known as alkali metals. They possess following properties :
1. These elements exhibit +1 valency.
2. These are very reactive that do not found freely in nature. ½+½
Ans. 3 : (a) Atomic radius decreases. 1
(b) Metallic character decreases. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] 1
Ans. 4 : (i) Atomic size ½

(ii) Valency or combining capacity ½
(iii) Metallic property ½
(iv) Non-metallic property. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] ½
Ans. 5 : The distance from centre of nucleus to outermost shell of an atom is atomic radius.
Atomic radius decreases across a period because electron is added in the same shell. So attraction
between nucleus and valence shell increases due to which outermost shell is pulled in closer to the
nucleus. [CBSE Marking scheme, 2015] 1+2
Ans. 6 : (a) Non-metals

(b) (i) Increases
(ii) Decreases [CBSE Marking scheme, 2015] 1+1+1
Ans. 7 : Na (Sodium), Mg (Magnesium) and Al(Aluminium) are metals. Si (Silicon) is a metalloid. P (Phospho-
rus), S (Sulphur) and Cl (Chlorine) are non-metals. 2
As we go from left to right across the third period, metallic character decreases and non-metallic
character increases. 2
The most metallic element in the third period is Na and the most non-metallic element is C. 1
qqq
Ans. 1 : Atomic number of X = 2 + 8 + 2 = 12
Atomic number of Y = 2 + 8 + 6 = 16 ½+½
Ans. 2 : A and C will show similar properties because they have same number of valence electrons. 1
S O L U T I ON P-13
Ans. 3 : (a) Mg : 2, 8, 2 Al : 2, 8, 3 ½+½
(b) 3rd period because electrons in these atoms are filled in K, L, M shells. 1
Ans. 4 : It will be 7 in X as well as in Z. 1

The reason being that number of electrons in the outermost shell in the elements in same group is
same. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] 1
Ans. 5 : (i) Na/Sodium.

Reason : The atomic size decreases from left to right due to the increase in the nuclear charge.
(ii) All/Aluminium.
Reason : The tendency to lose electrons decreases from left to right.
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1½ + 1½
Detailed Answer
(i) Na will have the largest atomic radius as atomic size goes on decreasing along a period from
left to right. It is due to increase in nuclear charge (number of protons in nucleus) which pulls
the electrons towards it, i.e., force of attraction between nucleus and valence electrons increases,
therefore atomic size decreases.
(ii) Al is least reactive because reactivity of an element depend upon the ability of its atoms to donate
or accept electrons. Tendency to lose electrons along a period generally decrease with decreases
in atomic size, i.e., the force of attraction between the valence electrons and the nucleus increases,
therefore electrons cannot be removed easily. 1+2
Ans. 6 : (a) They all belong to group 2 because all three have 2 electrons in their outermost shell.
(b) Be is least reactive because it has 2 shells and due to more nuclear change it is not easy to take
electrons from it.
(c) Ca is the element having largest atomic radius because it has 4 shells. 1+1+1
Ans. 7 : (a) Formulae of these compounds are XSO4, X3(PO4)2. 2
(b) It belongs to group 2nd and 3rd period. 2
(c) It will form ionic compounds as it can lose two electrons to acquire stable electronic configura-
tion. 1
qqq
Ans. 1 : Group 1 elements have 1 valence electron while Group 2 elements have 2 valence electrons. ½+½
Ans. 2 : Period – 3, Group – 2. 1
Ans. 3 : (a) Nitrogen : K shell-2 L shell-5 ½
Phosphorus : K shell-2 L shell-8 M shell-5 ½
(b) Phosphorus will be less electronegative because its electrons are further away from the nucleus and
thus nucleus can be easily lost. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] 1
Ans. 4 : (a) 1 pm = 10–12 m. 1

Atomic radius = 37 × 10–12 m.
(b) In a group atomic size : increases down the group ½
In a period automic size : decreases in moving from left to right. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] ½
Ans. 5 : Electronic configuration of Q : 2, 8, 3
Valency of Q : 3 1
Electronic Configuration of R : 2, 8, 5
Valency of R : 8 – 5 = 3 1
Electronic configuration of P : 2, 8, 1
Electronic configuration of S : 2, 8, 7 1
Formula : PS/NaCl
Ans. 6 : No. of periods : 7 ½
Valency across a period increases from 1 to 4, then decreases from 4 to Zero. 1
P-14 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
Metallic character of elements across a period decreases. ½
Valency down a group remains the same ½
Atomic size of elements down a group increases. ½
Ans. 7 : (a) Neon has two shells, both of which are completely filled with electrons (2 electrons in K shell and
8 electrons in L shell). 1
(b) Magnesium has the electronic configuration, 2, 8, 2. 1
(c) Silicon has a total of three shells, with four electrons in its valence shell (2 electrons in K shell, 8
electrons in L shell and 4 electrons in M shell). 1
(d) Boron has a total of two shells, with three electrons in its valence shell (2 electrons in K shell and 3
electrons in L shell). 1
(e) Carbon has twice as many electrons in its second shell as in its first shell (2 electrons in K shell
and 4 electrons in L shell). 1
qqq
Ans. 1 : The two elements X and Y will show same chemical properties because they have same number of
valence electrons in group. They form positively charged ions by losing one electron. ½+½
Ans. 2 : Atomic number of X = 2, 8, 7 = 17
Atomic number of Y = 2, 8, 8, 3 = 21 ½+½
Ans. 3 : (i) From top to bottom in group - metallic character increases. 1
(ii) From left to right in a period - metallic character decreases. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] 1
Ans. 4 : It is three in Na, Al and P. 1

Elements with the same number of occupied shells are placed in same period. 1
Ans. 5 :
Elements Valence electrons Period
A 1 3
B 3 3
C 5 3
D 7 3
2 2 6 1
Electronic configuration of A : 1s 2s 2p 3s
Electronic configuration of D : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5
Molecular formula of the compound formed with A and D
Atomic number of A = 11
Electronic configuration A = 2, 8, 1
Number of valence electrons of A = 1
Valency of A = 1
Atomic number of D = 17
Electronic configuration D = 2, 8, 7
Number of valence electrons of D = 7
Valency of D = 8 – 7 = 1
Element D A
Valency 1 1
So, the formula of the compound formed when elements A and D combine is AD. 1+1+1
Ans. 6 : (a) (i) Valency : The combining power or the combining capacity of an atom is called its valency.
(ii) Atomic size: Atomic size or atomic radius is the distance between the centre of the nucleus
and the outermost shell of an isolated atom.
(b) On moving from left to right in the periodic table, valency increases up to 4 and then decreases
The electrons present in the last shell determine the valency of a particular element.
S O L U T I ON P-15
If the number of valence electrons is less than or equal to 4, valency = number of valence electrons
If the number of valence electrons is more than 4, valency = 8 - number of valence electrons
Atomic size decreases along a period. This is because on moving across a period, the number of valence
shells remains the same and the electrons increase by one unit. As a result, the nuclear charge increases
and thus, the atomic radius decreases. 1+1+½+½
Ans. 7 : (a) Magnesium.
(b) Electronic configuration is 2, 8, 2
(c) 2 Mg +O2 → 2MgO
(d) MgO + H2O → Mg(OH)2
(e) Mg → Mg+2 + 2e–
2, 8, 2 2, 8
O + 2e– → O–2
2,6 2,8
2+ 2–
(Mg ) ( O ) is electron dot structure. 1+1+1+1+1
qqq
qqq
P-16 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
CHAPTER
SECTION
HOW DO ORGANISMS
B
3 REPRODUCE ?
TOPIC-1
Basics of Reproduction, Asexual Reproduction
and Vegetative Propagation
Ans. 1 : Planaria and Hydra. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] ½ + ½
Ans. 2 : Reproduction. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1

Ans. 3 : Two differences between binary fission and multiple fission are :
Binary Fission Multiple Fission
(i) It is the division of one cell into two similar or It is the process, in which many individuals are
identical cells. formed from a single individual.
(ii) The nucleus first divides amitotically into two, The nucleus of the cell divides repeatedly,
followed by the division of the cytoplasm. producing many nuclei.
1+1
Ans. 4 : The first step in sexual reproduction is gamete formation. In this step, the number of chromosomes
gets halved. Thus, each gamete receives half the number of chromosomes to that of somatic cells.
During fertilisation, the fusion of male and female gametes takes place, which results in the number
of chromosomes in the zygote to be equal to that of somatic cells. Thus, the chromosomal number of
the sexually producing parents and their offspring is the same. 2
Ans. 5 : (a) Rhizopus.
(b) Reproductive-Sporangia.
Non-reproductive-Hyphae [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1 + 1 + 1
Ans. 6 : (a) Planaria is a type of flatworm. It has the amazing capacity to regenerate its lost body part. When
the flatworm is cut horizontally, separating the head from the tail, the tail will regenerate the
lost head and the head will regenerate the lost tail. This process is known as regeneration. The
diagram illustrating the process of regeneration in Planaria is given below.
Regeneration of Planaria 2
(b) Specialized cells or Regenerative cells. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1
Ans. 7 : (a) (i) Fission, (ii) Budding, (iii) Fragmentation, (iv) Spore formation, (v) Vegetative propagation.
(b) Regeneration : See Q. No. 6 (a) (Worksheet-19) (SAQ 3 marks)
Budding : In Hydra, a bud develops as an out-growth due to repeated cell divisions at one specific
site. These buds develop into tiny individuals, when full mature they detach from the parent body
and start independent existence. For diagram See Q. No. 3 (a) (Worksheet-20) 2+3
qqq
Ans. 1 : Leishmania, Binary fission. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1
S O L U T I ON P-17
Ans. 2 : DNA is the carrier of hereditary information from parents to the next generation/Hereditary
material present in all living cells. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1
Ans. 3 :
Tentacles
Bud
(2)
Ans. 4 Four modes of asexual reproduction are :
(1) Binary Fission
(2) Budding
(3) Multiple Fission
(4) Fragmentation ½×4
Ans. 5 : Difference between Sexual and Asexual reproduction :
Sexual Reproduction Asexual Reproduction
(i) It involves two parents. It involves only one parent.
(ii) Gametes are produced. Gametes are not produced.
(iii) Genetic variation occurs in the offspring. Offsprings are identical.
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1 + 1 + 1
Ans. 6 : When Planaria is cut into many pieces, each piece grows into a complete organism; this regeneration
process is carried out by specialized cell; which proliferate; develop and differentiate into various
cell types and tissues. ½×4
Regeneration is not same as reproduction as most of the organisms would not normally depend on
being cut up to be able to reproduce. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1
Ans. 7 : (a)
S. No. Sexual Reproduction Asexual Reproduction
1. It produces new organism from two parents. It produces new organism from a single parent.
2. It involves sex cells or gametes. It does not involves sex cells or gametes.
3. Offspring’s are not identical to the parents. Offspring’s are identical to the parents.
(b) Sexual reproduction promotes diversity of characters in the offsprings. It result in new combina-
tions of genes brought together in the gamete and this reshuffling increases genetic variation. It
plays a prominent role in the origin of new species. The sexual mode of reproduction incorporates
process of combining DNA from two different individuals during reproduction. 3+2
qqq
TOPIC-2
Sexual Reproduction in Plants

Ans. 1 : Sepals/calyx
Petals/corolla
Thalamus (Any two) [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] ½ + ½
Ans. 2 : Each pollen grain produced two male gametes. 1
Ans. 3 : (a) After fertilization, ovules become seeds and ovary forms the fruit. ½+½
(b) Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of a flower. ½
Fertilization is the fusion of male and female gametes. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] ½
P-18 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
Ans. 4 : Unisexual is the plant whose flowers contain either stamens or carpels but not both.
Example : Papaya, watermelon.
Bisexual is the plant whose flowers contain both stamens and carpels.
Example : Hibiscus, Mustard. 1+1
Longitudinal section of a flower [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2011] 1 + 1
Ans. 5 :
Male germ-cell
Ovule
Ovary
Female
germ-cell
Drawing 1
Four correct labeling, viz., ovary, male germ cell, female germ cell and ovule. ½×4
Ans. 6 : (a) Sepals and petals : Sepals in the calyx cup protect the flower in the bud stage. They persist in
the fruit. Petals of insect pollinated flowers are brightly colored and scented to attract bees and
butterflies for pollination. They are colorless and inconspicuous in wind pollinated flowers.
(b) Stamen : This is the male reproductive part of the flower. The anther produces pollen grains.
(c) Carpel : It has a swollen bottom part called ovary, a middle elongated part called style and a sticky
terminal part called stigma. The ovary contains ovules which contain the female gametes - the
eggs. 1+1+1
Ans. 7 : (a) Unisexual flowers : Cucumber, pumpkin, water melon, papaya, etc.
Bisexual flowers : Hibiscus, rose, lily, etc. (Any one example)
(b) Changes in a flower after fertilisation : The outer layers of the ovule become impervious and
hard and function as a seed coat. An ovule with an embryo inside is called a seed.
The ovary enlarges and ripens to become a fruit. Other floral parts such as sepals, petals, stamens,
styles and stigma may fall off. However, in some cases, they remain persistent in the fruit.
(c) Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) copying is an essential part of reproduction, as it passes genetic
information from parents to offspring. The reproducing cells produce a copy of their DNA through
some chemical reactions and result in two copies of DNA. The copying of DNA always takes place
along with the creation of additional cellular structure. This process is then followed by the divi-
sion of a cell into two cells. In this way, the amount of DNA remains constant through each new
generation. 1+2+2
qqq
Ans. 1 : The functions of petals is to attract insects for pollination and to protect the reproductive organs, which
are at the centre of the flower. 1
Ans. 2 : Pollen grains fertilise the egg cell present in the embryo sac. 1
Ans. 3 : (i) It is necessary for seed formation and thus, perpetuation of species.
(ii) It stimulates the development of fruits.
S O L U T I ON P-19
(iii) Cross-pollination brings about genetic recombination (Any two) 1 + 1
Ans. 4 : (i) Self pollination can be between the same flower.
(ii) It can take place between two different flower of the same plant. 1+1
Ans. 5 : The three parts of carpel are :
(a) Ovary — It contains the ovule.
(b) Style — It exposes the stigma for pollination.
(c) Stigma — It is sticky and receives the pollen grains during pollination. 1+1+1
Ans. 6 : (a) Self pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from anthers to the stigma of the same flower or
another flower of the same plant. 1
Occurs in bisexual flowers.
Cross pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from anthers to the stigma of another flower
borne on another plant of the same species.
It occurs in unisexual as well as bisexual flowers. 1
(b) The pollen tube which carries male gamete, travels through the style to reach the ovary. The
ovary contains ovules. Each ovule has an egg cell. The fusion of male gamete and female gamete,
called fertilization, gives rise to the zygote.
The zygote is capable of growing into a new plant. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] 1
Ans. 7 :
Pollen grain
Stigma
Male germ-cell
Pollen tube
Ovary
Female
germ-cell

The fusion of male and female gametes of all sexually-reproducing organisms is called fertilization.
2+2+1
qqq
TOPIC-3
Reproduction in Human Beings

Ans. 1 : Sperms are produced in testes and eggs are produced in ovary.
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2014] ½ + ½
Ans. 2 : Because hundreds of biochemical reactions occur during preparation of DNA copies. Few of them are
liable to run and form a different product and hence they are not identical to the original. Thus, this
gives rise to variations. 1
Ans. 3 : Difference between sperms and eggs of humans :
The major genetic differences lies in the difference in sex chromosome of sperm (male gamete) and
egg ( female gamete). Sperm has Y chromosome as sex chromosome, while egg has X chromosome as
sex chromosome.
Importance of the difference :
The difference in the sperm and egg cells maintains the continuity of the species generation after
generation by the process of reproduction. 1+1
P-20 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
Ans. 4 : Uterus by undergoing cyclic changes prepares itself for receiving the zygote and supporting its fur-
ther growth into foetus every month in anticipation of pregnancy. The inner layer of uterus called
endometrium becomes thickened to support the growth of foetus. 1+1
Ans. 5 : (i) Germ-cells from two individuals combine.
(ii) Chromosome number and DNA content is halved in special linkage cells in specialized organs.
(iii) Takes place in reproductive cells maintaining the DNA content. 1+ 1 + 1
Ans. 6 : l Four methods

(i) Mechanical or barrier method OR Male or female condoms
(ii) Use of hormonal preparations OR Oral Pills/i-pill/Saheli.
(iii) Use of loop or coper T OR IUCD
(iv) Surgical method OR tubectomy/vasectomy ½×4
l Effect on health & prosperity :
(i) Health of women is maintained.
(ii) Parents can give more attention to children.
(iii) More resources can be made available. (Any two) [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] ½ × 2
Detailed Answer
The four methods of contraceptions used by humans are :
(i) Mechanical barrier method.
(ii) Chemical methods
(iii) Oral Pills
(iv) Surgical methods
Sexual act always has the potential to pregnancy. pregnancy makes major demand on the body and
mind of woman and if she is not ready, her health will be adversely affected. Contraceptive methods
help in avoiding pregnancy and also help in keeping gaps between two children so that women’s
body recovers. These methods help in limiting number of children one or two. 2+1
Ans. 7 : (a) Functions :
(i) Ovary—Ovary perform dual functions of production of female gamete or ovum and the
secretion of female sex hormones, estrogen and progesterone.
(ii) Oviduct—It carry ova or eggs from the ovary to the uterus.
(iii) Uterus—It is a hollow pear-shaped organ within which the embryo develops.
(b) The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called pla-
centa.
This is a disc which is embedded in the uterine wall and transfer glucose and oxygen from the
mother to the embryo. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 3 + 2
qqq
Ans. 1 : Oviduct or Fallopian tube. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1
Ans. 2 : Formation of Sperms and to secrete hormone. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] ½ + ½
Ans. 3 : Seminal vesicles are a pair of thin walled muscular sac which secretes fluid for nourishment of Sperms.
Prostate gland provides nourishment and transportation of sperm. 1+1
Ans. 4 : (a) Testes produce sperm.
(b) Testes produce male sex hormone called testosterone. 1+1
Ans. 5 : Four points of significance of reproductive health are :
(i) It helps the person to lead a normal life.
(ii) Its helps in the awareness of sexually transmitted diseases.
(iii) It helps in improving the reproductive life
(iv) It also help in controlling population. 2+1
OR
Significance - prevent STDS, Advantage of small family, less mortality among new borns, Reduces
the cases of maternal mortality. 3
S O L U T I ON P-21
Ans. 6 : Placenta is a specialized tissue embedded in the uterine wall. It contains villi on the embryo’s side
and blood spaces on the mother’s side.
Function—Helps in exchange of nutrients, gases and wastes materials between the mother and em-
bryo/foetus. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 3
Ans. 7 : (a) Testes are the oval-shaped primary reproductive organs in man. Its function is to produce sperm
and male sex hormone called testosterone.
Testosterone hormone initiates the development of secondary sexual characters in male 2
(b) (i) Oviduct ½
(ii) Uterus. ½
(c) See Q. No. 7 (c) (Worksheet - 23) [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 2
qqq
PRACTICAL BASED QUESTIONS WORKSHEET- 25
Ans. 1 : (A) After binary fission, two daughter nuclei are formed. 1
Ans. 2 : (D) Bud always forms a chain of bud and then detaches from the parent cell. 1
Ans. 3 : (B) Two nuclei in centrally constructed Amoeba, one in yeast cell, one in bud. 1
Ans. 4 : (B) Karyokinesis takes place before cytokines is. 1
Ans. 5 : (A) A is nucleus of bud, B is bud, C is yeast, D is nucleus. 1
Ans. 6 : (D) Binary fission begins with elongation of the nucleus. 1
Ans. 7 : (B) In Budding, the nucleus first divides then cytoplasm. 1
Ans. 8 : (A) Yeast bud do not separate from the parent cell as they form chain of buds. 1
Ans. 9 : (i) An organism having elongated and constricted nucleus.
(ii) An organism having two nuclei with constriction in between. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015]
1+1
Ans. 10 : (i) Division of the nucleus.
(ii) Division of cytoplasm. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1 + 1
Ans. 11 : Type of asexual reproduction is Binary fission.
Constriction of nucleus
two daughter amoebae
1+1
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P-22 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
CHAPTER
SECTION
B
4 HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION
TOPIC-1
Heredity and Mendel’s Contribution

Ans. 1 : DNA is found in the cell nucleus. 1
Ans. 2 : Gene is a part of DNA that encodes the instructions that allow a cell to produce a specific protein or
enzyme. 1
Ans. 3 : Male individual have 46 chromosomes but because the gametes are always haploid i.e., they have half
the number of chromosomes; sperms will be haploid (23 chromosomes). Female individual also con-
tains only 23 chromosomes in egg. It is the fusion of the sperm and egg which leads to an offspring’s
with 46 chromosomes. 2
Ans. 4 : F1 generation refers to the offspring resulting immediately from a cross of the first set of parents. 1
F2 generation on the other hand, refers to the offspring resulting from a cross among the members of
F1 generation. 1
Ans. 5 : If both the characters present in F1 generation pass together in F2 generation, then gametes and
offsprings would receive double dose of information, that will be abnormal. 3
Ans. 6 : Sex of a child depends on what happens during fertilisation.

(i) If a sperm carrying X chromosomes fertilises an ovum which carries X chromosome, then the
child born will be a girl.
(ii) If a sperm carrying Y chromosome fertilises an ovum which carries X-chromosome, then the
child born will be boy.

Thus, sperm (from father) determines the sex of the child.
Mother’s Ova Father’s Sperm
Gametes X X X Y
Zygote XX XX XY XY
Offsprings Female Child Male Child

(Girl) (Boy)
Ans. 7 : (a) Yes, eye colour and height are genetically inherited traits, as these are expressed by genes. No,
weight lifting and reading French are acquired traits. 3
(b) Variations in individuals during sexual reproduction gives survival advantages to them, and
help them to adapt even in extreme environments. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 2
qqq
Ans. 1 : The transmission of characteristics from one generation to another is known as heredity. 1
Ans. 2 : No two individuals are absolutely alike in a population because variation arises due to DNA copy-
ing. 1
S O L U T I ON P-23
Ans. 3 : The genes controlling a particular trait separate from each other during gamete formation. Hence
gamete is always pure as far as contrasting characters are considered and will possess only one gene
set. 2
Ans. 4 : In asexually reproducing organisms, there is no mixing of genes of two different individuals since
only one partner is involved. 1
There are very minor variations generated in such organisms due to small inaccuracies in DNA copy-
ing. 1
Ans. 5 : Yes, it is possible. 1
Example—When pure tall pea plants are crossed with pure dwarf pea plants, only tall pea plants are
obtained in F1 generation. ½
On selfing tall plants of F1, both tall and dwarf plants are obtained in F2 gernation in the ratio
3 : 1. ½
Reapearance of the dwarf character, a recessive trait in F2 generation shows that the dwarf trait/
character was present in individuals of F1 but it did not expressed (due to the presence of tallness, a
dominant trait/character). [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1
Ans. 6 :
Acquired Traits Inherited Traits
(i) These traits are the characteristics which are These are the characteristics
developed during the lifetime of an individual. transmitted from parents to the offspring.
(ii) Acquired traits are not passed on to the next Inherited traits is genetically determined
generation. e.g., Less body weight due to charactersistic that distinguishes a person. e.g.,
starvation. colour of hair and eye.
1½ + 1½
rd
Ans. 7 : 23 pairs of chromosomes are present in human beings. 23 pair is sex chromosome. Human beings
have 1 unpaired sex chromosome. Sex chromosome of male is XY and of female is XX.
Sex of a child depends on what happens at fertilisation.
Mother’s Ova Father’s Sperm
X X X Y
Gametes
Zygote
off springs
XX XX XY XY
Daughter Son
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1 + 1 + 1 + 2

qqq
Ans. 1 : (i) Genetics is the study of mechanism by which variations are created and inherited.
(ii) Evolution is used for studying the development of new types of organisms from the existing
ones. ½+½
Ans. 2 : Cellular DNA is the information source for making proteins in cells. 1
Ans. 3 : Characteristics are details of appearance of behaviour, in other words, a particular form or a particular
function. Presence of four limbs in humans in an example of characteristics. 2
Ans. 4 : In crossing, if two or more traits are involved, their genes assort independently, irrespective of the
combinations present in the parents. 1
So, new combinations of genes appear in the offsprings leading to new traits. 1
Ans. 5 : DNA replication or DNA copying is the process of producing two identical replicas from one original
DNA molecule during cell division.
P-24 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
Importance of DNA Copying—
(i) DNA replication needs to occur so that during cell division, new cells will also have a copy of
organism’s DNA.
(ii) DNA is necessary to make all the RNA and proteins needed for cells carry out necessary reactions
and cellular processes in order for them to survive. 1+ 1 + 1
Ans. 6 : Experience achieved during the lifetime of an individual does not make any change in the gene of
the individual. For example, if a person read a book on birds, the knowledge he earns by reading the
book does not make any change in the gene, the hence, this knowledge will not get automatically
transmitted to his next generation. Such trait is called acquired trait. 3
Ans. 7 : (a) Mendel conducted experiment on garden pea plant selecting seven visible contrasting characters.
He selected and crossed homozygous tall pea plant having the genotype TT with a homozygous
dwarf pea plant having the genotype tt. F1 generation consists only of tall plants having genotype
Tt.
The expressed allele T for tallness is dominant over the unexpressed allele t for dwarfness. Hence
the trait of tallness is dominant while dwarfness or shortness is the recessive characteristics. Thus,
Mendel’s experiment shows that traits may be dominant or recessive.
(b) Mendel performed an experiment in which he took two different traits like tall and dwarf plant
and round and wrinkled seeds. In F2 (second) generation, some plants were tall with round seeds
and some were dwarf with wrinkled seeds. There would also be dwarf plants having round
seeds. Thus, the tall/short traits and round/wrinkled seed traits are independently inherited.
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 2½ + 2½
qqq
Ans. 1 : All the plants would be tall plants (Tt). 1
Ans. 2 : Comparing the DNA of different species gives a direct estimate of how much the DNA has changed
during the formation of these species. Thus, it helps us to a great extent in tracing the evolutionary
pathways. 1
Ans. 3 : Genes are located on chromosomes in linear sequence and at fixed positions. 1
Chemically genes are made up of nucleic acids which constitute DNA. 1
Ans. 4 : As the population of the given species reproduce asexually there would be only very minor differ-
ences generated due to small inaccurancies in DNA copying, so trait B is likely to be arisen earlier as
it is present in 60% of the population. 1
Trait A which exists in 10% of the population may be originated due to variations. 1
Ans. 5 : Chromosomes are long thread-like structures which contain hereditary information of the individual
and are thereby the carriers of genes.
During sexual reproduction, a female gamete or egg cell fuses with a male gamete or sperm cell which
are haploid to form zygote. Zygote is diploid which contains 23 chromosomes from mother and 23
from father. In this way, an equal genetic contribution of male and female parents is ensured in the
progeny. 1+2
Ans. 6 : (a) All the flowers in F1 generation will have dominant blue colour.
(b) When F1 plants were selfed, the percentage of white flower in F2 generation will be 25%.
(c) Genotype of BB and BW in the F2 progeny are 1 : 2.
BB WW
BW on self pollination
BB BW BW WW
Blue Blue Blue White
Colour Colour Colour Colour
Flower Flower Flower Flower
1+1+1
S O L U T I ON P-25
Ans. 7 : (i) Traits : A characteristic feature is called trait. 1
(ii) Inherited Traits are the traits which are transferred from parents to young ones.
Acquired Traits are the traits which an organism acquires in life time. 2
(iii) Formation of new species from the existing ones is called speciation.
Factors which could lead to the rise of new species are : geographical isolation, genetic drift, natural
selection. 2
qqq
TOPIC-2
Origin of Life and Evolution

Ans. 1 : Speciation is the evolution of reproductive isolation among once interbreeding populations i.e., the
development of one or more species from an existing species. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1
Ans. 2 : Charles Darwin proposed that evolution of species occurred by natural selection. 1
Ans. 3 : The consequences are as follows :
(i) They switched to new type of food and entered new niches.
(ii) This lead to arise of diverse variety of beetles as some changes in beetles will take place to make
them adaptable to new niches. 1+1
Ans. 4 : Deoxy Ribonucleic Acid. It is located in the cell nucleus. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2014] 1+1
Ans. 5 : (a) The two basic characteristics that decide about analogy and homology are origin structures and
function.
(b) In prokaryotic organism no true nucleus is found. Therefore, nucleus is absent.
In eukaryotic organisms true nucleus is found. [CBSE Marking Scheme 2015] 1 + 1 + 1
Ans. 6 :
Homologous Organs Analogous Organs
(i) They have same basic structural design. They have different basic structural design.
(ii) They perform different functions. They perform similar functions.
(iii) Their appearances are different. They have similar appearances.
[CBSE Marking Scheme 2015] 1 + 1 + 1
Ans. 7 : (a) It is an evolutionary process by which new species arise.
Factors :
(i) Geographical isolation
(ii) Genetic drift
(iii) Natural selection
(b) (Any two with explanation)
(i) Genetic Drift : It is the random change in the frequency of alleles in a population over
successive generations due to sampling error in the gametes. Each new generation differs
from its parental generation with regard to the allele frequencies simply because of random
variation in the distribution of gametes.
This process is more rapid in smaller population, hence genetic drift can cause less of genetic
diversity if there are no counteracting factors.
(ii) Natural Selection : It is the process, according to Darwin, which brings about the evolution of
new species of animals and plants. Darwin found that variations existed between individu-
als of the population and concluded that disease, competition and other forces acting on the
population eliminated those individuals which are less well adapted to their environment.
The surviving population would pass the hereditary advantageous characteristic to their
offsprings [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1+1+1½+1½
qqq
P-26 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
Ans. 1 : Two factors that could lead to speciation are—
(i) Genetic drift
(ii) Reproductive isolation. ½+½
Ans. 2 : The figure shows the fossil of an invertebrate animal—Ammonite. 1
Ans. 3 : (i) If we dig into the earth and start finding fossils, it can be assumed that the fossils closer to the
surface are more recent to those found in the deeper layers.
(ii) By detecting the ratios of different isotopes of the same element in the fossil material. 1 + 1
Ans. 4 : Natural selection, genetic drift, variations and geographical isolation can lead to speciation in sexually
reproducing organisms. ½×4=2
Ans. 5 : Speciation is the evolution of reproductive isolation among once interbreeding population.
Factors which can lead to speciation are—
(i) Genetic drift : Over generation, genetic drift may accumulate which lead to speciation.
(ii) Natural selection may work differently in different location which may give rise to speciation.
(iii) Severe DNA change
(iv) A variation may occur which does not allow sexual act between two groups. 1+2
[CBSE Marking Scheme 2015]
Ans. 6 : (a) Homologous organs : Forelimb of human and bird are homologous organs. They have same
structural design and developmental origin but they have different functions and appearance.
Homologous organs help us to understand that the organism have evolved from a common
ancestor. The more common characteristics the two species have the more closely they are
related.
(b) Analogous organs : Analogous organs are those organs which have different basic structural
design and development origin but have similar appearance and perform similar functions.
Example : The wings of birds and bats look similar but have different design in their structure.
They have a common function of flying but their origins are not common. So, birds and bats
are not closely related.
(c) Fossils and their study is useful in knowing about the species which are no longer alive. They
provide evidence and missing links between two classes. They are helpful in forming a sequence
of organisms in the pathway of evolution. Thus, fossils have an importance in deciding evolu-
tionary relationship. Archaeopteryx is a fossil bird. It had feathers, fused bones and beak which
are exclusively bird structures. It also had some features which are found in reptiles e.g., teeth
in jaw, claws on free fingers and a long tail. This fossil provides a clue that birds have evolved
from reptiles. [CBSE Marking Scheme 2015] 1+1+1
Ans. 7 : Speciation—Formation of new species from pre-existing ones. 1

Factors :
(i) Mutations
(ii) Natural selection
(iii) Genetic drift
(iv) Geographical Isolation ½×4
Geographical isolation cannot be a major factor in the speciation of a self pollinating plant species. 1
Reason—Physical barrier cannot be created in self pollinating plants. 1
qqq
Ans. 1 : The only progressive trend in evolution seems to be that more and more complex body designs have
emerged over a period of time. 1
Ans. 2 : Farmers carried out artificial selection of plants with slightly larger leaves in the wild cabbage and
came up with a leafy vegetable called kale. 1
Ans. 3 : (i) A self-pollinating plant species 1
(ii) A species reproducing asexually 1
Ans. 4 : The field of evolution and classification are interlinked in the following manner :
S O L U T I ON P-27
The more characteristics two species have in common, the more closely they are related. Clas-

sification of species is a reflection of their evolutionary relationship. 1
 The more number of characteristics shared by two organisms, more is the probability of their
having common ancestors. 1
Thus, classification of an organism is the reflection of its evolutionary path.
Ans. 5 : (a) Speciation : It is the evolution of reproductive isolation among once–interbreeding populations
i.e., the development of one or more species from an existing species.
Factors which can lead to speciation are :
(i) Genetic drift may accumulate which lead to speciation.
(ii) Natural selection may work differently in different location which may give rise to specia-
tion.
(iii) Severe DNA change.
(iv) A variation may occur which does not allow sexual act between two group.
(b)
Natural Selection : (i) There is natural variation within any population and same individuals
have more favourable variations than others.
(ii) Population remains fairly constant even through all species produce a large number of
offsprings.
(iii) This is due to ‘competition‘ or struggle for existence between same and different species.
(iv) The struggle for survival within population eliminates the unfit individuals and those with
‘favourable variations‘ survive and pass on these variations to their progeny to continue.
This is called natural selection. The favourable variations are accumulated over a long time
period leading to the origin of a new species. [CBSE Marking Scheme 2015] 1½ + 1½
Ans. 6 : (a) Yes, eyes can be grouped together, which have evolved over generation from imperfect eyes in
Planaria to perfect eyes in vertebrates.
(b) Dinosaur is a type of reptile which has wings. Birds also have wings, so it can be proved that
birds have evolved from reptiles. [CBSE Marking Scheme 2015] 1½ + 1½
Ans. 7 : J.B.S. Haldane suggested that life must have developed from the simple inorganic molecules which
were present on earth soon after it was formed. He speculated that the conditions on earth at that
time could have given rise to more complex organic molecules that were necessary for life. The first
primitive organisms would arise from further chemical synthesis. 2
Later, Stanley L. Miller and Harold C. Urey conducted experiment to find out about the origin of organic
molecules. They assembled an atmosphere similar to that thought to exist on early earth (molecules
like ammonia, methane and hydrogen sulphide, but no oxygen over water). This was maintained at a tem-
perature just below 100ºC and sparks were passed through the mixture of gases of stimulate lightning. 2
At the end of a week, 15% of the carbon had been converted to simple compounds of carbon including
amino acids which make up protein molecules. 1
This is how life originated from inanimate matter.
qqq
Ans. 1 : Long tentacles. 1
Ans. 2 : Favourable variation helps a species to adapt to change in their environment and they promote survival
of the species. 1
Ans. 3 : No. 1
A wing of a butterfly and wing of a bat can’t be considered homologous organs because wings of a bat
are skin folds in between the fingers and wings of a butterfly are membrane supported by muscles.
They are analogous organs. 1
Ans. 4 : No. 1
Geographical isolation prevents gene flow between populations of a species whereas asexual repro-
duction generally involves only one individual. In an asexually reproducing organism, variations can
occur only when the copying of DNA is not accurate. Therefore, geographical isolation cannot prevent
the formation of new species in an asexually reproducing organism. 1
P-28 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
Ans. 5 : l Flowchart
Parents
Male Female
(XY) (XX)
Gametes
X
X Y
Zygote
XX XY
Offsprings
Female Male
½+½+½+½
l Justification : Women produce only one type of ovum/(carrying X chromosome) and males
produce two types of sperms (carrying either X or Y chromosome) in equal proportions. So the
sex of a child is a matter of chance depending upon the type of sperm fertilizing the ovum. 1
Ans. 6 : (a) (i) Fossils showing imprints of feathers along with the bones in dinosaurs/reptiles found,
(ii) They could not fly and presumably use the feathers for insulation,
(iii) Later they developed/evolved and adapted feathers for flight.
(iv) Thus, they give evidence that birds have evolved from reptiles. ½×4
(b) No, the structure of the eye in each of these organisms is different/they have separate evolution-
ary origins. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] ½+½
Ans. 7 : Species ‘X’ is more closely related with species ‘Y’. 1
The more closely related species will have more characteristics in common. Hence species X and Y are
closely related. 1
Eukaryotic organisms are further classified on the basis of whether they are unicellular or multi-
cellular. 1
This basis marks a very fundamental difference in body design, because of specialisation of cell types
and tissues. 1
Homologous organs help to identify an evolutionary relationship between apparently different
species. 1
qqq
Ans. 1 : (A) Homologous organs have same structure but different functions. 1
Ans. 2 : (B) Wings of insects, flippers of seal. 1
Ans. 3 : (D) Forelimbs of cow, duck and lizard 1
Ans. 4 : (A) Potato and sweet potato 1
Ans. 5 : (B) They have same origin as they both are edible roots. 1
Ans. 6 : (C) Variation. 1
Ans. 7 : (A) Cone of gymnosperm and flower of angiosperm. 1
Ans. 8 : Theory : Two different ways by which similarities in anatomical structures can be classified is as either
analogous structures or homologous structures. While both of these categories have to do with how
S O L U T I ON P-29
similar body parts of different organisms are used and structured, only one is actually an indication
of a common ancestor somewhere in the past. 2
Ans. 9 : Homologous organs found in animals : wings of birds and flippers of whale are homologous structures.
They both are modified forelimbs but perform different function. Wings are meant for flying whereas
flippers help in swimming. 2
Ans. 10 : Homologous organs :
1. Have the same structural design and developmental origin.
2. But they have different functions and appearance.
Example : The forelimb of a frog, a man, a lizard and a frog seem to be built from the same basic design
of bones, but they perform different functions.
Analogous organs :
1. Have different basic structural design and developmental origin.
2. But they have similar appearance and perform similar functions.
Example : The wings of birds and bats look similar. But in birds wings are covered by feathers all along
the arm but the wings of bats are skin folds stretched between elongated fingers. 2
Ans. 11 : Analogous organs found in plants : Thorns found in Pyracantha and spines found in Berberis vulgaris
provide protection to plants but both have different origin. Thorns are the modified stem and spines
are modified leaves. 2
qqq
qqq
P-30 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
CHAPTER
SECTION
LIGHT–REFLECTION AND
B
5 REFRACTION
TOPIC-1
Reflection of Lights, image Formed by
Spherical Mirrors
Ans. 1 : Its magnification is + 1 because plane mirror always forms a laterally inverted image. 1
Ans. 2 : Zero (0). 1
Ans. 3 : Four specific characteristics of the image formed by convex mirror :
(i) It is always formed behind the mirror, between the pole and its focus.
(ii) The image is always virtual and erect.
(iii) The size of image is always smaller than the object.
(iv) Magnification is always positive. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] ½+½+½+½
Ans. 4 : (i) Concave mirror ½
(ii) u = –20 cm, v = –80 cm, m= ?
–v –( −80cm)
m= = =4 1
(–20 cm)
u
(iii) v – u = 60 cm ½
(iv)
M E
A
D
B C
P
B F
A
N
Ans. 5 :(a)
i
i P F C
S O L U T I ON P-31
(b)
i
i
P F C
1
(c)
i
i
P F C
1
Ans. 6 : (a) He should use a concave mirror as it forms real images.
(b) He should place the candle flame between the focus and centre of curvature of the mirror to get
the magnified image on the wall.
(c) The ray diagram for the formation of the image is shown below :
III
III
B
III
R
III
IIII
Object
IIIIIIIIIIIIIII
Q
P
Q' C F
II III
Image
I II II
R'
II
III
II I
A
II
(d) Yes, he can get a diminished image of the candle flame when the object is located at infinity.
2+1+1+1
qqq
Ans. 1 : Light will bend away from its normal direction. 1
Ans. 2 : Angle of incidence and thickness of slab. ½+½
P-32 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
Ans. 3 :
IIII
III
r
II
I
III I
i
IIII
II II I I III III I II III II
P F C
III
II
II
III
II II

Ans. 4 : A concave mirror can produce a magnified image of an object when it is placed :
(i) within its pole and its focus.
(ii) in between its focus and its centre of curvature
Difference between these two images :
The image produced in first case will be virtual and erect.
The image produced in the second case will be real and inverted. 1+1
Ans. 5 : The candidate may choose any two of the following rays :
(i) A ray parallel to the principle axis, after reflection, will pass through the principle focus of concave
miror.
(ii) A ray passing through the principle focus of a concave mirror after reflection will emerge parallel
to the principle axis.
(iii) A ray passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror after reflection is reflected
back along the same path.
(iv) A ray incident obliquely to the principle axis towards the pole of a concave mirror is reflected
obliquely, making equal angles with the principal axis. (Any two) 1 × 2
A
M
E
A
C r
F B P B

Detailed Answer
Rays which are choose to construct ray diagram for reflection are :
(i) A ray parallel to the principal axis and
(ii) A ray passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror or appear to pass through the
centre of curvature of convex mirror.
Path of these rays after reflection :
(i) After reflection, it will pass through the principal focus of a concave mirror or appear to diverge
in case of a convex mirror.
(ii) After reflection, it is reflected back along the same path.
f = –12 cm, u = –8 cm
1 1 1
we know, = +
f v u

S O L U T I ON P-33
1 1 1 1 1
= – = –
v f u –12 (–8)

1 1
= –
8 12

3–2
=
24

1
= = 24 cm
24
v = +ve, So image is virtual and is formed at a distance of 24 cm behind the mirror. 1+1+1
Ans. 6 : convex mirror ½
r' M
A
A'
B P B' F C
N 1
Use : As rear view mirror in vehicles / Also in Malls, Hotels, Airports for security reasons. ½
Why : (a) Forms erect image, ½
(b) Wider field of view. ½
Detailed Answer
The type of a mirror is convex mirror.
B A'
A B'

Convex mirror can be used as rear–view mirrors in automobiles because it gives a wider field of view
as the mirror is curved outward. It produces erect and diminished image of the traffic behind the
driver of the vehicle. 1+2
Ans. 7 : (i) u = – 12 cm
f =+ 15 cm
using mirror formula
1 1 1
= +
f u v

60
= = 6·7 cm ½+½
9
u h
Magnification m = – = 2
v h1
= – 6·7 / – 12 = ·558
P-34 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
= ·558 × 4·5
= 2·5 cm ½+½
As the needle is moved farther from the mirror, image moves to the focus and the size of image
goes on decreasing. ½+½
(ii) Concave mirrors are used in solar furnaces as they concentrate solar energy in the focal plane
and help in attaining high temperatures. 1
(iii) When one half of a convex lens is covered with a black paper, the lens will produce a complete
image of the object but the intensity of the image is reduced because rays from the top portion
of the lens only are refracted and forms the image. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] 1
qqq
Ans. 1 : In a lighted room, when light falls on an object, it gets either partially or completely reflected. This
reflected light when received by our eyes, enables us to see things. 1
Ans. 2 : Wavelength of visible light = 4 × 10–7 m to 8 × 10–7 m. 1
Ans. 3 : When the object is located between the focus (F) and the pole (P) of the mirror, the image is formed
behind the mirror; this image is virtual, erect and large 1
R'
I B
III
R Image
IIII
IIIIIIII IIIIIIIIIII
Image
Q Q'
C F P
III
A
I
1
Ans. 4 :
III
IIII M
r
I II
I
i
III
IIIII II
I I I III III I II III
P C
III
III
III
III
I
I II
N 1
Ans. 5 : (a) He should use a concave mirror, as it forms a real image on the same side of the mirror.
(b) Object distance, u = – 15 cm
Image distance, v = – 60 cm
Magnification, m = – v /u = – (– 60)/ (– 15) = – 4 cm,
The minus sign in magnification shows that the image formed is real and inverted.
(c) The image is formed at a distance of 45 cm from the object.
S O L U T I ON P-35
(d)
III
I B
R
III
I II
IIII
Object
IIIIIIIIIIII
Q
P
Q'
C F
III II
Image
I II
R'
III
I
I II
A
In this case, the image is formed beyond the centre of curvature. This image is real, inverted and
enlarged. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2014] 1+1+1
Ans. 6 : (a) He should use a concave mirror, as it forms a real image on the same side of the mirror.
(b) Object distance, u = – 12 cm
Image distance, v = – 48 cm
Magnification, m = – v /u = – (– 48) / (– 12) = – 4
The minus sign in magnification shows that the image formed is real and inverted.
(c) The image is formed at a distance of 36 cm from the object.
(d)
III
III
B
III
R
III
IIII
Object
IIIIIIIIIIIIIII
Q
P
Q' C F
II III
Image
I II II
R'
II
III
II I
A
II
In this case, the image is formed beyond the centre of curvature. This image is real, inverted and
enlarged. ½+1+½+1
Ans. 7 : (i) u = – 60 cm,
1
1
M = +
2
v 1
m = – –
u 2
1 –v
=
2 –60
v = 30 cm 1
Using mirror formula
1 1 1 1
= + =
f
u v 60
f = 60 cm 1
P-36 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
Now m = ∴ + = ⇒ + =
3 u v f – u v 60

∴ u = – 120 cm
(ii) When a small electric lamp is placed at the focus of a convex lens, a parallel beam of light is
produced by the lens. 1
Ray diagram.

F F
qqq
Ans. 1 : The field of view of convex mirror is wider in comparison to plane mirror. The convex mirror is preferred
as a rear view mirror as it enables the driver to view much larger area than with a plane mirror. 1
Ans. 2 : If we look into the mirror to see the image, we see that the image is inverted sideways, i.e., if we move
our left hand, the image appears to move its right hand. 1
Ans. 3 :
M
A I
D
III
III
i
IIII
r
IIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIII
P
C F
At
infinity
III
B
I II
N 2
Ans. 4 : Image is of same size in plane mirror.
Image is enlarged in concave mirror.
Image is diminished in convex mirror.
Image in all the three is virtual. ½+½+½+½
Ans. 5 : (a) As magnification is negative, the image formed is real.
Hence, it is a concave mirror.
(b) m = – v/ u = – 1
\ u = v = – 50 cm
Distance of the image from the object
=|u|+|v| = 100 cm
(c) By using mirror formula :
1/f = 1/v + 1/u
= 1/(– 50) + 1/(– 50) = – 1/25
\ f = – 25 cm
S O L U T I ON P-37
III
(d) I
III
III
III
II I I
Object
III IIIII
IIIIIII
F
IIIIII
Image
III III
III
I
III
II
N=V
1+1+1
Ans. 6 : (a) Object should be placed at <40 cm (Less than 40 cm) in front of the mirror, i.e. between focus
and pole, as concave mirror forms a virtual, erect and magnified image when object is placed
between focus and pole.
(b) Image will be bigger than the object.
(c)
R'
B
II I
III
R Image
IIIII
I I I I I II I I I I I I I I I I
Object
Q Q'
C F P
I II
II
A
Ans. 7 : (i)
A'
M E
C F B P B'
N 1
(ii)
III I
I II I I
B
IIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIII
A'
C A F P
B'

I
P-38 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
(iii)
B
III II
IIIIIIII
IIIIIIIIIIIIII
P
A A'
II I I I
B'
II
1
(iv)
II
I II II I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I
B
A'
A P B' F C
I I II I
I I II 1
(v)

I II
I I II
II III
I I I I I I I II I I II
A'
P F C
I I II II I I I
I I I II I II
IIII I
1
qqq
TOPIC-2
Refraction, Lenses, Power of Lens

Ans. 1 : Angle of incidence is the angle i made by the incident ray with the normal. Angle of refraction is the
angle r made by the refracted ray in the second medium with the normal. 1
Ans. 2 : Refractive index being a ratio of two similar quantities and has no unit. 1
Ans. 3 : The lens is placed along the path of light–either sun rays through electric lamp.
The rays converge at a point. The distance between converging point and lens is measured which gives
the rough focal length of the convex lens. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 2
Ans. 4 : (a) Convex lens

(b) Convex lens
(c) Convex lens
(d) Concave lens. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2014] ½ × 4
S O L U T I ON P-39
Ans. 5 : f = –10 cm, u = –20 cm, v = ?
1 1 1
Using, = – , we get
f v u

1 1 1
= +
v f u

1 1
= +
–10 (–20)

–2 – 1  3 
= =–  
20  20 
–20
v = cm
3
h1 v
m = =
h0 u

v
= h1 = × h0
u
20
= ×5
3 × 20
5
= = 1.6 cm
3
Image is virtual and diminished. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 3
Ans. 6 : l There are two laws of refraction :

(a) The ratio of the sin of the angle of incidence to the sin of the angle of refraction is constant. This
is known as Snell’s law. Mathematically, it can be expressed as :
sin i/ sin r = n12
Here, n12 is the relative refractive index of medium 1 with respect to medium 2.
(b) The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal to the interface of two media at the point of
incidence lie on the same plane. 1×2
l c = 3 × 108 m/s
v = 1.4 × 108 m/s
l Absolute refractive index
Speed of light in vacuum
= ½
Speed of light in medium

3 × 10 8 m/s
= = 2.14 ½
1.4 × 10 8 m/s

Ans. 7 : (a) Laws of refraction of light :
(i) The incident ray, the normal and the refracted ray at the point of incidence all lies in the
same plane for the two given transparent medium.
(ii) The ratio of size of angle of incidence (i.e., sin i) to the sine of angle of refraction (i.e., sin r)
is always constant for the light of given colour and for the given pair of media.
sin i
Mathematically, = constant = n2
sin r
P-40 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
The constant 'n' is called refractive index of the second medium with respect to the first medium.
Absolute refractive index of the medium is given by
Speed of light in a vacuum (c )
n = Speed of light in medium (v )

(b) Given nA = 2.0 and nB = 1.5
Speed of light in medium B = 2 × 108 m/s
Speed of light in vacuum (c)
nB =
Speed of light in media B

c
1.5 =
2 × 10 8
Speed of light in vacuum c = 2 × 108 × 1.5 = 3.0 × 108 m/s

(i)
(ii)
Speed of light in medium 'A'
Speed of light in vacuum
nA =
Speed of light in medium 'A'

3 × 10 8
2.0 =
Speed of light in media 'A'

3 × 10 8
Speed of light in medium A = = 1.5 × 108 m/s [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] 2 + 3
2
qqq
Ans. 1 : The size of the image formed keeps on increasing as the object is brought closer towards the convex lens.
1
Ans. 2 : Yes, all distances are measured from the optical centre of the lens. Conventionally, the object is placed
on the left side of the lens. 1
Ans. 3 :
Normal
A
i1
B Air (na)
P Q
Glass (na)
r1
Iateral
displacement
i2
N
S R
Air
r2
Normal D
Refraction through a glass slab
The emergent ray CD is parallel to the incident ray AB, but it has been laterally displaced by a per-
pendicular distance CN with respect to the incident ray. 2
S O L U T I ON P-41
Ans. 4 :
Incident ray
Emergent ray
∠i = Angle of incidence, ∠e = Angle of emergence 2
Ans. 5 : There are two laws of refraction :
Refer Q.No. 7 (a) (Worksheet-41)
Given :
Speed of light in vacuum = 3 × 108 m/s
Refractive index of the medium = Speed of light in vacuum/Speed of light in medium
⇒ 1·5 = 3 × 108/v
⇒ v = 3 × 108/1·5 = 2 × 108 m/s
Hence, the speed of light in the medium of refractive index 1·5 is 2 × 108 m/s 2+1
Ans. 6 : (a) Ratio of height of the image to height of the object is magnification.
M (mirror) = h1/h = – v/u
M = Magnification

h = Height of object
h1 = Height of image

v = Image distance

u = Object distance.
(b) It means image formed is two times the size of object and the image formed is inverted formed
in front of the lens. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2014] 2+1
Ans. 7 : Convex lens form magnified erect image when object is placed between F1 and optical centre O.
Image formed is virtual, erect and enlarged and on the same side of the lens as the object.
B'
B
2F2
A' 2F2 F1 A O F2 C
Convex lens form magnified inverted image when object is placed at F1. Image formed is real, inverted
and enlarged at infinity.
P-42 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
B
A
F1 O F2
Given focal length f = +10 cm

Object distance (u) = –20 cm
For concave lens
1 1 1
= – , we get
f v u

1 1 1
+ =
f u v

1 1 1
+ =
+10 –20 v
–2 – 1 1
=
–20 v
1  1 
= –   = 20 cm (virtual image)
v  20 
h1 v
m = =
h0 u

v
h1 = ×h0
u
20
= = 1 × 4 = 1.3 cm
20
Image is diminished. 3+2
qqq
Ans. 1 : Speed of light is different in different media. As the medium changes, the light has to choose a path
of minimum time. Hence, the direction of the light changes. This phenomenon is know as refraction
of light. 1
Ans. 2 : The size of the image increases slightly, though it remains diminished in comparison to the size of the
object. 1
Ans. 3 : The power of a lens is defined as the reciprocal of its focal length (f) expressed in metres. SI unit of
power is dioptre.
One dioptre is defined as the power of a lens whose focal length is 1 metre. 1+½+½
c
Ans. 4 : vg = 1
a µg

3 × 10 8
= = 2 × 108 m/sec
1.5
S O L U T I ON P-43
Ans. 5 : (a) The ability of a lens to converge/diverge a beam of light rays is expressed in terms of its power
(P). It is the inverse of focal length, f (in meters).
Hence, power of a lens is given by the relation
1
P =
f (in meters)

F = 1/P = +1/2 = + 0·5 m
(b) Convex lens
Light rays converging

at a point
Incident
light rays

Ans. 6 : A concave lens always forms a virtual and erect image on the same side of the object.
Image distance, v = ?
Focal length, f = – 5 cm
Object distance u = – 10 cm
1 1 1
= –
f v u

1 1 1
= +
v f u

1 1
= +
–5 –10
1 1 –1 – 2
= – =
–5 10 –10
3
= = 3·3 cm.
10
v = 3·3 cm
Size of the image –v
=
Size of the object –u

h' = –3.3
h –10
h' = 3.3
6 10
6 × 3.3
h1 =
10
19.8
= = 1·98 cm.
10
Size of the image is 1·98 cm. 2+1
P-44 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
Ans. 7 : l
Power of lens – Ability of a lens to converge or diverge light rays / Degree of convergence or
divergence of light ray achieved by a lens / Reciprocal of focal length of the lens 1
l S.I. unit is dioptre ½
l Convex lens has positive power ½
l v = +40 cm; h' = h
The lens is real, inverted and same sized 1
∴ object is at 2F
½
2f = 40 ∴ f = 20
1 100
P = = = 5 dioptre
f 20cm

½
l A
O F2 2F2
2F1 F1 B
A 1
qqq
Ans. 1 : The ability of a lens to converge or diverge the rays of light, is called power of lens. It is equal to the
1
reciprocal of the focal length (i.e., P = ) [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015]1
f

Ans. 2 : Refractive index of atmosphere is different at different altitudes because the air density changes with
altitudes. 1
Ans. 3 :
M
A
A'
2F B F1 B' O'
1½
Nature of the image : Virtual and erect. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] ½
Ans. 4 : v = + 12 cm, f = +10 cm.
1 1 1
– = ⇒ 1 –1= 1
v u f
12 u 10
u = – 60 cm. 2
Ans. 5 : f = 100 cm
v
m = +2
u
v = 2u
S O L U T I ON P-45
1 1 1
= +
f v u

1 1 1
= –
100 2u u
–1 + 2 1
=
–2u 2u
1 1
=
100 2u
2u = 100
u = 50 cm. 3
Ans. 6 : (a) Refractive index of alcohol > refractive index of water.
So, alcohol is optically denser than water.
When a ray of light enters from water to alcohol bends towards the normal : 1½
Water
Alcohol
a
µD 2.42
(b) gµD = a = = 1·61 1½
µg 1.5
Ans. 7 : (a) He should use a convex lens as it forms real images.
(b) He should place the candle flame between F and 2F (the focus and centre of curvature of the
lens) to get the magnified image on the wall while the diminished image is obtained when the
object is located at a distance greater than 2F.
(c) The ray diagram for the formation of the magnified image is shown below :
2F1 F1 F2 2F2
P-46 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
The ray diagram for the formation of the diminished image is shown below :
F2
2F1 F1 2F2
1+2+2
qqq
Ans. 1 : (A) Distant object can be tree, window or sun. 1
Ans. 2 : (C) f = 10 – 3 = 7 cm. 1
Ans. 3 : (B) Smaller than the angle of refraction. 1
Ans. 4 : (B) Has bent towards the base of the prism. 1
Ans. 5 : (B) This is the correct sequence. 1
Ans. 6 : (B) Greater in thinner lens. 1
Ans. 7 : (a) Use a very sharp tipped pencil to draw thin lines to represent incident and refracted rays.
(b) The convex lens drawn should be thin and of small aperture. (This is required for obtaining the
distinct image.) 1+1
Ans. 8 : (a) The glass slab should be perfectly rectangular with all its faces smooth.
(b) While fixing the pins P1 and P2 or the pins P3 and P4, care should be taken to maintain a distance
of about 5 cm between the two pins. This would help in tracing the direction of incident ray and
that of emergent ray with greater accuracy. 1+1
Ans. 9 : (a) While viewing the collinearity of pins and images, the eye should be kept at a distance from the
pins so that all of them can be seen simultaneously. The collinearity of pins fixed on one side of
the glass prism and the images of pins on the other side could also be confirmed by moving the
head slightly to either side while viewing them. All the pins and images of pins would appear to
move together if they are collinear.
(b) The pins P1, P2, P3 and P4 fixed on the paper may not be exactly perpendicular (or vertical) to
the plane of paper. It is therefore desirable to look at the feet of the pins or their images while
establishing their collinearity. That is why the position of each pin is marked with pointed tip of
the pins on the paper. 1+1
qqq
qqq
S O L U T I ON P-47
SECTION
CHAPTER
HUMAN EYE AND COLOURFUL

B
6 WORLD
TOPIC-1
Structure of Eye and Eye Defects

Ans. 1 : Ciliary muscles. 1
Ans. 2 : 25 cm to infinity. 1
Ans. 3 : Just behind the cornea is a dark coloured muscular diaphragm which has a small circular opening in
the middle. Iris is made of muscles. They control the size of opening of pupil. 1+1
Ans. 4 : The nearest point to the eye at which an object is visible distinctly is called the near point. (25 cm). 1
The maximum distance up to which the normal eye can see things is called the far point (infin-
ity). [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] 1
Ans. 5 : (i) Iris : Gives colour to eyes, controls size of pupil.
(ii) Pupil : Regulate amount of light.
(iii) Cornea : Refracts most of the light into eyes. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1+1+1
Ans. 6 : (i) The minimum distance at which objects can be seen most distinctly without strain is called the least
distance of distinct vision. 1
(ii) In bright light, the iris contracts the pupil to allow less light to enter the eye. In dim light, the iris
expands the pupil to allow more light to enter the eye. 2
Ans. 7 : (a) Something, the crystalline lens of people at old age becomes milky and cloudy. This condition
is called cataract. This causes partial or complete loss of vision.
It is possible to restore vision through a cataract surgery.
(b) Focal length for lens for distance vision
1
= – = – 1m
1
Focal length for lens for near vision
1
= + =+ 0.5 m
2
(c) The focal length of eye lens cannot be decreased below a certain minimum limit. If we try to
read a printed page by holding it very close to our eyes, We may see the image being blurred or
feel strain in the eye. To see an object comfortably and distinctly, we must hold it at about 25 cm
from the eyes. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 5
qqq
Ans. 1 : The pupil helps to control the amount of light entering the eye. 1
Ans. 2 : (i) Pupil, (ii) Retina. ½+½
Ans. 3 : (a) The distance upto which normal eye can see clearly without putting any strain on muscles of
eye. 1
(b) Controls the size of the pupil. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] 1
Ans. 4 : (i) Presbyopia. 1

(ii) He shall have to use both kinds of lenses. Convex lens for long sightedness and concave lens for
short-sightedness. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] 1
P-48 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
Ans. 5 : (i)
O O'
(ii) (a) Elongation of the eye ball ½

(b) Decrease in focal length of eye lens. ½
(iii) u = ∞ , v = – 1·5 m
1 1 1
P= = –
f u v
½
1
=
–15
= – 0·66 D ½
Ans. 6 : (i) Diagram.
Rectified by concave lens 1

It can be rectified. 1
(ii) Due to excessive curvature of lens or elongation of eye ball. 1
Ans. 7 : Myopia on short-sightedness : Inability of an eye in viewing long distance objects. The image in this
case falls before the retina. For every myopic eye, there exists a far point beyond which clear image
cannot be seen.
The short-sightedness is corrected by using a concave lens which diverges and shifts the image to
the retina.
Parallele rays coming from Retina
distant object
I
image
Parallel rays coming L

from distant object Retina
Virtual image
formed at F

qqq
S O L U T I ON P-49
Ans. 1 : The person is suffering from hypermetropia. 1
Ans. 2 : It enables us to see and perceive the object in our vicinity. 1
Ans. 3 : Eye lens is made up of fibrous material. Its curvature can be changed by ciliary muscles which changes
its focal length. When muscles are relaxed, the lens becomes thin and focal length increases and the
eye is able to see distant objects. Similarly when ciliary muscles contract, focal length decreases and
eye is able to see nearer objects. 1
The minimum distance at which objects can be seen distinctly is called distance of distinct vision.
This is 25 cm. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] 1
Ans. 4 : In bright light, the size of the pupil is small to control the amount of light entering the eye. 1
When we enter a dim room, it takes some time so that the pupil expands and allows more light to
enter and helps to see things clearly. 1
Ans. 5 : Retina contains light sensitive cells known as rods and cones. These cells get activated upon illumina-
tion and generate electrical signals or pulses. 1
The electrical signals are sent to the brain through optic nerves. 1
In the brain, the signals are processed, interpreted and the objects in front of the eye are perceived.
1
Ans. 6 : (i) Because least distance of distinct vision is 25 cm, and book is kept at a distance of 10 cm. 1
(ii) u = ?, v = – 25 cm, f = 5 cm.
1 1 1
= –
f u v
1
1 1 1
= –
5 (–25) u

1 1 1
= –
u (–25) 5

25
u =
6
v
m =
u
6
m = (–25) ×
25
m = 6 1

Ans. 7 : (a) The pupil is the perforation in the iris. It is the pupil (or aperture of the eye) through which light
enters our eyes. The relaxation and contraction of the muscular fibres of the iris regulate the
opening and closing of the pupil. Hence, it is the pupil that controls the amount of light entering
our eyes.
(b) The retina is the “film” of the eye like the film of a camera. The retina is the light-sensing part of
the eye. It converts the incident light into electrical signals and sends them to the brain.
(c) Eyes of a dead person can be donated to a person having corneal blindness. It will help him/her
to see the world. We can also register ourselves to donate our eyes. The organisations that put
up eye donation camps preserve our eyes after our death and donate them to the needy. 2+1+2
qqq
Ans. 1 : It is like a camera having a lens system forming an inverted, real image on the light sensitive screen,
retina inside the eye. 1
Ans. 2 : Real, inverted and same-sized. 1
Ans. 3 : (a) The pupil regulates and controls the amount of light entering the eye. 1
(b) In bright sunlight, the size of the pupil is small and when we enter the cinema hall it takes some time
for the pupil to expand in size due to dim light. 1
Ans. 4 : (i) It is the minimum distance to which, normal eye can see two similar object distinctly. 1
P-50 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
(ii) Eye lens is comparatively thicker, while reading a book. 1
Ans. 5 : u = – 25 cm
v = – 75 cm
1 1 1
– =
u v f

1 1 1 1 1 1
– = ⇒ + =
–75 –25 f –75 25 f

2 1
=
75 f

75
⇒ f = = 37·5 cm
2
100
So, P = cm
37.5

= 2·6 D 3
Ans. 6 : Power of accommodation of human eye : The ability of eye lens to adjust its focal length to from the
sharp image of the object at varying distance on the retina is called its power of accommodation.
The curvature of eye lens can be changed (i.e. change in its focal length) to some extent by the ciliary
muscles.
When we are looking and the nearby objects, the ciliary muscles contract, it increases, the thickness
of eye lens. The eye lens then becomes thicker. As a result, the focal length of eye lens decreases in
such a way that the clear sharp image of nearby object is formed on the retina. Thus, the object is seen
clearly to us. When we are looking at the distance objects, these muscles are in relaxed position, the
eye lens becomes thinner, focal length of the lens increases. Therefore, the parallel rays coming from
the distant object are focussed on the retina and object is seen clearly to us. Thus, the accommodation
power of an eye helps a person to see nearby as well as distant objects clearly. 3
Ans. 7 : (a) The three common refractive defects of vision are as follows :
Myopia (short-sightedness) : It is corrected by using spectacles having concave lenses of appropriate
power.
Hypermetropia (far-sightedness) : It is corrected by using spectacles having convex lenses of appro-
priate power.
Presbyopia : This defect is corrected using bifocal lenses of appropriate power in which the upper part
consists of a concave lens (to correct myopia) and the lower part consists of a convex lens (to correct
hypermetropia).
(b) Eyes of a dead person can be donated to the person having corneal blindness. It will help him/
her see the world. We can also register ourselves to eye donation camps who can preserve our
eyes after our death and donate them to the needy. 3+2
qqq
TOPIC-2
Refraction of Light and Dispersion

Ans. 1 : (i) Least deviation – Red. ½
(ii) Maximum deviation – Violet. ½
Ans. 2 : Red. 1
Ans. 3 : (a) Dispersion : Breaking up of white light into component colours.
(b) Red colour deviates the least and violet deviates the most. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1+1
S O L U T I ON P-51
Ans. 4 : Stars are very distant and approximate point-sized sources. ½
Path of starlight changes continuously due to gradual changing of refractive index of the layers of
air. 1
Thus, the apparent position of the stars fluctuates and the amount of starlight entering the eye flickers
giving the twinkling effect. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] ½
Ans. 5 : (i) Due to atmospheric refraction, the sun is visible to us about two minutes before the actual sun-
rise and about two minutes after the actual sun-set. 1
(ii)
Apparent position lllll
llllllll
llllllll
l
of the sun
lllll
llllllll
llllllll
lll l l l l l l
llllll
lllll
l
l ll
l llll
lllllll
lllllll
Observer Horizon
llllllll
lllll
llllllll
l
lllll
llllllll
llllllll
ll l l l l l l l
llllll
lllll
l
l ll
l llll
lllllll
lllllll
Earth
Atmosphere
Ans. 6 : (a) Light comming from the stars are supposed to travel in a straight line. But the refractive index of
air is not same throughout. It changes as hot air is rarer than cold air. So refraction takes place.
In this case, starlight continuously travels from a rarer medium to a denser medium. Hence, it
continuously bends towards the normal. The continuous bending of starlight towards the normal
results in a rise of the apparent position of the star.
(b) Scattering of light take place because of the particles present in atmosphere. At high altitude
due to absence of atmosphere scattering of light do not take place and hence sky appears dark
to passengers flying at high altitude. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2014] 1½+1½
Ans. 7 : (a) (i) Place a strong source of white light at the focus of converging lens.
(ii) Allow the light beam to pass through atransparent glass tank containing clear water. In that
clear water dissolve 200 g of sodium thiosulphate in about 2L of clean water in the tank and
add 1 to 2 mL of conc H2SO4 acid.
(iii) Allow the beam of light to pass through a circular hole made in a cardboard. Obtain a sharp
image of circular hole on screen by using converging lens. 3
(b) At sunrise or sunset light travels long distance through thick layers of atmosphere Blue and other
lower wavelength get scattered and only red light reaches earth. 2
qqq
Ans. 1 : Due to lack of atmosphere, scattering is not prominent. 1
Ans. 2 : The splitting of light into its component colours is called dispersion of light. 1
Ans. 3 : Planets, being closer to earth, are seen as extended sources. 1
If we consider a planet as a collection of large number of point-sized sources of light, the total variation
in the amount of light entering our eye due to gradual changing of refractive index of the atmosphere
from all individual, point-sized sources will average out to zero. This nullifies the twinkling effect. 1
P-52 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
Ans. 4 : Sunlight reaches the Earth’s atmosphere and is scattered in all directions by the gases and particles
in the air. Blue light is scattered more than the other colours because it has the shortest wavelength.
This is why the sky appears blue to an observer from the surface of the Earth.
For an astronaut staying in the international space station orbiting the Earth, the colour of the sky will
be black because the light reaching it does not scatter. 3
Ans. 5 : The Sun is visible to us two minutes before the sunrise and two minutes after the sunset because of
the bending of the light due to atmospheric refraction. The actual sunrise takes place when the Sun is
just above the horizon. But due to atmospheric refraction of light, we see the Sun about two minutes
before it is actually above the horizon.
When the Sun is slightly below the horizon, its light moves from less dense air to more dense air and
gets refracted towards the normal. Because of this atmospheric refraction, the Sun appears to be above
the horizon when it is actually slightly below the horizon. It is also due to atmospheric refraction that
we can still see the Sun for about two minutes even after it has set below the horizon. 2
The sun appears
to be above the
horizon
l l
l l l
l l l
Horizon B
l l
l l
Atmospheric As seen
l l l
l l l
A refraction from the

l l earth
Actual position
of the sun
(Just below horizon) 1
Ans. 6 : (a) Place a prism on a white sheet of paper with the triangular face on the sheet and trace its bound-
ary ABC.
 Fix two pins T and S on one side.
 Place the prism on the boundary ABC.
 Looking through the other side fix two more pins Q and R in such a way that the all four
pins appear to be in the same line.
 Remove the pins and mark their positions.
 Join TS and RQ and extend them to meet the faces of the prism at P and O respectively.
 Join PO.
 TP represents the incident ray.
 PO represents the refracted ray.
 And OR represents the emergent ray which is bent towards the base.
 Let PN and ON be the normal at the points P and O respectively.
 And let i be the angle of incidence and r the angle of refraction.
 If the incident ray TP is extended forward and the emergent ray RO backwards, they meet
at M, forming the angle OML.
 Measure the angle OML.
 This angle is called the angle of deviation.
 Angle of deviation is the angle through which an incident ray deviates.
 Repeat this for different values of angle of incidence.
S O L U T I ON P-53
A
H
N M
G
D
i r C
N' M' F
Q R
S
P
B C
PE – Incident ray ∠ i – Angle of incidence
EF – Refracted ray ∠ r – Angle of refraction
FS – Emergent ray ∠ e – Angle of emergence
∠A – Angle of the prism ∠ D – Angle of deviation
3
(b) Rainbow forms when sunlight hits the water droplets suspended in the atmosphere and under-
goes total internal reflection. When the sunlight comes out of the drop it disperses, where the
drop acts like a small prism.
This dispersion or breaking up of light into several colors forms the Rainbow.
Beam of white light

Rainbow
Red
Observer Water drop

(on ground)
Violet
qqq
Ans. 1 : Size of the particles of the medium through which it is passing. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] 1
Ans. 2 : Due to change in atmospheric conditions, density changes so position keeps on changing. 1
Ans. 3 : This is because of scattering of light. 1

Light from the sun near the horizon passes through larger distance in the earth’s atmosphere before
reaching our eyes. So, most of the blue light and shorter wavelengths are scattered away by the
particles. Therefore, the light that reaches our eyes is of shorter wavelengths. This gives rise to the
reddish appearance. But during the day shorter wavelength are scattered more by molecules of air.
Scattered blue light enters our eyes. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] 1
Ans. 4 : (i) Dispersed white light consists of seven colours of different wavelengths.
These components of light travel with different speeds in glass and get refracted by different
angles, Due to this splitting of white light takes place.
(ii) Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, Red. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] 1 + 1
Ans. 5 : Light coming from the stars undergoes refraction on entering the Earth’s atmosphere. This refraction
continues until it reaches the Earth’s surface. This happens because of uneven heating of atmospheric
air. Hence, the atmospheric air has changing refractive index at various altitudes. In this case, starlight
P-54 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
continuously travels from a rarer medium to a denser medium. Hence, it continuously bends towards
the normal.
Apparent position
Refractive index
increases with decrease Real position
in altitude

The refractive index of air medium gradually increases with a decrease in altitude. The continuous
bending of starlight towards the normal results in a slight rise of the apparent position of the star.
Apparent position
Real position
Refractive index of
air increasing
Since the physical conditions of the Earth’s atmosphere keeps changing, the apparent position of the
star is not stationary. The star changes its position continuously, which makes it twinkle. This happens
because starlight travels a very large distance before reaching the observer. However, the path var-
ies continuously because of uneven atmospheric conditions. Hence, the stars seem to be fluctuating,
sometimes appearing brighter and sometimes fainter. All this together, gives rise to the twinkling
effect of stars. 3
Ans. 6 : The phenomenon of scattering of white light by colloidal particles is known as Tyndall effect. 1
Examples :
(i) A fine beam of sunlight entering a smoke filled room through a hole. Smoke particles scatter the
white light and hence the path of light beam becomes visible. 1
(ii) (a) Sunlight passing through the trees of forest.
(b) Tiny water droplets in mist scattering white light. 1
Ans. 7 : (i) In the region above the fire, the hot air is lighter than the cool air above it. Further the refractive
index of hotter region is less than the cooler region and it is not static. 1
These physical conditions are not steady. Subsequently the image when seen through the hot
region is not stationary. The apparent position of the object fluctuates. This gives the wavering
effect to the image. 1
(ii) The phenomenon of obtaining a spectrum of colours by passing white light through the prism is
known as dispersion. ½
Dispersion occurs because the refraction of different colours travel with different speeds in a
refracting medium. Speed of violet colour is least and that of the colour is the most. Hence the
refractive index of the medium is largest for violet colour and least for the red colour. 1
(iii) As a result, the refraction or bending of violet colour is the maximum and that of red colour is
minimum. This difference in the extent of bending of different colour of light causes dispersion
of white light into its constituent colours as they emerge out of prism. Red colour bends the least
and violet bends the most. 1½
qqq

Ans. 1 : The refractive index of the material of a prism is different for different colours of light as different
colours have different speed in the material of a prism. Also, prism has non-parallel surfaces. 1
S O L U T I ON P-55
Ans. 2 : The sky appears dark to the astronaut as scattering does not take place at very high attitude due to
the absence of atmosphere. 1
Ans. 3 : The process of splitting up of white light into its constituent colour as it passes through a refracting
medium is known as dispersion of light. 1
It bends towards the base of the prism after passing through it. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] 1
Ans. 4 : The angle between the extended incident ray and the emergent ray is called the angle of deviation.
1
This is because the different colours travel through a glass prism at different speeds. 1
Ans. 5 : The angle between the extended incident ray and the emergent ray is called the angle of deviation.
This is because the different colours travel through a glass prism at different speeds.
D
A
White
Q Red
Sun Light
Orange
Yellow
Green
P
Blue
Indigo
B Glass prism C
Violet
Dispersion of White Light E
1+1+1
Ans. 6 : This person has defect of Hypermetropia which is far sightedness that means the image is formed
beyond the retina so it requires a convergent lens to get focused at retina.
Now corrective measure is
u = – 25 cm
v = – 50 cm
1/f = 1/v – 1/u
1/f = 1/– 50 – 1/– 25
= – 1 + 2/50 = 1/50
f = 50 cm
p = 1/f
p = 1/50 = 0.02 cm
= 0.0002 D
Focal length =50 cm, power

= 0·0002 D [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2014] 3
Ans. 7 : (a) Breaking up of the component colours of light is called dispersion. Dispersion is caused due to
difference in velocity of each colour through a medium. Scattering of light takes place due to
interaction of light and particles suspended in a medium Rainbow–dispersion.
Blue colour of sky, red colour of sky at sunrise or
or sunset–scattering . (Any one example) 3
P-56 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
(b)
R + B +Y
R
Y
B
R
Y
B

qqq
qqq
S O L U T I ON P-57
CHAPTER
SECTION
MANAGEMENT OF NATURAL
B
7 RESOURCES
TOPIC-1
Natural Resources, Sustainable Development
and Biodiversity
Ans. 1 : Reuse : We can reuse the empty bottles of jam, pickles etc. for the storage purposes.
Recycle : We can recycle old newspapers, aluminium cans etc. ½+½
Ans. 2 : Steel cans and paper can be easily recycled, but we generally throw them in dustbins. ½+½
Ans. 3 : (a) Disturbance in natural habitat. Waste disposal, restriction in movement, poaching / hunting.
(b) Ecological imbalance less food for herbivores, overgrazing might result in loss of habitat. 1+1
Ans. 4 : “Sustainable development is the development which can be maintained for a longtime without un-
der damage to the environment. Ways to achieve sustainable development are to plant more trees.
Recycling needs additional energy to make a usuable item. Reuse does not require additional energy
and hence, is better than recycle. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1+1
Ans. 5 : We must conserve our forest because :

(i) They are source of raw materials for our industries.
(ii) They provide us with wood to make furniture and buildings.
(iii) They are source of medicine.
(iv) They provide firewood and food. (Any three) 1½
Causes of deforestation are :
(i) Overgrazing
(ii) Building roads and dams
(iii) Natural calamities like forest fire. (Any three) [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] 1½
Ans. 6 : The change in our habits that can be made to become more environment friendly are as follows :
(i) Save water by repairing the leaked taps.
(ii) Switch off unnecessary light and fans.
(iii) Say ‘No‘ to plastic bags, disposable plastic cups.
(iv) Reuse the things again and again. (Any three) 1+1+1
Ans. 7 : (i) Reusing is even better than recycling because the process of recycling uses some energy. In the
‘reuse’ strategy, you simply use things again and again, without using any energy for generating
something new. 2
(ii) (a) Clearing of forest land for agriculture.
(b) Building of roads through forests.
(c) Falling of large number of trees for furniture. 1 × 3=3
qqq
Ans. 1 : Exploitation and consumption of natural resources will ultimately result in their scarcity. 1
Ans. 2 : We need to manage natural resources because of the reasons listed below :
 A majority of natural resources is limited.
 Human population is increasing at a tremendous rate.
 Utilization of natural resources is increasing at an exponential rate.
 Need to conserve resources for future generations. (Any two) ½+½
P-58 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
Ans. 3 : Biodiversity is measured by the number of different life forms found in an area. In a forest, various
species are available which include bacteria, fungi, ferns, plants, nematodes, insects, birds, reptiles
and mammals. Forests are therefore, called biodiversity hot spots.
An individual can contribute in management of forest and wildlife by
(a) Avoiding cutting of forest and killing of wildlife.
(b) Educating people about the importance of forest and wildlife in our life. 1+1
Ans. 4 : (a) Our natural resources are limited. With the rapid increase in human population, due to improve-
ment in health care the demand for all resources is increasing.
(b) Management of natural resources requires long term perspective to need the needs and aspiration
of future generation. 1+1
Ans. 5 : Recycling of waste materials can help in maintaining ecological balance in the following ways :
(i) By recycling the biodegradable wastes the nutrients present in them are returned to the nutrients
pool of the environment like water and soil. These are reabsorbed by plants and utilised e.g. biogas
from cow dung provide large amount of energy and the residue acts as a good manure.
(ii) Certain non-biodegradable waste like rubber and plastic pose serious disposal problems. Such
substances can be recycled to manufacture usable articles. e.g. recycling of used polythene and
aluminium fails. 1½ + 1½
Ans. 6 : The three ways to maintain a balance between environment and development to survive are :
(i) Forest resources should be used in an environmentally and developmentally sound manner.
(ii) Instead of using non-renewable natural resources use of renewable natural should be preferred.
(iii) Waste water generated by industries should be recycled. 1+1+1
Ans. 7 : (i) By 1983, the value of the previously worthless Sal forests in the Arabari forest range of Midnapur
district was estimated to be about 12.5 crores. 1
(ii) Rain water harvesting. 1
(iii) (a) Reduced availability of forest products.
(b) Deterioration in the quality of soil.
(c) Reduction in the sources of water. 1×3=3
qqq
Ans. 1 : Khejri trees. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2014] 1
Ans. 2 : Coliform. 1
Ans. 3 : Four measures taken to conserve forest are :
(i) Deforestation should be banned.
(ii) Forest resources should be used in an environmentally and developmentally sound manner.
(iii) We should use natural resources cautiously.
(iv) Afforestation should be done. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] ½+½+½+½
Ans. 4 : (i) By switching off unnecessary light and fans to save electricity.
(ii) By repairing leaky taps to save water.
(iii) Not to dump the materials that can be recycled like paper.
(iv) Plastic bottles of food items can be used to store things. ½+½+½+½
Ans. 5 : (a) There should be a different coloured garbage bins so that biodegradable waste and recyclable
waste can be disposed separately. 1
(b) To conserve energy in school, one should make way for natural sunlight in the classrooms as
much as possible to reduce consumption of electricity. 1
(c) Cars carrying only one child should not be allowed to come near the school gate. Only school
buses, bicycles and cars carrying three or more children should be allowed to come near the
gate. 1
Ans. 6 : (a) Sunderlal Bahuguna is my favourite environmentalist. 1
(b) Chipko movement and Anti Tehri Dam movement. 1
(c) By creating awareness among public for conservation of forest and wildlife to achieve sustainable
development. 1
S O L U T I ON P-59
Ans. 7 : (i) The local people obtain large quantities of firewood, timber and thatch from the forests. 1
(ii) Bamboo is used to make slats for huts and baskets for collecting and storing food materials. 1
(iii) Implements for agriculture, fishing and hunting are largely made of wood. 1
(iv) Forests are sites for fishing and hunting. 1
(v) Also they gather fruits, nuts and medicines from the forests. 1
qqq
Ans. 1 : Forest. 1
Ans. 2 : Sarder Sarovar Dam. [CBSE Marking scheme, 2012] 1
Ans. 3 : Biodiversity is the existence of a variety of species of plants, animals and micro-organisms in a natural
habitat within a particular environment.
Two reasons each for conserving
(a) Forest : (i) It helps in retaining the sub-soil water (ii) It checks flood.
(b) Wildlife : (i) To maintain ecological equilibrium, (ii) To protect the nature. 1+1
Ans. 4 : Reduce, Reuse, Recycle (for all the three) 1
(only ½ mark if two are mentioned)
Examples :
 Switch off the fans and bulbs when not in use,
 Reuse of paper, polythene bags, etc.,
 Reduce the wastage of water / paper or any other item
(or any other relevant example) (Ay two) [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] ½ × 2
Ans. 5 : (i) Conservation means to keep safe. 1
(ii) (a) Afforestation. ½
(b) Judicious use of fertilisers. ½
(c) Rainwater harvesting. ½
(d) Practice of crop rotation. ½
Ans. 6 : The three R’s are Reduce, Recycle and Reuse.
Reduce : This means that we should use the resources judiciously and check their misuse. We should
save electricity by switching off unnecessary lights and fans. We should save water by reparing leak
taps. 1
Recycle : This means that we should collect plastic, paper, glass and metal items and recycle this mate-
rial to make required things instead of synthesising fresh plastic, paper, glass or metal. 1
Reuse : This is even better than recycling because it saves the energy which is spent at recycling a
product. Things are used over and over again. For example, envelopes can be reused by reversing
them. 1
Ans. 7 : (i) (a) The natural habitats of wild animals and birds should be preserved by establishing national
parks and sanctuaries. 1
(b) To conduct a periodic surveys of national parks and bioreserves. 1
(ii) (a) Hunting of tigers should be banned. 1
(b) A compaign like paper dipping should be arranged for the awareness of the people. 1
(c) The survival of captive-bred animals in the wild life should be proper. 1
qqq
TOPIC-2
Water Conservation and Fossil Fuels

Ans. 1 : Digging small pits and lakes. [CBSE Marking scheme, 2015] 1
Ans. 2 : Turning-off the taps when not in use.
Checking the leaking water pipelines and getting them repaired. ½+½
P-60 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
Ans. 3 : Combustion of fossil fuels release oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur.
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] ½+½+½+½
Ans. 4 : (i) Water harvested will percolate down and will increase the ground water level.
(ii) Water harvested at community level can be used for drinking and irrigation purpose. 1+1
Ans. 5 : The advantages are :
(i) Watershed management only increases the production and income of the watershed community.
(ii) It also migrates droughts and floods.
(iii) It increases the life of the down stream dam and reservoirs. 1+1+1
Ans. 6 : (i) Khadins and Tanks 1
(ii) Bandharas and Tals 1
(iii) Ahars and Pynes. 1
Ans. 7 : (i) Coliform : A group of bacteria found in human intestines, whose presence in water indicates
contamination by disease-causing microorganisms.
(ii) Recycling : The act of processing used or abandoned materials for creating new products.
(iii) Sustainable development : A pattern of resources used for obtaining economic and social growth
of the present generation while preserving the resources for the needs of future generations.
(iv) Chipko Andolan : A grass root level movement in which the villagers used to hug the forest trees
and prevent their mass felling by the contractors.
(v) Watershed management : A scientific method of developing land and water resources to increase
the biomass production without causing ecological imbalance. 1×5=5
qqq
Ans. 1 : Two measures for the better management of water resources are :
 Rainwater harvesting
 Construction of dams. ½+½
Ans. 2 : It displaces large number of local people without adequate compensation and rehabilitation. 1
Ans. 3 : Two advantages associated with water stored in the ground are :
(i) It does not evaporate and provides moisture for vegetation.
(ii) It is relatively protected from contamination by human and animal waste. 1+1
Ans. 4 : Advantages of ground water —

(i) It does not evaporate.
(ii) Spreads out to recharges wells.
(iii) Provide mosquitoes for vegetation over a large area.
(iv) Does not provide breeding ground for mosquitoes.
(v) Remain protected from contamination from human excreta, etc. (Any four) ½ × 4
Ans. 5 : (i) Petroleum and coal are composed of carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen and sulphur. ½+½+½+½
(ii) (i) Local people gets benefit from forest produce.
(ii) Wild life and nature can be conserved. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] ½+½
Ans. 6 : (i) As their formation is extremely slow, hence these resources will be exhausted. 1
(ii) Two causes are :
(a) Loss of vegetation cover and dumping of urban waste. 1
(b) Diversion for high water demanding crops and pollution from industrial effluents.
Ans. 7 : (a) Fuels formed from the decomposition of ancient animal and plant remains millions of years ago
and which provide energy by combustion are called fossil fuels. 1
For example : Coal and petroleum. 1
S O L U T I ON P-61
(b)
Catchment Khadin
bund Shallow
area dugwell
Khadin or cropped area
Saline area
Seepage
Khadin system of water harvesting 3

qqq
Ans. 1 : Major causes of pollution of river Ganga :
 Release of industrial waste into the river.
 People use river water for domestic purposes and add pollutants like surf , detergents, soap to
the river.
 People flow food items, images of gods and goddesses into the river due to ritualistic reasons.
(Any two) ½+½
Ans. 2 : (i) Roof top rain water harvesting. ½
(ii) Watershed management. ½
Ans. 3 : (i) Social problems
(ii) Economic problems
(iii) Environmental problems.
Solution : Adequate rehabilitation.
Compensation to the displaced persons.
Afforestation. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1 + 1
Ans. 4 : Advantages of ground water —

(i) It does not evaporate.
(ii) Spreads out to recharge wells.
(iii) Provides moisture for vegetation over a large area.
(iv) Does not provide breeding ground for mosquitoes. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] ½×4
Ans. 5 : (i) Coal and Petroleum. ½
Formed from the degradation of biomass millions of years ago. ½
(ii) (a) Preservation of biodiversity. ½
(b) Forest products ½
Reasons for depletion :
(a) Indiscriminate falling of trees. ½
(b) Destroying biodiversity to produce one particular kind of trees. ½
Ans. 6 : (a) Improvement in our life style has led to use of more of electronic gadgets like computers, laptops,
mobile phones etc.
The companies in order to increase their sales keep on launching new upgraded versions which
attract the buyers and increase the waste.
(b) Think about the utility and then only buy the upgraded models not just because friends are
having so I should also buy it.
Try to reuse the old TV, computers, mobile phones or other electronic gadgets if it is in working
condition by selling/giving it to the needy.
(c) Concern towards the society, environment friendly [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 3
Ans. 7 : (a) Mining, unnecessary use of resources, cutting of trees, building concrete jungle. (Any three) 3
(b) To protect and improve the natural environment, social awareness, environmental conservation,
eco–friendly approach, value for life. (Any three) [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 2
qqq
P-62 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
Ans. 1 : It is a group of bacteria found in human intestine whose presence in water indicates contamination
by disease causing micro-organisms. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] 1
Ans. 2 : Mining causes pollution because of the large amount of the slag which is discarded for every tone of
the metal extracted. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] 1
Ans. 3 : Watershed management is the study of the characteristics of a watershed. It helps to manage water
quality, water supply, and drainage and rainwater flow. It also ensures sustainable maintenance plan-
ning of a watershed.
Benefits of a watershed management system :
 Water quality is strictly maintained.
 Distribution of water is equal and sustainable.
 Controlling the flow of rain water can help to protect the land in flood conditions.
(Any two) 1+½+½
Ans. 4 : Rain water harvesting is a method of harvesting or storing rainwater for many other uses that include
in agriculture, bathing, washing and cooking. Rainwater is harvested on the roof top from where it is
transferred to the storage tank below through pipes. 1+1
Ans. 5 : (i) Excessive burning of coal and petroleum pollutes the environment and they get exhausted. 1
(ii) (a) Use of natural gas. 1
(b) Solar energy, wind energy, biomass energy should be promoted for use. 1
Ans. 6 : Forest resources should be used in an environmentally and developmentally sound manner. The ben-
efits of controlled exploitation of resources goes to the people and the environment is also preserved. If
the exploitation is too high, economic and social development will be faster but the environment will
further deteriorate. Therefore, we should use natural resources cautiously so that economic growth
and ecological conservation go hand in hand. 3
Ans. 7 : (i) Industries cause pollution by loading chemical effluents and makes the water toxic, killing aquatic
organisms, and is harmful for people. 1
(ii) (a) Drainage of household sewage into rivers. 1
(b) Washing clothes and flowing pesticides into water. 1
(iii) (a) They organise a camp to tell people about water conservation. 1
(b) They tell people about rainwater harvesting. 1
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S O L U T I ON P-63
SECTION
B
8 OUR ENVIRONMENT
TOPIC-1
Ecosystem and Food Chain

Ans. 1 : Only 10 percent energy is available from the first trophic level to second trophic level.
= 1000 joules [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1
Ans. 2 : Green plants are producers. The first trophic level in a food chain is a producers i.e. those organisms
which produce food by photosynthesis. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1
Ans. 3 : Difference between first trophic level and second trophic level :
First Trophic Level Second Trophic Level
(i) These are the producers. These are the herbivores
(ii) They prepare their food by their own. They feed on plants only
(Photosynthesis)
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015]1+1
Ans. 4 : Energy flow is unidirectional, dissipated at each level. Matter flow is cyclic and no loss of matter. 1
PLANTS Heat lost to environment
HERBIVORES
CARNIVORES

Ans. 5 : Ecosystem is the structural and functional unit of biosphere, comprising of all the interacting organ-
isms in an area together with the non–living constituents of the environment.
Two main components of Ecosystem are :
(i) Biotic component
(ii) Abiotic component
An aquarium is an artificial and incomplete ecosystem compared to pond or lakes which are natural,
self–sustaining and complete ecosystem where there is a perfect recycling of materials.
Cleaning of aquarium—
(a) absence of natural decomposer.
(b) stagnancy of water. 1+1+1
Ans. 6 :  In a food chain the energy moves progressively through the various trophic levels and is no longer
available to the organisms of the previous trophic level/ energy captured by the autotrophs does
not revert back to the solar input. 1
 Pesticides used for crop protection when washed away/down into the soil/water bodies absorbed
by plants/ producers. 1
 On consumption they enter our food chain and being non - biodegradable, these chemicals get
accumulated progressively and enter our body. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1
Ans. 7 : (i) The full form of :
(a) UNEP : United Nations Environment Programmes. 1
(b) CFCs : Chlorofluoro Carbons. 1
P-64 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
(ii) Organisms can grouped as producers, consumers and decomposers according to the manner in
which they obtain their sustenance from the environment. 1
(iii) Two problems that would arise in absence of decomposers in an ecosystem are :
(a) Decomposition of garbage as well as dead plants and animals will not take place. 1
(b) Natural replenishment of soil will not take place. 1
qqq
Ans. 1 : Herbivores or primary consumers are the second trophic level. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1
Ans. 2 : Forest, Ponds, Lakes (or any other). [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] ½ + ½
Ans. 3 : Decomposers are micro-organisms such as bacteria and fungi, that obtain nutrients by breaking down
the remains of dead plants and animals.
Role of decomposers :
(a) They recycle matter by breaking down the organic remains and waste products of plants and
animals.
(b) These recycled matter are washed up and enter the soil from where plants absorb the nutrients
again. 1+½+½
Ans. 4 : (i) They help in the breakdown of organic matter or biomass of dead plants and animals into simple
inorganic raw materials such as CO2, H2O and nutrients.
(ii) They help in the natural replenishment of soil. They help in keeping the environment clean. 1+1
Ans. 5 : The producers convert solar energy into chemical energy in the form of organic compounds. The
primary consumers (herbivores) derive their nutrition from the producers. According to the energy
transfer law, only 10% of energy is transferred from one trophic level to the other. So, the energy
that is captured by the producers does not revert back to the Sun and the energy transferred to the
herbivores does not come back to the producers. It just keeps on moving to the next trophic level in
a unidirectional way. That is why the flow of energy in the food chain is always unidirectional.
A large number of pesticides and chemicals are used to protect our crops from pests and diseases.
Some of these chemicals are washed down from the soil, while some enter the water bodies. From the
soil, they are absorbed by plants along with water and minerals; and from the water bodies, they are
taken up by aquatic plants and animals. This is how these chemicals enter the food chain. As these
chemicals cannot decompose, they accumulate progressively at each trophic level. This increase in the
concentration of harmful chemicals with each step of the food chain is called biomagnification. As hu-
man beings occupy the top level in any food chain, these chemicals get accumulated in our bodies. 3
Ans. 6 : A large number of pesticides and chemicals are used to protect our crops from pests and diseases.
Some of these chemicals are washed down into the soil, while some enter in the water bodies. From
the soil, they are absorbed by plants along with water and minerals; and from water bodies, they are
taken up by aquatic plants and animals. This is how these chemicals enter the food chain. Because
these chemicals cannot decompose, they accumulate progressively at each trophic level. As the food
chain proceeds, the concentration of pesticides also increases. This increase in the concentration of
harmful chemicals with each step of the food chain is called biomagnification. That is why food grains,
such as wheat and rice, vegetables, fruits and even meat are found to contain pesticide residue. 3
Ans. 7 : (i) Food chain : A succession of organisms in an ecological community that constitutes a continuation
of food energy from one organism to another as each consumer is a lower member and in turn is
preyed upon by a higher member is called a food chain. 1
(ii) Trophic level : Each step or level of the food chain is called trophic level. 1
(iii) Producers : Producers are organisms like plants and blue green algae that produce complex
organic compound from simple inorganic molecules using energy from sunlight in presence of
chlorophyll. 1
(iv) An organism that lives on or in another organism, obtain nourishment and protection while of-
fering no benefit in return is called a parasite. 1
(v) Non-biodegradable substance are substances that cannot be broken down by biological process-
ers. 1
qqq
S O L U T I ON P-65
Ans. 1 : If all the snakes of food chain are killed, the peacocks belonging to the next level will also die. Also
the population of rats in the preceding level will highly increase.
Ans. 2 : Second trophic level — Frog

Third trophic level — Rabbit. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] ½+½
Ans. 3 : (1) The earth would be covered with dead organisms and their excrement.
(2) Decomposers are recyclers of life materials, returning them to the system for use by living organ-
isms. 1+1
Ans. 4 : In a food web, each organism is generally eaten by two or more other kinds of organisms which in
turn are eaten by several other organisms.
So, a food web is a complex network of many interconnected food chains and feeding relationships.
2
Ans. 5 : It is a simple representation of energy flow in nature.
For example : A rat eats grains,a snake eats a rat,which in turn, is eaten by an eagle.
In a food chain, the number of trophic levels are limited to 4-5. This is because according to 10% law
of energy transfer, only 10% of energy passes from one trophic level to next. Thus the amount of en-
ergy decreases with successive trophic levels. After five trophic levels, existence of organisms would
become impossible with such negligible amount of energy. 2+1
Ans. 6 : Biotic factors are the living components of the environment which interact with each other as well as
with the abiotic factors of the ecosystem. Example : Plants and animals. 2+½+½
Ans. 7 : (i) Omnivores, (ii) Decomposers, (iii) Producers, (iv) Food web, (v) Biological magnification. 1 × 5 = 5
qqq
Ans. 1 : Biological magnification. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] 1
Ans. 2 : Abiotic and biotic components. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] ½+½
Ans. 3 : Four examples of abiotic factors are :
(i) Temperature, (ii) Rain, (iii) Soil, (iv) Wind. ½+½+½+½
Ans. 4 : There is only 10% flow of energy from one trophic level to the next higher level. The loss of energy
at each step is so great that very little usuable energy remains after four or five trophic levels. Hence,
only 4 to 5 trophic levels are present in each food chain. 2
Ans. 5 : Organisms that feed directly or indirectly on producers and cannot synthesized their own food from
inorganic sources are called consumers. 2
Herbivores, Carnivores, Omnivores and Parasites are various categories of consumers. 1
Ans. 6 : Biological magnification refers to the process of increase in the concentration of a toxic chemical with
increasing trophic level in a food chain. 1
Harmful or poisonous substance such as DDT sprinkled to kill pests on plants enter the food chain.
The plants absorb these harmful chemicals from soil along with water and minerals. They enter the
food chain at producer level and then transfers to the next trophic level. The tertiary consumers get
more higher levels of these chemicals. 2
Ans. 7 : (i) Trees, Shrubs, (ii) Lion, Cheetah, (iii) Used and torn paper, broken pieces of wooden furnitures. (iv)
Forest, Garden, (v) Temperature, rainfall. 1×5=5
qqq
P-66 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
TOPIC-2
Biodegradable and Non - Biodegradable
Substances and Global Warming
Ans. 1 : Leather bag. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1
Ans. 2 : Ozone layer protects the earth from harmful radiations like high energy ultraviolet radiations from
passing through it. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1
Ans. 3 : (i) Banners and signboards educating people about the ill effects of improper disposal of wastes
can be erected / hanged in residential colonies.
(ii) Street plays highlighting the ill effects of improper disposal of wastes can be organized. 1+1
Ans. 4 : Government of India is imposing a ban on the use of polythene bags because they cannot be degraded
naturally by the action of microorganisms. Because of their non-biodegradability, they stay in the soil
for a long time and continue to poison it with toxic by-products that keep leaching from them. Also,
they do not allow water to seep in, as they are waterproof. These polythene bags, when accidentally
eaten by stray animals, can harm them and can even lead to their death.
Jute and cloth bags can be used in place of polythene bags.
They are environment-friendly as they are biodegradable.
They are renewable and can be easily recycled.
Thus, using jute and cloth bags will helps to reduce pollution. 1+½+½
Ans. 5 : Difference between biodegradable and non–biodegradable substances :
Biodegradable Substance Non-biodegradableSubstance
(i) The substance which are broken down into The substances which cannot be broken down
simpler, harmless substance in nature in due into simpler, harmless substances in nature. These
course of time by the biological processes substances may be in solid, liquid or gaseous
such as action of micro-organisms. form and may be inert and accumulate in the
environment.
(ii) Example : Domestic waste products, sewage. Examples-DDT and polythene bags.
Two methods of disposal of non-biodegradable waste are :
(i) Recycling : The wastes are treated and same value materials are extracted for reuse.
(ii) Incineration : Medical and toxic waste are burnt at high temperature in incineration. Incinerators
transform the waste into ashes. 2+1
Ans. 6 : (i) As the top layer of soil is used up in making kulhads, it leads to infertility of the soil.
(ii) As decomposers, e.g., bacteria and fungi act on all trophic levels when the organisms occupying that
level dies.
(iii) Producers are green plants, so they can convert solar energy into chemical energy in the form of food
molecules. 1+1+1
Ans. 7 : Vegetarian food chain will be suggested in case of entry of non-biodegradable toxic chemical into the
food chain.
Non-biodegradable chemical gets concentrated at every trophic level by the process of biological
concentration. As the concentration increases with the number of trophic level in a food chain, man
will get high concentration of the chemical in non–vegetarian food chain than in a vegetarian food
chain. Example :
Vegetarian food chain :
Plants → Man
5 PPM 240 PPM
of DDT of DDT
S O L U T I ON P-67
Non-vegetarian food chain :
Plants → Goat → Man
5 PPM 240 PPM 1600 PPM
of DDT of DDT of DDT
Vegetarian food chain is advantageous in terms of energy available to man because it has less number
of trophic level. As 90% of energy is lost to the environment, at every level lesser number of trophic
level will result in lesser energy loss. 3 +2
qqq
Ans. 1 : So that the time and energy required in segregation may be saved and waste may be disposed off
quickly. (Any other)[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1
Detailed Answer
Biodegradable materials are broken down by micro-organisms in natural into simple harmless sub-
stances. Non-biodegradable materials need a different treatment like heat and temperature and hence
should be discarded in a different bin 1
Ans. 2 : Hawk.
Biomagnification. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] ½ + ½
Ans. 3 : There is a ban on the use of polythene bags for shopping in some states of our country because they
cannot be degraded naturally by the action of microorganisms. Because of their non-biodegradability,
they stay in the soil for a long time and continue to poison it with toxic by-products that keep leaching
from them. Also, they do not allow water to seep in, as they are waterproof. These polythene bags
when accidentally eaten by stray animals can harm them and can even cause their death.
The three advantages of using jute or cloth bags over polythene bags are as follows :
Cloth or jute bags are environment-friendly; they are biodegradable.
They are renewable and can be easily recycled.
They have more strength than polythene bags because they are thick and can be used again and
again. ½x4
Ans. 4 : (i) Gardening and planting trees.
(ii) Use of gunny bags / paper bags in place of polythene.
(iii) Use of compost and vermicompost in place of fertilizers.
(iv) Separation of biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances. (Any two) 1+1
Ans. 5 : Ozone is a molecule containing three atoms of oxygen (O3)/ a highly poisonous gas present in the
upper layer of the atmosphere. 1
Formation of ozone — The UV radiations split some molecular oxygen (O2) apart into free oxygen
atoms (O + O). These atoms then combine with molecular oxygen to form ozone.
Or
UV
O2  → O +O
O + O2 → O3
(Ozone) ½+½
Effect — Ozone layer shields the surface of the earth from the damaging UV radiations of the sun.
Ans. 6 : The high energy of UV radiations breakdown some molecules of O2 into atoms of oxygen. One atom
of oxygen binds to one molecule of O3 to form O2. Ozone prevents UV rays to reach earth surface.
U.V.
O2  → O + O
O2 + O → O3 (Ozone)
Example : Chlorofluorocarbons. 1+1+1
P-68 S C I E N C E - X T E R M - 2
Ans. 7 : Carbon compounds which contain chlorine and fluorine are called CFCs (chlorofluorocarbons). e.g.,
CCl2 F2 (Dichloro difluoro methane). They lead to depletion of ozone layer causing ozone hole. (Nitric
oxide also reacts with ozone to form NO2 and O2. CFCs (Chlorofluorocarbons) react with ozone in
stratosphere and depletes ozone.
(i) It may lead to skin burns.
(ii) It may cause skin cancer. 1+2+2
qqq
Ans. 1 : Chlorofluorocarbons. 1
Ans. 2 : Industrial effluents, domestic sewage, emission from vehicles causes pollution. 1
Ans. 3 : An aerosol can be defined as a dispersion of solid and liquid particles suspended in gas. Atmospheric
aerosols, unsurprisingly, refer to solid and liquid particles suspended in air. Aerosols are produced
by dozens of different processes that occur on land and water surfaces, and in the atmosphere itself.
There is a demand to put a ban on them because of their deteriorating effect on Earth’s ozone layer.1+1
Ans. 4 : The Great Himalayan National Park contains within its reserved area, alpine meadows which were
grazed by sheeps in summer. But now without regular grazing by sheep, the grass first grows very
tall and then falls over, preventing fresh growth. 2
Ans. 5 : Due to ozone layer depletion, the ultraviolet rays reaches earth and causes certain ill-effects which are
bad for us and for crops. Exposure to U-V rays can lead to greater incidence of skin cancer’s cataracts
and damages to the eye and immune deficiency. 1
Two steps to limit this damage are :
(i) Minimizing the use of CFCs. 1
(ii) CFC’s released into air accumulates in the upper atmosphere and reacts with ozone resulting in
reduction in the thickness of the ozone layer. 1
Ans. 6 : (i) They cause biomagnification and increase pollution. 1
(ii) They make environment unclean. 1
(iii) They kill useful micro-organisms. 1
Ans. 7 : (a) Ayush can make few banners requesting tourists to keep the beach clean and put it in different
locations at the beach. He can also mobilise a few volunteers from local people to start a cleanli-
ness drive on the beach. The volunteers should be motivated to do the cleanliness drive once or
twice every month. 1½
(b) The government can enforce law to prevent people from throwing items on the beach. Designated
place should be kept for eating at the beach. Garbage bins should be placed at proper distances
for easy waste disposal. 1½
qqq
qqq
S O L U T I ON P-69

Carbon and Its Properties, Homologous Series and IUPAC Names

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Carbon and Its Properties, Homologous Series and IUPAC Names

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CHAPTER

Ans. 3 : (a) (i) Methanoic acid, (ii) Butanone. ½+½

Ans. 2 : Ten covalent bonds. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1

Ans. 2 : Ethyne C2H2 [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1

Ans. 2 : 0.02% . [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012, 13] 1

SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT WORKSHEET-5

Conc. H2SO4 + heat

CH3 — C — OCH2CH3 + H2O

Ans. 6 : Molecular formula of ethyne = C2H2

Vegetable oil Vanaspati ghee

Ans. 2 : Acetic acid or vinegar. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012] 1

Ans. 4 : (a) 2C2H5OH + 2Na → 2C2H5ONa + H2 ½+½

3. They are fully They are non-

4. They take time to dissolve in water. They dissolve faster in water.

[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2011]½+½+½+½

SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT WORKSHEET- 14

Ans. 4 : (i) Atomic size ½

Ans. 6 : (a) Non-metals

Ans. 4 : It will be 7 in X as well as in Z. 1

Ans. 5 : (i) Na/Sodium.

Ans. 4 : (a) 1 pm = 10–12 m. 1

Ans. 4 : It is three in Na, Al and P. 1

Ans. 2 : Reproduction. [CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1

SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT WORKSHEET- 21

SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT WORKSHEET- 23

Ans. 6 : l Four methods

two daughter amoebae

SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT WORKSHEET- 27

Ans. 6 : Sex of a child depends on what happens during fertilisation.

Mother’s Ova Father’s Sperm

Offsprings Female Child Male Child

[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 2 + 1

[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1 + 1 + 1 + 2

SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT WORKSHEET- 31

Ans. 7 : Speciation—Formation of new species from pre-existing ones. 1

[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 2

[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1

[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2012]

SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT WORKSHEET- 41

Ans. 4 : (a) Convex lens

Ans. 6 : l There are two laws of refraction :

Speed of light in vacuum c = 2 × 108 × 1.5 = 3.0 × 108 m/s

Given focal length f = +10 cm

Light rays converging

[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2014] 1+1+1

HUMAN EYE AND COLOURFUL

SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT WORKSHEET- 47

Ans. 4 : (i) Presbyopia. 1

(ii) (a) Elongation of the eye ball ½

Rectified by concave lens 1

Parallel rays coming L

[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1+2+2

SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT WORKSHEET- 51

A refraction from the

Beam of white light

Observer Water drop

Ans. 3 : This is because of scattering of light. 1

SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT WORKSHEET- 54

Dispersion of White Light E

[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015] 1+1

Ans. 5 : We must conserve our forest because :

SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT WORKSHEET- 60