Multiple choice

1)
Which functionality does the patented vPower technology provide?

 Speeding up data movement and the conversion step of the recovery process

 Making backup files available to run like regular VM disk files directly from backup
storage

 Making it possible to create an isolated environment for data verification

Score: 2.5
Multiple choice
2)
How does Veeam ONE gain access to information about your virtual infrastructure?

 Veeam ONE uses Veeam Data Mover service deployed on the chosen servers.

 Veeam ONE uses data collected by Veeam Backup & Replication.

 Veeam ONE uses network connection to get rich data from a set of APIs and OS
subsystems.

Score: 0

Correct answer(s):

 Veeam ONE uses Veeam Data Mover service deployed on the chosen servers.

 Veeam ONE uses data collected by Veeam Backup & Replication.

 Veeam ONE uses network connection to get rich data from a set of APIs and OS
subsystems.

Multiple choice
3)
When can VM Configuration Assessment report be used?

 To calculate the potential amount of free space that should be available on the
target repositories

 To find out incompatibilities that can potentially prevent or hinder future backup
operations

 To get an overview on which VMs have up-to-date restore points and validate their
RPO compliance

Score: 2.5
Multiple choice
4)
Where should the transport mode for a particular job be defined?
  Job settings

 Veeam Backup & Replication main menu

 Settings of the backup proxy that performs the job

Score: 2.5
Multiple choice
5)
In which interface can you set up for the email notifications about all jobs performed on
the Veeam backup server to be aggregated in one email?

 Veeam ONE Reporter

 Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager

 Veeam Backup & Replication

Score: 0

Correct answer(s):

 Veeam ONE Reporter

 Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager

 Veeam Backup & Replication

Multiple choice
6)
Which of the following best describes the retention policy number for the backup chain?

 The number of backup files that will be stored at the backup repository for a
specific job

 The number of days that you will be able to 'roll back'

 The number of restore points that you want to be able to restore from

Score: 2.5
Multiple choice
7)
Which of the following is true regarding the forward incremental backup method
compared to the forever forward incremental?

 It results in higher daily impact on destination storage.

 On some days, there will be more restore points on the disk than specified by your
retention policy.

 It does not require active or synthetic full backups.

Score: 2.5
Multiple choice
8)
Which of the following is an extension for a full backup file if the forever forward
incremental backup method is used?

 .vbk

 .vbr

 .vrb

 .vbi

Score: 2.5
Multiple choice
9)
Which of the following 3-2-1 rule helps to ensure?

 Resource pooling

 Successful data protection and DR strategy

 Lower RPO

 Application-consistent backup

Score: 2.5
Multiple choice
10)
If the compression level is changed for an existing backup job, when will the new settings
be applied?

 At the next run of the job

 Only after a new active full backup is created

 Only after the repository that stores the backup files is readded to the interface

Score: 2.5
Multiple choice
11)
The DR site contains a backup repository which is a CIFS share. How does adding a
backup proxy server at this DR site optimize the backup process?

 It automatically enables WAN acceleration.

 It enables the possibility to reconnect the data transfer in case of network issue.

 Veeam Data Mover service on the DR site speeds up data operation.

Score: 0

Correct answer(s):
  It automatically enables WAN acceleration.

 It enables the possibility to reconnect the data transfer in case of network issue.

 Veeam Data Mover service on the DR site speeds up data operation.

Multiple choice
12)
What is the purpose of backing up SQL transaction logs?

 It allows item-level recovery for the Microsoft SQL server database.

 It allows point-in-time recovery for the Microsoft SQL server database.

 It ensures that backups of the Microsoft SQL server database are application-
consistent.

Score: 2.5
Multiple choice
13)
Which of the following conditions requires the use of pre-freeze and post-thaw scripts to
ensure transaction consistency when backing up a VM?

 It is a Hyper-V VM

 A network connection between the Veeam Server and this particular VM cannot be
established

 You chose to quiesce this particular VM using the native hypervisor means

 You are backing up SQL transaction logs

 This particular VM is running applications that do not support VSS

Score: 2.5
Multiple choice
14)
Which feature or component of Veeam Backup & Replication may be used for patch
deployment testing?

 Quick Backup

 Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager

 Failover Plan

 SureBackup

Score: 2.5
Multiple choice
15)
Which of the following differs when verifying the recoverability of the restore points
created by a backup job and by a replication job?
  Job configuration wizard

 Application test

 CRC check

Score: 2.5
Multiple choice
16)
Which of the following statements is true regarding an application group?

 It can contain VMs from both Microsoft Hyper-V and VMware vSphere.

 Only the VM running a main application is verified; others VMs take on the
supporting role.

 When the VM is added to the application group from the infrastructure, it must
have at least one valid restore point.

 It can be set to keep running once the SureBackup job completes.

Score: 2.5
Multiple choice
17)
Which of the following levels of encryption will Veeam try first for tape media?

 Hardware

 Software

 In-flight

Score: 0

Correct answer(s):

 Hardware

 Software

 In-flight

Multiple response
18)
Which of the following are deployment scenarios offered by Veeam ONE?

 Typical

 Client

 Enterprise

 Business View
  Advanced

 Standard

Score: 2.5
Multiple response
19)
Which data does Veeam Backup & Replication store at the backup repository?

 Replica metadata

 Backup chain metadata

 VM Replica

 SAN storage snapshot

 Configuration backup

Score: 0.84

Correct answer(s):

 Replica metadata

 Backup chain metadata

 VM Replica

 SAN storage snapshot

 Configuration backup

Multiple response
20)
Which of the following challenges would require you to restore using the configuration
backup?

 Veeam backup server has failed and you want to recover it.

 You want to migrate settings of one Veeam backup server to another Veeam
backup server.

 You have replaced a Veeam backup repository.

 You need to restore a backup which has already been removed from the backup
repository by the retention policy settings.

 You need to take off the load from your Veeam backup server and decide to deploy
a second one

Score: 2.5
Multiple response
21)
Which of the following settings in Veeam Backup & Replication can be enforced globally?
  Backup I/O Control

 Backup file encryption

 Parallel processing

 The use of storage snapshots instead of VMware snapshots

 Application-aware processing

Score: 1.25

Correct answer(s):

 Backup I/O Control

 Backup file encryption

 Parallel processing

 The use of storage snapshots instead of VMware snapshots

 Application-aware processing

Multiple response
22)
Which of the following conditions must be true at the same time for the automatic job
retry to happen?

 A number of retries is defined in the job settings

 A job ended with a warning

 A job schedule is enabled in the job settings

 Application-aware data processing is enabled in the job settings

 It is a backup job

Score: 0

Correct answer(s):

 A number of retries is defined in the job settings

 A job ended with a warning

 A job schedule is enabled in the job settings

 Application-aware data processing is enabled in the job settings

 It is a backup job

Multiple response
23)
Which of the listed processes leverage Changed Block Tracking?

 Instant File-Level Recovery

 Quick rollback

 Configuration restore

 Incremental backup

 Replica failover

Score: 2.5

Correct answer(s):

 Instant File-Level Recovery

 Quick rollback

 Configuration restore

 Incremental backup

 Replica failover

Multiple response
24)
Which of the following may be used to speed up a backup copy job?

 Parallel processing

 Increasing synchronization interval

 WAN acceleration

 Selecting that a backup copy job creates a synthetic full instead of an active full
backup

Score: 1.25

Correct answer(s):

 Parallel processing

 Increasing synchronization interval

 WAN acceleration

 Selecting that a backup copy job creates a synthetic full instead of an active full
backup

Multiple response
25)
Which of the following can be encrypted in Veeam Backup & Replication?

 VM backup file

 VM replica

 Network traffic

 Tape media

 Objects restored from a VM backup

Score: 2.5

Correct answer(s):

 VM backup file

 VM replica

 Network traffic

 Tape media

 Objects restored from a VM backup

Multiple response
26)
Which of the following always requires a 64-bit version of Windows?

 Backup Repository server

 Veeam WAN Accelerator server

 Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager

 Cloud Gateway server

 Tape server

Score: 1.25

Correct answer(s):

 Backup Repository server

 Veeam WAN Accelerator server

 Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager

 Cloud Gateway server

 Tape server

Multiple response
27)
Which Veeam Backup & Replication jobs can be run through WAN accelerators?

 Backup

 Replication

 SQL Server Logs Backup

 Backup copy

 Instant VM Recovery

Score: 2.5
Multiple response
28)
Which of the following built-in predefined tests can be performed to verify a VM backup?

 Heartbeat test

 Ping test

 Hard drive test

 Application test

 OS boot test

Score: 2.5
Multiple response
29)
Which of the following procedures in Veeam Backup & Replication are a temporary state
that must be further finalized?

 Instant VM Recovery

 Entire VM Recovery

 Failback

 Multi-OS file-level restore

 U-AIR

Score: 1.25

Correct answer(s):

 Instant VM Recovery

 Entire VM Recovery

 Failback

 Multi-OS file-level restore

  U-AIR

Multiple response
30)
Which of the following could be restored with the Instant File Level Recovery?

 A folder of files

 An Microsoft Outlook item

 Individual file from a replica

 VM configuration file

 Veeam backup server configuration

Score: 2.5
Multiple response
31)
Which of the following statements must be true when using Veeam Explorer for Microsoft
SQL Server to restore the database state a point in time?

 A SureBackup job is configured for the SQL server in question.

 CBT is enabled at the SQL server in question.

 SQL transaction log backup is created by Veeam for the SQL server in question.

 SQL transaction log backup is created by a third-party software for the SQL server
in question.

 The user is running the Enterprise Plus edition of Veeam Backup & Replication.

 The recovery model for the database is set to Full or Bulk-Logged.

Score: 2.5
Multiple response
32)
Which of the following are some of the SAN storage systems compatible with the Backup
from SAN Snapshot feature in Veeam Backup & Replication?

 HPE StoreVirtual VSA

 HPE EVA P6000

 Dell Compellent

 NetApp Data ONTAP Edge

 EMC Data Domain

Score: 2.5
Multiple response
33)
Which of the following actions should be taken in order to connect a tape library to Veeam
Backup & Replication?
  Check if the drives are LTO3 or newer.

 Restart Veeam Tape Catalog Service.

 Add a tape server to the Veeam Backup & Replication UI.

 Add a gateway server to the Veeam Backup & Replication UI.

Score: 2.5

Correct answer(s):

 Check if the drives are LTO3 or newer.

 Restart Veeam Tape Catalog Service.

 Add a tape server to the Veeam Backup & Replication UI.

 Add a gateway server to the Veeam Backup & Replication UI.

Multiple response
34)
Which of the following features are only available in Enterprise Plus edition?

 Backup I/O per-datastore configuration

 vCloud Director support

 Veeam Cloud Connect

 Deduplicating storage integrations

 Self-service file restore portal for application owners

Score: 1.25

Correct answer(s):

 Backup I/O per-datastore configuration

 vCloud Director support

 Veeam Cloud Connect

 Deduplicating storage integrations

 Self-service file restore portal for application owners

Multiple response
35)
Which of the following can take effect on the response time SLA when a case with Veeam
Support is opened?

 The customer's region

  The number of cases previously opened by the customer

 The customer's choice of support program

 Case severity

Score: 1.25

Correct answer(s):

 The customer's region

 The number of cases previously opened by the customer

 The customer's choice of support program

 Case severity

Association
36)
Match the following Veeam Backup & Replication components with their purposes.

 Veeam backup proxy - Data processing

 Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager - Federating Veeam backup servers
 Veeam Backup Search - Search performance optimization
 Veeam backup repository - Storing backup files

Score: 2.5

Correct answer(s):

 Veeam backup proxy - Data processing

 Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager - Federating Veeam backup servers
 Veeam Backup Search - Search performance optimization
 Veeam backup repository - Storing backup files

Association
37)
Match the following types of the full backup with the way it is created.

 Synthetic full backup - A full backup is constructed on the repository from the data
already located there
 Active full backup - The data for the whole VM is retrieved from the production
datastore
 Virtual synthesized full backup - A full backup is created directly on tape

Score: 2.5

Correct answer(s):
  Synthetic full backup - A full backup is constructed on the repository from the data
already located there
 Active full backup - The data for the whole VM is retrieved from the production
datastore
 Virtual synthesized full backup - A full backup is created directly on tape

Association
38)
Match each feature with a situation it should be optimally used in.

 Planned Failover of the replica VM - Provide users with access to the production-
critical VM while source site is temporarily down
 Instant File-Level Restore - Restore an individual file from the replica VM
 Permanent Failover of the replica VM - Bring up a replica VM at the DR site when the
source site is completely destroyed
 Failover of the replica VM - Keep the production VM online while the production host is
patched

Score: 1.26

Correct answer(s):

 Planned Failover of the replica VM - Keep the production VM online while the
production host is patched
 Instant File-Level Restore - Restore an individual file from the replica VM
 Permanent Failover of the replica VM - Bring up a replica VM at the DR site when the
source site is completely destroyed
 Failover of the replica VM - Provide users with access to the production-critical VM
while source site is temporarily down

Association
39)
Match the backup file extension with the information it contains

 .vsb - Pointers to backup data blocks

 .vlb - SQL server transaction log files
 .vbm - Backup metadata
 .vbk - Copies of full VM images
 .vib or .vrb - Incremental changes to VM images
 .bco - Veeam configuration backup

Score: 2.5

Correct answer(s):

 .vsb - Pointers to backup data blocks

  .vlb - SQL server transaction log files
 .vbm - Backup metadata
 .vbk - Copies of full VM images
 .vib or .vrb - Incremental changes to VM images
 .bco - Veeam configuration backup

Association
40)
Match the Veeam Backup & Replication edition with the feature that becomes available
with this edition.

 Free - Encryption
 Standard - Planned Failover
 Enterprise - SureBackup
 Enterprise Plus - On-Demand Sandbox for Storage Snapshots

Score: 2.5

Correct answer(s):

 Free - Encryption
 Standard - Planned Failover
 Enterprise - SureBackup
 Enterprise Plus - On-Demand Sandbox for Storage Snapshots