QUIZ No.

5 LOWER LIMB

Test How many bones participate in the formation of the knee?

№ 01
A There are 3: The Femur, Patella and Sacrum
B There are 2: The Femur and Tibia
C There are 3: The Femur, Patella and Tibia
D There are 2: The Femur and Fibula
E There are 3: The Fibula, Patella and Tibia

Test Which major leg muscle is utilized for tiptoeing?

№ 02
A The Gastrocenemius
B Vastus medialis
C Vastus lateralis
D Tibialis anterior
E Peroneus longus

Test Proximally, the femoral artery is fed by which artery?

№03
A The Tibial artery
B The Femoral Artery
C The Pudendal artery
D The Obturator artery
E The Iliac Artery

Test Distally, the sciatic nerve divides into what 2 nerves?

№ 04
A The Tibial and Femoral Nerver
B The Tibial and Common Peroneal Nerves
C The Tibial and Sacral Nerver
D The Obturator and Semoral
E The Common Peroneal and Deep Peroneal Nerves

Test If you were told that your patient had a three-in-one block, what nerves should be
№ 05 blocked?
A The Femoral, Obturator and Lateral Femoral Cutaneous Nerves
B The Femoral, Obturator and Tibial Nerves
C The Tibial and Femoral Nerve
D The Tibial and Common Peroneal Nerves
E The Tibial, Femoral and Common Peroneal Nerves

Test What block is well suited for surgery such on the anterior thigh, knee, quadriceps
№06 tendon repair, and postoperative pain management after femur and knee surgery?
A The Tibial Nerve Block
B The Common Peroneal Nerve Block
C The Obturator Nerve Block
D The Femoral Nerve Block
E The Lateral Femoral Cutaneous Nerve Block

1
Test Blockade of this nerve will provide anesthesia of the skin of the posterior aspect of
№07 the thigh, hamstrings and biceps muscles, part of hip and knee joint, and entire leg
below the knee, with the exception of the skin of the medial aspect of the lower leg.
A The Sciatic Nerve
B The Lateral Femoral Cutaneous Nerve
C The Obturator Nerve
D The Femoral Nerve
E The Lateral Femoral Cutaneous Nerve

Test Cancerous lymph nodes may envelope and destroy adjacent structures as it grows.
№ 08 A physician might suspect involvement of lymph nodes in the anterolateral pelvis
because one of the following movements in a patient is weakened or lost. Which
movement is it?
A lateral rotation of the thigh
B adduction of the thigh
C extension of the knee
D abduction of the thigh
E flexion of the thigh

Test Which group of muscles below is supplied by the obturator nerve?

№ 09
A the chief adductors of the thigh
B the chief lateral rotators of the thigh
C the chief flexors of the thigh
D the chief extensors of the thigh
E the chief abductors of the thigh

Test If the foot is permanently dorsiflexed (extended) and everted, which nerve is NOT
№ 10 functioning properly?
A femoral
B tibial
C deep peroneal
D common peroneal
E superficial peroneal

Test The greater sciatic notch is formed into a foramen by which of the following
№ 11 ligaments?
A interosseous sacroiliac
B sacrospinous
C dorsal sacroiliac
D uterosacral
E arcuate

Test Nerves can frequently be compressed against bony structures in the lower limb.
№ 12 The nerve that rests against the head and neck of the fibula is the:
A saphenous
B common peroneal
C lateral sural cutaneous
D tibial
E medial sural cutaneous

2
Test Of the following, which is the principal invertor of the foot?
№ 13
A peroneus longus
B tibialis anterior
C popliteus
D soleus
E gastrocnemius

Test At the ankle joint, the tibia and fibula articulate with the:
№ 14
A cuboid
B calcaneus
C talus
D cuneiform
E navicular

Test The abductor digiti minimi muscle is located in which layer of the sole of the foot?
№ 15
A first
B second
C third
D fourth
E fifth

Test If the area marked "A" is numb to the touch, which nerve is not functioning?
№ 16

A tibial
B deep peroneal
C superficial peroneal
D medial sural cutaneous
E lateral sural cutaneous

Test The ligament which prevents forward (anterior) displacement of the femur at the
№ 17 knee joint is the:
A anterior cruciate ligament
B transverse ligament
C posterior cruciate ligament
D tibial collateral ligament
E popliteal ligament

Test The most powerful extensor of the thigh is the:

№ 18
A gluteus maximus
B psoas major
C iliacus
D obturator externus
E piriformis

3
Test Which of the following is found superficially immediately anterior to the medial
№ 19 malleolus?
A small saphenous vein
B greater saphenous vein
C dorsalis pedis artery
D arcuate artery
E anterior tibial artery

Test A man was hit in the leg by a baseball bat producing a fracture of the head and
№ 20 neck of the fibula and damaging a major nerve to the leg. Physical findings that
would be found is/are:
A inability to plantar flex his foot
B inability to dorsiflex his foot
C the foot would be everted
D flexion of the leg is lost
E extension of the leg is lost

Test Which of the following runs through a groove underneath the sustentaculum tali?
№ 21
A peroneus longus tendon
B tibialis posterior artery
C flexor hallucis longus tendon
D tibialis nerve
E flexor digitorum longus tendon

Test In the following list what is the main invertor of the foot is the:
№ 22
A peroneus brevis
B tibialis posterior
C flexor hallucis longus
D flexor digitorum longus
E peroneus longus

Test If a patient cannot stand on his heal, which nerve is not functioning?
№ 23
A tibial nerve
B femoral nerve
C medial plantar nerve
D deep peroneal nerve
E obturator nerve

Test Which of these ligaments helps most to prevent overextension (hyperextension) at

№ 24 the hip joint?
A pubofemoral
B iliofemoral
C ischiofemoral
D ligamentum teres femoris
E scarotuberous

4
Test Following a car accident and some healing time, a patient is not able to rise from a
№ 25 sitting position. This could be due to a lesion of which of the following nerves?
A femoral
B obturator
C nerve to iliopsoas
D superior gluteal
E inferior gluteal

Test When you stand on one foot, the free limb has a tendency to drop. Which of the
№ 26 following prevents this from happening?
A biceps femoris
B gluteus maximus
C piriformis
D gluteus medius
E iliacus

Test The nerve that is responsible for the above is the:

№ 27
A femoral
B superior gluteal
C inferior gluteal
D obturator
E pudendal

Test Which of the following dorsiflexes the foot but also inverts it?
№ 28
A tibialis anterior
B extensor hallucis
C extensor digitorum longus
D tibialis posterior
E peroneus longus

Test Which of the following is NOT a lateral rotator of the hip?

№ 29
A piriformis
B gluteus medius
C obturator internus
D obturator externus
E quadratus femoris

Test As the sciatic nerve passes vertically from the gluteal region into the thigh, it runs
№ 30 midway between the ischial tuberosity and the:
A iliac crest
B symphysis pubis
C greater trochanter
D ischial ramus
E lesser trochanter

5
Test A quick way to check the function a one of the nerves of the leg is to pinch the skin
№ 31 between the big toe and 2nd toe. Which nerve are you checking?
A deep peroneal
B lateral plantar
C sural
D saphenous
E superficial peroneal

Test By knowing where the major vessels and nerves are located in the gluteal region,
№ 32 you should know where the safest place would be to administer an intramuscular
injection. It is in:
A the lower medial quadrant
B upper medial quadrant
C upper lateral quadrant
D lower lateral quadrant
E none of the above

Test The medial border of the femoral triangle is formed by the:

№ 33
A sartorius muscle
B adductor longus muscle
C inguinal ligament
D pubic tubercle
E none of the above

Test Which muscle is NOT a flexor of the thigh?

№ 34
A pectineus
B rectus femoris
C iliopsoas
D sartorius
E adductor magnum

Test Paralysis of the quadriceps femoris results MAINLY is loss of:

№ 35
A lateral rotation of the leg
B extension of the leg
C flexion of the thigh
D extension of the thigh
E flexion of the leg

Test Which of the following muscles is NOT a lateral rotator of the thigh?
№ 36
A gemellus
B tensor fasciae latae
C obturator externus
D obturator internus
E piriformis

6
Test The medial plantar nerve is a branch of the:
№ 37
A femoral
B obturator
C common peroneal
D tibial
E Saphenous

Test The dorsalis pedis artery is usually a direct continuation of which artery?
№ 38
A femoral
B popliteal
C peroneal
D anterior tibial
E posterior tibial

Test A large muscle that is used rising from a squat or sitting position is
№ 39
A gluteus maximus
B iliopsoas
C biceps femoris
D rectus femoris
E gluteus medius

Test The chief flexor of the thigh is

№ 40
A gluteus maximus
B iliopsoas
C biceps femoris
D rectus femoris
E gluteus medius

Test This muscle has an origin from the ischial tuberosity

№ 41
A gluteus maximus
B iliopsoas
C biceps femoris
D rectus femoris
E gluteus medius

Test Following a football injury, a physician grabbed hold of a player’s leg and noticed
№ 42 that the tibia could be moved anteriorly with undue freedom, especially when the
knee was flexed. This disability should be diagnosed as a torn:
A anterior cruciate ligament
B lateral collateral ligament
C medial collateral ligament
D posterior cruciate ligament
E oblique popliteal ligament

7
Test A misplaced intramuscular injection into the gluteal region infiltrated the sciatic
№ 43 nerve and its surroundings, giving rise to temporary paralysis of the muscles
supplied by that nerve. All of the following would be involved EXCEPT for the:
A tibialis anterior
B soleus
C peroneus brevis
D gracilis
E popliteus

Test Tibial (medial) collateral ligament

№ 44
A Is attached to the medial meniscus
B Is attached to the lateral meninscus
C Extends between the lateral condyle of the femur and the tibial condyle
D Is outside the joint capsule
E All the above listed items are correct

Test Fibular (lateral) collateral ligament

№ 45
A is attached to the medial meniscus
B is attached to the lateral meninscus
C extends between the lateral condyle of the femur and the tibial condyle
D is outside the joint capsule
E All the above listed items are incorrect

Test A 63-year-old female patient says that she has pain in her groin and upper thigh.
№ 46 Upon examination, you palpate a lump located below the inguinal ligament lateral
to its attachment to the pubic tubercle. You suspect that this may be a hernia
passing through the:
A femoral canal
B adductor hiatus
C obturator canal
D deep inguinal ring
E superficial inguinal ring

Test The femoral canal contains the:

``````№
47
A Deep inguinal lymph node(s)
B Femoral artery
C Femoral nerve
D Femoral vein
E Ilioinguinal nerve

Test Which movement would fail in case of paralysis of the quadriceps femoris muscle?
№ 48
A Adduction at the hip
B Extension at the hip
C Extension at the knee
D Flexion at the knee
E Medial rotation at the knee

8
Test Which structure does NOT enter or leave the inguinal region by passing deep to the
№ 49 inguinal ligament?
A Femoral artery
B Femoral nerve
C Femoral vein
D Psoas major muscle
E Round ligament of the uterus

Test An elderly woman was found to have a hernial sac in the right femoral triangle and
№ 50 a marked weakness in adduction at the right hip joint. Which nerve was likely
compressed by this herniation?
A Femoral
B Inferior gluteal
C Obturator
D Pudendal
E Sciatic

Test When walking, the action of the iliopsoas muscle results in what motion at the hip
№ 51 joint?
A Abduction
B Adduction
C Extension
D Flexion
E Medial rotation

Tet The pulse of the femoral artery is best felt at which superficial reference point?
№ 52
A Anterior to the ankle joint
B Femoral triangle
C Mid-thigh
D Popliteal fossa
E Right lateral portion of the hypogastrium

Test If the femoral artery is occluded at the beginning of the adductor canal, which
№ 53 artery could help provide viability to the leg through collateral circulation?
A Descending branch of the lateral circumflex femoral
B Descending genicular
C First perforating branch of the deep femoral
D Medial circumflex femoral
E Obturator

Test At which site could one expect to enter the femoral vein with a simple percutaneous
№ 54 (through the skin) introduction of an instrument?
A Above the middle of the inguinal ligament
B Lateral to the femoral arterial pulse
C Lateral to the pubic tubercle
D Medial to the femoral arterial pulse
E Medial to the pubic tubercle

9
Test What anterior thigh muscle must be retracted to expose the adductor canal and its
№ 55 contents?
A Adductor magnus
B Gracilis
C Rectus femoris
D Sartorius
E Vastus intermedius

Test A serious complication of fractures of the femoral neck is avascular necrosis of the
№ 56 femoral head. This usually results from rupture of which artery?
A Acetabular branch of obturator
B Deep circumflex iliac
C Descending branch of lateral circumflex femoral
D Medial circumflex femoral
E Second perforating branch of lateral circumflex

Test A ruptured aneurysm in the most proximal portion of the deep femoral artery
№ 57 would result in a hematoma located initially in the:
A Adductor canal.
B Femoral canal.
C Femoral triangle.
D Inguinal canal.
E Popliteal fossa.

Test Following a penetrating injury to the left femoral triangle, a patient related that
№ 58 walking was virtually impossible because at every step the left knee collapsed into
flexion. This history suggests paralysis of which muscle?
A Adductor magnus.
B Biceps femoris.
C Gluteus maximus.
D Quadriceps femoris.
E Sartorius.

Test A patient with a tuberculous abscess (localized collection of pus) on the iliopsoas
№ 59 muscle in the femoral triangle presented impaired flexion of the thigh and
extension of the leg. Which of the following nerves was likely involved?
A Femoral
B Inferior gluteal
C Obturator
D Sciatic
E Superior gluteal

Test An obturator hernia that compresses the obturator nerve in the obturator canal
№ 60 may affect the function of all of the following muscles EXCEPT:
A Adductor brevis
B Adductor longus
C Gracilis
D Obturator externus
E Pectineus

10
Test Childhood immunizations are sometimes given via intramuscular injections into
№ 61 the quadriceps muscles of the anterior thigh. At the mid-thigh level, a needle
passing into the space deep to the sartorius muscle might pierce the femoral vessels
as they lie in the:
A Adductor canal
B Adductor hiatus
C Adductor triangle
D Femoral canal
E Femoral ring

Test A female patient complains of pain in her groin region that increases with
№ 62 coughing. An MRI reveals a loop of ilium passing inferiorly, posterior to the
superior pubic ramus. What type of hernia is this?
A Obturator
B Femoral
C direct inguinal
D indirect inguinal
E Lumbar

Test During a surgical procedure in which the lower abdominal wall has been opened,
№ 63 the retractor blades damaged a nerve lying between the iliacus and psoas major
muscles. The patient has weakened hip flexion and an inability to extend the knee,
as well as analgesia on the anterior thigh and medial leg. What nerve has been
compressed?
A Obturator
B Femoral
C Sciatic
D Tibial
E common fibular

Test Which of the following is NOT located within the adductor canal?
№ 64
A Saphenous nerve
B Femoral artery
C Nerve to vastus medialis
D Femoral vein
E Deep femoral artery

Test Inability to extend the knee and loss of cutaneous sensation over the anterior
№ 65 surface of the thigh would indicate a lesion or compression of the:
A Superior gluteal nerve
B Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
C Sciatic nerve
D Femoral nerve
E Obturator nerve

11
Test Which statement is true?
№ 66
A The femoral artery lies medial to the femoral vein
B The femoral vein lies medial to the femoral artery
C The external iliac veins join to form the inferior vena cava
D The inferior vena cava can not be imaged radiographically
E A and C

Test Blood flow around an occlusion of the femoral (superficial femoral) artery at the
№ 67 apex of the femoral triangle could be provided by:
A Anterior tibial recurrent
B Descending branch of the lateral circumflex femoral
C Descending genicular
D Medial circumflex femoral
E Perforating branches of the deep femoral

Test After suffering a penetrating injury in the left femoral triangle, a patient was
№ 68 unable to walk normally because her left knee collapsed into flexion upon weight
bearing. The nerve to which muscle was damaged?
A Adductor magnus
B Biceps femoris
C Gluteus maximus
D Gluteus medius
E Quadriceps femoris

Test "Scissor gait" is a condition in which one limb crosses in front of the other during
№ 69 stepping as a result of powerful hip adduction caused by continuous, unwanted
nerve activity. What is the nerve involved in this condition?
A Femoral
B Inferior gluteal
C Obturator
D Tibial
E Peroneal

Test In the middle third of the thigh, the superficial and deep femoral arteries are
№ 70 separated by:
A Adductor longus
B Adductor magnus
C Gracilis
D Pectineus
E Vastus medialis

Test Fracture of the femoral neck may lead to avascular necrosis of the femoral head
№ 71 due to the interruption of which artery?
A First perforating branch of the deep femoral
B Inferior epigastric
C Internal pudendal
D Lateral circumflex femoral
E Medial circumflex femoral

12
Test Following surgical opening of the adductor canal, a patient experienced a loss of
№ 72 cutaneous sensation of the medial side of the leg. Which nerve was cut?
A Ilioinguinal
B Femoral
C Obturator
D Medial sural cutaneous
E Saphenous

Test The four muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg includes all the listed
№ 73 items except:
A Gastrocnomius
B Tibial anterior
C Extensor Hallucis Longus
D Extensor Digitorum Longus
E Fibularis (peroneus) Tertiur

Test
№ 74 Cutaneous nerve distribution in the leg and foot includes:
A Saphenous nerve and superficial fibular nerve
B Deep fibular nerve and sural nerve
C Medial calcaneal branches of the tibial nerve and medial plantar nerve
D Lateral plantar nerve
E All the above listed

Test Which of the following statements towards the compartment syndrome is correct?
№ 75
A A group of symptoms which indicate a nerve, blood vessel or tendon is being constricted
due to swelling within a closed anatomic space.
B A compartment syndrome may occur in an extremity after trauma (fracture) or inflammation
(carpal tunnel syndrome).
C Some medications can also precipitate this condition. Symptoms include numbness, tingling,
pain or loss of movement in an extremity.
D Surgery may be indicated if symptoms are severe or prolonged.
E All the above listed statements are correct.

Test Which of the following statements in regards to the amputation is correct?

№ 76
A Amputation is the removal of a body extremity by trauma or surgery.
B As a surgical measure, it is used to control pain or a disease process in the affected limb,
such as malignancy or gangrene.
C In some cases, it is carried out on individuals as a preventative surgery for malignancy or
gangrene.
D All the above listed statements are correct
E Only A and B statements are correct

13
Test Which of the following statements in regards to the amputation is incorrect?
№ 77
A Amputation is the removal of part or all of a body part enclosed by skin.
B Amputation is the removal of the peripherial part of the limb.
C Amputation is the removal of the peripherial part of the organ
D Amputation is the removal of the body part from the joint.
E Amputation refers to the surgical or traumatic removal of the terminal portion of the upper
or lower extremity.

Test Which of the indications for amputation is incorrect?

№ 78
A the tissues are damaged and major vessels and nerves are disconnected),
B Severe Mechanical Injury (when the limb is avulsed or hanged on the flip);
C Venous Insufficiency of the Lower Limb
D Limb gangrene (anaerobic infection, obliterating endarteritis, injuries of the major vessels,
embolism)
E Limb malignancies.

Test What are the contraindications for amputation?

№ 79
A Shock
B Limb gangrene
C Severe injury of the limb
D Traumatic amputation of the limb
E Diabetes Mellitus

Test According to the terms of Intervention, the amputation can be all the listed types,
№ 80 except:
A Early –Primary
B Repeated
C Guillotine
D Early – Secondary
E Delayed

Test Prosthesis compatible stump should meet all the below listed criteria except
№ 81
A The stump should not be painful;
B The stump should be formatted only by the Guillotine technique
C The skin and scar should be mobile;
D The working surface of the stump be the scar free
E The sewed bone should be covered by soft tissues;

Test Which of the following statements about the working surface of the stump is
№ 82 correct?
A The working surface on upper limb is lateral surface and palm
B The working surface on lower limb is anterior surface and dorsal surface of the foot
C The stump surface should be free for the risk of the development of trophycal disturbances
and ulcers (the adequate processing of the stump elements – skin, muscles, bone, nerve)
D All the above listed items are correct
E Only A and B items are correct

14
Test The fallacious stump is the stamp when there are all the below listed conditions
№ 83 except:
A No adequate length and shape for prosthesis;
B The muscular strength and movement diapason is dramatically decreased and the skin is
damaged;
C The stump surface is free for the scars;
D The sensitivity is disturbed (hyperesthesia, pain);
E Crutch ability is important for lower limb.

Test Select the correct statement in regards to the amputation surgery

№ 84
A Before the amputation (or exarticulation) the tourniquet should be applied on the limb;
B The General anaesthesia can be applied
C The local Anaesthesia can be applied
D The limb is extended and positioned on the right side of the surgeon, while the assisting
surgeon is standing opposite to the operating surgeon.
E All the above items are correct

Test Incision for the amputation can be

№ 85
A Circular
B Oval
C Scarp shaped
D A and B
E All the above mentioned

Test According to the stages of the tissue incision/excision the amputation can be
№ 86
A One moment, Two moment, Three moment, Four moment and Scarp rule;
B One moment, Two moment, Three moment, Four moment and Oval (ellipsoid)
C Only One moment (guillotine), Two moment and Three moment (conoid-circular)
D One moment (guillotine), Two moment, Three moment (conoid-circular), Scarp rule and
Oval (ellipsoid)
E Guillotine, two moment, conoid-circular and horse-shoe

Test Amputation etiology can be all the below listed, except:

№ 87
A Cosmetic deformations;
B Congenital Deformities;
C Malignant Tumors and Neurologic Conditions;
D Peripheral Vascular Disease and Infections;
E Trauma and Burns.

Test Which of the following statements about the levels of amputation (Wrist
№ 88 Disarticulation vs. Transradial) is correct
A Disarticulation offers potential of better active pronation and suppination of forearm
B Transradial often difficult to transmit rotation through prosthesis
C Disarticulation poor aesthetically
D All the above stated are correct
E Only A and C are correct

15
Test Which of the following statements about the levels of amputation (Wrist
№ 89 Disarticulation vs. Transradial) is correct
A Disarticulation more difficult to fit prosthetic
B Transradial needs to be done 2 cm or more proximal to joint to allow prosthetic fitting
C Transradial usually favored
D Only A and B are correct
E All the above stated are correct

Test Which of the following statements about the levels of amputation (Transhumeral
№ 90 vs. Elbow Disarticulation) is correct
A Elbow disarticulation in adults allows enhanced suspension and rotation control of
prosthesis however retention of full length precludes use of prosthetic elbow.
B Long transhumeral amputation in adults is favored
C Transhumeral amputation in pediatric patients results in high incidence of bony overgrowth.
D Elbow disarticulation is level of choice. Humeral growth slowed after trauma.
E All The above listed statements are correct

Test Which of the considerations for the upper limb amputation technique is incorrect
№ 91
A Debridement of all Nonviable tissue and foreign material
B Primary wound closure often contraindicated
C In order to prevent neuroma formation: draw nerve distally, section it, allow it to retract
proximally
D Short transhumeral amputation in adults is favored
E High voltage, electrical burn injuries require careful evaluation because necrosis of deep
muscle may be present while superficial muscles can remain viable

Test The surgical technique in regards to the skin processing, during the amputation
№ 92 can include all the below listed items except:
A Creation of the opportunistic flaps;
B Use of skin grafts;
C Formation of the big scars;
D Creation of the Rotation flaps;
E Application of the Tension free technique.

Test Goals of Postoperative Management after the amputation includes all the below
№ 93 listed except:
A Control of the psycho-neurological disorders;
B Control of edema
C Control of Postoperative pain
D Prompt wound healing
E Prevention of joint contractures

Test Goals of Postoperative Management after the amputation includes all the below
№ 94 listed except:
A Prevention of joint contractures
B Rapid rehabilitation
C Uncomplicated wound healing
D Selection of the specific diet regimen
E Control of edema

16
Test Rehabilitation complex after the amputation includes all the below listed
№ 95 measurements except:
A Residual Limb Shrinkage and Shaping
B Limb Desensitization
C “Do nothing” for avoiding the nervous breakdown to the patient
D Strengthen residual limb
E Prosthetic options

Test Rehabilitation complex after the amputation includes all the below listed
№ 96 measurements except:
A Patient education
B Maximize Self reliance
C Maintain joint range of motion
D Avoiding the active lifestyle
E Psychological adaptation

Test Management of the Amputee Patients includes all the below listed except:
№ 97
A Preparation
B Good Surgical Technique
C Rehabilitation and Early Prosthetic Fitting
D Team Approach and Vocational / Activity Rehabilitation
E Correction of the optometric problems

Test Prosthesis after the amputation can be:

№ 98
A Body Powered
B Passive
C Neuroprosthetics and Myoelectric
D Only A and B
E All kinds

Test General principles for amputation surgery involves all the following statements
№ 99 except:
A The greatest skin length possible should be maintained for muscle coverage and a tension-
free closure.
B Antagonistic muscle and fascia groups sutured separately.
C Nerves are transected under tension, proximal to the cut end of bones in a scar- and tension-
free environment.
D The larger arteries and veins are dissected and separately ligated to prevents the
development of arteriovenous fistulas and aneurysms.
E Bony prominences around disarticulations are removed with a saw and filed smooth.

Test Preoperative preparation for the amputation includes the following steps except:
№ 100
A Administration of appropriate preoperative antibiotics and tourniquet is placed on the limb
B Vascular and bone instruments are requested.
C Patient is placed on Trend-Ellenburg position
D An appropriate strength saw for cutting bone is obtained (usually a power oscillating saw).
E Vessel ligatures are obtained.

17