IBSAT

2018
SAMPLE PAPER
 IBSAT Model Paper–4
Section I
Verbal Ability
I. Directions: In the following questions, each word is followed by five options. Choose the option
which is the closest synonym of the given words. While choosing your answer, keep in mind the
finer distinctions in the meaning and usage of certain words.

1. LUCID
(a) Prolific (b) Vague (c) Obscure (d) Gloomy (e) Transpicuous

2. MOLLIFY
(a) Propitiate (b) Accommodate (c) Contradict (d) Disseminate (e) Persuade

3. ENIGMATIC
(a) Illusive (b) Puzzling (c) Pithy (d) Complicated (e) Explicit

4. BURGEON
(a) Dwindle (b) Probate (c) Proliferate (d) Procrastinate (e) Droop

5. ZESTFUL

(a) Exhaustible (b) Endurable (c) Eager (d) Exhilarated (e) Explicit

II. Directions: In the following questions, each word is followed by five options. Choose the option
which is the closest antonym of the given words. While choosing your answer, keep in mind the
finer distinctions in the meaning and usage of certain words.

6. MACABRE
(a) Grisly (b) Gruesome (c) Clumsy (d) Pleasant (e) Rustic

7. COMPLIANT
(a) Defective (b) Recalcitrant (c) Appreciative (d) Acquiescent (e) Biddable

8. DENIGRATE
(a) Commend (b) Worship (c) Deride (d) mockery (e) Rally

9. GUILEFUL
(a) Astute (b) Frank (c) Wily (d) Devious (e) Deceitful

10. RECONDITE
(a) Tolerable (b) Modest (c) Obvious (d) Impervious (e) Fortunate

III. Directions: In the following questions, the first two words are related in a particular manner.
You have to choose a word from the options so that a new pair of words is formed where the
relation is the same as that of the first pair of words. You are required to consider the secondary
meaning of certain words while choosing an answer.

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11. Colony : Penguins :: Parliament :
(a) Owls (b) Eagles (c) Sparrows (d) Peacocks (e) Nightingales

12. Fictile : Pottery :: Vestiary :

(a) Cookery (b) Clothing (c) Carpentry (d Tannery (e) Painting

13. Placentation: Seeds :: Phyllotaxy :

(a) Branches (b) Flowers (c) Fruits (d) Leaves (e) Inflorescence

14. Monk : Devotion :: Rover:

(a) Pacifism (b) Contentment (c) Wanderlust (d) Complacency (e) Culture

15. Helmet: Protect :: Shield :

(a) Hold (b) Support (c) Shelter (d) Capture (e) Defend

IV. Directions: Fill in the blanks with the words that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a
whole.

16. In their promotional activities, the obesity clinic deliberately_________ the high number of
clients who dropped out of the program before reaching goal weight in order to __________ the
clinic's success rate.
(a) inflated….. accelerate (b) emphasized..... refute
(c) suppressed … exaggerate (d) Ignored…. disallow
(e) maintained …. explain
17. The___________ atmosphere was shattered when news of the grandfather’s illness ________ them.
(a) desperate ………….hurt (b) calm ………… upset
(c) critical …………….displeased (d) dilligent……………..troubled
(e) Convival ………….. reached
18. As the super star of films ________ on the dais, his fans went ________ trying to get a closer look
of him.
(a) enthused … wild (b) walked ... feral
(c) climbed … passionate (d) appeared … berserk
(e) Moved … crazy
19. The technology of video conferencing is a wonderful _____________ that helps to __________ both
time and travel.
(a) discovery … control (b) invention … save
(c) advantage … decipher (d) breakthrough … placate
(e) adaptation … reduce
20. If the Government makes it compulsory to implement rainwater ________ in each and every
house, there will be a ___________ improvement in ground water level all over the state
(a) harvesting … significant (b) preserving … trivial
(c) collection… great (d) controlling … considerable
(e) maintenance… moderate

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V. Directions: In the following questions, each sentence is divided into four parts (a), (b), (c) and
(d). Find out which part of the sentence contains an error. If there is no error, mark your answer
as (e).

21. At the music recital, Anandita enjoyed listening to her friend Mithila's soulful rendition which
(a) (b)

she thought was more sophisticated then the other performers No Error
(c) (d) (e)
22. The board reviewing the courses offered by the college found that the quality of
(a) (b)
academic programs were generally good but somewhat uneven No Error
(c) (d) (e)

23. If one is interested in learning even more about character of Young Krishna
(a) (b) (c)

you should read Srimadh Bhagavata No Error

(d) (e)

24. In the early twentieth century new thinking about symbolism and the unconscious was
(a) (b)

greatly inspired by the writings of Sigmund Freud and Carl Jung No Error
(c) (d) (e)

25. A Block of Residential flats are coming up near our house in a few years No Error
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

VI. Directions: In each of the following questions, a part of the given sentence has been underlined
as this part may have an error. The first option is the same as the underlined part in the given
sentence. Choose this option if you think that the underlined part has no error. Otherwise,
choose the option that rectifies the error in the underlined part of the given sentence.

26. If Ranjith would have revised his syllabus, he would have received a better grade in the
exams.
(a) would have revised (b) had revised (c) could of revised
(d) had of revised (e) would revise
27. The helium-filled balloon rose in the air.
(a) rose in the air. (b) was rising in the air. (c) rose into the
air.
(d) were rising in the air (e) would rise in the air

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28. Carbon-14 dating reveals that the monolithic monuments in Indus Valley civilization are nearly
1,000 years as old as any of their supposed civilizations in the other parts of the world.
(a) as old as any of their supposed (b) as old as their supposedly
(c) as old as their supposed (d) older than any of their supposedly
(e) older than any of their supposed

29. In the present technological world, in many industries, employees are replace by automated
equipments so that to save money.
(a) are replace by automated equipments so that to
(b) are replacing by automated equipment such that
(c) were replaced by automated equipment so as to
(d) are being replaced by automated equipment in order to
(e) replaces by automated equipment accordingly to
30. If the new library books have been catalogued last week, why haven't they been placed on
the shelf?
(a) have been catalogued (b) would have been catalogued
(c) was catalogued (d) were catalogued
(e) had been catalogued
VII. Directions: In the following questions, different parts of a sentence/passage have been jumbled.
Choose the option that represents the best sequence to make the sentence/passage coherent
and meaningful. Ignore punctuation marks.

31. P: It would perhaps be possible for you to be of some use to this brave little boy
Q: She said to herself silently at first , that
R: Without neglecting anything of what was due to her important mission
S: And this idea pleased her
(a) PSQR (b) RSQP (c) QRPS (d) QSPR (e) SPQR

32. P. The result being terrible traffic congestion

Q. Trams in Kolkata run down the centre of the road
R. City decided to build an underground railway line
S. It was going to be first in South Asia
(a) QPRS (b) QRPS (c) QSPR (d) RSQP (e) RPSQ

33. P: Mr. Srimoy Banerji screamed his lungs out in the meeting
Q: He cooled himself down as fast as he got angry
R: Everybody got frightened at his behaviour
S: He realised his mistake and apologized
(a) PSRQ (b) PRQS (c) PSQR (d) RPQS (e) RPSQ

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34. P. Popular example of the damage is the Taj Mahal, whose marble has been corroded due
to acid rain.
Q. It changes the acidic content of water bodies, thus affecting the lives of the living
organisms of this habitat.
R Acid rain has been a major factor responsible for the environmental degradation
S Along with the living beings it also causes the deterioration of several heritage buildings.
(a) RSQP (b) PRSQ (c) RQSP (d) PSRQ (e) RPSQ

35. P. The leading god fought the monster, killed it and chopped its body in to two halves
Q The god made the sky out of the upper part of the body, from lower part created the
earth and populated it with animals and plants.
R A terrible monster prevented the gods from separating the land from the water
S The god moulded the first people out of clay according to his own image and mind
(a) SPRQ (b) SQRP (c) RSQP (d) RPQS (e) RQSP

VIII. Directions: Choose a suitable one-word substitute for the given phrase from the options under
each question.

36. To quickly advance to a better position

(a) Obligate (b) Coerce (c) Catapult (d) Squeeze (e) Initiate

37. State of separation resulting from hostility

(a) Congruity (b) Estrangement (c) Gratification (d) Dispensation (e)
Subordination

38. A pardonable offense

(a) Venial (b) Explicatory (c) Felonic (d) Ruthless (e) Callous

39. One who speaks less

(a) Hypocrite (b) Omniscient (c) Extempore (d) Introvert (e) Reticent

40. A person of odd habits

(a) Altruist (b) Schizoid (c) Activist (d) Eccentric (e) Conformist

IX. Directions: Choose the option that best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase in
italics.

41. The members were asked to brain storm on the pros and cons of industrial development.
(a) For and against (b) Ups and downs (c)
Odds and ends
(d) Length and breadth (e) Good and bad

42. Rajeev blew a fuse when he found that his cousin had taken his IPad without his knowledge
(a) Aggrieved (b) Irritated (c) Emaciated (d) Infuriated (e) Offended

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43. Jonathan might be the boss at office , but at home it is his wife who rules the roost
(a) Coordinates (b) Commands (c) Bullies (d) Torments (e) Authorizes

44. All through the interview, the Human resources manager kept a poker face
(a) Inscrutable (b) Excited (c) Smiling (d) Funny (e) Frowning

45. He has failed in his final examinations. Now he has to face the music.
(a) Express defiance (b) Feel miserable (c)
Accept consequence
(d) Bow to fate (e) Tell lies

X. Directions: Replace the number with the word(s) that best fit(s) the meaning of the passage as
a whole.

Premchand was the pen name (46) _______ by the Hindi writer Dhanpatrai who was born on 31st July

1880 at Lamati near Varanasi. His early education was in a madarasa under a Maulvi, where he

learnt Urdu. When he was studying in the ninth class he was married, much (47) _____ his wishes. He

was then fifteen. In 1919, while he was a teacher at Gorakhpur, he passed his B.A., with English,

Persian and History. He had a second marriage with Shivarani Devi, a child-widow, who (48) _____ a

book on him, ‘Premchand Gharmein' after his death. Premchand was a (49) _______ writer. He has left

behind a dozen novels and nearly 250 short stories. Seva Sadan was his first novel. He believes in

the (50) ______: ‘hate the sin and not the sinner.’ His best known novels are Sevasadan, Rangamanch,

Ghaban, Nirmala and Godan. Three of his novels have been made into films.

46. (a) Given (b) Adopted (c) Assumed (d) Showered (e) Notified

47. (a) To (b) With (c) Against (d) Without (e) For

48. (a) Written (b) Writing (c) Writes (d) Wrote (e) Crafted

49. (a) Qualified (b) Poetic (c) Prosaic (d) Prodigious (e) Prolific

50. (a) Principle (b) Tenant (c) Rule (d) Sermon (e) Law

END OF SECTION I

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 Section II
Reading Comprehension
Directions: Each passage is followed by questions based on its content. Answer the questions on the
basis of what is directly stated in each of the passages or can be inferred from it.
Passage I

Much of the information we have today about chimpanzees comes from the groundbreaking, long-
term research of the great conservationist, Jane Goodall.
Jane Goodall was born in London, England, on April 3, 1934. On her second birthday, her father
gave her a toy chimpanzee named Jubilee. Jubilee was named after a baby chimp in the London
Zoo, and seemed to foretell the course Jane’s life would take. To this day, Jubilee sits in a chair in
Jane’s London home. From an early age, Jane was fascinated by animals and animal stories. By the
age of 10, she was talking about going to Africa to live among the animals there. At the time, in the
early 1940s, this was a radical idea because women did not go to Africa by themselves.
As a young woman, Jane finished school in London, attended secretarial school, and then worked
for a documentary filmmaker for a while. When a school friend invited her to visit Kenya, she
worked as a waitress until she had earned the fare to travel there by boat. She was 23 years old.
Once in Kenya, she met Dr. Louis Leakey, a famous paleontologist and anthropologist. He was
impressed with her thorough knowledge of Africa and its wildlife, and hired her to assist him and
his wife on a fossil-hunting expedition to Olduvai Gorge. Dr. Leakey soon realized that Jane was the
perfect person to complete a study he had been planning for some time. She expressed her
interest in the idea of studying animals by living in the wild with them, rather than studying dead
animals through paleontology.
Dr. Leakey and Jane began planning a study of a group of chimpanzees who were living on the
shores of Lake Tanganyika in Kenya. At first, the British authorities would not approve their plan. At
the time, they thought it was too dangerous for a woman to live in the wilds of Africa alone. But
Jane’s mother, Vanne, agreed to join her so that she would not be alone. Finally, the authorities
gave Jane the clearance she needed in order to go to Africa and begin her study
In July of 1960, Jane and her mother arrived at Gombe National Park in what was then called
Tanganyika and is now called Tanzania. Jane faced many challenges as she began her work. The
chimpanzees did not accept her right away, and it took months for them to get used to her
presence in their territory. But she was very patient and remained focused on her goal. Little by
little, she was able to enter their world.
At first, she was able to watch the chimpanzees only from a great distance, using binoculars. As
time passed, she was able to move her observation point closer to them while still using
camouflage. Eventually, she was able to sit among them, touching, patting, and even feeding them.
It was an amazing accomplishment for Jane, and a breakthrough in the study of animals in the wild.
Jane named all of the chimpanzees that she studied; stating in her journals that she felt they each
had a unique personality.
One of the first significant observations that Jane made during the study was that chimpanzees
make and use tools, much like humans do, to help them get food. It was previously thought that
humans alone used tools. Also thanks to Jane’s research, we now know that chimps eat meat as
well as plants and fruits. In many ways, she has helped us to see how chimpanzees and humans are
similar. In doing so, she has made us more sympathetic toward these creatures, while helping us to
better understand ourselves.

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The study started by Jane Goodall in 1960 is now the longest field study of any animal species in
their natural habitat. Research continues to this day in Gombe and is conducted by a team of
trained Tanzanians.
Jane’s life has included much more than just her study of the chimps in Tanzania. She pursued a
graduate degree while still conducting her study, receiving her Ph.D. from Cambridge University in
1965. In 1984, she received the J. Paul Getty Wildlife Conservation Prize for "helping millions of
people understand the importance of wildlife conservation to life on this planet." She has been
married twice: first to a photographer and then to the director of National Parks. She has one son.
Dr. Jane Goodall is now the world’s most renowned authority on chimpanzees, having studied their
behavior for nearly 40 years. She has published many scientific articles, has written two books, and
has won numerous awards for her groundbreaking work. The Jane Goodall Institute for Wildlife
Research, Education, and Conservation was founded in 1977 in California but moved to the
Washington, D.C., area in 1998. Its goal is to take the actions necessary to improve the environment
for all living things.
Dr. Goodall now travels extensively, giving lectures, visiting zoos and chimp sanctuaries, and talking
to young people involved in environmental education. She is truly a great conservationist and an
amazing human being.

51. What is the antonym for the word focused?

(a) Bothered (b) Tired (c) Disinterested (d) Concerned (e) Exhausted

52. What is the purpose of the author in writing this article?

(a) To entertain the reader with stories about chimpanzees
(b) To inform the reader of the importance of wildlife conservation
(c) To warn the reader about the challenges of working in Africa
(d) To describe the work and life of Jane Goodall
(e) To provide information for research on human intelligence
53. Which of the following is not one of the reasons Dr. Leakey chose Jane to work with him?
(a) She knew a lot about the continent of Africa
(b) She earned the money to travel to Africa on her own
(c) She was interested in studying animals in the wild
(d) She had a great knowledge of African wildlife
(e) Jane had accompanied him earlier on a fossil hunting expedition
54. Which of the following is not true of chimpanzees?
(a) Chimpanzees are often comfortable with strangers right away
(b) Chimpanzees eat meat as well as plants and fruit
(c) Chimpanzees use tools to help them get food
(d) Different chimpanzees have different personalities
(e) Chimpanzees resemble to humans in many aspects of their behavior

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55. What is the main idea of this article?
(a) Chimpanzees are amazing creatures with unique personalities
(b) Jane Goodall has taught us a great deal about animal behavior and wildlife
conservation.
(c) Africa is full of wildlife that must be both preserved and studied
(d) Humans are very similar to chimpanzees and can learn a great deal by studying them
(e) Young people around the world are getting involved in wild life conservation practices
Passage II

Tyrannosaurus Rex, also known as T-Rex, lived in what is now Western North America. At the time
the T-Rex lived, the continent was known as Larimidia. The T-Rex lived during the Upper
Cretaceous Period, between 85-66 million years ago. The T-Rex is thought to be one of the last
non-flying dinosaurs to live before the Cretaceous-Paleogene extinction event.
The Tyrannosaurus Rex was one of the largest land predators ever found on earth reaching a
length of nearly 40 feet and a height of 13 feet at the hips. The T-Rex could weigh anywhere from
four to seven tons. Based on fossils, scientists know that the T-Rex had a massive skull and a long,
heavy tail to support its mass. The arms, although proportionally very small, were powerful with
two clawed digits (like fingers). The hindlegs of this dinosaur were long and powerful. Studies have
suggested that the T-Rex possessed the most powerful bite of any land animal to have lived on
Earth. According to a study by Karl Bates and Peter Falinkgham (2012), the bite of a T-Rex was
three and a half times more powerful than that of a Great White Shark and 15 times more powerful
that the bite of an African Lion. Scientists also believe that the body of the T-Rex was partially
covered in feathers for at least part of its existence on Earth. Scientists are also not in agreement
concerning whether or not the T-Rex was cold-blooded (like a typical reptile). There is considerable
evidence that the T-Rex had some mechanism for maintaining a more constant body temperature.

The massive head of the T-Rex supported a jaw that was at least four feet thick and which
contained 50-60 teeth, some which could measure up to 9 inches long. Its powerful teeth were
used to extract flesh from its prey and to slice it up once in its mouth. A powerful T-Rex could eat
over 500 pounds of meat and bone in a single bite. Rotting bacteria found to exist between the
teeth of the T-Rex likely gave it a “septic” bite, causing fatal infections in dinosaurs it wounded but
failed to kill. The Tyrannosaurus is thought to have had a very keen sense of smell.
In 1990, fossil hunter Sue Hendrickson found the most complete fossil of a Tyrannosaurus Rex
skeleton ever found (85 percent complete). It was eventually sold to the Field Museum of Natural
History for $8 million dollars. The museum itself spent over 25,000 man hours removing rock from
the bones.

56. Which of the following is not true about the T-Rex?

(a) Its bite is less powerful than the bite of a great white shark
(b) It had a massive head
(c) Some of its teeth measured 9 inches long
(d) It could extract 500 pounds of flesh in a single bite
(e) The T-Rex lived in what is now called as Latin America

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57. Rotting bacteria found to exist in the teeth of the T-Rex likely gave it a septic bite, causing
fatal infections in dinosaurs. What does the word “fatal” mean in the given sentence?
(a) Painful ( b) Rare (c) Specific (d) Deadly (e) Bothersome

58. In what way did the author compare the Lion and the T-Rex?
(a) By the size of their jaws (b) By the power of their bites
(c) By the size of their teeth (d) By the thickness of their skin
(e) By the speed of their movement
59. Which of the following would not describe a T-Rex?
(a) A dinosaur with long powerful arms (b) A dinosaur with strong hind
legs
(c) A dinosaur with a massive skull (d) A dinosaur weighing six tons
(e) A dinosaur with a heavy tail
60. What is the antonym of the word “extract" given in the passage above?
(a) Fleece (b) Select (c) Replenish (d) Drain (e) Cheat

61. According to the passage T-Rex could have been considerd as a reptile if it showed evidence
of possessing
(a) Feathers (b) Cold blood (c) Sharp teeth
(d) Pointed claws (e) Massive skull
62. What can be inferred from the last paragraph of the passage?
(a) It is easy to remove debris from T-Rex bones
(b) Parts of T-Rex skeletons were found as early as 18th century
(c) T-Rex skeletons are not expensive
(d) Complete T-Rex skeletons are very rare
(e) T-Rex skeletons are not found in any museums in the world
Passage III

Daniel Kahneman won the Nobel prize in the Economics in 2002. His most of the research is done
with Amos Tversky. The names are inseparable. Amos Tversky was cognitive psychologist at
Stanford. But what is most uncommon about the prize is that Kahneman was the only second
psychologist since Herbert Simon, who won the Nobel in 1978.
Daniel Kahneman's 2011 book, ‘Thinking: Fast and slow’, summarizes his research. Book is an
astonishingly rich book: lucid, profound, full of intellectual surprises and self-help value. It is
consistently entertaining and frequently touching, especially when Kahneman is recounting his
collaboration with Tversky. No wonder that the New York times columnist declared that the book
will be remembered hundreds of years from now.
The book enumerates three phases of Kahneman's research career. In the first, he and Tversky did a
series of ingenious experiments that revealed twenty or so “cognitive biases” — unconscious errors
of reasoning that distort our judgment of the world. Typical of these is the “anchoring effect”: our
tendency to be influenced by irrelevant numbers that we happen to be exposed to. In the second
phase, Kahneman and Tversky showed that people making decisions under uncertain conditions do
not behave in the way that economic models have traditionally assumed; they do not “maximize
utility”. The two then developed an alternative account of decision making, one more faithful to
human psychology, which they called “prospect theory.” It was for this achievement that Kahneman

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was awarded the Nobel Prize. In the third phase of his career, mainly after the death of Tversky,
Kahneman has delved into “hedonic psychology”: the science of happiness, its nature and its
causes. His findings in this area have proved disquieting — and not just because one of the key
experiments involved a deliberately prolonged colonoscopy.
The book's central argument is dichotomy between two modes of thought. System 1 is fast,
instinctive and emotional; System 2 is slower, more deliberative, and more logical. The title is
“simplified ‘System-1’ view of Kahneman's research on human irrationality”.
System 1 uses association and metaphor to produce a quick and dirty draft of reality, which System
2 draws on to arrive at explicit beliefs and reasoned choices. System 1 proposes and System 2
disposes. So System 2 would seem to be the boss, right? In principle, yes. But System 2, in addition
to being more deliberate and rational, is also lazy. And it tires easily. (The vogue term for this is
“ego depletion.”) Too often, instead of slowing things down and analyzing them, System 2 is
content to accept the easy but unreliable story about the world that System 1 feeds to it. “Although
System 2 believes itself to be where the action is,” Kahneman writes, “the automatic System 1 is the
hero of this book.” System 2 is especially quiescent, it seems, when your mood is a happy one.
System 2, in Kahneman’s scheme, is our slow, deliberate, analytical and consciously effortful mode
of reasoning about the world. System 1, by contrast, is our fast, automatic, intuitive and largely
unconscious mode. It is System 1 that detects hostility in a voice and effortlessly completes the
phrase “bread and. . . . ” It is System 2 that swings into action when we have to fill out a tax form or
park a car in a narrow space. (As Kahneman and others have found, there is an easy way to tell how
engaged a person’s System 2 is during a task: just look into his or her eyes and note how dilated
the pupils are.)
Kahneman describes dozens experiments which breakdowns the notions of rationality and builds
on the ability of management thinkers to understand how the decision making is made. Some
cognitive biases, of course, are flagrantly exhibited even in the most natural of settings. Take what
Kahneman calls the “planning fallacy”: our tendency to overestimate benefits and underestimate
costs, and hence foolishly to take on risky projects. In 2002, Americans remodeling their kitchens,
for example, expected the job to cost $18,658 on average, but they ended up paying $38,769.
Lastly much remains to be done in hedonic psychology. But Kahneman’s conceptual innovations
have laid the foundation for many of the empirical findings he reports in this book: that while
French mothers spend less time with their children than American mothers, they enjoy it more; that
headaches are hedonically harder on the poor; that women who live alone seem to enjoy the same
level of well-being as women who live with a mate; and that a household income of about $75,000
in high-cost areas of the country is sufficient to maximize happiness. Policy makers interested in
lowering the misery index of society will find much to ponder here.
Mr. Kahneman's stated goals are minimalist: to "enrich the vocabulary that people use" when they
talk about decisions, so that his readers benefit from his work at the "proverbial watercooler, where
opinions are shared and gossip is exchanged." Author is not only successful in his attempt, but
also provides immense intellectual satisfaction enough to spread the word-of-mouth to read the
book. No wonder it was on the list of best seller of 2011.

63. According to the passage, Daniel Kahneman by occupation is

(a) Researcher (b) Economist (c) Psychologist (d) Writer (e) Pathologist

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64. What do you think the reader is educated about after reading the book, “Thinking: Fast and
slow”?
(a) Cognitive Psychology (b) Economics
(c) Nobel award research of Daniel Kahneman (d) Decisions
(e) Experiments in Psychology
65. Pick out the Synonym for the word ‘flagrant’ used in the Passage.
(a) Glaring (b) Meek (c) Moral (d) Scented (e) Ethical

66. Which of the following is used by System 1 to produce a quick draft of reality?
(a) Footnotes (b) Mnemonics (c) Analogies (d) Summaries (e) Metaphors

67. According to the passage, the easiest way to identify that “System-2” is in use is
(a) It is very quick and fast.
(b) If pupils of subject under study are dilated
(c) When decisions are “maximizing the utility”
(d) When decisions are “rational” - the way economist identify them
(e) Cognitive biases are in place
68. Choose the statement that resembles what Passage identified as “Planning Fallacy”.
(a) I will get my Job after MBA; I just need to appear for these tests and Exam.
(b) If I increase the members of the team , I will be able to do the task
(c) The office interior was estimated around Rs 20 lakhs, and in reality it costs us the same.
(d) Tendency to underestimate the time, costs, and risks of future actions and at the same
time overestimate the benefits of the same actions
(e) People listen to the facts selectively that they wanted to listen
69. Which of the following terms is nearer to the word “Hedonic” in the given passage?
(a) Pleasurable (b) Secretive (c) Frustated (d) Demotivated (e)
Disgusting

70. Daniel Kahneman was awarded Nobel prize for his work on
(a) Anchoring Bias (b) Planning fallacy (c) Prospect theory
(d) Hedonic Psychology (e) Irrationality in behavior
71. Which of the statements given below is close to Prospect theory?
(a) Tendency to be influenced by irrelevant numbers that we are exposed to
(b) Tendency to maximize returns, typically a rational behavior
(c) Tendency of people to exhibit hedonic behavior
(d) Tendency of people to use System 2 thinking while taking decisions
(e) Tendency of people to make decisions based on potential loss and gain value rather
than final outcome
Passage IV

The general assumption that has passed from one work to another, is that large animals require
luxuriant vegetation; but I do not hesitate to say that it is completely false, and that it has vitiated
the reasoning of geologists on some points of great interest in the ancient history of the world. The
prejudice has probably been derived from India, and the Indian islands, where troops of elephants,
noble forests, and impenetrable jungles, are associated together in every one's mind. If, however,
Page 12 of 27 SET 4
we refer to any work of travels through the southern parts of Africa, we shall find allusions in
almost every page either to the desert character of the country, or to the numbers of large animals
inhabiting it. The same thing is rendered evident by the many engravings which have been
published of various parts of the interior.
Dr. Andrew Smith, who has lately succeeded in passing the Tropic of Capricorn, informs me that,
taking into consideration the whole of the southern part of Africa, there can be no doubt of its
being a sterile country. On the southern coasts there are some fine forests, but with these
exceptions, the traveler may pass for days together through open plains, covered by poor and
scanty vegetation. Now, if we look to the animals inhabiting these wide plains, we shall find their
numbers extraordinarily great, and their bulk immense. We must enumerate the elephant, three
species of rhinoceros, the hippopotamus, the giraffe, the boscaffer, two zebras, two guns, and
several antelopes even larger than these latter animals. It may be supposed that although the
species are numerous, the individuals of each kind are few.
By the kindness of Dr. Smith, I am enabled to show that the case is very different. He informs me,
that in one day's march with the bullock-wagons, he saw, without wandering to any great distance
on either side, between one hundred and one hundred and fifty rhinoceroses - the same day he
saw several herds of giraffes, amounting together to nearly a hundred. At the distance of a little
more than one hour's march from their place of encampment on the previous night, his party
actually killed at one spot eight hippopotamuses, and saw many more. In this same river there were
likewise crocodiles. Of course it was a case quite extraordinary, to see so many great animals
crowded together, but it evidently proves that they must exist in great numbers. Dr. Smith
describes the country passed through that day, as 'being thinly covered with grass, and bushes
about four feet high and still more thinly with mimosa-trees.'
Besides these large animals, everyone the least acquainted with the natural history of the Cape has
read of the herds of antelopes, which can be compared only with the flocks of migratory birds. The
numbers indeed of the lion, panther, and hyena and the multitude of birds of prey, plainly speak of
the abundance of the smaller quadrupeds: one evening seven lions were counted at the same time
prowling round Dr. Smith's encampment. As this able naturalist remarked to me, the carnage each
day in Southern Africa must indeed be terrific! I confess it is truly surprising how such a number of
animals can find support in a country producing so little food. The larger quadrupeds no doubt
roam over wide tracts in search of it; and their food chiefly consists of under wood, which probably
contains much nutriment in a small bulk.
Dr. Smith also informs me that the vegetation has a rapid growth; no sooner is a part consumed,
than its place is supplied by a fresh stock. There can be no doubt, however, that our ideas
respecting the apparent amount of food necessary for the support of large quadrupeds are much
exaggerated. The belief that where large quadrupeds exist, the vegetation must necessarily be
luxuriant is the more remarkable, because the converse is far from true. Mr. Burchell observed to
me that when entering Brazil, nothing struck him more forcibly than the splendour of the South
American vegetation contrasted with that of South Africa, together with the absence of all large
quadrupeds. In his Travels, he has suggested that the comparison of the respective weights of an
equal number of the largest herbivorous quadrupeds of each country would be extremely curious.
If we take on the one side, the elephants, hippopotamus, giraffe, five species of rhinoceros; and
on the American side, two tapirs, the guanaco, three deer, the vicuna, peccari, capybara (after which
we must choose from the monkeys to complete the number), and then place these two groups
alongside each other it is not easy to conceive ranks more disproportionate in size. After the above
facts, we are compelled to conclude, against anterior probability that among the mammalia there
exist no close relation between the bulk of the species, and the quantity of the vegetation, in the

Page 13 of 27 SET 4
countries which they inhabit.

72. The author is primarily concerned with

(a) Discussing the relationship between the size of mammals and the nature of vegetation
in their habitats
(b) Contrasting ecological conditions in India and Africa
(c) Proving that large animals do not require much food
(d) Describing the size of animals in various parts of the world
(e) Explaining that the reasoning of some geologists is completely false
73. In the passage, the word ‘vitiated’ most nearly means
(a) Infiltrated (b) Occupied (c) Impaired (d) Invigorated (e)
Strengthened

74. According to the author, the ‘prejudice’ in the minds of geologists has lead to
(a) Errors in the reasoning of biologists
(b) False ideas about animals in Africa
(c) Incorrect assumptions on the part of geologists
(d) Doubt in the mind of the author
(e) Confusion in natural history
75. The ‘flocks of migratory birds’ in the passage are mentioned to
(a) Describe an aspect of the fauna of South Africa
(b) Illustrate a possible source of food for large carnivores
(c) Contrast with the habits of the antelope
(d) Compare the size of antelope herds
(e) Indicate the abundance of wildlife
76. The ‘carnage’ in the passage refers to the
(a) Number of animals killed by hunters
(b) Number of prey animals killed by predators
(c) Number of people killed by lions
(d) Amount of food eaten by all species
(e) Damage caused by large animals
77. To account for the ‘surprising’ number of animals in a ‘country producing so little food’, all of
the following are suggested as partial explanations, except
(a) Food which is a concentrated source of nutrients
(b) Rapid regrowth of plant material
(c) Large area for animals to forage in
(d) Mainly carnivorous animals
(e) Food requirements have been overestimated
78. Author quotes Burchell’s observations in order to
(a) Counter a popular misconception
(b) Describe a region of great splendor
(c) Prove a hypothesis
(d) Illustrate a well-known phenomenon
(e) Account for a curious situation

Page 14 of 27 SET 4
79. The author makes his point by reference to all of the following except
(a) Travel books (b) Published illustrations (c) Private communications
(d) Recorded observations (e) Historical documents
80. Anterior probability refers to
(a) What might have been expected
(b) Ideas of earlier explorers
(c) Likelihood based on data from India
(d) Hypotheses of other scientists
(e) Comparative information

END OF SECTION II

Page 15 of 27 SET 4
 Section III

Quantitative Aptitude
Directions: There are 30 questions in this section. Each question is followed by five alternatives (a),
(b), (c), (d) and (e). You are required to choose the best alternative from these five alternatives.

81. The figure below has two equilateral triangles - one with side ‘x’ and the other with side ‘y’.
What is the ratio of the areas of the shaded part to the area of the smaller triangle?

y2 x2 x2 y2 x2
(a) -1 (b) - y2 (c) -1 (d) +1 (e) + x2
x2 y 2
y2 x2 y 2

82. A regular hexagon is inscribed in a circle of radius 12 cm. What is the area of the shaded
region? (Figure not drawn to scale)

( )
(a) 36 5p + 8 3 cm 2 ( )
(b) 30 5p + 8 3 cm2

(c) 36 ( 5p + 4 3 ) cm 2
(d) 36 ( 3p + 8 3 ) cm 2

(e) 36 ( 2p + 5 3 ) cm 2

83. What is the value of the product ( a 2 + a + 1)( a 4 - a 2 + 1)( a 2 - a + 1) ?

(a) ( a 8 - a 4 + 1) (b) ( a 8 + a 4 - 1) (c) ( a 8 - a 4 - 1) (d) ( a 8 + a 4 + 1) (e) (1 - a 4 - a 8 )

84. Mr. X lent Mr. Y Rs. 4,80,000 for a certain time at a certain rate of simple interest per annum,
which is equal to the square root of the number of the months of the time. After the time Mr.
Y wanted to return the money, but Mr. X, instead of taking the interest which amounted Rs.
86,400 asked for a certain sum of money at the same rate of simple interest for a certain
number of years which is equal to two-third of the rate percent. Find the sum of money so
that none of them should be the loser.
(a) Rs. 3,60,000 (b) Rs. 3,90,000 (c) Rs. 4,20,000 (d) Rs. 4,50,000 (e) Rs. 4,80,000

Page 16 of 27 SET 4
85. If a, b, c are in geometric progression, then log a n , log bn , log cn are in

(a) AP (b) GP (c) HP

(d) Both AP and HP (e) None of these

86. A six-digit code is to be formed using 6 distinct numbers. Number in the first place is square
of a prime number in third place. Numbers in 4th, 6th, 2nd and 1st place are consecutive
numbers. If all odd digits except 1 are present in the code, what is the number in the fifth
place of the code?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7 (e) 9

87. A six-digit code is to be formed using 6 distinct numbers. Number in the first place is square
of a prime number in third place. Numbers in 4th, 6th, 2nd and 1st place are consecutive
numbers. If all odd digits except 1 are present in the code, what is the sum of all the digits?
(a) 17 (b) 21 (c) 34 (d) 38 (e) 43

88. What could be the area of a hexagon inscribed in a circle of radius 12 cm?
(a) 72 3 cm2 (b) 84 3 cm2 (c) 96 3 cm2 (d) 108 3 cm2 (e) 108 cm 2

89. In a class of 40 students, who study mathematics, physics and chemistry, the number of
students studying mathematics is 2 more than 40% of those studying chemistry, while 20 of
the students study physics. Three less than one fifth of the total students in class study all the
three subjects. The number of students studying only physics is 2 less than the number of
students studying mathematics. The number of students studying only mathematics and only
chemistry is 3 and 15 respectively. The number of students studying mathematics as well as
physics is same as number of students studying mathematics as well as chemistry. How many
students are studying only physics?
(a) 25 (b) 15 (c) 10 (d) 3 (e) 2

90. A boys has some coins with some value on it. He arranges the coins in the form of a star as
shown below such that the sum of the numbers in the four circles along any line segment of
the star are all equal. What is the sum of the missing numbers?

(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14 (e) 15

Page 17 of 27 SET 4
91. 20 boys have to sit, half on each side of a long table. Five particular boys desire to sit on a
particular side and four others on the other side. In how many ways the seating arrangement
can be made?
(a) 10
P5 ´ 5 P4 ´11! ways (b) 10
P5 ´ 10 P4 ´11! ways

(c) 10
P5 ´ 10 P4 ´ 5! ways (d) 10
P5 ´ 5 P4 ´ 5! ways

(e) 10
P5 ´ 6 P4 ´ 5! ways

92. Six dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability that the sum of the outcomes of
all the six dice is 7?
1 1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
69 68 67 66 65

93. Given three circles with centres O1, O2 and O3. OE and OF are the tangents drawn from an
external point O to the three circles as shown in the figure below. OE = 24 cm, O3E = 2O2C =
4O1A = 7 cm. What is the measure of OH? (Figure not drawn to scale)

(a) 18 cm (b) 15 cm (c) 12 cm (d) 9 cm (e) 6 cm

94. p+q
If pq + qr + rp = 0, then what is the value of ?
r+p

(a) q/r (b) p/r (c) r/q (d) r/p (e) p/q

95. 136 children went to an amusement park, where they could ride on the merry-go-round,
roller coaster and wheel. It was known that 30 of them took all the rides and 65 of them took
at least two of the three rides. If each ride cost Rs. 15 and the total amount received by the
amusement park from these children was Rs. 1,800, how many children did not try any of the
ride?
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d) 16 (e) 20

96. A trader marks an article 4x% above the cost. He gives a discount of (x + 3)% and gets a
profit of
(2x – 3)%. If he gives a discount of (2x/3)%, what would be his gain percent?
(a) 26.5% (b) 42.6% (c) 56.2% (d) 60.4% (e) 68.8%

Page 18 of 27 SET 4
97. Ramsingh distributed certain amount among his six children in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4 : 5 : 6 : 7 in
the first month. In the second month he distributed another amount but in the ratio of 3 : 4 :
5 : 6 : 7 : 8. In both the cases the amount was distributed such that youngest received the
least amount, the second youngest received the second least amount and so on. If the
youngest and the second youngest children respectively received Rs. 80 and Rs. 90 more in
the second month than what they received in the first month, then how much more than the
first month did the eldest child receive in the second month?
(a) Rs. 110 (b) Rs. 120 (c) Rs. 130 (d) Rs. 140 (e) Rs. 150

98. A rectangular floor is fully covered with square tiles of identical size. The tiles on the edges
are white and the tiles in the interiors are black. The number of white tiles is same as the
number of black tiles. Which of the following can be the possible number of tiles along one
edge of the floor?
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d) 16 (e) 18

99. A moneylender lent a total amount of Rs. 55,300 to A, B and C at a rate of 5%, 6% and 8% per
annum simple interest respectively. If the three persons pay the same amount of interest at
the end of 10 years, 8 years and 5 years respectively, find the amount borrowed by C.
(a) Rs. 16,800 (b) Rs. 17,500 (c) Rs. 18,000 (d) Rs. 19,500 (e) Rs. 21,000

100. P, Q and E start a joint venture, where in they make an annual profit. P invested one-third of
the capital for one-fourth of the time, Q invested one-fourth of the capital for one-half of the
time and R invested the remainder of the capital for the entire year. P is a working partner
and gets a salary of Rs. 10,000 per month. The profit after paying P’s salary is directly
proportional to the sum each one has put and also to the square of the number of months
for which each has put their sum in the venture. In a year P earns Rs. 60,000 more than Q.
What is the total profit made by them?
(a) Rs. 6,30,000 (b) Rs. 7,20,000 (c) Rs. 8,40,000 (d) Rs. 8,64,000 (e) Rs. 9,10,000

101. What is the area of the square, all four vertices of which lie on the circumference of a circle if
the area of the circle is four times its diameter in magnitude?
8 16 32 64 128
(a) sq.units (b) sq.units (c) sq.units (d) sq.units (e) 2 sq.units
p2 p2 p2 p 2
p

102. What is the value of x, if log16 9 ´ log27 4096 = logx4 802 ?

(a) 4
5 (b) 4
10 (c) 2 5 (d) 2 4 5 (e) 4
20

( )
103. If a, b, c and d are four consecutive odd numbers, then a 2 + b2 + c2 + d 2 is always divisible by

(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (e) 7

104. If f ( x, y) = 2x 2 + 3xy - 3y2 + 3 , then what is the value of f(f(3, 2), f(–2, –1))?

(a) 1257 (b) 1527 (c) 1787 (d) 1997 (e) 2007

105. What is the sum of all coprimes of 1080 and less than 1080 including 1?
(a) 36288 (b) 72576 (c) 145152 (d) 290304 (e) 580608

Page 19 of 27 SET 4
106. A committee is to be formed from amongst 12 boys and 8 girls. In how many ways can the
boys and girls divide themselves into groups of four so that no group has more than 3 girls
and no group has all boys?
4 7 4 5 7
(a) (10!) (b) (10!) (c) (11!) (d) (11!) (e) (11!)
9 9 9 9 9

107. If a increases by 44%, then a 2 will increase by

4/3

(a) 48% (b) 56.4% (c) 63.2% (d) 72.8% (e) 76.8%

108. Two solid pyramids are melted together. These pyramids had number of edges equal to the
length of each of their edges equal to 8 units. They are moulded to form a hexagonal
pyramid with length of each side of base 8 units. What is the height of the new pyramid?
æ 2ö æ 2ö æ 16 2 ö æ 32 2 ö æ 3ö
(a) çç16 ÷÷ (b) çç12 ÷÷ (c) ç (d) çç (e) çç16 ÷÷
3ø 3ø ç 3 3 ÷÷ ÷÷
è è è ø è 3 3ø è 2ø

109. Five friends go to an electronic shop and purchase items worth Rs. 400, Rs. 800, Rs. 1,200, Rs.
1,600 and Rs. 500. They are carrying only 100-rupee notes. If they are allowed to borrow and
lend money from one another and the total money they have is exactly the amount required
to buy these items, what is the total number of different ways they can contribute to the total
money?
(a) 192246 ways (b) 195624 ways (c) 211076 ways
(d) 211876 ways (e) 218546 ways

110. In a class of 40 students, who study mathematics, physics and chemistry, the number of
students studying mathematics is 2 more than 40% of those studying chemistry, while 20 of
the students study physics. Three less than one fifth of the total students in class study all the
three subjects. The number of students studying only physics is 2 less than the number of
students studying mathematics. The number of students studying only mathematics and only
chemistry is 3 and 15 respectively. The number of students studying mathematics as well as
physics is same as number of students studying mathematics as well as chemistry. How many
students are studying both physics and mathematics but not chemistry?
(a) 25 (b) 15 (c) 10 (d) 3 (e) 2

END OF SECTION III

Page 20 of 27 SET 4
 Section IV

Data Adequacy and Data Interpretation

I. Directions: Each question given below has a problem and two statements numbered (1) and (2)
giving certain information. You have to decide if the information given in the statements is
sufficient for answering the problem. Indicate your answer as:
a –– If the data in statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question;
b –– If the data in statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question;
c –– If the data in both the statements together are needed to answer the question;
d –– If either statement (1) alone or statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question;
e –– If neither statement (1) nor statement (2) suffices to answer the question.
111. Is the perimeter of triangle ABC > 10?

Statement 1: AB > AC > BC

Statement 2: AB = 5

112. Is the product of x and y greater than 60?

Statement 1: The sum of x and y is greater than 60

Statement 2: Each of the variables is greater than 2.

113. It takes eight hours to travel from point A to point B and return. Two trains start from points
A and B. If the relative speed, when they start from same points is 8 kmph, what is the
distance between point A and point B?
Statement 1: The relative speed when they start from different points is 22 kmph
Statement 2 : Speed of one of the trains is 14 kmph

114. Karan who runs a stationary shop went to wholesale market to buy some packets of pens of
three varieties ink, ballpoint and liquid fluid ink. He decides to buy twice as many packets of
ink as ballpoint and at least one packet more of ball point than liquid fluid ink. If the cost of a
packet of liquid fluid ink pens is Rs. 100 and he spends a total of Rs. 4700, what is the total
number of packets that he bought?
Statement 1: The cost of one packet of ink pens is thrice as that of liquid fluid ink pens.
Statement 2: The cost of one packet of liquid fluid ink pens is half the price of one packet of
ballpoint pens.

115. Leaving home and travelling at 3 th of my usual speed, I reached office late today. What is the
4
usual time that I take to reach office? (Assume that each day I take the same route to the
office)
Statement 1: It took me 15 more minutes to reach office today
Statement 2: The distance between my office and home is 12 kms.

Page 21 of 27 SET 4
116. Of 20 athletes, four athletes P, Q, R and S secured the top four ranks in a 200 m race. P did
not secure the first rank, Q did not secure the second rank, R did not secure the third rank,
while S did not secure the fourth rank. Which rank does each individual score?
Statement 1: Neither Q nor R secured the first two ranks.
Statement 2: Neither P nor S secured the third or fourth ranks.

117. On a given day, a boat carried 2000 passengers across the river in ten hours. How many
round trips did it make?
Statement 1: The boat can carry one hundred passengers at any time
Statement 2: The boat always operates at full capacity.

118. Out of A, B, C and D, is A the son of B?

Statement 1: B has three sons and his wife is C
Statement 2: D is A’s brother and he is C’s son

119. P is a point on the side CD of a parallelogram ABCC. Find the area of a parallelogram.
Statement 1: Area of triangle APB is 24 sq.cm
Statement 2: Area of triangle PAD is 8 sq.cm and the area of triangle BPC is 16 sq.cm

120. Raghu and Raja started a business with a total investment of Rs. 50,000. At the end of the
year due to miscalculation, the profit shares of two got interchanged and thus Raghu got
50% more than what he should have got. What is the total profit earned by them?
Statement 1: Due to miscalculation Raja got Rs. 2,000 less than what he should have get
Statement 2: The ratio of profits is 2 : 3

121. Ram and Shyam are two friends speaking to each other about their ages. What is Ram’s age?
Statement 1: Ram says to Shyam, ‘5 years ago my age was five years more than your present
age’.
Statement 2: Shyam replies, ‘5 years hence my age will be 5 years more than your age 5 years
ago’.

122. Rectangle XYWZ is inserted in a circle with center O and WZ being the breadth of the
rectangle and all the four sides are touching the circle. If the diameter of the circle is equal to
16 units, then what is the area of the uncovered portion of circle by rectangle?
Statement 1: WZ = OW
Statement 2: XW < XY

123. Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F have secured 480 marks in Science. How many marks did C
secure?
Statement 1: C secured one-third of the total marks secured by A, D and F
Statement 2: Average marks secured by B and E is 20 more than the marks secured by A

Page 22 of 27 SET 4
124. The area of a rectangle is equal to the area of a right-angled triangle. What is the length of
the rectangle?
Statement 1: The height of the triangle is 40 cm.
Statement 2: The base of the triangle is 50 cm.

125. The average age of 3 boys is 20 years. What is the age of the youngest boy?

Statement 1: The ages of 3 boys are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5

Statement 2: The age of eldest boy is 30 years.

II. Directions: For the question numbers 126 to 130, a table and a graph is given. Study the graph
carefully and answer the following questions and choose the best answer from the five
alternatives given below the question.

The below given graph shows the strength of a school in different classes.

100
90
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
VI VII VIII IX X
BOYS GIRLS

126. In which class the difference between the strength of girls and boys is greater?
(a) VI (b) VII (c) VIII (d) IX (e) VII and VIII

127. In which class the strength of girls is greater than the average strength of boys?
(a) IX (b) X (c) VIII (d) VII (e) No class

128. In which pair of classes the strength of girls is inversely proportional to boys?
(a) VI & VIII (b) VII & X (c) No class (d) VII & IX (e) VIII & IX

129. What is the % of number of students of class IX in the total number of students of the
school?
(a) 12% (b) 16% (c) 19% (d) 22% (e) 27%

130. Which class has the highest average number of boys and girls?
(a) VI (b) VII (c) VIII (d) IX (e) X

Page 23 of 27 SET 4
III. Directions: For the question numbers 131 to 135, a bar graph is given. Study the graph carefully
and answer the following questions and choose the best answer from the five alternatives given
below the question.

The below mentioned line graph shows the collection of various coins by three friends Ram,
Shyam and Tom.

70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
Ram Shyam Tom

50 paise 1 rupee 2 rupee 5 rupee

131. What is the total number of 2 rupee and 5 rupee coins collected by the three people?
(a) 130 (b) 155 (c) 170 (d) 185 (e) 190

132. What is the total amount collected by the three friends?

(a) Rs. 558 (b) Rs. 720 (c) Rs. 820 (d) Rs. 888 (e) Rs. 948

133. Approximately what percent of total number of coins is total number of one rupee and 5
rupee coins?
(a) 25% (b) 30% (c) 40% (d) 42.5% (e) 48%

134. Whose collection amount is less through one rupee and five rupee coins?
(a) Ram (b) Shyam (c) Tom
(d) Ram and Shyam (e) Shyam and Tom

135. Who collected the maximum amount?

(a) Ram (b) Shyam (c) Tom
(d) Ram and Shyam (e) Shyam and Tom
IV. Directions: For the question numbers 136 to 140, a graph is given. Study the graph carefully and
answer the following questions and choose the best answer from the five alternatives given
below the question.

Page 24 of 27 SET 4
 The following bar graph gives the yearly investments of three people in a certain business for
various years.

136. The profit earned at the end of the 1st year is Rs. 67,000. If Karan has invested only for 3
months, Kiran for 5 months and Rahul for 4 months, what is the profit share of Karan at the
end of the year?
(a) Rs.12, 550 (b) Rs.13,750 (c) Rs.15,000 (d) Rs.18,750 (e) Rs.20,750

137. If the profit share of Kiran in 3rd year profit of Rs. 15,000 is Rs. 2,500 and Karan and Rahul
invested for 5 months each, what is the ratio of profits between Karan, Kiran and Rahul
respectively?
(a) 4 : 5 : 3 (b) 11 : 13 : 16 (c) 15 : 30 : 22 (d) 20 : 7 : 15 (e) 22 : 7 : 34

138. Kiran lends the profit earned by him for 2 years ar 6% of compound interest. If the profit is
Rs. 17500 for the third year and all have invested the amount for complete year, what is the
compound interest earned by Kiran?
(a) Rs. 854.33 (b) Rs. 901.25 (c) Rs. 954.67 (d) Rs. 1024.75 (e) Rs. 1115.25

139. What is the % of incline/decline in the total investment of Kiran and Rahul in 3rd year when
compared to 1st year?
(a) 25.94% (b) 27.34% (c) 29.83% (d) 30.43% (e) 33.46%

140. What is the ratio of difference of investments of Rahul and Karan in the 2nd year and the
difference of investments of Kiran and Karan in the 2nd year?
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 4 : 3 (d) 5 : 7 (e) 7 : 8

END OF SECTION IV

END OF QUESTION PAPER

Page 25 of 27 SET 4
 Key for IBSAT Model Paper–4

Reading Quantitative Data Adequacy and

Verbal Ability
Comprehension Aptitude Data Interpretation

S. No. Key S. No. Key S. No. Key S. No. Key S. No. Key

1 E 26 B 51 C 81 C 111 B

2 A 27 C 52 D 82 A 112 C

3 B 28 E 53 B 83 D 113 D
4 C 29 D 54 A 84 A 114 C

5 D 30 D 55 D 85 A 115 A
6 D 31 C 56 E 86 C 116 D

7 B 32 A 57 D 87 D 117 C

8 A 33 B 58 B 88 D 118 E

9 B 34 C 59 A 89 C 119 D

10 C 35 D 60 C 90 B 120 A

11 A 36 C 61 B 91 B 121 E
12 B 37 B 62 D 92 E 122 E

13 D 38 A 63 C 93 D 123 E
14 C 39 E 64 D 94 A 124 E

15 E 40 D 65 A 95 D 125 A
16 C 41 A 66 E 96 D 126 E

17 E 42 D 67 B 97 C 127 E
18 D 43 B 68 D 98 B 128 C

19 B 44 A 69 A 99 E 129 C
20 A 45 C 70 C 100 C 130 E

21 D 46 B 71 E 101 E 131 E
22 C 47 C 72 A 102 D 132 C

23 D 48 D 73 C 103 B 133 D

24 E 49 C 74 C 104 E 134 C

25 B 50 A 75 D 105 C 135 C

76 B 106 E 136 C

77 D 107 D 137 D

78 A 108 C 138 B

79 E 109 D 139 D
80 A 110 E 140 C

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