Professional Documents
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Mock Test Paper Eng
Mock Test Paper Eng
NEET(UG)
MOCK TEST
This Booklet contains 19 pages.
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
Important Instructions :
1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet,
take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with
blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration and this Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question
carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect
response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
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4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this
6.
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Test Booklet with them.
The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray
marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified
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space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
7. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.
: in words
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wins? (Assume no marble leaves contact at any point.) (3) V1=V2 (4) can’t determined
A v 6. In the given figure if i1 = 3 sin t and
E i2 = 4 cos t, then i3 is
i1 i2
B v
(1) B i3
(2) A (1) 5 sin (t +53°)
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(3) Both will reach at the same time (2) 5 sin (t + 37°)
(4) None of these (3) 5 sin (t + 45°)
3. The moment of inertia of a uniform flat disc about (4) 5 cos (t + 53°)
its own axis is I. The radius of the disc is a. A 7. The diagram below represents shallow water
section ABCD of the disc (as shown in figure) is waves of wavelength passing through two small
cut off and separated. The moment of inertia of the openings, A and B, in a barrier.
remaining part of the disc about the same axis will be
A
B C
D
30°
–1 1 –1
(1) tan (2) tan (3)
3
Q
P
I –1 –1 1
(3) cos (3) (4) sin
3
(1) 0 (2) IlB (3) 2 I lB (4) 2 I lB
13. A ball is projected upwards from the top of a
9. In a co-ordinate system 3 vectors are represented
tower with a velocity of 50 ms–1 making an angle
as follows :-
of 30º with the horizontal. The height of the
a 4iˆ – ˆj , b –3iˆ 2 ˆj and c – kˆ tower is 70 m. After how many seconds from the
instant of throwing will the ball reach the ground:-
Where ˆi, ˆj, kˆ are unit vectors along x, y and z axis
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(1) 2s (2) 5s
respectively. The unit vector r̂ along the resultant (3) 7s (4) 9s
of these vectors is :- 14. A rocket of mass 6000 kg is set for vertical firing.
If the exhaust speed be 1 km/s, how much gas per
1 ˆ ˆ ˆ 1 ˆ ˆ ˆ second must be ejected to give the rocket an
(1) r̂ = (i + j – k) (2) r̂ = (i j – k)
1
3
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(3) r̂ = (iˆ – ˆj k)
ˆ (4) r̂ =
2
1 ˆ ˆ ˆ
(i j k)
upward acceleration of 20 ms–2 ?
(Take g = 10 m s–2)
(1) 45 kg/s (2) 90 kg/s
3 2 (3) 120 kg/s (4) 180 kg/s
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15. Three forces are acting on a particle of mass m
a t2 initially in equilibrium. If the first two forces
10. In a equation P , P is pressure, x is distance
bx (R1 and R2) are perpendicular to each other and
suddenly the third force (R3) is removed, then the
a
and t is time the dimension of will be :- magnitude acceleration of the particle is :-
b
R3
(1) [MT–2] (2) [M2LT–3] (1)
m
A
100 1 100 R1 R 2
(1) 3 + 6.01× (2) × 0.01 × (3)
5.3 3 5.3 m
R1
3 0.1 0.1 (4)
(3) 100 (4) 100 m
5.3 5.3
Page 3/19 Mock Test
16. In an arrangement shown in figure, coefficient of 20. The velocity of the liquid, coming out of a small
friction between the two blocks is µ = 1/2. The hole of a large vessel, containing two different
force of friction acting between the two blocks is:- liquids of densities 4 and as shown in figure.
F1 = 2N
2kg
F2 = 20N smooth 4h
4 kg
(1) 8 N (2) 10 N
(3) 6 N (4) 4 N
h 2
17. Four spheres of diameter 2a and mass M are
v
placed with their centres on the four corners of a
square of side b. Then the moment of inertia of the (1) 2gh (2) 6gh (3) 8gh (4) 10gh
system about an axis along one of the sides of the 21. 64 small water drops of equal radii combine to
square is :- form a big drop. The ratio of final surface energy
to the total initial surface energy is :-
4 8 (1) 1: 64 (2) 1 : 256
(1) Ma 2 2Mb2 (2) Ma 2 2Mb2
5 5 (3) 1 : 16 (4) 1 : 4
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22. Ice starts freezing in a lake with water at 0ºC when
8 4 the atmospheric temperature is –10ºC. If the time
(3) Ma 2 (4) Ma 2 4Mb2
5 5 taken for 1 cm of ice to be formed is 12 minutes,
the time taken for the thickness of the ice to change
18. A cubical block of side a is moving with velocity
from 1 cm to 2 cm will be :-
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v on a horizontal smooth plane as shown. It hits
a ridge at point O. The angular speed of the block
after it hits O is :-
(1) 12 minute
(2) less than 12 minutes
(3) more than 12 minutes but less than 24 minute
a (4) more than 24 minutes
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23. An ideal gas is taken through a cyclic
M v
o thermodynamical process through four steps. The
amounts of heat involved in these steps are;
(1) 3v / 4a (2) 3v / 2a Q 1 = 5960 J, Q 2 = –5585 J, Q 3 = –2980 J,
Q4 =3645 J respectively. The corresponding works
3v 3v involved are; W1 = 2200 J, W2 = –825 J,
(3) (4) W3=–1100 J and W4 respectively. The value of W4 is:-
2a 2a
A
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3 of refractive index 1.54 is combined with another
d c
thin prism P2 made from glass of refractive index
7 1.72 to produce dispersion without deviation. The
(1) amp from a to b via e
3 E angle of prism P2 is :-
(1) 2.6º (2) 3º
7
(2) amp from b to a via e (3) 4º (4) 5.33º
3
33. A particle moves in a circle of radius 25 cm at two
(3) 1.0 amp from b to a via e revolutions per second. The acceleration of the
(4) 1.0 amp from a to b via e particle in m/s2 is
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28. Three electric bulbs of 200 W, 200 W and 400 W (1) 2 (2) 8 2 (3) 4 2 (4) 2 2
are shown in figure. The resultant power of the 34. A 6.0 kg mass is moving to right at 10 m/s. A
combination is : 0.25 kg mass is thrown towards left as shown.
200W
What speed the smaller mass must have to
400W completely stop both masses after collision:-
10 m/s
6 kg v 0.25 kg
A
200W /////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
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× ×
of 2 volt across it and passes a current of 10 mA – – –
when it operates with a 6 volt battery through a
limiting resistor R. The value of R is :- B 0 B 0
(1) 40 k (2) 6 k (3) 200 (4) 400 (1) B (2) (3) (4)
0 0 B
40.
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The forbidden energy gap in Ge is 0.72 eV. Given,
hc = 12400eV – Å. The maximum wavelength of
radiation the will generate electron electron hole
pair is :-
44. What is the net force on the rectangular coil :-
10 cm
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(1) 172220Å (2) 172.2Å 2A 1A 15 cm
(3) 17222Å (4) 1722Å
41. For the series LCR circuit shown in the figure what
is the resonance frequency and the amplitude of 2cm
the current at the resonating frequency :
(1) 25 × 10–7 N towards wire
(3) CH3
(2) CH3 – C – O – C – CH3
O CH3
(4)
SH
47. For first order reaction ; O
(3)
1 O
N 2 O 5 (g) 2NO 2 (g) + O (g) rate is
2 2
N
O–CH3
2 × 10 –3 Ms –1 when concentration of N 2 O 5 is (4)
0.2 M then rate constant will be O
(1) 0.01 Ms–1 (2) 0.01 s–1
52. In SO3 there are three bonds, one is p-p bond
(3) 0.01 M min–1 (4) 0.02 mol–1 L
48.
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Geometrical isomerism cannot be shown by?
(1) [Zn(NH3)2(Cl)2 ]
(2) [Pt(NH3)2 (CN)2 ]
& rest two are p – d bonds, the d-orbitals those
can take part in bond formation would be :-
(1) dxy, dyz
(2) dyz, dz2
(3) [Cr(NH3)4 (Br)2] +
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(3) dx2–y 2, dz2
(4) [Pd(NO2)3(Cl)3]–2
(4) dxz, dx2 –y 2
49. In a sample of hydrogen atoms electron jump from 53. The state of hybridization of C2, C3, C5 and C6 of
fifth excited state to first excited state then number the hydrocarbon,
of possible lines in ultra violet region will be :-
(1) 10 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 0 CH3 CH3
50. For the given compound correct decreasing order CH3–C – CH=CH–CH–C CH
7 6 5 4 3 2 1
A
CH 3 CH 3 OH OH
CH 3
CH 3 CH 3
CH 2OH CH2COO—
CH 3 (3) +
O O O
(I) (II) (III) Cl Cl
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Which of the given compounds can exhibit
CH 2OH OH
tautomerism? (4) +
(1) I and III (2) II and III
(3) I, II and III (4) I and II OH OH
56.
acid is :-
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Structure of the compound whose IUPAC name is
3–Ethyl–2–hydroxy–4–methylhex–3–en–5–ynoic
58.
COOH
(i) B2H6
A
DIBAL–H
B
CN (ii) H3O
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The product 'B' is :-
CO OH
(1)
CH2OH CH2OH
OH
(1) (2)
OH CHO CH2OH
CO OH
(2) CHO CHO
A
(3) (4)
CHO CH2OH
OH
CO OH 59. Which of the following molecule on reaction with
(3)
CH 3CH 2 O Na gives aromatic species :-
OH
CO OH
(4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) NO 2 NO 2 NO 2 (2) NO 2 NO 2 NO 2
COOH
(2) (3) NO 2 NO 2 NO 2 (4) NO 2 NO 2 NO 2
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NH 2
(3) (1) C 22 He 2 NO O 2
Br E (2) He 2 O 2 NO C 22
CO NH 2 (3) O 2 NO C 22 He 2
(4)
(4) NO C 22 O 2 He 2
Br
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67. Which one of the following compounds is a
61. More number of oxidation states are exhibited by peroxide?
the actinoids than by the lanthanoids. The main (1) NO2 (2) CrO3
reason for this is :- (3) BaO2 (4) MnO2
(1) More energy difference between 5f and 6d 68. Which one of the following ions has electronic
orbitals than that between 4f and 5d orbitals configuration [Ar]3d6 ?
(2) Lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d (1) Co3+ (2) Ni3+
orbitals than between 4f and 5d orbitals (3) Mn3+ (4) Fe3+
A
(3) Greater metallic character of the lanthanoids (At. nos. Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28)
than that of the corresponding actinoids 69. Which of the following pairs has the same size ?
(4) More active nature of the actinoids (1) Zn2+, Hƒ4+ (2) Fe2+, Ni2+
62. In which of the following pairs are both the ions 4+
(3) Zr , Ti 4+
(4) Zr4+, Hƒ4+
coloured in aqueous solution :- 70. Among the following which one has the highest
(1) Ni2+, Ti3+ (2) Sc3+, Ti3+ cation to anion size ratio :-
(3) Sc3+, Co2+ (4) Ni2+, Zn+2 (1) CsF (2) LiF
(At.no. : Sc=21, Ti=22, Ni=28, Cu=29, Co=27) (3) NaF (4) CsI
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diffuse through a porous partition in 20 and
10 seconds respectively. The molecular mass of
(4) and
Br CH 3 A is 49u. Molecular mass of B will be :-
CH 3
Br (1) 50.00 u (2) 12.25 u
72. Which of the following is least likely to behave
(3) 6.50 u (4) 25.00 u
as Lewis base ?
(1) H2 O
(3) BF 3
E (2) NH3
(4) OH–
81. When 20 litres of H 2 (g) is mixed with
11.2 litres of Cl2(g), each at S.T.P., the moles of
HCl (g) formed is equal to :-
73. What is the value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+
(1) 1 mol of HCl (g) (2) 2 mol of HCl (g)
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if IE1 of Na = 5.1 eV :-
(1) +6.1 eV (2) –5.1 eV (3) 0.5 mol of HCl (g) (4) 1.5 mol of HCl (g)
(3) –10.2 eV (4) +2.55 eV 82. How many stereoisomers does this molecule have
74. In which of the following molecule the central CH3CH=CHCH2CH(Br)CH3
3
atom does not have sp hybridization :- (1) 8 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 6
(1) SO3 (2) PCl4+ 83. For first order reaction t80% is 60 min. Calculate
(3) NH4+ (4) CH4 t1/2 :-
75. 2+
Be is isoelectronic with which of the following (1) 25.7 min (2) 22 min
A
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(1)H < 0 and S < 0 nucleus. How much DNA would a cell of same
(2) H > 0 and S < 0 organism have in diplotene (X), anaphase-II(Y)
and cytokinesis-II (Z) ?
(3) H = 0 and S < 0
(1) X = 40 pg, Y = 40 pg, Z = 20 pg
88.
ethanol
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(4) H > 0 and S > 0
Consider the following reaction,
Re d P Br 2
X alc. KOH
Y
(2) X = 80 pg,
(3) X = 20 pg,
(4) X = 80 pg,
Y = 40 pg, Z = 20 pg
Y = 80 pg, Z = 40 pg
Y = 80 pg, Z = 40 pg
i H 2 SO 4 room temperature
Z; 95. Escherichia coli has 4.6 × 106 bp in nucleoid and
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ii H2 O, heat
the DNA in nucleoid is organised in large loops
the product Z is :-
held by proteins. How many nucleosome are
(1) CH3CH2OH
present in nucleoid of E. coli.
(2) CH2 = CH2
(3) CH3CH2 – O – CH2 – CH3 (1) 2.3 × 104 (2) 4.6 × 103
(4) CH3 – CH2 – O – SO3H (3) 100 (4) Zero
89. Calculate the degree of ionization of 0.04 M HOCl 96. A wheat plant has two kinds of varieties one is
solution having ionization constant 0.25 × 10–4 :-
A
98. All given process are involved in global warming 104. The total number of polypeptide chains and
controlling except :- paratopes in single molecule of IgM is/are
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(1) Cutting down the use of fossil fuel (1) 10 and 10 respectively
(2) Improving efficiency of energy usage. (2) 20 and 10 respectively
(3) Increased deforestation (3) 21 and 10 respectively
(4) Slowing growth of human population
99.
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Which one is an example of commensalism
(1) Fungi & Roots of higher plants
(4) 20 and 20 respectively
105. Total number of monophyodont teeth present in
a 6 year old boy is :-
(2) Penicillium & Staphylococcus (1) 20 (2) 12 (3) 4 (4) Zero
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(3) Cattle egret & grazing cattle
106. Enzymes, catalysing the transfer of hydrogen,
(4) Hermit crab & sea Anaemone are classified under which of the following
100. If the base sequence in m-RNA is classes?
AUGCACAUUGCU, then what would be the (1) Transferases
sequence of bases in coding strand of DNA :- (2) Lyases
(1) UCG UUA CAC GUA
(3) Ligases
(2) ATG CAC ATT GCT
A
(4) Oxidoreductases
(3) GCT ATT CAC ATG
107. Enzyme, which catalyze the breakdown of
(4) TAC GTG TAA CGA
hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen, contains
101. An athlete stroke volume permanently increases which of the following cofactors ?
upto 100 ml. During resting stage in this athlete
(1) Haem as a prosthetic group
the heart beat rate is (per minute)
(2) Niacin as a coenzyme
(1) 72 (2) 100
(3) Zinc as a metal ion
(3) 70 (4) 50 (4) Haem as a coenzyme
Page 12/19 Mock Test
108. Both the transport methods of which of the 115. Choose the incorrect match from following :-
following sets show highly selective nature ? (1) Phycomycetes – Albugo
(1) Simple diffusion and osmosis (2) Ascomycetes – Agaricus
(2) Facilitated transport and active transport
(3) Basidiomycetes – Ustilago
(3) Active transport and simple diffusion
(4) Deuteromycetes – Trichoderma
(4) Simple diffusion and facilitated transport
116. Red algae differ from the green algae in having:-
109. Which of the following micronutrients is essential
for the water splitting reaction in photosynthesis (1) Chlorophyll 'a'
and also helps in anion-cation balance in cells ? (2) Haemoglobin with in their cells
(1) Molybdenum (2) Manganese (3) Aquatic nature
(3) Chlorine (4) Magnesium (4) No motile stage present in their life cycle
110. In Hatch and Slack pathway primary CO2 acceptor 117. Panthera leo, Panthera pardus and Panthera tigris
and primary CO2 fixation product have how many represent :-
carbons respectively ? (1) They all are member of same species
(1) Five and four (2) Four and three (2) They all are species of different genus
(3) Three and four (4) Four and five
(3) They all are species of same genus
111. In tricarboxylic acid cycle isomerisation of citrate
(4) Panthera is a name of species while leo, pardus
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is followed by how many decarboxylation(s)
and tigris represent variety
for the formation of -ketoglutaric acid ?
118. Which is used as packing material for trans-
(1) Two (2) Three
shipment of living material :-
(3) Four (4) One
(1) Salaginella (2) Funaria
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112. Which of the following plant growth regulators
increases the yield in cucumbers ?
(1) Abscisic acid (2) Ethylene
(3) Sphagnum (4) Cycas
119. Both the words in a biological name when handwritten
are underlined, or printed in italics to indicate :-
(3) Gibberellin (4) Cytokinin (1) The are endangered
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113. Which of the following option is correct about (2) They are living
bacterial pili :- (3) Their latin origin
(1) They play an important role in movement (4) Now they are extinct
(2) They made up of protein which are contractile 120. Which of the following is correctly matched in
in nature given table :-
(3) They help in protection Variety Crop Resistance to
(4) They help in genetic recombination disease
114. Read the following pairs.
A
N
of more than one polypeptide or subunits and 125. Which of the following is wrong about
these subunits are arranged with respect to each
Bt-cotton?
other in the form of a cube or plate-
(1) The Bt-toxin protein exist as inactive protoxins
(1) Secondary structure (2) Primary structure
but once as insect ingest the inactive toxin, it
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(3) Tertiary structure (4) Quaternary structure
123. Which one of the following structural formulae of
two organic compounds is correctly identified
along with its related function ?
is converted into an active form of toxin due
to the alkaline pH of the gut
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except :-
(1) Promoter (2) Terminator Column-I Column-II
(3) Operator (4) Coding strand
(A) Mule (i) Out-crossing
129. Match the items given in column I with those in
Column-I
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column II and select the correct option given below:-
Column-II
(B)
(C)
Hisardale
To overcome
(ii)
(iii)
Cross breed
Interspecific
inbreeding depression hybrid
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(a) Monohybrid (i) Phenotypic ratio of F2
cross generation is 1:2:1 (D) Apiculture (iv) Apis indica
(d) Incomplete (iv) A cross help to find 134. Find the odd one related to viviparity :-
dominance out the genotype of (1) Ornithorhynchus (2) Camelus
dominant trait of a (3) Canis (4) Equus
character 135. Agnatha is represented by the which class ?
(1) Cyclostomata (2) Amphibia
(1) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iv) (3) Aves (4) Reptilia
(2) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(ii) 136. All of the following reptiles are poisonous except-
(3) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii) (1) Naja (2) Vipera
(4) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i) (3) Bangarus (4) Hemidactylus
Page 15/19 Mock Test
137. Find the incorrect match :- 145. Which of the following are structural features of
(1) Gorgonia - Sea fan ecosystem ?
(2) Fasciola - Liver fluke (1) Productivity, decomposition
(3) Balanoglossus Tusk shell (2) Energy flow, nutrient recycling
(4) Pterophyllum Angel fish (3) Productivity, energy flow
138. Alternate and opposite type of phyllotaxy is (4) Species composition, stratification
respectively present in :- 146. In aquatic and terrestrial ecosystem which food chain
(1) China rose, Calotropis is major conduit for energy flow respectively ?
(2) Guava, Alstonia (1) GFC, DFC (2) DFC, GFC
(3) Mustard, Sunflower (3) GFC, PFC (4) PFC, DFC
147. Which of the following has greater species diversity?
(4) Calotropis, Guava
(1) Insects (2) Fungi
139. Bicarpellary, syncarpous, ovary superior, bilocular,
(3) Fishes (4) Angiosperms
placenta swollen with many ovules is a character of:-
148. Which of the following is not used as a catalyst
(1) Liliaceae (2) Solanaceae
in catalytic converter ?
(3) Brassicaceae (4) Fabaceae
(1) Platinum (2) Palladium
140. In a cereal grain the single cotyledon of embryo (3) Radon (4) Rhodium
is represented by :- 149. Which is the most effective solution for treatment
(1) Coleorhiza (2) Coleoptile of e-wastes ?
N
(3) Scutellum (4) Epiblast (1) Recycling (2) Incineration
141. In which type of ovule, embryosac becomes horse (3) Sanitary land fills (4) All of these
shoe shape ? 150. Which of the following illustrates an example of
(1) Orthotropous (2) Amphitropous inter kingdom interaction ?
(3) Anatropous (4) Circinotropous (1) An actinomycetes secreting antibiotic that kills
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142. Which of the monocot character, shown by
flowers of Liliaceae ?
(1) Ovary inferior
nearby bacteria
(2) An epiphyte growing on branch of tree
(3) Lichen
(2) Unisexual flower (4) Hermit crab carrying sea anemone to distant
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(3) Trimerous flower locations
(4) Zygomorphic 151. High dose of .............. causes inflammation of
143. Which of the following is absent in most of cornea and snow blindness :-
monocots ? (1) UV-A (2) UV-B
(1) Sieve tube (3) UV-C (4) X-rays
(2) Companion cell 152. Kazhiranga national park is famous for which
(3) Phloem parenchyma species :-
(1) Elephant (2) Rhinoceros
A
N
sex characters c Incomplete double circuit iii Birds
(3) Female sexual behaviour circulation
(4) Elongation and thickening of vocal cord fibres (1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i (2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
158. Nissl's granules present in :- (3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii (4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii
164. Each molecule has four polypeptide chains, two small
(1) Cell body only
(2) Axon only
(3) Dendrites only
E called light chains and two longer called heavy chains
(represented as H2L2). Which of the following is not
directly related to above described molecule :-
(4) Cell body and dendrites both
(1) Antibody mediated immunity (AMI)
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159. Hind brain includes :- (2) Army of proteins produced by B-cell
(1) Pons and corpora quadrigemina (3) It gives antigenic stimulation
(2) Pons and cerebellum only (4) Present in blood
(3) Cerebellum, pons and medulla oblongata 165. Drug can be used to prevent the graft rejection is
(4) Cerebrum, pons and medulla oblongata obtained from :-
160. Match following organisms with their excretory (1) Papaver somniferum
structures :- (2) Trichophyton
A
N
169. In which disorder, alveolar walls are damaged due 177. During muscle contraction in humans the :-
to which respiratory surface is decreased? (1) Actin filaments shorten
(1) Asthma (2) Sarcomere does not shorten
(2) Bronchitis (3) A-band does not retain length
(3) Emphysema (4) H and I bands shorten
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(4) Occupational respiratory disease
170. Which of the following is the correct match of
respiratory capacities :-
178. Match the following columns :-
Column-A
(i) Cervical
Column-B
(a) 1
(ii) Thoracic (b) 5
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a IC i ERV + RV (iii) Lumbar (c) 12
(iv) Sacral (d) 7
b EC ii ERV +TV
(v) Coccygeal
a b c d
c FRC iii ERV+TV+IRV
(1) iv, v iii ii i
(2) i ii iii iv, v
d VC iv TV + IRV
(3) iv, v ii iii i
A
N
6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet 6.
shall be detached under any circumstances.
7. The candidates will write the Correct Name 7.
and Form No. in the Test Booklet/Answer
Sheet.
E
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A
Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in within 2 days
along with Paper code and Your Form No.
Correction
Paper code
Form No.
2
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