Telegram PT Group Discussion 2019 (Sci & Tech)

Health related
Q1: Consider the following sets of pair:
Vitamin: Deficiency disease
1. Vitamin D: Loss of vision
2. Vitamin C: Scurvy
3. Vitamin B: Beriberi
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) c
Explanations: Pair 1 is incorrect. Loss of vision causes due the deficiency of vitamin A.
Pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

Knowledge Base
Diseases that are caused by the lack of nutrients over a long period of time are termed as deficiency
diseases.
Following are some of the common deficiency diseases:
Vitamin D - Rickets
Calcium - Bone and Tooth decay
Iodine - Goiter and Mental retardant in children
Iron – Anaemia

Q2) Consider the following diseases:

1. Typhoid
2. Polio
3. Malaria
4. Measles
Which of the above disease(s) is/are caused due to virus?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans) b
Explanations:
 Polio and Measles are caused by virus
 Typhoid fever in human beings is caused by Salmonella typhi, a pathogenic bacterium
 Plasmodium, a tiny protozoan is responsible for Malaria

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 Q3) The concept ‘90-90-90’, recently in news, is associated to
a) Women empowerment
b) Organic farming
c) Controlling of HIV/AIDS
d) Renewable energy
Answer: c
The concept ‘90-90-90’ is associated to controlling of HIV/AIDS.
This concept was introduced by the United Nation’s program on HIV/AIDS in 2013, 90-90-90 is a set of
goals. The idea is that by 2020, 90% of people who are HIV infected will be diagnosed, 90% of people
who are diagnosed will be on antiretroviral treatment and 90% of those who receive antiretroviral will
be virally suppressed. Viral suppression is when a person’s viral load - or the amount of virus in an HIV-
positive person’s blood – is reduced to an undetectable level.

Q4) Which of the following diseases occurs due to genetic disorders?

1. Hemophilia
2. Thalassemia
3. Color Blindness
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans) d
Explanations: Hemophilia, Thalassemia and Color Blindness occur due to genetic disorders.
Many human diseases have a genetic component. Some examples of genetic disorders are as follows:
• Hemophilia
• Hemochromatosis
• Gaucher Disease
• Wilson Disease
• Breast cancer
• Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease
• Fragile X Syndrome

Q5) With reference to the Multi Drug Resistant Tuberculosis (MDR-TB), consider the following
statements.
1. Government of India launched Rifampicin, new drug for Drug resistant TB.
2. Dormant bacteria in the body doesn’t cause symptoms of MDR- TB.
3. MDR-TB is non-contagious disease.
Which of the above given statements are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only

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 c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only

Ans) c
Explanations:
Statement 1 is incorrect. Government of India launched Bedaquline, new drug for Drug resistant TB. On
World Tuberculosis Day (24th March), Union Health Minister launched Bedaquiline — new drug for Drug
Resistant TB - as part of the national program.
Statement 2 is correct. Only when the bacteria becomes active, people become ill with TB. Bacteria
become active as a result of anything that can reduce the person’s immunity, such as HIV, advancing
age, or some medical conditions.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Resistant strains of TB are already present in the population, so MDR-TB can be
directly transmitted from an infected person to an uninfected person. So, it is a contagious disease.

Q6) Which of the following disease(s) is/are covered under the Mission Indradhanush campaign?
1. Childhood Tuberculosis
2. Yellow fever
3. Pertussis
4. Diphtheria
5. Malaria
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1, 2, and 5 only
b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: c
Explanations: Yellow fever and Malaria are not covered under the Mission Indradhanush campaign. The
Mission Indradhanush, depicting seven colours of the rainbow, targets to immunize all children against
seven vaccine preventable diseases namely Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Childhood Tuberculosis,
Polio, Hepatitis B and Measles.

Space
Q1)ISRO has successfully flight tested Scramjet Engine. With reference to this, consider the following
statements:
1. It is a form of air-breathing jet engine.
2. It does not work efficiently at hypersonic speeds.
3. Ramjet is an upgraded version of the same.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) a
Explanations: Statement 1 is correct. Ramjet, Scramjet and Dual Mode Ramjet (DMRJ) are the three
concepts of air-breathing engines which are being developed by various space agencies.
Statement 2 is incorrect. A scramjet engine efficiently works at hypersonic speeds.

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 Statement 3 is incorrect. A scramjet engine is an improvement over the ramjet engine. Scramjet engine
efficiently operates at hypersonic speeds and allows supersonic combustion. Thus, it is known as
Supersonic Combustion Ramjet, or Scramjet.

Q2) In which of the following activities are Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites used?
1. Snow melt run-off prediction
2. Telecommunications
3. Environmental impact analysis
4. Ground water targeting
5. Agricultural crop acreage and production estimation
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 2 and 4 only
b) 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Ans) c
Explanations:
Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites is not used for Telecommunications. The Indian National Satellite
(INSAT) system is one of the largest domestic communication satellite systems in Asia-Pacific region with
nine operational communication satellites placed in Geo-stationary orbit.
.
Q3) With reference to Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) or NAVIC, consider the
following statements.
1. It comprises of satellites in both geosynchronous and geostationary orbit.
2. It is a global rival to GPS system of USA.
Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a
Explanations: Statement 1 is correct while Statement 2 is incorrect as IRNSS or NAVIC is a regional
navigation system but GPS is a global and more advanced system.
IRNSS (now NAVIC) consists of seven satellites in a constellation, three satellites in geostationary orbit
(GEO) and four satellites in geosynchronous orbit (GSO).

Q4. ISRO had launched ‘South Asia satellite’ with respect to this consider the following statements
1. It’s a geosynchronous communication and meteorological satellite.
2. It aims to provide hotline services to all its participating countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans (c)
Explanation:

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 The South Asia Satellite, also known as GSAT -9, is a geostationary communications and meteorology
satellite operated by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) for the South Asian Association for
Regional Cooperation (SAARC) region.
Pakistan did not join the project, stating that it was working on its own satellite.

Q5. With reference to “ GSLV-Mk III” , recently in news, which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct?
1. GSLV-Mk III is a Single stage launch vehicle.
2. It is India’s first fully functional rocket to be tested with a cryogenic engine that uses liquid
propellants — liquid oxygen and liquid hydrogen.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b
Statement 1 is Incorrect. GSLV-Mk III is a three-stage vehicle. It is capable of launching four-tonne
satellites in the Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit. GSLV-Mk III is capable of launching four-tonne satellites
in the Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit.
Statement 2 is correct: It is India’s first fully functional rocket to be tested with a cryogenic engine that
uses liquid propellants — liquid oxygen and liquid hydrogen.

Q6: GAGAN has been developed by ISRO and AAI of India. India has become the 4th nation to have such
inter-operable SBAS facility and first in the World to serve the equatorial region. Thus this specialized
GAGAN services can be employed for which among the following purposes?
1. Ionospheric studies
2. Flight Management System
3. Navigational support to railways
4. Terrain mapping
5. Missile guidance
Select the correct answer from the code given below
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Ans (d)
Explanation:
The GAGAN is designed to provide the additional accuracy, availability, and integrity necessary to
enable users to rely on GPS for all phases of flight, from en route through approach for all qualified
airports within the GAGAN service volume.
GAGAN will also provide the cap ability for increased accuracy in position reporting, allowing for more
uniform and high-quality Air Traffic Management (ATM). In addition, GAGAN will provide benefits
beyond aviation to all modes of transportation, including maritime, highways, railroads and public
services such as defense services, security agencies, telecom industry and personal users of position
location applications.

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 Q7: Consider the following statements with reference to GeM (Government e-Marketplace)
1. It is a one stop portal to facilitate online procurement of common use Goods & Services
required by various Government Departments / Organizations / PSUs, autonomous bodies.
2. GeM has replaced the public procurement wing Directorate General of Supplies and Disposals
(DGS&D)
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. None of the above
Answer: c
GeM is a one stop portal to facilitate online procurement of common use Goods & Services required by
various Government Departments / Organizations / PSUs, autonomous bodies. GeM, a not-for-profit
Section 8 company, offers a completely paperless, cashless and system driven e-market place that
enables procurement with minimal human interface. GeM has replaced the public procurement wing
Directorate General of Supplies and Disposals (DGS&D). Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct

Defense
Q1) Consider the following statements regarding the Agni-IV missile.
1. It is two-stage surface-to-surface nuclear capable cruise missile.
2. It also possesses a submarine launch capability.
3. It can be fired from both rail and road mobile launchers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c
Statement 1 is incorrect. Agni-IV is a two-stage surface-to-surface nuclear capable intercontinental
ballistic missile. It is not a cruise missile.
Statement 2 is correct. It is also possessing a submarine launch capability.
Statement 3 is correct. The missile can be fired from both rail and road mobile launchers within minutes
while the quick reaction timing of the weapon system gives it more flexibility and wide range of
operational success.

Q2) Which of the following is/are features of ‘Nirbhay Missile', that was in the news recently?
1. It is India's first indigenously built long-range sub-sonic cruise missile.
2. It is a blend of missile and aeronautical technologies which allow it to take off vertically like a missile
and cruise horizontally like an aircraft.
3. It is capable of carrying multiple payloads including nuclear warheads.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

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 Answer: d
Explanations:
• All the statements regarding ‘'Nirbhay Missile' are correct. Nirbhay Missile' is India's first
indigenously designed and developed long range sub-sonic cruise missile.
• The cruise missile Nirbhay, powered by a solid rocket motor booster developed by the Advanced
Systems Laboratory (ASL) took off majestically from a mobile launcher specifically designed for ‘Nirbhay’
by the Vehicles R&D Establishment, (VRDE).

Q3) With reference to the Rustom-II drone, recently in the news, consider the following statements.
1. It is long-endurance combat-capable drone, developed by India in collaboration with France.
2. It can conduct Intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance missions for the armed forces.
3. It can also be used as an unmanned armed combat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) c
Explanations:
Statement 1 is incorrect. India’s indigenously developed long endurance combat capable drone,
Rustom-II (TAPAS 201).
Statement 2 is correct. It is multi-mission UAV which can conduct Intelligence, surveillance and
reconnaissance missions for the armed forces. It can also be used as an unmanned armed combat.
Statement 3 is correct. Rustom–II is a Medium Altitude Long Endurance (MALE) UAV. It can be used as
an unmanned armed combat.

4. The term “DHANUSH” associated with the defense sector, sometimes seen in the news, is a
(a) Indigenous Howitzer
(b) Supersonic anti-ship cruise missile.
(c) Anti-torpedo defence system.
(d) Stealth guided military tank.
Ans (a)
Explanation: The Dhanush is a 155 mm towed howitzer used by the Indian Army.

Q5:Consider the following statements with respect to “ASTRA” missile

1. It’s a surface-air cruise missile.
2. It has beyond visual range capacity.
3. It is a kind of two staged solid propellant smokeless missile.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans (c)
Explanation:
The Astra is an active radar homing beyond-visual-range air-to-air missile developed by the Defence
Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), India. The missile uses an indigenous solid fuel
propellant.

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 Q6: Consider the following statements regarding INS Arihant
1. INS Arihant - the indigenously-built nuclear-propelled submarine.
2. It helps to provide nuclear triad status to India.
Choose the correct statements
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. None of the above

Ans (c)
Explanation:
 INS Arihant - the indigenously-built nuclear-propelled submarine. It is capable of firing ballistic
missiles and can stay under water for months.
 The Strategic Strike Nuclear Submarine (SSBN) Arihant is a 6,000-tonne submarine with a
length of 110 metres and a breadth of 11 metres. The underwater warship is capable of carrying
12 K-15 submarine-launched ballistic missiles having a range of over 700 km. It can dive to 300
metres and is powered with an 83 MW nuclear power reactor. SSBNs are usually bigger in size
and are powered by a nuclear reactor, as a result they can remain submerged for months
without having to surface.
 A nuclear triad refers to the three components of atomic weapons delivery: strategic bombers,
intercontinental ballistic missiles (ICBMs) and submarine launched ballistic missiles (SLBMs).

Q7: Which one among the following is the best description of “INS Kiltan”, that was in the news?
(a) Anti-submarine warfare corvette.
(b) First ship with carbon fiber material.
(c) Stealth guided missile destroyer.
(d) India’s second nuclear submarine.
Ans (a)
Explanation: INS Kiltan is an anti-submarine warfare corvette of the Indian Navy built under Project 28.It
is the third of four Kamorta-class corvettes under various stages of induction with the Indian Navy.

Q8: Consider the following statements with respect to BRAHMOS Missile

1. It’s the world’s fastest intercontinental supersonic cruise missile.
2. It’s an exclusive nuclear capable missile employed for anti-ship activity.
3. It’s a two stage missile with ramjet engine.
4. It is capable to perform canister launch.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Ans (a)
Explanation:
The BrahMos is a medium-range ramjet supersonic cruise missile that can be launched from submarine,
ships, aircraft, or land. It is the fastest supersonic cruise missile in the world. It has a flight range of 290
km. Itis a joint venture between the Russian Federation's NPO Mashinostroeyenia and India's Defence

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 Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) who together have formed BrahMos Aerospace. It is
the world's fastest anti-ship cruise missile in operation.

Bio technology

Q1) Which of the following are artificial reproductive technologies?

1. Cloning
2. In vitro fertilization.
3. Gamete Intra-Fallopian transfer
4. Surrogacy
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: d
Explanations: All are examples of artificial reproductive technologies.
• Assisted reproductive technology (ART) is the technology used to achieve pregnancy in
procedures such as fertility medication, in vitro fertilization and surrogacy.
• It is a reproductive technology used primarily for infertility treatments, and is also known as
fertility treatment.

Q2: With reference to Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojna (PMFSY), consider the following statements
1. It is an actuarial premium based scheme under which farmer has to pay maximum premium of
2% for Kharif, 1.5% for Rabi food & oilseed crops and 5% for annual commercial/horticultural
crops
2. The remaining part of the bidded premium is shared equally by the Centre and State
Government.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c
PMFBY is an actuarial premium based scheme under which farmer has to pay maximum premium of 2%
for Kharif, 1.5% for Rabi food & oilseed crops and 5% for annual commercial/horticultural crops and
remaining part of the actuarial/bidded premium is shared equally by the Centre and State Government.
Thus, both statements are correct

Q3:Consider the following statement with regards to “Antiretroviral Therapy”(ART).

1. ART is the medication for the treatment of Chickenpox.
2. ART inhibits the virus and can limit the growth of Virus.
Which of the following statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2

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 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b
Statement 1 is Incorrect. ART are medications for the treatment of HIV.
Statement 2 is Correct. The drugs do not kill or cure the virus. However, when taken in combination they
can prevent the growth of the virus.

Q4.Recombinant DNA technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred [2013 - I]

1. across different species of plants
2. from animals to plants
3. from microorganisms to higher organisms
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
Recombinant DNA are DNA sequences, which result from bringing genetic material form different
sources. The genes can be transferred between any species, that is across different species of plants,
from animals to plants and from microorganisms to higher organisms.

Nuclear Technology
Q5: Which of the following pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
Isotope Application
1. Cobalt - 60 Treatment of cancer
2. Iodine - 131 Treatment of goitre
3. Uranium - 236 Fuel in nuclear
reactor

a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. 1 and 3 Only
d. All the above
Ans) d
Explanations:
Pair 1 is correct. Cobalt therapy is the medical use of gamma rays from the radioisotope cobalt-60 to
treat conditions such as cancer.
Pair 2 is correct. If the thyroid gland is producing too much T3 and T4, radioactive iodine (I131) is given
to the patient to shrink the gland
Pair 3 is correct. Uranium is used as a nuclear fuel reactor.

Q6: With reference to “Budapest Convention”, which of the following statement is/are correct?
1. It is first international treaty seeking to address cybercrimes.
2. India is member of “Budapest Convention”
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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 Answer: a
Statement 1 is correct. The Convention on Cybercrime, also known as the Budapest Convention on
Cybercrime or the Budapest Convention, is the first international treaty seeking to address Internet and
computer crime by harmonizing national laws, improving investigative techniques, and increasing
cooperation among nations.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Convention has 56 members, including the US and the UK. India is not a
member of this convention.

7. What are isotopes?

A. Elements having equal number of protons but different neutrons.
B. Elements having equal number of neutrons but different protons.
C. Elements having equal number of protons and neutrons.
D. Elements having equal number of protons, neutrons and electrons.
Answer: A
Isotopes are variants of a particular chemical element which differ in neutron number, and
consequently in nucleon number. All isotopes of a given element have the same number of protons but
different numbers of neutrons in each atom.

Miscallanious

Q1: The term “Universe” is all of space and time which holds the presence of various substances within
it. Among those various substances which one among the following is considered to be the most
dominating proportion of the universe?
(a) Dark matter
(b) Black matter
(c) Visible matter
(d) Baryonic matter

Ans (a)
Explanation:
All the stars, planets and galaxies that can be seen
today make up just 4 percent of the universe. The
other 96 percent is made of stuff astronomers can't see, detect or even comprehend.
These mysterious substances are called dark energy and dark matter. Astronomers infer their
existence based on their gravitational influence on what little bits of the universe can be seen, but dark
matter and energy themselves continue to elude all detection.

Q2:Consider the following statements with respect to “Hyperloop” mode of transport

1. The pods operate in a complete Vacuum tube.
2. It uses linear motors for operation.
3. It employs passive levitation technique.
4. It runs with zero rate of friction.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) None of the above

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 Ans (a)
Explanation:
Passengers or cargo are loaded into the Hyperloop vehicle and accelerate gradually via electric
propulsion through a low-pressure tube. The vehicle floats above the track using magnetic levitation and
glides at airline speeds for long distances due to ultra-low aerodynamic drag.

Q3: Consider the following statements about ‘Shakti’ recently in News.

1. It is India’s first indigenous microprocessor.
2. It is aimed at developing industrial-grade microprocessors and other components of the
microprocessor ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above correct.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c

Indian Institute of Technology Madras (IIT Madras) researchers have designed India’s first indigenous
microprocessor called ‘Shakti’.
 It is aimed at developing industrial-grade microprocessors and other components of the
microprocessor ecosystem.
 The microprocessor will reduce dependency on imported microchips especially in
communication and defence sectors and thus eliminate risk of cyber-attacks.
 It can be used in mobile computing, wireless and networking systems. It may also provide power
to mobile phones, smart meters and surveillance cameras.

Q4) One of the most important findings in astrophysics is Black Hole. With reference to this, consider
the following statements:
1. A black hole is a place in space with extreme gravitational pull that even light cannot escape.
2. Black holes are visible from earth with telescopes.
3. A dying star is the first stage for formation of Black Hole.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans) a
Explanations:
Statement 1 is correct. A black hole is a place in space where gravity pulls so much that even light
cannot get out. The gravity is so strong because matter has been squeezed into a tiny space. This can
happen when a star is dying.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Black holes are not visible even from space.
Because no light can get out, people can't see black holes. They are invisible. Space telescopes with
special tools can help find black holes. The special tools can see how stars that are very close to black
holes act differently than other stars.
Statement 3 is correct.

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 Q5) The term ‘Net neutrality’ recently in the news, refers to
a) Inter-cycle collaboration of Telecom companies to provide seamless service.
b) Non-interference of regulatory authorities in tariffs provided by the service providers.
c) An initiative to enable authorities to keep vigil on the contents of social media.
d) The principle that allows impartial access to internet for all users equally.

Ans) d
Explanations: Net neutrality is the principle that data packets on the Internet should be operated
impartially, without regard to content, destination or source. Everybody who accesses the Internet does
so through an Internet Service Provider (ISP).

Q6) With reference to the Internet of Things (IoT), consider the followings statements.
1. It is the interconnection of via the Internet of computing devices embedded in everyday objects,
enabling them to send and receive data.
2. Storage of bulk data is the serious problem for IoT.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above

Ans) c
Explanations:
Statement 1 is correct.
• The Internet of things (stylised Internet of Things or IoT) is the internetworking of physical
devices, vehicles, buildings
• They are embedded with electronics, software, sensors, actuators, and network connectivity
that enable these objects to collect and exchange data.
• They are also referred to as "connected devices" or "smart devices"

Statement 2 is correct. A challenge is the storage of this bulk data. Depending on the application, there
could be high data acquisition requirements which in turn lead to high storage requirements. Another
challenge for producers of IoT applications is to process and interpret the vast amount of data which is
gathered by the sensors.

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