Fiitjee: Internal Test

FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST
IIT – JEE 2018

PHASE – V (CHAMPIONS)_PAPER – I
Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 264
INSTRUCTIONS:
A. General
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 60 questions.
2. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
3. Fill in the boxes provided for Name and Enrolment No.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response (ORS), is provided separately.
5. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MULTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
B. Filling in the OMR:
6. The instructions for the OMR sheet are given on the OMR itself.
C. Question paper format:
7. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part
consists of two sections.
8. Section I contains 8 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
9. Section II contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONE or MORE are correct.
10. Section III contains 2 Match the following type questions and you will have to match
entries in Column I with the entries in Column II
D. Marking Scheme
11. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the
bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY. In all other cases zero (0) marks
will be awarded. No negative marks will be awarded for incorrect answers in this section.
12. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the
bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY. In all other cases zero (0) marks
will be awarded. –2 marks will be awarded for incorrect answers in this section.
13. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 2 marks for each entry in Column I; if
you darken ALL the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY. In all other
cases zero (0) marks will be awarded. –1 marks will be awarded for incorrect answers in
this section.
Don’t write / mark your answers in this question booklet.

If you mark the answers in question booklet, you will not be allowed to continue the exam.
NAME:
ENROLLMENT NO.:
FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. 5-9-14/B, Saifabad, (Opp. Secretariat) Hyderabad. 500 063. Ph: 040-66777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004
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PH-V (Champions)-2018-P(I)-PCM-2
PAPER–I
PART I: PHYSICS
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 32)
 This section contains EIGHT questions.
 The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 to 9, both inclusive.
 For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct integer in the ORS.
 Marking scheme:
+4 If the bubble corresponding to the answer is darkened.
0 In all other cases.
1. Four identical charges are fixed the corners of a square of side a. A fifth point charge –Q lies a
distance z along the line perpendicular to the plane of the square for z << a the motion of –Q is simple
40 a3m
harmonic. The period of motion T  2 , if the mass of –Q is m (Neglect gravitational
4Qq2x
force). Then 2x = ?
2. A small positively charged ball of mass

m is suspended by an insulating thread
of negligible mass. Another positively
charged small ball is moved very slowly
from a large distance until it is in the
original position of the first ball. As a
result, the first ball rises by h. The work
done is a x mgh. Then find a.
3. A parallel plate capacitor is maintained at a certain potential difference. When a 3 mm thick dielectric
slab is introduced between the plates, the plate separation has to be increased by 2 mm in order to
maintain the same potential difference between the plates. Find the dielectric constant of the slab.
4. A charge Q is imparted to two identical parallel plate capacitors connected in parallel. At the moment
of time t=0, the distance between the plates of the first capacitor begins to increase uniformly
according to the law d1  d0  vt , and the distance between the plates of the second capacitor
decreases uniformly according to the law d2  d0  vt . Neglecting the resistance of the feeding wires
and considering Q0  6mc . V=1 m/sec and d0  0.15 mm. The magnitude of current in the circuit
when the plates of the capacitors move is k amp. Find the value of k.
Space for rough work

5. The linear charge density on a dielectric right of radius R is varying with  as    0  cos , where
2
 0 is a constant. Find the potential at the centre O of the ring (in volt)
6. One plate of capacitor is connected with a spring as shown in figure. Area

of both the plates is A. In steady state separation between the plates is 0.8d
(spring was unstretched and the distance between the plates was d when
the capacitor was uncharged). The force constant of the spring is
b 0 A  2
approximately . Then Find 2b.
d3
7. The equivalent capacitance of the

circuit shown in the figure is Kc /N then
find K–N
8. A cylindrical capacitor of inner and outer radii a and b

respectively is filled with two dielectrics of constants
K1 and K 2 . Each dielectric occupies half the length of the
cylinder. The capacity of the system between the inner
A L
and outer cylinders is given by k1  k 2  then
B n  b / a 
A–2B =

 This section contains TEN questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s)
is (are) correct.
 For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS.
 Marking scheme:
+4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is (are) darkened.
0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
–2 In all other cases
9. Two thin conducting shells of radii r and 3R are shown

in the figure. The outer shell carries a charge +Q and
the inner shell is neutral. The inner shell is earthed with
the help of a switch S.
(A) With the switch S open, the potential of the inner sphere is equal to that of the outer
(B) When the switch S is closed, the potential of the inner sphere becomes zero
(C) With the switch S closed, the charge attained by the inner sphere is –q/3
(D) By closing the switch the capacitance of the system increases
10. There is affixed positive charge Q at O and A are

points equidistant from O. A positive charge +q is
taken slowly by an external agent from A to B along
the line AC and then along the line CB.
(A) The total work done on the charge is zero

(B) The work done by the electrostatic force from A to C is negative
(C) The work done by the electrostatic force from C to B is positive
(D) The work done by electrostatic force in taking the charge from A to B is dependent on the actual
path.
11. Two identical charges +Q are kept fixed some distance apart. A small particle P with charge q is
placed midway between them. If P is given a small displacement  , it will undergo simple harmonic
motion if .
(A) q is positive and  is along the line joining the charges.
(B) q is positive and  is perpendicular to the line joining the charges
(C) q is negative and  is perpendicular to the line joining the charges.
(D) q is negative and  is along the line joining the charges.
12. Identical dielectric slabs are inserted into two identical capacitors A and
B. These capacitors and a battery are connected as shown in the figure.
Now the slab of capacitor B is pulled out with battery remaining
connected.
(A) During the process, charge flow from a to b
(B) Finally charge on capacitors B will be less than that on A
(C) During the process work is done by the external force F, part of
which appears as heat in the circuit
(D) During the process internal energy of the battery increases.
13. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and then disconnected from the source of potential difference. If
the plates of the condenser are then moved farther apart by the use of insulated handle, which one of
the following is true ?
(A) The charge on the capacitor increases
(B) The charge on the capacitor decreases
(C) The capacitance of the capacitor increases
(D) The potential difference across the plate increases
14. A parallel plate capacitor of area A and separation d is charged to potential

difference V and removed from the charging source . A dielectric slab of
constant K=2, thickness d and area A/2 is inserted, as shown in the fig. Let
1 be free charge density at the conductor – dielectric surface and 2 be
the charge density at the conductor – vacuum surface.
(A) The electric field have the same value inside the dielectric as in the free
space between the plates.
(B) The ratio 1 / 2 is equal to 2:1
(C) The new capacitance is 30 A /  2d
(D) The new potential difference is (2/3) V
15. The figure shows a non conducting ring

which has positive and negative charge
non uniformly distributed on it such that
the total charge is zero.
Which of the following statement is true
?
(A) The potential at all the points on the axis will be zero.
(B) The electric field at all the points on the axis will be zero
(C) The direction of electric field at all points on the axis will be along the axis.
(D) If the ring is placed inside a uniform external electric field then net torque and force acting on the
ring would be zero.
16. A point charge q1 is placed in a cavity inside a conductor and

another point charge q2 is placed outside it as shown in fig.
Which of the following statements are correct ?
(A) If q1 is slightly shifted, the induced charge density on the
inner surface of the cavity only changes
(B) If q1 is slightly shifted, the induced charge density on the
outer surface of the cavity only changes
(C) If q2 is slightly shifted, the induced charge density on the
inner surface of the cavity only changes
(D) If q2 is slightly shifted, the induced charge density on the
outer surface of the cavity only changes
17. An uncharged thin conducting spherical shell A of radius ‘a’ is

placed concentrically with a thick conducting spherical shell B of
inner radius 2a and outer radius 3a as shown in the figure. if the
shell B is given a total charge +Q then.
Q
(A) Charge on shell A will be 
5
2Q
(B) Charge on shell A will be 
5
3Q
(C) Charge on outer surface of shell B will be
5
Q
(D) Charge on outer surface of shell B will be
5
18. Two identical particle of charge q each are connected

by a massless springs of force constant k. They are
placed over a smooth horizontal surface. They are
released when the separation between them is r and
spring is outstretched. If maximum extension of the
spring is r, the value of k is (neglected gravitational
effect)
q2 q2
(A) k  (B) k 
80r 3
40r 3
q2 4q2
(C) k  (D) k 
0r 3 0r 3

 This section contains TWO questions.
 Each question contains two columns, Column I and Column II
 Column I has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D)
 Column II has five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T)
 Match the entries in Column I with the entries in Column II
 One or more entries in Column I may match with one or more entries in Column II.
 The ORS contains a 4  5 matrix whose layout will be similar to the one shown below:
(A) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(B) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(C) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(D) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
 For each entry in Column I, darken the bubbles of all the matching entries. For example, if entry (A) in
Column I matches with entries (Q), (R) and (T), then darken these three bubbles in the ORS. Similarly, for
entries (V), (C) and (D).
 Marking entry in Column I.
+2 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct match (s) is (are) darkened.
–1 In all other cases.
19. On a capacitor of capacitance C0 following steps are performed in the order is given in column I.
(A) Capacitor is charged by connecting it across a battery of emf 0
(B) Dielectric of dielectric constant K and thickness d is inserted
(C) Capacitor is disconnected from battery
(D) Separation between plates is doubled
Column – II
Column – I
Final value of Quantity (Symbols have
(steps performed)
usual meaning)
C0 0
(A) (A) (D) (C) (B) (p) Q
2
KC0 0
(B) (D) (A) (C) (B) (q) Q
K 1
KC0
(C) (B) (A) (C) (D) (r) C
K 1
0 K  1
(D) (A) (B) (D) (C) (s) V
2K
(t) None
20. Match the Column –I with Column – II

Column – I Column – II
Two point charges each of magnitude Q
are separated by a distance a, then the
graph between electric field E (at a point
(A) (p)
lying on the line joining the charges which
is at a distance r from one charge) are r will
be
Two parallel infinite long current carrying
wire having same magnitude of current I
separated by a distance a, then the graph
(B) between magnitude field B (at a point on (q)
the line joining midpoints of both the wires
which is at a distance r from one wire) and
r will be
A positive point charge Q uniformly
distributed over the volume of a sphere.
(C) The graph between electric field E (at a (r)
distance r from the centre of sphere) and r
will be
A charge Q is uniformly distributed over a
ring. Then the graph between E (at a
(D) (s)
distance r from the centre of ring on the
axis) and r will be
(t) None
PART II: CHEMISTRY

 Marking scheme:
21. In the Iodoform reaction of ethanol, the no. of moles of base (NaOH) consumed per mole of ethanol
is?
 H / 
Ph  CO  CH3   A   B (major)
I EtMgBr
22. II H O    3
The no. of organic products (including stereoisomers) formed in the above sequence (A + B) are?
23.
KCN H3O+ AgNO3
(A) (C) (D)
(B)
(alkyl halide)
Br2/CCl4
Na in dry ether
(E) (F)
(Main product) (Major product)
If ‘A’ contains 2 carbon atoms. The number of carbon atoms in ‘F’ is?
24. Calculate the mass of hydrogen gas in grams produced when the product of following reaction is
allowed to react with excess of sodium.
O O
1.40-50%NaOH(excess)
C C
H 2.H3O+
(1 mol)
25. Examine the structural formulas of the following compounds and find out number of compounds which
O
show higher rate of nucleophile addition than H3C C H
O H O H O H O H O H O H
OCH3 Cl NO2 N(CH3)2 OH C N
26. How many of the following compounds liberate CO2 with NaHCO3
OH OH OH
COOH
NO2
, , , , CH3COOH
OH NO2
27. Number of moles of HIO4 molecule used to oxidize one mole of glucose + number of moles of CH2
= 0 formed during the reaction is equal to
28 H3CO O
CH CH2
The number of moles of HI is treated with excess of HI
consumed when H3CO under drastic conditions.
OCH3

is (are) correct.
 Marking scheme:
29. The method(s) by which phenol can be synthesized is/are

+ -
N NCl SO3Na
(A) H2O /  (B) (i) NaOH , fusion
(ii) H3O+
CH(CH3)2 OH
COONa
(C) (i) O2 or air (D) Sodalime 
+
(ii) H2O / H+ ( 2) H
30. Choose the correct reaction

CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3
IBr
(A) ICl (B)
Cl
Br
+
CH3 CH3 N2 Cl-
+
HOCl/H KI
(C) (D)
Cl acetone
I
CH3
31. Which of the following undergo SN2 reaction faster than CH3 C Br
CH3
(A) C6H5CH2Br (B) CH3Br (C) C2H5Br (D) CH2=CH–CH2Br
32. Identify the correct statements

(A) (CH3)2CH–O– > (H3C)3C–O– (Nucleophilicity)
(B) C2H5O– > OH (Basic strength)
   
(C)
O Ts  O H (leaving ability)
(D) (CH3)3C–Br > (CH3)2CHBr (SN1 reactivity)
33. Which of the following statements about ethers are correct?

(A) peroxide is obtained in presence of air
(B) ethers are Lewis bases
(C) ethers form oxonium salt on reaction with acids
(D) ethers form stable complexes with Lewis acids
34. KOH
D 3C CH CD3
alcohol
D 2C CH CD3 + D3 C CH CD3
Br OH
I II
KOH
H3C CH CH3
alcohol
H2C CH CH3 + H3C CH CH3
Br OH
III IV
Pick the correct sentence.

(A) rate of formation of II and IV would be identical
(B) rate of formation of I would be slower than that of III
(C) formation of I would show isotope effect
(D) formation of III involves E1 reaction
35. See the following reaction.

OCOCH3
AlCl 3
A

Correct statement regarding A

(A) Contains phenolic –OH group
(B) Gives iodoform when treated with I2/excess NaOH
(C) Releases H2 gas when treated with sodium
(D) Consumes a maximum of 4 moles of hydrogen under catalytic conditions
36. O
O O
and compound (X) and (Y) can be differentiated by :
O O
(X) (Y)
(A) H3O+, NaOI (B) H3O+ then K2Cr2O7
(C) H3O+, then Na (D) Victor Meyer Test
37.
Column – I (Reactant) Column – II (Products)
CH3 CH3
CH 3OH 14
(P) OH (1) O CH3
H2SO4 (Conc.)
CH3 CH3
(Q) (i) NaOH (2)
OH CH3
(ii) CH 3I
CH3
CH 3
1) HBr
(R) OH (3) *
O CH 3
2) Mg
3) CH 3I
CH3 CH 3
1) Na
(S) OH (4) *
O CH 3
14
2) CH3 I
Code :
P Q R S
(A) 4 2 3 1
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 4 3 1
38. Which of the following tests can be used to distinguish 3 – alcohol from 1, 2 alcohols
(A) ceric ammonium nitrate test (B) 2, 4–DNP test
(C) Lucas reagent (D) victor mayer test

(A) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(B) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(C) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(D) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
39.
Column – II (Reactions given by organic
Column – I (Reactions)
product/s)
C6H5 OH  
A )CH COCl
3
(A) B) AlCl , 3
(P) Tollens test
Ph  ONa 
 
1) CO
Na/
2
(B) 2) H
(Q)

MeCHO  
1)Cl / O H
(C) 2

(R) NaHCO3
2) H
H / PdBaSO
(D) Ph  COCl 
2 4
 (S) Isocyanide test
(T) 2, 4–DNP
40.
Column – I Column – II
(A) RX  NaI  RI  NaX
acetone (P) DOW’s process
(B) RX  AgF  RF  AgX (Q) Finkelstein reaction
iSnCl / HCl
(C) R  CN  2
ii H O
 RCHO (R) Swart’s reaction
2
C6H5 Cl 
fused NaOH
 C6H5 OH
(D) 350 C
0
(S) Stephen’s reduction
 300atm
(T) Kolbe–Schmidt reaction
PART III: MATHEMATICS

 Marking scheme:
41. Number of real values of x satisfying the equation log2 2x 2  2    x2  1

x2  2
is
42. Find the number of integral solutions of the equation  x  3   4  x  1   x  8   6 x 1 = 1
 x  a  x  b x  c
2 2 2
43. f(x) =   where a, b, c are distinct real numbers. If ‘P’

 a  b  a  c  b  a  b  c   c  a  c  b 
denotes the number of natural numbers in the range of f(x), then unit digit of (P + 8)2015 is
44. Find the smallest positive integral value of a for which the greater root of the equation
x2 – (a2 + a + 1)x + a(a2 + 1) = 0 lies between the roots of the equation x2 – a2x – 2(a2 – 2) = 0
5
    1  x5k  3k  = 32 is
5
k
45. Number of roots of the equation
 
k 0 k
  
7
 x 2
 1
  log7 3
x 2 9
46. Find the sum of possible real values of x for which the sixth term of  3log3 9
 7 5  equals
 
 
567.
47. If real numbers x and y satisfy (x + 5)2 + (y – 12)2 = 196, then the maximum value of (x2 + y2)1/3 is
48. If the equation of circle circumscribing the quadrilateral formed by the lines in order are
2x + 3y = 2, 3x – 2y = 3, x + 2y = 3 and 2x – y = 1 is given by x2 + y2 + x + y +  = 0. Then the value
of | + 2 + | is

is (are) correct.
 Marking scheme:
49. The possible value of  ( > 0) such that the angle between the pair of tangents from point (, 0) to
  2 
the circle x2 + y2 = 4 lies in interval  ,  is
2 3 
 4   4 4 
(A) 
 3
,2 2 


(B) 0, 2  (C) (1, 2) (D)  ,
 3 3

50. An equation of a circle touching the axes of coordinates and the line x cos  + y sin  = 2 can be
2
(A) x2 + y2 – 2gx – 2gy + g2 = 0, where g =
 cos   sin   1
2
(B) x2 + y2 – 2gx – 2gy + g2 = 0, where g =
 cos   sin   1
2
(C) x2 + y2 – 2gx + 2gy + g2 = 0, where g =
 cos   sin   1
2
(D) x2 + y2 – 2gx + 2gy + g2 = 0, where g =
 cos   sin   1
51. The equation of a circle C1 is x2 + y2 = 4. The locus of the intersection of orthogonal tangents to the
circle is the curve C2 and the locus of the intersection of perpendicular tangents to the curve C2 is the
curve C3. Then
(A) C3 is a circle
(B) The area enclosed by the curve C3 is 8
(C) C2 and C3 are circles with the same centre
(D) none of these
52. Which of the following is (are) correct ?

10
 k 
(A) If the coefficient of term independent of x in  x  2  is 405, then the product of possible
 x 
values of k is –9
(B) The value of r for which S = 20Cr 10C0 + 20Cr – 1 10C1 +.....+ 20C0 10Cr is maximum is equal to 15
 k k
C
(C) The value of  k r is equal to 2
k 1 r  0 3
(D) the digit at unit’s place of N = 1750 + 750 is 8
53. If coefficient of x7 in (1 + x)6 + (1 + x)7 + (1 + x)8 + ...... + (1 + x)19 is nCr, then (n + r) is equal to
(A) 27 (B) 26 (C) 28 (D) 32
r
n
 1
r n
 3
r n   2n  1  
54. If S1 =  n
Cr    ; S2 =
 2
 n
Cr    , ......, Sn =
 4
 n
Cr    n   , then
r 0 r 0 r 0   2  
4
2 4n
1 16
1
S  S 
1/ n
(A)  (B)  1
k 1
k
2 4n
2 n
1  k 1
k
216
4
1 16
1 1 
S  S 
1/ n
(C)  1 (D)  1
15  216 
k k
k 1 216 k 1
55. Let x, y, z be real numbers such that x + y + z = 0 and xy + yz + zx = –3, then the value of x3y + y3z +
z3x is
(A) –2 (B) –5 (C) –10 (D) –11
3
m  3 n 1
56. The real root of equation 8x3 – 3x2 – 3x – 1 = 0 can be written in the from , where m, n
P
and p are positive integer, then
(A) m + n + p = 98 (B) m + n + p = 97 (C) m + n = 90 (D) n + p = 17
57. If (1 + x)n = 1 + 8x + 24x2 + ...... and a line through P(, n) cuts the circle x2 + y2 = 4 in A and B, then
PA . PB is equal to
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) 32
58. S(x, y) = 0 represents a circle. The equation S(x, 2) = 0 gives two identical solutions x = 1 and the
equation S(1, y) = 0 gives two distinct solutions y = 0.2, then the equation of the circle is
(A) x2 + y2 + 2x – 2y + 1 = 0 (B) x2 + y2 – 2x + 2y + 1 = 0
2 2
(C) x + y – 2x – 2y – 1 = 0 (D) x2 + y2 – 2x – 2y + 1 = 0

(A) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(B) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(C) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(D) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
59. Consider the circle S1: x2 + y2 – 4x – 6y + 12 = 0 and S2: (x – 5)2 + (y – 6)2 = r2 > 1
Column I Column II
(A) S1 and S2 touch internally, then (r – 1)2 is divisible by p. 3
(B) S1 and S2 touch externally, then r2 + 2r + 3 is q. 4
divisible by
(C) S1 and S2 intersect orthogonally, then r2 – 1 is r. 5
divisible by
(D) S1 and S2 intersect so that the common chord is s. 6
longest, then r2 + 5 is divisible by
60. If x, y and z  R and are connected by x + y + z = 4 and x2 + y2 + z2 = 6, then

Column I Column II
(A) Minimum value of x is p. 2
(B) Maximum value of x is q. 5
3
(C) When x is minimum, y is r. 1
(D) When x is maximum, z is s. 2
3

IIT – JEE 2018
PHASE – V (CHAMPIONS)_PAPER – I
ANSWERS
PHYSICS
1. 3 2. 3 3. 3 4. BONUS
5. 0 6. 8 7. 2 8. BONUS
9. A,B,C,D 10. BONUS 11. A,C 12. A,D

13. D 14. C,D 15. A 16. A,D
17. B,C 18. BONUS 19. A– p,r,s ,B–– p,r,s, C–r, D– q,r
20. A– q,r ,B–– BONUS, C–s, D– p
CHEMISTRY
21. 6 22. 4 23. 4 24. 2
25. 3 26. 3 27. 6 28. 5
29. A, B, C, D 30. C, D 31. A, B, C, D 32. A, B, C, D
33. A, B, C, D 34. A, B, C 35. A, B, C, D 36. C
37. C 38. C, D
39. A–Q,T; B–Q,R; C–P,Q,R; D–P,T
40. A–Q; B–R; C–S; D–P
MATHEMATICS
41. 1 42. 6 43. 9 44. 3
45. 5 46. 4 47. 9 48. 3
49. A 50. A, B, C, D 51. A, C 52. A, B, C, D
53. C, D 54. A, B 55. BONUS 56. A, C, D
57. C 58. D 59. A  p, s; B  q, r; C  q; D  p, q, s
60. A  s; B  p; C  q; D  r
IIT – JEE 2018
PHASE – V (CHAMPIONS)_PAPER – II
Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 240
INSTRUCTIONS:
A. General
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 60 questions.
2. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
3. Fill in the boxes provided for Name and Enrolment No.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response (ORS), is provided separately.
5. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MULTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
B. Filling in the OMR:
6. The instructions for the OMR sheet are given on the OMR itself.
C. Question paper format:
7. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part consists
of two sections.
8. Section I contains 8 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9 (both inclusive).
9. Section II contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) out of which ONE or MORE are correct.
10. Section III contains 2 paragraphs type questions. Each paragraph describes an experiment, a
situation or a problem. Two multiple choice questions will be asked based on this paragraph. One or
more than one option can be correct.
D. Marking Scheme
11. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the bubble(s)
corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY. In all other cases zero (0) marks will be awarded. No
negative marks will be awarded for incorrect answers in this section.
12. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the bubble(s)
corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY. In all other cases zero (0) marks will be awarded. –2
marks will be awarded for incorrect answers in this section.
13. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the bubble(s)
corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY. In all other cases zero (0) marks will be awarded. –2
marks will be awarded for incorrect answers in this section.
Don’t write / mark your answers in this question booklet.

If you mark the answers in question booklet, you will not be allowed to continue the exam.
NAME:
ENROLLMENT NO.:
PH-V (Champions)-2018-P(II)-PCM-2
PAPER – II
PART I: PHYSICS
 This section contains EIGHT questions

 The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 to 9, both inclusive
 For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct integer in the ORS
 Marking scheme:
+4 If the bubble corresponding to the answer is darkened
0 In all other cases
1. The potential energy of the

configuration is given as
 Aq2  1 1  CD
B   Then find AB .
0 d  C 3 D
2. A cone made of insulating material has

a total charge Q spread uniformly over
its sloping surface. The energy required
to take a test charge q from infinity to
2Qq
apex A of cone is given by The
S0L
slant length is L. Then find S.
3. Two insulating small spheres are rubbed against

each other and placed 1 cm apart. If they attract
each other with a force of 0.1 N, how many
electrons were transferred from one sphere to the
other during rubbing k  1011 . Find k
4. A parallel plate capacitor formed by two similar

plates, each of area A  100cm2 and separation
d=1.0 cm is charged by a battery to a potential of
V0  100V . The battery is disconnected and a
dielectric slab of thickness b= 0.5 cm and a
dielectric constant k=7.0 is inserted into the space
between the plates P and Q. The potential
400
difference between the plates now is V.
*
Find *.
5. A charge Q is uniformly distributed on the surface of an angular disc of inner radius R and outer
radius R . A charged particle of mass m and charge –q is released from rest at a point on the axis of
the far from the centre of the ring ?
AKQ
The velocity it will reach the centre of the ring is equal to Then find A.
  1 R

6. Electric field given by the vector E  xiˆ  yjˆ is present in

the XY plane. A small ring carrying charge +Q, which can
freely slide on a smooth non conducting rod, is projected
along the rod from the point (0, L) such that it can reach
the other end of the rod. What minimum velocity should
be given to the ring ? (Assume zero gravity)?
 QL 
1/ n
2
/ k1m . Then k1  n  ? .
7. The diagram shows a small bead of mass m carrying charge q.

The bead can freely move on the smooth horizontal plane. In
the same plane a charge +Q has also been fixed as shown.
The potential at the point P due to +Q is V. The velocity with
which the bead should projected from the point P so that is can
aqV a
complete a circle be greater than. . Find .
m 2
8. The arc AB with the centre C and the infinitely

long wire having linear charge density  are lying
in same plane. The minimum amount of work to
be done to move a point charge q0 from point A
to B through a circular path AB of radius a is equal
q  s
to 0 In   . Then s+r+t = ?
t0  r 

is(are) correct
 For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS
 Marking scheme:
+4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are) darkened
0 If none of the bubbles is darkened
9. A point charge +Q lies somewhere inside a closed

conducting shell as shown in the figure. Another point
charge +q lies outside the shell as shown. There are
two points A and B, one inside and other outside the
shell. Choose correct alternative
(A) When charge +Q is shifted from its position keeping it inside the shell then the charge distribution
on inner surface of the shell will change and that on outer surface of shell will remain unchanged.
(B) When charge +q is shifted from is position keeping it outside the shell then the charge distribution
on the inner surface of the shell will remain unchanged and that on outer surface will change.
(C) When the charge +Q is shifted from its position keeping it inside the shell then the electric field at
B will remain same but that A will change.
(D) When the charge +q is shifted from its position keeping it outside the shell then the
electric field at B will change but that at A will remain same
10. The plates S and T of an uncharged parallel plate

capacitor are connected across a battery. The battery is
then disconnected and the charged plates are now
connected in a system as shown in the figure. The system
shown is in equilibrium. All the strings are insulating and
massless. The magnitude of charge on one of the
capacitor plates is : [Area of plates = A]
4mgA0
(A) 2mgA0 (B)
k
2mgA0
(C) mgA0 (D)
k
11. A parallel capacitor has a dielectric slab in it. The slab just fills the space inside the capacitor. The
capacitor is charged by a battery and then battery is disconnected. Now the slab is started to pull
out slowly at t=0. if at time t, the capacitance of the capacitor is C and potential difference between
the plates capacitor is V then which of the following graphs is/ are correct
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
12. The electric potential in the region of space is given by V  x   A  Bx  Cx 2 , where V is in volts, x is
in meters and A,B,C are constants. Then,

(A) E varies linearly with x

(B) the unit of E is newton coulomb–1

(C) E is in the negative x –direction

(D) the electric field E in this region is constant
13. A parallel plate air capacitor has initial capacitor C. If plate separation is slowly increased from
d1 to d2 , then mark the correct statement(s). [Take potential of the capacitor to be constant, i.e,
throughout the process it remains connected to battery.]
(A) Work done by electric force = –work done by external agent.
 
(B) Work done by external force    F.dx, where F is the electric force of attraction between the
plats at plate separation x.
(C) Work done by electric force  –ve of work done by external agent
(D) Work done by battery = 2 times the change in electric potential energy stored in capacitor.
14. A wire having a uniform linear charge density  , is bent

in the form of a ring of radius R. Point A as shown, is in
the plane of the ring but not at the center. Two elements of
the ring of lengths a1 and a2 subtend very small same
angle at point A. They are at distances r1 and r2 from the
point A, respectively  r2  r1 
(A) The ratio of charges of elements a1 and a2 is r1 / r2

(B) The element a1 produced greater magnitude of electric field at a than element a2
(C) The element a1 and a2 produced same potential at A.
(D) The direction of net electric field produced by elements only at A is towards element a2
15. A dipole is placed in x–y plane parallel to the line y=2x. There exists a uniform electric field along z–
axis. Net force acting on the dipole will be zero. But it can experience some torque. We can show that
the direction of this torque will be parallel to the line.
1 1
(A) y  2x  1 (B) y  2x (C) y   x (D) y   x  2
2 2
16. If a charged conductor is enclosed by a hollow charged conducting shell (assumed concentric and
spherical in shape), and they are connected by a conducting wire, then which of the following
statement(s) would be correct ?
(A) Potential difference between two conductors becomes zero
(B) if charge on inner conductor is q and on outer conductor is 2q, then finally charge on outer
conductor will be 3q.
(C) The charge on the inner conductor is totally transferred to the outer conductor.
(D) If charge on the inner conductor is q and charge on the outer conductor is zero, then finally
charge on each conductor will be q/2.
 This section contains TWO paragraphs

 Based on each paragraph, there will be TWO questions
is(are) correct
 Marking scheme:
Paragraph–1
A researcher studying the properties of ions in the upper
atmosphere wishes to construct an apparatus with
following characteristics. Using an electric field, a beam of
ions, each having charge q, mass m, and initial velocity
v ˆi , is turned through an angle of 900 as each ion
undergoes displacement Riˆ  Rjˆ .The ions enter a
chamber as shown in figure and leave through the exit
port with the speed they had when they entered the
chamber. The electric field acting on the ions is to have
constant magnitude.
17. Suppose the electric field is produced by two concentric cylindrical electrodes not shown in the
diagram, and hence is radial. What magnitude should the field have ?
mv 2 mv 2
(A) centered at A (B) centered at O
2qR 2qR
mv 2 mv 2
(C) centered at A (D) centered at O
qR qR
18. if the field is produced by two flat plates and is uniform in direction. What value should the field have
in this case ?
(A)
2qR

mv 2 ˆ ˆ
ij  (B)
mv 2 ˆ ˆ
2qR
i  j  
(C)
2mv 2 ˆ ˆ
qR
ij  (D)
qR

2mv 2 ˆ ˆ
i  j 
Paragraph–2
Figure shows two capacitors in series, the rigid center
section of length b being movable vertically.
19. The equivalent capacitance of given structure is

0 A 0 A
(A) (B)
 a  b  x    b
a
0 A 0 A
(C) (D)
b  x  a  x 
20. If potential of upper and lower plates are V1 and V2 , respectively then find the potential of rigid
section.
 V  V2  x  V  V1  x
(A) V1  1 (B) V1  2
 a  b  a  b
 V1  V2  x  V2  V1  x
(C) V1  (D) V1 
a  b a  b
PART II: CHEMISTRY


 Marking scheme:
21. Two compounds (one x-pentanol and one BrnHmC-CHO gives positive iodoform test, the maximum
value of (x+n+m) can be?
22. Examine the structural formulas given below and identify number of compounds which are reduced by
NaBH 4 .
O O O
O O
H
NH2
, , O , ,
O O
O
O
, , N H
,
O
H
O
23. Examine the structural formulas of compounds given below and identify number of compounds which
show positive iodoform test.
O
O O O
O
, , , ,
H
O
O
C CH3 ,
24. How many compounds A through G are enol tautomers of 2-butanone

OH OH
OH OH
(a) (b) (c) (d)
O
OH OH
(e) (f) (g)
25.
H2C OH
C O
HC OH 5HIO4
HCHO + 'X' HCOOH + CO2, find out the values of ' X' .
HC OH
HC OH
H2C OH
26. Industrially phenol is prepared along with acetone in following way:

Ph
+
1 2 H
Me C O O H Phenol acetone
Me
Whcih 'O' gets protonated in the above reaction ?
27. When glycerol reacts with oxalic . What is the number of atoms present in the acid produced in this
reaction ?
28. How many carbon – carbon double bonds are present in the end product, Z?
O
OH LIAlH4
X Y Z
Drastic
O

is(are) correct
 Marking scheme:
O
H3O+
29. H3C C O C2H5 (A) + (B). Which of the following is correct regarding
products ‘A’ and ‘B’
(A) Only one of them will form chloroform on heating with bleaching powder.
(B) Both products will contain same number of carbon atom
(C) Both give positive Tollen’s test
(D) ‘A’ and ‘B’ can be distinguished by Victor Mayer test.
30. In the given pair of alcohol, in which pair second alcohol is less reactive than first towards hydrogen
bromide.
H OH
OH
H3C OH
(A) (B) and CH CH3
and OH
(C) CH3–CH(OH)–CH2–CH3 and CH3–CH2–CH(CH3)–CH2OH
(D) CH3CH(OH)–CH2CH3 and (CH3)2–C(OH)–CH2–CH3
31. Which of the following alcohol will give a positive K2Cr2O7 test ?
(A) tert–butanol (B) cyclohexanol (C) pentan–3–ol (D) Ethyl alcohol
32. Which of the following statements is/are generally true?

(A) C  O bond is stronger than an equivalent C  C
(B) C  O has larger dipole moment than s C  C
(C) aldehydes and ketones have higher boiling points than similar molecular weights alkenes.
(D) aldehydes are more active than ketones towards nucleophilic addition (with same molecular
weights)
33. Lucas test of alcohols involve following reaction. R  OH  HCl  conc. 
Anhydrous
ZnCl
 RCl  H2O . Select
2
the correct statements for Lucas test.

(A) ROH behaves as a base
(B) lesser is the acidic character of alcohol, greater is its reactivity towards Lucas reagent
(C) reactions of 1 , 2 , 3 alcohols, lie in the sequence (for lucas reaction) 3  2  1
(D) 2-phenyl propan-2-ol gives Lucas test most quickly
34. Which of the following are correct statements

(A) when inversion of configuration takes place in SN 2 reaction, the optical rotation also changes
(B) strong bases are always good nucleophiles
(C) all SN 2 reactions proceeds faster in non polar solvents than in polar solvents
(D) the base-catalysed cleavage of unsymmetrical epoxides proceeds by pure SN 2 mechanism
35. An organic compound having the molecular formula C7H8O is insoluble in NaHCO3 solution but
dissolves in aqueous NaOH. When treated with bromine water the compound rapidly forms a
precipitate having molecular formula C7H5OBr3. Then the organic compound is
(A) O–Cresol (B) m–cresol (C) p–cresol (D) anisole
36. Which of the following reactions will not result in the formation of anisole ?
(A) C6H5 OH   CH3 2 SO4 
NaOH
 (B) C6H5 OH  CH3I 
NaOH

(C) C6H5 OH  CH2N2  (D) C6H5 OH  CH3MgI 

is(are) correct
 Marking scheme:
Paragraph–1
Haloform reaction:
O O O
  |
Step-1 : CH3  C CH3  OH  CH3  C CH2   CH3  C  CH2
O O
| 
Step-II : CH3  C  CH2  I2  CH3  C CH2I  I
Haloform reaction involves first  -halogenation, i.e., trihalogenation
O O O
  
OH ,I2 OH / I2
CH3  C CH2I 
 CH3  C CHI2 
 CH3  C CI3
then hydrolysis
O O O O
  |  
CH3  C CI3  CH3  C  CI3  CH3  C  CI3  CH3 C O  CHI3
OH 
|
OH
|
OH Iodoform
Haloform 
O O
X2 , OH O
37.
+ CHX3
Which of the following is correct comparison of rate of haloform reaction with various halogens?
(A) rCl2  rBr2  r I (B) r I  rBr2  rCl2
2 2
(C) rBr2  rCl2  r I (D) rCl2  rBr2  r I

2 2
38. Consider the following reactions:

Reaction I:
O O
I2 , OH-
-
C CH3 C O + CHI3
Reaction II:
O O
I2 , OH-
-
C CD3 C O + CDI3
Which of the following is correct comparison of rate of reaction I and II?

(A) r I  r II (B) r I  r II (C) r I  r II (D) cannot be said
Paragraph–2
O3
C CH Ph P Q
Zn/H2O
H3C
Ca(OH)2 + I2
Q R S

S T CaCO3
NaOH
39. P + Q Product :

O O
(A) (B)
C CH CH C CH CH Ph
O O
(C) (D
C CH2 CH Ph Ph CH CH C Ph
OH
CF3CO3H
40. T Product :
O O
O
(A) (B)
C O C
O O
O
(C) (D
C O C O CH2
PART III: MATHEMATICS


 Marking scheme:
41. If the quadratic equation x2 + (2 – tan )x – (1 + tan ) = 0 has two integral roots, then sum of all
possible values of  in interval (0, 2) is k, find the value of k.
42. If sum of maximum and minimum value of y = log2(x4 + x2 + 1) – log2 (x4 + x3 + 2x2 + x + 1) can be
expressed in form ((log2m) – n), where m and 2 are coprime, then compute (m + n).
43. a2 + b + c = 32 – 4 + 1, a2 + b + c = 32 – 4 + 1 and a2 + b + c = 32 – 4 + 1 where ,  and
 are distinct real numbers, then find sum of roots of the quadratic equation
3ax2 + 9bx + 7c = 0.
44. If the minimum value of (x – 1)(x – 2)(x – 3)(x – 4) is M, then (M + 4) is
45. The length of a common internal tangent of two circles is 5 and that of a common external tangent is

13. If the product of the radii of two circles is , then the value of is
4
46. Consider a circles S with centre at the origin and radius 4. Four circles A, B, C and D each with radius
unity and centre (–3, 0), (–1, 0), (1, 0) and (3, 0) respectively are drawn. A chord PQ of the circle S
touches the circle B and passes through the centre of the circle C. If the length of this chord can be

expressed as  , then the value of is
9
47. A circle x2 + y2 + 4x – 2 2y  c = 0 is the director circle of the circle C1 and C1 is the director circle of
circle C2 and so on. If the sum of radii of all these circles is 2 and if c =  2 , then the value of  is
48. The point (1, 4) lies inside the circle x2 + y2 – 6x – 10y +  = 0. If the circle neither touches nor cuts
the axes, then the difference between the maximum and the minimum possible values of  is

is(are) correct
 Marking scheme:
49. If A and B are two points on the circle x2 + y2 – 4x + 6y – 3 = 0 which are farthest and nearest
respectively, from the point (7, 2), then

(A) A  2  2 2, 3  2 2  
(B) A  2  2 2, 3  2 2 
(C) B   2  2 2, 3  2 2 (D) B   2  2 2, 3  2 2
 1 1 8 8
50. If a chord of the circle x2 + y2 – 4x – 2y – c = 0 is trisected at the points  ,  and  ,  , then
 3 3  3 3
(A) c = 10 (B) c = 20 (C) c = 15 (D) c2 – 40c + 400 = 0
51. Consider the circles C1  x2 + y2 – 2x – 4y – 4 = 0 and C2  x2 + y2 + 2x + 4y + 4 = 0 and the line

L  x + 2y + 2 = 0, then
(A) L is the radical axis of C1 and C2
(B) L is the common tangent of C1 and C2
(C) L is the common chord of C1 and C2
(D) L is perpendicular to the line joining centres of C1 and C2
52. The set of value of ‘c’ so that the equations y = |x| + c and x2 + y2 – 8|x| – 9 = 0 have no solution is
(A) (–, –3)  (3, ) (B) (–3, 3) 
(C) , 5 2  5 2,     
(D) 5 2  4,  
53. Let (x, y) = 0 be the equation of a circle. If (0, ) = 0 has equal roots  = 2, 2 and  (, 0) = 0 has
4
roots  = , 5, then the centre of the circle is
5
 29   29   29 
(A)  2,  (B)  ,2  (C)  2,  (D) none of these
 10   10   10 
54. Consider the polynomial f(x) = (x – 1)(x – 2)(x – 3) ...... (x – 10) is

(A) coefficient of x9 is –45 (B) coefficient of x8 is 1320
(C) constant term is (10)! (D) sum of all coefficients is 0
12
55. Let (1 + 3x + 2x2)6 = 
r 0
ar x r . Identify which of the following statement (s) is/are correct ?
(A) The coefficient of x12 is 212 (B) the coefficient of x11 is 9.26
6 6
a
r 0
2r 6
3
a
r 1
2r 1
(C)  (D)  2  36
a12 2 a12
56. If (1 + x + x2 + x3)100 = a0 + a1x + a2x2 + ...... + a300x300, then

(A) a0 + a1 + a2 + ...... + a300 is divisible 1024
(B) a0 + a2 + a4 + ...... + a300 = a1 + a3 + .... + a299
(C) Coefficients equidistant from beginning and end are equal
(D) a1 = 100

is(are) correct
 Marking scheme:
Paragraph–1
 7 7 
For a, b  R – {0}, let f(x) = ax2 + bx + a satisfies f  x    f   x   x  R. Also the equation
 4 4 
f(x) = 7x + a has only one real and distinct solution.
57. The value of (a + b) is equal to

(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7
 3
58. The minimum value of f(x) in 0,  is equal to
 2
33
(A) (B) 0 (C) 4 (D) –2
8
Paragraph–2
24
Given two circles intersecting orthogonally having the length of common chord unit. The radius of one of
5
circles is 3 units.
59. If radius of other circle is  units, then  is

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
60. If angle between direct common tangents is 2, then sin 2 is

4 4 6 12 24
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 25 25 25

IIT – JEE 2018
PHASE – V (CHAMPIONS)_PAPER – II
ANSWERS
PHYSICS
1. 2 2. 4 3. 2 4. 7
5. BONUS 6. 4 7. 3 8. 7
9. A, B, C, D 10. A 11. A, C 12. A, B
13. A, B, D 14. A, B, C, D 15. C, D 16. A, B, C
17. C 18. B 19. B 20. A
CHEMISTRY
21. 5 22. 5 23. 4 24. 2
25. 3 26. 2 27. BONUS 28. 0
29. A, B, D 30. A, B, C 31. B, C, D 32. A, B, C, D
33. BONUS 34. A, D 35. B 36. D
37. D 38. A 39. B 40. A
MATHEMATICS
41. 4 42. 5 43. 4 44. 3
45. 9 46. 7 47. 4 48. 4
49. A, C 50. B, D 51. A, D 52. D
53. B 54. B, C, D 55. B, C 56. A, B, C, D
57. B 58. D 59. B 60. B

Fiitjee: Internal Test

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Fiitjee: Internal Test

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FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST

IIT – JEE 2018

Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 264

Don’t write / mark your answers in this question booklet.

2. A small positively charged ball of mass

Space for rough work

6. One plate of capacitor is connected with a spring as shown in figure. Area

7. The equivalent capacitance of the

8. A cylindrical capacitor of inner and outer radii a and b

Space for rough work

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 40)

9. Two thin conducting shells of radii r and 3R are shown

10. There is affixed positive charge Q at O and A are

(A) The total work done on the charge is zero

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14. A parallel plate capacitor of area A and separation d is charged to potential

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15. The figure shows a non conducting ring

16. A point charge q1 is placed in a cavity inside a conductor and

17. An uncharged thin conducting spherical shell A of radius ‘a’ is

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18. Two identical particle of charge q each are connected

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 16)

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Space for rough work

20. Match the Column –I with Column – II

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PART II: CHEMISTRY

OCH3 Cl NO2 N(CH3)2 OH C N

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SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 40)

29. The method(s) by which phenol can be synthesized is/are

(A) H2O /  (B) (i) NaOH , fusion

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30. Choose the correct reaction

32. Identify the correct statements

33. Which of the following statements about ethers are correct?

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Pick the correct sentence.

35. See the following reaction.

Correct statement regarding A

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Space for rough work

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 16)

(T) Kolbe–Schmidt reaction

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PART III: MATHEMATICS

41. Number of real values of x satisfying the equation log2 2x 2  2    x2  1

42. Find the number of integral solutions of the equation  x  3   4  x  1   x  8   6 x 1 = 1

43. f(x) =   where a, b, c are distinct real numbers. If ‘P’

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SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 40)

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52. Which of the following is (are) correct ?

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SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 16)

60. If x, y and z  R and are connected by x + y + z = 4 and x2 + y2 + z2 = 6, then

Space for rough work

FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST

9. A,B,C,D 10. BONUS 11. A,C 12. A,D

20. A– q,r ,B–– BONUS, C–s, D– p

Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 240