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Question Booklet Series Code: B Question Booklet No.________

Candidate Name: __________________________________

Roll No.

Name of the Post: JOT-CUM-TA

Test Duration: 2 hours No. of Questions: 100

READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY BEFORE WRITING ANYTHING ON

THIS BOOKLET

1. Before commencing to write anything on this booklet ensure that the Booklet has 100 questions, there is no
misprinting, overprinting and/or any other shortcoming in both the Question Booklet and the OMR Answer
Sheet. If there is any shortcoming, intimate the same to your room invigilator and get the Booklet changed.
Only on being fully satisfied, write your Roll No. etc on the question booklet and on the OMR answer sheet.
Once the Roll No. has been written on the question booklet and on the OMR answer sheet, it will not be
exchanged.

2. Mark your answer on the OMR Answer Sheet which is provided separately. Please use Black ball point
pen provided to you, for completing your work on the OMR Answer Sheet.

3. Write your Roll No. Question Booklet No. (as given on the right hand top corner of this page); Question
Booklet Series Code A,B,C & D (as given on the left hand top corner of this page); at the appropriate places
provided on the OMR Answer Sheet & shade the appropriate circles with black ball point pen.

4. This is an objective type test. Each objective question is followed by four responses with serial numbers a,b,c
and d. You have to answer by shading/filling with black ball point pen the relevant circle a,b,c or d on the
OMR Answer Sheet. Mark your answers on the OMR Answer Sheet only. Also see relevant instructions
provided on the OMR Answer Sheet.

5. Mark your answer with utmost care. You are not allowed to change the answer, once marked, by adopting any
method (including correction fluid).

6. Take care that you mark only one answer for each question. If more than one answer are given by you for any
question, that answer will be treated as wrong answer.

7. All questions carry equal marks. One (1) mark will be awarded for each correct answer. If a candidate gives
more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer. No marks will be awarded or deducted for un-
attempted questions& wrong answers.

8. Use only black ball point pen provided to you at the test centre, for writing your answers and other
details on the OMR Answer Sheet.

9. DO NOT scribble or do rough work or make any stray marks on the OMR Answer Sheet. DO NOT
wrinkle or fold or staple it.

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10. Use of calculators, slide rules and any other study/references materials is not allowed. Do not bring mobile
phones, scanning device, pagers or any communication device etc. to the examination hall.

11. Rough work is to be done in the blank space (if available) in the Question Booklet. No other paper will be
allowed/ provided.

12. Please note that it will be your responsibility to carefully handover your OMR Answer Sheet to the Room
Invigilator at the end of the examination. If your OMR Answer Sheet is found missing, necessary action
will be taken. You are not allowed to carry the question booklet with yourself after examination, and the
same has to be submitted to the invigilator after examination.

13. Keeping in mind the limited time allowed for examination, candidates should attempt those questions first
about which they are sure and then proceed to other questions. This is only an advice to the candidates.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO

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THIS PAGE LEFT BLANK INTENTIONALLY

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SECTION – 1 GENERAL INTELLIGENCE / REASONING

1. Rahul and Robin are brothers. Pramod is Robin’s 6. PNLJ : IGEC : : VTRP : ?
father. Sheela is Pramod’s sister. Prema is Pramod’s
niece. Shobha is Sheela’s granddaughter. How is a) OMKI
Rahul related to Shobha?
b) RSTU
a) Brother
c) QSRC
b) Cousin
d) RPOM
c) Uncle
Direction (Q.7 to 8) select the missing number from the given
d) Nephew responses

2. If ‘×’ means ‘addition’, ‘-’ means ‘division’, ‘÷' 7.

means ‘subtraction’, and ‘+’ means ‘multiplication’,
then which of the following equations is correct? ? 9

a) 16 + 5-10×4÷3=9
33 17
b) 16-5×10÷4+3=12

c) 16+5÷10×4-3=9
a) 60 b) 68
d) 16×5+10÷4-3=19
c) 55 d) 65
3. Arrange the following words as per order in the
dictionary. 8.
1. Noble 2.Nobilitary 3. Noblesse 4. Nobility 1 2 3
5.Nobble.
4 5 6
a) 1,4,3,2,5

b) 3,4,1,2,5 7 8 9

c) 5,2,4,1,3 27 38 ?

d) 2,4,3,5,1
a) 49 b) 50
(Direction Q.4 to 6) In each of the following questions find
out the alternative which will replace the question mark. c) 51 d) 52

4. 123: 4: :726 : ? 9. Which diagram correctly represents the relationship

between human beings, teachers, and graduates?
a) 23 b) 26

c) 14 d) 12

5. Fish: Scale: :Bear : ?

a) Feathers

b) Leaves

c) Fur

d) Skin

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10. A man starts from a points walks 8km towards North, 17. The education Minister………………….visit our
turns right and walks 12km, turns left and walks 7km, school next week.
turn and walks 24km towards south, turns right and
walks 12 km. In which direction is he from the starting a) May
point?
b) Might
a) North b) South
c) Should
c) West d) East
d) Had to

SECTION -2 18. A businessman from Kerala………………to Noida

ELEMENTARY ENGLISH to purchase land.

(Direction Q. 11 to 12), Out of the four alternatives, choose a) Came

the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word
and mark it in the answer sheet. b) Has come

11. Diligent c) Had come

a) Intelligent d) Comes

b) Energetic 19. Walk carefully……………you should fall.

c) Modest a) Lest

d) Industrious b) Before

12. Paucity c) While

a) Sincerity d) After

b) Shortfall 20. The 19th commonwealth games ……...in New

Delhi in October 2010.
c) Publicity
a) was held
d) Downfall
b) were held
Direction (Q.13 to 15) Some part of sentences have errors &
some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has error. c) will be held
In case of no error, option (d) would be correct answer…
d) were holding
13. a) If I leave now, / b) I will not be able to / c) return
back before 9 p.m. / d) No error. 21. Four alternatives are given for the Idiom/phrase
underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative
14. a) The old lady / b) prayed that he / c) may live long. / which best expresses the meaning.
d) No error
His blood ran cold when he heard his uncle was
15. a) In any case no disciplinary action / b) are required / murdered.
c) to be taken / d) No error.
a) He was frightened
(Direction Q.16 to 20) Fill in the blanks with suitable words.
b) He was horrified
16. It………………………….since last night.
c) He was disgusted
a) Had been drizzling
d) He was depressed
b) Was drizzling

c) Is drizzling

d) Has been drizzling

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(Direction Q.22) A sentence has been given in 27. The average age of 8 men is increased by 3 years
Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested when two of them whose age are 30 and 34 years are
below, select the one which expresses the same sentence in replaced by 2 persons. What is the average age of the
Passive/Active Voice. 2 persons?

22. If you cannot change the master, you cannot change the a) 24 years
destiny.
b) 32 years
a) The destiny cannot be changed if masters cannot
change. c) 44 years

b) The destiny could not be changed if masters d) 48 years

cannot be changed.
28. A and B started a business investing amount of
c) The destiny cannot change if masters cannot be Rs.1,85,000 and Rs.2,25,000 respectively. If B’s
changed. share in the profit earned by them is Rs.9,000 then
what is the total profit earned by them together?
d) The destiny cannot be changed if masters cannot
be changed. a) Rs.17,400

23. Choose the correct spelt word out of the given b) Rs.16,400
alternatives.
c) Rs.16,800
a) Itinaray b) Itinarery
d) Rs.17,800
c) Itinerery d) Itinerary
29. The mean height of 10 students is 151.8cm. Two
Direction (Q.24 to 25) In given below question, choose the more students of height 157.6cm and 154.4cm join
most suitable “One Word” for the given expression. the group. What is the new mean height?

24. A Part-song for several voices without instrumental a) 155.0cm

accompaniment is a :
b) 153.5cm
a) Ballad b) Madrigal
c) 152.5cm
c) Panegyric d) Limerick
d) 251.5cm
25. One who compiles a dictionary:
30. The value of √8 + √18 is :
a) Geographer
a) √26
b) Lexicographer
b) 2(√2 + √3 )
c) Lapidist
c) 5√2
d) Linguist
d) 6√2
SECTION – 3
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE/ELEMENTARY MATH
31. If a + b + c = 0, then the value of a3+ b3+ c3 is:
26. If θ is acute and sinθ = cosθ, find the value of
2 tan2 θ + sin2θ - 1 a) 0

a) 3 b) abc
3
b) c) 2abc
2

1 d) 3abc
c)
2

d) None of these.

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32. If 8% of X is the same as 4% of Y, then 20% of X is 37. A ladder reaches a window 12 m above the ground
the same as: on one side of the street. Keeping its foot at the same
point, the ladder is turned to the other side of the
a) 10% of Y street to reach a window 9m high. If the length of the
ladder is 15m, then the width of the street is :
b) 16% of Y
a) 30 m
c) 80% of Y
b) 24 m
d) 50% of Y
c) 21 m
33. Value of (256)0.16 × (256)0.09 is
d) 18 m
a) 4
38. The ratio of the number of boys and girls of a school
b) 16 with 504 students is 13:11. What will be the new ratio
if 12 more girls are admitted?
c) 64
a) 91 : 81
d) 256.25
b) 81 : 91
34. By selling a fan for Rs.540, a man losses 10%. To make
a gain of 20%, the selling price of the fan should be: c) 9 : 10

a) 900 d) 10 : 9

b) 820 39. A and B can do a piece of work in 10 days. A alone

can do it in 30 days. The time in which B alone can
c) 720 do it is:

d) 1000 a) 10 days

35. A person deposited Rs.700 for 4 years and Rs.800 for b) 12 days
3 years at the same rate of simple interest in a bank.
Altogether he received Rs.208 as interest. The rate of c) 15 days
simple interest per annum was:
d) 20 days
a) 4%
40. The perimeter of the shaded region is:
b) 3%

c) 6%

d) 5%

36. In a ∆ABC, if AB=6√3cm, BC=6cm and AC=12cm,

then ∠B is :

a) 1200 a) 44 cm.

b) 900 b) 88 cm.

c) 600 c) 66 cm.

d) 450 d) 132 cm.

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SECTION – 4 47. Who is the author of “Life of Pi”?

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
a) Eleanor Catton
41. Which one of the following state has the longest
coastline? b) Aravind Adiga

a) Maharashtra c) Yann Martel

b) Tamil Nadu d) Kiran Desai

c) Gujarat 48. The Lodi dynasty was founded by -

d) Andhra Pradesh a) Ibrahim Lodi

42. January 15 is celebrated as the: b) Sikandar Lodi

a) Navy Day c) Bahlol Lodi

b) Ugadi d) Khizr Khan

c) Airforce Day 49. Which one of the following river of India does not
make a delta?
d) Army Day
a) Ganges
43. Among the following materials sound travels fastest
by- b) Godavari

a) Steel b) Air c) Mahanandi

c) Vacuum d) Water d) Tapti

44. Which of the following folk dances is associated with 50. Which of the following atmospheric gases constitute
Jammu and Kashmir? greenhouse gases?

a) Jhora 1) Carbon dioxide

2) Nitrogen
b) Veedhi Natakam 3) Nitrous oxide
4) Water Vapour
c) Rauf
Select the correct answer using the codes given
d) Suisini below:

45. Which among the following movements was not led by a) 1 and 4
Mahatma Gandhi?
b) 1 and 3
a) Swadeshi Movement
c) 1, 2 and 4
b) Non-Cooperation Movement
d) 1, 3 and 4
c) Civil Disobedience Movement
SECTION -5
d) Quit India Movement DOMAIN KNOWLEDGE

46. Which one of the following is not an All India Service? 51. An ammeter is ………………….. instrument.

a) Indian Forest Service a) An indicating

b) Indian Administrative Service b) An integrating

c) Indian Police Service c) A recording

d) Indian Foreign Service d) None of the above

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52. The range of a moving iron AC ammeter is extended 58. Resistivity of a wire depends on:
by:
a) Material
a) A shunt
b) Length
b) A multiplier
c) Cross section
c) Changing number of turns of operating coil
d) None of these
d) None of the above
59. The generator shown in fig is:
53. Wheatstone bridge is used to measure:

a) Voltage

b) Resistance

c) Current

d) Power

54. A line which connects a consumer to the distributor is

called : a) Series Generator
a) Feeder b) Shunt Generator
b) Distributor c) Long Shunt Generator
c) Service main d) Short Shunt Generator
d) None of the above 60. A 4 pole, lap wound machine has 124 coils each
having 2 turns. The flux per pole is 0.015 wb. If the
speed is 1500 rpm, the Induced emf is:
55. In DC Generator, the brushes are always placed along:
a) 100 V
a) Geometrical Neutral Axis (GNA)
b) 186 V
b) Magnetic Neutral Axis (MNA)
c) 200 V
c) Bisector of GNA and MNA
d) 250 V
d) There is no hard and fast rule for this
61. The function of the starter for DC motor is:
56. In DC motors, the conditions for maximum power is :
a) To limit the starting current
a) Supply Voltage = (1/2) x Back e.m.f
b) To limit the starting torque
b) Supply Voltage = √2 x Back e.m.f
c) To increase field resistance
c) Back e.m.f = 2 x Supply Voltage
d) To reduce armature resistance
d) Back e.m.f = (1/2) x Supply Voltage
62. Kirchhoff’s second law is based on law of
57. For parallel operation, the generators, normally conservation of:
preferred are:
a) Charge
a) Series Generator
b) Energy
b) Shunt Generator
c) Momentum
c) Compound Generator
d) Mass
d) Series and Shunt Generator

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63. Conductance is expressed in terms of: 68. The most reliable distribution system is:

a) ohm/m a) Interconnected system

b) m/ohm b) Radial system

c) mho/m c) Ring main system

d) mho d) None of above

64. A triac is a 69. Speed of a DC motor is:

a) 2 terminal switch a) Always Constant

b) 2 terminal bilateral switch b) Directly proportional to back emf

c) 3 terminal unilateral switch c) Directly proportional to flux

d) 3 terminal bidirectional switch d) Inversely proportional to the product of back

emf and flux
65. Figure represents:
70. Which curve represents the efficiency of a DC motor:

a) Silicon controlled rectifier

b) Field effect transistor

c) Photo emissive Diode

d) Tunnel Diode
a) D b) C
66. In a transistor α is related to β by the relation:
c) B d) A
a) β = (α+1) / α
71. The current drawn by a 120V DC motor of armature
b) β = (α-1) / α resistance 0.4 Ω and back e.m.f 112 V is:

c) β = - (α) / (α-1) a) 10 A

d) β = (α) / (α+1) b) 20 A

67. Inverter Convert: c) 112 A

a) DC to AC d) 120 A

b) AC to AC 72. Change in speed of motor under Ward Leonard

method occurs due to change in:
c) DC to DC
a) Armature Voltage of DC motor
d) All of the above
b) Armature current of DC motor

c) Field excitation of DC motor

d) Supply Voltage

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73. The condition for maximum efficiency in case of DC 79. Iron loss in a transformer occurs in :
generator is:
a) Winding
a) Variable loss = (1 / Constant Loss)
b) Insulating coil
b) Variable loss = Constant Loss
c) Core
c) Variable loss = 2 x Constant Loss
d) Main body
d) Variable loss = (1 / 2 ) x Constant Loss
80. Damping torque is provided in indicating instrument
74. The semi conductor have ……………… temperature by:
coefficient of resistance :
a) Air friction
a) Zero b) Negative
b) Fluid friction
c) Positive d) Variable
c) Eddy current
75. Which of the following diode is designed to operate in
the breakdown region? d) All of these

a) Signal Diode 81. The secondary line voltage will be least for which of
the following connections?
b) Power Diode
a) Delta-delta
c) Zener Diode
b) Star- delta
d) None of the above
c) Delta-star
76. Figure represents a:
d) Star-star

82. In the figure shown, if curve D represents the total

losses in a transformer, then iron losses are
a) Tunnel Diode represented by which curve?

b) Zener Diode

c) Photo emissive diode

d) Photo sensitive diode

77. A linear resistor having 0 ˂R < ∞

a) Voltage controlled resistor

b) Current controlled resistor

c) Both voltage controlled and current controlled a) A

d) Neither voltage controlled or nor current b) B
controlled
c) C
78. Miniature circuit breaker is a:
d) D
a) Fuse

b) Magnetic switch

c) Two way switch

d) Electromechanical switch

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83. For a transformer operating at constant load current, 88. A fuel cell converts ………………energy into
maximum efficiency will occur at: electrical energy :

a) Zero power factor a) Mechanical

b) 0.8 lagging power factor b) Solar

c) 0.8 leading power factor c) Magnetic

d) Unity power factor d) Chemical

84. An auto- transformer supplies a load of 5 kW at 125 V 89. Common impurity in battery electrolyte is:
and at unity power factor. If the primary voltage is 250
V, the transformed power will be: a) Sodium chloride

a) 600 W b) Lead sulphate

b) 1000 W c) Iron

c) 2500 W d) Dust

d) 1240 W 90. A capacitor has a capacitance of 10 pF, which is

equal to:
85. “The mass of an ion liberated at an electrode is directly
proportional to the quantity of electricity which passes a) 10 x 106 F
through the electrolyte”. The above statement is
associated with: b) 10 x 10-12 F

a) Laplace law c) 10 x 1012 F

b) Faraday’s law of Electrolysis d) 10 x 10-9 F

c) Gauss’s theorem 91. If 10 capacitors, each of capacitance 1 µF, are joined

in parallel, what will be the capacitance of the
d) Weber and Ewing’s theory combination?

86. During charging, the electrolyte of a lead acid battery a) 1 µF b) 100 µF

becomes:
c) 10 µF d) 1000 µF
a) Weaker
92. The reluctance of a material is defined as:
b) Diluted with water
a) Opposition offered to the magnetic field by it
c) Stronger
b) Its ability to conduct magnetic flux
d) There is no change in electrolyte
c) Opposition offered to the flow of current
87. The electro chemical reactions are not reversible in through the solenoid
case of:
d) None of above
a) Primary cells only
93. The direction of electromagnetically induced emf is
b) Secondary cells only determine by:

c) Both primary and secondary cells a) Fleming’s Right hand rule

d) Lead acid cell b) Lenz’s law

c) Right hand thumb rule

d) Both a and b

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94. MMF in magnetic circuit is analogous to:

99. A 100 W , 220 V lamp takes a current of:
a) Electric current in electric circuit
a) 5/11 A
b) Current density in conductor
b) 2.2 A
c) Electromotive force in electric circuit
c) 0.22 A
d) Voltage
d) 5/22 A
95. The co-efficient of coupling of two coils is
proportional to: 100. An electric lamp is marked 100 W, 220 V. The
resistance of filament will be:
a) L1L2
a) 22 W
b) √(𝐿1 𝐿2 )
b) 2200 W
c) 1/ √(𝐿1 𝐿2)
c) 484 W
d) 1/L1L2
d) 4840W
96. Applied voltage in the circuit is:

a) 29.15 V

b) 20.22 V

c) 31.66 V

d) 42.22 V

97. In a pure inductive AC circuit:

a) Current leads the voltage vector by 90 degree

b) Current is in phase with voltage vector

c) Voltage leads the current vector by 90 degree

d) Voltage lags the current vector by 90 degree

98. Ohm’s law deals with the relation between:

a) Charge and resistance

b) Charge and capacity

c) Capacity and potential difference

d) Current and potential difference

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