A-PULMO- (LEE-TAN-CONSTANTINO)- Prelims (td) B- PULMO- (LEE-TAN-CONSTANTINO)- Prelims

A. Obstructive Lung Disease QUESTION ANSWER/CHOICES

B. Restrictive Lung Disease - Parenchymal female patient with DOB neuromuscular? GBS?
C. Restrictive Lung Disease - Chest wall and weakness. No
D. Restrictive Lung Disease - Neuromuscular abnormal chest findings.
E. Pulmonary Vascular Disease URTI 2 weeks ago.

_B_1. Pulmonary fibrosis- 66y/o woman with severe A. Parenchymal & chest wall
_E_2 Pulmonary arterial hypertension MS. was noticed by her dse
caregiver to have apnea B. Neuromuscular dse
_A_3 bronchiectasis
while sleeping C. Sleep disordered breathing
_A_4. Emphysema D. Restrictive lung disorder
_E_5. Pulmonary Embolism Ronchi is a manifestation A. Blockage of medium sized
_C_6. Chronic pleural effusion of: bronchus
_B_7. Sarcoidosis B. Acute ...
_C_8. Ankylosing spondylitis **larger airways C. Chronic bronchitis
_A_9. Bronchiolitis **copd, chronic D. A and B
bronchitis, bronchiectasis E. None
REFER TO TABLE 305-1 ( harrisons, chapter 305, Page 1661) etc
n a patient with decreased A. Auscultation for
10. Amyotropic Lateral Sclerosis a. Obstructive b. Restrictive breath sounds, this adventitious breath sounds
Parenchyma c.Restrictive NMS d.Restrictive Chestwall/pleura examination will B. Inspection of chest
e. Pulmonary vasculature distinguish Pleural expansion
effusion and C. Elicit bronchophony at
The volume during in and out in normal breathing pneumothorax egophony
**air- resonant D. Percussion of the chest
A. FEV
fluid - dull E. Palpation for fremitus
B. TLC
Hypoxemia, as measured A. PaO2
C. RV
by pulse oximetry can be B. PaCO2
D. Tidal volume- volume of air inspired or expired with eat normal breath at rest further evaluated by. C. Alveolar gas and oxygen
tension difference
Shunt exists in condition D. AOTA
A. Normal ventilation, abnormal perfusion E. A and C
B. Abnormal ventilation, normal perfusion Hypercarbia A. Central chemoreceptors
C. Decrease ventilation, inc perfusion B. Peripheral chemoreceptors
D. Decrease ventilation, dec perfusion **peripheral – more sensitive to C.
O2 than CO2
** shunt – perfusion of unventilated lung (chap.306e-4, p1659) D.
Central- more sensitive to CO2
Among patients with neuromuscular problem causing E. J receptors
hypoventilation, which of the ff is decreased. 35 year old male obese has A. Parenchymal and lung
A. RV - increased difficulty in breathing diseases
B. FEV1/FVC while sleeping B. Neuromuscular
** frequent awaking or sleep C. Sleep breathing disorder
C. PaCo2 -decreased in hyperventilation
disruprion (pp.1724) D. Respiratory drive
D. FVC- normal
The systemic hpn to a pt. A. Lack of sleep
**presence of neuromuscular problem =weak respiratory
with OHAS is due to: B. Augmentation of
muscles
parasympathetic drive
** pp.1725 harrisons C. Alterations in RAAS
Airflow velocity faster in D. Elevation in PCO2
A. Central airways E. C&D
B. Peripheral airways Stimulated by pulmonary A. Central chemoreceptors
C. Equal in both airways congestion B. Peripheral chemoreceptors
D. Variable **low O2 – peripheral C.
chemoreceptors D.
DCLO normal or increased, except: E. J receptors
A. Emphysema - decreased
B. Chronic bronchitis C- PULMO- (LEE-TAN-CONSTANTINO)- Prelims
C. Asthma 37. Transpulmonary pressure is defined as?
D. CHF A. tidal volume x RR
B. alveolar pressure - pleural pressure
USE AT YOUR OWN RISK!!!......Compiled and answered by: LG, CD, DH, KG, TF, RF, EE, DF, KF, JB, JG
C. FEV1/FVC ratio 4. Seen in chest x-ray as enlarged descending pulmonary
D. barometric pressure - hydrostatic pressure artery
**it is the diff.in alveolar pressure and intrapleural pressure in the A. Palla's Sign
lungs B. Westermark's Sign
C. Hampton's Hump
38. Increase deadspace is characterized by D. McConnel's Sign
E. Fleischner Sign
A. Increase ventilation absent perfusion
B. Absent ventilation increase perfusion 5. Acute lung abscess in a young healthy px.. sometimes
C. Decrease ventilation absent perfusion associated with Influenza what organism..
D. Increase ventilation decrease perfusion S. Pneumoniae
S. Aureus
39. Low V/Q is characterized by M. tb
M. Pneumoniae
A. Increase ventilation absent perfusion
K. Pneumomiae
B. Absent ventilation increase perfusion
C. Decrease ventilation absent perfusion 6. Cxr findings shows hypokinesia of the right ventricular
D. Increase ventilation decrease perfusion wall:
A. Pallas sign
40. Maybe decreased in obstructive lung disease B. Watermark sign
A. MVV C. Mc Connels sign --- answer
D. Hammans sign
B. MEP
C. MIP 7. The fouls smelling odor of lung abscess is due to
D. FEV1 A. Production of butyric acid by anaroebes
B. Production of succinic acid by leukocytes
41. Findings in acute asthma exacerbation except C. Release of peroxidase by leukocytes
A. Dec. FEV1 D. All
B. Inc. RV E. A and B
C. Dec. PCO2
8. Lung abcess represents cavitation and necrosis present as:
D. Inc. PCO2 A. Single
B. Multiple
42. Low TLC seen in patients with C. Dominant cavity >2cm
**answer: in patients with restrictive lung diseases D. All of the above

A-PULMO-(LEE-TAN-CONSTANTINO)- Midterms 9. Complement 3b

A. Destroy? Cell wall/nembrane
1. What is the most common form of Bronchiectasis?
B. Release of toxic oxygen radical
A. Varicose (or cystic)
C. Increase resistance to viral infection
B. Cystic
D. Interferes bacterial adhesion to lining epithelium
C. Tubular (or cylindrical)
E. Promotes phagocytosis
D. Saccular
**page1694 chapter 312- bronchiectasis
10. 41. Inhibit ciliary motion
2. Vicious cycle hypothesis based on:
A. Influenza
A. Susceptibility to infectiin and poor mucociliary clearance
B. Neisseria
B. Immune mediated reaction damaging bronchial walls
C. Strep pneumoniae
C. Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
D. Chlamydia
D. A and B
E. Mycoplasma
E. B and C
** page 1695, chap.312-bronchiectasis
Impaired gas exchange due to pulmo embo
3. One of these factors can predict high risk of
A. Decreased alveolar space due vascular obstruction
pulmoembolism
B. Left to right shunting
A. + D dimer
C. Decreased lung diffusion capacity of carbon monoxide
B. Elevated troponin T
transfer
C. Presence of multiple DVT
D. Constriction
D. LV enlargement
E. Bronchial edema
E. Systemic hypertension
**plasma D-dimer ELISA rises in the presence of PE because
of the breakdown of fibrin by plasmin (p.1632) B-PULMO-(LEE-TAN-CONSTANTINO)- Midterms
Matching Type
USE AT YOUR OWN RISK!!!......Compiled and answered by: LG, CD, DH, KG, TF, RF, EE, DF, KF, JB, JG
1-9 choices 5. Can predict high mortality rate for Pulmonary embolism
A. Break down of cell wall/membrane - lysozyme a. Positive D dimer test
B. Release of toxic oxygen radicals - lactoferrin b. Elevated troponin level
C. Increase resistance to viral infection - IgA c. LV enlargement
D. Inhibits bacterial adhesion to lining epithelium - d. Presence of multiple DVT
Fibronectin
6. High triglyceride in
E. Promote phagocytosis – C3b
a. Hepatic hydrothorax
b. Tb
IgA c. Pulmonary embolism
IgG d. Chylothorax
C5b
C3a
Lactoferrin C-PULMO-(LEE-TAN-CONSTANTINO)- Midterms
Lysozyme 1.. Female pt. N pe. Noninvasive procedure:
Fibronectin a. Ctscan
Surfactant b. Mri
Interferon c. Invasive prodcedure
d. Bronchoscopy
Choices for 10-11
Destroy cilia 2.MOst common exudate effusion in the Phil?
Split IgA A. bacterial pneumonia
Release of ciliostatic factor b. tB
Inhibits ciliary motion C. Pulmonary embolism
Release of Neuramidase D. Connective tissue dse

Encapsulation - 3. Most common form of bronchiectasis?

Chlamydia Pneumoniae – ciliostatic factor a. Saccular – (or cystic)
Mycoplasma pneumonia- destroy cilia b. Cystic
H. Influenza virus- inhibits ciliary motion c. Cylindrical-(or tubular)
Neisseria meningitides- split IgA d. Varicose
Streptococcal pneumoniae- release neuramidase
4. Lifetime treatment for pulmonary embolism
1. Lung Abscess on CXR
a. Thin walled cavity 5. Impaired gas exchange factors
b. Cavity with air fluid level – charac of.L.A
c. Pleural based density 6. Enlarged right descending pulmonary artery
d. Meniscus sign Answer: Palla's sign

2. Drug of choice for lung abscess, single agent 7.. Case: non invasive exam to confirm the diagnosis.
a. Penicillin G A. Ct scan
b. Metronidazole
B. Pulmo angiography
c. Ceftriaxone
C. Bronchogram?
d. Clindamycin
D. MRI
3. Treatment course for pulmonary abscess takes: E.
a. 1 week
b. 2 weeks 8. radiographic findings in P.E showing dilated pulmonary
c. 4 weeks artery?
d. 6 months A. Palla's sign – dilated descending pulmonary artery
B. Westernmark- dilated p.a proximal to embolus
4. The presence of amylase in pleural effusion suggests the C. hamman – mediastinal crunch on auscultation
ff except: d. Hampton- shallow wedge shaped opacity in periphery
a. Esophageal rupture
b. Bacterial infection 9. foul smelling odor in lung abscess is due to
c. Pancreatic secretion
A. Production butyric acid by anaerobes
d. Malignancy
B. Production of succinic acid by leukocytes
C. Release of peroxidase by leukocytes
USE AT YOUR OWN RISK!!!......Compiled and answered by: LG, CD, DH, KG, TF, RF, EE, DF, KF, JB, JG
D. AOTA 40. Encapsulation
E A and B A. Influenza
B. N. Meningitides
10. Organism involved in endocarditis C. Strep pneumoniae
Answer: S. aureus D. Chlamydia pneumoniae
E. M. Pneumoniae
11. Single management for lung abscess
a. Penicillin 41. Inhibits ciliary motion (matching type)
b. Metronidazole – not effective as single agent Answer: Influenza
c. Clindamycin – more superior than penicillin
d. Co amoxiclav 44. release ciliastic factor- Chlamydia Pneumoniae

12. Usual tx duration of lung abscess 45. Release neuraminidase

A. 1 wk Answer: streptococcus pneumonia
B. 2wks
C. 4wks
D. 6months A-PULMO-(LEE-TAN-CONSTANTINO)- Finals
**tx duration may range from 3-4wks to as long as 14weeks 1. Which of the following is not true of Asthma?
(chp.154, page815) A. Chronic inflammatory disorder
13. Indication for surgery in Lung abscess.. B. Widespread but variable obstruction - emphysema
**failure to respond to antibiotics whose additional dx studies D. Decreased airway responsiveness
fail to identify additional pathogen (chp.154, page815)
14. Pleural effusion can caused by except: 3. True of intrinsic asthma:
B. Negative skin testing
A. Increase interstitial fluid
C. Less severe, persistent asthma
B. Increase pulmonary microvascular permeability
D. History of rhinitis, atopic dermatitis
C. Decrease systemic hydrostatic pressure ( should be
increased) 7. Initiates acute bronchoconstrictor response
D. Decrease oncotic pressure -Mast cells
8. Major antigen presenting cells, process them to peptides
15. Peripheral edema, distended neck vein and heart sound are
and migrate to local lymph nodes where they are presented to
characteristics of ___. the T lymphocytes
A. Ans. Dendritic cells
B.
C. chf 9. Release of basic protein and oxygen-derived free radical
D. Ans. Eosinophil
13. Most common cause of acute exacerbation in asthma
16. Presence of amylase in pleural fluid indicates, except Ans. viral infection
A. Esophageal rupture
B. Bacterial infection 11. Play a role in exercise induced asthma
C. Pancretic effusion A. Fibrosis
D. Malignancy B. Hypertrophy and hyperplasia
C. Increase airway mucosal blood flow
D. Increase release of neuropeptidase
17. Most common cause of exudative effusion in the
Philippines 16 Gold standard diagnostic of asthma
A. Bacterial Pneumonia A. Pre/post bronchodilator scan
B. TB B. Ventilation scan
C. Pulmonary Embolism C. Metacholine test
D. (forgot) D.serum IgE level
17. Controller
18. high triglycerides seen in: A.Salbutamol
B.Indacaterol
a. Hepatic hydrothorax C.Fenoterol
b. TB
c. Pulmo emboli A. AC
d. Chylothorax – exceeds 1.2mmol/l (110mg/dl) B. SIMV
C. Pressure Support -specifically designed for weaning
USE AT YOUR OWN RISK!!!......Compiled and answered by: LG, CD, DH, KG, TF, RF, EE, DF, KF, JB, JG
D. Pressure Control – for barotraumas, thoraco surgeries A. Low dose dexamethasone
E. NIV B. High dose dexamethasone
C. Overnight dexamethasone
_B40. Asynchronous D. 8 am cortisol?
_E_41. COPD
_C_42. Weaning off 5. Abnormal low dose and high dose
_E_43. Pneumothorax dexamethasone test with low ACTH-
_D_44. Surgery above abdomen A. Cushing's Dse
B. Adrenal Cushing's
50. 55 y/o, male, smoker, confined to home due to shortness of C. Ectopic ACTH ..
breath. D. ..
Genetic consideration in asthma
6.Abnormal low dose and normal high dose acth
A. Polygenic
dexamethasone test
B. Determine the severity of disease
A. Cushings- pituitary
C. Determine response to therapy B. Addison
D. All of the above C.
E. None of the above D. Adrenal hyperplasia

B-PULMO-FINALS 8. Clinical features of Conn's

18. Controller medicine for ashtma A. Borderline hypernatremia, hyperkalemia with
A. Salbutamol hypertension
B. Terbutaline B. Borderline hyponatremia, hypokalemia eith
C. Ipatropium hypertension
D. Formoterol C. Borderline hyponatremia, hyperkalemia with
hypertension
19. Criteria for ICU admission except D.Borderline hypernatremia, hypokalemia with
A. Confusion hypertension
B. Impending respiratory arrest
C. CO2 >60 Torr 9. best diuretics for Cons dse
D. Initial response to ER treatment A. Manitol
B. Furosemide
20. Causes of refratory asthma except: C. Spirinolactone
A. Structural changes
B. Low ambient level of allergens 12. systemic steroid used as a replacement therapy
C. Non compliance for chronic adrenal insufficiency
D. Chronic Infection A. Prednisone
B. Betamethasone
21. Not a type of Acute Respiratory Failure C. Hydrocortisone
E. Dexamethasone
A. Ventilatory Failure
B. Atelectasis 14. Treatment of Pheochromocytoma
C. Hypoxemic failure Ans: Beta blockers after alpha blockers
D. Edema
E. None 25. Physiologic effects of glucocorticoids except:
A. Mobilizes fatty acids
31. Atelectasis is a consequence of: B. Potassium reabsorption at distal tubules
A. Alveolar edema C. Vasoconstrictive effects
D. Has some mineralocorticoid-like effects
34. Risk factors for increased mortality in ARDS except?
A.>75 y/o. 26. Effects of Aldosterone
B. Chronic illness. A. Increases renal distal tubular in exchange of
C. Direct lung injury. intratubular sodium for potassium and hydrogen
D. Low APACHE III scores. B. Intracellular shift of potassium due to
E. Early increase in dead space hyperglycemia
C. Potassium secretion due to increased
ingracapillary pressure
A-ENDO-LIONG CHENG D. Intracellular shift of sodium in exchange for
2. SCREENING TEST for suspected patient with potassium
endogenous hypersecretion of cortisol
USE AT YOUR OWN RISK!!!......Compiled and answered by: LG, CD, DH, KG, TF, RF, EE, DF, KF, JB, JG
27. Laboratory findings consistent with conn's 46. This is related to hypertension
syndrome? A. Addison's disease
A. Hypernatremia is frequent because of sodium B. Phaechromocytoma - ans
retention D. Sheehan's syndrome
B. Netabolic acidosis D. Waterhouse Friderichsen syndromd
C. Hypokalemia
D. Urine PH is usually acidic 47. Present hyperpigmentation
A. Adrenal adenoma
28. Criteria for diagnosis of Primary B. Cushing syn d/t exo steroid intake
aldosteronism C. Cushing dse
A. Inc aldosterone that can be suppressed by D. Sheehan syndrome
volume expansion
B. Diastolic hypertension without edema 48. Increased reabsorption in the renal tubules
C. Inc renin that can't be suppressed by volume due to aldosterone:
Expansion A. Sodium
D. U wave in ECG B. Potassium
C. Magnesium
31. Which of the following is not a part of D. Calcium
Neurofibromatosis 1?
A. Cerebellar hemangiomatosis
B. Cafe au lait 49. Which of the following condition can
C. Axillary freckling suppressed high dose of dexamethasone test?
D. None A. Ectopic ACTH secretion
B. Primary microadenoma
34. In adrenal crisis, the treatment is: C. Adrenal Cushings
A. prednisone D. Primary macroadenoma
B. prednisolone
C. hydrocortisone 50. Differentiate adrenal and pituitary cushing
D. dexamethasone A. Level of cortisol
B. Level of acth
36. Most of the Pheochromocytoma is found in C. Level of sodium
the: D. Level of potassium
C. Below the diaphragm
B-ENDO-LIONG CHENG
38. Aldosterone causes increase in blood pressure 1. Effects of Glucocorticoids
by, Except: a. Decrease gluconeogenesis
A. Increase intravascular volume b. Increase Glycogenolysis
B. Increase Heart rate c. Na reabsorption
C. Increase Stroke Volume d. Increase lipolysis
C. Increase vascular resistance
2. Tx for Pheochromocytoma:
43 female. Recently diagnosed with diabetes. a. Beta-blockers before Alpha-blockers
Presents w/ violaceous striae. Diagnostic test? b. Alpha-blockers before Beta-blockers
A. c. Diuretics before Beta-blockers
B. Acth stimulation d. Diuretics before Alpha-blockers
C. 24hr dexamethasone test
D. 3. Most diagnostic of Pheochromocytoma:
a. 24 hr. urinary VMA
44. Tx for congenital adrenal hyperplasia b. 24 hr. urinary Metanephrine
A. prednisonde c. 24 hr. urinary Dexamethasone
b. hydrocortisone d. 24 hr. urinary Epinephrine
c. alpha blocker. 4. Steroid hormone release effected by
d. flucocortisone a. Stress hormone
b. Hypoglycemia
45. Most potent, mineralocorticoid c. Both
A. Prednisone d. Neither
B. Hydrocortisone 5. In evaluating asymptomatic adrenal mass, you should
C. Fludcortisone rule out:
D. Betamethasone a. Conn's
b. Addison's
USE AT YOUR OWN RISK!!!......Compiled and answered by: LG, CD, DH, KG, TF, RF, EE, DF, KF, JB, JG
 c. Waterhouse-Friedrichsen Syndrome d. Low ACTH low cortisol
d. Cushing's Disease
6. Effects of aldosterone: 17. Cushing’s due to ectopic ACTH production
a. Increase renal distal tubular secretion of a. High ACTH high cortisol
intratubular sodium for potassium and b. High ACTH low cortisol
hydrogen ions c. Low ACTH high cortisol
b. Intracellular shift of potassium due to d. Low ACTH low cortisol
hyperglycemia
c. Potassium secretion due to increase 18. True in pseudo Cushing’s
intracapillary pressure a. Positive overnight dexamethasone test
d. Increase sodium secretion in exchange to b. Includes chronic alcoholism, depression,
potassium acute illness of any type
c. May b ruled out by ACTH stimulation test
7. Enhanced secretion of adrenal androgens or d. Edema is most important feature
mineralocorticoids caused by block in cortical
synthesis. 19. Principal drugs in the treatment of adrenal carcinoma.
a. Conn's disease a. Platinum
b. Addison's disease b. Mitotane
c. Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia c. Ketoconazole
d. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome d. Mifepristone
8. Pheochromocytoma condition except:
a. MEN2A 20. Which is a pheochromocytoma-associated syndrome?
b. MEN1  Pheochromocytoma assoc syndromes are
c. NEUROFIBROMATOSIS 1 i. MEN 2A, MEN 2B
d. VHL ii. NF1 - classic features: multiple
9. What is the most common cause of secondary adrenal NF, café au lait spots, axillary
insufficiency? freckling of the skin
a. Tb iii. VHL
b. HIV
c. Autoimmune 21. Laboratory findings for primary aldosteronism
d. Sudden withdrawal of steroid  Low potassium, high renin, high
10. The following are catecholamines except: aldosterone
a. Glucagon
b. Epinephrine 22. Which of the following may lead to secondary
c. Norepinephrine hyperaldosteronism
d. Dopamine a. Hypokalemic acidosis
11. Aldosterone causes increase in BP, except: b. CHF
a. Increase in volume c. Hyporenin hypoaldosteronism
b. Increase HR d. Renal tubular necrosis
c. Increase SV
d. Increase vascular resistance 23. Most common secondary cause of adrenal
12. Medication for Primary hyperaldosteronism insufficiency.
- Spironolactone a. Sudden withdrawal of steroid use
b. Sheehan’s syndrome
13. Secondary sexual characteristics c. Adrenal TB
a. Androgen
b. Glucocorticoid 24. Waterhouse friedrichsenTriad of pheochromocytoma
c. Catecholamine a. Headache, palpitation, sweating
d. Mineralocorticoid b. Headache, palpitation, weight loss
14. Which has a positive effect on ACTH secretion? c. Palpitation, weight loss, sweating
a. Epinephrine d. Headache, weight loss, sweating
b. CRH 25. Primary Aldosteronism
c. Aldosterone a. Elevated CV, sodium and renin
d. Cortisol b. Elevated CV, sodium and low renin
15. Effects of Steroids c. Elevated CV, low sodium and renin
d. Low CV, sodium and renin
16. Cushing’s due to adrenal adenoma 26. Secondary aldosteronism
a. High ACTH high cortisol a. Elevated circulatory volume, sodium and
b. High ACTH low cortisol renin
c. Low ACTH high cortisol
USE AT YOUR OWN RISK!!!......Compiled and answered by: LG, CD, DH, KG, TF, RF, EE, DF, KF, JB, JG
 b. Elevated circulatory volume, sodium and b) ph 7.3-7.6
low renin c) hyperamylasemia is common
c. Elevated circulatory volume, low sodium d) sodium is increased due to hyperglycemia
and renin
d. Low circulatory volume, high sodium and 8. Management for Hyperglycemic emergencies
renin
9. A 40 y/o construction worker brought to the er due to
27. Which of the following is not associated with NFT 1? difficulty of breathing. He is diabetic with gliclazide &
a. Cerebellar tumors metformin, poorly compliant. Bp 90/60, dry cough,...
b. Cafe au lait Na-155, K-17, Crea-150, WBC-17, Hb-105, BUN-130; ABG:
c. Axillary freckling pH-7.38, HCO3-20, PaO2-(?). What is the serum osmolality?
d. None A. 350 mOsm/kg
B. 320
28. Aldosterone causes increase in BP except C. 330
a. Increase intravascular volume D. 340
b. Increase heart rate
c. Increase stroke volume 10. Compute for the anion gap. (155-140 = 15) Answer: C. 15
d. Increase vascular resistance
11. 40 y.o construction worker rushed to ER d/t DOB. 5 days
A-ENDO-ALBA-LIM fever and diarrhea. Px known diabetic on gliclazide and
1. Associated with obesity? metformin, poor compliance. BP 90/60, Poor skin turgor, dry
a. Cushing oral mucosa. Most likely Dx?
b. hypothyroidism a. Septic shock
c. Prader Willi b. DKA
d. All c. hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state
d. uncontrolled hyperglycemia
2. What is a complication of obesity?
A. Hypoventilation Syndrome 12. Glycemic control of the critically ill
B. Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism A. 120-140
C. Psoriasis B. 140-160
D. Osteoporosis C. 180-200
D. 160-180
3. Which of the following weight reducing agent is
peripherally acting and produced by streptomyces 13. True is/are about the pathogenesis of type 2 DM
A. bupropion A. Concordance of identical twins 70-90%
B. Phentermine B. Post receptor defects predominantly play a role in insulin
C. Orlistat resistance
D. Psyllium C. Decrease hepatic glucose production
D. All are true except C
4. Which of the ff. antidiabetic drug is US FDA approved for
the treatment of obesity 14. Which is a strong predisposing factor for type 2 diabetes?
A. Metformin A. Obesity
B. Empagliflozin B. Hypertension
C. Pioglitazone C. Family history of 1st degree relative
D. Liraglutide D. AOTA

5. Type 1 diabetes is best managed by which… 15. Development of the Chronic Complication in Diabetes
A. Twice daily mixed human insulin Mellitus is influenced by :
B. Premeal bolus of insulin aspart A. Duration of Diabetes
C. Bolus insulin detemir B. Hypertension
D. bolus insulin therapy C. Level of Glucose
D. All of the above
6. Least hypoglycemic
A. Glipizide 16. 40 y/o office worker, FBS is 110 mg/dl, asymptomatic,
B. Tzd with family history of type 2 DM (aunt). What would you
C. Detemir advice the patient?
D. Leulicine A. Tell her she can eat everything she want because her
glucose is in normal range
7. Lab abnormalities of dka B. Tell her she has diabetes
a) hypertriglyceridemia is uncommon
USE AT YOUR OWN RISK!!!......Compiled and answered by: LG, CD, DH, KG, TF, RF, EE, DF, KF, JB, JG
C. Lifestyle change (exercise and diet) C. DM type II, uncontrolled
D. Refer to specialist D. None of the above

17. True regarding hypoglycemia 25. What is the appropriate mx for diabetic emergency of
A. Defined as plasma glucose of <60 mg/dL above patient
B. The first defense against hypoglycemia is decrease insulin A. Isotonic saline is the ideal fluid
production B. Bicarbonate should be given iv
C. Cortisol and epinephrine serve as a primary counter C. Potassium should not be given since normal
regulatory response against hypoglycemia D. Aota
D. All of the above
26. Patient is obese, what is the 1st drug?
18. True of lipoprotein metabolism: Answer: biguanides
A. ApoA - HDL; apoB100-LDL
B. ApoE is primarily synthesized in the hepatocytes and 27. What medical regimen will you give to a 50 y/o with
facilitates uptake to the liver by LDL receptor hypertension and smoker with cholesterol of 300?
C. ApoA and apoB100 are RF of atherosclerosis A. Niacin
D. Aota B. Statin
C. Fibrates
19. Which pathologic condition contributes to diabetes-related D. Bile acid binding resin
complications?
A. Decrease sorbitol
B. Decrease Diacylglycerol C-ENDO-ALBA-LIM
C. Increase AGE 1.True regarding renal complication in DM
D. None of the above 2 .Pathogenesis of DM Type 2
A. Concordance of identical twin 70-90%
20. Common complication of autonomic neuropathy in B. Post receptor defect plays a role in insulin resistance
patients with Diabetes mellitus C. Decrease hepatic glucose production
A. Impotence D. All except C
B. Urinary retentiom 3. Diagnostic criteria for diabetes
C. Unawareness of hypoglycemia A. 2hr >/=140 OGT
D. All of the above B. ---
C. Asymptomatic RBS >/=200
21. What is the BMI classification of patient above? (Asian D. All of the above
Classification)
A. Normal BMI 4. 40 y/o banker --- opinion of annual blood exam with FBS of
B. Overweight 100mg/dl. What will be your advice to the patient?
C. Obese A. His Pre diabetic
D. None of the above B. Initiation of insulin
C. Disregard, not significantly high
22. A 40 y/o male vendor, N/V, (+) polyuria and polydipsia D. Start of oral hypoglycemic agent
for 2 weeks, abdominal pain for 8 hours, PE: tachycardic, dry 5. Men 1 includes
mucosa, BP: 90/60, RR: 28, CBG of 350 mg/dL; Not known A. Pheochromocytoma
diabetic nor hypertensive. If you are considering diabetic B. Pancreatic islet adenoma
emergency, the ff. labs are needed: C. Pituitary hyperplasia
a. ABG D. Both b and c
b. Serum, BUN, Crea 6. Men 2b includes
c. Urine ketones A. Pheochromocytoma
d. AOTA B. Pancreatic islet cell tumor
C. Pit. Adenoma
23. Compute for the anion gap D. Nota
Given: Na 135 Cl 105 HCO3 16 7. Men 2a component
Formula A. Medullary thyroid ca
= Na - (Cl + HCO3) B. Marfanoid features
= 135 - (105 + 16) C. Pheochromocytoma
= 135 - 121 D. A & C
= 14 8. Diabetes related complications is related to
A. Decrease diacylglycerol
24. Final diagnosis in case #37 B. Decrease sorbitol
A. HSS C. Increase AGE
B. DKA D. NOTA
USE AT YOUR OWN RISK!!!......Compiled and answered by: LG, CD, DH, KG, TF, RF, EE, DF, KF, JB, JG
 19. Compute for osmolarity
9. Neurogenic symptoms of hypoglycemia Na-135
10. Compute for the anion gap Bun-5
A. 10 Glucose-350
B. 13 A. 300
C. 18 B. 275
D. 16 C. 290 *
11. Treatment for diagnosis in no. 26 (no no. 26) D. 280
A. Reg insulin IV
B. D5 3 20. Compute for anion gap
C. Bicarbonate A. 10
D. --- B. 14
12. What is the BMI of the Patient? C. 18
ADA recommends screening individuals >45 y/o every 3 D. 16
years, and screening at an earlier age if BMI >25
A. --- 26. DM pt total cholesterol 225, LDL >150 a. diet and
B. --- exercise b.pharmacotherapy c.both a&b d. folow up after 2
C. --- mos of behavior modification
D. ---
True or False 28 drug of choice for a patient with HDL of 35mg/dl and
13. Autoimmune beta cell destruction can occur at any age - triglyceride of 600mg/dl
True
14. Hyperglycemia is a common endophathy like in A. Statins
acromegaly - true B. Fenofibrates
15. A glycemic goal in diabetic patients is strictly set to an C. Ezetimibe
HbA1c of 6.5% in all patient types - false D. Lifestyle intervention only
16. BP goal of DM patient is maintained to below 160/90 -
false 30. 50, F, diabetic for 4 years in Metformin 500mg 1 tab OD,
17. HDL Cholesterol should be >40 for males and >50 for which regimen is ideal for optimal glucose control in the
females - true presence of acute infection
18. Glycemic index is an estimate of the postprandial rise in A. Basal bolus insulin + metformin
glucose when a certain amount of food is ingested - true B. High dose metformin + gliclizide
C. Insulin OD + Metformin
B-ENDO-ALBA-LIM D. High dose metformin + diet + exercise
5. Type 2 DM w/ renal complications. What advice to give:
A. Recommended protein intake of 0.6g/kg/day in 33. Leptin- decrease insulin sensitivity
microalbuminuria
B. Smoking does not cause renal impairment (?) 38. Prone to ketosis
C. Concomittant with retinopathy A. DM 1
D. Strict BP control <120 B. DM 2
C. MODY
6. 35y/o, male with FBS of 140. Criteria in diagnosis of DM D. GDM
is/are: E. Hyperglycemia from endocrinopathies
A. FBS of >100 with typical sx
B. FPG of >140 on 2 occasions without typical sx 39. Increased hepatic glucose output as pathogenesis.
C. FBS of >126 on 2 or more occasion - DM2
D. NOTA
40. Acromegalic with insulin resistance
18. A 40 year old man was rushed to ER due to low grade
fever, nausea, vomiting, and severe abdominal pain for 8 A. DM 1
hours. Diabetic for 3 years with unrecalled oral medication. B. DM 2
(+) polydipsia and polyuria for 2 weeks. PE: dry mucosa, C. MODY
tachypneic, BP 90/60mmHg, RR 28/min. Capillary glucose D. GDM
level revealed 350mg/dl. What is the proper diagnosis? E. Hyperglycemia from endocrinopathies
A. ABG
B. Serum electrolytes, BUN, crea 42. Mutation in gene encoding glucokinase
C. Urine ketones A. DM 1
D. All of the above B. DM 2
C. MODY

USE AT YOUR OWN RISK!!!......Compiled and answered by: LG, CD, DH, KG, TF, RF, EE, DF, KF, JB, JG
D. GDM B. iPTH: normal to high,
E. Hyperglycemia from endocrinopathies Calcium: low, Phosphorus:
low
41. Tnf-a – decrease insulin activity C. iPTH: high, Calcium:
42. IL-6 low, Phosphorus: high
43. Adiponectin D. iPTH: low, Calcium: low,
44. Leptin Phosphorus: high
45. PA-1 (?) – decrease insulin activity E. iPTH: normal or low,
Calcium: high, Phosphorus:
A. Increases insulin activity normal to high
B. Decreases insulin activity First anterior pituitary A. Prolactin
hormone to decrease upon B. Growth hormone
46. Activates amp kinase - biguanides compression of growing C. Fsh / Lh
47. Produces Lactic acid - biguanides adenoma. D. Tsh
48. Produces weight loss - biguanides E. Acth
49. 28. 26 y/o male is afraid A. Irritability
50. Inhibits glucose absorption in the intestine – alpha that he has Grave's disease. B. Diarrhea
glucosidase Usual presentation of this C. Gynecomastia
disease is/are: D. AOTA
A. Sulfonilureas E. A and B
B biguanides 29. Started tx for A. 1 to 2 wks
C. Sglp2 Methimazole . Next visit to B. 2 to 4wks
D. Alpha glucosidase inhibitor evaluate function C. 4 to 6 wks
E. Lipi something D. 6 to 8 wks
E. 8 to 12 wks
B- ENDO- ANTONIO 30.Based on case in #28 A. FT3
QUESTION ANSWER/CHOICES (graves dse > methimazole B. FT4
baseline thyroid function a. amiodarone > follow up: C. TSH
test is needed before b. digoxin D. Total T4
initiating w/c of the c. lidocaine PTH a hormone produced A. Low serum Ca
following drugs? d. a&b by the parathyroid gland is B. Inc phosphate level
e. aota stimulated when: C. Vit D deficient
Primary A. iPTH: high, Calcium: D. All
hyperparathyroidism high, Phosphorus: low E. A & B
B. iPTH: normal to high, (Not exact words) A. Ant pit has no direct
Calcium: low, Phosphorus: metastasis is limited to blood supply
low posterior pituitary only, B. Post pit is supplied by inf
C. iPTH: high, Calcium: reason is hypophyseal art
low, Phosphorus: high C.
D. iPTH: low, Calcium: low, D. Aota
Phosphorus: high E. A and B
E. iPTH: normal or low,
Calcium: high, Phosphorus: Most common sellar mass? A. Pituitary adenoma
normal to high B. Craniopharyngioma
C. Aneurysm
Chronic Kidney Disease A. iPTH: high, Calcium: D. Rathke cleft cyst
high, Phosphorus: low E. Meningioma
B. iPTH: normal to high, 50, M. Low serum ionized A. Ca carbonate
Calcium: low, Phosphorus: Ca. Hx of B. Ca gluconate
low parathyroidectomy. On PPI C. Calcium lactate
C. iPTH: high, Calcium: for dyspepsia. In addition to D. Calcium citrate
low, Phosphorus: high calcitriol, what Ca will be E. No difference will make
D. iPTH: low, Calcium: low, supplemented for better
Phosphorus: high absorption?
E. iPTH: normal or low, The most common well- A. Papillary
Calcium: high, Phosphorus: differentiated thyroid B. Follicular
normal to high malignancy C. Medullary
D. Anaplastic
Hypercalcemia due to mets A. iPTH: high, Calcium: E. Hurtle cell
high, Phosphorus: low
USE AT YOUR OWN RISK!!!......Compiled and answered by: LG, CD, DH, KG, TF, RF, EE, DF, KF, JB, JG
 Diagnostic imaging of A. MRI How will differentiate A. Hypoglycemia
choice to evaluate thyroid B. CT primary from secondary B. Hypotension
size C. Ultrasound adrenal insufficiency? C. Hyperpigmentation
D. Scintigraphy D. Abdominal pain
E. Simple palpation E. Weakness
Most common clinical A. Obesity MC clinical symptom of A. Obesity
feature of patient with B. Gynecomastia cushing's dse: B. Thin skin
Cushing's Syndrome? C. Moon facie C. Moon facies
D. Hypertension D. HPN
E. Purple striae E. Purple striae
organs/system involve in A. 22 yr old presented with A. Prolactinoma
calcium and phosphate B. Renal secondary amenorrhea and B. Stalk compression
regulation C. Parathyroid galactorrhea, not in any C. Craniopharyngioma
D. Bone medication. Confrontational D. Meningioma
E. All test showed bitemporal E. Acromegaly
Guiding principles in A. Establishing hemianopsia, pituitary MRI
cushings hypercorticolism microadenoma, Diagnosis?
B. Defining etiology of
hypercorticolism-acth
dependent or independent C-ENDO- ANTONIO
C. Imaging studies 1. Active form of vit D.
D. A and b 2. Subclinical hyperthyroidism
E. AOTA 3. Calciphylaxis
Hormone produced by the A. ADH A. Vit d txt
anterior pituitary which B. Gonadotropin B. Calcium txt
depends on the loss of C. Oxytocin C. Calcium deposition in the vessels
inhibitory substances D. Prolactin D. Calcium depo in orgabs
E. GH
A 36 yr/old Female notices A. ACTH 4. In calcific tendinitis hydroxy apatite crystal deposit
coarsening of facial features B. Growth Hormone assay commonly in the tendon:
with hyperhydrosis. C. TSH A. Infraspinatus
Presents with frontal D. Insulin growth factor-1 B. Subscapularis
bossing, macrognathia, dry E. FT4 C. Supraspinatus
skin... what screening test to D. Teres minor
request?
Causes of a. hyperparathyroidism 5. Cells where secreting granules present?
hypophosphatemia b. vit D deficiency A. Chief cells
include/s c. poorly controlled diabetes B. Oxyphil
mellitus C. Chromaffin
d. all of the above D. Parafollicular cells
e. both a and b
Active form of vitamin D A. Cholecalciferol 6. In what clinical setting in secondary hyperparathyroidism
B .calcitriol occurs?
C. Calcidiol 7. Most common cause of symptomatic hypercalcemia.
8. Most common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism
40 y/o with easy A. CT abdomen 9. Statement best describe calciphylaxis?
bruisability, (+) 24 hour B. MRI
rine cortisol, ACTH C. US 10. In clinical setting characterized by hypercalcemia and
undetectable. Next work D. ? decreased PTH l
up? E. No further tests needed A. Parathyroid Adenoma
B. Parathyroid Hyperplasia
Hormones produced in the A. Oxytocin C. Thiazide diuretic
posterior pituitary? B. ADH D. Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia
C. None
D. Prolactin 11. 4 year old boy, Cc: pain on swallowing. On pe: palpable
E. Cortisol mass left, (+) tenderness on palpation. 1 wk pta: + history of
Most common cause of exogenous (iatrogenic) acute upper respiratory tract infection: probable diagnosis?
Cushing's syndrome A. Autoimmune
B. Acute thyroiditis
C. Sub acute thyroiditis
USE AT YOUR OWN RISK!!!......Compiled and answered by: LG, CD, DH, KG, TF, RF, EE, DF, KF, JB, JG
D. Grave’s disease 9. Therapeutic target for the treatment of prolactinoma.
12. Not done in physical exam of thyroid gland Except
Answer: Percussion A. Wt. Loss
B. Resume of menstruation
13. Also known as Subacute Granulomatous thyroiditis
C. Pregnancy
A. Hashimoto
B. Reidel D. Decrease the tumor
C. De quervain's thyroiditis 12. Pituitary adenoma-MC combination
D. Grave's
A. GH and Prolactin
14. Treatement of prolactinoma except.
B. GH and MSH
15. Which of the following causes generalized increase in C. FSH and LH
body size and disproportionately large arms and legs due to D. POMC and MSH
growth hormone cell adenoma
A. Secretion of IGF1 by the liver
15. A goitrous hypothyroidism patient whose taking
B. Mass effect in optic chiasm 10mcg levothyroxine. After 8 weeks of treatment...TSH
C. Hemorrhage into an adenoma is now 3.5 (NV:0.4-4.5)
D. NOTA A. Still inadequate
B. Euthyroid, adequate
16. Most toxic adverse effect of Thionamide – agranulocytosis D. Repeat tsh
17. Active form of vit D
A. Calcitriol 17) PTH secretion stimulus/stimuli:
B. D2 a) low serum CA
C. D3 b)high serum phosphorus
D. Calcidiol c) vit D deficiency
E. 7-hydroxycholesterol d) all
e)a and b
18. System involve in calcium phosphate homeostasis
19. CKD expected findings in iPTH, calcium & phosphorus
20. Thyrotoxicosis (matching type) 24. Morphologic criterion for malignancy of parathyroid
Answer: Low TSH, High T3, High T4 neoplasm
21 subclinical hyperthyroidism-decreased tsh, n t3,t4 A. Weight
22. Subclinical hypothyroidism B. Nuclear atypia
23. Started treatment for methimazole. Next visit to evaluate? C. Atypical mitosis
D. Metastasis
A-ENDO-Antonio-finals
27. Which of the following is the most common cause of
3 what anterior muscle might be needed to retract to sypmtomatic hypercalcemia?
palpate the thyroid lobes (not sure with the correct A. Hypercalcemia of malignancy
question) B. Primary hyperparathyroidism
A. Sternocleidomastoid C. Vitamin D toxicity
B. omohyoid D. Thiazide diuretics
C. Sternothyroid
D. Thyrohyoid 31. In clinical setting, it is characterized by
hypercalcemia and decrease PTH
4. PE not usually done in thyroid gland A. Parathyroid adenoma
A. Inspection B. Parathyroid hyperplasia
B. Palpation C. Thiazide diuretics
C. Percussion D. Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia
D. Auscultation
37. Chronic Renal Disease
8. features pertaining to colloid involution phase of 38. Vitamin D Deficiency
diffuse nontoxic goiter 39. Primary hyperparathyroidism
A. Follicles are flat and cuboidal 40. Nonthyroidal illness
B. Follicles are lined by crowded columnar cells 41. Thyrotoxicosis
C. Thyroid gland is symmetrically enlarged
D. AOTA 43. Subclinical hyperthyroidism

USE AT YOUR OWN RISK!!!......Compiled and answered by: LG, CD, DH, KG, TF, RF, EE, DF, KF, JB, JG
48. Graves disease, usual presentation B. Paracetamol
a. irritability
C. Tramadol
b. Diarrhea
c. Gynecomastia D. NSAID
D. All of the above (answer)
Which of the ff info regarding a joint problem is least helpful
Sudden increase in thyroid hormones ... increase in A. Duration of symptom (assess if acute or chronic)
catecholamines..- Thyroid Storm
B. No. Of joint involved (assess if mono, oligo, poly)
Posterior growth of the thyroid gland... with facial
C. Exposure to extremes of temperature
fullness/engorgement upon raising up hands ...
A. Chvostek's sign D. Presence of absence of inflammation (assess if inflamm or
B. Trosseu not)
C. Pemberton Sign
D. Allen's test Ans. C

30year old male consulted for arthriis at left knee for 3 days.
A-RHEUMA PRELIMS
No hx of trauma
1. Least helpful in synovial fluid analysis pe: +bulge sign +limitation of motion and warmth
A. Cell count (normal <2000/ul) >what is the best dx of choice: not sure kasi wala choice D
B. Crystal (monosodium urate, Ca pyrophosphate) A. Xray
C. Protein b. Synovial fluid
D. Gram stain (rule out infections) c. Cbc/esr
2 what cells are found in the joint? not sure d. ?
A. Synoviocytes 10. Joint stiffness in the morning lasting for >1hour
B. PMN (inflammation) a.Inflammatory
c. mononuclear cell b. Non inflammatory (<45 mins)

c.normal physiologic
Which of the following will decrease disabilty OA d.NOTA
A. Behavioral therapy 19. Management of OA except:
B. Patient education A. Maintain mobility
C. Occupational therapy (not sure) B. Regenerate cartilage
D. Treat depression and anxiety C. Reduce pain
Non pharmacologic regimen for gout that should not be done D. Minimize immobility
A. Rest of affected limbs

B. Increase water intake B-RHEUMA PRELIMS

C. Cold compress QUESTION ANSWER/CHOICES
Joint enlargement may be A. Synovial membrane
D. Increase fruit juice (bawal dapat to) due to except: proliferation
B. Bony hypertrophy
Drug prescribe for gout/oa that is associated with C. Capsular stretching
hypertension, gastritis, impaired platelet aggregation and D. Synovial fluid
renal injury accumulation

A. Colchicine
USE AT YOUR OWN RISK!!!......Compiled and answered by: LG, CD, DH, KG, TF, RF, EE, DF, KF, JB, JG
 Colchicine use in acute
gouty arthritis is limited
due to the side effect
predominantly?
management of
osteoarthritis is geared
towards the ff., except
a.
b. diarrhea
c. flatulence (not sure)
d. nausea
A. Maintain mobility
B. Regenerate the cartilage
C. Minimize pain
D. Reduce disability
Uric acid is primarily
excreted via
Gouty arthritis will likely
occur in:
a. Git
b. Billiary tract
c. Kidney*
d. Skin
A. Male 30-5- year old
B. Post menopausal women
C. Children ages 10-16
D. Elderly >60y/old

ANS: B REGENERATE C-RHEUMA PRELIMS

THE CARTILAGE 37. Can be used during an acute attack of gout except
extraarticular involvement A. Liver
of osteoarthritis B. Renal A. Endomethacin
C. Cardio
D. None . B. ---

ANS: B.RENAL C. Febuxostat

JL 40 years old 5'6" 210
pounds, executive has
been complaining of Left
knee arthritis with severity
of 10/10 after drinking 3
bottles of beer after 8
hours. What is the possible
diagnosis?
the synovial fluid
aspirated from an
osteoarthritic knee:
Knee replacement is to be
considered if:
Non pharmacologic
treatment for gouty
arthritis that should NOT
be initiated
Uric acid is primarily
excreted via.
under excretion of uric
acid is seen on?
True about the tx of OA?
Common in gout except:
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Septic arthritis
C. Gout
D. Traumatic arthritis
A. mononuclear cells
2000/hpf
B. poor string sign
C. turbid and cloudy
D. (+) CPPD crystals
A. Progression to varus
deformity
B.
C. Osteoporosis
D. Pain not resolved by
aggressive ??
A. Increase water intake
B. Rest affected joint
C. Cold compress
D. Intake of fruits
A. Git
B. ..........
C. Kidney
D. Skin
ckd (?)
A. NSAIDS slow rate of
destruction.
B. Hyaluronic acid is
effective in regeneration.
C. There is no drug that can
prevent the progression of the
disease.
D. (?)
a. Male
b. Post menopausal women
c. Children
d. Elderly ( >60 yrs old)
D. ---
38. Problem not associated with infectious agent
A. Potts
B. Rheunatic fever
C. Pseudogout
D. Lyme dis
39. Radiologic features of oa except
A. Osteoporosis
40. N est/crp a.tb B.o ---? C.a ---?
D. Septic ---
A-RHEUMA- MIDTERM
Matching type
1. Sacroielitis AS
2. Piano key deformity RA
3. Arthritic mutilans PA
4. Felty syndrome RA
5. Keratiderma blenorrhagica REACTIVE
Choices:
Rheumatic Arthritis
Reactive Arthritis
Psoriatic Arthritis
Ankylosing Spondylitis
6. Finkelstein - D. Dequervain's tenosynovitis
7. Walang shoulder pain-Anserine
8. Jj pain and tingling sensation on the wrist forearm arm.
Clumsy hand
A. De quarvains
B. Lateral epicondyliti
C. Carpal tunnel
D. Olecranob bursitis

USE AT YOUR OWN RISK!!!......Compiled and answered by: LG, CD, DH, KG, TF, RF, EE, DF, KF, JB, JG
9. Drop arm test
Ans- adhesive 7. Boutonniere Deformity- Hyperextension of the DIP joint
with Flexion of the PIP joint
10. A periarticular disorder is charaterized as
A. Pain on active and passive movement C-RHEUMA PRELIMS
B. Presence of deformity and swelling Arthritis mutilans
C. Point tenderness
D. Diffuse and deep pain Bicipital tendinitis
A. Shoulder pain
11. Description of RA B. Elbow pain
A. Monoarticular C. Hip pain
C. Inflammatory D. Ankle pain
D. Inc CRP
9. Finkelstein test is for? De quervains
12. Calcific tendinitis
A. Shoulder pain
B. Elbow pain 10. Will not present with shoulder pain Anserine Bursitis
C. Hip pain
D. Ankle pain 18. Joint spared in RA
Answer: DIP
13. Skin tightening upon neck flexion
21. NOT a primary goal of therapy for RA
A. Alleviate pain
B-RHEUMA- MIDTERM B. Prevent joint damage
RHEUMA- Dr. Sy: 7 Items Recalled C. Prevent transmission
D. Control the inflammation

1. Which of the ff is NOT primary goal of treatment of R. 32. Not true of ankylosing spondylitis
A.? Answer: Common in female
a. Alleviate pain
b. Prevent progressive joint degeneration 38.arthritis mutilans
c. Prevent transmission
d. Control inflammation 42. Olecranon bursitis
Answer: Elbow pain

2. Most common cause of shoulder pain 44. Bicipital tendinitis-shoulder pain

3. Highly positive for HLAB27
46. inhibits cyclooxygenase1
a. Rheumatoid Arthritis
b. Psoriatic Arthritis A. Etanercept
c. Ankylosing Spondyloarthritis B. Nsaids
d. Reactive Arthritis C. Glucocorticoids
D. Methotraxate
4. Evaluate ROM of the spine
a. Occiput to wall test 47. Leukocyte trafficking
b. Lateral rotation and flexion of spine A. Etarnecept
c. Schober's test B. NSAID
d. AOTA C. Glucocorticoids
5. Nerve involve in Carpal Tunnel Syndrome D. Methotrexate
a. Ulnar
b. Radial
48. Limit TBF-alpha that can bind to endogenous TNF
c. ?
receptor
d. Median
6. Woman taking 7.5mg methotrexate what to give to A. Etanercept
counter adverse effect? (Not verbatim) B. Nsaids
a. Vit C C. Glucocorticoids
b. Vit D D. Methotraxate
c. Folic acid
d. Cobalamin
USE AT YOUR OWN RISK!!!......Compiled and answered by: LG, CD, DH, KG, TF, RF, EE, DF, KF, JB, JG
A-RHEUMA- FINALS
1. 27yo female consulted due to morning stiffness for more
than 1 hour for 4 months, associated with fever and cough, no
relief with antibiotics. Presently, with myalgia and arthralgia.
What dagnostic procedure is used to strengthen your
diagnosis?
A. Chest xray
B. CBC
D. ANA
E. Rheumatoid factor
2. Recurrent infection in SLE
Ans : EBV
3 High likelihood of SLE
a. Female 60 y/o
b. Male 50-60 y/o
c. Female 20-40 y/o
d. Mother with children less than 16 y/o
9. Most common pulmo manifestation of SLE
C. Pleuritic chest pain
10. Coronary artery disease in SLE is due to?
A. Vasculitis
B. Accelerated atherosclerosis
C. Congenital stenosis of coronary artery
D. Infection
12. Neurological manifestations of SLE
A. Seizure
B. Psychosis
C. Mononeuritis Multiplex
D. All
14. Non-pharmacological management of SLE includes:
A. Avoid sun exposure
B. Use of sunblock lotion with SPF 30
C. Avoid all kinds of stress
D. All of the above
50. Wegener granulomatosis: c-anca

USE AT YOUR OWN RISK!!!......Compiled and answered by: LG, CD, DH, KG, TF, RF, EE, DF, KF, JB, JG