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GATE MCQ MECHANICAL ENGINEERING by NODIA

VOLUME 1.

ENGINEERING MECHANICS

1. Equilibrium of Forces
2. Structure
3. Friction
4. Virtual Work
5. Kinematics of Particle
6. Kinetics of Particles
7. Plane Kinematics of Rigid body
8. Plane Kinetics of Rigid body

STRENGTH OF MATERIALS

1. Stress and Strain


2. Axial Loading
3. Torsion
4. Shear Force and Bending Moment
5. Transformation of Stress and Strain
6. Design of Beams and Shafts
7. Deflection of Beams and Shafts
8. Column
9. Energy Methods

THEORY OF MACHINES

1. Analysis of Plane Mechanism


2. Velocity and Acceleration
3. Dynamic Analysis of Slider - Crank and Cam
4. Gear – Trains
5. Fly Wheel
6. Vibration

MACHINES DESIGN

1. Static and Dynamic Loading


2. Joints
3. Shaft and Shaft Components
4. Spur Gears
5. Bearings
6. Clutch and Brakes
 

VOLUME 2

FLUID MECHANICS
1. Basic Concepts and Properties of Fluids
2. Pressure and Fluid Statics
3. Fluid Kinematics & Bernouli Equation
4. Flow Analysis Using Control Volumes
5. Flow Analysis Using Differential Method
6. Internal Flow
7. External Flow
8. Open Channel Flow
9. Turbo Machinery

HEAT TRANSFER
1. Basic Concepts & Modes of Heat-Transfer
2. Fundamentals of Conduction
3. Steady Heat Conduction
4. Transient Heat Conduction
5. Fundamentals of Convection
6. Free and Force Convection
7. Radiation Heat Transfer
8. Heat Exchangers

THERMODYNAMICS
1. Basic Concepts and Energy Analysis
2. Properties of Pure Substances
3. Energy Analysis of Closed System
4. Mass and Energy Analysis of Control Volume
5. Second Law of Thermodynamics
6. Entropy
7. Gas Power Cycles
8. Vapor and Combined Power Cycles
9. Refrigeration and Air Conditioning

 
VOLUME 3

Manufacturing Engineering

1. Engineering materials and Heat treatment 
2. Metal casting 
3. Forming process 
4. Sheet metal working 
5. Joining 
6. Machining and machine tool operations 
7. Non‐traditional machiching process 
8. Metrology and Inspection 
9. Computer Integrated Manufacturing 
 
Industrial Engineering
1. Production Planning and Control 
2. Inventory Control 
3. Network flow Models 
 
Operations Research
1. Linear programming 
2. Transportation 
3. Assignment 
4. Simple Quering Model 
5. PERT and CPM 

 
 
VOLUME 4

ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS
1. Linear Algebra

2. Differential Calculus

3. Integral Calculus

4. Directional Derivatives

5. Differential Equation

6. Complex Variable

7. Probability and Statistics

8. Numerical Methods

VERBAL ANALYSIS
1. Synonyms

2. Antonyms

3. Agreement

4. Sentence Structure

5. Spellings

6. Sentence Completion

7. Word Analogy

8. Reading Comprehension

9. Verbal Classification

10. Critical Reasoning

11. Verbal Deduction

QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS
1. Number System

2. Surds, Indices and Logarithm

3. Sequences and Series


4. Average, Mixture and Alligation

5. Ratio, Proportion and Variation

6. Percentage

7. Interest

8. Time, Speed & Distance

9. Time, Work & Wages

10. Data Interpretation

11. Number Series

GATE TOPICWISE SOLVED PAPER(2013-2001)


1. Engineering Mathematics

2. Engineering Mechanics

3. Strength of Materials

4. Theory of Machines

5. Machine Design

6. Fluid Mechanics

7. Heat Transfer

8. Thermodynamics

9. Refrigeration and Air-Conditioning

10. Manufacturing Engineering

11. Industrial Engineering 

12. General Aptitude 


GATE MCQ MECHANICAL ENGINEERING (4 volumes)

Sample Chapter

FM 6
INTERNAL FLOW

FM 6.1 Consider a fully developed laminar pipe flow. If the pipe diameter is reduced by
half while the flow rate and pipe length are held constant, the head loss will be
(A) Increase by a factor of 2 (B) Increase by a factor of 4
(C) Increase by a factor of 16 (D) Remains same.

FM 6.2 Consider a flow through a 15 m long horizontal pipe at the laminar transition
point. The fluid is oil with r = 890 kg/m3 and m = 0.07 kg/m -s . If the power
delivered to the flow is 1 hp, the flow rate will be
(A) 2420 cm3 /s (B) 4840 cm3 /s
(C) 3630 cm3 /s (D) 484 cm3 /s

FM 6.3 Glycerin at 40cC with r = 1252 kg/m3 and m = 0.27 kg/m -s is flowing through a
5 cm diameter horizontal smooth pipe with an average velocity of 3.5 m/s. What
will be the pressure drop per unit length of the pipe ?
(A) 121 kPa (B) 1.21 kPa
. i n
(C) 12.1 kPa
c o
(D) 0.121 kPa

.
Common Data For Q. 4 and 5
d i a
n o
Water at 15cC ( r = 999.1 kg/m3 ) is flowing steadily in a 45 m long and 4 cm

w.
diameter horizontal pipe made of stainless steel at a rate of 8 # 10-3 m3/s . The
friction factor f = 0.01573 .
FM 6.4

(A) 36.6 m
w
What will be the head loss ?
w (B) 3.66 m
(C) 366.0 m (D) 0.366 m

FM 6.5 The pumping power requirement to overcome pressure drop is


(A) 1.5 kW (B) 4.5 kW
(C) 3 kW (D) 6.0 kW

Common Data For Q. 6 and 7


A light liquid ^r = 950 kg/m3h flows through a horizontal smooth tube of
diameter 5 cm at an average velocity of 10 m/s. The fluid pressure measured at
2 m intervals along the pipe is as given below:
x (m) 0 2 4 6
p (kPa) 304 255 226 200
FM 6.6 The wall shear stress in the fully developed section of the pipe is
(A) 163 Pa (B) 325 Pa
(C) 650 Pa (D) 81.5 Pa

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FM 212 Internal Flow FM 6

FM 6.7 What will be the overall friction factor ?


(A) 0.000183 (B) 0.183
(C) 0.00183 (D) 0.0183

FM 6.8 The piston shown in figure below is pushed steadily by a force F , which causes
flow rate of vo = 0.15 cm3 /s through the needle. If fluid has r = 900 kg/m3 and
m = 0.002 kg/m -s , the force F will be

(A) 2.0 N (B) 3.6 N


(C) 1.35 N (D) 4.0 N

FM 6.9 A compressor that draws in air (r = 1.149 kg/m3, m = 1.802 # 10-5 kg/m - s) from
the outside, through an 12 m long, 20 cm diameter duct. The compressor takes in

. i n
air at a rate of 0.27 m3/s . If the friction factor is to be 0.0211, the useful power
used by the compressor to overcome the frictional losses in the duct is
(Disregarding any minor losses)

. c o
d i a
n o
w w.
w
(A) 14.5 W (B) 15.4 W
(C) 51.4 W (D) 41.5 W

FM 6.10 In fully developed laminar flow in a circular pipe, the velocity at 0.5R (midway
between the wall surface and the center-line) is
(A) 2u max (B) 0.5u max
(C) 0.75u max (D) Not changed
(where u max is the maximum velocity)
FM 6.11 The velocity profile in fully developed laminar flow in a circular pipe of inner
radius R = 4 cm in m/s is given by
2
u (r) = 4 c1 - r 2 m
R
The maximum velocity in the pipe and the volume flow rate respectively, are
(A) 4 m/s, 0.01005 m3 /s (B) 0.01005 m/s, 4 m3 /s
(C) 0.01005 m3/s, 4 m/s (D) 4 m3/s, 0.01005 m/s

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FM 6 Internal Flow FM 213

FM 6.12 Consider a flow between two smooth parallel horizontal plates of 3 cm apart. If
the fluid is SAE 10 oil and V = 2 m/s ^r = 870 kg/m3 and m = 0.104 kg/msh, the
head loss per meter is
(A) 0.430 m/m (B) 0.487 m/m
(C) 0.325 m/m (D) 0.163 m/m

FM 6.13 Consider laminar flow of a fluid through a rectangular concrete channel with the
smooth surfaces of friction factor (f = 58/ Re). If the average velocity of the fluid
is doubled, the change in the head loss of fluid in percentage is (Assume the flow
regime remains same)
(A) Decrease by 50% (B) Increase by 50%
(C) Increase by 100% (D) Decrease by 100%

FM 6.14 Water at 20c C flows from a tank by the pressurized air at a rate of 60 m3 /h as
shown in figure below. If coefficient of friction f = 0.0136 , what gage pressure p1
is needed to drive the pipe flow ?

. i n
. c o
(A) 2.38 MPa
d i a (B) 1.2 MPa
(C) 0.238 MPa

n o (D) 0.12 MPa

FM 6.15

w w.
A single 6 cm diameter tube consists of seven 2 cm diameter smooth thin
tubes packed tightly as shown in figure below. Air at about 20c C and 1 atm (
r = 1.2 kg/m3 , m = 1.8 # 10-5 kg/m-s ), flows through this system at 150 m3 /h .
w
What will be the pressure drop per meter length of the pipe ? (Take f = 0.0250 )

(A) 202.5 Pa (B) 90 Pa


(C) 270 Pa (D) 27.0 Pa

FM 6.16 Oil with a density of 850 kg/m3 and kinematic viscosity of 6 # 10-4 m2/s flows in
a 5 mm diameter and 40 m long horizontal pipe, from a storage tank open to the
atmosphere. If the height of the liquid level above the center of the pipe is 3 m
and the flow is fully developed laminar, the flow rate of oil through the pipe is
(A) 1.88 # 10-6 m3/s (B) 1.88 # 10-4 m3/s
(C) 1.88 # 10-7 m3/s (D) 1.88 # 10-8 m3/s

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FM 214 Internal Flow FM 6

FM 6.17 A fluid flows through two horizontal pipes of equal length which are connected
together to form a pipe of length 2l . The flow is fully developed laminar and the
pressure drop for the first pipe is 1.44 times greater than for the second pipe. If
the diameter of the first pipe is D , the diameter D 3 of the second pipe is
(A) 1.64D (B) 1.37D
(C) 1.095D (D) 1.92D

FM 6.18 A capillary viscometer measures the time of Dt = 6 seconds required for a 8 cm3
of water at 20c C to flow through a D diameter glass tube as shown in figure
below. If L = 12 cm , l = 2 cm and flow is laminar with no entrance and exit
losses, the capillary diameter D will be (Take m = 0.001 kg/m -s )

. i n
. c o
d i a
(A) 1.5 mm
(C) 0.15 mm
n o (B) 15 mm
(D) 0.015 mm

FM 6.19

w w.
Oil with r = 894 kg/m3 and m = 2.33 kg/m -s , flows at 0.5 m/s through 300 m
long and 40 cm diameter cast iron pipe. Neglect minor losses. The pumping

w
power required to overcome the pressure losses, is
(A) 0.45 kW
(C) 45 kW
(B) 5.0 kW
(D) 4.5 kW

FM 6.20 SAE 30 oil at 20c C ^m = 0.29 kg/m-s , r = 891 kg/m3h flows upward in a 3 cm
diameter pipe through a pump from A to B at a rate of 3 kg/s as shown in figure
below. At 100% efficiency, what pump power is required ?

(A) 4.8 kW (B) 4 kW


(C) 0.63 kW (D) 3.5 kW

FM 6.21 Oil with r = 910 kg/m3 and m = 0.01 kg/m -s flows through a 1.2 m- diameter
pipe at a rate of 3 m3 /s . The pressure drop along the pipe and friction factor are

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FM 6 Internal Flow FM 215

7.6 MPa and 0.0157 respectively. If the pump is 88% efficient, the power required
and the length of the pipe respectively, are
(A) 26 MW, 136.5 km (B) 19.5 MW, 182 km
(C) 19.5 MW, 136.5 km (D) 26 MW, 182 km

FM 6.22 The pump adds 25 kW to the water as shown in figure and causes a flow rate of
0.04 m3/s . For either case f = 0.016 and neglect minor losses. What will be the
flow rate expected when the pump is removed from the system ?

(A) 0.0289 m3/s (B) 2.89 m3/s


(C) 0.289 m3/s (D) 0.00289 m3/s

FM 6.23 Consider the pitot-static pressure arrangement as shown in figure below. Air at
20c C is flowing through the pitot tube ^r = 1.2 kg/m3 , m = 1.8 # 10-5 kg/m -sh and
the manometer fluid is colored water at 20c C ^r = 998 kg/m3 , m = 0.001 kg/m -sh

i n
. If the friction factor of the flow is f = 0.0175 and Vavg = 0.85VCL , the pipe volume

.
flow rate and the wall shear stress respectively, are

. c o
d i a
n o
w w.
w
(A) 0.109 m3 /s , 1.7 Pa
(C) 0.128 m3 /s , 1.233 Pa
(B) 0.109 m3 /s , 1.233 Pa
(D) 0.128 m3 /s , 1.7 Pa

FM 6.24 Glycerin at 20cC ( r = 1260 kg/m3 , m = 1.50 N - s/m2 ) flows upward in a vertical
75 mm diameter pipe with a centerline velocity of 1.0 m/s. The head loss and
pressure drop in a 10 m length of the pipe respectively, are
(A) 8.2 m, 225 kPa (B) 0.11 m, 125 kPa
(C) 6.75 m, 207 kPa (D) 3.43 m, 166 kPa

Common Data For Q. 25 and 26


Oil ( r = 876 kg/m3 and m = 0.24 kg/m -s ) is flowing through a 1.5 cm diameter
pipe that discharges into the atmosphere at 98 kPa. The absolute pressure 15 m
before the exit is measured to be 145 kPa.

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FM 216 Internal Flow FM 6

FM 6.25 If the pipe is horizontal, the flow rate of oil through pipe is
(A) 1.62 # 10-5 m3 /s (B) 162 # 10-5 m3 /s
(C) 16.2 # 10-5 m3 /s (D) 162 # 10-4 m3 /s

FM 6.26 The flow rate of oil through the pipe, if the pipe is inclined at 8c upward from
the horizontal, is
(A) 100 # 10-5 m3/s (B) 1.00 # 10-5 m3/s
(C) 0.10 # 10-5 m3/s (D) 10.0 # 10-5 m3/s

FM 6.27 Consider two types of drinking straws, one with a square cross-sectional shape
and the other type the typical round shape. The amount of material in each
straw and the length of the perimeter of the cross section of each shape are same
. Assume the drink is viscous enough to ensure laminar flow and neglect gravity.
What is the ratio of the flow rates _ vvoo i through the straws for a given pressure
round

square

drop ? (For square cross section f Re h = 56.9 and for round shape f Re h = 64 ).
(A) 0.183 (B) 0.55
(C) 5.5 (D) 1.83

FM 6.28 Water flows from tank A to tank B with the valve closed as shown in figure. If
the friction factor is 0.02 for all pipes and all minor losses are neglected, what

i n
will be the flow rate into tank B when the valve is opened to allow water to flow

.
into tank C also ?

. c o
d i a
n o
w w.
w
(A) 0.180 m3/s
(C) 0.0180 m3 /s
(B) 0.00180 m3/s
(D) 1.80 m3/s

FM 6.29 Water at 20c C flows through a multiple parallel-plate passages heat exchanger
as shown in figure below. The available pressure drop is 2 kPa and plate walls are
hydraulically smooth. If the desired total flow rate is 0.25 m3 /s , the appropriate
number of passages are ^ f = 0.028h

(A) N = 50 passages (B) N = 30 passages


(C) N = 72 passages (D) N = 42 passages

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FM 6 Internal Flow FM 217

FM 6.30 Oil at 20cC (r = 888.1 kg/m3, m = 0.8374 kg/m -s) is flowing through a vertical
glass funnel as shown in figure. The funnel consists of 20 cm high cylindrical
reservoir and a 1 cm diameter, 20 cm high pipe. The funnel is always maintained
full by the addition of oil from the tank. Neglect entrance losses. What will be
the ratio of the actual flow rate through the funnel to the maximum flow rate for
the “Frictionless” case ?

(A) 43.91
. i n
(B) 0.0232
(C) 2.32
o
(D) 0.232

. c
FM 6.31

d i a
Water at 20c C flows upward through an inclined 6 cm diameter pipe at 4 m/s is
shown in figure. A mercury manometer has a reading of h = 135 mm . The pipe

n o
length between points (1) and (2) is 5 m and point (2) is 3 m higher than point
(1). What will be the friction factor of the flow ?

w w.
w
(A) 0.114 (B) 0.07
(C) 0.025 (D) 0.044

FM 6.32 Viscous oil (S.G. = 0.85 , m = 0.10 Pa - s ) flows from tank A to tank B through the
six rectangular slots as shown in figure below. If minor losses are negligible and
the total flow rate is 30 mm3 /s , the pressure in tank A will be (Take f = 3250 )

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FM 218 Internal Flow FM 6

(A) 1.54 kPa (B) 1.15 kPa


(C) 2.31 kPa (D) 1.92 kPa

FM 6.33 A 2 mm diameter and 20 cm long straw delivers the water at 10c C with a rate
of 3 cm3 /s . If the flow is vertically up, what will be the axial pressure gradient
2p/2x ?(Take m = 1.307 # 10-3 kg/m -s , r = 1000 kg/m3 )
(A) 2 kPa/m (B) 10 kPa/m
(C) 4 kPa/m (D) 20 kPa/m

FM 6.34 A tank of water has a 1.5 cm diameter hole at the bottom, where water discharges
to the atmosphere. The water level is 3 m above the outlet. Disregarding the
effect of the kinetic energy correction factor. If the entrance of the hole is sharp
edged, the flow rate of water through the hole is (loss coefficient KL for sharp-
edged = 0.5 )
(A) 1.11 # 10-3 m3/s (B) 111 # 10-3 m3/s
(C) 11.1 # 10-3 m3/s (D) 0.111 # 10-3 m3/s

FM 6.35 Water at a rate of 0.04 m3/s , flows in a 0.12 m diameter pipe that contains a
sudden contraction to a 0.06 m diameter pipe. If the loss coefficient KL = 0.40 ,
the pressure drop across the contraction section is
(A) 99.75 kPa (B) 33 kPa

. i n
(C) 166.25 kPa
o
(D) 133 kPa

. c
FM 6.36

i a
The water pipe system shown in figure below consists of 1200 m long cast-iron
^ f = 0.0315h pipe of 5 cm diameter, two 45c and four 90 c flanged long-radius
d
n o
elbows, a fully open flanged globe valve and a sharp exit into a reservoir. The
minor losses coefficient for the pipe system is as follows

w w.
w

45c long-radius elbow : K , 0.2


90c long-radius elbow : K , 0.3
Open flanged globe valve : K , 8.5
Sharp exit valve : K , 1.0
If the elevation at point 1 is 400 m, what gage pressure is required at point 1 to
deliver 0.005 m3 /s of water at 20c C ( m = 0.001 kg/m-s ) into the reservoir ?
(A) 4.54 MPa (B) 3.46 MPa
(C) 1.43 MPa (D) 6.4 MPa

FM 6.37 Kerosine is to be withdrawn from a 15 cm high kerosine tank by drilling a well


rounded 3 cm diameter hole with negligible loss at the bottom surface and
attaching a horizontal 90c bend of negligible length. The kinetic energy correction
factor is 1.05. What will be the flow rate of water through the bend, respectively

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FM 6 Internal Flow FM 219

if (a) the bend is a flanged smooth bend and (b) the bend is miter bend without
vanes ?

(A) 8.08 L/s, 4.78 L/s (B) 4.78 L/s, 6.03 L/s
(C) 6.03 L/s, 4.78 L/s (D) 8.08 L/s, 6.03 L/s

FM 6.38 A horizontal pipe has an sudden expansion from D1 = 6 cm to D2 = 12 cm . The


water is flowing at 10 m/s and p1 = 300 kPa in the small section and the flow
is turbulent. If the kinetic energy correction factor to be 1.06 at both inlet and
outlet, the downstream pressure is

. i n
. c o
(A) 300 kPa
d i a (B) 278 kPa
(C) 377 kPa

n o (D) 322 kPa

w.
FM 6.39 A 4.5 m diameter tank is initially filled with water 2 m above the centre of
a sharp edged 15 cm diameter orifice. The tank water surface is open to the

w w
atmosphere and the orifice drains to the atmosphere. Neglecting the effect of the
kinetic energy correction factor. The time required to empty the tank is (loss
coefficient for sharp edge KL = 0.5 )

(A) 19.6 min (B) 26.4 min


(C) 0.264 min (D) 2.64 min

Common Data For Linked Answer Q. 40 and 41


Water at 20c C flows through a 10 cm diameter smooth pipe which contains an
orifice plate with 5 cm-diameter. The measured orifice pressure drop is 75 kPa.
Discharge coefficient Cd = 0.605 and non- recoverable head loss coefficient K = 1.8 .

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FM 220 Internal Flow FM 6

FM 6.40 What will be the flow rate in m3 /hr ?


(A) 54 (B) 50
(C) 60 (D) 209

FM 6.41 What will be the non recoverable head loss ?


(A) 33.4 kPa (B) 6.9 kPa
(C) 52.4 kPa (D) 26.4 kPa

Common Data For Linked Answer Q. 42 and 43


Water at 20cC (r = 998 kg/m3, m = 1.002 # 10-3 kg/m - s) flows through a 50 cm
diameter pipe. The flow rate of water is measured with an orifice meter to be
0.25 m3/s . The diameter ratio b and discharge coefficient Cd are 0.60 and 0.61
respectively.
FM 6.42 The pressure difference indicated by orifice meter is
(A) 1.9 kPa (B) 19.0 kPa
(C) 146 kPa (D) 14.6 kPa

FM 6.43 What will be the head loss ?


(A) 2.207 m
i n
(B) 2.0421 m

.
(C) 0.7734 m
o
(D) 0.940 m

. c
FM 6.44

d i a
A 5 cm diameter smooth pipe contains an orifice plate of b = 0.6 and it is
monitored by a mercury manometer ^r = 13550 kg/m3h as shown in figure below.
What will be the h when the flow rate is 0.334 m3 / min ?(Take Cd = 0.613 )

n o
w w.
w
(A) 75.75 cm (B) 7.52 cm
(C) 57 cm (D) 1.72 cm

FM 6.45 Air at 20cC (r = 1.204 kg/m3) flows at high speed through a venturi-meter
monitored by a water manometer as shown in figure below. If h = 40 cm , what
will be the maximum mass flow rate of air that venturi can measure ? (Take
discharge coefficient Cd = 0.98 )

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FM 6 Internal Flow FM 221

(A) 2.73 kg/s (B) 0.273 kg/s


(C) 27.3 kg/s (D) 0.0273 kg/s

FM 6.46 Consider the flow of air at high speed through a venturi monitored by a mercury
manometer ^rHg = 13550 kg/m3h as shown in figure below. Discharge coefficient
Cd and Expansion factor Y for this flow are 0.985 and 0.76 respectively. The
upstream conditions are 150 kPa and 353 K. If h = 37 cm , the mass flow rate for
flow to be compressible is

(A) 0.40 kg/s (B) 3.23 kg/s


(C) 7.27 kg/s (D) 0.90 kg/s

FM 6.47

. i n
Ethanol at 20c C ^r = 789 kg/m3 , m = 0.0012 kg/m -sh flows through a 5 cm

. c o
diameter smooth pipe at a rate of 7 m3 /hr . Three piezometer tubes are installed
as shown in figure below. If the pipe contains a thin plate orifice of diameter

d i a
d = 3 cm , the piezometer levels h2 and h 3 will be ^Take K = 1.5 and f = 0.023h

n o
w w.
w
(A) h2 = 1.7 m , h 3 = 1.58 m (B) h2 = 0.42 m , h 3 = 0.54 m
(C) h2 = 1.58 m , h 3 = 1.7 m (D) h2 = 1.58 m , h 3 = 1.47 m

FM 6.48 Consider the parallel-pipe system as shown in figure below. The SAE 10 oil at
20c C ^r = 870 kg/m3 and m = 0.104 kg/m -sh is flowing laminarly through the
pipe system with pressure drop p1 - p2 = 21 kPa . What will be the total flow rate
between 1 and 2 ?

(A) 0.0005 m3 /s (B) 0.0022 m3 /s


(C) 0.0027 m3 /s (D) 0.0032 m3 /s

FM 6.49 Consider the parallel-pipe system of two identical length and material pipe as
shown in figure below. The diameter of pipe A is half of the diameter of pipe B

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FM 222 Internal Flow FM 6

. If the friction factor to be same in both case and disregarding minor losses, the
flow rates in pipes A and B would be

(A) Remains same


(B) Flow rate of A increased by a factor of 0.177.
(C) Flow rate of B increased by a factor of 0.177.
(D) Flow rate of A decreased by a factor of 0.177.

Common Data For Linked Answer Q. 50 and 51


Three pipes of same material ^ f = 0.0275h are laid in parallel with these dimensions:
Pipe 1 : L1 = 900 m d1 = 10 cm
. i n
Pipe 2 : L2 = 800 m
c o
d2 = 12 cm

.
Pipe 3 : L 3 = 600 m
3

d i a
d 3 = 8 cm
The total flow rate is 0.056 m /s of water at 20c C .
FM 6.50

n o
The flow rate in each pipe is

w.
(A) vo1 = 0.0166 m3 /s , vo2 = 0.0277 m3 /s , vo3 = 0.0116 m3 /s
(B) vo1 = 0.0166 m3 /s , vo2 = 0.0116 m3 /s , vo3 = 0.0277 m3 /s

w w
(C) vo1 = 0.0277 m3 /s , vo2 = 0.0166 m3 /s , vo3 = 0.0116 m3 /s
(D) vo1 = 0.0116 m3 /s , vo2 = 0.0166 m3 /s , vo3 = 0.0277 m3 /s

FM 6.51 The pressure drop across the system will be


(A) 56 kPa (B) 55 kPa
(C) 550 kPa (D) 137.5 kPa

FM 6.52 For the Series -Parallel system of pipes shown in figure below, each pipe is 8 cm
diameter cast iron ( f , 0.0022 ) and the pressure drop p1 - p2 = 750 kPa . If the
minor losses are neglected, what will be the resulting flow rate for water at 20c C
?

(A) 101 m3 /hr (B) 23 m3 /hr


(C) 62 m3 /hr (D) 39 m3 /hr

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FM 6 Internal Flow FM 223

FM 6.53 Water at 80cC ( n = 3.65 # 10-7 m2 /s ) flows with an average velocity of 2 m/s
through a 120 mm diameter pipe. If the pipe wall roughness is small enough so
that it does not protrude through the laminar sublayer and the pipe is to be
considered as smooth ( f = 0.0125 ), what will be the largest roughness allowed to
classify this pipe as smooth ?
(A) 23.1 mm
(B) 0.0231 mm
(C) 0.00231 mm
(D) 0.231 mm

FM 6.54 The three water-filled tanks are connected by pipes as shown in figure. If minor
losses are neglected, the flow rate in m3 /s in each pipe is

. i n
. c o
(A)
(B)
d i a
vo1 = 0.0144 , vo2 = 0.0284 , vo3 = 0.0141
vo1 = 0.0141, vo2 = 0.0144 , vo3 = 0.0284
(C)

n o
vo1 = 0.0284 , vo2 = 0.0141, vo3 = 0.0144

w.
(D) vo1 = 0.0284 , vo2 = 0.0144 , vo3 = 0.0141

FM 6.55

w
A highly viscous liquid flows under the action of gravity from a large container
through a small diameter pipe in laminar flow as shown in figure below.

w
Disregarding entrance effects and velocity heads, the variation of fluid depth in
the tank with time, is

(A) 32k ln b H l (B) 64k ln b H l


h h
(C) 128k ln b H l (D) k ln b H l
h h
2
where k = n LD4
gd
FM 6.56 A triangular passages (f = 52.9/ Re) of heat exchanger with L = 60 cm and an
isosceles triangle cross section of side length a = 2 cm and included angle b = 80c
is shown in figure below. If the oil ^r = 870 kg/m3, m = 0.104 kg/msh at 20c C
flows at 2 m/s, the pressure drop will be

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FM 224 Internal Flow FM 6

(A) 11.5 kPa (B) 23 kPa


(C) 2.3 kPa (D) 1.15 kPa

FM 6.57 An oil (S.G. = 0.87 and n = 2.2 # 10-4 m2/s ) flows at a rate of 4 # 10-4 m3/s
through a vertical pipe as shown in figure. The manometer reading h will be

. i n
. c o
d i a
n o
w
(A) - 18.5 m w. (B) 13.87 m

FM 6.58
w
(C) - 13.87 m (D) 18.5 m

The water velocity at several locations along a cross section of 5 cm radius pipe
is given in table below.

r, cm V, m/s
0 6.4
1 6.1
2 5.2
3 4.4
4 2.0
5 0.0

What will be the flow rate of water ?


(A) 0.297 m3/s (B) 0.0297 m3/s
(C) 2.97 m3/s (D) 29.7 m3/s

FM 6.59 Oil ( g = 8900 N/m3 , m = 0.10 N - s/m2 ) flows through a 23 mm diameter horizontal
tube as shown in figure. A differential U-tube manometer is used to measure the

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FM 6 Internal Flow FM 225

pressure drop along the tube. What will be the range of h for laminar flow ?

(A) h # 0.51 m (B) - 0.51 m # h # 0.51 m


(C) 0 # h # 0.51 m (D) h $ 0.51 m

FM 6.60 The water at 20cC flows from the tank as shown figure below, through the 3 cm
long horizontal plastic pipe attached to the bottom of the tank. What time it
will take to empty the tank completely, assuming the entrance to the pipe is well-
rounded with negligible loss ? (Take the friction factor of the pipe to be 0.022.)

. i n
. c o
(A) 8.66 hours
(C) 86.6 hours
d i a (B) 82 hours
(D) 8.2 hours

n o
w.
***********

w w

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FM 226 Internal Flow FM 6

SOLUTIONS

FM 6.1 Option (C) is correct.


In a fully developed laminar pipe flow, head loss is given by
2 2 2
hL = f L V = 64 L V = 64 L V
D 2g Re D 2g VD/n D 2g
= 64n L V = 64n2 L v 2 V= v 2
o o
D D 2g D 2 g > pD H pD
4 4
= 128 n Lvo
g pD 4
where n = Kinematic viscosity
L = Pipe Length
D = Diameter of pipe
vo = Volume flow rate
If diameter of pipe is reduced by half, then D2 = D
. i
2 n
So that
. c o
hL = 128nLv4 = 16 # 128nLv
o o
= 16hL
D
a
4
2

gp b l g p D

d i2
Hence Reducing the pipe diameter by half increase the head loss by a factor of
16.
n o
FM 6.2

w w.
Option (B) is correct.
For laminar flow at transition point
rVd

or
w Re =
m
= 2300
890 # Vd = 2300
m
& Vd = 2300 # 0.07 = 0.181 m2 /s ...(i)
890
Power 1 hp = 745.7 W = vo # Dp laminar
32mLV
= AV # Dp = a p # d 2 # V k # c
d2 m
745.7
4
= 8p # mLV 2 = 8p # 0.07 # 15 # b 0.181 l
2
745.7
d
or 745.7 = 0.865 & d 2 = 0.865
d2 745.7
d = 0.034 m

From eq. (i) V = 0.181 = 0.181 = 5.32 m/s


d 0.034
Hence vo = p # d 2 # V = p # ]0.034g2 # ]5.32g
4 4
= 0.00484 m3 /s = 4840 cm3 /s
FM 6.3 Option (C) is correct.
Reynolds number for this flow

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FM 6 Internal Flow FM 227

rVD
Re = = 1252 # 3.5 # 0.05 = 811.5
m 0.27
Re = 811.5 < 2300
Hence the flow is laminar and friction factor for this Re is
f = 64 = 64 = 0.07887
Re 811.5
Then the pressure drop per unit length (L = 1 m)
rV 2 1252 # (3.5) 2
Dp L = f L # = 0.0788 # 1 # 1
# 1000
D 2 0.05 2
= 12.1 kPa

FM 6.4 Option (A) is correct.


2
Head loss hL = f L # V
D 2g
o 2
= f L # 1 # ; 4v 2 E = f L # 16vo 2 V= v
o
D 2g pD D 2
2g # p # D 4 p D2
2 4
= f # 162Lv 5
o
2p gD
0.01573 # 16 # 45 # (8 # 10-3) 2
hL = = 36.59 m , 36.6 m

FM 6.5 Option (C) is correct.


2 # p2 # 9.81 # (0.04) 5

. i n
Pressure drop is given by

. c o
Dp = f # L #
D

d i a
rV 2
2 D
r
= f # L # # ; 4v 2 E
2 pD
o 2

o
2
r vo = f 16Lrvo
2
= f # L # # 16

n D 2 #
p2 D 4 2p2 D 5

w w. 16 45 999.1 # (8 # 10-3) 2
Dp = 0.01573 # # #
2 # p2 # (0.04) 5 # 1000

w = 358.3 kPa - 359 kPa


Hence the power requirements to overcome this pressure drop is
Ppump = voDp = 8 # 10-3 # 359
= 2.87 kW , 3 kW
FM 6.6 Option (A) is correct.
The Wall shear stress in the fully-developed region is defined as
Dp p - p 6 26000 4tw
= 4 = =
DL fully developed 2 2 d
or tw = 26000 # d = 26000 # 0.05 = 162.5 Pa , 163 Pa
4#2 8
FM 6.7 Option (D) is correct.
The overall head loss for Dz = 0
Dp 304000 - 200000
hf = = = 11.2 m
rg 950 # 9.81
The overall friction factor is defined as
2g
foverall = h f, overall # d # 2 = 11.2 # b 0.05 lb 2 # 92.81 l
L V 6 10
= 0.0183

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FM 228 Internal Flow FM 6

FM 6.8 Option (D) is correct


The velocity of exit from the needle is
V1 = v = 0.15
o
= 306 cm/s
p
4 #] g
A 0. 025 2

The energy equation gives


p2 V 22 p 2
+ + z 2 = 1 + V 1 + z1 + h f 1 + h f 2 ...(i)
rg 2g rg 2g
32mLV
With z1 = z2 , V2 - 0 , h f 2 , 0 and h f 1 = (laminar flow), equation (i)
rgD2
becomes
p 2 - p1 2
32 # m # L # V V 12
= h f 1 + V1 = +
rg 2g rgD2 2g

or
Dp
= 32 # 0.002 # 0.015 # 3.06 +
]3.06g2
rg 900 # 9.81 # ]0.00025g2 2 # 9.81
= 5.32 + 0.48 = 5.8 m
Then F = Dp # A piston = r # g # 5.8 # p ]0.01g2
4
= 9.81 # 900 # 5.8 # p ]0.01g2 , 4.0 N
4
FM 6.9 Option (A) is correct.
. i n
The average velocity for this flow

. c o
a
V = v = v # 24 = 0.27 # 4 2 = 8.594 m/s
o o
Ac
The pressure drop in the duct
pD

d ip # (0.2)

n o
Dp = Dp L = f L #
rV 2

w.
D 2
Substitute f = 0.0211, r = 1.149 kg/m3, L = 12 m, V = 8.594 m/s and D = 0.2 m

So
w w DpL = 0.0211 # 12 #
0.20
1.149 # (8.594) 2
2
= 53.72 Pa

Then the required pumping power becomes


Ppump = voDp = 0.27 # 53.72 = 14.5 W
FM 6.10 Option (C) is correct.
The velocity profile in fully developed laminar flow in a circular pipe is given by
2
u (r) = u max ;1 - r 2 E
R
(R/2) 2 1
At r = R/2 u (R/2) = u max ;1 - E = u max :1 - 4 D
R2
= 3 u max = 0.75u max
4
FM 6.11 Option (A) is correct.
The general velocity profile in fully developed laminar flow is
2
u (r) = u max ;1 - r 2 E
R
2
We have u (r) = u ;1 - r 2 E
R
By comparing these two, we get

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FM 6 Internal Flow FM 229

u max = 4 m/s
Now the volume flow rate
vo = Vavg Ac = Vavg # pR2
Since Vavg = u max = 4 = 2.00 m/s
2 2
Hence vo = 2 # p # (0.04) 2 = 0.010048 m3 /s b 0.01005 m3 /s
FM 6.12 Option (C) is correct.
The half-distance between plates is called “h”, then Hydraulic diameter
Dh = 4A = 4h = 4 # 1.5 = 6 cm
perimeter
rVDh
Re D = = 870 # 2.0 # 0.06 = 1004 (Laminar flow)
h
m 0.104
For laminar flow between two parallel horizontal plates, the head loss and Pressure
drop per meter flow is given by
3mVL 3 # ]0.104g # 2.0 # 1
Dp = =
h2 ]0.015g2
= 2773.33 Pa/m - 2770 Pa/m
Dp 2770
Hence hf = = = 0.325 m/m
rg 9.81 # 870
FM 6.13 Option (C) is correct.
. i n
The friction factor of given channel
f = 58 where Re =
rVDH
. c o DH = Hydraulic diameter

Then Head loss


Re
2

d i a m

hL = f L # V = 58 # L # V
2

n o
1
DH 2g Re DH 2g

w.
58 # m L V = 29 mLV
2
= # #
rVDH DH 2g rgDH2

w
If the average velocity is doubled, then

w V2 = 2V
29mL # 2V
= 2=
29mLV
rgD H2 G
Hence hL = 2 = 2hL
2
rgD H 1

Therefore percentage change in Head loss is


2h - hL
Dh (%) = L 1
# 100 = 100% Increase
1

hL 1

FM 6.14 Option (A) is correct.


For water at 20c C , take r = 998 kg/m3 and m = 0.001 kg/m -s
4 # ^60/3600h
V = v = vo = 4v 2 =
o o
= 8.49 m/s
A p
# d2 p # d p # ]0.05g2
4
The energy equation between points (1) (the tank) and (2) (the open jet) :
p1 2
V2
+ 0 + 10 = 0 + pipe + 80 + h f
rg 2g 2g 2g
p1 V2
or = pipe + 80 + h f - 10 ...(i)
rg 2g
2
L V pipe ^60 + 80 + 30h 8.492
where h f = f D # 2g = 0.0136 # 0.05 # 2 # 9.81

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FM 230 Internal Flow FM 6

, 170 m
then from equation (i),
p1 ]8.49g2
= + 80 + 170 - 10
rg 2 # 9.81
]8.49g2
or p 1 = rg ; + 80 + 170 - 10E
2 # 9.81
]8.49g2
= 998 # 9.81 # ; + 80 + 170 - 10E
2 # 9.81
= 2385659 , 2.38 MPa
FM 6.15 Option (C) is correct.
Assume all the flow goes through the seven 2 cm tubes. Thus each tube takes
one - seventh of the flow rate :
150/3600
V = v =
o
, 18.95 m/s
A7,tubes 7 # p # ]0.01g2
rVd 1.2 # 18.95 # 0.02
Re = = = 25300 (Turbulent flow)
m 1.8 # 10-5
r
Hence Dp = f L # V 2 = 0.0250 # 1 # 1.2 # ]18.95g2
d 2 0.02 2
= 269.32 , 270 Pa

. i n
FM 6.16 Option (D) is correct.
The pressure at the bottom of the tank is
. c o
i a
p1,gage = rgh = 850 # 9.81 # 3 = 25.02 kN/m2

d
1000

o
The pressure loss across the pipe, disregarding minor losses is

n
w.
Dp = p1 - p2 = p1 - patm = p1,gage = 25.02 kN/m2
Pressure loss for fully developed laminar flow

w w Dp =

=
32mLV
D 2 =
128mLvo
pD 4

128 # r # n # L # vo
vo = V # p D 2
4

pD 4
Dp pD 4
Then vo =
128 # r # n # L
^25.02 # 103h # p # (0.005) 4
= = 1.88 # 10-8 m3/s
128 # 850 # ^6 # 10 h # 40
-4

FM 6.17 Correct option is (C)

p D 4 Dp
For laminar flow vo =
128ml
where vo1 = vo3 and Dp1 2 = 1.44Dp2
- - 3

p D 4 Dp 1 2 pD 34 Dp2 3
Thus vo1 = = vo3 = D1 = D
- -

128ml 128ml
Dp 1/4
or D 3 = D c 1 2 m = D (1.44) 1/4 = 1.095D
-

Dp 2 3-

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FM 6 Internal Flow FM 231

FM 6.18 Option (A) is correct.


Assume no pressure drop and neglect velocity heads. The energy equation reduces
to
p1 V 12 p 2
+ + z1 = 2 + V 2 + z 2 + h f
rg 2g rg 2g
or 0 + 0 + ^L + l h = 0 + 0 + 0 + h f
hf = L + l
128mLvo v
For laminar flow h f = 4 and for uniform draining v =
o
prgD D t
128m # Lv
or Dt = vo = v
4 =
v h f # prgD prgD 4 h f
128mL
128mLv
Dt = h f = (L + l)
prgD 4 (L + l)
or 6= 128 # 0.001 # 0.12 # 8 # 10-6 = 2.85 # 10-11
p # 998 # 9.81 # D 4 # (0.12 + 0.02) D4
D 4 = 4.75 # 10-12
or D - 0.00148 , 0.0015 m = 1.5 mm
Option (D) is correct.
n
FM 6.19

Reynolds number for this flow


rVD
o. i
= 894 # 0.5 # 0.4 = 76.7
Re =
m

i a
2.33
. c
Since Re = 76.7 < 2300 . Hence the flow is laminar.

d
The pressure loss for laminar flow is given by

o
w. n Dp = f L
rV 2
D 2
f = 64 = 64 = 0.834
Since

Then
w w Re 76.7

Dp = 0.834 # 300 #
0.4
894 # (0.5) 2
2
1
# 1000 = 69.9 kPa

Therefore pumping power required to overcome this pressure drop


2
Ppump = voDp = V # pD # Dp
4
0.5 # p # (0.4) 2
= # 69.9 = 4.39 , 4.5 kW
4
FM 6.20 Option (D) is correct.
The pipe velocity
V = m = 3
o
= 4.76 m/s
rA 891 # p # ]0.015g2
rVD
Check Re d = = 891 # 4.76 # 0.03 = 439 (Laminar flow)
m 0.29
Apply the steady flow energy equation between A and B
pA V A2 p2 2
+ + zA = B + V B + zB + h f - h p
r g 2g rg 2g
or 500000 = 180000 + 15 + h - h VA = VB = V and zA = 0
f p
891 # 9.81 891 # 9.81

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FM 232 Internal Flow FM 6

h f - hp = 500000 - 180000 - 15
891 # 9.81 891 # 9.81
or h f - h p = 21.61 m

32mLV 32 # 0.29 # ]15g2 + ]20g2 # 4.76


Where hf = = = 140.4 m
rgd 2 9.81 # 891 # ]0.03g2
Now h p = h f - 21.6
= 140.4 - 21.16 = 119.2 m
The pump power is then given by
P = rgvh o p = mgh
o p = 3 # 9.81 # 119.2
= 3508 - 3500 Watts or 3.5 kW
FM 6.21 Option (D) is correct.
The flow rate gives the velocity and Reynolds number
V = v = 3 = 2.65 m
o
p
4 #] g
A 1.2 2 s

rVd
Re d = = 910 # 2.65 # 1.2 = 289380 (turbulent flow)
m 0.01
r
Dp = f L V 2
Since
d2

. i
7600000 = 0.0157 # L # b 910 l # ]2.65g2 n
or
1.2 2

. c o
Hence P =
h
= i
0.88
a
L = 181800 m - 182 km
voDp 3 # 7600000
d = 2.6 # 107 Watts = 26 MW

n o
w.
FM 6.22 Correct option is (A).

w w
Applying the Bernoulli’s equation at section (1) and (2)
p1 V 12 p 2 2
+ + z1 + h p = 2 + V 2 + z 2 + f l # V
g 2g g 2g D 2g
Where p1 = p2 = 0 , z1 = h , z2 = 0 and V1 = 0
vo
V2 = c A m = 0.04 = 31.8 m/s
2 p (0.04) 2
4
V = =vo 0.04 = 14.15 m/s
A p (0.06) 2
4 #
(31.8) 2 30 (14.15) 2
+ 0.016 # b
0.06 l # 2 # 9.81
h + hp = = 133.2 m
2 # 9.81

Also h p = Po = 25 # 103 = 63.7 m


gv (9.80 # 103) # 0.04
Hence h = 133.2 - 63.7 = 69.5 m

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FM 6 Internal Flow FM 233

2 2
Without the pump h p = 0 and z1 = V 2 + f l # V ...(i)
2g D 2g
Where h = 69.5 m = z1
V2 = AV = b D l V or V2 = b 60 l V = 2.25V
2 2
and
A2 D2 40
Thus from equation (i)
(2.25V ) 2 + 0.016 # b 30 l V 2
0.06
69.5 = or V = 10.22 m/s
2 # 9.81
So that vo = AV = p (0.06) 2 # 10.22 = 0.0289 m3/s
4
FM 6.23 Option (B) is correct.
The manometer reads
p 0 - p = ^rwater - rair h gh = ]998 - 1.2g 9.81 # ]0.040g = 391 Pa
Therefore, velocity at centre line
2D p
VCL = = 2 # 391 = 25.5 m/s
r 1.2
Now average velocity
Vavg = 0.85VCL = 0.85 # 25.5 = 21.675 m/s
Thus the flow rate

. i n
vo = V # A = 21.675 # p # ]0.08g2 = 0.109 m3 /s
and wall shear stress
4

. c o
f
tw = # rVavg2
8

d i a
n o = 0.0175 # 1.2 # ]21.675g2 = 1.233 Pa
8
FM 6.24

w w.
Option (D) is correct.

For laminar flow in a pipe


Vaverage = 1 Vmax = 1 # 1 = 0.5 m/s
2 2

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FM 234 Internal Flow FM 6

rVD 1260 # 0.5 # 0.075


Thus Re = = = 31.5 < 2100
m 1.50
The flow is laminar.
(Dp - gl sin q) D 2
So that V = Where q = 90c
32ml
32mlV
Dp = + gl sin 90c = 1
D2
= 32 # 1.50 # 10 # 0.5 + 9.81 # 1260 # 10 g = rg
(0.075) 2
- 1.66 # 105 Pa = 166 kPa
Also, applying Bernoulli’s equation at section (1) and (2),
p1 V 12 p 2
+ + z1 = 2 + V 2 + z 2 + h L
g 2g g 2g
With p1 = p2 + Dp , V1 = V2 , z2 - z1 = l
Dp 5
hL = - l = 1.66 # 10 - 10 = 3.43 m
g 9.81 # 1260
FM 6.25 Option (A) is correct.
Flow rate can be determined from
Dp pD 4
vo =
128mL

. i n
Since Dp = p1 - p2 = 145 - 98 = 47 kPa
47000 # p # (0.015) 4
. c o
FM 6.26
Hence
Option (B) is correct.
vo =

d i a
128 # 0.24 # 15
= 1.62 # 10-5 m3/s

o
For uphill flow with an inclination of 8c,

n
w.
(Dp - rgL sin q) pD 4
vouphill =
128mL

w w =
[47000 - (876 # 9.81 # 15 # sin 8c)] # p (0.015) 4

= 1.00 # 10-5 m3/s


128 # 0.24 # 15

FM 6.27 Option (D) is correct.

Dp 1 = Dp 2
So hL = hL1 2
D p = gh L
2 2
f1 l1 # V 1 = f2 l2 # V 2
Dh1
2g Dh 2g 2

2
where l1 = l2 , Dh = D and Dh = 4A2 = 4a = a
1 2
perimeter 2 4a
f1 V 12 f V2
Thus = 2 2 ...(i)
D a
Since the perimeters are equal
pD = 4a Therefore a = p D ...(ii)
4
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FM 6 Internal Flow FM 235

V1 Dh V1 D
and Re h = = 1
1
n n
VD
Re h = 2 h = V2 a = pV2 D
2
from equation (ii)
2
n n 4n
Thus, from equation (i)
64 V 2 56.9 V 2
1 2
bV1 D l b pV2 D l
n = 4n or V1 = 1.441V2
D pD
4
Also vo1 = A1 V1 = p D2 # V1
4
2
and vo2 = A2 V2 = a2 V2 = p D2 V2
16
vo1 = D2 V1
p
So that 4
= 4 V1 = 4 # 1.441 = 1.83
vo2 D V2 p V2 p
p2
16
2

voround = 1.83vosquare

FM 6.28 Option (C) is correct.

. i n
. c o
d i a
n o
w w.
From continuity equation

Since w vo1 = vo2 + vo3


D1 = D2 = D 3 , it follows that
V1 = V2 + V3 ...(i)
Also for fluid flowing from A to B ,
pA V A2 p 2 2 2
+ + zA = B + V B + zB + f1 l1 # V 1 + f2 l2 # V 2
g 2g g 2g D1 2g D2 2g
Where pA = pB = 0 , VA = VB = 0 , zA = 15 m and zB = 0
2 2
Thus zA = f1 l1 V 1 + f2 l2 V 2 ...(ii)
D 1 2g D 2 2g
or 15 = 0.02 [80V 12 + 40V 22]
0.1 # 2 # 9.81
or 18.4 = V 12 + 0.5V 22 , ...(iii)
Similarly, for fluid flowing from A to C ,
2 2
pA V A2 p 2
+ + zA = C + VC + zC + f1 l1 V 1 + f3 l 3 V 3
g 2g g 2g D1 2g D 3 2g
where pA = pC = 0 , VA = VC = 0 , zA = 15 m and zC = 0
2 2
Thus zA = f1 l1 V 1 + f3 l 3 V 3 ...(iv)
D 1 2g D 3 2g

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FM 236 Internal Flow FM 6

Comparing equation (ii) and (iv), we get


2 2
f2 l2 V 2 = f3 l 3 V 3
D2 2g D 3 2g
Since f2 = f3 and D2 = D 3
l2 V 22 = l 3 V 32
40V 22 = 75V 32
V2 = 1.369V3 ...(v)
Solve equation (i), (iii) and (v) for V1 , V2 and V3 . From equation (i) and (v)
V1 = 1.369V3 + V3 = 2.369V3
from eq (iii) 18.4 = (2.369V3) 2 + 0.5 (1.369V3) 2
V3 = 1.676 m/s
from eq (v) V2 = 1.369 # 1.676 = 2.29 m/s
Hence vo2 = A2 V2 = p # (0.1) 2 # 2.29 - 0.0180 m3/s
4
FM 6.29 Option (C) is correct.
If there are N passages, then b = 50 cm for all N and the passage thickness is
H = 0.5/N . The hydraulic diameter is Dh = 2H . The velocity in each passage is
related to the Pressure drop.
r
. i n
Dp = f # L # # V 2 where f = fsmooth = 0.028
Dh 2

. c o
or
2 # 0. 5

d
N
i a
2000 = 0.028 # 2.0 # 998 # V 2
2

Where

n o
V = v =
o 0.25
Ac ^0.5 # 0.5h
= 1 m/s

Thus

w w.
2000 = 0.028 # 2.0 N # 998 # ]1g2
2 # 0.5 2
N = 2000 # 2 # 0.5 # 2 = 71.57 , 72 passages

FM 6.30
w
Option (B) is correct.
0.028 # 2.0 # 998

The flow velocity for the frictionless case.


V2,max = 2gz1 = 2 # 9.81 # 0.40 = 2.801 m/s
Then maximum volume flow rate

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FM 6 Internal Flow FM 237

2
2
p (0.01)
vo = V2, max # A2 = V2, max # pD 2 = 2.801 # #
4 4
= 2.20 # 10-4 m3/s
Now the actual flow rate can be determined by
(Dp - rgL sin q) pD 4
voactual =
128mL
Since the flow is vertically downwards, so q =- 90c and
Dp = pinlet - poutlet = (patm + rghcylinder ) - patm = rghcylinder
(because at inlet total pressure becomes patm and pressure due to oil in cylinder
rghcylinder and at exit atmospheric pressure patm is there)
(rghcylinder - rgL sin q) pD 4
Therefore voactual =
128mL
rg (hcylinder + L) pD 4
= sin (- 90c) =- 1
128mL
888.1 # 9.81 # (0.20 + 0.20) # p # (0.01) 4
=
128 # 0.8374 # 0.20
= 5.1 # 10-6 m3 /s
So, the ratio of actual flow rate through the funnel to the maximum flow rate is
voactual = 5.1 # 10-6 = 0.0232
vomax 2.20 # 10-4
. i n
FM 6.31 Option (C) is correct.
. c o
i a
By moving through the manometer, we obtain the pressure change between
points (1) and (2).
d
o
p1 + rw gh - rm gh - rw gDz = p2

n
w.
or p1 - p2 = rm gh - rw gh + rw gDz
= gh ^rm - rw h + rw gDz

w w = 9.81 # 0.135 ^13568 - 998h + 998 # 9.81 # 3


= 16647 + 29371 = 46018 - 46000 Pa
Dp
Since hf = - Dz = 46000 - 3
rw g 998 # 9.81
= 4.7 - 3 = 1.7m
2g
The friction factor f = hf # d # 2
L V
= 1.7 # 0.06 # 2 # 92 .81 = 0.0250
5 4
FM 6.32 Option (A) is correct.
For each slot, flow rate becomes
vo = 1 # 30 # 10-9 = 5 # 10-9 m3 /s
6

So that V = v =
o 5 # 10-9 = 1.67 # 10-3 m/s
A (3 # 1) # 10-6
Also r = S.G. # r H O = 0.85 # 1000 = 850 kg/m3
2

4A 4 (3 1)
and Dh = = # # = 1.5 mm
perimeter (6 + 2)
The energy equation gives

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FM 238 Internal Flow FM 6

pA V A2 p 2 2
+ + zA = B + V B + zB + f l # V
g 2g g 2g Dh 2g
with zA = zB , pB = 0 , VA = VB = 0
pA = f b l lb 1 l rV 2
Dh 2
= 3250 # 0.6 # 1 # 850 # (1.67 # 10-3) 2
0.0015 2
- 1540 N/m2 = 1.54 kPa
FM 6.33 Option (D) is correct.
For water at 10c C : r = 1000 kg/m3 m = 1.307 # 10-3 kg/ms
rVD rD vo = 4vorD V = v = 4v 2
o o
Re = =
m m # A m # pD 2 A pD
4rvo - 6
Re = = 4 # 1000 # 3 # 10 = 1462 (Laminar flow)
mpD 1.307 # 10-3 # p # 0.002
128mLvo 128 # 1.307 # 10-3 # 0.2 # 3 # 10-6
Thus hf = =
prgD 4 p # 1000 # 9.81 # ]0.002g 4
, 0.204 m
The axial pressure gradient if the flow is vertically up
Dp
L
=
rg ^h f + Dz h
L
=
0.2
. i n
1000 # 9.81 # ^0.204 + 0.2h
Dz = L

= 19816 Pa/m , 20 kPa/m


. c o
FM 6.34 Option (A) is correct.

d i a
n o
w w.
w
The energy equation for a control volume between two points
p1 2
p 2
+ a1 V 1 + z1 + h pump = 2 + a2 V 2 + z2 + hturbine + hL
rg 2g rg 2g
Since p1 = p2 = patm, z2 = 0, V1 = 0 and h pump = hturbine = 0
2 2 2 2
z1 = a2 V 2 + hL = a2 V 2 + KL V2 hL = KL # V
2g 2g 2g 2g
2gz1
V2 =
a2 + KL
Since a2 = 1, then volume flow rate becomes
2
2gz1
vo = V2 Ac = pD hole #
4 1 + KL
Substituting the numerical values, we get
p (0.015) 2 2 # 9.81 # 3 = 1.11 10-3 m3/s
vo = # # #
4 1 + 0.5

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FM 6 Internal Flow FM 239

FM 6.35 Option (A) is correct.

Applying the bernoulli’s equation at section (1) and (2),


p1 V 12 p 2 2
+ + z1 = 2 + V 2 + z 2 + K L V 2 ...(i)
g 2g g 2g 2g
V1 = v = 0.04
o
Where = 3.54 m/s
A1 p (0.12) 2
4 #
V2 = v
o
= 0.04 = 14.1 m/s and z1 = z2
A2 p (0.06) 2
4 #
Hence equation (i) becomes,
p1 - p2 = 1 r [KL V 22 + V 22 - V 12 ]
2

2
. i n
= 1 # 999 # [0.40 (14.1)2 + (14.1)2 - (3.54)2 ]

or

. c o
p1 - p2 = 499.5 # 265.80 - 133 kPa

FM 6.36 Option (B) is correct.

d i a
For water, take r = 998 kg/m3 and m = 0.001 kg/m -s . With the flow rate known,
we can compute

n o
w.
V = v = 0.005 = 2.55 m/s
o
A p
d n]0.05g2
4

w
The energy equation is written from point 1 to the reservoir surface

w p1 V 12
+
rg 2g
p 2
+ z1 = 2 + V 2 + z2 + h f + 6Kvalve + Kelbow, 45c + Kelbow, 90c + Kexit@V
rg rg 2g
2

p1 V 12 2
+ + z1 = 0 + 0 + z2 + h f + 6Kvalve + Kelbow, 45c + Kelbow, 90c + Kexit@V
rg 2g 2g
p1 2 2
or = z 2 - z1 - V 1 + c f # L # V m
rg 2g D 2g
2
+6Kvalve + Kelbow, 45c + Kelbow, 90c + Kexit@V
2g
]2.55g2 + 0.0315 1200 ]2.55g2
2 # 9.81 c # 0.05 # 2 9.81 m
= 500 - 400 -
#

+68.5 + 2 # ]0.2g + 4 # ]0.3g + 1@ #


]2.55g2
2 # 9.81
p1
= 500 - 400 - 0.331 + 250.56 + 3.68 = 353.9 , 354
rg
p1 = rg # 354 = 998 # 9.81 # 354
= 3465794 Pa , 3.46 MPa
FM 6.37 Option (C) is correct.

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FM 240 Internal Flow FM 6

The energy equation for a control volume between two points


p1 2
p 2
+ a1 V 1 + z1 = 2 + a2 V 2 + z2 + hL
rg 2g rg 2g
Here V1 = 0, z2 = 0 and p1 = p2 = patm
2 2 2 2
So z1 = a2 V 2 + hL = a2 V 2 + KL V 2 hL = KL V
2g 2g 2g 2g
2gz1
V2 =
a2 + KL
Then the flow rate becomes.
vo = A pipe # V2 = pD
4
2

. i n 2gz1
a2 + KL
(a) For Flanged smooth bend (KL = 0.3)

. c o
vo = #
4

d i a
p (0.03) 2
#
2 # 9.81 # 5
1.05 + 0.3

n o = 0.00603 m3/s = 6.03 L/s

w.
(b) For Miter bend without vanes (KL = 1.1)
p (0.03) 2 2 # 9.81 # 5
vo = # #

w w 4 1.05 + 1.1
= 0.00478 m3/s = 4.78 L/s

FM 6.38 Option (D) is correct.

From continuity equation for incompressible flow.


A1 V1 = A2 V2
pD 2 /4 2
V2 = A1 # V1 = = 12 G # V1 = ;D 12 E # V1
A2 pD 2 /4 D2
(0.06) 2
= # 10 = 2.5 m/s
(0.12) 2
The loss coefficient for sudden expansion
A 2
D 2 2
(0.06) 2 2
KL = ;1 - = ;1 - 2 E = =1 -
Al arg e E G = 0.5625
small 1
D2 (0.12) 2

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FM 6 Internal Flow FM 241

2
(10) 2
and Head loss hL = KL # V 1 = 0.5625 # = 2.87 m
2g 2 # 9.81
The energy equation for the expansion section
p1 2
p 2
+ a1 V 1 + z1 = 2 + a2 V 2 + z2 + hL
rg 2g rg 2g
Since z1 = z2 , then
p1 2 2
+ a1 V 1 = P2 + a2 V 2 + hL
rg 2g rg 2g
2 2
p2 = p1 + r : a1 V 1 - a2 V 2 - ghLD
2
1.06 # (10) 2 - 1.06 # (2.5) 2
= 300 + 1000 # ;
2
- 9.81 # 2.87@ # 1
1000
= 321.53 kPa , 322 kPa
FM 6.39 Option (B) is correct.

. i n
. c o
d i a
n o
w.
The average discharge velocity through the orifice at any given time at any
2gz
time, in general V2 =

w w 1 + KL
We denote the diameter of the orifice by Do and the diameter of tank by D .
The amount of water flows through the orifice during a time interval dt is
o = pD o
2
2gz
dvo = vdt dt ...(i)
4 1 + KL
and the decrease in the volume of water in the tank
2
dv = Area (- dz) = - pD dz ...(ii)
4
From mass conservation, equation (i) must be equal to equation (ii)
pD o2 2gz 2
dt =- pD dz (- ve sign shows decrease in volume)
4 1 + KL 4
2
dt =- D 2 1 + KL (z) -1/2 dz
Do 2g
Then the draining time is
2
dt =- D 2 1 + KL
t 0
# #
f

(z) -1/2 dz
t=0 Do 2g z=2
2 2
t f =- D 2 1 + KL 62 # z1/2@2 =- D 2 # 1 + KL # (- 2 2 )
0

Do 2g Do 2g
2 2
= D 2 # 1 + KL # 2 2 = 2D2 # 1 + KL
Do 2g Do g

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FM 242 Internal Flow FM 6

(4.5) 2 1 + 0.5 = 1584 sec = 26.4 min


= 2# #
(0.1) 2 9.81
FM 6.40 Option (A) is correct
Since flow rate
2Dp
vo = Cd At # where b = d = 5 = 0.5
r _1 - b4 i D 10
= 0.605 # p # ]0.05g2 # 2 # 75000
4 998 61 - ]0.5g 4@
= 0.0150 m3 /s - 54 m3 /h
FM 6.41 Option (C) is correct.
Vt = v = 0.0150 = 7.64 m/s
o
The velocity
p
4 #]
At 0.05g2
Since head loss due to pressure difference is known as non recoverable head loss.
So
r
Dploss = K # # V t2 = 1.8 # 998 # ]7.64g2
2 2
= 52427 - 52400 Pa = 52.4 kPa
FM 6.42 Option (D) is correct.

. i n
For a pressure drop of Dp across the orifice plate, the flow rate is expressed as
vo = Ao Cd
2Dp
r (1 - b 4)
. c o ...(i)

Since b = d = 0.6 = d
D
d i
50 a
o
d = 30 cm

n
w.
2 p (0.3) 2
Then Ao = p # d = # = 0.07069 m2
4 4

w
Therefore from equation (i)

w 0.25 = (0.07069) # (0.61) #


2Dp
(998) # 61 - ]0.6g4@
Dp = 14600 kg - m/s2 = 14.6 kPa
FM 6.43 Option (D) is correct.
The head loss between two measurement section is estimated by energy equation.
p - p2 V 22 - V 12 Dp V 22 - V 12
hL = 1 - = - z1 = z 2 ...(i)
rw g 2g rw g 2g
Since for constant volume flow rate,
2 2
V1 # pD = V2 pd
4 4
V2 = b D l # V1
2

d
V1 = v = 0.25 # 4 2 = 1.27 m/s
o
Ac p # (0.5)
Substituting in equation (i)
2
D 2 D 4
;b d l # V1E - V 1 ;b d l - 1E V 1
2 2
Dp Dp
hL = - = -
rw g 2g rw g 2g

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FM 6 Internal Flow FM 243

50 4
;b 30 l - 1E # 1.27
2

hL = 14600 -
998 # 9.81 2 # 9.81
= 1.49 - 0.5521 = 0.9379 , 0.940 m

FM 6.44 Option (C) is correct.


Since b = 0.6 = d = d or d = 0.6 # 5 = 3 cm
D 5
2D p
Now vo = 0.334 = Cd # A #
60 r _1 - b 4 i
2 ^rHg - rwater h gh
= Cd # p d 2 #
4 rwater _1 - b 4 i
where Dp = ^rHg - rw h # gh
0.334 = 0.613 p 0.03 2 2 ^13550 - 998h # 9.81 # h
or # 4] g #
60 998 61 - ]0.6g 4@
0.334 = 0.00044 16.84 h
60 #

0.00557 = 0.0074 h
2
or h = b 0.00557 l = 0.57 m = 57 cm

FM 6.45 Option (B) is correct.


0.0074

. i n
The pressure drop across the venturi-meter is

. c o
d a
Dp = p1 - p2 = rw gh - rair gh

i r
= (rw - rair ) gh = rair b w - 1l gh
rair

. n o 2 (p1 - p2)
2gh b
rw
rair
- 1l # rair

w w
Then flow rate vo = Ao Cd
rair (1 - b 4)
r
2gh b w - 1l
= Ao Cd
rair (1 - b 4)

where
w = Ao Cd

Ao = p d 2
=
rair
(1 - b 4)
p # (0.06) 2
= 0.002827 m2
4 4
and b = d = 6 = 0.40
D 15
2 # 9.81 # 0.4 b 1000 - 1l
1.204
Thus vo = 0.002827 # 0.98 #
61 - ]0.40g4@
= 0.2265 m3/s
Then the maximum mass flow rate that venturi-meter can measure is
mo = rvo = 1.204 # 0.2265 = 0.273 kg/s
FM 6.46 Option (A) is correct.
The upstream density is
p1
r1 = = 150000 = 1.48 kg/m3
RT1 287 # 353
and b =d =4=2
D 6 3
The pressure difference measured by the mercury manometer

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FM 244 Internal Flow FM 6

p1 - p2 = ^rHg - rair h gh = ]13550 - 1.48g 9.81 # 0.37


Dp = 49200 Pa
Now the compressive venturi formula thus predicts :
2r1 ^p1 - p2h
o = Cd YAt #
m
1 - b4
2 # 1.48 ]49200g
= 0.985 # 0.76 # 9 p # 0.042C #
4 4
1 -b2l
3
= 0.40 kg/s

FM 6.47 Option (C) is correct.


The flow velocity
7
V = =v
o 3600 = 0.00195 # 24 = 0.99 m/s
A p D2 p # ]0.05g
4
Vt = v = 0.00195 # 24 , 2.75 m/s
o
Also
At p # ]0.03g
For b = d = 3 = 0.6 and K = 1.5 , the head loss across the office is
D 5
2
Dh = h2 - h1 = K # V t = 1.5 # ;
2g
i n
]2.75g2
2 # 9.81E
. = 0.58 m

Hence
c o
h2 = 0.58 + h1 = 0.58 + 1 = 1.58 m

.
d a
Then the piezometer change between (2) and (3) is due to friction loss

i 2
h 3 - h2 = h f = f # L # V = 0.023 # 5 #
]0.99g2 = 0.115 m

n o D 2g 0.05 2 # 9.81

w.
or h 3 = 0.115 + h2 = 1.58 + 0.115 = 1.695 , 1.7 m
FM 6.48 Option (D) is correct.

w w
From the pressure drop relation, the flow rates are
128mLa voa
Dpa = = 21 # 1000
pd a4
21 # 103 # p # ]0.08g 4
or voa = = 0.0027 m3 /s
128 # 0.104 # 76
128mLb vob
and Dpb = = 21000
pd b4
21000 # p # ]0.05g 4
or vob = = 0.0005 m3 /s
128 # 0.104 # 61
For parallel pipe system
vo = voa + vob
= 0.0027 + 0.0005 = 0.0032 m3 /s
FM 6.49 Option (D) is correct.
For parallel system of pipe, head loss for each pipe must be same.
When the minor losses are disregarded, head loss is

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FM 6 Internal Flow FM 245

2
o 2
hL = f L cV m = f # L # 1 # v 2
D 2g D 2g > pD H
4
L o2 # 16
v o2
= f# # 2 4 = 8f # 2# v5
L
D p D # 2g p gD
2
p hL # g 2.5
Thus vo = #D
8fL
When the pipe length, friction factor and head loss is constant, the flow rate
becomes proportional to the D 2.5 in parallel connection.
vo = kD 2.5 k = constant of proportionality
Let diameter of pipe B = DB and diameter of pipe A = DA .
Therefore voB = k (DB) 2.5
voA = k (DA) 2.5 = k (0.5DB) 2.5 DA = DB (given)
2
voA = 0.177 # k (DB) 2.5 = 0.177 # voB
Hence the flow rate of pipe A is decreased by a factor of 0.177.
FM 6.50 Option (A) is correct.
For parallel pipe system the head losses are the same for each pipe
8fL vo2 8fL vo2 8fL vo2
h f = 2 1 51 = 2 2 52 = 2 3 53
p gd 1
3
p gd 2
vo1 + vo2 + vo3 = 0.056 m /s
. i n
p gd 1
...(i)

. c o o2
h f = 8 # 20.0275 # 900 #5 v 1 = 8 #2 0.0275 # 800 #5v 2
o2
or

d i a
p # 9.81 # ]0.1g
= 8 #2 0.0275 # 600 #5v 3
o2
p # 9.81 # ]0.12g

n o p # 9.81 # ]0.08g

w.
h f = 204501 vo12 = 73053 vo22 = 416059 vo32
or vo22 = 204501 vo12 = 2.8vo12 or vo2 = 1.673 vo1

w w 73053
vo22 = 204501 vo12 = 0.492 vo12 or vo3 = 0.7014 vo1
416059
Now from equation (i),
vo1 + 1.673 vo1 + 0.7014 vo1 = 0.056
or 3.374vo1 = ]0.056g

vo1 = 0.056 or vo1 = 0.0166 m3 /s


3.374
and vo2 =1.673 = 1.673 vo1 # 0.0186 = 0.0277 m3 /s
vo3 = 0.7014 vo1 = 0.7014 # 0.0166 = 0.0116 m3 /s

FM 6.51 Option (C) is correct.


8 # f1 # L1 # vo12 8 # 0.0275 # 900 # ]0.0166g2
Since hf = =
p 2 # g # d 15 p2 # 9.81 # ]0.1g5
= 56.35 m
Then pressure drop
Dp = rgh f = 998 # 9.81 # 56.35

= 551687.9 , 550 kPa

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FM 246 Internal Flow FM 6

FM 6.52 Option (A) is correct.


The head loss is the same through pipes AC and BC (parallel system)
Dp
= h fA + h fC = h fB + h fC
rg
2 2 2 2
= c f L # V A m + c f L # V B m = c f L # V B m + c f L # VC m
d 2g A d 2g C d 2g B d 2g C
750000 = 0.022 250 V A2 + 0.022 150 VC2
998 b # 0.08 # 2 l b # 0.08 # 2 l
...(i)

750000 = 0.022 100 V B2 + 0.022 150 VC2


and
998 b # 0.08 # 2 l b # 0.08 # 2 l
...(ii)
From equation (i) and (ii),
751.50 = 34.375V A2 + 20.625VC2 ...(iii)
751.50 = 13.75V B2 + 20.625VC2 ...(iv)
From equation (iii) and (iv),
2
751.50 - 20.625 # ]5.35g2
V A2 = 751.50 - 20.625 # VC =
34.375 34.375
VA = 2.16 m/s
751.50 - 20.625 # ]5.35g2
and V B2 =

VB = 3.42 m/s
13.75

. i n
Now for parallel pipe A and B ,

. c o
voAB = voA + voB

i a
voAB = VA AA + VB AB = ^VA + VB h A
d DA = DB

n o = ^2.16 + 3.42h # p # ]0.08g2


4

w w.
And for Pipe in series
= 0.0280 m3 /s

w voAB = voC = 0.0280 m3 /s


Hence the total volume flow rate
vo = voAB = voC = 0.0280 m3 /s
- 101 m3 /hr

FM 6.53 Correct option is (B)


Let h = roughness . Thus h = ds
Where ds = 5V* ...(i)
u
tw 1/2 DDp 1/2 DDp
And u* = c r m = d n where tw =
r # 4l 4l
1/2
u* = c
fV 2 m
since Dp = f l # 1 rV 2
8 D 2
0.0125 # (2) 2 1/2
Hence u* = ; E = 0.0791 m/s
8
5 (3.65 # 10-7)
and from eq (i), ds = = 2.31 # 10-5 m = 0.0231 mm
0.0791
If the roughness element is smaller than 0.0231 mm it lies within the laminar
sublayer.

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FM 6 Internal Flow FM 247

FM 6.54 Correct option is (D)

Assume that fluid flows from A to B and A to C .


vo1 = vo2 + vo3
or p (0.1) 2 V1 = p # (0.08) 2 V2 + p # (0.08) 2 V3
4# 4 4
V1 = 0.64V2 + 0.64V3 = 0.64 (V2 + V3) ...(i)
For fluid flowing from A to B with pA = pB = 0 and VA = VB = 0
2 2
zA = zB + f1 l1 # V 1 + f2 l2 # V 2
D1 2g D2 2g

60 - 20 = 0.015 # 200 # V 1
2

. i n
+ 0.020 # 200 # V 2
2

or
0.1 2 # 9.81
40 = 1.529V 12 + 2.55V 22
. c o 0.08 2 # 9.81
...(ii)

i a
Similarly, for fluid flowing from A to C with pA = pC = 0 and VA = VC = 0

d
o
2 2
zA = zC + f1 l1 V 1 + f3 l 3 V 3
D1 2g D 3 2g

w. n 2
60 - 0 = 0.015 # 200 # V 1 + 0.020 # 400 # V 3
0. 1 2 (9.81) 0.08
2

2 (9.81)
or

w w 60 = 1.529V 12 + 5.10V 32 ...(iii)


Solve equation (i), (ii) and (iii) for V1, V2 and V3 . From equation (i) and (iii)
60 = 1.529 # (0.64) 2 (V2 + V3) 2 + 5.10V 32
60 0.626 (V2 + V3) 2 + 5.10V32
95.8 = (V2 + V3) 2 + 8.14V 32 ...(iv)
Subtract equation (ii) from equation (iii)
60 - 40 = 5.10V 32 - 2.55V 22 or V2 = 2V 32 - 7.84 ...(v)
Thus, from equation (iv) and (v)
0 = 8.14V 32 + ( 2V 32 - 7.84 + V3) 2 - 95.8
This can be simplified to
2V3 2V 32 - 7.84 = 103.6 - 11.14V 32 ...(vi)
Squaring both the sides and rearrange to get
V 34 - 19.63V 32 + 92.5 = 0 which can be solved by the quadratic formula
to give
19.63 ! (- 19.63) 2 - 4 # 92.5
V 32 = = 11.77 or 7.86
2
Thus V3 = 3.43 m/s or V3 = 2.80 m/s

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FM 248 Internal Flow FM 6

Note : The value V3 = 3.43 m/s is not a solution of the original equations,
equation (i), (ii) and (iii). With this value the right hand side of equation (vi) is
negative (i.e 103.6 - 11.14V 32 = 103.6 - 11.14 (3.43) 2 =- 24.5 ). As seen from the
left hand side of equation (vi), this cannot be. This extra root was introduced
by squaring equation (vi).
Thus vo3 = A 3 V3 = p # (0.08) 2 # 2.80 = 0.0141 m3/s
4
Also, from equation (iii)
60 = 1.529V 12 + 5.10 # (2.80) 2 or V1 = 3.62 m/s
or vo1 = A1 V1 = p # (0.10) 2 # 3.62 = 0.0284 m3/s
4
and from equation (i), we get
3.62 = 0.64V2 + 0.64 # 2.80 or V2 = 2.86 m/s
or vo2 = A2 V2 = p # (0.08) 2 # 2.86 = 0.0144 m3/s
4
FM 6.55 Option (A) is correct.
We take point (1) at the free surface of tank and point (2) at the exit of the pipe.
Then, the energy equation between these two points.
p1 2
p 2
+ a1 V 1 + z1 = 2 + a2 V 2 + z2 + hL
. i n
rg 2g rg 2g

. c o
Since p1 = p2 = patm, V1 , 0, z2 = 0, and V2 = 0 (Velocity head negligible)
Above equation becomes

d i a
z1 = hL and h = hL

n o
where h is the liquid height in the tank at any time t .

w.
2
Now hL = f L # V
d 2g

w w
For fully developed laminar flow
f = 64 = 64
Re Vd/n
2
Thus hL = 64 # L # V = 64n2L # V
Vd d 2g d 2g
n
The average velocity
V = v = v 2 = 4v 2
o o o
Ac pd
pd
4
hL = 64n2L # 1 # 4v 2 = 64n2L # 4vo = 128nLv
o o
d 2 g pd d 2
pd # 2g g pd 4

hL = h = 128nLv
o
...(i)
g pd 4
From mass conservation, above equation must be equal to change of liquid height
in the tank.
2
vo =- pD dh
4 dt
Now equation (i) becomes
h =- 128nL pD 2 dh =- 32nLD 2 dh
4 # 4 # dt
g pd gd 4 dt

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FM 6 Internal Flow FM 249

2
dt =- 32nLD 4 # h
dh
gd
Integrating from t = 0 when h = H to t = t when h = h
2
t = 32nLD ln b H l
gd 4 h
FM 6.56 Option (B) is correct.

The bottom side of the triangle is


= 2 # 2 sin 40c, 2.57 cm
and A = 1 # 2.57 # ]2 cos 40cg = 1.97 cm2
2
Perimeter = 2 + 2 + 2.57 = 6.57 cm
Then Hydraulic diameter
4A = 4 # 1.97 = 1.20 cm
Dh =
perimeter 6.57

. i n
Re D =
h
rVDh
m 0.104

. c o
= 870 # 2 # 0.0120 , 201 (Laminar flow)

Then
Re

d a
f = 52.9 = 52.9 = 0.263
i 201

Hence

n o Dp = f # L # # V 2
Dh
r
2

w w. = ]0.263g # b 0.6 l # b 870 l # ]2g2


0.012
- 23000 Pa = 23 kPa
2

FM 6.57
w
Correct option is (A)

-4
V = v = 4 # 10
o
= 1.27 m/s
A p (0.02) 2
4 #

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FM 250 Internal Flow FM 6

rVD VD 1.27 # 0.02 m


So that Re = = = = 115 < 2100 =n
m n 2.2 # 10-4 r
The flow is laminar and flow rate is given by ( q = 90c)
p (Dp - gl ) D 4 128mlvo
vo = or Dp = p1 - p2 = + gl ...(i)
128ml pD 4
Thus g = S.G. # gH O = 0.87 # 9.81 = 8.53 kN/m3
2

and m = nr = n (S.G.rH O) = 2.2 # 10-4 # 0.87 # 999 = 0.191N-s/m2


2

Equation (i) gives


-4
Dp = 128 # 0.191 # 4 # 44 # 10 + 8.53 # 103 # 4
p # (0.020)
= 1.119 # 105 N/m2 = 111.9 kN/m2 ...(ii)
From manometer equation,
p2 = p1 - gh1 + gm h - gh2

Where gm = S.G. m gH O = 1.3 # 9.81 = 12.74 kN/m3


2

and h2 = h + l - h1 or h2 + h1 = h + l
Thus p1 - p2 = Dp = g (h2 + h1) - gm h =- (gm - g) h + gl
...(iii)
Combine equation (ii) and (iii), we get
. i n
111.9 =- (12.74 - 8.53) h + 8.53 # 4

. c o
or h =- 18.5 m

i a
Note: Since h < 0 , the manometer is displaced in the direction opposite that

d
o
shown in the original figure.

n
w.
FM 6.58 Option (B) is correct.
The divided cross section of the pipe into 1 cm thick annual regions is shown in
table.

w w
The flow rate is to be determined by using midpoint velocity values for each
section. Therefore
vo = #V
Ac
avg
2
dAc = SVavg p [r out - r in2 ]

= p # b 6.4 + 6.1 l # 6(0.01) 2 - 0@ + p b 6.1 + 5.2 l # 6]0.02g2 - ]0.01g2@


2 2
+ p # b 5.2 + 4.4 l # 6]0.03g2 - ]0.02g2@ + p b 4.4 + 2.0 l # 6]0.04g2 - ]0.03g2@
2 2
+ p # b 2.0 + 0 l # 6]0.05g2 - ]0.040g2@
2
3
vo = 0.0297 m /s
FM 6.59 Correct option is (C)

rVD
For laminar flow Re # 2100 or # 2100
m

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FM 6 Internal Flow FM 251

Thus the minimum h is h = 0 (no flow) and the maximum h is for Re = 2100 .
8900
b 9.81 l # V # 0.023
2100 =
0.1
g
r=
g
or V = 10.06 m/s
For the flowing fluid, Bernoulli’s equation gives
p1 V 12 p 2 2
+ + z1 = 2 + V 2 + z 2 + f l V z1 = z 2
g 2g g 2g D 2g
and V1 = V2 = V
2
Thus p1 - p 2 = f # l V # g
D 2g
(i)
And for laminar flow
f = 64 or f = 64 = 0.0305
Re 2100
From equation (i),
(10.06) 2
Dp = p1 - p2 = 0.0305 # 0.5 # 8900
0.023 2 # 9.81 #
= 30439 N/m2

. i n
From manometer equation, we get

. c o
p1 + goil (H + h) - S.G. gH Oh - goil H = p2

a
2

d iDp = p1 - p2 = (S.G. gH O - g) h
30439
2

or

n o h =
(7 # 9800 - 8900)
= 0.510 m

w.
Hence 0 # h # 0.510 m
FM 6.60 Option (C) is correct.

w w

We take point (1) at free surface of the tank and point (2) at the reference level at
exit. By applying energy equation for a control volume between these two points
p1 2
p 2
+ a1 V 1 + z1 + h pump = 2 + a2 V 2 + z2 + hturbine + hL
rg 2g rg 2g
Since p1 = p2 = patm , z2 = 0, hturbine = 0 , and V1 , 0
2 2
z1 = a2 V 2 + hL hL = f L # V 2
2g D 2g
2 2
So z1 = a2 V 2 + f L # V 2
2g D 2g
2gz1 2gz
V2 = = a2 = 1
a2 + ^ fL/D h 1 + ^ fL/D h

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FM 252 Internal Flow FM 6

where z is the water height relative to the center of the orifice at that time.
Now, the flow rate of water through the pipe during a time interval dt is
o = Ac # V2 dt = pD o #
2
2gz
dvo = vdt dt
4 1 + ^ fL/Do h
where Do is the diameter of orifice.
From conservation of mass
Flow rate of water through the pipe = decrease in the volume of water tank
pD o2 2gz 2
dt = Ac, tank (- dz) =- pD # dz
4 # 1 + ^ fL/Do h 4
2 1 + ^ fL/Do h
dt =- D 2 dz
Do 2gz
2 1 + ^ fL/Do h -1/2
=- D 2 # z dz
Do 2g
By integrating above equation from t = 0 when z = z1 to t = t f when z = 0
(completely drained tank)
dt =- D 2 # 1 + ^ fL/Do h
t 2 0
# #
f

z-1/2 dz
t=0 D o 2g z=z
1

D
t f =- 2 #
Do
2
1 + ^ fL / Do h
.
z
i
1 n
1/2 0

2
= D2 #
2g

. c o
2z1 $1 + ^ fL/Do h.
2 z1

Do

d i a
Substituting the numerical values, we get
g

n o
tf =
]10g2 2 # 2 b1 + 0.022 # 25 l

w.
(0.03) 2 # 0.03
9.81

w w = 311965 seconds , 86.6 hours

***********

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