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GENERAL STUDIES TEST SERIES

PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION-2017

TEST 12: SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY - II


Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

Instructions:
1. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on
the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct
response, mark the response which you consider the best.
2. All items carry equal marks.
3. Mark your answer on the Answer Sheet provided separately. For marking
your answer darken the circle against the option by using a Pencil.
4. Penalty for wrong Answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS
(1) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(2) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one
of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.
(3) If a question is left blank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty
for the question.

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Q1. The first experimental mission of ISRO’s 3. Carbon nanotube
Scramjet Engine towards the realization of an
Select the correct code:
Air Breathing Propulsion System (ABPS) was
successfully conducted recently. In what way is (a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 and 3
the ABPS technology and its development for (c) Only 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
India significant?
Q5. Consider the following statements about IAEA:
1. It will help improve the payload-to-lift-off
mass ratio. 1. Role of IAEA is to promote nuclear
safeguards and peaceful use of nuclear
2. It is key to developing the single-stage-to- technology.
orbit launch vehicle.
2. IAEA is an intergovernmental organization
3. Re-useable rockets can become a reality for and is one of the specialized agency under
India in the near future. United Nations.
Select the correct code: 3. India is also one of the 168 members of IAEA.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 and 2 Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(c) Only 2 and 3 (d) All of the above (a) Only 1 & 3 (b) Only 1
Q2. Consider the following statements related to (c) Only 2 & 3 (d) All of these
Graphene:
Q6. Which of the following are the Second-line
1. It is the thinnest and lightest material known anti-Tb drugs?
to man, and is just one atom thick.
1. Isoniazid 2. Ethambutol
2. It is considered one of the best electricity
conductors and is a 3-dimensional structure. 3. Streptomycin 4. Fluoroquinolones
3. Recently, the Indian Institute of Science 5. p-Amino salicylic acid
made a major breakthrough in this material- Select the correct code:
based transistor technology, which brings us
closer to exploiting this material’s potential (a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 2 and 3
to revolutionize the electronics industry. (c) 4 and 5 (d) All of these
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? Q7. Recently, Union Minister for Health and Family
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 and 3 Welfare launched the Reverse Dot Blot (RDB)
Hybridization Thalassemia diagnostic kit. It is
(c) Only 2 and 3 (d) All of the above developed by:
Q3. Which of the following is/are true about ballast 1. Indian Council for Medical Research.
water management?
2. Medical council of India.
1. Ballast water is used in aero planes for
cooling their auxiliary engines. 3. National Institute of Immunohematology.

2. Ballast water management is regulated by Select the correct code:


IMO. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 and 2
3. Ballast water is a concern due to transfer of (c) Only 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 and 3
non-native aquatic species by ballast
exchange. Q8. Consider the following statements:

Select the correct code: 1. Cryogenic engine uses cryogenic fuel where
liquid Hydrogen is fuel and liquid Oxygen is
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3 oxidizer.
(c) Only 1 and 3 (d) All of the above 2. Scramjet engine is used in missiles.
Q4. Addition of which of the following has harmful 3. Interceptor missiles use both cryogenic
effect in the process of filtration of water? engine and scramjet engine.
1. Silver 2. Titanium Oxide

F-9, MAIN ROAD, KATWARIA SARAI, NEW DELHI-16 PH. 011-41661163, MOB: 9711713852, 9873987698 1
Select the correct code: avert a potential space mishap involving one of
the swarm satellites and space junk.
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Scientists involved in the Starshot Project – a
(c) Only 2 and 3 (d) All of the above
mission to send fleet of nano-craft to Alpha
Q9. Three spheres of same radius made up of Centauri at 20 percent of the speed of light –
copper, iron and aluminum respectively are have established the suitability of Swarm
dropped in a water tank. They all sink. On satellites to launch their nano-crafts from
Which sphere the buoyant force is the space.
greatest? (Density of copper >density of iron (d) Measurements made by it have helped
>density of aluminum) scientists identify a new feature in Earth’s
(a) Copper (c) Iron molten outer core – a fast-flowing river of
liquid iron, similar to a “jet stream”.
(b) Aluminum (d) Same on all sphere
Q14. With reference to ‘Global Alliance for
Q10. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly Vaccines and Immunisation’, consider the
matched? following statements:
Common Name Chemical Name 1. It is an organisation of United Nations
1. Antifreeze : Ethylene glycol Children’s Fund in working relation with the
2. Chlorine bleach : Sodium hypochlorite World Health Organization.

3. Rock Salt : Sodium chloride 2. It brings together public and private sectors
with the shared goal of creating equal access
4. Green vitriol : Ferrous Sulphate to underused vaccines for children living in
Select the correct code: the world’s poorest countries.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 3. The experimental vaccine RVSV-ZEBOV –
recently shown to provide 100 percent
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 protection against Ebola disease – was
Q11. Match the following: developed by it.
Diseases Caused by Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
A. Dengue 1. Bacteria (a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 and 2
B. Malaria 2. Protozoa (c) Only 2 (d) Only 1 and 3
C. Cholera 3. Virus Q15. Which of the following statements is/are NOT
correct about Agni series missiles?
Select the correct code:
1. Agni-I is a short range missile.
(a) A-1; B-2; C-3 (b) A-2; B-3; C-1
2. Agni-II can be fired from a canister mounted
(c) A-3; B-1; C-2 (d) A-3; B-2; C-1 on a military truck and it is an intermediate
Q12. ‘Pellagra’ disease is caused due to the range missile.
deficiency of: 3. All the Agni series of missiles can deliver
(a) Riboflavin (b) Niacin nuclear warheads.

(c) Retinol (d) Thiamine Select the correct code:

Q13. Europe’s Swarm satellites which were (a) Only 1 and 3 (b) Only 1 and 2
launched in 2013, recently made news. Which (c) Only 2 and 3 (d) None of the above
of the following statement is the reason?
Q16. The drug ‘BDQ’ or ‘Bed aquiline’, is known to
(a) It helped scientists discover a planet similar double the chances of cure in patients
to Earth that is orbiting our Sun’s nearest affected by which one of the following
neighbour, Proxima Centauri. diseases?
(b) Japan’s “junk collector” designed to gather (a) Multi Drug-Resistant Tuberculosis.
debris in space and launched recently, helped

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(b) Cancer of the throat. 1. Cloud computing is use of a virtual
environment where data storage moves away
(c) HIV/AIDS.
from the commonly used remote server to a
(d) Parkinson's disease. ‘cloud’. A dedicated server is centrally located
and is preferred for a stable data center.
Q17. TRAPPIST-1, seen in news, is
2. The dedicated server is more secure than the
1. Nearest star from our sun.
cloud computing.
2. 9 planets star system where planets are
3. The cloud computing is much cheaper
separated equidistant from each other.
technology than dedicated servers.
3. 3 of these planets are habitable planets.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
4. All these planets contain atmosphere.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 and 2
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(c) Only 1 and 3 (d) All of the above
(a) Only 1, 2 and 4 (b) Only 2, 3 and 4
Q21. Which of these statements is/ are correct
(c) Only 3 (d) Only 1 and 3 about DNA Fingerprinting?
Q18. Union Government has unveiled National 1. DNA Fingerprinting has become a powerful
Biotechnology Development Strategy (NBDS) tool to establish paternity and identity of
2015-2020 to establish India as a world-class criminals in rape and assault cases.
bio-manufacturing hub. Consider the
2. Trace evidences such as hairs, saliva and
following statements: semen are adequate for DNA analysis.
1. NBDS intends to launch a major mission
Select the correct code:
under the Digital India programme.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
2. It will cover only the aspect of core science.
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Q22. Which of the following is/are true about
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Southern blotting?
(c) Both of these (d) None of these
1. It is a method used in molecular biology for
Q19. Consider the following regarding green detection of a specific DNA sequence in DNA
nanotechnology. samples.
1. Green Nanotechnology also means using 2. Southern blotting combines transfer of
nanotechnology to make current manufacturing electrophoresis-separated DNA fragments to
processes for non-nano materials and products a filter membrane and subsequent fragment
more environmentally friendly. detection by probe hybridization.
2. It is directed towards productions of nano- Select the correct code:
filters to reduce atmospheric pollutions
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
caused by industries
(c) Both of these (d) None of these
3. It is directed towards productions of
nanotechnology-enabled fuel cells and light- Q23. In genetic engineering, a chimera is
emitting diodes (LEDs)
(a) an enzyme that links DNA molecules
4. It is directed towards productions of nano-
(b) a single organism composed of cells from
materials that help in eliminating many
different zygotes.
environment cleaning chemicals.
(c) a virus that infects bacteria
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(a) Only 2 and 4 (b) Only 2 (d) a fungi

(c) Only 2 and 3 (d) Only 4 Q24. Which of the following lightening devices do
not use gas in the light emitting process?
Q20. Consider the following statements:
1. Incandescent bulbs.

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2. CFL (Compact Fluorescent Lamp). (c) In Osmosis when equilibrium is reached, then
water stops flowing across the membrane
3. LED (Light Emitting Diodes).
(d) None of these
4. Tube lights.
Q28. Single-cell proteins (SCP) are protein- rich
Select the correct code:
material used for food or for animal feed.
(a) Only 3 (b) Only 2 and 3 They are obtained from cultured-
(c) Only 3 and 4 (d) None of the above 1. Fungi 2. Algae
Q25. Water softening is the process of: 3. Bacteria
(a) Removing undesirable chemicals, biological Select the correct code:
contaminants, suspended solids and gases
(a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3
from contaminated water.
(c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of these
(b) Removal of calcium, magnesium, and
certain other metal cations. Q29. Whenever a radioactive element undergoes
disintegration by emitting 2 α- particles and 3
(c) Removal of all types of salts from it.
β- particles. Now its position is-
(d) None of the above
(a) In the same group as the original element
Q26. The Government of India through the
(b) In the group preceding the position of the
Department of Biotechnology, Ministry of
original element.
Science and Technology, EMBO and its
intergovernmental funding body, the (c) In the group succeeding the position of the
European Molecular Biology Conference, have original element.
signed a Cooperation Agreement to (d) Four place ahead of the position of the
strengthen scientific interaction and original element.
collaborative research between India and
Europe. Q30. Which among the following statement(s)
is/are correct about new technologies in
1. India becomes the second EMBO Associate energy sector?
Member State.
1. Off-shore wind energy system has been
2. As an EMBO Associate Member State,
developed and commercialized in India.
researchers working in India are now eligible
to participate in all EMBO programmes and 2. Gujarat becomes first state to implement
activities. tidal power plant.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both of these (d) None of these (c) Both of these (d) None of these
Q27. Osmosis is the flow of solvent into solution of Q31. Which of the following statements are correct
higher concentration from solution of lower regarding inactivated polio vaccine?
concentration through semi-permeable 1. IPV is produced from wild-type poliovirus
membrane. Which of the following is strains.
incorrect?
2. The degree of mucosal immunity produced
(a) Osmotic pressure is the external pressure by IPV in the intestine is significantly greater
required to be applied so that there is no net than that provided by OPV.
movement of solvent across the membrane.
3. The main disadvantage is that the adverse
(b) Reverse Osmosis is a process where you events following administration of IPV is
demineralize or deionize water by pushing it more pronounced compared to OPV.
under pressure through a semi-
Select the correct code:
permeable Reverse Osmosis Membrane.

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(a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 and 2 Unit and a State Surveillance Unit in each
State where data is collected and analyzed.
(c) Only 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 and 3
3. It was assisted by World Bank.
Q32. Consider the following statements about
Diabetes: Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
1. Diabetes Type 1 results from the (a) Only 1 and 3 (b) Only 2 and 3
autoimmune destruction of the insulin- (c) Only 1 and 2 (d) All of the above
producing beta cells in the pancreas.
Q36. Consider the following about the Arctic:
2. Diabetes Type 2 is also known as juvenile
diabetes. 1. Norway is nearest to the North Pole.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? 2. India has access to Svalbard because of a
treaty with Norway.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
3. The biggest seed vault of the world exists in
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Svalbard.
Q33. Which of the following sites has/have been Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
selected for exploitation of geo-thermal
energy? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3

1. Badrinath-Tapovan 2. Surajkund (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

3. Manikaran 4. Puga Valley Q37. Sagar Sampada is

Select the correct code: (a) India’s biggest passenger ship.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) An area in Indian Ocean which has large
amount of living and non-living marine
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 resources.
Q34. Consider the following statements about Gas (c) Fisheries and oceanographic research
Hydrates: vessel
1. Gas Hydrates are formed as the stable solid. (d) Offshore Patrol Vessel
2. Most gas hydrates are formed from cooled Q38. Consider the following statements related to
Nitrous oxide.
Oropouuche fever.
3. When gas molecules are trapped in a lattice
1. It is caused by the Oropouche virus and
of water molecules at temperatures below
transmitted in humans primarily through the
0°C and pressures above one atmosphere,
bite of Aedes Aegypti Mosquitoes.
they form gas hydrates.
2. No direct transmission of the virus from
4. Hydrates also influence the global climate
human to human has been documented.
change.
3. The outbreaks are reported in the American
Which of the above statements are correct? Countries which includes Brazil, Ecuador,
(a) Only 1, 3 & 4 (b) Only 1, 2 & 3 Panama, Peru, and Trinidad and Tobago.
(c) Only 1 & 3 (d) All of the above Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Q35. Consider the following statements about (a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3
Integrated Disease Surveillance Project (IDSP). (c) Only 1 and 3 (d) All of the above
1. It was undertaken to meet the World Health Q39. Which one of the following vaccines given
Organization Guidelines for South East Asian
below come under Universal Immunisation
countries on disease surveillance to track the
Program?
outbreak of diseases and its potential
transboundary threats. 1. Measles - Rubella Vaccine.
2. It was launched in 2012 and the scheme 2. Dipththeria, Pertussis and Tetanus Vaccine.
seeks to set up a Central Disease Surveillance

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3. Adult Japanese Encephalitis Vaccine. Select the correct code:
4. Malaria Vaccine. (a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
Select the correct code: (c) Only 2 and 3 (d) All of the above
(a) Only 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 2, 3 and 4 Q45. The cell wall is present in:
(c) Only 1 and 3 (d) All of the above 1. Bacteria. 2. Blue-green algae.
Q40. Which of the following is not an application of 3. Plants.
LASER?
Select the correct code:
(a) LASIK. (b) LIDAR.
(a) Only 1 and 3 (b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Holography (d) MRI
(c) Only 2 and 3 (d) All of the above
Q41. Which among the following comparisons of
Q46. Consider a body at temperature of 100 units
the aplastic Anaemia and Sickle Cell Anaemia
kept in a room with room temperature 20
is/are correct?
units.
1. While a plastic Anaemia is non-genetic, Sickle
Event A: The temperature of the body
Cell Anaemia is a genetic disease.
decreased from 100 to 60.
2. While aplastic Anaemia is caused due to the
mutation of a protein, Sickle Cell Anaemia is Event B: The temperature of the body
caused due to the changes in Bone Marrow. decreased from 60 to 20.

Select the correct code: Which of the following is true?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) Time taken for A is more than that for B.

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above (b) Time taken for A is less than that for B.

Q42. Consider the following statements about : (c) Both A and B will take equal time.

1. Nano-materials are used in gene therapy. (d) Data is insufficient to compare time taken.
2. Opto-electronics can be developed using Q47. Which of the following statements is/are
nano-materials. correct?
3. Quantum Dots are such nano-materials 1. Most satellite TV antenna in India face
which can be used as conductors as well as south, south east or south-west.
insulators. 2. TV transmission satellite mostly uses a
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? geostationary orbit.
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) None of these (c) 1 and 2 (d) None
Q43. Silver halides are used in photographic plates Q48. Which of the following sentences are
because they are: incorrect about Light Fidelity?
(a) Readily reduced by light. 1. It is wireless and uses visible light
communication or infra-red and radio
(b) Easilyoxidized by light.
frequency waves spectrum.
(c) Easily soluble in hypo solution. 2. Li-Fi is a unidirectional, high speed and fully
(d) Both (b) and (c). networked wireless communication
technology similar to Wi-Fi.
Q44. Burning biomass for energy in biogasifier
produces: Select the correct code:
1. Sulphur 2. Methane (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
3. Nitrogen (c) Both of these (d) None of these

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Q49. Radioactive tracer, or radioactive label are 4. Should be renewable.
extensively used: Select the correct code:
1. In hydraulic fracturing, (a) Only 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 3 and 4
2. In metabolism research, (c) Only 2 and 4 (d) All of the above
3. In positron emission tomography (PET) Q54. A man whose blood groups in not known
Select the correct code: meets with a serious accident and needs
blood transfusion immediately. Which one of
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
the blood groups mentioned below are
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 readily available in the hospital will be safe for
Q50. Hybridoma technology is a new transfusion?
biotechnology approach for commercial (a) O, Rh - (b) O, Rh+
production of
(c) AB, Rh - (d) AB, Rh+
(a) Monoclonal antibodies
Q55. When a person walking in bright sunlight
(b) Interferon enters a dark room, he is not able to see
(c) Antibiotics clearly for a little while because.

(d) Alcohol (a) The eye muscles cannot immediately


change the focal length of the eye lens.
Q51. Consider the following statements:
(b) The retina retains the bright images for
1. The nuclear fuel cycle starts with the mining
some time and becomes momentarily
of uranium and ends with the disposal of
insensitive
nuclear waste.
(c) The iris is unable to contract the pupil
2. In India Thorium is available only in monazite
immediately.
soils of Western coast but difficult to extract.
(d) The iris is unable to dilate the pupil
3. Shortage of Uranium is a major hindrance for
India’s nuclear power policy. immediately.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? Q56. Which of the following is/are true about the
microsatellite DNA?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
1. It is a tract of repetitive DNA in which certain
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 DNA motifs are repeated, typically 5-50
Q52. Consider the following statements about times.
viruses: 2. Microsatellites occur at thousands of
1. Avian flu viruses H5N1 and H7N9 infects only locations in the human genome and they are
birds. notable for their high mutation rate and high
diversity in the population.
2. Human is the only host for Zika virus.
3. Microsatellites and their longer cousins, the
Which of these statements is/are correct? megasatellites, together are classified as
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only VNTR.

(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these Select the correct code:

Q53. India needs to be energy secure for ensuring (a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3
robust economic growth. What are the (c) Only 1 & 3 (d) None of these
characteristics of a good source of energy?
Q57. Which is the fastest supercomputer of India?
1. Readily accessible.
(a) Aditya (b) Sahasra T
2. Easy to store and transport.
(c) Param Yuva II (d) Anurag
3. High calorific value.

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Q58. Which among the following is/are features of 1. They are carcinogenic.
Science, Technology and Innovation policy? 2. They can harm plants by causing ageing.
1. Explicit inclusion of innovation as a 3. They can lead to the shedding of leaves,
component. flowers and twigs of plants.
2. Focus on faster, sustainable and inclusive Select the correct code:
development of the people of India.
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3
3. Increasing accessibility, availability and
affordability of innovations, especially for (c) Only 1 and 3 (d) All of the above
women, differently-abled and disadvantaged Q63. Di Nitrogen and Di Oxygen are the main
sections of society. constituents of air. Consider the following
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? statements about them:
(a) Only 1 and 3 (b) Only 1 and 2 1. They do not react in air at normal
temperatures to cause pollution.
(c) Only 3 (d) All of the above
2. At high altitudes when lightning strikes, they
Q59. Which of the following is/are true about New
combine to form oxides of nitrogen.
Horizon mission?
3. Nitrogen converted to suitable form after
1. It is the first mission to study Pluto. lightning can be washed to soil and act as a
2. Pluto is found in the Kuiper belt of solar fertilizer.
system. Select the correct code:
3. Pluto is called the icy dwarf planet. (a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? (c) Only 1 and 3 (d) All of the above
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Q64. Auxin is important to the growth and
(c) Only 2 and 3 (d) All of the above development of plants. Consider the following
statements about it.
Q60. You are walking on a congested traffic lane.
Suddenly you see an instant red haze in 1. They are produced by stems and roots of
traffic. This can be due to the: plants.

(a) Oxides of nitrogen. 2. They can be helpful in plant propagation.

(b) Hydrocarbons emitted from the pipe of 3. They help prevent fruit and leaf drop at early
vehicles. stages of plant life.

(c) Ammonia compounds. Select the correct code:

(d) Oxides of sulphur. (a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3

Q61. Consider the following statements: (c) Only 1 and 3 (d) All of the above

1. Aerosols in atmosphere increase the river Q65. High consumption of sandwiches results in
flow. intake of which of the following elements?

2. Aerosols can also destroy stratospheric (a) Calcium (b) Potassium


ozone. (c) Sodium (d) Iron
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? Q66. There is a “blind spot” on the eye. It is called
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 so because:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above (a) No photoreceptor cells are present in that
region.
Q62. Hydrocarbons are formed after the
incomplete combustion of fuels in (b) The photoreceptor cells present in the
automobiles. What can be their harmful region do not register light.
effects in the atmosphere?

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(c) The photoreceptor cells present in the Q71. Which of the following can be the harmful
region register light but do not send any effects of the depletion of ozone layer?
signal to the brain of the light. 1. Ageing of human skin
(d) The photoreceptors receive equal light and 2. Killing of phytoplanktons
dark spots and hence the net outcome is
cancelled and not sent to the brain. 3. Decline in fish productivity
Q67. Recently, NASA has been in news for 4. May cause harmful mutation of cells
developing new spacecraft named ‘New Select the correct code:
Orion’. What is the main objective of this
spacecraft? (a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3

(a) To study the largest planet of the solar (c) Only 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above
system. Q72. Gel Electrophoresis technique is used in
(b) To discover new planets from other solar 1. Separation of genetic sequences
systems
2. Individual identification
(c) To carry astronauts to Mars
3. Uncovering inherited diseases
(d) To launch James Webb telescope
Select the correct code:
Q68. The property of “photo-periodism” in plants
(a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 3
show that:
(c) Only 1 and 2 (d) Only 1 and 3
(a) Plants depend on combinations of light and
dark exposure for flowering. Q73. You are suffering with nasal congestion
associated with common cold and allegy due
(b) Plants depend only on light exposure for
to pollen grains. Which of the following is
flowering.
most likely to treat your congestion?
(c) Plants flower only in a certain period of
(a) Anti-histamines (b) Analgesics
season.
(c) Peptides (d) None of the above
(d) None of the above
Q74. Consider the following statements about
Q69. What is DSCOVR Mission?
Tranquilizers.
(a) Indo-US joint mission to study coronal
1. They are used to treat depression, anxiety
mass ejection and stress.
(b) Indo-French joint mission to develop 2. They can also be used to treat major states
climate change satellite of mental disturbance in schizophrenics and
(c) NASA satellite mission to study climate other psychotic patients.
change 3. They are highly useful in alleviating the
(d) Indo-German joint mission to develop delusions, hallucinations, and disordered
renewable energy technologies thinking.

Q70. Photochemical smog is a type of smog that if Select the correct code:
found in polluted cities. Consider the (a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3
following statements about it.
(c) Only 1 and 3 (d) All of the above
1. It occurs in warm, sunny and dry climate.
Q75. Chikungunya, an infection caused by the
2. Hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides react to Chikungunya virus, is transmitted to humans
form this. by:
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? (a) Drinking infected water.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (b) Bite of specific species of infected
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above mosquitoes.

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(c) Coming in contact with secretions of Q80. Consider of the following statements about
infected person. the outbreak of brain fever death cases due to
Japanese encephalitis in few districts of India:
(d) None of the above
1. Japanese encephalitis is a viral infection
Q76. Which of the following about stem cells is
which causes brain fever.
incorrect?
2. Enterovirus also causes brain fever similar to
(a) Stem cells are undifferentiated cells that do
Japanese encephalitis.
not yet have a specific function.
3. Fever caused by Japanese encephalitis lasts
(b) There are three main types of stem cells longer than fever caused by enterovirus.
being investigated for their potential use in
research and medicine. 4. Japanese encephalitis is transmitted by
mosquito bites whereas enterovirus spread
(c) PSC can generate pluripotent stem cells through contaminated water.
from somatic cells.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(d) Embryonic Stem cells are found in
blastocyst stage in humans. (a) Only 1 and 3 (b) Only 1, 2 and 3

Q77. Consider the following statements: (c) Only 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

1. Disinfectants can be applied to both human Q81. Which of the statements is/are not correct?
body and inanimate objects. 1. Transgenic crops may increase biodiversity in
2. By varying the concentration, same a long run.
substance can act as a disinfectant or 2. The transgene may be transferred to related
antiseptic. species, leading to the development of so
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? called ‘Super Weeds’.
3. Transgenics resistant to pests and pathogens
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
may provoke evolution of new and more
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above virulent biotypes.
Q78. Antifertility drugs are used for birth control (a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 and 2
for family planning. How do anti-fertility drugs
(c) Only 1 and 3 (d) None
work?
Q82. Consider the following statements:
(a) By suppressing sexual hormone formation
in the body. 1. Organic farming avoids the use of fertilizers,
pesticides, herbicides and genetically
(b) By suppressing ovulation in the body. modified organisms (GMOs), plant growth
(c) By causing chemical sterilization. regulators, and livestock feed additives.
(d) All of the above 2. Organic farmers rely on crop rotation, crop
residues, animal manures and mechanical
Q79. Consider the following about GM crops: cultivation.
1. In India Bt crops for brinjal, maize and cotton
3. Organic farming relies heavily on the natural
are being grown.
breakdown of organic matter, using
2. The Bt toxin ruptures the intestines of the techniques like green manure and
organisms when it is ingested. composting.
3. GM mustard has herbicidal property. Which of the above statements are correct?
Which of the statement is/are incorrect? (a) Only 3 (b) Only 2 and 3
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 and 3 (d) All of the above
(c) Only 1 and 3 (d) All of the above Q83. Consider the following statements:

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1. Vaccines are ordinarily prepared from animal 1. Wind energy resources are time and location
material by isolating antigen or protein which dependent.
can initiate an immune response.
2. For the utilization of wind energy, the speed
2. In order to synthesize peptides to be used as of wind must be between 8 to 22 m per
vaccines, structure and function of proteins second.
involved should be studied.
3. Wind energy causes no major environmental
Which of the above statements is/are correct? threats.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 4. India ranks 4th in wind energy.
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of the above Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Q84. Which among the following are the (a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 1, 2 and 3
applications of antibodies? (c) Only 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of the above
1. Diagnosis Q88. Which of the following should be your first
2. Immunopurification choice for the treatment of ‘Hyperacidity’?
3. Imaging (a) Antacids (b) Antihistamines
4. Therapy (c) Histamines (d) Analgesics
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 1, 2 and 3 Q89. If you visit a water treatment plant in your
area, you will witness the processes followed
(c) Only 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of the above
in water purification. Select the correct order
Q85. Consider the following statements about the in which water purification works-
Near Field Communication (NFC) Technology.
1. Flocculation 2. Coagulation
1. It is a long-range wireless connectivity
technology. 3. Sedimentation 4. Disinfection

2. Data transfer rates are very fast as compared Correct order:


to conventional broadband internet. (a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 2-1-3-4
3. The recent “Smart change card” initiative of (c) 2-3-4-1 (d) 1-3-4-2
RBI uses NFC technology.
Q90. Energy from the ocean is available in forms of
Select the correct code:
1. ocean thermal energy.
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3
2. wave energy.
(c) Only 1 and 3 (d) Only 3
3. tidal energy.
Q86. Which of the options given below is correct
about the lung cancer? 4. salinity gradients.

(a) While industrialized countries have seen a 5. ocean currents.


decline in the number of lung cancers, 6. ocean winds.
developing countries are experiencing the
7. ocean bio-mass.
opposite trend.
Select the correct code:
(b) Cancer cells are hyperactive and therefore
need more sugar than normal body cells. (a) Only 2, 3, 5 and 6
(c) Positron Emission Tomography is used to (b) Only 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6
study cancers. (c) Only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
(d) All the above statements in options (a), (b) (d) All of the above
and (c) are correct.
Q91. Which of these pairs with commonly used
Q87. Consider the following statements: modern drugs derived from plant sources and
their use is/are correct?

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1. Digitoxin: Heart disease Q95. The Kepler and K2 missions of NASA have
identified thousands of exoplanet candidates.
2. Papain: dissolves excess proteins
Apart from theoretical work, which of the
3. Quinine: Anti-malarial following form(s) a part of India’s efforts in
4. Taxol: Ovarian cancer looking out for exoplanet?

5. Morphine: Analgesic 1. Astrosat.

Select the correct code: 2. PARAS-1 Spectrograph, Mount Abu


Infrared Observatory.
(a) Only 3 and 4 (b) Only 3, 4 and 5
3. Indian Astronomical Observatory, Hanle.
(c) Only 1, 3, 4 and 5 (d) All of the above
Select the correct code:
Q92. Which among the following statements is/are
correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 and 2
1. A wide range of radioisotopes is produced by (c) Only 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
the research reactors DHRUVA, CIRUS and Q96. Consider the following statements:
APSARA at Trombay.
1. Teletherapy uses gamma rays produced by a
2. The power reactors of the Nuclear Power cobalt-60 radioisotope in a teletherapy
Corporation of India Ltd. and the accelerator machine or high energy X-rays from a linear
at the Variable Energy Cyclotron Centre at accelerator, is the most widely used
Kolkata also produce radioisotopes. technique.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 2. In brachytherapy, radioisotopes are brought
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 in direct contact with tissues.

(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of the above 3. In brachytherapy, radioisotopes are used in
the form of needles, tubes and other forms.
Q93. Consider the following statements:
4. Bhabhatron-II is a teletherpay machine used
1. Gamma rays destroy or inactivate organisms, in cancer therapy.
thereby extend the shelf life of certain foods.
Select the correct code:
2. Processing with low dose radiation is used
for sprout inhibition in onion, potato, ginger, (a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 and 2
garlic and yam; insect disinfestations of (c) Only 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
cereals, pulses and their products as well as
spices and dry fruits, and making meat and Q97. Consider the following statements about the
meat products pathogen free. recent Indian Space Programme:
3. The technology is effective, clean and safe. 1. India becomes the first country in the world
to launch maximum number of satellites
Which of the above statements is/are correct? using a single launch vehicle.
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3 2. PSLV C-37 launched 101 nano-satellites from
(c) Only 1 and 3 (d) All of the above 6 foreign countries.

Q94. MIP Vaccine developed in India will be piloted 3. There were three Indian nano-satellites
in Bihar and Gujarat as a part of the country’s launched by the PSLV C-37.
efforts at eradicating which of the following Which of the above statements is/are correct?
diseases?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 and 2
(a) Rotavirus
(c) Only 1 and 3 (d) Only 2 and 3
(b) Leprosy
Q98. Neutrino is:
(c) Rubella
(a) Electrically positive and weakly interacting
(d) Japanese Encephalitis. particle.

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(b) Electrically positive and strongly interacting
particle.
(c) Electrically neutral and weakly interacting
particle.
(d) Electrically negative and weakly interacting
particle.
Q99. NASA’s Cassini Spacecraft recently entered
the final year of its epic voyage during which
it will make the closest-ever observations of
the planet
(a) Jupiter (b) Saturn
(c) Mars (d) Uranus
Q100. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about recent defense developments?
1. India is working to develop interceptor
missile.
2. INS Kolkata is the biggest warship ever built
in India.
3. INS Khanderi is the fast attack nuclear
submarine developed under “Make In India”
programme.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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ANSWER KEY OF TEST : 12 SCIENCE & TECH - II

1. Solution: d 38. Solution: c 75. Solution: b


2. Solution: b 39. Solution: a 76. Solution: b & c
3. Solution: b 40. Solution: d 77. Solution: b
4. Solution: c 41. Solution: a 78. Solution: b
5. Solution: a 42. Solution: b 79. Solution: a
6. Solution: d 43. Solution: d 80. Solution: d
7. Solution: a 44. Solution: c 81. Solution: a
8. Solution: a 45. Solution: d 82. Solution: d
9. Solution: d 46. Solution: b 83. Solution: c
10. Solution: d 47. Solution: c 84. Solution: d
11. Solution: d 48. Solution: a 85. Solution: b
12. Solution: b 49. Solution: d 86. Solution: d
13. Solution: d 50. Solution: a 87. Solution: d
14. Solution: b 51. Solution: c 88. Solution: a
15. Solution: b 52. Solution: d 89. Solution: b
16. Solution: a 53. Solution: d 90. Solution: d
17. Solution: c 54. Solution: a&b 91. Solution: d
18. Solution: d 55. Solution: d 92. Solution: c
19. Solution: d 56. Solution: a 93. Solution: d
20. Solution: d 57. Solution: b 94. Solution: a
21. Solution: c 58. Solution: d 95. Solution: d
22. Solution: c 59. Solution: d 96. Solution: d
23. Solution: b 60. Solution: a 97. Solution: b
24. Solution: a 61. Solution: c 98. Solution: c
25. Solution: b 62. Solution: d 99. Solution: b
26. Solution: c 63. Solution: d 100. Solution: b
27. Solution: d 64. Solution: d
28. Solution: d 65. Solution: c
29. Solution: b 66. Solution: c
30. Solution: b 67. Solution: c
31. Solution: a 68. Solution: a
32. Solution: b 69. Solution: c
33. Solution: d 70. Solution: c
34. Solution: a 71. Solution: d
35. Solution: d 72. Solution: b
36. Solution: d 73. Solution: a
37. Solution: c 74. Solution: d

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