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Environmental Engineering - Civil Engineering
Multiple Questions and Answers pdf
Latest Environmental Engineering Questions and Answers
1. Assertion A : The consumption of water increases with increase in the distribution pressure.
Reason R : Higher distribution pressure causes more loss and waste of water.
Select your answer according to the coding system given below
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: a
http://engineeringmcqs.blogspot.in/2014/08/environmental-
engineering-civil.html
Environmental Engineering - Civil Engineering
Multiple Questions and Answers pdf
Latest Environmental Engineering Questions and Answers
1. Assertion A : The consumption of water increases with increase in the distribution pressure.
Reason R : Higher distribution pressure causes more loss and waste of water.
Select your answer according to the coding system given below
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: a
http://engineeringmcqs.blogspot.in/2014/08/environmental-
engineering-civil.html
Environmental Engineering
B. asthma
10. Which of the following is the common pollutant
emitted from metallurgical smelters, thermal power
C. silicosis
plant and cement plants ?
D. flourosis (bone disease) A. NOx B. Hg
C. SO2 D. F
3. Particulates (<1μm size) remaining suspended in air
indefinitely and transported by wind currents are
called 11. During which of the following operating conditions of
an automobile, carbon monoxide content in the
A. fumes B. mists
exhaust gas is maximum ?
C. s
oke D. aerosols A. Idle running
B. Acceleration
4. Operating principle of cyclone separator is based on
the action of __________ dust particles.
C. Cruising
A. diffusion of
D. Deaccelaration
B. centrifugal force on
12. H2S present in gaseous stream can be removed by
C. gravitational force on
adsorption on
D. electrostatic force on A. silica gel
B. mercury
13. Inhalation of lead compounds present in automobile
exhaust (using leaded petrol) causes
C. cadmium
A. blood poisoning.
D. asbestos
B. anaemia.
6. Maximum allowable concentration of CO2 in air for
safe working is __________ ppm (parts per million). C. nervous system disorder.
C. 2000 D. 5000
14. Replenishment of dissolved oxygen in water stream
polluted with industrial waste occurs by
7. Tolerable limit of nitrogen oxides in air is
__________ ppm. A. natural aeration of water stream.
8. Iron & manganese present as pollutant in water can D. neither (a) nor (b).
not be removed by
A. ion exchange process. 15. Aerodynamic noise resulting from turbulent gas flow
is the most prevalent source of valve noise in fluid
ilow control. It is caused due to
A. Reynold stresses A. 120 B. 140
C. both (a) & (b) 23. TLV of mercury in potable (drinking) water is about
__________ ppm.
D. neither (a) nor (b)
A. 0.001 B. 0.1
D. Dust particles
18. Threshold Limit Value (TLV) is the maximum
allowable concentration (i.e. safe limit) of pollutants
in air. Safe limit for SO2 in air is __________ ppm. 26. Which of the following is the most detrimental for
water used in high pressure boiler ?
A. 5 B. 500
A. Silica
C. 1000 D. 2000
B. Turbidity
19. Main pollutants released from iron & steel industry is
C. Phenol
A. CO, CO2 & SO2.
D. Dissolved oxygen
B. H2S, NO & SO3.
27. Turbidity of water is an indication of the presence of
C. CO2, H2S & NO2.
A. suspended inorganic matter
D. SO3, NO2 & CO2.
B. dissolved solids
20. Exposure to chemicals having carcinogenic
C. floating solids
properties cause
A. dermatitis (skin disorder) D. dissolved gases
B. cancer
28. Presence of excess flourine in water causes
C. asphyxiation (suffocation) A. dental cavity
C. fluorosis
21. Scale formation in boiler is controlled by
A. preheating of feed water. D. respiratory disease
C. chemical coagulation
39. Polluted water having low BOD are most
economically treated in
D. none of these
A. sedimentation tanks
33. Which of the following dust collection equipments is
B. oxidation ponds
the least efficient (for sub-micronic particles) ?
A. Dust catcher (gravity type) C. sludge digester
C. Bag filter
40. Tri-sodium phosphate is used in boiler water
D. Hollow wet scrubber treatment to reduce
A. turbidity
34. Bag filter design is predominantly dependent on gas
temperature, as it affects the gas density & viscosity
B. caustic embrittlement
and the selection of filtering material. The pressure
drop in a bag filter is
C. suspended silica
A. inversely proportional to viscosity of gas.
D. dissolved oxygen
proportional to the viscosity & density of
B.
the gas.
41. The commonest form of iron & manganese found in
C. proportional to the pressure of the gas.
ground water as pollutant is in the form of their
D. both (b) and (c). A. carbonates B. bi-carbonates
C. chlorides D. sulphides
35. Dust collection efficiency of a cyclone separator
depends upon its
42. 80% less than 200 mesh size particles are called
A. diameter.
A. smoke B. powder
B. inlet gas velocity.
C. grit D. aggregates
C. overall height.
43. Coal washing waste water containing about 3%
D. all (a), (b) & (c). suspended solids (comprising of clay, slate, stone
etc.) is treated for solid particles removal
36. Ionisation potential employed in the industrial A. by chemical coagulation.
electrostatic precipitator is of the order of
A. 30 to 70 kV DC in sedimentation tanks equipped with
B.
mechanical scrapper.
B. 30 to 70 kV AC
C. in vacuum filter.
C. 230 V AC
D. in clarifiers. Troposhere is a dusty zone containing
C.
water vapor and clouds.
44. Inhalation of lead compounds present in the
The radio waves used in the long
automobile exhausts (using leaded petrol) causes
D. distance radio communication are
A. blood poisoning. reflected back to earth by stratosphere.
B. anaemia.
C. nervous system disorder. 1. Most efficient and suitable dust removal equipment
for removal of flyash from flue gas in a thermal
D. all (a), (b) and (c). power plant is the
A. gravity settling chamber
45. TLV of ozone (O3) and phosgene (COCl2) in air is
__________ ppm. B. cyclone separator
46. Most of the atmospheric air pollutants are present in 2. Which of the following is not a secondary air
large quantity in pollutant ?
A. stratosphere B. thermosphere A. Ozone
48. 'Pneumoconiosis' is a disease caused by the B. coal based thermal power plants.
inhalation of __________ dust.
C. pulp and paper plant.
A. coal
D. metallurgical roasting & smelting plant.
B. uranium ore
C. bad odour
8. Nitrogen oxides (NOx) is not produced in the
__________ industry.
D. bad taste & colour
A. nitric acid making
16. What are the methods of treatment & disposal of
B. nitrogenous fertiliser
radioactive wastes ?
C. detergent A. Evaporation & chemical precipitation.
B. Imhoff tank
23. Foaming and priming in boiler operation can be
reduced by reduction in __________ in feed water.
C. lagoon
A. turbidity
D. skimming tank
B. color (Hazen)
32. Which is the most practical and economical method
C. total solids
for removal of suspended solid matter from polluted
water ?
D. all (a), (b) & (c)
A. Sedimentation
24. Ambient noise level can be reduced by __________
B. Skimming off
decibels by planting trees (like coconut, neem etc.)
near public utility buildings (like hospitals & schools).
C. Chlorination
A. 1-2 B. 5-10
D. Biological oxidation
C. 15-20 D. 25-30
33. Atmospheric pollution caused by the exhaust gas of
25. Pick out the wrong statement. supresonic transport air-crafts is mostly in the
atmospheric region called
Catalytic converter is fitted in
A. automobiles to reduce carbon monoxide A. thermosphere B. stratosphere
concentration in exhaust emissions.
C. troposphere D. mesosphere
Inhalation of pollutant carbon monoxide
B.
results in death by asphyxiation.
34. Iron & manganese present in the polluted water is
removed by
Sulphur dioxide is the main pollutant
C. emitted from the exhaust of petrol driven A. simple filtration.
automobiles.
B. oxidation followed by settling & filtration.
Decomposition of plants containing
D. chlorophyll is a natural source of carbon C. chemical coagulation.
monoxide in atmosphere.
D. chlorination only.
26. Which of the following radioactive wastes emits all α,
β & γ rays and hence is the most hazardous of all 35. Water effluent generated in printing industry is
radioactive emitters? decolourised by
A. I-131 B. Sr-90 A. ion exchange technique.
27. COD of raw municipal sewage may be in the range of C. electrolytic decomposition.
about __________ mg/litre.
D. adsorption.
A. 1-2 B. 5-10
C. 90-120 D. 1500-2500 36. Thermal pollution of water increases its toxicity and
oxidation of oxygen demanding waste besides
favouring bacterial growth. A rise in water
28. Maximum permissible turbidity in potable water is temperature by 10°C, doubles the toxic effects of
__________ ppm. __________ present in it.
A. 1 B. 10 A. coal ash
37. __________ can not control the noise pollution. D. very extremely
A. Use of silencers
45. Noise level heard inside a bus in busy city traffic or
inside a sub-way train corresponds to about
B. Green house gases
__________ decibels.
C. Vibration damping A. 75 B. 95
38. Ozone level is generally found to be depleted in India 46. Presence of volatile compounds like gasoline, oil,
in the month of alcohol, ether etc. in municipal sewers may cause
A. February B. July A. explosion
D. copper sulphate.
49. Which of the following pollutants, if present in
atmosphere is detectable by its odour ?
42. Presence of __________ in water stream are
A. CO B. SO2
deleterious to aquatic life.
A. soluble and toxic organics. C. NO2 D. CO2
B. suspended solids.
50. Exposure to chemicals having carcinogenic
properties cause
C. heavy metals and cynides.
A. dermatitis (skin disorder)
D. all (a), (b) & (c).
B. Cancer
43. Acute danger to human life (i.e. death) exists, if the
C. Asphyxiation
concentration of CO2 in atmospheric air exceeds
__________ percent (by volume).
D. Asthma
A. 1 B. 3
C. 7 D. 20
1. In water treatment plant, zeolite process is used to
remove the __________ of water.
44. Methyl iso-cynate (MIC) gas (TLV <1 ppm), which
caused Bhopal gas tragedy in 1984 falls under the A. acidity
category of __________ toxic gas.
B. alkalinity
A. moderately
C. hardness
causes
D. iron & zinc
A. mathenoglobenemia
2. For existence of aquatic life in water, the dissolved
B. gastroentetitis
oxygen content in it, should not be less than
__________ ppm.
C. asphyxiation
A. 10000 B. 5
D. tooth decay
C. 500 D. 1000
10. In sewage treatment, the detention period allowed
3. Fresh sewage is __________ in nature. for oxidation ponds ranges from __________ weeks.
A. acidic A. 1 to 2
B. Neutral B. 4 to 5
C. alkaline C. 9 to 10
D. highly acidic D. 15 to 20
4. In a sedimentation tank, the detention period for 11. Coal mines drainage waste water (acidic in nature)
water ranges from __________ hours. results from the earth's water percolating through
A. 2 to 4 the voids created in coal bed during mining. This
polluted water which either drains out naturally to
water courses or are removed before starting the
B. 8 to 12
mining is
C. 16 to 20 A. neutralised by alkali treatment.
5. On prolonged exposure to high concentration of diluted with fresh water to reduce its
C.
carbon monoxide (> 5000 ppm), man dies because acidity.
C. textile C. ionosphere
7. A standard test for determination of hardness in 14. As per the world health organisation (WHO)
water is termed as __________ test. specification, the maximum permissible
concentration (i.e., TLV) of particulate matter in air
A. EDTA
is __________ μg/m3.(μg-microgram)
B. electometric A. 10 B. 90
D. presumptive
15. Which of the following is not a weightless pollutant ?
A. SPM
8. TLV of lead for public sewer/waste water is about
__________ ppm.
B. Thermal pollution
A. 1 B. 25
C. Radioactive rays
C. 150 D. 650
D. Noise pollution
9. Presence of nitrates in water in excess of 50 ppm
16. Global warming may result in 24. High noise levels produced during operation of fans
and compressors can be reduced by using
A. flood
A. mufflers (silencers).
B. cyclone
B. accoustical absorbent.
C. decrease in food productivity
C. lagging of noisy duct.
D. all (a), (b) and (c)
D. none of these.
17. Which of the following is the most lethal water
pollutant ? 25. The Killer gas which caused Bhopal gas tragedy in
1984 was
A. Phenol and cynide
A. phosgene
B. Chlorine
B. methyl iso-cynate (MIC)
C. Alkalis
C. carbon monoxide
D. Suspended solids
D. sulphur dioxide
18. Presence of carbon monoxide in atmosphere
produced by decomposition of chlorophyl and 26. Aerosols present in atmospheric air may be
haemoglobin breakdown of some animals, beyond
TLV (>50 ppm) A. positively charged.
A. 1 B. 20 C. hertz
B. SO2 A. stratosphere
C. hydrocarbons B. troposphere
D. none of these
35. Smog is not formed due to the presence of
__________ in the atmosphere.
41. Which of the following is the most widely used
A. SO2 disinfectant in water treatment ?
B. NOx A. Chlorine
D. Coagulation
36. Pick out the correct statement.
Deforestation helps in controlling the 42. Pick out the wrong statement
A.
green house effect.
Low ozone layer thickness in polar
A.
Global warming is detrimental for regions is due to cold climatic conditions
B. increase in food productivity and may
cause flood and cyclone. Amount of unburnt hydrocarbons emitted
by two stroke petrol engine is more as
B.
Lightening discharges are natural source compared to that emitted by a four
C. stroke engine.
of production of SO2 & H2S pollutant.
Dermatological photo-therapy 43. Phenolic water generated in coke ovens & by-
C.
equipments. product plant of a steel plant are disposed off by
mixture), rendering it the property of the most
A. quenching of hot coke.
explosive gas ?
D. dissolved gases 5. Septic tanks are used for the __________ of the
deposited solids.
49. Color test of water is done with an instrument called
A. separation
A. tintometer
B. anaerobic decomposition
B. colorimeter
C. aerobic decomposition
C. electro-chemical cell
D. none of these
D. turbidimeter
50. Which of the following gases is having the widest 6. Death may occur, when SO 2 concentration in
explosion limit (about 2 to 81% gas in gas-air atmospheric air exceeds __________ ppm.
A. 20 B. 100 C. pneumoconiosis
7. Which of the following acts as a natural source of air 14. Solid content in most of the domestic sewage is
pollution ? about __________ percent.
A. Forest fire A. 0.001 B. 0.1
B. Deforestation C. 5 D. 10
peroxy acetyl nitrate (PAN) or methyl 32. Which of the following is not an air pollutant ?
B.
nitrile.
A. Ozone
C. benzopyrene.
B. Carcinogens
D. poly acrylonitrile
C. Pesticides
26. Pick out the correct statement.
D. Metallic powders
Noise from ball mills can be dealt with by
A.
fibre glass lined enclosures.
33. Presence of high concentration of ozone and smog in
atmospheric air causes the
Noise from vibrating chutes can be
B. reduced by lining the metallic chute with embrittlement & decrease of folding
A.
rubber. resistance of paper.
27. BOD of raw municipal sewage may be in the range of 34. Algae growth in water is controlled by
about __________ mg/litre.
A. deoxidation B. chlorination
A. 1-2 B. 5-10
C. bleaching D. aeration
C. 150-300 D. 2000-3000
35. __________ is removed from water by lime-soda
C. 357 D. 1097
process.
A. Foul smell and taste
44. A gas is termed as non-toxic, if its maximum
permissible concentration (TLV) ranges from
B. Iron and manganese __________ ppm.
C. 6000 to 9000
36. Most of the bacteria in sewage are
A. parasitic D. 10000 to 100000
37. Which of the following is the most major constituents C. dissolved solids
of air pollutants ?
A. Oxides of sulphur D. none of these
B. Oxides of nitrogen
46. Green house effect is accentuated by
A. 25 B. 50
47. Thermal pollution due to excessive heat &
temperature in the working place causes
C. 80 D. 120
reduction in working efficiency of
A.
manpower.
39. Carbonaceous particles having size less than 1 μm
are called
B. fatigue.
A. grit B. aggregates
C. high breathing rate.
C. aerosols D. smoke
D. all (a), (b) & (c).
40. __________ substances present in sewage are
removed in grit chamber during sewage treatment. 48. High concentration of carcinogenic hydrocarbon
pollutants in atmospheric air causes
A. Organic B. Fatty
A. cancer
C. Inorganic D. Dissolved
B. silicosis
41. The type of bacteria which is active in trickling filter
during biological treatment of sewage is the C. respiratory disease (e.g., asthma)
__________ bacteria.
D. reduced crop yield
A. anaerobic B. saphrophytic
D. arsenic B. cavitation.
43. TLV of aldrin in public water supply system is about C. boundary layer separation.
__________ μg/litre.
D. fluctuation in liquid flow.
A. 0.5 B. 17
BOD is a measure of the amount of
1. The term Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is used
oxygen which will be demanded & used
in relation to
in 5 days by the biological decomposition
B.
A. potable water of the organic matter present in water
stream present as food for the living
B. cooling water organism.
C. Dehydration D. Fermentation
12. Salt content in sea water is about __________
percent.
5. Infective bacteria in water is killed by the
A. 0.5 B. 1
__________ process.
A. sterilisation C. 3.5 D. 10
B. aeration
13. Noise level inside a jet air liner in normal flight is
about __________ decibels.
C. disinfection
A. 80 B. 100
D. none of these
C. 125 D. 145
6. Fluorosis is caused due to the presence of excessive
amount of __________ in drinking water. 14. What is the major constituents of waste/polluted
water discharged from textile, pulp & paper, tanning,
A. mercury B. lead distillary, dairy and meat packing industries ?
D. turbidity A. 0.1 to 1
B. 3 to 6
8. Pick out the wrong statement.
Biological oxygen demand (BOD) is a C. 10 to 15
A. characteristic and not a constituent of
water. D. 15 to 20
D. all (a), (b) & (c)
16. Hazardous/polluting chemical industries should have
an 'exclusion zone' with a green belt and general
public access prohibited around it, covering a radius 23. Reinglemann chart is used for the measurement of
of ____ metres. the
A. 100 B. 1000 combustibles present in automobile
A.
exhaust.
C. 400 D. 4000
B. smoke density from a chimey.
17. Maximum permissible residual chlorine in treated
water should be __________ mg/litre. C. exhaust gas density.
B. 02 to 0.3
24. Disinfection of water is done to remove
C. 2 to 3
A. color
D. 5 to 10
B. bad taste
18. Which of the following is the most active zone of
C. foul odour
atmosphere in which weathering events like rain,
storm & lightning occur ?
D. bacteria
A. Thermosphere
25. Which of the following fine dust removal equipments
B. Troposphere
is the most efficient ?
C. Stratosphere A. Bag filter
C. Electrostatic precipitator
19. Which is the most widely used coagulant for the
treatment of turbid water ?
D. Cyclone separator
A. Alum (aluminium sulphate)
26. Which of the following industries discharge mercury
B. Lime
as a pollutant ?
C. Ferric chloride A. Chloro-alkali industry
C. Beverage plant
20. Which of the following is not a natural source of air
pollution ?
D. Phosphoric acid plant
Volcanic eruptions and lightening
A.
discharges.
27. Threshold limit value (TLV) of CO in air is
__________ ppm.
B. Biological decay of vegetable matter.
A. 5 B. 50
Photochemical oxidation of organic
C.
matter. C. 2000 D. 5000
D. None of these.
28. Lead exhausted in the atmosphere by automobiles
using leaded petrol (i.e. tetraethyl lead for improving
21. Threshold limit value (TLV) i.e., the maximum octane number) is a lethal air pollutant which causes
permissible safe limit of phosgene gas which Hitler
A. paralysis of muscles & loss of appetite.
used to use to kill his enemies in 'gas chamber' is
about __________ ppm.
B. nervous depression.
A. <1 B. 10-100
C. gastritis & diarrhea.
C. 100-200 D. 100-1000
D. all (a), (b) and (c).
22. Photochemical smog is formed from automobile
exhaust 29. Oilish impurities present the effluent discharged from
the electroplating industry is normally not removed
by reaction of hydrocarbon & nitric oxide
A. by
in presence of sunlight.
A. chemical coagulation
B. appears only on sunny days.
B. floatation & skimming
is harmful for crops and trees also
C.
besides causing eye irritation & asthma. C. centrifugation
D. ultrafiltration
37. Polyvinyl chloride containers are not suitable for
storing
30. In large thermal power stations very fine particulates
A. foodstuffs
present in flue gas are removed by
A. wet scrubber B. woolen clothes
33. Biological oxidation ponds remove organic matters feeding sodium sulphite or hydrazine
present in the polluted water by C. phosphate to the boilers, which combines
using the activities of bacteria and other with oxygen and prevents corrosion.
A.
micro organisms.
D. all (a), (b) and (c).
B. aerobic oxidation.
41. Water filtration rate in a slow sand filter ranges from
C. both (a) & (b). __________ litres/m2/hr.
B. 100 to 200
34. Which of the following is an adsorbant for removal of
nitrogen oxides from gas/air ?
C. 1500 to 2500
A. Active carbon
D. 4000 to 5000
B. Silica gel
42. Lagoons used for purification of polluted water
C. Bog iron (iron oxide)
are large shallow artificial lakes also
D. Pulverised limestone A. known as clarification lakes, maturation
ponds or oxidation ponds.
36. The average thickness of ozone layer in stratosphere 43. The principal gas evolved from sludge digestion tank
is about __________ dobson unit (DU). is
A. 20 B. 230 A. CO B. CO2
48. The main type of sludge gas evolved during sewage C. mud balls
treatment in Imhoff tank is
D. expansion of filtering media
A. CO2 B. CH4
7. Which of the following sources is responsible for
C. CO D. H2
maximum air pollution ?
49. From pollution control point of view, the maximum A. Industrial chimney exhaust.
permissible concentration of sulphur dioxide in
atmospheric air is about __________ ppm. B. Forest fire.
A. 1 B. 5 C. Automobiles exhaust.
B. Circular clarifier
1. Smog is
A. nothing but black smoke. C. Mechanical flocculation
a liquid particle resulting from vapor 9. In sewage treatment, its sedimentation is speeded
C.
condensation. up by commonly adding
B. lime.
2. __________ is the process of killing organism in
water.
C. copper sulphate.
A. Coagulation B. Sterilisation
D. sodium sulphate.
C. Disinfection D. Sedimentation
10. Noise level in a quiet private business office is about
C. gaseous fuel in the furnace.
__________ decibels.
A. 25 B. 50 D. liquid fuel in the furnace.
C. 70 D. 85
17. TLV of NO2 & NO exposure for the human being is 5
& 25 ppm respectively. Prolonged exposure of
human being to NO2 causes
A. skin disorder
11. 'Safe limit' called Threshold Limit Value (TLV) of
carbon monoxide in atmospheric air is < 50 ppm.
B. bronchitis
The main source of carbon monoxide pollutant in air
is the
C. bone disease
A. industrial chimney exhaust.
D. cancer
B. automobiles exhaust.
18. Sulphur dioxide present in the industrial chimney
photochemical reaction in polluted
C. exhaust gases causes
atmosphere.
A. respiratory & lung disease.
D. burning of domestic fuel.
reduction in plant's productivity owing to
B.
acid rain.
12. Inhalation of silica dust by human being causes
A. asphyxiation C. corrosion of building materials.
C. tuberculosis
19. A man exposed to excessive noise level in the
working environment may suffer from
D. both(b) & (c)
A. hearing loss
13. Which of the following air pollutants is not toxic to
B. rupture of ear drum
vegetation i.e., doesn't cause vegetation damage ?
A. Smog & ozone C. nervousness & fatigue
B. Hydrogen fluoride & nitrogen oxides D. all (a), (b) & (c)
B. Sulphur dioxide
14. A masonry structure built below ground level, where
biochemical reaction takes place due to anaerobic
bacteria is called C. Nitrogen dioxide
B. lagoon
21. Presence of __________ bacteria in water causes
disease like typhoid.
C. skimming mill
A. aerobic B. pathogenic
D. septic tank
non-
C. anaerobic D.
15. A considerable part of the harmful ultraviolet pathogenic
radiation of the sum does not reach the earth
surface, because of the fact that, there is a layer of 22. CFC (chloro fluoro carbon) is very highly reactive in
__________ high above earth's atmosphere, which causing depletion of ozone layer in the atmosphere.
absorbs it. Each atom of chlorine liberated from CFC is capable
of decomposing __________ molecules of ozones.
A. hydrogen
A. 102 B. 105
B. carbon dioxide
C. 109 D. 1015
C. ozone
23. Green house gases blanket/block the infrared
D. none of these
radiation from earth's surface to the atmosphere
leading to its progressive warming up. Which of the
16. White smoke coming out of the chimney of a furnace following gases does not exhibit green house effect ?
indicates the use of
A. CO2 B. H2
A. low excess air.
C. SO3 D. N2
B. very high excess air.
24. A 'body' which allows the short wavelength incoming
solar radiation to enter in, but does not allow long
A. Calcium B. Fluorine
wave length outgoing infra red radiation to escape
out is called the
C. Phosphorous D. Sulphur
A. global warming
31. Beyond what concentration of H2S in air, acute
B. green house
danger to human life exists ?
C. atmospheric effect A. 50 ppm
B. dark brown
32. Reingleman chart is used for the evaluation of
__________ pollution.
C. red
A. air B. water
D. black
C. noise D. radioactive
26. The common pollutant generated in chlor-alkali
industry and battery manufacture is 33. There are five concentric layers within the
atmosphere which is differentiated on the basis of
A. mercury temperature. The atmospheric layer which lies close
to the earth's surface in which human being along
B. brine with other organisms live is called troposphere. The
rate at which air temperature in the troposphere
C. phosphate gradually decreases with height is about
__________ °C/km.
D. none of these
A. 0.05 B. 1
C. 70 D. 100
39. The detrimental effect on organism and water quality
with temperature rise of aquatic system is the
reduction of __________ of water. 46. Removal of __________ results from the disinfection
of water.
A. dissolved oxygen content
A. turbidity B. odour
B. biological oxygen demand
C. hardness D. bacteria
C. vapor pressure
47. Very small amount of air pollutants are present in
D. all (a), (b) and (c) stratosphere also; though most of the atmospheric
pollutants are present in the troposphere. Which of
40. Hydrogen ion concentration in distilled water is the following atmospheric pollutants does not cause
the ozone layer depletion in atmosphere at
A. 10-7 tremendous rate ?
B. 7 x 10-7 A. CO
C. 107 B. SO2
D. 7 x 107 C. NOx
B. urea A. coagulation
D. preheating it
44. Which of the following is not a practical method of
low level radioactive waste disposal ?
A. Dilution with inert material.
1. Presence of non-biodegradable substances, like alkyl
Discharging to atmosphere through tall benzene sulphonate (ABS) from the detergents in
B. polluted water stream causes
stacks after dilution.
A. fire hazards.
C. Disposing off in rivers & oceans.
B. explosion hazards.
C. persistent foam.
B. pathological incineration.
C. pyrolysis.
micro-
C. D. mosquitoes
organisms
C. 70 D. 85
C. 160 D. 185
B. 500
C. 1000
(d) excess formation of CO2 by combustion and animal respiration. (1988, 89)
Answer and Explanation:
1. (a): Acid rain refers to the precipitation with a pH of less than 5. It is a mixture of H 2SO4 and
HNO3, the ratio of the two acids vary depending on the relative quantities of sulphur oxides and
nitrogen oxides present in the atmosphere. These oxides are mainly produced by combustion of
fossil fuels, smelters, industries, power plants, automobile exhausts etc.
2. Which one is not a pollutant normally?
(a) hydrocarbon
(b) nekton
(d) benthos.
Rajesh Nayak
4. (b): Competition is rivalry for obtaining the same resource. Competition of light, nutrients and
space is most severe between closely related organisms growing in the same area/niche, due to
overproduction of population in the same area/niche.
5. A mutually beneficial association necessary for survival of both partners is
(a) mutualism/symbiosis
(b) commensalism
(c) amensalism
(b) carbon
(c) nitrogen
(d) potassium.
Rajesh Nayak
7. (a): The behaviour of energy in ecosystem can be termed energy flow due to unidirectional flow
of energy, Flow of energy is only in one direction i.e., from solar radiation —> producers —>
heribivorous —> carnivores. This energy cannot pass in the reverse direction. There is decrease
in the content and flow of energy with rise j in tropic level.
8. Green house effect is warming due to
(a) infra-red rays reaching earth
(b) parasitism
(c) commenalism
(d) protocooperation.
(c) methane
(d) fluorocarbon.
(d) rainfall.
(d) spindle-shaped.
Rajesh Nayak
Answer and Explanation:
14. (b): Pyramid of number in a grassland/tree ecosystem is always upright. It shows the number
of individual organisms at each level. In grassland, the producers, which are mainly grasses, are
always maximum in number. This number then shows a decrease towards apex, primary
consumers are lesser in number than the grasses; the secondary consumers are lesser in number
than the primary consumers. Finally, the top consumers are least in number. Thus, the pyramid
becomes upright.
15. Domestic waste constitutes
(a) nonbiodegradable pollution
(c) effluents
(b) coal
(c) petroleum
(d) kerosene.
19. Homeostasis is
(a) tendency of biological systems to change with change in environment
(b) cadmium
(c) lead
(d) copper.
(b) renewable
(c) non-renewable
Rajesh Nayak
(d) renewable and nonrenewable resources.
(c) renewable
(d) non-renewable.
(d) ozone.
(b) ecosystem
(c) phytogeography
(d) ethology.
(b) genus
(c) community
(d) species.
(b) loam
(c) sandy
(d) gravel.
Rajesh Nayak
(b) mutualism
(c) commensalism
(d) ammensalism.
(b) inverted
(c) upright
(b) phytoplankton
(c) eel
Rajesh Nayak
(d) crab.
43. Which one of the following gases contributes maximum to the green house effect‟ on
the earth?
(a) carbon dioxide
(c) Freon
(d) methane.
(b) zooplankton
(c) benthos
(d) plankton.
45. Sounds above what level are considered hazardous noise pollution?
(a) above 80 dB
Rajesh Nayak
(c) above 150 dB
(b) above 30 dB
47. When huge amount of sewage is dumped into a river, its B.O.D. will
(a) slightly decrease
(c) increase
(d) decrease.
Rajesh Nayak
(c) energy flow will be blocked
(b) herbivores
(c) carnivores
(d) omnivores.
(b) hydrogen
(c) chlorine
(d) sulphur-dioxide.
(b) cats
(c) pigs
(d) rabbits.
(c) 2 times
(d) 20 times.
(b) strontium-90
(c) caesium-137
(d) iodine-131.
(b) ocean
(c) forest
(d) desert.
(b) boron
(c) mercury
Rajesh Nayak
(d) chlorine.
(b) tourism
61. The closely related morphologically similar sympatric populations, but reproductively
isolated, are designated as
(a) clones
(c) clines
Rajesh Nayak
(d) denies.
(b) Japan
(c) USA
(d) Germany.
66. The two great industrial tragedies namely, MIC and Chernobyl tragedies respectively
occurred where and at which time?
(a) Bhopal 1984, Ukrain 1986
(b) Tansley
(c) Stanley
(d) Weismann.
(c) E.coli
(d) P.typhi.
(b) seeds
(c) bulbs
(d) corms.
(b) Africa
(c) India
(d) Antarctica.
(c) grassland
(b) microorganisms
(c) man
(d) animals.
(b) fossorial
(c) diurnal
(d) arboreal.
(b) Escherichia
(c) Biggiata
(d) Chlorella.
Rajesh Nayak
Answer and Explanation:
78. (b): Refer answer 68.
79. If there was no C02 in the earth‟s atmosphere, the temperature of earth‟s surface would
be
(a) higher than the present
Rajesh Nayak
Answer and Explanation:
82. (a): Refer answer 54.
83. In a terrestrial ecosystem such as forest, maximum energy is in which trophic level?
(a) T3
(b) T4
(c) T1
(d) T2
(c) mangroves
(c) lead
(d) mercury.
(b) an antibiotic
(c) herbivores
(d) carnivores.
(b) pneumonicosis
(c) fluorosis
(d) leprosis.
(b) 20%
(c) 1%
(d) 2%.
(b) aerosol
(c) CO
(d) CO2
Answer and Explanation:
92. (a): Secondary pollutant is formed from a primary one through change or reaction. The
secondary pollutants are more toxic than primary ones. Nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons react
photocheniically to produce peroxyacyl nitrates and ozone. Peroxyacyl nitrates are produced due
to photochemical reactions between nitrogen oxides and unsaturated hydrocarbons.
93. Which part of the world has a high density of organisms?
(a) deciduous forests
(c) grasslands
(d) savannahs.
Rajesh Nayak
Answer and Explanation:
93. (b): Trophical forests are found in trophical zone of the world and are characterised by very
high temperature with rainfall in abundance. The flora of trophical rain forest is very rich and highly
diversified. The trophical forests have a very rich fauna both in density as well as in varieties. The
reason for this high diversity and variety of flora and fauna is the occurence of suitable conditions
in these forests.
94. The maximum biomagnifications would be in which of the following in case of aquatic
ecosystem?
(a) zooplanktons
(b) phytoplanktons
(c) fishes
(d) birds.
(b) 60%
(c) 11%
(d) 22%.
Rajesh Nayak
96. (a): Land forms about 1/5 of the earth‘s surface. About 36.6% of the land area is covered by
houses factories, roads, desert etc. And about 30% by forests, and about 22% meadows and only
11% land area is fit for tilling.
97. Which is the result of damage to relative biological effectiveness?
(a) high temperature
(b) pollution
(c) radiation
(d) diatoms.
Answer and Explanation:
98. (c): The benthic region includes all the sea floor from the wave-washed ashore-line to the
greatest depths. Depending upon the penetration of light it is subdivided into two main zones: the
lighted or littoral zone and the deep sea system. Due to abundance of light, water, oxygen, carbon
dioxide and less salanity of water, the tidal zone is characterized by exhorbitant growth of plants.
The dense growth of vegetation, on the other hand, provides shelter and food for animals. A wide
variety of algae, few grasses and animals of every phylum of animal kingdom are represented in
this region.
99. What is the best pH of the soil for cultivation of plants?
(a) 3.4 – 5.4
(b) 30-60 dB
(c) 70-90 dB
(c) interbreeding
(b) France
(c) USA
(d) Britain.
(b) commensalism
(c) coperation
(d) co-evolution.
108. Bamboo plant is growing in a fir forest then what will be the trophic level of it?
(a) first trophic level (T1)
(b) second trophic level (T2)
(c) third trophic level (T3)
(d) fourth trophic level (T4).
Answer and Explanation:
108. (a): Trophic structure of ecosystem is a type of producer-consumer arrangement, in which
each food level is called trophic level and the graphical representation of trophic structure of
ecosystem constitutes ecological pyramids. The green plants are producers and represent the first
trophic level (T1).
So bamboo plant is the first trophic level (T1).
109. Which type of association is found in between entomophilous flower and pollinating
agent
(a) mutualism
(b) commensalism
(c) co-operation
(d) co-evolution
Rajesh Nayak
(b) heart
(c) teeth
(d) kidney
(b) ectoparasitism
(c) endoparasitism
(d) decomposers
(b) high fertility, high density, mortality rate and a very young age
(c) high infant mortality, low fertility population growth and a very distribution
(d) high mortality, high density, uneven growth and a very old age distribution.
Rajesh Nayak
114. What is a keystone species?
(a) a species which makes up only a small proportion of the total biomass of a community, yet has
a huge impact community‘s organization and s
(b) a common species that has plenty of biomass yet has a fairly low impact on the community
organization
(c) a rare species that has minimal impact on the biomass and on other species in the community
(d) a dominant species that constitutes a large proportion of the biomass and which affects many
other species.
NP = GP – Respiration
116. In 1984, the Bhopal gas tragedy took place because methyl isocyanate
(a) reacted with DDT
Rajesh Nayak
116. (d): Bhopal gas tragedy occurred on 3 Dec. 1984 in a Union Carbide pesticide plant. When
water and MIC mixed, an exothermic chemical reaction started, which produced a lot of heat. As a
result, the safety valve of the tank burst because of the increase in pressure. This burst was so
violent that even the concrete around the tank also broke.
The high moisture content (aerosol) in the discharge while evaporating gave rise to a heavy gas
which rapidly sank to the ground. It caused several of the following ailments like partial or
complete blindness, disorders like, gastrointestinal disorders in many surviving people.
(b) 30 g / 100 ml
(c) 4 – 6 g / 100 ml
Rajesh Nayak
Answer and Explanation:
119. (a): Stability can be defined as the power of a system to be in their state against
unfavourable factors and resilience is the capability of regaining its original shape or position after
being deformed. An ecosystem can be damaged easily and it must be having high resilence.
120. The maximum growth rate occurs in
(a) stationary phase
(b) forest
(c) desert
(d) grassland.
Rajesh Nayak
Answer and Explanation:
123. (b): Biosphere reserves are multipurpose protected areas of different representative
ecosystems which are meant for conservation of biodiversity or wild-life, traditional life tyle of
tribals and their domesticated animals and also plant resources. Each biosphere reserve has a
core zone (where no human activity is allowed), a buffer zone (with limited human activity) and
manipulation zone (where human activity is allowed without degradation of ecology.
Thus the biosphere reserves protect not just wild varieties ies but also domesticated varieties of
plants of an area.
124. Prolonged liberal irrigation of agricultural fields is likely to create the problem of
(a) acidity
(b) aridity
(c) salinity
(b) ozone
(c) chloramine
(d) phenyl.
(b) gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species
(c) Antartica
(d) Greenland.
(b) Savanna
(c) prairie
133. Biodiversity Act of India was passed by the Parliament in the year.
(a) 1992
(b) 1996
(c) 2000
(d) 2002.
135. Limit of BOD prescribed by Central Pollution Control Board for the discharge of
industrial and municipal waste waters into natural surface waters, is
(a) < 30 ppm
(d) sharing of one or more resources between the two species (2006)
Both owl and cat feed on shrews and mice. They occupy the same niche because of being
ecological equivalents though their habitats are different.
(b) ozone
139. In which one of the following the BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of sewage (S),
distillery effluent (DE), paper mill effluent (PE) and sugar mill effluent (SE) have been
arranged in ascending order?
(a) SE < PE < S < DE
Rajesh Nayak
(b) PE < S < SE < DE
(c) CO
(d) SO2.
Answer and Explanation:
140. (b): SPM is suspended particulate matter which is less than 10 p.m remaining in air for more
than one day to several weeks. It includes aerosol, dust, mist, smoke, soot etc.
141. Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of
(a) population
(b) landscape
(c) ecosystem
(d) Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water bodies.
144. If the mean and the median pertaining to a certain character of a population are of the
same value, the following is most likely to occur
(a) a bi-modal distribution
(d) mutualism.
Rajesh Nayak
146. Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary
productivity?
(a) tropical deciduous forest
Tropical rain forests occur over equatorial/subequatorial regions with abundant warmth and
rainfall. Diversity and productivity are maximum as compared to other regions.
147. Which one of the following pairs of organisms are exotic species introduced in India?
(a) Lantana camara, water hyacinth
(d) sludge-worms.
Rajesh Nayak
148. (b): Some plants and animals act as the measure of existing environmental conditions
because of their response to these conditions. The organisms are called bioindicators. From the
given options, stone flies do not act as bioindicator of water pollution.
Rajesh Nayak
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Latest Environmental Engineering Questions and Answers
1. Assertion A : The consumption of water increases with increase in the distribution pressure.
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b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. Labels
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true. A.C. Fundamentals
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b) 0.05 to 0.5 ppm Strength of Materials Questio
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d) 1.0 to 5.0 ppm Strengths of Meterials Online
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Structural Analysis Objective
33. The dissolved oxygen level in natural unpolluted waters at normal temperature is found to be of the order of and Answers
a) 1 mg/litre Structural Analysis Online Qu
b) 10 mg/litre Questions
c) 100 mg/litre Surveying Online Quiz Quest
d) 1000 mg/litre Surveying Problems Quiz que
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34. The velocity of flow of water in a sedimentation tank is about Switchgear Protections Quiz
a) 5 to 10 cm/sec. and Answers
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c) 15 to 30 cm/minute
d) 15 to 30 cm/hour Synchronous Motors Quiz Qu
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Theory of Machines Objective
Questions and Answers
35. The length of rectangular sedimentation tank should not be more than
Theory of Machines Online Q
a) B
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b) 2B
Questions
c) 4B
Thermodynamics Model Exam
d) 8B
Thermodynamics Objective T
where B is the width of the tank
Questions and Answers
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Thermodynamics Online Elec
Mechanical Engineering Tes
36. The overflow rate for plain sedimentation tanks is about
Thermodynamics Online Elec
a) 500 to 750 litres/hour/ m2 4 Mechanical Engineering T
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c) 1250 to 1500 litres/hour/m2
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d) 1500 to 2000 litres/hour/m2 And Answers
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TOP Civil Engineering Multiple
37. Percentage of bacterial load that can be removed from water by the process of plain sedimentation is about Questions and Answers
a) 10 to 25 Transformers Online Quiz tes
b) 50
Transformers Quiz Questions
c) 75 Answers
d) 100 Transmission and Distribution
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Transmission and Distribution
38. The settling velocity of a particle in a sedimentation tank depends on Questions
a) depth of tank Tunnel Engineering Objective
b) surface area of tank Questions and Answers
c) both depth and surface area of tank Water Resources and Irrigati
d) none of the above Engineering
Ans:b Water Resources Engineering
Hydrology Online Quiz Quest
39. The settling velocity of a particle in a sedimentation tank increases if
a) particle size is decreased
b) the surface area of tank is increased
c) the depth of tank is decreased
d) none of the above
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Ans:d
40. For a given discharge, the efficiency of sedimentation tank can be increased by
a) increasing the depth of tank
b) decreasing the depth of tank
liquid filtration
c) increasing the surface area of tank Quality filter elements
d) decreasing the surface area of tank systems O&G, Refinin
Ans:c
Petrochem, more
41. The detention period and overflow rate respectively for plain sedimentation as compared to sedimentation with ftc-houston.com
coagulation are generally
a) less and more
b) less and less
c) more and less
d) more and more
Ans:c
42. The amount of coagulant needed for coagulation of water increases with
i) increase in turbidity of water
ii) decrease in turbidity of water
iii) increase in temperature of water
iv) decrease in temperature of water
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (i)and(iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans:b
43. Alum as a coagulant is found to be most effective when pH range of water is
a) 2 to 4
b) 4 to 6
c) 6 to 8
d) 8 to 10
Ans:c
44. The detention period in coagulation tanks is usually kept as
a) 1 to 2 minutes
b) 30 to 45 minutes
c) 2 to 6 hours
d) 2 to 6 days
Ans:c
45. The alum, when added as a coagulant in water
a) does not require alkalinity in water for flocculation
b) does not affect pH value of water
c) increases pH value of water
d) decreases pH value of water
Ans:d
46. The chemical most commonly used to increase speed of sedimentation of sewage is
a) sulphuric acid
b) copper sulphate
c) lime
d) sodium permanganate
Ans:c
47. In water treatment, rapid gravity filters are adopted to remove
a) dissolved organic substances
b) dissolved solids and dissolved gases
c) floating solids and dissolved inorganic solids
d) bacteria and colloidal solids
Ans:d
48. The rate of filtration in slow sand filters in million litres per day per hectare is about
a) 50 to 60
b) 100 to 150
c) 500 to 600
d) 1400 to 1500
Ans:a
49. The effective size of sand particles used in slow sand filters is
a) 0.25 to 0.35 mm
b) 0.35 to 0.60 mm
c) 0.60 to 1.00 mm
d) 1.00 to 1.80 mm
Ans:a
50. As compared to rapid sand filters, slow sand filters give
i) slower filtration rate
ii) higher filtration rate
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iii) lesser efficiency in removal of bacteria
iv) higher efficiency in removal of bacteria The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (i) and (iv)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans:c
51. Assertion A: Slow sand filters are more efficient in removal of bacteria than rapid sand filters.
Reason R : The sand used in slow sand filters is finer than that in rapid sand filters.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans:a
52. Air binding phenomena in rapid sand filters occur due to
a) excessive negative head
b) mud ball formation
c) higher turbidity in the effluent
d) low temperature
Ans:a
53. The percentage of filtered water, which is used for backwashing in rapid sand filters, is about
a) 0.2 to 0.4
b) 0.4 to 1.0
c) 2 to 4
d) 5 to 7
Ans:c
54. Period of cleaning of slow sand filters is about
a) 24 48 hours
b) 1012 days
c) 23 months
d) 12 year
Ans:c
55. The rate of Alteration of pressure filters is
a) less than that of slow sand filters
b) in between the filtration rate of slow sand filters and rapid sand filters
c) greater than that of rapid sand filters
d) equal to that of slow sand filters
Ans:c
56. Double filtration is used
a) to increase the filtration slow sand filters capacity of
b) to increase the filtration rapid sand filters capacity of
c) for isolated buildings like pools, hotels etc swimming
d) all of the above
Ans:a
57. Cleaning is done by
i) scraping and removal in filters slow sand
ii) back washing in slow sand filters
iii) scraping and removal in filters rapid sand
iv) back washing in rapid sand filters
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (i) and (iv)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans:c
58. Disinfection of water results in
a) removal of turbidity
b) removal of hardness
c) killing of disease bacteria
d) complete sterilisation
Ans:c
59. The disinfection efficiency of chlorine increases by
i) decreasing the time of contact
ii) decreasing the temperature of water
iii) increasing the temperature of water The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) both (i) and (ii)
c) both (i) and (iii)
d) only (iii)
Ans:d
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60. Chlorine demand of water is equal to
a) applied chlorine
b) residual chlorine
c) sum of applied and residual chlorine
d) difference of applied and residual chlorine
Ans:d
61. The process in which the chlorination is done beyond the break point is known as
a) prechlorination
b) post chlorination
c) super chlorination
d) break point chlorination
Ans:c
62. The percentage of chlorine in fresh bleaching powder is about
a) 10 to 15
b) 20 to 25
c) 30 to 35
d) 40 to 50
Ans:c
63. The treatment of water with bleaching powder is known as
a) prechlorination
b) super chlorination
c) dechlorination
d) hypochlorination
Ans:d
64. The suitable method for disinfection of swimming pool water is
a) ultra violet rays treatment
b) lime treatment
c) by using potassium permanganate
d) chlorination
Ans:a
65. Which of the following chemical compounds can be used for dechlorination of water ?
a) carbon dioxide
b) bleaching powder
c) sulphur dioxide
d) chloramines
Ans:c
66. In chlorination, with the rise in temperature of water, death rate of bacteria
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains unaffected
d) none of the above
Ans:a
67. As compared to higher pH values, the contact period required for efficient chlorination at lower pH values is
a) smaller
b) larger
c) same
d) none of the above
Ans:a
68. Disinfection efficiency is
a) reduced at higher pH value of water
b) unaffected by pH value of water
c) increased at higher pH value of water
d) highest at pH value equal to 7
Ans:a
69. In limesoda process
a) only carbonate hardness is removed
b) only noncarbonate hardness is removed
c) lime reduces the carbonate hardness and sodaash removes the noncarbo¬nate hardness
d) lime reduces the noncarbonate hardness and sodaash removes the carbo¬nate hardness
Ans:c
70. The major disadvantage of lime soda process of water softening is that
a) it is unsuitable for turbid and acidic water
b) huge amount of precipitate is formed which creates a disposal problem
c) the effluent cannot be reduced to zero hardness
d) it is unsuitable for softening the water of excessive hardness
Ans:b
71. Which of the following compounds is widely used for algae control ?
a) sodium sulphate
b) copper sulphate
c) sodium chloride
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d) calcium chloride
Ans:b
72. Activated carbon is used for
a) disinfection
b) removing hardness
c) removing odours
d) removing corrosiveness
Ans:c
73. As compared to cast iron pipes, steel pipes are
a) heavier
b) stronger
c) costlier
d) less susceptible to corrosion
Ans:b
74. The suitable layout of a distribution system for irregularly growing town is
a) dead end system
b) grid iron system
c) radial system
d) ring system
Ans:a
75. The layout of distribution system in which water flows towards the outer periphery is
a) ring system
b) dead end system
c) radial system
d) grid iron system
Ans:c
76. The suitable layout of distribution system for a city with roads of rectangular pattern is
a) grid iron system
b) dead end system
c) ring system
d) radial system
Ans:a
77. The commonly used material for water supply pipes, which has the properties of being strong, not easily corroded and
long life but is heavy and brittle is
a) steel
b) cast iron
c) copper
d) reinforced cement concrete
Ans:b
78. Hardy cross method of analysis of distribution system
i) involves successive trials
ii) takes economic aspects into account
iii) is time consuming
The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) (i)and(ii)
c) (i) and (iii)
d) all are correct
Ans:c
79. The method of analysis of distribution system in which the domestic supply is neglected and fire demand is considered
is
a) circle method
b) equivalent pipe method
c) electrical analysis method
d) Hardy cross method
Ans:a
80. Which of the following methods of analysis of water distribution system is most suitable for long and narrow pipe
system ?
a) circle method
b) equivalent pipe method
c) Hardy cross method
d) electrical analysis method
Ans:b
81. The type of valve which is provided to control the flow of water in the distribution system at street corners and where
the pipe lines intersect is
a) check valve
b) sluice valve
c) safety valve
d) scour valve
Ans:b
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82. The type of valve which allows water to flow in one direction but prevents its flow in the reverse direction is
a) reflux valve
b) sluice valve
c) air relief valve
d) pressure relief valve
Ans:a
83. Scour valves are provided
a) at street corners to control the flow of water
b) at every depression and dead ends to drain out the waste water that may collect there
c) at the foot of rising main along the slope to prevent back running of water
d) at every summit of rising mains
Ans:b
84. A sewer that receives the discharge of a number of house sewers is called
a) house sewer
b) lateral sewer
c) intercepting sewer
d) submain sewer
Ans:b
85. A pipe conveying sewage from plumbing system of a single building to common sewer or point of immediate disposal is
called
a) house sewer
b) lateral sewer
c) main sewer
d) submain sewer
Ans:a
86. For a country like India, where rainfall is mainly confined to one season, the suitable sewerage system will be
a) separate system
b) combined system
c) partially combined system
d) partially separate system
Ans:a
87. Average rate of water consumption perhead per day as per Indian Standard is
a) 100 litres
b) 135 litres
c) 165 litres
d) 200 litres
Ans:b
88. Sewerage system is usually designed for
a) 10 years
b) 25 years
c) 50 years
d) 75 years
Ans:b
89. Which of the following sewers is preferred for combined system of sewage ?
a) circular sewer
b) egg shaped sewer
c) rectangular sewer
d) none of the above
Ans:b
90. The suitable system of sanitation for area of distributed rainfall throughout the year with less intensity is
a) separate system
b) combined system
c) partially separate system
d) partially combined system
Ans:b
91. The water carriage system of collection of waste product
a) is cheaper in initial cost than dry conservancy system
b) requires treatment before disposal
c) creates hygenic problem
d) all of the above
Ans:b
92. If the time of concentration is 9 minutes, then the intensity of rainfall according to British Ministry of Health formula will
be
a) 4 mm/hr
b) lOmm/hr
c) 20 mm/hr
d) 40 mm/hr
Ans:d
93. The time of concentration is defined as
a) the time taken by rainfall water to run from most distant point of water shed to the inlet of sewer
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b) the time required for flow of water in sewer to the point under consideration
c) sum of (a) and (b)
d) difference of (a) and (b)
Ans:c
94. The specific gravity of sewage is
a) much greater than 1
b) slightly less than 1
c) equal to 1
d) slightly greater than 1
Ans:d
95. The self cleansing velocity for all sewers in India is usually
a) less than 1.0 m/sec
b) 1.0 m/sec to 1.2 m/sec
c) 1.5 m/sec to 2.0 m/sec
d) 3.0 m/sec to 3.5 m/sec
Ans:b
96. The slope of sewer shall be
a) given in the direction of natural slope of ground
b) given in the direction opposite to natural slope of ground
c) zero
d) steeper than 1 in 20
Ans:a
97. The design discharge for the separate sewer system shall be taken as
a) equal to dry weather flow (DWF)
b) 2xDWF
c) 3 x DWF
d) 6xDWF
Ans:d
98. The design discharge for the combined sewer system shall be taken as
a) equal to rainfall
b) rainfall + DWF
c) rainfall + 2 DWF
d) rainfall + 6 DWF
Ans:c
99. The minimum and maximum diameters of sewers shall preferably be
a) 15 cm and 100 cm
b) 15 cm and 300 cm
c) 30 cm and 450 cm
d) 60 cm and 300cm
Ans:b
100. The main disadvantage of cement concrete sewers is
a) less strength
b) difficulty in construction
c) difficulty in transportation due to heavy weight
d) less life
Ans:c
101. Most suitable section of sewer in separate sewage system is
a) rectangular section
b) circular section
c) standard form of egg shaped sewer
d) modified egg shaped section
Ans:b
102. An egg shaped section of sewer
a) is economical than circular section
b) provides self cleansing velocity at low discharges
c) is more stable than circular section
d) is easy to construct
Ans:b
103. The velocity of flow does not depend on
a) grade of sewer
b) length of sewer
c) hydraulic mean depth of sewer
d) roughness of sewer
Ans:b
104. The hydraulic mean depth (HMD) for an eggshaped sewer flowing twothird full is
a) equal to HMD when flowing full
b) less than HMD when flowing full
c) greater than HMD when flowing full
d) none of the above
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Ans:c
105. The effect of increasing diameter of sewer on the self cleansing velocity is
a) to decrease it
b) to increase it
c) fluctuating
d) nil
Ans:b
106. The most commonly used sewer under culverts is
a) circular brick sewer
b) circular cast iron sewer
c) semielliptical sewer
d) horseshoe type sewer
Ans:a
107. The type of sewer which is suitable for both combined and separate system is
a) circular sewer
b) egg shaped sewer
c) horseshoe type sewer
d) semielliptical sewer
Ans:b
108. The characteristics of fresh and septic sewage respectively are
a) acidic and alkaline
b) alkaline and acidic
c) both acidic
d) both alkaline
Ans:b
109. The pathogens can be killed by
a) nitrification
b) chlorination
c) oxidation
d) none of the above
Ans:b
110. Which of the following retards the self purification of stream ?
a) higher temperature
b) sunlight
c) satisfying oxygen demand
d) none of the above
Ans:d
111. Sewage treatment units are normally designed for
a) 510 years
b) 1520 years
c) 3040 years
d) 4050 years
Ans:b
112. Settling velocity increases with
a) specific gravity of solid particles
b) size of particles
c) depth of tank
d) temperature of liquid
Ans:c
113. Standard BOD is measured at
a) 20°C 1day
b) 25°C 3day
c) 20°C 5day
d) 30°C 5day
Ans:c
114. The correct relation between theoretical oxygen demand (TOD), Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) and Chemical
oxygen demand (COD) is given by
a) TOD>BOD>COD
b) TOD>COD>BOD
c) BOD>COD>TOD
d) COD>BOD>TOD
Ans:b
115. Select the correct statement.
a) 5 day BOD is the ultimate BOD.
b) 5 day BOD is greater than 4 day BOD keeping other conditions same.
c) 5 day BOD is less than 4 day BOD keeping other conditions same.
d) BOD does nof depend on time.
Ans:c
116. If Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of a town is 20000 kg/day and BOD per capita per day is 0.05 kg, then
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population equivalent of town is
a) 1000
b) 4000
c) 100000
d) 400000
Ans:d
117. The rate of BOD exerted at any time is
a) directly proportional to BOD satisfied
b) directly proportional to BOD remaining ,
c) inversely proportional to BOD satisfied
d) inversely proportional to BOD remaining
Ans:b
118. The ratio of 5 day BOD to ultimate BOD is about
a) 1/3
b) 2/3
c) 3/4
d) 1.0
Ans:b
119. In a BOD test, 1.0 ml of raw sewage was diluted to 100 ml and the dissolved oxygen concentration of diluted sample at
the beginning was 6 ppm and it was 4 ppm at the end of 5 day incubation at 20°C.
The BOD of raw sewage will be
a) 100 ppm
b) 200 ppm
c) 300 ppm
d) 400 ppm
Ans:b
120. The minimum dissolved oxygen which should always be present in water in order to save the aquatic life is
a) 1 ppm
b) 4 ppm
c) 10 ppm
d) 40 ppm
Ans:b
121. The relative stability of a sewage sample, whose dissolved oxygen is same as the total oxygen required to satisfy BOD,
is
a) 1
b) 100
c) infinite
d) zero
Ans:b
122. Dissolved oxygen in streams is
a) maximum at noon
b) minimum at noon
c) maximum at midnight
d) same throughout the day
Ans:a
123. Facultative bacteria are able to work in
a) presence of oxygen only
b) absence of oxygen only
c) presence as well as in absence of oxygen
d) presence of water
Ans:c
124. The means of access for inspection and cleaning of sewer line is known as
a) inlet
b) manhole
c) drop manhole
d) catch basin
Ans:b
125. Sewerage system is designed for
a) maximum flow only
b) minimum flow only
c) average flow only
d) maximum and minimum flow
Ans:d
126. Sewage treatment units are designed for
a) maximum flow only
b) minimum flow only
c) average flow only
d) maximum and minimum flow
Ans:c
127. Laying of sewers is usually done with the help of
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a) a theodolite
b) a compass
c) sight rails and boning rods
d) a plane table
Ans:c
128. Corrosion in concrete sewers is caused by
a) septic conditions
b) dissolved oxygen
c) chlorine
d) nitrogen
Ans:a
129. If the sewage contains grease and fatty oils, these are removed in
a) grit chambers
b) detritus tanks
c) skimming tanks
d) sedimentation tanks
Ans:c
130. Generally the detention period for grit chambers is kept as
a) 1 minute
b) 5 minutes
c) 24 hours
d) 12 hours
Ans:a
131. Which of the following unit works in anaerobic conditions?
a) sludge digestion tank
b) sedimentation tank
c) activated sludge treatment
d) trickling filters
Ans:a
132. Septic tank is a
i) settling tank
ii) digestion tank
iii) aeration tank
The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) (i) and (ii)
c) (i) and (iii)
d) only (iii)
Ans:b
133. The maximum efficiency of BOD removal is achieved in
a) oxidation pond
b) oxidation ditch
c) aerated lagoons
d) trickling filters
Ans:b
134. The working conditions in imhoff tanks are
a) aerobic only
b) anaerobic only
c) aerobic in lower compartment and anaerobic in upper compartment
d) anaerobic in lower compartment and aerobic in upper compartment
Ans:d
135. In facultative stabilization pond, the sewage is treated by
a) aerobic bacteria only
b) algae only
c) dual action of aerobic bacteria and anaerobic bacteria
d) sedimentation
Ans:c
136. The detention period for oxidation ponds is usually kept as
a) 48 hours
b) 24 hours
c) 10 to 15 days
d) 3 months
Ans:c
137. Composting and lagooning are the methods of
a) sludge digestion
b) sludge disposal
c) sedimentation
d) filtration
Ans:b
138. The main disadvantage of oxidation pond is that
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a) large area is required for construction
b) maintenance and operation cost are high
c) BOD removal is very low
d) none of the above
Ans:a
139. For satisfactory working of a sludge digestion unit, the pH range of digested sludge should be maintained as
a) 4.5 to 6.0
b) 6.5 to 8.0
c) 8.5 to 10.0
d) 10.5 to 12.0
Ans:b
140. Sludge volume index is defined as the ratio of
a) percentage of sludge by volume to percentage of suspended solids by weight
b) percentage of sludge by volume to percentage of total solids by weight
c) percentage of suspended solids by weight to percentage of sludge by volume
d) percentage of total solids by weight to percentage of sludge by volume
Ans:a
141. For normal sludge, the value of sludge index for Indian conditions is
a) 0 to 50
b) 50 to 150
c) 150 to 350
d) 350 to 500
Ans:c
142. When there is no recirculation of sewage, then recirculation factor is
a) 0
b) 1
c) infinity
d) none of the above
Ans:b
143. For the same solid content, if the quantity of sludge with moisture content of 98% is X, then the quantity of sludge with
moisture content of 96% will be
a) X/4
b) X/2
c) X
d) 2X
Ans:b
144. A pipe which is installed in the house drainage to preserve the water seal of traps is called
a) vent pipe
b) antisiphonage pipe
c) waste pipe
d) soil pipe
Ans:b
145. In the twopipe system of house plumbing, the pipes required are
a) one soil pipe, one waste pipe and one vent pipe
b) one soil pipe, two waste pipes and one vent pipe
Ans:c
146. The pipe which is used to carry the discharge from sanitary fittings like bath rooms, kitchens etc. is called
a) waste pipe
b) soil pipe
c) vent pipe
d) antisiphonage pipe
Ans:a
147. The gas from sludge digestion tank is mainly composed of
a) nitrogen
b) carbon dioxide
c) hydrogen sulphide
d) methane
Ans:d
148. Most of the bacteria in sewage are
a) parasitic
b) saprophytic
c) pathogenic
d) anaerobic
Ans:b
149. The process of lagooning is primarily a means of
a) reducing the excessive flow in sewers
b) disposing of sludge
c) increasing the capacity of storage reservoirs
d) increasing flow of sewage through imhoff tanks
Ans:b
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150. The biochemical treatment of sewage effluents is essentially a process of
a) oxidation
b) dehydration
c) reduction
d) alkalinization
Ans:a
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Labels: Environmental Engineering Objective type Questions and Answers
2 comments:
Avinash Kumar 26 March 2016 at 09:18
गुड
Reply
Evan Wright 17 August 2016 at 05:17
Great post. This article is really very interesting and enjoyable. I think its must be helpful and informative for us. Thanks for sharing
your nice post.
environmental consulting
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Answers pdf
1. Assertion A : The consumption of water increases with increase in the distribution pressure.
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Mass Transfer
77. The commonly used material for water supply pipes, which has the properties of being strong, not easily corroded and
long life but is heavy and brittle is Railway Engineering Online Q
Questions
a) steel
Railways - Civil Engineering
b) cast iron and Answers
c) copper
Realtime Chemical Engineeri
d) reinforced cement concrete Economics Objective Type Q
Ans:b And Answers
Realtime Chemical Process
78. Hardy cross method of analysis of distribution system choice Questions and Answe
i) involves successive trials Realtime Fertilizer Technolog
ii) takes economic aspects into account Type Questions And Answers
iii) is time consuming Realtime Heat Transfer Multi
The correct answer is Questions and Answers pdf
a) only (i) Realtime Mass Transfer Mult
Questions and Answers pdf
b) (i)and(ii)
c) (i) and (iii) Realtime Materials And Cons
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d) all are correct pdf
Ans:c Realtime Polymer Technolog
choice Questions and Answe
79. The method of analysis of distribution system in which the domestic supply is neglected and fire demand is considered is Realtime Process Control An
a) circle method Instrumentation Multiple cho
b) equivalent pipe method Questions and Answers pdf
c) electrical analysis method Realtime Refractory Technolo
d) Hardy cross method Objective type Questions an
pdf
Ans:a
Recent questions and answe
Environmental Enggineering
80. Which of the following methods of analysis of water distribution system is most suitable for long and narrow pipe
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system ? Interview Questions And Ans
a) circle method Recently Asked Chemical En
b) equivalent pipe method Basics Objective Type Quest
c) Hardy cross method Answers
d) electrical analysis method Recently Asked Chemical Re
Ans:b Engineering Multiple Choice
And Answers
81. The type of valve which is provided to control the flow of water in the distribution system at street corners and where the Recently Asked Fuels andcom
questions and answers
pipe lines intersect is
Recently Asked Materials an
a) check valve Construction Multiple Choice
b) sluice valve
Recently Asked Mechanical O
c) safety valve Multiple Choice Questions An
d) scour valve Recently Asked Petroleum R
Ans:b Engineering Objective type Q
and Answers pdf
82. The type of valve which allows water to flow in one direction but prevents its flow in the reverse direction is Recently Asked Process Cont
a) reflux valve Instrumentation questions a
pdf
b) sluice valve
c) air relief valve Recently Asked Process Equi
Plant Design Multiple Choice
d) pressure relief valve ANd Answers
Ans:a Rectifiers and Converters Qu
Questions and Answers
83. Scour valves are provided Refractory Technology - Che
a) at street corners to control the flow of water Engineering Questions and A
b) at every depression and dead ends to drain out the waste water that may collect there Refractory Technology interv
c) at the foot of rising main along the slope to prevent back running of water Questions And Answers
d) at every summit of rising mains
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Ans:b Refregiration and air Conditi
Online Practice Test
84. A sewer that receives the discharge of a number of house sewers is called Refrigeration and Air Conditi
a) house sewer Objective type Questions an
b) lateral sewer Sample multiple-choice ques
Process Equipment And Plan
c) intercepting sewer
d) submain sewer Single Phase Induction Moto
Questions and Answers
Ans:b
Soil Mechanics and Foundati
Engineering Objective Quest
85. A pipe conveying sewage from plumbing system of a single building to common sewer or point of immediate disposal is Answers
called Soil Mechanics and Foundati
a) house sewer Engineering Online Quiz Que
b) lateral sewer Steam Boilers
c) main sewer Steam Boilers and Turbines
d) submain sewer practice Questions
Ans:a Steam Boilers and Turbines
Questions
86. For a country like India, where rainfall is mainly confined to one season, the suitable sewerage system will be Strength of Materials Object
a) separate system Questions and Answers
b) combined system Strength of Materials Online
c) partially combined system Questions
d) partially separate system Strength of Materials Questi
Answers
Ans:a
Strengths of Meterials Online
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87. Average rate of water consumption perhead per day as per Indian Standard is
Structural Analysis Objective
a) 100 litres and Answers
b) 135 litres
Structural Analysis Online Q
c) 165 litres Questions
d) 200 litres Surveying Online Quiz Quest
Ans:b
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Switchgear Protections Onlin
88. Sewerage system is usually designed for Questions
a) 10 years
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b) 25 years and Answers
c) 50 years Synchronous Motors Online
d) 75 years Questions
Ans:b Synchronous Motors Quiz Qu
Answers
89. Which of the following sewers is preferred for combined system of sewage ? The Fundamentals of Nuclea
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b) egg shaped sewer Theory of Machines Objectiv
c) rectangular sewer Questions and Answers
d) none of the above Theory of Machines Online Q
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Theory of Machines Online Q
Questions
90. The suitable system of sanitation for area of distributed rainfall throughout the year with less intensity is
a) separate system Thermodynamics Model Exam
b) combined system Thermodynamics Objective T
Questions and Answers
c) partially separate system
d) partially combined system Thermodynamics Online Elec
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Ans:b
Thermodynamics Online Elec
4 - Mechanical Engineering T
91. The water carriage system of collection of waste product
Thermodynamics Online Mod
a) is cheaper in initial cost than dry conservancy system
Thermodynamics Online Qui
b) requires treatment before disposal And Answers
c) creates hygenic problem
Thermodynamics Sample Mo
d) all of the above
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92. If the time of concentration is 9 minutes, then the intensity of rainfall according to British Ministry of Health formula will Interview Questions Answer
be TOP Chemical Process Multip
a) 4 mm/hr Questions and Answers pdf
b) lOmm/hr TOP Civil Engineering Multip
c) 20 mm/hr Questions and Answers
d) 40 mm/hr TOP Heat Transfer
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TOP Materials And Construct
93. The time of concentration is defined as choice Questions and Answe
a) the time taken by rainfall water to run from most distant point of water shed to the inlet of sewer TOP Nuclear Power - Chemic
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And Answers
c) sum of (a) and (b)
Transformers Online Quiz tes
d) difference of (a) and (b)
Ans:c Transformers Quiz Questions
Answers
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94. The specific gravity of sewage is Questions and Answers
a) much greater than 1
Transmission and Distributio
b) slightly less than 1 Questions
c) equal to 1 Tricky Chemical Engineering
d) slightly greater than 1 Economics Objective Type Q
Ans:d And Answers
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95. The self cleansing velocity for all sewers in India is usually Tricky Chemical Process Mul
a) less than 1.0 m/sec Questions and Answers pdf
b) 1.0 m/sec to 1.2 m/sec Tricky Electronics And Comm
c) 1.5 m/sec to 2.0 m/sec Enginnering Objective Type
and Answers pdf
d) 3.0 m/sec to 3.5 m/sec
Tricky Fertilizer Technology O
Ans:b Questions And Answers
Tricky Heat Transfer Multiple
96. The slope of sewer shall be Questions and Answers pdf
a) given in the direction of natural slope of ground Tricky Industrial Engineering
b) given in the direction opposite to natural slope of ground Type Questions And Answers
c) zero Tricky Marine Engineering m
d) steeper than 1 in 20 Choice Questions And Answe
Ans:a Tricky Mass Transfer Multiple
Questions and Answers pdf
Tricky Petroleum Refinery En
97. The design discharge for the separate sewer system shall be taken as Multiple choice Questions an
pdf
a) equal to dry weather flow (DWF)
b) 2xDWF Tricky Process Control And
Instrumentation Multiple cho
c) 3 x DWF Questions and Answers pdf
d) 6xDWF Tricky Process Equipment An
Ans:d Design Interview Questions
ANswers
98. The design discharge for the combined sewer system shall be taken as Tricky Process Equipment An
a) equal to rainfall Design Multiple choice Quest
Answers pdf
b) rainfall + DWF
c) rainfall + 2 DWF Tunnel Engineering Objective
Questions and Answers
d) rainfall + 6 DWF
Water Resources and Irrigat
Ans:c Engineering
Water Resources Engineering
99. The minimum and maximum diameters of sewers shall preferably be Hydrology Online Quiz Ques
a) 15 cm and 100 cm
b) 15 cm and 300 cm
c) 30 cm and 450 cm
d) 60 cm and 300cm
Ans:b
104. The hydraulic mean depth (HMD) for an egg-shaped sewer flowing two-third full is
a) equal to HMD when flowing full
b) less than HMD when flowing full
c) greater than HMD when flowing full
d) none of the above
Ans:c
105. The effect of increasing diameter of sewer on the self cleansing velocity is
a) to decrease it
b) to increase it
c) fluctuating
d) nil
Ans:b
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c) semi-elliptical sewer
d) horse-shoe type sewer
Ans:a
107. The type of sewer which is suitable for both combined and separate system is
a) circular sewer
b) egg shaped sewer
c) horse-shoe type sewer
d) semi-elliptical sewer
Ans:b
114. The correct relation between theoretical oxygen demand (TOD), Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) and Chemical
oxygen demand (COD) is given by
a) TOD>BOD>COD
b) TOD>COD>BOD
c) BOD>COD>TOD
d) COD>BOD>TOD
Ans:b
116. If Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of a town is 20000 kg/day and BOD per capita per day is 0.05 kg, then population
equivalent of town is
a) 1000
b) 4000
c) 100000
d) 400000
Ans:d
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Ans:b
119. In a BOD test, 1.0 ml of raw sewage was diluted to 100 ml and the dissolved oxygen concentration of diluted sample at
the beginning was 6 ppm and it was 4 ppm at the end of 5 day incubation at 20°C.
The BOD of raw sewage will be
a) 100 ppm
b) 200 ppm
c) 300 ppm
d) 400 ppm
Ans:b
120. The minimum dissolved oxygen which should always be present in water in order to save the aquatic life is
a) 1 ppm
b) 4 ppm
c) 10 ppm
d) 40 ppm
Ans:b
121. The relative stability of a sewage sample, whose dissolved oxygen is same as the total oxygen required to satisfy BOD,
is
a) 1
b) 100
c) infinite
d) zero
Ans:b
124. The means of access for inspection and cleaning of sewer line is known as
a) inlet
b) manhole
c) drop manhole
d) catch basin
Ans:b
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129. If the sewage contains grease and fatty oils, these are removed in
a) grit chambers
b) detritus tanks
c) skimming tanks
d) sedimentation tanks
Ans:c
139. For satisfactory working of a sludge digestion unit, the pH range of digested sludge should be maintained as
a) 4.5 to 6.0
b) 6.5 to 8.0
c) 8.5 to 10.0
d) 10.5 to 12.0
Ans:b
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141. For normal sludge, the value of sludge index for Indian conditions is
a) 0 to 50
b) 50 to 150
c) 150 to 350
d) 350 to 500
Ans:c
143. For the same solid content, if the quantity of sludge with moisture content of 98% is X, then the quantity of sludge with
moisture content of 96% will be
a) X/4
b) X/2
c) X
d) 2X
Ans:b
144. A pipe which is installed in the house drainage to preserve the water seal of traps is called
a) vent pipe
b) antisiphonage pipe
c) waste pipe
d) soil pipe
Ans:b
145. In the two-pipe system of house plumbing, the pipes required are
a) one soil pipe, one waste pipe and one vent pipe
b) one soil pipe, two waste pipes and one vent pipe
Ans:c
146. The pipe which is used to carry the discharge from sanitary fittings like bath rooms, kitchens etc. is called
a) waste pipe
b) soil pipe
c) vent pipe
d) antisiphonage pipe
Ans:a
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1. Assertion (A): Biosphere constitutes an excellent life-support system which is sustainable and can fulfil all human needs.
Reason (R): The size and productivity of the Biosphere is limited by availability of water, nutrients and environmental
conditions.
Identify the correct code:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer: (D)
3. Scales of Meteorology are in the following order starting from the least
(A) Macro –, Micro –, Meso –
(B) Macro–, Meso–, Micro–
(C) Meso–, Macro–, Micro–
(D) Micro–, Meso–, Macro –
Answer: (D)
4. When the full potential of physical, chemical and biological factors, a species can use if there is no competition, it is
called
(A) Fundamental niche
(B) Ecological niche
(C) Realized niche
(D) Competitive exclusion
Answer: (A)
5. The uppermost zone of atmosphere of earth, where shortwave ultraviolet radiations are absorbed, is
(A) Troposphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Mesosphere
(D) Thermosphere
Answer: (D)www.netugc.com
6. which of the following oxides of nitrogen is the major air pollutant released from automobile exhausts?
(A) NO
(B) N2O
(C) NO2
(D) N2O3
Answer: (A)
7. Match List – I with List – II which contains pollutant gases and their threshold (safe limit) values as per WHO standards:
List – I List – II
(Pollutant gas) (Thresholds)
a. CO i. 2 ppm
b. SO2 ii. 50 ppm
c. NO iii. 0.08 ppm
d. PAN iv. 25 ppm
Identity the correct code:
Codes:
abcd
(A) ii iii i iv
(B) iv ii i iii
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) iii iv ii i
Answer: (C)
12. Which of the following organisms can act as primary consumer, secondary consumer, tertiary consumer or scavenger in
different types of food chains?
(A) Raven
(B) Tiger
(C) Snake
(D) Phytoplanktones
Answer: (A)
13. The tendency of biological systems to resist change and to remain in a state of equilibrium is called
(A) Homeostatis
(B) Feedback mechanism
(C) Ecological efficiency
(D) Carrying capacity
Answer: (A)
14. If different categories of threatened species are written in a sequence, what is the correct order?
(A) Extinct-> Vulnerable -> Rare -> Endangered
(B) Vulnerable -> Rare -> Endangered -> Extinct
(C) Vulnerable -> Rare -> Extinct -> Endangered
(D) Rare -> Vulnerable -> Endangered -> Extinct
Answer: (B)www.netugc.com
17. Preparation of hazard-zoning map in case of landslide prone regions involves comprehensive investigation of
(A) Details of structural and lithological settings.
(B) Geomorphic features relating to instability of slopes.
(C) Seismicity pattern of the region.
(D) all of the above.
Answer: (D)
18. If ap = specified value of peak acceleration, N = mean rate of occurrence of earthquake per year, tep = time interval of
consideration (exposure period) and Fap = probability that an observed acceleration is less than or equal to ap, then the
cumulative probability distribution of peak acceleration for epoch – dependent seismic hazard map is given by which
formula ?
(A) Fmaxtep = exp {–Nt(1 – Fap)}
(B) Fmax = exp {–Nt(1 – Fap)} . tep
(C) Fmaxtep= exp {–t(1 – Fap)N}
(D) All of the above
Answer: (A)
19. Assertion (A): In oceans, Na has the longest residence time, within an order of magnitude of the age of the oceans.
Reason (R): The long residence time of Na reflects a lack of reactivity of sodium in the marine environment by not being
readily incorporated in the common sedimentary minerals, nor being removed by biological reactions.
Identify the correct code:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
20. According to Goldieh the decreasing order of stability of following minerals of igneous rocks towards weathering is
(A) Muscovite > Quartz > Potash feldspar >Biotite
(B) Biotite> Potash feldspar >Muscovite > Quartz
(C) Quartz > Muscovite > Potash feldspar >Biotite
(D) Potash feldspar > Quartz >Muscovite >Biotite
Answer: (C)
21. In universal polar stereographic coordinate system the eastings and northings are computed using which projection
method?
(A) Polar aspect stereographic projection
(B) Non-polar aspect stereo graphic projection
(C) Polar aspect Mercator projection
(D) Non-polar aspect Mercator projection
Answer: (A)
24. If ‘a’ is the fractional wind speed decrease at the wind turbine, the maximum extraction of power from the wind occurs
when ‘a’ is equal to
(A) 1/2
(B) 1/3
(C) 1
(D) 3/5
Answer: (B)
26. Assertion (A): Natural gas is a very attractive eco friendly fuel.
Reason (R): It produces few pollutants and less carbon dioxide per unit energy than any other fossil fuel on combustion.
Identify the correct answer:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)www.netugc.com
28. Human activities add 7-9 gigatons of CO2 per annum into the atmosphere. Major contributor to this CO2 is
(A) Burning of fossil fuels
(B) Clearing of forests for agriculture
(C) Fermentation industries
(D) Cement industries
Answer: (A)
32. For noise control in automobiles, the exhaust muffler attenuates sound by
(A) Absorption
(B) Destructive interference
(C) Reducing velocity of hot gases
(D) Absorption and destructive interference
Answer: (C)
Answer: (C)
37. Match the Impact Assessment Methodologies (List – II) with the corresponding environments (List – I).
Identify the correct answer from thecodes given below the lists.
List – I List – II
a. Air i. Ecosystem models
b. Biological ii. Gaussian models
c. Water iii. Mass balance approach
d. Land iv. G.I.S.
Codes:
abcd
(A) ii i iii iv
(B) i ii iv iii
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv iii i ii
Answer: (A)
40. Municipal Solid Wastes (MSWs) have the heating value typically in the range
(A) 9,300 to 12,800 kJ/kg
(B) 1000 to 2500 kJ/kg
(C) 1780 to 2830 kJ/kg
(D) 530 to 780 kJ/kg
Answer: (A)
41. The Motor Vehicles Act 1938 was amended in which year?
(A) 1972
(B) 1980
(C) 1988
(D) 1986
Answer: (C)
42. The following statistical test is used to ascertain whether there is significant difference between the variances of two sets
of observations:
(A) t-test
(B) F-test
(C) Chi square test
(D) Regression
Answer: (B)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (A)
46. In the Gaussian Plume Model, the plume rise varies with Buoyancy Flux Parameter F as
(A) F
(B) F1/2
(C) F1/3
(D) F1/4
Answer: (C)
47. United Nations Conference on Environment, also termed as Earth Summit, was held in 1992 in which city?
(A) Rio de Janeiro
(B) Kyoto
(C) Stockholm
(D) Copenhagen
Answer: (A)
48. In which part of India, the tropical Western Ghats are situated?
(A) Punjab
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Gujarat
(D) Kerala
Answer: (D)
49. Variety of different species, genetic variability among individuals within each species and variety of ecosystems
constitute the so calledwww.netugc.com
(A) Species diversity
(B) Genetic diversity
(C) Biological diversity
(D) Ecological diversity
Answer: (C)
3. The third moment about the mean of a distribution of a set of observations is a measure of
(A) Mode
(B) Skewness
(C) Kurtosis
(D) Variance
Answer: (B)
4. Consider an air shed over a city in the form of a rectangular box. The wind velocity is 5 m/sec normal to left face of the
box. The length of the box along the direction of wind is 10 km and mixing height is 1 km. assuming rapid mixing of the
pollutants which are conservative in nature, the concentration of the pollutants in the city would reach 63% of its final value
in
(A) 2,000 sec
(B) 5,000 sec
(C) 10,000 sec
(D) 1,000 sec
Answer: (A)
6. Molar extinction coefficient of H2O2 at 240 nm is 0.04 M–1 cm–1. The concentration of H2O2 in a solution which has
absorbance of 0.6 in a 3 cm curette will be
(A) 5 M
(B) 10 M
(C) 15 M
(D) 20 M
Answer: (A)
Answer: (C)
9. Depending upon the amount of net primary productivity the various ecosystems can be arranged in a decreasing sequence
of yield.
(A) Tropical seasonal forest – Tropical rain forest – Temperate Grassland – Woodland and Shrubland.
(B) Tropical seasonal forest – Tropical rain forest – Woodland and Shrubland – Temperate Grassland
(C) Tropical rain forest – Temperate Grassland – Woodland and Shrubland – Tropical seasonal forest.
(D) Tropical rain forest – Tropical seasonal forest – Woodland and Shrubland – Temperate Grassland.
Answer: (D)
10. Which of the following is a correct sequence of secondary seral vegetation development on any habitat?
(A) Ecesis – Invasion – Aggregation – Stabilization
(B) Ecesis – Aggregation – Invasion – Stabilization
(C) Aggregation – Invasion – Ecesis– Stabilization
(D) Invasion – Ecesis – Aggregation – Stabilization
Answer: (B)
11. What is common feature among the following?
Abiesdelavayi
Aconitum diennorrhzum
Adinandragriffthii
Aglaiaperviridis
(A) All have been extinct.
(B) All are gymnosperms.
(C) All are identified as endangered species.
(D) All are angiosperms.
Answer: (C)
12. Raunkiaer’s normal biological spectrum for phanerogamic flora of the world exhibits one of the following sequences of
occurrence (%) of different life forms.
(A) Phanerophytes, Hemicryptophytes, Therophytes, Cryptophytes, Chaemophytes.
(B) Phanerophytes, Hemicryptophytes, Therophytes, Chaemophytes, Cryptophytes.
(C) Phanerophytes, Hemicryptophytes, Cryptophytes, Chaemophytes, Therophytes.
(D) Phanerophytes, Chaemophytes, Hemicryptophytes, Cryptophytes, Therophytes.
Answer: (B)
13. One of the following categories of earthworms is most suitable for wasteland reclamation.
(A) Epigeic
(B) Anecic
(C) Endogeic
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
14. How many mega-bio-diverse countries have been identified in the world?
(A) 2
(B) 12
(C) 17
(D) 35
Answer: (C)
16. Which one of the following is a methyl isocyanate (MIC) based pesticide?
(A) Sevin (Carbaryl)
(B) Temix (Aldicarb)
(C) Furadon (Carbofuran)
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
17. The sequence of fossil fuels in the order of higher to lower heating value is as follows:
(A) Coal, Petroleum, Natural Gas, Hydrogen.
(B) Hydrogen, Natural Gas, Petroleum, Coal.
(C) Hydrogen, Coal, Natural Gas, Petroleum.
(D) Natural Gas, Petroleum, Coal, Hydrogen.
Answer: (B)
18. Natural ore of radioactive materials does not contain which one of the following isotope?www.netugc.com
(A) U235
(B) Pu239
(C) U238
(D) Th232
Answer: (B)
22. Which one of the following radionuclides has the lowest half life period?
(A) C14
(B) Sr90
(C) I131
(D) Cs137
Answer: (C)
23. Match the rules mentioned in Column – I with year of enforcement mentioned in Column – II.
Column – I Column – II
a. Hazardous Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules 1. 2000
b. Biomedical Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules. 2. 1978
c. Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules 3. 1989
d. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Rules 4. 1998
Choose the correct code:
Codes:
abcd
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 1 3 4 2
Answer: (A)
24. Average composition of biodegradable waste in Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) of India is
(A) 30 – 35%
(B) 40 – 45%
(C) 55 – 65%
(D) 60 – 70%
Answer: (B)
25. The treatment method recommended for the human anatomical waste generated from hospitals is
(A) Chemical disinfection
(B) Autoclaving
(C) Incineration
(D) All the above
Answer: (C)
26. Match the waste class mentioned in Column – I with Color Code of the Collection Container mentioned in Column – II.
Column – I Column – II
a. Human Anatomical Waste 1. Blue
b. Waste Scrap 2. Green
c. Discarded glass ware 3. Red
d. Disposable plastics 4. White
Choose the correct code:
Codes:
abcd
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 4 2 3 1
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 3 1 4 2
Answer: (D)
27. Which of the following is true when frequency of occurrence of risk is remote but possible?
(A) Risk is acceptable.
(B) Risk reduction measures should be implemented.
(C) Risk is unacceptable.
(D) Both (A) and (B) are true.
Answer: (A)
28. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Indirect impacts are more difficult to measure, but can ultimately be more important.
Reason (R): In areas where wildlife is plentiful, such as Africa, new roads often lead to the rapid depletion of animals.
Choose the correct answer.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
30. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): It is difficult to judge how changes in localized gas samples represent more general conditions in the Volcano.
Reason (R): The composition of the juvenile gases emitted from volcanic vents offen show considerable variation over short
periods and distances.
Choose the correct answer.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
31. In a false – color set, human visual perception is limited to how many independent coordinates?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) One
(D) Five
Answer: (A)
32. If D = Detector Dimension, F = Focal Length, H = Flying Height, then Ground Resolution Element (GRE) is equal to
(A) (D/F) X H
(B) D/F
(C) H/F
(D) D/H
Answer: (A)
33. Darkest level of the associated color (RGB) would have brightness value equal to
(A) 0
(B) 256
(C) 255
(D) 2047
Answer: (A)
Answer: (A)
35. Match the List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Constituents of Particulate matter) (Sources)
a. Si 1. Natural Resources
b. PAH 2. Incomplete combustion of fossil fuels.
c. SO2-4 3. Elements largely introduced by Human Activities.
d. Pb 4. Reactions of a gas in atmosphere.
Choose the correct code:
Codes:
abcd
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 3 4 2 1
Answer: (A)
Answer: (B)
37. Scale lengths associated with synoptic scale phenomenon in atmosphere are typically in the range
(A) 10 – 100 km
(B) 200 – 40,000 km
(C) 10,000 – 100,000 km
(D) 1 – 10 km
Answer: (B)
38. Assume that the atmosphere is isothermal at 25 °C and the estimated maximum daily surface temperature is 35°C, the
mixing height is (take adiabatic lapse rate to be 1 °C per 100 m)
(A) 3.5 km
(B) 2.5 km
(C) 1.5 km
(D) 1 km
Answer: (D)
40. Two sounds of 80 dB and 85 Db superimpose at a location. What is the resultant sound at that location?
(A) ~ 82 dB
(B) ~ 87 dB
(C) ~ 91 dB
(D) ~ 165 dB
Answer: (A)
41. The coefficient of performance of a wind turbine for maximum power output iswww.netugc.com
(A) 13/18
(B) 5/8
(C) 16/27
(D) 11/17
Answer: (C)
42. Which of the following does not have a direct role in climate change?
(A) Sulphate and nitrate aerosols
(B) Black carbon aerosols
(C) Surface ozone
(D) Nitric oxide
Answer: (D)
43. Which method is used to separate molecules on the basis of their sizes?
(A) Ion exchange chromatography
(B) Molecular exclusion chromatography
(C) Adsorption chromatography
(D) Thin layer chromatography
Answer: (B)
45. Which of the following categories of plants get benefitted more due to elevation of CO2 level?
(A) C3 plants
(B) C4 plants
(C) CAM plants
(D) All of the above
Answer: (A)
46. Aquifers that extend continuously from the land surface through material of high permeability are
(A) Aquitards
(B) Auicludes
(C) Confined aquifers
(D) Unconfined aquifers
Answer: (D)
47. Which one of the following is used to determine ambient concentration of suspended particulate matter?
(A) Cascade impactor
(B) Kjeldahl’s Flask
(C) Sacchi Disk
(D) Folin-Wu method
Answer: (A)
48. Which of the following laws states that the solubility of a gas in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of that gas
in contact with liquid?
(A) Hick’s law
(B) Henry’s law
(C) Hardy-Weinburg law of equilibrium
(D) 2nd Law of Newton
Answer: (B)
50. The sequence of chemical constituents in order of their abundance in a majority of sedimentary rocks is
(A) SiO2 > TiO2 > Al2O3 > Fe2O3
(B) SiO2 > Al2O3 > Fe2O3 > TiO2
(C) SiO2 > Fe2O3 > Al2O3> TiO2
(D) SiO2 > Fe2O3 > TiO2> Al2O3
Answer: (B)
53. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Some plants with mycorrhizal fungi are able to occupy habitats that otherwise could not inhabit.
Reason (R): The importance of mycorrhizal plant interaction is attested by the fact that 95% of all plants have mycorrhizae.
Choose the correct answer:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
54. An interactive association between two populations in which one population benefits from the association, while the
other is not affected, is
(A) Mutualism
(B) Neutralism
(C) Commensalism
(D) Symbiosis
Answer: (C)
55. The method for down streaming of ethanol from fermentation broth is
(A) Filtration
(B) Flow cytometry
(C) Distillation
(D) Flame Photometry
Answer: (C)
57. Which bacteria removes copper from low grade copper ore?
(A) Thiobacillussp
(B) Bacillus thuringiensis
(C) Rhizobium sp
(D) All of the above
Answer: (A)
58. Which of the following is not a part of Geographic Information Syste (GIS)?
(A) Projection
(B) Overlay
(C) Reclassification
(D) Measuring distance and connectivity
Answer: (A)
60. A good automobile fuel, in addition to having high calorific value, should have
(A) High ignition temperature
(B) High viscosity
(C) Low ignition temperature
(D) Moderate ignition temperature
Answer: (D)
65. The drastic reduction in the number of intestinal pathogens during activated sludge process is the overall result of
(A) Competition
(B) Competition and adsorption
(C) Predation, competition and adsorption
(D) Competition, adsorption, predation and settling
Answer: (D)
66. Which of the following disinfection method does not result in synthesis of organochlorine?
(A) Chlorination
(B) Chloroamination
(C) Ozonation
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
69. Which of the following chemicals of anthropogenic origin mimics the effect of estrogen in animals?
(A) Alkyl phenol
(B) Polychlorinated biphenyl
(C) O, p’ - DDT
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
70. “Black Foot” disease in human beings caused due to use of water contaminated with
(A) Mercury
(B) Cadmium
(C) Silver
(D) Arsenic
Answer: (D)
73. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Animals adopt various strategies to survive in hostile environment.
Reason (R): Praying mantis is green in color which emerges with plant foliage.
Choose the correct code:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, with (R) being the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer: (C)
74. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Increasing temperature in the environment influences gonadal growth in fish.
Reason (R): Increase in day length causes increase in environmental temperature in summer.
Choose the correct code:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, and (R) is wrong.
(D) (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answer: (A)
1. If the standard deviation of a population is 20 and the standard error of mean is 4, then the sample size is
(A) 25
(B) 80
(C) 5
(D) 100
Answer: (A)
2. In a multiple regression model, the explained variance per d.f. is 50 and unexplained variance per d.f. is 10.
The F-ratio is
(A) 2.5
(B) 5
(C) 25
(D) 0.2
Answer: (B)
4. In the Gaussian Plume Model, the plume size is estimated considering buoyancy of exhaust gases, stack diameter, wind
speed and stability of the atmosphere. The plume size h depends on inside radius of stack (r) as
(A) h µ r
(B) h µ r1/3
(C) h µ r2/3
(D) h µ r2
Answer: (D)
12. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The phosphorous cycle in an ecosystem is a sedimentary cycle.
Reason (R): Phosphorous does not occur naturally as gas.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
16. The area where two major communities meet and blend together is termed as
(A) Ecotype
(B) Biotype
(C) Ecotone
(D) Meeting place
Answer: (C)
18. Walkley and Black rapid titration method is used for the determination of
(A) Organic carbon content of soil
(B) Nitrate content of soil
(C) Phosphate content of soil
(D) Fluoride content of soil
Answer: (A)
20. Of the following humic groups which is not soluble in both acid and alkali?
(A) Fulvic acid
(B) Humic acid
(C) Humin
(D) All of the above
Answer: (C)
21. The sources of thermal pollution are
(A) Power plants
(B) Cooling forests
(C) Industrial effluents
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
22. Which one of the following radionuclides has the longest half life?
(A) C14
(B) Sr90
(C) I131
(D) Cs137
Answer: (D)
23. What is the importance of the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution brought in the year 1976?
(A) Insertion of Article 48-A
(B) Insertion of Article 51-A (g)
(C) Insertion of Article 48-A and 51-A (g)
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
25. Which one of the following is a waste recycling method of solid waste management?
(A) Pelletisation
(B) Composting
(C) Incineration
(D) Sanitary Landfill
Answer: (B)
28. Which one of the following chemical species of mercury is highly toxic to living system?
(A) Mercurous ion
(B) Mercuric ion
(C) Organo mercurials
(D) Atomic mercury
Answer: (C)
30. Which of the following is true regarding the Leopold interaction matrix used in Environmental Impact Assessment
Process?www.netugc.com
(A) It can be expanded.
(B) It can be contracted.
(C) It can be contracted and expanded.
(D) It cannot be contracted and expanded.
Answer: (C)
32. In India, Environmental Impact Assessment report of a proposed river valley project after environmental clearance is
applicable for a maximal period of how many years?
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 30
(D) 2
Answer: (B)
33. An earthquake is rated as ‘major’ if its magnitude in Richter Scale is in the range of
(A) 4.0 – 4.9
(B) 7.0 – 7.9
(C) 6.0 – 6.9
(D) 5.0 – 5.9
Answer: (B)
34. What is the proportion of the frequency of occurrence of La Nina compared to El Nino?
(A) Half
(B) One-third
(C) Twice
(D) Two-third
Answer: (A)
36. Which of the following is correct about attribute data in Geographic Information System?
(A) Attributes are pieces of data that are connected or related to the points, lines or polygons mapped in the GIS.
(B) Attribute data can be analysed to determine patterns of importance.
(C) Attribute data is entered directly into a database where it is associated with element data.
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
39. The contribution of CO2 towards global warming has been estimated to be about
(A) 57 – 60%
(B) 60 – 75%
(C) 80 – 85%
(D) 45 – 55%
Answer: (A)
41. Match Lists – I and II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Aerosol Constituents) List – II (Sources)
(i) Si 1. Gases in the ambient atmosphere
(ii) V 2. Natural sources
(iii) Benzo(a)pyrene 3. Combustion of certain kinds of fuel oil
(iv) Sulfuric acid droplets 4. Incomplete combustion
Codes :
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) 2 4 3 1
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 1 4 3 2
Answer: (A)
42. A river flowing at 20.0 m3/sec has a tributary feeding into it with a flow rate of 5.0 m3/sec. Upstream from the point of
junction. The fluoride concentration is 5 mg/L in the river and 10 mg/L in the tributary. Assuming fluoride to be
conservative substance and rapid mixing in the river, the downstream concentration in the river is
(A) 6 mg/L
(B) 8 mg/L
(C) 8.5 mg/L
(D) 7.5 mg/L
Answer: (A)
43. The power obtained from a horizontal wind turbine operating at maximum efficiency is proportional to its diameter (D)
as
(A) D
(B) D2
(C) D3/2
(D) /D
Answer: (B)
44. Noise of 90 dB for 8 hours represents 100% dose. If the noise of 93 dB is for 1 hour duration, it represents a dose of
(A) 25%
(B) 50%
(C) 75%
(D) 100%
Answer: (A)
45. Scale lengths associated with mesoscale phenomenon in atmosphere are typically in the range
(A) 10 – 500 m
(B) 1 – 200 km
(C) 100 – 1000 km
(D) 1000 – 10,000 km
Answer: (B)
1. Mesoscale Meteorological Phenomena occur over areas of horizontal distance in the range (km)
(A) 100 – 200 km
(B) 1 – 100 km
(C) 10 – 50 km
(D) 1 – 10 km
Answer: (B)
4. If air quality standard for carbon monoxide is 9.0 ppmV, the percentage as in mg/m3 at 1 atm. at 25 °C is
(A) 10.3 mg/m3
(B) 15.2 mg/m3
(C) 20.0 mg/m3
(D) 5.6 mg/m3
Answer: (A)
7. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Air Pollutants) (Sources / Activities)
a. Carbon monoxide 1. Coal burning
b. Nitrogen oxide 2. Cigarette Smoking
c. Sulphur dioxide 3. Chemical reaction with VOCs
d. Ozone 4. Power and Industrial Plant
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 4 3 2 1
Answer: (A)
8. The gaseous material which is used for the synthesis of Methyl isocyanate is
(A) Chloranil
(B) Sevin
(C) Phosgene
(D) Chlorine
Answer: (C)
12. Which of the following is a type of biodiversity extinction caused primarily due to anthropogenic activities?
(A) Carboniferous rain forestcollapse
(B) Permian – Triassic extinction
(C) Cretaceous paleogene extinction
(D) Holocene extinction
Answer: (D)
16. Which of the following type of materials present in a landslide suggest that the movement was rotational?
(A) Rockflow, Debris flow, Earthflow
(B) Rock slump, Debris slump, Earth slump
(C) Rockfall, Debris fall, Earth fall
(D) Rock topple, Debris topple, Earth topple
Answer: (B)
17. Which of the following parameters is not a good indicator of contamination in ground water?
(A) BOD
(B) Nitrates
(C) Silica
(D) Chlorides
Answer: (C)
18. On an aerial photograph, the distance between the principal point and the conjugate principal point is called
(A) Relief
(B) Tilt
(C) Photo-base
(D) Focal length
Answer: (C)
19. An equatorial west to east remote sensing satellite orbiting the earth at an altitude of 36,000 km is called
(A) Sun-synchronous satellite
(B) Geostationary satellite
(C) Space shuttle
(D) Stereo imager
Answer: (B)
22. Assertion (A): Tropical and subtropical seas are most suitable for OTEC.
Reason (R): There is a certain minimum vertical gradient (> 25 °C/km) required for OTEC to become feasible.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
23. On burning a certain amount of fuel a total of 500 million tonnes of CO2 is released to the atmosphere. If the entire
amount of CO2 remains in the atmosphere, what will be the rise in the concentration of CO2 in ppm?
(A) ~ 0.236 ppm
(B) ~ 0.128 ppm
(C) ~ 2.312 ppm
(D) ~ 1.216 ppm
Answer: (A)
24. A thermal power station has a heat rate of 12 mJ/kWh. Its thermal efficiency is
(A) 30%
(B) 36%
(C) 40%
(D) 25%
Answer: (A)
25. Assume that world coal production is 6.1 billion tons per year and estimated total recoverable resources of coal are 1.1
trillion tons. How long it would take to use up those reserves at current rate of production?
(A) ~ 180 years
(B) ~ 150 years
(C) ~ 120 years
(D) ~ 90 years
Answer: (A)
26. In a salt gradient solar pond, the salinity generally varies from top to bottom of the pond as
(A) < 5% to ~ 20%
(B) ~ 10% to ~ 30%
(C) ~ 20% to ~ 35%
(D) ~ 20% to ~ 40%
Answer: (A)
27. Which region among the following is not Atmospheric Brown Cloud (ABC) hotspot?
(A) East-Asia
(B) South Africa
(C) Amazon Basin in South America
(D) Australia
Answer: (D)www.netugc.com
32. The efficiency of removing SO2 from the flue gas by limestone in wet scrubbers can be as high as
(A) 30%
(B) 50%
(C) 70%
(D) 90%
Answer: (D)
35. Which one of the following does not belong to EIA methods used for assessing the impacts of developmental activities
on the environment?
(A) Checklist
(B) Adhoc
(C) Network
(D) Flexible
Answer: (D)
36. The EIA report of a hydropower project would be valid upto how many years after the environmental clearance of the
project?
(A) 5 years
(B) 6 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 10 years
Answer: (D)
37. If in the screening stage of EIA, the impact level of a developmental project is not discernible, then what step should be
adopted?
(A) Scoping stage is to be followed.
(B) A rapid EIA study is to be conducted.
(C) Detail EIA study is to be conducted.
(D) The project should be given Environmental Clearance.
Answer: (B)
38. The Committee which reviews the Environmental Impact Assessment and Environmental Management plan reports of a
developmental project in Ministry of Environment and Forest is called
(A) Project Assessment Committee
(B) Project Appraisal Committee
(C) Project Evaluation Committee
(D) Project Estimate Committee
Answer: (B)
41. Which one of the following does not contribute to climate change?
(A) NO
(B) O3
(C) SF6
(D) HFCs
Answer: (A)
42. A population (X) in an ecosystem follows logistic growth curve. If the carrying capacity of the system is K, the growth
realisation factor is
(A) (K – X) / X
(B) (K – X) / K
(C) (K – X) / K2
(D) (K – X)
Answer: (B)
43. Which one of the following conditions would indicate that the dataset is not bell shaped?
(A) The mean is much smaller than median
(B) The range is equal to five times the standard deviation.
(C) The range is larger than interquartile range.
(D) The range is twice the standard deviation.
Answer: (A)
44. For degrees of freedom (df) > 1, the mean (μ) of the t-distribution is
(A) Zero
(B) 1
(C) Depends on df
(D) 2
Answer: (A)
3 –1
4 –2 ?
(A) 2
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) 3
Answer: (A)
46. Suppose a 70 kg person drinks 2L of water every day for 70 years with a chloroform concentration of 0.10 mg/L (the
drinking water standard), upper bound cancer risk for these individual will be
(A) 17 in 1 million
(B) 25 in 1 million
(C) 37 in 1 million
(D) 5 in 1 million
Answer: (A)
49. Which of the following is not a non-formal Environment Education and Awareness Programme?
(A) Global Learning and Observations to Benefit the Environment (GLOBE).
(B) National Environment Awareness Campaign (NEAC).
(C) Eco-clubs
(D) Environmental Education in School System
Answer: (D)
2. Assertion (A): The energy flow in an ecosystem follows the law of thermodynamics.
Reason (R): The energy flow in an ecosystem is unidirectional and during the transformation of energy from one trophic
level to the other, 80 – 90% of energy is lost.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
3. Match the List – I with List – II and identify the correct answer from the given codes:
List – I List – II
(Thermodynamic Variables) (Expression)
(Symbols have their usual meanings.)
(a) ΔG i. ΔE + PΔV
(b) ΔG° ii. – n FE°
(c) ΔS iii. RT ln (V1/V2)
(d) ΔH iv. nR ln (V2/ V1)
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) iii ii iv i
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) ii iii iv i
Answer: (B)
6. In a gas chromatography experiment, the retention factor (Rf) values for pollutant ‘A’ and pollutant ‘B’ in a mixture of
pollutants were 0.5 and 0.125, respectively. If the distance travelled by solvent front is 12 cms, the distance (in cms)
travelled by pollutant ‘A’ and pollutant ‘B’ will be
(A) 6 and 1.5
(B) 3 and 1.5
(C) 0.5 and 0.125
(D) 1.5 and 3
Answer: (A)
8. Assume that a river having dissolved oxygen 0.5 g/m3, BOD 0.3 g/m3 flowing at 80 m3/sec. converge with another river
having Dissolved Oxygen 0.7 g/m3. BOD 0.6 g/m3 flowing at a rate of 60 m3/sec. If after the confluence the Dissolved
Oxygen is 0.59 g/m3, then the BOD is
(A) 0.83 g/m3
(B) 0.43 g/m3
(C) 0.73 g/m3
(D) 0.92 g/m3
Answer: (A)
9. Cells grown in a medium containing phosphorous –32 will show radio labelling in
(A) Starch
(B) Glycogen
(C) Proteins
(D) Nucleic acids
Answer: (A)
10. C14 has a half-life of 5700 years. The fraction of the C14 atoms that decays per year is
(A) 1.216 × 10–4
(B) 0.52 × 10–3
(C) 0.78 × 10–4
(D) 2.81 × 10–4
Answer: (A)
11. Assertion (A): Marine biodiversity tends to be highest in mid-latitudes in all oceans and along coasts in the Western
Pacific.
Reason (R): Sea surface temperature along coasts in the Western Pacific is highest.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
14. Match the List – I and List – II. Choose the correct answer from the given codes:
List – I List – II
(Vegetation development) (Nomenclature of succession)
(a) On a rock i. Psammosere
(b) On sand ii. Lithosere
(c) In aquatic habitat iii. Xerosere
(d) In dry habitat iv. Hydrosere
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv iii i ii
Answer: (A)
15. If individuals of a species remain alive only in captivity or other human controlled conditions, the species is said to be
(A) Ecologically extinct
(B) Mass extinct
(C) Wild extinct
(D) Anthropogenic extinct
Answer: (C)
17. Which of the following is not a class of aquatic ecosystems based on salinity levels?
(A) Stagnant water ecosystem
(B) Freshwater ecosystem
(C) Brackish ecosystem
(D) Marine ecosystem
Answer: (A)
20. Match the List – I with List – II; choose the correct answer from the given codes:
List – I List – II
(Plants) (Family)
(a) Camellia caduca i. Orchidaceae
(b) Picea brachytyla ii. Theaceae
(c) Colchicumluteum iii. Pinaceae
(d) Arachnantha clarkei iv. Liliaceae
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) iv ii iii i
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) ii iii iv i
Answer: (D)
21. Vegetation cover shows maximum reflectance in which of the following regions of the electromagnetic radiation
spectrum?
(A) Ultraviolet
(B) Near infrared
(C) Middle infrared
(D) Visible
Answer: (B)
22. During remote sensing of the vegetation cover, the spectral reflection of vegetation over electromagnetic radiation
spectrum depends upon
(A) Pigmentation in the leaf
(B) Structure of the leaf
(C) Moisture content of the leaf
(D) All the above characters
Answer: (D)
24. The volume of ejecta and the column height for a volcano are 108.5 m3 and 24 km, respectively. What is its volcanic
explosivity index value?
(A) 2
(B) 8
(C) 7
(D) 4
Answer: (D)
25. In the context of material balance in hydrological cycle, which of the following equations is correct for oceans?
(A) Input + change in storage = output
(B) Precipitation + inflow = evaporation
(C) Input – change in storage = output
(D) Precipitation – inflow = evaporation
Answer: (B)
26. In disaster management which steps are followed in post-disaster recovery phase?
(A) Relief, rehabilitation, reconstruction, learning – review
(B) Risk Assessment, mitigation, preparedness, emergency plans.
(C) Relief, mitigation, emergency plans.
(D) Learning – review, emergency plans, preparedness.
Answer: (A)
29. A confined aquifer of thickness 25 m has two wells 200 m apart along the direction of flow of water. The difference in
their hydraulic heads is 1 m. If hydraulic conductivity is 50 m/day, the rate of flow of water per day per metre of distance
perpendicular to the flow of water is
(A) 25 m3/day per metre
(B) 50 m3/day per metre
(C) 5 m3/day per metre
(D) 1 m3/day per metre
Answer: (C)
30. Which of the following material has the highest hydraulic conductivity?
(A) Clay
(B) Sandstone
(C) Limestone
(D) Quartzite
Answer: (B)
31. Which of the following energy sources is not renewable on human time scale?
(A) Solar
(B) Hydrothermal
(C) Geothermal
(D) Biomass
Answer: (C)
32. For a solar flat plate collector the following data is given: Useful heat gain = 28 watts/m2 per hour, solar radiation
intensity = 350 watts/m2 per hour and the factor to convert beam radiation to that on the plane of the collector = 1.2. The
collector efficiency is
(A) ~ 6.6 %
(B) ~ 4.8 %
(C) ~ 12.2 %
(D) ~ 15.2 %
Answer: (A)
34. Identify the correct sequence of the fuels in order of their increasing carbon intensity:
(A) Natural gas < Oil < Bituminous coal < Nuclear
(B) Oil < Coal < Natural gas <Nuclear
(C) Nuclear < Coal < Natural gas <Oil
(D) Nuclear < Natural gas < Oil <Bituminous coal
Answer: (D)
35. In nuclear thermal reactors, which of the following is not used as moderator?
(A) Normal water
(B) Heavy water
(C) Graphite
(D) Liquid Helium
Answer: (D)
36. The minimum temperature gradient (°C/km) required for OTEC is about
(A) 20
(B) 10
(C) 40
(D) 60
Answer: (A)
37. A solar pond has electricity generating capacity of 600 MWe. If the efficiency of solar energy to electric generation
process was 2% and solar energy supply rate was 300 W/m2, what is the area of solar pond?
(A) 100 km2
(B) 90 km2
(C) 60 km2
(D) 180 km2
Answer: (A)
38. Which of the following causes warming of atmosphere but cooling of the earth’s surface?
(A) Ozone
(B) Black carbon aerosols
(C) All Greenhouse gases
(D) Sulphates and nitrates
Answer: (B)
39. Assertion (A): For noise level surveys in urban areas, weighting A is used for measurements.
Reason (R): Weighting a filters out unwanted signals.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer: (C)
43. Which one of the following isotopes has maximum half-life period?
(A) Rn222
(B) Pb210
(C) Ti210
(D) Bi210
Answer: (B)
44. Match the List – I with List – II and identify the correct answer from given codes:www.netugc.com
List – I List – II
(Aerosols) (Constituents)
(a) Dust i. Small gas borne particles resulting from combustion
(b) Mist ii. Black carbon
(c) Smoke iii. Suspended small liquid droplets
(d) Atmospheric Brown Cloud iv. Solid suspended particles
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) iv iii ii i
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) ii i iii iv
(D) i ii iii iv
Answer: (A)
47. Which of the following is used as plant indicator for detection of presence of SO2 and HF in air?
(A) Lichen
(B) Orchid
(C) Apricot
(D) Tobacco
Answer: (A)
49. A wastewater treatment plant in a city treats 50,000 m3 wastewater generated per day. For an average flow rate of 25
m3 per day per sq. metre, what should be the diameter of the circular primary settling tank?
(A) 50.4 m
(B) 30.6 m
(C) 20 m
(D) 25.8 m
Answer: (A)
50. An Electrostatic Precipitator (ESP) with collector plate area = 5000 m2 treats a flue gas with drift velocity = 0.12 m/s
with 98% efficiency. The volumetric flow rate (m3/s) of the flue gas is
(A) ~ 175.2
(B) ~ 213.5
(C) ~ 153.4
(D) ~ 198.9
Answer: (C)
51. Assertion (A): Urban heat islands contribute to build up of pollutants in cities.
Reason (R): Urban heat islands produce a somewhat stable air mass in the city’s atmosphere.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct\ explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer: (A)
52. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Analytical functions) (Activity under the function)
(a) Defining scope of EIA i. Critical Assessment of impacts
(b) Identification of impacts ii. Estimation of the probability that a particular impact will occur
(c) Prediction of Impacts iii. Description of the existing environment system
(d) Impact Evaluation and Analysis iv. Deciding important issues and concerns
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) ii i iii iv
(D) i ii iv iii
Answer: (B)
Answer: (C)
55. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Scales used in EIA methods) (Example)
(a) Nominal i. Temperature (degrees)
(b) Ordinal ii. Species classification
(c) Interval iii. Map scale
(d) Ratio iv. Worst to best
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) ii iv i iii
Answer: (D)
60. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Convention) (Year)
(a) Convention for the protection of the ozone layer i. 1979
(b) Conservation of migratory species of wild animals ii. 1985
(c) Kyoto protocol iii. 1982
(d) UN Convention on the law of the sea iv. 1997
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) ii iv iii i
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) i ii iii iv
Answer: (A)
61. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Acts) (Year when enacted)
(a) Wildlife Protection Act i. 1980
(b) Forest Conservation Act ii. 1972
(c) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act iii. 1974
(d) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act iv. 1981
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iii ii i iv
(D) iv iii ii i
Answer: (A)
63. In a simple regression analysis of y on x, the standard error of estimate of y on x, Syx = 5, number of observations N is
30, and ∑ y2 = 2000. The unexplained variance is
(A) 1500
(B) 750
(C) 500
(D) 250
Answer: (B)
64. Two normal populations have variances σ21 = 10 and σ22 = 20. Two random samples of sizes 25 and 20, independently
selected from these populations have variances of S21 = 8 and S22 = 15, respectively. What is the F(24, 19) statistic?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 2.81
(D) 3.6
Answer: (A)
65. Assertion (A): A matrix is nonsingular if and only if none of its eigen values is zero.
Reason (R): The product of the eigen values equals the determinant of a matrix.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer: (A)
66. In Gaussian Plume Model assume σz = cx where c is a constant and ratio of σy to σz to be a constant. If H is the effective
height of the stack, the maximum concentration at a distance (x) from the stack is proportional to
(A) H–1
(B) H–2
(C) exp (–H2)
(D) H–3/2
Answer: (B)
67. The Pearson Linear correlation coefficient (r) for the following paired data (x, y): (2, 1.4) (4, 1.8), (8, 2.1), (8, 2.3), (9,
2.6) is
(A) 0.623
(B) – 0.572
(C) 0.957
(D) 0.823
Answer: (C)
68. In a rough terrain the wind speed at a height of 10 m is 2.5 m/s. The wind speed at an elevation of 300 m will be
(A) 4.9 m/s
(B) 1.2 m/s
(C) 3.6 m/s
(D) 7.9 m/s
Answer: (A)
69. In the context of REDD+ initiatives the land clearing in forest areas is primarily concerned with
(A) Physical resources of the area
(B) Ecology of the area
(C) Carbon budget of the area
(D) Water resources of the area
Answer: (C)
70. What was the objective of Basel Convention (1989) under UNEP?
I. Minimize generation of hazardous wastes in terms of quantity and hazardousness
II. Disposal of hazardous wastes as close to the source of generation as possible.
III. Reduce the movement of hazardous wastes.
Choose the correct code:
(A) I and II only.
(B) II and III only.
(C) I, II and III.
(D) I only.
Answer: (C)
71. Global Warming Potential (GWP) of a greenhouse gas (GHG) is a comparison of global warming impact between
(A) 1 kg of GHG and 1 kg of methane
(B) 1 kg of GHG and 1 kg of CO2
(C) 1 kg of GHG and 1 kg of N2O
(D) 1 kg of GHG and 1 kg of CFC-11
Answer: (B)www.netugc.com
72. Which of the following mixture of gases is called biogas?
(A) CO2, CH4, NH3, H2S, H2O (vapour)
(B) CO, CH4, NH3, H2S, H2O (vapour)
(C) CO2, CH4, N2O, NH3, H2O (vapour)
(D) CO2, NOx, H2O, CH4
Answer: (A)
73. Environmental ethics deal with moral relationship of human beings to
(A) the value and moral status of the environment and its nonhuman contents
(B) the values that is important to development and economic growth
(C) the conservation values of selected species
(D) the development of genetically modified organisms
Answer: (A)
74. The major source of BaP (Benzo-apyrene) in atmospheric environment is
(A) residential wood burning
(B) gasoline
(C) coal tar
(D) cooked meat
Answer: (A)
75. Match the List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Materials) (Applications)
(a) Trichloroethylene 1. Gasoline
(b) Toluene 2. Wood treatment
(c) Zinc 3. Dry cleaning
(d) Phenol 4. Mining
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 4 2 3 1
Answer: (A)
Environmental Science Previous Q & A
A. Lead
B. Cadmium
Ans: D
2. Which of the following are the main contributors of the e-waste in the world?
photocopiers
B. Only I & II
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C. Only I, III, IV
Ans: A
A. They degrade over time, releasing cancer-causing chemicals into the air.
Ans: C
A. Mercury
B. Cadmium
C. Neon
D. Lead
Ans: C
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5. What does e- waste stand for?
A. Environment waste
B. Electronic waste
C. Equipment waste
Ans: B
6. E-waste contains hazardous substances that are harmful to the environment and
human health if not properly treated or disposed of, therefore they must be handled
with care.
A. Lung cancer
B. DNA damage
C. Brain
Ans: D
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A. India
B. China
C. USA
D. France
Ans: B
8. How much lead is in a cathode ray tube (CRT), commonly called a picture tube?
A. 1.75 pounds
C. 19 pounds
Ans: D
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D. None of the above
Ans: C
A. E-waste is a popular, informal name for electronic products nearing the end of
B. Computers, televisions, VCRs, stereos, copiers, and fax machines are common
electronic products.
C. Both A and B
Ans: C
A. Monkey
B. Camel
C. Giraffe
Ans: A
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12. In which of the following places Steppe Grassland is found?
A. Central Asia
B. North America
C. Australia
D. South Africa
Ans: A
13. Which of the following animal exclusively eat only eucalyptus leaves and nothing
else?
A. Kangaroo
B. Koala
C. Monkey
D. Greater Glider
Ans: B
14. Kiwi are a symbol for the uniqueness of _______ wildlife and the value of natural
heritage.
A. India
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B. Russia
C. New Zealand
D. South Africa
Ans: C
15. Which of the following is a hillstream loach species native to the riverine fauna of
China?
A. Saw fish
B. Silver fish
C. Hammer fish
D. Sucker fish
Ans: D
16. Which of the following living creature known for the loudest sound?
A. Gibbon
B. Donkey
C. Howler monkey
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D. Humpback Whales
Ans: D
17. Who among the following for the first time coined the term Biodiversity?
A. E O Wilson
B. R D Barnes
C. N Myers
Ans: A
18. Which of the following agency has evolved to become the world's most
A. IUCN
B. NEERI
C. NWAP
D. CITES
Ans: A
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19. Who among the following explain the concept of Biodiversity ‘hotspots’?
A. Norman Myers
B. John Muir
C. G Nelson
Ans: A
20. Which of the following is known for the World’s largest Wetland System?
A. Chilka (India)
C. Everglades (USA)
Ans: B
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Aptitude Question & Answers
Question1.If 100 cats kill 100 mice in 100 days, then 4 cats would kill 4 mice in how many
days?
a. 4 days
b. 3 days
c. 40 days
d. 100 days
Then , 100 cats will kill 1 mouse in = 1 days; => 1 cat will kill 1 mouse in = 100 days;
Question2.
a. 4.2 cm
b. 3.1 cm
c. 2.8 cm
d. 2.1 cm
Ans. 2.1 cm
Explanation: AD : BD = 3 : 5;
AE = (3/8) * AC;
AE = 2.1 cm;
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Question3.If two circles touch each other internally. The greater circle has its radius as 6 cm
and the distance between the centers of the circles is 2 cm. The radius of the other circle is
a. 3 cms
b. 4 cms
c. 2 cms
d. 5 cms
Ans. 4 cms
Explanation: O2 is the center of the outer circle and O1 is the center of inner circle.
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Question4.An office opens at 10 AM and closes at 5 PM. The lunch interval is 30 minutes. The
ratio of lunch interval to the total period of office hours is
a. 1:7
b. 1:14
c. 7:1
d. 14:1
Ans. 1:14
Question5.A Bookseller allowed 15% discount on the books sold. Sunil purchased books
worth Rs.1500. How much will he have to pay to Bookseller.
a. Rs.1200
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b. Rs.1250
c. Rs.1275
d. Rs.1300
Ans. Rs.1275
Explanation: the percentage at which Sunil purchased the book = 100 – 15 = 85%;
The Amount paid to the Book seller= 85% of 1500 = Rs. 1275.
Question6.If the ratio between the profit and sale price of an article is 1:5, then the ratio
between the sale price and the cost price of that article is:
a. 3:2
b. 4:3
c. 5:4
d. 6:5
Ans. 5:4
Cost Price = Sale Price– Sale Price/5; => Cost Price = 4* Sale Price/5;
a. 25%
b. 2.5%
c. 3.6%
d. 0.25%
Ans. 2.5%
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by 1/5, the car covers 200 km less in that time. The speed of
car is
a. 60 km/hr
b. 30 km/hr
c. 40 km/hr
d. 50 km/hr
Ans. 40 km/hr
25y-200 = 20y;
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Question 11.If x2+y2+z2 = 14 and xy + yz + zx = 11, then the value of (x+y+z)2 is
a. 16
b. 25
c. 36
d. 49
Ans. 36
xy + yz + zx = 11 -------------eq.(ii.)
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(x+y+z)2 =36;
Question 12.
a. 2/3
b. 4/3
c. 2
d. 8/3
Ans. 4/3
Question 13.A positive number when decreased by 4, is equal to 21 times the reciprocal of
this number. The number is:
a. 3
b. 7
c. 5
d. 9
Ans. 7
x2-(7-3)x-21=0;
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Question 16.
a. 48
b. 1792
c. 4096
d. 570
Ans. 4096
Question 17.In a triangle PQR, PQ = PR and ∠Q is twice that of ∠P. Then ∠Q is equal to
a. 72°
b. 36°
c. 144°
d. 108°
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Ans. 72°
P + Q + R = 180;
Q= 72;
Question 18.If the length of a chord of a circle is 16 cms. and is at a distance of 15 cm from
the centre of the circle, then the radius of the circle (in cm) is:
a. 15
b. 16
c. 17
d. 34
Ans. 17
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Question 19.On 24th May 2008 the maximum temperature of Delhi, Kolkata and Mumbai were
recorded as 35°C, 33°C and 34°C respectively. What was the maximum temperature of
Chennai so that the average maximum temperature of those cities would be 35°?
a. 34° C
b. 35° C
c. 36° C
d. 38° C
Ans. 38° C
Question 20.The diameter of a sphere is twice the diameter of another sphere. The curved
surface area of the first and the volume of the second are numerically equal. The numerical
value of the radius of the first sphere is
a. 3
b. 24
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c. 8
d. 16
Ans. 24
Explanation: Let the diameter of first sphere is d and diameter of second sphere is D.
d=2D;
d=2*12 = 24 cms.
Question 21.The thread of a kite makes 60° angle with the horizontal plane. If the length of the
thread be 80 m, then the vertical height of the kite will be
a. 40/√3 m
b. 80√3 m
c. 80 m
d. 40√3 m
Ans. 40√3 m
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Question 22.Study the pie chart carefully and answer the questions. The pie chart represents
the percentage of people involved in various occupations. Total number of people = 20000
a. 3660
b. 2660
c. 1660
d. 660
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Ans. 2660
Question 23.Study the pie chart carefully and answer the questions. The pie chart represents
the percentage of people involved in various occupations. Total number of people = 20000
a. 1:2
b. 2:3
c. 3:4
d. 3:2
Ans. 2:3
Question 24.Study the pie chart carefully and answer the questions. The pie chart represents
the percentage of people involved in various occupations. Total number of people = 20000
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The sectorial angle made by the people involved in service in the given pie-chart is
a. 36°
b. 90°
c. 72°
d. 108°
Ans. 72°
Explanation: The sectorial angle made by the people in service sector = 20% of 360 = 72;
Question 25.Study the pie chart carefully and answer the questions. The pie chart represents
the percentage of people involved in various occupations. Total number of people = 20000
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The difference between the maximum number of people involved and minimum number of
people involved in various professions is
a. 2640
b. 3640
c. 6320
d. 5320
Ans. 5320
Explanation: The Maximum number of people is involved in agriculture and minimum people
are involved in trade;
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General English Question & Answers
Question 1.In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word
which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
LABYRINTH
a. MAZE
b. PATH
c. SKYSCRAPER
d. IMPASSE
Ans. MAZE
Question 2.In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word
which is opposite in meaning to the given word.
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BARREN
a. FERTILE
b. ABUNDANT
c. HARSH
d. FALLOW
Ans. FERTILE
Explanation: The word ‘Barren’ means ‘too poor to produce much or any vegetation’,
which has opposite meaning of ‘Fertile’.
Question 3.Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly.
Choose the correctly spelt word.
a. Mysogynous
b. Misogynous
c. Mysoginous
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d. Misoginous
Ans. Misogynous
Explanation: ‘Miso’ is the Greek word for ‘hate’ and ‘Gyne’ stands for ‘the women’.
Therefore, a Misogynous is a person, who hates woman. Hence, Option(b.) is the
correct answer.
Question 4.In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an
error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error. If the sentence is free
from error, click the "No error" option.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
Ans. C
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Explanation: The sentence after correction will be-“According to scientists, there are a
lot of answers to it.”
Question 5.In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an
error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error. If the sentence is free
from error, click the "No error" option.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
Ans. B
Explanation: The sentence after correction will be-“They are coming straight in our
direction.”
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Question 6.In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an
error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error. If the sentence is free
from error, click the "No error" option.
The building collapsed(A)/at the afternoon (B)/at about 4 o'clock (C)/No Error(D).
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
Ans. B
Explanation: The correct sentence formation will be-“The building collapsed in the
afternoon at about 4 o’ clock.”
Question 7.The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate
word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question,
choose the correct alternative.
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a. keeping an eye
Explanation: The correct sentence formation will be- “The Police is keeping an eye on
his activities.”
Question 8.The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate
word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question,
choose the correct alternative.
a. interested by
b. interested in
c. interested at
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d. interested about
Ans. interested in
Explanation: In such cases, the verb ‘interest’ is followed by ‘in’. hence, option (b.) is
the most appropriate answer.
Question 9.The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate
word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question,
choose the correct alternative.
a. conforms
b. conforming
c. confirms
d. comforting
Ans. confirms
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Explanation: The sentence after correction will be-“Your report confirms my statement.”
Hence, option(c.) is the most appropriate answer.
Question 10.In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the
Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the
Idiom/Phrase.
a. Drenched
b. Fear
c. Felicitate
d. Fever
Ans. Fear
Explanation: ‘To get cold feet’ idiom represents a situation in which a person feels a
wave of timidity or fearfulness in him.
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Question 11.In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the
Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the
Idiom/Phrase.
a. Perfect
c. Relevant
d. Charming
Explanation: ‘Beside the mark’ is used for irrelevant things or off the subjects.
Question 12.In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the
Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the
Idiom/Phrase.
On tenterhooks
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/
a. Happy and excited
Question 13.Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted
for the given words/sentences.
a. Patrimony
b. Mercenary
c. Hereditary
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d. Aristocracy
Ans. Patrimony
Explanation: Patrimony is the correct word to show the inheritance of any property
from father or male ancestor.
Question 14.Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted
for the given words/sentences.
a. Feminist
b. Philogynist
c. Effeminate
d. Feminine
Ans. Effeminate
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/
Question 15.Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted
for the given words/sentences.
a. Pilgrim
b. Polytheist
c. Proselyte
d. Presbyte
Ans. Proselyte
Explanation: ‘Proselyte’ is used for a person, who has converted from one opinion,
religion, or party to another.
Question 16.A sentence/a part of the sentence is underlined. Four alternatives are
given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct
alternative. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to
"No improvement".
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/
a. any sugar
b. little sugar
c. small sugar
d. No improvement
Explanation: ‘Some’ is used for countable things, whereas any is used for quantity
related entity. Hence, the correct sentence will be-“Do you have any sugar?”
Question 17.A sentence/a part of the sentence is underlined. Four alternatives are
given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct
alternative. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to
"No improvement".
a. lay
b. laid
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c. lain
d. No improvement
Ans. No improvement
Explanation: The given sentence comply with all the grammar rules. Hence, it needs
no improvement.
Question 18.A sentence/a part of the sentence is underlined. Four alternatives are
given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct
alternative. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to
"No improvement".
a. in a nutshell
b. in the nut
c. in a shell
d. No improvement
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/
Ans. in a nutshell
Explanation: The sentence after correction will be-“It is not possible to tell the entire
story in a nutshell.”
Question 19.A sentence/a part of the sentence is underlined. Four alternatives are
given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct
alternative. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to
"No improvement".
a. all or same
c. all one
d. No improvement
Explanation: the correct sentence will be after the modification will be-“It is all the same
to me whether I am transferred to Mumbai or Kolkata.”
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/
Question 20.A sentence/a part of the sentence is underlined. Four alternatives are
given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct
alternative. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to
"No improvement".
a. hard in
b. hard up
c. hard out
d. No improvement
Ans. hard up
Explanation: ‘Hard on’ means ‘continuing to be hard’, while ‘hard up’ means
‘penniless’. Hence, option (b.) is the correct answer.
Question 21.Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each
question out of the four alternatives.
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/
Even the majority of elders turn their homes into hives of worry as they have too little to
do in too much time. Those who have retired thus find retirement tiresome when
hobbies, instead, could have turned it into a period of creativity and contentment.
This common problem of inability to utilize leisure pleasurably and profitably is not
restricted to Indians. In fact, Japanese are the worse sufferers. Their weekends, rather
than increase their enjoyment of life, have wreaked havoc on their health and
happiness. Unable to while away the long, unstructured hours, many of them have
become addicts to coffee or hard liquor, and have even taken to gambling.\
How has this social malady come about? Ironically, the syllabus-loaded education
system is the main culprit. It places a heavy work-load on children and youth, laying
emphasis as it does on memory rather than intelligence.
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/
Ans. Because they do not have hobbies to utilize their free time.
Explanation: The answer for this question can be found in the following lines-
“Those who have retired thus find retirement tiresome when hobbies, instead, could
have turned it into a period of creativity and contentment.”
Question 22.Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each
question out of the four alternatives.
Even the majority of elders turn their homes into hives of worry as they have too little to
do in too much time. Those who have retired thus find retirement tiresome when
hobbies, instead, could have turned it into a period of creativity and contentment.
This common problem of inability to utilize leisure pleasurably and profitably is not
restricted to Indians. In fact, Japanese are the worse sufferers. Their weekends, rather
than increase their enjoyment of life, have wreaked havoc on their health and
happiness. Unable to while away the long, unstructured hours, many of them have
become addicts to coffee or hard liquor, and have even taken to gambling.
How has this social malady come about? Ironically, the syllabus-loaded education
system is the main culprit. It places a heavy work-load on children and youth, laying
emphasis as it does on memory rather than intelligence.
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/
How have the Japanese benefitted from their weekends?
Explanation: the supporting answer can be found with the following lines- “In fact,
Japanese are the worse sufferers. Their weekends, rather than increase their
enjoyment of life, have wreaked havoc on their health and happiness. Unable to while
away the long, unstructured hours, many of them have become addicts to coffee or hard
liquor, and have even taken to gambling.”
Question 23.Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each
question out of the four alternatives.
Even the majority of elders turn their homes into hives of worry as they have too little to
do in too much time. Those who have retired thus find retirement tiresome when
hobbies, instead, could have turned it into a period of creativity and contentment.
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/
This common problem of inability to utilize leisure pleasurably and profitably is not
restricted to Indians. In fact, Japanese are the worse sufferers. Their weekends, rather
than increase their enjoyment of life, have wreaked havoc on their health and
happiness. Unable to while away the long, unstructured hours, many of them have
become addicts to coffee or hard liquor, and have even taken to gambling.
How has this social malady come about? Ironically, the syllabus-loaded education
system is the main culprit. It places a heavy work-load on children and youth, laying
emphasis as it does on memory rather than intelligence.
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/
Explanation: Consider the following lines to find the answer-“ Ironically, the
syllabus-loaded education system is the main culprit. It places a heavy work-load on
children and youth, laying emphasis as it does on memory rather than intelligence.”
Question 24.Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each
question out of the four alternatives.
Even the majority of elders turn their homes into hives of worry as they have too little to
do in too much time. Those who have retired thus find retirement tiresome when
hobbies, instead, could have turned it into a period of creativity and contentment.
This common problem of inability to utilize leisure pleasurably and profitably is not
restricted to Indians. In fact, Japanese are the worse sufferers. Their weekends, rather
than increase their enjoyment of life, have wreaked havoc on their health and
happiness. Unable to while away the long, unstructured hours, many of them have
become addicts to coffee or hard liquor, and have even taken to gambling.
How has this social malady come about? Ironically, the syllabus-loaded education
system is the main culprit. It places a heavy work-load on children and youth, laying
emphasis as it does on memory rather than intelligence.
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/
b. Hobbies play an important role in changing the unfortunate situation.
Explanation: The author has talked a lot about the hobbies for overcoming the
tiresome boredom.
Question 25.Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each
question out of the four alternatives.
Even the majority of elders turn their homes into hives of worry as they have too little to
do in too much time. Those who have retired thus find retirement tiresome when
hobbies, instead, could have turned it into a period of creativity and contentment.
This common problem of inability to utilize leisure pleasurably and profitably is not
restricted to Indians. In fact, Japanese are the worse sufferers. Their weekends, rather
than increase their enjoyment of life, have wreaked havoc on their health and
happiness. Unable to while away the long, unstructured hours, many of them have
become addicts to coffee or hard liquor, and have even taken to gambling.
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/
How has this social malady come about? Ironically, the syllabus-loaded education
system is the main culprit. It places a heavy work-load on children and youth, laying
emphasis as it does on memory rather than intelligence.
Explanation: The author has given lot of examples ranging from old retired persons to
the students to support the statement of developing hobbies to combat the physical and
mental stress.
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/
General Science Previous Year Question & Answers
C. Animal behaviour
Ans. A
A. Birds
B. Cancer
C. Mammals
D. Soil
Ans. B
A. Coins
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B. Numbers
C. Stamps
D. Space
Ans. A
B. Genetics of plants
Ans. D
5. Ornithology is the:
A. Study of plants
B. Study of bones
C. Study of noise
D. Study of birds
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Ans. D
A. Endodermis disease
B. Dermis disease
C. Epidemic disease
Ans. C
A. Calories
B. Celsius
C. Kelvin
Ans. A
A. Hygrometer
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B. Hydrometer
C. Barometer
D. Mercury Thermometer
Ans. A
A. Lactometer
B. Hydrometer
C. Barometer
D. Hygrometer
Ans. A
A. Ohmmeter
B. Electrometer
C. Galvanometer
D. Spectrometer
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Ans. A
A. Abacus
B. Calculator
C. Turing Machine
D. Pascaline
Ans: A
A. Charles Babbage
B. Blaise Pascal
C. Alan Turing
D. Lee De Forest
Ans: B
13. Who among the following considered as the 'father of artificial intelligence'?
A. Charles Babbage
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B. Lee De Forest
C. John McCarthy
D. JP Eckert
Ans: C
A. PARAM
B. CRAY-1
C. Pascaline
Ans: D
15. Who among the following used the term computer worm for the first time?
A. John Brunner
B. Alan Turing
C. John McCarthy
D. JP Eckert
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Ans: A
16. Which was first virus detected on ARPANET, the forerunner of the internet in the
early 1970s?
A. Exe Flie
B. Creeper Virus
C. Peeper Virus
D. Trozen horse
Ans: B
17. Find out the correct definition of Wide Area Network (WAN)?
computer.
C. A computer network that covers a broad area (i.e., any network, whose
D. A computer network covering a small physical area like a home, office or small
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Ans: C
A. Ms Word
B. Ms Excel
C. Both A and B
D. MS-DOS
Ans: C
A. Data representation
B. MS-DOS
C. Operating System
D. Language Processor
Ans: D
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/
B. Words per Inch
Ans: D
C. Animal behaviour
Ans. A
A. Birds
B. Cancer
C. Mammals
D. Soil
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Ans. B
A. Coins
B. Numbers
C. Stamps
D. Space
Ans. A
B. Genetics of plants
Ans. D
A. Study of plants
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B. Study of bones
C. Study of noise
D. Study of birds
Ans. D
A. Endodermis disease
B. Dermis disease
C. Epidemic disease
Ans. C
A. Calories
B. Celsius
C. Kelvin
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/
Ans. A
A. Hygrometer
B. Hydrometer
C. Barometer
D. Mercury Thermometer
Ans. A
A. Lactometer
B. Hydrometer
C. Barometer
D. Hygrometer
Ans. A
A. Ohmmeter
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B. Electrometer
C. Galvanometer
D. Spectrometer
Ans. A
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Signature and Name of Invigilator OMR Sheet No. : ..........................................................
;
1. (Signature)
Roll No.
(Name)
2. (Signature)
Roll No.
(Name)
D8 9 1 5 PAPER - II
Time : 1¼ hours] ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE [Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 8 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
Instructions for the Candidates ÂÚUèÿææçÍüØô¢ ·ð¤ çÜ° çÙÎðüàæ
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: Use only Blue+Black Ball point pen. ç·¤âè Öè Âý·¤æÚU ·¤æ ⢻淤 (·ñ¤Ü·é¤ÜðÅUÚU) UØæ Üæ» ÅðUÕÜ ¥æçÎ ·¤æ
Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. ÂýØô» ßçÁüÌ ãñÐ
There are no negative marks for incorrect answers. »ÜÌ ©æÚUæð´ ·ð¤ çÜ° ·¤æð§ü Ù·¤æÚUæ×·¤ ¥´·¤ Ùãè´ ãñ´Ð
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
PAPER - II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions
are compulsory.
1. Which one of the following elements contributes maximum to the earth crust by weight ?
(1) Iron (2) Silicon (3) Oxygen (4) Carbon
5. The most abundant functional group present in fulvic acid, commonly found in soils, is :
(1) Peptide group (2) Carboxylate group
(3) Phenolic group (4) Amino group
7. In troposphere, which of the following processes does not generate hydroxyl radical ?
(1) O(1D)1H2O (2) O(3P)1H2O (3) HCHO1hn (4) HNO21hn
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10. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Radon is an inert gas and it is radioactive.
Reason (R) : All inert gases are radioactive.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
14. The ability of a living system to be restored through secondary succession after a more severe
disturbance is known as :
(1) Rehabilitation (2) Resistance (3) Resilience (4) Restoration
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18. A rock body or formation which may be porous enough to hold enough quantity of water
but which by virtue of its other properties does not allow an easy and quick flow through it,
is called :
(1) Aquitard (2) Aquifuge (3) Aquiclude (4) Aquifer
19. For many decades, geologists noted the high number of earthquakes and active volcanoes
occurring around the rim of the Pacific Ocean basin. This is called :
(1) Volcanic ring (2) Ring of fire
(3) Earthquake zone (4) Volcanic hot spot
21. The radiation flux emitted per unit solid angle in a specified direction by a unit area of source
is called :
(1) irradiance (2) radiance (3) exitance (4) radiant flux
23. Worst affected area by Indian Ocean Tsunami of December 2004 in India was :
(1) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (2) Tamil Nadu
(3) Andhra Pradesh (4) Odisha
24. Consider solar insolation of 400 W/m2 incident on a single solar cell of area 100 cm2. If only
15% of the photons cause electron - hole pairs and the average energy of incident photons is
~1 eV, the short circuit current of the cell is :
(1) 1.2 A (2) 1.5 A (3) 1.6 A (4) 1.8 A
25. For which of the following renewable resources of energy, sun is not directly responsible ?
(1) Wind (2) Biomass (3) OTEC (4) Tidal
27. At a given location the wind speeds are predominantly in the range 6 to 6.4 m/s. This
locations wind power class will be termed as :
(1) Fair (2) Good (3) Excellent (4) Outstanding
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28. Which of the following nuclides does not undergo fission with low energy (slow) neutrons ?
(1) 235 U (2) 238 U (3) 239 Pu (4) 233 U
29. According to CPCB standards, the annual average concentration of PM 2.5 should not
exceed :
(1) 60 mg m23 (2) 40 mg m23 (3) 80 mg m23 (4) 100 mg m23
31. In the colorimetric determination of ambient SO2 by WEST-GAEKE method, the absorbance
of the colored complex should be measured at which of the following wavelengths ?
(1) 550 nm (2) 650 nm (3) 450 nm (4) 350 nm
32. A healthy human ear, before experiencing pain, can detect sound pressure levels as high
as :
(1) 50 Pa (2) 100 Pa (3) 200 Pa (4) 1000 Pa
35. Which of the following best describes the function of the environmental management plan
as a part of the environmental statement ?
(1) It describes the environmental impacts of the proposal.
(2) It describes the baseline environmental data.
(3) It describes the project proposal in detail.
(4) It describes the actions and auditing procedures needed.
36. India submitted its INDCs related to climate change to the UN recently. What does INDCs
stand for ?
(1) Intended Nationally Devoted Contributions
(2) Intended Nationally Determined Contributions
(3) Intended Notified Decisive Contributions
(4) Indias Nationally Determined Contributions
37. Formal EIA became an integral part of Environmental Management in India by a Notification
for the first time in :
(1) 1988 (2) 1990 (3) 1992 (4) 1994
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38. EIA is necessary because :
(a) Development is not good for environment
(b) Environmental impacts of development are in public interest
(c) There is growing interest in sustainability
Choose the correct answer :
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
39. A moist air parcel at 248C has a mixing ratio of 10 g per kg. Its virtual temperature is :
(1) ~ 25.818C (2) ~ 20.688C (3) ~ 31.258C (4) ~ 28.128C
41. According to Wildlife Protection Act in India, who is the authority to issue permission to
hunt rogue animals ?
(1) Chief Minister of the State (2) Chief Wildlife warden
(3) Conservator of Forest (4) Deputy Commissioner
42. According to MOEF (now MOEFCC) notification of 1992, for labelling cosmetics as
environment friendly product, the presence of fluoride (F) in tooth paste/powder should not
exceed :
(1) 20 ppm (2) 50 ppm (3) 100 ppm (4) 10 ppm
43. Which one of the following methods converts decomposed liquid or solid hazardous organic
waste effectively ?
(1) Open incineration (2) Plasma incineration
(3) Sanitory landfill (4) Bioremidiation
44. For a bi-variate sample, the correlation coefficient is 0.25 and it is found to be significantly
different from zero at 5% level of significance. Given t0.0551.645, what is the minimum size
of the sample ?
(1) 43 (2) 50 (3) 55 (4) 63
46. A parametric test generally used to compare sample variance to a theoretical population
variance, is :
(1) F - test (2) Z - test (3) t - test (4) x2 - text
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47. From a random sample of 36 fish caught in a sample, the mean length X ( ) and sample
standard deviation (sd) were found to be 30 cm and 6 cm respectively. If at 95% confidence
level z is 1.96, then the mean length of fish in this population is in the range :
(1) 27 < X < 33 (2) 27.5 < X < 32.5 (3) 24 < X < 36 (4) 28.04 < X < 32
48. One of the natural causes of occurrence of inland soil alkalinity is the presence of :
(1) Sodium hypochlorite (2) Potassium nitrate
(3) Sodium chloride (4) Sodium carbonate
49. The Supreme Court of India directed the government to implement environmental education
in all educational institutions as compulsory subject in :
(1) 1976 (2) 2003 (3) 1988 (4) 2014
-o0o-
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Space For Rough Work
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PAPER-II
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)
JA-089-17 1 P.T.O.
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES
Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.
1. Which of the following methods is generally not adopted for the safe disposal of
biomedical waste ?
2. Which of the following prompted the Govt. of India to enact Environment (Protection)
Act, 1986 ?
(1) 48 A (2) 21
(3) 47 (4) 46
Paper-II 2 JA-089-17
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5. A type of lake that forms in the depression of the earth’s crust between two parallel faults
is known as
6. In case of plumes from a tall stack located on flat terrain ‘Lofting’ type of plume
behaviour is observed when in the atmosphere
8. A niche of the species where there is no competition from other species is called
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11. Percentage of tropospheric ozone in relation to total atmospheric ozone is about
12. Among the following, which one is the most hazardous chemical in the atmosphere ?
13. The technique, which is fastest for measuring organic carbon is,
15. According to ZSI (GOI), which one of the following birds declined by 99% ?
16. According to Convention on International Trade in Endangered species (CITES) COP 17,
which one of the following is transferred from CITES Appendix II to Appendix I by
January 2017.
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17. Taxonomic diversity of a region with several ecosystems is :
(1) Alpha diversity (2) Beta diversity
(3) Gamma diversity (4) Sigma diversity
20. The point at which the light intensity is just enough to produce energy by photosynthesis
which equal to the energy used in respiration is called
(1) Equal point (2) Regulatory point
(3) Compensation point (4) Complementary point
21. The global pattern of prevailing winds drives the cell – like circulation pattern of ocean
currents called
(1) Trade winds (2) Gyres
(3) Jet Streams (4) Shallow drifts
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23. Each degree of latitude on the earth’s surface represents approximately
(1) 91 km (2) 101 km
(3) 111 km (4) 121 km
24. Remote sensing satellites for earth observation are normally located in
(1) Elliptical orbit (2) Sun-synchronous orbit
(3) Geo-synchronous orbit (4) Equatorial orbit
25. Asian Ministerial Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction – 2016 (AMCDRR – 2016) was
held in
(1) Bangkok (2) Beijing
(3) New Delhi (4) Colombo
27. Magma starts to crystallise when it loses heat during its upward rise to shallower level
from a deep source. Which among the following is Bowen’s Reaction Series ?
(1) Pyroxene, Hornblende, Olivine, Mica, Quartz
(2) Olivine, Pyroxene, Hornblende, Mica, Quartz
(3) Hornblende, Olivine, Mica, Pyroxene, Quartz
(4) Olivine, Pyroxene, Hornblende, Mica, Quartz
Paper-II 6 JA-089-17
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28. A 2000 MW dam has maximum head of 200 m. What is the rate of falling water on the
turbines ? (Neglect losses)
29. A hydro power plant has a reservoir storage capacity of 2 × 103 m3 and its maximum head
is 500 m. What is its potential energy ?
31. In a biogas digestor having biomass and animal wastes as feed, for optimum methane
production, the value of pH should be such that initially
32. Which of the following statements is true in relation to solar flat plate collectors ? Glazing
(glass or plastic) above the absorber plate ?
(4) Enhances the absorption of solar radiation onto the absorber plate.
JA-089-17 7 Paper-II
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33. Marine pollution is caused by
a. Sewage
b. Land runoff
c. Oil spills
d. Ocean mining
Choose the correct code :
(1) a, c, and d only (2) c and d only
(3) a, b, c and d (4) d, c, b only
34. Which of the following wave properties is not taken advantage of in controlling noise ?
(1) Absorption (2) Damping
(3) Interference (4) Diffraction
35. The reaction O2 → 2O, which occurs in the stratosphere, does not occur in the troposphere
to produce ozone due to
37. Identify the correct sequence with reference to environmental clearance process for new
projects :
Paper-II 8 JA-089-17
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38. Which of the following elements has the longest oceanic residence time ?
39. The purpose of offshore islands is focussed for site or landscape restoration to
(4) increase the stabilization of surface cover and protect the animal corridor on land.
40. Match the List-I and List-II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
Codes :
JA-089-17 9 Paper-II
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41. Which of the following can be used for valuing environmental amenities ?
a. Hedonic pricing
b. Travel cost
c. Contingent valuation
42. A graphical representation where frequencies are plotted against class intervals is called
43. Which one of the following is a density – independent factor that limits the size of the
natural population ?
44. In a multiple regression analysis, if the variance of the observed variable Y is 1.57 and
variance of the residue is 0.52, then R-square value is
1, 2, 3, 5, 8 and 100 ; is
(1) 3 (2) 5
(3) 4 (4) 20
Paper-II 10 JA-089-17
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46. Exchangeable sodium percentage (ESP) > 40, and pH > 9.8 are characteristic of
(1) Acidic soil (2) Weak saline soil
(3) Strongly saline soil (4) Eroded soil
48. In an aquatic system, the presence of noxious gases such as H2S and CH4 is associated
with
(1) abundant algal growth (2) oxygen depletion
(3) absence of macrophytic vegetation (4) excess of dissolved oxygen
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Space For Rough Work
Paper-II 12 JA-089-17
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PAPER-II
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES
Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.
4. Energy transfer and nutrient flow through various trophic levels can be described as
(1) Linear
(2) Cyclic
(3) Linear and cyclic respectively
(4) Cyclic and linear respectively
5. The highest rate at which individuals can be harvested without reducing the population
size is called maximum sustainable yield of a
(1) Population (2) Community
(3) Ecosystem (4) Landscape
Paper-II 2 J-89-16
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6. Leslie matrix population model is generally used to determine
a. the growth of population.
b. the age distribution within population over time.
c. the prey-predator interactions.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) a only (2) a and c only
(3) b and c only (4) a and b only
7. If ΔNn is equal to production of new individual in the population, Δt and N represent time
and initial number of individuals of a population, then natality rate per unit of population
is
ΔNn ΔNn
Δt
(1) (2)
NΔt
ΔNn – NΔt
ΔNn
NΔt
(3) (4)
8. In a health survey, 38 of 120 men and 24 of 80 women are found to be affected by nicotine
by smoking. What is the probability of a randomly selected male being a smoker ?
(1) 0.32 (2) 0.19
(3) 0.38 (4) 0.12
–
9. If for a sample size (N) of 64, the mean (X) and standard deviation (SD) are found to be
82 and 6. Then standard error (SE) for the mean is
(1) 0.75 (2) 0.14
(3) 10.4 (4) 2.2
J-89-16 3 Paper-II
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11. The preparedness for prevention of chemical accidents and emergency in industry should
be made according to the statutory framework of
a. The National Environmental Tribunal Act, 1975
b. The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
c. The Factories Act, 1948
d. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
Choose the correct answer :
(1) a, b and c only (2) b, c and d only
(3) b and c only (4) a, b, c and d
13. According to the Hazardous Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1989, the limit for
Polyaromatic Hydrocarbons (PAH) in waste oil suitable for recycling should be less than
(1) 8% (2) 10%
(3) 6% (4) 15%
14. The main objectives of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 are
a. Restricting hunting, killing or overexploitation of species.
b. Protection of wildlife, preservation of natural habitats and environment.
c. Recognizing the right of people to a healthy environment.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) a and b only (2) b and c only
(3) a and c only (4) a, b and c
15. The signing ceremony of Paris agreement on climate change was held on April 22, 2016 at
UN headquarters. The agreement will be open for signatures by the countries till
(1) December 22, 2016 (2) April 21, 2017
(3) December 21, 2017 (4) March 21, 2018
Paper-II 4 J-89-16
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16. The committee, which reviews the EIA and EMP reports of developmental projects in
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is called
17. In EIA, after official notification, time given to hold public hearing is
18. The corporate social responsibility has been made mandatory since
19. The guiding principles for the National Land Utilization Policy are as follows :
J-89-16 5 Paper-II
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21. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : CO can contribute to the photochemical smog problem in cities.
Reason (R) : It aids in formation of surface ozone.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
22. For spherical aerosol particles smaller than about 30 μm and with density much greater
than air, their settling velocity varies with their size (d) as
23. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Sound barriers alongside motorways in urban areas are very effective
in controlling noise.
Reason (R) : They act as reflectors of sound back into motorways and upwards.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Paper-II 6 J-89-16
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25. Solar radiation of average energy ~ 1.25 eV and intensity 500 W/m2 are incident on the
surface of a solar flat plate collector. What is the approximate photon flux density
impinging on the surface of the collector ?
(1) ~ 5 × 1022 photons m–2s–1
(2) ~ 2 × 1022 photons m–2s–1
(3) ~ 2.5 × 1020 photons m–2s–1
(4) ~ 2.5 × 1021 photons m–2s–1
26. A solar pond based electricity generation plant has an efficiency of 5% and power output
of 500 mW. If the solar insolation is 1000 W/m2, what is the area of solar pond ?
(1) 5 km2 (2) 10 km2
(3) 1.0 km2 (4) 20 km2
28. By the year 2022, India’s target of producing power from wind energy is
(1) 50 GW (2) 60 GW
(3) 75 GW (4) 120 GW
30. A wetland ecosystem has a very high Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD). Which of the
following statement about such a wetland is correct ?
(1) It has high level of microbial pollution.
(2) It has very low level of microbial pollution.
(3) There is no microbial pollution.
(4) It is highly turbid.
J-89-16 7 Paper-II
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31. Desertification is the process of
a. They are the transitional zones between terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems.
(4) a, b, c and d
34. In soil conservation programme, the tillage where residues of previous crops are left in the
soil is called
Paper-II 8 J-89-16
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35. Which of the following will provide the most valuable information for determining risk of
mass wasting of an area ?
(1) Seismometer
a. calibration of sensor
c. accuracy assessment
J-89-16 9 Paper-II
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40. A species the population of which is low enough for it to be at risk of becoming extinct,
but not low enough that it is in imminent danger of extinction is called
44. Among the plants listed below, which is not producing allergenic pollen grain ?
Paper-II 10 J-89-16
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45. A species having a dominating influence on the structure and function of a community or
ecosystem is known as
(1) Fundamental species
(2) Functional species
(3) Keystone species
(4) Indicator species
46. Which of the following trace atmospheric gases is not an acid rain precursor ?
(1) Dimethyl sulfide (2) Hydrogen sulfide
(3) Nitrous oxide (4) Nitric oxide
47. According to WHO report 2015, out of 20 most polluted cities of the world, India has
(1) 12 (2) 18
(3) 10 (4) 13
48. With respect to sea, increase in CO2 abundance is not responsible for which of the
following ?
(1) Increase in pH of sea water.
(2) Increase in concentration of bicarbonate ions.
(3) Coral bleaching.
(4) Enhanced dissolution of calcareous materials.
49. Elements that cycle in the environment and that also have a gaseous phase at some point
in their cycle include which of the following ?
a. Phosphorus
b. Sulphur
c. Carbon
Choose the correct answer :
(1) a only (2) b only
(3) b and c only (4) a and c only
50. Poor aeration and high water holding capacity are characteristic features of
(1) Sandy soil (2) Loam soil
(3) Clay soil (4) Sandy Loam soil
______________
J-89-16 11 Paper-II
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Space For Rough Work
Paper-II 12 J-89-16
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Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) OMR Sheet No. : ..........................................................
(To be filled by the Candidate)
(Name)
Roll No.
2. (Signature)
(In figures as per admission card)
(Name)
Roll No.
J 0 8 9 1 8 PAPER - II (In words)
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES
PAPER - II
Note : This paper contains hundred (100) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.
1. For a thermally comfortable, seated bare bodied person at 258C, the maximum energy loss is
due to :
(1) Radiation (2) Convection (3) Conduction (4) Evaporation
2. High concentrations of pollutants at ground level during winter season are due to :
(1) Radiation inversion (2) Subsidence inversion
(3) Frontal inversion (4) Landscape induced inversion
4. At a latitude of 308, there is pressure gradient of 5.0 mb per 100 km. Given the density of air
~ 1.25 kg/m3, the geostrophic winds will have velocity (m/s) :
(1) 5.48 m/s (2) 54.86 m/s (3) 109.72 m/s (4) 27.43 m/s
6. If the tropospheric lapse rate be 6.58C/km and if T denotes temperature and Z denotes the
altitude then :
dT dT
(1) = 6.5 C/km (2) = − 6.5 C/km
dZ dZ
dZ dZ
(3) = 6.5 C/km (4) = − 6.5 C/km
dT dT
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7. Identify the statement, which best describes the second law of thermodynamics :
(1) The internal energy of the universe is constant.
(2) Energy can be neither created nor destroyed.
(3) At absolute zero, entropy of a substance is considered to be zero.
(4) When an isolated system undergoes a spontaneous change, the entropy of the universe
increases.
9. If e and p are vapour pressure of water and total pressure of moist air, the equation of state
for moist atmosphere can be written as :
e e
(1) PV ≃ RT 1 + (2) PV ≃ RT 1 −
p p
e e
(3) PV = RT 1 + 0.38 (4) PV = RT 1 + 0.62
p p
10. Select the incorrect statement about the redox potential of aqueous solutions :
(1) As the concentration of molecular oxygen increases, the redox potential increases.
(2) As the concentration of hydrogen ions increases, the redox potential increases.
(3) As the concentration of molecular oxygen decreases, the redox potential decreases.
(4) As the concentration of hydrogen ions decreases, the redox potential increases.
11. Match the List - I and List - II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List - I List - II
(Analyte) (Method)
(a) Lead (i) Winkler Method
(b) Dissolved oxygen (ii) Gravimetric Method
(c) SO 2 (iii) GC-MS
(d) PAH (iv) West Gaeke Method
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
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12. The main acidic component of the present atmosphere is :
(1) HCl (2) NOx (3) SO 2 (4) CO 2
14. Toxicity of which of the following metals is not due to reaction with sulfhydryl group ?
(1) Arsenic (2) Cadmium
(3) Lead (4) Chromium
15. By chemical reaction, the hydroxyl radicals fail to remove which of the following trace gases
from the atmosphere ?
(1) CO (2) NO (3) SO 2 (4) CFCs
16. How many gram of acetic acid (molar mass = 60 g/mole) are present in 100 ml of 0.1 M
acetic acid ?
(1) 0.6 g (2) 0.06 g (3) 6.0 g (4) 60.0 g
17. Three coloured sheets of equal thickness are placed in a light beam. Each sheet absorbs 20%
of light incident upon it. What is the intensity of light transmitted after the third plate ?
(1) 9.0% (2) 10.5%
(3) 51.2% (4) 40.0%
18. In a volumetric titration, a 20 ml aqueous HCl solution, needs 10 ml of 0.1 N NaOH for
complete neutralization.
The concentration of HCl solution is :
(1) 0.2 N (2) 0.002 N
(3) 0.01 N (4) 0.05 N
19. The best way for assessing the organic component of a water sample is the determination
of :
(1) TOC (2) COD (3) BOD (4) DO
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21. The percentage concentration of which of the following ions is highest in sea water ?
(1) Bicarbonate (2) Chloride
(3) Sulfate (4) Sodium
22. In which of the following ecosystems, the food web involves more species and more trophic
levels ?
(1) Rain forest (2) Ocean
(3) Desert (4) Glacier
23. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The available energy of an ecosystem decreases with the length of food
chain.
Reason (R) : At each transfer of energy in food chain, a large proportion of potential
energy is lost as heat.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R)are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
25. Ratio of energy transfer at different trophic levels in the food chain is called :
(1) Metabolic efficiency (2) Ecological efficiency
(3) Energy flow rate (4) Food chain complexity
27. The species determining the ability of large number of other species to persist in a community,
are called :
(1) Indicator species (2) Keystone species
(3) Dominant species (4) Endemic species
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28. Biodiversity :
(a) Increases towards the Arctic region
(b) Decreases towards the Arctic region
(c) Increases towards the equator
(d) Decreases towards the equator
Choose the correct code :
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (a) and (b)
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (b) and (c)
30. Main limiting factor governing primary productivity in pelagic zone of the ocean is :
(a) Light
(b) Available nutrients
(c) Number of primary producers
(d) Tidal current
Choose the correct code :
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
32. Based on the casualties reported worldwide, which one of the following is most deadly airborne
bacterial disease ?
(1) Diphtheria (2) Whooping cough
(3) Pneumonia (4) Meningitis
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33. Match the List - I and List -II. Identify the correct answer from the code given below :
List - I List - II
(Endangered animals) (Distribution)
(a) Lion tailed Macaque (i) Himalayan foothills
(b) Golden Langur (ii) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Spotted Linsang (iii) Western Ghats
(d) Pallas’s cat (iv) Central and Eastern Himalayas
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
36. According to India State Forest Report (ISFR), 2017 of MOEFCC, GOI, the increase in forest
cover of the country with reference to the year 2015 is :
(1) 1.8% (2) 2.0% (3) 2.2% (4) 1.0%
38. Slow downslope movement of water saturated rock mass which is not confined to a definite
channel, is called :
(1) Soil creep (2) Debris flow (3) Mudslide (4) Solifluction
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40. Match the List - I and List - II. Identify the correct answer from the code given below :
List - I List - II
(Ecosystem service) (Function)
(a) Provisioning (i) Nutrient cycling
(b) Regulating (ii) Recreational
(c) Cultural (iii) Carbon sequestration
(d) Supporting (iv) Pharmaceuticals
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
42. L - band in microwave remote sensing provides information about scattering from :
(a) Volume (b) Soil (c) Canopy (d) Trunks and boles
Choose the correct code :
(1) (a) only (2) (a), (b), only
(3) (a), (b), (c) (4) (a), (b), (d) only
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45. In an aquifer having a coefficient of permeability k = 0.1 mm/s and water table sloping at a
rate of 1 m over a distance of 200 m, the value of groundwater flow is :
(1) 0.005 mm/s (2) 0.0010 mm/s
(3) 0.0015 mm/s (4) 0.0025 mm/s
47. Urban Heat Island effect is best studied using remote sensing in the following spectral region :
(a) 0.5 - 0.9 µm (b) 3 - 5 µm (c) 10 - 12 µm (d) 3 - 6 cm
Choose the correct code :
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a) and (d) only
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51. According to River Continuum Concept of Vannote et. al (1980), the major sources of energy
in medium - sized streams are :
(c) Algae
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c), and (d)
53. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The efficiency of a PV cell is limited by the quantum processes involving
incident photons and the electrons in the cell.
Reason (R) : The band gap energy of the semiconducting material used to fabricate PV
cell is less in comparison to the energies of photons of insolation.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
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54. Given below are two statements. one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The recoverable renewable energy is a fraction of the resource base of the
renewable sources available in the world.
Reason (R) : Much of the renewable energy is either of high entropy or too inaccessible
to use.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
55. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Tidal range is a critical factor in determining whether an estuary would be
useful for tidal power generation.
Reason (R) : Tidal power is proportional to tidal range.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R)are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
56. A single solar cell on illumination by insolation of about 800 Wm−2 produces a voltage of
0.5 V and a current upto 2.0 A. The efficiency of the solar cell is 12.5%. The area of the cell is :
(1) 2×10−2 m2 (2) 5×10−3 m2
(3) 4×10−4 m2 (4) 10−2 m2
57. If the ion density in a high temperature fusion plasma consisting of deuterium and tritium
fuel is 2.5×1020 m−3 , the minimum confinement time required for nuclear fusion to produce
net energy will be :
(1) 0.5 s (2) 0.4 s (3) 0.25 s (4) 4.0 s
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58. At present, which geothermal resource is exploited on commercial scale in the world ?
59. Which of the following substances has the maximum energy content (MJ/m3) ?
60. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The nuclei of elements such as plutonium and uranium have extremely
large energy potentials.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
235
61. In a nuclear fission reaction involving U 92 and a slow neutron, the mass defect is found to
235
be 0.223 u. How much energy will be released from 5.0 gram of U 92 ? (1u = 1.66 ×10−27kg)
62. Which of the following biofuels is produced from acidification and distillation of woody
crops ?
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63. How thick a sound barrier be made if it is to attenuate efficiently sound transmitted at
5.0 kHz ?
64. Identify the most reducing water sample as inferred from pE values given below :
65. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(1) 5.0 - 6.5 (2) 6.5 - 8.5 (3) 7.5 - 9.0 (4) 8 - 10
67. In the disinfection of water by chlorine, the most reactive chlorine species is :
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68. Given below are two statements. One labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as
Reason (R) :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
69. Which of the following air pollutants are responsible for photochemical smog ?
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (c) and (d) only (4) (a) and (c) only
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72. Given below are two statements. One labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Traffic policemen in urban centres generally suffer from oxygen deficiency.
Reason (R) : Carbon dioxide forms a very strong complex with haemoglobin.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
73. A bar graph whose bars are drawn in decreasing order of frequency is :
74. If four groups of vehicles consisting of 5, 10, 12 and 8 cars reported the gaseous pollutant
emissions of 1.2 kg, 2.1 kg, 3.0 kg and 1.5 kg per day respectively, then the mean emission of
gaseous pollutant from all cars is :
(1) 4.43 kg/day (2) 2.14 kg/day (3) 4.80 kg/day (4) 3.12 kg/day
75. A sample of 10 measurements of diameter of trees in a survey gives a mean of 43.8 cm and a
standard deviation of 0.6 cm. Given t = 2.26, the 95% confidence limit for the actual diameter
is in between :
76. In a fish population of a pond it is believed that males and females are in equal proportion. If
out of 200 fish in a catch, 120 are male and 80 are female, then the Chi square (χ2) value is :
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77. In multiple regression analysis, the value that refers to the extent of possible variance in the
dependent variable that can be accounted for, by the independent variable is :
78. A population size at t=0 is 80 and has a growth rate of 0.12. If the population follows
logistic growth, what is the growth rate constant if the carrying capacity is 240 ?
79. In a city of area (8 km×8 km), the vehicular traffic is releasing 10−5 g/m2−s of CO during
the winter season between 4 pm and 8 pm. During this period mixing height is 100 m. The
wind is blowing in the city at a speed of 4.0 m/s along the side of the city. If the initial
concentration of CO at 4 pm was negligible, the estimated concentration of CO after 4 hours
should be :
80. In the Gaussian plume model, the effective stack height is the sum of actual stack height and
the plume rise which depends on :
(1) (a), (b) and (d) (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
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81. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Reason (R) : Ships are responsible for significant amounts of sulphur emissions.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
82. Given below are two statements. One labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as
Reason (R) :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
83. Identify the incorrect statement with regard to saline and alkaline soil :
(1) These show white incrustation of salts of calcium, magnesium and sodium on the soil
surface.
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84. Given below are two statements. One labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Phosphorus limits eutrophication if nitrogen is eight times more abundant
(weight wise) than phosphorus in fresh water.
Reason (R) : About eight times more nitrogen (weight wise) is required than phosphorus
for plant growth.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
86. To achieve its objectives, the International Solar Alliance aims to mobilize financial investment
over :
(1) Z 1 trillion
87. A Ramsar site not able to perform its ecological functions comes under :
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88. Which of the following bacterium is called as the superbug that could clean up oil spills ?
89. For the scientific research or investigations, the chief wildlife warden may grant the permission
to public to enter a sanctuary under the section :
90. Power to issue notification reserving the trees or class of trees in a protected forest lies with :
91. In which stage of decomposition of landfilled waste, the bacteria acetogen helps to reduce
the pH of leachate and allows heavy metals to be solubilized ?
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92. Choose the correct sequence in resource recovery for mixed solid waste :
93. Onsight mulching and composting of waste is a component of integrated solid waste
management under the process of :
(1) recycling
(2) disposal
(4) disinfection
94. Match the List-I and List-II. Identify the correct answer from the code given below :
List-I List-II
Code :
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95. Which of the following materials are used as landfill sealants for the control of gas and
leachate ?
(b) Lime
(c) Bentonite
96. Select the correct sequence with reference to Environmental Management System ISO1401 :
(2) Implementation and operation → Checking and corrective action → Management review
→ Environmental policy
(4) Checking and corrective action → Management review → Implementation and operation
→ Environmental policy
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97. Match the List-I and List-II. Identify the correct answer from the code given below :
List-I List-II
(b) Development Action (ii) Avoid, reduce and remedy for impacts
Code :
98. The type of project in ‘B’ category in the schedule attached with EIA notification of 14th
September 2006, needs environmental clearance from :
(a) Central Govt. without the recommendation of the Expert Appraisal Committee.
(b) State Govt. on the recommendation of the State Expert Appraisal Committee.
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99. Match the List-I and List-II. Identify the correct answer from the code given below :
List-I List-II
(Process) (Description)
(a) Development action (i) Compensation for adverse impacts
(b) Environmental baseline (ii) Development stages and processes
(c) Impacts prediction (iii) Establishment of future and present state of
environment
(d) Mitigation measures (iv) Magnitude of identified change in environment
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
100. Battelle - Columbus environmental evaluation system is used to assess the impact of :
(1) Mining development projects.
(2) Pulp and paper mill projects.
(3) Water resources projects.
(4) Highway projects.
-oOo-
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Signature and Name of Invigilator OMR Sheet No. : ..........................................................
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1. (Signature)
Roll No.
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J 8 9 1 5 PAPER - II
Time : 1¼ hours] ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE [Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 8 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
Instructions for the Candidates ÂÚUèÿææçÍüØô¢ ·ð¤ çÜ° çÙÎðüàæ
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: Use only Blue+Black Ball point pen. ç·¤âè Öè Âý·¤æÚU ·¤æ ⢻淤 (·ñ¤Ü·é¤ÜðÅUÚU) UØæ Üæ» ÅðUÕÜ ¥æçÎ ·¤æ
Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. ÂýØô» ßçÁüÌ ãñÐ
There are no negative marks for incorrect answers. »ÜÌ ©æÚUæð´ ·ð¤ çÜ° ·¤æð§ü Ù·¤æÚUæ×·¤ ¥´·¤ Ùãè´ ãñ´Ð
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
PAPER - II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions
are compulsory.
5. BOD of the effluents discharged on land for irrigation should not exceed :
(1) 30 mg/L (2) 100 mg/L (3) 300 mg/L (4) 60 mg/L
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8. Acid sulphate soils are characteristic of marine coastal plains in areas rich in :
(I) Organic matter
(II) Brackish water
(III) Mangrove swamps
Choose the correct answer :
(1) (I) only (2) (I) and (II) only
(3) (II) only (4) (I), (II) and (III)
9. The amount of energy at one trophic level divided by the amount of energy at the trophic
level immediately below it is termed as :
(1) Trophic efficiency (2) Consumption efficiency
(3) Assimilation efficiency (4) Production efficiency
11. Maximum density of detritivorus micro organisms in pond ecosystem are present in :
(1) Limnetic zone (2) Photic zone (3) Littoral zone (4) Benthic zone
12. Species diversity show a marked pattern as one moves from equator to the poles. Species
diversity :
(1) increases as one moves towards the poles from the equator
(2) decreases as one moves from equator to poles
(3) remains constant as one moves from equator to poles
(4) is highest in the arctic and antartic regions
14. Most common soil borne bacterial pathogen that manipulates plant by injecting its DNA
segment into plant cell is :
(1) Acidaminococcus fermentans (2) Clostridium thermoacetium
(3) Rhizobium leguminosarum (4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
15. Which among the following are the best tools/techniques to study landscape
fragmentation ?
(I) Remote sensing (II) Geodesy
(III) Cartography (IV) Geographical Information System
Choose the correct answer :
(1) (I) and (II) only (2) (I), (III) and (IV) only
(3) (II), (III) and (IV) only (4) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)
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16. An earthquakes epicentre is :
(1) usually in the lower part of the mantle
(2) determined by analysing S - wave arrival time at seismic stations
(3) determined by analysing P - wave arrival time at seismic station
(4) a point on the surface directly above the focus
17. Water entrapped at the time of formation of the sedimentary rocks is called :
(1) Meteoric water (2) Connate water (3) Juvenile water (4) Groundwater
18. Which of the following pairs of igneous rocks have the same mineral composition ?
(1) Granite - basalt (2) Andesite - rhyolite
(3) Basalt - gabbro (4) Pumic - basalt
19. Traps for petroleum and natural gas formed by deformation such as folding and fracturing
of rocks are known as :
(1) Lithification traps (2) Reservoir traps
(3) Structural traps (4) Stratigraphic traps
20. In which one of the following areas does radiant drainage fully develop ?
(1) On a point bar (2) Around an ox-bow lake
(3) Near a delta (4) Around a volcano
22. A solar cell of area 10 cm310 cm produces a voltage of 0.6 V and a current upto 2 A. If solar
insolation is 1000 Wm22, the efficiency of the solar cell is :
(1) 15% (2) 12% (3) 25% (4) 24%
23. An ocean wave has a height of 3 m and has time period of 10 sec. The power available for
extraction from this wave in the units of kW per meter of the wavefront is approximately :
(1) 30 (2) 45 (3) 90 (4) 300
24. In the case of Silicon solar cell (Eg51.12 eV), the maximum wavelength of solar radiations
for production of electron-hole pairs is :
(1) : 560 nm (2) : 480 nm (3) : 720 nm (4) : 1100 nm
25. The share of India in the total annual GHG emissions of the world is approximately :
(1) 5 - 7% (2) 10 - 12% (3) 17 - 20% (4) 20 - 25%
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27. Indira Gandhi canal passes through the following state :
(I) Punjab (II) Haryana (III) Uttar Pradesh (IV) Rajasthan
Choose the correct answer :
(1) (I), (II) only (2) (I), (II), (III) only
(3) (I), (II), (IV) only (4) (I), (II), (III), (IV)
28. Trichloromonofluoromethane is :
(I) Freon - II
(II) A spray can propellent
(III) A chlorofluorocarbon
Choose the correct answer :
(1) (I) only (2) (II) and (III) only(3) (I) and (III) only (4) (I), (II) and (III)
29. Which of the following air pollutants are released by thermal power plants ?
(I) Oxides of nitrogen (II) Oxides of sulphur
(III) Ammonia (IV) Carbon monoxide
Choose the correct answer :
(1) (I), (III) and (IV) only (2) (II) and (III) only
(3) (I), (II) and (IV) only (4) (I), (II, (III) and (IV)
32. In which EIA guidelines notification, developmental projects were categorized as A and B
in India ?
(1) EIA guidelines notification, 1994 (2) EIA guidelines notification, 1986
(3) EIA guidelines notification, 2006 (4) EIA guidelines notification, 2000
33. Three important rivers of Indian sub-continent have their source near the Mansarovar lake
in Tibet. These rivers are :
(1) Indus, Jhelum, Ganga (2) Indus, Sutlej, Yamuna
(3) Indus, Sutlej, Brahmaputra (4) Yamuna, Brahmaputra, Gandak
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34. Which state in India has the highest area of wastelands under barren/stony/rock category ?
(1) Jammu and Kashmir (2) Himachal Pradesh
(3) Arunachal Pradesh (4) Uttarakhand
35. During clearance of any developmental project, the minimum distance required for site
selection from eco-sensitive zone is :
(1) 5 km (2) 10 km (3) 15 km (4) 20 km
36. Which of the following are true regarding Jhum cultivation in India ?
(I) It is largely practiced in N-E India
(II) Fertility is exhausted in a few years
(III) It is referred as Slash and Burn technique
Choose the correct answer :
(1) (I), (II) and (III) (2) (I) and (II) only
(3) (II) and (III) only (4) (I) and (III) only
37. Compensatory afforestation provisions are covered under the Environment Act names as :
(1) Indian Forest Act (Revised), 1982 (2) Environment Protection Act, 1986
(3) Forest Conservation Act, 1980 (4) Public Liability Insurance Act, 1981
38. When a disaster has occured, the early action in a Disaster Management Plan could be :
(1) Response and Rescue (2) Warning and preparedness
(3) Relief and Rehabilitation (4) Shelter and Food supply
41. Which one of the following is not a part of Waste Reduction strategy ?
(1) Reduced use of raw material (2) Material Reuse
(3) Recycling of waste (4) Decreased toxicity
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43. Municipal Solid Waste (Handling and Management) rule and Biomedical Waste (Handling
and Management) rule were implemented in the years respectively :
(1) 2000 and 1998 (2) 1998 and 2002 (3) 1996 and 1998 (4) 1990 and 1985
44. If a phosphorous limited lake having surface area equal to 803106 m2 is fed by stream with
flow rate 20 m3/s that has phosphorous concentration of 0.01 mg/L, then the phosphorous
loading from the incoming stream is :
(1) 4.0 g/s (2) 0.2 g/s (3) 0.4 g/s (4) 0.6 g/s
45. If K is the carrying capacity of a population N in an ecosystem following the logistic growth,
its growth rate becomes zero when :
(1) N/K50 (2) Mortality > Natality
(3) N/K51 (4) N5Half of the carrying capacity of the habitat
49. Which one of the following is not correct for drip irrigation ?
(1) Drip consists of a network of perforated plastic tubing below the ground surface
(2) Drip irrigation increases fertilizer use and water pollution from fertilizer run-off
(3) Small holes in the tubing drops off water at a slow rate close to plant roots
(4) This technique was developed in Israel in the 1960s
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1. (Signature) OMR Sheet No. : ..........................................................
(To be filled by the Candidate)
(Name)
Roll No.
2. (Signature)
(In figures as per admission card)
(Name)
Roll No.
N0 8 9 1 7 PAPER - II (In words)
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES
PAPER - II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions
are compulsory.
4. Match the List-I and List-II. Identify the correct answer from the code given below :
List-I List-II
(Aerosol) (Source)
(a) Primary natural aerosol (i) Organic matter from biogenic gases
(b) Secondary natural aerosol (ii) Soot from biomass burning
(c) Primary anthropogenic aerosol (iii) Sulphate aerosol from powerplant SO 2
emissions
(d) Secondary anthropogenic aerosol (iv) Soil dust
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
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7. A solution of chemical ‘A’ having its 0.14 mol L−1 concentration has an absorbance of 0.42.
Another solution of ‘A’ under the same conditions has an absorbance of 0.36. What is the
concentration of this solution of ‘A’ ?
(1) 0.108 mol L−1 (2) 0.35 mol L−1 (3) 0.12 mol L−1 (4) 0.10 mol L−1
12. A structure with hundreds of species non-linearly interlinked for their livelyhood is called :
(1) Guild (2) Food chain (3) Food web (4) Pyramid
13. The process of examination of change in species diversity between ecosystems is a measure
of :
(1) Alpha diversity (2) Beta diversity
(3) Gamma diversity (4) Genetic diversity
15. The unidirectional series of changes from an uninhabited water body to a water body inhabited
by a stable aquatic community are called :
(1) Eutrophication (2) Succession (3) Regeneration (4) Reclamation
16. Under the clear Sunny day, the maximum depth of the ocean at which photosynthesis can
occur is :
(1) 10 m (2) 250 m (3) 80 m (4) 600 m
17. The organism likely to be most similar to the first life form that evolved on the earth is :
(1) Blue - green algae (2) Methane producing bacteria
(3) Protozoan (4) Red algae
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20. Tree height can be measured using remote sensing data from :
(1) Resourcesat (2) Landsat (3) Cartosat (4) RISAT
22. A single solar cell (10 cm×10 cm) produces a voltage of 0.5 V and a current upto 2.5 A. If the
solar insolation is 800 W/m2, the efficiency of the solar cell is :
(1) ~ 15.6 % (2) ~ 24.6 % (3) ~ 12.3 % (4) ~ 10.2 %
26. Which of the following solar cell materials has maximum efficiency ?
(1) Cd Te, thin film (2) Si, polycrystalline
(3) Amorphous Si : Ge : H film (4) Ga As, single crystal
29. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Arsenic (III) is more toxic than arsenic (V).
Reason (R) : Arsenic (V) binds the sulfhydryl group more strongly than arsenic (III).
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
30. The half life period of a radioactive substance is 32 h. How much time it would take for its
75% disintegration ?
(1) 16 h (2) 96 h (3) 128 h (4) 64 h
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31. Match the List-I and List-II. Identify the correct answer from the code given below :
List-I List-II
(Pesticides) (Target)
(a) Avicide (i) Fish
(b) Disinfectant (ii) Plants
(c) Herbicide (iii) Birds
(d) Piscicide (iv) Micro-organisms
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
33. Which country has opted out of Paris Agreement on climate change ?
(1) USA (2) Canada (3) Australia (4) Russia
34. Under the EIA notification of 14th September, 2006, preparation of EIA is not required for
the projects falling in the :
(1) Category ‘A’ projects (2) Category ‘B’ projects
(3) Category B1 projects (4) Category B2 projects
36. Match the List-I and List-II. Identify the correct answer from the code given below :
List-I List-II
(Series) (Environmental labelling)
(a) ISO 14021 (i) Principles and procedures
(b) ISO 14022 (ii) Self declaration of environmental claims
(c) ISO 14023 (iii) Symbols
(d) ISO 14024 (iv) Testing and verification methods
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
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37. Match the List-I and List-II. Identify the correct answer from the code given below :
List-I List-II
(Acts) (Year )
(a) Environmental Protection Act (i) 1991
(b) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act (ii) 1977
(c) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act (iii) 1981
(d) Public Liability Insurance Act (iv) 1986
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
38. Articles 21, 48-A and 51-A(g), which aim to protect and improve the environment and safe
guard forests and wildlife, incorporate which of the following principles of environmental
law ?
(1) Polluter pays principle (2) Precautionary principle
(3) Principle of strict liability (4) Moral duty of the state
39. Which is the correct classification of forests under the Indian Forest Act, 1927 ?
(1) Grasslands, tropical forests, wetlands
(2) Protected forest, reserved forest, village forest
(3) Wildlife sanctuary, national parks, biosphere reserve
(4) Private forest, social forest, town forest
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43. In the context of Gaussian Plume Dispersion model assumptions, consider the following
statements :
(a) The pollutants have the same density as the air surrounding them.
(b) The atmosphere is stable.
Choose the correct code :
(1) Both (a) and (b) are true (2) (a) is true, (b) is false
(3) (a) is false, (b) is true (4) Both (a) and (b) are false
45. If, out of 50 fish of a pond, 12 had no ectoparasite and remaining had varying numbers of
parasites on them, then how many of fish had at least one parasite ?
(1) 4 (2) 24 (3) 38 (4) 16
46. In a One-way ANOVA, explained variance was found to be 8.0 and unexplained variance
was 3.67. The F-ratio is :
(1) 0.46 (2) 4.26 (3) 2.0 (4) 2.18
48. According to IPCC, in order to restrict global mean temperature rise to 28C by the year 2050,
global energy related CO2 emissions (reference year 2005) need to be cut down by the year
2050 by :
(1) ~ 50% (2) ~ 90% (3) ~ 40% (4) ~ 30%
50. In a city, half a million cars travel approximately 20 km on a given day. The average HC
emission rate is 2.0 g per car km. Assuming that the average molecular weight of all the
emitted HCs is equal to that of CH4 , how much volume of HC is released in the city each
day ?
(1) 1.4×104 m3 /day (2) 2.8×104 m3 /day
(3) 6.1×104 m3 /day (4) 11.3×104 m3 /day
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PAPER-II
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES
Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.
(3) CH3Br > NOx > CH3 > CH4 (4) CF4 > NOx > CH4 > CH3Br
2. The surface winds generally blow from the east in the areas over
(1) Tropical Equator zone (2) Midlatitudinal zone
(3) High latitudinal zone (4) Subtropical zone
3. Period (epoch) associated with the interference of human beings with nature is termed as
(1) Eocene (2) Miocene
(3) Anthropocene (4) Holocene
Paper-II 2 J-89-16
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6. Trophic relationship between an arbitrary number of species can best be explained using
7. The length (cm) of six earthworms used in an experiment are 5.37, 5.11, 6.42, 7.26, 3.99
and 2.6. Corresponding weight (g) are 5.88, 6.35, 8.11, 8.36, 4.40 and 3.5 respectively.
The relationship between length and weight of the earthworms is
(1) 6 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 2
(1) As a pure metal it is soluble in water, hence can easily be absorbed through drinking
water.
(2) It is light and volatile and so is widely dispersed through the environment.
10. According to the Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991, the inquiry on an application for
relief is conducted by
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11. Discarded paint drums, pesticide cans, CFL bulbs, tube lights, expired medicines, broken
mercury thermometers, used batteries etc., generated at the household level are collected
as
12. Which one of the following is a Schedule-I animal of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 ?
13. The effluent and emission standards for industries have been notified under ;
14. Which one of the following does not belong to the EIA process ?
15. In India, the validity of EIA clearance period for a mining project is
Paper-II 4 J-89-16
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16. According to EIA notification of 2006, which category of projects does not need EIA
clearance ?
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
18. Ministry of Corporate Affairs enhanced the scope of CSR activities in Clean Ganga Fund
set-up by the Central Government for rejuvenation of the river Ganga vide notification
made in the year
20. A certain type of coal is burnt at a rate of 0.5 kg/s. If the sulfur content of the coal is 5%
and 5% of sulfur remains in ash, how much sulfur dioxide is formed per day ?
J-89-16 5 Paper-II
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21. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : On combustion, natural gas produces more NOx than coal.
Reason (R) : Natural gas burns at a relatively high temperature than coal.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
22. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Measurement of noise by a sound level meter are almost universally
expressed in dB(A).
Reason (R) : dB(A) scale represents flat frequency response of healthy persons to an
auditory stimulus.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
24. With respect to water content (%) identify the correct sequence of various types of coals.
(1) Lignite > Sub-bituminous coal > Anthracite
(2) Sub-bituminous coal > Lignite > Anthracite
(3) Lignite > Anthracite > Sub-bituminous coal
(4) Anthracite > Lignite > Sub-bituminous coal
Paper-II 6 J-89-16
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25. In India, target for generating electric power from small hydropower projects by the year
2022 is
(1) 5 GW (2) 10 GW
(3) 50 GW (4) 500 GW
27. For a given energy and duration of exposure, the radioactivity associated with which of
the following is more harmful in biological terms ?
(1) X-rays (2) Fast neutrons
(3) Fast protons (4) Heavy ions
28. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The main greenhouse gases other than CO2 have global warming
potentials much higher than that of CO2.
Reason (R) : They absorb shorter wavelengths between 7 µm and 13 µm which overlap
with atmospheric window.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
29. Which among the following wetlands are under Montreux Record ?
(1) Chilka Lake (2) Keoladeo National Park
(3) Tso Moriri (4) Nal Sarovar
J-89-16 7 Paper-II
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30. International year of Desert and desertification was observed in
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (a) and (d) only
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (b) and (d) only
33. Consider the following four statements and choose the correct statement :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (a), (b) and (d) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Paper-II 8 J-89-16
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34. Which one of the following type of faults is likely to be connected with the most
dangerous earthquakes ?
(1) Transform (2) Strike-slip
(3) Reverse dip-slip (4) Normal dip-slip
35. The drainage which has streams flowing outwards in all directions from a central elevated
tract is called as :
(1) Dendritic drainage (2) Parallel drainage
(3) Trellis drainage (4) Radial drainage
37. For depiction of gradation in slope, which of the following method is used in GIS ?
(1) Raster GIS (2) Vector GIS
(3) CAD (4) CAM
38. Which of the following National Parks are declared as Tiger Reserve by National Tiger
Conservation Authority of India in 2015 ?
(1) Kanha and Ranthambhor National Parks
(2) Sariska and Nagarahole National Parks
(3) Dudhwa and Periyar National Parks
(4) Kudremukh and Rajaji National Parks
39. A species selected to represent an environmental cause and symbol for a defined habitat is
called :
(1) Flagship species (2) Umbrella species
(3) Keystone species (4) Indicator species
J-89-16 9 Paper-II
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40. Intermediate disturbance in a community result in
(1) Maximum number of species
(2) Minimum number of species
(3) Average number of species
(4) Decrease the number of species
41. Access to genetic resources and the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from
their utilization was the main objective of
(1) Earth Summit (2) Millennium Development Goal
(3) Nagoya Protocol (4) Montreal Protocol
42. Reducing Emission from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) in developing
countries covers activities of
(a) Reducing emission from deforestation
(b) Reducing emission from forest degradation
(c) Conservation of forest carbon stocks
(d) Sustainable management of forests
Choose the correct answer :
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (b) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Paper-II 10 J-89-16
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45. Keeling curve presents the yearly variations in the concentration of
(1) Ozone (2) Methane
(3) Sulfur dioxide (4) Carbon dioxide
46. 3.0 × 1018 molecules of NO2 are present in 1.5 × 1025 molecules of air at 25 °C and 1.0
atmosphere pressure. Calculate the concentration of NO2 in ppb.
48. Out of vanadium, molybdenum and iron, the metals involved in nitrogenase enzyme in
nitrogen fixation in soil is/are
(1) vanadium and molybdenum only (2) vanadium, molybdenum and iron
(3) molybdenum only (4) vanadium only
49. The dominant carbon dioxide species in sea water in equilibrium with CO2 is :
J-89-16 11 Paper-II
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Space For Rough Work
Paper-II 12 J-89-16
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Signature and Name of Invigilator
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Time : 2½ hours] ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE [Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
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Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
There are no negative marks for incorrect answers. »ÜÌ ©æÚUæð´ ·ð¤ çÜ° ·¤æð§ü Ù·¤æÚUæ×·¤ ¥´·¤ Ùãè´ ãñ´Ð
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
PAPER - III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.
1. Which one of the following statements is not true in the case of point source Gaussian Plume
Model ?
(1) Wind speeds are constant in time.
(2) Pollutants are conservative
(3) Rate of emission of pollutants from the stack is constant
(4) The ground level concentration is inversely proportional to effective stack height
2. Consider the simple regression equation Y5a1bX between the variables Y and X. If the
standard deviation SX and SY are 3 and 2 respectively and correlation coefficient r50.75,
the estimate of b is :
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.5 (3) 1.125 (4) 1.5
3. Consider two normal populations with variances of 10 and 20, respectively. If two
independent random samples drawn from the two populations are of the sizes 30 and 24
and their variances 10 and 15 respectively, the value of static F(29,23) is :
(1) 1.33 (2) 2.50 (3) 1.56 (4) 3.0
4. A normal population has s2=6. The sum of squares of deviations of 15 sample values from
their mean being 120, what is the x2 (chi-square) value ?
(1) 9 (2) 48 (3) 20 (4) 1.33
5. Choose the correct sequence of phases associated with a population growth that exhibits
dN N
logistic model represented by = rN 1 2 .
dt k
(1) Stationary phase ® Exponential phase ® Lag phase
(2) Lag phase ® Stationary phase ® Exponential phase
(3) Lag phase ® Exponential phase ® Stationary phase
(4) Exponential phase ® Stationary phase ® Lag phase
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6. The toxic substances of special concern emitted during incineration process from waste to
energy plants are :
(a) Carbon monoxide (b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Dioxins (d) Furans
Choose the correct answer :
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (d) only
(4) (c) and (d) only
8. For providing information related to environment to decision makers, policy makers, scientists
and environmental engineers all over the country, ENVIS was established in the year belonging
to :
(1) Sixties (2) Seventies (3) Eighties (4) Nineties
9. The total radiative forcing of all major and minor green-house gases in the year 2014 is
estimated to be :
(1) ~ 2.51 W/m2 (2) ~ 2.93 W/m2 (3) ~ 1.87 W/m2 (4) ~ 2.7 W/m2
10. For the range of temperatures observed in the earths atmosphere, the saturation mixing
ratio (Ws) and the total pressure are related as :
1 3 23
(1) Ws ∝
p (2) Ws µ p (3) Ws ∝ p 2 (4) Ws ∝ p 2
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11. A thermal power plant based on coal produces 100 MW of electrical power with conversion
efficiency of 30%. If the ash content of coal is 5% and net heating value is 30 MJ per kg, how
much ash is produced daily ?
(1) 48 metric tons (2) 24 metric tons (3) 90 metric tons (4) 60 metric tons
12. Under which section of Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972, the state government can declare an
area closed to hunting for a specified period ?
(1) Section 35 (2) Section 27 (3) Section 38 - A (4) Section 37
13. Which one of the following criteria should not contribute to the process of establishing
significance of the impact of a developmental project on environment ?
(1) Sensitivity of surrounding environment
(2) Probability of the impact occurring
(3) Views and values of the developer
(4) Views and suggestions of the public
15. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) was incorporated under which one of the following
legislations ?
(1) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1981
(2) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1981
(3) Indian Forest Act, 1927
(4) Environmental (Protection) Act 1986
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16. A company operating a vehicle Manufacturing plant has developed Environmental
Management System (EMS) to enhance its performance and to improve quality of its products.
The key aspects of this EMS would include :
(1) Audit of manufacturing plant safety procedure
(2) Maximizing returns to stakeholders of the company
(3) The development of an overall framework for environmental affairs of the company
(4) The aspects of costs involved in developing an environmental policy.
18. Match the List - I and List - II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List - I List - II
(Stages in EIA) (Actions in EIA)
(a) Screening (i) Reduce or avoid the impacts
(b) Scoping (ii) Establish present and future stages of environment
(c) Baseline description (iii) Early indication of crucial impacts
(d) Mitigation measures (iv) Narrowing the application of EIA
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
19. The decision making process in EIA generally does not include :
(1) Cost - benefit analysis (2) Procedural information
(3) Socio - economic aspects (4) Operational management
20. Which of the following actions may be recommended for acidified lakes ?
(1) Ammoniation (2) Liming (3) Ozonation (4) Chlorination
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21. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : All types of aerosols contribute to radiative forcing.
Reason (R) : Aerosol effectively absorb electromagnetic radiations.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
22. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The efficiency of fuel cells is not limited by the second law of
thermodynamics.
Reason (R) : There is no intermediate heat to work conversion in a fuel cell.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
23. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : A wind rose with approximately equal length spokes (or petals) represents
great variation of wind direction over a given duration.
Reason (R) : The length of the spokes is a measure of wind speeds in a given duration.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
24. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Large scale OTEC development may exacerbate the green-house effect.
Reason (R) : Methane is a green-house gas.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
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25. In a spectrophotometric cell of 2.0 cm pathlength, the solution of a substance shows the
absorbance value of 1.0. If the molar absorptivity of the compound is 23104 L mol21 cm21,
calculate the concentration of the substance in solution. What is the concentration of the
substance in that solution ?
(1) 2.5 3 1025 mol L21 (2) 4.0 3 1024 mol L21
(3) 1.0 3 104 mol L21 (4) 5.0 3 1024 mol L21
26. In order to obtain useful fusion energy from a thermonuclear fusion reactor, if the confinement
time of the D+T Plasma ions is 1 m sec, the ion density (per m3) must be :
(1) /1026 m23 (2) /1023 m23 (3) /1020 m23 (4) /1014 m23
29. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : It is generally agreed that life on earth began between 3.5 and 4.5 billion
years ago.
Reason (R) : The first form of life was the anaerobic bacteria as environment was devoid
of oxygen.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
30. The total number of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) announced by UN in 2015 are :
(1) 15 (2) 17 (3) 19 (4) 21
31. The total area of productive ecosystem required to support the population sustainably is
known as :
(1) Ecological footprint (2) Ecological handprint
(3) Carrying capacity (4) Ecological services
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32. Carrying capacity of a population determines that a particular habitat for a given species
can sustain :
(1) Minimum Population (2) Maximum Population
(3) Average Population (4) A Fraction of Migrating Population
34. A measure that combines the number of species and their relative abundances compared
with one another is termed :
(1) Species richness (2) Species evenness
(3) Species diversity (4) Species relationships
35. The figures of humanitys global footprint (million hectares) for different countries estimated
by WWF and Global Footprint Network in 2008 fall in the sequence :
(1) US > China > European Union > Japan > India
(2) China > US > Japan > India > European Union
(3) European Union > US > China > Japan > India
(4) US > European Union > China > India > Japan
36. A common features of the synoptic and mesoscale motions in the atmosphere is that their :
(1) Vertical motion component is more in magnitude than the horizontal wind component.
(2) Vertical motion component is roughly comparable to horizontal wind component.
(3) Vertical motion component is an order of magnitude smaller than the horizontal wind
component.
(4) Properties can be studied by conventional synoptic networks.
37. The shape of a plume from a tall stack located on a flat terrain is found to be of fanning
type. It implies that the atmosphere is under the condition of :
(1) Strong lapse rate (2) Weak lapse rate
(3) Inversion (4) Weak lapse rate below inversion
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38. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Thunderstorm is a violent convective event accompanied by thunder and
lightening.
Reason (R) : Thunderstorm is not associated with vertical air movement, humidity and
instability.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
39. According to National Ambient Air Quality Standards in India, the permissible 24 hour
average concentration of lead in ambient air of an industrial area is :
(1) 1.0 mg/m3 (2) 2.0 mg/m3 (3) 3.03 mg/m3 (4) 4.0 mg/m3
40. Peat soils, which have undergone prolonged drought in the forests are prone for :
(a) ground forest fire
(b) underground forest fire
(c) tree crown fire
Choose the correct code :
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only (3) (a) and (b) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
42. Dioxins and Furans are two toxic gaseous pollutants which can be measured by :
(1) GC - MS (2) TLC (3) ICP - AES (4) AAS
43. Based on the pE value for four water samples given below, the concentration of dissolved
oxygen shall be highest in :
(1) pE = 24.1 (2) pE = 13.9 (3) pE = 1.0 (4) pE = 7.0
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44. A total of 10 instantaneous sound pressure level measurements at 10 sec intervals for a traffic
site are given in the table below :
S. No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
SPL (dB) 71 75 70 78 80 84 76 74 75 74
45. The composition of rhizospheric micro organisms are dependent on the soil :
(a) Texture (b) Organic matter (c) pH (d) Elasticity
Choose the correct answer :
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
46. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The fundamental goal of a dose - response assessment is to obtain a
mathematical relationship between the amount of a toxicant that a human
is exposed to and the risk that there will be.
Reason (R) : To apply dose - response data obtained from animal bioassay to humans, a
scaling factor must be introduced.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
48. On 18th April 2015, Global Alliance to Eliminate Lead Paint (GAELP) announced the goal of
eliminating lead paint around the world by :
(1) 2020 (2) 2025 (3) 2028 (4) 2022
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49. The form of coal/fuel in the ascending order of heating value can be best represented as :
(1) Lignite < Peat < Bituminous < Anthracite
(2) Bituminous < Lignite < Peat < Anthracite
(3) Peat < Lignite < Bituminous < Anthracite
(4) Peat < Lignite < Anthracite < Bituminous
50. In India wetland conservation is presently done by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change under :
(1) National Wetland Conservation Programme
(2) National Plan for Conservation of Aquatic Ecosystems
(3) National Lake Conservation Programme
(4) Coastal Regulation Zone
54. Delta are classified into six basic types taking cognissance and importance of :
(a) Rivers (b) Waves (c) Tides
Choose the correct answer :
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
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55. Large elongated depression with steep walls formed by the downward displacement of a
block of the earth surface between nearly parallel faults or fault system :
(1) Thrust faults (2) Horst (3) Grabben (4) Rift Valley
56. Which form of scattering in visible region in the atmosphere is not dependent on
wavelength ?
(a) Rayleigh (b) Mie (c) Non-Selective
Choose the correct answer :
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only (3) (c) only (4) (b) and (c) only
59. With regard to ozone depletion over Antarctica, select the false statement :
(1) Circumpolar vortex acts as a reaction chamber
(2) Polar Stratospheric Clouds (PSCs) are formed within the vortex
(3) There is very low temperature inside the vortex
(4) The heterogenous reaction
ClONO2(s)+ HCl(g) ® Cl2(g)+HNO3(s) takes over PSCs
60. Match the Lists - I and - II. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
List - I List - II
(Horizon) (Type/Characteristics)
(a) A - horizon (i) Subsoil
(b) O - horizon (ii) Leaf litter
(c) C - horizon (iii) Parent material
(d) B - horizon (iv) Top soil
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(2) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
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61. A laboratory analysis of a waste water sample indicated BOD of 750 mg L21 with rate
constant (K) 0.20 day21 at 208C. The 5-day BOD at 208C is :
(1) 675 mg L21 (2) 650 mg L21 (3) 400 mg L21 (4) 600 mg L21
62. A stream with a flow of 0.2 m3/sec and a chloride concentration of 50 mg/L receives a
discharge of mine drainage water with a flow of 0.05 m3/sec and chloride concentration of
1500 mg/L. The downstream concentration of chloride is :
(1) 150 mg/L (2) 200 mg/L (3) 340 mg/L (4) 380 mg/L
64. The mechanism of the formation of gaseous N2O5 from NO2 and O2 gases in the gas phase
within clouds is :
NO2(g) 1O3(g) ® NO3(g)1O2(g) (i)
5K [NO2(g)] [O3(g)]
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65. In a rain water sample of pH=8.45, the dominant species of dissolved sulphur dioxide shall
be :
(1) SO2. H2O (2) HSO32 (3) SO 322 (4) S2O522
66. An aquifer of sand has a saturated column of cross - sectional area 0.235 m and a depth of
3 m. If the specific yield of sand is 25% , how much water can be extracted from the
aquifer ?
(1) 0.5 m3 (2) 0.75 m3 (3) 1.2 m3 (4) 1.5 m3
68. With respect to CO2, Global Warming Potential (GWP) for N2O over a time horizon of
100 years is estimated to be :
(1) 156 (2) 210 (3) 296 (4) 240
69. The green-house gas N2O strongly absorbs infra-red radiations of wavelength(s) :
(1) ~ 4.5 mm (2) ~ 7.8 mm and 8.6 mm
(3) ~ 9.6 mm (4) ~ 10.6 mm
70. By the year 2022, Indian government has set a new target of Solar Power generation of :
(1) 4 GW (2) 60 GW (3) 75 GW (4) 100 GW
71. Match the Lists - I and - II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below the lists.
List - I List - II
(Causes) (Effects)
(a) Soil organisms (i) Algal bloom
(b) Phosphorous assimilation (ii) Chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases
(c) Water pollution (iii) Decomposition
(d) Air pollution (iv) Complexing agent
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
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72. The Wavelengths that are most important in the context of stratospheric ozone depletion
are :
(1) 280 - 320 nm (2) 400 - 700 nm (3) 700 - 900 nm (4) > 900 nm
73. Remote sensing satellites such as RESOURCESAT are usually placed in polar :
(a) Low Earth Polar orbit
(b) Sunsynchronous orbit
(c) Geosynchronous orbit
Codes :
(1) (b) and (c) only (2) (a) and (b) only (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
75. The instrument used for determination of soil water loss by percolation, evapotranspiration
and run off is called :
(1) Lysimeter (2) Rain Gauze
(3) Soil moisture meter (4) Soil porosity meter
-o0o-
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PAPER-III
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)
JA-089-17 1 P.T.O.
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES
PAPER – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.
1. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Vertical velocity often equals or exceeds horizontal velocity in mesoscale
meteorological systems.
Reason (R) : Rising thermals are susceptible to undergo non-hydrostatic processes such
as buoyant acceleration or acceleration through a narrow mountain pass.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
2. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Geostrophic wind velocity is independent of latitude.
Reason (R) : Geostrophic wind velocity is determined by pressure gradient force only.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
5. When the temperature of the atmosphere falls at a rate greater than the dry adiabatic lapse
rate, the atmosphere is
(1) stable (2) highly stable
(3) unstable (4) conditionally unstable
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6. Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) of an ecosystem is
(1) net rate of carbon gain by the plant after respiration losses.
(2) total energy used to convert the sugar during growth.
(3) photosynthetic fixation rate of atmospheric carbon dioxide.
(4) rate of release of oxygen through respiration of a plant.
7. The oxygen atom species, which reacts with water to form hydroxyl radical, is produced
by the photodissociation of
(1) O2 (2) O3
(3) NO2 (4) H2O
10. Among the following insecticides, which one is relatively more soluble in water ?
(1) Aldicarb (2) Carbaryl
(3) Malathion (4) Aldrin
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12. Identify the incorrect statement about humus.
(1) Humus acts as a reservoir of nitrogen for plants.
(2) By decaying, humus supplies nitrogen to plants.
(3) Its rate of decay and rate of nitrogen release follow plant growth.
(4) Rate of nitrogen release to plants is slow during warm growing season and fast
during winter months.
13. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Terms) (Chromatographic action)
a. Effluent i. The eluted solute
b. Eluate ii. The mobile phase
c. Eluent iii. The solute-mobile phase mixture
which exits the column
d. Eluite iv. The stream flowing out of the column
Codes :
a b c d
(1) i iii ii iv
(2) ii iv iii i
(3) iii i ii iv
(4) iv iii ii i
14. A textile industry effluent containing 1 × 10–6 mol L–1 of an organic dye has 0.6 absorbance
(3) 1.66 × 10–5 L mol–1 cm–1 (4) 6.0 × 106 L mol–1 cm–1
16. Drugs that prevent the formation of bacterial cell wall are
(1) Quinolones (2) Beta-lactams
(3) Tetracyclines (4) Aminoglycocides
17. As a result of El Nino, it has been observed that phytoplankton productivity increases in
Eastern Indian Ocean around Indonesia and Gulf of Mexico. This increase is probably due to
(a) Increased rainfall
(b) More nutrient inflow
(c) Turbulence in surface waters
Codes :
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
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18. Vermi composting process depends on
(a) Quality of organic resources
(b) Types of earthworms
(c) Moisture content of the organic wastes
Choose the correct answer :
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
21. The enhancement of the fitness of a recipient individual by acts that reduce the
evolutionary fitness of the donor individual is
(1) Amensalism (2) Altruism
(3) Commonsalism (4) Parasitism
23. The change in species composition that is imposed by factors external to the biotic
community is known as
(1) Autogenic succession (2) Allogenic succession
(3) Xerarch (4) Hydrarch
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25. Cyclomorphism is a phenomenon observed in certain planktonic crustaceans and is
generally attributed as a response to
(a) changes in environmental variables of water.
(b) ensure adaptive significance.
(c) growth, reproduction and sudden genetic change
Codes :
(1) (a) and (c) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (b) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
28. Match the List – I and List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Stratigraphic Unit) (Deposits)
a. Bailadila Group i. Mn
b. Nallamalai Group ii. Phosphorite
c. Udaipur Group iii. Banded Iron Formation
d. Sansar Group iv. Pb-Zn
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iii iv ii i
(2) iv i iii ii
(3) i ii iv iii
(4) ii iii i iv
30. Which among the following zones has the highest erosion rate in the journey of a river ?
(1) Head water (2) Potamon
(3) Mouth (4) Sediment transforming zone
Paper-III 6 JA-089-17
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31. In the decreasing order of hardness on Moh’s scale, choose the correct sequence from the
following :
(1) Quartz, Feldspar, Calcite, Talc (2) Feldspar, Calcite, Talc, Quartz
(3) Talc, Quartz, Feldspar, Calcite (4) Quartz, Calcite, Feldspar, Talc
33. According to Darcy’s law for ground water movement, velocity is proportional to
(1) Hydraulic gradient. (2) Square of hydraulic gradient.
(3) Square root of hydraulic gradient, (4) Reciprocal of hydraulic gradient.
34. Which of the following types of coal has maximum ash content (%) ?
(1) Anthracite (2) Sub-Bituminous
(3) Lignite (4) High volatile Bituminous
35. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The amount of energy available in a single fusion event is small compared
to a fission event.
Reason (R) : Isotopes of hydrogen are much lighter than uranium.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
36. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The thermal efficiency of nuclear reactors is lower than that of fossil
fuelled steam plants.
Reason (R) : Temperature of water generating stream in a nuclear reactor has relatively
lower values compared to fossil fuelled steam plants.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
JA-089-17 7 Paper-III
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37. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Natural gas contributes less to smog formation than gasoline.
Reason (R) : Unburnt CH4 molecules are considerably less reactive with respect to the
free radical chemistry for smog than the hydrocarbon molecules with more than one
C atom.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
38. Consider ocean waves of amplitude 2.0 m and wavelength 200 m. Assuming the gravity to
be the only active force, the power available per metre perpendicular to the propagation of
the wave is
(1) 86.24 kW m–1 (2) 172.48 kW m–1
(3) 344.90 kW m–1 (4) 800.00 kW m–1
39. A wind mill has cross-sectional area 25.0 m2. The wind speed is 6.0 m/s. What will be the
power generated by the wind mill in the Betz limit ?
(1) ~ 2.064 kW (2) ~ 3.483 kW
(3) ~ 11.162 kW (4) ~ 18.321 kW
40. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The power output from an OTEC system installed at a tropical site is
steady.
Reason (R) : At tropical sites, the temperatures of warm surface water and cold water in
the depth of ocean hardly vary from season to season.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
can achieve temperature of about 700 °C to operate a heat engine to generate electricity. If
41. An electric power plant based on solar energy uses collectors with concentrators which
the solar insolation is 1 kW/m2, how much total collector area will be required to supply
on average 10 MW of electricity ? (Take ambient air temperature to be 25 °C)
(1) 5.15 × 103 m2 (2) 1.44 × 103 m2
(3) 3.18 × 103 m2 (4) 10.61 × 103 m2
Paper-III 8 JA-089-17
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42. The potency factor of CHCl3 is 6.1 × 10–3 kg-day/mg. The concentration in drinking water
that would result in 2 × 10–6 risk for a 70-kg man, who drinks 2L/day throughout of his
43. Which of the following compounds used for disinfection of water is not stable but is
prepared in situ ?
(1) Cl2 (2) Ca(OCl)2
(3) NaOCl (4) HOCl
44. Identify the incorrect statement from the following regarding soil pollution by heavy
metals :
(1) Soils act as a sink for heavy metals.
(2) Humic materials have great affinity for heavy metal cations.
(3) Humic materials extract heavy metals from soil water by forming complexes.
(4) Complexes formed by humic acids are normally water soluble.
45. A point source of noise produces a sound of 60 dB at a distance of 10 m from it. If the
sound is measured at a distance of 40 m, what will be its value ?
(1) 48 dB (2) 54 dB
(3) 57 dB (4) 44 dB
46. Identify the incorrect statement with regard to water purification by coagulation.
(1) Particles suspended in water are in colloidal form.
(2) Suspended particles carry a positive charge.
(3) Suspended particles due to similar charge repel each other.
(4) When alum is added it works as a coagulant.
47. In relation to drinking water source without conventional treatment but after disinfection,
water parameters and their permissible values are given in the lists given below :
Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Water parameters) (Permissible values)
a. Total coliform organism MPN i. 6.5 – 8.5
per 100 ml
b. pH ii. < 50 per 100 mL
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48. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Ozone depletion is much less over arctic stratosphere than over Antarctic
stratosphere.
Reason (R) : Antarctic atmosphere is on an average about 10 °C cooler than the arctic
stratosphere.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
49. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Water type) (Conductivity (μS cm–1))
a. Fresh water i. > 500
b. Clean tap water ii. < 300
c. Clean upland river iii. 60 – 100
d. Organically enriched river iv. 2–4
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv iii ii i
(2) i iv iii ii
(3) ii i iv iii
(4) iii ii i iv
50. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Auditing types) (Set of terms)
a. Implementation audit i. External review of the procedures used
b. Performance audit ii. Compare actual with predicted impacts
c. Project impact audit iii. To cover full operation
d. Procedures audit iv. To cover a start-up
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iii iv i ii
(2) iv iii ii i
(3) i ii iii iv
(4) ii iii iv i
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51. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The ecological restoration is a difficult proposition both in principle and
in practice.
Reason (R) : Identity and population sizes of plants and animals once present at a
particular site are largely unknown.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
52. During the EIA process under the EIA notification of September 14, 2006, no public
hearing is required for
(a) all A' category projects
(b) all ‘B1’ category projects
(c) all ‘B2’ category projects
Choose the correct code :
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (c) only
53. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Evaporation of surface water is reduced due to black carbon in
atmosphere.
Reason (R) : Presence of aerosols having black carbon is responsible for dimming effect.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
54. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Methods) (Description)
a. Network Method i. Possible impacts by composite environmental parameters.
b. Overlays Method ii. Structured approaches by involving scaling-weighing
techniques.
c. Checklists Method iii. Environmental systems as a complex web of relationships.
d. Adhoc Method iv. Spatial distribution of environmental impacts using GIS.
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv iii ii i
(2) i ii iii iv
(3) iv i iii ii
(4) iii iv ii i
JA-089-17 11 Paper-III
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55. In environmental Impact Assessment, the baseline studies describe the
(1) socio-economic mapping of the area.
(2) consequences of the development activity.
(3) assessment of the risk involved during project implementation.
(4) environmental setting existing in the project area.
56. An ecosystem restoration project should have the outcomes which are
I. Specific II. Measurable
III. General IV. Realistic
V. Time bound
Choose the correct code :
(1) I, II, III, V (2) I, II, IV, V
(3) II, III, IV, V (4) I, II, III, IV
57. When applied to field populations, Lotka-Volterra equations suffer from the following :
I. Competition coefficients are assumed to be constant.
II. Carrying capacity is assumed to be constant.
III. There are no time lags.
IV. Maximal rate of increase is assumed to be constant.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) I and II only
(2) II and III only
(3) II, III and IV only
(4) I, II, III and IV
58. In a city, the daily per capita inhalation (m3) values of contaminated air over a period of 5
days are 6.3, 6.3, 6.2, 6.4 and 5.8, respectively. The sample mean with standard deviation
of the data is
(1) 6.2 + 0.02 (2) 6.2 + 0.23
(3) 6.0 + 0.15 (4) 6.2 + 0.18
59. The population (N) of fish in a pond follows the logistic equation
dN 2
dt = 0.1 N – 0.001 N .
What is the maximum sustainable yield ?
(1) 100 (2) 50
(3) 25 (4) 200
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60. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : For power stations and polluting industries, tall stacks are installed.
Reason (R) : The maximum ground level concentration of a pollutant released from a
stack is inversely proportion to the height of the stack.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
61. Consider a box model for an airshed over a city and assume that the initial concentration
of a pollutant is zero and that the air entering the box is clean. If the length of the box is 10
km and the wind speed along the length of the box is 5 m/s, what is the time taken for the
pollutant concentration to reach ~ 95% of its final value ?
(1) 1 h 40 minutes (2) 1 h 7 minutes
(3) 33 minutes 20 seconds (4) 2 h 13 minutes 20 seconds
–
5.667 and 0.934, respectively. If the population mean is μ = 5.2, then t – statistic is
62. For a sample size n = 16, the mean (X) value and standard deviation (S) are found to be
63. Which of the following are sources of the greenhouse gas methane (CH4) ?
(a) Coal mining areas (b) Ruminants
(c) Wetlands (d) Low land paddy
Choose the correct answer :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
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66. Organic wetland soils have
I. High porosity II. Low density
III. High Ion exchange capacity IV. Low nutrient availability
Choose the right answer :
(1) I, II, III, IV (2) II, III, IV only
(3) III, IV only (4) I, II only
69. The ionic species, O+, O2+ and N2+ are found generally in
(1) Troposphere (2) Stratosphere
(3) Mesosphere (4) Heterosphere
71. In the tropospheric ozone formation reaction sequence, which of the following chemical
species does not act as a catalyst ?
(1) OH (2) HO2
(3) NO2 (4) O2
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72. Which of the following are useful indicators of pollution potential of organic effluents ?
(a) Total Organic Carbon (TOC)
(b) Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)
(c) Turbidity
(d) Conductivity
Choose the correct code :
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) and (c) only
(3) (b) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
73. Which of the following power plants releases radioactive materials as well as hazardous
metals such as lead and arsenic under normal operating conditions ?
(1) Nuclear power plant (2) Solar power installations
(3) Hydro power (4) Coal based thermal power plants
74. Match the List-I and List-II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Convention) (Purpose)
a. Paris Convention 1992 i. Transboundary Movement of Waste
b. Vienna Convention 1985 ii. Protection of Marine Environment
c. Bamako Convention 1998 iii. Protection of ozone layer
d. Basel convention 1992 iv. Ban on import of hazardous waste to Africa
Codes :
a b c d
(1) ii iii iv i
(2) iii iv i ii
(3) iv i ii iii
(4) i ii iii iv
75. Match the List-I and List-II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Colour Codes) (Hospital Wastes)
a. Yellow Bags i. Infected metal sharps
b. Red Bags ii. Outdated Medicine bottles
c. Blue Bags iii. Used Catheters
d. Black Carboy iv. Infectious waste placenta
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv iii ii i
(2) iii ii i iv
(3) ii i iv iii
(4) i iv iii ii
JA-089-17 15 Paper-III
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PAPER-III
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)
J-89-16 1 P.T.O.
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES
PAPER – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.
1. In India audit on conservation and protection of tigers in all 28 Tiger reserves was
conducted in
(1) 2001 (2) 2004
(3) 2006 (4) 2007
2. In the screening stage of EIA, the impact level of a development project is not discernible,
then what step should be adopted ?
(1) Scoping stage ought to be initiated
(2) Detailed EIA study ought to be conducted
(3) A rapid EIA study ought to be conducted
(4) The project may not be given environmental clearance
4. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) plants have very low
efficiencies.
Reason (R) : The temperature difference between warm surface water and cold deeper
ocean water is not all that great.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
5. In respect of geothermal power production, identify the correct sequence of the countries :
(1) Iceland > Russia > Japan > USA
(2) Japan > Iceland > USA > Russia
(3) USA > Iceland > Japan > Russia
(4) USA > Japan > Iceland > Russia
Paper-III 2 J-89-16
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6. Among the forest types of India, which category of forest covers maximum geographical
area :
(1) Tropical grassland (2) Mangrove forest
(3) Tropical deciduous forest (4) Temperate evergreen forest
8. The ratio between the amount of radiation emitted by earth upto the wavelength at which
maximum radiation is emitted and total amount of radiation emitted by earth is
approximately
(1) ~ 25% (2) ~ 50%
(3) ~ 40% (4) ~ 66%
11. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : At a constant temperature, the solubility of ammonia in water increases
with decrease in pH.
Reason (R) : The solubility of all gases increase with decrease in pH.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
J-89-16 3 Paper-III
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12. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Temperature of sea water generally decreases with increasing latitude.
Reason (R) : Surface layers of sea water tend to contract and sink in cold waters.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
14. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The distribution of animals over the world is much more complex and
irregular compared to plants.
Reason (R) : The animals are mobile and therefore capable of more rapid dispersal.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
16. A stream flowing at 5.0 m3/s converges with another stream with the same flow rate. The
concentration of the phosphate upstream to the junction is 10.0 mg/L and that in the other
stream is 5.0 mg/L. The downstream concentration of phosphate is
(1) 2.5 mg/L (2) 5.0 mg/L
(3) 7.5 mg/L (4) 10 mg/L
Paper-III 4 J-89-16
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17. Lotka-Volterra model for an ecosystem can be used to study
a. oscillations in prey-predator population.
b. effect of predator on prey population.
c. effect of prey on predator population.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) a and b only (2) b and c only
(3) a and c only (4) a, b and c
18. In an ecosystem following logistic growth model initial population was 900 with growth
rate constant of 0.1. If the carrying capacity of the ecosystem is 1000, what is the
instantaneous rate of change of population ?
(1) 10 (2) 25
(3) 1.1 (4) 9
19. Choose an appropriate hypothesis testing method for the condition where the variance is
(2) χ2-test
an unknown parameter of a population of independent observations :
(1) Z-test
(3) t-test (4) F-test
20. For sampling error of 1.96σ; where σ is the standard deviation, and at critical value of
1.96, the significance level is
(1) 5.0 % (2) 1.0 %
(3) 2.7 % (4) 4.5 %
21. Qualitatively a sampling error in a survey based environmental experiment is the sum of
(1) Frame error + Response error + chance error
(2) Frame error + non-sampling error
(3) Chance error + Frame error + Systematic error
(4) Non-sampling error + Chance error + Systematic error
22. Ecosensitive zones are declared by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and climate
change, Govt. of India under the provisions of
(1) Forest Act, 1927
(2) Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
(3) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(4) Biological Diversity Act, 2002
23. Basel convention on trans-boundary movement of hazardous waste and disposal was
adopted in the year
(1) 1969 (2) 1979
(3) 1999 (4) 1989
24. Which method reduces the volume of waste but could release toxic air emissions into the
atmosphere ?
(1) Biological treatment (2) Sanitary landfill
(3) Incineration (4) Chemical treatment
J-89-16 5 Paper-III
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25. As per CRZ (Coastal Regulation Zone) 2011 Notification, which of the following
activities is permitted ?
(1) Dumping of untreated sewage, effluents or solid waste.
(2) Traditional fishing and allied activities.
(3) Construction of Housing Complexes.
(4) Infrastructural projects.
26. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Biomedical Waste) (Treatment/Disposal)
a. Human tissues i. Incineration
b. Scalpels ii. Autoclaving
c. Solid plaster casts iii. Microwave mutilation
d. Catheters iv. Deep burial
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv ii i iii
(2) iii i iv ii
(3) ii iv iii i
(4) i iii ii iv
27. An organisation implementing an EMS under ISO 14001 should set environmental targets
in order to achieve environmental objectives within a specified time-frame. The target
should be
(1) implemented on a trial basis
(2) generic in nature
(3) related to financial aspects
(4) measurable and specific
28. ISO 14001 requires an organisation to
(1) set improvement targets for every department.
(2) define a quality policy within the defined scope of its EMS.
(3) define the scope of its EMS.
(4) define the scope of its audit.
29. Cost-benefit analysis is performed during
(1) Design phase (2) Feasibility study phase
(3) Implementation (4) Maintenance phase
30. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The ecosystem surrounding a river gets damaged due to the construction
of a dam on it.
Reason (R) : The area in upper catchment of the river gets inundated.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Paper-III 6 J-89-16
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31. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Auditing) (Actions)
a. Implementation audit i. External review
b. Predictive techniques audit ii. Initial activities
c. Performance audit iii. Validation of impacts
d. Procedures audit iv. Comprehensive operational activities
Codes :
a b c d
(1) ii iii iv i
(2) iii iv i ii
(3) iv i ii iii
(4) i ii iii iv
32. The interaction matrix developed by Leopold consists of how many parameters ?
(1) 30
(2) 60
(3) 70
(4) 90
33. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The goal of the National Land Utilisation Policy is to achieve
improvement of livelihood, food and water security under the umbrella
of sustainable development in India.
Reason (R) : The National Land Utilisation Policy envisages a guiding framework for
state specific needs, potentials, priorities and legal provisions.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
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36. Upwelling of oceanic waters is important for
(1) enrichment of nutrients in pelagic waters.
(2) balancing water circulation pattern in oceans and seas.
(3) making the pelagic waters nutrient deficient.
(4) helping survival of benthic organisms.
38. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Process/Event) (Consequences/Links)
a. Assimilative capacity i. DO, BOD, Coliform
b. Critical water parameter ii. Cadmium
c. Itai-Itai disease iii. Blue baby syndrome
d. Excess nitrate in water iv. Waste discharge
Codes :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) iv i ii iii
(3) ii i iii iv
(4) ii iii i iv
39. Which type of plume behaviour one would expect from a tall stack located on a flat terrain
if adiabatic lapse rate (Γ) and environmental lapse rate (Γenv) are as shown in the diagram
below :
Γenv
Γ
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40. A road carrying heavy traffic has an average noise level of 90 dB when measured at a
distance of 10 metres. What would be the noise level at 20 metres distance ?
(1) 87 dB (2) 84 dB
(3) 60 dB (4) 45 dB
41. When biomass is converted to CO and H2O, the energy made available is ~ 450 kJ per
mol of carbon per unit of reduction level. What would be the heat of combustion per gram
of methane ?
(1) 28.125 kJ/g (2) 56.25 kJ/g
(3) 67.5 kJ/g (4) 135 kJ/g
42. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Hydrogen, as a fuel, when burned, does produce some amount of
pollution.
Reason (R) : Heat produced during combustion of hydrogen chemically combines N2
and O2 in atmosphere to produce NOx.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
43. Given standard enthalpies for methane, carbon dioxide and water vapour as ~ 75 kJ/mol,
394 kJ/mol and 240 kJ/mol, respectively. What is the net heat of combustion of methane ?
(1) – 799 kJ/mol (2) – 802 kJ/mol
(3) + 1598 kJ/mol (4) + 799 kJ/mol
44. In an ideal magnetohydrodynamic power plant, the speed of flow of the hot ionized gas is
u m/s. The maximum power output from the plant varies as
(1) ∝ u (2) ∝ u3/2
(3) ∝ u2 (4) ∝ u3
45. An ideal wind turbine located on a hill top produces electrical power. If wind speed
changes by 5%, by what percentage the electrical power will change ?
(1) 12.5 % (2) 25 %
(3) 30 % (4) 15 %
46. A person working in a nuclear reactor is exposed to a beam of thermal neutrons and
receives a dose of 20 millirads per hour for an exposure of 12 minutes. What is the
equivalent dose in millirems, the person is exposed to ?
(1) 4 (2) 8
(3) 12 (4) 16
J-89-16 9 Paper-III
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47. What is the approximate increase in radiative forcing if the CO2 concentration increases
from 400 ppm to 800 ppm ?
(1) ~ 4.37 W/m2 (2) ~ 3.81 W/m2
(3) ~ 2.72 W/m2 (4) ~ 1.62 W/m2
48. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Large parts of India have already become water stressed.
Reason (R) : Climate change may be the main reason.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
50. In addition to their role in ozone depletion, CFCs play a role in global warming by
(1) reducing the albedo of the earth’s surface
(2) absorbing solar radiation
(3) blocking UV-B radiation on earth
(4) absorbing terrestrial radiation
51. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : As per equilibrium theory of island biogeography, distance of the islands
from the mainland determines the dispersal rate of new species.
Reason (R) : Size of an island is important in determining number of species.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Paper-III 10 J-89-16
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52. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : All cloud processes have implications for climate change.
Reason (R) : Clouds strongly affect the flux of both shortwave and infra-red light
through atmosphere.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
53. Using remote sensing for height measurement of trees, which microwave band is most
suitable ?
(1) X (2) C
(3) S (4) L
54. For public use, Survey of India publishes topographical maps on 1 : 50, 000 scale. These
maps use
(1) UTM projection and WGS 84 datum
(2) Polyconic projection and WGS84 datum
(3) UTM projection and Modified Mount Everest datum
(4) Polyconic projection and Modified Mount Everest datum
55. Sub-geostrophic winds in the earth-atmospheric system are caused by the balance
involving
(1) pressure gradient force, Coriolis force and frictional force
(2) pressure gradient force and Coriolis force
(3) pressure gradient force and frictional force
(4) Coriolis force and frictional force
J-89-16 11 Paper-III
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57. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Geological events) (Processes)
a. Exfoliation dome i. Landform change
b. Rift valleys ii. Ultisols
c. Palaeomagnetism iii. Mechanical weathering
d. Pedogenesis iv. Seafloor spreading
Codes :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) ii i iv iii
(3) iii i iv ii
(4) iv ii i iii
58. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Soil development begins with physical, chemical and biological
weathering of rocks.
Reason (R) : Anthropogenic factors play a major role in soil formation.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
59. The most common ferromagnesian rock forming minerals are as follows :
(1) Amphibole and Biotite Mica
(2) Muscovita mica and Quartz
(3) Galena and Pyrite
(4) Calcite and Dolomite
60. Underground coal mine fires can best be monitored by remote sensing technique in the
spectral region
(1) 3 – 5 μm (2) 10 – 12 μm
(3) 1 – 3 μm (4) 1 mm – 10 mm
61. Our inability to address the conflict between short term individual well-being and long
term societal welfare is responsible for the
(1) Tragedy of the population (2) Tragedy of the community
(3) Tragedy of the environment (4) Tragedy of the commons
Paper-III 12 J-89-16
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62. Proportion of representation of each species allows ecologists to compare different
communities through graphical representation. Such a graph is called
(1) Rank abundance curve
(2) Species accumulation curve
(3) Survivorship curve
(4) Sigmoid curve
66. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : C4 photosynthesis lowers photorespiratory energy loss.
Reason (R) : The greater supply of CO2 lowers the rate of O2 uptake by rubisco
substantially reducing photorespiration.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
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68. With reference to smog consider the following statements :
a. Los Angeles smog is oxidizing.
b. London smog is reducing.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both a and b are false.
(2) Both a and b are true.
(3) a is false but b is true.
(4) a is true but b is false.
69. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Chemical Species) (Measurement Techniques)
a. DO i. West-Gaeke Method
b. SO2 ii. Non-dispersive infrared analyser
c. CO iii. Chemiluminescence
d. NO iv. Winkler’s Method
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv i ii iii
(2) iii ii i iv
(3) ii iii iv i
(4) i iv iii ii
88 86
70. Disintegration of 226 Ra yields 222 Rn owing to the emission of
(1) two β-particles
(2) one α-particle
(3) γ-radiation
(4) one β-particle followed by an α-particle
71. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Temperature in stratosphere increases with increase in altitude.
Reason (R) : Photodissociation of O2 in stratosphere makes the lapse rate positive.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Paper-III 14 J-89-16
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72. At 15 °C, a manufacturer dissolves CO2 at 2.4 atm in water in a bottle. If Henry’s law
constant of CO2 in water be 0.045 mol L–1 atm–1 at 15 °C, calculate the concentration of
CO2 dissolved in water.
(1) 5.6 mol L–1 (2) 0.019 mol L–1
(3) 0.098 mol L–1 (4) 0.108 mol L–1
73. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Pesticides) (Purpose)
a. Malathion i. Molluscicide
b. Metaldehyde ii. Fungicide
c. Diethyl Tolumide (DEET) iii. Insecticide
d. Chloroneb iv. Insect repellant
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv ii i iii
(2) i iii ii iv
(3) ii iv iii i
(4) iii i iv ii
74. Which of the following is not an Advanced Oxidation Process for the treatment of waste
water ?
(1) PhotoFenton Process
(2) Photocatalytic TiO2 Process
(3) UV/H2O2 Process
(4) Acidified Potassium Dichromate Oxidation Process
75. If a material containing humic substances is extracted with a strong base, and the resulting
solution is acidified, products are
a. humin
b. humic acid
c. fulvic acid
Choose the correct answer :
(1) a only
(2) a and b only
(3) a, b and c
(4) b and c only
J-89-16 15 Paper-III
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Space For Rough Work
Paper-III 16 J-89-16
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J 8 9 1 5 PAPER - III
Time : 2½ hours] ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE [Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
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There are no negative marks for incorrect answers. »ÜÌ ©æÚUæð´ ·ð¤ çÜ° ·¤æð§ü Ù·¤æÚUæ×·¤ ¥´·¤ Ùãè´ ãñ´Ð
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
PAPER - III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.
2. Given below are two statements. One labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Methanogenic archae (methanogens) grow in swamps and sewage.
Reason (R) : Methanogens are obligate anaerobes
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
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4. A critically endangered species :
(1) Do not exist in wild habitat
(2) Face extremely high risk of extinction in immediate future
(3) Face high risk of extinction in the medium term future
(4) Will not face any risk of extinction in future 1000 years
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9. In SDS - PAGE :
(1) Polymeric proteins are not only converted into monomers, but monomers are also
denatured by SDS.
(2) Polymeric proteins converted into monomeric units, but monomers are not denatured.
(3) Polymeric proteins are retained as single unit.
(4) SDS donot have any negative impact on native structure of monomers.
10. Which of the following is the major source of mercury pollution in India ?
(1) Coal based thermal power plants
(2) Pesticides manufacturing
(3) Dental amalgam fillings
(4) Electrical and electronic gadgets
11. A non-metal X occurs in nature in free state. It combines with hydrogen to form a gas,
which is colourless and highly toxic. Apart from this, X is oxidized to XO2 which is a
colourless, pungent and irritating gas. X represents :
(1) Sulphur (2) Carbon (3) Phosphorus (4) Nitrogen
13. Bioremediation of xenobiotics (like melathion) through hydrolysis involves their detoxification
by :
(1) Removal of water
(2) Addition of water
(3) Both removal and addition of water
(4) Removal of phosphate
14. To determine the cation-exchange capacity, it is necessary to calculate the total positive charge
associated with ions like :
(1) Ca21, Mg21, K1, Na1 (2) Ca21, Mn21, Fe31, Cr31
(3) Mg21, Fe31, Ni21, Cd21 (4) K1, BO21, Pb21, Hg21
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15. Given below are two statements. One labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Organometals/organometalloids such as trimethylarsine and
dimethylmercury are more toxic to living systems (including humans)
compared to their inorganic forms.
Reason (R) : Organometals/organometalloids are more hydrophilic than their inorganic
forms and hence can move easily across lipid bilayer.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
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19. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(1) The solubility of gases varies considerably with pressure.
(2) Hydrocarbons chiefly occur in coal, natural gas and petroleum.
(3) Polynuclear aromatic hydrocarbons are present in coal tar and fossil fuels.
(4) All hydrocarbons are hydrophilic in nature.
22. Long - term patterns of evolution are shaped by large scale process(s) such as :
(I) Speciation
(II) Mass extinction
(III) Adaptive radiation
Choose the correct answer:
(1) (I) only
(2) (II) and (III) only
(3) (I) and (III) only
(4) (I), (II) and (III)
23. Match the List - I with List - II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below the
lists :
List - I List - II
(Organism) (Interaction)
(a) Albugo and Indian mustard (i) Symbiosis
(b) Penicillium and Staphyllococcus (ii) Ammensalism
(c) Lichens (iii) Commensalism
(d) Barnacles and whales (iv) Parasitism
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
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24. Extreme of seasonal variation (as much as 808C swing) from summer to winter is represented
by :
(1) Boreal forest (2) Tropical forests
(3) Deciduous forest (4) Evergreen forest
26. Which among the following frequencies in microwave region of electromagnetic spectrum is
better suited for determination of tree height ?
(1) C - band (4 - 8 GHz) (2) X - band (8 - 12.5 GHz)
(3) P - band (0.3 - 1.0 GHz) (4) K - band (18 - 26.5 GHz)
28. Which among the following is the best model in GIS spatial relationships ?
(1) Spaghetti model (2) Topological model
(3) Relational database model (4) Parent-child model
29. One of the warning signs of an impending volcanic eruption is volcanic tremor, which is :
(1) A change in ground levels
(2) Inflation of a volcano as magma rises
(3) Ground shaking lasting for minutes or hours
(4) Emission of large quantities of gases
30. Time slot for measuring thermal inertia (TI) differences between land and water is :
(1) 1000 hrs. (2) 1100 hrs. (3) 1200 hrs. (4) 1400 hrs.
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33. Which of the following minerals causes fluoride pollution in the groundwater ?
(1) Fluorite and Apatite (2) Olivine and Haematite
(3) Calcite and Magnetite (4) Quartz and Orthoclase
35. The important continental silicate mineral weathering process of lowering carbon dioxide
levels is :
(1) Hydrolysis (2) Oxidation (3) Carbonation (4) Reduction
36. The set of processes by which soil and rock are loosened and move downhill are called :
(1) Erosion (2) Saltation (3) Weathering (4) Abrasion
38. Main source of energy for a tropical cyclone formation comes from :
(I) Heat of condensation of water vapours in the atmosphere
(II) Torrential rains
(III) Large ocean waves
Choose the correct answer :
(1) (I) only (2) (II) only
(3) (III) and (II) only (4) (I) and (III) only
39. In the following nuclear fusion reaction 12 D 1 12 D 5 23 He 1 01 n 1 E the value of the energy E
is :
(1) 17.6 MeV (2) 18.3 MeV (3) 4.03 MeV (4) 3.27 MeV
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40. Fast neutrons produced in nuclear fission reactions involving 235U have average energy of
the order of :
(1) 2 MeV (2) 5 MeV (3) 100 MeV (4) 200 MeV
42. A tidal estuary of tidal range 2 m has trapped water area 5000 m 2. If g59.8 m/s2, the
maximum energy available per tidal cycle is :
(1) 2.45 kW (2) 9.8 kW (3) 98 kW (4) 19.6 kW
43. The power (P) from an ocean wave varies with time period (T) of the wave as :
1 1
(1) P;T (2) P ; T2 (3) P; (4) P; 2
T T
44. With reference to pre-industrial times, the present day average global surface temperature is
higher approximately by :
(1) ~ 0.56 8C (2) ~ 0.85 8C (3) ~1.3 8C (4) ~1.5 8C
45. Burning of 1 mol of CH4 liberates 890 kJ of energy and 1 mol of CO2. Since 1 mol of CO2 has
12 g of carbon, the higher heating value (HHV) of methane is :
(1) 13.5 gC/MJ (2) 18.5 gC/MJ (3) 12.0 gC/MJ (4) 10.0 gC/MJ
46. pH of 1 mM HCl is :
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 11
47. Priority air pollutants included in the air quality index for urban areas in India are :
(1) CO, NOx, PM10 and PM2.5, SOx, O3, ammonia and Pb
(2) CO, NOx, SOx and Pb
(3) NOx, SOx, O3, and Pb
(4) PM10 and PM2.5, NOx, SOx, O3, and Pb
48. Present day advanced anaerobic digestors can generate power in the range :
(1) 2 - 10 MW (2) 20 - 100 MW (3) 100 - 200 MW (4) 200 - 500 MW
49. Cement dust is characterized by very fine particulates. Which of the following air pollution
control devices is appropriate for removing them from hot exhaust gases emanating from
cement kiln ?
(1) Baghouse (2) Cyclones
(3) Venturi scrubber (4) Electrostatic precipitator
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50. The sources of aliphatic hydrocarbons in indoor environment are :
(1) Paints, adhesives and gasoline (2) Aerosol sprays and solvents
(3) Spirits and cleansers (4) Solvents and vinyl flooring
51. Given the following data of sound pressure levels measured at equal intervals:60dB, 62 dB,
63 dB, 59 dB, 60 dB, 80 dB, 58 dB, 59 dB, 65 dB, 57 dB, 62 dB. The value of the background
noise level (L90) is :
(1) 62.5 dB (2) 57 dB (3) 61 dB (4) 58 dB
52. The air-to-fuel ratio (A/F) for complete combustion in an internal combustion engine is
about :
(1) 14.6 (2) 11.2 (3) 12.1 (4) 15.5
54. Match the List - I with List - II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below the
lists :
List - I List - II
(a) Texture (i) Vertical zonation
(b) Profile (ii) Land degradation
(c) Erosion (iii) Planting tree
(d) Conservation (iv) Mineral particle size
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
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57. CAPART in India stands for :
(1) Committee for Advancement and Promotion of Rural Technology
(2) Council for Advancement of Rural Technology
(3) Council for Advancement of Peoples Action and Rural Technology
(4) Committee for Advancement and Privatization of Rural Technology
59. Which act provided provisions for enforcing levy and collection of a tax on water consumed
by industries ?
(1) Water (prevention and control of pollution) Act 1974
(2) Water (prevention and control of pollution) Cess Act 1977
(3) Environment (protection) Act 1986
(4) Public Liability Insurance Act 1991
60. Disaster risk reduction in degraded wilderness areas is better achieved using :
(1) Peoples participation
(2) Ecosystem based management
(3) Strengthening of peoples economic conditions
(4) Afforestation
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63. Match the List - I with List - II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below the
lists :
List - I List - II
(Tests) (Application)
(a) Z - test (i) Judging the significance of differences between
means of two small samples
(b) t - test (ii) Judging the significance of mean, median,
mode
(c) Chi - square (x2) test (iii) Compare the variance of two - independent
samples
(d) F - test (iv) Compare sample variance to a theoretical
population variance
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
64. Chocolates of 250 g produced in a factory were observed to have standard deviation of 2 g.
A random sample of 20 chocolates showed a standard deviation of 1.5 g. What is the x2
value for the sample ?
(1) 7.2 (2) 6.0 (3) 12.0 (4) 33.3
65. Which one of the following would indicate that a dataset is NOT distributed in a
bell - shape ?
(1) The range is equal to 5 standard deviation
(2) The range is larger than the inter quartile range
(3) The mean is much smaller than the median
(4) There are no outliers
66. In a random sample of x516, the mean ( X ) is 40, and the standard deviation (sd) is 4.0. The
95% confidence interval (Z51.96) for the mean is :
(1) 64.0 (2) 61.96 (3) 60.25 (4) 60.30
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68. According to Gaussian Plume Model, the maximum ground level concentration (C) varies
with height (H) of chimney :
1 22 21 23
(1) C; (2) C;H (3) C;H 2 (4) C;H 2
H
69. Given below are two statements. One labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : A wetland of international importance is brought under the Montreux
Record.
Reason (R) : The country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit
any human activity within five kilometers from the edge of the wetland.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
70. Which of the following methods related to fly ash utilization has future ecofriendly and
economic benefits ?
(I) Direct application to cropland
(II) Converting to Bricks
(III) Using as a road-sub-base material
Codes :
(1) (I) and (II) only
(2) (II) and (III) only
(3) (I) and (III) only
(4) (I), (II) and (III)
71. Which of the following is NOT one of the twelve principles of green chemistry ?
(1) Minimize or eliminate the need for waste cleanup by emphasizing waste prevention
(2) Minimize energy consumption
(3) Maximize use of products from green plants
(4) Avoid the use and generation of hazardous substances that may harm humans or the
environment
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72. Match the List - I with List -II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below the
lists :
List - I List - II
(Halocarbons) (Atmospheric residence time)
(a) CF4 (i) ~ 50 years
(b) CF2Cl2 (ii) ~ 50,000 years
(c) CFCl3 (iii) ~ 65 years
(d) CF3Br (iv) ~ 102 years
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
73. Climate change has become a buzz word throughout the world. In case of the Himalayas the
best way to infer whether there is a climate change or not is to :
(I) Monitor tree line
(II) Monitor migration of glaciers
(III) Study alteration in species composition
Choose the correct answer :
(1) (I) only
(2) (I) and (II) only
(3) (II) only
(4) (I), (II) and (III)
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75. Consider the following International agreements.
(I) The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
(II) The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
(III) The World Heritage Convention
Which of the above has/have a bearing on the biodiversity ?
Choose the correct answer :
(1) (I) and (II) only
(2) (III) only
(3) (I) and (III) only
(4) (I), (II) and (III)
-o0o-
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Space For Rough Work
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Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) OMR Sheet No. : ..........................................................
(To be filled by the Candidate)
(Name)
Roll No.
2. (Signature)
(In figures as per admission card)
(Name) Roll No.
(In words)
N0 8 9 1 7 PAPER - III
Time : 2½ hours] ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES [Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
Instructions for the Candidates ¬⁄ˡÊÊÁÕ¸ÿÙ¢ ∑ Á‹∞ ÁŸŒ¸‡Ê
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES
PAPER - III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each.
All questions are compulsory.
1. The sum of the internal energy and product of pressure and volume is known as :
(1) Enthalpy (2) Gibbs free energy
(3) Entropy (4) Helmholtz free energy
2. If at latitude φ = 308, pressure gradient is 15 mb per 1000 km, the geostrophic wind velocity
will be :
(1) ~ 20.54 m/s (2) ~ 15.92 m/s (3) ~ 7.96 m/s (4) ~ 10.27 m/s
4. If , where and are environmental and dry adiabatic lapse rates respectively,
<
which of the following types of plume emitted from a stack of a thermal power plant is
observed ?
(1) Fanning (2) Fumigating (3) Looping (4) Coning
7. The vapour pressure of bromobenzene above its ideal dilute aqueous solution of molality
0.1 mol kg−1 is 24.0 kPa. Calculate the Henry’s law constant of bromobenzene :
(1) 240 kPa kg mol−1 (2) 220 kPa kg mol−1
(3) 460 kPa kg mol−1 (4) 400 kPa kg mol−1
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8. In the Spectrophotometric Study, if a sample has transmittance of 50%, then its absorbance
is :
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.3 (3) 1.0 (4) 0.7
9. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Sandy soil helps promote good drainage and aeration.
Reason (R) : Sandy soil particles have size in the range 0.05 - 2.0 mm.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
11. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Chlorine, which is widely used as an effective and relatively inexpensive
disinfectant in water, generates toxic organochlorine compounds in water.
Reason (R) : Hypochlorous acid reacts rapidly with humic acids and hydroxobenzenes.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
12. In the context of argentometric titration of chloride ions in a water sample, identify the
incorrect statement :
(1) Titrant is silver nitrate solution
(2) Indicator is potassium chromate
(3) Colour of the end - point is lemon - yellow
(4) pH of water sample should be less than 5
13. The reaction of OH radicals with which of the following species generates hydrogen atom ?
(1) CH4 (2) NH3 (3) CO (4) NO2
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14. Which of the following statements is true for an ideal dilute solution ?
(1) Solute and solvent both obey Raoult’s law
(2) Solute obeys Raoult’s law and solvent obeys Henry’s law
(3) Solute obeys Henry’s law and solvent obeys Raoult’s law
(4) Solute and solvent both obey Henry’s law
15. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The living components of ecosystems are not immortal.
Reason (R) : Depending on the biological longevity, all living systems become abiotic
constituents.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
17. The result of removal of primary producers and subsequent reduction in population size
leading to change in community attributes is referred to as :
(1) Top - down cascade (2) Bottom - up cascade
(3) Population decline (4) Community collapse
18. The amount of accumulated dead organic matter in different forest types :
(1) Decreases from pole to equator.
(2) Increases from tropic of cancer to tropic of Capricorn.
(3) Increases from pole to equator.
(4) Stabilizes at any point between two poles.
19. Which one of the following termite gut microbe contributes to degradation of cellulose ?
(1) Trichonympha sp. (2) Enterococcus sp.
(3) Enterobacter sp. (4) Citrobacter sp.
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20. Match the List - I and List - II. Identify the correct answer from the code given below :
List - I List - II
(Group of Plankton) (Example)
(a) Macroplankton (i) Rotifera
(b) Nanoplankton (ii) Copepoda
(c) Mesoplankton (iii) Pyrrophyta
(d) Microplankton (iv) Amphipoda
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
22. As of July 2017, the total number of National Parks existing in India is :
(1) 127 (2) 103 (3) 97 (4) 100
23. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Some infectious particles loose their infectious - ability in territories closer to
equator, with high average of daily sunshine hours.
Reason (R) : UV incidence can determine the survival of infectious particles.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
24. An organism that represents both primary producer and primary consumer of an aquatic
ecosystem is :
(1) Phytoplankton (2) Bacterioplankton
(3) Benthic algae (4) Zooplankton
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25. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The 18O/16O ratio in a natural system can be used as a thermometer.
Reason (R) : The fractions of 18O/16O depend on temperature.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
26. Most suitable spectral region for studying Urban Heat Island (UHI) effect is :
(1) 3 - 5 µm (2) 8 - 10 µm (3) 10 - 12 µm (4) 1 - 3 µm
28. Delineation of water - nonwater boundary in remote sensing is best done using :
(1) 0.5 - 0.6 µm (2) 0.6 - 0.7 µm (3) 0.7 - 0.9 µm (4) 1 - 3 µm
30. Which of the following statements is not true for the solubility of CO2 in seawater ?
(1) It increases with increase in partial pressure of CO2.
(2) It increases with increase in pH.
(3) It increases with increase in temperature.
(4) It decrease with increase in salinity.
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31. What was the theme for the International Ozone Day (year 2017 ) ?
(1) ‘Caring for all life under the Sun’
(2) ‘Ozone : All there is between you and UV’
(3) ‘Ozone and Climate : Restored by a World United’
(4) ‘30 years of healing Ozone Together’
32. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : OTEC power plants have low efficiences.
Reason (R) : Efficiency is governed by 2nd law of thermodynamics.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
33. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The efficiency of a silicon solar cell decreases with increase in temperature.
Reason (R) : The intrinsic resistance of the solar cell increases with rise in temperature.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
34. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The rotor blades of wind - turbine execute rotational motion when moving
air impinges on them.
Reason (R) : The momentum of the moving air is transferred to the moving blades.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
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35. A tidal power station has basin area =10,000 m2 and water trapped at height =2.0 m above
low tide. If the density of sea water is 1025 kgm−3, the potential energy available for every
tidal period is :
(1) ~ 201 MJ (2) ~ 402 MJ (3) ~ 240 MJ (4) ~ 480 MJ
(1) 3.33×10 −11 MJ (2) 2.23×10 12MJ (3) 2.56×104 MJ (4) 8.53×104 MJ
37. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : To exploit renewable energy, quite large structures are required relative to
the power produced.
Reason (R) : Power flux densities of renewable energy sources are appreciably lower
compared to fossil fuels.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
39. On take - off, an aeroplane generates noise level of 120 dB. If 5 such aeroplanes take - off
simultaneously what will be the noise level ?
(1) ~ 126.98 dB (2) ~ 124.98 dB
(3) ~ 123.86 dB (4) ~ 122.98 dB
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41. In the purification of drinking water, the purpose of aeration is not to :
(1) Remove dissolved gases such as H2S
(2) Remove volatile organic compounds
(3) Oxidize soluble Fe2+ to Fe3+
(4) Precipitate colloidal particles
44. The bioremediation technique of a contaminated soil does not require the fulfilment of which
of the following conditions ?
(1) Waste must be present in a physical form that is susceptible to microbes.
(2) Waste must be susceptible to biodegradation.
(3) Environmental conditions such as pH, temperature and oxygen level must be
appropriate.
(4) Microbes of any type must be available.
45. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Organophosphate insecticides have lower values of partition coefficient,
Kow, than organochlorine pesticides.
Reason (R) : Organophosphate insecticide molecules have lower ability to form hydrogen
bonds with water than organochlorine pesticides.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
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46. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : NOX and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) are primary precursors in
photochemical smog formation.
Reason (R) : NOX and VOCs form oxidants by thermal reactions.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
48. Match the List - I and List -II. Identify the correct answer from the code given below :
List - I List -II
(EIA methods) (Features)
(a) Overlays (i) Environmental Evaluation System
(b) Networks (ii) Adaptive environmental assessment
(c) Battelle Columbus (iii) Environmental Systems as a complex web
(d) Simulation modelling (iv) Composite impact by superimposing maps
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
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50. Which one of the following steps is not included in the scoping process ?
(1) Baseline descriptions and potential additional data collection needs
(2) Description of environmental impacts and creation of contingency plan
(3) Defining a set of criteria to assess the project
(4) Setting of experts team that will conduct EIA
51. A company conducted an environmental risk assessment to evaluate the possible impacts of
releasing various levels of pollutants from a chemical plant. An environmental risk assessment
should focus on :
(1) Beneficial aspects of the products produced by the plant
(2) The legislative requirements related to the human health effects as a result of exposure
to the pollutant
(3) The quantification of hazards to the local environment from pollutants released
(4) Detailed outline of the management process to reduce the health effects related to
exposure to the pollutants
53. Under the Air Act, 1981, which body is empowered to set standard for ambient air quality ?
(1) MOEFCC
(2) Ministry of Home Affairs
(3) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
(4) State Ministry of Home Affairs
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55. Which environmental legislation in India makes it compulsory to obtain prior approval of
the Central Government for diversion of forest lands for non - forest purposes ?
(1) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(2) Indian Forest Act, 1927
(3) Forest Conservation Act, 1980
(4) Traditional forest - Dwellers (Forest rights) Act, 2006
57. Which one of the following waste may undergo exothermic self - accelerating decomposition ?
(1) Organic peroxides (2) Arsenic bearing sludges
(3) Organo - Chlorines (4) Vinylchlorides
58. According to Plastic Waste (Management and Handling) Rules 2011, recycling of the plastic
should be done according to :
(1) IS/ISO 14852 : 1991 (2) IS/ISO 17088 : 2008
(3) IS 9833 : 1981 (4) IS 14534 : 1998
60. The definition of ‘air pollutant’ as per section 2(a) of Air Act, 1981 includes :
(1) Liquid and gaseous substances
(2) Solid, liquid and gaseous substances including noise
(3) Gaseous substances
(4) Solid, liquid and gaseous substances
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61. In a population of 210 individuals, 72 are smokers and 138 are non - smokers. If a person is
selected with an equal chance to each category, what is the probability of that person being
a smoker ?
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.50 (3) 0.34 (4) 0.75
62. If the mean value (X) of a normally distributed data is 10 and number of observation (n)=36
with an standard deviation (sd) of 0.3, then 90% confidence interval is :
(1) 10±0.08 (2) 10±8.23 (3) 10±0.16 (4) 10±4.15
63. Consider a tall stack emitting a pollutant at the rate 5.0 gms−1 in the atmosphere where wind
is blowing in X-direction with an average velocity of 2.0 ms−1 at the stack height. What will
be the maximum ground level concentration if the effective stack height is 30.0 m and the
Gaussian plume is assumed with dispersion parameters σy=50. 0 m and σz=30.0 m ?
(1) ~ 180 µgm−3 (2) ~ 320 µgm−3 (3) ~ 240 µgm−3 (4) ~ 415 µgm−3
64. Which of the following material(s) are used as land fill liner for the control of gas and leachate
movement ?
(a) Sand (b) Bentonite (c) Fly ash (d) Butyle rubber
Choose the correct code :
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) and (c) only (3) (c) and (d) only (4) (b) and (d) only
65. Assume that the population (N) of a species follows the logistic growth represented by following
equation -
dN
= 0.8N − 0.01N 2
dt
At what value of N, the population exhibits maximum growth ?
(1) 40 (2) 80 (3) 160 (4) 800
66. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : In regression analysis, smaller the p - values, the more significant is the
result of the experiment.
Reason (R) : The magnitude of p - value is an indicator of the association between the
changes in the predictor’s value and the changes in the response variable.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
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67. The mean and median of a moderately skewed distribution are 21 and 20 respectively. The
mode of the distribution is :
(1) 24 (2) 12 (3) 18 (4) 26
68. The 90th percentile value for the data : 6, 6, 6.5, 7.0, 7.5, 6.5, 6, 7.5 and 8 is :
(1) 7.50 (2) 6.50 (3) 7.75 (4) 7.00
69. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Sustainable mountain development should be the global priority.
Reason (R) : Mountain people are particularly vulnerable to impacts of climate change
and natural disasters.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
70. In the total global ecological footprint, which country has the maximum share :
(1) USA (2) China (3) India (4) Brazil
71. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Climate change induced monsoon variability may have serious
consequences for Indian agriculture.
Reason (R) : Two third (2/3rd) of area under cultivation in India is rain dependent.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
72. Namami Gange (Integrated Ganga Conservation Mission / Programme under National Ganga
River Basin Authority) programme was launched in which year ?
(1) 2014 (2) 2015 (3) 1989 (4) 2012
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73. Which state in India is pioneer in making rain water harvesting as a compulsory measure in
towns to avoid ground water depletion ?
(1) Kerala (2) Arunachal Pradesh
(3) Tamilnadu (4) Maharashtra
75. The greenhouse gas, ozone, absorbs and emits long wave radiation near the wavelength :
(1) 9.6 µm (2) 11.2 µm (3) 6.9 µm (4) 17.3 µm
-oOo-
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Space For Rough Work
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PAPER-III
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)
J-89-16 1 P.T.O.
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES
PAPER – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.
1. A stream with a flow rate of 0.2 m3/s and a chloride concentration of 50 mg/L receives a
discharge of mine drainage water with a flow rate of 0.05 m3/s and chloride concentration
of 1500 mg/L. The downstream concentration of chloride is
(1) 450 mg/L (2) 200 mg/L
(3) 250 mg/L (4) 340 mg/L
P
4. In profundal zone, P and R ratio, is
R
(1) >1 (2) <1
(3) =1 (4) > 0.1
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6. The Box model for an airshed over a city has the following parameter values :
Length of the airshed (L) = 24 km
Average wind speed (µ) = 4 m/s
If the initial concentration of a pollutant over the city is zero, estimate the time in which
the concentration of the pollutant in the airshed reaches ~ 63% of its final value.
(1) 1 hr 10 minutes (2) 1 hr 20 minutes
(3) 2 hrs 30 minutes (4) 1 hr 40 minutes
7. Match the List-I and List-II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Organic compound) (Source)
a. Terpene i. Ruminants
b. Methane ii. Soil
c. Humic acid iii. Coal tar
d. Benzo [a] pyrene iv. Plants
Codes :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) iv i ii iii
(3) iv iii ii i
(4) ii i iii iv
8. Among the following taxonomic groups which one has the least number of known species ?
(1) Nematodes (2) Fungi
(3) Porifera (4) Insecta
9. At the average surface temperature of the earth, what is the wavelength at which
maximum terrestrial radiation are emitted ?
(1) ~ 8.08 µm (2) ~ 11.52 µm
(3) ~ 10.06 µm (4) ~ 3.48 µm
10. About ~ 97% of all atmospheric mass in the atmosphere lies upto an approximate height
of
(1) ~ 10 km (2) ~ 15 km
(3) ~ 20 km (4) ~ 30 km
11. Which of the following materials is the most efficient absorber of terrestrial and solar
radiation ?
(1) Suspended dust particles (2) Ice particles
(3) Fly ash particles (4) Black carbon particles
J-89-16 3 Paper-III
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12. An infinitesimal air parcel rises slowly upwards in the atmosphere. In this context, which
of the following statements is not correct ?
(1) Heat change, dq is zero.
(2) Internal energy decreases.
(3) Temperature during ascent decreases.
(4) Lapse rate has a negative numerical value.
13. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The ratio 18O/16 in natural systems can be used as a thermometer.
O
18
Reason (R) : The ratio O/16 depends on the temperature.
O
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
15. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : In an exponential growth phase of the Logistic growth model, the
population growth is maximum.
Reason (R) : After a lag phase, the population is well supported by environmental
resources.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Paper-III 4 J-89-16
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16. An anemometer at a height of 10 m above the ground measures a wind speed of 0.5 m/s.
For a neutral atmosphere with wind profile exponent p = 0.25, the wind speed at an
elevation of 160 m will be
(1) 1 m/s (2) ~ 1.8 m/s
(3) 0.5 m/s (4) 2.5 m/s
18. In the initial stages of landfill, which of the following gas is predominantly released ?
(1) Carbon dioxide (2) Methane and Ammonia
(3) Methane (4) Hydrogen Sulphide
19. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Goal) (Statistical test)
a. To quantify association between two i. Mean and standard
variables with normal distribution deviation
b. To compare two unpaired groups ii. Pearson correlation
under non-normal distribution
c. To compare three or more unmatched iii. Mann-Whitney test
groups in binomial distribution
d. To describe a group of data under iv. χ2 test
normal distribution
Codes :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) ii iii iv i
(3) iii iv i ii
(4) iv i ii iii
J-89-16 5 Paper-III
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20. A sampling error of 2.5758 σ; where σ is the standard deviation along with critical value
of 2.5758 represents the significance level of
(1) 5.0% (2) 1.0%
(3) 2.7% (4) 4.55%
21. In random samples of 64 boats out of a total 2400 boats, the mean number of defective
boats is 3.2 with a sample standard deviation 0.8. The standard error of the mean is
(1) ~ 0.107 (2) ~ 0.40
(3) ~ 0.97 (4) ~ 0.097
22. The Compensatory Afforestation Fund (CAF) was started by Government of India in the
year
(1) 2002 (2) 2004
(3) 2006 (4) 2008
23. According to CRZ notification 2011, which of the following activities is permissible in
CRZ-I ?
(1) Removal of mangroves for housing activities.
(2) Storage of hazardous cargo.
(3) Pipelines, conveying systems including transmission lines.
(4) Reclamation of salt marshes and nesting grounds.
24. Among the following methods, the most cost effective method for treating the infectious
waste from hospitals is
(1) Autoclaving (2) Deep burial
(3) Incineration (4) Fumigation
25. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Protocols/Acts) (Subject)
a. Nagoya Protocol i. Intellectual Property Rights
b. Air (Pollution Prevention and Control) ii. Biodiversity
Act, 1981
c. Indian Patent Act, 1970 iii. Noise Pollution
d. Environmental Protection Act, 1986 iv. Environmental Audit
Codes :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) ii i iv iii
(3) ii iii i iv
(4) iii iv ii i
Paper-III 6 J-89-16
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26. According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, permission for hunting of a rogue
animal which is dangerous to human life can be granted only by
(1) Chief Wildlife Warden
(2) Conservator of Forests
(3) Deputy Conservator of Forests
(4) Chief Secretary of the Government
27. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Ecolabels) (Country)
a. Green Seal i. India
b. Blue Angel ii. USA
c. Eco-mark iii. Belgium
d. Eco Garantie iv. Germany
Codes :
a b c d
(1) ii iv i iii
(2) iii i ii iv
(3) iv ii iii i
(4) i iii iv ii
29. Social, economic and ecological equity is the necessary condition for achieving
(1) social development (2) economic development
(3) sustainable development (4) ecological development
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31. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Principle/Process) (Objectives)
a. Cradle to grave i. Economic strategy for pollution control
b. Polluter pays ii. Environmental impact of production,
use and disposal
c. Precautionary principles iii. Cleaner production
d. Waste prevention and minimization iv. Cost effective measures to prevent
environmental degradation
Codes :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) ii i iv iii
(3) iii iv i ii
(4) iv i ii iii
32. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Steps in EIA) (Description)
a. Impact prediction i. Environmental status of an area
b. Baseline data collection ii. Hazard probability
c. Decision making iii. Impact assessment authority
d. Risk assessment iv. Reversible and irreversible impacts
Codes :
a b c d
(1) ii iii i iv
(2) iii iv ii i
(3) iv i iii ii
(4) i ii iv iii
33. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(EIA Methods) (Developed by)
a. Interaction Matrix i. J. Sorenson
b. Environmental Evaluation System ii. D. Carsten
c. Network Method iii. L.B. Leopold
d. Descriptive Checklist iv. Battelle Columbus
Codes :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) iii iv ii i
(3) iii iv i ii
(4) iv i ii iii
Paper-III 8 J-89-16
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34. Which of the following in soil is an essential micronutrient ?
(1) Nitrogen (2) Calcium
(3) Magnesium (4) Chlorine
35. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Pollutant) (Ambient Indian Standards 24 hrs.)
a. NO2 i. 60 µg/m3
b. PM2.5 ii. 80 µg/m3
c. Ammonia iii. 100 µg/m3
d. PM10 iv. 400 µg/m3
Codes :
a b c d
(1) ii i iv iii
(2) i iii iv ii
(3) iii iv ii i
(4) iv ii iii i
37. Ultrafilteration does not allow which of the following to pass through ?
(1) Small organic molecules (2) Colloidal particles
(3) Viruses (4) Bacteria
38. Consider dry atmosphere which has temperatures of 14.5 °C and 12.5 °C at elevations of
2 m and 252 m, respectively. The atmosphere is :
(1) conditionally unstable (2) unstable
(3) neutral (4) stable
J-89-16 9 Paper-III
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39. An electrostatic precipitator has collection efficiency of 98% for fine particles of a dirty
gas. Its collection area of plates is 50 m2 and gas flow rate is 20 m3/s. If the migration
velocity of the particles is changed by 0.1 m/s by changing the electric field, what will be
the change in collection efficiency ?
(1) 0.05 (2) 0.10
(3) 0.005 (4) 0.001
40. A person is exposed to two sound levels of 80 dB and 100 dB simultaneously. What is the
average noise level the person experiences ?
(1) ~ 97 dB (2) ~ 87 dB
(3) ~ 90 dB (4) ~ 93 dB
41. An ocean wave of 2 m height has a time period of 10 sec. Approximate power associated
with per meter of wavefront is
(1) ~ 40 kW m–1 (2) ~ 20 kW m–1
(3) ~ 80 kW m–1 (4) ~ 2.5 kW m–1
42. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Presence of moisture in biomass often leads to significant loss in useful
thermal output.
Reason (R) : Evaporation of water requires significant amount of energy.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
43. For thermonuclear fusion to occur what must be the minimum confinement time of the hot
plasma of ion density 1022 per m3 ?
(1) 10 µs (2) 1 ms
(3) 100 µs (4) 10 ms
44. An insolation of 1000 W/m2 is incident on a single Si solar cell of area 80 cm2. Assuming
that 5% of photons create electron-hole pairs and that the average energy of the photons is
1 eV. What is the short circuit current of the cell ?
(1) 1.6 A (2) 0.8 A
(3) 0.4 A (4) 3.2 A
Paper-III 10 J-89-16
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45. A tidal estuary of tidal range 5 m has an area of water trapped 10 km2. If we assume
density of water 103 kg/m3 and g = 9.8 m/s2, what is the maximum theoretical energy
available per cycle ?
(1) 24.5 × 1011 J (2) 12.25 × 1011 J
(3) 24.5 × 108 J (4) 12.25 × 1010 J
46. Among the following types of fuel cells, which one has the lowest operating temperature ?
(1) Solid oxide (2) Proton-exchange membrane
(3) Molten carbonate (4) Phosphoric acid
47. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Global warming potential for nitrous oxide is similar whether expressed
over 20 years or 100 years.
Reason (R) : The life time of nitrous oxide in atmosphere is about 10 years.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
48. Suppose the world’s energy consumption per year grows exponentially at a growth rate of
2% per year. In how much time, the energy consumption per year will double from the
present value ?
(1) ~ 35 years (2) ~ 70 years
(3) ~ 50 years (4) ~ 40 years
50. Parameters used in the computation of urban Air Quality Index are
(1) PM2.5, NOx, SOx and Pb
(2) PM10, BTX, CO, NOx, SOx and Cl
(3) PM10, PM2.5, NO2, Pb, NH3, CO and SO2
(4) PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3 and Pb
J-89-16 11 Paper-III
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51. Identify the correct order of aquatic ecosystems based on their primary productivity
(1) reservoir < river < marsh < swamp
(2) marsh < swamp < reservoir < river
(3) swamp < marsh < reservoir < river
(4) river < reservoir < marsh < swamp
53. For estimation of inundated areas which spectral region is best suited ?
(1) Visible (2) Near infra-red
(3) Far infra-red (4) Microwave
Paper-III 12 J-89-16
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57. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Rock type) (Mineral)
a. Bailadila group i. Mn
b. Nallamalai group ii. Phosphate
c. Udaipur group iii. BIF
d. Sausar group iv. Pb-Zn
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iii iv ii i
(2) iv ii iii i
(3) ii iii iv i
(4) iii iv i ii
58. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Rock/Minerals) (Chemical
Composition)
a. Quartz i. Fe3O4
b. Magnetite ii. CaF2
c. Fluorite iii. SiO2
d. Calcite iv. CaCO3
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iii i ii iv
(2) iv iii i ii
(3) ii iv iii i
(4) i ii iv iii
59. The sum of deep sub-surface and delayed shallow surface flows in humid climate is
known as
(1) Sub-surface flow (2) Base flow
(3) Pipe flow (4) Inter flow
60. Urban heat island effect can best be monitored in the following spectral region
(1) 1 – 3 µm (2) 3 – 5 µm
(3) 10 – 12 µm (4) 3 – 6 µm
61. The final seral stage of succession is governed by which of the following concepts ?
(1) Seral climax (2) Poly climax
(3) Null climax (4) Micro climax
J-89-16 13 Paper-III
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62. In a natural ecosystem pollination pertains to
(1) supporting services (2) regulating services
(3) cultural services (4) provisioning services
64. A group of species, that make their living by exploiting the same class of resources in a
similar way, is known as
(1) Pride (2) Guild
(3) Bunch (4) Herd
66. The life style that an organism pursues and the resources it utilizes, is referred to as
(1) Fundamental niche (2) Realized niche
(3) Actualized niche (4) Mechanized niche
67. The evolution of two interacting species, each in response to selection pressure imposed
by the other is called
(1) Coevolution (2) Adaptation
(3) Mitigation (4) Mutualism
69. Which of the following trace atmospheric constituents has no natural source ?
(1) Methyl bromide (2) Dimethyl sulfide
(3) Carbonyl sulfide (4) Trichlorofluoromethane
70. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : High temperature makes N2 and O2 to react and produce pollutant NO.
Reason (R) : The reaction N2 + O2 is exothermic.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Paper-III 14 J-89-16
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71. In a cuvette of path length 1.0 cm, a 0.01 M solution of a compound is filled. If the
transmittance of the solution be 50%, what is its absorbance ?
(1) 6.90 (2) 2.00
(3) 0.50 (4) 0.30
72. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Analysis) (Instruments)
a. Protein i. Gravimetry
b. SOx, NOx ii. Flame photometry
c. Sulphate iii. Electrophoresis
d. Sodium iv. Spectrophotometry
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iii iv i ii
(2) i ii iii iv
(3) ii iii iv i
(4) iv i ii iii
73. Which one of the following is not a Phase-I reaction component in biotransformation of
pesticides ?
(1) Oxidation (2) Conjugation
(3) Reduction (4) Hydrolysis
75. In a water body suffering from mercury pollution, the most toxic species among the
following is
(1) Mercurous ion (2) Mercuric ion
(3) Methylmercury cation (4) Dimethylmercury
J-89-16 15 Paper-III
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Space For Rough Work
Paper-III 16 J-89-16
www.examrace.com
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
PAPER-II
Note: This paper contains fifty (50) multiple-choice questions, each question carrying
two (2) marks_ Attempt all of them.
om
(q Doseofapollutant (D) Methodofmeasurement
2. The unleaded petrol, as an automotive fud, should not have the lead levels exceeding
(A) 0059/L (B) 0159/L (q 0259/L (D) 0509/L
.c
(A) Troposphere (B) Stratosphere (D) Ionosphere
4. Which is the correct order of the degree of weathering of the following rocks
ce
(A) Dunite >Basalt> Granite> Rhyolite
(B) Basalt> Dunite >Granite> Rhyolite
(q Granite> Basalt> Dunite >Rhyolite
(D) Rhyolite >Granite > Dunite > Basalt
ra
Interior of the earth is inferred through
(A) Deep continental drilling (B) Deep oa.an drilling
(q Seismicsoundings (D) Heatflowmeasurements
m
(q SPM,pHofwater andsoiltypesofthearea
(D) Lanilscape of the area; 50 2 and NO X levels in air
w
11. Coal mine workers are proneto victims of one of thefollowing diseases
(A) Pneumoconiosis (B) Byssinosis (q Asbestosis (D) Silicosis
12. The numberofoxygenmokcules required for the complete combustion of1mokcuk tf propane is
w 2 (B) 3 (q 4 セ@ 5
D-8905
13. Which one of the following is necessary for the growth and maintenance of animal bones and
"""
(A) Hydrogen (B) Oxygen (q Phosphates (D) Sulphur
om
15. Which one of thdollowing photochemical reactions is correct
(D) O,+hv-------+D,+e
.c
16. Assertion (A}: CFCs destroyozonemoleculesinstratosphere
Reason (R} CFCs have very high global warming potential
ce
(A) Both (A} and (R} aretrue and (R} is thecorrect explanation of (A}
(B) Both (A}and (R} are true but (R} is notthe correct explanation of (A}
(q (A} is true; (R} is false
(D) (A} is false; (R} is true
ra
17. Match the lists I and II Select the correct answer using the code given below the
'""
m
list-I list- II
1•1 Environmental Protection Act 1991
Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
'" 1974
"
(iij
xa
"
(q (iij (iv) (iii)
w
19. 1kW-hourofenergyisequivakntto
(A) 460 KCal (B) 1250 KCal (q 860 KCal (D) 760 KCal
D-8905 P.T.O.
'
21. Match the following lists I and ll and sdect the correct answer using the code given bdow the lists
list" I list" II
1•1 Fluvial (i) Moraines
(ii)
GセB@
Shallow Marine
"
(c)
1'1
Glacial
Eolisn
(iii)
(iv)
Oxbow lake
Spits and Bar
Code:
(A)
1•1
(iii)
.,
(iv)
(c) 1'1
(ii)
"
(iij
'"
(iii) (iv)
om
(q
(D) '"
(iv)
(iii)
(iii)
(iv)
(ii)
(ii)
(i)
(i)
.c
(q Tanperatezone Warms\liTlrrlerwithpronouncedwinter
(D) Alpinezone Longsummerwithshortseverewinter
ce
23 . The hydraulic conductivity or the coefficient of pamea bility of which of the following media is the
highest
(A) Oay (B) Sand (q Gravd (D) Sandstone
26. After sodiumdJoride, which of the following compounds has the rnaximumconcentrationin sea
xa
water
(A) Magnesiumsulphate (B) Calciumsulphate
(q Magnesiumchloride (D) Potassiumsulphate
.e
27. The directions for the regulation, prohibition or the closure of any industry are given
"'
(A)
(q
Stategovernrnent
State Pollution Control Board
(B)
(D)
Centralgovanment
Central Pollution Control Brnrd
w
28. Match the lists I andll Select the correct answer using the rode given bdow the lists
list" I list" II
w
Code:
(A)
1•1 .,
(iij
(c)
(iv)
1'1
(iii)
"
(q '"
(iii)
(iv)
(iv)
(iii)
'"
(ii)
(ii)
(i)
(D) (iij (iv) (iii)
D-8905
'"
'
29. Which of thdollDwing sets has the rna>imum dispersion
(A) 10, 11, 12, 10, 11, 10, 10, 11, 10,11 (B) 1,2, 1,2, 1,2, 1,2, 1, 2
(q 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10 (D) 5,5,6,6,5,5,6,5,6,5
om
(A) dispersal of atmospheric pollutants
(B) Predictor and Prey populations
(q Birthanddeathrates
(D) Discharge of a waste into groundwaters
.c
32. The geometricmeanof2,2,3and3 is
(A) 6 (D) 16
ce
Match the lists I and II Select the correct answer using the code given below the
" '""
list-I list-II
1•1 Tropical forest (i) 5underbans
ra
"
Conifer forest (iij Himachal Pradesh
(c) Mangroves (iii) Rapsthan
1'1 Deciduous forest (iv) Silent valley
.,
m
'" '"
(iij (iv) (iii)
xa
"
(q
(D)
'"
(iv)
(iv)
(iij
(iij (iii)
(iii)
38. The size distribution of aerosols in ambient urban environment tends to follow
(A) Normal distribution (B) Exponential distribution
(q Junge's distribution (D) Poisson distribution
D-8905 P.T.O.
39. The temperaturerequired to fuse Deuterium and Tritiumnudeiis of the order of
(A) -10 5 "k (B) -10 8 1< (q -10'1< (D) -10°"k
om
41. The satdlite which has been put into orbit recently capable of producing high resolution thematic
data is
(A) IRS-2D (B) IDUSAT (q RISClURCISAT (D) lANDSAT
.c
42. The atmosphere is chemically homogenous upto an altitude of
(A) 10krn (B) 30km (q 50krn (D) SOkrn
ce
43. At which stage of an ecological succession, an ecosystem exhibits total photosynthesis equal to
respiration?
(A) Pioneer (B) Oirnax (q Virgin (D) Mid-seral
ra
44. When in a community a species has the same abundance and density, the frequency of the species
shall be
(A) 20% 50% (q 90% (D) 100%
m
45. For determination of primary productivity in a lake, which is the most appropriate time for
sampling?
xa
46. Which is the best and simple method to determination of fluorine in ground water?
(A) AtomicAbrorptionspectrometry (B) Spectrophotometry
.e
Road tho passage bdow and answor quos hans that follow basod an your undorsfu:ndmg of tho
w
passage:
Forests in India are fast disappearing at a rate of about 0 6% per year equivalent to about 7 3
million ha This renders all the dosed tropical forests diaappear within 177 years, At this rate of
w
destruction of tropical forests, a bout 20-25% of the worlds plant species would have been lost by the
year 2000 By another estimate 90% of tropical forest area containing about 505 varieties of world
plant species will be destroyed during the next 20 years By another estimate 1000 species/year
w
would become extinct This figure is expected to riae to 10,000 species/year During the next 20
years, about one million species are likdy to disappear
Loss ofbiodiver.sity is severe ina gri=ltural ecosystems too During greenrev olution, thousands
of wild crop varieties were replaced with a few hybrid species This resulted in slight disappearance
of genetic resources of crop plants, especially of wheat and rice With the disappearance of the
plants, the associated microorganisms and fauna were also lost Further indiscriminate use of
f atilizas and insect:icid es reduced the microbial species diversity live stock popula lions are already
homogenised and their diversity is extinct
D-8905
'
Much of the fr agite breeding and feeding grounds of almost 2/3rd of the world's oa.anic fish
have been destroyed Endangered rnarindife inlndia lists about 8 species of marine mammals, 5
species of marine turtles, 1 species of hemichorda te, 3 species of csphalochor date, 10 species of crab
de
MaJill cause oflos.s ofbiodivasity is the expansion of a grirultural practices Biological diversity
is r splace d by biological uniformity or rnonoculture in the name of green revolution in a griculture,
white revolution in dairying and blue revolution in fisheries The purpose of all these revolutions is
to ensure food security and prevent "hunger disaster"
Biodiversity is also lost due to reclamation for building dams, factories highways, mining
om
operations de in the forested regions illegal trade and poaChing of witd life also damaged
biodiversity Thus, biodiversity is destroyed by anthropogenic activities
.c
(A) Greenrevolution Whiterevolution
(q Bluerevolution (D) Mining Activity
ce
48 . Decrease in India's f ores! rov a is a !tribute d mainly to
(A) Urbanization and Industrialisation (B) AgrirultureandDairying
(q RaitandRoadConstruction (D) Mining and Power Plants
ra
49. About 90% of tropical forest area containing _____ varieties of world's plant species in the
next twenty years
m
-oOo-
w
w
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D-8905 P.T.O.
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
PAPER-II
Note: 11-us paper con tams fifty (5J) mulhple-ch01ce queshons, each queshon carrymg
hvo (2) marks Attempt all of them
om
(B) Northern Herrnsphere move to the nght
(C) Southern Herrusphere move nortfw.Jard
(D) Both Herrusphere move mdependent of ea:h other
.c
2. Prectpitahon of CaC03 may oo:ur h"hen
(A) Sea "\'Vater iS shall ow and cセ@ iS 1os t
(B) Sea "\'Vater iS "\OJarffi and C0 2 iS bemg 1os t
ce
(C) Sea "\'Vater iS cold and C0 2 iS bemg 1os t
(D) Sea "\'Vater iS deep and C0 2 iS bemg added
ra
cセ@ m sod and cセ@ m ahnosphere differ
(A) by a fa: tor of 2 (B) by a fa: tor of 1
(C) by a factor of 3 5 (D) by a fa: tor of 4
m
4. Consider the earth to be a blackbody'\OJ!th average temperature 15° C and surfa:e area
5 1 x 1014 m 2 Fmd the rate at wh!ch energy iS radiated by the earth and the "\'JaVe
xa
(D) Plume hes m a lapse reg10n and sanclv.-!ched between mvers10n layers
w
7. Malath!on iS
(A) OrganoPhosphorus Peshcide (B) Organo Chloro Peshctde
(C) Organo Carbamate Peshcide (D) NotaPeshctde
D-8906
'
8. Cn heal pomt for "\'Vater maP - T chagram Suggests (One statement only 1s correct)
(A) Water 1s unstable
(B) Steam 1s the only stab! e phase
(C) Both 1ce and steam are stable phases
(D) Steam.hqu1d "\'Vater and 1ce are stable phases
om
w. In all fresh "\'Vater m Incha. the dorrunan t 10n 1s
(A) HC03 - (B) cl- (C) ca+ 2 (D) so - 2
'
11. Ozone toX!c!ly to plants 1s generally due to the mvolvement of v..tuch unsaturated
.c
hydrocarbons
(A) Unsaturated fatty a:1d (B) Methylene
ce
(C) Ethylene (D) None of the above
15. VVh!ch one of the follmvmg sequence represent mcrerumg order of lox1c1ly of metals 7
(A) Ca. Zn. Cd. Mn (B) Ca. Mn. Zn. Cd
w
16. Energyflmvmanecosystem1s
(A) Cychc (B) Mul hchrechonal
(C) Sequenhal (D) Umchrechonal
w
D-8906 P.T.O.
'"· Match L1sl-I and L1sl-II and select correct ans"Wer
List -I List - n
Mesozmc ,, ) Terhaty
'"'
セI@
(c)
Proterozmc
Cenozmc
(11) Tnass1c
(111) Pre Cambnan
(d) Paleozmc (!v) Perm1an
b d
(A) " '
"' " '"
om
セI@
(C) " "' '"
(D)
" "' '"
"' " '"
19. Correct order of mcrerumg energycontentfor vanous types of coal1s
.c
(A) Anlhractte. Peat B!l-coat L1gmte (B) L1gmte. Peat B1l-coat Anthra:1le
(C) Peat L1gmte. B1l-coat Anthra:1le (D) Peat L1grute. Anthra:1te. B!l-coal
ce
20. S1hca content of granochon te 1s m the range of
(A) 22-44% (B) 66-38% (C) 44-56% (D) 44-E£%
"· Match the 24 hourly average amb1ent atr quahty standards from L1sls I and L1sls II
.e
セI@
(C) '" "' "
(D)
"' '" "
" '" '"
24. The most abundant alkalme component of the ahnosphere 1s
(A) Ammoma (B) N1lrogen
(C) Sulphur choX!de (D) Carbon O!oX!de
D-8906
'
25. The faecalmchcator ba:tenais
(A) Stat?hy!ococeus aureus (B) Streptococeus faecal!S
(C) Ercbeqcb!a llll.J. (D) faJmopella セ@
26. The maximum perrrussible level of BOD (mg;l) m "\'JaStev..-ater that iS let mto nver iS
(A) 20 (B) 30 (C) 40 (D) 10
om
27. Coral reefs are vulnerable to
(A) Sil tahon (B) Flood "\'Vater (C) Nutrients (D) Salt flow
28. .Asserhon (A) The mangroves are nursety ground for hsh and larvae
Reason (R) The mangroves are covered "With mangrove plants that ennches the
.c
environment
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) iS the correct explanahon of (A)
ce
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) iS not the correct explanahon of (A)
(C) (A) iS true but (R) iS false
(D) (A) iS false but (R) iS true
ra
29. In an mdustrial envuonment h"hat iS the smgle most important factor m an a:C!dent
prevenhon programme 7
(A) A "\OJ!"itten programme (B) Trammg
m
30. Match the follo"\OJ!ng List-! and List- II and select the correct answer usmg the codes
g!Ven below
List - I List - II
Pubhc hearmg iS reqwred (i) Moderrusahon of exishngirngahon
'"'
.e
proJects
セI@ Pubhc hearmgis not required (11) Highway proJects
(c) Basehne rur quahty data iS collected (111) Once m ea:h season
w
(d) Basehne nmse level data is collected (iv) 24 hourly Rv!ce a week
Codes :
w
b d
(A)
" '
'" " "'
w
セI@
(CJ
" '" "'
(D)
"' '" "
'" "' "
31. All lands "\OJ!th tree cover of canopy density of 40% and above iS nohhed as
(A) Scrub (B) Open forest (C) Dense forest (D) Forest cover
D-8906 P.T.O.
'
32. Match the L1sl-I and L1sl-II and select the correct ans"Wer usmg the codes gtven belmv
List - I List - II
(Power generation ca:padty) (stack ィ・ゥセエ@ (m))
(a) 5JO MVV and more (1) H セQT@ (Q'} 3
(b) 200/210MVVandabovebutlessthan5COMVV (u) 275
(c) less than 200/210 MVV (111) 220
(d) steam generahon capa:!ly less than B 5 MT (1v) 9
Note H セpィケウQ」。ャ@ sta:k he1ght m metres
Q セeイオウキョ@ rate of sセ@ m kg!hr
om
Codes :
b d
(A) " '
セI@
" '" '"
(C) " "' '"
"' '" "
.c
(D)
'" " "'
33. The Water (Prevenhon and Control of Polluhon) Act 1974
(A) Regulates the chscharge of hazardous pollutants mto the nahons surface Gセj。ャ・イ@
ce
(B) Regulates the erruss10n of hazardous rur pollutants
(C) Regulates '\'JaSle chsposal of sea
(D) Regulates the transportahon of hazardous matenals
ra
34. The harmomc mean of the numbers 0. 2. 4. 6 1s
セ@ 3 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) )
Reason (R) Wetlands are bwlogtcally nch dynarruc zones of trans1hon between
two chfferent ecosystems
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) 1s the correct explanahon of (A)
xa
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) 1s not the correct explanahon of (A)
(C) (A) 1s true but (R) 1s false
(D) (A) 1s false but (R) 1s true
.e
38. Adev1ceh tied to the exhaustsystem of a petrol dnvenmotor veh!de to reduce errusswns
of pollutants 1s called as
w
D-8906
40. Theaveragesolarconstantis
(A) 12 cal/cm2jsec (B) 35 caljcm2jsec
(C) 12kcal;cm2jsec (D) 2 cal/cm2/sec
41. VVh!ch one of the fol!Dh"!ng group of plants iS most resistant to iorusmgrachahons 7
(A) Coruferous Forest (B) Gress Land
(C) Lichen and Mosses (D) Mixed Forest
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42. Hmv many moles of oxygen are reqwred to burn one mole of propane 7
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
.c
44. The recent asbestos controversy about the French sh!p gomg to Alang wa; pnmanly
due to
ce
(A) Vwlahon of Inchan Coastal Zone La1V3
(B) Vwlahon of Transnahonal Movement of Hazardous Waste
(C) Gu1arat State Polluhon Control La1V3
(D) Inchan .A!r Polluhon La1V3
ra
45. Due to the increrumg energy use the ozone layer over the arc he iS
(A) Increrumg (B) Decrerumg
m
(C) Notshifhngmsize (D) Notaffectedatall
- 0 0 0-
D-8906 P.T.O.
'
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
PAPER-II
Note: This paper contains fifty (50) multiple-choice questions, each question carrying
two (2) marks_ Attempt all of them.
om
(B) Frequeru:y distribution of wind speeds in percentage tenns in the fonn of a TI
chart_
(C) Frequency distribution of wind speed associated with a cyclase_
(D) Frequency distribution of wind speed and direction in polar coordinates_
.c
2. Assertion (A) : Sustainable production of hay or green fodder is essential for
uninterrupted supply of animal products_
Reason (R) : Environmental coru:erns are detrimental for sustainsble production
ce
of hay or green fodder_
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
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(C) (A) is true and (R) is false
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true
For a clear sunny dsy with sun higher than 6IY above horizon and wind speed greater
m
3.
than 6 m/ sec, the abnosphere is :
(A) Stable (B) Slightly unstable
(C) Moderately unstable (D) Very unstable
xa
(C) Remains same i.e_, jャNgセo@ (D) Varies i.e_, Jl.G>O or Jl.G<O
D-8907
8. In qualitative analysis the sulphides of Group-ll are precipitated in preseru:e of dilute
HCl, while of Group-IV are precipitated only in the preseru:e of NH40H. It is because:
(A) Solubility product of sulphides of Group-II is greater than that of Group-IV
(B) Solubility product of sulphides of Group-II is less than that of Group-IV
(C) Sulphides of Group-II are insoluble in acids
(D) Sulphides of Group-IV are insoluble in alkalies
9. Arrange the following abnospheric gases in the decreasing order of their abundance :
I. Oxygen II. Carbon di-oxide Ill. Argon IV. Methane
om
Code:
(A) I>lll>ll>N (B) ll>I>lll>IV
(C) I>lll>ll>N (D) lll>I>IV>ll
10. Which of the following is equivalent to the number of substrate molecules converted to
.c
product ina given unit of time by a single enzyme molecule when the enzyme is saturated
with substrate ?
(A) Specific constant (B) Michaelis constant
ce
(C) Dissociation constant (D) Tum-over number
11. DDT is hannful from the ecological point of view mainly because it undergoes :
(A) Biotransfonnation (B) Bioaccumulation
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(C) Biomagnification (D) Biodegradation
12. Which of the following radiations continuously act on 14N to produce 14c isotope in
the abnosphere ?
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13. The proteins in the cell walls of microorganisms have an overall nfl negative charge at
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14. Oxidoreductases:
w
D-8907 P.T.O.
'
17. Assertion (A) : Among micro-organisms white-rot fungi most efficiently degrade
lignin.
Reason (R) : White-rot fungi produce ligninolytic enzymes.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
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18. In deep oceans the phenomenon of inverted biomass pyramid occurs mainly due to :
I. Fast growth rate and high nutrient requirement of producers.
II. Rapid turnover rate and short life span of producers.
Ill. Slow growth rate and high nutrient requirement of herbivores.
IV. Slow turnover and long life span of herbivores.
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Which of the following combinations is correct ?
W>-ill セ@ >-N セdMゥャ@ セャゥMn@
ce
19. Alpha diversity represents:
(A) species richness (B) species evelll1f<ss
(C) species richTif<ss and evenness (D) species ridmess and dominaru:e
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20. Populations of two species may interact in several ways. One of these called
protocooperation occurs when :
(A) OTif< population inhibits the other
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(B) Interaction is favourable to both but not obligatory
(C) Interaction is favourable to both but obligatory
(D) Neither population affects the other
xa
24. Sodium and Potassium in rock and soil materials are generally estimated by :
(A) lN- Visible spectrophotometry (B) Flame photometry
(C) HPLC (D) Colorimetry
D-8907
'
25. l\1atch the L1St-I and Ust-II in respect of the geochemical affinity of the elements :
List-I List-II
(a) Chalcophile (i) Carbon
(b) Uthophile (ii) Nitrogen
(c) Siderophile (iii) Sulphur
(d) Atmophile (iv) Oxygen
(e) Biophile (v) Iron
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(A) (v) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
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(B) (iii) (iv) (v) (ii) (i)
(Q (iv) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)
(D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (v)
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(Sedimentary Environment) (Rock Material)
HセI@ Deep Sea (i) ill]
セI@ Lh• (ii) loess
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(c) Desert (iii) evaporite
(d) Glacier J\.fargins (iv) ooze
(b) (c) (d)
(A) '"'
(iv) (iii) (ii) (<)
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セI@ (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(Q (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(D) (iii) (ii) (iv) (<)
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27. Chemical weathering of rock material is most effective in which of the following
regions ?
(A) Aravalli Hills (B) Vindhyan Hills (C) Ladakh (D) Westem Ghats
xa
30. The maximum value of the coefficient of perfonnaru:e for a wind turbine is :
w
n
(A) セI@ (Q (D)
"
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31. Assertion (A) : Electrostatic precipitators are very efficient devices for removal of
particulate matter from the gas stream.
Reason (R) : Corona discharge helps in charging of particulate matter which are
collected on the grounded electrodes (plates).
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(Q (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
D-8907 P.T.O.
32. Stratospheric ozone is produced by electromagnetic radiations of wavelength in the
range:
(A) 180 - 240 mn (B) 280 - 320 mn
(C) 320 - 400 mn (D) 150 - 180 mn
33. セ U イ・ヲウエッZ@
(A) mass of particles of size less than 2.5 )J.m.
(B) mass of particles of size greater than 2.5 )J.m.
(C) number of particles of size less than 2.5 )J.m.
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(D) number of particles of size greater than 2.5 )J.m.
34. A person is exposed to noise of 87 dB for 2 hours. If 100% noise dose corresponds to
90 dB noise exposure for 8 hours, the person is subjected to a noise dose of :
(A) 50 % (B) 2.5 % (C) 12.5 % (D) 6.25 %
.c
35. If the EIA indicates that another state is likely to be affected, the state, in which EIA is
planned, has to :
ce
(A) transmit to the affected state any relevant information from the EIA
coru:eming it
(B) keep the relevant infonnation fully secret
(C) handover the infonnation to the central pollution control board
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(D) noTif< of the above
36. The combination of primary and secondary treabnent reduces the original sewage BOD
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by'
(A) 30 - 40 % (B) 50- 60 % (C) 60 - 70% (D) 80 - 90 %
xa
37. A simple and relatively inexpensive film.flow type of aerobic treabnent method is :
(A) Septic tank (B) Activated sludge process
(C) Percolating filter system (D) All the above
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38. Which of the following is not a molecular method for the detection of microbial
population from water/ soil ?
(A) Dot-blot hybridization (B) MPN (C) RT-PCR (D) PCR
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39. Under Kyoto Protocol, the percentage reduction sought to be achieved in C0 2 emissions
from 1990 levels by the year 2012 is :
w
variable, a, f3 are regression coefficients, エセイ。ョ、ッュ@ error), the variaru:e oft is:
(A) 0 (B)
•'
132
D-8907
'
41. In the Box-model the pollutant coru:entration (C) over an area varies with mtxing height
(H) as '
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The Hannonic mean of the data 2, 2, 1 is :
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(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) -1
45. Which of the following water purification tedmology removes minerals from d:rinldng
ce
water?
(A) Filteration (B) Ultra-filteration
(C) Reverse osmosis (D) lN treabnent
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46. Identify the correct sequeru:e of gases in the decreasing order of their contribution to
global wanning :
(A) C0 2 > CFCs > rn 4 > N 20 (B) C0 2 > rn4 > N 20 > CFCs
(C) C0 2 > rn4 > CFCs > N 20 (D) C0 2 > N 20 > CH4 > CFCs
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48. According to IPCC, during the 20th century earth's mean surface temperature has
.e
risen by :
wMmセ@ セ@ Mmセ@ セ@ Mセ@ セMLᄋ@
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50. Assertion (A) : At present in Indis, the use of solar eTif<rgy is rather limited.
Reason (R) : Large scale use of solar energy has uncertain environmental
w
implications.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
-0 0 0-
D-8907 P.T.O.
Signature and Name of Invigilator OMR Sheet No. : ......................................................
(To be filled by the Candidate)
1. (Signature)
Roll No.
(Name)
(In figures as per admission card)
2. (Signature) Roll No.
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(Name)
Test Booklet No.
D8 9 0 8 PAPERII
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Time : 1¼ hours] ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE [Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
Instructions for the Candidates ÂÚUèÿææçÍüØô¢ ·ð¤ çÜ° çÙÎðüàæ
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missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any ©âè â×Ø ©âð ÜUõÅUæ·¤ÚU ©â·ð¤ SÍæÙ ÂÚU ÎêâÚUè âãè ÂýàÙ-ÂéçSÌ·¤æ
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by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the
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booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be ¥çÌçÚUQ¤ â×Ø çÎØæ ÁæØð»æÐ
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Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. ÂýØô» ßçÁüÌ ãñÐ
There is NO negative marking. 12. »ÜÌ ©āæÚU ·ð¤ çÜ° ¥¢·¤ Ùãè¢ ·¤æÅðU ÁæØð¢»ðÐ
D8908 1 P.T.O.
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
PAPERII
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) multiple-choice questions, each question carrying
two (2) marks. Attempt all of them.
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(A) White pine, moss and lichens
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(C) Apricot, peach and gladiolas
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2. Which of the following survive by forming spores ?
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(A) They have effective repair mechanism for damaged DNA and have high
oncentration of carotenoids
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D8908 2
4. The orchid seeds do not germinate under ordinary conditions because :
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(D) They germinate under very dry conditions
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5. Which of the following is for rhizosphere ?
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(A) Region where soil and roots make contact
6. Suppose the number of individual prey population is N1 and their intrinsic rate of
.e
r15b2m
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m5mortality rate per individual, then the rate of change of the prey population
w
1
(A) r N (B) r1N1
2 1 1
D8908 3 P.T.O.
7. The photosynthetic zone is limited to the upper layers of water in the soil with a high
intensity of productivity per unit volume, yielding an average of about :
om
8. Assertion (A) : Copper - T is used as a contraceptive.
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Reason (R) : Copper of Copper - T disrupts production of some reproductive
hormone.
(A)
ce
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
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(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
m
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
10. Which of the following is used as a carrier for the Rhizobium biofertilization ?
(A) Peat bog (B) Salt (C) Sand (D) Cow dung
D8908 4
11. The flow in natural streams is almost always turbulent and may be assumed to be
incompressible, consequently the applicable equations of motion for the fluid are the :
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12. Suspended sediment load is that part of the sediment load which is transported within
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the main body flow. The primary mechanism of maintaining the sediment particles in
suspension is :
ce
Particle size
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(C) Turbulent diffusion (D) Dissolved gasses
m
xa
13. A highly vesicular material derived from acidic lavas and produced in very large
quantities is known as :
D8908 5 P.T.O.
15. At the present time volcanoes are confined to certain limited areas of the Earths surface.
This special zone is called :
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(C) Central-Asian inter-continental zone
.c
ce
16. When the cavities between the mineral grains in a rock contains fluid, it is called :
18. Failure to explain the black body radiation emission spectrum in the ultraviolet region
(ultraviolet catastrophe) has occurred in :
D8908 6
19. A noise signal can be characterized through its amplitude/energy content in the signal.
The signal can be expressed in various forms like root mean square value, given as :
1/2 1/2
1 T 1 T
(A)
T ∫ a 2 (t) dt
(B)
2T ∫ a 2 (t) dt
0 0
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1 T 1 T
(C)
T ∫ a . dt
(D)
2T ∫ a . dt
0 0
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ce
Where T is the relevant time period over which the averaging takes place and a(t) the
instantaneous amplitude.
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m
20. Sound pressure level (dB) can be expressed as :
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Measured pressure
(A) 20 log10
Reference pressure
.e
Reference pressure
(B) 20 log10
w
Measured pressure
w
1/2
Reference pressure
(C) 20 log10
w
Measured pressure
1/2
Measured pressure
(D) 20 log10
Reference pressure
D8908 7 P.T.O.
21. Relationship regarding wave particle duality (P5h/l, P5momentum, h5Plancks
constant and l The wave length), was given by :
om
22. The effect of low level non-ionizing electromagnetic radiation effects on bilogical systems
.c
can be classified in the following category :
ce
(A) Instantaneous (B)
ra Delayed
24. A small reduction in ozone concentration can lead to a large increase in the amount of
w
D8908 8
25. The planet nearest to the Sun is :
om
(A) Particulates, smoke, carbon monoxide, fluoride
.c
(C) NOx, SO2, particulates
D8908 9 P.T.O.
29. Elements in sea water present in order of increasing residence time :
om
(D) Mg > Ca > Cl > Na > K > P > Fe
.c
30. Assertion (A) : Aerosols heave potential for modifying the climate
Reason (R) :
(A) ce
Aerosols interact with both short wave and infra-red radiation.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
ra
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
m
32. Ozone hole in the stratosphere was discovered over the continent of :
D8908 10
33. Which of the following layers of Earth have the composition of peridotite ?
om
34. Sedimentary component which is produced in-situ within the pore spaces is called :
.c
ce
(A) Primary (B) Authigeni
1
35. Stokes law of settling velocity simplified as V ∝ n suggest that :
d
.e
(A) A large particle 100mm in diameter will settle slowly compared to a smaller
10 mm particle
w
(B) A large particle 100 mm in diameter, will settle faster than a smaller particle
w
10 mm
w
(C) Both a large 100 mm particle and a small 10 mm particle will settle in a column of
10 cm. at the same time.
(D) Small particle 10 mm in diameter will settle faster, while coarser particle of
100 mm diameter will remain in suspension.
D8908 11 P.T.O.
36. Which of these remote sensing tool is commonly used for groundwater exploration and
soil moisture determinations :
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(D) Black and white Aerial photos
.c
37. The atmosphere is divided in four layers. The layer in contact with the surface of the
Earth is called :
ce
Troposphere
ra
(C) Mesosphere (D) Ionosphere
m
38. A ship (X) moving due North with a velocity (n) observes that another ship (Y) is moving
due west. the actual velocity of (Y) is :
xa
(C) Independent of pH
D8908 12
40. A cube of ice with radius of 100 mm is formed at 38 C. When ice melts, the final volume
will be :
om
41. Which of the following phenomena can be explained by the wave model of light, but
not by the particle model ?
.c
(A) Pressure is exerted by a light beam
(B)
ce
All of the energy emitted by an atom, as light can later be completely transferred
to another atom
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(C) A light beam changes direction when passing from one medium to another
m
(D) Light can reach the geometrical shadow of an obstacle in its path
xa
D8908 13 P.T.O.
44. If one wishes to measure total As, As13 and As15 in a sample the most suitable analytical
tool is :
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(D) Gas chromatograph
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45. The acid rains result from chemical transformation and transport of :
ce
ra
(B) Phosphorus pentaoxide and sulfur compound
46. Any particulate matter, gas, or combination thereof other than water vapour is
.e
called :
47. The chemical system for removal of the ions of salt, is called :
D8908 14
48. At ordinary temperatures, the molecules of a diatomic gas have only translational and
rotational kinetic energies. At high temperatures, they may have vibrational energy.
As a result of this, compared to lower temperatures, a diatomic gas at higher
temperatures will have :
(A) Lower molar heat capacity (B) Higher molar heat capacity
om
.c
49. In the periodic table of elements :
50. Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) which cause environmental exposure risk have these
important properties :
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(D) Highly soluble in water and poorly soluble in oils and organic solvents
-oOo-
D8908 15 P.T.O.
Space For Rough Work
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.c
ce
ra
m
xa
.e
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w
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D8908 16
Signature and Name of Invigilator OMR Sheet No. : .........................................
(To be filled by the Candidate)
1. (Signature) __________________________
Roll No.
(Name) ____________________________
(In figures as per admission card)
2. (Signature) __________________________
Roll No.____________________________
(Name) ____________________________
(In words)
www.examrace.com
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions, each question carrying two
(2) marks. Attempt all the questions.
1. The use of anthropoid hazard chemicals like DDT causes reduction in fish population
because the chemical mimics the effect of
(A) Luteinizing hormone (B) Testosterone
(C) Estrogen (D) All of the above
2. The ionizing radiation, which affects the activities of most of the enzymes is due to
(A) Photoemission of electron
(B) Interaction of α-particles, β-and γ-rays with enzymes
(C) Interaction of electron with body.
(D) Interaction of radiation with tissues.
5. Parallelism among the standard curves can be determined by one of the following.
(A) ANOVA (B) Student’s-t test
(C) Chi square (D) ANCOVA
Paper-II 2 D-8909
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9. The mass of 1 mole of electron is equal to
(A) 9.1094 × 6.16 × 10–28 g
(B) 9.1094 × 10–31 × 6.023 × 1023 kg
(C) (9.1094 × 10–31) / 6.023 × 1023 kg
(D) (6.023 × 1023) / 6.1094 × 10–28 gm
14. One of the following methods for disposal of municipal solid waste known to be
scientific is
(A) Open land disposal (B) Incerination
(C) Landfill method (D) Sanitary landfill method
15. One of the following is not an In situ conservation for biological resources.
(A) Biosphere reserve (B) National Parks
(C) Protected areas (D) Breeding under confined areas
D-8909 3 Paper-II
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17. Biodiesel is produced in India presently from
(A) Calotropis sp (B) Catharanthus sp
(C) Jatropha sp (D) Delonix sp
24. Among the following which country has lowest per capita green house gas emission ?
(A) France (B) India
(C) China (D) Mexico
25. Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act 1974, industries are allowed to release
waste in inland water having BOD level
(A) 100 mg/l (B) 30 mg/l
(C) 150 mg/l (D) 80 mg/l
26. Richael Carsson in her book Silent Spring has raised concern on
(A) Economical & social impacts
(B) Deforestation
(C) Climate change
(D) Impacts of agro-chemicals on ecological functions
Paper-II 4 D-8909
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27. The term oligotrophic refers to
(A) Higher nutrients in water (B) High aquatic productivity
(C) Low nutrients and low productivity (D) Algal blooms
28. Following initiative under International efforts made to have household eco-friendly
refrigerators :
(A) Kyoto Protocol (B) Basal Convention
(C) Montreal Protocol (D) CITES
29. The ‘mean’ that stands for relative importance of different items in a data set is
(A) Weighted mean (B) Harmonic mean
(C) Arithmetic mean (D) Geometric mean
31. Which statistical device helps in analysing the co-variation of two or more variables ?
(A) Regression (B) Correlation
(C) Standard deviation (D) Mean of the variables
35. The size distribution of particles in soil and sediments generally follow
(A) binomial distribution (B) normal distribution
(C) linear distribution (D) log-normal distribution
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36. Maximum density of water is at
(A) 0 °C (B) 100 °C
(C) – 4 °C (D) 4 °C
42. How many sites as potential areas for biosphere reserves have been identified by the
National MAB Committee for the Department of Environment ?
(A) 13 (B) 23
(C) 33 (D) 43
Paper-II 6 D-8909
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43. Which one of the following is not a permitting cryoprotectant ?
(A) Glycerol (B) DMSO
(C) Sucrose (D) 1, 2 – propanediol
47. CITES has following schedules in order of priority to protect animals and plants from
trade :
(A) Schedule I, II, III (B) Schedule I, I, III
(C) Schedule III, III, I (D) Schedule II, I, III
50. Which one of the following air pollution control device has highest efficiency in
controlling dust ?
(A) Wet Scruber (B) Electrostatic precipitator
(C) Venturi Scruber (D) Cyclonic spray scruber
__________
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions, each question carrying two
(2) marks. Attempt all the questions.
1. What are the steps necessary for 5. Nanda Devi and Sunderbans are
sustainable management of examples of Indian
renewable resources ? (A) National Parks
(A) Avoiding over-exploitation (B) Sanctuaries
and pollution of biotic (C) International heritage areas
systems. (D) Biosphere reserves
(B) Strengthening the resource
base and augmenting 6. Match the List – I and II and select
regenerability of biotic the correct answer from the codes
systems. given below the lists :
List – I List – II
(C) Use of alternative resources.
(Analytical (Measured
(D) All of these. techniques) items)
(a) XRF 1. Functional
groups
2. Fluxes of heat, water vapour and
momentum are constant in (b) Nephelometry 2. Elements
(c) IR 3. Turbidity
(A) upper atmosphere spectroscopy
(B) middle atmosphere (d) UV-visible 4. Aromatics
(C) Ekman layer spectroscopy
Codes :
(D) surface boundary layer
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 2 3 1
3. Inversions occur when atmosphere is (B) 1 3 4 2
(A) unstable (C) 3 2 4 1
(B) neutral (D) 2 3 1 4
(C) slightly stable
7. The pH of a 0.001 M solution of HCl
(D) most stable is
(A) 2 (B) 4
4. When one species limits access of (C) 3 (D) 1
another species to a resource
regardless of whether the resource is 8. The primitive atmosphere of earth
abundant or scarce, it is called consisted of
(A) interspecific competition (A) CO2, NO2, NH3, SO2
(B) intraspecific competition (B) H2, NH3, CH4, H2O
(C) interference competition (C) CO, N2O3, SO3, H3N
(D) exploitative competition (D) He, Ne, Ar, Kr
Paper-II 2 D-89-11
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9. Which of the following is the major 14. Match the items under List – I and
source of mercury pollution in India ? List – II and select the correct
(A) Coal based thermal power answer using codes given below :
plants List – I List – II
(B) Pesticides (a) Tissue (i). Green
(C) Dental amalgam fillings culture revolution
(D) Electrical and electronic technique
gadgets (b) Vermiculture (ii). Storage of
technique propagules
10. Nitrite causes methaemoglobinemia (c) Breeding (iii). Micro-
by technique propagation
(A) oxidizing membrane proteins (d) Cryo (iv). Organic
(B) reacting with calcium of bones preservation farming
technique
(C) oxidizing haemoglobin
Codes :
(D) oxidizing membrane lipids
(a) (b) (c) (d)
11. Solubility (S) of a sparingly soluble (A) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
salt of the type AB is related to the (B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
solubility product (KSP) by the (C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
relation
(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
2
(A) S = KSP (B) S = 2 KSP
(C) S= KSP (D) S = KSP 15. Successive increase in concentration
of some chemicals through different
food level organisms is called
12. The amount of biomass which can be (A) Biogeochemical cycle
sustained under steady state
(B) Biological magnification
condition of an ecosystem is termed
as (C) Chemical production
(A) Primary productivity (D) Biodegradation
(B) System homeostasis
(C) Sustainable yield 16. Which of the following is a correct
sequence found in a grassland
(D) Carrying capacity ecosystem ?
(A) Grasses → Diatoms → deer →
13. Which of the following regions dog
generally possess large diversity in
(B) Grasses → rabbit → wolves →
their species composition ?
tiger
(A) Arctic regions
(C) Trees → birds → hawks →
(B) Antarctic regions wolves
(C) Snow-clad mountains (D) Grasses → snakes → deer →
(D) Subtropical regions dog
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17. Reservoir triggered seismicity in 22. The maximum value of power
case of hydropower projects with coefficient for a wind turbine can be
large pondage is most likely to occur (A) 0.59 (B) 0.49
when (C) 0.92 (D) 0.72
(A) thrust fault passes through the
reservoir
23. Average value of solar insolation
(B) strike-slip fault passes through w
the reservoir at the earth’s surface is
m2
(C) Large flood strikes the project (A) 250 (B) 350
(D) Final reservoir level drops (C) 450 (D) 550
18. Where the amplitude of Tsunami 24. Fuel cells are devises that generate
waves would be maximum ? electricity by converting the energy
(A) At Deep Ocean released by
(B) Near the Coast (A) electrochemical reactions
(C) On Flood Plains without going through
combustion process.
(D) At Mid Oceanic Ridges
(B) biochemical reactions without
going through combustion
19. Given below are scales of four process.
topographic maps. Maps of which
scale will have more clarity ? (C) electrochemical reactions
involving combustion process
(A) 1 : 50,000
(D) biochemical reactions
(B) 1 : 25,000 involving combustion process
(C) 1 : 250,000
(D) 1 : 1,000,000 25. Chemically coal is composed of
(i) Carbon
20. Soil surveys involve which of the (ii) Hydrogen
following ? (iii) Oxygen
(A) Soil series mapping (iv) Sulphur and / or Nitrogen
(B) Soil depth mapping (A) All of above
(C) Soil horizons mapping (B) Only (i) and (ii)
(D) All of these (C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
21. As we go down the discontinuous
Bowen’s reaction series (Olivine – 26. Which of the following gases has the
Pyroxene – Amphibole – Biotite) the maximum global warming potential
(Na+K) / Al ratio increases from (GWP) ?
(A) 0 to 1 (A) Carbon-di-oxide
(B) 0 to 2 (B) Methane
(C) 0 to 3 (C) Nitrous oxide
(D) 0 to 4 (D) Water vapour
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27. Acid rain has pH 33. For efficient crop productivity, the
(A) < 7.6 (B) > 7 level (kg/ha) of N, P, K in soils
should, respectively, be
(C) ≤ 5.6 (D) < 1.6
(A) > 300, > 80 and > 360
(B) < 50, < 15 and < 120
28. Which of the following gases
facilitates formation of tropospheric (C) < 100, < 30 and < 180
ozone ? (D) 150, 50 and 240
(A) NO2 (B) SO2
34. Identify the correct sequence of
(C) CO (D) NH3 stages of obtaining Environmental
clearance for new projects
(A) Appraisal, Screening, Scoping,
29. The sound power from a voice
Public Consultation
shouting is 0.001 Watt. The sound
level in dB is (B) Screening, Public Consultation,
Scoping, Appraisal
(A) 90 dB (B) 60 dB
(C) Screening, Appraisal, Scoping,
(C) 30 dB (D) 120 dB
Public Consultation
(D) Screening, Scoping, Public
30. According to WHO maximum Consultation, Appraisal
permissible level of iron in drinking
water is 35. Assertion (A) : Cost benefit
(A) 1 mg/L analysis converts the benefits
(B) 5 mg/L from the development,
(C) 10 mg/L damages and control measures
into monetary values.
(D) 50 mg/L
Reason (R) : Cost benefit
analysis compares the cost of
31. The particle sizes associated with damage caused by
ambient aerosols in the atmosphere developmental activity with
have the range the cost of control measures
(A) < 100 µm adopted and provides the
(B) 5 – 10 µm optimum solution for a given
environmental quality.
(C) 1 – 5 µm
Which one of the following codes is
(D) < 1 µm correct ?
Codes :
32. An aquatic system is essentially a (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
single phase system while terrestrial (R) is the correct explanation
system is a of (A).
(A) two phase system (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
(B) three phase system (R) is not the correct
(C) four phase system explanation of (A).
(D) multiple phase system higher (C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
than having four phases (D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
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36. Match the items in List – I with 38. Hazardous substances have the
List – II and select the correct following attributes :
answers using codes given below : (A) Ignitability
List – I List – II (B) Ignitability, Reactivity and
(Developmental (Validity time Corrosivity
project) period for
(C) Reactivity and Toxicity
Environmental
Impact (D) Corrosivity and Toxicity
Assessment
Report) 39. Among bio-medical wastes, human
(a) Mining (i) 10 years anatomical wastes fall under
Projects category
(b) River Valley (ii) 30 years (A) 4 (B) 2
Projects
(c) Area (iii) 5 years (C) 3 (D) 1
Development
Projects 40. To test whether there is a significant
(d) Other Projects (iv) Limited difference between the means of two
period sets of observations, one employs
Codes : the following statistical technique :
(a) (b) (c) (d) (A) Regression
(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (B) χ2 test (chi square test)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) t-test
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (D) F-test
37. Match the List – I and List – II. 41. For any finite set of positive
Identify the correct answer from the numbers, which is the correct
codes given below the lists : relationship involving Harmonic
List – I List – II Mean (HM), Geometric Mean (GM)
(Domain) (Effects) and Arithmetic Mean (AM) ?
(a) Socioeconomics (i) Barrier to (A) HM ≤ GM ≤ AM
travel
(B) AM ≤ GM ≤ HM
corridors
(b) Wildlife (ii) Employment (C) AM ≤ HM ≤ GM
opportunities (D) GM ≤ HM ≤ AM
(c) Water quality (iii) Erosivity &
Erodability
42. The population (N) of an ecosystem
(d) Soil (iv) BOD and follows logistic growth. If K is its
environment COD carrying capacity, then the
Codes : environmental resistance is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
N N
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (A) (B) 1 –
K K
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) N2
(C) K (D) NK
(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (iii)
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43. For the following Poisson 47. About what percentage of earth’s
distribution drylands are deserts ?
2x e–2 (A) 10 – 20%
P(X) = x! ; X = 0, 1, 2,…… (B) 23 – 26%
the value of the mean is (C) 33 – 36%
(A) 2 (B) 4 (D) 43 – 53%
1
(C) 1 (D)
2
48. ‘Ring of Fire’ surrounds which ocean ?
(A) Indian Ocean
44. In the Gaussian Plume Model, the
plume rise, under neutral or unstable (B) Atlantic Ocean
atmospheric conditions, varies with (C) Arctic Ocean
the average wind speed (u m/sec) at (D) Pacific Ocean
stack height as
(A) u
1 49. Assertion (A) : Available data
(B) suggest that the first cells on
u
1 earth were anaerobic
(C) heterotrophs.
u2
1 Reason (R) : In the beginning, the
(D) 1 earth’s atmosphere probably
u3 lacked free oxygen.
Identify the correct answer :
45. Which of the following steps can be Codes :
used to raise the assimilative
capacity of natural systems ? (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
(A) Turn barren land into eutrophic
of (A).
system.
(B) Avoid concentration of (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and
polluting industry at a (R) is not the correct
particular place. explanation of (A).
(C) Both (A) and (B). (C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) None of these. (D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
46. Kyoto Protocol on climate change 50. Chemical formula for CFC-113 is
was envisaged in which year ? (A) C Cl2F2
(A) 1992
(B) C Cl3F3
(B) 1994
(C) 1997 (C) C2 Cl3F3
(D) 2002 (D) C Cl2F3
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PAPER-II
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
PAPER – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.
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8. The gaseous material which is used 13. The chemical used in a fermenter
for the synthesis of Methyl with molasses as a substrate is
isocyanate is (A) Diammonium sulphate
(A) Chloranil (B) Diammonium phosphate
(B) Sevin (C) Diammonium nitrate
(C) Phosgene (D) Diammonium chloride
(D) Chlorine
14. Which of the following is an example
of lotic ecosystem ?
9. During the determination of COD,
(A) Stream ecosystem
sulphanilic acid is added, because
(B) Pond ecosystem
(A) it maintains the acidic nature
(C) Bog ecosystem
(B) it precipitates the mercury ions
(D) Wetland ecosystem
(C) it oxidises nitrites to nitrates
(D) it reacts with ferrous 15. Which pyramid is always straight ?
ammonium sulphate
(A) Pyramid of biomass
(B) Pyramid of number
10. Which year was declared as (C) Pyramid of energy
International Year of Biodiversity ?
(D) Pyramid of number and
(A) 2002 (B) 2010 biomass
(C) 2020 (D) 1972
16. Which of the following type of
materials present in a landslide
11. The forest biome characterised by suggest that the movement was
3-4 tree species/km2 is rotational ?
(A) Tropical (B) Temperate (A) Rockflow, Debris flow,
Earthflow
(C) Boreal (D) Taiga
(B) Rock slump, Debris slump,
Earth slump
12. Which of the following is a type of (C) Rockfall, Debris fall, Earth fall
biodiversity extinction caused
(D) Rock topple, Debris topple,
primarily due to anthropogenic
Earth topple
activities ?
(A) Carboniferous rain forest
collapse 17. Which of the following parameters is
not a good indicator of contamination
(B) Permian – Triassic extinction in ground water ?
(C) Cretaceous paleogene extinction (A) BOD (B) Nitrates
(D) Holocene extinction (C) Silica (D) Chlorides
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18. On an aerial photograph, the distance 22. Assertion (A) : Tropical and
between the principal point and the subtropical seas are most
conjugate principal point is called suitable for OTEC.
(A) Relief Reason (R) : There is a certain
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26. In a salt gradient solar pond, the 30. Assertion (A) : Eruption of the
salinity generally varies from top to volcano Mt. Pinatobu in 1991
bottom of the pond as spewed sulphur clouds into the
upper reaches of the
(A) < 5% to ~ 20%
atmosphere. The following
(B) ~ 10% to ~ 30% three years were cooler.
(C) ~ 20% to ~ 35% Reason (R) : Sulphate aerosols
reflect sunlight away from the
(D) ~ 20% to ~ 40%
Earth.
Codes :
27. Which region among the following is (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct
not Atmospheric Brown Cloud and (R) is correct explanation
(ABC) hotspot ? of (A).
(A) East-Asia (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(B) South Africa and (R) is not correct
explanation of (A).
(C) Amazon Basin in South
America (C) (A) is correct (R) is incorrect.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(D) Australia
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (A) 30% (B) 50%
(C) 70% (D) 90%
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
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34. In EIA the baseline data describes 38. The Committee which reviews the
(A) The environmental Environmental Impact Assessment
consequences by mapping and Environmental Management plan
reports of a developmental project in
(B) Existing environmental status Ministry of Environment and Forest
of the identified study area is called
(C) Assessment of risk on the basis (A) Project Assessment Committee
of proposal
(B) Project Appraisal Committee
(D) Demographic and socio-
economic data (C) Project Evaluation Committee
(D) Project Estimate Committee
35. Which one of the following does not
belong to EIA methods used for 39. In a typical municipal solid waste,
assessing the impacts of least percentage of Ash is found in
developmental activities on the
environment ? (A) Textiles (B) Plastic
(A) Checklist (B) Adhoc (C) Leather (D) Rubber
(C) Network (D) Flexible
40. Highly inflammable liquid/chemicals
have flash point
(A) lower than 23 °C
36. The EIA report of a hydropower
project would be valid upto how
between 23 and 26 °C
many years after the environmental
(B)
between 27 and 31 °C
clearance of the project ?
(A) 5 years (C)
(B) 6 years (D) between 32 and 40 °C
(C) 30 years
(D) 10 years 41. Which one of the following does not
contribute to climate change ?
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43. Which one of the following 47. What is Ecomark ?
conditions would indicate that the (A) Label given to recycled
dataset is not bell shaped ? products
(A) The mean is much smaller than (B) Label given to an environment
median friendly products
(B) The range is equal to five times (C) Land mark indicating the
the standard deviation. boundaries of bioparks
(D) Label given to non-recyclable
(C) The range is larger than products
interquartile range.
(D) The range is twice the standard 48. An important source of Arsenic in
deviation. Municipal Solid Water (MSW) is
(A) Pigments in plastics
44. For degrees of freedom (df) > 1, the (B) Rubber products
mean (μ) of the t-distribution is (C) Batteries
(A) Zero (D) Household pesticides
(B) 1
49. Which of the following is not a non-
(C) depends on df formal Environment Education and
Awareness Programme ?
(D) 2
(A) Global Learning and
Observations to Benefit the
Environment (GLOBE).
⎡ 3 –1 ⎤
45. Which of the following is an eigen
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PAPER-II
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
PAPER – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.
www.examrace.com
8. The gaseous material which is used 13. The chemical used in a fermenter
for the synthesis of Methyl with molasses as a substrate is
isocyanate is (A) Diammonium sulphate
(A) Chloranil (B) Diammonium phosphate
(B) Sevin (C) Diammonium nitrate
(C) Phosgene (D) Diammonium chloride
(D) Chlorine
14. Which of the following is an example
of lotic ecosystem ?
9. During the determination of COD,
(A) Stream ecosystem
sulphanilic acid is added, because
(B) Pond ecosystem
(A) it maintains the acidic nature
(C) Bog ecosystem
(B) it precipitates the mercury ions
(D) Wetland ecosystem
(C) it oxidises nitrites to nitrates
(D) it reacts with ferrous 15. Which pyramid is always straight ?
ammonium sulphate
(A) Pyramid of biomass
(B) Pyramid of number
10. Which year was declared as (C) Pyramid of energy
International Year of Biodiversity ?
(D) Pyramid of number and
(A) 2002 (B) 2010 biomass
(C) 2020 (D) 1972
16. Which of the following type of
materials present in a landslide
11. The forest biome characterised by suggest that the movement was
3-4 tree species/km2 is rotational ?
(A) Tropical (B) Temperate (A) Rockflow, Debris flow,
Earthflow
(C) Boreal (D) Taiga
(B) Rock slump, Debris slump,
Earth slump
12. Which of the following is a type of (C) Rockfall, Debris fall, Earth fall
biodiversity extinction caused
(D) Rock topple, Debris topple,
primarily due to anthropogenic
Earth topple
activities ?
(A) Carboniferous rain forest
collapse 17. Which of the following parameters is
not a good indicator of contamination
(B) Permian – Triassic extinction in ground water ?
(C) Cretaceous paleogene extinction (A) BOD (B) Nitrates
(D) Holocene extinction (C) Silica (D) Chlorides
D-89-13 3 Paper-II
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18. On an aerial photograph, the distance 22. Assertion (A) : Tropical and
between the principal point and the subtropical seas are most
conjugate principal point is called suitable for OTEC.
(A) Relief Reason (R) : There is a certain
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26. In a salt gradient solar pond, the 30. Assertion (A) : Eruption of the
salinity generally varies from top to volcano Mt. Pinatobu in 1991
bottom of the pond as spewed sulphur clouds into the
upper reaches of the
(A) < 5% to ~ 20%
atmosphere. The following
(B) ~ 10% to ~ 30% three years were cooler.
(C) ~ 20% to ~ 35% Reason (R) : Sulphate aerosols
reflect sunlight away from the
(D) ~ 20% to ~ 40%
Earth.
Codes :
27. Which region among the following is (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct
not Atmospheric Brown Cloud and (R) is correct explanation
(ABC) hotspot ? of (A).
(A) East-Asia (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(B) South Africa and (R) is not correct
explanation of (A).
(C) Amazon Basin in South
America (C) (A) is correct (R) is incorrect.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(D) Australia
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (A) 30% (B) 50%
(C) 70% (D) 90%
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
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34. In EIA the baseline data describes 38. The Committee which reviews the
(A) The environmental Environmental Impact Assessment
consequences by mapping and Environmental Management plan
reports of a developmental project in
(B) Existing environmental status Ministry of Environment and Forest
of the identified study area is called
(C) Assessment of risk on the basis (A) Project Assessment Committee
of proposal
(B) Project Appraisal Committee
(D) Demographic and socio-
economic data (C) Project Evaluation Committee
(D) Project Estimate Committee
35. Which one of the following does not
belong to EIA methods used for 39. In a typical municipal solid waste,
assessing the impacts of least percentage of Ash is found in
developmental activities on the
environment ? (A) Textiles (B) Plastic
(A) Checklist (B) Adhoc (C) Leather (D) Rubber
(C) Network (D) Flexible
40. Highly inflammable liquid/chemicals
have flash point
(A) lower than 23 °C
36. The EIA report of a hydropower
project would be valid upto how
between 23 and 26 °C
many years after the environmental
(B)
between 27 and 31 °C
clearance of the project ?
(A) 5 years (C)
(B) 6 years (D) between 32 and 40 °C
(C) 30 years
(D) 10 years 41. Which one of the following does not
contribute to climate change ?
Paper-II 6 D-89-13
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43. Which one of the following 47. What is Ecomark ?
conditions would indicate that the (A) Label given to recycled
dataset is not bell shaped ? products
(A) The mean is much smaller than (B) Label given to an environment
median friendly products
(B) The range is equal to five times (C) Land mark indicating the
the standard deviation. boundaries of bioparks
(D) Label given to non-recyclable
(C) The range is larger than products
interquartile range.
(D) The range is twice the standard 48. An important source of Arsenic in
deviation. Municipal Solid Water (MSW) is
(A) Pigments in plastics
44. For degrees of freedom (df) > 1, the (B) Rubber products
mean (μ) of the t-distribution is (C) Batteries
(A) Zero (D) Household pesticides
(B) 1
49. Which of the following is not a non-
(C) depends on df formal Environment Education and
Awareness Programme ?
(D) 2
(A) Global Learning and
Observations to Benefit the
Environment (GLOBE).
⎡ 3 –1 ⎤
45. Which of the following is an eigen
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PAPER-II
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.
5. In an urban area, moist air at 27 °C has a mixing ratio of 50 gm per kg. Its virtual
temperature is
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6. Under aerobic biodegradation of DDT, which of the following compound is formed ?
7. Among the following heavy metals, which has highest concentration in earth’s crust ?
9. Which of the following gases has highest absorption co-efficient for solubility in water ?
(A) 5 g (B) 50 g
D-89-14 3 Paper-II
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12. Which of the following is the in-situ biodiversity conservation site ?
(A) Arboretum (B) Botanical garden
(C) Biosphere reserve (D) Orchidarium
13. The largest unit of climax communities representing well defined climatic zone is referred
to as
(A) Biosphere (B) Biome
(C) Biota (D) Landscape
14. An active, adaptive control process which is able to maintain the overall balance is known
as
(A) Bohr’s Hypothesis (B) Miller Hypothesis
(C) Gaia Hypothesis (D) Kepler’s Law
16. Out of the total fresh water volume of the frozen form constitutes
(A) 60 % (B) 70 %
(C) 80 % (D) 50 %
Paper-II 4 D-89-14
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18. Particles with a diameter smaller than 0.002 mm are classed as
(B) Loam
21. In an ideal MHD power generator, the maximum power P output varies with the velocity
(u) of conducting fuel as
22. Which is the most efficient energy source for producing electricity ?
D-89-14 5 Paper-II
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23. Which of the following types of coal has highest water content ?
(A) Anthracite
(C) Lignite
(A) Coal
(B) Uranium
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Water
26. The mountain that rises a kilometre or more above the surrounding sea floor is called
(B) Atoll
(C) Seamount
Paper-II 6 D-89-14
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27. Which form of As is most toxic ?
(B) Leq
(C) L50
30. According to National Ambient Air Quality Standards the annual average concentration of
SPM in a residential area should not exceed
D-89-14 7 Paper-II
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32. EIA of mining activities involve impact assessment on
I. Geological Environment
Codes :
35. A developmental project requires both environmental clearance as well as approval under
Paper-II 8 D-89-14
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36. The best practice of disposal of construction and demolition (C & D) debris is
38. Kyoto Protocol of 1997 introduced the concept of carbon trading in the year of
D-89-14 9 Paper-II
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41. The geometric mean of the numbers 4, 6 and 9 is
(A) 6 (B) 8
(C) 5 (D) 7
(C) Census
43. The term ‘parameter’ is an attribute associated with the data pertaining to
44. A solar cell of surface area = 5 cm2 delivers a current of 0.1 A at 0.6 V. If the intensity of
solar radiation impinging on the solar cell is 1.0 kW/m2, the efficiency of the solar cell is
(A) 6 % (B) 3%
(C) 30 % (D) 12 %
45. Assertion (A) : Living systems exposed to drought salinity and freezing show enhanced
levels of osmolytes.
Reason (R) : Drought, salinity and freezing stress induce water deficit.
In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
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46. UN Decade of Education for Sustainable Development is
49. The part of an actual resource which can be developed profitably in the future is
D-89-14 11 Paper-II
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Space For Rough Work
Paper-II 12 D-89-14
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
PAPER-II
Note: This paper contains fifty (50) multiple-choice questions, each question carrying
two (2) marks_ Attempt all of them.
1. The correct sequence of the decreasing order of abundance of the given elements in the
Earth's crust is :
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(A) iron, oxygen, silicon, aluminium
(B) oxygen, aluminium, silicon, iron
(C) silicon, oxygen, iron, aluminium
(D) oxygen, silicon, aluminium, iron
.c
2. Consider the following statement about the Himalayan orogeny :
(i) The orogeny resulted from the southward movement of the Indian plate
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(ii) The orogeny began about 25 million years ago
(iii) The orogeny closed about 1 million year ago
(iv) The Himalaya have a root of relatively light crustal rock projecting in the denser
=rnle
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Of the statements :
(A) (i) and (li) are correct
(B) (iii) and (iv) are correct
m
J-8906
5. Whlch one of the followllig pall-s of metals is commonly associated with copper ores ?
(A) Gold and molybdenum (B) Tin and lead
(C) J\.fangaTif<se and chromium (D) Platinum and nickel
6. In a vertical section across a sulphide deposit, the site representing the best situation for
supergene enrichment would be :
(A) above the water table (B) below the water table
(C) in the oxidation zoTif< (D) in the zoTif< rich in humus
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7. Who coined the tenn "Chronobiology" ?
(A) Franz Halberg (B) M.K. Chandrasekhar
(C) D.S. Farner (D) E. Bunning
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8. Addrainisdueto:
(A) production of S0 2 gas
(B) sセ@ gas converted to H 2S04
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(C) production of C02
(D) Hydrocarbon containing varying amount of hydrogen and carbon
If noctumal animal in the light dark cycle of 12 h light and 12 h dar:kn£,ss kept in constant
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9.
dar:kn£,ss for 10 days, then what will happen to the on set of its daily activities :
(A) start earlier than what was before
(B) start later than what was before
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10. Whenever there is high BOD, DO is less so much that fish cannot survive, because :
(A) Fish utilize all oxygen (B) Bacteria utilize all oxygen
(C) Algae utilize all oxygen (D) Biological compounds are toxic to fish
.e
11. The drinking water contaminated with E. Coli is not safe even after ordinary filtration,
but if subjected to RO treabnent it is much safe, because :
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12. In a water body, there was food chain starting from planton to eagle. 0.3 PPT DDT
was the coru:entration in the water, but in eagle's body it was found to be 25 PPNI,
This'
(A) phenomenon is called as bioabsorption
(B) phenomenon is called as biodesorption
(C) phenomenon is called as biomagnification
(D) phenomenon is called as biotransfonnation
J-8906 P.T.O.
'
13. For the vehicles using petrol OTif< must carry valid PUC. To get such certificate one
must have following parameters, in exhaust, below limits as prescribed by the
authorities :
(A) Oz 0 3 and SPM
(B) CO, HC
(C) CO and C0 2
(D) CO, C0 2 and the temperature of the exhaust
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14. You are estimating a 'X' compound by colorimetry. Final, stable colour is pink. Which
filter you will use to record your reading ? Filter having maximum transmission at:
(A) 420 run (B) 540 run (C) 660 run (D) 700 run
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(A) ltcausesmutations (B) ltisverysolubleinblood
(C) It is combustible gas (D) It strongly binds to heme
16.
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Separation of compounds in Gas Onomatography (GC) depend upon:
(A) Molecular weight
(B) Solubility in carrier gas
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(C) Solubility in stationary phase
(D) Solubility in carrier gas and liquid phase
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(C) MPTLC
(D) GC- MS/MS
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Which of the following instrument is most suitable to estimate heavy metals from the
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20.
effluent ?
(A) Chromatography (B) Atomic Absorption spectrophotometer
(C) Flame photometer (D) Electrophoresis
J -8906
'
22. Whlch one of the followllig is the microsymbiont in Azalia Anabaena symbiosis ?
(A) Azalia (B) Anabaena
(C) None of the above (D) Both (A) and (B)
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24. The scientist who got the first patent for geTif<tically modified bacterium used for
biodegradation of oil :
(A) Wickerham (B) Chakraborty (C) Khurana (D) Beijemick
25. U.guminous plants are recommended for rotation of crops, because they :
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(A) kill insects (B) require little amount of water
(C) help in nitrogen fixation (D) are cash crops
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26. The compounds responsible for the proliferation of algal blooms in water bodies are :
(A) Nitrates and chlorides (B) Nitrates and phosphates
(C) Phosphates and silicates (D) Nitrates and carbonates
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27. Whlch of the chlorinf< compound is used for the disinfection of municipal supply water?
(A) Hypochlorite (B) Calcium chloride
(C) Potassium pennanganate
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(D) l\1agnesium chloride
30. The pinK colouration of the root nodules of leguminous plants is due to :
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31. Upto 100 km, the scale length of the variation in pressure with altitude is :
(A) - 12 km (B) - 1.8 km (C) -7 km (D) - 3.2 km
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J-8906 P.T.O.
34. For a Binomial distr:ibutionifp is the probability of happening of aneventandq セQMーL@
then the variaru:e in a sample of N observations would be :
35. In fusion reaction involving Deuterium atoms D+ dセhNLj@ +n +X, the eTif<rgy released
Xis:
(A) - 17.6 ]l..ff,V (B) - 32 MeV (C) -1 MeV (D) -4MeV
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36. Which of the following noise indices is used in ascertaining the quality of noise
environment according to VIIHO standards ?
(A) Lso (B) Lw
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(C) Leq for 8 hours (D) Instantaneous sound pressure level
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(A) -57% (B) - 85% (C) - 90% (D) - 80%
38. Cost- Benefit Analysis seeks to analyse cost and benef:ita of a project in tenns of :
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(A) Monetary gains
(B) Social gain/loss
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(C) Environmental and moTif<tary gains/losses
(D) Social and Environmental costa and gains
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39. The size distribution of suspended particulate matter in urban environment tends to
follow which of the following distributions :
(A) Binomial (B) Poisson (C) Nonnal (D) Lognonnal
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J -8906
'
43. The National ambient air quality standard for Respirable Suspended Particulate ]\.fatter
(RSPM) in residential area recommends annual average coru:entrations in (l!.gjm3) not
exceeding :
(A) 100 )J.g/m3 (B) 200 )J.g/m 3 (C) 400 )J.g/m3 (D) 500 )J.g/m3
44. For dumping of radio active nuclear waste which of the following is the recommended
site:
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(A) Saltmines (B) Oceans (C) Deserts (D) River beds
45. Which of the following coal types has the highest calorific value ?
(A) Peat セI@ Ugnite (C) Anthracite (D) Bituminous
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"· Which is the largest ecosystem in the world ?
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(A) Forests セI@ Deserts (C) Oceans (D) Rivers
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A)istruebut(R)isfalse
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49. A protein can be fanned from any sequence of amino adds. How many different
sequeru:es can be obtained from a protein composed of 100 amino acids ?
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-0 0 0-
J -8906 P.T.O.
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
PAPER-II
Note: This paper contains fifty (50) multiple-choice questions, each question carrying
two (2) marks_ Attempt all of them.
om
(A) Most Fjords were formed due to raise in sea level after the melting of
PleistoceTif< ice
(B) It is an emergent coast that was originally submerged
(C) It is a long narrow inlet of the sea bound by steep slopes
.c
(D) It is a glaciated valley that has been inundated by the sea
2.
between 'd' and 'V' is given by :
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Given 'd' as particle size and 'V' settling velocity in em/ sec_, the correct relationship
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(A) カセM
'
d"
セI@
m
カセ、ョ@
(C) カセ、@
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(D) カセM
'
d"
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4. Hyperplasia means:
(A) excessive motility of a muscle
(B) Voracious eating
(C) Abnonnal increase in number of cells
(D) An iru:rease in size of a cell
J-8907
5. Carbon dioxide absorbs radiation in the range :
(q 8 to 13 microns
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6. Sodium is usually estimated by which of the following analytical technique:
.c
(A) Flame Photometry
(B) Coulometry
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(Q High pressure liquid chromatography
c=•
(A) Oxygen and Silicon
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(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(Q (A)istruebut(R)isfalse
J -8907 P.T.O.
'
9. The chemical composition of CFC-115 is:
(A) C 2F5 Cl
(B) C 2FC15
(C) CHOF2
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10. J\.faximum Density of water is at:
(A) 4°C
(B) ooc
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(C) 100°C
(D) 27YC
セI@ Arsenic
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(C) Mercury
(D) Chromium
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12. Which of the following pattem of evolution accounts for all the diversity present on
earth today ?
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(A) Microevolution
(C) Biodiversity
(D) Speciation
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13. Group of individuals of the same species that share common attributes are called :
(A) Community
セI@ Population
(C) &otype
(D) Society
J -8907
'
14. Whlch one of the followllig is the correct food chain?
om
15. l\1ab:h the items in List- I with List- II and select the correct answers using codes
given below :
.c
Ust- I Ust- II
ce
セI@ Fog bow (ii) Herbivorous plants
Code:
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(b) (c) (d)
(A) '"'
(i) (li) (iii) (lv)
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"'
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16. Assertion (A) : ]l..funsoonal rainfall is very high both on the west coast and northeast
India.
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Reason (R) : The duration of monsoon over west coast and northeast India is longer
than other parts of India.
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(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
J -8907 P.T.O.
17. l\1ab:h the climatic categories in List- II for places in List- I using the codes given
below:
Ust- I Ust- II
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(d) Shillong (iv) Per Humid
Code:
.c
(b) (c) (d)
(A)
'"'
(ii) (iii) (i) (lv)
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セI@ (iv) (ii) (iii)
18. l\1ab:h the items in List - I with List - II and select the correct answers using codes
given below :
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Ust- I Ust- II
Code:
J-8907
'
19. Whlch one of the following statements reganling ELNINO is NOT true ?
(A) It is an extension of equitorial current towards the westem coast of South
America.
(B) It is an occasional wann currentleadingto an increase of about10T in subsurface
water temperature.
(Q It develops as temporary replacement of usual cold Peruvian Current.
(D) It causes an iru:rease in planKton thriving in cold Peruvian current.
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20. The process of alluviation indicates :
(A) Removal of particles from the upper layer of soil
.c
(B) Removal of particles from lower layer of soil
(Q Deposition of soil particles in sub-soil layer
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(D) Transportation of soil particles in the B-horizon
22. l\1atch the items in List- I with List- II and select the correct answer using codes given
below:
.e
Ust- I Ust- II
HセI@ CCC (>) Bhopal Gas Tragedy
co,
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(A) '"'
(iii) (ii) (lv) (i)
セI@ (iv) (iii) (i) (li)
(C) (i) (li) (iii) (lv)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
J-8907 P.T.O.
23. The global warrrringefficiency of a CFC molecule in relation to a C0 2 molecule is higher
by a factor of :
(A) 125
(B) 25
(C) 20,000
(D) 1500
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24. Arsenic problem in India is primarily due to :
(A) Overexploitation of arsenopyrite in the hinterland
(B) Overexploitation of coal in Bihar and Bengal
.c
(C) Overexploitation of ground water in the affected areas
(D) Overexploitation of surface water in the affected areas
27. Assertion (A) : Negatively charged soil particles attract positive ions like ca++ and
Mgff
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Reason (R) : The attraction keeps the ions at soil level for ready availability.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
J -8907
28. l\1atch the items in List- I with List- II and select the correct answer using codes given
below:
Ust- I Ust- II
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Intensity of sound expressed in level (Leq)
log scale is
.c
Code:
セI@
(ii)
(i)
(i)
(li)
(iv)
(iii)
(rii)
(lv)
ce
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(Q (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
29. Cost Benefit analysis is required in case of proposals involving clearance of forest
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land:
30. &ologically sensitive and important areas, breeding and spawnllig grounds of marine
life etc., are categorized in coastal Regulation ZoTif< as :
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(A) CRZ-N
(Q 0\.Z -Ill
(D) CRZ _,
J -8907 9 P.T.O.
31. A management tool comprisillg a systematic, periodic and objective evaluation of how
well an environmental organization, management and equipment are perfonning is
known as:
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(D) Environmental audit
.c
(A) Centre for International Training in Endangered Species of VIT:ild Fauna and Flora
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Development
(C) Council of Indian Trade and Environmental Survey of VIT:ild Fauna and Flora
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(D) Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of VIT:ild Fauna and
Flora
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33. l\1atch the items in List- I with List- II and select the correct answer usillg codes given
below:
xa
Ust- I Ust- II
Code:
J-8907
34. The least preferred technique in the disposal of municipal solid waste is :
(A) incineration
セI@ composting
(Q land filling
(D) bricketting
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35. Bacterial decomposition of biological material under aerobic condition is:
(A) Fermentation
セI@ Fertilization
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(Q Contamination
(D) Composting
36.
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When you go for shopping. what are you expected to do to save environment?
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(A) Shop for products that have as little packaging as possible.
(B) In any store, use a bag even it is not T!ff<ded.
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(Q Do not reduce the frequency of shopping.
(D) Buy paper towels and napkins.
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37. l\1atch the items in List- I with List- II and select the correct answer using codes given
below:
.e
Ust- I Ust- II
Code:
(A) (a) and (ii)
J-8907 n P.T.O.
38. In the analysis of 15 water samples, Ca and Mg gave a correlation of +0.95. It
means:
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39. If a piece of metal weighs 10.2g in air, 8.6g in water and 7.8g in another liquid, then
what will be the specific gravity of the liquid?
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(A) 1.0
(B) 1.5
(C)
(D)
2.0
3.0
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40. The geometric mean of the numbers 2, 4, 8, 16, 32 is :
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(A) 12
(B) 16
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(C) 8
(D) 32
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41. The correlation coefficient between the variables X, Y as given in the following table :
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X e 0 9 11 14
' ' '
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is:
' ' ' ' '
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(A) -0.977
セI@ -0.517
(C) +0.977
(D) +0.217
J -8907
42. Climatic stress is caused by insufficient and/ or excessive regime of :
(A) Temperature
(B) Humidity
(Q Solar radiation
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(D) All the above
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(A) Calcium sulphide
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(B) Calcium carbide
(Q Calcium carbonate
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(D) Calcium chloride
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44. Which two of the following statements regarding ISO 14000 series of standards are
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(i) ISO 14000 standards are based on a principle assumption that better
envirollll"\ental management will lead to better environmental perfonnaru:e.
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(iii) ISO 14000 standsrds are market driven and therefore are based on voluntary
involvement of all interests in the market place.
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J-8907 P.T.O.
"
45. Organisms that generate eTif<rgy using light are :
(A) oligotrophs
(B) chaemorganotrophs
(C) chaemolithotrophs
(D) photoautotrophs
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46. Conversion of 2§4ru to 2§!u involves the following types of decay :
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(A) a and 13
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(B) aandy
(C) l3and y
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(D) onlyl3
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48. To conserve coral reefs the Govt. of India declared one of the following as marine
park:
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J -8907 14
49. Whlch OTif< of the following does not contribute to conservation of water :
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50. Particle size in soil can be classified as clay : 1-4 micron. Silt 4-62 micron.
Sand: 62-1000 micron ; Boulder: >1000 micron It is heru:e correct to suggest that in
nature particle size distribution follows :
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(B) Lognonnal distribution
(Q Unear distribution
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-0 0 0-
m
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J-8907 P.T.O.
Signature and Name of Invigilator OMR Sheet No. : ......................................................
(To be filled by the Candidate)
1. (Signature)
Roll No.
(Name)
(In figures as per admission card)
2. (Signature) Roll No.
(In words)
(Name)
Test Booklet No.
J8 9 0 8 PAPERII
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Time : 1¼ hours] ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE [Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 8 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
Instructions for the Candidates ÂÚUèÿææçÍüØô¢ ·ð¤ çÜ° çÙÎðüàæ
1.
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by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the
period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the question Ìô ¥æ·¤è ÂýàÙ-ÂéçSÌ·¤æ ßæÂâ Üè ÁæØð»è ¥õÚU Ù ãè ¥æ·¤ô
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Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. ÂýØô» ßçÁüÌ ãñÐ
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J8908 1 P.T.O.
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
PAPERII
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) multiple-choice questions, each question carrying
two (2) marks. Attempt all of them.
1. Assertion (A) : Sustainable development is necessary for the survival of human race
Reason (R) : Rapid economic growth without environmental concerns cannot be
om
sustained.
(A) (A) is true and (R) is false
(B) (A) is false and (R) is true
(C) Both (A) and (R) true but (R) is not the correct explanation
.c
(D) Both (A) and (R) true and (R) is the correct explanation
ce
(A) 2 - 3 km to 5 - 6 km (B) few km to 100 km
(C) few 100 m to few km (D) 10 mm to 1 km
ra
3. The mass of the earths mantle is approximately :
(A) 231025 gm (B) 8 131017 gm
(C) 4.0531027 gm (D) 3.131022 gm
m
4. When the environmental lapse rate is less than the adiabatic lapse rate, the atmosphere
xa
is :
(A) Stable (B) Moderately unstable
(C) Highly unstable (D) Neutral
.e
5. The standard hydrogen electrode, the pressure of hydrogen and hydrogen ion
concentration respectively are :
(A) 1 atm ; 10 m (B) 10 atm ; 1m
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J8908 2
7. Assertion (A) : Increased level of Arsenic in water is a health hazard.
Reason (R) : Arsenic has antagonistic behaviour with other metals, its dietary
requirement is in trace amount and shows speciation.
(A) Both (A) and (R) true
(B) Both (A) and (R) true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
om
8. One liter of water contains :
(A) 55.536.0231023 H2O molecules
(B) 25.536.0231023 H2O molecules
(C) 1.036.0231023 H2O molecules
(D) 100036.0231023 H2O molecules
.c
9. When terrestrial plant communities progress with time from successional to climax
ce
stage :
(i) Standing crop biomass increases
(ii) Net ecosystem productivity increases
(iii) Gross productivity per unit of standing crop biomass decreases
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(iv) Biomass supported per unit of energy flow decreases.
Which of the following combination is correct :
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii) (C) (i)) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii)
m
10. Assertion (A) : Hot spots are the region showing richness of endemic species.
Reason (R) : The distribution of endemic species are confined to a specific region.
xa
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
.e
11. Trophic structure may be shown graphically by ecological pyramids; which of the
w
following ecological pyramid will always have a true upright pyramid shape :
(A) Pyramid of numbers (B) Pyramid of biomass
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13. Those Planktons which have dimensions in the range of 2 - 20mm are known as :
(A) Micro plankton (B) Nano plankton
(C) Peri plankton (D) Pico plankton
J8908 3 P.T.O.
14. Assertion (A) : Plants are not auxotrophs.
Reason (R) : Plants can synthesize all the growth factors they need.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is false and (R) is true
(D) (A) is true and (R) is false
om
Reason (R) : Neutral pH favours the greatest populations of micro organisms.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is false (R) is true
(D) (A) is true (R) is false
.c
16. A majority of the antibiotics are derived from actinomycetes come from members of the
genus :
ce
(A) Nocardia (B) Streptomyces
(C) Micromonospora (D) Actinomyces
20. One of the purpose of secondary treatment of industrial waste water and sewage is
to :
w
environment care
(B) Control human population explosion, resource over use and deteriorating
environmental quality
(C) Halt and reverse the effects of environmental degradation to promote sustainable
and environmentally sound development
(D) Promote economic development and environmental with a view to reduce poverty
and faster human welfare
J8908 4
22. Eutrophication of water bodies is triggered by :
(A) Excessive growth of phytoplanktons
(B) Excessive growth of fishes
(C) Excessive inflow of nutrients
(D) Bright sunlight
23. Under montreal protocol, developing countries are required to phase out the HCFCs
by the year :
(A) 2030 (B) 2010 (C) 2020 (D) 2040
om
24. Identify the correct sequence of gases in the increasing order of their global warming
potential :
(A) CH4 < N2O < CFC < SF6 (B) CO2 < N2O < CH4 < CFC
(C) CO2 < CH4 < SF6 < CFC (D) N2O < CH4 < CO2 < CFC
.c
25. In a simple regression consisting of dependent variable Y, independent variable X and
random error term e, Y5a1bX1e , the expectation value < e > is :
ce
(A) 0 (B) a/b (C) b/a (D) (b2a)
26. If p and q are the probabilities of success and failure, respectively in a trial and N is the
total number of trials, the variance is :
ra
p q
(A) npq (B) npq (C) n (D) n
q p
m
27. If S54 is the standard deviation of sample size 20 drawn from a normal distribution
with standard deviation s52, the value of Ψ 2 (chi-square) statistic is :
xa
28. Under unstable atmospheric conditions, the plum rise (Dh) above the stack varies with
wind speed (u) at stack height as :
.e
32. The bacteria responsible for deposition of iron oxide in water pipes :
(A) Gallionella (B) Klebsiella (C) Thermococcus (D) Helicobacter
J8908 5 P.T.O.
33. Assertion (A) : In electrostatic precipitator corona discharge is used for removing
particulate particles from the gas stream.
Reason (R) : The corona discharge creates an electric field, which makes the particles
settle down.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
om
34. Which of the following affects the ozone concentration in troposphere :
(A) CO (B) N2 (C) SO 2 (D) CO 2
35. Assertion (A) : While characterizing the size of an aerosol particle aerod namic
diameter is used.
Reason (R) : The aerosol particle may be of irregular shape.
.c
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
ce
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
38. To increase the power output from a MHD power plant, which of the following
compounds is used :
(A) ZnO (B) Fe2O3 (C) Cs2O3 (D) SiO2
.e
39. Assertion (A) : Geothermal reservoirs with temperatures above 1808C are useful for
generating electric power.
Reason (R) : High temperature steam can be used to drive turbines to generate
w
electricity.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the ecorrect explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
w
40. The optimum range of wind speeds for wind power generation is :
(A) 2 - 4 m/sec (B) 1 - 2 m/sec
(C) 4 - 12 m/sec (D) 15 - 20 m/sec
J8908 6
42. In ocean regime carbonate compensation depth (CCD) implies :
(A) Precipitation of carbonate (B) Dissolution of carbonate
(C) Evaporation of carbonate (D) Sublimation of carbonate
om
(D) Change in DNA sequence may be due to generation of free radicals in the cells
44. According to the Public Liability Insurance Act 1991, what is the upper monetary limit
for drawing insurance policies by the owners for handling any hazardous substance :
(A) Rs. 5 Crores (B) Rs. 50 Crores
.c
(C) Rs. 500 Crores (D) Rs. 1000 Crores
ce
(A) handing over to hazardous waste management site
(B) burring 3 meters below the ground
(C) burring 10 meters below the ground
(D) incineration
ra
46. Which of the following industries do not produce hazardous waste :
(A) Electroplating (B) Chemical
(C) Sugar (D) Pharmaceutical
m
47. Four stages viz Initiation, Inventory analysis, Impact assessment and improvement
assessment are associated with :
xa
48. When industry with Red category is to be established, it is necessary to have public
.e
49. The National Ambient Air Quality Standard for 1 hour average concentration
(mg/m3) of CO in restricted area is :
w
50. For aerosol particles of size comparable to wavelengths of either shortwave radiation
or infra-red radiation, the following type of scattering takes place :
(A) Rayleigh scattering (B) Mie scattering
(C) Raman scattering (D) Brillouin scattering
-oOo-
J8908 7 P.T.O.
Space For Rough Work
om
.c
ce
ra
m
xa
.e
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J8908 8
PAPER-II
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions, each question carrying two
(2) marks. Attempt all the questions.
Paper-II 2 J-89-11
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10. In urban areas, the main constituents 14. Hyporhric biodiversity is linked with
of photochemical smog in winter (A) Ecotone of surface water and
season are groundwater
(A) SO2 + NOx + PAN (B) Ecotone of terrestrial and
aquatic ecosystem
(B) Hydrocarbons + CO + PAN (C) Groundwater
(C) Hydrocarbons + SO2 + PAN (D) Asian region
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19. Gutenberg discontinuity is found at 24. The maximum efficiency of a
the depth of commercial solar photovoltaic cell
(A) 333 km attainable today is in the range
(B) 700 km (A) 3 % to 10 %
(C) 1500 km (B) 12 % to 20 %
(D) 2900 km (C) 30 % to 40 %
(D) 40 % to 50 %
20. Landslides are generally associated
with heavy rainfall because
(A) Water is universal solvent. 25. Which of the following does not lead
(B) Water enhances chemical to global warming ?
weathering. (A) Stratospheric ozone
(C) Water increases the weight of (B) Tropospheric ozone
overburden.
(C) Black carbon aerosols
(D) Water reduces the shear
strength of rock. (D) N2O
21. The optimal pH for Methane 26. The instrument used for
production ranges between determination of transparency of
(A) 7 to 7.2 water is
(B) 5 to 5.6
(A) Spectrophotometer
(C) 8 to 9.5
(B) Ekman dredge
(D) 2.3 to 4.5
(C) Conductivity bridge
22. Average life time (τ) and half life (D) Sechhi disc
(T½ ) of a radioactive substances are
related as 27. Which of the following is an aerobic
(A) τ = 1.44 T½ waste water treatment method ?
(B) τ = 0.5 T½ (A) Sludge digester
(C) τ = 0.63 T½ (B) Septic tank
(D) τ = 2 T½ (C) Percolating filter
(D) Imhoff tank
23. The maximum contribution to world
electricity generation from non-
28. Nitrogen Oxides (NOx) consist of
hydro renewable energy sources is
from (A) NO + NO2
(A) Wind
(B) NO + NO2 + N2O
(B) Biomass
(C) Solar PV (C) NO + NO2 + N2O5
(D) Geothermal (D) NO + NO2 + N2O + N2O5
Paper-II 4 J-89-11
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29. For controlling emission of 33. Assertion (A) : Environmental and
particulates from thermal power social impact assessment never
plants, the vertical wires placed in overlap with each other.
between the grounded collector Reason (R) : Environmental and
plates in an electrostatic precipitator social impact assessment are
are biased typically to voltages of effectively opposite ends of the
(A) + (100 V to 500 V) same spectrum.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(B) + (20 kV to 100 kV) (R) is the correct explanation
(C) – (20 kV to 100 kV) of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but
(D) – (100 V to 500 V) (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
30. Noise levels of 60 dB imply
atmospheric pressure perturbations (D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
of root-mean-square value
corresponding to 34. One of the best known matrix
methods for environmental impact
(A) 200 µPa assessment is
(B) 2000 µPa (A) Leopold Matrix
(B) Sphere Matrix
(C) 20,000 µPa
(C) Saratoga Matrix
(D) 200,000 µPa (D) Component Interaction Method
J-89-11 5 Paper-II
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37. The Air (Prevention and Control of 41. Which of the following statistical
Pollution) Act, 1981 was first attributes is used to test the null
amended in the year hypothesis in Regression Analysis ?
(A) 1986 (B) 1987 (A) Mean
(C) 1988 (D) 1990
(B) Standard deviation
Paper-II 6 J-89-11
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45. In a simple regression model 48. ‘Slash and Burn’ or milpa farming is
y = α + βx + E (where the symbols often blamed for
have their usual meanings), the (A) habitat destruction
expectation value of <E> is assumed
as (B) forest destruction
(A) 0 (C) hydrological imbalance
(B) y– (D) mine destruction
σ
(C) ; where σ is standard
2
deviation 49. Assertion (A) : Climate change is
2
(D) σ going to increase social
tensions in India.
46. In the Earth Summit at Rio de
Reason (R) : The frequency and
Janeiro, 1992, which of the
following was not an agenda ? intensity of the extreme
weather events will have
(A) Ozone depletion
serious consequences for food
(B) Global warming security.
(C) CO2 reduction targets
Codes :
(D) Biodiversity conservation
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
47. Assertion (A) : Most of the of (A).
corporate sector in India has
become conscious of the (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but
ethical dimensions pertaining (R) is not the correct
to its impact on environment. explanation of (A).
Reason (R) : Indian people are (C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
increasingly becoming aware
of the environmental issues. (D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
50. Snow blindness is caused due to
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A). (A) Ultra-violet radiations
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (B) Excessive flux of visible
(R) is not the correct radiations
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false. (C) Infra-red radiations
J-89-11 7 Paper-II
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.
1. For a clear night and with windspeeds 4. Protecting nature and the wilderness
< 3 m/s, the atmosphere is for its own sake is referred as
(A) stable (A) Deep ecology
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8. Which one of the following has 12. A local population genetically,
highest bioconcentration factor structurally and functionally adapted
(BCF) ? to its local environment is called
(A) DDT (A) ecotype
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17. The animals that rest or swim on the 22. The presence of ammonia in
surface of the lakes are called groundwater may indicate a nearby
(A) Nektons (A) coal mine
(B) Neustons (B) municipal solid waste dumping
(C) Benthos site
(D) Peritons (C) thermal power plant
(D) granite quarry
18. Which of the following is an example
of in situ conservation of biodiversity ? 23. Given below are statements in the
(A) Captive breeding context of a truly vertical aerial
photograph :
(B) Seed bank
(C) National park (i) The principal point, nadir point
and isocentre coincide.
(D) Pollen bank
(ii) Isocentre is the centre from
where the radial displacements
19. A biome contains of images take place.
(A) many ecosystems (iii) Tilt is a character of vertical
(B) many communities aerial photograph.
(C) many populations Identify the correct answer from the
(D) a single ecosystem codes given below :
(A) (i) only
20. In Bhopal gas tragedy, the quantity (B) (i) & (ii) only
of Methyl Isocyanate leaked into the (C) (i) & (iii) only
atmosphere was around
(D) (ii) & (iii) only
(A) ~ 180 tonnes
(B) ~ 60 tonnes
24. Kaolinite is a type of clay Mineral
(C) ~ 112 tonnes with layers of silicon and aluminium
(D) ~ 40 tonnes in the ratio of
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1:2
21. What is the sequence of arrival of (C) 2:1 (D) 3 : 1
seismic waves at a recording station ?
(A) P-wave, S-wave, L-wave, 25. In an ideal Magneto Hydro Dynamic
R-wave. Power Generator, the separation
(B) S-wave, P-wave, R-wave, between the plates = 0.5 m, magnetic
L-wave. flux density = 2 Wb/m2 and average
(C) R-wave, L-wave, P-wave, fuel velocity = 500 m/sec. The voltage
S-wave. developed across the plates will be
(D) S-wave, L-wave, R-wave, (A) 500 V (B) 1000 V
P-wave. (C) 2000 V (D) 5000 V
Paper-II 4 J-89-14
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26. If the wind speed in a certain area 31. Hardness of water is due to the
increases by a factor of 2 from 4 m/s presence of
to 8 m/s, the power output from an
(A) Calcium and Magnesium ions
ideal wind mill will increase by a
factor of (B) Strontium and Nitrate ions
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) Sodium and Chloride ions
(C) 16 (D) 2 (D) Potassium and Nitrite ions
27. Under Jawaharlal Nehru Solar
Mission of Government of India, a 32. Principal constituents of atmospheric
total of 20,000 MW of utility Grid brown clouds are
Power (including roof to solar
power) is sought to be installed by I. Soot
the year II. Soil dust
(A) 2020 (B) 2022 III. Fly ash
(C) 2025 (D) 2030 IV. Sulphates and nitrates
Identify the correct code :
28. In which country dry steam deposits
(A) I & II only
have been used as such for electricity
generation ? (B) I & IV only
(A) Italy (C) II, III and IV only
(B) Iceland (D) I, II, III and IV
(C) Austria
(D) New Zealand 33. The famous ‘London Smog’ was
observed in the year
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35. Surface litter layer on ground soil is 39. Arrange the functions associated with
also known as EIA in a sequential manner
(A) ‘O’ horizon (i) Identification
(ii) Prediction
(B) ‘A’ horizon
(iii) Defining the scope
(C) ‘B’ horizon (iv) Impact evaluation and analysis
(D) ‘C’ horizon Codes :
(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
36. Which one of the following
represents the correct Uranium decay (C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
series ? (D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(A) Uranium → Radium → Radon
→ Polonium 40. The role of State Pollution Control
Board in EIA is
(B) Uranium → Radon → Radium (i) Public hearing / consultation
→ Polonium
(ii) Issue of NOC
(C) Uranium → Radium → (iii) Collecting environmental data
Polonium → Radon (iv) Survey of fauna and flora
(D) Uranium → Radon → Codes :
Polonium → Radium (A) (i) and (iii) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
37. Hydropower projects with large (C) (iii) and (iv) only
reservoirs affect the environment by (D) (ii) and (iii) only
release of
(A) CO 41. Percentage of carbon in a typical
municipal solid waste ranges from
(B) CO2 (A) 50 – 60 %
(C) CH4 (B) 40 – 50 %
(D) NO2 (C) 30 – 40 %
(D) 20 – 30 %
38. Terms of reference is fixed at which 42. Which one of the following has
stage of EIA process ? maximum destruction and removable
(A) Screening stage efficiency ?
(A) Incineration
(B) Scoping stage
(B) Biological Treatment
(C) Detailed EIA stage (C) Chemical Treatment
(D) Project Appraisal stage (D) Landfill
Paper-II 6 J-89-14
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43. Wastes are known to be corrosive if 48. Two sets of data consisting of 10 and
the pH is 20 observations have same mean 8
(A) ≤ 2 with standard deviations of 1 and 2,
respectively. If the two data sets are
(B) ≤3 combined, then the variance is
(C) ≤4
(A) 3
(D) ≤ 5
(B) 2
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions, each question carrying two (2)
marks. Attempt all the questions.
4. When the full potential of physical,
1. Assertion (A) : Biosphere constitutes
an excellent life-support system chemical and biological factors, a
which is sustainable and can species can use if there is no
fulfil all human needs. competition, it is called
(A) Fundamental niche
Reason (R) : The size and (B) Ecological niche
productivity of the Biosphere is
(C) Realized niche
limited by availability of water,
(D) Competitive exclusion
nutrients and environmental
conditions.
5. The uppermost zone of atmosphere
Identify the correct code : of earth, where shortwave ultraviolet
Codes : radiations are absorbed, is
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (A) Troposphere
(R) is the correct explanation of (B) Stratosphere
(A). (C) Mesosphere
(D) Thermosphere
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
(R) is not the correct
6. Which of the following oxides of
explanation of (A).
nitrogen is the major air pollutant
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false. released from automobile exhausts ?
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true. (A) NO (B) N2O
(C) NO2 (D) N2O3
2. Geostrophic wind occurs when
pressure gradient force balances 7. Match List – I with List – II which
(A) Coriolis force contains pollutant gases and their
threshold (safe limit) values as per
(B) Frictional force WHO standards :
(C) Centripetal force List – I List – II
(D) Coriolis and frictional force (Pollutant gas) (Thresholds)
together a. CO i. 2 ppm
b. SO2 ii. 50 ppm
c. NO iii. 0.08 ppm
3. Scales of Meteorology are in the d. PAN iv. 25 ppm
following order starting from the Identity the correct code :
least Codes :
(A) Macro –, Micro –, Meso – a b c d
(B) Macro–, Meso–, Micro– (A) ii iii i iv
(B) iv ii i iii
(C) Meso–, Macro–, Micro–
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) Micro–, Meso–, Macro – (D) iii iv ii i
Paper-II 2 D-89-12
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8. The band labelled as UV-C which is 14. If different categories of threatened
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18. If ap = specified value of peak 20. According to Goldieh the decreasing
acceleration, N = mean rate of order of stability of following
occurrence of earthquake per year, minerals of igneous rocks towards
tep = time interval of consideration weathering is
(exposure period) and Fap = (A) Muscovite > Quartz > Potash
probability that an observed feldspar > Biotite
acceleration is less than or equal to (B) Biotite > Potash feldspar >
ap, then the cumulative probability Muscovite > Quartz
distribution of peak acceleration for (C) Quartz > Muscovite > Potash
epoch – dependent seismic hazard feldspar > Biotite
map is given by which formula ? (D) Potash feldspar > Quartz >
(A) Fmax tep = exp {–Nt(1 – Fap)} Muscovite > Biotite
(B) Fmax = exp {–Nt(1 – Fap)} tep
21. In universal polar stereographic
(C) Fmax tep= exp {–t(1 – Fap)N}
coordinate system the eastings and
(D) All of the above northings are computed using which
projection method ?
19. Assertion (A) : In oceans, Na has (A) Polar aspect stereographic
the longest residence time, projection
within an order of magnitude of (B) Non-polar aspect stereographic
the age of the oceans. projection
Reason (R) : The long residence (C) Polar aspect mercator
time of Na reflects a lack of projection
reactivity of sodium in the (D) Non-polar aspect mercator
marine environment by not projection
being readily incorporated in
the common sedimentary
22. Pitchblende is an ore of
minerals, nor being removed by
biological reactions. (A) Nickel
Identify the correct code : (B) Chromium
(C) Molybdenum
Codes :
(D) Uranium
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A). 23. Copper (Cu) is classified according
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but to its geochemical affinity as
(R) is not the correct (A) Siderophile element
explanation of (A). (B) Chalcophile element
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (C) Lithophile element
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (D) Atmophile element
Paper-II 4 D-89-12
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24. If ‘a’ is the fractional wind speed 28. Human activities add 7-9 gigatons of
decrease at the wind turbine, the CO2 per annum into the atmosphere.
maximum extraction of power from Major contributor to this CO2 is
the wind occurs when ‘a’ is equal to
(A) 1/2 (B) 1/3 (A) Burning of fossil fuels
(C) 1 (D) 3/5 (B) Clearing of forests for
agriculture
25. In the following fusion energy (C) Fermentation industries
reaction (D) Cement industries
D + T = 0n1 + X
identify X 29. According to WHO, maximum
(A) Li (B) H2 permissible level of chlorides in
(C) He3 (D) He4 drinking water is
(A) 100 mg/L (B) 200 mg/L
26. Assertion (A) : Natural gas is a very (C) 600 mg/L (D) 800 mg/L
attractive ecofriendly fuel.
Reason (R) : It produces few
pollutants and less carbon di- 30. Wilting coefficient of a loam
oxide per unit energy than any represents
other fossil fuel on combustion. (A) the minimum water content of
Identify the correct answer : the soil at which plants can no
Codes : longer obtain water
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (B) water holding capacity
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A). (C) capillary water
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (D) field capacity
(R) is not the correct
explanation of (A). 31. Which one of the following
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
techniques can be used for
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
determining the level of cadmium in
soil ?
27. Assertion (A) : Solar photovoltaic
cells are expensive. (A) UV – Visible spectrophotometer
Reason (R) : Solar photovoltaic (B) Atomic Absorption
cells are fabricated from Spectrophotometer
crystalline silicon and operate (C) XRD
only at 10-12% efficiency.
Identify the correct answer : (D) IR spectrometer
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and 32. For noise control in automobiles, the
(R) is the correct explanation of exhaust muffler attenuates sound by
(A). (A) Absorption
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is not the correct (B) Destructive interference
explanation of (A). (C) Reducing velocity of hot gases
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false. (D) Absorption and destructive
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true. interference
D-89-12 5 Paper-II
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33. Five particles (< 2-3 m) can be 37. Match the Impact Assessment
effectively collected from industrial Methodologies (List – II) with the
stacks by corresponding environments (List – I).
(A) Fabric filters Identify the correct answer from the
(B) Cyclone separators codes given below the lists.
(C) Venturi scrubbers List – I List – II
(D) Settling chambers a. Air i. Ecosystem
models
34. Soil fulvic acids are strong chelators of b. Biological ii. Gaussian
(A) Iron (II) models
(B) Iron (III) c. Water iii. Mass balance
(C) Both Iron (II) and Iron (III) approach
(D) Fe(OH)3 d. Land iv. G.I.S.
Codes :
35. Natural source of polycyclic aromatic a b c d
hydrocarbons (PAHs) is (A) ii i iii iv
(A) Root exudates (B) i ii iv iii
(B) Anaerobic bacteria (C) iii iv ii i
(C) Aerobic bacteria (D) iv iii i ii
(D) Grass fires
38. Public hearing is conducted
36. Match the ‘phase’ with the ‘activity’ (A) Prior to site selection
in Environmental Audit. Identify the
(B) Prior to approval of Terms of
correct answer from the codes given Reference
below the lists :
(C) After preparation of EIA
List – I List – II
(D) After environmental clearance
(Phase) (Activity)
a. Pre-Audit i. Human input-
39. IAIA stands for
output analysis
(A) International Association of
in relation to
Impact Assessment
economy
(B) Indian Association of Impact
b. On-site ii. Reviewing Assessment
Audit audit-check (C) International Assembly of
lists Impact Assessment
c. Post- iii. Records/ (D) Indian Assembly of Impact
Audit Documents Assessment
Review
Codes : 40. Municipal Solid Wastes (MSWs) have
a b c the heating value typically in the range
(A) ii iii i (A) 9,300 to 12,800 kJ/kg
(B) i iii ii (B) 1000 to 2500 kJ/kg
(C) i ii iii (C) 1780 to 2830 kJ/kg
(D) iii ii i (D) 530 to 780 kJ/kg
Paper-II 6 D-89-12
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41. The Motor Vehicles Act 1938 was 46. In the Gaussian Plume Model, the
amended in which year ? plume rise varies with Buoyancy
(A) 1972 (B) 1980 Flux Parameter F as
(C) 1988 (D) 1986 1
(A) F (B) F2
1 1
42. The following statistical test is used to (C) F3 (D) F4
ascertain whether there is significant
difference between the variances of
two sets of observations : 47. United Nations Conference on
(A) t-test Environment, also termed as Earth
Summit, was held in 1992 in which
(B) F-test
city ?
(C) Chi square test
(A) Rio de Janeiro
(D) Regression
(B) Kyoto
(C) Stockholm
43. The population (N) of an ecosystem
obeys the growth equation (D) Copenhagen
dt = N – N
dN 2
48. In which part of India, the tropical
where and are constants. The Western Ghats are situated ?
maximum sustainable yield of this (A) Punjab (B) Rajasthan
ecosystem will be
(A) – N /
(C) Gujarat (D) Kerala
(B)
(C) /2 (D) 2/ 49. Variety of different species, genetic
variability among individuals within
44. The geometric mean of the following each species and variety of
data : ecosystems constitute the so called
4, 10, 25, 10 (A) Species diversity
is (B) Genetic diversity
(A) 10 (B) 5 (C) Biological diversity
100 (D) Ecological diversity
(C) 12.25 (D) 49
D-89-12 7 Paper-II
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Space For Rough Work
Paper-II 8 D-89-12
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UGC - NET DECEMBER 2012
ANSWER KEYS (PAPER II)
SUBJECT : ( 89 )ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES
Q.No. SC89
Q01 D
Q02 A
Q03 D
Q04 A
Q05 D
Q06 A
Q07 C
Q08 B
Q09 B
Q10 C
Q11 D
Q12 A
Q13 A
Q14 B
Q15 C
Q16 A
Q17 D
Q18 A
Q19 A
Q20 C
Q21 A
Q22 D
Q23 B
Q24 B
Q25 D
Q26 A
Q27 A
Q28 A
Q29 C
Q30 A
Q31 B
Q32 C
Q33 C
Q34 A
Q35 D
Q36 A
Q37 A
Q38 C
Q39 A
Q40 A
Q41 C
Q42 B
Q43 C
Q44 A
Q45 A
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Q46 C
Q47 A
Q48 D
Q49 C
Q50 C
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▶ Examrace 463K
Paper 3 has been removed from NET from 2018 (Notification)- now paper 2 and 3 syllabus is
included in paper 2. Practice both paper 2 and 3 from past papers.
(B) 1 - 100 km
(C) 10 - 50 km
(D) 1 - 10 km
Answer: B
Answer: C
Answer: B
4. If air quality standard for carbon monoxide is 9.0 ppmV, the percentage as in at 1 atm.
at is
(A)
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(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: A
(B) Hydrocarbons
(C) Hydrazines
Answer: A
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.50
(C) 0.75
(D) 2.50
Answer: C
7. Match List -I with List -II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
M A P S A
Codes: a b c d
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(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 4 3 2 1
Answer: A
8. The gaseous material which is used for the synthesis of Methyl isocyanate is
(A) Chloranil
(B) Sevin
(C) Phosgene
(D) Chlorine
Answer: C
Answer: C
(A) 2002
(B) 2010
(C) 2020
(D) 1972
Answer: B
(A) Tropical
(B) Temperate
(C) Boreal
(D) Taiga
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Answer: B
12. Which of the following is a type of biodiversity extinction caused primarily due to
anthropogenic activities?
Answer: D
Answer: B
Answer:A
Answer: C
16. Which of the following type of materials present in a landslide suggest that the movement
was rotational?
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(B) Rock slump, Debris slump, Earth slump
Answer: B
17. Which of the following parameters is not a good indicator of contamination in ground water?
(A) BOD
(B) Nitrates
(C) Silica
(D) Chlorides
Answer: C
18. On an aerial photograph, the distance between the principal point and the conjugate
principal point is called
(A) Relief
(B) Tilt
(C) Photo-base
Answer: C
19. An equatorial west to east remote sensing satellite orbiting the earth at an altitude of 36,000
km is called
Answer: B
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Answer: D
21. Assertion (A): Groundwater may get seriously contaminated in coastal areas.
Reason (R): Groundwater overdrafts near coastal areas can contaminate groundwater supplies
by allowing salt water to intrude into freshwater aquifers.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: A
22. Assertion (A): Tropical and subtropical seas are most suitable for OTEC.
Reason (R): There is a certain minimum vertical gradient required for OTEC to
become feasible.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
Answer: A
23. On burning a certain amount of fuel a total of 500 million tonnes of is released to the
atmosphere. If the entire amount of remains in the atmosphere, what will be the rise in the
concentration of in ppm?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: A
24. A thermal power station has a heat rate of Its thermal efficiency is
(A) 30%
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(B) 36%
(C) 40%
(D) 25%
Answer: A
25. Assume that world coal production is 6.1 billion tons per year and estimated total
recoverable resources of coal are 1.1 trillion tons. How long it would take to use up those
reserves at current rate of production?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: A
26. In a salt gradient solar pond, the salinity generally varies from top to bottom of the pond as
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: A
27. Which region among the following is not Atmospheric Brown Cloud (ABC) hotspot?
(A) East-Asia
(D) Australia
Answer: D
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(A) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
Answer: C
(D) Fern
Answer: D
30. Assertion (A): Eruption of the volcano Mt. Pinatobu in 1991 spewed sulphur clouds into the
upper reaches of the atmosphere. The following three years were cooler.
Reason (R): Sulphate aerosols reflect sunlight away from the Earth.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
Answer: A
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: D
32. The efficiency of removing from the flue gas by limestone in wet scrubbers can be as
high as
(A) 30%
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(B) 50%
(C) 70%
(D) 90%
Answer: D
(A) 1 -2 m
(B) 2 -5 m
(C) 5 -10 m
(D) 10 -20 m
Answer: A
Answer: B
35. Which one of the following does not belong to EIA methods used for assessing the impacts
of developmental activities on the environment?
(A) Checklist
(B) Adhoc
(C) Network
(D) Flexible
Answer: D
36. The EIA report of a hydropower project would be valid upto how many years after the
environmental clearance of the project?
(A) 5 years
(B) 6 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 10 years
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Answer: D
37. If in the screening stage of EIA, the impact level of a developmental project is not
discernible, then what step should be adopted?
Answer: B
38. The Committee which reviews the Environmental Impact Assessment and Environmental
Management plan reports of a developmental project in Ministry of Environment and Forest is
called
Answer: B
(A) Textiles
(B) Plastic
(C) Leather
(D) Rubber
Answer: A
Answer: A
41. Which one of the following does not contribute to climate change?
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(A) NO
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: A
42. A population (X) in an ecosystem follows logistic growth curve. If the carrying capacity of
the system is K, the growth realisation factor is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: B
43. Which one of the following conditions would indicate that the dataset is not bell shaped?
Answer: A
44. For degrees of freedom (df) < 1, the mean (μ) of the t-distribution is
(A) Zero
(B) 1
(C) Depends on df
(D) 2
Answer: A
(A) 2
(B) 0
(C) 1
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(D) 3
Answer: A
46. Suppose a 70 kg person drinks 2L of water every day for 70 years with a chloroform
concentration of 0.10 mg/L (the drinking water standard), upper bound cancer risk for these
individual will be
(A) 17 in 1 million
(B) 25 in 1 million
(C) 37 in 1 million
(D) 5 in 1 million
Answer: A
Answer: B
(C) Batteries
Answer: D
49. Which of the following is not a non-formal Environment Education and Awareness
Programme?
(C) Eco-clubs
Answer: D
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50. REDD stands for
Answer: C
▷ NTA NET Paper-1 fully-solved question bank (including prior year problems), mock test
series, FREE video lectures, and online crash course: Our exclusive material coprehensively
covers the vast and evolving paper 1 syllabus.
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Paper 3 has been removed from NET from 2018 (Notification)- now paper 2 and 3 syllabus is
included in paper 2. Practice both paper 2 and 3 from past papers.
1. If the standard deviation of a population is 20 and the standard error of mean is 4, then
the sample size is
a. 25
b. 80
c. 5
d. 100
Answer: a
a. 2.5
b. 5
c. 25
d. 0.2
Answer: b
a. Stratified Sampling
b. Cluster Sampling
c. Systematic Sampling
d. Judgement Sampling
Answer: b
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4. In the Gaussian Plume Model, the plume size is estimated considering buoyancy of
exhaust gases, stack diameter, wind speed and stability of the atmosphere. The plume size
Dh depends on inside radius of stack (r) as
a. Dh µ r
b. Dh µ r1/3
c. Dh µ r2/3
d. Dh µ r2
Answer: d
a. CO2
b. Cl2
c. NO2
d. SO2
Answer: c
a. 97
b. 50
c. 10
d. 3
Answer: a
a. ~ 220 ppm
b. ~ 280 ppm
c. ~ 360 ppm
d. ~ 390 ppm
Answer: d
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a. Coordinate bonding
b. Covalent bonding
c. Electrovalent bonding
Answer: b
a. Lipids
b. Proteins
c. Nucleic acids
Answer: b
a. 0.1
b. 1
c. 2
d. 10
Answer: c
Answer: b
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a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: b
a. Biomass
b. Energy
c. Number
Answer: b
a. Periyar – Kerala
b. Ranthambore – M. P.
c. Panna – U. P.
d. Bandhvgarh – Bihar
Answer: a
a. Primary succession
b. Secondary succession
c. Autogenic succession
Answer: b
16. The area where two major communities meet and blend together is termed as
a. Ecotype
b. Biotype
c. Ecotone
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d. Meeting place
Answer: c
Answer: a
18. Walkley and Black rapid titration method is used for the determination of
Answer: a
a. Cellulase
b. Invertase
c. Protease
d. Dehydrogenase
Answer: d
20. Of the following humic groups which is not soluble in both acid and alkali?
a. Fulvic acid
b. Humic acid
c. Humin
Answer: c
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21. The sources of thermal pollution are
a. Power plants
b. Cooling forests
c. Industrial effluents
Answer: d
22. Which one of the following radionuclides has the longest half life?
a. C14
b. Sr90
c. I131
d. Cs137
Answer: d
23. What is the importance of the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution brought in the year
1976?
a. Insertion of Article 48 − A
b. Insertion of Article 51 − A 7
Answer: c
Answer: a
25. Which one of the following is a waste recycling method of solid waste management?
a. Pelletisation
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b. Composting
c. Incineration
d. Sanitary Landfill
Answer: b
a. Ignitibility
b. Reactivity
c. Toxicity
Answer: d
27. How many hot spots have been identified in the world and Indian Subcontinent
respectively?
a. 17, 2
b. 12, 3
c. 35, 2
d. 17, 3
Answer: c
28. Which one of the following chemical speces of mercury is highly toxic to living system?
a. Mercurous ion
b. Mercuric ion
c. Organo mercurials
d. Atomic mercury
Answer: c
a. Methane
b. n-butane
c. n-octane
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d. A mixture of n-octane and n-butane
Answer: a
30. Which of the following is true regarding the Leopold interaction matrix used in
Environmental Impact Assessment Process?
a. It can be expanded.
b. It can be contracted.
Answer: c
a. Exposure period
c. Quality of models
Answer: d
32. In India, Environmental Impact Assessment report of a proposed river valley project after
environmental clearance is applicable for a maximal period of how many years?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 30
d. 2
Answer: b
33. An earthquake is rated as ‘major’ if its magnitude in Richter Scale is in the range of
a. 4.0 – 4.9
b. 7.0 – 7.9
c. 6.0 – 6.9
d. 5.0 – 5.9
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Answer: b
34. What is the proportion of the frequency of occurrence of La Nina compared to El Nino?
a. Half
b. One-third
c. Twice
d. Two-third
Answer: a
a. 1 – 2 wt %
b. < 0.1 wt %
c. > 2 wt %
d. < 1 wt %
Answer: b
36. Which of the following is correct about attribute data in Geographic Information System?
a. Attributes are pieces of data that are connected or related to the points, lines or
polygons mapped in the GIS.
c. Attribute data is entered directly into a database where it is associated with element
data.
Answer: d
a. 5.8 m
b. 5.9 m
c. 5.7 m
d. 5.6 m
Answer: a
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38. Which one of the following can be estimated by Flame Photometer?
Answer: a
39. The contribution of CO2 towards global warming has been estimated to be about
a. 57 – 60%
b. 60 – 75%
c. 80 – 85%
d. 45 – 55%
Answer: a
b. SPM and CO
Answer: d
41. Match Lists – I and II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
b. V b. Natural sources
A B C D
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a. 2 4 3 1
b. 3 1 2 4
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 1 4 3 2
Answer: a
42. A river flowing at 20.0 m3/sec has a tributary feeding into it with a flow rate of 5.0
m3/sec. Upstream from the point of junction. The fluoride concentration is 5 mg/L in the
river and 10 mg/L in the tributary. Assuming fluoride to be conservative substance and
rapid mixing in the river, the downstream concentration in the river is
a. 6 mg/L
b. 8 mg/L
c. 8.5 mg/L
d. 7.5 mg/L
Answer: a
43. The power obtained from a horizontal wind turbine operating at maximum efficiency is
proportional to its diameter (D) as
a. D
b. D2
c. D3/2
d. /D
Answer: b
44. Noise of 90 dB for 8 hours represents 100% dose. If the nose of 93 dB is for 1 hour
duration, it represents a dose of
a. 25%
b. 50%
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c. 75%
d. 100%
Answer: a
45. Scale lengths associated with mesoscale phenomenon in atmosphere are typically in the
range
a. 10 – 500 m
b. 1 – 200 km
c. 100 – 1000 km
Answer: b
a. very stable
b. slightly stable
c. unstable
Answer: b
a. 320 – 400 nm
b. 280 – 320 nm
c. 100 – 1500 nm
d. 240 – 280 nm
Answer: d
a. NO
b. CO
c. CO2
d. NH3
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Answer: a
a. in Gulf of Khambhat
Answer: a
a. 45%
b. 30%
c. 12%
d. 50%
Answer: a
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▶ Examrace 463K
Paper 3 has been removed from NET from 2018 (Notification)- now paper 2 and 3 syllabus is
included in paper 2. Practice both paper 2 and 3 from past papers.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: b
Answer: a
3. In the redox reaction given below, which one of the substrates in forward reaction is
oxidized? 2Fe3 + + H2 → 2Fe2 + + 2H +
a. Fe3 +
b. H2
c. H +
d. Fe2 +
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Answer: b
4. If soil in a given area is wetted and allowed to drain till percolation is stopped, the amount
of water thus retained is called
a. Storage capacity
b. Capillary capacity
c. Hygroscopic capacity
d. Field capacity
Answer: d
a. 20 ml
b. 2 ml
c. 200 ml
d. 100 ml
Answer: a
6. The method which can be used for the softening of water having high calcium, high
magnesium-carbonate hardness and some noncarbonated hardness
Answer: d
a. Endangered species
b. Vulnerable species
c. Threatened species
d. Key species
Answer: b
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8. Specific mortality of members of a population is expressed by
a. Life table
b. Survivorship curve
c. Rate of mortality
d. Rate of fecundity
Answer: b
a. Fish
b. Amphibia
c. Reptiles
d. Birds
Answer: d
b. Nitrate to ammonia
c. Nitrate to Nitrite
d. Nitrite to Nitrate
Answer: a
11. The Phenomenon of having higher number of species in Eco tone is called
a. Dominance effect
b. Edge effect
c. Abundance
d. Frequency
Answer: b
12. Which specific common feature is not found in zooplankton and rabbit?
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c. Both are carnivores
Answer: c
13. The following exogenous and endogenous factors are the cause of extinction of animal
species:
a. Ecological niche
Codes:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 2
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
14. Positive mass balance of glaciers has been recently reported from
a. Eastern Himalayas
b. Nepal Himalayas
c. Western Himalayas
d. Karakoram
Answer: d
15. Which of the following will lead to reduction in greenhouse gases in atmosphere?
b. Volcanic eruption
Answer: a
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16. The unconsolidated material with highest permeability is
Answer: c
17. Which of the following component of cryosphere has the longest life?
a. Sea ice
b. Icebergs
c. Valley glaciers
d. Ice sheets
Answer: d
c. Alluvial soil
d. Permafrost
Answer: b
a. Biological activity
b. Erosion by wind
c. Erosion by waves
d. Volcanoes
Answer: d
a. ~ 45 %
b. ~ 30 %
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c. ~ 25 %
d. ~ 50 %
Answer: a
21. Consider an ideal wind power generator of the wind speed increases 3 times, the power
output would increase by how many times?
a. 3
b. 9
c. 27
d. 81
Answer: c
22. Identify the correct sequence in increasing order of total CO2 emissions from various
countries at present.
Answer: d
a. Dwarfism
b. Dermatitis
c. Thyrotoxicosis
d. Wilson's disease
Answer: b
24. What is the pE value in an acid mine water sample having [Fe2 + ] = 7.03 × 10–3 M and
[Fe3 + ] = 3.71 × 10–4 M
a. 10.5
b. 12.5
c. 14.5
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d. 18.5
Answer: c
25. Assertion (A): Chronic exposure to ozone is a possible contributor to forest decline.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: b
26. Identify the most dominant pollutant in terms of its concentration levels in urban
atmosphere.
a. Oxides of nitrogen
b. Oxides of sulphur
c. Particulate matter
d. Carbon monoxide
Answer: d
Answer: d
a. ~ 0.72
b. ~ 0.62
c. ~ 0.46
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d. ~ 0.38
Answer: c
29. The noise index Leq is used for noise standards in ambient environment of urban areas.
The prescribed duration of the integration associated with Leq is
a. 12 hours
b. 8 hours
c. 1 hour
d. 30 minutes
Answer: b
30. In alkaline soils, which of the following is not present in soluble state?
a. Phosphorous
b. Calcium
c. Nitrates
d. Potassium
Answer: a
31. Which one of the following is not a post audit activity under environmental audit process?
Answer: d
Answer: a
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33. In accordance with the Indian EIA notification 2006, within how many days if
Envronmental Appraisal Committee does not specify the Terms of Reference, the
proponent can go ahead with its own Terms of Reference.
a. 15 days
b. 45 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days
Answer: c
34. Which is the correct sequence for impact assessment process in EIA?
Answer: a
35. Quantifying the energy and raw material requirement as a part of life cycle assessment, is
termed as
Answer: c
36. Which of the following pertains to “high-waste approach” in dealing with the solid and
hazardous wastes?
b. Recycling
c. Composting
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d. Reusing
Answer: a
37. Assertion (A): Dumping of sewage to river water may decrease oxygen even below 4
mg/l.
a. Both (A) and (R) are true with (R) being the correct explanation.
Answer: a
Answer: c
a. 9.3
b. 8.0
c. 4.8
d. 10.2
Answer: b
40. The mean and standard deviation of a Binomal distribution are 9 and 1, respectively. The
first moment of the distribution is
a. 9
b. 3
c. 1
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d. 0
Answer: d
41. Which one of the following is used in manufacturing flexible plastic bags and sheets?
a. Polystyrene (PS)
d. TEFLON
Answer: c
42. Which one of the following is a non-formal environment education and awareness
programme?
Answer: b
43. Bio parks are conceived, developed and managed with a goal of conservation of
biodiversity through:
Codes:
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c
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44. In about a 7 metre deep pond the series of vegetation development will be
Answer: a
45. In terrestrial ecosystems, roughly how much NPP ends up being broken down by
decomposers?
a. 90 %
b. 70 %
c. 50 %
d. 10 %
Answer: a
46. Which of the following BOD level waste water is permitted to be released inlands by
industries under water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974?
a. 30 mg/l
b. 80 mg/l
c. 100 mg/l
d. 150 mg/l
Answer: a
a. medium alone
b. Fluid alone
Answer: d
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a. Hangul
b. Rhinoceros
c. Barking deer
d. Leopard
Answer: a
a. Durban
b. Johannesburg
c. Rio de Janeiro
d. Cancun
Answer: c
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▶ Examrace 463K
Paper 3 has been removed from NET from 2018 (Notification)- now paper 2 and 3 syllabus is
included in paper 2. Practice both paper 2 and 3 from past papers.
b. Natural regeneration
c. Tenancy reforms
d. Watershed approach
Answer: c
a. Aluminium salts
b. Sodium salts
c. Potassium salts
d. Magnesium salts
Answer: a
3. In which years the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands was held and came into force?
a. 1951, 1955
b. 1961, 1965
c. 1971, 1975
d. 1981, 1985
Answer: c
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4. The Stockholm Convention is a global treaty to protect humans from
a. Toxic gases
d. Carbon monoxide
Answer: c
Answer: d
Answer: c
a. – 1 to 14
b. – 12 to 25
c. 1 to 12
d. 0 to 14
Answer: b
8. Point out the right match concerning the toxic metal and associated adverse impact.
b. Ni – Keratosis
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c. Ar – Renal poisoning
d. Hg – Pulmonary disease
Answer: a
a. 1.45 mg
b. 5 mg
c. 7.25 mg
d. 14.5 mg
Answer: b
a. –3
b. 3
c. 10–3
d. 10–11
Answer: d
Answer: c
12. Which of the following parameters is not an indicator of water vapour present in a certain
quantity of air?
a. Virtual temperature
b. Potential temperature
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d. Dew point
Answer: b
13. The background noise level in an area is represented by which of the following noise
indices?
a. L10
b. L50
c. L90
d. TNI
Answer: c
a. CF2Cl2
b. CFCl3
c. CHFCl2
d. CHCl3
Answer: b
15. Match the List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
a. Mollisol a. Tundra
A B C D
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a. 3 4 1 2
b. 3 4 2 1
c. 1 2 3 4
d. 2 3 4 1
Answer: a
16. Particles which have maximum ability to attract and hold K +, Ca + + and NH4 + ions on
their surface are
a. Clay
b. Sand
c. Loam
d. Loamy sand
Answer: a
a. 5 – 10 times more
b. 20 – 25 times more
c. 40 – 45 times more
d. 60 – 65 times more
Answer: b
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Answer: a
19. Universally accepted method for isolating semivolatile organic compounds from their
matrices is
a. Double infiltration
b. Solvent extraction
c. Sedimentation technique
d. Permeation
Answer: b
20. The relationship between two organisms in which one receives benefit at the cost of other
is known as
a. Predation
b. Parasitism
c. Scavenging
d. Symbiosis
Answer: b
Answer: a
22. Which of the following is not an IUCN-designated threatened species found in India?
a. Asiatic Lion
b. Bengal Tiger
d. Mountain gorilla
Answer: d
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23. Which of the following ecosystems has the lowest net primary production per square
metre?
a. A grassland
b. A coral reef
c. An open ocean
Answer: c
a. Primary productivity
d. Secondary productivity
Answer: c
a. Kerala
b. Uttar Pradesh
c. Maharashtra
d. Gujarat
Answer: a
a. Entisols
b. Altisols
c. Spodosols
d. Mollisols
Answer: a
a. Stabilization
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b. Aggregation
c. Ecesis
d. Migration
Answer: c
a. Neritic region
b. Pelagic region
c. Estuary region
d. Benthic region
Answer: b
a. Mercury
b. Lead
c. Arsenic
d. Carbon monoxide
Answer: c
Answer: c
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Answer: a
a. GRACE
b. TRMM
c. ASTER
d. SPOT
Answer: b
a. Tectosilicates
b. Sorosilicates
c. Inosilicates
d. Phyllosilicates
Answer: d
a. DEM
b. SRTM
c. Topographic Sheets
Answer: d
Answer: c
a. Rocky shore
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b. Sandy shore
c. Muddy shore
d. Clayey shore
Answer: d
a. Spring tide
b. Neap tide
c. Perigean tide
d. Apogean tide
Answer: b
38. Consider an ideal wind mill. For following parameters: Vane cross-sectional area = 30 m2;
wind speed = 10 m/s; density of air = 1.29 kg/m3 and conversion efficiency = 0.4 What is
the power output of the wind mill?
a. ~ 5.24 kW
b. ~ 8.21 kW
c. ~ 10.25 kW
d. ~ 7.74 kW
Answer: d
Answer: b
40. At present, what is the share of renewable energy in the total energy production of India?
a. ~ 11 – 12%
b. ~ 2 – 3%
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c. ~ 20%
d. ~ 25 – 30%
Answer: a
41. If all of the atmosphere were at standard temperature and pressure, then present day CO2
concentration of 392 ppm would correspond to how much carbon in the atmosphere?
a. ~ 415 Gt
b. ~ 831 Gt
c. ~ 1245 Gt
d. ~ 1620 Gt
Answer: b
a. Hazard identification
b. Disaster management
c. Probability expression
Answer: c
43. Reliable, quantitative and verifiable data used in Environmental Impact Assessment study
are called
a. Hard data
b. Soft data
c. Continuous data
d. Discrete data
Answer: a
44. Which category of projects does not require Environmental Impact Assessment in
accordance with the Indian EIA Notification 2006?
a. Category A
b. Category B1
c. Category B2
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d. None of the above
Answer: c
a. 1986
b. 1984
c. 1994
d. 1987
Answer: a
a. 10 m
b. 15 m
c. 30 m
d. 60 m
Answer: c
a. 1969
b. 1979
c. 1989
d. 1999
Answer: c
48. The events A and B are mutually exclusive. If P (A) = 0.5 and P (B) = 0.2, then what is P (A
& B)?
a. 0.5
b. 0.1
c. 0.7
d. 0.3
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Answer: b
a. Total population
b. Target population
c. Accessible population
d. Universal population
Answer: c
50. The rate of variation of population (N) with time (t) represented by equation dN/dt = γ N,
follows
a. J-shaped curve
b. S-shaped curve
c. Z-shaped curve
d. Parabolic curve
Answer: a
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om
.c
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
ce
ra
PAPER-III
m
NOTE: This paper is of hvo hundred (200) marks containing four (4) sections.
xa
D-8906 2
SECTION- I
Note: Th1s sechon con tams hve (5) queshons based on the follo'W!ng
paragraph Ea:h queshon should be ans"Wered m about t!-urty (30)
'WOrds and ea:h carnes hve (5) marks
(5x5=25 marks)
Read the pa5sage belmv, and answer the questions that follmv ba5ed on your
om
underrrtanding af the passage :
In rur quahty1mpact assessment meteorological chara:tenshcs hke churnat
seasonal and annual '\OJ!th parhcular reference to '\OJ!nd speeds and chrechons,
temperature mverswns, mctdence type and depth, both honzontal and verhcal
.c
turbulence, rruxmg he1ghls and mean layer '\OJ!nds are uhhzed Ma:ro-, meso-,
and rrucro-meteorolo&cal charactenshcs are also to be noted
The ahnosphere has al'\OJaj!B been polluted to some extent through natural
ce
phenomenon and/or human achv1hes In recent hmes, technolog1cal
advancement mdustnal expans10n and urban1zahon have been the m31or
contnbutors to global atr polluhon .A!r polluhon adversely affects human health
ra
and property The !YlaJOr sources of atr pollutants are from transportahon, fuel
combushon, mdustr1al processes, non-transportal! on fuel combushon and some
natural sources such as '\OJ!ld hres
m
burnmg of fuel for heat and power, the processmg of matenal, and the chsposal
of '\'JaStes Alr polluhon, m short comes from those evety day achv1hes, V<.tuch
are so mtegral part of th1s modern advance soc1ety
.e
Produchon (GNP) per cap1ta to the energy use per cap1ta, shm.vs a pos1hve
correlahon
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D-8906 P.T.O.
1. VVJ-uch meteorologtcal chara:tenshcs adversely affect the atr quahty 7
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3. Hmv the greed of manhndis responsible for the mcrerue m a1r polluhon 7
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D-8906 P.T.O.
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5. Wnte the toXIc effects of sulfur choXJde 7
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SECTION- II
Note: 11-us sechon conlatns hfteen (15) queshons ea:h to be ans-wered m
about thirty (3J) worffi Ea:h queshon carnes hve (5) marks
m
(5x15=75 marks)
Write short notes on the following:
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6. Compos1hon of Ahnosphere
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D-8906
9. Cost b eneht analys1s "'"'th respect to EIA
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10. Deserhhcahon
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11. Esluaty
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12. Probab1h ty
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D-8906 P.T.O.
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13. Alr- borne chserues
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D-8906
15. Prmctples of coagulahon m "\'Vater treahnent
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16. El Nmo
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D-8906 n P.T.O.
17. Box Model
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D-8906
19. Wetlands
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D-8906 P.T.O.
SECTION- III
Note: 11-us sechon contams hve (5) queshons Ea:h queshon carnes twelve
(12) marks and iS to be ans"Wered m about two hundred (200) 'WOrds
(12x5=60 marks)
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22. "Global Warrrungis due to burrung of fossil fuel""- Comment on the statement VVhat
iS the current trend m Global Warrrung 7
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example frompeshctde group of Cherrucals
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24. VVhy iS Envuonmental Management Plan (EMP) necessaty 7 O!scuss various aspects
of EMP to rrumrruse enVironmental costs
D-8906
SECTION- IV
Note: 11-us s echon consis Is of one essay type q ues h on of forty (40) marks to
be answered m about one thousand (1000) words on any of the
followmg topes
(40x1=40 marks)
om
conservahon of bi ochversi ty
OR
(b) Discuss vanous natural hazards commonly encountered m the Indian
sub-conhnent
OR
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(c) VVhy iS Environmental Educahon necesscuy m the present day curnculum 7
O!scuss chfferent methods that may be adopted for suo:essfulimplementahon of
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EnVironmental Educahon m Incha
OR
(d) VVhat iS Hazardous Waste 7 Discuss various methods of safe chsposal of these
"\'JaStes Enumerate the chfhculhes m a:lualimplementahon of the same
ra
OR
(e) "Overexpl01tahon of natural resources leads to enVironmental polluhon""
Comment on the above statement and JUshfyyour "'"""
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OR
(f) Dehne EIA O!scuss m detrul E!Afor arrurungmdushy
OR
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(g) VI/hat are the sources of N01se Polluhon 7 Descnbe different methods of
measurement of n01se levels Enumerate the impact of n01se on human health
OR
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(h) VI/hat iS the prmciple of generahon of Hydroelectric Power VI/hat are the
enV!ronmentalimpa:ts of mega hydroelectric power proJects 7 How they can be
rruhgated 7
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D--8906 24
FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained
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D-8906
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ENVIRONMENTAL
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SCIENCE
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PAPER-III
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NOTE: This paper is of two hundred (200) marks containing four (4) sections.
xa
D-8907
SECTION- I
Note: This section contains five (5) questions based on the following
paragraph. Each question should be answered in about thirty (30)
words and each carries five (5) marks_
(5x5=25 marks)
om
resources subjected to iru:reasing stress due to population growth and economic
development_ Potentially forests cover about 34% of the earth's land surface, but
in the last four decades about half of the world's forests have been destroyed to
provide for croplands, rangelands, dam reservoirs and urban lands_ World-wide
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tropical forests are disappearing faster than any other terrestrial ecosystem_
Forests supply us wood for housing. biomass for fuel wood, pulp for paper,
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medicines and many other products_ The society receives many benefits, called
ecosystem services, from natural and managed forest ecosystems which perform
several vital ecological functions_ Forested watersheds act as giant sponges,
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absorbing. holding and gradually releasing water that recharges springs, streams
and aquifers_ Forests help control soil erosion and build soil fertility and reduce
severity of flooding and silting_
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Forests also play an important role in the global carbon cycle, acting as
defense against global wanning_ Through photosynthesis trees help remove
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carbon dioxide from and add oxygen to the air_ That is why the bush tropical
forests have been called "the lungs of the earth"_
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Forests provide habitats for a large number of wild life species, making
themselves the planet's reservoir of biological diversity_ Forests also help buffer
noise, absorb some pollutants and nourish human spirit by providing solitude
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and beauty_
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worth of ecosystem services_ Sold as timber the same tree may not be worth more
than Rs_ 25000_
D-8907 P.T.O.
'
1. The author is primarily concerned with :
(A) Describing reduction in forest cover
(B) Listing uses of forests
(C) Emphasizing economic value of forests
(D) Emphasizing the ecological significaru:e of forests
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2. Tropical forest area is getting reduced mainly due to :
(A) Global climate change
(B) Increasing population pressure and economic development
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D-8907
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3. Which of the followllig benefits pertain to unseen ecosystem services derived from
forests ?
(A) Supply of timber
(B) Supply of raw materials for medicines
(Q Supply of fuel wood
(D) Supply of potsble water
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4. The material in passage could be best used as an argument :
(A) To promote forest studies
(B) To emphasize conservation of tropical forests
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D-8907 P.T.O.
5. What is the most critical environmental issue associated with tropical forests within
the present day human time scale ?
(A) Rapid destruction
(B) Non-renewable nature
(C) Excessive extraction of timber
(D) Lack of conservation measures
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.c
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SECTION- II
Note: This section contains fifteen (15) questions each to be answered in
about thirty (30) words. Each question carries five (5) marks.
m
(5x15=75 marks)
6. Bioinoculants.
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7. Solid state fermentation.
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D-8907 P.T.O.
9. E:xtremophile.
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D-8907
11. Environmental audit.
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12. PlvGs
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15. Opitcal density.
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16. COD.
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17. Add rain.
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D-8907
19. Food chains.
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D-8907 P.T.O.
SECTION - III
Note: This section contains five (5) questions_ Each question carries twelve
(12) marks and is to be answered in about two hundred (200) words_
(Ux5=60 marks)
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22. J\.fa:rine Pollution in India_
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24. Bioenergy Potential in India_
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D-8907
SECTION- IV
Note: This section consists of one essay type question of forty (40) marks to
be answered in about one thousand (1000) words on any of the
following topics.
(40x1=40 marks)
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26.
(a) What is Bioremediation? Comment on bioremediation of soils contaminated
with oil spills.
OR
(b) Enumerate advantages and disadvantages of Genetically Modified Organism
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(GMOS) and their environmental coru:em.s_
OR
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(c) Signilicaru:e and approaches of biodiversity conservation_
OR
(d) Outlinf< the general priru:iples of analytical methods of water quality assessment_
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OR
(e) Environmental impacts of open cast coal minirtg.
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OR
(f) Environmental problems associated with mega-thennal power plants and remedial
measures_
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OR
(g) Approaches to restoration and rehabilitation of degraded ecosystems_
OR
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D-8907 24
FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained
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(in figures) _
(Evaluation) Date_
D-8907
Signature and Name of Invigilator Roll No.
1. (Signature)
(Name)
Roll No.
2. (Signature)
(Name)
Test Booklet No.
D8 9 0 8 PAPERIII
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Time : 2½ hours] ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE [Maximum Marks : 200
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 32 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 26
Instructions for the Candidates ÂÚUèÿææçÍüØô¢ ·ð¤ çÜU° çÙÎðüàæ
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D8908 1 P.T.O.
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
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PAPERIII
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NOTE : This paper is of two hund ed (200) marks containing four (4) sections.
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D8908 2
SECTION - I
Note : This section contains five (5) questions based on the following
paragraph. Each question should be answered in about thirty (30)
words and each carries five (5) marks.
(5x5=25 marks)
The eutrophication is the nutrient enrichment in a water body. A freshly
formed body of water has a very low concentration of plant nutrients. Little plant
om
life develops in such waters. Low primary production limits animal communities
as well. Surface runoffs, wind borne dust and organic debris, excreta and exudates
of animals which use water, slowly raise the nutrient content. Bacteria and
cyanobacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen. Phosphates in rocks and detritus at the
bottom are solubilized by the microbial activity. In gradual stages the nutrient
status of the water improves. A moderate population of plants, animals, aquatic
.c
fungi and other microorganisms develop. With the passage of time further nutrient
enrichment occurs. Dense population of plants, phytoplanktons and animals now
appears. At this stage, the aquatic system becomes highly productive in terms of
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fish yield and other produce. Based on nutrient status and productivity an aquatic
system can be classified into the following three types : The oligotrophic or water
with poor nutrient status and productivity; the mesotrophic or water with
intermediate or moderate nutrient status and productivity; and eutrophic or water
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with rich nutrient status with high productivity. In some eutrophic waters dense
population of planktonic algae develops, water turns green followed by unpleasant
odour referred to as water bloom.
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Answer the following questions :
D8908 3 P.T.O.
2. What results eutrophication ?
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D8908 4
4. Name the types of eutrophication.
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D8908 5 P.T.O.
SECTION - II
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6. Repetitive DNA ra
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D8908 6
7. Transgenic plants
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D8908 7 P.T.O.
9. Acid rain
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D8908 8
11. Marine spillage
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D8908 9 P.T.O.
13. Scanning Electron Microscopy (SEM)
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D8908 10
15. Internal structure of Earth
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D8908 11 P.T.O.
17. Biomagnification and bioaccumulation
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D8908 12
19. Carbonate compensation depth
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D8908 13 P.T.O.
SECTION - III
Note : This section contains five (5) questions. Each question carries twelve
(12) marks and is to be answered in about two hundred (200) words.
(12x5=60 marks)
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22. Kyoto Protocol
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25. Use of EIA in environment management
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D8908 14
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D8908
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15
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P.T.O.
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D8908
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16
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D8908
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17
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P.T.O.
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D8908
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18
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D8908
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19
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P.T.O.
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D8908
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20
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D8908
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21
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P.T.O.
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D8908
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22
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D8908
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23
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P.T.O.
SECTION - IV
Note : This section consists of one essay type question of forty (40) marks to
be answered in about one thousand (1000) words on any one of the
following topics.
(40x1=40 marks)
om
OR
(b) Environmental aspects related to large dams such as Tehri Dam or Narmada
Dam.
OR
.c
(c) Mineral resources of India.
OR
(d) Recycling of agricultural waste and bioremidiation.
ce
OR
(e) Causes of air pollution and the role played by greenhouse gases and aerosols.
OR
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(f) What are natural hazards ? Discuss causes effects, mitigation of floods and
droughts in India.
OR
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(g) Nuclear energy is important for energy needs of India - Critically evaluate the
statement.
OR
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D8908 24
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D8908
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25
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P.T.O.
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D8908
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26
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D8908
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27
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P.T.O.
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D8908
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29
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P.T.O.
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D8908
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D8908
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31
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P.T.O.
FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained
Obtained
Obtained
Obtained
Obtained
Question
Question
Question
Question
Number
Number
Number
Number
Marks
Marks
Marks
Marks
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1 26 51 76
2 27 52 77
3 28 53 78
4 29 54 79
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5 30 55 80
6 31 56 81
7 32 57 82
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8 33 58 83
9 34 59 84
10 35 60 85
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11 36 61 86
12 37 62 87
13 38 63 88
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14 39 64 89
15 40 65 90
16 41 66 91
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17 42 67 92
18 43 68 93
19 4 69 94
20 45 70 95
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21 46 71 96
2 47 72 97
23 48 73 98
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24 49 74 99
25 50 75 100
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D8908 32
Signature and Name of Invigilator Roll No.
1. (Signature)
(Name)
Roll No.
2. (Signature)
(Name)
Test Booklet No.
D8 9 0 8 PAPERIII
om
Time : 2½ hours] ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE [Maximum Marks : 200
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 32 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 26
Instructions for the Candidates ÂÚUèÿææçÍüØô¢ ·ð¤ çÜU° çÙÎðüàæ
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in serial order or any other discrepancy should
SÍæÙ ÂÚU ÎêâÚUè âãè ÂýàÙ-ÂéçSÌ·¤æ Üð ÜðÐ U §â·ð¤ çÜ°
be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet
from the invigilator ithin the period of 5 ¥æ·¤ô Âæ¡¿ ç×ÙÅU çÎØð ÁæØð¢»ðÐ ©â·ð¤ ÕæÎ Ù Ìô ¥æ·¤è
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minutes. Afterwards, neither the question ÂýàÙ-ÂéçSÌ·¤æ ßæÂâ Üè ÁæØð»è ¥õÚU Ù ãè ¥æ·¤ô ¥çÌçÚUQ¤
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D8908 1 P.T.O.
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
ce
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PAPERIII
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NOTE : This paper is of two hund ed (200) marks containing four (4) sections.
xa
D8908 2
SECTION - I
Note : This section contains five (5) questions based on the following
paragraph. Each question should be answered in about thirty (30)
words and each carries five (5) marks.
(5x5=25 marks)
The eutrophication is the nutrient enrichment in a water body. A freshly
formed body of water has a very low concentration of plant nutrients. Little plant
om
life develops in such waters. Low primary production limits animal communities
as well. Surface runoffs, wind borne dust and organic debris, excreta and exudates
of animals which use water, slowly raise the nutrient content. Bacteria and
cyanobacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen. Phosphates in rocks and detritus at the
bottom are solubilized by the microbial activity. In gradual stages the nutrient
status of the water improves. A moderate population of plants, animals, aquatic
.c
fungi and other microorganisms develop. With the passage of time further nutrient
enrichment occurs. Dense population of plants, phytoplanktons and animals now
appears. At this stage, the aquatic system becomes highly productive in terms of
ce
fish yield and other produce. Based on nutrient status and productivity an aquatic
system can be classified into the following three types : The oligotrophic or water
with poor nutrient status and productivity; the mesotrophic or water with
intermediate or moderate nutrient status and productivity; and eutrophic or water
ra
with rich nutrient status with high productivity. In some eutrophic waters dense
population of planktonic algae develops, water turns green followed by unpleasant
odour referred to as water bloom.
m
Answer the following questions :
D8908 3 P.T.O.
2. What results eutrophication ?
om
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D8908 4
4. Name the types of eutrophication.
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D8908 5 P.T.O.
SECTION - II
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D8908 6
7. Transgenic plants
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9. Acid rain
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11. Marine spillage
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13. Scanning Electron Microscopy (SEM)
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15. Internal structure of Earth
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D8908 11 P.T.O.
17. Biomagnification and bioaccumulation
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D8908 12
19. Carbonate compensation depth
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ce
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D8908 13 P.T.O.
SECTION - III
Note : This section contains five (5) questions. Each question carries twelve
(12) marks and is to be answered in about two hundred (200) words.
(12x5=60 marks)
om
22. Kyoto Protocol
.c
25. Use of EIA in environment management
ce
ra
m
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P.T.O.
SECTION - IV
Note : This section consists of one essay type question of forty (40) marks to
be answered in about one thousand (1000) words on any one of the
following topics.
(40x1=40 marks)
om
OR
(b) Environmental aspects related to large dams such as Tehri Dam or Narmada
Dam.
OR
.c
(c) Mineral resources of India.
OR
(d) Recycling of agricultural waste and bioremidiation.
ce
OR
(e) Causes of air pollution and the role played by greenhouse gases and aerosols.
OR
ra
(f) What are natural hazards ? Discuss causes effects, mitigation of floods and
droughts in India.
OR
m
(g) Nuclear energy is important for energy needs of India - Critically evaluate the
statement.
OR
xa
D8908 24
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D8908
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P.T.O.
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P.T.O.
FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained
Obtained
Obtained
Obtained
Obtained
Question
Question
Question
Question
Number
Number
Number
Number
Marks
Marks
Marks
Marks
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1 26 51 76
2 27 52 77
3 28 53 78
4 29 54 79
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5 30 55 80
6 31 56 81
7 32 57 82
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11 36 61 86
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14 39 64 89
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D8908 32
Signature and Name of Invigilator Roll No.
1. (Signature)
(Name)
Roll No.
2. (Signature)
(Name)
Test Booklet No.
D8 9 0 8 PAPERIII
om
Time : 2½ hours] ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE [Maximum Marks : 200
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 32 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 26
Instructions for the Candidates ÂÚUèÿææçÍüØô¢ ·ð¤ çÜU° çÙÎðüàæ
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D8908 1 P.T.O.
om
.c
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
ce
ra
PAPERIII
m
NOTE : This paper is of two hund ed (200) marks containing four (4) sections.
xa
D8908 2
SECTION - I
Note : This section contains five (5) questions based on the following
paragraph. Each question should be answered in about thirty (30)
words and each carries five (5) marks.
(5x5=25 marks)
The eutrophication is the nutrient enrichment in a water body. A freshly
formed body of water has a very low concentration of plant nutrients. Little plant
om
life develops in such waters. Low primary production limits animal communities
as well. Surface runoffs, wind borne dust and organic debris, excreta and exudates
of animals which use water, slowly raise the nutrient content. Bacteria and
cyanobacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen. Phosphates in rocks and detritus at the
bottom are solubilized by the microbial activity. In gradual stages the nutrient
status of the water improves. A moderate population of plants, animals, aquatic
.c
fungi and other microorganisms develop. With the passage of time further nutrient
enrichment occurs. Dense population of plants, phytoplanktons and animals now
appears. At this stage, the aquatic system becomes highly productive in terms of
ce
fish yield and other produce. Based on nutrient status and productivity an aquatic
system can be classified into the following three types : The oligotrophic or water
with poor nutrient status and productivity; the mesotrophic or water with
intermediate or moderate nutrient status and productivity; and eutrophic or water
ra
with rich nutrient status with high productivity. In some eutrophic waters dense
population of planktonic algae develops, water turns green followed by unpleasant
odour referred to as water bloom.
m
Answer the following questions :
D8908 3 P.T.O.
2. What results eutrophication ?
om
.c
ce
ra
m
D8908 4
4. Name the types of eutrophication.
om
.c
ce
ra
m
D8908 5 P.T.O.
SECTION - II
om
.c
ce
6. Repetitive DNA ra
m
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D8908 6
7. Transgenic plants
om
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D8908 7 P.T.O.
9. Acid rain
om
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ce
ra
m
D8908 8
11. Marine spillage
om
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ce
ra
m
D8908 9 P.T.O.
13. Scanning Electron Microscopy (SEM)
om
.c
ce
ra
m
D8908 10
15. Internal structure of Earth
om
.c
ce
ra
m
D8908 11 P.T.O.
17. Biomagnification and bioaccumulation
om
.c
ce
ra
m
D8908 12
19. Carbonate compensation depth
om
.c
ce
ra
m
D8908 13 P.T.O.
SECTION - III
Note : This section contains five (5) questions. Each question carries twelve
(12) marks and is to be answered in about two hundred (200) words.
(12x5=60 marks)
om
22. Kyoto Protocol
.c
25. Use of EIA in environment management
ce
ra
m
xa
.e
w
w
w
D8908 14
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D8908
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23
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P.T.O.
SECTION - IV
Note : This section consists of one essay type question of forty (40) marks to
be answered in about one thousand (1000) words on any one of the
following topics.
(40x1=40 marks)
om
OR
(b) Environmental aspects related to large dams such as Tehri Dam or Narmada
Dam.
OR
.c
(c) Mineral resources of India.
OR
(d) Recycling of agricultural waste and bioremidiation.
ce
OR
(e) Causes of air pollution and the role played by greenhouse gases and aerosols.
OR
ra
(f) What are natural hazards ? Discuss causes effects, mitigation of floods and
droughts in India.
OR
m
(g) Nuclear energy is important for energy needs of India - Critically evaluate the
statement.
OR
xa
D8908 24
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D8908
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P.T.O.
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P.T.O.
FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained
Obtained
Obtained
Obtained
Obtained
Question
Question
Question
Question
Number
Number
Number
Number
Marks
Marks
Marks
Marks
om
1 26 51 76
2 27 52 77
3 28 53 78
4 29 54 79
.c
5 30 55 80
6 31 56 81
7 32 57 82
ce
8 33 58 83
9 34 59 84
10 35 60 85
ra
11 36 61 86
12 37 62 87
13 38 63 88
m
14 39 64 89
15 40 65 90
16 41 66 91
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17 42 67 92
18 43 68 93
19 4 69 94
20 45 70 95
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21 46 71 96
2 47 72 97
23 48 73 98
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24 49 74 99
25 50 75 100
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D8908 32
PAPER-III
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________ Roll No.
2. (Signature) __________________________ (In figures as per admission card)
(Name) ____________________________
Roll No.________________________________
D 89 1 0 (In words)
www.examrace.com
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
PAPER – III
Note : This paper is of two hundred (200) marks containing four (4) sections. Candidates
are required to attempt the questions contained in these sections according to the
detailed instructions given therein.
D-89-10 2
www.examrace.com
SECTION – I
Note : This section consists of two essay type questions of twenty (20) marks each, to be
answered in about five hundred (500) words each. (2 × 20 = 40 marks)
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2. Wetland Conservation.
OR
Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) and Environmental protection.
OR
The types, sources and consequences of water pollution.
OR
Soil bioremediation – An emerging technology.
OR
An ecosystem, its structure and functions.
OR
Environmental Impacts of thermochemical and photochemical reactions in
atmosphere.
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SECTION – II
Note : This section contains three (3) questions of fifteen marks each to be answered in
about three hundred (300) words. (3 × 15 = 45 marks)
4. How does an electrostatic precipitator (ESP) remove particles from flue gases ? On
what factors the efficiency of ESP depends ?
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SECTION – III
Note : This section contains nine (9) questions of ten (10) marks, each to be answered in
about fifty (50) words. (9 × 10 = 90 marks)
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10. Define mixing height. Explain its significance in dispersal of air pollutants.
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13. How does a solar photovoltaic (PV) cell work ? On what factors its efficiency
depends ?
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14. Write down the equation governing the concentration of pollutants in a Gaussian
plume dispersion model.
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SECTION – IV
Note : This section contains five (5) questions of five (5) marks each based on the following
passage. Each question should be answered in about thirty (30) words.
(5 × 5 = 25 marks)
Around 1960, Lake Erie was declared dead, its DO decreased in deeper layer of
water, its surface almost covered by overgrowth of algae, and some of its predators became
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endangered. Investigations were carried out by many scientists, who concluded that the major
cause of the destruction of the Lake Erie ecosystem was too much phosphorous from
municipal waste. In order to overcome the problems of Lake Erie, it was thought that there
should be a strong cooperation between USA and Canada. The International Joint
Commission was established and the governments of the two countries worked together for
improving waste treatment in communities surrounding Lake Erie. By 1985, the annual
release of phosphorous from these sources reduced by 84% and the phosphorus levels in the
Detroit River, which feeds Lake Erie, was reduced by 65%. As the water quality improved
with phosphorous abatement, algal growth declined and oxygen levels improved. The small
planktonic crustaceans that feed on the algae became less abundant and fishes, such as
undesirable alewife and shiner, that feed on them, also decreased. By 1991, the total
phosphorous level in Lake Erie was reduced to a level very close to the permissible level. The
decline in algal population resulted in the improvement of water clarity in the Lake.
Moreover, the decline in algal population has also been achieved by invading zebra mussels
in Lake Erie.
15. How does phosphorous enrichment of water body cause algal growth ?
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16. How did the process of eutrophication in Lake Erie lead to oxygen depletion ?
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17. How the invasion of zebra mussels will affect the ecology of Lake Erie ?
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18. What was the institutional mechanism set up to address the problems of Lake Erie ?
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19. What were the positive results due to the institutional intervention ?
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FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained
Question Marks
Number Obtained
1
2
3
4
5
6
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9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
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SECTION – I
Note : This section consists of two essay type questions of twenty (20) marks each, to be
answered in about five hundred (500) words each. (2 × 20 = 40 Marks)
1. Write an essay on :
Principle and Applications of chromatography in environmental science.
OR
Conservation of wetlands.
OR
Bio-Energy.
OR
Methodologies of Environmental Impact Assessment.
OR
Multiple regression technique and its application in environmental data analysis.
OR
Applications of GIS and Remote Sensing in water resource management.
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2. Write an essay on :
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SECTION – II
Note : This section contains three (3) questions of fifteen (15) marks each, to be answered
in about three hundred (300) words. (3 × 15 = 45 Marks)
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SECTION – III
Note : This section contains nine (9) questions of ten (10) marks each, to be answered in
about fifty (50) words. (9 × 10 = 90 Marks)
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8. The molar extinction coefficient of X-iodine complex at 450 nm is 0.2. Determine the
concentration of X in a solution of the iodine complex which has an absorbance of
0.38 in a 1 cm cuvette.
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10. Distinguish between El Nino and La Nina effects.
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13. Differentiate between adiabatic lapse rate and environmental lapse rate.
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14. Compare “Pyramid of numbers” for pond and tree ecosystems.
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SECTION – IV
Note : This section contains five (5) questions of five (5) marks each based on the following
passage. Each question should be answered in about thirty (30) words.
(5 × 5 = 25 Marks)
Some years ago, the Arogya Health Service sent supplier of DDT to Karkala to
control mosquitoes that were spreading malaria among the people. As the DDT was
sprayed, the mosquitoes were quickly wiped out. But there were thousands of lizards
in the village that ate these mosquitoes (which had absorbed the sprayed DDT) and
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they, in turn, kept accumulating the DDT in their bodies. When these lizards ate
mosquitoes, they retained a lot of the DDT in their body. Due to the excessive
accumulation of DDT in their bodies, the lizards became inactive and slow. This
made if easier for cats to catch the lizards, one of their favourite food. At about the
same time, people also found hordes of caterpillars on the roofing materials of their
homes. They realised that the lizards, which had previously kept the caterpillar
population under control, were now being eaten by the cats. And now, all over
Karkala, the cats that ate the lizards died from DDT poisoning. Then rats moved in
because there were no cats to control their population. With the rats came a new
danger, plague. Officials sent out emergency calls for cats, which were sent in by
Aeroplane and dropped by Parachute.
15. How did one small act of humans (spraying of DDT) disturb the balance of the
ecosystem ?
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16. How did absence of mosquitoes affected outburst of plague ?
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PAPER-III
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
PAPER – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each.
All questions are compulsory.
1. For an overcast day or night, the 4. The environmental lapse rate during
atmosphere is day time is governed by
(A) stable (B) neutral (i) Wind speed
(C) slightly stable (D) unstable (ii) Sunlight
(iii) Topographical features
2. Assertion (A) : The energy flow in an (iv) Cloud cover
ecosystem follows the law of The correct answer is
thermodynamics. (A) (i) and (ii) only
Reason (R) : The energy flow in an (B) (ii) and (iii) only
ecosystem is unidirectional and (C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
during the transformation of (D) (i) and (iv) only
energy from one trophic level to
the other, 80 – 90% of energy is 5. The wavelength range of UV–C
lost. radiations is
Codes : (A) 200 – 280 nm
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) (B) 180 – 240 nm
is the correct explanation of (A). (C) 320 – 400 nm
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) (D) 240 – 300 nm
is not the correct explanation of
(A). 6. In a gas chromatography experiment,
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. the retention factor (Rf) values for
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. pollutant ‘A’ and pollutant ‘B’ in a
mixture of pollutants were 0.5 and
3. Match the List – I with List – II and 0.125, respectively. If the distance
identify the correct answer from the travelled by solvent front is 12 cms, the
given codes : distance (in cms) travelled by pollutant
List – I List – II
(Thermodynamic (Expression) ‘A’ and pollutant ‘B’ will be
Variables) (A) 6 and 1.5
(Symbols have (B) 3 and 1.5
their usual (C) 0.5 and 0.125
(a) ΔG ΔE + PΔV
meanings.) (D) 1.5 and 3
(b) ΔG°
i.
(c) ΔS
ii. – n FE° 7. Using the following equations, which
V1 can be determined correctly ?
iii. RT ln V Δ
(d) ΔH
2 Ca(HCO3)2 –––→ CaCO3 + H2O + CO2 (by
V2 heating)
iv. nR ln V or Ca(HCO3)2 + Ca(OH)2 –––→
1
Codes : 2 CaCO3 + 2H2O (by addition of lime)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (A) Carbon dioxide
(A) ii iv i iii (B) Carbonates
(B) iii ii iv i
(C) iii i iv ii (C) Bicarbonates
(D) ii iii iv i (D) Carbonates and Bicarbonates
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8. Assume that a river having dissolved 12. “Double digging” is a method of
oxygen 0.5 g/m3, BOD 0.3 g/m3 (A) Bio-intensive agriculture
flowing at 80 m3/sec. converge with (B) Deforestation
another river having Dissolved (C) Aforestation
Oxygen 0.7 g/m3. BOD 0.6 g/m3
(D) Water conservation
flowing at a rate of 60 m3/sec. If after
the confluence the Dissolved Oxygen
is 0.59 g/m3, then the BOD is 13. The rate of replacement of species
along a gradient of habitats pertains
(A) 0.83 g/m3 (B) 0.43 g/m3 to
(C) 0.73 g/m3 (D) 0.92 g/m3 (A) Alpha diversity
(B) Beta diversity
9. Cells grown in a medium containing (C) Gamma diversity
phosphorous –32 will show radio
labelling in (D) Species diversity
(A) Starch
(B) Glycogen 14. Match the List – I and List – II. Choose
(C) Proteins the correct answer from the given
codes :
(D) Nucleic acids
List – I List – II
(Vegetation (Nomenclature of
10. C14 has a half-life of 5700 years. The development) succession)
fraction of the C14 atoms that decays
per year is (a) On a rock i. Psammosere
(A) 1.216 × 10 –4
(B) 0.52 × 10–3 (b) On sand ii. Lithosere
(C) 0.78 × 10 –4
(D) 2.81 × 10–4 (c) In aquatic iii. Xerosere
habitat
(d) In dry iv. Hydrosere
11. Assertion (A) : Marine biodiversity habitat
tends to be highest in mid- Codes :
latitudes in all oceans and (a) (b) (c) (d)
along coasts in the Western
(A) ii i iv iii
Pacific.
(B) i ii iii iv
Reason (R) : Sea surface
(C) iii iv ii i
temperature along coasts in the
Western Pacific is highest. (D) iv iii i ii
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and 15. If individuals of a species remain
(R) is the correct explanation of alive only in captivity or other human
(A). controlled conditions, the species is
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, said to be
but (R) is not the correct (A) Ecologically extinct
explanation of (A). (B) Mass extinct
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (C) Wild extinct
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (D) Anthropogenic extinct
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16. Which of the following symbolises 20. Match the List – I with List – II,
correct sequence in hydrosere ? choose the correct answer from the
(A) Diatoms → Wolffia → given codes :
Hydrilla → Cyperus → List – I List – II
Populus
(B) Hydrilla → Wolffia → Cyperus
(Plants) (Family)
→ Populus → Diatoms
(a) Camellia i. Orchidaceae
caduca
(C) Cyperus → Diatoms →
Hydrilla → Wolffia → Populus
(b) Picea ii. Theaceae
brachytyla
(D) Diatoms → Hydrilla → (c) Colchicum iii. Pinaceae
Wolffia → Cyperus → Populus
luteum
(d) Arachnantha iv. Liliaceae
clarkei
17. Which of the following is not a class Codes :
of aquatic ecosystems based on
salinity levels ? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) Stagnant water ecosystem (A) iv ii iii i
(B) Freshwater ecosystem (B) i ii iii iv
(C) Brackish ecosystem (C) ii i iv iii
(D) Marine ecosystem (D) ii iii iv i
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23. Given below are statements in the 27. Permafrost represents
context of biogeochemical cycles : (A) permanently frozen subsurface
(i) Ecosystems are black boxes for soil
many of the processes that take (B) frozen leaves of Oak trees
place within them.
(ii) Ecosystem boundaries are (C) frozen needles of pine trees
permeable to some degree or (D) temporarily frozen subsurface
other. soil
(iii) The energy and nutrients can
be transferred to and from one 28. Assertion (A) : Estuaries are
ecosystem to another via productive ecosystems.
imports and exports.
Identify the correct answer from the Reason (R) : Large amounts of
codes given below : nutrients are introduced into
(A) (i) & (ii) only the basin from the rivers that
(B) (ii) & (iii) only run into them.
(C) (i) & (iii) only Choose the correct answer :
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and
24. The volume of ejecta and the column (R) is the correct explanation of
height for a volcano are 108.5 m3 and (A).
24 km, respectively. What is its (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
volcanic explosivity index value ? (R) is not the correct
(A) 2 (B) 8 explanation of (A).
(C) 7 (D) 4 (C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
25. In the context of material balance in (D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
hydrological cycle, which of the
following equations is correct for 29. A confined aquifer of thickness 25 m
oceans ? has two wells 200 m apart along the
(A) Input + change in storage = direction of flow of water. The
output difference in their hydraulic heads is
(B) Precipitation + inflow = 1 m. If hydraulic conductivity is
evaporation 50 m/day, the rate of flow of water
(C) Input – change in storage = per day per metre of distance
output perpendicular to the flow of water is
(D) Precipitation – inflow = (A) 25 m3/day per metre
evaporation
(B) 50 m3/day per metre
26. In disaster management which steps
are followed in post-disaster recovery (C) 5 m3/day per metre
phase ? (D) 1 m3/day per metre
(A) Relief, rehabilitation,
reconstruction, learning – review 30. Which of the following material has
(B) Risk Assessment, mitigation, the highest hydraulic conductivity ?
preparedness, emergency plans.
(A) Clay
(C) Relief, mitigation, emergency
plans. (B) Sandstone
(D) Learning – review, emergency (C) Limestone
plans, preparedness. (D) Quartzite
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31. Which of the following energy 35. In nuclear thermal reactors, which of
sources is not renewable on human the following is not used as
time scale ? moderator ?
(A) Solar (B) Hydrothermal (A) Normal water
(C) Geothermal (D) Biomass (B) Heavy water
(C) Graphite
(D) Liquid Helium
32. For a solar flat plate collector the
following data is given : Useful heat
36. The minimum temperature gradient
gain = 28 watts/m2 per hour, solar (°C/km) required for OTEC is about
radiation intensity = 350 watts/m2 (A) 20 (B) 10
per hour and the factor to convert (C) 40 (D) 60
beam radiation to that on the plane of
the collector = 1.2. The collector 37. A solar pond has electricity
efficiency is generating capacity of 600 MWe. If
(A) ~ 6.6 % (B) ~ 4.8 % the efficiency of solar energy to
(C) ~ 12.2 % (D) ~ 15.2 % electric generation process was 2%
and solar energy supply rate was
33. For the reaction in a hydrogen- 300 W/m2, what is the area of solar
oxygen fuel cell, pond ?
1 (A) 100 km2 (B) 90 km2
H2 + 2 O2 = H2O (l)
(C) 60 km2 (D) 180 km2
Given ΔG° = 240 kJ/gm – mole of H2
38. Which of the following causes
and Faraday’s constant = 96,500
warming of atmosphere but cooling
Coulomb/gm mole.
of the earth’s surface ?
The developed voltage in the fuel cell (A) Ozone
will be (B) Black carbon aerosols
(A) ~ 1.13 Volts (C) All Greenhouse gases
(B) ~ 2.13 Volts (D) Sulphates and nitrates
(C) ~ 1.51 Volts
(D) ~ 1.24 Volts 39. Assertion (A) : For noise level
surveys in urban areas,
weighting A is used for
34. Identify the correct sequence of the measurements.
fuels in order of their increasing Reason (R) : Weighting A filters out
carbon intensity : unwanted signals.
(A) Natural gas < Oil < Bituminous Codes :
coal < Nuclear (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(B) Oil < Coal < Natural gas < (R) is the correct explanation of
Nuclear (A).
(C) Nuclear < Coal < Natural gas < (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
Oil (R) is not the correct
(D) Nuclear < Natural gas < Oil < explanation of (A).
Bituminous coal (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
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40. Noise levels of 80 dB refers to a 44. Match the List – I with List – II and
sound pressure level of identify the correct answer from
(A) 0.2 Pa given codes :
List – I List – II
(B) 0.02 Pa (Aerosols) (Constituents)
(C) 20 Pa
(D) 200 Pa (a) Dust i. Small gas
borne particles
resulting from
41. Asphyxiation is caused by combustion
(A) HCN, COCl2 (b) Mist ii. Black carbon
(c) Smoke iii. Suspended
(B) NOx small liquid
(C) CHCl3 droplets
(d) Atmospheric iv. Solid
(D) AsH3 Brown suspended
Cloud particles
42. Sequence of a typical sewage Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
treatment plant operation process will
(A) iv iii ii i
be
(A) Aeration → Flocculation →
(B) iii iv i ii
→
(C) ii i iii iv
(D) i ii iii iv
Recarbonation → Filtration →
Sedimentation
Flocculation → Aeration →
fluorine.
→
(C) Codes :
Sedimentation → Filtration →
Recarbonation (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
Disinfection (A).
(D) Sedimentation → Flocculation (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
→ Aeration → Filtration →
(R) is not the correct
Recarbonation → Disinfection
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
43. Which one of the following isotopes
has maximum half-life period ? 46. Which of the following organic
(A) Rn 222 compounds is not of biogenic origin ?
(A) Isoprene
(B) α-pinene
(B) Pb210
(C) Ti210 (C) Myrcene
(D) Bi210 (D) Acrolein
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47. Which of the following is used as 52. Match List – I with List – II and
plant indicator for detection of choose the correct answer from the
presence of SO2 and HF in air ? codes given below :
(A) Lichen (B) Orchid List – I List – II
(C) Apricot (D) Tobacco
(Analytical (Activity under the
functions) function)
48. Integrated Gasification Combined
Cycle (IGCC) technology is best at
removing (a) Defining i. Critical
(A) NO2 and CO scope of EIA Assessment of
(B) CO and SO2 impacts
(C) Particulates and sulphur (b) Identification ii. Estimation of the
(D) NO2 and SO2 of impacts probability that a
particular impact
49. A wastewater treatment plant in a will occur
city treats 50,000 m3 wastewater (c) Prediction of iii. Description of the
generated per day. For an average Impacts existing
flow rate of 25 m3 per day per sq. environment
metre, what should be the diameter system
of the circular primary settling tank ?
(d) Impact iv. Deciding
(A) 50.4 m (B) 30.6 m Evaluation
(C) 20 m (D) 25.8 m important issues
and Analysis and concerns
50. An Electrostatic Precipitator (ESP)
Codes :
with collector plate area = 5000 m2
treats a flue gas with drift (a) (b) (c) (d)
velocity = 0.12 m/s with 98% (A) iii iv i ii
efficiency. The volumetric flow rate
(B) iv iii ii i
(m3/s) of the flue gas is
(A) ~ 175.2 (B) ~ 213.5 (C) ii i iii iv
(C) ~ 153.4 (D) ~ 198.9 (D) i ii iv iii
51. Assertion (A) : Urban heat islands
contribute to build up of
pollutants in cities. 53. A drawback of checklists is
Reason (R) : Urban heat islands (A) Preliminary analysis is
produce a somewhat stable air available in scaling checklist
mass in the city’s atmosphere.
Codes : (B) Checklists are too general or
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct incomplete
and (R) is the correct (C) Checklists summarises
explanation of (A). information to make it
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, available to experts
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A). (D) Ecosystem functions can be
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. clearly understood from
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false. weighting methods
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54. If EIUj = environmental impact units 57. In a gravity flow autoclave, medical
→
th
for i factor, then what is the correct waste management is
Reuse → Treatment →
in environmental impact units
(EIUi) ?
n ⎛E⎞
(A) EIUi = ∑ ⎜Q ⎟ PIUi →
Disposal
i = 1 ⎝ ij⎠
→
(B) Reduce generation
→
i=1 ij
→
(D) Reduce generation
Treatment → Recycle/Reuse
Eliminate generation
55. Match List – I with List – II and
→ Disposal
choose the correct answer from the
codes given below :
List – I List – II 59. Public Liability Insurance Act was
(Scales used in (Example)
EIA methods) enacted in the year
(a) Nominal i. Temperature (A) 1991 (B) 1993
(degrees) (C) 1995 (D) 1997
(b) Ordinal ii. Species
classification 60. Match List – I with List – II and
(c) Interval iii. Map scale choose the correct answer from the
(d) Ratio iv. Worst to best codes given below :
Codes : List – I List – II
(a) (b) (c) (d) (Convention) (Year)
(A) i ii iii iv (a) Convention for the i. 1979
(B) iv iii ii i protection of the
ozone layer
(C) iii i iv ii (b) Conservation of ii. 1985
(D) ii iv i iii migratory species
of wild animals
56. Risk assessment in EIA does not (c) Kyoto protocol iii. 1982
involve (d) UN Convention on iv. 1997
(A) Maximum credible analysis the law of the sea
(B) Hazard and operability studies Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(C) Preparation of disaster (A) ii i iv iii
management plan (B) ii iv iii i
(D) Assessment of economic (C) iii i ii iv
benefit arising out of a project (D) i ii iii iv
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variances σ21 = 10 and σ22 = 20. Two
61. Match List – I with List – II and 64. Two normal populations have
choose the correct answer from the
codes given below : random samples of sizes 25 and 20,
List – I List – II independently selected from these
(Acts) (Year when populations have variances of S21 = 8
enacted)
(a) Wildlife Protection i. 1980 and S22 = 15, respectively. What is the
Act F(24, 19) statistic ?
(b) Forest ii. 1972
Conservation Act (A) 1 (B) 2
(c) Air (Prevention iii. 1974 (C) 2.81 (D) 3.6
and Control of
Pollution ) Act
65. Assertion (A) : A matrix is non-
(d) Water (Prevention iv. 1981 singular if and only if none of
and Control of
Pollution) Act its eigen values is zero.
Codes : Reason (R) : The product of the
(a) (b) (c) (d) eigen values equals the
(A) ii i iv iii determinant of a matrix.
(B) i ii iii iv Codes :
(C) iii ii i iv (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(D) iv iii ii i and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
Assertion (A) : χ2 distribution is a
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct,
62.
but (R) is not the correct
non-parametric distribution.
Reason (R) : χ2 is a sample statistic
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
having no corresponding
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
population parameter.
Codes :
σz = cx where c is a constant and
66. In Gaussian Plume Model assume
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct
ratio of σy to σz to be a constant. If H
and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, is the effective height of the stack,
but (R) is not the correct the maximum concentration at a
explanation of (A). distance (x) from the stack is
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. proportional to
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false. (A) H–1 (B) H–2
(C) exp (–H2) (D) H–3/2
63. In a simple regression analysis of y
on x, the standard error of estimate of 67. The Pearson Linear correlation
y on x, Syx = 5, number of coefficient (r) for the following
observations N is 30, and ∑ y2 = paired data (x, y) : (2, 1.4) (4, 1.8),
2000. The unexplained variance is (8, 2.1), (8, 2.3), (9, 2.6) is
(A) 1500 (B) 750 (A) 0.623 (B) – 0.572
(C) 500 (D) 250 (C) 0.957 (D) 0.823
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68. In a rough terrain the wind speed at a 72. Which of the following mixture of
height of 10 m is 2.5 m/s. The wind gases is called biogas ?
speed at an elevation of 300 m will (A) CO2, CH4, NH3, H2S, H2O
be (vapour)
(A) 4.9 m/s (B) 1.2 m/s (B) CO, CH4, NH3, H2S, H2O
(C) 3.6 m/s (D) 7.9 m/s (vapour)
(C) CO2, CH4, N2O, NH3, H2O
69. In the context of REDD+ initiatives (vapour)
the land clearing in forest areas is (D) CO2, NOx, H2O, CH4
primarily concerned with
(A) Physical resources of the area 73. Environmental ethics deal with moral
relationship of human beings to
(B) Ecology of the area
(A) the value and moral status of
(C) Carbon budget of the area the environment and its non-
(D) Water resources of the area human contents
(B) the values that are important to
70. What was the objective of Basel development and economic
Convention (1989) under UNEP ? growth
(C) the conservation values of
I. Minimize generation of selected species
hazardous wastes in terms of (D) the development of genetically
quantity and hazardousness modified organisms
II. Disposal of hazardous wastes
as close to the source of 74. The major source of BaP (Benzo-a-
generation as possible. pyrene) in atmospheric environment is
III. Reduce the movement of (A) residential wood burning
hazardous wastes. (B) gasoline
Choose the correct code : (C) coal tar
(D) cooked meat
(A) I and II only.
(B) II and III only. 75. Match the List – I with List – II and
(C) I, II and III. choose the correct answer from the
(D) I only. codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Materials) (Applications)
71. Global Warming Potential (GWP) of (a) Trichloro- 1. Gasoline
a greenhouse gas (GHG) is a ethylene
comparison of global warming (b) Toluene 2. Wood treatment
impact between (c) Zinc 3. Dry cleaning
(A) 1 kg of GHG and 1 kg of (d) Phenol 4. Mining
methane Codes :
(B) 1 kg of GHG and 1 kg of CO2 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 4 2
(C) 1 kg of GHG and 1 kg of N2O (B) 2 3 1 4
(D) 1 kg of GHG and 1 kg of CFC-11 (C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 4 2 3 1
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Space For Rough Work
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PAPER-III
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)
D-89-14 1 P.T.O.
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Paper – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.
3. Wind rose is a
(A) graphical representation of wind velocity vector over a period of time in a polar
diagram.
(B) graphical representation of wind velocity vector in a spherical coordinate system
over a period of time.
(C) graphical representation of horizontal and vertical wind speeds over a period of time
in polar diagram.
(D) graphical representation of instantaneous wind velocity at a particular time.
4. The key groups of organic molecules that help in chelation of metal ions are
I. – COOH II. – SH
III. – CH3 IV. – CHO
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5. Geostrophic winds are the result of the balance between
(A) coriolis force and pressure gradient force
(B) coriolis force and centrifugal force
(C) pressure gradient force and frictional force
(D) pressure gradient force and centrifugal force
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12. Mixture of organic pollutants X and Y were separated using paper chromatography and
the Rf values obtained for X and Y were 0.75 and 0.25, respectively. Which relationship
holds good for the solubility of these pollutants in mobile phase ?
(A) X > Y (B) X < Y
(C) X = Y (D) X + Y = 1
15. Assertion (A) : Shade loving species show better natural regeneration under highly
disturbed condition.
Reason (R) : Heliophilic species needs more exposure to light for better natural
regeneration.
In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
16. Which one of the following enzymes work under strict anaerobic conditions to fix
atmospheric nitrogen ?
(A) Nitrate reductase (B) Nitrite reductase
(C) Transaminase (D) Nitrogenase
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18. In a tropical peat forest, the carbon storage (tonnes/ha) is typically in the range
(A) 3000 – 6000 (B) 13000 – 16000
(C) 300 – 600 (D) 300 – 1600
– –
19. Which one of the following bacterial species convert NO2 to NO3 ?
(A) Nitrosomonas (B) Nitrobacter
(C) Rhizobium (D) Azospirillum
20. Assertion (A) : Living system adapted to low temperatures invariably show higher
unsaturated to saturated fatty acid in membrane lipids.
Reason (R) : Fluidity of membranes is directly proportional to unsaturated to saturated
fatty acids in membrane lipids.
In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
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24. Loamy sand contains
(A) > 80 % silt and > 80 % clay
(B) 10 % silt and 5 % clay
(C) 15 to 30 % silt and 10 to 15 % clay
(D) > 80 % silt and < 20% clay
26. Match the List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the given codes :
List – I List – II
(Elements) (Concentration in Earth’s
Crust by weight %)
a. Oxygen i. 8.13
b. Aluminium ii. 46.60
c. Iron iii. 27.72
d. Silicon iv. 5.00
Identify the correct code :
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i iv iii ii
(B) iii ii i iv
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) iv iii ii i
28. Mount Etna in Sicily and Mauna Loa in Hawaiian Islands are the most noteworthy
examples of
(A) shield volcanoes (B) plug dome
(C) strato volcanoes (D) pyroclastic cones
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29. Match the List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the given codes :
List – I List – II
(Mineral Deposit) (Top producer)
a. Bauxite i. Peru
b. Copper ii. India
c. Mica iii. USA
d. Guano iv. Australia
Identify the correct code :
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) ii iv i iii
30. Which of the following fuels has the highest HHV carbon intensity ?
(A) Natural gas (B) Oil
(C) Bituminous coal (D) Nuclear fuel
31. If fission of 1 atom of U235 produces 200 MeV energy, how much energy will be
produced by 1 metric ton of U235 ?
(A) 4.1 × 107 MJ (B) 8.2 × 107 MJ
(C) 1.23 × 108 MJ (D) 2 × 105 MJ
32. The Green Climate Fund recently set up to help poor countries adapt to climate impacts
envisages financial support to the extent of (in $ per year)
(A) 100 bn (B) 30 bn
(C) 10 bn (D) 3 bn
33. Which of the following biomass conversion processes produces biogas from crop residues ?
(A) Anaerobic digestion (B) Fermentation
(C) Pyrolysis (D) Aerobic digestion
34. Which among the following is superior carbon fixer per unit area for bioenergy generation ?
(A) Trees (B) Shrubs
(C) Blue-green algae (D) Crops
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35. Energy flow in ecosystem is governed by
(A) First law of thermodynamics
(B) Second law of thermodynamics
(C) Planck’s law
(D) Kirchoff’s law
37. Knocking effect in the gasoline cannot be reached by one of the following additives :
(A) (C2H5)4Pb (B) BTX
(C) Kerosene (D) n-Butane
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41. A point source of sound produces a noise of 70 dB at a distance of 20 m from it. What will
be the noise level at 80 m from it ?
(A) 35 dB (B) 64 dB
(C) 58 dB (D) 52 dB
43. If Γd, Γs and Γrepresent dry adiabatic, saturated adiabatic lapse rate and environmental
lapse rate, respectively, the condition for unstable atmosphere is
(A) Γ > Γd (B) Γ < Γd
(C) Γ < Γs (D) Γ < Γs < Γd
44. At initial time (t0) number of E. coli per ml was 10. If generation time is 30 minutes, what
would be number of cells per ml after a duration of 4 hours ?
(A) 256 (B) 2560
(C) 240 (D) 300
45. Emission inventories involved in urban air quality assessment include parameters on
i. SO2, NOx, particulate matter pollutants
ii. Industry, traffic, domestic sources
iii. Fuel type, gasoline, wood as energy carrier
Choose the correct answer from codes given below :
Codes :
(A) i & ii only (B) ii & iii only
(C) i & iii only (D) i, ii & iii
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47. In Battele environment evaluation system the total parameter importance units is lowest
for
(A) Ecology (B) Environmental Pollution
(C) Aesthetics (D) Human interest
49. Given below are stages within each tier of risk assessment :
i. identification of consequences
ii. hazard identification
iii. probability assessment
iv. assessment of consequences as well as significance of risk
v. magnitude assessment for consequences
Which one of the following code represent correct sequences ?
(A) ii, i, v, iii, iv (B) i, ii, iii, iv, v
(C) iii, ii, iv, v, i (D) iv, ii, i, iii, v
Paper-III 10 D-89-14
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52. Biennial assessment of forest cover in India is done by
(A) Indian Institute of Remote Sensing, Dehradun
(B) Forest Research Institute, Dehradun
(C) Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal
(D) Forest Survey of India, Dehradun
54. Which one of the following statements is not connected to ISO 14000 series of
Environmental Management ?
(A) Promotes eco-labelling of the product
(B) It is based on the recommendation of TC-207 committee
(C) Make the environmental audit mandatory
(D) Promotes human rights and women empowerment
55. As per colour coding of plastic bags for biomedical wastes, match the List – I with
List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Colour Code) (Option for disposal)
a. Yellow plastic bags i. Disposal in secured land fills
b. Black plastic bags ii. Incineration and deep burials
c. Blue/White plastic bags iii. Autoclaving and chemical treatment
d. Red plastic bags iv. Microwave treatments and destruction
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iv iii ii i
(B) i iv iii ii
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) iii ii i iv
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57. Benchmarking in environmental management refers to
(A) Potential risk assessment.
(B) Reporting of environmental performance.
(C) Assessment of organization’s business processes against the best-in-class operations
to improve the performance.
(D) Setting of environmental standards to be followed by environmental managers.
60. Which among the following is not correct in regard to the sources of nitrate in the soils ?
i. Microbial breakdown of soil organic matter, organic manure and plant residues.
ii. Fertilizers which add nitrate and that formed by microbial oxidation of NH+4 from
ammonium fertilizers or urea.
iii. Addition from the atmosphere.
iv. Pesticides containing nitrogen atoms.
Choose the correct answer from the following codes :
Codes :
(A) i (B) ii
(C) iii (D) iv
61. Which one of the following protozoan is related to water borne disease ?
(A) Spumella sp. (B) Entamoeba histolytica
(C) Paramoecium (D) Plasmodium vivax
Paper-III 12 D-89-14
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62. Match the List – I with List – II, choose the correct answer from the given codes :
List – I List – II
(Group of Analysis) (Test)
a. Unidimensional analysis i. Testing of hypothesis
b. Multivariate analysis ii. Measure of central tendency
c. Interferential analysis iii. Two-way ANOVA
d. Bivariate analysis iv. Canonical analysis
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i iii iv ii
(B) ii iv i iii
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) iv ii iii i
63. The differences between crude birth rate and crude death rate in a population is called
(A) Population momentum
(B) Demographic transition rate
(C) Net migration rate
(D) Rate of natural increase
65. Assertion (A) : The hypothesis testing can proceed on the basis of null hypothesis.
Reason (R) : If null hypothesis is true probabilities to different possible sample result can
be assigned to it.
In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
D-89-14 13 Paper-III
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66. The advantage of Leslie matrices are
I. Stable age distribution is not required for valid population projections.
II. Can derive finite rate of population change.
III. Requires large amount of data on population structure.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) I and III only (B) I only
(C) I and II only (D) II and III only
68. The quantity of 0.2% solution needed to prepare 1000 mL of 10 ppm solution is
(A) 5 mL (B) 10 mL
(C) 20 mL (D) 200 mL
69. Which one of the following international events was not related to climate change ?
(A) UN framework convention on climate change, 1992.
(B) Montreal Protocol, 1987
(C) Stockholm conference on “Human and Environment”, 1972
(D) Kyoto Protocol, 1997
70. Which of the following has the lowest Ozone depletion potential ?
(A) HCFC – 22 (B) HCFC – 123
(C) Halon – 1211 (D) CFC – 12
Paper-III 14 D-89-14
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71. Assertion (A) : Rain water harvesting, primarily aims at artificial recharge of ground
water to uplift the ground water table.
Reason (R) : Under rain water harvesting, the primary aim is to let the rain water infiltrate
into the underground aquifer.
In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
72. For environmental mass awareness, Paryavaran Vahini Scheme was launched in the year
(A) 1988 (B) 2003
(C) 1992 (D) 1998
73. Disaster Management Act in India came into existence in the year
(A) 2003 (B) 2005
(C) 1998 (D) 2006
(B) O· 2
1 –
(A) O2
75. If we move through the group I elements from top to bottom we first encounter Lithium,
Sodium and Potassium. If we move further which elements we will encounter in sequence ?
(A) Caesium, Calcium, Rubidium
(B) Rubidium, Caesium, Francium
(C) Rubidium, Caesium, Rhodium
(D) Magnesium, Rubidium, Francium
D-89-14 15 Paper-III
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Space For Rough Work
Paper-III 16 D-89-14
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ENVIRONMENTAL
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SCIENCE
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PAPER-III
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NOTE: This paper is of two hundred (200) marks containing four (4) sections.
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J -8906
SECTION- I
Note: This section contains five (5) questions based on the following
paragraph. Each question should be answered in about thirty (30)
words and each carries five (5) marks_
(5x5=25 marks)
Read the passage below, and answer the questions that follow based on your
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understanding of the passage :
Coral reefs are highly complex and diverse ecosystems that develop in thew ann,
shallow and nutrient- poor waters typical of many tropical and subtropical oceans_
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They are highly productive systems and are often likened to rainforests in tenns of both
diversity and productivity_ 1lds very high biodiversity reflects the large variety of available
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microhabitats and niches within the complex physical structure of a reef_ It has been
estimated that at least a third of all marine fish are associated with coral reefs_ J\.fany
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reef dwellers are primary producers, either marine plants or symbiotic algae
(zooxanthellae) living within or between the cells of the corals themselves_
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Coral reefs grow slowly and are easily disrupted, thriving only in clear, wann
(always above 18°Q, nutrient -poor water with a constant high salinity_ They comprise
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atolls_ Fringing reefs are continuous with the shorelinf< of the associated landmass
although a shallow and narrow channel may develop behind the reef_ A barrier reef
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lies some distaru:e offshore from its associated landmass, separated from it by a lagoon
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with it_ The sustained existence of flourishing and productive coral reefs in
nutrient- poor oceanic waters appears at first to be paradoxical. However, the symbiotic
corals have developed highly effective internal mechanisms for the recycling of nutrients
within the system and so require little external nutrient supply_ However, despite their
high diversity and apparent stability, they are very susceptible to disturbance and they
J -8906 P.T.O.
'
are being destroyed or damaged in many parts of the world_ Tldsislargely a consequeru:e
of human activity although these are also natural problems such as hurricaTif<s, predation
by crown- of- thorns starfish (Acanthaster spp.) and ocean wanning (which can produce
bleaching). l\1any of the greatest threats come from the fact that socio -economic
forces often encourage the immediate exploitstion of reef resources, particularly in
developing countries_ Another major problem is the increase in sediments and nutrients
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in the water as a result of urbanisation, deforeststion, agriculture and poor land
management_ Sediment smothers the reef and blocks out the vital sunlight, while the
increase in nutrients leads to colonisation of the reef by macroalgae and again it becomes
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smothered by this new growth_
Some 300 coral reefs in 65 countries are protected as reserves or marine parks but
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protecting. managing and restoring reefs is very difficult and expensive_ Ten percent
of the world's reef area is estimated to have been degraded beyond recovery already
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and about another 30 per cent is under severe threat_ These are very imperfectly
understood ecosystems so prediction and management are particularly difficult_
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Answer the following questions :
1. Why management of coral reefs is difficult ?
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2. Why coral reefs are considered complex ecosystems ?
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J-8906 P.T.O.
4. What are the major types of coral reefs ?
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J-8906
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SECTION- II
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Defirlf< the following :
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6. Diagerlf<sis
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7. Brai&d river
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8. &ological niche
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9. Turbidity
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J-8906 9 P.T.O.
11. Sp...,iation
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13. Sanctuary
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14. Wetland
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15. Incineration
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17. Relative humidity in tenns of mixing ratios
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J-8906 P.T.O.
SECTION- III
Note: This section contains five (5) questions_ Each question carries twelve
(12) marks and is to be answered in about two hundred (200) words_
(Ux5=60 marks)
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22. Explain the radiation budget of the earth - abnospheric system_
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23. Discuss the application of recombinant DNA in environmental biology_
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24. Describe microbial method to screen a mutagen present in effluents_
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25. Enumerate the salient features of Gaussian Plume model for prediction of pollutant
concentration_
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J -8906 P.T.O.
SECTION- IV
Note: This section consists of one essay type question of forty (40) marks to
be answered in about one thousand (1000) words on any of the
following topics.
(40x1=40 marks)
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Sumatra earthquake of 26th December 2004 and the resultant Tsunami in the Indian
Ocean_
OR
Solid waste management in metropolitan cities_
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OR
Soil types of India_
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OR
Role of biotechnology in environmental management_
OR
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Merits and demerits of proposed river linldng project in India_
OR
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Conservation of biodiversity_
OR
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J-8906
FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
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J-8906
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ENVIRONMENTAL
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SCIENCE
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PAPER-III
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NOTE: This paper is of two hundred (200) marks containing four (4) sections.
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J -8907
SECTION- I
Note: This section contains five (5) questions based on the following
paragraph. Each question should be answered in about thirty (30)
words and each carries five (5) marks_
(5x5=25 marks)
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow based on your
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understanding of the passage :
Water pollution refers to any change in natural waters that may impair
further use of water, caused by the introduction of organic or inorganic substances
or by a change in the temperature of water_ Waste water emanate from the
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following sources Municipal waste water, Industrial waste water,
Agricultural nmoff, Stann water and Urban run off_
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During recent years such chemical pollution of water bodies has increased
many fold and people, who are responsible for human health have become
increasingly coru:eiT!f<d about water pollution_ Eutrophication is the enrichment
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of water by nutrients from natural or man-made sources_ Of all the nutrients,
nitrogen and phosphorus are most often considered as key nutrients responsible
for promotion of growth of algae and other plants resulting in anoxic condition
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Most common system practised for control of water pollution is the use of
waste water treabnent plants, based on the physical, chemical and biological
treabnent steps genf<rally known as preliminary, primary, secondary and tertiary
treatments_ It must be remembered that the steps of treabnent and type of
treabnent will depend upon the constituents and their concentrations in the
effluent and final usage of water_
J -8907 P.T.O.
'
1. E:xplam how is the quality of water deteriorated due to human activities.
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J -8907
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3. justify the statement "Pesticides are useful and at the same time harmful to the
ecosystem".
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J-8907 P.T.O.
5. How polluted water is treated for safe disposal?
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SECTION- II
Note: This section contains fifteen (15) questions each to be answered in
about thrrty (30) words. Each question carries five (5) marks.
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(5x15=75 marks)
Write short notes on:
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6. Principle of HPLC.
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7. Carbon monoxide.
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8. Phytoplankton.
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9. &ological succession.
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J -8907
11. &ological Pyramids.
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J-8907 9 P.T.O.
13. Fluorosis.
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J -8907
15. Principle of coagulation.
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J-8907 n P.T.O.
17. Scale of J\.1i?teorology.
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18. &omark
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19. Biofertilizers.
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J -8907 P.T.O.
SECTION - III
Note: This section contains five (5) questions_ Each question carries twelve
(12) marks and is to be answered in about two hundred (200) words_
(Ux5=60 marks)
21. Write an account on radiation hazards and its impact on human health_
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22. Describe 'hotspots' of biodiversity in India_
23. Examinf< the Arsenic problem in Bengal basin area_ What are the possible remedial
measures?
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24. Explain different components of soil and discuss the role of N, P and Kin soil fertility_
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25. Discuss harnessing potential of solar enf<rgy in India_ Explain the principles used for
heating and lighting_
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J -8907
SECTION- IV
Note: This section consists of one essay type question of forty (40) marks to
be answered in about one thousand (1000) words on any of the
following topics.
(40x1=40 marks)
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protecting them_
OR
(b) Define air quality index_ Discuss various factors that affect urban air quality and
measures of pollution control.
OR
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(c) Discuss various methods of disposal and recycling of municipal and biomedical
solid waste_
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OR
(d) What is toxicity? Ust out ten (10) important toxic substances present in the
environment_ Describe various methods of toxicity testing for pesticides_
OR
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(e) Discuss hydrological cycle_ Explain the concept of reservoirs, residence time and
fluxes_ Comment also on possible impact of climate change on water cycle_
OR
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(f) What are the sources of marine pollution? Discuss the 'impact of pollitants on
marine ecosystem_' Describe control measures for marine pollution_
OR
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(g) Explain the nf<ed for E.lA_ Discuss various methods of environmental impact
assessment and their relative merits and demerits_
OR
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(h) "&ological modelling can forecast the population growth and interactions in an
ecosysbn"_ justify with the help of suitsble models.
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J -8907 24
FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained
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J -8907
Signature and Name of Invigilator Roll No.
1. (Signature)
(Name)
Roll No.
2. (Signature)
(Name)
Test Booklet No.
J8 9 0 8 PAPERIII
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Time : 2½ hours] ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE [Maximum Marks : 200
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 32 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 26
Instructions for the Candidates ÂÚUèÿææçÍüØô¢ ·ð¤ çÜU° çÙÎðüàæ
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J8908 1 P.T.O.
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
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PAPERIII
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NOTE : This paper is of two hund ed (200) marks containing four (4) sections.
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J8908 2
SECTION - I
Note : This section contains five (5) questions based on the following
paragraph. Each question should be answered in about thirty (30)
words and each carries five (5) marks.
(5x5=25 Marks)
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow based on your
understanding of the passage.
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Biodiversity refers to the number variety and population sizes of living species
in their various physical habitats. It is mainly of three types viz., genetic
biodiversity, species biodiversity and ecosystem biodiversity.
Biodiversity is partly a function of the process of evolution by natural
selections. These ensure that the ecological niches are colonised by population of
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organisms that are best adapted to survive in the face of climatic extremes,
predators and competition from other species. The constant process of mutation
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and selection guarantee the production of new species However, the evolution
of species is tempered by fluctuations in numbers of organisms including
population explosion, where conditions are exceptionally favourable to
reproduction, survival and population overshoot and die-back when numbers
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start exceeding the carrying capacity of a species habitat. Environmental stress
and many forms of exploitation and predation can also regulate the numbers or
cause them to fluctuate over time.
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In natural world and in pre history large scale reduction in biodiversity
have resulted from climatic and geological extremes that have ended in loss,
fragmentation as sterilization of habitats and the collapse of food chain and webs.
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In the modern era, the principle cause of biodiversity loss is human activity. Land
is being transformed at an ever increasing rate and usually towards the
simplification and uniformitization of ecosystems. As population size and living
standards rise, pollution, industrialisation of agriculture and forestry tend to affect
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2. According to the passage, which of the most important points are being discussed :
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J8908 4
3. The material in the passage could best be used in an argument for :
(A) Boosting the economic growth of the country
(B) Sustainable existence of humans on the earth
(C) Proving the supremacy of humans
(D) Fullfilling the needs of humans on the earth
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4. The author strongly advocates which of the following ways to conserve the
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biodiversity ?
(A) Biotechnology
(B) Ex-situ protection methods
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J8908 5 P.T.O.
5. Which is the basic reason that is responsible for loss of biodiversity :
(A) Ecotourism
(B) Construction of dams
(C) Agricultural activity
(D) Rise in living standards of humans and population growth
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SECTION - II
Note : This section contains fifteen (15) questions each to be answered in
about thirty (30) words. Each question carries five (5) marks.
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(5x15=75 Marks)
6. Deltic Environment.
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7. Aerosols.
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8. Biopesticides.
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J8908 7 P.T.O.
9. Air quality index.
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J8908 8
11. Primary productivity.
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J8908 9 P.T.O.
13. BOD.
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J8908 10
15. Wet and dry deposition.
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16. Biofuels.
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17. Saturation mixing ratio.
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18. Radionuclides.
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19. Coefficient of determination (R2).
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J8908 13 P.T.O.
SECTION - III
Note : This section contains five (5) questions. Each question carries twelve
(12) marks and is to be answered in about two hundred (200) words.
(12x5=60 Marks)
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22. Energy flow in ecosystems.
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25. Rainwater harvesting.
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P.T.O.
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SECTION - IV
Note : This section consists of one essay type question of forty (40) marks to
be answered in about one thousand (1000) words on any of the
following topics.
(40x1=40 Marks)
om
OR
(b) Use of plant biomass for biofuel production.
OR
(c) Hotspots of biodiversity with special reference to India.
.c
OR
(d) Environmental priorities in India and sustainable development
OR
ce
(e) Salient features of Kyoto protocol and various mechanisms for its implementation.
OR
(f) Toxic chemicals in air and water. Methodologies of Environmental Impact
ra
Assessment.
OR
(g) Remote sensing and its application to Environmental Sciences.
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FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained
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1 26 51 76
2 27 52 77
3 28 53 78
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5 30 55 80
6 31 56 81
7 32 57 82
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8 33 58 83
9 34 59 84
10 35 60 85
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11 36 61 86
12 37 62 87
13 38 63 88
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14 39 64 89
15 40 65 90
16 41 66 91
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17 42 67 92
18 43 68 93
19 4 69 94
20 45 70 95
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21 46 71 96
2 47 72 97
23 48 73 98
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J8908 32
Signature and Name of Invigilator Roll No.
1. (Signature)
(Name)
Roll No.
2. (Signature)
(Name)
Test Booklet No.
J8 9 0 9 PAPERIII
Time : 2½ hours] ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE [Maximum Marks : 200
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 32 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 26
Instructions for the Candidates ¬⁄ˡÊÊÁÕ¸ÿÙ¢ ∑ Á‹∞ ÁŸŒ¸‡Ê
¬„‹ ¬ÎD ∑ ™ ¬⁄ ÁŸÿà SÕÊŸ ¬⁄ •¬ŸÊ ⁄Ù‹ Ÿê’⁄ Á‹Áπ∞–
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¬˝‡ŸÙ¢ ∑ ’ÊŒ ◊¢ ÁŒÿ „Èÿ Á⁄Äà SÕÊŸ ¬⁄ „Ë Á‹Áπÿ–
! "# ß‚∑ Á‹∞ ∑ Ù߸ •ÁÃÁ⁄Äà ∑ ʪ¡ ∑ Ê ©¬ÿÙª Ÿ„Ë¢ ∑ ⁄ŸÊ „Ò–
No Additional Sheets are to be used.
$ ¬⁄ˡÊÊ ¬˝Ê⁄ê÷ „ÙŸ ¬⁄, ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê •Ê¬∑ Ù Œ ŒË ¡ÊÿªË– ¬„‹
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#
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% (
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∑ fl⁄ ¬ÎD ¬⁄ ¿¬ ÁŸŒ¸‡ÊÊŸÈ‚Ê⁄ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê ∑ ¬ÎD ÃÕÊ
Tally the number of pages and number of ¬˝‡ŸÙ¢ ∑ Ë ‚¢ÅÿÊ ∑ Ù •ë¿Ë Ã⁄„ øÒ∑ ∑ ⁄ ‹¢ Á∑ ÿ ¬Í⁄ „Ò¢ –
questions in the booklet with the information ŒÙ·¬Íáʸ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê Á¡Ÿ◊¢ ¬ÎD / ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑ ◊ „Ù¢ ÿÊ ŒÈ’Ê⁄Ê •Ê ªÿ
printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due „Ù¢ ÿÊ ‚ËÁ⁄ÿ‹ ◊¢ Ÿ „Ù¢ •Õʸà Á∑ ‚Ë ÷Ë ¬˝∑ Ê⁄ ∑ Ë òÊÈÁ≈¬Íáʸ
to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not
¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê SflË∑ Ê⁄ Ÿ ∑ ⁄¢ ÃÕÊ ©‚Ë ‚◊ÿ ©‚ ‹ı≈Ê∑ ⁄ ©‚∑
in serial order or any other discrepancy should
be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet SÕÊŸ ¬⁄ ŒÍ‚⁄Ë ‚„Ë ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê ‹ ‹– ß‚∑ Á‹∞
from the invigilator within the period of 5 •Ê¬∑ Ù ¬Ê°ø Á◊Ÿ≈ ÁŒÿ ¡Êÿ¢ª– ©‚∑ ’ÊŒ Ÿ ÃÙ •Ê¬∑ Ë
minutes. Afterwards, neither the question ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê flʬ‚ ‹Ë ¡ÊÿªË •ı⁄ Ÿ „Ë •Ê¬∑ Ù •ÁÃÁ⁄Q
booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will ‚◊ÿ ÁŒÿÊ ¡ÊÿªÊ–
be given.
+ ,
+ •ãŒ⁄ ÁŒÿ ªÿ ÁŸŒ¸‡ÊÙ¢ ∑ Ù äÿÊŸ¬Ífl¸∑ ¬…∏¢ –
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& ∑ ⁄à „Ò¢ ÃÙ ¬⁄ˡÊÊ ∑ Á‹ÿ •ÿÙÇÿ ÉÊÙÁ·Ã ∑ ⁄ ÁŒÿ ¡Êÿ¢ª–
1 •Ê¬∑ Ù ¬⁄ˡÊÊ ‚◊Ê# „ÙŸ ¬⁄ ©ûÊ⁄-¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê ÁŸ⁄ˡÊ∑ ◊„ÙŒÿ ∑ Ù
1 2 ! # ‹ı≈ÊŸÊ •Êfl‡ÿ∑ „Ò •ı⁄ ß‚ ¬⁄ˡÊÊ ‚◊ÊÁ# ∑ ’ÊŒ •¬Ÿ ‚ÊÕ
% ¬⁄ˡÊÊ ÷flŸ ‚ ’Ê„⁄ Ÿ ‹∑ ⁄ ¡Êÿ¢–
.% 3 4 ∑ fl‹ ŸË‹ / ∑ Ê‹ ’Ê‹ åflÊßZ≈ ¬ÒŸ ∑ Ê „Ë ßSÃ◊Ê‹ ∑ ⁄¢ –
4 Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 5 Á∑ ‚Ë ÷Ë ¬˝∑ Ê⁄ ∑ Ê ‚¢ªáÊ∑ (∑Ò ‹∑È ‹≈ ⁄) ÿÊ ‹Êª ≈ ’‹
5 Use of any calculator or log table etc. is prohibited. •ÊÁŒ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÙª flÁ¡¸Ã „Ò–
J8909 1 P.T.O.
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
PAPERIII
NOTE : This paper is of two hundred (200) marks containing four (4) sections.
Candidates are required to attempt the questions contained in these sections
according to the detailed instructions given therein.
J8909 2
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SECTION - I
Note : This section contains five (5) questions based on the following
paragraph. Each question should be answered in about thirty (30)
words and each carries five (5) marks.
(5x5=25 marks)
Global Environmental Monitoring System (GEMS)
GEMS is a worldwide collective effect to monitor the global environment
and make periodic assessments of the health of its constituents. Data are collected
through monitoring and assessment activities covering most of the environmental
parameters. One hundred and fortytwo countries participate in atleast one of
these activities. The system involves the collaborations, of which the most
important are the FAO, WHO, WMO, UNESCO and IUCN.
GEMS network monitor changes in atmospheric composition and the climatic
system, freshwater and coastal pollution, air pollution, food contamination,
deforestation, ozone depletion, the build up of greenhouse gases, acid rain, the
extend of global ice cover and many issues related to biological diversity.
GEMS was first proposed in 1971 by the Scientific Committee on Problems
of Environment (SCOPE) later it was formally created in 1975, as a small
secretariat of UNEP.
During 1990s, GEMS took over a newer area of investigation i.e. early
warning system for Environmental threats and disasters.
1. What is GEMS ?
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2. Expand and give the role of FAO.
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4. Enumerate problems related to freshwater contamination.
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SECTION - II
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7. ISO certification.
8. Solar energy.
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9. South Asian Monsoon.
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11. Environmental Protection.
12. Leachate.
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13. Oxbow Lake.
14. Lysochine
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15. Antecedent drainage.
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17. Ionizing and non-ionizing radiations.
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19. Velamen.
20. Lysozyme.
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SECTION - III
Note : This section contains five (5) questions. Each question carries twelve
(12) marks and is to be answered in about two hundred (200) words.
(12x5=60 marks)
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SECTION - IV
Note : This section consists of one essay type question of forty (40) marks to
be answered in about one thousand (1000) words on any one of the
following topics.
(40x1=40 marks)
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FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained
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Question
Question
Question
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Number
Number
Number
Number
Marks
Marks
Marks
Marks
1 26 51 76
2 27 52 77
3 28 53 78
4 29 54 79
5 30 55 80
6 31 56 81
7 32 57 82
8 33 58 83
9 34 59 84
10 35 60 85
11 36 61 86
12 37 62 87
13 38 63 88
14 39 64 89
15 40 65 90
16 41 66 91
17 42 67 92
18 43 68 93
19 44 69 94
20 45 70 95
21 46 71 96
22 47 72 97
23 48 73 98
24 49 74 99
25 50 75 100
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PAPER-III
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________ Roll No.
2. (Signature) __________________________ (In figures as per admission card)
(Name) ____________________________
Roll No.________________________________
J 89 1 1 (In words)
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
PAPER – III
Note : This paper is of two hundred (200) marks containing four (4) sections. Candidates
are required to attempt the questions contained in these sections according to the
detailed instructions given therein.
J-89-11 2
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SECTION – I
Note : This section consists of two essay type questions of twenty (20) marks each, to be
answered in about five hundred (500) words each. (2 × 20 = 40 marks)
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SECTION – II
Note : This section contains three (3) questions of fifteen (15) marks each to be answered
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SECTION – III
Note : This section contains nine (9) questions of ten (10) marks, each to be answered in
about fifty (50) words. (9 × 10 = 90 marks)
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8. Write about the methods to test the microbial quality of drinking water.
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10. Enlist methods for control of NOx pollution in environment.
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12. Define day-night noise index LDN , if day is of 15 hours (6 AM – 9 PM) and night is
of 9 hours (9 PM – 6 AM).
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14. Give in brief the theoretical framework of a multiple regression model.
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SECTION – IV
Note : This section contains five (5) questions of five (5) marks each based on the following
passage. Each question should be answered in about thirty (30) words.
(5 × 5 = 25 marks)
Since long it has been realised that the exploitation of fossil fuels, metals and other
non – renewables cannot continue unchecked. Expression of worldwide concern
about sustainable industrialisation and development led to the first UN Earth Summit
in Rio de Janeiro in 1992. The Summit defined the objectives of the sustainable
J-89-11 26
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development which included avoiding depletion of non–renewable resources,
protection of environment, social equity and justice.
The International Energy Agency in the year 2003 predicted that with
increasing energy demand, the world’s supply of crude oil will peak around 2014 and
that coal will last until the year 2200. The decline in available coal and crude oil
should cause their prices to go up which would limit their use. Moreover the use of
fossil fuels has been identified as a major factor contributing to global warming. To
address the problems due to global warming, the international community agreed to
have Kyoto Protocol in 1997, which envisaged a reduction of CO2 emissions by 5.2%
below 1990 levels by 2012. The use of renewable energy was to be increased to 5%
by 2003 and 10% by 2010.
The Governments in United Kingdom and India have also stressed the need to
create a low carbon economy and to have a low carbon footprint for the individuals.
In response, countries like India have started searching for alternative energy sources.
In this quest for developing new sources of energy, Biotechnology can play a
significant role by identifying biological agents, tools and techniques for producing
biofuels. This would help in achieving the goal of energy security for the country to a
great extent.
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16. What is the major cause of global warming and how does it occur ?
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18. What do you understand by low carbon economy and carbon foot print ?
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19. How can biotechnology help in achieving energy security ?
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Space For Rough Work
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FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained
Question Marks
Number Obtained
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PAPER-III
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)
J-89-14 1 P.T.O.
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Paper – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each.
All questions are compulsory.
1. Chemosynthesis involves CO2 5. The molar extinction coefficient of
fixation using energy derived from proline ninhydrin complex at 520 nm
(A) Sunlight is 0.34 µM–1Cm–1. A solution of the
proline ninhydrin complex has an
(B) Infrared radiation
absorbance of 0.68 in a one
(C) UV-radiation centimeter cuvette. The concentration
(D) Inorganic and Organic (µM) of proline is
compounds (A) 0.5
2. Wind in the mountain-valley regions (B) 0.2312
are of (C) 2.312
(A) Microscale (D) 2
(B) Mesoscale
6. The principal components of
(C) Macroscale photochemical smog in urban areas
(D) Synoptic scale are
(A) SO2 and NO2
3. In tropical region an aircraft is flying
at an altitude of 10 km. At that (B) SPM and CO
altitude the temperature is – 40 °C. (C) SPM and NO2
What is the ambient temperature on (D) Oxides of Nitrogen,
the ground ? Hydrocarbons and Ozone.
(A) 24 °C
7. The amount of a particular gas
(B) 40 °C dissolved in water depends on
(C) 30 °C (i) its solubility in water.
(D) 20 °C (ii) its partial pressure at the
air/water interface or sediment/
4. Assertion (A) : Upper atmosphere water interface.
shields life on earth. (iii) the water temperature.
Reason (R) : Ultraviolet (iv) the levels of salts in the water.
radiations are absorbed in the
Identify the correct answer :
upper atmosphere.
(A) (i) and (ii) only
Choose the correct answer :
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
Codes :
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A). (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but 8. A 50 ml solution of pH = 1 is mixed
(R) is not the correct with a 50 ml solution of pH = 2. The
explanation of (A). pH of the mixture will be nearly
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false. (A) 0.76 (B) 1.26
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true. (C) 1.76 (D) 2.26
Paper-III 2 J-89-14
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9. The solubility product of the 13. Nudation is generally caused by
following type of reaction : (A) migration of species
(B) climate change
Al (OH)3 → Al3+ + 3OH is (C) invasion of foreign species
(A) Ksp = (Al) (OH) (D) modification of habitat
(B) Ksp = (Al3+) (3OH)
14. Which one of the following is the best
(C) Ksp = (Al3+) (OH)3 tool to study the interacting residues in
protein-ligand interaction ?
(D) Ksp = (Al3+) (OH) (A) X-ray crystallography
(B) Circular dichroism spectroscopy
10. Cells grown in medium containing (C) UV – Vis spectroscopy
isotope sulphur 35 will show radio (D) Fluorescence spectroscopy
labelling in
(A) membrane lipids 15. During centrifugation, if the
centrifugal force is FC, buoyant force
(B) membrane proteins
is Fb, and frictional force is Ff, which
(C) glycogen of the following equations expresses
(D) nucleic acid the sedimentation of the molecule ?
(A) FC = Fb – Ff
11. A stream flowing at 10.0 m3/s has a (B) FC = Fb + Ff
tributary feeding it with a flow of Fb – Ff
(C) FC = 2
5.0 m3/s. The stream concentration of
chloride upstream at the junction is Fb + Ff
20.0 mg/L and the tributary chloride (D) FC = 2
concentration is 40 mg/L. Treating
chloride as a conservative substance 16. Match the List – I with List – II and
and assuming complete mixing of the choose the correct answer from the
two streams, find the down stream given codes :
concentration. List – I List – II
(A) 26.7 mg/L (Lakes) (Characteristics)
(B) 30.2 mg/L a. Oligotrophic i. More nutrient
(C) 22.6 mg/L lakes concentration
(D) 35.2 mg/L b. Dystrophic ii. Magmatic water
lakes
c. Eutrophic iii. Low nutrient
12. Assume that dilution factor p for an lakes concentration
unseeded mixture of waste and water d. Volcanic iv. Low pH and
is 0.03. The DO of the mixture is lakes high humic acid
initially 9.0 mg/L and after 5 days, it conditions
has dropped to 3.0 mg/L. The Codes :
reaction rate constant ‘K’ has been a b c d
found to be 0.22 / day. Five day BOD
(A) i ii iii iv
of the water will be
(B) ii i iv iii
(A) 200 mg/L (B) 150 mg/L
(C) iii iv i ii
(C) 100 mg/L (D) 75 mg/L (D) iv iii ii i
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17. The earthworm used for composting is 21. Under the Rhino relocation project,
(a) Crassiclitellata excavata during 1987, Rhinoes were
(b) Octochaetona serrata introduced in
(c) Lumbricus terrestris (A) Assam
(d) Eisenia foetida
Choose the correct answer : (B) Meghalaya
(A) (a) and (b) only (C) West Bengal
(B) (b) and (d) only (D) Madhya Pradesh
(C) (b) and (c) only
(D) (a) and (d) only
22. Which of the following is an
18. The amount of the living material endangered bird species ?
present in different trophic levels at a (A) Kashmir stag
given time is called
(a) standing crop (B) Great Indian Bustard
(b) standing state (C) Hangul
(c) biomass (D) Black buck
(d) biosphe
Choose the correct answer :
(A) (a) and (c) are correct. 23. In India, Crocodile breeding project
(B) (d) is correct. started for the first time in
(C) (b) is correct. (A) Tamil Nadu
(D) (c) and (b) are correct. (B) West Bengal
19. Many orchids use trees as a surface (C) Odisha
to grow. This is an example of (D) Goa
(A) Commensalism
(B) Mutualism
(C) Parasitism 24. Identify the correct sequence of
(D) Predation materials in terms of their porosity.
(A) Sand > clay > gravel
20. The r– strategist is a (B) Clay > sand > gravel
(A) small organism that has a short
life, produces many offsprings (C) Gravel > sand > clay
and does not reach carrying (D) Gravel > clay > sand
capacity.
(B) small organism that has a
25. For an aquifer of gravel having cross
longer life, produces offsprings
sectional area of 4 m2 and a depth of
and does not reach carrying
2.5 m, how much water could
capacity.
potentially be extracted ? (The
(C) small organism that has a short
porosity and specific yield of gravel
life, produces numerous
are 25% and 20% respectively.)
offsprings and reach carrying
capacity. (A) 0.5 m3
(D) medium organism that has a (B) 0.25 m3
short life, produces numerous (C) 0.125 m3
offsprings and reach carrying
capacity. (D) 1 m3
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26. The layers formed by thermal 30. Tundra is a biome characterized by
stratification in lakes are
(A) Epilimnion, Midlimnion, (A) stunted trees and permanently
Hypolimnion frozen sub-surface soil.
(B) Epilimnion, Oligolimnion, (B) coniferous trees and
Hypolimnion permanently frozen sub-surface
(C) Epilimnion, Dystrolimnion, soil.
Hypolimnion
(D) Epilimnion, Thermocline, (C) lack of trees and permanently
Hypolimnion frozen sub-surface soil.
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33. Assertion (A) : Large scale OTEC 37. In a nuclear fusion reactor it is
development may not be good envisaged to use a liquid blanket of
for environment. Li to absorb fast neutrons from D+T
Reason (R) : Release of CO2 reaction. How many neutrons are
from ocean depths into the produced as a result of 73Li + 01n ?
atmosphere could exacerbate
GHG effect. (A) 1
(B) 2
Codes :
(C) 3
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A). (D) 4
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
(R) is not the correct 38. In an ideal MHD power plant, the
explanation of (A). electrical efficiency corresponding to
maximum power production is
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(A) 50%
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(B) 75%
34. In a methane fuel cell, what will be (C) 25%
the voltage of the cell and its (D) 100%
efficiency ?
(Given : G° = 8 × 105 Joules/gm – 39. Energy intensity is a measure of
mole H° = 8.8 × 105 Joules / (A) effectiveness of energy
gm – mole and Faraday’s utilisation
constant = 96500 coulomb/
(B) energy produced per unit area
gm-mole)
(C) energy produced per unit
(A) ~ 1.23 Volts, ~ 90.9% volume
(B) ~ 1.04 Volts, ~ 90.9% (D) energy produced per unit area
(C) ~ 1.15 Volts, ~ 11% per unit time
(D) ~ 2.13 Volts, ~ 92%
40. One of the criteria for characterizing
35. The coefficient of performance for an a region as ABC hotspot is that the
ideal wind mill is annual mean anthropogenic Aerosol
(A) 3/8 Optical Depth (AOD) is greater than
(B) 5/16 (A) 0.3
(C) 2/5 (B) 0.5
(C) 0.8
(D) 16/27
(D) 0.1
36. Assume that the energy released
during the combustion of methane is 41. The resultant of two noise levels of
900 kJ/mol. Its carbon intensity is 50 dB and 55 dB is
(A) 13.3 gc/MJ (A) 58 dB
(B) 15.3 gc/MJ (B) 55.41 dB
(C) 19.7 gc/MJ (C) 52.5 dB
(D) 24.2 gc/MJ (D) 56.19 dB
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42. Which of the following is used as a 46. Which one of the following is used
coagulant for removal of phosphates as microbial indicator of water
in water ? contamination ?
(A) Aluminium sulphate (A) Coliform bacteria
(B) Iron sulphate (B) Giardia
(C) Copper sulphate (C) Cryptosporidium
(D) Potassium chromate (D) Tobacco mosaic virus
43. Which of the following radionuclides 47. Elevated salt and Na+ concentrations
has the longest half-life ? in soils are highly toxic to many
plants, but relatively high tolerance
(A) C14
level (to this toxicity) is seen in
(B) Sr90
(A) Sugarbeet
131
(C) I
(B) Sugarcane
137
(D) Cs
(C) Onion
(D) Lettuce
44. Under anaerobic conditions
nitrogenase catalises
(A) breakdown of atmospheric 48. Which of the following hydrocarbons
nitrogen is emitted by vegetation ?
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50. Given the following parameters of a 53. Battelle-Columbus weighting –
primary settling chamber : scaling checklist methodology for
Diameter = 50m, Depth = 2.5m, water-resources projects obtains base
average detention time = 2 hours. line data on how many
How much quantity of waste water is environmental parameters ?
being treated ? (A) 40
(A) ~ 58928 m3/day (B) 78
(B) ~ 48321 m3/day (C) 68
(C) ~ 45321 m3/day (D) 50
(D) ~ 25321 m3/day
54. Match List – I with List – II and
choose the correct answer from the
51. A flat surface type electrostatic codes given below :
precipitator (ESP) has the following
List – I List – II
parameters : collector plate area
A = 4600 m2, volumetric flow rate a. Checklists i. Involve preparation
Q = 200 m3/s and effective drift methods of a set of
velocity of flue gas = 0.15 m/s. What transparent maps,
is the efficiency of the ESP ? which represent the
spatial distribution
(A) ~ 0.968 (B) ~ 0.981 of an environmental
(C) ~ 0.975 (D) ~ 0.922 characteristics
52. Assertion (A) : Cost-benefit b. Overlays ii. Highly structured
analysis for assessment of methods approaches involving
natural systems is not merely importance
concerned with the effects on weightings for factors
environmental quality but seeks and appli-cation of
the conditions for sustainable scaling techniques
use of the natural resources of a c. Adhoc iii. Identification and
region. methods evaluation of
Reason (R) : Cost-benefit analysis interactions between
is not useful for small scale various activities and
development projects, but is environmental
better suited for the analysis parameters
and evaluation of a regional d. Matrices iv. Indicate broad areas
development plan. methods of possible impacts
Identify the correct answer : by listing composite
Codes : environmental
parameters
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
the correct explanation. Codes :
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but a b c d
(R) is not the correct (A) i ii iii iv
explanation. (B) iv ii i iii
(C) (A) is true and (R) is wrong. (C) ii i iv iii
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong. (D) iii iv ii i
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55. Match List – I with List – II and 58. According to Environment
choose the correct answer from the (Protection) Act, 1986 permissible
codes given below : limits of oil and grease in the
List – I (Criteria of List – II effluents to be discharged into public
EIA Methodology) (Component) sewers is
a. Impact i. Magnitude (A) 10 mg/l
identification (B) 20 mg/l
b. Impact ii. Specificity (C) 25 mg/l
measurement (D) 30 mg/l
c. Impact iii. Depth of
communication analysis
d. Impact iv. Compre- 59. ‘Reed swamp stage’ is also referred
interpretation hensive to as
overall (A) submerged stage
perspective (B) woodland stage
Codes : (C) rooted floated stage
a b c d (D) amphibious stage
(A) i iv iii ii
(B) ii i iv iii 60. Match List – I with List – II and
(C) iii iv i iv choose the correct answer from the
(D) iv iii ii i given codes :
List – I List – II
56. Significant hazard/accident factor to (Ecosystem types) (Characteristics)
be considered under risk assessment a. Coral reefs i. Still water
of distillaries are b. Deltas ii. Saline water
(A) toxic gas release and human
c. Wetlands iii. Brackish
accident
water
(B) pressure wave and heat
d. Rivers iv. Fresh water
radiation
(C) toxic gas release and radiation Codes :
(D) pressure wave and toxic gas a b c d
release (A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii i iv
57. If ‘I’ is the impact of the population (C) ii i iv iii
on the environment, ‘P’ is the size of (D) iii iv i ii
the population, ‘A’ is the per capita
affluence or consumption and ‘T’ is
the damage caused by technologies, 61. Maximum energy content (KJ/kg) in
then which of the following equation a typical municipal solid waste is
is correct ? found in
(A) I = (P × A)/T (A) Plastic
(B) I = P × A × T (B) Leather
(C) I = T/(P × A) (C) Wood
(D) I = P/(A × T) (D) Textile
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62. Public Liability Insurance Act was 66. A Ψ2 distribution with 10 degrees of
enacted in the year freedom has variance
(A) 1991 (A) 10
(B) 1993 (B) 20
(C) 1995 (C) 5
(D) 1997 (D) 40
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70. Assume that 5.3 billion people live in 73. REDD+ initiatives include
less developed countries, where I. Forest carbon partnership
average birth rate is 23 and infant facility
mortality rate is 53. Then the total II. Forest investment programme
death due to infant mortality are III. Sanitation for all
(A) 6.5 × 106/year IV. Food security for all
Choose the correct code :
(B) 5.3 × 106/year (A) I and IV only
(C) 7.3 × 106/year (B) I and II only
(D) 8.5 × 106/year (C) I, II and III only
(D) III and IV only
71. Which of the following act as 74. Match List – I with List – II and
‘natural sink for carbon’ ? choose the correct answer from the
I. Trees codes given below:
II. Oceans List – I List – II
(Environment (Year)
III. Soils Related Treaties)
Choose the correct code : a. CITES i. 1989
b. Basel ii. 1973
(A) I only
c. UNFCCC iii. 1997
(B) I and II only d. Kyoto Protocol iv. 1992
(C) I, II and III Codes :
a b c d
(D) II and III only
(A) iii ii i iv
(B) iv iii ii i
72. Match List – I with List – II and (C) i iv iii ii
choose the correct answer from the (D) ii i iv iii
codes given below:
List – I List – II 75. Identify the correct sequence with
(GHGs) (Atmospheric reference to sensitization about
Lifetime) (Yrs) environmental problems.
a. CFC-12 i. 12 (A) Knowledge → Awareness →
Attitude → Skill → Evaluation
b. Methane ii. 50-200
ability → Participation
c. CO2 iii. 114 (B) Knowledge → Awareness →
d. N2O iv. 100 Skill → Attitude →
Participation → Evaluation
Codes :
ability
a b c d (C) Awareness → Knowledge →
(A) iii iv i ii Attitude → Skill → Evaluation
ability → Participation
(B) ii iii iv i
(D) Awareness → Knowledge →
(C) iv i ii iii Participation → Attitude →
(D) i ii iii iv Skill → Evaluation ability
J-89-14 11 Paper-III
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Space For Rough Work
Paper-III 12 J-89-14
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PAPER-III
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
PAPER – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each.
All questions are compulsory.
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9. Depending upon the amount of net 12. Raunkiaer’s normal biological
primary productivity the various spectrum for phanerogamic flora of the
ecosystems can be arranged in a world exhibits one of the following
decreasing sequence of yield. sequence of occurrence (%) of
(A) Tropical seasonal forest – different life forms.
Tropical rain forest – Temperate
(A) Phanerophytes,
Grassland – Woodland and
Shrubland. Hemicryptophytes, Therophytes,
(B) Tropical seasonal forest – Cryptophytes, Chaemophytes.
Tropical rain forest – Woodland (B) Phanerophytes,
and Shrubland – Temperate Hemicryptophytes, Therophytes,
Grassland Chaemophytes, Cryptophytes.
(C) Tropical rain forest – Temperate (C) Phanerophytes,
Grassland – Woodland and Hemicryptophytes,
Shrubland – Tropical seasonal Cryptophytes, Chaemophytes,
forest. Therophytes.
(D) Tropical rain forest – Tropical (D) Phanerophytes, Chaemophytes,
seasonal forest – Woodland and
Hemicryptophytes,
Shrubland – Temperate
Grassland. Cryptophytes, Therophytes.
10. Which of the following is a correct 13. One of the following categories of
sequence of secondary seral vegetation earthworms is most suitable for
development on any habitat ? wasteland reclamation.
(A) Ecesis – Invasion – Aggregation (A) Epigeic
– Stabilization (B) Anecic
(B) Ecesis – Aggregation – Invasion (C) Endogeic
– Stabilization (D) None of the above
(C) Aggregation – Invasion – Ecesis
– Stabilization
(D) Invasion – Ecesis – Aggregation 14. How many mega-bio-diverse countries
– Stabilization have been identified in the world ?
(A) 2
(B) 12
11. What is common feature among the
following ? (C) 17
Abies delavayi (D) 35
Aconitum diennorrhzum
Adinandra griffthii 15. Which one of the following is an Ex-
Aglaia perviridis situ method of biodiversity
(A) All have been extinct. conservation ?
(B) All are gymnosperms. (A) Seed storage
(C) All are identified as endangered (B) DNA Bank
species. (C) Tissue culture
(D) All are angiosperms. (D) All the above
D-89-12 3 Paper-III
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16. Which one of the following is a methyl 21. The sequence of ease of decomposition
isocyanate (MIC) based pesticide ? of organic compounds in soil is
(A) Sevin (Carbaryl) (A) Lignin – Hemicellulose – Starch
(B) Temix (Aldicarb) – Crude protein – Fat
(C) Furadon (Carbofuran) (B) Crude protein – Starch – Fat –
(D) All the above Lignin – Hemicellulose
(C) Starch – Crude protein –
Hemicellulose – Fat – Lignin
17. The sequence of fossil fuels in the
(D) Fat – Starch – Lignin –
order of higher to lower heating value
Hemicellulose – Crude protein
is as follows :
(A) Coal, Petroleum, Natural Gas,
22. Which one of the following radio-
Hydrogen.
nuclides has the lowest half life
(B) Hydrogen, Natural Gas, period ?
Petroleum, Coal. (A) C14
(C) Hydrogen, Coal, Natural Gas, (B) Sr90
Petroleum. (C) I131
(D) Natural Gas, Petroleum, Coal, (D) Cs137
Hydrogen.
23. Match the rules mentioned in Column
18. Natural ore of radioactive materials – I with year of enforcement
does not contain which one of the mentioned in Column – II.
following isotope ? Column – I Column – II
(A) U235 a. Hazardous Wastes 1. 2000
(B) Pu239 (Management and
(C) U238 Handling) Rules
(D) Th232 b. Biomedical Solid 2. 1978
Wastes (Management
and Handling) Rules.
19. The process of splitting bigger hydro-
c. Municipal Solid 3. 1989
carbon into smaller hydrocarbon
Wastes (Management
molecules is called
and Handling) Rules
(A) Pyrolysis
d. The Water 4. 1998
(B) Thermal decomposition (Prevention and
(C) Cracking Control of Pollution)
(D) Combustion Cess Rules
Choose the correct code :
20. Which one of the following is a Codes :
complex in organic fertilizer ? a b c d
(A) Urea (A) 3 4 1 2
(B) Super phosphate (B) 4 1 2 3
(C) Potash (C) 2 4 3 1
(D) NPK (D) 1 3 4 2
Paper-III 4 D-89-12
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24. Average composition of biodegradable 27. Which of the following is true when
waste in Municipal Solid Waste frequency of occurrence of risk is
(MSW) of India is remote but possible ?
(A) 30 – 35% (A) Risk is acceptable.
(B) 40 – 45% (B) Risk reduction measures should
(C) 55 – 65% be implemented.
(D) 60 – 70% (C) Risk is unacceptable.
(D) Both (A) and (B) are true.
25. The treatment method recommended
for the human anatomical waste
generated from hospitals is 28. Given below are two statements, one
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
(A) Chemical disinfection
labelled as Reason (R).
(B) Autoclaving
Assertion (A) : Indirect impacts are
(C) Incineration more difficult to measure, but can
(D) All the above ultimately be more important.
Reason (R) : In areas where wildlife is
26. Match the waste class mentioned in plentiful, such as Africa, new roads
Column – I with Color Code of the often lead to the rapid depletion of
Collection Container mentioned in animals.
Column – II. Choose the correct answer.
Column – I Column – II Codes :
a. Human 1. Blue (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
Anatomical Waste (R) is the correct explanation.
b. Waste Scrap 2. Green
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
c. Discarded glass 3. Red (R) is not the correct explanation.
ware
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
d. Disposable 4. White
plastics (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
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30. Given below are two statements, one 34. The efficiency of a MHD power
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
generator for applied electric field E ,
labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : It is difficult to judge magnetic field B and velocity of hot
how changes in localized gas
ionized gas U is
samples represent more general
conditions in the Volcano. |E|
Reason (R) : The composition of the (A)
| U| | B|
juvenile gases emitted from
volcanic vents offen show | U| | B|
considerable variation over short (B)
|E|
2
periods and distances.
Choose the correct answer.
|E|
Codes : (C)
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) | U| | B|
is the correct explanation of (A). 2
|E|
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (D)
(R) is not the correct explanation –2
| U| |B|
of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
35. Match the List – I with List – II and
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
choose the correct answer from the
31. In a false – color set, human visual codes given below :
perception is limited to how many List – I List – II
independent coordinates ? (Constituents (Sources)
(A) Three of
(B) Four Particulate
(C) One matter)
(D) Five a. Si 1. Natural Resources
b. PAH 2. Incomplete
32. If D = Detector Dimension, F = Focal combustion of
Length, H = Flying Height, then Ground fossil fuels.
(A) (D/F) H
Resolution Element (GRE) is equal to 2– 3. Elements largely
c. SO4
introduced by
(B) D/F Human Activities.
(C) H/F d. Pb 4. Reactions of a gas
(D) D/H in atmosphere.
33. Darkest level of the associated color Choose the correct code :
(RGB) would have brightness value Codes :
equal to a b c d
(A) 0 (A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 256 (B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 255 (C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 2047 (D) 3 4 2 1
Paper-III 6 D-89-12
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36. For aerosol particles having sizes > 1 m, 40. Two sounds of 80 dB and 85 dB
the terminal settling velocity (VT) of an superimpose at a location. What is the
aerosol particle varies with its diameter resultant sound at that location ?
(D) as (A) ~ 82 dB
(A) VT D (B) ~ 87 dB
VT D2
(C) ~ 91 dB
(B)
VT D3
(D) ~ 165 dB
(C)
(D) VT D3/2 41. The coefficient of performance of a
wind turbine for maximum power
output is
37. Scale lengths associated with synoptic (A) 13/18
scale phenomenon in atmosphere are (B) 5/8
typically in the range
(C) 16/27
(A) 10 – 100 km (D) 11/17
(B) 200 – 40,000 km
(C) 10,000 – 100,000 km 42. Which of the following does not have a
(D) 1 – 10 km direct role in climate change ?
(A) Sulphate and nitrate aerosols
(B) Black carbon aerosols
39. The wavelengths of UV-A radiations 44. Which type of support media is used in
are in the range different types of electrophoresis ?
(A) Agarose gel
(A) 200 – 240 nm
(B) Polyacrylamide gel
(B) 240 – 280 nm
(C) Sodium dedecyl sulphate
(C) 280 – 320 nm polyacrylamide gel
(D) 320 – 400 nm (D) All the above
D-89-12 7 Paper-III
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45. Which of the following categories of 49. Maximum CaO is found in
plants get benefitted more due to
elevation of CO2 level ? (A) Bauxite
(C) Confined aquifers (C) SiO2 > Fe2O3 > Al2O3> TiO2
(D) Unconfined aquifers
(D) SiO2 > Fe2O3 > TiO2> Al2O3
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53. Given below are two statements, one 56. The country which uses maximum
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other nuclear power is
labelled as Reason (R). (A) U.S.A.
Assertion (A) : Some plants with (B) Japan
mycorrhizal fungi are able to
(C) France
occupy habitats that otherwise
could not inhabit. (D) Germany
Reason (R) : The importance of
mycorrhizal plant interaction is 57. Which bacteria removes copper from
attested by the fact that 95% of all low grade copper ore ?
plants have mycorrhizae. (A) Thiobacillus sp
Choose the correct answer : (B) Bacillus thuringiensis
Codes : (C) Rhizobium sp
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (D) All of the above
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A).
58. Which of the following is not a part of
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but
(R) is not the correct explanation Geographic Information System
of (A). (GIS) ?
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (A) Projection
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (B) Overlay
(C) Reclassification
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61. Reserve food material in algae is 66. Which of the following disinfection
(A) Starch method does not result in synthesis of
organochlorine ?
(B) Cellulose
(A) Chlorination
(C) Protein
(B) Chloroamination
(D) None of the above (C) Ozonation
(D) None of the above
62. The biodegradability of xenobiotics
can be characterized by 67. An organism’s niche is
(A) Rate of CO2 formation (A) the way the organism uses the
range of physical and biological
(B) Rate of O2 consumption
conditions in which it lives.
(C) Ratio of BOD to COD (B) all the biological and physical
(D) All of the above factors in the organism’s
environment.
(C) the function role played by the
63. The soil borne plant pathogens could
organism where it lives.
be controlled by
(D) the range of temperature that the
(A) Lowering pH organism needs to live.
(B) Increasing pH
(C) Adding lime 68. The pyramid of biomass is invented in
(D) All of the above (A) Forest ecosystem
(B) Greenland ecosystem
(C) Aquatic ecosystem
64. A selective Lignin degrading fungus
(D) All of the above
belongs to
(A) Soft – rot
69. Which of the following chemicals of
(B) Brown – rot anthropogenic origin mimics the effect
(C) White – rot of estrogen in animals ?
(D) Red – rot (A) Alkyl phenol
(B) Polychlorinated biphenyl
(C) O, p - DDT
65. The drastic reduction in the number of
(D) All the above
intestinal pathogens during activated
sludge process is the overall result of
70. “Black Foot” disease in human beings
(A) Competition
caused due to use of water
(B) Competition and adsorption contaminated with
(C) Predation, competition and (A) Mercury
adsorption (B) Cadmium
(D) Competition, adsorption, (C) Silver
predation and settling (D) Arsenic
Paper-III 10 D-89-12
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71. Largest amount of fresh water is 74. Given below are two statements, one
present in labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
labelled as Reason (R).
(A) Lakes
Assertion (A) : Increasing temperature
(B) Rivers in the environment influences
(C) Glaciers gonadal growth in fish.
D-89-12 11 Paper-III
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Space For Rough Work
Paper-III 12 D-89-12
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UGC - NET DECEMBER 2012
ANSWER KEYS (PAPER III)
SUBJECT : ( 89 ) ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES
Q.No. SC89
Q01 D
Q02 A
Q03 B
Q04 A
Q05 C
Q06 A
Q07 C
Q08 D
Q09 D
Q10 B
Q11 C
Q12 B
Q13 C
Q14 C
Q15 D
Q16 D
Q17 B
Q18 B
Q19 C
Q20 D
Q21 C
Q22 C
Q23 A
Q24 B
Q25 C
Q26 D
Q27 A
Q28 B
Q29 C
Q30 A
Q31 A
Q32 A
Q33 A
Q34 A
Q35 A
Q36 B
Q37 B
Q38 D
Q39 D
Q40 A
Q41 C
Q42 D
Q43 B
Q44 D
Q45 A
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Q46 D
Q47 A
Q48 B
Q49 C
Q50 B
Q51 B
Q52 C
Q53 A
Q54 C
Q55 C
Q56 C
Q57 A
Q58 A
Q59 D
Q60 D
Q61 A
Q62 D
Q63 A
Q64 C
Q65 D
Q66 C
Q67 C
Q68 C
Q69 D
Q70 D
Q71 D
Q72 D
Q73 C
Q74 A
Q75 A
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▶ Examrace 463K
Paper 3 has been removed from NET from 2018 (Notification)- now paper 2 and 3 syllabus is
included in paper 2. Practice both paper 2 and 3 from past papers.
a. Stable
b. Neutral
c. Slightly stable
d. Unstable
Answer: b
2. Assertion (A): The energy flow in an ecosystem follows the law of thermodynamics.
Reason (R): The energy flow in an ecosystem is unidirectional and during the
transformation of energy from one trophic level to the other, 80 – 90% of energy is lost.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: a
3. Match the List-I with List-II and identify the correct answer from the given codes:
a. ΔG a. ΔE + PΔV
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b. ΔG° b. – n FE°
c. ΔS c. RT ln (V1/V2)
d. ΔH d. nR ln (V2/V1)
A B C D
a. 2 4 1 3
b. 3 2 4 1
c. 3 1 4 2
d. 2 3 4 1
Answer: b
a. Wind speed
b. Sunlight
c. Topographical features
d. Cloud cover
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 4 only
Answer: c
a. 200 – 280 nm
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b. 180 – 240 nm
c. 320 – 400 nm
d. 240 – 300 nm
Answer: a
6. In a gas chromatography experiment, the retention factor (Rf) values for pollutant ‘A’ and
pollutant ‘B’ in a mixture of pollutants were 0.5 and 0.125, respectively. If the distance
travelled by solvent front is 12 cms, the distance (in cms) travelled by pollutant ‘A’ and
pollutant ‘B’ will be
a. 6 and 1.5
b. 3 and 1.5
d. 1.5 and 3
Answer: a
7. Using the following equations, which can be determined correctly? Ca (HCO3) 2 –––→ Δ
CaCO3 + H2O + CO2 (by heating) or Ca (HCO3) 2 + Ca (OH) 2 –––→ 2 CaCO3 + 2H2O
(by addition of lime)
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Carbonates
c. Bicarbonates
Answer: d
8. Assume that a river having dissolved oxygen 0.5 g/m3, BOD 0.3 g/m3 flowing at 80
m3/sec. Converge with another river having Dissolved Oxygen 0.7 g/m3. BOD 0.6 g/m3
flowing at a rate of 60 m3/sec. If after the confluence the Dissolved Oxygen is 0.59 g/m3,
then the BOD is
a. 0.83 g/m3
b. 0.43 g/m3
c. 0.73 g/m3
d. 0.92 g/m3
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Answer: a
9. Cells grown in a medium containing phosphorous –32 will show radio labelling in
a. Starch
b. Glycogen
c. Proteins
d. Nucleic acids
Answer: a
10. C14 has a half-life of 5700 years. The fraction of the C14 atoms that decays per year is
a. 1.216 × 10–4
b. 0.52 × 10–3
c. 0.78 × 10–4
d. 2.81 × 10–4
Answer: a
11. Assertion (A): Marine biodiversity tends to be highest in mid-latitudes in all oceans
and along coasts in the Western Pacific.
Reason (R): Sea surface temperature along coasts in the Western Pacific is highest.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: b
a. Bio-intensive agriculture
b. Deforestation
c. Aforestation
d. Water conservation
Answer: a
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13. The rate of replacement of species along a gradient of habitats pertains to
a. Alpha diversity
b. Beta diversity
c. Gamma diversity
d. Species diversity
Answer: b
14. Match the List-I and List-II. Choose the correct answer from the given codes:
a. On a rock a. Psammosere
b. On sand b. Lithosere
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 4 3 1 2
Answer: a
15. If individuals of a species remain alive only in captivity or other human controlled
conditions, the species is said to be
a. Ecologically extinct
b. Mass extinct
c. Wild extinct
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d. Anthropogenic extinct
Answer: c
Answer: d
17. Which of the following is not a class of aquatic ecosystems based on salinity levels?
b. Freshwater ecosystem
c. Brackish ecosystem
d. Marine ecosystem
Answer: a
c. Organisms that stabilise their population at carrying capacity for the area
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
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b. Absence of rooted vegetation
d. Absence of phytoplankton
Answer: b
20. Match the List-I with List-II; choose the correct answer from the given codes:
c. Colchicumluteum c. Pinaceae
A B C D
a. 4 2 3 1
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 2 3 4 1
Answer: d
21. Vegetation cover shows maximum reflectance in which of the following regions of the
electromagnetic radiation spectrum?
a. Ultraviolet
b. Near infrared
c. Middle infrared
d. Visible
Answer: b
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22. During remote sensing of the vegetation cover, the spectral reflection of vegetation over
electromagnetic radiation spectrum depends upon
Answer: d
a. Ecosystems are black boxes for many of the processes that take place within them.
c. The energy and nutrients can be transferred to and from one ecosystem to another
via imports and exports.
a. 1 & 2 only
b. 2 & 3 only
c. 1 & 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
24. The volume of ejecta and the column height for a volcano are 108.5 m3 and 24 km,
respectively. What is its volcanic explosivity index value?
a. 2
b. 8
c. 7
d. 4
Answer: d
25. In the context of material balance in hydrological cycle, which of the following equations is
correct for oceans?
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b. Precipitation + inflow = evaporation
Answer: b
26. In disaster management which steps are followed in post-disaster recovery phase?
Answer: a
Answer: a
Reason (R): Large amounts of nutrients are introduced into the basin from the rivers
that run into them.
a. A Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: a
29. A confined aquifer of thickness 25 m has two wells 200 m apart along the direction of flow
of water. The difference in their hydraulic heads is 1 m. If hydraulic conductivity is 50
m/day, the rate of flow of water per day per metre of distance perpendicular to the flow of
water is
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a. 25 m3/day per metre
Answer: c
30. Which of the following material has the highest hydraulic conductivity?
a. Clay
b. Sandstone
c. Limestone
d. Quartzite
Answer: b
31. Which of the following energy sources is not renewable on human time scale?
a. Solar
b. Hydrothermal
c. Geothermal
d. Biomass
Answer: c
32. For a solar flat plate collector the following data is given: Useful heat gain = 28 watts/m2
per hour, solar radiation intensity = 350 watts/m2 per hour and the factor to convert
beam radiation to that on the plane of the collector = 1.2. The collector efficiency is
a. ~ 6.6 %
b. ~ 4.8 %
c. ~ 12.2 %
d. ~ 15.2 %
Answer: a
33. For the reacton in a hydrogen oxygen fuel cell, H2 + ½ O2 = H2O (l) Given ΔG° = 240
kJ/gm – mole of H2 and Faraday's constant = 96, 500 Coulomb/gm mole. The developed
voltage in the fuel cell will be
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a. ~ 1.13 Volts
b. ~ 2.13 Volts
c. ~ 1.51 Volts
d. ~ 1.24 Volts
Answer: d
34. Identify the correct sequence of the fuels in order of their increasing carbon intensity:
Answer: d
35. In nuclear thermal reactors, which of the following is not used as moderator?
a. Normal water
b. Heavy water
c. Graphite
d. Liquid Helium
Answer: d
36. The minimum temperature gradient (° C/km) required for OTEC is about
a. 20
b. 10
c. 40
d. 60
Answer: a
37. A solar pond has electricity generating capacity of 600 MWe. If the efficiency of solar
energy to electric generation process was 2% and solar energy supply rate was 300 W/m2,
what is the area of solar pond?
a. 100 km2
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b. 90 km2
c. 60 km2
d. 180 km2
Answer: a
38. Which of the following causes warming of atmosphere but cooling of the earth's surface?
a. Ozone
Answer: b
39. Assertion (A): For noise level surveys in urban areas, weighting A is used for
measurements.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: c
a. 0.2 Pa
b. 0.02 Pa
c. 20 Pa
d. 200 Pa
Answer: a
a. HCN, COCl2
b. NOx
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c. CHCl3
d. AsH3
Answer: a
Answer: a
43. Which one of the following isotopes has maximum half-life period?
a. Rn222
b. Pb210
c. Ti210
d. Bi210
Answer: b
44. Match the List-I with List-II and identify the correct answer from given codes:
A B C D
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a. 4 3 2 1
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 2 1 3 4
d. 1 2 3 4
Answer: a
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: c
a. Isoprene
b. α-pinene
c. Myrcene
d. Acrolein
Answer: d
47. Which of the following is used as plant indicator for detection of presence of SO2 and HF
in air?
a. Lichen
b. Orchid
c. Apricot
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d. Tobacco
Answer: a
a. NO2 and CO
b. CO and SO2
Answer: c
49. A wastewater treatment plant in a city treats 50, 000 m3 wastewater generated per day.
For an average flow rate of 25 m3 per day per sq. Metre, what should be the diameter of
the circular primary settling tank?
a. 50.4 m
b. 30.6 m
c. 20 m
d. 25.8 m
Answer: a
50. An Electrostatic Precipitator (ESP) with collector plate area = 5000 m2 treats a flue gas
with drift velocity = 0.12 m/s with 98% efficiency. The volumetric flow rate (m3/s) of the
flue gas is
a. ~ 175.2
b. ~ 213.5
c. ~ 153.4
d. ~ 198.9
Answer: c
51. Assertion (A): Urban heat islands contribute to build up of pollutants in cities.
Reason (R): Urban heat islands produce a somewhat stable air mass in the city's
atmosphere.
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b. Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: a
52. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
A B C D
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 2 1 3 4
d. 1 2 4 3
Answer: b
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Answer: b
54. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 3 1 4 2
d. 2 4 1 3
Answer: d
Answer: d
a. > 120° C
b. < 100° C
c. > 300° C
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d. > 800° C
Answer: a
Answer: a
a. 1991
b. 1993
c. 1995
d. 1997
Answer: a
59. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
A B C D
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a. 2 1 4 3
b. 2 4 3 1
c. 3 1 2 4
d. 1 2 3 4
Answer: a
60. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 3 2 1 4
d. 4 3 2 1
Answer: a
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a. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: a
a. 1500
b. 750
c. 500
d. 250
Answer: b
63. Two normal populations have variances σ21 = 10 and σ22 = 20. Two random samples of
sizes 25 and 20, independently selected from these populations have variances of S21 = 8
and S22 = 15, respectively. What is the F (24, 19) statistic?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 2.81
d. 3.6
Answer: a
64. Assertion (A): A matrix is nonsingular if and only if none of its eigen values is zero.
Reason (R): The product of the eigen values equals the determinant of a matrix.
b. Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: a
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65. In Gaussian Plume Model assume σz = cx where c is a constant and ratio of σy to σz to be a
constant. If H is the effective height of the stack, the maximum concentration at a distance
(x) from the stack is proportional to
a. H–1
b. H–2
c. exp (–H2)
d. H–3/2
Answer: b
66. The Pearson Linear correlation coefficient (r) for the following paired data (x, y): (2, 1.4)
(4, 1.8) (8, 2.1), (8, 2.3), (9, 2.6), is
a. 0.623
b. – 0.572
c. 0.957
d. 0.823
Answer: c
67. In a rough terrain the wind speed at a height of 10 m is 2.5 m/s. The wind speed at an
elevation of 300 m will be
a. 4.9 m/s
b. 1.2 m/s
c. 3.6 m/s
d. 7.9 m/s
Answer: a
68. In the context of REDD + initiatives the land clearing in forest areas is primarily
concerned with
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Answer: c
69. What was the objective of Basel Convention (1989) under UNEP?
a. 1 and 2 only.
b. 2 and 3 only.
c. 1, 2 and III.
d. 1 only.
Answer: c
70. Global Warming Potential (GWP) of a greenhouse gas (GHG) is a comparison of global
warming impact between
Answer: b
Answer: a
a. the value and moral status of the environment and its nonhuman contents
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c. the conservation values of selected species
Answer: a
b. gasoline
c. coal tar
d. cooked meat
Answer: a
74. Match the List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
a. Trichloroethylene a. Gasoline
d. Phenol d. Mining
A B C D
a. 3 1 4 2
b. 2 3 1 4
c. 1 4 2 3
d. 4 2 3 1
Answer: a
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▷ NTA NET Paper-1 fully-solved question bank (including prior year problems), mock test
series, FREE video lectures, and online crash course: Our exclusive material coprehensively
covers the vast and evolving paper 1 syllabus.
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Examrace
▶ Examrace 463K
Paper 3 has been removed from NET from 2018 (Notification)- now paper 2 and 3 syllabus is
included in paper 2. Practice both paper 2 and 3 from past papers.
1. If the standard deviation of a population is 20, the population and sample means are 35
and 33, respectively and the t-statistic at 95% confidence level is
a. 100
b. 125
c. 250
d. 625
Answer: d
a. 10
b. 5
c. 16
d. 4
Answer: a
a. Judgement sampling
b. Quota sampling
c. Convenience sampling
d. Stratified sampling
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Answer: a
a. Fe2 +
b. Fe3 +
Answer: d
a. Carbohydrate
b. Lipids
c. Nucleic acids
d. Proteins
Answer: c
a. 0.5 M
b. 1.0 M
c. 1.5 M
d. 2.0 M
Answer: d
a. 0.1
b. 1
c. 10
d. 11
Answer: d
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9. The molecular weight of DDT is 354.5. The quantity of DDT required to prepare one litre
of 10 ppm DDT solution is
a. 10 mg
b. 35.45 mg
c. 354.5 mg
d. 354.5 μg
Answer: a
a. O
b. O2
c. O° –2
d. O3
Answer: c
Answer: a
12. Which of the following habitats has not been included as Indian biodiversity hot spots?
c. North-Eastern Hills
d. South-Eastern Hills
Answer: d
13. The area of the biosphere which is protected entirely, without any experimentation and
research and no biotic interference, is known as
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a. Undisturbed zone
b. Buffer zone
c. Core zone
d. Principal zone
Answer: c
14. When a mixture of Azospirillum, Azotobacter and Vibrio was applied to rhizosphere,
fixation of atmospheric nitrogen was increased. It was due to activity of
Answer: d
15. Which type of forests are found at an altitude of 5300 ft chiefly on mountains of
Himalayas and Nilgiri?
c. Temperate forest
Answer: c
16. The sequence of events that occur during primary succession is as follows:
Answer: d
17. As per Raunkaiers law of frequency, five different frequency classes (A, B, C, D and E) in a
natural undisturbed community exhibit one of the following relationship:
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b. A > B > C > = < D < E
Answer: b
18. Which one of the following category of earthworms is most suitable for Vermicomposting?
a. Epigeic
b. Anecic
c. Endogeic
Answer: a
a. Reserve forest
b. National parks
c. Sanctuaries
Answer: d
20. Match the contaminant in Column – I with the disease in Column – II:
List-I List-II
a. Mercury a. Methamoglobinemia
c. Cadmium c. Silicosis
d. Coal d. Minamata
A B C D
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a. 2 3 4 1
b. 3 4 2 1
c. 1 2 3 4
d. 4 1 2 3
Answer: d
21. Which of the following types of coal contains higher percentage of volatile matter?
a. Peat
b. Lignite
c. Bituminous
d. Anthracite
Answer: a
a. Microbial respiration
b. Root respiration
Answer: a
23. Which one of the following pesticides persists for a long period in soil?
a. Lindane
b. Monocrotophos
c. Carbaryl
d. Parathion
Answer: a
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24. Organic matter (OM) content of sol can be calculated from organic carbon (OC) by using
the formula
Answer: a
a. Cooling ponds
b. Cooling towers
Answer: d
26. According to Recycled Plastics (Manufacture and Usage) Rules 1999, the minimum
thickness of carry bags shall not be less than
a. 10 microns
b. 20 microns
c. 30 microns
d. 50 microns
Answer: b
27. Match the Act mentioned in Column – I with the year of enactment mentioned in Column
– II:
List-I List-II
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A B C D
a. 1 4 3 2
b. 3 4 2 1
c. 3 2 1 4
d. 2 4 3 1
Answer: c
28. Which one of the following is not an energy recovery method of solid waste management?
a. Pelletisation
b. Biomethanation
c. Pyrolysis
d. Composting
Answer: d
29. The colour code of the container for collection of waste scrap generated from Hospitals is
a. Red
b. Blue
c. White
d. Green
Answer: b
Reason (R): In hazardous waste sites the chance of exposure is low because of
isolation of drinking water supplies and prevention of access.
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
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b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: a
31. In India, an Environment Impact Assessment report of a proposed mining project after
environmental clearance is applicable for a maximal period of how many years?
a. 5 years
b. 10 years
c. 30 years
d. 2 years
Answer: c
32. An increase of one unit of Richter Scale represents an increase in amplitude by a factor of
a. 10
b. 100
c. 1000
d. 2
Answer: a
33. Which rare earth element is not present in the earth's crust but for commercial purpose
comes from the Nuclear reactors?
a. Promethium
b. Lanthanum
c. Cerium
d. Samarium
Answer: a
34. To display green colour in the monitor the amount of RGB should be
a. 255: 0: 0
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c. 0: 0: 0
d. 0: 255: 0
Answer: d
35. When the temperature range in geothermal resource is generally low, electrical power
generation from such resources require the use of secondary low boiling point fluid. This
is generally known as
a. Rankine cycle
Answer: a
36. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) is the least for which of the following greenhouse
gases?
a. CH4
b. CO2
c. N2O
d. SF6
Answer: b
37. The maximum specific power output (p) from a MHD power generator varies with the
velocity (u) of hot ionized gas as
a. pµ u
b. p µ u2
c. p µ u3/2
d. p µ u3
Answer: b
38. Assertion (A): Electrostatic precipitators (ESPs) can be harmful if not operated
properly.
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a. A Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: a
39. Assertion (A): Vegetation hedges are the best way to control noise.
Reason (R): Vegetation hedges scatter noise. Choose the correct answer.
b. Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: d
40. If w and ws are mixing ratio and saturation mixing ratio respectively; T and Td are the
ambient temperature and dew point temperature respectively, then identify the correct
expression of relative humidity (RH).
a. RH = (w at Td)/(w at T)
b. RH = (w at T)/(w at Td)
c. RH = (ws at Td)/(ws at T)
Answer: c
a. Tornado
b. Sea breeze
c. Cyclone
d. Eddies
Answer: b
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42. For elevations less than few hundred metres, if the wind speeds are u1 and u2 at elevations
z1 and z2 respectively, the following equation holds u1/u2 = (z1/z2) p. The value of the
exponent p is
a. < 0.6
b. = 1
c. > 0.6
d. negative
Answer: a
a. A Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: b
a. scavenger
b. acidifier
c. reducing agent
d. greenhouse gas
Answer: a
45. The slow neutrons initiating nuclear fisson with U235 have energies of the order of
a. 0.25 MeV
b. 0.15 MeV
c. 0.25 eV
d. 0.025 eV
Answer: d
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46. The most suitable range of wind speeds for wind power generation is
a. 1 – 5 m/s
b. 4 – 12 m/s
c. 10 – 20 m/s
d. 20 – 50 m/s
Answer: b
47. For energy to be produced from nuclear fusion of Deuterium (D) and Tritium (T), the
mixture of D + T has to be heated up to energies of at least
a. 1 KeV
(D) 1 MeV
Answer: b
48. Element contaminating the water body is determined and quantified by using one of the
following methods:
a. Colorimeter
b. Spectrophotometer
Answer: d
49. In which type of chromatography four modes viz, Absorption, partition, Ion exchange and
exclusion, are present?
a. HPLC
b. Liquid-liquid chromatography
c. Ion-exchange chromatography
d. Adsorption chromatography
Answer: a
50. The metal which is generally absorbed by plants along with Zn and causes “Ouch Ouch”
disease in human beings is
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a. Pb
b. Cd
c. Hg
d. Cr
Answer: b
51. Radioactive isotopes of which of the elements in human body decay every second?
b. C14 and N6
Answer: a
52. Which of the following techniques is most appropriate for determining crystalline
structure of environmental samples?
a. Infrared spectroscopy
b. X-ray diffraction
c. Microspectrophotometry
d. Raman spectroscopy
Answer: b
53. Which one of the following is the most predominant element in a majority of igneous
rocks?
a. Al
b. Fe
c. O
d. Si
Answer: c
54. Match the entries in Group-I with the process parameters in Group-II:
List-I List-II
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a. Clark electrode a. Dissolved Oxygen
b. Redox Probe b. pH
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 1 4 3 2
d. 4 3 2 1
Answer: a
55. Which one of the following is used to determine total organic matter by Walkley and Black
method?
Answer: c
56. As per WHO standards the maximum permissible level of coliform organisms per 100 ml
of drinking water is
a. 10
b. 100
c. 150
d. 1000
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Answer: a
a. Biomagnification
b. Hyper accumulation
c. Bioaccumulation
Answer: a
a. Mutualism
b. Predation
c. Parasitism
d. Amensalism
Answer: b
a. Rotifers
b. Copepods
c. Mysids
d. Calanoids
Answer: a
a. Oligotrophic
b. Eutrophic
c. Mesotrophic
d. Xerotrophic
Answer: a
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a. Sub-surface coring
Answer: a
62. Ministry of Environment and Forests amended the EIA notification making public hearing
mandatory for environmental clearance on
Answer: b
a. Indigenous microorganisms
b. Migrant
c. Parasitic
d. Pathogenic
Answer: b
64. The rate of evaporation of oil spilled into the sea depends on
Answer: c
65. The most dangerous and heat resistant spoilage organism in canning industry is
a. Clostridium cellulolyticum
b. Bacillus subtilis
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c. E. Coli
d. Clostridium botulinum
Answer: d
Answer: b
67. If a bacterium with a 20 minute generation time is grown under optimal conditions (37°
C), one cell would multiply to 103 (1000) cells in 3.3 hours, then how much time it will
take to multiply to 106 cells?
a. 5.3 hrs.
b. 6.6 hrs.
c. 9.9 hrs.
d. 6.3 hrs.
Answer: b
a. Cellulose
b. Xylene
c. Extensin/protein
d. Lignin
Answer: d
69. The widely used aerobic suspension type of liquid waste treatment system is
b. Percolating filter
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d. Septic tank
Answer: c
70. The treatment designed to remove nonbiodegradable organic pollutants and mineral
nutrients from waste water is
a. Lagoons
b. Imhoff tank
c. Secondary treatment
d. Tertiary treatment
Answer: d
71. An ecotype is
Answer: a
Answer: a
a. More richness
b. More evenness
c. More dominance
d. Less dominance
e. Less rchness
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f. Less evenness
Point out the combination of conditions in which species diversity of an ecosystem will be
more.
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 5, 2 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 6 and 4
Answer: c
74. Assertion (A): If natality is greater than mortality, it leads to population explosion.
Reason (R): The scientific study of various species of human population is called
demography.
a. A Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: b
List-I List-II
A B C D
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a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 3 4 1 2
Answer: c
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▶ Examrace 463K
Paper 3 has been removed from NET from 2018 (Notification)- now paper 2 and 3 syllabus is
included in paper 2. Practice both paper 2 and 3 from past papers.
1. If the standard deviation of a population is 20, the population and sample means are 35
and 33, respectively and the t-statistic at 95% confidence level is
a. 100
b. 125
c. 250
d. 625
Answer: d
a. 10
b. 5
c. 16
d. 4
Answer: a
a. Judgement sampling
b. Quota sampling
c. Convenience sampling
d. Stratified sampling
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Answer: a
a. Fe2 +
b. Fe3 +
Answer: d
a. Carbohydrate
b. Lipids
c. Nucleic acids
d. Proteins
Answer: c
a. 0.5 M
b. 1.0 M
c. 1.5 M
d. 2.0 M
Answer: d
a. 0.1
b. 1
c. 10
d. 11
Answer: d
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9. The molecular weight of DDT is 354.5. The quantity of DDT required to prepare one litre
of 10 ppm DDT solution is
a. 10 mg
b. 35.45 mg
c. 354.5 mg
d. 354.5 μg
Answer: a
a. O
b. O2
c. O° –2
d. O3
Answer: c
Answer: a
12. Which of the following habitats has not been included as Indian biodiversity hot spots?
c. North-Eastern Hills
d. South-Eastern Hills
Answer: d
13. The area of the biosphere which is protected entirely, without any experimentation and
research and no biotic interference, is known as
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a. Undisturbed zone
b. Buffer zone
c. Core zone
d. Principal zone
Answer: c
14. When a mixture of Azospirillum, Azotobacter and Vibrio was applied to rhizosphere,
fixation of atmospheric nitrogen was increased. It was due to activity of
Answer: d
15. Which type of forests are found at an altitude of 5300 ft chiefly on mountains of
Himalayas and Nilgiri?
c. Temperate forest
Answer: c
16. The sequence of events that occur during primary succession is as follows:
Answer: d
17. As per Raunkaiers law of frequency, five different frequency classes (A, B, C, D and E) in a
natural undisturbed community exhibit one of the following relationship:
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b. A > B > C > = < D < E
Answer: b
18. Which one of the following category of earthworms is most suitable for Vermicomposting?
a. Epigeic
b. Anecic
c. Endogeic
Answer: a
a. Reserve forest
b. National parks
c. Sanctuaries
Answer: d
20. Match the contaminant in Column – I with the disease in Column – II:
List-I List-II
a. Mercury a. Methamoglobinemia
c. Cadmium c. Silicosis
d. Coal d. Minamata
A B C D
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a. 2 3 4 1
b. 3 4 2 1
c. 1 2 3 4
d. 4 1 2 3
Answer: d
21. Which of the following types of coal contains higher percentage of volatile matter?
a. Peat
b. Lignite
c. Bituminous
d. Anthracite
Answer: a
a. Microbial respiration
b. Root respiration
Answer: a
23. Which one of the following pesticides persists for a long period in soil?
a. Lindane
b. Monocrotophos
c. Carbaryl
d. Parathion
Answer: a
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24. Organic matter (OM) content of sol can be calculated from organic carbon (OC) by using
the formula
Answer: a
a. Cooling ponds
b. Cooling towers
Answer: d
26. According to Recycled Plastics (Manufacture and Usage) Rules 1999, the minimum
thickness of carry bags shall not be less than
a. 10 microns
b. 20 microns
c. 30 microns
d. 50 microns
Answer: b
27. Match the Act mentioned in Column – I with the year of enactment mentioned in Column
– II:
List-I List-II
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A B C D
a. 1 4 3 2
b. 3 4 2 1
c. 3 2 1 4
d. 2 4 3 1
Answer: c
28. Which one of the following is not an energy recovery method of solid waste management?
a. Pelletisation
b. Biomethanation
c. Pyrolysis
d. Composting
Answer: d
29. The colour code of the container for collection of waste scrap generated from Hospitals is
a. Red
b. Blue
c. White
d. Green
Answer: b
Reason (R): In hazardous waste sites the chance of exposure is low because of
isolation of drinking water supplies and prevention of access.
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
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b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: a
31. In India, an Environment Impact Assessment report of a proposed mining project after
environmental clearance is applicable for a maximal period of how many years?
a. 5 years
b. 10 years
c. 30 years
d. 2 years
Answer: c
32. An increase of one unit of Richter Scale represents an increase in amplitude by a factor of
a. 10
b. 100
c. 1000
d. 2
Answer: a
33. Which rare earth element is not present in the earth's crust but for commercial purpose
comes from the Nuclear reactors?
a. Promethium
b. Lanthanum
c. Cerium
d. Samarium
Answer: a
34. To display green colour in the monitor the amount of RGB should be
a. 255: 0: 0
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c. 0: 0: 0
d. 0: 255: 0
Answer: d
35. When the temperature range in geothermal resource is generally low, electrical power
generation from such resources require the use of secondary low boiling point fluid. This
is generally known as
a. Rankine cycle
Answer: a
36. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) is the least for which of the following greenhouse
gases?
a. CH4
b. CO2
c. N2O
d. SF6
Answer: b
37. The maximum specific power output (p) from a MHD power generator varies with the
velocity (u) of hot ionized gas as
a. pµ u
b. p µ u2
c. p µ u3/2
d. p µ u3
Answer: b
38. Assertion (A): Electrostatic precipitators (ESPs) can be harmful if not operated
properly.
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a. A Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: a
39. Assertion (A): Vegetation hedges are the best way to control noise.
Reason (R): Vegetation hedges scatter noise. Choose the correct answer.
b. Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: d
40. If w and ws are mixing ratio and saturation mixing ratio respectively; T and Td are the
ambient temperature and dew point temperature respectively, then identify the correct
expression of relative humidity (RH).
a. RH = (w at Td)/(w at T)
b. RH = (w at T)/(w at Td)
c. RH = (ws at Td)/(ws at T)
Answer: c
a. Tornado
b. Sea breeze
c. Cyclone
d. Eddies
Answer: b
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42. For elevations less than few hundred metres, if the wind speeds are u1 and u2 at elevations
z1 and z2 respectively, the following equation holds u1/u2 = (z1/z2) p. The value of the
exponent p is
a. < 0.6
b. = 1
c. > 0.6
d. negative
Answer: a
a. A Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: b
a. scavenger
b. acidifier
c. reducing agent
d. greenhouse gas
Answer: a
45. The slow neutrons initiating nuclear fisson with U235 have energies of the order of
a. 0.25 MeV
b. 0.15 MeV
c. 0.25 eV
d. 0.025 eV
Answer: d
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46. The most suitable range of wind speeds for wind power generation is
a. 1 – 5 m/s
b. 4 – 12 m/s
c. 10 – 20 m/s
d. 20 – 50 m/s
Answer: b
47. For energy to be produced from nuclear fusion of Deuterium (D) and Tritium (T), the
mixture of D + T has to be heated up to energies of at least
a. 1 KeV
(D) 1 MeV
Answer: b
48. Element contaminating the water body is determined and quantified by using one of the
following methods:
a. Colorimeter
b. Spectrophotometer
Answer: d
49. In which type of chromatography four modes viz, Absorption, partition, Ion exchange and
exclusion, are present?
a. HPLC
b. Liquid-liquid chromatography
c. Ion-exchange chromatography
d. Adsorption chromatography
Answer: a
50. The metal which is generally absorbed by plants along with Zn and causes “Ouch Ouch”
disease in human beings is
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a. Pb
b. Cd
c. Hg
d. Cr
Answer: b
51. Radioactive isotopes of which of the elements in human body decay every second?
b. C14 and N6
Answer: a
52. Which of the following techniques is most appropriate for determining crystalline
structure of environmental samples?
a. Infrared spectroscopy
b. X-ray diffraction
c. Microspectrophotometry
d. Raman spectroscopy
Answer: b
53. Which one of the following is the most predominant element in a majority of igneous
rocks?
a. Al
b. Fe
c. O
d. Si
Answer: c
54. Match the entries in Group-I with the process parameters in Group-II:
List-I List-II
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a. Clark electrode a. Dissolved Oxygen
b. Redox Probe b. pH
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 1 4 3 2
d. 4 3 2 1
Answer: a
55. Which one of the following is used to determine total organic matter by Walkley and Black
method?
Answer: c
56. As per WHO standards the maximum permissible level of coliform organisms per 100 ml
of drinking water is
a. 10
b. 100
c. 150
d. 1000
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Answer: a
a. Biomagnification
b. Hyper accumulation
c. Bioaccumulation
Answer: a
a. Mutualism
b. Predation
c. Parasitism
d. Amensalism
Answer: b
a. Rotifers
b. Copepods
c. Mysids
d. Calanoids
Answer: a
a. Oligotrophic
b. Eutrophic
c. Mesotrophic
d. Xerotrophic
Answer: a
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a. Sub-surface coring
Answer: a
62. Ministry of Environment and Forests amended the EIA notification making public hearing
mandatory for environmental clearance on
Answer: b
a. Indigenous microorganisms
b. Migrant
c. Parasitic
d. Pathogenic
Answer: b
64. The rate of evaporation of oil spilled into the sea depends on
Answer: c
65. The most dangerous and heat resistant spoilage organism in canning industry is
a. Clostridium cellulolyticum
b. Bacillus subtilis
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c. E. Coli
d. Clostridium botulinum
Answer: d
Answer: b
67. If a bacterium with a 20 minute generation time is grown under optimal conditions (37°
C), one cell would multiply to 103 (1000) cells in 3.3 hours, then how much time it will
take to multiply to 106 cells?
a. 5.3 hrs.
b. 6.6 hrs.
c. 9.9 hrs.
d. 6.3 hrs.
Answer: b
a. Cellulose
b. Xylene
c. Extensin/protein
d. Lignin
Answer: d
69. The widely used aerobic suspension type of liquid waste treatment system is
b. Percolating filter
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d. Septic tank
Answer: c
70. The treatment designed to remove nonbiodegradable organic pollutants and mineral
nutrients from waste water is
a. Lagoons
b. Imhoff tank
c. Secondary treatment
d. Tertiary treatment
Answer: d
71. An ecotype is
Answer: a
Answer: a
a. More richness
b. More evenness
c. More dominance
d. Less dominance
e. Less rchness
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f. Less evenness
Point out the combination of conditions in which species diversity of an ecosystem will be
more.
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 5, 2 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 6 and 4
Answer: c
74. Assertion (A): If natality is greater than mortality, it leads to population explosion.
Reason (R): The scientific study of various species of human population is called
demography.
a. A Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: b
List-I List-II
A B C D
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a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 3 4 1 2
Answer: c
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▶ Examrace 463K
Paper 3 has been removed from NET from 2018 (Notification)- now paper 2 and 3 syllabus is
included in paper 2. Practice both paper 2 and 3 from past papers.
1. Most of the day to day weatherchanges are associated with which scale in meteorology?
a. Micro scale
b. Meso scale
c. Synoptic scale
d. Planetary scale
Answer: c
2. Match the List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
A B C D
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a. 2 1 4 3
b. 3 2 4 1
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 1 4 3 2
Answer: a
Answer: a
Answer: d
Answer: a
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6. United Nations has declared “UN Decade of Education for sustainable Development” and
the decade identified for this education is
a. 2006 – 2015
b. 2005 – 2014
c. 2011 – 2020
d. 2012 – 2021
Answer: b
7. Halon – 1301 is a
a. Fire extinguisher
b. Solvent
c. Refrigerant
d. Aerosol propellant
Answer: a
a. Cl2
b. SO3
c. Nitrates
d. Sulphates
Answer: a
a. 1 to 10
b. 1 to 14
c. –14 to 14
d. 1 to 100
Answer: a
a. CF2 Cl Br
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b. CCl2 FBr
c. CCl2 F2
d. CBr2 Cl F
Answer: a
a. Aldrin
b. DDT
c. Endrin
d. Heptachlor
Answer: c
a. Weedicide
b. Fungicide
c. Nematicide
d. Rodenticide
Answer: a
a. Cement Industry
b. Forest fires
d. Volcanic activity
Answer: d
14. Match each water contaminant in Column-I with its preferred method of removal in
Column-II. Column – I Column – II
List-I List-II
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c. Trihalomethane c. Addition of lime
d. Mg2 + d. Oxidation
A B C D
a. 4 3 1 2
b. 3 2 4 1
c. 2 4 3 1
d. 1 2 4 3
Answer: a
15. Reverse Osmosis (RO) operated at 200–1200 psig removes particles ranging from
a. 0.0001 to 0.001 μm
b. 0.01 to 10 μm
c. 0.1 to 1.0 μm
d. 0.1 to 2.0 μm
Answer: a
a. Stabilization
b. Destabilization
c. Attraction
d. Precipitation
Answer: b
17. Water has the following chemical composition: [Ca2 + ] = 15 mg/L; [Mg2 + ] = 10 mg/L;
[SO4 2–] = 30 mg/L; The total hardness of water will be
a. 80 mg/L as CaCO3
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b. 55 mg/L as CaCO3
d. 40 mg/L as CaCO3
Answer: a
18. Two water samples were collected. Sample # 1: pH = 9, but no carbonate or other
dissolved proton donors or acceptors. Sample # 2: pH = 8.3, but it contains dissolved
NaHCO3 at a concentration of 0.01/mg/l Which of the following is true based on the
above observations.
Answer: b
19. Two soil samples, A and B, at different soil moisture levels are placed in contact with each
other. Water will more likely move from soil A to soil B if their water potential, expressed
in kPa, is:
a. A = –5; B = + 5
b. A = –5; B = –5
c. A = –20; B = –10
d. A = –30; B = – 40
Answer: d
a. Carbon monoxide
b. Nitrate
c. Fluoride
d. Mercury
Answer: b
21. Assertion (A): For solar cell fabrication, those semiconducting materials which have
band-gap energies in the range 1 − 1.8 eV are most suitable.
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Reason (R): The maximum solar irradiance is around a wavelength corresponding to
1.5 eV.
b. Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanaton of (A).
Answer: a
22. Assertion (A): State factors (external factors) control the overall structure of an
ecosystem and the way things work within it.
Reason (R): The state factors are not themselves influenced by the ecosystem.
a. A is correct R is incorrect.
Answer: b
23. Assertion (A): When energy is transferred between trophic levels, the successive level
in the pathway has lesser available energy compared to the preceding level.
Reason (R): Whenever energy is transformed, there is loss of energy through the
release of heat.
Answer: b
24. Assertion (A): The ecosystem surrounding a river gets damaged due to construction
of a dam.
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Reason (R): The area gets inundated with large volume of water.
a. Both (A) and (R) are true, with (R) being the correct explanation.
Answer: b
25. Assertion (A): Soils rich in clay minerals have high levels of organic matter.
Answer: a
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: d
List-I List-II
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A B C D
a. 1 3 4 2
b. 2 4 1 3
c. 3 1 2 4
d. 4 2 3 1
Answer: c
Answer: d
29. To survive and avoid competition for the same resources, a species usually occupies only
part of its fundamental niche in a particular community orecosystem. This is called
a. Geographic isolation
b. Mutualism
c. Realized Niche
d. Broad Niche
Answer: c
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c. Different species interacting with one another and with their environment of matter
and energy.
Answer: c
Answer: b
32. The observation that individuals of a population are uniformly distributed suggests that
c. The members of the population are neither attracted to nor repelled by one another.
Answer: d
33. Which of the following biomes is correctly paired with the description of its climate?
Answer: a
34. Cellulose and hemicellulose are not resistant to decay but are broken down more slowly.
They are considered
a. Labile
b. Moderately labile
c. Recalcitrant
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d. Nonlabile
Answer: b
a. Host-specific antibodies
Answer: c
36. What is the estimate of volume of water yield for saturated pond aquifer of 1 metre width
and 2 metre depth and length of 4 metre? Consider the porosity of sand to be 35% and
specific yield to be 25%?
a. 2.8 m3
b. 28 m3
c. 0.28 m3
d. 280 m3
Answer: a
37. Arrange the following climate proxes in ascending order of time scales:
a. Lithological records
b. Pollens
c. Tree rings
d. Historical records
i. 4, 3, 1, 2
ii. 4, 3, 2, 1
iii. 4, 2, 1, 3
iv. 4, 1, 3, 2
Answer: b
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a. Granite
b. Bauxite
c. Lime stone
Answer: c
a. Uniform throughout:
Answer: b
a. Land subsidence
b. Fire hazard
c. Radioactive waste
d. Air pollution
i. 1 and 2
ii. 1, 2 and 3
iii. 1, 2 and 4
iv. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: c
a. Earth's core
b. Earth's mantle
c. Mid-Oceanic ridges
d. Earth's crust
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Answer: d
42. What led to maximum number of fatalities during Indonesian 2004 Earthquake?
c. Epidemic diseases
d. Tsunami
Answer: d
a. Oceans
b. Coal mines
c. Antarctica
d. Forests
Answer: a
a. The Himalayas
Answer: a
a. Iron
b. Nitrogen
c. Carbon
d. Magnesium
Answer: a
46. Gasification is
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a. The high temperature (~ 750 – c850° C) conversion of solid, carbonaceous fuel into
flammable gas mixtures.
b. The high temperature (~ 750 – 850° C) conversion of solid, carbonaceous fuel into
liquid.
c. The low temperature (~ 250 – 350° C) conversion of solid, carbonaceous fuel into
flammable gas mixture.
d. The low temperature (~ 250 – 350° C) conversion of solid, carbonaceous fuel into
liquid.
Answer: a
47. In case of magneto hydrodynamic power generation, for maximum power output, the
efficiency is
a. 0.25
b. 0.5
c. 0.75
d. 0.4
Answer: b
48. Which combination of radioactive fluxes plays the all important role in climate change?
b. Visible and UV
Answer: a
Answer: d
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50. Which of the following fuels has highest carbon intensity?
a. Natural gas
b. Oil
c. Bituminous coal
d. Biomass
Answer: c
a. Autoclaving
Answer: d
a. 1962
b. 1972
c. 1982
d. 1992
Answer: b
53. According to National Ambient Air Quality Standards, the annual average concentration of
Sulphur dioxide in residential areas in India is
a. 20 μg/m3
b. 40 μg/m3
c. 60 μg/m3
d. 80 μg/m3
Answer: c
54. Which of the following statements is correct in the context of Environmental Impact
Assessment?
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a. The process considers broad range of potential alternatives.
Answer: d
55. Match the List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
A B C D
a. 4 1 2 3
b. 4 1 3 2
c. 3 2 1 4
d. 2 4 1 3
Answer: a
56. Among the following, which one does not belong to EIA process?
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Answer: d
57. According to Gaussian Plume Model, the ground level concentration (C) of a pollutant
varies with effective height (H) as (σ is the vertical dispersion coefficient):
a. C ∝1/H
b. C ∝ e– H2/σ2
c. C ∝ e– H/σ
d. C ∝ H–2
Answer: b
58. In a multiple regression analysis, an examination of variances revealed that explained sum
of squares per degree of freedom and residual sum of squares per degree of freedom were
250 and 100, respectively. What is the F-ratio?
a. 6.25
b. 5.25
c. 0.4
d. 2.5
Answer: d
Answer: d
Answer: a
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d. Under constant threat
Codes:
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
Answer: d
b. Terrestrial ecosystem
c. Auto ecosystem
d. Engineered ecosystem
Answer: d
a. Pyramid of energy
b. Pyramid of biomass
c. Pyramid of number
Answer: a
63. Which one of the following environmental factors is responsible for cyclomorphism in
animals?
a. Moisture
b. Temperature
c. Photoperiod
d. Wind
Answer: b
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64. Sr90 can enter and accumulate in the body through
a. Drinking water
c. Food chain
d. Skin
Answer: c
a. Organophosphate
b. Nitric oxide
c. 2, 4 − D
d. Cuprous oxide
Answer: a
a. 50 m M–1 cm–1
c. 1 M–1 cm–1
d. 3 M–1 cm–1
Answer: d
a. Clostridium Sp
b. Azatobacter Sp
c. Bacillus Sp
d. Thiobacillus Sp
Answer: a
a. Cyclones
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b. Scrubbers
c. Bag filter
d. Electrostatic Precipitator
Answer: d
c. Impedance discontinuity
Answer: c
a. Psittacosis
c. Legionnaire's disease
d. Aspergillosis
Answer: b
a. Lithosere
b. Psamosere
c. Hydrosere
d. Hydrarch
Answer: a
72. The mean of a data following Poisson distribution is 4. The second moment of the
distribution is:
a. 4
b. 2
c. 1
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d. 0
Answer: a
73. Which of the following rivers has maximum melt water component in its discharge?
a. Indus
b. Ganges
c. Brahmaputra
d. Narmada
Answer: a
▷ NTA NET Paper-1 fully-solved question bank (including prior year problems), mock test
series, FREE video lectures, and online crash course: Our exclusive material coprehensively
covers the vast and evolving paper 1 syllabus.
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Examrace
▶ Examrace 463K
Paper 3 has been removed from NET from 2018 (Notification)- now paper 2 and 3 syllabus is
included in paper 2. Practice both paper 2 and 3 from past papers.
1. Most of the day to day weatherchanges are associated with which scale in meteorology?
a. Micro scale
b. Meso scale
c. Synoptic scale
d. Planetary scale
Answer: c
2. Match the List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
A B C D
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a. 2 1 4 3
b. 3 2 4 1
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 1 4 3 2
Answer: a
Answer: a
Answer: d
Answer: a
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6. United Nations has declared “UN Decade of Education for sustainable Development” and
the decade identified for this education is
a. 2006 – 2015
b. 2005 – 2014
c. 2011 – 2020
d. 2012 – 2021
Answer: b
7. Halon – 1301 is a
a. Fire extinguisher
b. Solvent
c. Refrigerant
d. Aerosol propellant
Answer: a
a. Cl2
b. SO3
c. Nitrates
d. Sulphates
Answer: a
a. 1 to 10
b. 1 to 14
c. –14 to 14
d. 1 to 100
Answer: a
a. CF2 Cl Br
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b. CCl2 FBr
c. CCl2 F2
d. CBr2 Cl F
Answer: a
a. Aldrin
b. DDT
c. Endrin
d. Heptachlor
Answer: c
a. Weedicide
b. Fungicide
c. Nematicide
d. Rodenticide
Answer: a
a. Cement Industry
b. Forest fires
d. Volcanic activity
Answer: d
14. Match each water contaminant in Column-I with its preferred method of removal in
Column-II. Column – I Column – II
List-I List-II
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c. Trihalomethane c. Addition of lime
d. Mg2 + d. Oxidation
A B C D
a. 4 3 1 2
b. 3 2 4 1
c. 2 4 3 1
d. 1 2 4 3
Answer: a
15. Reverse Osmosis (RO) operated at 200–1200 psig removes particles ranging from
a. 0.0001 to 0.001 μm
b. 0.01 to 10 μm
c. 0.1 to 1.0 μm
d. 0.1 to 2.0 μm
Answer: a
a. Stabilization
b. Destabilization
c. Attraction
d. Precipitation
Answer: b
17. Water has the following chemical composition: [Ca2 + ] = 15 mg/L; [Mg2 + ] = 10 mg/L;
[SO4 2–] = 30 mg/L; The total hardness of water will be
a. 80 mg/L as CaCO3
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b. 55 mg/L as CaCO3
d. 40 mg/L as CaCO3
Answer: a
18. Two water samples were collected. Sample # 1: pH = 9, but no carbonate or other
dissolved proton donors or acceptors. Sample # 2: pH = 8.3, but it contains dissolved
NaHCO3 at a concentration of 0.01/mg/l Which of the following is true based on the
above observations.
Answer: b
19. Two soil samples, A and B, at different soil moisture levels are placed in contact with each
other. Water will more likely move from soil A to soil B if their water potential, expressed
in kPa, is:
a. A = –5; B = + 5
b. A = –5; B = –5
c. A = –20; B = –10
d. A = –30; B = – 40
Answer: d
a. Carbon monoxide
b. Nitrate
c. Fluoride
d. Mercury
Answer: b
21. Assertion (A): For solar cell fabrication, those semiconducting materials which have
band-gap energies in the range 1 − 1.8 eV are most suitable.
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Reason (R): The maximum solar irradiance is around a wavelength corresponding to
1.5 eV.
b. Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanaton of (A).
Answer: a
22. Assertion (A): State factors (external factors) control the overall structure of an
ecosystem and the way things work within it.
Reason (R): The state factors are not themselves influenced by the ecosystem.
a. A is correct R is incorrect.
Answer: b
23. Assertion (A): When energy is transferred between trophic levels, the successive level
in the pathway has lesser available energy compared to the preceding level.
Reason (R): Whenever energy is transformed, there is loss of energy through the
release of heat.
Answer: b
24. Assertion (A): The ecosystem surrounding a river gets damaged due to construction
of a dam.
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Reason (R): The area gets inundated with large volume of water.
a. Both (A) and (R) are true, with (R) being the correct explanation.
Answer: b
25. Assertion (A): Soils rich in clay minerals have high levels of organic matter.
Answer: a
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: d
List-I List-II
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A B C D
a. 1 3 4 2
b. 2 4 1 3
c. 3 1 2 4
d. 4 2 3 1
Answer: c
Answer: d
29. To survive and avoid competition for the same resources, a species usually occupies only
part of its fundamental niche in a particular community orecosystem. This is called
a. Geographic isolation
b. Mutualism
c. Realized Niche
d. Broad Niche
Answer: c
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c. Different species interacting with one another and with their environment of matter
and energy.
Answer: c
Answer: b
32. The observation that individuals of a population are uniformly distributed suggests that
c. The members of the population are neither attracted to nor repelled by one another.
Answer: d
33. Which of the following biomes is correctly paired with the description of its climate?
Answer: a
34. Cellulose and hemicellulose are not resistant to decay but are broken down more slowly.
They are considered
a. Labile
b. Moderately labile
c. Recalcitrant
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d. Nonlabile
Answer: b
a. Host-specific antibodies
Answer: c
36. What is the estimate of volume of water yield for saturated pond aquifer of 1 metre width
and 2 metre depth and length of 4 metre? Consider the porosity of sand to be 35% and
specific yield to be 25%?
a. 2.8 m3
b. 28 m3
c. 0.28 m3
d. 280 m3
Answer: a
37. Arrange the following climate proxes in ascending order of time scales:
a. Lithological records
b. Pollens
c. Tree rings
d. Historical records
i. 4, 3, 1, 2
ii. 4, 3, 2, 1
iii. 4, 2, 1, 3
iv. 4, 1, 3, 2
Answer: b
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a. Granite
b. Bauxite
c. Lime stone
Answer: c
a. Uniform throughout:
Answer: b
a. Land subsidence
b. Fire hazard
c. Radioactive waste
d. Air pollution
i. 1 and 2
ii. 1, 2 and 3
iii. 1, 2 and 4
iv. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: c
a. Earth's core
b. Earth's mantle
c. Mid-Oceanic ridges
d. Earth's crust
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Answer: d
42. What led to maximum number of fatalities during Indonesian 2004 Earthquake?
c. Epidemic diseases
d. Tsunami
Answer: d
a. Oceans
b. Coal mines
c. Antarctica
d. Forests
Answer: a
a. The Himalayas
Answer: a
a. Iron
b. Nitrogen
c. Carbon
d. Magnesium
Answer: a
46. Gasification is
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a. The high temperature (~ 750 – c850° C) conversion of solid, carbonaceous fuel into
flammable gas mixtures.
b. The high temperature (~ 750 – 850° C) conversion of solid, carbonaceous fuel into
liquid.
c. The low temperature (~ 250 – 350° C) conversion of solid, carbonaceous fuel into
flammable gas mixture.
d. The low temperature (~ 250 – 350° C) conversion of solid, carbonaceous fuel into
liquid.
Answer: a
47. In case of magneto hydrodynamic power generation, for maximum power output, the
efficiency is
a. 0.25
b. 0.5
c. 0.75
d. 0.4
Answer: b
48. Which combination of radioactive fluxes plays the all important role in climate change?
b. Visible and UV
Answer: a
Answer: d
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50. Which of the following fuels has highest carbon intensity?
a. Natural gas
b. Oil
c. Bituminous coal
d. Biomass
Answer: c
a. Autoclaving
Answer: d
a. 1962
b. 1972
c. 1982
d. 1992
Answer: b
53. According to National Ambient Air Quality Standards, the annual average concentration of
Sulphur dioxide in residential areas in India is
a. 20 μg/m3
b. 40 μg/m3
c. 60 μg/m3
d. 80 μg/m3
Answer: c
54. Which of the following statements is correct in the context of Environmental Impact
Assessment?
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a. The process considers broad range of potential alternatives.
Answer: d
55. Match the List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
A B C D
a. 4 1 2 3
b. 4 1 3 2
c. 3 2 1 4
d. 2 4 1 3
Answer: a
56. Among the following, which one does not belong to EIA process?
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Answer: d
57. According to Gaussian Plume Model, the ground level concentration (C) of a pollutant
varies with effective height (H) as (σ is the vertical dispersion coefficient):
a. C ∝1/H
b. C ∝ e– H2/σ2
c. C ∝ e– H/σ
d. C ∝ H–2
Answer: b
58. In a multiple regression analysis, an examination of variances revealed that explained sum
of squares per degree of freedom and residual sum of squares per degree of freedom were
250 and 100, respectively. What is the F-ratio?
a. 6.25
b. 5.25
c. 0.4
d. 2.5
Answer: d
Answer: d
Answer: a
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d. Under constant threat
Codes:
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
Answer: d
b. Terrestrial ecosystem
c. Auto ecosystem
d. Engineered ecosystem
Answer: d
a. Pyramid of energy
b. Pyramid of biomass
c. Pyramid of number
Answer: a
63. Which one of the following environmental factors is responsible for cyclomorphism in
animals?
a. Moisture
b. Temperature
c. Photoperiod
d. Wind
Answer: b
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64. Sr90 can enter and accumulate in the body through
a. Drinking water
c. Food chain
d. Skin
Answer: c
a. Organophosphate
b. Nitric oxide
c. 2, 4 − D
d. Cuprous oxide
Answer: a
a. 50 m M–1 cm–1
c. 1 M–1 cm–1
d. 3 M–1 cm–1
Answer: d
a. Clostridium Sp
b. Azatobacter Sp
c. Bacillus Sp
d. Thiobacillus Sp
Answer: a
a. Cyclones
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b. Scrubbers
c. Bag filter
d. Electrostatic Precipitator
Answer: d
c. Impedance discontinuity
Answer: c
a. Psittacosis
c. Legionnaire's disease
d. Aspergillosis
Answer: b
a. Lithosere
b. Psamosere
c. Hydrosere
d. Hydrarch
Answer: a
72. The mean of a data following Poisson distribution is 4. The second moment of the
distribution is:
a. 4
b. 2
c. 1
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d. 0
Answer: a
73. Which of the following rivers has maximum melt water component in its discharge?
a. Indus
b. Ganges
c. Brahmaputra
d. Narmada
Answer: a
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Examrace
▶ Examrace 463K
Paper 3 has been removed from NET from 2018 (Notification)- now paper 2 and 3 syllabus is
included in paper 2. Practice both paper 2 and 3 from past papers.
1. In which part of the atmosphere the momentum, heat flux and moisture content are
conserved?
b. Mesosphere
c. Troposphere
d. Stratosphere
Answer: a
a. Podozols
b. Latosols
c. Serpent soil
d. Solonachak
Answer: b
3. A local laboratory analyzed a water sample and determined that it contained a total solid
(TS) content of 132 mg/L and a conductivity of 112 μS/cm. The total suspended solid (TSS)
content (mg/L) of water will be
a. ~ 57
b. ~ 75
c. ~ 32
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d. ~ 120
Answer: a
a. Class-I sedimentation
b. Class-II sedimentation
c. Class-III sedimentation
d. Compression
Answer: a
5. The theoretical oxygen demand for a solution containing 500 mg/L of phenol will be
a. 298 mg/L
b. 596 mg/L
c. 1191 mg/L
d. 2382 mg/L
Answer: c
6. The compound p-dchlorobenze has been found to have KOM = 625. For a soil containing
1.6% organic matter, the distribution coefficient (Kd) will be
a. 2
b. 5
c. 10
d. 20
Answer: c
7. Which one of the following is the single most important reactive intermediate species in
atmospheric chemical processes?
a. OH.
b. O2–
c. ROO.
d. OH–
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Answer: a
8. As per Indian Standards (BIS) for drinking water desirable limit for total hardness as
CaCO3 is
a. 100 mg/l
b. 200 mg/l
c. 300 mg/l
d. 400 mg/l
Answer: c
9. Flue gas laden with fine particles from a thermal power plant with a volume flow rate of
100 m3/second passes through an electrostatic precipitator (ESP) having 5000 m2 of
collector plate area. If the particle collection efficiency of the ESP is 98%, the drift velocity
of the flue gas must be
a. ~ 0.052 m/s
b. ~ 0.078 m/s
c. ~ 0.15 m/s
d. ~ 1.5 m/s
Answer: b
10. Molar extinction coefficient of malondialdehyde is 0.155 mM–1 Cm–1. The concentration
of malondialdehyde in a solution having an absorbance of 0.31 is
a. 2 mM
b. 0.31 mM
c. 0.155 mM
d. 1.55 mM
Answer: a
a. Leaching
b. Siltation
c. Weathering of soil
d. Soil erosion
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Answer: d
12. The rate of settling of air-borne particles in the atmosphere varies with their aerodynamic
diameter 4as
a. α d
b. α d2
c. α d3
d. α d½
Answer: b
b. Atmosphere is unstable
Answer: a
14. Among total dissolved matter in marine water, chlorine accounts for
a. 30%
b. 55%
c. 12%
d. 6%
Answer: b
a. < 0.39 μm
b. 0.5 – 0.6 μm
c. 0.6 – 0.65 μm
d. 0.65 – 0.7 μm
Answer: a
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a. Hydrocarbons
b. Isoprene
c. Terpene
d. Arsenic
Codes:
a. 1 and 4
b. 2 and 4
c. 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
Answer: a
a. Carbon monoxide
b. Sulphur dioxide
c. Nitrous oxide
d. Methane
Answer: c
a. 60 days
b. 8 days
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c. 12 years
d. 30 days
Answer: b
20. Which one of the following makes blood toxic, after combining with haemoglobin?
a. CO2
b. CO
c. SO2
d. CH4
Answer: b
a. ADP
b. Phosphate
c. H2S
d. CO2
Answer: c
22. Assertion (A): Oil slick in the ocean causes mass scale death of fish.
Answer: a
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c. Tropical deciduous woodland
Answer: a
Answer: a
a. Climate
b. Topography
d. Microbes
Answer: d
Answer: b
a. Decomposition
b. Succession
c. Root competition
d. Bedrock
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Answer: d
a. Allen's law
b. Gause hypothesis
c. Doll's rule
d. Weismann's theory
Answer: b
Answer: a
30. Based on the number arrange the following group of endemic vertebrate species of India
in descending order:
a. Mammals
b. Birds
c. Reptiles
d. Amphibians
Answer: b
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b. Phosphorous and Carbon
Answer: a
a. Parasites damage the host body but do not cause immediate mortality.
d. The balance between parasite and host is disturbed as the host produces antibodies.
Answer: b
a. Airborne allergy
b. Contact allergy
c. Hydroborne allergy
d. Soilborne allergy
Answer: a
34. Parasites which initiate production of antibodies within hosts are termed as
a. Endoparasites
b. Pathogenic parasites
c. Zooparasites
d. Homoparasites
Answer: b
a. Cellulose
b. Hemicellulose
c. Chitin
d. Amino acids
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Answer: c
36. Melting of polar ice is expected to cover a sea level rise of approximately
a. 10 metre
b. 20 metre
c. 60 metre
d. 100 metre
Answer: c
a. Cold climate
b. Warm climate
c. Alteration of cold and warm climate with high proportion of cold period
d. Alteration of cold and warm climate with very high proportion of warm period
Answer: c
Answer: d
b. Alluvial forms
d. River meandering
Answer: a
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b. Resource implies high degree of geological knowledge
c. Reserve implies high degree of economic viability and high degree of geological
knowledge
d. Resource implies high degree of economic viability and high degree of geological
knowledge
Answer: c
Answer: b
a. Regolith soil
b. Glacial soil
d. Red soil
Answer: a
43. In a whole-rock chemical analysis the dividing criterion between major and trace element
on weight percent basis is
a. 1 %
b. 0.1 %
c. 0.01 %
d. 0.001 %
Answer: b
a. Olivine
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b. Quartz
c. K-feldspar
d. Biotite
Answer: b
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: a
a. May
b. August
c. October
d. December
Answer: d
47. The elemental composition of earth's crust in the descending order of weight percent is
Answer: a
a. Combustion
b. Fast pyrolysis
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c. Gasification
d. Transesterification
Answer: b
49. For an ideal Magneto-hydrodynamic power generator, the power output (P) varies with
the hot fuel velocity u as
a. P ∝ u
b. P ∝ u2
c. p ∝ u3/2
d. p ∝ u3
Answer: b
50. Assuming that due to large scale change in land use pattern of the world, the earth's
albedo changes from 0.32 to 0.3. If the climate sensitivity factor is 0.5° C w–1 m2, the
change in surface temperature of earth will be (take solar constant S = 1400 w/m2)
a. 3.5° C
b. 0.25° C
c. 7.0° C
d. 1.5° C
Answer: a
51. Global Warming Potential (GWP) of a greenhouse gas (GHG) is a factor comparing the
global warming impacts of
Answer: b
52. The energy released during combustion of methane is ~ 900 kJ/mol. The carbon intensity
of methane is
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b. ~ 0.013 gram C/kJ
Answer: b
Answer: a
54. The validity period of Environmental Clerance after Environmental Impact Assessment is
least for
a. Mining projects
c. Harbour projects
Answer: d
c. Comparison of alternatives
Answer: d
56. Who are responsible for the public consultation process of EIA?
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d. State Pollution Control Board and Civil Society
Answer: b
a. Planning
b. Environmental policy
c. Implementation
d. Monitoring
V. Review
Codes:
a. 1, 2, 3, V, 4
b. 2, 1, 3, 4, V
c. 1, 3, 2, 4, V
d. 1, V, 3, 2, 4
Answer: b
58. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
A B C D
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a. 1 4 3 2
b. 3 1 2 4
c. 2 3 4 1
d. 4 2 1 3
Answer: b
Answer: c
a. Article 14
b. Article 19
c. Article 21
d. Article 25
Answer: c
61. National Ambient Air Quality Standards for major pollutants were notified by CPCB in
a. 1994
b. 1984
c. 2004
d. 1974
Answer: a
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62. Public Liability Insurance Act came into existence in the year
a. 1986
b. 1989
c. 1991
d. 1995
Answer: c
63. The standard deviation of weghts of certain 1 kg packets of milk is 10 grams. A random
sample of 20 packets showed a standard deviation of 15 grams. The value of χ2 statistic for
the sample is
a. 30
b. 45
c. 1.5
d. 0.66
Answer: c
64. Assertion (A): According to Gaussian Plume Model, the downward concentration of
pollutant appears to beinversely proportional toaverage wind speed at effectivestack
height.
Reason (R): Plume rise does not depend on wind speed. It only depends on buoyancy
flux parameter.
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: c
65. The population of an urban area increased from 5 million to 15 million over a period of 50
years. If the growth of population has been exponential at a constant rate over this period,
the growth rate is
a. ~ 0.693 %
b. ~ 1.2 %
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c. ~ 1.38 %
d. ~ 2.2 %
Answer: d
66. A random sample of size 26 has a mean of 20. The sum of squares of the deviations taken
from the mean is 200. If the population mean is 18, what is the value of t-statistic?
a. ~ 0.9
b. ~ 2.1
c. ~ 3.6
d. ~ 5.2
Answer: c
67. In Y-shaped energy flow model, one arm represents herbivore and the other
a. Carnivore
b. Decomposer
c. Omnivore
d. Secondary consumer
Answer: b
68. The population of a certain fish species in a pond follows logistic equation dN/dt = αN –
βN2. When α = 0.5 and β = 0.01, the maximum sustainable yield is
a. 25
b. 50
c. 20
d. 5
Answer: a
a. Microevolution
b. Macroevolution
c. Chemical evolution
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d. Inorganic evolution
Answer: a
a. ~ 2.5 km
b. ~ 5 km
c. ~ 7 km
d. ~ 8.5 km
Answer: c
71. Assertion (A): Planetary, synoptic and mesoscale motions in earth's atmosphere are
essentially quasi-horizontal.
Reason (R): The vertical component of wind velocity is more than an order of
magnitude smaller than its horizontal component for all motions in atmosphere.
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: a
Answer: c
73. Which one of the following is not the goal of sustainable agriculture in India?
c. Mechanised farming
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d. Keep farms economically viable
Answer: c
74. The term of Kyoto Protocol has been extended beyond December 2012 by
a. 5 years
b. 7 years
c. 8 years
d. 3 years
Answer: a
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PAPER-III
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Paper – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions, each question carrying two
(2) marks. All questions are compulsory.
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10. Which one of the following is referred 14. When a mixture of Azospirillum,
to as superoxide radical ? Azotobacter and Vibrio was applied to
(A) O (B) O2 rhizosphere, fixation of atmospheric
nitrogen was increased. It was due to
–
(C) O°2 (D) O3 activity of
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17. As per Raunkaiers law of frequency, 21. Which of the following types of coal
five different frequency classes (A, B, contains higher percentage of volatile
C, D and E) in a natural undisturbed matter ?
community exhibit one of the (A) Peat
following relationship :
(B) Lignite
(A) A < B > C > =
<D<E (C) Bituminous
(B) A > B > C > =
<D<E (D) Anthracite
(C) A < B > C > =
<D>E
22. Carbon dioxide evolved from soil
(D) A < B < C > =
<D>E mainly comes from
(A) Microbial respiration
18. Which one of the following category of
(B) Root respiration
earthworms is most suitable for
Vermicomposting ? (C) Soil animals respiration
(A) Epigeic (D) All the above
(B) Anecic
(C) Endogeic 23. Which one of the following pesticides
(D) All the above persists for a long period in soil ?
(A) Lindane
19. Which one of the following is an in (B) Monocrotophos
situ method of biodiversity
conservation ? (C) Carbaryl
(A) Reserve forest (D) Parathion
(B) National parks
(C) Sanctuaries
24. Organic matter (OM) content of soil
(D) All the above
can be calculated from organic carbon
(OC) by using the formula
20. Match the contaminant in Column – I
(A) OM (%) = OC (%) × 1.724
with the disease in Column – II :
Column – I Column – II (B) OM (%) = OC (%) × 1.247
(i) Mercury 1. Methamoglobinemia (C) OM (%) = OC (%) × 1.472
(ii) Nitrate 2. Itai Itai (D) OM (%) = OC (%) × 1.427
Nitrogen
(iii) Cadmium 3. Silicosis
(iv) Coal 4. Minamata 25. The problem of thermal pollution can
Choose the correct code : be alleviated by using
Codes : (A) Cooling ponds
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (B) Cooling towers
(A) 2 3 4 1
(C) More efficient electricity
(B) 3 4 2 1
generating plants
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 4 1 2 3 (D) All the above
Paper-III 4 J-89-12
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26. According to Recycled Plastics 29. The colour code of the container for
(Manufacture and Usage) Rules 1999, collection of waste scrap generated
the minimum thickness of carry bags from Hospitals is
shall not be less than
(A) Red (B) Blue
(A) 10 microns (B) 20 microns
(C) 30 microns (D) 50 microns (C) White (D) Green
27. Match the Act mentioned in 30. Given below are two statements, one
Column – I with the year of enactment labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
mentioned in Column – II : labelled as Reason (R) :
Column – I Column – II
Assertion (A) : When quantitative
(i) The Water 1. 2002 probabilistic risk assessment is
(Prevention and performed on hazardous waste
Control of Pollution) sites they usually turn out to be
Act of relatively low threats.
(ii) The Air (Prevention 2. 1986
Reason (R) : In hazardous waste sites
and Control of
the chance of exposure is low
Pollution) Act
because of isolation of drinking
(iii) The Environmental 3. 1974 water supplies and prevention of
(Protection) Act access.
(iv) The Biological 4. 1981 Choose the correct answer :
Diversity Act
Choose the correct code : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
Codes :
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
(R) is not the correct explanation
(A) 1 4 3 2 of (A).
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(D) 2 4 3 1
28. Which one of the following is not an 31. In India, an Environment Impact
energy recovery method of solid waste Assessment report of a proposed
management ? mining project after environmental
(A) Pelletisation clearance is applicable for a maximal
period of how many years ?
(B) Biomethanation
(A) 5 years (B) 10 years
(C) Pyrolysis
(D) Composting (C) 30 years (D) 2 years
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32. An increase of one unit of Richter 37. The maximum specific power output
Scale represents an increase in (p) from a MHD power generator
amplitude by a factor of varies with the velocity (u) of hot
ionized gas as
(A) 10 (B) 100
(A) p ∝ u (B) p ∝ u2
(C) 1000 (D) 2
(C) p ∝ u3/2 (D) p ∝ u3
33. Which rare earth element is not present 38. Given below are two statements. One
in the earth’s crust but for commercial labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
purpose comes from the Nuclear labelled as Reason (R).
reactors ? Assertion (A) : Electrostatic
(A) Promethium (B) Lanthanum precipitators (ESPs) can be
harmful if not operated properly.
(C) Cerium (D) Samarium
Reason (R) : Corona discharge in
ESPs produces ozone.
34. To display green colour in the monitor Choose the correct answer :
the amount of RGB should be
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and
(A) 255 : 0 : 0 (R) is the correct explanation of
(A).
(B) 255 : 255 : 255
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and
(C) 0:0:0 (R) is not the correct explanation
of (A).
(D) 0 : 255 : 0
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
35. When the temperature range in (D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
geothermal resource is generally low,
electrical power generation from such 39. Given below are two statements. One
resources require the use of secondary labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
low boiling point fluid. This is labelled as Reason (R) :
generally known as
Assertion (A) : Vegetation hedges are
(A) Rankine cycle the best way to control noise.
(B) Production well cycle Reason (R) : Vegetation hedges
scatter noise.
(C) Flash stem cycle Choose the correct answer.
(D) Hard Dry Rock cycle (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and
(R) is the correct explanation of
36. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) (A).
is the least for which of the following (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but
greenhouse gases ? (R) is not the correct explanation
of (A).
(A) CH4 (B) CO2
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(C) N2O (D) SF6 (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
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40. If w and ws are mixing ratio and 43. Given below are two statements. One
saturation mixing ratio respectively; T labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
and Td are the ambient temperature labelled as Reason (R).
and dew point temperature Assertion (A) : Noise gets attenuated
respectively, then identify the correct more in dry atmosphere.
expression of relative humidity (RH).
Reason (R) : Moist air is less denser
w at Td than dry air.
(A) RH =
w at T
Choose the correct answer :
w at T (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
(B) RH =
w at Td is the correct explanation of (A).
•
41. Identify mesoscale phenomenon. 44. OH radicals in atmosphere play a role of
(A) scavenger
(A) Tornado
(B) acidifier
(B) Sea breeze (C) reducing agent
(C) Cyclone (D) greenhouse gas
(D) Eddies
45. The slow neutrons initiating nuclear
fission with U235 have energies of the
order of
42. For elevations less than few hundred
(A) 0.25 MeV
metres, if the wind speeds are u1 and u2
at elevations z1 and z2 respectively, the (B) 0.15 MeV
u1 z1 p (C) 0.25 eV
following equation holds u = z . (D) 0.025 eV
2 2
The value of the exponent p is
46. The most suitable range of wind speeds
(A) < 0.6 for wind power generation is
(B) =1 (A) 1 – 5 m/s
(B) 4 – 12 m/s
(C) > 0.6
(C) 10 – 20 m/s
(D) negative (D) 20 – 50 m/s
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47. For energy to be produced from 51. Radioactive isotopes of which of the
nuclear fusion of Deuterium (D) and elements in human body decay every
Tritium (T), the mixture of D + T has second ?
to be heated up to energies of at least (A) K40 and C14
(A) 1 KeV (B) C14 and N6
(B) 10 KeV (C) N16 and K40
(C) 500 eV (D) None of the above
(D) 1 MeV
52. Which of the following techniques is
most appropriate for determining
crystalline structure of environmental
48. Element contaminating the water body samples ?
is determined and quantified by using
(A) Infrared spectroscopy
one of the following methods :
(B) X-ray diffraction
(A) Colorimeter
(C) Microspectrophotometry
(B) Spectrophotometer (D) Raman spectroscopy
(C) Atomic absorption spectrometer
53. Which one of the following is the most
(D) All the above predominant element in a majority of
igneous rocks ?
(A) Al (B) Fe
49. In which type of chromatography four
modes viz, Absorption, partition, Ion (C) O (D) Si
exchange and exclusion, are present ?
54. Match the entries in Group-I with the
(A) HPLC process parameters in Group-II :
(B) Liquid-liquid chromatography Group-I Group-II
(C) Ion-exchange chromatography (i) Clark electrode 1. Dissolved
Oxygen
(D) Adsorption chromatography (ii) Redox Probe 2. pH
(iii) Load cell 3. Liquid level
50. The metal which is generally absorbed (iv) Diaphragm 4. Vessel
by plants along with Zn and causes gauge pressure
“Ouch Ouch” disease in human beings Choose the correct code :
is Codes :
(A) Pb (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) Cd
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) Hg (C) 1 4 3 2
(D) Cr (D) 4 3 2 1
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55. Which one of the following is used to 59. Which one of the following is
determine total organic matter by considered as indicator of aquatic
Walkley and Black method ? pollution ?
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63. The allochthonous microorganisms of 67. If a bacterium with a 20 minute
an ecosystem are generation time is grown under optimal
conditions (37 °C), one cell would
(A) Indigenous microorganisms
multiply to 103 (1000) cells in 3.3
(B) Migrant hours, then how much time it will take
(C) Parasitic to multiply to 106 cells ?
(D) Pathogenic (A) 5.3 hrs. (B) 6.6 hrs.
(C) 9.9 hrs. (D) 6.3 hrs.
64. The rate of evaporation of oil spilled
into the sea depends on
68. The biodegradation of plant material is
(A) The elemental concentration of slow because of presence of
sea water
(A) Cellulose
(B) The composition of sea water
microflora (B) Xylene
(C) Composition of the crude oil (C) Extensin/protein
(D) The temperature of the sea (D) Lignin
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71. An ecotype is 74. Given below are two statements, one
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
(A) Genetically different forms of the labelled as Reason (R).
same organisms
Assertion (A) : If natality is greater
(B) Genetically similar forms of the than mortality, it leads to
same organisms population explosion.
(C) Morphologically different forms Reason (R) : The scientific study of
of the same organisms various species of human
population is called demography.
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Choose the correct answer :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
72. Ultraviolet radiations are lethal due to is the correct explanation of (A).
inactivation of
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
(A) Proteins, nucleic acids and (R) is not the correct explanation
pigments of (A).
(B) Minerals, water and air (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(C) Carbohydrates, fats and vitamins (D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(D) O2, CO2 and water
75. Match Column – I with Column – II :
Column – I Column – II
73. The following are the characters of
species diversity : (i) Chipko 1. Medha
Movement Patkar
(i) More richness
(ii) Narmada 2. Al Gore
(ii) More evenness Bacchao
Andolan
(iii) More dominance
(iii) Climate Change 3. Rachel
(iv) Less dominance Carson
(v) Less richness (iv) Silent Spring 4. Sundarlal
(vi) Less evenness Bahuguna
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Space For Rough Work
Paper-III 12 J-89-12
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Reasoning Previous Year Question & Answers
a. Odontology
b. Mycology
c. Ornithology
d. Etymology
Ans. Ornithology
Explanation: Cytology is the branch of biology concerned with the structure and function of
plant and animal cells. Similarly, Ornithology is the scientific study of birds. Hence, option(c.)
is the correct answer.
DHLP:WSOK::FJNR: ?
a. UQMI
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b. TPLH
c. SOKG
d. VRNJ
Ans. UQMI
Explanation: Refer the following table to solve the stated problem and match the
corresponding letter to find the answers-
A B C D E F G H I J K L M
Z Y X W V U T S R Q P O N
2:10::26:?
a. 50
b. 36
c. 42
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d. 20
Ans. 50
Question 4. Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
a. EHJ
b. JML
c. PSR
d. VYX
Ans. EHJ
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P--- (+3)-----> S-----(-1)-------> R;
Question 5. Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
a. Tomcat
b. Baby
c. Fawn
d. Cub
Ans. Baby
Explanation: All except baby are related to the young animals. Hence, option(b.) is the correct
answer.
Question 6. Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
a. 11
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b. 17
c. 19
d. 21
Ans. 21
Explanation: All except 21 are prime numbers. Hence, option (d.) is the correct answer.
a. 5,2,3,1,4
b. 5,2,1,3,4
c. 5,2,4,1,3
d. 5,2,4,3,1
Ans. 5,2,1,3,4
Explanation: The ascending order of the given English words as per the dictionary is as
follows-
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Pastern (5) > Pastor (2) > Patriot (1)> Patron (3)> Pattern(4).
Question 8.A series is given below with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative
from the given ones that will complete the series.
a. CMN
b. VJI
c. VIJ
d. IJT
Ans. VIJ
Question 9.A series is given below with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative
from the given ones that will complete the series.
a. 455
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b. 465
c. 565
d. 568
Ans. 568
Explanation: 124
-------(+1)(+1)(+1)--------235-------(+1)(+1)(+1)--------346-------(+1)(+1)(+1)--------457-------(+1)(+1)(+1)-
-------568;
Question 10.F is the brother of A. C is the daughter of A. K is the sister of F, G is the brother
of C. Who is the uncle of G?
a. A
b. C
c. K
d. F
Ans. F
Explanation: From the given figure, it is clear that the F is the uncle of G.
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Question 11.If Jhansi is 12 ahead in rank of Prabha, who ranks 15th from last, then how many
students are there in the class if Jhansi ranks 4th in order of merit ?
a. 23
b. 27
c. 30
d. 31
Ans. 30
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Explanation: Jhansi will be at = 12 + 15 = 27 position from the last;
Question 12.From the given words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters
of the given word.
ENVIRONMENT
a. ENTER
b. METRE
c. IRON
d. MOMENTUM
Ans. MOMENTUM
Explanation: In the given word “ENVIRONMENT”, there is no ‘U’ and 2 ‘M’ in that.Hence, it is
clear that option (d.) will be the correct answer.
Question 13.If 'BASKET' is written as 'TEKSAB' how can 'PILLOW' be written in that code?
a. LOWPIL
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b. WOLLIP
c. LOWLIP
d. WOLPIL
Ans. WOLLIP
Explanation: ‘TEKSAB’ is the reverse of ‘BASKET’. Similarly, the reverse of ‘PILLOW’ will be
‘WOLLIP’.
Question 14.If '+' means '-' and '-' means 'x', 'x' means '÷' and '÷' means '+' then 2 ÷ 6 x 6 ÷ 2 =
?
a. 1
b. 0
c. 10
d. 5
Ans. 5
Explanation:
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=2 ÷ 6 x 6 ÷ 2;
= 2 + 6 /6 +2 = 2 + 1 + 2 = 5;
a. 974
b. 479
c. 497
d. 749
Ans. 497
Explanation: In the given sequence, middle digit is kept in first place in the RHS, first digit is
kept in middle and last digit is kept in the last. Hence, option (c.) is the correct answer for the
given problem.
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a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 1
Ans. 2
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Question 17.Ashok went 8 kms south and turned west and walked 3 kms. Again he turned
north and walked 5 kms. He took a final turn to east and walked 3 kms. In which direction was
Ashok from the starting point?
a. East
b. North
c. West
d. South
Ans. South
Explanation: from the figure given below, it is clear that Ashok will be in South direction from
the starting point.
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Question 18.Consider the given statement/s to be true and decide which of the given
conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statement.
Statement: Ahimsa should be basic principle of human beings. All of us should practice
Ahimsa.
Explanation: The given statement is the suggestion. While, Both conclusions are
assumptions. Hence, option (c.) is the correct answer.
Question 19.Of a cubical container, all the six faces have different markings indicating the
position of the equipment packed inside. Which symbol is opposite the face having C?
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a. Z
b. B
c. X
d. Y
Ans. Z
Explanation: From first two figures, we can conclude that marking ‘X’ and ‘B’ are just
opposite to each other. From last two figures, it can be concluded that ‘A’ & ‘Y’ and ‘C’ & ‘z’
are opposite to each other. Hence, option (a.) is the correct answer.
Question 20.Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among classes given
below
a.
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b.
c.
d.
Ans. a.
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Explanation: In a month, there are 30/31 days and in 1 day, there are 720 minutes. Hence,
option (a.) is the correct answer.
Question 21.Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
a.
b.
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c.
d.
Ans. b.
Explanation: divide the whole image in quadrants, the image in second quadrant will be the
mirror image of fourth quadrant. Hence, option (b.) is the correct answer.
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Question 22.From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is
hidden/embedded.
a.
b.
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c.
d.
Ans. a.
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Explanation: Superimpose the given problem figure on every optional figures, you can easily
find that option (a.) is the most appropriate answer.
Question 23.A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From
the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened
a.
b.
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c.
d.
Ans. b.
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Explanation: If you reverse the punching process, then you will find that the right answer will
be option (b.).
Question 24.If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right
image of the given figure?
a.
b.
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c.
d.
Ans. c.
Explanation: in mirror image, object is inverted by 180 degrees. Hence, option (c.) is the
correct answer.
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Question 25.In the question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in
any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by
two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I
are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these
matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., G can be
represented by 03, 12, etc., and 'L' can be represented by 57, 65, etc. Similarly you have to
identify the set for the word 'DATE'
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D= 00, 14, 23, 32, 41;
Hence, the correct answer among the given options will be option (a.).
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