Test Series 11 Solutions

TEST SERIES 11 SOLUTIONS
1. With reference to National Green Tribunal which was in news recently, consider the following statements
1. It was set up in 2010 through an order of executive resolution by the government.
2. It acts as a special tribunal to handle the expeditious disposal of the cases pertaining to environmental
issues.
3. The Tribunal shall be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation:
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Solution (b)
National green tribunal
· The National Green Tribunal has been established on 18.10.2010 under the National Green Tribunal
Act 2010(a statutory body and not a body of executive resolution) for effective and expeditious disposal
of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources
including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for
damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
· It is a specialized body equipped with the necessary expertise to handle environmental disputes
involving multi-disciplinary issues.
· The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908,
but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.
The Tribunal's dedicated jurisdiction in environmental matters shall provide speedy environmental justice
and help reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts.
· The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6
months of filing of the same.
· Initially, the NGT is proposed to be set up at five places of sittings and will follow circuit procedure for
making itself more accessible.
· New Delhi is the Principal Place of Sitting of the Tribunal and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai shall
be the other four place of sitting of the Tribunal.
Source: http://www.greentribunal.gov.in/history.aspx
2. Consider the following statements:

1. In a market economy, unrestricted entry of firms is desirable so that resources and capital can be
allocated most efficiently by competition.
2. In a market economy, exit of a firm should be strictly restricted as competition will reduce leading to
monopoly of few firms.
Which of the above statements are correct about a market economy?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: A
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Explanation:
Solution (a)
Source: Economic survey
A market economy requires unrestricted entry of new firms, new ideas, and new technologies so that the
forces of competition can guide capital and labour resources to their most productive and dynamic uses.
But it also requires exit so that resources are forced or enticed away from inefficient and unsustainable
uses.
3. Recently, National Clean Energy Fund was in news. It is used to
a)Fund physical connectivity programme of rural areas.

b)Finance modernisation efforts of agriculture thereby increase crop yield and productivity.
c)Fund research and innovative projects in clean energy technology.
d)Fund the maintenance of protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources within the
country.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
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Solution (c)
· The National Clean Energy Fund (NCEF) is a fund created in 2010-11 using the carbon tax - clean
energy cess - for funding research and innovative projects in clean energy technologies of public sector
or private sector entities, upto the extent of 40% of the total project cost.
· Assistance is available as a loan or as a viability gap funding, as deemed fit by the Inter-Ministerial
group, which decides on the merits of such projects.
Usage of fund
Any project/scheme relating to Innovative methods to adopt to Clean Energy technology and Research &
Development are eligible for funding under the NCEF. An indicative list of such projects is as follows:
· Projects supporting the development and demonstration of integrated community energy solutions,
smart grid technology renewable applications with solar, wind, tidal and geothermal energy;
· Projects in critical renewable energy infrastructure areas such as Silicon Manufacturing;
· Projects which result in replacing existing technology in energy generation with more environmentally
sustainable approach;
· Projects related to environment management, particularly in the geographical areas surrounding the
energy sector projects;
· Renewable/Alternate Energy: This would include advanced solar technologies, geothermal energy,
bio-fuels from cellulosic biomass/algae/any waste, offshore Marine Technologies (Wind, Wave & Tidal) &
Onshore wind energy technologies, Hydrogen & fuel cells.
Source: http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=National_Clean_Energy_Fund_(NCEF)
4. Indian economy has gradually made a lot of progress in making Indian market accessible to the firms.
Which of the following steps were taken in this regard?
1. Industrial licensing has been dismantled
2. Trade barriers have been reduced
3. Indian rupee has been devalued
4. Labour laws have been made more stringent
5. Public sector monopolies have been diluted
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 1,2 and 5
c) 1,2 ,3 and 5
d) All of the above
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Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Solution (b)
Indian rupee has not been devalued.
Labour laws are being liberalized to increase ease of doing business.
The Indian economy has made remarkable progress in increasing entry: industrial licensing has
been dismantled, public sector monopolies have been diluted, some public sector assets have been
privatised, foreign direct investment has been considerably liberalised, a process that has been
accelerated under this government, and trade barriers have been reduced. Indeed, the narrative of
reforms has been one of promoting entry by eliminating the barriers to it.
5. Consider the following statements wrt objectives of social forestry in India

1) Improve the environment for protecting agriculture from adverse climatic factors.
2) Increase the supply of wood fuel for domestic use, fodder for livestock, and minor forest produce for
local industries.
3) Raise the standard of living and quality of life of the rural and the urban people.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
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Solution (d)
· Social forestry means the management and protection of forests and afforestation on barren lands with
the purpose of helping in the environmental, social and rural development.
· The term, social forestry, was first used in India in 1976 by The National Commission on
Agriculture, Government of India.
· It was then that India embarked upon a social forestry project with the aim of taking the pressure off
currently existing forests by planting trees on all unused and fallow land.
The main objectives of social forestry include
· Improve the environment for protecting agriculture from adverse climatic factors,
· Increase the supply of wood fuel for domestic use, small timber for rural housing, fodder for livestock,
and minor forest produce for local industries,
· Increase the natural beauty of the landscape; create recreational forests for the benefit of rural and
urban population,
· Provide jobs for unskilled workers and
· Land rehabilitation
· Finally, its object i s to raise the standard of living and quality of life of the rural and the urban people

1. For a firm it is much easier to enter the Indian market but it is very difficult to exit.
2. Easy exit of firms from the market is always good for a developing economy.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
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Solution (a)
Easy exit is not always good for a developing economy. Sometimes firms suddenly close their business
and leave. This way they take out their money from the market which have adverse impact on the growth
of the country. Especially when foreign firms does that they take away the valuable FOREX from the
market.
7. Recently the government came up with a scheme called Prakash Path, to transform lives of people in
India. It tries to
a) Provide financial assistance to farmers to dig a bore well and ensure water availability.
b) Transform lives of elderly population with an assured old age pension and insurance allowance.
c) Provide LED bulbs to households as a part of domestic efficient lighting programme .
d) Give importance to solar power and incentivises consumers to go for solar products by giving 20%
discount on all solar lightings.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Solution (c)
· Prime Minister recently described the LED bulb as a “ Prakash Path ” – “way to light,” as he launched a
scheme for LED bulb distribution under the domestic efficient lighting programme in Delhi ; and a
National Programme for LED-based Home and Street Lighting.
· Prime Minister called for making energy conservation through the spread of LED bulbs, a people’s
movement.
· He noted that it is much more economical to conserve power, than to produce power.
· However, he added, it is much more difficult to conserve power, than to produce power, because while
one producing entity can produce a large quantity of power, it requires the active participation of crores
of people to conserve that amount of power.
· Therefore, he called for generating awareness among people for the same.
· He called for extensive involvement of celebrities and eminent citizens in these programmes, who could
motivate people to adopt LED bulbs.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=114328
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8. Consider the following statements regarding the solar system:

1. The solar system consists of sun and eight planets only.
2. All plants in the solar system revolve around the sun in anticlockwise fashion.
3. Mars is called the earth’s twin because of its proximity in size, mass and density to earth.
4. Pluto is the outermost planet of the solar system.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
a) None of the above

b) 1 and 3
c) 1,2 and 4
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Solution (d)
All of the above statements are incorrect.
Apart from the sun and the planets, the solar system consists of dwarf planets, asteroids, comets, dust
etc.
All planets except Uranus revolve in anticlockwise fashion.
Venus, not mars, is called the earth’s twin.
Neptune is the outer most planet . Pluto lost its status of planet in 2006. It is a dwarf planet.
9. With regard to the functions of National Ganga River Basin Authority in India, consider the following
statements
1. It would be responsible for addressing the problem of pollution in Ganga in a holistic and
comprehensive manner.
2. It will only be a regulatory body and will not have any developmental role in terms of planning &
monitoring of the river conservation activities.
3. It will ensure minimum ecological flow in the Ganga by regulating water abstraction and by promoting
water storage projects.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: C
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Explanation:
Solution (c)
· National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) is a financing, planning, implementing, monitoring and
coordinating authority for the Ganges River, functioning under the water resource ministry of India.
· The mission of the organisation is to safeguard the drainage basin which feeds water into the Ganges
by protecting it from pollution or overuse.
Functions:
· The NGRBA would be responsible for addressing the problem of pollution in Ganga in a holistic and
comprehensive manner. This will include water quality, minimum ecological flows, sustainable access
and other issues relevant to river ecology and management.
· The NGRBA will not only be regulatory body but will also have developmental role in terms of planning
& monitoring of the river conservation activities and ensuring that necessary resources are available.
· The NRGBA would work for maintaining the water quality of the river Ganga upto acceptable standards.
The pollution abetment activities will be taken through the existing implementation mechanisms in the
State and also through special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs at the pollution hotspots).
· The NGRBA will ensure minimum ecological flow in the Ganga by regulating water abstraction and by
promoting water storage projects.
· The NGRBA will plan and monitor programmes for cleaning of Ganga and its tributaries. To being with,
it will concentrate on Ganga main stream.
· The NGRBA would draw upon professional expertise within and outside the Government for advice on
techno-economic issues.
· The technical and administrative support to NGRBA shall be provided by the Ministry of Environment &
for advice on techno-economic issues.
· The technical and administrative support to NGRBA shall be provided by the Ministry of Environment &
Forests.
Source: http://cpcb.nic.in/ngrba/about.html
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1. Greenwich meridian and International Date line are the same meridians.
2. A traveller going eastwards from Greenwich gains time.
3. A traveller crossing the date line from east to west loses a day.
a) All of the above

b) 2 and 3
c) 1 only
d) None of the above
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Solution (c)
Greenwich meridian is 0 o meridian while international date line is 180 o meridian.
A traveller going east wards gains time from Greenwich until he reaches the meridian 180 o East where
he will be 12 hours ahead of GMT. Similarly going westwards he loses 12 hours when he reaches 180 o
West . Thus there is a difference of 24 hours between the two sides of 180 o meridian.
11. Consider the following statements with regard to organic farming, a farming technique for sustainable
agricultural yield
1. This kind of farming relies on sustainable farming practices like crop rotation, mixed cropping,
mulching.
2. There is zero use of fertilizers in organic farming.
3. Soil and weed management in organic farming is biologically controlled with the help of useful
microorganisms.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
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Solution (c)
Organic farming
· Organic farming is a form of agriculture that relies on sustainable techniques to enhance the natural
fertility of a farm, including crop rotation, companion planting , biological pest control,
and naturally-sourced fertilizers such as compost, manure, green manure, and bone meal.
· Pest-control measures such as mixed crops and fostering natural insect predators, as well as
naturally-sourced pesticides such as pyrethrin , are employed, while it excludes or strictly limits the use
of synthetic petrochemical fertilizers and pesticides, plant growth regulators such as hormones, antibiotic
use in livestock, genetically modified organisms; human sewage sludge, and nano materials.
There is no use of chemical fertilizers, however bio fertilizers are used...
Source : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Organic_farming
12. The earth’s crust is divided into two layers- upper crust and lower crust. Which of the following
statements are correct about the earth’s crust?
1. The upper crust mainly consists of granitic rocks while the lower crust consists of Basaltic rocks.
2. The upper and lower crust is divided by a discontinuity called Conard line.
Select the correct code from the following:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Solution (c)
The upper crust or the continental crust has low density( 2.7 g/cm 3 ). It is granitic in nature. The lower
crust has higher density( 3 g/cm 3 ). It is basaltic in nature. The two layers are divided by Conard
Discontinuity.
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13. According to the recent report by World Bank, Integrated Watershed Management Programme has been
a game changer in rural India. Which of the following have been the outcomes of the programme which
have transformed lives of rural India
1. Increase in availability of surface water & groundwater .
2. Changes in cropping pattern from one to two crops annually.
3. Increase in fodder availability and increase in milk yield.
4. Prevention of soil erosion and regeneration of natural vegetation .
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1,2 and 3 only
d) 1,2,3 and 4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
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Solution (d)
· Integrated Watershed Management Programme (IWMP) is a modified programme of erstwhile Drought

Prone Areas Programme (DPAP), Desert Development Programme (DDP) and Integrated Wastelands
Development Programme (IWDP) of the Department of Land Resources.
· This consolidation is for optimum use of resources, sustainable outcomes and integrated planning.
· The scheme was launched during 2009-10.
· The programme is being implemented as per Common Guidelines for Watershed Development
Projects 2008.
· The main objectives of the IWMP are to restore the ecological balance by harnessing, conserving and
developing degraded natural resources such as soil, vegetative cover and water.
· The outcomes are prevention of soil erosion, regeneration of natural vegetation, rain water harvesting
and recharging of the ground water table.
· This enables multi-cropping and the introduction of diverse agro-based activities, which help to provide
sustainable livelihoods to the people residing in the watershed area.
The benefits include increase in availability of surface water & groundwater, changes in cropping pattern
from one to two crops annually, increase in fodder availability and increase in milk yield, increase in
agriculture yield as well.
Source: http://dolr.nic.in/dolr/iwmp_main.asp
http://www.simplydecoded.com/2013/07/02/integrated-watershed-management-programme/
14. Igneous rocks are formed by cooling and solidification of lava (or magma). Which of the following
statements correctly explains the characteristic of igneous rocks?
1. Plutonic igneous rocks cools and solidifies rapidly, hence they have very small size crystals.
2. Plutonic igneous rocks are formed at some depth in the earth’s surface. They are never exposed to
the earth’s surface.
Select the code from the following:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: D
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Explanation:
Solution (d)
Plutonic igneous rocks are formed at some depth in the earth’s crust. They have cooled and solidified
slowly and hence have large, well defined crystals. Although these are intrusive rocks like granite and
gabbro, they are exposed to the surface after the process of denudation and erosion.
15. Recently a technique to increase rice yield called System of Rice Intensification was in news. Consider
the following statements w.r.t the principles used in this system
1. Early, quick and healthy plant establishment.
2. Increased plant density on the field.
3. Improved soil conditions through enrichment with organic matter.
4. Increased and extensive water application to place the plant under saturated water conditions.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1,2 and 3 only
d) 1,2,3 and 4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
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Solution (b)
The System of Rice Intensification, known as SRI is a climate-smart, agro ecological methodology for
increasing the productivity of rice and more recently other crops by changing the management of plants,
soil, water and nutrients.
SRI Principles
SRI methodology is based on four main principles that interact with each other:
· Early, quick and healthy plant establishment
· Reduced plant density
· Improved soil conditions through enrichment with organic matter
· Reduced and controlled water application
Based on these principles, farmers can adapt recommended SRI practices to respond to their
agro-ecological and socioeconomic conditions.
Adaptations are often undertaken to accommodate changing weather patterns, soil conditions, labour
availability, water control, access to organic inputs, and the decision whether to practice fully organic
agriculture or not.
Source: http://sri.cals.cornell.edu/aboutsri/methods/index.html
16. “These rocks are distinguished by their layer formation. They are also called stratified rocks. They are
non-crystalline and often contain fossils of various plants, animals and microorganisms.” What type of
rocks is being described in the statement?
a) Igneous
b) Metamorphic
c) Sedimentary
d) Can be any type depending upon the location
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
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Solution (c)
Sedimentary rocks are formed due sedimentation of particles over long periods. They are distinguished
from other rocks by their stratified or layered structure. The strata may vary in thickness from a few
inches to many feet. The rocks may be coarse or fine grained, soft or hard. They are non-crystalline and
often contain fossils of animals, plants and microorganisms.
17. In a move to quantify and penalize environmental damage, the government recently came up with
Environmental Law (Amendment) Bill. The new bill tries to amend which of the following environmental
laws
1. Environment protection act 1986
2. Wildlife protection act 1972
3. National green tribunal act 2010
4. Biological diversity act 2002
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1,2 and 3 only
d) 1,2,3 and 4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
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Solution (b)
· A Bill to amend the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 and the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010.
· This Act may be called the Environment Law (Amendment) Act, 2015.
· It is a draft of the proposed amendment in Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 and National Green
Tribunal Act, 2010.
· The proposed amendments are with the objective of providing for an effective deterrent penal
provisions and introducing the concept of monetary penalty for violation and contraventions.
· Substantial damage will continue to attract penal provisions besides stiff monetary penalty besides
ensuring compliance to environmental norms due to deterrent provision.
· The amount collected as penalty could be used for remediation and reclamation of polluted sites and
improvement of environment.
Source:
http://www.indiaenvironmentportal.org.in/content/419888/draft-environment-laws-amendment-bill-2015/
http://www.livemint.com/Politics/9JAjIeqt5rqFXQXTC5rxRJ/Draft-bill-proposes-stiff-fines-and-jail-term-for-violation.htm
18. The process of folding is highly unlikely to take place in which of the following rocks:
1. Sedimentary
2. Metamorphic
3. Igneous
Select the correct code
a) 2 only
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Solution (a)
Folding does not take place in Metamorphic rocks (generally). These rocks are very hard and brittle.
When a large compression force is applied, instead of folding, they snap and break and create a fault.
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19. Consider the following statements wrt functions of National Biodiversity Authority as set up under
Biological Diversity Act 2002
1. It advises the Central Government on matters relating to the conservation of biodiversity and
sustainable use of its components.
2. It can regulate and issue guidelines for access to biological resources and for fair and equitable
benefit sharing.
3. It conducts research on ways and methods to conserve biodiversity and wildlife in India.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Solution (b)
Functions and Powers of the National Biodiversity Authority
· It shall be the duty of the National Biodiversity Authority to regulate activities and issue guidelines for
access to biological resources and for fair and equitable benefit sharing.
· The National Biodiversity Authority may advise the Central Government on matters relating to the
conservation of biodiversity, sustainable use of its components and equitable sharing of benefits arising
out of the utilization of biological resources;
· Perform such other functions as may be necessary to carry out the provisions of this Act.
· The National Biodiversity Authority may, on behalf of the Central Government, take any measures
necessary to oppose the grant of intellectual property rights in any country outside India on any
biological resource obtained from India or knowledge associated with such biological resource which is
derived from India.
The body does not conduct any research. It is only a regulatory body.....
Source: http://nbaindia.org/content/25/19/1/act.html
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20. Arrange the types of mountain in the decreasing order of their age:
1. Pre Cambrian
2. Caledonian
3. Hercynian
4. Alpine
a) 1>3>2>4
b) 1>2>3>4
c) 2>1>3>4
d) 4>3>2>1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Solution (b)
Pre Cambrian Mountains are the oldest mountains. Only their remains as monadnocks and inselbergs
are left today. Caledonian orogeny is about 320 million years old which raised the mountains of
Scandinavia and Scotland. Hercynian Mountains are around 240 million years old. Ex. Ural Mountains,
Appalachians etc.
Alpine mountains are of most recent orogeny ex. Himalayas, Alps, Rockies, Andes etc.
21. Consider the following statements

1. National biodiversity authority has been established under Environment Protection Act 1986.
2. National Green Tribunal is not a statutory body.
3. Environment Impact Assessment for major developmental projects has been made compulsory under
Biological Diversity Act 2002.
Choose the incorrect answer from the codes given below
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
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Solution (d)
National Biodiversity Authority
· The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is a statutory autonomous body under the Ministry of
Environment and Forests, Government of India established in 2003 to implement the provisions under
the National Biological Diversity Act, 2002, after India signed Convention on Biological
Diversity (CBD) in 1992.
National Green Tribunal:
· National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 (NGT) is an Act of the Parliament of India which enables
creation of a special tribunal to handle the expeditious disposal of the cases pertaining to
environmental issues.
· It was enacted under India's constitutional provision of Article 21, which assures the citizens of India the
right to a healthy environment.
Environment Impact Assessment:
· Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is an important management tool for ensuring optimal use of
natural resources for sustainable development.
· A beginning in this direction was made in our country with the impact assessment of river valley
projects in 1978-79 and the scope has subsequently been enhanced to cover other developmental
sectors such as industries, thermal power projects, mining schemes etc.
· To facilitate collection of environmental data and preparation of management plans, guidelines have
been evolved and circulated to the concerned Central and State Government Departments.
· EIA has now been made mandatory under the Environmental (Protection Act, 1986 for 29 categories
of developmental activities involving investments of Rs . 50 crores and above.
22. Which of the following is not an intrusive volcanic structure?

1. Cone
2. Crater
3. Dyke
4. Sill
5. Lacolith
a) 3,4 and 5
b) 1 and 2
c) 1,2 and 5
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d) All of the above

Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Solution (b)
Cone and crater are extrusive landforms. Rests are intrusive.
23. Consider the following statements wrt powers and functions of National Tiger Conservation Authority
(NTCA)
1. It evaluates and assesses various aspects of sustainable ecology and disallows any ecologically
unsustainable land use such as, mining, industry and other projects within the tiger reserves.
2. It lays down normative standards for tourism activities and guidelines for project tiger from time to time
for tiger conservation .
3. It approves and co-ordinate research and monitoring on tiger, co-predators, prey habitat, related
ecological and socio-economic parameters and their evaluation.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
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Solution (d)
Power and Functions of the NTCA
· to approve the tiger conservation plan prepared by the State Government;
· evaluate and assess various aspects of sustainable ecology and disallow any ecologically
unsustainable land use such as, mining, industry and other projects within the tiger reserves;
· lay down normative standards for tourism activities and guidelines for project tiger from time to
time for tiger conservation in the buffer and core area of tiger reserves and ensure their due
compliance;
· provide for management focus and measures for addressing conflicts of men and wild animal and to
emphasize on co-existence in forest areas outside the National Parks, sanctuaries or tiger reserve, in the
working plan code;
· provide information on protection measures including future conservation plan, estimation of population
of tiger and its natural prey species, status of habitats, disease surveillance, mortality survey, patrolling,
reports on untoward happenings and such other management aspects as it may deem fit including future
plan conservation;
· approve, co-ordinate research and monitoring on tiger, co-predators, prey habitat, related
ecological and socio-economic parameters and their evaluation;
· ensure that the tiger reserves and areas linking one protected area or tiger reserve with another
protected area or tiger reserve are not diverted for ecologically unsustainable uses, except in public
interest and with the approval of the National Board for Wild Life and on the advice of the Tiger
Conservation Authority;
Source: http://projecttiger.nic.in/content/113_1_PowerandFunctionsoftheNTCA.aspx
24. Which of the following statements are correct about Shield volcanoes?
1. They are highly rich in silica.
2. They lava is highly viscous and flows very slowly.
3. They are formed as lava spreads out as thin sheets and covers a large area.
4. The volcano is gently sloping with a large diameter.
a) 1 and 2
b) 3 and 4
c) 2,3 and 4
d) All of the above
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Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Solution (b)
The lavas are basaltic. They are highly rich in iron and magnesium but poor in silica. They are highly
fluid and flow readily with a speed of 10-30 miles per hour.
25. What are the objectives of the National Forest Policy 1988?
1. Conserving the natural heritage of the country by preserving the remaining natural forests with the
vast variety of flora and fauna.
2. Checking the extension of sand-dunes in the desert areas of Rajasthan and along the coastal tracts.
3. Meeting the requirements of fuel-wood, fodder, minor forest produce and small timber of the rural and
tribal populations.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
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Solution (d)
The basic objectives that should govern the National Forest Policy - are the following:
· Maintenance of environmental stability through preservation and, where necessary, restoration of the
ecological balance that has been adversely disturbed by serious depletion of the forests of the country.
· Conserving the natural heritage of the country by preserving the remaining natural forests with
the vast variety of flora and fauna, which represent the remarkable biological diversity and
genetic resources of the country.
· Checking soil erosion and denudation in the catchment areas of rivers, lakes, reservoirs in the "interest
of soil and water conservation, for mitigating floods and droughts and for the retardation of siltation of
reservoirs.
· Checking the extension of sand-dunes in the desert areas of Rajasthan and along the coastal
tracts.
· Increasing substantially the forest/tree cover in the country through massive afforestation and social
forestry programmes, especially on all denuded, degraded and unproductive lands.
· Meeting the requirements of fuel-wood, fodder, minor forest produce and small timber of the
rural and tribal populations.
· Increasing the productivity of forests to meet essential national needs.
· Encouraging efficient utilisation of forest produce and maximising substitution of wood.
· Creating a massive people's movement with the involvement of women, for achieving these objectives
and to minimise pressure on existing forests.

1. Natural geysers are the hot springs that intermittently throw a jet of water in air with high pressure.
2. The water is super-heated (beyond the boiling point of water) in the depth to form a water jet.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
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Solution (c)
Natural geysers are hot springs that intermittently throw up a jet of hot water, stream, etc. The earth's
crust has cracks and vents. Water occupies these and gets heated due to geothermal energy.
Due to heating, water turns into steam at more than 100 o C and pressure increases. In this case, if the
opening of the vent/ crack is narrow, it erupts like a volcano, otherwise it flows like a stream.
27. In order to help in realizing the objectives of Convention on Biological Diversity, India has enacted an
umbrella legislation called the Biological Diversity Act 2002. Consider the following statements wrt
objectives of the Biological Diversity Act 2002
1) Conservation of biological diversity.
2) Sustainable use of components of biodiversity.
3) Fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from genetic resources.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Solution (d)
The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), known informally as the Biodiversity Convention, is
a multilateral treaty.
The Convention has three main goals:
· conservation of biological diversity (or biodiversity);
· sustainable use of its components; and
· fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from genetic resources
In other words, its objective is to develop national strategies for the conservation and sustainable use of
biological diversity. It is often seen as the key document regarding sustainable development.
The objectives of CBD are same as objectives of biological diversity act 2002.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Convention_on_Biological_Diversity
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28. Anthropogenic activities have a profound impact on the natural phenomenon. Which of the following are
correct about human impact on weathering process?
1. Mining has enhanced the rate of weathering several times which can cause geological imbalances.
2. Air pollution has no effect on the rate of weathering.
3. Human activities do not have an effect on biological weathering.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 2 only
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Solution (b)
Air pollution increases the rate of chemical weathering by increasing the acidity of water.
Biological weathering is the process of breaking up of rocks by the action of living organisms. This is also
increased by human interference like grazing, herding, unscientific agricultural processes etc.
29. As a commitment to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and contribute to the good health of the planet,
recently Earth Hour was observed all across the globe. Consider the following statements wrt Earth Hour
1. It is an event held worldwide annually encouraging individuals, communities, households and
businesses to turn off their non-essential lights for one hour.
2. The initiative is organised by UNESCO.
3. The initiative was famously started as a lights-off event in Rio de Janerio , Brazil in 2007.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
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Solution (a)
Earth hour
· Earth Hour is a worldwide movement for the planet organized by the World Wide Fund for
Nature (WWF).
· The event is held worldwide annually encouraging individuals, communities, households and
businesses to turn off their non-essential lights for one hour, from 8:30 to 9:30 p.m. towards the
end of March, as a symbol for their commitment to the planet.
· It was famously started as a lights-off event in Sydney, Australia in 2007.
· Since then it has grown to engage more than 7000 cities and towns worldwide.
· Today, Earth Hour engages a massive mainstream community on a broad range of environmental
issues.
· The one-hour event continues to remain the key driver of the now larger movement.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Earth_Hour
30. Which of the following statements correctly explains the Talus cone?
a) Accumulation of angular weathered debris at the base of a slope.

b) The tallest peak in an alpine range.
c) The tallest volcanic cone.
d) Sediments accumulating at the base of continental slope containing metallic minerals.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Solution (a)
A talus cone is formed by dry accumulation of loose scree material. The debri come down of high steep
slopes and settles at the bottom of the valley.
31. Consider the following statements with respect to “ Rastriya Swastya Bhima Yojana ”
1. It is a health insurance scheme for masses belong to unorganised sector.
2. The scheme comes under Ministry of Labour and Empowerment.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
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c) Both
d) None
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Solution (a)
· The unorganized sector worker and his family (unit of five) will be covered. Total sum insured would be
Rs . 30,000/- per family per annum on a family floater basis.
· Enrolment with RSBY to be linked with opening of bank account and issuance of Aadhaar card.
Scheme currently covers 3 crore workers. It will be expanded to include construction sector also. Single
central smart card to be issued to include other welf are schemes like AamAadmiBimaYojana and
National Old Age Pension Scheme.
· The scheme belongs to Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
32. Consider the following statements about mass movements:

1. Slide: Movement parallel to plane of weakness or parallel to slope.
2. Creep: Very slow movement of slope material.
3. Slump: Rotational down movement of the debris due to percolation of water.
4. Rock fall : Free fall of rock from perpendicular valley.
Which of the above are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 3
c) 1,2 and 4
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Solution (d)
Self explanatory .
33. Consider the following statements with respect to “Index of Industrial production”
1. The base year to calculate index of industrial production was changed to 2011-12 from 2004-05.
2. Coal has the least weight among all the eight core industries
3. The index of industrial production is released by National sample survey office.
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a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Solution (d)
· Base year to calculate IIP is 2004-05.
· Among the 8 core industries fertilizers has the least weight.
· It is released by Central Statistics office (CSO) which comes under Ministry of Statistics and
Programme and Implementation.
34. An artesian well is an aquifer containing ground water under positive pressure. Which of the following
statement is incorrect about an artesian well?
a) Once a well is dug, the water comes out due to its own pressure. An external pump is not required.
b) The artesian basin lies below the water table.
c) The aquifer lies between two impermeable layers of rock.
d) Once exhausted, artesian wells cannot be recharged.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Solution (d)
An aquifer is a geologic layer of porous and permeable material such as sand and gravel, limestone, or
sandstone, through which water flows and is stored. An artesian aquifer is confined between
impermeable rocks or clay which causes this positive pressure. Not all the aquifers are artesian,
because the water table must reach the surface (not the case for underground groundwater such as, for
example, the Nubian Sandstone Aquifer System). The recharging of aquifers happens when the water
table at its recharge zone is at a higher elevation than the head of the well.
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35. Consider the following statements with respect to IT initiatives launched by government.
1. PRAGATI is ICT-based, multi-modal platform for Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation.
2. ‘ MeghRaj ’ is a common repository of cloud based infrastructure resources and applications available
on demand.
3. ParamYuva 2 is the first Indian super computer to achieving more than 500 teraflops.
Which if the following IT initiative by the government is wrong explanation of the scheme?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Solution (d)
· All the schemes are correctly explained.
· For more information on IT based schemes refer India year book 2016, Chapter Information and
communication technology.
36. Which of the following conditions stands true for all deserts?
1. The potential evapotranspiration is higher than the net precipitation received.
2. The temperatures are extremely high during the day.
3. The vegetation found in deserts is called xerophytic vegetation and it had adapted to survive in scarce
water condition.
4. Aeolian erosion is dominant in these areas.
a) All of the above

b) 1,2 and 3
c) 1,3 and 4
d) 2,3 and 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
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Solution (c)
Desert is a place where potential evapotranspiration is higher than net precipitation. There can be both
hot and cold desert. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Aeolian erosion is erosion through wind. Since the area is dry, wind erosion is dominant
37. “TIKHOR” is/was a mascot of which of the following recently held international sports event?
a) South Asian games 2016

b) Australian Open 2016
c) Winter Olympics 2016
d) ICC T20 world cup 2016
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Solution (a)
TIKHOR, a rhino calf as a sharp, naughty, and sporty was a mascot of 2016 South Asian Games.
38. Water percolates through the porous or permeable rocks. But there are certain exceptions of this fact.
Which of the following statements are true?
1. Clay is highly porous but it is still impermeable.
2. Granite is a crystalline rock hence non-porous. But it is usually permeable.
Select the code from below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Solution (c)
Clay is highly porous as it is made up of many fine articles but as it has high water holding capacity. As it
receives water, the particles coalesce and pores become very small for the water to penetrate. On the
other hand, granite is a crystalline rock and hence non-porous. But it is permeable for water due to the
presence of large number of joints and fractures.
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39. Which of the following (in use and proposed) dedicated freight corridors (DFC) is wrongly matched?
1. North south DFC – Delhi to Chennai
2. Western DFC – Dadri to Mumbai JNPT
3. Eastern DFC – Dankuni to Ludhiana
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Solution (d)
Dedicated Freight corridors of Indian railway
· Western dedicated freight corridor: Dadri in UP and ends in Mumbai-JNPT
· Eastern dedicated fright corridor: Dankuni in WB and ends in Ludhiana in Punjab
Ministry of railways plans to have four more dedicated corridors. They are
· East west corridor- (Kolkata and Mumbai)
· North south corridor: Delhi-Chennai
· East coast corridor: Kharagpur - Vijayawada
· Southern corridor: Chennai-Goa
40. The ability of river to move various grades of materials is dependent of which of the following factors:
1. Salinity of the water
2. Volume of water
3. Velocity of river water
4. Shape, size and weight of the load
a) All of the above

b) 2,3 and 4
c) 1,2 and 3
d) 1,3 and 4
Correct Answer: B
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Explanation:
Solution (b)
The ability of a river to move various grades of materials depends greatly upon the volume of water,
velocity of flow and size, shape and weight of the load.
41. “Umbrella movement” is associated with which of the following country
a) Thailand
b) Hong Kong
c) Tunisia
d) Turkey
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Solution (b)
· The Umbrella Movement is a loose pro-democracy political movement that was created spontaneously
during the Hong Kong protests of 2014
· Hong Kong is an autonomous territory on the southern coast of China at the Pearl River Estuary and
the South China Sea.
42. What does river regime of a river indicates:
a) Variability of discharge of river throughout the year

b) The stretch of river which is highly prone for flooding
c) The total area drained by a river and its tributaries.
d) The hydroelectricity potential of a river
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Solution (a)
River regime can describe one of two characteristics of a reach of an alluvial river : The variability in its
discharge throughout the course of a year in response to precipitation, temperature, evapotranspiration,
and drainage basin characteristics.
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43. Consider the following

1. North Korea
2. Japan
3. Timor Islands
Which of the following country/’s surrounded by Yellow sea?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Solution (a)
44. Which of the following features are not associated with river water capturing or river piracy?
a) Wind gap
b) Elbow
c) Canyon
d) Misfit
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Solution (c)
A canyon in not associated with river water capturing. It is found in arid areas where downward cutting is
dominant and lateral cutting is negligible.

1. Conservation of migratory species is also referred to as Rotterdam convention.
2. CMS or Conservation of migratory species comes under the aegis of World wild life fund.
3. Species that are threatened with extinction is placed in Appendix 1.
a) 2 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer: C
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Explanation:
Solution (c)
CMS is also referred as Bonn convention. It comes under the aegis of United Nations environment
programme.
46. Consider the following statements regarding the old age river channel:
1. Deposition is the dominant process
2. A layer of sediment is deposited during each flood, gradually building a fertile plain
3. The flow of water is very quick as it meets the sea
4. Due to deposition small river islands are formed and the channel gets braided
Which of the above statements are correct about the old age river channel?
a) All of the above

b) 1,3 and 4
c) 1,2 and 3
d) 1,2 and 4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Solution (d)
In old age the velocity of water becomes very slow that it looks almost quite.
47. Which of the following in the list has the name of a Tiger reserve, National park, and a Wild life
sanctuary?
a) Bandipura
b) Mudhumalai
c) Sundarbans
d) Nameri
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
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Solution (c)
· The Sundarbans National Park is a National Park, Tiger Reserve, and a Biosphere Reserve located in
the Sundarbans delta in the Indian state of West Bengal.
· Sundarbans is the largest single block of tidal halophytic mangrove forest in the world. The Sundarbans
covers approximately 10,000 square kilometres (3,900 sq mi) most of which is in Bangladesh with the
remainder in India.
· The Sundarbans is a UNESCO World Heritage Si te.
48. Which of the following statements are correct about ‘ Nunataks ’?

1. They are also called glacial islands.
2. They are the rocky element found in the ice bergs.
3. Once the ice berg melts, they are deposited in the sea.
4. They are exposed rocky tip of ridge or mountain which is not snow covered in an ice field or a glacier.
a) 1 and 4
b) 2 and 3
c) 1,2 and 3
d) 4 only
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Solution (a)
A nunatak (from Inuit nunataq ) is an exposed, often rocky element of a ridge, mountain, or peak not
covered with ice or snow within (or at the edge of) an ice field or glacier. They are also called glacial
islands. The term is typically used in areas where a permanent ice sheet is present.
49. Recently National Frame work for Malaria elimination was released. Consider the following statement
with respect to Frame work for malaria elimination.
1. It aims to eliminate Malaria in all low and moderate endemic states by 2022.
2. The programme aims to make India malaria free by 2030.
3. Special strategy for elimination of plasmodium vivax
Select the incorrect statement from the following options
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) None of the above.
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Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Solution (d)
Refer prelims capsule to know exhaustively about the malaria elimination framework.
50. Which of the geological feature is also known as ‘basket of eggs’ topography?
a) Eskers
b) Arête
c) Cirque
d) Drumlins
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Solution (d)
A Drumlin is an elongated hill in the shape of an inverted spoon or half-buried egg formed by glacial ice
acting on underlying unconsolidated till or ground moraine.
51. Operation Red Lotus, an important event in the history of India associated with which two Indian
kingdoms against British?
a) Mughals and Maratha.

b) Marathas and Rajputs .
c) Nizam of Hyderabad and Marathas.
d) Mughals and Nizam of Hyderabad.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Solution (a)
· It is a Mughal Maratha alliance to fight against British.
· Recently government celebrated Tatya tope birthday, and operation red lotus was mentioned during the
minister’s speech.
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52. Which of the following are the prerequisite conditions for the formation of Karst Topography?
1. Heavy rainfall
2. Highly porous limestone bed
3. Highly jointed limestone bed
4. Large area and thickness of limestone
Select the correct option from the following:
a) 1 and 2
b) 1,2 and 4
c) 1,3 and 4
d) 3 and 4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Solution (d)
Karst topography is formed over limestone or calcite bed by the action of water. The topography is found
in semi arid areas where rainfall is just optimum to carve the land. The limestone bed should not be
porous as water should not percolate through the body of the rock. The water through the highly jointed
percolates under the rock dissolving the limestone with it forming the topography.
53. Which of the following European countries given in the list is not a member of NATO?
a) Switzerland
b) Latvia
c) Estonia
d) Turkey
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Solution (a)
Switzerland, Croatia, Austria, Albania Ireland are few famous countries which are not the members of
NATO
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1. Caspian is the largest lake in the world.
2. Lake Titicaca is the highest lake occupying a depression in intermont plateau of Andes.
3. Dead sea is the world’s lowest lake found below the sea level.
4. Tanganyika is the deepest lake of the world found in African Rift valley.
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2,3 and 4
c) 1,2 and 4
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Solution (d)
Factual question self explanatory .
55. Surya- Kiran is a Joint military exercise conducted between which of the following two countries?
a) India Nepal
b) India Sri Lanka
c) Sri Lanka Nepal
d) India Bhutan
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Solution (a)
· It is organised between India and Nepal
· The 9th Indo-Nepal Combined Battalion level Military Training Exercise Surya Kiran commenced at
Pithoragarh , Uttarakhand on 8 February 2016.
· An Infantry battalion from Indian Army will represent the exercise
· Nepalese Army is being represented by officers and troops of the elite Shree RudraDhoj battalion.
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56. Which of the following type of islands are not found in Andaman And Nicobar Islands?
1. Continental Islands
2. Volcanic islands
3. Coral islands
Select the correct code from the following :
a) 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3
d) All are found
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Solution (d)
· Top islands are extension of Arakanyoma mountain range (continental)
· Narcondam and Barren island are two volcanic islands
· Coral islands are also found
57. Consider the following statements with respect to Open market operations
1. It is conducted by Banks other than RBI also.
2. It is a monetary policy tool to buy and sell bonds to regulate the money supply in the economy.
3. Buying of Government bonds by central banks will decrease money supply in the economy.
Select the incorrect answer from the following options.
a) 2 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
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Solution (d)
· It is conducted only by RBI
· When the RBI feels there is excess liquidity in the market, it resorts to sale of securities thereby sucking
out the rupee liquidity.
· Similarly, when the liquidity conditions are tight, the RBI will buy securities from the market, thereby
releasing liquidity into the market.
58. Coral reefs are not found at the mouth of rivers. Which of the following reasons are responsible for that?
1. Salinity is less at the mouth of river.
2. Rivers bring a lot of sediments which causes turbidity in the water.
3. Corals are washed away by river water
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2
d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Solution (c)
Corals need saline water which is free from sediments. Since both these conditions are not present at
the mouth of river, corals are not developed.

1. Russia, Iran, India and Azerbaijan are the founding members of International north south transport
corridor
2. Mumbai is the southern hub on International north south transport corridor.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
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Solution (b)
· Russia, Iran and India signed the agreement for the NSTC project on the 16th of May 2002. All three
countries are founding member states on the project. Other important member states
include Azerbaijan, Armenia, Kazakhstan and Belarus with other states having varying levels of
involvement.
· Mumbai and Moscow is the southern and northern hub on International north south transport corridor.
60. The ocean temperature decreases with increase in depth. However, water at the bottom of the ocean
(even in the deepest trenches) is not frozen. Which of the following statements correctly explain the
reason for this?
a) The ocean surface is covered with ice which creates insulation.

b) Due to pressure and salinity condition the water doesn’t freeze.
c) The body temperature of fishes keeps the water warm.
d) There is warm under current constantly flowing on the ocean surface.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Solution (b)
Due to pressure and temperature condition, the freezing point of ocean water is not attained.

1. Mississippi à USA
2. Amazon à Chile
3. Mekong à Vietnam
Select the incorrectly matched river and its country
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
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Solution (c)
· The Amazon and its tributaries flow through the countries of Peru, Bolivia, Venezuela, Colombia,
Ecuador, and Brazil before emptying into the Atlantic Ocean 6, 437 kilometres (4,000 miles) from the
Amazon's headwaters high in the Andes Mountains of Peru.
· From China to Vietnam, the Mekong River is the lifeblood of Southeast Asia and offers a glimpse into
the long history and diverse cultures of the region. The 12th longest river in the world and the 7th longest
in Asia, it flows through six countries: China, Myanmar (Burma), Thailand, Laos, Cambodia, and
Vietnam.
62. Consider the following statements regarding Return on Assests ( RoA ) of the Public Sector banks:
1. They are declining rapidly across the banking landscape.
2. Most of the less profitable banks are those with smaller level of employment.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Solution (d)
The bank-wise time series of return on assets ( RoA ) which are declining rapidly across the banking
landscape. There is a corresponding deterioration in the asset portfolio the full extent of which will be
known after the RBI completes its asset quality review.
The RoA for most banks is currently less than one third of the norm of 1 per cent that is considered
reasonable. Many, though not all, of the less profitable banks are those with smaller levels of
employment.
63. “ Kayakalp ” is the government scheme related to which of the following subjects
a) Health
b) Education
c) Women and child development
d) Railways
Correct Answer: A
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Explanation:
Solution (a)
· A National Initiative launched by Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
· To recognise efforts of ensuring quality assurance at public health facilities
· KAYAKALP awards to those public health facilities that demonstrate high levels of cleanliness, hygiene
and infection control.
64. It is believed that market economy requires the operation of ‘Perpetrator pays Principle (PPP)’. What
does this PPP means?
a) If equity providers/promoters take risks that do not pay off, they must pay the financial consequences.
b) The firm must pay the principle amount without any interest to the equity provider if the risk does not
pay off.
c) The firm must pay the complete interest and principle amount to the equity provider/promoter even
when the risk does not pay off.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Solution (a)
A market economy requires the operation of the perpetrator pays principle (PPP). If equity
providers/promoters take risks that do not pay off, they must pay the financial consequences:
that is at the heart of limited liability in a market economy, and bankruptcy procedures enshrine this
principle.
65. Consider the following statements with respect to the Governor

1. The governor cannot pardon death sentence.
2. The constitution lays down guidelines for removal of governors.
3. The governor salary, emoluments, allowances are determined by the parliament and not state
legislature.
Which of the following option is/are not correct with respect to governor?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer: C
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Explanation:
Solution (c)
· Under article 156 the governor holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters
upon his office. However, this term of five years is subject to the pleasure of the President. Further, he
can resign at any time by addressing a resignation letter to the President.
· The Constitution does not lay down any grounds upon which a governor may be removed by the
President.
· If there is a sudden death of a sitting governor, The President can make such provision as he thinks fit
for the discharge of the functions of the governor in any contingency not provided for in the Constitution
Thus, the chief justice of the concerned state high court may be appointed temporarily to discharge the
functions of the governor of that state.
a) In year 2015-16, the India’s growth rate of GDP increased to 7.6% from 7.2%.
b) Due to failure of monsoon, the agricultural production was lower in year 2015-16 than the previous
year.
c) Whole sale price inflation has been negative.
d) India’s exports declined due to weak global economic condition
Which of the above statements is incorrect?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Solution (b)
Despite recurring failure of monsoon, there was a net increase in agricultural production from previous
year.

1. Nandadevi National park à Uttarakhand
2. Khajuraho Temples à Uttar Pradesh
3. Pattadakal à Karnataka
Select the UNESCO world heritage sites that is/are not correctly matched with the states
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3 only
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Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Solution (b)
Khajuraho Temples is located in Madhya Pradesh.
68. GDP at Current Market Price can be seen as a sum of:

1. Consumption- both private and public
2. Investment or Gross Capital Formation
3. Net export
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Solution (d)
From the expenditure side, GDP at current market prices can be seen as the sum of (a)
consumption—both private and public, (b) investment, also known as Gross Capital Formation (GCF)
which comprises fixed capital formation, change in stock and valuables, and, (c) net exports which
represent the difference between exports and imports of goods and non-factor services.
69. Consider the following statements with respect to “ Mera Gaon Mera Gaurav ”
1. It is a programme conceptualised by Ministry of Agriculture under the part of Swacch Bharat initiative.
2. It involves scientists of ICAR and Agricultural Universities who will identify villages in the vicinity to
farmers for increasing farm productivity and production.
3. “Attracting and Retaining Youth in Agriculture (ARYA) in selected districts through KVKs is part of “
Mera Gaon Mera Gaurav ” initiative.
Select the incorrect answer using the codes given below
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) None
Correct Answer: C
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Explanation:
Solution (c)
· It is not a part of swacch bharat initiative.
· Mera Gaon-Mera Gaurav : To enhance the direct interface of scientists with the farmers, an innovative
initiative has been launched as “ Mera Gaon - Mera Gaurav ” which will hasten the lab to land approach.
The objective of this initiative is to provide farmers with required information, knowledge and advisories
on regular basis. Under this scheme, groups of scientists will select villages and will remain in touch with
that village and provide information to farmers on technical and other related aspects in a time frame
through personal visits or through telecommunication. In this way, 20,000 scientists of National
Agricultural Research and Education System (NARES) can work directly in villages.
· ARYA: The ICAR has initiated a program on “Attracting and Retaining Youth in Agriculture (ARYA) in
selected districts through KVKs with an objective for entrepreneurial development of Youth in Rural
Areas to take upvarious Agriculture, allied and service sector enterprises for sustainable income and
gainful employment. The identified youth are trained on entrepreneurship development skills by providing
a basket of options to start agriculture ventures for self employment .
70. In the current year, the rupee value of both exports and imports is projected to decline. What is the
rationale behind this projection?
1. Net value of exports will decline due to low global demand.
2. Net value of imports will decline due to sharp decline in international oil prices and other commodities.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Solution (c)
In the current year, the rupee values of exports and imports (of goods and non-factor services) are both
projected to decline; the former on account of the sluggish global demand and the latter due to steep
decline in international crude oil prices and other commodity prices. Such a dual decline would be the
first since 1965-66; nonetheless, the net exports are estimated to make a positive contribution to
growth—though marginal—because of the expected decline in the wedge between exports and imports.
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71. Consider the following statements with respect to Ethanol blending.

1. Ethanol can be derived only from Sugarcane.
2. Recently Central Government has scaled up blending targets from 5% to 10% to promote blending of
ethanol with petrol and its use as alternative fuel.
3. It reduces the carbon monoxide emissions by up to 30 percent .
4. Normal cars can be use up to 10% ethanol without any up gradation.
Select the correct statement/s from the above
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 2 ,3 and 4 only
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Solution (d)
Ethanol is a renewable, domestically produced alcohol fuel made from plant material, such as corn,
sugar cane, or grasses. Using ethanol can reduce oil dependence and greenhouse gas emissions.
72. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Gold Monetising Scheme’:

1. The gold deposited in bank under this scheme will not only earn interest but appreciation in value of
metal will also be given.
2. The designated banks will accept deposits only for 1-3 years.
3. The depositor can get back its gold in equivalent of 995 fineness gold or in Indian rupees.
4. The designated banks may sell or lend the gold accepted under the short-term bank deposit.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 3 and 4
d) 2 and 4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Solution (b)
The designated banks will accept gold deposits under the Short Term (1-3 years) Bank Deposit as well
as Medium (5-7 years) and Long (12-15 years) Term Government Deposit Schemes.
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73. Which of the following list of crops can be raised with regrowth coming out of roots or stocks of the
harvested crops ( Ratooning )?
1. Sugarcane
2. Pine apple
3. Banana
4. Ground nuts
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2, 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Solution (c)
· Sugarcane – 8 ratoons in cuba
· Banana – 2 ratoon crops
· Other crops like pine apple, sorghum, Lucerne are extensively ratooned .
74. Which of the following neighbouring countries share the longest border with India?
a) Pakistan
b) China
c) Bangladesh
d) Nepal
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Solution (c)
Bangladesh and India share a 4,096-kilometer (2,545-mile)-long international border, the fifth-longest
land border in the world, including 262 km in Assam, 856 km in Tripura, 180 km in Mizoram, 443 km in
Meghalaya, and 2,217 km in West Bengal.
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75. Consider the following list of nutrients

1. Nitrogen
2. Iron
3. Copper
4. Calcium
5. Zinc
Which of the above nutrients are known as macro nutrients
a) 2, 3 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 3 ,4, and 5 only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
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:
Solution (c)
Macro nutrients
· Nitrogen
· Phosphorous
· Sulphur
· Calcium
· Magnesium
Micro nutrients
· Iron
· Zinc
· Manganese
· Copper
· Boron
· Chlorine
· Sodium
· Nickel
· Silicon

1. The National Calendar of India is based on Saka era with Chaitra as its first month.
2. Dates of this National Calendar have a permanent correspondence with dates of Gregorian Calendar .
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
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Explanation:
Solution (c)
Refer India Year Book Chapter 2 “National Symbols”
77. Solodization refers to
a) Accumulation of sodium ions

b) Removal of sodium ions.
c) Formation of podzols .
d) Accumulation of H+ ions
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Solution (b)
· Solodization is the process of removal of Na+ from exchange sites. This process involves dispersion of
clay. Dispersion occurs when Na+ ions become hydrated.
· Accumulation of sodium ions – Solonization
· Formation of podzols – Podzolization
78. Which of the following is not a qualification for a Member of Parliament?

1. A person must be a citizen of India.
2. A person should know one of the National languages of India
3. A person must not be 30 years of age
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 2 only
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Solution (b)
A person must not be less than 30 years of age for Rajya Sabha and not less than 25 for Lok Sabha .
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79. Which of the following missile system was developed under integrated guided missile development
programme?
1. Prithivi
2. Agni
3. BrahMos
4. Nag
5. Trisul
6. Akash
7. Shaurya
a) 1,3,5,7 only
b) 1,2,4,5 and 6 only
c) 6 and 7 only
d) 1,2,3,4,5,and 7 only
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Solution (b)
· The Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP) was an Indian Ministry of
Defence programme for the research and development of a comprehensive range of missiles. The
programme was managed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
and Ordnance Factories Board in partnership with other Indian government research organisations.
· The Shaurya missile is a short-range surface-to-surface ballistic missile developed for use by the Indian
Army. Capable of hypersonic speeds, it has a range of 600 km and is capable of carrying a payload of
one-tonne conventional or nuclear warhead
· Mach 3 Supersonic Cruise Missile developed in collaboration with Russia. Land Attack and Anti-ship
variants in service with the Indian Army and Indian Navy. Sub-Launched and Air Launched variants
under development or testing
80. According to the census 2011, which of the following is the second most populated state of India?
a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Maharashtra
c) Bihar
d) West Bengal
Correct Answer: B
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Explanation:
Solution (b)
The decreasing order of population in states is
Uttar Pradesh> Maharashtra> Bihar > West Bengal
81. Consider the following statements about the recently launched GSAT-15 satellite of India:
1. GSAT -15 is a remote sensing satellite.
2. It was launched by using PSLV C23 vehicle.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) Neither
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Solution (d)
· GSAT-15, India’s communication satellite, was launched successfully by the European Ariane 5
VA-227 launch Vehicle on November 11.
· The 3164 kg GSAT-15 carries communication transponders in Ku-band as well as a GPS Aided GEO
Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) payload operating in L1 and L5 bands.
· GSAT-15 will be positioned at 93.5 deg East longitude in the geostationary orbit along with the
operational INSAT-3A and INSAT-4B satellites.

1. The property of a metal to be drawn into a wire is called malleability.
2. The property of a metal to be beaten into thin sheets is called ductility.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: D
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Explanation:
Solution (d)
Some metals can be beaten into thin sheets. This property is called malleability.
The ability of metals to be drawn into thin wires is called ductility.
83. Which of the following phenomena is true with respect to boiling water?
a) Boiling point of water remains same irrespective of altitude

b) Boiling point of water increases with increase in altitude
c) Boiling point of water decreases with increases in altitude
d) Boiling point is decreases with decrease in altitude.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Solution (c)
· Any liquid boils at that temperature at which its vapour pressure equals that of atmospheric pressure.
· At ground level water boils at 100 degree C at normal atmospheric pressure. At very high Altitudes, the
atmosphere thins and the pressure will be less, so that the water boils at Temperature less than 100
degree C.
84. Which of the following metal(s) exist as liquid at room temperature?

1. Mercury
2. Sodium
3. Lithium
4. Potassium
Select the correct code from the following
a) 1 only
b) 1,2 and3
c) 1 and 3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Solution (a)
Mercury is the only metal which stays in liquid state at the room temperature.
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:

1. Hot climate
2. Sloppy soil
3. Excessive rainfall
Which of the following conditions is necessary for the growth of Tea?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Solution (d)
All the above conditions are necessary for growth of tea
86. The reactivity series is a list of metals arranged in the order of their decreasing activities. Which metal is
most reactive according to reactivity series?
a) Sodium
b) Potassium
c) Gold
d) Iron
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Solution (b)
By displacement experiment, Potassium is found to be the most reactive metal.
87. Which of the following cell organelles play the most significant role in protein synthesis?
a) Lysosome and centrosome

b) Endoplasmic reticulum and ribosome
c) Golgi apparatus and Mitochondria
d) Lysosome and Mitochondria
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
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Solution (b)
Ribosomes are the sites of protein synthesis, where RNA is translated into protein. When ribosomes are
attached to endo plasmic reticulum, it is called Rough ER which facilitates protein synthesis.
88. Noble gases are non-reactive gases with their outer most shell fully filled with electrons. Which of the
following is not an example of a noble gas?
a) Helium
b) Nitrogen
c) Neon
d) Argon
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Solution (b)
Nitrogen is not a noble gas. Its outer most shell lacks one electron
89. Which one of the following is a vector quantity?
a) Momentum
b) Pressure
c) Energy
d) Work
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Solution (a)
Any physical quantity that has both magnitude and direction, such as momentum, displacement, velocity,
acceleration, force, as distinct from a scalar quantity such as speed, density or mass, which has
magnitude but no direction.
90. Consider the following statements about Carbon:
a) It acts as a metal and a non-metal.

b) Due to its ability to make covalent bonds, carbon has many allotropes.
c) Diamond is an allotrope of carbon, which is hardest natural material on earth.
d) Graphite an allotrope of carbon is a good conductor of electricity.
Which of the above statements is incorrect?
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Solution (a)
Carbon acts only as a non-metal.
91. When the air bubble at the bottom of lake rises to the top, it will
a) Increase in size
b) Decrease in size
c) Maintain its size
d) Flatten in to dish like shape
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Solution (a)
The size of the air bubble increases as it rises from the bottom of the lake to the top due to increase in
hydrostatic pressure.
92. Autotrophs prepare their food with the help of the process of photosynthesis. Which of the following
statements are correct about photosynthesis?
1. The carbon di oxide is reduced to carbohydrates.
2. The light is captured by chlorophyll, present in the leaves of a plant.
3. The process of photosynthesis takes place only during the day time.
4. The end product of photosynthesis apart from carbohydrate is oxygen.
a) All of the above

b) 1,2 and 4
c) 2,3 and 4
d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
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Solution (b)
There are two type of reactions during photosynthesis. Light reaction and dark reaction. Light reaction
takes place in the presence of sunlight. While dark reaction continues even without the presence of
sunlight. Hence the process of photosynthesis doesn’t stop at night.
93. Domestic electric wiring is basically a
a) Series connection
b) Parallel connection
c) Combination of series and parallel
d) Series connection with each room and parallel connection elsewhere.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Solution (b)
Parallel connection because electricity can be supplied equally to all the instruments in a house and also
when one circuit is broken electric current still flows in other circuits.
94. Consider the following statements about human digestive system.

1. The process of digestion starts in the mouth itself due to the presence of saliva.
2. The food pipe rhythmically contracts which helps the food to push forward.
3. The inner layer of stomach is lined with mucus to protect it from acidic digestive juices.
4. From stomach, food enters into large intestine which is the longest part of alimentary canal.
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2,3 and 4
c) 1,3 and 4
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
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Solution (a)
The exit of food from the stomach is regulated by a sphincter muscle which releases it in small amounts
into the small intestine. From the stomach, the food now enters the small intestine. This is the longest
part of the alimentary canal which is fitted into a compact space because of extensive coiling. The length
of the small intestine differs in various animals depending on the food they eat. Herbivores eating grass
need a longer small intestine to allow the cellulose to be digested. Meat is easier to digest, hence
carnivores like tigers have a shorter small intestine. The small intestine is the site of the complete
digestion of carbohydrates, proteins and fats. It receives the secretions of the liver and pancreas for this
purpose.
95. The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to
a) Slow down the speed of the neutrons

b) Increase the speed of the neutrons
c) Cool down the reactor
d) Stop the nuclear reaction
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Solution (a)
96. Consider the following:

1. Rice fields
2. Coal mining
3. Domestic animals
4. Wetlands
Which of the above are sources of methane, a major greenhouse gas?
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2, and 3 only
d) All the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
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Solution (d)
· Rice fields are the biggest source of atmospheric methane, possibly the biggest of the man-made
methane sources.
· Natural source of methane are dominated by wetlands.
97. Which of the materials generally employed as solder in soldering operation in electronics?
a) Iron and tin

b) Lead and tin
c) Aluminium and lead
d) Aluminium and iron
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Solution (b)
Solder is a fusible metal alloy with a melting point or melting range of 90 to 450 degree Celsius used in a
process called soldering where it is melted to join metallic surfaces. Solder is an alloy of lead and tin.
98. Consumption of fish is considered to be healthy when compared to flesh of other animals because fish
contains?
a) Polyunsaturated fatty acids

b) Saturated fatty acids
c) Essential vitamins
d) More carbohydrates and proteins
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Solution (a)
Fish contains high level of polyunsaturated fatty acids and low levels of saturated fatty acids than other
sources of flesh; poly unsaturated fatty acids contain antioxidants, which help in building of tissues.
99. People drinking water from a shallow hand pump are likely to suffer from all of the following diseases
except
a) Cholera
b) Typhoid
c) Jaundice
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d) Fluorosis
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Solution (d)
Water from shallow hand pump is likely to be contaminated with disease causing bacteria and virus and
may cause cholera, jaundice and typhoid where water from the deeper layers of the earth contains
fluorine. Excess intake of fluorine leads to mottled teeth, stiffened brittle bones and joints.
100. Arteries supplying blood to the heart are called
a) Carotid arteries
b) Hepatic arteries
c) Coronary arteries
d) Pulmonary arteries
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Q.100) Solution (c)
A Pair of coronary arteries carries oxygenated blood to the heart muscle. Failing of the functioning of
these arteries causes a situation called heart failure and requires bypass surgery. Pulmonary arteries
carry de oxygenated blood to the right and left lungs.<
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TEST SERIES 11 SOLUTIONS

National green tribunal

2. Consider the following statements:

Source: Economic survey

3. Recently, National Clean Energy Fund was in news. It is used to

a)Fund physical connectivity programme of rural areas.

· Projects in critical renewable energy infrastructure areas such as Silicon Manufacturing;

Indian rupee has not been devalued.

Labour laws are being liberalized to increase ease of doing business.

5. Consider the following statements wrt objectives of social forestry in India

The main objectives of social forestry include

· Provide jobs for unskilled workers and

6. Consider the following statements:

8. Consider the following statements regarding the solar system:

a) None of the above

All of the above statements are incorrect.

All planets except Uranus revolve in anticlockwise fashion.

Venus, not mars, is called the earth’s twin.

Your Answer: Unanswered

10. Consider the following statements:

a) All of the above

Greenwich meridian is 0 o meridian while international date line is 180 o meridian.

There is no use of chemical fertilizers, however bio fertilizers are used...

· Integrated Watershed Management Programme (IWMP) is a modified programme of erstwhile Drought

· The scheme was launched during 2009-10.

· Early, quick and healthy plant establishment

· Reduced plant density

· Improved soil conditions through enrichment with organic matter

· Reduced and controlled water application

Functions and Powers of the National Biodiversity Authority

21. Consider the following statements

National Biodiversity Authority

National Green Tribunal:

Environment Impact Assessment:

22. Which of the following is not an intrusive volcanic structure?

d) All of the above

Cone and crater are extrusive landforms. Rests are intrusive.

Power and Functions of the NTCA

· to approve the tiger conservation plan prepared by the State Government;

· Increasing the productivity of forests to meet essential national needs.

· Encouraging efficient utilisation of forest produce and maximising substitution of wood.

26. Consider the following statements:

The Convention has three main goals:

· conservation of biological diversity (or biodiversity);

· sustainable use of its components; and

· fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from genetic resources

· It was famously started as a lights-off event in Sydney, Australia in 2007.

a) Accumulation of angular weathered debris at the base of a slope.

· The scheme belongs to Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

32. Consider the following statements about mass movements:

· Base year to calculate IIP is 2004-05.

· Among the 8 core industries fertilizers has the least weight.

· All the schemes are correctly explained.

a) All of the above

a) South Asian games 2016

Dedicated Freight corridors of Indian railway

· Western dedicated freight corridor: Dadri in UP and ends in Mumbai-JNPT

· Eastern dedicated fright corridor: Dankuni in WB and ends in Ludhiana in Punjab