8

1. Atmospheric refraction:
a) cause the sunrise to occur earlier and the sunset to occur later.
b) causes the sunrise and the sunset to occur earlier.
c) causes the sunrise to occur later and the sunset to occur earlier.
d) causes the sunrise and the sunset to occur later.

2. The times given for sunrise, sunset, morning and evening twilight in the air almanac:
a) are given in utc.
b) are given in standard time.
c) are given in lmt.
d) must always be corrected for atmospheric refraction.

3. Civil twilight is defined by:

a) sun upper edge tangential to horizon.
b) sun altitude is 6° below the celestial horizon.
c) sun altitude is 18° below the celestial horizon.
d) sun altitude is 12° below the celestial horizon.

4. The highest value of longitude is found:

a) close to the poles.
b) along equator.
c) close to the prime meridian.
d) at greenwich anti meridian

5. A Rhumb line is:

a) a line on the surface of the earth cutting all meridians at the same angle
b) any straight line on a lambert projection
c) a line convex to the nearest pole on a mercator projection
d) the shortest distance between two points on a polyconic projection

6. If you want to follow a constant true track value:

a) you must fly a great circle.
b) you must fly a rhumb line.
c) you, in most cases, will also fly the shortest possible track.
d) you must fly east/west or north/south.

7. The great circle bearing of ‘B’ (70º S 050º E), from ‘A’ (70º S 030º W), is approximately?
a. 150º (T).
b. 090º (T).
c. 115º (T).
d. 128º (T).

8. A great circle track joins position A (59º S 141ºW) and B (61º S 148ºW). What is the
difference between the great circle track at A and B?
1
 a. It increases by 6º.
b. It decreases by 6º.
c. It increases by 3º.
d. It decreases by 3º.

9. The angle between the true great-circle track and the true rhumb line track joining
the following points: A (60º S 165º W) B (60º S 177º E), at the place of departure
A, is?
a. 7.8º.
b. 9º.
c. 15.6º.
d. 5.2º.

10. When approaching the international date line from the east, you:
a) should increase your date by an extra date at the first midnight you experience.
b) should be prepared to decrease your date by 1.
c) should be prepared to increase your date by 1.
d) should not change date at the first midnight you experience.

11. G is in position 3500N 03445W. for a particular date sunrise at 3500N is in the air
almanac listed as 0715.what is the time of sunrise at G, given in UTC?
a) 0715 UTC.
b) 0504 UTC.
c) 0934 UTC.
d) 0456 UTC.

12. The countries having a standard time slow on UTC:

a) will often have an earlier standard date than the UTC date.
b) will generally be located at eastern longitudes.
c) will often experience sunrise earlier than the sunrise occurs at the greenwich meridian.
d) will generally be located at western longitudes.

13. Position A 60°N020°W

Position B 60°N021°W
Position C 59°N020°W
What are, respectively, the distances from a to B and from A to C?
a) 60nm and 52nm
b) 52nm and 60nm
c) 30nm and 60nm
d) 60nm and 30nm

14. An aircraft at latitude 10°north flies south at a groundspeed of 445km/h. what will be its
latitude after 3h?
a) 03°50'S
b) 02°00'S
c) 12°15'S
d) 22°00'S

15. An aircraft at latitude 10°S flies north at a GS of 890 km/h. what will its latitude be
2
 after 1.5h?
a) 02°00'N
b) 12°15'N
c) 22°00'N
d) 03°50'N

16. How is the direct reading magnetic compass made aperiodic or dead beat?
a. Using a pendulous suspension system for the magnetic assembly.
b. Using the lower possible viscosity liquid in the compass.
c. Using short magnets.
d. Positioning the magnetic assembly mass close to the compass point and using damping
wires.

17. Isogonals converge at the?

a. Magnetic equator.
b. North magnetic pole only.
c. North and South magnetic poles only.
d. North and South geographic and magnetic poles.

18. Why does the value of magnetic variation on a chart change with time?
a. Movements of the magnetic poles, cause it to increase.
b. Movements of the magnetic poles, cause it to increase or decrease.
c. Increases in the magnetic field, cause it to increase.
d. Reduction in the magnetic field, cause it do decrease.

19. Which one of the following describes the appearance of rhumb lines, except
meridians, on a polar stereographic chart.
a. Straight lines.
b. Curves concave to the pole.
c. Approximately straight lines.
d. Curves closer to the pole than the equivalent great circle.

20. What is the value of the convergence factor on a polar stereographic chart?
a. 2.0.
b. 1.5.
c. 1.0.
d. 0.5.

21. On a Direct Mercator, rhumb lines are?

a. Straight lines.
b. Cuves concave to the nearest pole.
c. Curves convex to the nearest pole.
d. Curves concave to the Equator.

22. The following information is displayed on an Inertial Navigation System: GS 520

kt, true HDG 090º, Drift angle 5º right, TAS 480 kt. SAT (static air temperature) -
51ºC. the W/V being experienced is?
a. 322º / 60 kt.
b. 320º / 60 kt.

3
 c. 320º / 45 kt.
d. 321º / 50 kt.

23. True track is 348º, drift 17º left, variation 32ºW, deviation 4ºE. what is the compass
heading?
a. 041º.
b. 141º.
c. 044º.
d. 033º.

24. TAS = 250 kt; Magnetic course = 212º, W/V 160º(M) / 50kt, calculate the GS?
a. 222 kt
b. 225 kt
c. 215 kt
d. 230 kt

25. If field pressure altitude is 5000 ft amsl and OAT is 25o C, What is the density altitude?
a. 5000 + 118 - (25 - (15 – (5 x 1.98 ))) = 7348.2 ft.
b. 5000 - 118 - (25 - (15 + (5 x 1.98))) = 4988.2 ft.
c. 5000 + 118 - (25 + (15 – (5 x 1.98 ))) = 8551.8 ft.
d. 5000 - 118 - (25 + (15 + (5 x 1.98))) = 10888.2 ft.

26. If QFE is 1022 hPa what is the pressure altitude of the field?
a. 270 ft amsl
b. -270 ft amsl
c. 30660 ft amsl
d. 500 ft amsl

27. If QNH is 1000 hPa and field elevation is 4500 ft amsl, what is QFE?
a. 850 hpa
b. 163 hPa
c. -850 hPa
d. 900 hPa.

28. The Airspeed Indicator measures:

a) Static pressure
b) Differential pressure changes
c) Static pressure changes
d) Differential pressure

29. Calibrated air speed is:

a) IAS plus the pressure error
b) IAS plus density error correction
c) IAS plus instrument error correction
d) IAS plus compressibility correction

30. CAS is IAS corrected for:

a) position error.
b) compressibility.

4
 c) instrument error.
d) density error.

31. With 50 kts of head wind, the calculated position of CP is 900 nm, during actual flight
winds were found to be + 50 kts. The total distance is 1600 nm the new position of CP will
be________ nms.
a) 800
b) 700
c) 1,000
d) 600

32. Given : Distance ‘A’ to ‘B’ 3623 NM, Groundspeed ‘out’ 370 kt, Groundspeed ‘back’ 300
kt. The time from ‘A’ to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between ‘A’ and ‘B’ is?
a. 238 NM.
b. 263 NM.
c. 288 NM.
d. 323 NM.

33. Distance ‘Q’ to ‘R’ 1860 NM, Groundspeed ‘out’ 400 kt, Groundspeed ‘back’ 370 kt,
Safe endurance 7 HR . The distance from ‘Q’ to the Point of Safe Return (PSR)between 'Q'
and ‘R’ is?
a. 1345 NM.
b. 1442 NM.
c. 1538 NM.
d. 1313 NM.

34. Distance ‘Q’ to ‘R’ 1970 NM, Groundspeed ‘out’ 475 kt, Groundspeed ‘back’ 485 kt,
Safe endurance 9 HR . The distance from ‘Q’ to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) between 'Q'
and ‘R’ is?
a. 1967 NM.
b. 2142 NM.
c. 2160 NM.
d. 2313 NM.

35. With the centre of gravity on the forward limit which of the following is to be expected?
A) A decrease in range
B) A tendency to yaw to the right on take-off
C) A decrease of the stalling speed
D) A decrease in the landing speed

36. The Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane includes:

A) Crew and crew baggage, catering, removable passengers service equipment,
potable water and lavatory chemicals
B) Passengers, baggage and cargo
C) Fuel and passengers baggage and cargo
D) Unusable fuel and reserve fuel

37. At the flight preparation stage, the following parameters in particular are available for
determining the mass of the aircraft:
5
 1 Dry operating mass
2 Operating mass
Which statement is correct:
A) The dry operating mass includes fixed equipment needed to carry out a specific flight
B) The dry operating mass includes take-off fuel
C) The operating mass is the mass of the aeroplane without take-off fuel
D) The operating mass includes the traffic load

38. Which of the following speeds can be limited by the "maximum tyre speed"?
A) Lift-off groundspeed
B) Lift-off TAS
C) Lift-off IAS
D) Lift-off EAS

39. If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is
A) lower with an aft centre of gravity position
B) independent from the centre of gravity position
C) lower with a forward centre of gravity position
D) higher with a forward centre of gravity position

40. When the outside air temperature increases, then

A) the field limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass increases
B) the field limited take-off mass increases but the climb-limited take-off mass
decreases
C) the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass
decreases
D) the field length limited take-off mass decreases but the climb limited take-off
mass increases

41. The maximum permissible take-off mass of an aircraft for the L wake turbulence category
on a flightplan is:
A) 7000kg
B) 5700kg
C) 10000kg
D) 2700kg

42. In the appropriate box of a flightplan form, corresponding to the estimated time of
departure, the time indicated is that at which the aircraft intends to:
A) start-up
B) pass the departure beacon
C) go off-blocks
D) take-off

43. In the appropriate box of a flightplan form, concerning equipment, the letter to be used to
indicate that the aircraft is equipped with a mode A4096 codes transponder with altitude
reporting capability is:
A) A
B) C
C) S

6
 D) P

44. When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will?
a. Under read.
b. Be just as correct as before.
c. Show the actual height above ground.
d. Over read.

45. Temp. error in altimeter is caused due to:

(a) Non standard MSL temp
(b) Non standard temp lapse rate
(c) Non standard temp at a/c altitude
(d) All the above

46. Bimetallic strip in altimeter is provided

(a) To compensate for temp. error
(b) To compensate for thermal expansion of mechanical linkages.
(c) To compensate for adiabatic rise in temperature of temp error.
(d) All the above.

47. The combined Machmeter / ASI is subject to the following errors:

a) instrument and compressibility only
b) instrument, pressure and temperature only
c) position, density, instrument, compressibility, manoeuvre induced
d) those of the Machmeter only

48. How many diaphragms are present in a basic Mach meter?

a) Four.
b) Two.
c) Three.
d) One.

49. Indication of Mach number is obtained from:

a) indicated speed and altitude using a speed indicator equipped with an altimeter type aneroid
b) an ordinary airspeed indicator scaled for Mach number instead of knots
c) a kind of echo sound comparing velocity of sound with indicated speed
d) indicated speed (IAS) compared with true airspeed (TAS) from the air data computer

50. A VSI indicates increasing ROD by?

a. VSI needle moving downwards.
b. VSI needle moving upwards.
c. VSI needle stationary.
d. The VSI indicates only vertical speeds, not accelerations.

51. As an aircraft moves close to the ground during a landing the VSI might?
a. Become inaccurate due to ground effect.
b. Become inaccurate due to turbulence.
c. Stick due to loss of pitot source.
d. Become inaccurate due to aircraft attitude changes.

7
52. The response rate of a VSI can be improved by fitting a?
a. Accelerometer system. b. Choke system.
c. Bi-metalic compensator. d. Return spring.

53. What would be the indication on an attitude indicator in a right turn?

a. Climb due to pendulous vanes.
b. No climb.
c. Descent due to pendulous vanes.
d. Correct pitch and bank at all times.

54. What will a classic artificial horizon indicate when turning through 90 degrees at constant
attitude and bank angle?
a. Correct bank angle and attitude.
b. Too much bank and too much nose up attitude.
c. Too little bank and too little nose up attitude.
d. Too little bank and too much nose up attitude.

55. An AI has?
a. One degree of freedom and a lateral spin axis.
b. Two degrees of freedom and a vertical spin axis.
c. Two degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis.
d. One degree of freedom and a vertical spin axis.

56. An aircraft takes-off on a runway with an alignment of 045°. The isogonic line on the area
chart indicates 0°. The compass deviation is 0°. On a take-off with zero wind, the northerly
turning error:
A) is such that the compass will indicate a value noticeable above 045°
B) will be nul if the wings are kept level
C) is such that the compass will indicate a value noticeable below 045°
D) will be nul

57. During deceleration following a landing in a Southerly direction, the magnetic compass
will indicate:
A) no apparent turn
B) a heading fluctuating about 180°
C) an apparent turn to the East
D) an apparent turn to the West

58. Variation is defined as the angle between:

A) TN and MN.
B) TN and CN.
C) MN and CN.
D) CN and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.

59. If there is a fault in the system the radalt display will?

a. Needle will disappear and an alarm flag will appear, possibly accompanied by an audio
warning.
b. Freeze.

8
 c. Turn red and activate an aural warning.
d. Turn red and activate visual and aural warnings.

60. A radio altimeter measures?

a. True Altitude.
b. Pressure altitude.
c. Height above sea level.
d. Height above the ground or water over which the aircraft is flying.

61. A RADALT provides?

a. Radio altitude.
b. Pressure altitude.
c. Density altitude.
d. Height above terrain.

62. The speed tape on an EADI is located:

A) on the left hand side of the HIS.
B) on the left hand side of the EADI.
C) on the right hand side of the EADI.
D) at the top of the ADI.

63. On an EHSI display, wind velocity can be displayed in which of the following modes?
A) Map, Plan, Full ILS and Full VOR.
B) Map, Expanded ILS, Full ILS and Full VOR.
C) Plan, Full ILS, Expanded VOR and Full VOR.
D) Expanded ILS, Expanded VOR, Plan and Full ILS.

64. The function of EICAS is to:

A) show check lists on the left display and systems diagrams on the right display.
B) show engine primary indications on the upper display and engine secondary
indications on the lower display.
C) show engine primary indications on the left display and engine secondary indications
on the right display.
D) show check lists on the upper display and systems diagrams on the lower display.

65. When using NDBs night effect is most likely to be greatest at:
a) dusk.
b) dawn or dusk.
c) awn.
d) night.

66. With regard to the following types of NDB which statements is correct?
a) Locators have 200 W power, 50 nm range and are NON A2A.
b) Locators have 5000 W power, 50 nm range and are NON A1A.
c) Locators have 5000 W power, 50 nm range and are NON A2A.
d) Locators have 15 W power, 10-25 nm range and are NON A2A.

67. The inbound track to NDB is 075° (T), Variation 10° W, drift 7° Right. The relative
bearing to maintained on the radio compass to reach NDB is:

9
 a) 183 Relative,
b) 353 Relative.
c) 007 Relative.
d) 000 Relative.

68. A VOR is sited at position 58°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals
32°W. An aircraft is located at position 56°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic
variation equals 28°W. The aircraft is on VOR radial:
a) 208
b) 212
c) 180
d) 360

69. The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:

a) envelope matching
b) beat frequency discrimination
c) difference in depth of modulation
d) phase comparison

70. Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:

a) night effect
b) quadrantal error
c) uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces
d) static interference

71. What approximately rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a
groundspeed of 90kt?
a) 700ft/min
b) 450ft/min
c) 400ft/min
d) 600ft/min

72. Assuming a five dot display, what does each of the dots on either side of the ILS
localizer cockpit display represent:
a) 0.5 degrees
b) 2.5 degrees
c) 2.0 degrees
d) 1.5 degress

73. In which frequency band does an ILS glideslope transmit?

a) VHF
b) EHF
c) SHF
d) UHF

74. A DME station is located 1000ft above MSL. An aircraft flying at FL370, 15NM
away from the DME station, will have a DME reading of:
a) 14NM
b) 17NM

10
 c) 15NM
d) 16NM

75. A DME is located at MSL. An aircraft passing vertically the station at FL360 will
obtain a DME range of approximately:
a) 6NM
b) 8NM
c) 7NM
d) 11NM

76. During a flight at FL210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from a
DME station located approximately 220NM away. The reason for this that the:
a) aeroplane is circling around the station
b) aeroplane is below the "line of sight" altitude
c) altitude is too high
d) range of a DME system is always less than 200NM

77. The model of the earth used for NAVSTAR/GPS is:

a) WGS90
b) PZ90
c) WGS84
d) PZ84

78. The orbital height and inclination of the NAVSTAR/GPS constellation are:
a) 20180 km, 65º
b) 20180 km, 55º
c) 19099 km, 65º
d) 19099 km, 55º

79. In which two months of the year is the difference between the transit of the Apparent Sun
and Mean Sun across the Greenwich Meridian the greatest?
a. February and November.
b. March and July.
c. June and December.
d. January and August.

80. Assuming mid-latitudes ( 40o to 50o N/S). At which time of year is the relationship between
the length of day and night, as well as the rate of change of declination of the sun, changing
at the greatest rate?
a. Winter Solstice.
b. Spring equinox and autumn equinox.
c. Summer solstice.
d. Mid July.

81. The following points are entered into and inertial navigation system (INS). WPT
1: 70º N 050ºW, WPT 2: 70º N 40ºW, WPT 3: 70º N 30ºW. the inertial navigation
system is connected to the automatic pilot on route (1-2-3). The track change
when passing WPT 2 will be approximately?

11
 a. Zero
b. A 9º increase.
c. A 6º decrease.
d. A 9º decrease.

82. Waypoint 1. 75º S 030ºW, Waypoint 2. 75º S 020ºW. What will be the
approximate latitude shown on the display unit of an inertial navigation system at
longitude 025ºW?
a. 060º 11’S.
b. 059º 49’S.
c. 060º 00’S.
d. 060º 07’S.

83. What is the longitude of a position 15 NM to the east of 58º 42’N 094º 00’W?
a. 093º 53.3’W.
b. 094º 13.0’W.
c. 093º 31.1’W.
d. 122º 31.1’W.

84. In order to fly from position A (10º 00’N, 030º 00’W) to position B (30º 00’N,
050º 00’W), maintaining a constant true course, it is necessary to fly?
a. A rhumb line track.
b. The constant average drift route.
c. The great-circle route.
d. A straight line plotted on a Lambert chart.

85. When decelerating on a westerly heading in the Northern hemisphere, the compass card of
a direct reading magnetic compass will turn?
a. Anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north.
b. Clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south.
c. Anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south.
d. Clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north.

86. Why are the detector units in slaved gyro compasses usually fitted in or close to the
wingtips of an aircraft?
a. In order to isolate the detector unit form the terrestrial magnetic field.
b. In order to reduce or eliminate turning and acceleration errors.
c. Having one detector in each wingtip, cancels out compass deviation.
d. In order to isolate the detector unit form the aircraft deviation sources.

87. The nominal scale of a Lambert conformal conic chart is the?

a. Scale at the standard parallels.
b. Scale at the parallel of origin.
c. Scale at the poles.
d. Constant at all point on the chart.

88. What type of projection is generally used for charts used for navigation in North
and south polar areas?
a. Lambert’s conformal.

12
 b. Polar stereographical projection.
c. Direct Mercator.
d. Oblique Mercator.

89. TAS = 270 kt, true HDG = 145º, actual wind = 205º(T)/30kt, Calculate the drift angle and
GS?
a. 6ºL – 256 kt.
b. 6ºR – 256 kt.
c. 6ºL – 275 kt.
d. 6ºR – 275 kt.

90. TAS = 470 kt, true HDG = 317º, W/V = 045º(T)/45kt, Calculate the drift angle and GS?
a. 5ºR – 470 kt.
b. 5ºL – 460 kt.
c. 5ºL – 470 kt.
d. 5ºR – 460 kt.

91. The pressure altitude of the field can be found by?

a. Setting QNH on the altimeter subscale.
b. Setting QFE on the altimeter subscale.
c. Setting 1013 mb on the altimeter subscale.
d. From an ADC only.

92. If field pressure altitude is 5000 ft amsl and OAT is 25°C, what is the density altitude.
a. 5000+118(25-(15-(5 x 1.98))) = 7348.2ft.
b. 5000 - 118(25 - (15 + (5 x 1.98))) = 4988.2 ft.
c. 5000 + 118(25 + (15 - (5 x 1.98))) = 85SI.8 ft.
d. 5000 - 118(25 + (15 + (5 x 1.98))) = 10888.2 ft.

93. Provided all other parameters stay constant. Which of the following alternatives will
decrease the take-off ground run?
A) Decreased take-off mass, increased pressure altitude, increased temperature
B) Increased pressure altitude, increased outside air temperature, increased take-off mass
C) Increased outside air temperature, decreased pressure altitude, decreased flap setting
D) Decreased take-off mass, increased density, increased flap setting

94. During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater than the
required. Which problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed immediately above the
correct value of V1?
A) The one engine out take-off distance required may exceed the take-off distance available
B) The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance available
C) V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases
D) It may lead to over-rotation

95. During a steady climb the pitot head becomes totally blocked by ice. As the climb
continues the indications of the machmeter will:
a) progressively under indicate the Mach number
b) stick at the Mach number at the time of blockage
c) increase no matter what the actual Mach number

13
 d) Go to zero and stay there

96. The Mach number is a function of the:

a) Isobaric gradient of the fluid.
b) humidity of the air.
c) Absolute temperature of the air.
d) relative air temperature.

97. How will a basic AI respond if an aircraft performs a 270 degree turn at constant bank
angle and ROT?
a. Nose up and bank.
b. Nose down and bank.
c. Nose level and bank.
d. Correct bank and pitch.

98. Aircraft attitude is indicated on?

a. EICAS/ECAM primary display
b. EFIS ND.
c. EFISPFD.
d. All of the above.

99. An aircraft at FL 350 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL80. Maximum
rate of descent is 1800 FT/MIN and mean GS for descent is 276 kt. The minimum range
from the DME at which descent should start is?
a. 69 NM.
b. 79 NM.
c. 49 NM.
d. 59 NM.

100. An aircraft at FL 390 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL70. Maximum
rate of descent is 2500 FT/MIN and mean GS for descent is 248 kt. The minimum range
from the DME at which descent should commence is?
a. 68 NM.
b. 53 NM.
c. 58 NM.
d. 63 NM.

14