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net
IBPS - POs EXAM MODEL PAPER
No. of Questions: 200 Marks: 200 Time: 2 Hrs.

REASONING
e t
. n
Directions (Q. 1 - 5): Study the following information carefully and answer the
a
given questions. A word and number arrangement machine when given an
h
i b
input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in
each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement (All the
numbers are two digit numbers).
a t
Input:
r
tent 13 wheat 21 ask 63 steal 49 hand 54 vast 85

p
d u
Step I: 85 wheat tent 13 21 ask 63 steal 49 hand 54 vast
Step II: 63 vast 85 wheat tent 13 21 ask steal 49 hand 54

n a
Step III: 54 tent 63 vast 85 wheat 13 21 ask steal 49 hand

.e e
Step IV: 49 steal 54 tent 63 vast 85 wheat 13 21 ask hand
Step V: 21 hand 49 steal 54 tent 63 vast 85 wheat 13 ask

w w
Step VI: 13 ask 21 hand 49 steal 54 tent 63 vast 85 wheat

w
and Step VI is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is
obtained.
t
n e
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the questions the
appropriate step for the given input.
a .
h
Input: store 95 clean 56 tape 15 break 28 feet 35 wait 69 ice 71

b
1. Which step number is the following output?

t i
35 feet 56 ice 69 store 71 tape 95 wait clean 15 break 28
1) Step V 2) Step III
r a3) Step VI
4) Step IV
p
5) There is no such step
u
2.
d
Which word/ number would be at sixth position from the right in Step IV?
1) 15
4) 95
e na
2) wait
5) 28
3) clean

3.
.e
How many elements (words/ numbers) are there between 'feet' and '15' as they
w
appear in the second last step of the out put?

w w
1) Six
4) Eight
2) Seven
5) Nine
3) Five

R-6,7,8-10-14
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4. Which of the following represents the position of 'wait' in the third Step?
1) 9th from the left 2) 6th from the left
3) 8th from the right 4) 7th from the right
5) 10th from the right
e t
5.
. n
Which word / number would be at seventh position from the left in the Step VI?
1) ice 2) store 3) tape
h a
4) 71 5) 69

i b
given questions:
a t
Directions (Q. 6 - 10): Study the following information carefully and answer the

r
In a certain code language ‘make your trip interesting’ is written as ‘de la pa ni’,
p
d u
‘your trip be customized’ is written as ‘ha ni ta de’, ‘customised trip always good’ is
written as ‘ta fa ka ni’ and ‘good make me happy’ is written as ‘ka ro pa na’.
6.
n a
Which of the following is the code for 'always'?
1) ka
4) ta
.e e 2) ni
5) Either fa or ka
3) fa

7.
w w
Which of the following can be coded as ‘pa ni de ha’?
e t
w
1) make trip be your
.
2) make your trip good n
3) your trip be good
a
4) trip always be good
h
8.
5) trip be customized good

i b
Which of the following represents ‘good trip always interesting’?
1) de ka ni la 2) fa ni ka ro
a t
3) na fa de ha
4) ni fa la ka 5) ta la fa ni
p r
9.
u
Which of the following is code for 'make'?
d
1) la
a
2) pa 3) ni
4) ro

e en 5) Either na or pa
10. What does 'ta' represent in this code?
.
ww
1) trip 2) always 3) good

w
4) your 5) customized
Directions (Q. 11 - 15): Each of the questions below consists of a question and
two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether
the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read
both the statements and Give answer -
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1) if the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

e t
2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the

.
data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question. n
a
3) if the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to
h
answer the question.

i b
the question.
a t
4) if the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer

p r
5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.

d u
n
them facing north? a
11. What is the position of Yogesh from the left in the group of 21 students all of

e e
I. Praveen is exactly in the middle of the row. There are five persons between

.
ww
Praveen and Yogesh. Yogesh is fifth from the right end.
II. There are two persons between Seema and Praveen and another two persons
w between Seema and Yogesh.
12. In which year did Ranjana complete her graduation?

e t
1993.
. n
I. According to Ranjana's father she graduated after March 1989 but before March

h a
II. The brother of Ranjana remembers correctly that she did her graduation after

b
March 1991 but before March 1994 and the year of her graduation was an
i
even number.
13. Are M, S and N in a straight line?
a t
p r
I. N is 6 metres East of M. O is 4 metres North of N. T is 3 metres West of O and
S is 4 metres South of T.
d u
n a
II. P is 6 metres North of M. Q is exactly in the middle of P and M. R is 3 metres
East of Q. S is 3 metres South of R. N is 3 metres East of S.

e e
14. Whether it was 4 O' clock two hours ago?
.
w
I. At present, both the hands of the clock face the opposite direction along
w
w a straight line.
II. Two hours ago, both the hands of the clock together formed an angle of 120
degree.

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15. Among I, A, G, K, J and V who is the tallest?
I. V is taller than J and G. K is taller than I and G. K is not the tallest.
II. V is taller than K and I. J is taller than G. V is not the tallest.
16. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ENCO,
using each letter only once in each word?
1) None 2) One 3) Two
e t
4) Three 5) More than three
. n
h a
17. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word COAST (in both the

i b
forward and backward directions), each of which has as many letters between
them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
1) None 2) One
a 3) Two t
4) Three
p r
5) More than three

u
18. In a certain code language CE stands for BD, NP stands for MO, then what does
d
JL stands for?
a
1) KI
4) ML
.e en 2) IK
5) HJ
3) LM

ww
19. In a certain code language FRAME is written as QEBDL and BLOCK is written

w
as KAPJB. How is PRIDE written in that code language?
1) SQHFE 2) QSHEF 3) OQJCD
4) QOJDC 5) None of these
20. What should come next in the following number series?
02462302464502466702?
1) 4 2) 2 3) 6
4) 8 5) 5
Directions (Q. 21 - 25): In each group of questions below are two/ three statements
followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
two/ three statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer (1): if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2): if only conclusion II follows.

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Give answer (3): if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
Give answer (4): if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
Give answer (5): if both conclusions I and II follow.
21. Statements: All pens are nibs.
e t
All nibs are inks.
. n
No ink is colour.
h a
Conclusions: I. All inks are nibs.
i b
II. All pens are inks.

a t
22. Statements: All pens are nibs.

p
All nibs are inks. r
d u
No ink is colour.

a
Conclusions: I. No colour is nib.
n
.e e II. No colour is pen.
23. Statements: No dream is project.

w w All ventures are projects.

e t
wConclusions: I. No venture is dream.
. n
II. All projects are ventures.
h a
24. Statements: No road is way.
All ways are paths.
i b
No path is bridge.
a t
p
Conclusions: I. Some bridges are roads.r
u
II. All paths are roads.
d
(Q. 25 - 26):

n a
.e e
Statements: Some numbers are digits.
No digit is alphabet.

w ww All alphabets are letters.

25. Conclusions: I. No letter is digit.
II. Some letters are digits.
26. Conclusions: I. Some letters are numbers.
II. All numbers can never be alphabets.
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Directions (Q. 27 - 30): In these questions, relationship between different
elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two
conclusions:
Give answer:
e t
1) if only conclusion I follows.
. n
2) if only conclusion II follows.
ha
3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
i b
4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
a t
p
5) if both conclusions I and II follow. r
d u
27. Statements: O > P > Q > R < S < T

n
Conclusions: I. O > S a II. T > P

e e
28. Statements:

.
w w
A < B < C; B = D > E > F; G<A

e t
w Conclusions: I. D > A II. A < E

. n
(29 - 30): Statements:
H ≥ I = J ≥ K; L ≤ K;
h a
29. Conclusions: I. H > M
I<M<N
II. N > H
i b
30. Conclusions: I. M < I
a
II. H ≥ K t
p r
31. Which of the following expressions will not be true if the expression

d u
U < V < W < X < Y = Z ≥ A = B > C is definitely true?
1) Z > C
n a
2) U < Y 3) Y > V

e e
4) Z < U
.
5) B < Y

ww
32. How many meaningful English words can be formed from the first, the fifth, the

w eighth and the tenth letters of the word CREATIVITY, using each letter only once
in each word?
1) None 2) One 3) Two
4) Three 5) More than three
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Directions (Q. 33 - 35): Following questions are based on the information given
below:
1) ‘P × Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’
2) ‘P − Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’
e t
3) ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’
. n
4) ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’
h a
b
33. In the expression B + D × M ÷ N, how is M related to B?
i
1) Granddaughter
t
2) Son

a
3) Grandson
5) None of these
p r 4) Granddaughter or Grandson

d u
34. Which of the following represents ‘J is son of F’ ?
1) J ÷ R − T × F
n a 2) J + R − T × F

.e e
3) J ÷ M − N × F 4) Can't be determined

w w
5) None of these
35. Which of the following represents ‘R is niece of M’?
e t
w1) M ÷ K × T − R 2) M − J + R − N
. n
3) R − M × T ÷ W
h a
4) Can't be determined
5) None of these
i b
questions:
a t
Directions (Q. 36 - 40): Study the following information to answer the given

p r
Seven animated movies - Up, Finding Nemo, Ice Age, Aladdin, Shark Tale, Beauty

d u
and the Beast, The Incredibles, were screened during a children's work shop not

n a
necessarily in the same order. The workshop started on Monday and ended on Sunday.
Only one movie was screened on each day.

e e
‘Beauty and the Beast’ was screened on Wednesday. ‘The Incredibles’ was
.
ww
screened on the fourth day after ‘Up’ was screened. ‘Ice Age’ was screened before
Thursday but not on Monday. ‘Shark Tale’ and ‘Aladdin’ were not screened on
w
Saturday but ‘Shark Tale’ was screened before Saturday.
36. Four of the following five are similar on the basis of their position in the above
arrangement and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong
to the group?
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1) Up - Beauty and the Beast
2) The Incredibles - Aladdin
3) Shark Tale - Finding Nemo
4) Beauty and the Beast - The Incredibles
e t
5) Finding Nemo - Aladdin
. n
37. On which day was ‘Ice Age’ screened?
h a
1) Friday 2) Tuesday 3) Thursday
i b
4) Sunday 5) None of these
38. Which movie was screened on Saturday?
a t
r
up
1) Finding Nemo 2) Up 3) The Incredibles
4) Aladdin
d
5) None of these

a
39. How many movies were screened before ‘Shark Tale’?
1) 6
e n 2) 4 3) 2
4) 3
w.e 5) None of these
t
w w
40. Which of the following combinations is false with respect to the given
information?
n e
1) ‘Up’ was not screened on Friday
a .
h
2) ‘Shark Tale’ was screened immediately after ‘Beauty and the Beast’
b
3) ‘The Incredibles’ was screened on Sunday

t i
5) All are false
r a
4) ‘Finding Nemo’ was not screened on Friday

u p
Directions (Q. 41 - 45): Study the following information to answer the given
questions:
a d
e n
Eight people - L, M, O, P, Q, R and S - are sitting around a circular table facing
the centre. Each of them likes different colours, viz., Red, Orange, Blue, Pink, Black,

.e
Purple, Brown and Green, but not necessarily in the same order. S is sitting second to

w ww
the left of N. There are two persons between S and the person who likes Orange
colour. M is the second to the left of the person who likes Orange colour. L is the
immediate neighbour of S. R is the third to the right of P. O likes Purple colour. The
person who likes Pink colour is second to the right of P. The person who likes Brown
colour is the third to the left of the person who likes Blue colour. Neither S nor P likes
Brown colour. N likes neither Green nor Blue colour. L likes Red colour.
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41. Who among the following is second to the right of the person who likes Orange
colour?
1) The person who likes Brown colour
2) Q
e t
3) N
. n
4) The person who likes Blue colour
h a
5) Cannot be determined
i b
42. Who among the following likes Green colour?

a t
1) M
4) N
2) L
5) None
p r3) S

d u
43. Who among the following is sitting exactly in the middle of the person who likes
Red colour and Q?
n a
1) R
4) S
.e e 2) O
5) None of these
3) N

w w
44. Who among the following likes Pink colour?
e t
w1) R 2) S 3) N
. n
4) Q 5) None
h a
b
45. Which of the following pairs of persons are immediate neighbours of M?

i
1) N and S
4) R and S
2) L and S
5) None of these
a t
3) N and P

p r
Directions (Q. 46 - 50): Study the following information and answer the
questions given below it.
d u
a
Seven members H, I, J, K, L, M and N are working in different cities
n
e e
Ahmedabad, Bangalore, Chennai, Hyderabad, Kolkata, Delhi and Mumbai not
necessarily in the same order. Each one has a different mother tongue Tamil, Kannada,
.
ww
Telugu, Hindi, Marathi, Punjabi and Bangla not necessarily in the same order.

w
J works in Bangalore and his mother tongue is not Tamil or Marathi. K's
mother tongue is Punjabi and he works in Ahmedabad. L and M do not work in
Chennai and none of them has Marathi mother tongue. I works in Hyderabad and his
mother tongue is Telugu. The one who works in Delhi has Bangla mother tongue. N
works in Mumbai and his mother tongue is Hindi. L does not work in Kolkata.
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46. What is J's mother tongue?
1) Telugu 2) Hindi 3) Bangla
4) Kannada 5) None of these

e t
47. Who works in Chennai?
1) H 2) L 3) M
. n
4) L or M 5) None of these
h a
48. Which of the following combination is correct?
i b
1) Marathi - I - Hyderabad
a t
2) Tamil - M - Kolkata
3) Marathi - I - Chennai
p r 4) Punjabi - K - Delhi
5) None of these

d u
49. Who works in Delhi?

n a
1) H
4) K
.e e 2) M
5) None of these
3) L

w w
50. What is M's mother tongue?
e t
w1) Bangla 2) Marathi
. n
3) Telugu
a
4) Can't be determined

h
5) None of these

i b
Directions (Q. 51 - 60): Read the following interview and answer the given

a t
questions based on that. Some words have been printed in bold to help you

r
locate them while answering some of the questions.
p
u
A pioneering new book, Gender and Green Governance, explores a central

d
n a
question: If women had adequate representation in forestry institutions, would it make
a difference to them their communities and forests as a national resource? Interview

.e e
with the author.

ww
Why has access to forests been such a conflict-ridden issue?
This is not surprising. Forests constitute not just community and national wealth,
w
but global wealth. But for millions, forests are also critical for livelihoods and their
daily lives.
Your first book, Cold Hearths and Barren Slopes (1986), was about forests.
Is there an evolution of argument here?
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Yes indeed. In Cold Hearths and Barren Slopes, I had argued that social forestry,
with its top - down implementation and focus on commercial species was neither
'social' nor 'forestry', and would protect neither forests nor village livelihoods. The

e t
answer, I argued, lay in allowing forest communities to manage local forests. Finally,

. n
in 1990, India launched the joint forest management programme and Nepal also
started community forestry. So, I decided to see for myself how community forestry
was actually doing.
h a
b
Between 1995 and 1999, I travelled extensively across India and Nepal and
i
a t
found a paradox. Forests were indeed becoming greener but women's problem of fire-
wood shortages persisted and in many cases had become more acute. Also, despite

p r
their high stakes in forests, women continued to be largely excluded from forest

d u
management. I coined the term "participatory exclusions" to describe this. However,
the current book is less about women's exclusion. I ask: What if women were present

n a
in forest governance? What difference would that make?

.e e
But has this question not been raised before?

w w e t
Economists researching environmental collective action have paid little attention
to gender. Scholars from other disciplines focusing on gender and governance have

w n
been concerned mainly with women's near absence from governance institutions. The
.
h a
presumption is that once women are present all good things will follow. But can we
assume this? No rural women's relationship with forests is complex.

i b
On the one hand, their everyday dependence on forests for firewood, fodder, etc,

t
creates a strong stake in conservation. On the other, the same dependence can compel
a
p r
them to extract heavily from forests. As one landless woman told me: 'Of course, it
hurts me to cut a green branch but what do I do if my children are hungry'? Taking an

d u
agnostic position, I decided to test varied propositions, controlling for other factors.
What did you find?
n a
.e e
First women's greater presence enhances their effective voice in decision -
making. And there is a critical mass effect. If forest management groups have 25 - 33

w ww
percent female members in their executive committees it significantly increases the
likelihood of women attending meeting, speaking up and holding office. However, the
inclusion of landless women makes a particular difference. When present in suficient
numbers they are more likely to attend meetings and voice their concerns than landed
women. So what matters is not just including more women, but more poor women.

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Second, and unexpectedly, groups with more women typically make sticker
forest use rules. Why is this the case? Mainly because they receive poorer forests from
the forest department. To regenerate these, they have to sacrifice their immediate
needs. Women from households with some land have some fallback. But remarkably
e t
. n
even in groups with more landless women, although extraction is higher, they still
balance self - interest with conservation goals, when placed in decision - making
positions.
h a
i b
Third, groups with more women outperform other groups in improving forest
conditions, despite getting poorer forests. Involving women substantially improves

a t
protection and conflict resolution, helps the use of their knowledge of local

r
biodiversity and raises children's awareness about conservation.

p
1) A great success
d u
51. What was author's view on "Social Forestry Scheme"?

n a
2) Beneficial for villagers

e e
3) Neither good nor bad

.
w w
4) Neither have been implemented as 'top - down'
5) None of the above
e t
w . n
52. Which of the following is one of the reasons of forests being a conflict - ridden
issue?
h a
1) Some countries have larger forest cover

i b
3) High dependence of many on forests
a t
2) There is less awareness about global warming

4) Less representation of women

p r
d u
5) Less representation of local women

a
53. The author is advocating inclusion of
n
.e e
1) more landless women
2) more landed women

w ww
3) more women irrespective of their financial status
4) local people
5) younger women in the age group of 25 - 33 years
54. Which of the following best describes "participatory exclusion" as used in the
interview?

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1) Outside support 2) Overdependence
3) Benefitting without self - interest 4) Contributing with profits
5) None of the above
55. Author's current book is more about
e t
1) barren to greener slopes
. n
2) local groups with more women
h a
4) top - down approach to community forestry
i b
3) a fine balance between conservation and commercial forestry

5) women's presence in forest governance

a t
p r
56. What percent of female members in the Executive Committee for Forest

u
Management is being recommended by the author?

d
1) Less than 25%
4) About 75%
n a
2) More than 50% 3) 100%
5) None of these

e e
Directions (Q. 57 - 60): Choose the word/ group of words which is most nearly

.
w w
the same in meaning of the words printed in bold.
57. Controlling
e t
w 1) Holding in check 2) Increasing
. n
3) Decreasing 4) Passing
h a
5) Ignoring

i b
58. Paradox
1) Similarity 2) Position
a t
3) Anomaly
4) Difference 5) Excuse
p r
59. Acute
d u
1) Accurate
a
2) Serve 3) Dull
4) Focused
60. Green
.e en 5) Refined

ww
1) Colour 2) Dried 3) Old

w 4) Live 5) Big
Directions (Q. 61 - 70): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which
has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against
each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find
out the appropriate word in each case.
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With the announcement that he would donate Rs.8846 crore of his equity in the
company to the philanthropic trust he controls, the founder and chairman of infotech
giant Wipro Ltd, Azim Premji has set the ..(61).. very high for other mega rich
businessmen of the country. The 28th richest man in the world, and Indian richest
e t
. n
could not have made a better and more sound ..(62).. choice than this. His Azim Premji
Foundation is already working in the rural areas of the country to improve the
a
quality of education and is now in the process of setting up a university for the poor.
h
i b
This ..(63).. will be a welcome addition to the kitty of a sector that has the capability
to transform India but is badly handicapped due to the lack of adequate funding. Other

a t
IT majors Infosys, MindTree, TCS and HCL also support programmes that support
social equity.

p r
At a time when India's economic footprint on the global stage is rising, the

d u
..(64).. between the different strata of society has also been increasing. This is not a

a
positive development and the underprivileged sections need to be equipped with life
n
e e
skills so that they too can be a part of the growth story. A very basic requirement of
this life skills development is to educate them and make them employable. The fact
.
w w e t
that most of the heads of these IT majors are ..(65).. first-generation entrepreneurs
..(66).. that education, more than anything else, is a great leveller. At the same time,
w n
the improved economic conditions will also push up people into the middle - class
.
bracket and make India a much more attractive market.

h a
According to Forbes, which keeps a tab on the ..(67).. of the rich and famous,

i b
India has 69 billionaires. Yet how many consider ..(68).. as a

t
priority when it comes to spending? Industry reports indicate that Indians spend
a
p r
about Rs.30000 crore a year on charitable ..(69).. and this includes the money spent
by companies on their corporate social responsibility programmes. This is not ..(70)..

u
and Indians, especially the corporate czars, have much more ability to give. In a
d
n a
foreword to Corporate Social Responsibility in India, MS Swaminathan correctly
says: "Just as good ecology is good business good philanthropy will also be good

.e e
business in the long term. "Should the country institutionalise CSR interventions to
deal with malnutrition, education, health, unemployment and poverty? The

ww
government would welcome a helping hand wouldn't it?

w
61. 1) expectations 2) parameters 3) status
4) bar 5) task
62. 1) investment 2) profit 3) decision
4) significant 5) basic

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63. 1) take 2) interest 3) step
4) cause 5) endowment
64. 1) status 2) income 3) growth
4) system 5) gap
e t
65. 1) seldom 2) consider 3) not
. n
4) themselves 5) promoting

h a
66. 1) promotes
4) defy
2) places
5) steps
3) proves

i b
67. 1) business 2) areas
a t
3) activities
4) purses 5) life
r
68. 1) philanthropy
4) spirituality
2) donations

d
5) helping up 3) philosophy

69. 1) types
n a
2) causes 3) trusts

.e
70. 1) enough
e
4) donations 5) costs
2) expected 3) correct

w w
4) less 5) required
e t
w n
Directions (Q. 71 - 75): Rearrange the following six sentences A, B, C, D, E and
.
questions given below them.
h a
F in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the

i b
A) While the reference point for the former is the state for the latter it's society.

t
B) India's 'strategic community' comprises two distinct circles with little overlap.
a
p r
C) Consequently, mainstream strategists have an external orientation to their
discourse, concentrating on high politics; the latter is more internal oriented.

d u
D) Their prescriptions too are understandably poles apart and thus, the state, to

n a
which both their commentary is directed, has to play balancer, and ends up
being at the receiving end of criticism from both sides.

e e
E) Out of the two one can be termed the 'mainstream' and the other 'alternate'.
.
ww
F) To further elaborate on the external and internal concept−while one is
enamoured of India's rise and place in the global order, the other is more
w sensitive to its vulnerabilities and inadequacies.
71. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) E 2) D 3) C
4) B 5) A
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72. Which of the following should be the SIXTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C
4) D 5) E
73. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
e t
1) E 2) D 3) C
. n
4) B 5) A
h a
i b
74. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B
a t
3) C
4) D 5) E

p r
1) A 2) B u
75. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

d 3) C
4) D
n a
5) F

e e
Directions (Q. 76 - 85): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any
.
w w e t
grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part
of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the
w
answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
. n
a
76. The director prefers (1) / your plan than (2)/ that given by (3)/ the other mem-
h
bers of the committee. (4)/ No error (5).

i b
77. I always prefer (1)/ working in a relaxed atmosphere (2)/ than one full of (3)/ ten-
sion and anxiety. (4)/ No error (5).
a t
p r
78. You should not discuss (1)/ about a matter (2)/ with friends who are likely (3)/

u
to find it offensive. (4)/ No error (5).

d
n
(4)/ No error (5). a
79. Having to stay (1)/ in the jungle that night, (2)/ they had nothing (3)/ to feed at.

e e
80. The student (1)/ answered to (2)/ the question (3)/ asked by the inspector of
.
ww
school. (4)/ No error (5).
81. The angry boatsman threw (1)/ the cracked oar (2)/ in the river (3)/ and returned
whome. (4)/ No error (5).
82. The Third World countries must adopt (1)/ a radically different approach for (2)/
the dissemination of scientific information (3)/ in view of the nature and
magnitude of their problems. (4)/ No error (5).
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83. Yet the writers (1)/ have no qualms in (2)/ depicting the gory (3)/ details of the
violence. (4)/ No error (5).
84. The boy attempted the questions (1)/ so well (2)/ that his teacher was
exceedingly (3)/ pleased at him. (4)/ No error (5).
e t
n
85. The Trust plans (1)/ to set on (2)/ a special school for (3)/ dumb and deaf
.
children. (4)/ No error (5).

h a
i b
Directions (Q. 86 - 90): Each question below has two blanks, each blank
indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each

t
blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
a
son.
p r
86. Mr. Rajesh ....... his wife that he would take ........ action to set right his erring

1) called, strict
d u 2) assured, stringent

n
3) reiterated, strictlya 4) informed, constructive

.e e
5) instructed, preventive

w w
87. The charges made in the system were so ....... they didn't require any ........
1) big, time 2) genuine, intelligence
e t
w3) marginal, expenses 4) certain, expertise
. n
5) obvious, modification
h a
b
88. In ........ of International matters, there is always element of risk in ...... one might
i
do.
1) view, whichever
a t
2) many, doing
3) defence, wrong
p r 4) case, whatever
5) spite, whatever
d u
a
89. We do not ....... our dreams because they do not ....... with our perceptions of
n
. e
waking life.

e
1) admit, coincide 2) accept, mix 3) value, match

w ww
4) believe, agree 5) appreciate, corroborate
90. He granted the request because he was ....... to ...... his friend.
1) bound, hurt 2) destined, agonise
3) sure, displease 4) unwilling, please
5) reluctant, disappoint
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QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
91. Tanvi started a business investing Rs.45,000. After 8 months Anisha joined her

What is the share of profits of Anisha?

e t
with a capital of Rs.52,000. At the end of the year the total profit was Rs.56,165.

1) Rs.21,450 2) Rs.24,440 3) Rs.27,635

. n
4) Rs.31,765 5) None of these
h a
1
92. By how much is 
4 th of 428 smaller than 
5
6
th of 216?
i b
1) 61 2) 67 3) 73

a t
4) 79 5) None of these

p r
93. One - third of a number is 96. What will 67% of that number be?
1) 192.96
d
2) 181.44 u 3) 169.92
4) 204.48
n a
5) None of these

.e e
94. In a class of 35 students and 6 teachers, each student got sweets that are 20% of
the total number of students and each teacher got sweets that are 40% of the total

w w
number of students. How many sweets were there?
e t
w1) 245 2) 161 3) 406

. n
4) 84 5) None of these

h a
95. Prithvi spent Rs.89,745 on his college fees, Rs.51,291 on Personality

i b
Development Classes and the remaining 27% of the total amount he had as cash
with him. What was the total amount?
a t
1) Rs.1,85,400 2) Rs.1,89,600

p r 3) Rs.1,91,800
4) Rs.1,93,200
u
5) None of these

d
96. The compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs.22,000 at the end of two

n a
years is Rs.5,596.80. What would be the simple interest accrued on the same

. e
amount at the same rate in the same period?

e
1) Rs.5,420 2) Rs.5,360 3) Rs.5,280

w ww
4) Rs.5,140 5) None of these
97. The product of two successive numbers is 4032. Which is the greater of the two
numbers?
1) 63 2) 64 3) 65
4) 66 5) None of these
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98. The ages of Sonal and Nitya are in the ratio of 9 : 5 respectively. After 8 years
the ratio of their ages will be 13 : 9. What is the difference in years between their
ages?
1) 4 years 2) 12 years 3) 6 years
e t
4) 14 years 5) None of these

. n
99. 30 men can do a piece of work in 16 days. How many men would be required to
do the same work in 20 days?
h a
1) 12 2) 36 3) 48
i b
4) 24 5) None

a t
100. The profit earned after selling an article for Rs.1,516 is the same as loss incurred

p r
after selling the article for Rs.1,112. What is the cost price of the article?
1) Rs.1,314 2) Rs.1,343
d u 3) Rs.1,414
4) Rs.1,434

n a
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 101 - 105): Study the following graph carefully to answer the

e e
questions that follow:

.
w w Total Number of Boys and Girls in Five Different Departments

e t
w 350
300
Boys Girls

. n
300

h a
b
Number of Students

250 250 240

200
200
t i
ra
180
150 140 150

100 80
u p
100
120

a d
e n 50

.e 0
Philoso- Biology Anthro Sociol Psycho
-pology -ogy -logy

ww
phy
Departments
w
101. The number of girls from Biology department is approximately what percent of
the total number of girls from all the departments together?
1) 32 2) 21 3) 37
4) 43 5) 27
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 www.eenadupratibha.net
102. What is the difference between the total number of boys and the total number of
girls from all the departments together?
1) 440 2) 520 3) 580
4) 460 5) None of these
e t
103. What is the average number of boys from all the departments together?
. n
1) 122 2) 126 3) 130

h a
4) 134 5) None of these
104. The number of boys from Anthropology department is approximately what
i b
a t
percent of the total number of boys from all the departments together?
1) 15 2) 23
p r3) 31
4) 44 5) 56

d u
105. What is the respective ratio of number of girls from Philosophy department to

n a
the number of girls from Psychology department?
1) 1 : 2

.e
4) 3 : 4
e 2) 7 : 12
5) None of these
3) 5 : 12

w w
Directions (Q. 106 - 110): Study the following Graph carefully and answer the
e t
w
questions given below:
. n
Units of Raw Material Manufactured and Sold by a Company
Over the years (Units in Crores)
h a
i b
Manufactured
a t Sold
8

p r
7

d u
Units of Raw Material

n 5 a
.e e 4

ww
3
2
w 1
0
2003 2004 2005 2006 2007
Years
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 www.eenadupratibha.net
106. What is the average number of units sold over the years?
1) 440000000 2) 4400000 3) 440000
4) 44000000 5) None

e t
. n
107. What is the respective ratio of the difference between the number of units
manufactured and sold in the year 2005 to the difference between the number of
units manufactured and sold in the year 2006?
h a
1) 2 : 3 2) 1 : 2 3) 1: 4
i b
4) 3: 5 5) None
a t
r
108. What is the respective ratio of the number of units manufactured in the year
p
u
2003 to the number of units manufactured in the year 2007?

d
1) 7 : 11

n a
2) 9 : 14 3) 7 : 9

.e e
4) 9 : 11 5) None of these
109. What is the approximate percent increase in the number of units sold in the year

w w
2007 from the previous year?
e t
w1) 190 2) 70 3) 60
. n
4) 95 5) 117
h a
b
110. What is the difference between the number of units manufactured and the num-

i
ber of units sold over the years?
1) 50000000 2) 5000000
a t
3) 500000000
4) 500000 5) None
p r
d u
Directions (Q. 111 - 115): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in

n a
the following number series?
111. 1548

.e e 516 129 43 ?

ww
1) 11 2) 10.75 3) 9.5

w4) 12
112. 949
5) None
189.8 ? 22.776 11.388 6.8328
1) 48.24 2) 53.86 3) 74.26
4) 56.94 5) None of these
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 www.eenadupratibha.net
113. 121 144 190 259 ? 466
1) 351 2) 349 3) 374
4) 328 5) None

e t
114. 14 43.5 264 ? 76188
1) 3168 2) 3176 3) 1587
. n
4) 1590 5) None of these
ha
115. 41 164 2624 ? 6045696
i b
1) 104244 2) 94644
a t
3) 94464
4) 102444 5) None of these
p r
u
Directions (Q. 116 - 120): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in
d
the following questions?

n a
116. (47 × 588) ÷ (28 × 120) = ?

.e
1) 6.284e 2) 7.625 3) 8.225

w w
4) 8.285 5) None of these
e t
w
117. 45 % of 224 × ? × of 120 = 8104.32
.n
1) 67 2) 62 3) 59

h a
4) 71

5) None

i b
118. √ 7921 × 51 + 374 = (?)3
a t
1) 16 2) 19

p r 3) 15
4) 21
119. 6573 ÷ 21 × (0.2)2 = ?
u
5) None

d
a
1) 7825

.e
4) 12.52 en 2) 62.6
5) None of these
3) 1565

ww
120. 74156 − ? − 321 − 20 + 520 = 69894

w 1) 3451 2) 4441 3) 5401

4) 4531 5) None
Directions (Q. 121-125): Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions
that follow:
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 www.eenadupratibha.net
Number of Students Enrolled in Three Different
Disciplines in Five Different Colleges

B.A. B.Sc B.Com

e t
n

325
500
.

450
a

425
425
425
450
h

375
400 350

i b

325
300

325

325
Number of Students

350
475
t
300
a
275

300

225
250
200
u p
150
a d
e 100
n
w.e 50
0
A B C D E
t
w w Colleges
n e
122. What is the respective ratio of total number of students studying B.Sc. in the
a .
Colleges C and E together to those studying B.A in the Colleges A and B
b h
together?

t i
1) 24 : 23
4) 29 : 27
2) 25 : 27
5) None of these
r a 3) 29 : 23

u p
123. What is the respective ratio of total number of students studying B.Sc., B.A and
B.Com in all the Colleges together?
a d
1) 71 : 67 : 75

.e
4) 75 : 71 : 68 en 2) 67 : 71 : 75
5) None of these
3) 71 : 68 : 75

w ww
124. Number of students studying B.Com in College C forms approximately what
percent of the total number of students studying B.Com in all Colleges
together?
1) 39 2) 21 3) 44
4) 33 5) 17
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125. Number of students studying B.A in College B forms what percent of total
number of students studying all the disciplines together in that College?
(rounded off two digits after decimal)
1) 26.86 2) 27.27 3) 29.84
e t
4) 32.51 5) None of these
. n
h a
Directions (Q. 126 - 130): Each question below is followed by two statements A
and B. You are to determine whether the data given in the statement is
b
sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and your
i
a t
knowledge of Mathematics to choose between the possible answers.
Give answer (1): if the statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question,

p r
but the statement B alone is not sufficient.

u
Give answer (2): if the statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question,
d
n a
but the statement A alone is not sufficient.
Give answer (3): if both statements A and B together are needed to answer the

.e e question.

w w
Give answer (4): if either the statement A alone or statement B alone is
sufficient to answer the question.
e t
w . n
Give answer (5): if you cannot get the answer from the statements A and B
together, but need even more data.
126. Is A an odd number?
h a
i b
A) A multiplied by an odd number is equal to an odd number.
B) A is not divisible by 2.
a t
r
127. The ages of Pradumn and Gunit are in the ratio of 7 : 5. What is the age of
p
Pradumn?

d u
A) The ages of Pradumn and Nandini are in the ratio of 3 : 1.

n a
B) After 7 years the ratio of Pradumn's and Aviral's ages will be 4 : 3.

.e e
128. What is the salary of B, in a group of A, B, C and D whose average salary is
Rs.62,880?

w ww
A) Total of the salary of A and C is exact multiple of 8.
B) Average of the salary of A, C and D is Rs.61,665.
129. What is the three digit number?
A) The three digit number is divisible by 9.
B) The first and the third digit is 6.
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130. What is the profit earned by selling a printer for Rs.3,000?
A) The cost price of 6 such printers is equal to selling price of 5 such printers.
B) 20% profit is earned by selling each printer.

e t
questions.
. n
Directions (Q.131 - 135): Study the following information carefully to answer the

h a
The teacher's colony has 2800 members, out of which 650 members read only

i b
English newspaper. 550 members read only Hindi newspaper and 450 members read

t
only Marathi newspaper. The number of members reading all the 3 newspapers is 100.
a
r
Members reading Hindi as well as English newspaper are 200. 400 members read

p
newspaper.
d u
Hindi as well as Marathi newspaper and 300 members read English as well as Marathi

n a
131. Find the difference between number of members reading English as well as

e e
Marathi newspaper and the number of members reading English as well as Hindi

.
w
newspaper?

w e t
w1) 300
4) 50
2) 200
5) None
3) 100

. n
132. How many members read atleast 2 newspapers?
h a
1) 600 2) 800 3) 500
i b
4) 1000 5) None of these
a t
p r
133. Find the number of members reading Hindi newspaper?
1) 750 2) 980

a du 3) 1000
4) 1020

e n 5) None of these
134. How many members read only one newspaper?

.e
ww
1) 1560 2) 1650 3) 1640

w4) 1540 5) None of these

135. Find the number of members reading no newspaper?
1) 150 2) 460 3) 550
4) 750 5) None of these
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Directions (Q. 136 - 140): Study the following graph carefully to answer the
questions that follow:
Number of Computers Manufactured and Sold by Various
Companies in a Year (Number in Lakhs)

Manufactured Sold
35

30
Number of Computers

25

20

15

e t
10

. n
5

h a
0
A B C
i
D b E

a
Companies t
p r
136. What is the respective ratio of the number of computers manufactured by

u
companies A and C together to the number of computers sold by companies A and
d
C together?
1) 4 : 5
n a
2) 14 : 11 3) 8 : 9
4) 7 : 5
.e e 5) None of these

w w
137. What is the difference between the average number of computers manufactured
by all the companies together and the average number of computers sold by all
w the companies together?
1) 3500 2) 35000 3) 350000
4) 3500000 5) None of these
138. The number of computers sold by company B are what percent of the number of
computers manufactured by company B? (round off to two digits after decimal)
1) 83.33 2) 120 3) 78.83
4) 106.54 5) None of these

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 www.eenadupratibha.net
139. The number of computers manufactured by company D are what percent of the
number of computers manufactured by company E?
1) 125 2) 112.5 3) 85
4) 65.25 5) 75
e t
. n
140. The number of computers manufactured by company B is approximately what

together?
h a
percent of the number of computers manufactured by all the companies

1) 22 2) 18 3) 14
i b
4) 26 5) 32
a t
p
GENERAL AWARENESSr
d u
141. The concept of "Carbon Credit" is associated with which of the following areas?

n a
1) Protection of environment 2) Women empowerment

.e e
3) Development of rural infrastructure 4) Development of coal mines
5) None of these

w w
142. As we all know Government is paying much attention to improve Public
e t
w n
Distribution System (PDS) in our country. Which of the following have been the
.
further improve it? [Pick up correct statement(s)]
h a
achievements of the PDS up till now, owing to which Government wants to

i b
A) After implementing PDS in India, no famine was reported. PDS was always

t
there to give people at least the bare minimum to survive.
a
overcoming the drought.
p r
B) A drought of 1987 was worst in this century but PDS played a vital role in

d u
C) Now PDS is feeding the poorest of the poor in this country.
1) Only A
n a 2) Only B

.e e
3) Only C
5) None of these
4) All A, B and C are correct

w ww
143. Many times we read about SHGs in financial newspapers. What is the full form
of the term?
1) Small Help Groups 2) Self Help Groups
3) Small Hope in Growths 4) Self Hope Groups
5) None of these
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144. Whenever newspapers talk about the performance of core industries. Which of
the following is NOT considered among them?
1) Petroleum
4) Steel
2) Automobile
5) Cement
3) Mining

e t
. n
145. Which of the following agencies / organizations in India maintains the Micro

h a
Finance Development and Equity Fund which was in news recently?
1) Confederation of Industries in India (CII)
i b
2) Indian Bank's Association (IBA)
a t
r
3) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)

p
d u
4) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
5) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)

n a
146. Many times we read about Hawala transactions in newspapers. Hawala in India

e e
is prohibited under the provision of which of the following Acts?

.
w
1) Fiscal Responsibility & Budget Management Act

w e t
w 2) Banking Regulation Act
3) Financial Action Task Force Act
. n
4) Foreign Exchange Management Act
h a
5) None of these
i b
a t
147. As we all know DIPP is the nodal agency in the field of foreign investments in

r
India. What is the full form of DIPP?
p
u
1) Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion

d
n a
2) Department of Industrial Procedures and Promotions
3) Directorate of Industrial Procedures and Promotions

.e e
4) Directorate of Industrial Policy and Publicity

w ww
5) None of these
148. Many times we read about the performance of Asian Markets in various financial
newspapers. Which of the following is NOT included in Asian Market?
1) Japan 2) China 3) Hong Kong
4) South Korea 5) Brazil
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149. As per news in various newspapers ‘kfw’ Group released another instalment of
its financial aid to India. kfw is an organisation / bank based in .............. .
1) France 2) Japan 3) Italy

e t
4) China 5) Germany

.
150. Which of the following countries has become the main supplier of Defencen
goods to India and has replaced Russia?
h a
1) Canada 2) USA 3) Israel
i b
4) France 5) None of these
a t
r
151. As per existing policy, new foreign investments in manufacturing of which of
p
the following is not allowed?

d u
1) White cement

n a 2) Plastic goods

.e e
3) Cigarette and Cigars
5) Pesticides
4) Polythene bags

w w
152. Which of the following in NOT amongst the Prime Minister's new 15 point
e t
w programme?
. n
1) Enhanced Credit Support for economic activities

h a
2) Modernising Madarsa education

i b
a
4) Free train journey for unemployed youths
t
3) Improvement in condition of slums inhabited by minorities

p r
5) Rehabilitation of victims of communal riots

d u
153. India's political relations with its neighbouring countries a critical part of its .......

n
1) Industrial policy a 2) Trade policy

e e
3) Foreign policy

.
4) Development policy

ww
5) None of these

w
154. Which of the following agencies / organisations has decided to make major
changes for ULIPs?
1) IRDA 2) RBI 3) AMFI
4) FRBI 5) None of these
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155. Which of the following is the name of the programme launched by the
Government of India to help lonely women by providing vocational training to
make them self dependent?
1) Apnalaya 2) Prayas 3) Abhiyogyata
e t
4) Swadhar 5) Swavalamban
. n
a
156. Which of the following terms is NOT used in the game of Cricket?

h
1) Doosra
4) Checkmate
2) Century
5) Ashes
3) Bouncer

i b
a t
157. Trupti Murgunde whose name was in news recently is a ............... .
1) Badminton player
p r 2) Golf player
3) Lawn tennis player
d u 4) Table tennis player
5) Cricket player

n a
158. Which of the following is NOT a financial term?

.e e
1) Acid Test 2) Double Fault 3) Gross Profit

w w
4) Depreciation 5) Cash flow
e t
w n
159. In the terms of economics, the recession occurring two times with a small gap in
between is known as ........... .
.
1) Double Deflection 2) Deflation
h a
3) Deep Recession
b
4) Double Dip Recession
i
5) None of these

a t
1) Balance of Payment
p r
160. Which of the following terms is NOT used in Economics?
2) Call Money
3) National Debt

a du 4) Elasticity of Demand
5) Boyle's Law

e n
161. Which of the following ministries/ departments operates the

.e
"Village Grain Bank's Schemes"?

w ww
1) Ministry of Tribal Welfare
2) Department of Food & Public Distribution
3) Department of Social Welfare
4) Ministry of Forest
5) None of these
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162. Which of the following books is written by Chetan Bhagat?
1) The Golden Gate 2) Journey To Ithaca
3) Fire on the Mountain 4) The Inheritance of Loss
5) 2 States: The Story of My Marriage
e t
. n
163. Which of the following nations is the recent one to join Non Aligned Movement
(NAM)?
1) Fiji 2) Cuba 3) Sri Lanka
h a
4) Colombia 5) Egypt
i b
a t
164. Hiroshima Day is observed on which of the following dates?
1) 6th August 2) 16th August
p r3) 6th September
4) 16th September 5) 26th July

d u
165. Dronacharya Awards are given to a person associated with .......... .
1) Education
n a
2) Social service 3) Journalism
4) Sports

.e e 5) Films
166. Interest below which a bank is not expected to lend to customers is known as .....

w w
1) Deposit Rate 2) Base Rate 3) Prime Lending Rate
e t
w4) Bank Rate 5) Discount Rate
. n
Scheme in a Bank would get benefit under ...... .
h a
167. The customers by opening and investing in the Tax Saver Deposit Account

1) Sales Tax 2) Customs Duty

i b
3) Excise Duty
4) Professional Tax 5) Income Tax
a t
p r
168. In banking business, when the borrowers avail a Term Loan, initially they are
given a repayment holiday and this is referred as...
1) Subsidy
3) Re - phasing
a du 2) Interest Waiver
4) Interest concession

e
5) Moratorium n
.e
169. A non - performing asset is .......

w ww
1) Money at call and short notice
2) An asset that ceases to generate income
3) Cash balance in till
4) Cash balance with RBI
5) Balance with other banks

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170. Government usually classifies its expenditure in term of planned and
non - planned expenditure. Identify, which is the correct definition of planned
expenditure?
1) It represents the expenditure of all the State Governments
e t
2) It represents the total expenditure of the Central Government
. n
and flagship schemes of Government
h a
3) It is the expenditure which is spend through centrally sponsored programmes

i b
4) It represents the expenditure incurred on Defence
5) Other than those given as options
a t
p r
171. Which of the following organization is made specifically responsible for
empowering Micro, Small and Medium enterprises in India?
1) NABARD
d
2) RBI u 3) SIDBI
4) ECGC
n a
5) SEBI

.e e
172. Which of the following measures were announced by the Reserve Bank of India
on July 15, 2014 to encourage banks to extend long term loans to infrastructure

w
sector?
w e t
w1) Banks can issue long term bonds with a minimum maturity

. n
h a
2) Rupee denominated bonds should be issued in ‘plain vanilla form’
3) Lending for affordable housing means loans eligible under the priority sector

i b
4) Exemption of long term bonds from mandatory regulatory norms such as the
CRR, SLR and PSL

a t
5) All of the above

p r
173. Many real estate companies and private equity funds are planning to list their

d u
commercial property portfolio through the real estate investment trusts (REITs)

n a
in the wake of proposal made by the Union Finance Minister Arun Jaitley in his
budget speech on July 10, 2014. The incentives proposed for REITs include -

e e
A) For an Initial Public Offering (IPO), the size of the assets under the REIT
.
ww
shall not be less than 1000 crore
B) Minimum initial offer size of Rs. 250 crore and minimum public float of
w 25%, to ensure adequate public participation
C) The REIT may raise funds from any investors, resident or foreign
D) Till the market develops, it is proposed that the units of the REITs may be
offered only to HNIs and institutions
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1) Only (A), (B) and (D) 2) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)
3) Only (B) and (C) 4) Only (C) and (D)
5) Only (A) and (D)

e
174. As per the data revealed by the Union Urban Development Minister Venkaiah t
. n
Naidu on July 14, 2014 which of the following combinations of the State/ Union

correct?
h a
Territory and increase in urban population during the years 2001 - 11 is NOT

1) Sikkim - 14.1 percent

i b
2) Daman and Diu - 39 percent
3) Chandigarh - 7.5 percent
t
4) Gujarat - 6.7 percent
a
5) Nagaland - 10.7 percent

p r
d u
175. The Reserve Bank of India on July 17, 2014 issued draft guidelines for small and
payment banks to expand banking services disburse small - ticket loans to

a
businesses and farmers. Select the correct statements regarding the draft
n
.e e
guidelines
A) The minimum capital requirement for both payments and small banks will be

w w
Rs. 100 crore

e t
w n
B) Non banking finance companies, business correspondents and PSUs among
others can apply to set up a payments bank.
.
h a
C) For small banks, resident individuals will 10 years of experience in banking,

i b
firms and societies will be eligible as promoters.
D) Promoters initial minimum contribution will be at least 40 percent with a five
year lock in period
a t
1) Only (A) and (B)
p r 2) Only (B) and (C)

d u
3) All (A), (B), (C) and (D) 4) Only (A) and (C)
5) Only (C) and (D)

n a
176. The Reserve Bank of India on July 15, 2014 gave a boost to affordable housing

e e
by allowing banks to raise long-term funds to finance these projects, which

.
include....

w ww
A) Loans up to Rs.50 lakh for houses of Rs.65 lakh value in six metros.
B) Loans up to Rs.40 lakh for houses up to Rs.50 lakh value in other cities.
C) Loans under priority sector lending Rs.25 lakh to cities with population
above 10 lakh; Rs.15 lakh elsewhere.
D) Support to government agency for slum clearance and rehabilitation.
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1) All (A), (B), (C) and (D) 2) Only (A) and (B)
3) Only (B) and (C) 4) Only (A), (C) and (D)
5) Only (A) and (D)

e t
177. Which of the following guidelines were issued by the telecom regulator, the

. n
Telecom Regulator Authority of India (TRAI) on 21st July 2014 for spectrum
sharing?

h a
2300 and 2500 MHz
i b
1) Spectrum can be shared across all six frequency bands - 800, 900, 1800, 2100,

a t
2) Sharing limited to two licensees within a circle
3) No leasing of spectrum
p r
u
4) No sharing between operators who do not have spectrum in the same band

d
5) All of the above

n a
178. Who among the following great players of chess were selected for the Russian

e e
Federation's ‘Order of Friendship’ award on 4th July 2014?

.
w
1) Viswanathan Anand of India and Boris Gelfand of Israel

w e t
w2) Magnus Carlsen of Norway and Martin Brow of England
3) Colin McNabe of Scotland and Puchen Wang of New Zealand
. n
h
4) Vlad Victor Barnaure of Romania and Mark Orr of Ireland a
5) None of these
i b
t
179. Which of the following states will host the 2015 Pravasi Bharatiya Divas?
a
1) Odisha 2) Rajasthan

p r 3) Gujarat
4) Maharashtra
u
5) None of these

d
180. Railway Minister DV Sadananda Gowda presented the Railway Budget for the

n a
fiscal year 2014 - 15 on July 8, 2014 in the Parliament. Which of the following

.e e
combinations of particulars and sum projected in the Railway Budget 2014 - 15
is NOT correct?

w ww
1) Plan Outlay - Rs.65445 crores
2) Gross Budgetary Support - Rs.30,100 crores
3) Internal Resources - Rs.11,790 crores
4) Railway Safety Fund - Rs.2,200 crores
5) All are true
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COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE
181. What is an 'internet'?
1) Internal internet used to transfer information internally.
e t
n
2) Internal internet used to transfer information to the outside company.

.
single organisation.
h a
3) Internal network designed to serve the internal informational needs of a

i b
4) Internal network designed to transfer the information between two
organisations.

a t
5) None of the above

p r
182. To send another station a message, the main thing a user has to know is
1) how the network works
d u
n a
2) the other station's address

e e
3) whether the network is packet-switched or circuit - switched

.
w w
4) whether this is a voice or data network
5) None of the above
e t
w
183. The data base administrator's function in an organization is
. n
h a
1) to be responsible for the more technical aspects of managing the information
contained in organizational databases.
i b
information management
a t
2) to be responsible for the executive level aspects of decisions regarding the

p r
3) to show the relationship among entity classes in a data warehouse

d u
4) to define which data mining tools must be used to extract data
5) None of the above
n a
.
1) link
e
184. A ...... is a computer connected to two networks.

e 2) server 3) gateway

w ww
4) bridge way 5) None of these
185. Each of the following is a true statement except
1) online systems continually update the master file
2) in online processing, the user enters transactions into a device that is directly
connected to the computer system
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3) batch processing is still used today in older systems or in some systems with
massive volumes of transactions
4) information in batch systems will always be up-to-date
5) None of the above
e t
186. When you save a presentation, ............
. n
h
1) all slides in a presentation are saved in the same file a
b
2) two files are created; one for graphics and one for content
i
3) a file is created for each slide

a t
5) None of the above
p r
4) a file is created for each animation or graphic

d u
187. In a client/ server model, a client program

n
1) asks for informationa
.e e
2) provides information and files

w w
3) serves software files to other computers
4) distributes data files to other computers
e t
w5) None of the above
. n
h a
188. Every device on the internet has a unique ....... address (also called an ‘Internet

b
address’) that identifies it in the same way that a street address identifies the
i
location of a house.
1) DH 2) DA
a t
3) IP
4) IA 5) None
p r
d u
189. In a customer data base a customer’s surname would be keyed into a...
1) row
n a
2) text field 3) record

.e e
4) computed field 5) None of these
190. A set of interrelated components that collect, process, store and distribute

w ww
information to support decision making and control in an organization best
defines
1) communications technology 2) a network
3) an information system 4) hardware
5) None of the above
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191. Control in design of an information system is used to
1) inspect the system and check that it is built as per specifications

are reliable
e t
2) ensure that the system processes data as it was designed to and that the results

3) ensure privacy of data processed by it

. n
4) protect data from accidental or intentional loss
h a
5) None of the above
i b
192. Storing same data in many places is called

a t
1) iteration
4) enumeration
2) concurrency

p
5) None of these r 3) redundancy

d u
193. Which of the following is the first step in the 'transaction processing cycle',

a
which captures business data through various modes such as optical scanning or
n
. e
at an electronic commerce website?

e
1) Document and report generation 2) Database maintenance

w w
3) Transaction processing 4) Data Entry
e t
w5) None of the above
. n
a
194. What is part of a database that holds only one type of information?

h
1) Report
4) File
2) Field
5) None
3) Record

i b
a t
195. 'MPG' extension refers usually to what kind of file?
1) Word Perfect Document file
p r 2) MS Office document

du
3) Animation/ movie file 4) Image file
5) None of these

n a
. e
196. If you want to secure a message, use a(n):

e
1) cryptology source 2) encryption key

w ww
3) encryption software package
5) None of these
4) cryptosystem

197. Which key do you press to check spelling?

1) F3 2) F5 3) F7
4) F9 5) None
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198. Which area in an Excel window allows entering values and formulas?
1) Title Bar 2) Menu Bar
3) Formula Bar
5) None of these
4) Standard Tool Bar

e t
. n
199. Which of the following helps to reduce spelling error in the document?
1) Auto Format 2) Auto Correct 3) Smart Tags
h a
4) Auto Text 5) None
i b
t
200. Which of the following is valid IP address?

a
1) 984.12.787.76
r 2) 192.168.321.10

up
3) 1.888.234.3456 4) 192.168.56.115
5) None of these

a d
e n
w.e KEY

t
1-1; 2-3; 3-4; 4-2; 5-5; 6-3; 7-1; 8-4; 9-2; 10-5; 11-1; 12-2; 13-3; 14-5; 15-5;

w w n e
16-3; 17-3; 18-2; 19-4; 20-1; 21-2; 22-1; 23-1; 24-4; 25-3; 26-2; 27-4; 28-1; 29-4;

a .
30-2; 31-4; 32-2; 33-3; 34-5; 35-2; 36-5; 37-2; 38-1; 39-4; 40-3; 41-2; 42-3; 43-1;
44-4; 45-1; 46-4; 47-1; 48-2; 49-3; 50-5; 51-5; 52-3; 53-1; 54-5; 55-5; 56-5; 57-1;

b h
58-3; 59-2; 60-4; 61-2; 62-3; 63-3; 64-5; 65-4; 66-3; 67-1; 68-1; 69-2; 70-1; 71-3;

t i
72-4; 73-1; 74-2; 75-1; 76-2; 77-3; 78-2; 79-4; 80-2; 81-3; 82-2; 83-2; 84-4; 85-2;
86-2; 87-5; 88-4; 89-4; 90-5; 91-5; 92-3; 93-1; 94-5; 95-4; 96-3; 97-2; 98-5;

r a
99-4; 100-1; 101-5; 102-4; 103-3; 104-1; 105-2; 106-4; 107-3; 108-2; 109-5;

p
110-1; 111-2; 112-4; 113-1; 114-5; 115-3; 116-3; 117-1; 118-5; 119-4; 120-2;
u
a d
121-4; 122-3; 123-1; 124-5; 125-2; 126-4; 127-5; 128-2; 129-3; 130-4; 131-3;
132-4; 133-3; 134-2; 135-5; 136-4; 137-3; 138-1; 139-5; 140-2; 141-1; 142-2;

n
143-2; 144-2; 145-5; 146-4; 147-1; 148-5; 149-5; 150-2; 151-3; 152-4; 153-3;
e
.e
154-1; 155-4; 156-4; 157-1; 158-2; 159-4; 160-5; 161-2; 162-5; 163-1; 164-1;
165-4; 166-2; 167-5; 168-5; 169-2; 170-2; 171-3; 172-5; 173-2; 174-4; 175-3;

w ww
176-1; 177-5; 178-1; 179-3; 180-3; 181-1; 182-2; 183-1; 184-2; 185-4; 186-1;
187-4; 188-3; 189-3; 190-3; 191-2; 192-3; 193-4; 194-2; 195-3; 196-4; 197-3;
198-3; 199-2; 200-4.

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