Neet Prep

DATE : 06/05/2018 Test Booklet Code
BB
ACHLA
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

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Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720
for
NEET (UG) - 2018
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1
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-BB) ACHLA
1. The type of isomerism shown by the complex a b c d
[CoCl2(en)2] is
(1) iv v ii i
(1) Geometrical isomerism
(2) iii v i ii
(2) Linkage isomerism
(3) iv i ii iii
(3) Ionization isomerism
(4) i ii iii iv
(4) Coordination isomerism
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Co3+ = [Ar] 3d6, Unpaired e–(n) = 4
S o l . In [CoCl2(en)2], Coordination number of Co
is 6 and this compound has octahedral
geometry.
Spin magnetic moment = 4(4  2)  24 BM
Cr3+ = [Ar] 3d3, Unpaired e–(n) = 3
Fe3+ = [Ar] 3d5, Unpaired e–(n) = 5

• As per given option, type of isomerism is
geometrical isomerism. Ni2+ = [Ar] 3d8, Unpaired e–(n) = 2
2. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d Spin magnetic moment = 2(2  2)  8 BM
transition and paramagnetism as well?
(1) CrO42– 4. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is
(2) MnO42– (1) Tetranuclear (2) Dinuclear
(3) MnO4– (3) Trinuclear (4) Mononuclear
(4) Cr2O72– Answer ( 4 )

Answer ( 2 ) S o l . • Based on the number of metal atoms
present in a complex, they are classified
S o l . CrO42–  Cr6+ = [Ar]
into mononuclear, dinuclear, trinuclear and
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic so on.
Cr2O72–  Cr6+ = [Ar] eg: Fe(CO)5 : mononuclear
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic Co2(CO)8 : dinuclear
MnO42– = Mn6+ = [Ar] 3d1 Fe3(CO)12: trinuclear
Unpaired electron (n) = 1; Paramagnetic Hence, option (4) should be the right
MnO4– = Mn7+ = [Ar] answer.
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic 5. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the
complex [Ni(CO)4] are
3. Match the metal ions given in Column I with
the spin magnetic moments of the ions given (1) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic
in Column II and assign the correct code :
(2) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
Column I Column II
(3) Square planar geometry and
a. Co3+ i. 8 BM paramagnetic
(4) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
b. Cr3+ ii. 35 BM
Answer ( 4 )
c. Fe3+ iii. 3 BM
S o l . Ni(28) : [Ar]3d8 4s2
d. Ni2+ iv. 24 BM ∵ CO is a strong field ligand
v. 15 BM Configuration would be :
2
3 9. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13

sp -hybridisation
elements is
×× ×× ×× ×× (1) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl
CO CO CO CO (2) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
For, four ‘CO’-ligands hybridisation would be (3) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In
sp 3 and thus the complex would be
diamagnetic and of tetrahedral geometry. (4) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
CO Answer ( 2 )
Sol.
Ni
CO Elements B Ga Al In Tl
OC Atomic radii (pm) 85 135 143 167 170
CO 10. Which of the following statements is not true

6. The correct order of N-compounds in its for halogens?
decreasing order of oxidation states is
(1) All form monobasic oxyacids
(1) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl
(2) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain
(2) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3
enthalpy
(3) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2
(3) All but fluorine show positive oxidation
(4) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2 states
Answer ( 1 )
(4) All are oxidizing agents
5 2 0 –3
S o l . H N O , N O, N2 , NH Cl Answer ( 3 )
3 4
S o l . Due to high electronegativity and small size,
Hence, the correct option is (1).
F forms only one oxoacid, HOF known as
7. Which one of the following elements is unable Fluoric (I) acid. Oxidation number of F is +1 in
to form MF63– ion? HOF.
(1) Ga 11. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone
(2) In pair of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is
(3) B (1) One
(4) Al
(2) Three
Answer ( 3 )
(3) Four
S o l . ∵ 'B' has no vacant d-orbitals in its valence
shell, so it can't extend its covalency beyond (4) Two
4. i.e. 'B' cannot form the ion like MF6 3(–) i.e.
BF63(–). Answer ( 4 )
Hence, the correct option is (3). S o l . The structure of ClF3 is

 
8. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the
 
 
following metals can be used to reduce F

alumina?  
 
(1) Fe (2) Cu F Cl
 
(3) Mg (4) Zn
 
 
Answer ( 3 ) F
 
S o l . The metal which is more reactive than 'Al' The number of lone pair of electrons on
can reduce alumina i.e. 'Mg' should be the central Cl is 2.
correct option.
3
12. In the reaction

OH O–Na+ (1) H3C CH2 – OH and I2
CHO
+ CHCl3 + NaOH CH3
The electrophile involved is (2) CH3 OH and I2
(1) Dichloromethyl cation CHCl2  


CH – CH3 and I2
(3)
(2) Dichlorocarbene : CCl2 
OH
(3) Dichloromethyl anion CHCl2  

 (4) CH2 – CH2 – OH and I2
(4) Formyl cation CHO  

 Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Option (3) is secondary alcohol which on
Answer ( 2 )
oxidation gives phenylmethyl ketone
S o l . It is Reimer-Tiemann reaction. The electrophile (Acetophenone). This on reaction with I2 and
formed is :CCl2 (Dichlorocarbene) according to NaOH form iodoform and sodium benzoate.
the following reaction
2NaOH  I2  NaOI  NaI  H2 O
.–.
CHCl3  OH–
CCl3  H2 O
CH – CH3 NaOI
C – CH3
OH O
.–. Acetophenone
(A)
 : CCl2  Cl–
CCl3 
Electrophile
I2
COONa + CHI3 NaOH
13. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points Iodoform
Sodium benzoate (Yellow PPt)
than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of
comparable molecular mass. It is due to their 15. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common
pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both
(1) Formation of intramolecular H-bonding due to natural and human activity?
(2) Formation of intermolecular H-bonding
(1) N2O5
(3) More extensive association of carboxylic
(2) NO
acid via van der Waals force of attraction
(3) N2O
(4) Formation of carboxylate ion
(4) NO2
Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Due to formation of intermolecular H-bonding
in carboxylic acid, association occurs. Hence S o l . Fact
boiling point increases and become more 16. The compound A on treatment with Na gives
than the boiling point of aldehydes, ketones B, and with PCl 5 gives C. B and C react
and alcohols of comparable molecular together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are
masses. in the order
14. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with (1) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl
NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and
(2) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl
yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic
smell. (3) C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH
A and Y are respectively (4) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa
4
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 2 )
Br2/h
S o l . CH4 CH3Br
C2H5O Na+
Na
S o l . C2H5OH (A) Na/dry ether
(A) (B) Wurtz reaction
PCl5 CH3 — CH3
C2H5Cl Hence the correct option is (2)

(C) 19. Which of the following molecules represents
C2H5O Na+ + C2H5Cl
SN2 the order of hybridisation sp2, sp2, sp, sp from
C2H5OC2 H5
left to right atoms?
(B) (C)
(1) HC  C – C  CH
So the correct option is (2) (2) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
17. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following (3) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2
reactions: (4) CH2 = CH – C  CH
3Cl /  Br /Fe Zn/HCl Answer ( 4 )
C7H8 
2
 A 
2
 B 
C
sp2 sp2 sp sp
The product 'C' is S o l . CH2  CH – C  CH
(1) m-bromotoluene
Number of orbital require in hybridization
(2) p-bromotoluene
= Number of -bonds around each carbon
(3) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene atom.
(4) o-bromotoluene 20. Which of the following carbocations is
expected to be most stable?
Answer ( 1 )
NO2
CH3 CCl3 CCl3

3Cl 2 Br2 (1)
Sol. 
 Fe
Br Y H
(C7H8) (A) (B)
Zn HCl NO2
H 
CH3
(2) Y
Br
(C) NO2
So, the correct option is (1) (3) H

18. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by Y 
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by
Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous NO2
hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon
atoms. (A) is 
(1) CH  CH (2) CH4 (4)
(3) CH3 – CH3 (4) CH2  CH2
Y H
5
Answer ( 3 ) 23. The difference between amylose and
amylopectin is
S o l . –NO2 group exhibit –I effect and it decreases
with increase in distance. In option (4) (1) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
positive charge present on C-atom at 1 6 -linkage
maximum distance so –I effect reaching to it
(2) Amylose is made up of glucose and
is minimum and stability is maximum.
galactose
21. Which of the following is correct with respect
(3) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl)
1  6 -linkage
(1) – NH2 < – OR < – F
(4) Amylose have 1  4 -linkage and 1  6
(2) – NR2 > – OR > – F -linkage
(3) – NH2 > – OR > – F Answer ( 1 )
(4) – NR2 < – OR < – F S o l . Amylose and Amylopectin are polymers of -
D-glucose, so -link is not possible. Amylose is
Answer ( 1 * )
linear with 1  4 -linkage whereas
S o l . –I effect increases on increasing Amylopectin is branched and has both 1  4
electronegativity of atom. So, correct order of and 1  6 -linkages.
–I effect is –NH2 < – OR < – F.
So option (1) should be the correct option.
*Most appropriate Answer is option (1),
24. Which of the following compounds can form a
however option (2) may also be correct answer.
zwitterion?
22. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic
(1) Aniline
acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved
gaseous mixture is passed through KOH (2) Glycine
pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product
(3) Benzoic acid
at STP will be
(4) Acetanilide
(1) 1.4
Answer ( 2 )
(2) 4.4
(3) 2.8  
Sol. H3N – CH2 – COOH H3N – CH2 – COO
–
(4) 3.0 (Zwitterion form)

pKa = 9.60 pKa = 2.34
Answer ( 3 )
H2N – CH2 – COO–
Conc.H2 SO4
S o l . HCOOH 
 CO(g)  H2 O(l) 25. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers,
 1  1
2.3 g or  mol  mol which of the following statements is
 20  20 incorrect?
(1) They contain covalent bonds between
Conc.H2SO4 various linear polymer chains.
COOH CO(g) + CO2 (g) + H2O(l)
1 1
mol mol (2) They contain strong covalents bonds in
COOH 20 20
their polymer chains.
 1 
4.5 g or  mol 
 20  (3) Examples are bakelite and melamine.
(4) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional
Gaseous mixture formed is CO and CO2 when
monomers.
it is passed through KOH, only CO 2 is
absorbed. So the remaining gas is CO. Answer ( 2 )
So, weight of remaining gaseous product CO S o l . Cross linked or network polymers are formed
is from bi-functional and tri-functional monomers
and contain strong covalent bonds between
2 various linear polymer chains, e.g. bakelite,
 28  2.8 g melamine etc. Option (2) is not related to
20 cross-linking.
So, the correct option is (3) So option (2) should be the correct option.
6
26. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium Answer ( 2 )

also gives m-nitroaniline because
(1) Inspite of substituents nitro group always Cl
goes to only m-position. S o l . CH CH CH – Cl +
3 2 2 Al
(2) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is
Cl Cl
present as anilinium ion.
+ 1, 2–H + –
(3) In absence of substituents nitro group Shift
always goes to m-position. CH3 – CH – CH3 CH3CH2CH2 Cl AlCl3
(Incipient carbocation)
(4) In electrophilic substitution reactions Cl
amino group is meta directive.
–
AlCl3
Answer ( 2 )
Now,
NH2 NH3
H CH3
Sol.
CH – CH3
Anilinium ion
CH3 – CH – CH3 O2
–NH3 is m-directing, hence besides para

(P)
(51%) and ortho (2%), meta product (47%) is
also formed in significant yield. CH3
27. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the OH HC

3 –C – O– O –H
O
following sequence of reactions: +
H /H2O
CH3 – C – CH3 + Hydroperoxide
Anhydrous Rearrangement
(R) (Q)
AlCl3
+ CH3CH2CH2Cl
(i) O2
28. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in
P (ii) H3O+/
Q+R nature?
(1) MgO (2) CaO
P Q R (3) BaO (4) BeO
Answer ( 4 )
CH 2CH 2CH3 CHO
S o l . BeO < MgO < CaO < BaO
(1) , , CH3CH2 – OH 
Basic character increases.
OH So, the most acidic should be BeO. In fact,
CH(CH3)2
BeO is amphoteric oxide while other given
(2) , , CH3 – CO – CH3 oxides are basic.
29. Following solutions were prepared by mixing
different volumes of NaOH and HCl of
CH(CH3)2 OH
different concentrations :
(3) , , CH3CH(OH)CH3
M M
a. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH
10 10
CH2CH2CH3 CHO COOH
M M
(4) , , b. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH
10 10
7
Answer ( 1 )
M M
c. 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH
5 5 Sol. • van der waal constant ‘a’, signifies
intermolecular forces of attraction.
M M • Higher is the value of ‘a’, easier will be
d. 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH
10 10 the liquefaction of gas.
pH of which one of them will be equal to 1? 32. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 × 10–3 gL–1
at 298 K. The value of its solubility product
(1) b (2) c
(Ksp) will be
(3) d (4) a
(Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol–1)
Answer ( 2 )
(1) 1.08 × 10–10 mol2L–2
1 (2) 1.08 × 10–8 mol2L–2
Sol. • Meq of HCl = 75   1 = 15
5
(3) 1.08 × 10–14 mol2L–2
1
• Meq of NaOH = 25   1 = 5 (4) 1.08 × 10–12 mol2L–2
5
Answer ( 1 )
• Meq of HCl in resulting solution = 10
• Molarity of [H+] in resulting mixture 2.42  103
S o l . Solubility of BaSO4, s = (mol L–1)
233
10 1
=  = 1.04 × 10–5 (mol L–1)
100 10
 1 Ba2  (aq)  SO 24(aq)

BaSO 4 (s)
pH = –log[H+] =  log   = 1.0 s s
 10 
Ksp = [Ba2+] [SO42–]= s2
30. On which of the following properties does the
coagulating power of an ion depend? = (1.04 × 10–5)2
(1) The magnitude of the charge on the ion = 1.08 × 10–10 mol2 L–2
alone
33. For the redox reaction
(2) The sign of charge on the ion alone
(3) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on MnO4  C2 O24  H 
 Mn2   CO2  H2 O
the ion
The correct coefficients of the reactants for
(4) Size of the ion alone the balanced equation are
Answer ( 3 )
MnO4 C2 O24 H+
Sol. • Coagulation of colloidal solution by using
an electrolyte depends on the charge (1) 16 5 2
present (positive or negative) on colloidal
(2) 5 16 2
particles as well as on its size.
(3) 2 16 5
• Coagulating power of an electrolyte
(4) 2 5 16
depends on the magnitude of charge
present on effective ion of electrolyte. Answer ( 4 )
31. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2
and CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and Reduction
+7 +3 +4
3.59, which one of the following gases is most S o l . MnO4– + C2O42– + H+ 2+
Mn + CO2 + H2O
easily liquefied?
Oxidation
(1) NH3

(2) CO2 n-factor of MnO4  5
(3) O2
n-factor of C2 O24  2
(4) H2
8
 Answer ( 3 )
Ratio of n-factors of MnO4 and C2 O24 is 5 : 2
So, molar ratio in balanced reaction is 2 : 5 S o l . The reaction for fH°(XY)
 The balanced equation is
1 1
2MnO4  5C2 O24  16H  2Mn2   10CO2  8H2 O X2 (g)  Y2 (g) 
 XY(g)
2 2
34. Which one of the following conditions will
favour maximum formation of the product in
X
the reaction, Bond energies of X2, Y2 and XY are X, , X
2
X2 (g) r H   X kJ?
A2 (g)  B2 (g) respectively
(1) Low temperature and high pressure

X X
 H      X  200
(2) High temperature and low pressure 2 4
(3) High temperature and high pressure
On solving, we get
(4) Low temperature and low pressure
Answer ( 1 )
X X
   200
X2 (g); H  x kJ
S o l . A2 (g)  B2 (g) 2 4
On increasing pressure equilibrium shifts in a  X = 800 kJ/mole

direction where pressure decreases i.e.
forward direction. 37. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas
On decreasing temperature, equilibrium shifts equation corresponds to
in exothermic direction i.e., forward direction.
(1) Density of the gas molecules
So, high pressure and low temperature
favours maximum formation of product. (2) Forces of attraction between the gas
35. When initial concentration of the reactant is molecules
doubled, the half-life period of a zero order
(3) Electric field present between the gas
reaction
molecules
(1) Is halved
(4) Volume of the gas molecules
(2) Remains unchanged
(3) Is tripled Answer ( 2 )
(4) Is doubled
 2 
Answer ( 4 ) S o l . In real gas equation,  P  an  (V  nb)  nRT
 V2 

S o l . Half life of zero order
van der Waal’s constant, ‘a’ signifies
[A0 ] intermolecular forces of attraction.
t 1/2 
2K 38. In which case is number of molecules of
t 1/2 will be doubled on doubling the initial water maximum?
concentration.
(1) 18 mL of water
36. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and
XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. H for the (2) 10–3 mol of water
formation of XY is –200 kJ mol–1. The bond
dissociation energy of X2 will be (3) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and
273 K
(1) 200 kJ mol–1 (2) 400 kJ mol–1
(3) 800 kJ mol–1 (4) 100 kJ mol–1 (4) 0.18 g of water
9
Answer ( 1 ) 40. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic

character is
S o l . (1) Mass of water = 18 × 1 = 18 g
(1) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2
18 (2) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
18 (3) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2
= NA (4) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2

Answer ( 1 )
(2) Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–3 NA
S o l . For 2nd group hydrides, on moving down the
0.00224 group metallic character of metals increases
(3) Moles of water = = 10–4 so ionic character of metal hydride increases.
22.4
Hence the option (1) should be correct option.
Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–4 NA
41. Consider the change in oxidation state of
Bromine corresponding to different emf values
0.18 as shown in the diagram below :
(4) Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
18
– 1.82 V – 1.5 V
BrO4 BrO3 HBrO
= 10–2 NA
–
39. The correct difference between first and Br 1.0652 V Br2 1.595 V
second order reactions is that
Then the species undergoing
(1) The rate of a first-order reaction does not disproportionation is
depend on reactant concentrations; the
rate of a second-order reaction does (1) BrO3
depend on reactant concentrations (2) HBrO
(2) The rate of a first-order reaction does (3) Br2
depend on reactant concentrations; the
(4) BrO4
rate of a second-order reaction does not
depend on reactant concentrations Answer ( 2 )
(3) A first-order reaction can catalyzed; a 1 0

o
second-order reaction cannot be S o l . HBrO 
 Br2 , EHBrO/Br  1.595 V
2
catalyzed
1 5
(4) The half-life of a first-order reaction does
 BrO3 , Eo
HBrO   1.5 V
not depend on [A] 0 ; the half-life of a BrO3 /HBrO
second-order reaction does depend on
[A]0 o
Ecell for the disproportionation of HBrO,
Answer ( 4 )
o o
Ecell  EHBrO/Br  Eo
2 BrO3 /HBrO
0.693
Sol.  For first order reaction, t 1/2  ,
k = 1.595 – 1.5
which is independent of initial = 0.095 V = + ve
concentration of reactant. Hence, option (2) is correct answer.
42. Consider the following species :
1
 For second order reaction, t 1/2  ,
k[A0 ] CN+, CN–, NO and CN
which depends on initial concentration of Which one of these will have the highest bond
reactant. order?
10
(1) NO (2) CN 44. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room
temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to
(3) CN+ (4) CN–
fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at
Answer ( 4 ) room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming
molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains
S o l . NO : (1s) 2 , ( 1s) 2 , (2s) 2,( 2s) 2,(2p z) 2 ,
constant with temperature) is
(2px)2 = (2py)2,(2px)1 = (2py)0
10  5 3 1
BO =  2.5 (1) (2)
2 2 2
CN– : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
3 3 4 3
= (2py)2,(2pz)2 (3) (4)
4 2 3 2
10  4
BO = 3 Answer ( 3 )
2
CN : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2 4r
S o l . For BCC lattice : Z = 2, a 
= (2py)2,(2pz)1 3
9 4
BO =  2.5 For FCC lattice : Z = 4, a = 2 2 r
2
CN+ : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
= (2py)2  ZM 
 N a3 
d25C  A  BCC
8 4  
BO = 2 d900C  ZM 
2  N a3 
 A  FCC
Hence, option (4) should be the right answer.
43. Which one is a wrong statement?
3
(1) Total orbital angular momentum of 2  2 2 r 3 3
electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero     
4 4r  4 2
 
(2) The value of m for dz2 is zero  3 
(3) The electronic configuration of N atom is
1 1 1
1s2 2s2 2px 2py 2pz 45. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form
an ionic compound. If the ground state
electronic configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3,
the simplest formula for this compound is
(4) An orbital is designated by three quantum
numbers while an electron in an atom is (1) Mg2X3
designated by four quantum numbers
Answer ( 3 ) (2) Mg3X2
S o l . According to Hund's Rule of maximum (3) Mg2X

multiplicity, the correct electronic
configuration of N-atom is (4) MgX2
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Element (X) electronic configuration

1s2 2s2 2p3
1s2 2s2 2p3
OR
So, valency of X will be 3.
Valency of Mg is 2.
2 2 3
1s 2s 2p Formula of compound formed by Mg and X will
 Option (3) violates Hund's Rule. be Mg3X2.
11
46. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly Sol.  Signal for contraction increase Ca++ level
help in erythropoiesis? many folds in the sarcoplasm.
(1) Chief cells (2) Parietal cells
 Ca++ now binds with sub-unit of troponin
(3) Goblet cells (4) Mucous cells (troponin "C") which is masking the active
Answer ( 2 ) site on actin filament and displaces the
S o l . Parietal or oxyntic cell is a source of HCl and sub-unit of troponin.
intrinsic factor. HCl converts iron present in
 Once the active site is exposed, head of
diet from ferric to ferrous form so that it can
be absorbed easily and used during the myosin attaches and initiate
erythropoiesis. contraction by sliding the actin over
Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption myosin.
of vitamin B 12 and its deficiency causes 49. Which of the following is an occupational
pernicious anaemia. respiratory disorder?
47. Match the items given in Column I with those
in Column II and select the correct option (1) Anthracis
given below : (2) Emphysema
Column I Column II
(3) Botulism
a. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance
b. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting (4) Silicosis
c. Albumin (iii) Defence Answer ( 4 )

mechanism
S o l . Silicosis is due to excess inhalation of silica
a b c
dust in the workers involved grinding or stone
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) breaking industries.
(2) (ii) (iii) (i)
Long exposure can give rise to inflammation
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) leading to fibrosis and thus causing serious
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) lung damage.
Answer ( 2 )
Anthrax is a serious infectious disease caused
S o l . Fibrinogen forms fibrin strands during by Bacillus anthracis. It commonly affects
coagulation. These strands forms a network
domestic and wild animals. Emphysema is a
and the meshes of which are occupied by
chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are
blood cells, this structure finally forms a clot.
damaged due to which respiratory surface is
Antibodies are derived from -Globulin fraction
decreased.
of plasma proteins which means globulins are
involved in defence mechanisms. Botulism is a form of food poisoning caused
Albumin is a plasma protein mainly by Clostridium botulinum.
responsible for BCOP.
50. Which of the following is an amino acid
48. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle derived hormone?
contraction because it
(1) Binds to troponin to remove the masking (1) Epinephrine
of active sites on actin for myosin. (2) Estriol
(2) Prevents the formation of bonds between
the myosin cross bridges and the actin (3) Estradiol
filament. (4) Ecdysone
(3) Detaches the myosin head from the actin
filament. Answer ( 1 )
(4) Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to S o l . Epinephrine is derived from tyrosine amino
it. acid by the removal of carboxyl group. It is a
Answer ( 1 ) catecholamine.
12
51. Which of the following structures or regions is 54. Hormones secreted by the placenta to
incorrectly paired with its functions? maintain pregnancy are
(1) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration (1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
and cardiovascular (2) hCG, progestogens, estrogens,
reflexes. glucocorticoids
(2) Corpus callosum : band of fibers (3) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
connecting left and
(4) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
right cerebral
hemispheres. Answer ( 3 )
(3) Hypothalamus : production of S o l . Placenta releases human chorionic

releasing hormones gonadotropic hormone (hCG) which
and regulation of stimulates the Corpus luteum during
temperature, pregnancy to release estrogen and
hunger and thirst. progesterone and also rescues corpus
luteum from regression. Human placental
(4) Limbic system : consists of fibre lactogen (hPL) is involved in growth of body of
tracts that mother and breast. Progesterone maintains
interconnect pregnancy, keeps the uterus silent by
different regions of increasing uterine threshold to contractile
brain; controls stimuli.
movement.
55. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’
Answer ( 4 )
(1) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus,
S o l . Limbic system is emotional brain. It controls
preventing eggs from getting implanted.
all emotions in our body but not movements.
52. The transparent lens in the human eye is held (2) is a post-coital contraceptive.
in its place by (3) is an IUD.
(1) ligaments attached to the ciliary body (4) increases the concentration of estrogen
(2) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary and prevents ovulation in females.
body Answer ( 1 )
(3) smooth muscles attached to the iris S o l . Saheli is the first non-steroidal, once a week
(4) ligaments attached to the iris pill. It contains centchroman and its
Answer ( 1 ) functioning is based upon selective Estrogen
Receptor modulation.
S o l . Lens in the human eye is held in its place by
suspensory ligaments attached to the ciliary 56. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived
body. from
53. Which of the following hormones can play a (1) ectoderm and mesoderm
significant role in osteoporosis? (2) ectoderm and endoderm
(1) Aldosterone and Prolactin
(3) mesoderm and trophoblast
(2) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
(4) endoderm and mesoderm
(3) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
Answer ( 1 )
(4) Progesterone and Aldosterone
S o l . The extraembryonic or foetal membranes are
Answer ( 3 )
amnion, chorion, allantois and Yolk sac.
S o l . Estrogen promotes the activity of osteoblast
and inhibits osteoclast. In an ageing female Amnion is formed from mesoderm on outer
osteoporosis occurs due to deficiency of side and ectoderm on inner side.
estrogen. Parathormone promotes Chorion is formed from trophoectoderm and
mobilisation of calcium from bone into blood. mesoderm whereas allantois and Yolk sac
Excessive activity of parathormone causes membrane have mesoderm on outerside and
demineralisation leading to osteoporosis. endoderm in inner side.
13
57. The difference between spermiogenesis and S o l . As per mutation theory given by Hugo de
spermiation is Vries, the evolution is a discontinuous
(1) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, phenomenon or saltatory phenomenon/
while in spermiation spermatozoa are saltation.
formed. 61. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are strand of a gene. What will be the
formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa corresponding sequence of the transcribed
are released from sertoli cells into the mRNA?
cavity of seminiferous tubules. (1) AGGUAUCGCAU (2) UCCAUAGCGUA
(3) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from (3) ACCUAUGCGAU (4) UGGTUTCGCAT
sertoli cells are released into the cavity of
seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation Answer ( 1 )
spermatozoa are formed. S o l . Coding strand and mRNA has same nucleotide
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are sequence except, ‘T’ – Thymine is replaced by
formed, while in spermiation spermatids ‘U’–Uracil in mRNA.
are formed. 62. Match the items given in Column I with those
Answer ( 2 ) in Column II and select the correct option
S o l . Spermiogenesis is transformation of given below :
spermatids into spermatozoa whereas Column I Column II
spermiation is the release of the sperms from a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of
sertoli cells into the lumen of seminiferous
endometrial
tubule.
lining
58. All of the following are part of an operon
except b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase
(1) an operator (2) a promoter c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase
(3) an enhancer (4) structural genes a b c
Answer ( 3 ) (1) iii ii i
Sol. • Enhancer sequences are present in (2) iii i ii
eukaryotes. (3) ii iii i
• Operon concept is for prokaryotes. (4) i iii ii
59. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of
Answer ( 3 )
her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be
inherited by S o l . During proliferative phase, the follicles start
developing, hence, called follicular phase.
(1) Only daughters
Secretory phase is also called as luteal phase
(2) Both sons and daughters
mainly controlled by progesterone secreted
(3) Only grandchildren by corpus luteum. Estrogen further thickens
(4) Only sons the endometrium maintained by
Answer ( 2 ) progesterone.
Sol. • Woman is a carrier Menstruation occurs due to decline in
• Both son & daughter inherit progesterone level and involves breakdown of
X–chromosome overgrown endometrial lining.
• Although only son be the diseased 63. In which disease does mosquito transmitted
60. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism pathogen cause chronic inflammation of
of evolution is lymphatic vessels?
(1) Multiple step mutations (1) Elephantiasis
(2) Minor mutations (2) Amoebiasis
(3) Phenotypic variations (3) Ringworm disease
(4) Saltation (4) Ascariasis
14
S o l . Elephantiasis is caused by roundworm, 67. The similarity of bone structure in the

Wuchereria bancrofti and it is transmitted by forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example
Culex mosquito. of
64. Conversion of milk to curd improves its (1) Homology
nutritional value by increasing the amount of (2) Adaptive radiation
(1) Vitamin D (2) Vitamin E (3) Convergent evolution
(3) Vitamin B12 (4) Vitamin A (4) Analogy
Sol.  Curd is more nourishing than milk. S o l . In different vertebrates, bones of forelimbs
are similar but their forelimbs are adapted in
 It has enriched presence of vitamins different way as per their adaptation, hence
specially Vit-B12. example of homology.
65. Which of the following is not an autoimmune 68. Which of the following characteristics
disease? represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in
(1) Psoriasis humans?
a. Dominance
(2) Vitiligo
b. Co-dominance
(3) Alzheimer's disease
c. Multiple allele
(4) Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Incomplete dominance
Answer ( 3 )
e. Polygenic inheritance
S o l . Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune (1) b, c and e (2) a, c and e
disorder in which antibodies are produced
(3) b, d and e (4) a, b and c
against the synovial membrane and cartilage.
Answer ( 4 )
Vitiligo causes white patches on skin also
Sol.  IAIO, IBIO - Dominant–recessive
characterised as autoimmune disorder.
relationship
Psoriasis is a skin disease that causes itchy
 IAIB - Codominance
or sore patches of thick red skin and is also
autoimmune whereas Alzheimer's disease is  IA, IB & IO - 3-different allelic
forms of a gene
due to deficiency of neurotransmitter
(multiple allelism)
acetylcholine.
69. Which of the following options correctly
66. Among the following sets of examples for represents the lung conditions in asthma and
divergent evolution, select the incorrect emphysema, respectively?
option :
(1) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased
(1) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah respiratory surface
(2) Eye of octopus, bat and man (2) Decreased respiratory surface;
Inflammation of bronchioles
(3) Brain of bat, man and cheetah
(3) Increased respiratory surface;
(4) Heart of bat, man and cheetah Inflammation of bronchioles
Answer ( 2 ) (4) Increased number of bronchioles;
S o l . Divergent evolution occurs in the same Increased respiratory surface
structure, example - forelimbs, heart, brain of Answer ( 1 )
vertebrates which have developed along S o l . Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing
different directions due to adaptation to wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and
different needs whereas eye of octopus, bat bronchioles. Emphysema is a chronic disorder
and man are examples of analogous organs in which alveolar walls are damaged due to
showing convergent evolution. which respiratory surface is decreased.
15
70. Match the items given in Column I with those S o l . Tidal volume is volume of air inspired or
in Column II and select the correct option expired during normal respiration. It is
given below : approximately 500 mL. Inspiratory reserve
volume is additional volume of air a person
Column I Column II can inspire by a forceful inspiration. It is
around 2500 – 3000 mL. Expiratory reserve
a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium
volume is additional volume of air a person
and left ventricle
can be expired by a forceful expiration. This
b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right averages 1000 – 1100 mL.
ventricle and Residual volume is volume of air remaining in
pulmonary artery lungs even after forceful expiration. This
averages 1100 – 1200 mL.
c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right
72. Which one of the following population
atrium and right
interactions is widely used in medical science
ventricle
for the production of antibiotics?
a b c (1) Commensalism (2) Amensalism
(1) iii i ii (3) Parasitism (4) Mutualism
Answer ( 2 )
(2) ii i iii
S o l . Amensalism/Antibiosis (0, –)
(3) i ii iii  Antibiotics are chemicals secreted by one
(4) i iii ii microbial group (eg : Penicillium) which
harm other microbes (eg :
Answer ( 1 ) Staphylococcus)
S o l . Tricuspid valves are AV valve present  It has no effect on Penicillium or the

organism which produces it.
between right atrium and right ventricle.
Bicuspid valves are AV valve present between 73. All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ
left atrium and left ventricle. Semilunar valves conservation’ except
are present at the openings of aortic and (1) Wildlife safari parks
pulmonary aorta. (2) Seed banks
71. Match the items given in Column I with those (3) Botanical gardens
in Column II and select the correct option (4) Sacred groves
given below: Answer ( 4 )
Sol.  Sacred groves – in-situ conservation.
Column I Column II
 Represent pristine forest patch as
a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL protected by Tribal groups.
b. Inspiratory Reserve ii. 1100 – 1200 mL 74. Match the items given in Column I with those
in Column II and select the correct option
volume given below :
c. Expiratory Reserve iii. 500 – 550 mL Column-I Column-II
a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation
volume
b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation
d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient
enrichment
a b c d
d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal
(1) iii ii i iv a b c d
(2) iv iii ii i (1) ii i iii iv
(2) i ii iv iii
(3) i iv ii iii
(3) iii iv i ii
(4) iii i iv ii (4) i iii iv ii
16
S o l . a. Eutrophication iii. Nutrient S o l . Glycosuria denotes presence of glucose in the

enrichment urine. This is observed when blood glucose
b. Sanitary landfill iv. Waste disposal level rises above 180 mg/100 ml of blood, this
is called renal threshold value for glucose.
c. Snow blindness i. UV-B radiation Gout is due to deposition of uric acid crystals
d. Jhum cultivation ii. Deforestation in the joint.
75. In a growing population of a country, Renal calculi are precipitates of calcium
(1) pre-reproductive individuals are more phosphate produced in the pelvis of the
than the reproductive individuals. kidney.
Glomerular nephritis is the inflammatory
(2) pre-reproductive individuals are less than
condition of glomerulus characterised by
the reproductive individuals.
proteinuria and haematuria.
(3) reproductive and pre-reproductive
78. Match the items given in Column I with those
individuals are equal in number. in Column II and select the correct option
(4) reproductive individuals are less than the given below:
post-reproductive individuals. Column I Column II
Answer ( 1 ) (Function) (Part of Excretory
S o l . Whenever the pre-reproductive individuals or system)
the younger population size is larger than the a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle's loop
reproductive group, the population will be an b. Concentration ii. Ureter
increasing population.
of urine
76. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain
c. Transport of iii. Urinary bladder
the drug “Smack”?
urine
(1) Flowers (2) Leaves
d. Storage of iv. Malpighian
(3) Roots (4) Latex
urine corpuscle
Answer ( 4 )
v. Proximal
S o l . ‘Smack’ also called as brown sugar/Heroin is convoluted tubule
formed by acetylation of morphine. It is
a b c d
obtained from the latex of unripe capsule of
Poppy plant. (1) iv v ii iii
77. Match the items given in Column I with those (2) v iv i iii
in Column II and select the correct option (3) v iv i ii
given below : (4) iv i ii iii
Column I Column II Answer ( 4 )
a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of S o l . Ultrafiltration refers to filtration of very fine
uric acid in joints particles having molecular weight less than
68,000 daltons through malpighian corpuscle.
b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised
salts within the Concentration of urine refers to water
kidney absorption from glomerular filtrate as a result
of hyperosmolarity in the medulla created by
c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in counter-current mechanism in Henle's loop.
glomeruli
Urine is carried from kidney to bladder
d. Glomerular iv. Presence of through ureter.
nephritis glucose in urine
Urinary bladder is concerned with storage of
a b c d urine.
(1) iii ii iv i 79. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
(2) iv i ii iii (1) Proteins and lipids
(3) ii iii i iv (2) Free ribosomes and RER
(4) i ii iii iv (3) Nucleic acids and SER
Answer ( 2 ) (4) DNA and RNA
Answer ( 2 )
17
S o l . Nissl granules are present in the cyton and S o l . Polytene chromosomes are found in salivary
even extend into the dendrite but absent in glands of insects of order Diptera.
axon and rest of the neuron. 83. Which of the following events does not occur
Nissl granules are in fact composed of free in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
ribosomes and RER. They are responsible for (1) Protein folding
protein synthesis.
(2) Phospholipid synthesis
80. Which of these statements is incorrect?
(3) Cleavage of signal peptide
(1) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in
mitochondrial matrix (4) Protein glycosylation
Answer ( 2 )
(2) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in
outer mitochondrial membrane S o l . Phospholipid synthesis does not take place in
RER. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum are
(3) Glycolysis operates as long as it is
involved in lipid synthesis.
supplied with NAD that can pick up
hydrogen atoms 84. Many ribosomes may associate with a single
mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
(4) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are
Answer ( 2 ) termed as
S o l . Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in inner (1) Polysome
mitochondrial membrane.
(2) Nucleosome
81. Which of the following terms describe human
(3) Plastidome
dentition?
(4) Polyhedral bodies
(1) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
Answer ( 1 )
(2) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
S o l . The phenomenon of association of many
(3) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont ribosomes with single m-RNA leads to
(4) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont formation of polyribosomes or polysomes or
Answer ( 4 ) ergasomes.
85. Which of the following animals does not
S o l . In humans, dentition is
undergo metamorphosis?
 Thecodont : Teeth are present in the
(1) Earthworm
sockets of the jaw bone called alveoli.
(2) Starfish
 Diphyodont : Teeth erupts twice,
temporary milk or deciduous teeth are (3) Moth
replaced by a set of permanent or adult (4) Tunicate
teeth.
Answer ( 1 )
 Heterodont dentition : Dentition consists
S o l . Metamorphosis refers to transformation of
of different types of teeth namely incisors,
larva into adult.
canine, premolars and molars.
Animal that perform metamorphosis are said
82. Select the incorrect match :
to have indirect development.
(1) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents
In earthworm development is direct which
chromosomes means no larval stage and hence no
(2) Polytene – Oocytes of metamorphosis.
chromosomes amphibians 86. Which one of these animals is not a
(3) Submetacentric – L-shaped homeotherm?
chromosomes chromosomes (1) Macropus (2) Psittacula
(4) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes (3) Camelus (4) Chelone
18
S o l . Homeotherm are animals that maintain 90. Which of the following organisms are known
constant body temperature, irrespective of as chief producers in the oceans?
surrounding temperature. (1) Dinoflagellates
Birds and mammals are homeotherm. (2) Euglenoids
Chelone (Turtle) belongs to class reptilia (3) Cyanobacteria
which is Poikilotherm or cold blood.
(4) Diatoms
87. Which of the following features is used to
Answer ( 4 )
identify a male cockroach from a female
cockroach? S o l . Diatoms are chief producers of the ocean.
(1) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 91. The Golgi complex participates in
9th abdominal segment (1) Fatty acid breakdown
(2) Presence of anal cerci (2) Activation of amino acid
(3) Forewings with darker tegmina (3) Respiration in bacteria
(4) Presence of caudal styles (4) Formation of secretory vesicles

Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Golgi complex, after processing releases
S o l . Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal secretory vesicles from their trans-face.
styles which are absent in females.
92. Stomata in grass leaf are
Anal/caudal styles arise from 9th abdominal
segment in male cockroach. (1) Dumb-bell shaped
88. Identify the vertebrate group of animals (2) Barrel shaped

characterized by crop and gizzard in its (3) Rectangular
digestive system.
(4) Kidney shaped
(1) Amphibia
Answer ( 1 )
(2) Osteichthyes
S o l . Grass being a monocot, has Dumb-bell
(3) Aves shaped stomata in their leaves.
(4) Reptilia 93. The stage during which separation of the
Answer ( 3 ) paired homologous chromosomes begins is
S o l . The digestive tract of Aves has additional (1) Pachytene
chambers in their digestive system as crop
(2) Zygotene
and Gizzard.
(3) Diakinesis
Crop is concerned with storage of food grains.
(4) Diplotene
Gizzard is a masticatory organ in birds used to
crush food grain. Answer ( 4 )
89. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in S o l . Synaptonemal complex disintegrates.
Terminalisation begins at diplotene stage i.e.
(1) using flagella for locomotion
chiasmata start to shift towards end.
(2) having two types of nuclei
94. The two functional groups characteristic of
(3) using pseudopodia for capturing prey sugars are
(4) having a contractile vacuole for removing (1) Hydroxyl and methyl
excess water (2) Carbonyl and hydroxyl
Answer ( 2 ) (3) Carbonyl and phosphate
S o l . Ciliates differs from other protozoans in (4) Carbonyl and methyl
having two types of nuclei. Answer ( 2 )
eg. Paramoecium have two types of nuclei i.e. S o l . Sugar is a common term used to denote
macronucleus & micronucleus. carbohydrate.
19
Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy aldehyde, 99. Which of the following elements is responsible
ketone or their derivatives, which means they for maintaining turgor in cells?
have carbonyl and hydroxyl groups.
(1) Magnesium (2) Calcium
95. Which among the following is not a (3) Potassium (4) Sodium
prokaryote?
Answer ( 3 )
(1) Saccharomyces
S o l . Potassium helps in maintaining turgidity of
(2) Oscillatoria cells.
(3) Nostoc 100. Which one of the following plants shows a
(4) Mycobacterium very close relationship with a species of moth,
where none of the two can complete its life
Answer ( 1 ) cycle without the other?
S o l . Saccharomyces i.e. yeast is an eukaryote (1) Hydrilla (2) Viola
(unicellular fungi)
(3) Banana (4) Yucca
Mycobacterium – a bacterium
Answer ( 4 )
Oscillatoria and Nostoc are cyanobacteria. S o l . Yucca have an obligate mutualism with a
96. Stomatal movement is not affected by species of moth i.e. Pronuba.
(1) Temperature 101. Pollen grains can be stored for several years
in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
(2) CO2 concentration
(1) –120°C (2) –160°C
(3) O2 concentration
(3) –196°C (4) –80°C
(4) Light
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Pollen grains can be stored for several years
S o l . Light, temperature and concentration of CO2 in liquid nitrogen at –196°C
affect opening and closing of stomata while (Cryopreservation)
they are not affected by O2 concentration.
102. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis
97. Which of the following is true for nucleolus? by
(1) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing (1) Green sulphur bacteria
cells
(2) Chara
(2) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA
(3) Cycas
synthesis
(4) Nostoc
(3) It takes part in spindle formation
Answer ( 1 )
(4) It is a membrane-bound structure
S o l . Green sulphur bacteria do not use H 2O as
Answer ( 2 ) source of proton, therefore they do not evolve
S o l . Nucleolus is a non membranous structure O2.
and is a site of r-RNA synthesis. 103. Double fertilization is
98. Which of the following is not a product of light (1) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen
reaction of photosynthesis? tube with two different eggs
(1) ATP (2) Syngamy and triple fusion
(2) Oxygen (3) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
(3) NADPH (4) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar
(4) NADH nuclei
Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Double fertilization is a unique phenomenon
S o l . ATP, NADPH and oxygen are products of light
that occur in angiosperms only.
reaction, while NADH is a product of
respiration process. Syngamy + Triple fusion = Double fertilization
20
104. What is the role of NAD + in cellular S o l . Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod proposed
respiration? model of gene regulation known as operon
(1) It functions as an enzyme. model/lac operon.
(2) It is the final electron acceptor for – Alec Jeffreys – DNA fingerprinting
anaerobic respiration. technique.
(3) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis. – Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Semi-
(4) It functions as an electron carrier. conservative DNA replication in E. coli.
Answer ( 4 ) – Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase –
S o l . In cellular respiration, NAD+ act as an electron Proved DNA as genetic material not
carrier. protein
105. In which of the following forms is iron 108. The experimental proof for semiconservative
absorbed by plants? replication of DNA was first shown in a
(1) Ferric (1) Fungus
(2) Both ferric and ferrous
(2) Virus
(3) Free element
(3) Plant
(4) Ferrous
(4) Bacterium
Answer ( 1 * )
S o l . Iron is absorbed by plants in the form of ferric Answer ( 4 )
ions. (According to NCERT) S o l . Semi-conservative DNA replication was first
*Plants absorb iron in both form i.e. Fe++ and shown in Bacterium Escherichia coli by
Fe+++. (Preferably Fe++) Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl.
106. Select the correct statement 109. Offsets are produced by
(1) Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’ (1) Meiotic divisions
(2) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman (2) Parthenogenesis
(3) Spliceosomes take part in translation
(3) Parthenocarpy
(4) Punnett square was developed by a British
scientist (4) Mitotic divisions
S o l . Punnett square was developed by a British S o l . Offset is a vegetative part of a plant, formed
geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett. by mitosis.
– Franklin Stahl proved semi-conservative – Meiotic divisions do not occur in somatic
mode of replication. cells.
– Transduction was discovered by Zinder
– Parthenogenesis is the formation of
and Laderberg.
embryo from ovum or egg without
– Spliceosome formation is part of post- fertilisation.
transcriptional change in Eukaryotes
– Parthenocarpy is the fruit formed without
107. Select the correct match fertilisation, (generally seedless)
(1) Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus
110. Which of the following pairs is wrongly
pneumoniae matched?
(2) Francois Jacob and - Lac operon
(1) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
Jacques Monod
(2) T.H. Morgan : Linkage
(3) Matthew Meselson - Pisum sativum
(3) XO type sex : Grasshopper
and F. Stahl
(4) Alfred Hershey and - TMV determination
Martha Chase (4) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance

21
S o l . Starch synthesis in pea is controlled by 114. In India, the organisation responsible for
pleiotropic gene. assessing the safety of introducing
Other options (2, 3 & 4) are correctly genetically modified organisms for public use
matched. is
(1) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
111. Which of the following has proved helpful in
preserving pollen as fossils? (2) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
(GEAC)
(1) Pollenkitt
(3) Research Committee on Genetic
(2) Sporopollenin Manipulation (RCGM)
(3) Oil content (4) Council for Scientific and Industrial
(4) Cellulosic intine Research (CSIR)
S o l . Indian Government has setup organisation
S o l . Sporopollenin cannot be degraded by
such as GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal
enzyme; strong acids and alkali, therefore it is
Committee) which will make decisions
helpful in preserving pollen as fossil.
regarding the validity of GM research and
Pollenkitt – Help in insect pollination. safety of introducing GM-organism for public
Cellulosic Intine – Inner sporoderm layer of services. (Direct from NCERT).
pollen grain known as intine made up 115. Use of bioresources by multinational
cellulose & pectin. companies and organisations without
authorisation from the concerned country and
Oil content – No role is pollen preservation.
its people is called
112. Which of the following flowers only once in its
(1) Bio-infringement (2) Bioexploitation
life-time?
(3) Biodegradation (4) Biopiracy
(1) Bamboo species
Answer ( 4 )
(2) Papaya S o l . Biopiracy is term used for or refer to the use
(3) Mango of bioresources by multinational companies
(4) Jackfruit and other organisation without proper
authorisation from the countries and people
Answer ( 1 ) concerned with compensatory payment
S o l . Bamboo species are monocarpic i.e., flower (definition of biopiracy given in NCERT).
generally only once in its life-time after 50- 116. Which of the following is commonly used as a
100 years. vector for introducing a DNA fragment in
Jackfruit, papaya and mango are polycarpic human lymphocytes?
i.e., produce flowers and fruits many times in (1) Retrovirus (2) pBR 322
their life-time. (3)  phage (4) Ti plasmid
113. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Answer ( 1 )
Chain Reaction (PCR) is S o l . Retrovirus is commonly used as vector for
(1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing introducing a DNA fragment in human
lymphocyte.
(2) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
Gene therapy : Lymphocyte from blood of
(3) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
patient are grown in culture outside the body,
(4) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation a functional gene is introduced by using a
Answer ( 2 ) retroviral vector, into these lymphocyte.
S o l . This technique is used for making multiple 117. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a
copies of gene (or DNA) of interest in vitro. foreign company, though such varieties have
been present in India for a long time. This is
Each cycle has three steps related to
(i) Denaturation (1) Co-667 (2) Basmati
(ii) Primer annealing (3) Lerma Rojo (4) Sharbati Sonora
(iii) Extension of primer Answer ( 2 )
22
S o l . In 1997, an American company got patent 121. Which of the following is a secondary
rights on Basmati rice through the US patent pollutant?
and trademark office that was actually been
(1) CO
derived from Indian farmer’s varieties.
(2) O3
The diversity of rice in India is one of the
richest in the world, 27 documented varieties (3) SO2
of Basmati are grown in India. (4) CO2
Indian basmati was crossed with semi-dwarf Answer ( 2 )
varieties and claimed as an invention or a
S o l . O3 (ozone) is a secondary pollutant. These are
novelty.
formed by the reaction of primary pollutant.
Sharbati Sonora and Lerma Rojo are varieties
of wheat. CO – Quantitative pollutant
118. Select the correct match CO2 – Primary pollutant
(1) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid SO2 – Primary pollutant
(2) G. Mendel - Transformation 122. Niche is
(3) T.H. Morgan - Transduction (1) all the biological factors in the organism's
environment
(4) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross
(2) the functional role played by the organism
Answer ( 1 )
where it lives
S o l . Ribozyme is a catalytic RNA, which is nucleic
(3) the range of temperature that the
acid.
organism needs to live
119. Natality refers to
(4) the physical space where an organism
(1) Death rate lives
(2) Number of individuals entering a habitat Answer ( 2 )
(3) Number of individuals leaving the habitat S o l . Ecological niche was termed by J. Grinnel. It
(4) Birth rate refers the functional role played by the
organism where it lives.
Answer ( 4 )
123. What type of ecological pyramid would be
S o l . Natality refers to birth rate. obtained with the following data?
• Death rate – Mortality Secondary consumer : 120 g
• Number of individual – Immigration Primary consumer : 60 g
entering a habitat is
Primary producer : 10 g
• Number of individual – Emigration
(1) Inverted pyramid of biomass
leaving the habital
(2) Upright pyramid of biomass
120. World Ozone Day is celebrated on
(3) Upright pyramid of numbers
(1) 5th June
(4) Pyramid of energy
(2) 22nd April
Answer ( 1 )
(3) 16th September
Sol. • The given data depicts the inverted
(4) 21st April
pyramid of biomass, usually found in
Answer (3) aquatic ecosystem.
S o l . World Ozone day is celebrated on 16 th • Pyramid of energy is always upright
September.
• Upright pyramid of biomass and numbers
5th June - World Environment Day are not possible, as the data depicts
21st April - National Yellow Bat Day primary producer is less than primary
consumer and this is less than secondary
22nd April - National Earth Day consumers.
23
124. In stratosphere, which of the following 128. Select the wrong statement :
elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of
(1) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi
ozone and release of molecular oxygen?
and Plantae
(1) Carbon (2) Oxygen
(2) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the
(3) Fe (4) Cl cell in all kingdoms except Monera
Answer ( 4 ) (3) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding
structures in Sporozoans
S o l . UV rays act on CFCs, releasing Cl atoms,
chlorine reacts with ozone in sequential (4) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes
method converting into oxygen
Answer ( 3 )
Carbon, oxygen and Fe are not related to
S o l . Pseudopodia are locomotory structures in
ozone layer depletion
sarcodines (Amoeboid)
125. Casparian strips occur in
129. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem
(1) Epidermis (2) Endodermis are produced by
(3) Cortex (4) Pericycle (1) Apical meristems
Answer ( 2 ) (2) Axillary meristems
Sol. • Endodermis have casparian strip on radial (3) Phellogen

and inner tangential wall. (4) Vascular cambium
• It is suberin rich. Answer ( 4 )
126. Plants having little or no secondary growth Sol. • Vascular cambium is partially secondary
are
• Form secondary xylem towards its inside
(1) Grasses and secondary phloem towards outsides.
(2) Cycads • 4 – 10 times more secondary xylem is
(3) Conifers produced than secondary phloem.
(4) Deciduous angiosperms 130. Pneumatophores occur in
Answer (1) (1) Halophytes

(2) Submerged hydrophytes
S o l . Grasses are monocots and monocots usually
do not have secondary growth. (3) Carnivorous plants
Palm like monocots have anomalous (4) Free-floating hydrophytes
secondary growth. Answer (1)
127. Which of the following statements is correct? Sol.  Halophytes like mangrooves have
(1) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in pneumatophores.
gymnosperms  Apogeotropic (–vely geotropic) roots
having lenticels called pneumathodes to
(2) Stems are usually unbranched in both
uptake O2.
Cycas and Cedrus
131. Sweet potato is a modified
(3) Horsetails are gymnosperms
(1) Stem
(4) Selaginella is heterosporous, while
Salvinia is homosporous (2) Rhizome
Answer ( 1 ) (3) Tap root
Sol. • Gymnosperms have naked ovule. (4) Adventitious root
• Called phanerogams without womb/ovary Answer ( 4 )
24
S o l . Sweet potato is a modified adventitious root b. Key (ii) A list that enumerates
for storage of food methodically all the
• Rhizomes are underground modified stem species found in an area
with brief description
• Tap root is primary root directly elongated aiding identification
from the redicle
c. Museum (iii) Is a place where dried
132. Which one is wrongly matched? and pressed plant
(1) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia specimens mounted on
sheets are kept
(2) Unicellular organism – Chlorella
d. Catalogue (iv) A booklet containing a
(3) Gemma cups – Marchantia
list of characters and
(4) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae their alternates which
Answer ( 1 ) are helpful in
identification of various
Sol. • Polysiphonia is a genus of red algae, taxa.
where asexual spores and gametes are
non-motile or non-flagellated. a b c d
• Other options (2, 3 & 4) are correctly (1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
matched (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
133. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores (3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
are produced exogenously in
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(1) Neurospora
Answer ( 2 )
(2) Saccharomyces
Sol. • Herbarium – Dried and pressed plant
(3) Agaricus
specimen
(4) Alternaria
• Key – Identification of various
Answer ( 3 ) taxa
Sol.  In Agaricus (a genus of basidiomycetes), • Museum – Plant and animal
basidiospores or meiospores are specimen are preserved
produced exogenously.
• Catalogue – Alphabetical listing of
 Neurospora (a genus of ascomycetes) species
produces ascospores as meiospores but
endogenously inside the ascus.) 135. Winged pollen grains are present in
 Alternaria (a genus of deuteromycetes) (1) Mustard

does not produce sexual spores. (2) Pinus
 Saccharomyces (Unicellular (3) Mango
ascomycetes) produces ascospores,
endogenously. (4) Cycas
134. Match the items given in Column I with those Answer (2)
in Column II and select the correct option S o l . In Pinus, winged pollen grains are present. It
given below: is extended outer exine on two lateral sides to
Column I Column II form the wings of pollen. It is the
characteristic feature, only in Pinus.
a. Herbarium (i) It is a place having a
collection of preserved Pollen grains of Mustard, Cycas & Mango are
plants and animals not winged shaped.
25
136. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a 139. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically
resistor 50  are connected in series across between the poles of an electromagnet. When
a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power the current in the electromagnet is switched
loss in the circuit is on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out
(1) 0.79 W (2) 1.13 W of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the
rod gains gravitational potential energy. The
(3) 2.74 W (4) 0.43 W
work required to do this comes from
Answer ( 1 )
2
(1) The current source
V 
S o l . Pav   RMS  R (2) The induced electric field due to the
 Z 
changing magnetic field
2
 1 
Z  R2   L   56  (3) The lattice structure of the material of the
 C  rod
2 (4) The magnetic field
 
10 
 Pav    50  0.79 W
 
 2 56  Answer ( 1 )
 
137. A metallic rod of mass per unit length S o l . Energy of current source will be converted
0.5 kg m –1 is lying horizontally on a smooth into potential energy of the rod.
inclined plane which makes an angle of 30° 140. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a
with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to plane surface of a material of refractive index
slide down by flowing a current through it when ''. At a particular angle of incidence 'i', it is
a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is acting on found that the reflected and refracted rays are
it in the vertical direction. The current flowing perpendicular to each other. Which of the
in the rod to keep it stationary is following options is correct for this situation?
(1) 7.14 A (2) 11.32 A
(1) Reflected light is polarised with its
(3) 14.76 A (4) 5.98 A electric vector parallel to the plane of
Answer ( 2 ) incidence
S o l . For equilibrium, °
B 30  1
(2) i  tan1  
mg sin30  Il Bcos 30 s
co 
mg llB
I tan30  1
lB 3 0° 30° llB (3) i  sin1  
n 
0.5  9.8 si
  11.32 A g
m 30°
0.25  3 (4) Reflected light is polarised with its
138. Current sensitivity of a moving coil electric vector perpendicular to the plane
galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage of incidence
sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage Answer ( 4 )
applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the
galvanometer is S o l . When reflected light rays and refracted rays
(1) 40  (2) 500  are perpendicular, reflected light is polarised
(3) 250  (4) 25  with electric field vector perpendicular to the
plane of incidence.
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Current sensitivity
NBA
IS 
C i
Voltage sensitivity
NBA
VS 
CRG 
So, resistance of galvanometer
I 51 5000
RG  S  3
  250 
VS 20  10 20 Also, tan i =  (Brewster angle)
26
141. In Young's double slit experiment the Sol.

separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the f = 15 cm
wavelength  of the light used is 5896 Å and O 40 cm
distance D between the screen and slits is
100 cm. It is found that the angular width of
the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe
angular width to 0.21° (with same  and D) the
separation between the slits needs to be 1 1 1
changed to  
f v1 u
(1) 1.8 mm (2) 1.7 mm
1 1 1
(3) 2.1 mm (4) 1.9 mm –  –
15 v1 40
Answer ( 4 )
 1 1 1
S o l . Angular width    
d v1 –15 40

0.20  …(i) v1 = –24 cm
2 mm
 When object is displaced by 20 cm towards
0.21  …(ii)
d mirror.
0.20 d
Dividing we get, 0.21  2 mm Now,
 d = 1.9 mm u2 = –20
142. An astronomical refracting telescope will 1 1 1
have large angular magnification and high  
f v2 u2
angular resolution, when it has an objective
lens of 1 1 1
 –
(1) Small focal length and large diameter –15 v2 20
(2) Small focal length and small diameter
1 1 1
(3) Large focal length and large diameter  –
v2 20 15
(4) Large focal length and small diameter
v2 = –60 cm
Answer ( 3 )
So, image shifts away from mirror by
f0
S o l . For telescope, angular magnification = = 60 – 24 = 36 cm.
fE
144. An em wave is propagating in a medium with
So, focal length of objective lens should be 
large. a velocity V  Viˆ . The instantaneous
D oscillating electric field of this em wave is
Angular resolution = should be large. along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating
1.22
magnetic field of the em wave will be along
So, objective should have large focal length
(f0) and large diameter D. (1) –z direction (2) –x direction
143. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm (3) –y direction (4) +z direction
from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm.
If the object is displaced through a distance Answer ( 4 )
of 20 cm towards the mirror, the   
displacement of the image will be Sol. E  B  V
(1) 30 cm away from the mirror 
(2) 36 cm towards the mirror ˆ  (B)  Viˆ
(Ej)
(3) 30 cm towards the mirror 
(4) 36 cm away from the mirror So, B  Bkˆ
Answer ( 4 ) Direction of propagation is along +z direction.
27
145. The magnetic potential energy stored in a 147. A moving block having mass m, collides with
certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in another stationary block having mass 4m. The
the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of lighter block comes to rest after collision.
inductance When the initial velocity of the lighter block is
(1) 0.138 H (2) 13.89 H v, then the value of coefficient of restitution
(e) will be
(3) 1.389 H (4) 138.88 H
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.4
Answer ( 2 ) (3) 0.8 (4) 0.25
S o l . Energy stored in inductor Answer ( 4 )
1 S o l . According to law of conservation of linear
U  Ll2
2 momentum,
1 mv  4m  0  4mv  0
25  10 –3   L  (60  10 –3 )2
2 v
25  2  106  10–3 v 
L 4
3600 v
500 Relative velocity of separation 4
 e 
36 Relative velocity of approach v
= 13.89 H 1
e  0.25
146. The refractive index of the material of a 4
148. A body initially at rest and sliding along a
prism is 2 and the angle of the prism is 30°.
frictionless track from a height h (as shown in
One of the two refracting surfaces of the
the figure) just completes a vertical circle of
prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver
diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to
coating. A beam of monochromatic light
entering the prism from the other face will
retrace its path (after reflection from the
h
silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on B
the prism is
(1) 60° (2) Zero A
(3) 30° (4) 45° 3 5
(1) D (2) D
2 4
Answer ( 4 )
7
S o l . For retracing its path, light ray should be (3)D (4) D
5
normally incident on silvered face.
Answer ( 2 )
Sol.
30°
60° h
M B
i 30°
vL
A
As track is frictionless, so total mechanical
 2
energy will remain constant
Applying Snell's law at M, T.M.EI =T.M.EF
1
0  mgh  mvL2  0
sin i 2 2

sin30 1 vL2
h
1 2g
 sin i  2 
2 For completing the vertical circle, vL  5gR
1 5gR 5 5
sin i  i.e. i = 45° h  R D
2 2g 2 4
28
149. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin Sol. t = 0 a t=1 –a

t=2
circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each A –1 B
have the same mass M and radius R. They all v=0 v = 6 ms v=0
C –a
spin with the same angular speed  about t=3
their own symmetry axes. The amounts of v = –6 ms
–1
work (W) required to bring them to rest, would

satisfy the relation 60
Acceleration a   6 ms2
(1) WC > WB > WA (2) WA > WC > WB 1
(3) WB > WA > WC (4) WA > WB > WC
For t = 0 to t = 1 s,
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Work done required to bring them rest 1
S1   6(1)2 = 3 m ...(i)
W = KE 2
1
W  I2 For t = 1 s to t = 2 s,
2
W  I for same  S2  6.1 
1
 6(1)2  3 m ...(ii)
2 1 2
WA : WB : WC  MR2 : MR2 : MR2
5 2 For t = 2 s to t = 3 s,
2 1
= : :1 1
5 2 S3  0   6(1)2  3 m ...(iii)
= 4 : 5 : 10 2
 WC > WB > WA Total displacement S = S1 + S2 + S3 = 3 m
150. Which one of the following statements is
3
incorrect? Average velocity   1 ms 1
(1) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding 3
friction. Total distance travelled = 9 m
(2) Coefficient of sliding friction has
dimensions of length. 9
Average speed   3 ms 1
(3) Frictional force opposes the relative 3
motion.
152. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth
(4) Limiting value of static friction is directly
inclined wedge ABC of inclination  as shown
proportional to normal reaction.
in the figure. The wedge is given an
Answer ( 2 ) acceleration 'a' towards the right. The
S o l . Coefficient of sliding friction has no relation between a and  for the block to
dimension. remain stationary on the wedge is
f = sN
A
f m
 s 
N
151. A toy car with charge q moves on a
a
frictionless horizontal plane surface under 
the influence of a uniform
electric field E .
C B
Due to the force q E , its velocity increases
from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At g
(1) a 
that instant the direction of the field is cosec 
reversed. The car continues to move for two
more seconds under the influence of this field. (2) a = g tan 
The average velocity and the average speed (3) a = g cos 
of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are
respectively g
(4) a 
(1) 2 m/s, 4 m/s (2) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s sin 
(3) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s (4) 1 m/s, 3 m/s
29
Sol. N cos S o l . Diameter of the ball
N = MSR + CSR × (Least count) – Zero error

= 0.5 cm + 25 × 0.001 – (–0.004)

= 0.5 + 0.025 + 0.004
ma N sin
(pseudo)  = 0.529 cm
155. A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of
a identical cells (having internal resistance 'r'
mg  each) which are connected in series. The
In non-inertial frame, terminals of the battery are short-circuited
N sin  = ma ...(i) and the current I is measured. Which of the
graphs shows the correct relationship
N cos  = mg ...(ii)
between I and n?
a
tan  
g
a = g tan  I I

153. The moment of the force, F  4iˆ  5 ˆj  6kˆ at
(2, 0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given by (1) (2)
(1) 8iˆ  4 ˆj  7kˆ (2) 7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ O

n
O
n
(3) 7iˆ  8ˆj  4kˆ (4) 4iˆ  ˆj  8kˆ
Answer ( 2 ) I I
Sol. Y
(3) (4)
O O
F n n
Answer ( 1 )
A r  r0
P n 
Sol. I  
r0 nr r
r So, I is independent of n and I is constant.
 I
O X

  (r  r0 )  F ...(i)
ˆ  (2iˆ  2 ˆj  2k)
ˆ
r  r0  (2iˆ  0ˆj  3k)
 0iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ O
î ˆj kˆ n

  0 2 1  7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ 156. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) k is to be marked
with rings of different colours for its
4 5 6
identification. The colour code sequence will be
154. A student measured the diameter of a small
steel ball using a screw gauge of least count (1) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver
0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and (2) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold
zero of circular scale division coincides with
25 divisions above the reference level. If (3) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold
screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm, (4) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver
the correct diameter of the ball is
Answer ( 4 )
(1) 0.521 cm (2) 0.529 cm
S o l . (47 ± 4.7) k = 47 × 103 ± 10%
(3) 0.053 cm (4) 0.525 cm
Answer ( 2 )  Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver
30
157. A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each, (20  0)

are connected in series to a battery of emf 'E' IC 
4  103
and internal resistance 'R'. The current drawn
is I. Now, the 'n' resistors are connected in IC = 5 × 10–3 = 5 mA
parallel to the same battery. Then the current Vi = VBE + IBRB
drawn from battery becomes 10 I. The value of
'n' is Vi = 0 + IBRB
(1) 10 (2) 9 20 = IB × 500 × 103
(3) 20 (4) 11
20
Answer ( 1 ) IB   40 A
500  103
E
Sol. I  ...(i) IC 25  103
nR  R    125
E Ib 40  106
10 I  ...(ii)
R 159. In the combination of the following gates the
R
n output Y can be written in terms of inputs A
Dividing (ii) by (i), and B as
(n  1)R
10  A
1 
 n  1 R B
  Y
After solving the equation, n = 10
158. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input
voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The
values of IB, IC and  are given by (1) A  B (2) A  B
20 V (3) A  B  A  B (4) A  B  A  B
Answer ( 4 )
RC 4 k
C A
RB Sol. A AB
Vi
500 k B B
E B Y
A
AB
B
(1) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA,  = 250
(2) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 125 Y  (A  B  A  B)
(3) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 250 160. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature
(4) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 200 due to heating
Answer ( 2 ) (1) Affects only reverse resistance
S o l . VBE = 0 (2) Affects the overall V - I characteristics of
VCE = 0 p-n junction
Vb = 0 (3) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction
20 V
(4) Affects only forward resistance
IC RC = 4 k Answer ( 2 )
RB S o l . Due to heating, number of electron-hole pairs

Vi Vb will increase, so overall resistance of diode
Ib 500 k
will change.
Due to which forward biasing and reversed
biasing both are changed.
31
161. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity 162. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy
 of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen
V  V0 î (V 0 > 0) enters an electric field atom, is

E  –E0 î (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If 0 is its
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : –2
de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de- (3) 2 : –1 (4) 1 : –1

Broglie wavelength at time t is
Answer ( 4 )
0 S o l . KE = –(total energy)
(1)
 eE0 
1 t So, Kinetic energy : total energy = 1 : –1
 mV0 
163. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10
(2) 0 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of
nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the
(3) 0t disintegration of 450 nuclei is
 eE0  (1) 20
(4) 0  1  t
 mV0  (2) 15
Answer ( 1 ) (3) 30
S o l . Initial de-Broglie wavelength (4) 10
Answer ( 1 )
h
0  ...(i)
mV0 S o l . Number of nuclei remaining = 600 – 450 = 150
n
E0 N  1

V0 N0  2 
F
t
150  1  t 1/2
Acceleration of electron 
600  2 
eE0 t
a 2
m  1  1  t 1/2
2  2
   
Velocity after time ‘t’
t = 2t1/2 = 2 × 10
 eE0 
V   V0  t = 20 minute
 m 
164. When the light of frequency 20 (where 0 is
h h threshold frequency), is incident on a metal
So,   
mV  eE  plate, the maximum velocity of electrons
m  V0  0 t
 m  emitted is v 1 . When the frequency of the
incident radiation is increased to 5 0, the
h 0 maximum velocity of electrons emitted from
  …(ii)
 eE0   eE0  the same plate is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is
mV0 1  t 1  t
 mV0   mV0  (1) 1 : 2
Divide (ii) by (i), (2) 2 : 1
0 (3) 4 : 1

 eE0  (4) 1 : 4
1  t
 mV0  Answer ( 1 )
32
1 S o l . For isolated capacitor Q = Constant

S o l . E  W0  mv2
2
Q2
Fplate 
1 2A0
h(20 )  h0  mv12
2
F is Independent of the distance between
1
h0  mv12 …(i) plates.
2
167. An electron falls from rest through a vertical
1
h(50 )  h0  mv22 distance h in a uniform and vertically upward
2 directed electric field E. The direction of
1 electric field is now reversed, keeping its
4h0  mv22 …(ii) magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to
2
fall from rest in it through the same vertical
Divide (i) by (ii), distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in
comparison to the time of fall of the proton is
1 v12

4 v22 (1) Smaller (2) Equal
v1 1 (3) 10 times greater (4) 5 times greater


v2 2 Answer ( 1 )
165. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in
1 eE 2
a glass tube. The length of the air column in Sol. h  t
2 m
this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston.
At room temperature of 27ºC two successive 2hm
 t
resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm eE
of column length. If the frequency of the
tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in  t  m as ‘e’ is same for electron and
air at 27ºC is proton.
(1) 330 m/s (2) 300 m/s
∵ Electron has smaller mass so it will take
(3) 350 m/s (4) 339 m/s smaller time.
Answer ( 4 ) 168. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a

sufficiently high building and is moving freely
S o l . v = 2 () [L2 – L1]
to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator.
= 2 × 320 [73 – 20] × 10–2 The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum
is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean
= 339.2 ms–1
position. The time period of oscillation is
= 339 m/s
(1) 2 s
166. The electrostatic force between the metal
plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor (2) 1 s
C having a charge Q and area A, is
(3) 2 s
(1) Independent of the distance between the
plates (4)  s
(2) Inversely proportional to the distance Answer ( 4 )

between the plates
S o l . |a| = 2y
(3) Proportional to the square root of the
distance between the plates  20 = 2(5)
(4) Linearly proportional to the distance   = 2 rad/s

between the plates
2 2
T  s
Answer ( 1 )  2
33
169. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies

v
with its temperature (T), as shown in the 
2l 
graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to
the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a Given,
change from state A to state B, is
3v v

4l 2l 
4l 2l
 l  
32 3
2  20
2 2   13.33 cm
(1) (2) 3
5 7
171. At what temperature will the rms speed of
1 2 oxygen molecules become just sufficient for
(3) (4)
3 3 escaping from the Earth's atmosphere?
Answer ( 1 ) (Given :
S o l . Given process is isobaric Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 10–26 kg
dQ  n Cp dT Boltzmann's constant kB = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1)
(1) 2.508 × 104 K

5 
dQ  n  R  dT (2) 1.254 × 104 K
2 
(3) 5.016 × 104 K
dW  P dV = n RdT
(4) 8.360 × 104 K
dW nRdT 2 Answer ( 4 )
Required ratio   
dQ 5  5
n  R  dT S o l . Vescape = 11200 m/s
2 
Say at temperature T it attains Vescape
170. The fundamental frequency in an open organ
pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed 3kB T
So,  11200 m/s
organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ mO2
pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ
pipe is On solving,
(1) 13.2 cm
T = 8.360 × 104 K
(2) 16 cm
172. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working
(3) 12.5 cm between the freezing point and boiling point of
(4) 8 cm water, is
Answer ( 1 ) (1) 26.8%
S o l . For closed organ pipe, third harmonic (2) 12.5%
3v (3) 6.25%

4l (4) 20%
For open organ pipe, fundamental frequency Answer ( 1 )
34
S o l . Wire 1 :
 T 
S o l . Efficiency of ideal heat engine,    1  2 
 T1  F
A, 3l
T2 : Sink temperature
T1 : Source temperature Wire 2 :
T  F
 3A, l
%   1  2   100
 T1 
For wire 1,
 273 
  1   100  F 
 373  l    3l …(i)
 AY 
 100 
   100  26.8% For wire 2,
 373 
173. The power radiated by a black body is P and F l
Y
it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, 0. 3A l
If the temperature of the black body is now
changed so that it radiates maximum energy  F 
 l   l …(ii)
3  3AY 
at wavelength  0 , the power radiated by it
4
becomes nP. The value of n is From equation (i) & (ii),
3 81  F   F 
(1) (2) l    3l   l
4 256  AY   3AY 
256 4  F  9 F
(3) (4)
81 3
175. A small sphere of radius 'r' falls from rest in a
Answer ( 3 ) viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced
S o l . We know, due to viscous force. The rate of production of
heat when the sphere attains its terminal
max T  constant (Wien's law) velocity, is proportional to
So, max1 T1  max2 T2 (1) r3 (2) r4

(3) r5 (4) r2
3
 0 T  0 T
4 Answer ( 3 )
4 2
S o l . Power = 6 rVT iVT  6 rVT
 T  T
3
P  T 
4
4 256
4 VT  r 2
So, 2       
P1  T  3 81  Power  r 5
174. Two wires are made of the same material and
176. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and
have the same volume. The first wire has
normal pressure (1.013 × 105 Nm–2) requires
cross-sectional area A and the second wire
54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at
has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of
100°C. If the volume of the steam produced is
the first wire is increased by l on applying a
167.1 cc, the change in internal energy of the
force F, how much force is needed to stretch
sample, is
the socond wire by the same amount?
(1) 9 F (2) F (1) 104.3 J (2) 84.5 J
(3) 4 F (4) 6 F (3) 42.2 J (4) 208.7 J

35
S o l . Q = U + W 179. The kinetic energies of a planet in an

elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B
 54 × 4.18 = U + 1.013 × 105(167.1 × 10–6 – 0) and C are KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is
 U = 208.7 J the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC
at the position of the Sun S as shown in the
177. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its figure. Then
symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the
sphere is increased keeping its mass same. B
Which of the following physical quantities
would remain constant for the sphere? A C
S
(1) Angular velocity
(2) Angular momentum
(1) KA < KB < KC (2) KB > KA > KC
(3) Rotational kinetic energy
(3) KB < KA < KC (4) KA > KB > KC
(4) Moment of inertia
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . ex = 0 Sol. B
VC
perihelion
dL A C
So, 0 S
dt aphelion
VA
i.e. L = constant
So angular momentum remains constant. Point A is perihelion and C is aphelion.
178. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling So, VA > VB > VC

motion a body possesses translational kinetic So, KA > KB > KC
energy (K t ) as well as rotational kinetic
energy (K r ) simultaneously. The ratio 180. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller
Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is and the universal gravitational constant were
ten times larger in magnitude, which of the
(1) 7 : 10 (2) 2 : 5 following is not correct?
(3) 10 : 7 (4) 5 : 7 (1) Raindrops will fall faster
Answer ( 4 ) (2) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change
1 (3) Time period of a simple pendulum on the
S o l . Kt  mv 2
2 Earth would decrease
2 (4) Walking on the ground would become
1 1 1 1 2  v 
Kt  Kr  mv2  I2  mv2   mr 2   more difficult
2 2 2 25  r 
Answer ( 2 )
7
 mv2 S o l . If Universal Gravitational constant becomes
10
ten times, then G = 10 G
Kt 5 So, acceleration due to gravity increases.
So, 
Kt  Kr 7 i.e. (2) is wrong option.

36

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DATE : 06/05/2018 Test Booklet Code

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Cr3+ = [Ar] 3d3, Unpaired e–(n) = 3

Spin magnetic moment = 3(3  2)  15 BM

Fe3+ = [Ar] 3d5, Unpaired e–(n) = 5

Spin magnetic moment = 5(5  2)  35 BM

(2) MnO42– (1) Tetranuclear (2) Dinuclear

(3) MnO4– (3) Trinuclear (4) Mononuclear

(4) Cr2O72– Answer ( 4 )

3 9. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13

CO 10. Which of the following statements is not true

Hence, the correct option is (3). S o l . The structure of ClF3 is

following metals can be used to reduce F

12. In the reaction

The electrophile involved is (2) CH3 OH and I2

(1) Dichloromethyl cation CHCl2  

(3) Dichloromethyl anion CHCl2  

(4) Formyl cation CHO  

A and Y are respectively (4) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa

C2H5Cl Hence the correct option is (2)

So the correct option is (2) (2) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3

CH3 CCl3 CCl3

So, the correct option is (1) (3) H

(4) 3.0 (Zwitterion form)

26. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium Answer ( 2 )

–NH3 is m-directing, hence besides para

27. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the OH HC

 1 Ba2  (aq)  SO 24(aq)

(1) Low temperature and high pressure

On increasing pressure equilibrium shifts in a  X = 800 kJ/mole

Answer ( 1 ) 40. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic

= NA (4) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2

(3) A first-order reaction can catalyzed; a 1 0

S o l . According to Hund's Rule of maximum (3) Mg2X

S o l . Element (X) electronic configuration

c. Albumin (iii) Defence Answer ( 4 )

(3) Hypothalamus : production of S o l . Placenta releases human chorionic

S o l . Elephantiasis is caused by roundworm, 67. The similarity of bone structure in the

S o l . Tricuspid valves are AV valve present  It has no effect on Penicillium or the

S o l . a. Eutrophication iii. Nutrient S o l . Glycosuria denotes presence of glucose in the

(4) Presence of caudal styles (4) Formation of secretory vesicles

88. Identify the vertebrate group of animals (2) Barrel shaped

Martha Chase (4) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance

118. Select the correct match CO2 – Primary pollutant

(1) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid SO2 – Primary pollutant

(2) G. Mendel - Transformation 122. Niche is

Sol. • Endodermis have casparian strip on radial (3) Phellogen

(4) Deciduous angiosperms 130. Pneumatophores occur in

Answer (1) (1) Halophytes

 Alternaria (a genus of deuteromycetes) (1) Mustard

141. In Young's double slit experiment the Sol.

149. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin Sol. t = 0 a t=1 –a

work (W) required to bring them to rest, would

N = MSR + CSR × (Least count) – Zero error

(1) 8iˆ  4 ˆj  7kˆ (2) 7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ O

157. A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each, (20  0)

RB S o l . Due to heating, number of electron-hole pairs

de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de- (3) 2 : –1 (4) 1 : –1

S o l . Initial de-Broglie wavelength (4) 10

1 S o l . For isolated capacitor Q = Constant

v1 1 (3) 10 times greater (4) 5 times greater

Answer ( 4 ) 168. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a