IASbaba 2016 Compilation Xaam - in

IASbaba: Daily Prelims Quiz- Day 1
Q.1) Which of the following is the correct explanation with respect to Petrifaction?
a) Process of fossilisation in which dissolved minerals replace organic matter

b) Process of accumulation of toxic substances along the food chain
c) Process of removal of toxic substance through use of bacteria
d) Process of rearing earth worms.
Q.1) Solution (a)
Petrifaction is the process of fossilisation in which dissolved minerals replace organic

matter.
A 20 million year old fossilised tree was discovered on the outskirts of Himachal
Pradesh and saved from destruction.
It is said that the discovered fossils dated back to paleo flooding that was related to
global warming and glacial melt, resulting in floods.
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Q.2) Ecuador was in news because of the recent earthquake. Consider the following
statements with respect to Ecuador
1. Ecuador is a small islandoff the coast of Japan.

2. Ecuador which lies in close proximity to shifting boundary between tectonic platesis
more prone to such earthquakes.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Q.2) Solution (b)
Ecuador is a South American country situated close to equator.

The active tectonics of Ecuador is dominated by the effects of the subduction of the
Nazca Plate beneath the South American Plate. Ecuador lies within the Northern
Volcanic Zone where the subduction zone is moving at a rate of 7 cm/yr to the east-
northeast, significantly oblique to the trend of this segment of the Andes.
Click here to know more about the news.
Click here to know more about the Ecuador earthquake
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Q.3) Consider the following International institutions
1. International development association

2. International finance corporation
3. International centre for settlement of investment disputes
Which of the following is/are not the organs of World Bank Group?
a) 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) None of the above
Q.3) Solution (d)
The World Bank is an international financial institution that provides loans to

developing countries for capital programs.
It comprises two institutions: the International Bank for Reconstruction and
Development (IBRD), and the International Development Association (IDA).
The World Bank is a component of the World Bank Group, which is part of the
United Nations system.
The World Bank Group consists of
The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), established in
1945, which provides debt financing on the basis of sovereign guarantees;
The International Finance Corporation (IFC), established in 1956, which provides
various forms of financing without sovereign guarantees, primarily to the private
sector;
The International Development Association (IDA), established in 1960, which
provides concessional financing (interest-free loans or grants), usually with sovereign
guarantees;
The International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID), established
in 1965, which works with governments to reduce investment risk;
The Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA), established in 1988, which
provides insurance against certain types of risk, including political risk, primarily to
the private sector.
Click here to read the news.
Q.4) Consider the following statements with respect to recent development in India’s
Defence corporation:
1. Logistical exchange memorandum of agreement or (LEMOA) is a defence agreement
between India and Iran
2. According to LEMOA militaries of both the countries will share facilities for refuelling,
supplies and spares.
3. Communication Interoperability and Security Memorandum Agreement (CISMOA)
and the Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement for Geo-Spatial Cooperation
(BECA) have been signed with US.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) All of the above
Q.4) Solution (b)
Logistical exchange memorandum of agreement or (LEMOA) is a defence agreement

between India and USA. According to this agreement militaries of both the nations to
share facilities for refuelling, supplies and spares.
USA has similar arrangements with over 80 countries.
Agreements on CISMOA and BECA have not been signed yet.
Q.5) Recently Tara Bhagavati cult, a lesser known sect of Buddhism was in news. Consider
the following statements about this sect:
1. This cult belongs to Mahayana sect of Buddhism.

2. It was popular in Southern part of India.
Which of the above statements are correct:

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.5) Solution (b)
Tara Bhagwati is a part of Vajrayana sect of Buddhism.
Inscription related to Buddhism was found in Lakkundi, Karnataka, a place of

antiquarian interest with nearly 50 temples, 101 stepped wells and a large number
of inscriptions spread over the Chalukya, Kalachuri, Seuna and Hoysala periods.
The inscription, whose lower portion has been severed off, makes salutations to Lord
Buddha, ‘dhamma’, ‘sangha’ and Tara Bhagavati.
There are possibilities of the inscription speaking about donations to a Buddhist

monastery located at Lakkundi. Besides, it was among a handful of inscriptions
making specific reference to the Tara Bhagavati cult of the Vajrayana Buddhism
which was in vogue here till 12th century.
The period of this inscription could be assigned to the regime of Hoysala king
Veeraballala II (1173–1220 CE).
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IASbaba Daily Prelims Quiz: DAY 2
Q.1) Consider the following statements with respect to WPI.
1. Manufactured products have the highest weight among the basket of products used to
calculate WPI.
2. WPI is released weekly by NSSO.
3. Base year to calculate WPI is 2004-05.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All the above.
Q.1) Solution (c)
The WPI measures the price of a representative basket of wholesale goods. In India, this
basket is composed of three groups: Primary Articles (20.1% of total weight), Fuel and Power
(14.9%) and Manufactured Products (65%).
WPI numbers are typically measured weekly by Dept of Industrial policy and promotion -
Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Base year to calculate WPI – 2004-05.
Q.2) Consider the following statements with respect Koh-I-Noor Diamond.
1. Koh-I-Noor diamond also known as Mountain of Light was originally found near Guntur
region of Andhra Pradesh.
2. The diamond was handed over to British after second Anglo Sikh war in 1849.
3. Akbar the famous Mughal ruler studded Koh-I-Noor diamond to famous peacock throne.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q.2) Solution (a)
The Koh-i-Noor is a large, colourless diamond that was found near Guntur in Andhra
Pradesh. India, possibly in the 13th century.
It was first owned by the Kakatiya dynasty.
Shah Jahan the famous Mughal ruler studded Koh-I-Noor diamond to his famous peacock
throne.
The stone changed hands several times between various feuding factions in South Asia over
the next few hundred years, before ending up in the possession of Queen Victoria after the
British conquest of the Punjab in 1849.
Q.3) Recently three new of species of Mouse Lemurs was found by scientists. Consider the
following statements with respect to Lemurs
1. Mouse lemurs are small, nocturnal primates, which are found only in Madagascar.
2. According to IUCN red list Mouse Lemurs are threatened by extinction.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Q.3) Solution (c)
Mouse lemurs are small, nocturnal primates, which are found only in Madagascar — and
they all look very similar with their brown fur and large eyes.
According to the “Red List” of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
more than 100 known species of lemurs are threatened by extinction and represent the
world’s most endangered group of mammals, researchers have said.
Q.4) Consider the following statements with respect to Heat Waves.
1. A Heat Wave is a period of abnormally high temperatures, more than the normal maximum
temperature that occurs during the summer season only in North-Western parts of India.
2. As per IMD if the temperature of the station reaches 45 degree Celsius the condition of heat
waves is declared.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Q.4) Solution (b)
Heat wave condition occurs in different parts of India and north-western parts of India like
Telangana, Vidarba region, south MP etc.
A Heat Wave is a period of abnormally high temperatures, more than the normal maximum
temperature that occurs during the summer season in the North-Western parts of India.
Heat Waves typically occur between March and June, and in some rare cases even extend till
July. The extreme temperatures and resultant atmospheric conditions adversely affect
people living in these regions as they cause physiological stress, sometimes resulting in
death.
Following are the conditions for declaration of heat waves.
Heat Wave need not be considered till maximum temperature of a station reaches at least
40*C for Plains and at least 30*C for Hilly regions.
When normal maximum temperature of a station is less than or equal to 40*C Heat Wave
Departure from normal is 5*C to 6*C Severe Heat Wave Departure from normal is 7*C or
more.
When normal maximum temperature of a station is more than 40*C Heat Wave Departure
from normal is 4*C to 5*C Severe Heat Wave Departure from normal is 6*C or more.
When actual maximum temperature remains 45*C or more irrespective of normal maximum
temperature, heat waves should be declared. Higher daily peak temperatures and longer,
more intense heat waves are becomingly increasingly frequent globally due to climate
change. India too is feeling the impact of climate change in terms of increased instances of
heat waves which are more intense in nature with each passing year, and have a devastating
impact on human health thereby increasing the number of heat wave casualties.
Click here to know more about heat waves.
Q.5) Which of the following statements with respect to Thevar freedom fighter community is
correct?
1. They issued a proclamation on independence from British in 1801.

2. They are from south Indian state of Tamil Nadu.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Q.5) Solution (c)
Recently a short film was released on Thevar community.

They are a small community from south India who valiantly fought against British during
1700’s and 1800’s.
They issues a proclamation from british in 1801/.
To read the news click here
IASbaba Daily Prelims Quiz: Day 3
Q.1) Consider the following statements with respect to Regional comprehensive economic
agreement (RCEP)
1. Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) is a proposed free trade

agreement (FTA) between the ten member states of the (ASEAN) and the six states
with which ASEAN has existing FTAs.
2. India is not a proposed member country to the RCEP trade Bloc.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Q.1) Solution (a)
Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) is a proposed free trade

agreement (FTA) between the ten member states of the Association of Southeast Asian
Nations (ASEAN) (Brunei, Burma, (Myanmar), Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, the
Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam) and the six states with which ASEAN has existing
FTAs
Q.2) Consider the following statements with respect to Tiger conservation
1. Global Tiger Forum is the only inter-governmental body for tiger conservation.
2. Project tiger is the government of India efforts for Tiger conservation started in the
year 1972
3. CITES is an international agreement between governments aimed at ensuring that
international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants, including tigers, does
not threaten their survival.
Select the correct statement with respect to tiger conservation
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.2) Solution (d)
The Government of India started ‘Project Tiger’ in 1972 with a view to conserving the
animal. As part of this project nine core buffer areas for maintaining tiger population
were notified.
CITES is an international agreement between governments aimed at ensuring that

international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants, including tigers, does
not threaten their survival. India ratified this treaty in 1976.
Established in 1994, the Global Tiger Forum is the only inter-governmental body for
tiger conservation. Its membership includes seven tiger range countries: Bangladesh,
Bhutan, India, Cambodia, Myanmar, Nepal and Vietnam. International NGO
members consist of World Wildlife Fund, International Fund for Animal Welfare
(IFAW), and TRAFFIC. Several national NGOs from India and Nepal are also members.
Q.3) Consider the following statements with respect to Coral bleaching.
1. Coral bleaching is the loss of Zooxanthellae through loss of algal pigmentation.

2. Abnormal environmental conditions like increased or reduced sea water
temperature, increased sedimentation etc are believed to cause coral bleaching.
Select the incorrect statement from the codes given below
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Q.3) Solution (d)
Bleaching occurs when the conditions necessary to sustain the coral's zooxanthellae
cannot be maintained. Any environmental trigger that affects the coral's ability to
supply the zooxanthellae with nutrients for photosynthesis (carbon
dioxide, ammonium) will lead to expulsion.
This process is a "downward spiral", whereby the coral's failure to prevent the
division of zooxanthellae leads to ever-greater amounts of the photosynthesis-
derived carbon to be diverted into the algae rather than the coral. This makes the
energy balance required for the coral to continue sustaining its algae more fragile,
and hence the coral loses the ability to maintain its parasitic control on its
zooxanthellae.
Causes of coral bleaching
Increased (most commonly due to global warming), or reduced water temperature
oxygen starvation caused by an increase in zooplankton levels as a result
of overfishing
increased solar irradiance (photo synthetically active radiation and ultraviolet light)
changes in water chemistry (in particular acidification caused by CO2 pollution)
increased sedimentation (due to silt runoff)
bacterial infections
changes in salinity
herbicides

Click here to know more about coral bleaching.
Q.4) Consider the following statements with respect to IndArc:
1. IndArc is the country’s first moored-underwater observatory in the Antarctica.

2. IndArc observatory is developed by ESSO-National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean
Research (NCAOR) and the ESSO-National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT)
3. IndArc aims to understand the effects of polar climatic process and its influence on
Indian monsoon system.
Select the correct statement using the codes given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) All the above.
Q.4) Solution (b)
IndArc is the country’s first moored-underwater observatory in the Artic.

IndArc observatory is developed by ESSO-National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean
Research (NCAOR) and the ESSO-National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT)
Indian observatory is collecting the data that is expected to help scientists
understand the arctic climate process and its influence on the Indian monsoon
system.
ESSO-NCAOR has been continuously monitoring the Kongsfjorden since 2010 for
understanding response of the fjord to climate variability at different time scales.
The temperature and salinity profiles of the fjord, water column nutrients and
diversity of biota are being monitored at close spatio-temporal scales throughout the
spring-summer-fall seasons.
Q.5) Consider the following statements with respect to Adarsh Smarak scheme.
1. The scheme is spear headed by Ministry of culture and it aims to make monuments
tourist friendly by revamping the existing infrastructure.
2. At present 25 monuments are covered under this scheme
3. Recently Humayuns tomb was restored under this scheme.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3.
Q.5) Solution (d)
Minister of State for Culture and Tourism (I/C) and Civil Aviation unveiled the
restored 18 feet tall Finial at Humayun’s Tomb, New Delhi today as part of the
ongoing conservation effort under Adarsh Smarak scheme.
The salient features of the scheme are as under:
To make monument visitor friendly.

To upgrade/provide wash rooms, drinking water, signages, cafeteria and wi-fi facility
To provide Interpretation and audio-video centres
To streamline waste water and garbage disposal and rain water harvesting system
To make monument accessible to differently abled
To implement Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
Click here to know the list of 25 monuments covered under this scheme.
www.IASbaba daily quiz – Day 4
Q.1) Consider the following statements with respect to International yoga fest and Yoga
1. It is organised by Ministry of AYUSH to sensitize the masses regarding International

day of Yoga.
2. Yoga is one of the six schools of Hindu philosophy which developed in the begging of
the Christian era.
3. Charaka is considered as the father of Yoga.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.1) Solution (a)
The three days International Yoga Fest: A Curtain Raiser for International Day of
Yoga-2016 was inaugurated by the Minister of State for AYUSH to sensitize the
masses regarding the celebration of International Day of Yoga.
Yoga is one of the six schools of philosophy which developed during the beginning of
the Christian era others being Samkya, Nyaya, Vaisheshika,Mimamsa, Vedanta.
Patanjali is considered as the father of modern yoga.
Q.2) Recently Union Cabinet cleared amendments for the proposed Compensatory
Afforestation Fund Bill, 2015. Consider the following statements with respect to
Compensatory Afforestation Fund Bill, 2015
1. The legislation will ensure expeditious utilization of accumulated unspent amounts

available with the ad hoc Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and
Planning Authority (CAMPA).
2. The legislation will cover whole of India including the state of Jammu and Kashmir.
3. This bill comes under Ministry of Environment and forests.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.2) Solution (c)
The legislation will ensure expeditious utilization of accumulated unspent amounts

available with the ad hoc Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and
Planning Authority (CAMPA), which presently is of the order of Rs.40,000 crore, and
fresh accrual of compensatory levies and interest on accumulated unspent balance,
which will be of the order of approx. Rs. 6,000 crore per annum, in an efficient and
transparent manner.
The legislation will extend to the whole of India except the State of Jammu and
Kashmir.
Third statement is correct.
Q.3) Recently Uttarakhand High court sought clarification on imposition of president’s rule
in the state. Consider the following statements with respect to Emergency provisions.
1. State emergency can be proclaimed under the article 356 only.

2. The 44th constitutional amendment bought the president rule under the purview of
judicial review.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Q.3) Solution (b)
State emergency can be proclaimed under article 356 and 365 respectively
A 356 empowers president to issue proclamation, if he is satisfied that situation has
arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried in accordance with the
provisions of the constitution.
A 365 says that whenever a state fails to comply with or to give effect to any
direction from the centre, it will be lawful for the president to hold that situation has
arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried in accordance with
the provisions of the constitution.
The 38th amendment act of 1975 made the decision president on imposition of
president is final but however it was revoked during 44th amendment act of 1978,
implying that president rule is subjected to judicial review.
Q.4) Consider the following statements with respect to Press freedom Index report.
1. It is released by Reporters without borders (RSF).

2. Norwegian countries like Finland, Netherlands, and Norway occupy the top three
positions.
3. As per the report India is among the top ten countries to have highest press freedom.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.4) Solution (a)
The Press Freedom Index is an annual ranking of countries compiled and published
by Reporters without Borders based upon the organization's assessment of the
countries' press freedom records in the previous year. It reflects the degree of
freedom that journalists, news organizations, and netizens enjoy in each country,
and the efforts made by the authorities to respect and ensure respect for this
freedom
Three north European countries head the rankings. They are Finland (ranked 1st, the
position it has held since 2010), Netherlands (2nd, up 2 places) and Norway (3rd,
down 1).
India ranks an abysmally low at 133 among 180 countries.
Click here to read the news and click here to know more
Q.5) Recently the festival “Pooram” was in news. This famous festival is held in which of
the following state of India.
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Kerala
c) Assam
d) Jharkhand
Q.5) Solution (b)
Pooram pronounced is an annual festival, which is celebrated in temples dedicated

to goddesses Durga or Kali held especially in Valluvanadu area and other adjoining
parts of north-central Kerala (Present Palakkad, Thrissur and Malappuram districts)
after the summer harvest.
It was in news recently for parading injured elephants during the festival.
Click here to know the news.
IASbaba Daily quiz – Day 5
Q.1) Consider the following statements with respect to FDI and India.
1. India was ranked as the top investment destination beating China and USA as per the latest
report by financial times.
2. Investments in sectors that are under the automatic route require FIPB approval.
3. Currently 98 per cent FDI into India comes through automatic route.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3 only
Q.1) Solution (b)
In 2015, India was for the first time the leading country in the world for FDI, overtaking the
US (which had $59.6 billion of Greenfield (FDI) and China ($56.6 billion).
Of the top 10 destination states for FDI in 2015, India claims five places, with the top place
going to Gujarat, which attracted $12.4 billion. Maharashtra has been one of the strongest
performers across the years attracting $8.3 billion, respectively, in 2015.
Investments in sectors that are not under the automatic route require FIPB approval.
Currently nearly 98 per cent FDI into India comes through automatic route.
Q.2) Recently Obama sought cooperation of Gulf members to fight against ISIS at Gulf cooperation
council(GCC). Consider the following states with respect to Gulf cooperation council.
1. GCC is a regional intergovernmental political and economic union consisting of all Arab
states of the Persian Gulf, including Iraq.
2. USA is the only non-Gulf country to be the member of GCC.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Q.2) Solution (d)
GCC is a regional intergovernmental political and economic union consisting of all Arab
states of the Persian Gulf, except for Iraq. Its member states
are Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman,Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates.
Iraq is the only Arab country bordering the Persian Gulf that is not a member of the council.
The associate membership of Iraq was discontinued in 1990 after its invasion of Kuwait in
the Gulf War.
USA is not a member of the GCC.
Click here to read the news
Q.3) Consider the following statements with respect to Earth Day.
1. Earth Day is an annual event, on which day events worldwide are held to demonstrate
support for environmental protection.
2. “Trees for the Earth” is the theme of 2016 Earth day.
3. Earth hour is observed on all places on earth, this day by turning of the lights for one hour
from 830PM to 930PM local time.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3 only
Q.3) Solution (a)
Earth Day is an annual event, celebrated on April 22, on which day events worldwide are
held to demonstrate support for environmental protection. It was first celebrated in 1970,
and is now coordinated globally by the Earth Day Network, and celebrated in more than 193
countries each year.
Trees for the earth is the theme of 2016 world earth day.
Earth day is different from earth hour which is celebrated on March 19th every year.
Q.4) Consider the following statements with respect to Creutzfeldt–Jakob Disease
1. Creutzfeldt–Jakob is a degenerative neurological disorder that is incurable and invariably

fatal.
2. CJD is at times called a human form of mad cow disease (bovine spongiform encephalopathy
or BSE).
3. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) is caused by an abnormal infectious protein in the brain
called a prion.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3 only
Q.4) Solution (d)
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease and its variants belong to a broad group of human and animal
diseases known as transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSEs). The name derives
from the spongy holes, visible under a microscope, that develop in affected brain tissue.
The cause of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease and other TSEs appears to be abnormal versions of a
kind of protein called a prion. Normally these proteins are harmless. But when they're
misshapen, they become infectious and can harm normal biological processes.
The risk of CJD is low. The disease can't be transmitted through coughing or sneezing,
touching or sexual contact. The three ways it develops are:
Sporadically. Most people with classic CJD develop the disease for no apparent reason.
Termed spontaneous CJD or sporadic CJD, this type accounts for the majority of cases.
By inheritance. In the United States, about 5 to 10 percent of people with CJD have a family
history of the disease or test positive for a genetic mutation associated with CJD. This type is
referred to as familial CJD.
By contamination. A small number of people have developed CJD after being exposed to
infected human tissue during a medical procedure, such as a cornea or skin transplant. Also,
because standard sterilization methods do not destroy abnormal prions, a few people have
developed CJD after undergoing brain surgery with contaminated instruments.
Q.5) Consider the following statements with respect to pulse pricing.
1. Persuading traders to reduce their sales prices

2. Distributing imported pulses through PDS at subsidized prices
3. Stringent action against hoarders
4. Crop diversification
5. Expanding pulse area
Which of the following statements can be used as long term measures to reduce the pulse prices?
a) 1,2,3 only
b) 2,3,5 only
c) 4,5 only
d) 1,3,5
Q.5) Solution (c)

Crop Diversification, expanding pulse area, more R&D in improving new variety of seeds etc
are some of the long term measures that can be taken to improve the pulse production.
On the other hand stringent action against hoarders, distributing imported pulses through
PDA at subsidized prices, and persuading traders to reduce to pulse prices are some of the
long term measures that can be taken to increase the pulse availability.
IASbaba Daily Quiz – Day 6
Q.1) Recently a group of scientists discovered a new species of a Macaque in Arunachal Pradesh.
Consider the following statements with respect to Macaque
1. The Macaques are the most widespread primate genus, ranging from Japan to the Indian
subcontinent.
2. Macaques are the distant relatives of Langurs and Gibbons.
3. The famous lion tailed macaque is endemic to Western Ghats and is declared endangered as
per IUCN red list.
a) 1, 2, and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, and 2 only
Q.1) Solution (a)
Aside from humans (genus Homo), the macaques are the most widespread primate genus,
ranging from Japan to the Indian subcontinent.
Macaques, which are distant cousins of langurs and gibbons. Click here to know extensively
about Macaque.
Lion tailed Macaque is endemic to western Ghats. They are endangered and they mostly
avoid human presence and they do not live, feed or travel through plantations.
They live in southeast India in pockets of evergreen forests, called shoals, in the Western
Ghats range. Today they live only in mountain forests scattered across three Indian states.
Q.2) Recently Chief Justice of India made an appeal to central government to increase the number
of judges and also a suggestion to bring retired judges on temporary basis to fill the vacancies.
With respect to this consider the following statements
1. At any time CJI can appoint a retired judge of SC or HC on temporary basis.

2. Before appointing the retired judges the CJI must consult President on this regard.
3. Although the appointed judge has all the powers and privileges of SC judge he will not
otherwise be deemed to be judge of SC.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Q.2) Solution (d)
At any time CJI can appoint a retired judge of SC or HC on temporary basis. The consent of
the of the retired judge is also necessary for such appointment. However before appointing
the retired judges the CJI must consult president on this regard. Although the appointed
judge has all the powers and privileges of SC judge he will not otherwise be deemed to be
judge of SC. And such a judge is entitled to such allowances as the president may determine.
Q.3) The president of India recently witnessed celebrations of Khongjam day. Consider the
following statement with respect to Khongjam day.
1. Khongjam day marks the occasion of battle of Khongjam which was fought in the year 1891
between British and people of Manipur.
2. It is the last battle fought by the British on Indian soil.
3. With this battle Manipur became the last nation to come under British Empire.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2, and 3
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Q.3) Solution (b)
Khongjom was hallowed ground on which the last battle on Indian soil was fought in 1891
against British Imperialists.
Manipur became the last nation in the Indian Sub-continent to come under the British
Empire after the battle. The British annexation of princely states that began with the battle
of Plassey in 1757 ended with the battle of Khongjom.
Q.4) Recently Copper plate dating back to times of Harsha and Pulakesin 2 was found. Consider
the following statements with respect to Pulakesin 2.
1. Pulakesin 2 ruled from Chalukyan capital of Badami.

2. Pulakesin 2 defeated the army of Harsha in 618-619 AD.
3. The copper plate also shows that the ruler made lands grants known as Nivarthanas’ to
Brahmins (Vedic scholars).
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Q.4) Solution (d)
Pulakeshin, who ruled from the Chalukyan capital of Badami, challenged Harsha’s conquests.
The former had established himself as ‘lord paramount’ of the south, as Harsha had of the
north. Unwilling to tolerate the existence of a powerful rival in the south, Harsha had
marched from Kanauj with a huge force. Such was Pulakeshin’s efficiency in guarding the
passes of the Narmada that Harsha was compelled to accept the river as the demarcation
and retire from the battlefield after losing most of his elephant force.
It can be ascertained that pulakeshin defeated harsha in the winter of 618-619 AD.
The plate further records the grant of 50 ‘nivarthanas’ (a unit of land) by Pulakeshin from the
village Brahmana-Vataviya (in modern-day Paithan Taluka of Aurangabad) to a Vedic scholar,
Nagasharma.
Q.5) Recently CORPAT was in news. Consider the following statements with respect to CORPAT.
1. CORPAT, also known as coordinated patrol conducted between the navies of India and
Malaysia.
2. It was started in 2005 and is held every year.
Select the correct option
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Q.) Solution (d)

CORPAT is between India and Thailand.
The two navies of India and Thailand have been carrying out CORPATs along the
International Maritime Boundary Line (IMBL) twice a year since 2005, with the aim of
keeping this vital part of the Indian Ocean Region safe and secure for commercial shipping
and international trade.
www.IASbaba.com Daily Quiz – Day 7
Q.1) Recently elections to upper house of parliament were in news. Consider the following
statements with respect to Rajyasabha.
1. The fourth Schedule of the constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the RajyaSabha
to the states and union territories.
2. The representatives of states in the Rajyasabha are elected by the elected members of state
legislative assembly’s and municipalities.
3. The president nominates 15 members to the RajyaSabha from the people who have special
knowledge in the field of art, literature, science etc.
4. Elections to the members of Rajya Sabha are held by proportional representation by means
of List system.
Select the incorrect option
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2, 3, and 4 only
c) 1, 3, and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Q.1) Solution (b)
The fourth schedule of the constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the RajyaSabha
to the states and union territories. The representatives of states in the Rajyasabha are
elected by the elected members of state legislative assembly’s only. The president
nominates 12 members to the RajyaSabha from the people who have special knowledge in
the field of art, literature, science etc. Elections to the members of Rajya Sabha are held by
proportional representation by means of single transferable vote and not by list system.
Q.2) Recently “Superbugs” are in news. Consider the following statements with respect to Super
bugs.
1. A Superbug is also referred to as an Antibiotic resistant organism.

2. Smartphone’s, ATM’s, Door handles etc are some of the common places were superbugs are
found.
3. Recently a group of scientists have proposed a transparent coating for everyday items as
potential solution to protect against Superbugs.
Select the correct option.
a) 1, 2 and 3.
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1 and 2 only
Q.2) Solution (a)
A Superbug is also referred to as an Antibiotic resistant organism. It can be a bacteria,

protozoa, etc. Smartphone’s, ATM’s, Door handles, public places like swimming pools, TVs,
handrails, lifts, urinals, toilet seats, fridges, microwaves and ceramic floor or wall tiles, etc
are some of the common places were superbugs are found.
Recently researchers, including one of Indian-origin, have developed a transparent coating
for everyday items such as smart phones and door handles that may protect people against
deadly antibiotic-resistant bacteria, including MRSA and E coli.
Q.3) Recently India ratified Trade Facilitation Agreement of WTO. Consider the following
statements with respect to Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA).
1. TFA will bring simplification and enhanced transparency in cross border trade in goods.
2. TFA was concluded in recent WTO’s 2015 Nairobi ministerial conference.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Q.3) Solution (a)
India has formally ratified the WTO's trade facilitation agreement, which aims at easing
customs procedures to boost commerce. Commerce and Industry Minister Nirmala
Sitharaman said in Geneva last night that the move will supplement India's ongoing reforms
to bring in simplification and enhanced transparency in cross border trade in goods.
Ratifying the WTO's Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) will help India further boost
economic growth by reducing trade costs and supporting its integration into the global
economy.
TFA was concluded in WTO’s 2013 Bali ministerial conference.
Q.4) Recently the Participatory notes investment climbed new heights. Consider the following
statements with respect to P-notes.
1. P – Notes also known as Equity linked notes are derivative instruments issued by SEBI
registered FII to foreign investors.
2. P – Note holder enjoys partial voting rights in relation to security / shares referenced the FII.
3. P – Notes are highly safe and lucrative route to invest the unaccounted or even illegal money
in to Indian security market for huge profits.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3.
Q.4) Solution (c)
A Participatory Note (PN or P-Note) in the Indian context, in essence, is a derivative

instrument issued in foreign jurisdictions, by a SEBI registered Foreign Institutional Investor
(FII), against Indian securities – the Indian security instrument may be equity, debt,
derivatives or may even be an index. PNs are also known as Overseas Derivative
Instruments, Equity Linked Notes, Capped Return Notes, and Participating Return Notes, etc.
Reasons for the popularity of PNs
Restrictions on foreign investments.

The off-shore derivative market allows investors to gain exposure to the local shares without
incurring the time and costs involved in investing directly.
PNs also provide customized tools to manage risk, lower financing costs and enhance
portfolio yields.
PNs also offer an important hedging tool to a foreign investor already registered as an FII.
Potential investors, who would like to take direct Indian exposure in future, may make initial
investments through the PN route so as to get a flavor of future anticipated returns.
Further, trading in ODI/PNs gives an opportunity to offshore entities to have a commission
based business model.
And lastly, it was a highly ‘safe and lucrative route’ to invest the ‘unaccounted’, ‘even illegal’
money into the Indian security market for huge profits (during the booming market).
Experts even imagined that it may be allowing the ‘black money’ of India (stashed away from
India through ‘hawala’ kind of illegal channels and deposited in the tax havens of the world
in ‘Swiss Bank’ kind of financial institutions) to get invested back in the market! Again,
‘terrorist organisations’ might have been using this route, too.
Q.5) 102 villages have been electrified across the country during last week (from 18th to 24th April
2016) under Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojna (DDUGJY). Consider the following
statements with respect to DDUGJY
1. The scheme aims to electrify all unelectrified villages within 1000 days from the launch of
the programme.
2. The scheme is implemented by Ministry of power in close coordination with Ministry of
Rural development.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Q.5) Solution (a)
In view of the Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi’s address to nation, on Independence
Day, Government of India has decided to electrify remaining 18,452 unelectrified villages
within 1000 days i.e. by 01st May, 2018.
The project has been taken on mission mode and strategy for electrification consists of
squeezing the implementation schedule to 12 months and alsodividing village electrification
process in 12 Stage milestones with defined timelines for monitoring.
In order to expedite the progress further, a close monitoring is being done through Gram
Vidyut Abhiyanta (GVA).
The scheme is implemented by Ministry of power.
The scheme highlights
To provide electrification to all villages.

Feeder separation to ensure sufficient power to farmers and regular supply to other
consumers.
Improvement of Sub-transmission and distribution network to improve the quality and
reliability of the supply.
Metering to reduce the losses.
Q.1) Consider the following
1. Chernobyl is located in Belarus.

2. Uranium 235 was released in the environment causing a nuclear disaster in Chernobyl.
Select the correct option with respect to Chernobyl nuclear disaster.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Q.1) Solution (d)
Following are the radioactive substances released during the C nuclear disaster.
Radioactive substance half-life EBq
iodine-131 8.04 days 1.760
caesium-137 30 years 0.085
strontium-90 29.12 years 0.010
14.4 years
plutonium-241 (which decays into Americium-241)
430 years
Chernobyl is located in Ukrainian part of former USSR.

Recently Chernobyl nuclear disaster marked 30 year.
Q.2) Bedaquiline an effective drug used to treat which one of the following diseases:
a) Measles
b) MDR Tuberculosis
c) Diarrhoea
d) Malaria
Q.2) Solution (b)
Bedaquiline an effective drug used to treat MDR Tuberculosis.

1. Diabetes is a metabolic disease.

2. Frequent thirst, increased hunger are some of the symptoms of Diabetes.
3. There are only two types of Diabetes, i.e. – Type 1 and Type 2.
4. “Beat diabetes” is the theme 2016 World health day.
Select the correct option with respect to Diabetes
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.3) Solution (c)
Diabetes is metabolic (A metabolic disorder can happen when abnormal chemical reactions
in the body alter the normal metabolic process.) disease in which there are high blood
sugar levels over a prolonged period.
Symptoms of high blood sugar include frequent urination, increased thirst, and increased
hunger. If left untreated, diabetes can cause many complications.
There are basically three types of diabetes namely Type 1, Type 2 and Gestational diabetes
which is obtained during pregnancy.
Beat diabetes is the theme of 2016 World health day.
Q.4) Consider the following statements.
1. WIPO (World intellectual property organisation) is an independent organization dealing with

IPR issues.
2. TRIPS or Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights is an international agreement
administered by WIPO.
3. In India Dept. of Industrial policy and promotion is the nodal agency to deal with issues
relating to IPR, Patents, Copyrights etc
Select the correct option with respect to IPR
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Q.4) Solution (c)
WIPO (World intellectual property organisation) is one of the specialized agencies of UN.
TRIPS or Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights is an international agreement
administered by WTO.
Q.5) The menace of NPA is growing like never before. Consider the following statements with
respect to NPA.
1. As per the new norms if the Interest and or/Instalment or principal remains overdue for a
period of more than 3 months the loan is declared as NPA.
2. SARFAESI Act 2002 deals with cracking down on the wilful defaulters.
Select the incorrect option.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Q.5) Solution (a)
As per the new norms if the Interest and or/Instalment or principal remains overdue for a
period of more than 6 months the loan is declared as NPA.
SARFAESI Act 2002 deals with cracking down on the wilful defaulters.
Q.1) Consider the following statements
1. Depreciation of Rupee value against dollar.

2. Increase of FDI flowing in to India (Foreign direct investment).
3. Decrease in FII coming to India (Foreign institutional investors).
Which of the above following is/are the implications of US Fed reserve interest rate hike on
India?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All the above
Q.1) Solution (c)
Increases in interest rates have led to wide range of implications on stock market
and currency value.
Investors who seek better profits and stability tend to pull out their money from
developing countries and invest in developed markets. or vice versa.
There will be depreciation of rupee value against dollar if there is a hike.
1. The decision to determine whether the bill is Money bill or not is determined by
Speaker and his decision is final.
2. Article 178 deals with speaker and deputy speaker of state assembly.
3. The speaker presides over joint sessions of legislative assemblies.
Select the incorrect statement/s with respect to speaker of a legislative assembly.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Q.2) Solution (c)
Joint session of houses is only held at union level. There is no provision of holding
joint session at state level.
Article 178 deals with state legislative speaker and Article 93 deals with speaker of
Lok Sabha.
Q.3) There is a constant pressure on the government from various circles to revoke
controversial AFSPA. Consider the following statements with respect to Martial law and
AFSPA:
1. Article 33 empowers the parliament to restrict or abrogate fundamental rights of the

members of Armed forces.
2. The term martial which is defined in the constitution can be imposed only in specific
area of the country.
3. Declaration of martial law in the area results in the suspension of the writ of Habeas
corpus.
4. Till today AFSPA is in force in J&K and seven sister states of North east.
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.3) Solution (c)
The term martial is not defined in the constitution and it can be imposed only in
specific area of the country.
The Supreme Court held that declaration of martial law in the area does not result in
the suspension of the writ of Habeas corpus.
In May 2015 Tripura government withdrew the controversial Act. However till today
AFSPA is in force in J&K and all north eastern states except TRIPURA.
Q.4) Consider the following statements with respect to IRNSS (Indian regional navigational
satellite system)
1. It is a constellation of 7 satellites placed in Geo synchronous orbit.

2. Geo stationary is an orbit around the Earth with an orbital period of one sidereal
day.
3. It is launched using the GSLV launch vehicle
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
Q.4) Solution (d)
IRNSS is a constellation of seven satellites in which three are placed in geo stationary
and four are placed in geo synchronous orbits.
It is launched using PSLV C 31 launch vehicle.
Geo synchronous is an orbit around the Earth with an orbital period of one sidereal
day.
Q.5) Recently the production of sugarcane came down owing to the drought situation in
various parts of the country. Consider the following statements with respect to Sugarcane
crop.
1. Sugarcane basically is a tropical crop.

2. Frost is injurious to sugarcane.
3. India is the second largest sugarcane producing country in the world.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
Q.5) Solution (d)
Sugarcane is a tropical crop that requires warm and humid climate with temperature
20 to 30 degree Celsius.
Sugarcane requires proper climatic conditions for its growth.In the latter half,
temperature above 20°C combined with open sky helps in acquiring juice and its
thickening. Too heavy rainfall results in low sugar content and deficiency in rainfall
produces fibrous crop. Irrigation is required in areas receiving lesser rainfall than the
prescribed limit. Short cool dry winter season during ripening and harvesting is ideal.
Frost is detrimental to sugarcane. Therefore, it must be harvested before frost
season, if it is grown in northern parts of the country where winters are very cold
and frost is a common phenomenon. On the other hand, hot dry winds are also
inimical to sugarcane.
Q.1) “Corruption Perception Index” is a report released by which of the following
international institutions.
a) International monetary fund
b) Organisation for Economic cooperation and Development
c) Transparency international
d) United Nations development programme
Q.1) Solution (c)
• Transparency International (TI) has published the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) since
1995, annually ranking countries "by their perceived levels of corruption, as determined by
expert assessments and opinion surveys."
• The CPI generally defines corruption as "the misuse of public power for private benefit.
• Click here to read the news.
1. A privileged motion is a motion that is granted precedence over ordinary business because it
concerns matters of great importance or urgency.
2. A privileged motion is always debatable.
Select the correct answer with respect to Privilege motion
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Q.2) Solution (a)
• A privileged motion is a motion that is granted precedence over ordinary business because it
concerns matters of great importance or urgency.
• Privilege motions are not debatable, although in case of questions of privilege, the chair may
feel the need to elicit relevant facts from members.
Q.3) Recently President of India visited island nation of Papua New Guinea and signed various
MOU’s with the host country. Consider the following statements with respect to FIPIC (Forum
for India pacific islands cooperation)
1. FIPIC is a multinational grouping developed in 2012 for cooperation between India and
14 Pacific Islands nations.
2. The 2nd summit of FIPIC was held in Jaipur in the year Aug 2015.
3. Papa New Guinea is one of the founding members of FIPIC forum.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Q.3) Solution (c)
• FIPIC is a multinational grouping developed in 2014 for cooperation between India and
14 Pacific Islands nations.
• The first summit was held in Suva, Fiji in 2014 and the 2nd summit of FIPIC was held in
Jaipur in Aug 2015.
• Papa New Guinea is one of the founding member along with 14 Pacific Islands nations which
include Cook Islands, Fiji, Kiribati, Marshall Islands, Micronesia, Nauru, Niue,
Samoa, Solomon Islands, Palau, Papua New Guinea, Tonga, Tuvalu and Vanuatu. of FIPIC
forum.
Q.4) Consider the following statements with respect to DigiLocker
1. It is a government of India service to provide a secure dedicated personal electronic space for
storing the document of both resident and Non-resident Indians.
2. The DigiLocker was launched by the Department of Electronics & Information Technology
(DeitY) in February 2015.
3. The maximum allowed file in DigiLocker is 50 MB

a) 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.4) Solution (c)
• Digi locker is a government of India service to provide a secure dedicated personal electronic
space for storing the document to only resident Indians.
• The DigiLocker was launched by the Department of Electronics & Information Technology
(DeitY) in February 2015.
• The maximum allowed file in DigiLocker is 10 MB
• Click here to know more about DigiLocker.
1. Mango fruit which is endemic to south Asia is grown only in tropical and warm subtropical
areas of the world.
2. China is the largest producer of Mangoes in the world next to India.
Select the correct answer
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Q.5) Solution (c)
• Mangoes have been cultivated in South Asia for thousands of years and reached East Asia
between the fifth and fourth centuries BC. By the 10th century AD, cultivation had begun
in East Africa. The 14th-century Moroccan traveler Ibn Battuta reported it
at Mogadishu. Cultivation came later to Brazil, Bermuda, the West Indies, and Mexico, where
an appropriate climate allows its growth.
• The mango is now cultivated in most frost-free tropical and warmer subtropical climates;
almost half of the world's mangoes are cultivated in India alone, with the second-largest
source beingChina. Mangoes are also grown in Andalusia, Spain (mainly in Málaga provinc),
as its coastal subtropical climate is one of the few places in mainland Europe that permits the
growth of tropical plants and fruit trees. The Canary Islands are another notable Spanish
producer of the fruit. Other cultivators include North America (in South Florida and
California's Coachella Valley), South and Central America, the Caribbean, Hawai'i, south,
west, and central Africa, Australia, China, South Korea, Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Southeast
Asia. Though India is the largest producer of mangoes, it accounts for less than 1% of the
international mango trade; India consumes most of its own production.
• India is the largest producer of mangoes in the world. Next is china, Thailand, Indonesia
respectively.
• Click here to read the news

IASbaba Daily Prelims Quiz – Day 11
Q.1) Recently Indian foreign minister visited Iran and discussed the issues of mutual interest.
Consider the following statements with respect to Ashgabat Agreement.
1. Ashgabat agreement is aimed at creating an international transport and transit

corridor facilitating transportation of goods between Central Asia and the Persian Gulf.
2. The Ashgabat Agreement has Oman, Iran, Uzbekistan and India as founding members.
3. Ashgabat agreement will also synchronize with the International North–South Transport
Corridor for moving freight between India, Russia, Iran, Europe and Central Asia.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.1) Solution (b)
Ashgabat agreement is aimed at creating an international transport and transit

corridor facilitating transportation of goods between Central Asia and the Persian Gulf.
The Ashgabat Agreement has Oman, Iran, Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan as founding
members. Kazakhstan has also joined this arrangement subsequently. Accession to the
Agreement would enable India to utilise this existing transport and transit corridor to
facilitate trade and commercial interaction with the Eurasian region. Further, this would
synchronise with our efforts to implement the International North South Transport Corridor
(INSTC) for enhanced connectivity.
India is not the founding member.
INSTC
Q.2) Consider the following statements with respect to Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY)
1. The scheme aims at distribution of LED bulbs for BPL families free of cost.
2. The scheme is implemented by Ministry of Power.
Select the incorrect option.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Q.2) Solution (c)
The above scheme is the description of UJALA scheme

Click here to read about PMUY.
Q.3) 30 new species of spiders were discovered recently in Chinnar wild life sanctuary. Chinnar
wild life sanctuary is found in which of the following states.
a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Tamil Nadu
c) Puducherry
d) Kerala
Q.3) Solution (d)
It is found in Kerala.
Q.4) Indian army successfully participated in recent military exercise known as Red Flag. Consider
the following statements with respect to Red Flag.
1. Exercise Red Flag is an advanced aerial combat training exercise hosted by the US Air Force
at Eielson Air Force Base, Alaska.
2. The exercise is held between the Air force of USA, Germany and India.
3. It is held once in four years and India last time participated in 2012.
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Q.4) Solution (c)
Exercise Red Flag is an advanced aerial combat training exercise hosted by the US Air Force
at Nevada and at Alaska.
India last time participated in 2008. And India will be returning to this exercise in 2016 after
a gap of eight years.
Only countries considered friendly towards the United States take part in Red Flag exercises.
So far more than 30 countries have participating in different cycles of a year.
Under the aegis of the United States Air Force Warfare Centre (USAFWC) at Nellie, the Red
Flag exercises, conducted in four to six cycles a year. And not once in four years.
Click here
Q.5) The first Indian state to be declared “Open Defecation free” in urban areas is
a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Uttarakhand
c) Meghalaya
d) Tripura
Q.5) Solution (a)
Q.1) Which of the following can be the possible consequence/s of Wildfires to Humans and
environment.
1. Rapid heart rate, Shortness of breath in Humans

2. Glacier melting
3. Water pollution
a) 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
Q.1) Solution (d)
Inhalation of smoke from a wildfire can be a health hazard. Wildfire smoke is primarily
composed of carbon dioxide, water vapour, particulate matter, organic chemicals, nitrogen
oxides and other compounds. The principle health concern is the inhalation of particulate
matter and carbon monoxide.
The fine particles are more problematic because, when inhaled, they can be deposited deep
into the lungs, where they are absorbed into the bloodstream.
The illnesses most commonly with exposure to fine particle from wildfire smoke are
bronchitis, exacerbation of asthma or COPD, and pneumonia. Symptoms of these
complications include wheezing and shortness of breath and cardiovascular symptoms
include chest pain, rapid heart rate and fatigue.
Increases in temperature, melting of glaciers, Water pollution are some of the after effects
on environment.
Read this piece to know more.
Q.2) Consider the following statements with respect to Core Industries
1. There are 8 core industries and Fertilizers has the lowest weight among them.
2. Dept of Industrial policy and promotion is involved in the preparation of summary of core
industries.
3. The base year to calculate the index of core industries is 2011-12
a) 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.2) Solution (c)
The base year to calculate the index of core industries is 2004 – 05.
Click here and Click again to read the news
1. Champaner-Pavagadh
2. Somnath Temple
3. Mountain Railways-Kalka-Shimla
4. Rumtek Monastery
Select the UNESCO world heritage sites from the following
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Q.3) Solution (a)
Click here to know the list of world heritage sites in India.

The Kalka Shimla Himalayan railway was destroyed partially during recent forest fire
accidents in Uttarakhand.
Q.4) Recently Kalvari, newly manufactured defence equipment went in to the sea for the first
time. Consider the following with respect to “Kalvari”
1. ‘Kalvari’, is the first of the Scorpene class Destroyer.

2. This Destroyer was manufactured indigenously from scratch.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Q.4) Solution (c)
Kalvari is a first of the scorpene class submarine.

It is manufactured in collaboration with France.
Click here
Q.5) Recently the fossil remains of Rapetosaurus dinosaur was discovered in the island nation of
Madagascar. Consider the following statements with respect to Dinosaurs.
1. Dinosaurs were found in the Mesozoic era on the geological time scale of earth.
2. The discovered “Rapetosaurus” is one the smallest dinosaur’s species found so far by
Palaeontologists.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Q.5) Solution (a)
A fully grown Rapetosaurus could measure about 15 metres in length. It used to inhabit the
Madagascar islands about 70 million years ago.
The generic name Rapetosaurus itself stands for “giant lizard,” suggestive of the fact that it
was among the largest dinosaurs that walked the earth.
IASbaba Prelims Daily Quiz – Day 13
Q.1) Recently Actor Manoj Kumar was awarded Dada Sahib Phalke Award by President of
India. Consider the following statements with respect to Dada Sahib Phalke award.
1. It is India's highest award in cinema.

2. The award is decided by a committee set up under Ministry of Culture.
3. The award comprises Swarna Kamal medallion and cash prize of 10 lakhs.
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 2 only
Q.1) Solution (b)
The award is decided by the committee set up under Ministry of Information and
Broadcasting.
1. A person must be 35 years of age to be the member of RajyaSabha.

2. There is a procedure for removal of Member of Parliament in the Indian constitution.
3. Parliament can consider expelling the person who is arrested under preventive
detention.
a) 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.2) Solution (a)
Age – 30 years.
Parliament cannot consider expelling the person who is arrested under preventive
detention.
Click here
Under the Constitution, a person shall be disqualified for being elected as a member
of Parliament:
o if he holds any office of profit under the Union or state government (except
that of a minister or any other office exempted by Parliament).
o if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a court.
o if he is an un discharged insolvent.
o if he is not a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a
foreign state or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance to a foreign
state; and
o if he is so disqualified under any law made by Parliament.
Q.3) Coal India limited was in news recently for missing its production target. Consider
the following statements with respect to Coal and Coal India Limited.
1. Coal is the most dominant energy source (Around 66%) in India's energy scenario.
2. Coal India limited is a Navaratna Company.
3. Coal India limited is the single largest coal producer in the world.
Select the Incorrect option
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) 2 only
Q.3) Solution (c)
o Coal is the most dominant energy source in India's energy scenario.

o Coal meets around 52% of primary commercial energy needs in India against 29%
the world over.
o Around 66% of India's power generation is coal based.
o India is the 3rd largest coal producing country in the world after China and USA.
o Coal India is Maharatna Company
Q.4) Consider the following:
1. Sovereign
2. Integrity
3. Socialist
4. Fraternity
Which of the following keyword was not present in the original text of Preamble?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Q.4) Solution (b)
o The word socialist secular and integrity was added in the 42 nd amendment of Indian
constitution.
o Click here to read the news.
Q.5) Consider the following statements with respect to aquatic organisms.
1. These are active swimmers

2. They are relatively large and powerful as they have to overcome the water currents.
3. Their size range from 2mm to the largest organism, the blue whale.
The above description holds good for which of the following aquatic organisms
a) Neustons
b) Nektons
c) Benthos
d) Periphytons
Q.5) Solution (b)
Neustons are the unattached organisms which live at air water interface.
Periphytons are organisms which remain attached to stems and leaves of rooted
plants or substance emerging above the bottom mud such as sessile algae and their
associated group of plants.
Benthoses are organisms that are found living in the bottom of the water mass.
Q.1) Amur Falcons were recently spotted in Pench Tiger Reserve. Consider the following
with respect to Amur Falcons
1. Amur Falcons are native species of Siberia and North-eastern China.

2. Indian state of Nagaland is the breeding ground of Amur falcons.
3. The conservation status of Amur Falcons as per IUCN is “Least Concerned”
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.1) Solution (d)
Click here
Q.2) The phenomena of Animal Sacrifices have continued to haul even today. Consider the
following statements with respect to Later Vedic Religion?
1. Absence of sacrifices.
2. The concept of karma emerged
3. Rise of Upanishad thought
4. Emergence of new gods like Vishnu, Rudra, Prajapathi.
a) All of the above

b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2,3 and 4 only
Q.2) Solution (d)
During later Vedic age ,religion was characterised by the rise of new gods that came
in to prominence like -Vishnu, Rudra, Prajapati
The sacrifices become more elaborate and complex and gained pre eminence over
prayers. The simple character of Rig Vedic age was slowly disappearing.
Later Vedic age also marked by the rise of Upanishad thought, ie Concept of Brahma,
salvation by means of knowledge and realisation.
New philosophical concepts like Metempsychosis, Samsara, and karma emerged.
Click here
Q.3) Consider the following statement with respect to Solar Wind.
1. Solar wind is the energised plasma that spews from the Sun into the solar system at
a supersonic speed of 160 million km per hour.
2. The solar wind plasma is mostly made up electrons, protons and Neutrons.
3. The beautiful phenomena of Aurora are caused by the interaction of the solar
wind with the Earth’s magnetosphere.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
Q.3) Solution (b)
The solar wind is a stream of energized, charged particles, primarily electrons and
protons, flowing outward from the Sun, through the solar system at speeds as high
as 900 km/s and at a temperature of 1 million degrees (Celsius).
The solar wind plasma is mostly made up electrons and protons. The composition of
the solar wind is a mixture of materials found in the solar plasma, composed of
ionized hydrogen (electrons and protons) with an 8% component of helium (alpha
particles) and trace amounts of heavy ions and atomic nuclei: C, N, O, Ne, Mg, Si, S,
and Fe
Auroras are produced when the magnetosphere is sufficiently disturbed by the solar
wind that the trajectories of charged particles in both solar wind and magnetosphere
plasma, mainly in the form of electrons and protons, precipitate them into the upper
atmosphere (thermosphere/exosphere), where their energy is lost.
Q.4) Consider the following statements with respect to Radiation Sterilisation
1. Radiation Sterilisation is a cold process that uses gamma radiation for sterilisation of
Healthcare Products.
2. Radioisotopes such as Cobalt-60 are commonly used for radiation sterilisation.
Select the correct statement
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Q.4) Solution (c)
Radiation Sterilisation is a cold process that uses gamma radiation for sterilisation of
Healthcare Products.
Controlled gamma energy which is released by radioisotope such as Cobalt-60 is
used for sterilisation.
Cobalt-60 is most preferred radioisotope as it is readily available from single nuclear
reaction in reactor and also cost effective.
Click here
Q.5) Consider the following causes of the failure of revolt, 1857.
1. The eastern, southern and western parts of India remained more or less unaffected.
2. Modern educated Indians viewed this revolt as forward looking and disagreed that
British would usher an era of modernization.
3. The rebels represented diverse elements with common grievances and concepts of
current polities.
4. The lack of unity among Indians was unavoidable at this stage of Indian history.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) Only 1 & 2
b) Only 2 & 3
c) Only 1 & 4
d) All of the above
Q.5) Solution (c)
It is estimated that not more than one fourth of the total area and not more than
one tenth of the total population was affected.
The revolt was poorly organized with no co-ordination or central leadership. The
rebels represented diverse elements with differing elements with differing
grievances.
The modern educated Indians viewed this revolt as backward looking and
mistakenly hoped the British could usher in era of modernization.
Source: Revolt of 1857 Modern India Ncert.
IASbaba Prelims Daily quiz – Day 15
Q.1) Recently the efficacy regarding use of Homeopathy was in News. Consider the
following statements with respect to AYUSH or Naturally available medicines.
1. Unani was introduced to India by Greeks.

2. Homeopathy is not of Indian Origin
3. "Sowa-Rigpa" commonly known as Amchi system of medicine is one of the oldest,
Living and well documented medical tradition of the world
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Q.1) Solution (c)
Homeopathy was introduced to India by a German physician.

Unani was initially practised by Greeks but it came to India during the time Arabs.
Q.2) Exercise MALABAR is a joint military exercise between which of the following given
countries.
a) India, USA, and Indonesia

b) India, Japan and USA
c) Japan, India, and Sri Lanka
d) India, USA and France
Q.2) Solution (b)
India, Japan and USA

Click here
1. Assam rifles is the infantry regiment of Indian army.

2. Assam rifles is led by Indian Army officers who reports to Ministry of Home Affairs.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Q.3) Solution (b)
Assam rifles are the oldest paramilitary force of India. The infantry regiment of
Indian is known as Gorkha rifles.
However Assam rifles are led by Indian Army officers who reports to Ministry of
Home Affairs.
Q.4) The largest insect ever known to man was discovered recently in south china.
Consider the following statements with respect to Insects.
1. Insects belong to the phylum Arthropods.

2. Arthropods are characterized by their jointed limbs and cuticle made of chitin.
3. Arthropods do not have bilateral symmetry.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.4) Solution (a)
Arthropods do not have bilateral symmetry.
Q.5) Consider the following statements and point out which of our daily practices is/are
not sustainable
1. Use of organic fertilizers.

2. More reliance on conventional energy.
3. Use of public transport than using private vehicles.

4. Increasing carbon cover by planting trees.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All the above
Q.5) Solution (b)
Balancing the need to use resources and also conserve them for the future is called
sustainable development.
Increased use of conventional energy is not a sustainable practice
All other practices are sustainable
IASbaba Prelims Capsule – Day 16
Q.1) Recently Himalayan university helped scientists develop blight-resistant

pomegranate.Consider the following statements with respect to Pomegranate.
1. Pomegranate got originated in modern day Iran.

2. Pomegranate is a Gymnosperm.
3. Pomegranate grows well under semi-arid conditions and can be grown upto an altitude of
500 m.
Select the incorrect statement
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Q.1) Solution (c)
Pomegranate is an Angiosperm.Angiosperms are seed-producing plants; they are

distinguished from gymnosperms by characteristics including flowers, endosperm within the
seeds, and the production of fruits that contain the seeds.
Pomegranate got originated in modern day Iran.
Pomegranate grows well under semi-arid conditions and can be grown upto an altitude of
500 m. above m.s.l.. It thrives well under hot, dry summer and cold winter provided
irrigation facilities are available. The tree requires hot and dry climate during fruit
development and ripening. Pomegranate tree is deciduous in areas of low winter
temperature and an evergreen or partially deciduous in tropical and sub-tropical conditions.
It can tolerate frost to a considerable extent in dormant stage, but is injured at temperature
below - 110 C.
Q.2) Buddha Pornima is round the corner. Consider the following statements
1. Gauthama Buddha was born in Kundagram near Vaishali

2. He was born to Siddartha and Trishala in 6th century BC
3. Banyan tree in the life of Buddha refers to Nirvana
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Q.2) Solution (b)
He was born in Lumbini.

Siddartha and Trishala are parents of Mahavira. Buddha was born to Mahamaya and
Shuddodana.
Source Old ncert Jainism and Buddism.
Q.3) The conservation of river Yamuna was in news. Consider the following statements with
respect to River Yamuna.
1. Yamuna also known as Jamuna is the longest tributary of river Ganga.

2. Mathura, Agra, Allahabad, Patna are some of the cities present on the bank of river Yamuna.
3. It rises from Yamunotri Glacier in Himachal Pradesh.
Select the incorrect one
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.3) Solution (b)
Patna is not on the bank of river Yamuna.

It rises from Yamunotri Glacier in Uttarakhand.
Q.4) Consider the following statements with respect to SAIEVAC.
1. Thefull form of SAIEVAC is “South Asia Initiative to End Violence Against Children”
2. SAIEVAC is an intergovernmental regional body comprising of 8 SAARC countries plus
Myanmar.
3. SAIEVAC is one of the apex bodies of UNICEF in South Asia.
Select the correct one
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Q.4) Solution (a)
The full form of SAIEVAC is “South Asia Initiative to End Violence Against Children”
SAIEVAC is an intergovernmental regional body comprising of only 8 SAARC countries.
SAIEVAC is an apex body of SAARC.
Click here
Q.5) The 2016 edition of RIMPAC is on the cards next month. Consider the following statements
with respect to RIMPAC
1. RIMPAC is the world's largest international maritimewarfare exercisejointly hosted by USA

and China.
2. It is held once in two years.
3. India is a member of RIMPAC
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Q.5) Solution (c)
It is hosted only by USA Navy.

It is held once in two years.
India is a member.
Q.1) Asian development bank recently expressed its interest in enhancing its lending rate
to India. Consider the following statements with respect to Asian Development bank
1. Asian development bank is a regional bank consisting of members only from Asian
Region
2. It is headquartered at Manila, Philippines
3. The Global Financial stability report is not released by Asian Development Bank
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2, and 3
d) 2 only
Q.1) Solution (b)
Click here
Q.2) The 155th birth anniversary of Rabindranath Tagore is being celebrated all over India.
With respect to that consider the following
1. Rabindranath Tagore is the first Non-European to win the Nobel Prize in 1913
2. Gora is a work composed by Rabindranath Tagore.
3. Rabindranath Tagore founded Shantiniketan.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
Q.2) Solution (d)
Gitanjali, Gora, Ghare-Baire,Jana Gana Mana, Rabindra Sangeet, Amar Shonar

Bangla(other works) are some of the works composed by Rabindranath Tagore.
Click here
1. Badrinath
2. Dwarka
3. Tirupathi
4. Puri
5. Rameshwaram
Which of the above pilgrimage constitute the famous “Char Dham” Yatra
a) 1, 2, 4, 5 only
b) 2, 3, 4, 5 only
c) 1, 4, 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 only
Q.3) Solution (a)
Char Dham are the names of four pilgrimage sites in India that are widely revered by
Hindus. It comprises Badrinath, Dwarka, Puri and Rameswaram. It is considered highly
sacred by Hindus to visit Char Dham during one's lifetime. The Char Dham defined by
Adi Shankaracharya consists of three Vaishnavite and one Shaivite pilgrimages.
The other pilgrimages sites in the Indian state of Uttarakhand viz. Yamunotri, Gangotri,
Kedarnath, and Badrinath were known as Chota Char Dham to differentiate them from
the bigger circuit of Char Dham sites, but after the mid-20th century they have been
also referred to as the Char Dham.
The question may be confused by giving chota chardham pilgrimage sites in options.
So students are advised to remember all 8 chardham sites.
Q.4) The Birthday celebrations of Maharana Pratap was in news recently. Maharana Pratap
is associated with which of the following battle in the history of medieval India.
a) Battle of Haldighati
b) Battle of Chausa
c) Battle of Begram
d) Battle of Kanauj
Q.4) Solution (a)
Battle of Haldighati was fought between Akbar and Maharana Pratap Singh.
Q.5) Which of the following countries cannot be affected by tropical cyclones?
1. Philippines
2. Australia
3. Latvia
4. United Kingdom
5. Morocco
a) 1,3,5 only
b) 3,4,5 only
c) 2,4,5 only
d) 4 and 5 only
Q.5) Solution (b)
Latvia, Morocco, and United Kingdom come under Mediterranean climate.
1. Nathu La pass – Sikkim

2. Shipki La pass – Himachal Pradesh
3. Khardung La Pass – Jammu and Kashmir
Which of the above given passes are incorrectly matched
a) 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
Q.1) Solution (d)
Manasarovaryatra take place through Nathu la pass which connects Indian state of Sikkim
and Tibet.
Khardung La Pass is an important pass for supply of Army materials to Siachen glacier
present in Jammu and Kashmir.
Shipki La is a mountain pass and border post on the India-China border. The river Sutlej
enters India through this pass. It is present in the state of Himachal Pradesh.
Q.2) Pakistan recently opposed India and its G4 ally’s bid for Permanent seat at UN. Consider the
following statements with respect to G4 Nations.
1. India, Germany, Brazil and Japan constitute G4 members.

2. The primary aim of G4 is the Economic cooperation and a Permanent member seat on the
Security Council.
3. India is the only nuclear power state among G4 nations.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.2) Solution (c)
The primary objective of G4 is to only obtain permanent seat at UN Security Council.

Economic cooperation is of course present between the countries.
India is the only nuclear power among G4 nations.
1. Mosses
2. Ferns
3. Conifers
Which of the following group of plants does not belong to the category of Vascular plants?
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 3 only
Q.3) Solution (b)
Mosses belong to the category of Bryophytes. Which are nonvascular. Whereas club mosses
belong to the category of Vascular plants.
Ferns and conifers belong to the category of Vascular plants.
Click here
Q.4) The early arrival of monsoon this year is making headlines. Consider the following statements
1. La Nina is associated with cooler than average sea surface temperatures in the central and
eastern tropical Pacific Ocean.
2. Mild winters in southern Canada and the northern continental Europe are some of the
+veeffects of La Nina i
Select the correct option with respect to whether events happening around Pacific Ocean.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Q.4) Solution (a)
La Nina is associated with cooler than average sea surface temperatures in the central and
eastern tropical Pacific Ocean.
The second statement is true with respect to El Nino and not La Nina.
Mild winters in southern Canada and the northern continental Europe, Fewer hurricanes in
north Atlantic, Replenishment of water supplies in the south-western US, are some of the
positive effects of El Nino, at the same time the same El Nino causes huge negative impacts.
Click here
1. In India the percentage of Inland fishing grounds outnumber marine fishing grounds.
2. India is the largest producer of Inland fisheries in the world
3. West Bengal tops the list of leading fish producing states in India
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.5) Solution (a)
Andhra Pradesh is leading fish producer state in the country.

As per the recent statistics India stands third in the total fish production.
Click here
IASBABA Daily Prelims Quiz – Day 19
1. Terminating the sitting of parliament for an indefinite period is known as

Adjournment sine die
2. The power of adjournment sine die does not lie with president who otherwise
prorogue the house
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Q.1) solution (d)
The power of adjournment sine die lies with speaker of the house.
Q.2) Recently OECD (Organisation for economic cooperation and development) was in
news. Consider the following with respect to OECD
1. OECD was formed to assist Marshall Plan for reconstruction of Europe and other
countries after World War 2.
2. The head quarter of OECD is located in Paris.
3. India joined OECD in 2014
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Q.2) solution (b)
India is not the member of OECD. But is a member of various committees of OECD.
Q.3) The spread of Avian Influenza in south India is in news. Consider the following
statements with respect to Avian Influenza
1. It is a viral infection spread from bird to bird.

2. A particular strain of H5N1 virus is believed to cause avian influenza.
3. Human beings catch bird flu by close contact with birds or bird droppings.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Q.3) Solution (d)
Click here
Q.4) Consider the following statement with respect Kolleru Lake
1. It is located in Tamil Nadu

2. It is the biggest fresh water lake in Asia
3. It is one of the largest breeding and feeding ground for migratory birds in India
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 only
Q.4) Solution (b)
It is located in Andhra Pradesh

Click here
1. Teak
2. Sal
3. Rosewood
4. Chestnut
5. Birch
Which of the following trees grow in Tropical moist deciduous forests in India?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Q.5) Solution (d)
Moist deciduous forests are found throughout India except in the western and north
western regions. The trees are tall, have broad trunks, branching trunks, and roots to
hold them firmly to the ground
Rosewood, Sal, teak, Mango, bamboo are some of the common trees found in this
region.
1. A cloudburst is different from rain only in the amount of water that pours down on
the earth.
2. The India Meteorological Department (IMD) labels rainfall over 100 mm per hour as
cloudburst
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Q.1) Solution (c)
Click here
1. He started a highly influential English news paper known as “The Leader”

2. He founded Banaras Hindu University
3. He is also known “Mahamana”
Who among the given freedom fighters is the correct match of above description?
a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

b) Pandit Madam Mohan Malviya
c) Ishwar Chandra Vidya Sagar
d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Q.2) Solution (b)
Pandit Madam Mohan Malviya
Q.3) Consider the following statements with respect to Conference of Parties
1. It is organised by United Nations framework convention on climate change.

2. 2015 edition of COP was held in Nairobi Kenya.
3. It is conducted annually.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 only
Q.3) Solution (a)
The COP 21st edition was held in Paris.

The WTO ministerial conference was held in Nairobi Kenya.
The conference of parties meet annually and COP 21 negotiated the Paris
Agreement, a global agreement on the reduction of climate change, the text of
which represented a consensus of the representatives of the 196 parties attending it.
Q.4) GHGs are beneficial for the human existence as without it the earth would have been
cooler, and far too cold for life to exist. But few GHGs are generated only through
anthropogenic activities such as
1. Methane
2. Nitrous oxide
3. Sulfur hexafluoride
4. Perfluorocarbons
a) 2, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1 and 4 only
Q.4) Solution (c)
Click here
Q.5) Which among the following are favourable conditions for the formation and
intensification of tropical cyclones?
1. Large sea surface with temperature higher than 27° C;

2. Presence of the Coriollis force;
3. Small variations in the vertical wind speed;
4. A pre-existing weak low-pressure area
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Q.5) Solution (d)
1. A source of warm, moist air derived from tropical oceans with sea surface
temperatures normally in the region of, or in excess, of 27 °C;
2. Winds near the ocean surface blowing from different directions converging and
causing air to rise and storm clouds to form;
3. Winds which do not vary greatly with height - known as low wind shear. This allows
the storm clouds to rise vertically to high levels;
4. Sufficient distance from the equator to provide spin or twist.
5. Creation of low pressure area.
6. The Coriolis force caused by the rotation of the Earth helps the spin of this column of
rising air. The development of the surface depression causes an increase in the
strength of the trade winds. The spiralling winds accelerate inwards and upwards,
releasing heat and moisture.

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IASbaba: Daily Prelims Quiz- Day 1

a) Process of fossilisation in which dissolved minerals replace organic matter

Q.1) Solution (a)

Petrifaction is the process of fossilisation in which dissolved minerals replace organic

1. Ecuador is a small islandoff the coast of Japan.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Q.2) Solution (b)

Ecuador is a South American country situated close to equator.

Q.3) Consider the following International institutions

1. International development association

Q.3) Solution (d)

The World Bank is an international financial institution that provides loans to

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

d) All of the above

Q.4) Solution (b)

Logistical exchange memorandum of agreement or (LEMOA) is a defence agreement

1. This cult belongs to Mahayana sect of Buddhism.

Which of the above statements are correct:

Q.5) Solution (b)

Tara Bhagwati is a part of Vajrayana sect of Buddhism.

Inscription related to Buddhism was found in Lakkundi, Karnataka, a place of

There are possibilities of the inscription speaking about donations to a Buddhist

Q.1) Consider the following statements with respect to WPI.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Q.1) Solution (c)

Q.2) Consider the following statements with respect Koh-I-Noor Diamond.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Q.2) Solution (a)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Q.3) Solution (c)

Q.4) Consider the following statements with respect to Heat Waves.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Q.4) Solution (b)

Following are the conditions for declaration of heat waves.

1. They issued a proclamation on independence from British in 1801.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Q.5) Solution (c)

Recently a short film was released on Thevar community.

1. Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) is a proposed free trade

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Q.1) Solution (a)

Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) is a proposed free trade

Q.2) Consider the following statements with respect to Tiger conservation

Select the correct statement with respect to tiger conservation

Q.2) Solution (d)

CITES is an international agreement between governments aimed at ensuring that

Q.3) Consider the following statements with respect to Coral bleaching.

1. Coral bleaching is the loss of Zooxanthellae through loss of algal pigmentation.

Select the incorrect statement from the codes given below

Q.3) Solution (d)

Click here to read the news.

Q.4) Consider the following statements with respect to IndArc:

1. IndArc is the country’s first moored-underwater observatory in the Antarctica.

Select the correct statement using the codes given below

Q.4) Solution (b)

IndArc is the country’s first moored-underwater observatory in the Artic.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Q.5) Solution (d)

The salient features of the scheme are as under:

To make monument visitor friendly.

1. It is organised by Ministry of AYUSH to sensitize the masses regarding International

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Q.1) Solution (a)