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1
Code No: M0104
5. Discuss the various collections and handling techniques of solid wastes? [16]
1of 1
Set No. 2
Code No:M0104
2. a) What are the various gravity separators? What are the limitations of gravity
separators? [8]
b) Mention the general techniques of Gaseous Emission Control? [8]
1of 1
Set No. 3
Code No: M0104
3. a) What are the various adsorbents that are generally used in water treatment?
What is their utility? [8]
b) What is Ultra-filtration? What are its various applications in water and waste
water treatment? [8]
5. a) What are the various collection devices of solids wastes? Discuss their utility
and suitability ? [8]
b) What are the various sources of solids wastes? [8]
6. a) What are the guidelines to be followed in selecting site for land filling? [8]
b) Discuss the suitability of incineration for solid waste disposal? [8]
7. a) What are the various processes that generate hazardous wastes? [8]
b) What are the various methods of e-waste disposal? [8]
8. a) What are the air emission standards of thermal power plants? [8]
b) What are the salient features of Environment Act -1986? [8]
1of 1
Set No. 4
Code No:M0104
3. a) Explain the Ion Exchange process with the help of chemical reactions. [8]
b) Explain the role of adsorption in water and waste water treatment? [8]
1of 1
Code No: M0203/R05 Set No. 1
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
POWER SYSTEM OPERATION AND CONTROL
(Electrical & Electronic Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
?????
1. (a) The fuel cost of alternator is expressed as F= 0.12 Pg2 +20 Pg +40 Rs/MWhr
the capacity of alternator is 200MW calculate incremental fuel cost and fuel
cost when the alternator is loaded at 75% of its capacity.
(b) Discuss about the incremental fuel cost and production cost. [8+8]
2. A system consisting of two generating plants with fuel costs of
2
C1 = 0.05 PG1 + 20 PG1 + 1.5
2
and C2 = 0.075 PG2 + 22.5 PG2 + 1.6
The system is operating on economical dispatch with 100 MW of power generation
by each plant. The incremental transmission loss of plant-2 is 0.2. Find the penalty
factor of plant-1. [16]
3. Discuss about draw backs of first order gradient method of optimization problem.
[16]
4. A 210 MVA turbo alternator operator at 50 Hz, operates at 3000 rpm. A load of
75 MW is suddenly applied to the machine and the steam valves to the turbine
commence to open after 1 sec due to the time lag in the governor system. Assum-
ing inertia constant H= 5 kW- sec per kVA of generator capacity, calculate the
frequency to which the generator voltage drops before the steam flow commence
the increase to meet the new load. [16]
5. (a) With first order approximation explain the dynamic response of an isolated
power system for load frequency control.
(b) Two generating units rated for 250 MW and 400 MW have governor speed
regulations of 6.0 and 6.4 percent, respectively, from no load full load. They
are operating in parallel and share a load of 500 MW. Assuming the free
governor action, determine the load shared by each unit. [8+8]
6. (a) Explain the modeling of tie-line in a two area interconnected system.
(b) Two control areas connected by a tie line have the following characteristics.
Area 1: R=0.011 pu
D=0.85 pu
Base MVA=1000
Area 2: R=0.018 pu
D=0.95 pu
Base MVA=1000
A load change of 200 MW occurs in area 1. Determine the new steady state
frequency. Assume both areas were at nominal frequency 50 Hz. [8+8]
1 of 2
Code No: M0203/R05 Set No. 1
7. Discuss the importance of combined load frequency control and economic dispatch
control with a neat block diagram. [16]
8. Three supply points A, B and C are connected to a common bus bar D as depicted
in figure 8. Supply point A is maintained at a nominal voltage of 400 kV and is
connected to D through 400/132kV transformer and a 132 kV line of reactance
50 ohms. Supply point B is nominally at 132kV and is connected to D through
a 132 kV line of 50ohms reactance. supply point C is nominally at 400kV and
is connected to D by a 400/132 kV transformer and a 132 kV line of 100ohms
reactance. If at a particular load, the line voltage at D falls below its nominal value
by 5 kV, calculate the value of the reactive volt-ampere injection required at D to
re-establish the original voltage. [16]
Figure 8
?????
2 of 2
Code No: M0203/R05 Set No. 2
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
POWER SYSTEM OPERATION AND CONTROL
(Electrical & Electronic Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
?????
1. Derive optimum generation allocation of thermal plant when line losses neglected
and write an algorithm.
[8+8]
3. Describe the objective function is minimize the cost of generation of hydro thermal
scheduling. [16]
5. A single area consists of two generating units with the following characteristics.
The units are operating in parallel, sharing 900 MW at a nominal frequency. Unit
1 supplies 500 MW and unit 2 supplies 400 MW at 60 Hz. The load is increased
by 90 MW.
(a) Assume there is no frequency dependent load i,e., B=0. Find the steady state
frequency deviation and new generation on each unit.
(b) The load varies 1.5 % for every 1 % change in frequency i.e., B= 1.5. Find
the steady state frequency deviation and new generation on each unit. [8+8]
6. (a) Explain how the tie-line power deviation can be incorporated in two-area sys-
tem block diagram.
(b) What are the features of the dynamic response of a two area system for step
load disturbances? [8+8]
1 of 2
Code No: M0203/R05 Set No. 2
8. (a) Explain about the losses that occur due to VAR flow in power systems.
(b) Explain how the generators act as VAR sources in a power network. [8+8]
?????
2 of 2
Code No: M0203/R05 Set No. 3
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
POWER SYSTEM OPERATION AND CONTROL
(Electrical & Electronic Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
?????
1. Derive optimum generation allocation of thermal plant when line losses neglected
and write an algorithm.
[8+8]
3. Using dynamic programming method, how do you find the most economical com-
bination of the units to meet a particular load demand? [16]
6. Two areas are connected via an inter tie line. The load at 50 Hz, is 15000 MW in
area 1 and 35000 in area 2. Area 1 is importing 1500 MW from area 2. The load
damping constant in each area is B=1.0 and the regulation R=6 % for all units.
Area 1 has a spinning reserve of 800 MW spread over 4000 MW of generation
capacity and area 2 has a spinning reserve of 1000 MW spread over 10000 MW
generation. Determine the steady state frequency, generation and load of each area
and tie-line power for
7. Distinguish between load frequency control and economic dispatch control. [16]
1 of 2
Code No: M0203/R05 Set No. 3
8. (a) Write short notes on compensated and uncompensated transmission lines.
(b) Explain briefly about the shunt and series compensation of transmission sys-
tems. [8+8]
?????
2 of 2
Code No: M0203/R05 Set No. 4
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
POWER SYSTEM OPERATION AND CONTROL
(Electrical & Electronic Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
?????
dF1
1. The incremental fuel cost of two plants are given as dP 1
= 0.1P1 + 20 and
dF2
dP2
= 0.12P2 + 16 Rs/MWhr. The loads on each plant 20 ≤ P ≤ 125. Determine
the economic division of the load between two units for a total demand of 150 MW.
The losses are neglected the corresponding incremental fuel cost is? [16]
2. (a) Derive the conditions to be satisfied for economic operation of a loss less power
system.
(b) What is the objective in economic scheduling? [8+8]
4. A 2- pole, 50hz, 11 KV, turbo - generator has a rating of 60MW, Power factor of
0.85 lagging. Its rotor has a movement of inertia of 8800 kg - m2 . Calculate its
inertia constant in MJ / MVA and its momentum in MJ - s. /electrical degree.
[16]
5. With first order approximation explain the dynamic response of an isolated area
for load frequency control. [16]
Area-1: Speed regulation = 0.02 pu
Damping co-efficient = 0.8 pu
Rated MVA = 1500
6.
Area-2: Speed regulation = 0.025 pu
Damping co-efficient = 0.9 pu
Rated MVA = 500
Determine the steady state frequency change and the changed frequency following
a load change of 120MW occurs in area-1. Also find the tie-line power flow change.
[16]
7. Describe how optimal control can be determined in case of load frequency control
problem. [16]
1 of 2
Code No: M0203/R05 Set No. 4
and maximum of nominal setting between transformer primary and secondary is
1.1. [16]
?????
2 of 2
Code No: N0303/R05 Set No. 1
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
MECHATRONICS
( Common to Mechanical Engineering and Production Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
?????
1. (a) Explain the steps that might be present in the sequential control of a dish
washer.
(b) Name any two PC based control systems and explain briefly. [8+8]
3. (a) Sketch the control of a single acting cylinder and control of a double-acting
cylinder.
(b) Draw the sketches of the following ball bearings and explain its importance:
i. angular contact
ii. filling slot . [8+8]
5. Discuss the principle of indirect vector control in the speed control of induction
motor. [16]
6. Discuss the salient features of the 8051 microcontroller. What are its areas of
applications? [16]
7. Explain the reasons why analog to digital and digital to analog converters are used
in input and output channels of a programmable and logic controller. [16]
8. Explain with a neat diagram construction and principle of operation of eddy current
proximity sensor. [16]
?????
1 of 1
Code No: N0303/R05 Set No. 2
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
MECHATRONICS
( Common to Mechanical Engineering and Production Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
?????
1. (a) Explain with the help of a block diagram, functioning of a mechatronics sys-
tem.
(b) Discuss the application of graphical interface in flexible manufacturing system.
[8+8]
2. (a) What are the different types of filters? Explain them with simple sketches.
(b) What are the advantages of using digital to analog converter? [12+6]
4. (a) What is brushless permanent magnet d.c. motor? Explain its characteristics.
(b) What is solenoid? Explain the working principle of solenoid. [8+8]
5. Explain the operation of induction motor drive with pulse width modulation tech-
nique. [16]
6. Write an assembly level program to add two 8-bit numbers located in two memory
location. Explain the algorithm also. [16]
8. What are the different types of robots? Explain each one briefly. List out their
applications. [16]
?????
1 of 1
Code No: N0303/R05 Set No. 3
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
MECHATRONICS
( Common to Mechanical Engineering and Production Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
?????
4. (a) What is Darlington pair? Explain the Darlington pair used as switching cir-
cuit.
(b) What is interfacing equipment? Why interfacing equipments are required?
[8+8]
6. Describe different types of the data transfer instructions in 8051. Explain the
difference between the MOV, MOVC and MOVX instructions. [16]
7. Discuss how the data is moved and compared in a shift register with the help of
ladder diagrams. [16]
8. Explain the principle of operation of capacitive proximity sensor with a neat dia-
gram. [16]
?????
1 of 1
Code No: N0303/R05 Set No. 4
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
MECHATRONICS
( Common to Mechanical Engineering and Production Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
?????
1. What is real time control system and graphical interface system? Discuss their
applications in the field of robotics and FMS. [16]
4. (a) What is the function of stepper motor? Explain the important characteristics
of stepper motor.
(b) Distinguish between bipolar transistors and mosfets. [8+8]
5. (a) Explain the principle of vector control with the help of phasor diagram.
(b) An ac induction motor is rated at 1175 rpm, 480V, 60 Hz 3-phase. If we reduce
the motor speed by reducing the line frequency to 25 Hz, what should be the
line voltage? [8+8]
6. Compare and contrast between Analog to Digital Converters (ADC) and Digital to
Analog Converters (DAC). [16]
8. What is the state of damping for the systems having the following transfer func-
tions?
2
(a) G(s) = (s2 −6s+16)
10
(b) G(s) = (s2 +s+100)
2s+1
(c) G(s) = (s2 +2s+1)
3s+20
(d) G(s) = (s2 +2s+20)
[16]
?????
1 of 1
Set No. 1
Code No: N0403
RADAR SYSTEMS
(Electronics & Communications Engineering)
Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any Five Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
*******
1. a) Derive the maximum range for a radar system from the basic principles.
b) What are the problems and limitations in the prediction of radar range? [8+8]
3. a) Draw the block diagram and explain the operation of a CW Radar with side band super
Heterodyne receiver
b) Discuss the limitations of simple CW Radar with zero IF [10+6]
4. a) With a neat sketch explain the measurement procedure for range and Doppler measurement
using FM- CW Radar.
b) What are the various measurement errors that occur in FM-CW Radar? [10+6]
5. a) Distinguish the principle of operation of a simple pulse Radar from a simple CW Radar
b) Mention the applications of MTI Radars [10+6]
ϭŽĨϭ
Code No: N0403 Set No. 2
IV B.Tech. I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
RADAR SYSTEMS
(Electronics & Communications Engineering)
Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any Five Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
*******
3. a) Compare the operation of Non zero IF receiver with zero IF receiver and mention its
advantages.
b) Determine the operating frequency if the target is moving with acceleration same as the
acceleration of gravity and the received signal bandwidth is 50Hz. [8+8]
4. a) With a neat block diagram explain how a CW Radar is used for the determination of
the relative velocity of a target.
b) Explain the method of measurement of distance by using multiple frequency CW Radar. [8+8]
5. a) A simple MTI delay line canceller is an example of time domain filter. Why? Explain.
b) Mention the advantages of time domain delay-line canceller as compared to the conventional
frequency domain filter. [8+8]
7. Explain the principle and characteristics of a matched filter. Derive the expression for its
frequency response function. [16]
8. a) Define the noise figure and obtain the expression for the noise figure for 3 networks in cascade.
b) Explain the functioning and characteristics of PPI display [10+6]
ϭŽĨϭ
Code No: N0403
Set No.3
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
RADAR SYSTEMS
(Electronics &Communications Engineering)
Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any Five Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
*******
3. a) What is Doppler effect? Explain in detail. What is its importance in Radar applications?
b) Explain the operation of Non Zero intermediate frequency receiver with a neat diagram.
[8+8]
4. a) Draw the block diagram of FM CW Radar and explain its operation with triangular
modulation
b) Differentiate CW and FM CW Radars [10+6]
ϭŽĨϭ
Set No.4
Code No: N0403
2. a)What do you mean by false alarm? Mention the design precautions to be taken to minimise
it.
b) Describe the different noise components present in Radar system. [8+8]
3. a) With a neat block diagram explain the principle of operation of CW Doppler Radar with
non zero IF receiver.
b) Briefly explain the applications of CW Radar [10+6]
4. Explain in detail.
a) FM-CW altimeter
b) Multiple frequency CW Radar [8+8]
5. a) Draw the block diagram of non-coherent MTI Radar and explain the function of each block
in detail.
b) What are the advantages of non-coherent MTI Radar? [10+6]
8. a) List out different types of displays used for radar applications and their characteristics.
b) Three network units each of 6dB noise figure and 10dB, 6dB and 3dB gains respectively are
cascaded. Determine the overall noise figure of the system. [8+8]
ϭŽĨϭ
Code No: N0502/R05 Set No. 1
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
SOFTWARE PROJECT MANAGEMENT
( Common to Computer Science & Engineering and Information
Technology)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
?????
4. Compare and contrast a model and a view with appropriate example. [16]
6. (a) What are the main features of the default organization of project organiza-
tions?
(b) Define stakeholder. Explain stakeholder environment. [6+10]
7. (a) Define architectural risk. Write process discriminators that result from differ-
ences in architectural risk.
(b) Define MTBF and maturity. Draw a graph for maturity expectation over a
healthy project’s life cycle. [8+8]
?????
1 of 1
Code No: N0502/R05 Set No. 2
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
SOFTWARE PROJECT MANAGEMENT
( Common to Computer Science & Engineering and Information
Technology)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
?????
1. How is environment, quality and personnel have an impact on software cost model?
[16]
6. (a) Define round-trip engineering. What is the primary reason for round-trip
engineering? Explain.
(b) What are the stakeholder environments? Explain. [8+8]
?????
1 of 1
Code No: N0502/R05 Set No. 3
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
SOFTWARE PROJECT MANAGEMENT
( Common to Computer Science & Engineering and Information
Technology)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
?????
2. How the assessment in performance is done and what are the influencing factors?
[16]
5. (a) Develop “context-free-questions” that you might ask a stakeholder during in-
ception.
(b) Write default agendas for the life-cycle architecture milestone. [8+8]
?????
1 of 1
Code No: N0502/R05 Set No. 4
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
SOFTWARE PROJECT MANAGEMENT
( Common to Computer Science & Engineering and Information
Technology)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
?????
1. Describe the predominant process used for the software cost estimation? [16]
2. Explain in detail the five basic parameters of the software cost model? [16]
3. Describe the two stages of the life cycle to active economies of scale and higher
returns on investment. [16]
6. (a) Give two reasons why the system version in an N-version system may fail in
a similar way.
(b) What are the three levels of process?
(c) Discuss about the prototyping environment. [6+6+4]
?????
1 of 1
Code No: M0804/R05 Set No. 1
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
CHEMICAL PROCESS EQUIPMENT DESIGN
(Chemical Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
?????
2. (a) Discuss the features of the storage vessels for the following:
i. Storage of non-volatile liquids
ii. Storage of gases
iii. Storage of volatile liquids.
(b) Explain the design procedure for a horizontal storage tank with saddle sup-
ports. [6+10]
3. (a) What are the various stresses in a pressure vessel subjected to combined load-
ing?
(b) A pressure vessel of 1.5m. in diameter subjected to combined loading operates
at an internal pressure of 12 kg/cm2 . The allowable stress of the material of
fabrication is 1000 kg/cm2 . Welded joint efficiency is 85%. Weight of the
vessel with all its contents is 6000 kg. Torque exerted over the vessel is 50kg
cm. Neglect the bending moment. Corrosion allowance of 2mm may be taken.
Calculate the various induced stresses and find whether it is higher than the
allowable stress of the material. [6+10]
1 of 2
Code No: M0804/R05 Set No. 1
flows on shell side. A dirt factor of 0.0004 m2 K/W is to be provided. Correction
factor for LMTD due to cross flow is 0.92A heat exchanger with a shell inside
diameter of 0.53m having tubes of 2.5 cm O.D and 2cm I.D The length of the tubes
is 4.8m. The bundle is arranged for four passes with baffles spaced at 12 cm apart.
Kerosene is allowed to flow on shell side. The tubes are arranged in square pitch 0f
3.2 cm. Find whether the heat exchanger is suitable for the purpose from thermal
design point of view.
DATA
Properties Kerosene Crude oil
Prandtl number 7.45 55
Specific heat (kJ /kgk) 2.52 2.0
Correlations:
Tub side: hD
k
= 0.023 (Re)0.8 (Pr)1/3
0.55
ho De
Shell side: k = 0.36 De Gs
µ
(Pr)0.33 . [16]
5. Discuss the effect of Boiling point elevation, liquid head and friction on temperature
drop on the design of evaporator. [16]
6. The absorption of water in sulfuric acid is an exothermic process. Describe the effect
this would have on the required height of a mass-transfer column as compared to
the height that is evaluated if isothermal conditions are assumed. [16]
8. The output from a crystallizer is a 10% by volume slurry of crystals which have a
density of 2.2 g/cm3 . The acceptable crystal loss from the centrifuge is such that
it is necessary to retain a crystal size of 40µ. Obtain an estimate of the cost of the
most suitable type of centrifuge. The efficiency of centrifuge is 60%. [16]
?????
2 of 2
Code No: M0804/R05 Set No. 2
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
CHEMICAL PROCESS EQUIPMENT DESIGN
(Chemical Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
?????
2. (a) Discuss briefly the most commonly used theories of failure for components
subjected to combined stresses i.e., normal and shear stresses
(b) Write short notes on the following techniques used to make compound vessels
i. Shrink fitted cylinders
ii. Multilayer vessels
iii. Wound vessels
iv. Autofrettage. [8+8]
4. (a) A double pipe heat exchanger is used to heat 1000 kg/h of oil from 30 0 C to
40 0 C using hot water at 90 0 Cin counter current flow. The hot water flows at
1 of 2
Code No: M0804/R05 Set No. 2
a velocity of 2500 m/h through the annulus of the heat exchanger. The outer
diameter of the inner pipe is 2.5cm and the inside diameter of outer pipe in
4.0 cm. The wall thickness of the inner pipe is 2mm. Neglect wall and scale
resistances. Calculate the length of the heat exchanger.
DATA:
Properties Water Oil
Cp (kJ/kgK) 4.2 1.9
K (W/mK) 0.7 0.14
ρ (kg/m3 ) 1000 850
-6
2
ν (m /s) 0.4× 10 0.7 × 10 - 5
Heat Transfer coefficients may be calculated using the equation appropriately.
N u = 0.023 (N Re )0.8 (Npr )1/3
(b) Explain the salient features of the following heat exchangers with respect to
their construction and limitations.
i. Double pipe heat exchangers
ii. 1-1 Pass shell and tube heat exchanger. [10+6]
7. Under appropriate conditions acetaldehyde vapor reacts to give methane and car-
bon monoxide by the reaction,
CH3 CHO → CH3 + CO
0.1kg / sec of acetaldehyde vapor is to be decomposed at 520 0 C and 1 atm, in
a tubular reactor. The reaction is irreversible and second order with respect to
acetaldehyde. Value of rate constant, K= 0.43m3 /kg mole sec. What will be the
volume of the reactor for 35% and 90% decomposition of acetaldehyde? [16]
?????
2 of 2
Code No: M0804/R05 Set No. 3
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
CHEMICAL PROCESS EQUIPMENT DESIGN
(Chemical Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
?????
1. The Process description for manufacture of Methyl Ethyl Ketone (MEK) by de-
hydrogenation of 2-butanol in a reactor is given below. The capacity of the plant
is 25 t /day. Draw the flow sheet from the description indicating all the available
information clearly.
The Conversion in the reactor is 85 percent. The reaction produces one mole of
MEK and one mole of hydrogen per mole of 2-butanol. The reactors off gases are
cooled in a condenser where 84 percent of the MEK and 90 percent of alcohol are
condensed. The hydrogen is non condensable. The condensate is sent to an ab-
sorber where 95 percent of MEK and alcohol are absorbed giving 10 percent w/w
solution. The solution from the absorber is sent to an extraction column in which
the solution is extracted by trichloroethylene. The extract contains 20 percent w/w
MEK. A small amount of butanol and water is fed to a distillation column. The
distillation column separates MEK and alcohol from trichloroethylene. The solvent
containing a trace of MEK and water is recycled to the extraction column.
The product containing MEK and alcohol is sent to another distillation column
which produces pure MEK product. The residue from this column containing most
of the un reacted 2-butanol is recycled to the reactor. [16]
2. (a) Discuss the features of the storage vessels for the following:
i. Storage of non-volatile liquids
ii. Storage of gases
iii. Storage of volatile liquids.
(b) Explain the design procedure for a horizontal storage tank with saddle sup-
ports. [6+10]
3. (a) Derive the equation for optimum ratio of dimensions (i.e., length to diameter)
of pressure vessel from the following data
Volume of the pressure vessel = V
Length of the vessel = L
Diameter of vessel = D
Corrosion allowance = C
Internal pressure = p
Joint efficiency = J
Thickness of vessel = t
(b) A Pressure vessel is required to have a capacity of 35m3 . The vessel operates
at a pressure of 4kg /cm2 . The material of construction has a permissible
stress of 1050 kg/cm2 . Welded joint efficiency is 85%. Corrosion allowance is
2mm. Estimate the optimum dimensions of the vessel. [6+10]
1 of 3
Code No: M0804/R05 Set No. 3
4. (a) Pull through heat exchangers
(b) Floating heat exchanges
(c) U-tube heat exchages.
A shell and tube 1-4 pass heat exchanger is required to cool kerosene at the rate of
20,000 kg /h from 2000 C to 950 C using a crude oil, at an initial temperature of
350C in counter current flow. The flow rate of crude oil is 68000 kg/h. Kerosene
flows on shell side. A dirt factor of 0.0004 m2 K/W is to be provided. Correction
factor for LMTD due to cross flow is 0.92A heat exchanger with a shell inside
diameter of 0.53m having tubes of 2.5 cm O.D and 2cm I.D The length of the tubes
is 4.8m. The bundle is arranged for four passes with baffles spaced at 12 cm apart.
Kerosene is allowed to flow on shell side. The tubes are arranged in square pitch 0f
3.2 cm. Find whether the heat exchanger is suitable for the purpose from thermal
design point of view.
DATA
Properties Kerosene Crude oil
Prandtl number 7.45 55
Specific heat (kJ /kgk) 2.52 2.0
Correlations:
Tub side: hDk
= 0.023 (Re)0.8 (Pr)1/3
0.55
Shell side: hokDe = 0.36 DeµGs (Pr)0.33 . [16]
6. The absorption of water in sulfuric acid is an exothermic process. Describe the effect
this would have on the required height of a mass-transfer column as compared to
the height that is evaluated if isothermal conditions are assumed. [16]
Temperature 0 C 10 15 25 40
K, min−1 0.0567 0.0806 0.158 0.38
The inlet composition is 0.68 kg mol per gallon and the feed rate is 25 gallon per
minute, the vessels are all of same size and the desired conversion is 95%. Calculate:
8. (a) Write the classification of centrifuges according to the mechanism used for
solid separation.
(b) Explain Tubular bowl centrifuge with a neat diagram. [8+8]
2 of 3
Code No: M0804/R05 Set No. 3
?????
3 of 3
Code No: M0804/R05 Set No. 4
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
CHEMICAL PROCESS EQUIPMENT DESIGN
(Chemical Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
?????
1 of 2
Code No: M0804/R05 Set No. 4
6. Ammonia is to be absorbed from air mixture at 293 K and 1.013 × 105 Pa pressure
in a counter current packed tower, using water at 293 K as the absorbent. An inlet
gas rate of 1.21 × 10 - 2 m3 /s and ammonia - free water rate of 9.46 × 10 - 3 kg/s
will be used. If the ammonia, NH3 , concentration is reduced from 3.52 to 1.24%
by volume, determine the ratio of (Ls/Gs) actual/(Ls/Gs)min Equilibrium data for
the system at 293 K and 1.013 × 105 Pa are as follows: [16]
X moleN H3
moleH2 O
0.00 0.0164 0.0352 0.0349 0.0445 0.0722
moleN H3
X mole·air 0.00 0.021 0.032 0.042 0.053 0.080
Time, min 0 2 4 5 6 7 8 10 12 14
V /Vo 1.00 1.35 1.58 1.66 1.72 1.78 1.82 1.88 1.92 1.95
8. The output from a crystallizer is a 10% by volume slurry of crystals which have a
density of 2.2 g/cm3 . The acceptable crystal loss from the centrifuge is such that
it is necessary to retain a crystal size of 40µ. Obtain an estimate of the cost of the
most suitable type of centrifuge. The efficiency of centrifuge is 60%. [16]
?????
2 of 2
Code No: N1004/R05 Set No. 1
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
ARTIFICIAL NEURAL NETWORKS
( Common to Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering, Bio-Medical
Engineering and Electronics & Telematics)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
?????
2. (a) Show that the McCulloch-Pitts formal model of a neuron may be approximated
by a sigmoid neuron.
(b) What is Hebbian learning rule for training the neural networks? Explain with
the help of an example. [8+8]
3. (a) Derive the weight update equation for discrete Perceptron and write its sum-
mary algorithm.
(b) Explain the limitations of backpropagation learning. Also explain the scope
to over come these limitations. [8+8]
4. (a) Explain the architecture and training method of self-organizing map network.
(b) Explain the Grossberg layer training algorithm. [8+8]
7. Draw the architecture of a BAM network and discuss in detail the training Algo-
rithm. [16]
8. Explain how multilayer feedforward neural network can be used for character recog-
nition. Use a sample of 7×10 pixel matrix for the recognition of letter ‘A’. [16]
?????
1 of 1
Code No: N1004/R05 Set No. 2
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
ARTIFICIAL NEURAL NETWORKS
( Common to Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering, Bio-Medical
Engineering and Electronics & Telematics)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
?????
1. (a) Explain the biological prototype of neuron. Also explain the characteristics of
neuron.
(b) List and explain the various activation functions used in modeling of artificial
neuron. Also explain their suitability with respect to applications. [8+8]
[8+8]
3. Derive the weight update equations for a multilayer feed forward neural network
and explain the effect of learning rate, and momentum term on weight update
equations. [16]
5. With a neat sketch explain and discuss full counter propagation algorithm. [16]
6. (a) Define and explain energy (Lyapunov) function of Hopfield Neural Network.
(b) Discuss storage capacity and energy function of the Hopfield network. [8+8]
7. Explain the function of ART network and explain its operation with relevant Equa-
tions. [16]
8. Give the statement of optimization problem with equality constraints and explain
how it can be solved using Hopfield neural network. [16]
?????
1 of 1
Code No: N1004/R05 Set No. 3
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
ARTIFICIAL NEURAL NETWORKS
( Common to Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering, Bio-Medical
Engineering and Electronics & Telematics)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
?????
2. (a) Given are a set of input training vectors and initial weight vector. The learning
constant is assumed to be 0.1. The desired responses for X1 , X2 and X3 are
d1 =-1, d2 =-1 and d3 =1 respectively for a bipolar binary case. X1 =[1, 2 ,0,
1]T , X2 = [0, 1.5, -0.5, -1.0]T and X3 = [-1, 1, 0.5, -1]T . W0 = [1,-1,0, 0.5]T .
With the Perceptron learning rule evaluate weight vector after completion of
one cycle of training.
(b) Explain the memory based learning rule and also explain its limitations.
[8+8]
4. Explain the architectures of popular self-organizing maps. Derive the training al-
gorithm of Kohonen network. Also explain how SOMs can be used for data com-
pression. [16]
5. What are Kohonen’s self organizing maps? Explain the architecture and the train-
ing algorithm used for Kohonen’s SOMs. [16]
6. (a) Distinguish between static neural networks and dynamic neural networks with
examples.
(b) Explain applications of Hopfield networks and mention its limitations. [8+8]
7. Illustrate with a neat Figure, the two basic units of ART network. Prove BAM
stability theorem. [10+6]
8. (a) Explain the steps in the solution of a general optimization problem by a neural
network.
(b) How an optimization problem formulated for solution using a neural network
model.
[8+8]
1 of 2
Code No: N1004/R05 Set No. 3
?????
2 of 2
Code No: N1004/R05 Set No. 4
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
ARTIFICIAL NEURAL NETWORKS
( Common to Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering, Bio-Medical
Engineering and Electronics & Telematics)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
?????
?????
1 of 1
Set No. 1
Code No: N1003
3. For the sampled data control system shown in below in figure find the response c(k) for r(t) =
unit step
dсϭƐĞĐ
ƌ;ƚͿ e(t) ZOH C (t)
1
- e(k) ( s + 1)
1of 2
Code No: N1003 Set No. 1
7. A block diagram of a digital control system is shown in figure below. Design a PID control
D(z), to eliminate the steady state error due to a step input and simultaneously realizing a
good transient response and ramp error constant kv should be equal to 5.
T = 0.1sec y(t)
r(t)
D(z) ZOH ͳͲ
ሺ ݏ ͳሻሺ ݏ ͳʹሻ
-
8. a) Explain the design the of full order state observer with neat block diagram
b) Prove ackermann’s formula for the determination of the state feedback gain matrix K
2of 2
Set No. 2
Code No: N1003
Ͳ Ě;<dͿ Ś
H(s)
ϭŽĨϮ
Code No: N1003 Set No. 2
T
r(t) C(t)
ZOH ͳͲ
- ݏሺ ݏ ͵ሻ
7. Derive the pulse transfer function of digital PID controller. Also explain design procedure of
PID controller.
ϮŽĨϮ
Code No: N1003 Set No. 3
3. For the sampled – data control system shown in figure below, find the output c(t) for
r(t)= unit step T=1sec
ƌ;ƚͿ e(t) Đ;ƚͿ
ZOH ͳ
ݏͳ
- e(k)
ͳ
ݏ
z 3 − 10 z 2 + 12 z − 6
4. A discrete time system has the transfer function F ( z ) =
( z − 1)2 ( z − 3)
Determine the state model of the system in
(a) Phase variable form
(b) Jordan canonical form
5. a) State and explain the controllability and observability in discrete data system
b) Consider a linear discrete – data control system, whose input and output relation is
described by the difference equation
y (k + 2) + 2 y (k + 1) + y (k ) = u (k + 1) + u (k ). Test the state controllable and output
Controllable
6. The block diagram representation of digital control system shown in figure below
T=1sec
r(t) ZoH ݇ c(t)
ݏሺ ݏ ͳሻ
-
Using Jury’s criterion, find the range of values of k for which the system is stable.
ϭŽĨϮ
Set No. 3
Code No: N1003
7. Consider the block diagram shown in figure below and design lead compensator Gc(z) in w-
plane for this system to meet the following specifications
(i) damping ratio =0.7
(ii) Settling time =1.4sec
(iii) Velocity error constant ,kv= 2 sec-1
T= 1sec
r(t) ݇ y
;njͿ K, ݏሺ ݏ ͳሻ
ϮŽĨϮ
Set No. 4
Code No: N1003
IV B.Tech. I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
DIGITAL CONTROL SYSTEMS
(Common to Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering and Electronics &Control Engineering)
Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any Five Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
*******
1. a) Illustrate the discrete data and digital control systems with microprocessor-controlled
systems.
b) Explain the weighted register digital to analog converter.
3. For the Sampled data system shown in figure below, find the response to unit step input.
T=1sec
r(t) ͳ C(t)
K,
ݏሺ ݏ ͳሻ
-
4. a) Mention the advantages of state variable representation of discrete data control systems.
b) Obtain the Jordan canonical state model of a discrete data system given that
Y ( z ) 4 z 3 − 12 z 2 + 13 z − 7
=
U ( z) ( z − 1) 2 ( z − 2)
5. a) Show that duality between controllability and observability in discrete data system.
b) Examine whether the discrete data system
x(k + 1) = A x(k ) + B u (k )
y ( x) = C x(k )
ª0 1º ª1º
Where A = « » , B = « » , C = [1 0] is
¬ −2 −2 ¼ ¬ −1¼
(i) State controllable
(ii) Output controllable
(iii) Observable
ϭŽĨϮ
Set No. 4
Code No: N1003
ϮŽĨϮ
Set No. 1
Code No. M2103
IV B.Tech. I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS AND DETAILED DESIGN
(Aeronautical Engineering)
Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any Five Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
*******
1. Tricycle of landing gear shown in Fig. Find the forces Gv, Fv, Hd, Fd, Hv of brace
struts. Assume the data if necessary. [16]
o m
. c
r ld
w o
j. n tu
w w
w
2. What is effective sheet thickness and effective area of stringer type of fuselage
section? Explain with the help of neat sketches. [16]
1of 3
Code No. M2103 Set No. 1
4. A Circular cylinder has radius (r) = 1250mm a length L = 1875mm and wall
thickness(t) = 1125mm. What compressive load will it carry? Using design values
based on 90% probability, 95% confidence level (for this case /E = 0.000121) and
99% probability , 95% confidence level ( for this case Fccr /E= 0.000082). Discuss
above two levels. Take ȝ = 0.3, E = 74 KN/mm2 and for curve r/t = 1000 [16]
5. (a) Explain the different types of structural measures that are used in air craft
structures.
(b) Explain different types of fuselage structures
(c) What are the monocoque and semi monocoque structures? Explain briefly with
suitable example. [6+5+5]
6. Find the shear centre for the wing section shown in figure. Web 3 has a thickness
1.6mm, and the other webs have thickness of 1mm. Assume G is constant for all cross-
sections. The cross section is symmetrical about a horizontal.
[16]
2of 3
Code No. M2103 Set No. 1
8. A steel ship deck plate G 2.5mm thick, 10m wide and 20m long (in the tensile stress
direction). It is loaded with a normal tensile stress of 50 MPa. It is operated below its
ductile to brittle transition temperature with KIC equal to 28.3Mpam1/2. If a 65mm long
central hole transverse crack is present, estimate tensile stress at which catastrophic
failure will occur. Compare thin stress with the yield strength of 240 Mpa for the steel.
[16]
3of 3
Code No. M2103 Set No. 2
IV B.Tech. I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS AND DETAILED DESIGN
(Aeronautical Engineering)
Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any Five Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
*******
1. (a) Explain the working procedure of oleo struct? Explain construction detail with neat
sketch.
(b) Explain design procedure for landing gear. [8+8]
2. A Fuselage has the circular cross-section as shown in figure . The cross-sectional area
of each stringer is 100mm2 and the fuselage is subjected to bending moment of 200
KNm applied in the vertical plane of Symmetry, at this section. Calculate the direct
stress distribution. [16]
1of 2
Code No. M2103 Set No. 2
6. Calculate the shear flows in the web panels and the axial loads in the flanger of the
wing rib shown in fig. Assume that the web of the rib is effective only in shear while
theresistance of the wing to bending moments is provided entirely by the three flanges
1, 2 and 3. [16]
7. Determine the shear flow distribution in the web of the tapered beam shown in the
figure below at a section midway along its length. The web of the beam has a thickness
of 2 mm and is fully effective in resisting direct stresses. The beam taper
symmetrically about its horizontal centroidal axis and the cross section area of each
flange is 400mm2. [16]
2of 2
Code No. M2103 Set No. 3
IV B.Tech. I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS AND DETAILED DESIGN
(Aeronautical Engineering)
Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any Five Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
*******
2. The thin- walled single cell beam has been idealized into combination of direct
Stress carrying booms and shear stressesaly carrying walls. If the section supports
a vertical shear bond of 10KN acting vertical plane through booms 3 and 6.
Calculate the distribution of shear flow around the section. Boom areas
B1=B8=200mm2, B2 =B7 =250mm2, B3=B6= 400 mm2 , B4 =B5 =100 mm2 as shown
in figure. [16]
4. a) Explain about buckling short cylinders, intermediate cylinders, long cylinders and
verylong cylinders.
b) Discuss buckling of monocoque circular cylinder under axial load and
internal pressure. [16]
5. A circular cylinder has a radius (r) =1250mm a length L = 1875mm and wall thickness
(t) = 1125mm. Find margin of safety(MS) using design curves values based on 90%
probability,95% confidence level( for this case Fccr / E = 0.000121) levels and also
calculate geometrical paramaeter (z) take µ = 0.3. Buckling Coefficient Kc = 280,
E = 74 KN/mm2 .The applied load P = 58KN applied torque (T) = 40.185KN-m and
allowabletorque(Ta)=77.3KNm [16]
1 of 2
Code No. M2103 Set No. 3
6. (a) Derive the approximate formula for semi-tension field beam
(b) A 50-by 2.4 mm steel tube is heat-treated to an ultimate tensile strength σtu = 1240
N/mm2.
(i) Find the margin of safety if the tube resists a design tension load of
22000N and a design bending moment of 3.3kN-m.
(ii) Find the margin of safety if the tube resists a bending moment of 3.3kN-m
and a torsional moment of 5.64kN-m.
τT
Assume ıB =1466N/mm2 and the ratio =0.58. [16]
σ tu
7. The cantilever beam shown in figure is uniformly tapered along its length in both X
andY directions and carries a load of 100k N at its free end. Calculate the forces in the
booms and shear flow distribution in the walls at a section 2m from the built in end if
the booms resist all the direct stresses while the walls are effective only in sheer
. Each corner boom has a cross-sectional area of 900 mm2 While both central booms
have cross sectional area of 1200 mm2. [16]
8. A plate of width 1.4 mm and length 2.8m is required to support tensile force in the
2.8m direction 5.0MN. Inspection procedure will only detect through thicken edge
cracks larger than 2.7mm. The two Ti-6Al- 4 V alloys in table are being considered
for this application, for which the safety factor must be 1.3 and minimum weight is
important. Which alloy should be used? [16]
2 of 2
Code No. M2103 Set No. 4
IV B.Tech. I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS AND DETAILED DESIGN
(Aeronautical Engineering)
Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any Five Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
*******
1. Calculate the forces (TE, CG, CGv, CGD, BI, BIv, BIS, ES, ED, EV ) on the oleo strut
shown in Figure 1. Assume the data if necessary. [16]
2. What is effective sheet thickness and effective area of stringer type of fuselage
section? Explain with the help of neat sketches. [16]
1 of 2
Code No. M2103 Set No. 4
5. Monocoque cylinder radius r = 1250mm thickness (t) = 1.25mm, length (l) =1875mm.
What torsional moment will this cylinder develop using design curves values based on
90% probability, 95% confidence level(for this case Fst / e = 0.000082) and 99%
probability 95% confidence level ( for this case Fst / E = 0.000060). Discuss above
two levels take µ = 0.3, E = 74 KN / mm2. [16]
6. Derive the general wagner equation for the tension field beam theory. [16]
7. A wing spar has the dimensions shown in figure , and carries a uniformly distributed
load of 15 kN/m along its complete length. Each flange has a cross-sectional area of
500 mm2 with the top flange being horizontal. If the flanges are assumed to resist al
direct loads while the spar web is effective only in shear, determine the flange loads
and the shear flows in the web at sections 1 and 2 m from the free end. [16]
2 of 2
Code No: M2304/R05 Set No. 1
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
DOWNSTREAM PROCESSING
(Bio-Technology)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
?????
3. What are different cell disintegration methods? Explain any one method with a
neat diagram. [16]
5. Write in detail about extraction using aqueous two phase systems. [16]
7. A protein sample isolated from a patient serum contains two types of proteins of
pI 4 and 5.6. Which type of chromatography is suitable for the separation of the
components, wite its principle and mode of operation. [16]
8. Discuss the principle of Electro dialysis. Write its role in the recovery of citric acid
by use of bipolar membrances.
[16]
?????
1 of 1
Code No: M2304/R05 Set No. 2
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
DOWNSTREAM PROCESSING
(Bio-Technology)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
?????
2. Discuss the steps involved the product isolation and purification of an intra cellular
enzyme. [16]
4. What are the modes of operation of filters and explain in detail about them. [16]
5. What are the commonly used tools and methods for ISPR (in situ product recovery)
[16]
6. Write about eletro osmotic flow and pressure induced flow in capillary electrophore-
sis. [16]
8. Write about the down stream processing techniques that are available for citric acid
recovery in the industry.
[16]
?????
1 of 1
Code No: M2304/R05 Set No. 3
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
DOWNSTREAM PROCESSING
(Bio-Technology)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
?????
1. Discuss about the Important steps involved in downstream processing for ethanol
production. [16]
2. (a) What are bio molecules? How they are characterized? Explain.
(b) Make a brief study of recent developments in product isolation. [16]
3. Explain the working principle and procedure of pressure leaf filters. [16]
5. (a) Write about the criteria used for selection of extraction equipment in antibiotic
industry.
(b) A compound X is to be extracted from a clarified fermentation beer by using
pure amyl acetate as solvent at pH 4.0. The distribution coefficient K of the
system was found to be 30. The initial concentration of compound x in the
feed is 400ml/L. The flow rates of the feed and solvent streams are 500L/H
and 30L/hr respectively. How many ideal stages are required to recover 90%
of X in the feed. [8+8]
6. Explain about different gel staining methods available for electrophoresis. [16]
7. (a) Write about the sample injection systems commonly used in gas chromatog-
raphy.
(b) Write about Gas Solid Chromatography. [16]
8. Discuss the advantage and disadvantage of foam based separation in the recovery
of products in biotech Industry.
[16]
?????
1 of 1
Code No: M2304/R05 Set No. 4
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2010
DOWNSTREAM PROCESSING
(Bio-Technology)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
?????
1. Discuss about the Important Steps involved in downstream processing for penicillin
production. [16]
2. What are the major steps involved in the product isolation and purification of citric
acid manufacturer? [16]
5. Write the principle and method for precipitation of proteins by salts. What are the
required precautions during the process for different biotechnological products?
[16]
7. (a) Describe the principle of gel filtration chromatography. How to determine the
molecular weight of an unknown compound by this chromatography. [16]
(b) A gel filtration resin has a molecular weight cut off of 1000kda 5kDa. Sample
A which is loaded to the column contains protein x(2,000,000Da), Protein
Y (5,00,000Da), Peptide T (3000Da), Protein z(80,000Da). Arrange them in
order of elution and give justification for the order. [16]
8. Write about the principle of dialysis. How it is different form ultra filtration. Write
the significance of dialysis in product recovery.
[16]
?????
1 of 1