PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT (AERODYNAMICS) - AEROPLA

44 1hr

A body is placed in a certain airstream. The density of 1.4 . 2. 4. 8.

the airstream decreases to half of the original value. The
aerodynamic drag will decrease with a factor :
5259 81
The point, where the aerodynamic lift acts on a wing is: the point of the suction the centre of the c.g.
maximum point of the pressure. location.
thickness of wing.
the wing.

5260 81
The location of the centre of pressure of a positive shift aft. shift in shift forward. not shift.
cambered wing at increasing angle of attack will: spanwise
5261 81 direction.
5262 81 The unit of density is: kg/m³ psi kg/cm² Bar
5263 81 The unit of measurement of pressure is: kg/dm² psi kg/m³ lb/gal
The boundary layer of a wing is caused by: the normal a turbulent suction at a layer on
shock wave stream the upper the wing in
at transonic pattern wing side. which the
speeds. around the stream
wing. velocity is
lower than
the free
stream
velocity, due
to friction.

5264 81
A laminar boundary layer is a layer, in which: the vortices the velocity the no velocity
are weak. is constant. temperature components
varies exist, normal
constantly. to the
surface.

5265 81
The (subsonic) static pressure: increases in decreases in is the total is the
a flow in a a flow in a pressure pressure in
tube when tube when plus the a point at
the diameter the diameter dynamic which the
decreases. decreases. pressure. velocity has
become
zero.

5266 81
The true airspeed (TAS) is: higher than equal to the lower than lower than
the speed of IAS, the speed of the indicated
the multiplied by the airspeed
undisturbed the air undisturbed (IAS) at ISA
airstream density at airstream conditions
about the sea level. about the and altitudes
aeroplane. aeroplane. below sea
level.

5267 81
 The lift- and drag forces, acting on a wing cross section: vary linearly depend on are normal are
with the the pressure to each proportional
angle of distribution other at just to each
attack. about the one angle of other,
wing cross attack. independent
section. of angle of
attack.
5268 81
The total pressure is: can be static static ½ rho V²
measured in pressure pressure
a small hole plus the minus the
in a surface, dynamic dynamic
parallel to pressure. pressure.
the local
stream.

5269 81
A body is placed in a certain airstream. The airstream 16 . 4. 8. 12 .
velocity increases by a factor 4. The aerodynamic drag
5270 81 will increase with a factor :
The aerodynamic drag of a body, placed in a certain The weight The c.g. The The specific
airstream depends amongst others on: of the body. location of airstream mass of the
the body. velocity. body.
5271 81
The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady 1.45 0.9 0.45 1.9
horizontal flight is 0.35. Increase in angle of attack of 1
degree will increase CL by 0.079. A vertical up gust
instantly changes the angle of attack by 2 degrees. The
load factor will be :
5272 81
The Mach trim system will: pump the adjust the adjust the keep the
fuel from elevator trim stabilizer, Mach
tank to tank, tab, depending Number
depending depending on the Mach automaticall
on the Mach on the Mach Number. y constant.
Number. Number.

5273 81
The aerofoil polar is: the relation a graph, in a graph of a graph of
between the which the the relation the relation
horizontal thickness of between the between the
and the the wing lift coefficient lift coefficient
vertical aerofoil is and the drag and the
speed. given as a coefficient. angle of
function of attack.
the chord.
5274 81
How does the total drag vary as speed is increased from Decreasing, Decreasing. Increasing. Increasing,
stalling speed (VS) to maximum IAS (VNE) in a straight then then
and level flight at constant weight? increasing. decreasing.
5275 81
Vortex generators: transfer change the reduce the take kinetic
energy from turbulent spanwise energy out
the free boundary flow on of the
airflow into layer into a swept wing. boundary
the laminar layer to
boundary boundary reduce
layer. layer. separation.
5276 81
Induced drag is created by the: propeller spanwise interference separation
wash flow pattern of the air of the
blowing resulting in stream boundary
across the the tip between layer over
wing. vortices. wing and the wing.
fuselage.
5277 81
 Which of the following will reduce induced drag? Elliptical lift Low aspect Flying at Extending
distribution. ratio. high angles the flaps.
5278 81 of attack.
Which of the following statements is correct? Static Dynamic A Dynamic
stability stability dynamically stability is
means that means that stable possible
the after being aeroplane only when
aeroplane is displaced would be the
also from original almost aeroplane is
dynamically equilibrium impossible statically
satble about condition, to fly stable about
the relevant the manually. the relevant
axis. aeroplane axis.
will return to
that
condition
without
oscillation.

5279 81
An aeroplane has static directional stability; in a side-slip nose of the nose of the nose of the right wing
to the right, initially the: aeroplane aeroplane aeroplane tends to go
will remain tends to tends to down.
in the same move to the move to the
direction. left. right.
5280 81
When flaps are deployed at constant angle of attack the decrease. remain the vary as the increase.
lift coefficient will: same. square of
5281 81 IAS.
A boundary layer fence on a swept wing will: improve the improve the improve the increase the
lift coefficient low speed high speed critical Mach
of the trailing characteristi characteristi Number.
edge flap. cs. cs.

5282 81
Compared with an oblique shock wave at the same higher total lower static higher loss higher total
Mach number a normal shock wave has a temperature. temperature. in total pressure.
5283 81 pressure.
The lift force, acting on an aerofoil : increases, is mainly is maximum is mainly
proportional caused by at an angle caused by
to the angle overpressur of attack of 2 suction on
of attack e at the degrees. the
until 40 underside of upperside of
degrees. the aerofoil. the aerofoil.

5284 81
In the transonic range lift will decrease at the shock stall first appearance separation attachment
due to the appearance of the bow of the of the shock
of a shock wave. boundary wave on the
wave at the layer at the trailing edge
upper side shock of the wing.
of the wing. waves.

5285 81
Shock induced separation results in decreasing decreasing constant lift. increasing
5286 81 drag. lift. lift.
If an aeroplane is flying at transonic speed with moves into moves into stays all the disappears.
increasing Mach number the shock wave on the upper trailing edge leading time at the
side of the wing direction. edge same
direction. position.
5287 81
Just above the critical Mach number the first evidence of upper side lower side of leading trailing edge
a shock wave will appear at the of the wing. the wing. edge of the of the wing.
5288 81 wing.
 To increase the critical Mach number a conventional be used with have a large have a low have a large
aerofoil should a high angle leading thickness to camber.
of attack. edge radius. chord ratio.

5289 81
In case of supersonic flow retarded by a normal shock exactly 1. small but still high lower than 1.
wave a high efficiency (low loss in total pressure) can be supersonic. (supersonic)
obtained if the Mach number in front of the shock is .
5290 81
The critical Mach number can be increased by a T-tail. an increase sweepback positive
in wing of the wings. dihedral of
aspect ratio. the wings.
5291 81
Compared with an oblique shock wave at the same smaller higher higher smaller
Mach number a normal shock wave has a expansion. compression expansion. compression
5292 81 . .
When the air is passing through an expansion wave the stay decrease decrease. increase.
static temperature will constant. and beyond
a certain
Mach
number start
increasing
again.

5293 81
When the air is passing through an expansion wave the decrease. stay decrease increase.
Mach number will constant. and beyond
a certain
Mach
number start
increasing
again.

5294 81
When the air is passing through an expansion wave the decrease. increase. stay decrease
local speed of sound will constant. and beyond
a certain
Mach
number start
increasing
again.

5295 81
The loss of total pressure in a shock wave is due to the the static the friction in kinetic the speed
fact that pressure the energy in reduction is
decrease is boundary the flow is too high.
comparativel layer is changed into
y high. higher. heat energy.

5296 81
If the Mach number of an aeroplane in supersonic flight increase. stay decrease decrease.
is increased, the shock wave angles will constant. and beyond
a certain
Mach
number start
increasing
again.

5297 81
The regime of flight from the critical Mach number up to transonic supersonic hypersonic subsonic
5298 81 M = 1.3 is called the range. range. range. range.
A jet aeroplane equipped with inboard and outboard only the only the the inboard only the
ailerons is cruising at its normal cruise Mach number. In inboard outboard and spoilers will
this case ailerons are aileron are outboard be active,
active. active. ailerons are not the
active. ailerons.
5299 81
 When an aeroplane is flying at an airspeed which is 1.3 77%. 59%. 130%. 169%.
times its basic stalling speed, the coefficient of lift as a
percentage of the maximum lift coefficient (CLmax)
would be:
5300 81
The aspect ratio of the wing: is the ratio is the ratio is the ratio is the ratio
between the between the between between the
wing span tip chord chord and wing span
and the root and the wing root chord. and the
chord. span. mean
geometric
chord.
5301 81
A jet aeroplane is rolled into a turn, while maintaining increase increase increase increase
airspeed and holding altitude. In such a case, the pilot thrust and thrust and thrust and angle of
has to: angle of keep angle decrease attack and
attack. of attack angle of keep thrust
unchanged. attack. unchanged.
5302 81
When an aeroplane with the centre of gravity forward of zero downwards downwards. upwards.
the centre of pressure of the combined wing / fuselage is because in because it is
in straight and level flight, the vertical load on the steady flight always
tailplane will be: all loads are negative
in regardless
equilibrium. of the
position of
the centre of
gravity.

5303 81
In a twin-engined jet powered aeroplane (engines It depends Down. Up. No elevator
mounted below the low wings) the thrust is suddenly on the movement
increased. Which elevator deflection will be required to position of will required
maintain the pitching moment zero ? the centre of because the
gravity. thrust line of
the engines
remains
unchanged.

5304 81
Should a transport aeroplane fly at a higher Mach No, this is Yes, this Yes, but only Yes, if you
number than the 'buffet-onset' Mach number? not causes no during want to fly
acceptable problems. approach. fast at very
high
altitudes.
5305 81
If a symmetrical aerofoil is accelerated from subsonic to aft to the aft to the forward to forward to
supersonic speed the centre of lift will move mid chord. trailing edge. the leading the mid
5306 81 edge. chord.
The relative thickness of an aerofoil is expressed in: degrees % chord. camber. meters.
cross
section tail
angle.
5307 81
The pitch up effect of an aeroplane with swept wing in a wing tip aft forward wing root
stall is due to the stalling first. movement movement stalling first.
of the centre of the centre
of gravity. of gravity.

5308 81
The high speed buffet is induced by a shift of the boundary boundary expansion
centre of layer layer control. waves on
gravity. separation the wing
due to shock upper side.
waves.

5309 81
 Tuck under will happen above or only above only at the only below
below the the critical critical Mach the critical
critical Mach Mach number. Mach
number number. number.
depending
on the angle
of attack.

5310 81
The application of the area rule on aeroplane design will skin friction induced form drag. wave drag.
5311 81 decrease the drag. drag.
Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface decrease decrease decrease increase the
will the shock the the stalling effectivenes
wave interference speed by s of the
induced drag of the increase of spoiler due
separation. trailing edge the to increase
flaps. tangential in parasite
velocity of drag.
the swept
wing.

5312 81
Some aeroplanes have a 'waist' or 'coke bottle' improve the apply area increase the fit the engine
contoured fuselage. This is done to low speed rule. strength of intakes
characteristi the wing root better to the
cs. junction. fuselage.

5313 81
What is the effect on the aeroplane's static longitudinal The static The static The static The static
stability of a shift of the centre of gravity to a more aft longitudinal longitudinal longitudinal longitudinal
location and on the required control deflection for a stability is stability is stability is stability is
certain pitch up or down? larger and larger and smaller and smaller and
the required the required the required the required
control control control control
deflection is deflection is deflection is deflection is
smaller. larger. larger. smaller.

5314 81
The stall speed increases, when: (all other factors of minor spoilers are pulling up weight
importance being constant) altitude selected from a dive. decreases.
changes from OUT to
occur e.g. 0- IN.
10.000 ft.
5315 81
Which statement about the trim position is true related to A nose Because A nose At the
centre of gravity and adjustable stabiliser position ? heavy characteristi heavy forward limit
aeroplane c speeds at aeroplane for centre of
requires that take off do requires that gravity,
the stabiliser not vary with the stabiliser stabiliser
leading centre of leading trim is
edge is gravity edge is adjusted
lower than location, the higher than maximum
compared need for compared Nose Down
with a tail stabiliser with a tail to obtain
heavy adjustment heavy maximum
aeroplane is dependent aeroplane. elevator
on flap authority at
position take off
only. rotation.

5316 81
When the trailing edge flaps are deflected in level flight, dependent nose down. nose up. zero.
the change in pitch moment will be: on c.g.
5317 81 location.
 Deflection of leading edge flaps will: increase decrease decrease not affect
critical angle CLmax. drag. critical angle
of attack. of attack.
5318 81
Slat extension will: increase reduce tip create gaps decrease
critical angle vortices. between the energy
of attack. leading in the
edge and boundary
engine layer on the
nacelles. upperside of
the wing.

5319 81
Spoiler deflection causes : an increase decrease in an increase an increase
in lift only lift and drag in drag and in lift and
decrease in drag
lift
5320 81
The stall speed in a 60° banked turn increases by the 1.41 1.07 1.30 2.00
5321 81 following factor:
The induced drag coefficient, CDi is proportional with: CL square root CLmax CL²
5322 81 (CL)
When a pilot makes a turn in horizontal flight, the stall decreases increases increases increases
speed : with with the load with the with flap
increasing factor square root extension
bank angle squared of load
factor
5323 81
Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces Fowler flaps, seal upper and weight in the
are: upper and between lower nose of the
lower rudder wing's rudder, seal control
trailing edge between surface,
and leading wing's horn
edge of a trailing edge balance
control and leading
surface, edge of a
horn control
balance surface

5324 81
When power assisted controls are used for pitch control, can only ensures that makes makes
this: function in a part of the trimming aerodynamic
combination aerodynamic superfluous. balancing of
with an forces is still the control
elevator trim felt on the surfaces
tab. column. meaningless
.

5325 81
Which statement about a primary control surface The position The servo The control Due to the
controlled by a servo tab, is correct ? is tab can also effectivenes effectivenes
undetermine be used as a s of the s of the
d during trimtab. primary servo tab
taxiing, in surface is the control
particular increased by surface area
with tailwind. servo tab can be
deflection. smaller.

5326 81
Which combination of design features is known to be Straight Swept back Straight Swept back
responsible for deep stall? wings and wings and a wings and a wings and
aft fuselage T-tail. T-tail. wing
mounted mounted
engines engines.

5327 81
 The normal stall recovery procedure for a light single idle power idle power full power full power
engined aeroplane is: and stick and stick and stick and stick
roll-neutral neutral, roll-neutral roll-neutral
nose-down waiting for nose-down, nose-down,
and no other the natural correcting correction
corrections. nose-down for angle of for angle of
tendency. bank with bank with
rudder. stick.

5328 81
The vane of a stall warning system with a flapper switch point of stagnation centre of centre of
is activated by the change of the: lowest point. pressure. gravity.
5329 81 pressure.
The wing of an aeroplane will never stall at low subsonic the CAS there is a the angle of the IAS
speeds as long as.... exceeds the nose-down attack is exceeds the
power-on attitude. smaller than power-on
stall speed. the value at stall speed.
which the
stall occurs.

5330 81
Which of the following statements concerning control is On some Hydraulically In general In a
correct? aeroplanes, powered the differential
the servo control maximum aileron
tab also surfaces do downward control
serves as a not need elevator system the
trim tab. mass deflection is control
balancing. larger than surfaces
upward. have a
larger
upward than
downward
maximum
deflection.

5331 81
When flaps are extended in a straight and level flight at decrease. first increase remain the increase.
constant IAS, the lift coefficient will eventually : and then same.
decrease.
5332 81
On a wing fitted with a "fowler" type trailing edge flap, the an an increase an increase an
"Full extended" position will produce: unaffected in wing area in wing area unaffected
CD, at a only. and camber. wing area
given angle and increase
of attack. in camber.

5333 81
When are outboard ailerons (if present) de-activated ? Flaps (and Flaps Landing Landing
slats) (and/or gear gear
retracted or slats) retracted. extended.
speed above extended or
a certain speed below
value. a certain
value..

5334 81
In a turn, the load factor n and the stalling speed VS will n greater n smaller n greater n smaller
be: than 1, VS than 1, VS than 1, VS than 1, VS
higher than lower than in lower than in higher than
in straight straight and straight and in straight
and level level flight. level flight. and level
flight. flight.
5335 81
By what percentage does the lift increase in a steady 52%. 41%. 19%. 31%.
level turn at 45° angle of bank, compared to straight and
5336 81 level flight?
 The trailing edge flaps when extended : worsen the increase the significantly significantly
best angle of zero lift increase the lower the
glide angle of angle of drag
attack attack for
maximum lift

5337 81
The function of the stick pusher is: to activate to activate to vibrate to pull the
and push and push the controls. stick, to
the stick the stick avoid a high
forward at or forward prior speed stall.
beyond a to stick
certain value shaker.
of angle of
attack.

5338 81
During an erect spin recovery: the control the ailerons the control the control
stick is are held in stick is stick is
pulled to the the neutral moved side moved side
most aft position. ways, ways, in the
position. against the direction of
angle of the angle of
bank. bank.

5339 81
How would the exterior appearance of an aeroplane Elevator The elevator The elevator The exterior
change, when trimming for speed increase ? deflection is is deflected is deflected appearance
increased further up by further of the
further a downward downward aeroplane
downward deflected by means of will not
by an trim tab a movable change
upward horizontal
deflected stabiliser
trim tab

5340 81
At what speed does the front of a shock wave move The true air The ground The speed The speed
across the earth's surface? speed of the speed of the of sound at of sound at
aeroplane. aeroplane. ground level. flight level.
5341 81
A strongly swept back wing stalls. If the wake of the wing tendency to nose up nose down increase
contacts the horizontal tail, the effect on the stall increase tendency tendency. sensitivity of
behaviour can be: speed after and/or lack elevator
initial stall. of elevator inputs.
response.
5342 81
After the transition point between the laminar and the mean the the mean the
turbulent boundary layer speed boundary speed and boundary
increases layer gets friction drag layer gets
and the thicker and increases thinner and
friction drag the speed the speed
decreases decreases increases

5343 81
The stall speed : increases increases decreases does not
with the with an with an depend on
length of the increased increased weight
wingspan weight weight

5344 81
At higher altitudes, the stall speed (IAS): decreases remains the decreases increases
same until the
5345 81 tropopause
Stick pushers must be installed in aeroplanes with Excessive pitch down pitch down pitch down
dangerous stall characteristics. Dangerous stall wing drop and yaw. and minor and increase
characteristics include: and deep wing drop. in speed.
stall.
5346 81
 Longitudinal static stability is created by the fact that the: centre of wing surface aeroplane centre of
gravity is is greater possesses a gravity is
located in than the large trim located in
front of the horizontal speed front of the
leading tail surface. range. neutral point
edge of the of the
wing. aeroplane.
5347 81
Induced drag at constant IAS is affected by: angle engine aeroplane aeroplane
between thrust. weight. wing
wing chord location.
and fuselage
centre line.

5348 81
An aeroplane that has positive static stability: is always can be is always is never
dynamically dynamically dynamically dynamically
unstable. stable, stable. stable.
neutral or
unstable.
5349 81
The "short period mode" is an: oscillation oscillation oscillation unstable
about the about the about the movement
lateral axis. vertical axis. longitudinal of the
axis. aeroplane,
induced by
the pilot.
5350 81
Which one of the following statements about the dynamic An aft C.G. Damping of Speed Period time
stability of a conventional aeroplane about the lateral position the phugoid remains of the
axis is correct? shortens the is normally constant phugoid is
period time very weak. during one normally 5
of the period of the sec.
phugoid. phugoid.

5351 81
After a disturbance about the lateral axis, an aeroplane Statically Statically Statically Statically
oscillates about the lateral axis at a constant amplitude. stable - unstable - stable - unstable -
The aeroplane is: Dynamically Dynamically Dynamically Dynamically
neutral stable unstable neutral
5352 81
Which of the following are used as stall warning devices? Stick shaker Angle of Angle of Stick shaker
and angle of attack attack and stallstrip
attack indicator and sensor and .
indicator. speed stallstrip.
indicator.
5353 81
Which of these definitions of propeller parameters is Critical tip geometric Blade angle Propeller
correct? velocity = propeller = angle angle of
propeller pitch = the between attack =
speed at theoretical blade chord angle
which risk of distance a line and between
flow propeller propeller blade chord
separation blade axis line and
at some element is propeller
parts of travelling in vertical
propeller forward plane
blade direction in
occurs. one
propeller
revolution

5354 81
 "Tuck under" is: the tendency the tendency shaking of the tendency
to nose to nose up the control to nose
down when when speed column at down when
speed is is increased high Mach the control
increased into the Number. column is
into the transonic pulled back.
transonic flight regime.
flight regime.

5355 81
The max aft position of the centre of gravity is amongst maximum too small minimum maximum
others limited by the: elevator effect of the value of the longitudinal
deflection. controls on stick force stability of
the per g. the
aeroplane. aeroplane.
5356 81
For a normal stable aeroplane, the centre of gravity is at the between the with a aft of the
located: neutral point aft limit and sufficient neutral point
of the the neutral minimum of the
aeroplane. point of the margin aeroplane.
aeroplane. ahead of the
neutral point
of the
aeroplane.
5357 81
The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 450 N. 150 N. 225 N. 375 N.
150 N/g. The load factor in straight and level flight is 1.
The increase of stick force necessary to achieve the load
factor of 2.5 is:
5358 81
The (1) stick force stability and the (2) manoeuvre (1) aft C.G. (1) (1) forward (1) forward
stability are positively affected by: position (2) aeroplane C.G. C.G.
aft CG. nose up trim position (2) position (2)
position. (2) forward CG. aeroplane
aeroplane position. nose up
nose up trim.
trim.
5359 81
The C.G. position of an aeroplane is forward of the Aeroplane Stick force Increasing Increase of
neutral point in a fixed location. Speed changes cause a nose up trim stability is 10 kt speed
departure from the trimmed position. Which of the decreases not affected trimmed at generates
following statements about the stick force stability is the stick by trim. low speed pull forces.
correct? force has more
stability. effect on the
stick force
than
increasing
10 kt
trimmed at
high speed.

5360 81
The lift formula is: L= W L= CL 2 L= n W L= CL 1/2
5361 81 RHO V² S RHO V² S
Positive static stability of an aeroplane means that once tendency will tendency will initial initial
it has been displaced the : be to move be to move tendency to tendency to
with an with an move is move is
oscillating oscillating towards its away from
motion of motion of equilibrium its
decreasing increasing position. equilibrium
amplitude. amplitude. position.

5362 81
 Which of the following statements about a Mach trimmer The Mach A Mach A straight A Mach
is correct? trimmer trimmer wing trimmer
corrects the corrects the aeroplane reduces the
natural change in always stick force
tendency of stick force needs a stability of a
a swept stability of a Mach straight wing
wing swept wing trimmer for aeroplane to
aeroplane to aeroplane flying at zero at high
pitch-up. above a Mach Mach
certain Mach numbers numbers.
number. close to
MMO.

5363 81
When the air is passing through a shock wave the static decrease increase. decrease. stay
temperature will and beyond constant.
a certain
Mach
number start
increasing
again

5364 81
Which of the following statements about the spin is Every During spin An In the spin,
correct? aeroplane recovery the aeroplane is airspeed
should be ailerons prone to continuously
designed should be spin when increases.
such that it kept in the the stall
can never neutral starts at the
enter a spin. position. wing root.

5365 81
Which of the following statements about stall speed is Increasing Decreasing Increasing Use of a T-
correct ? the anhedral the angle of the angle of tail will
of the wing sweep of the sweep of the decrease
will wing will wing will the stall
decrease decrease decrease speed..
the stall the stall the stall
speed. speed. speed.

5366 81
Entering the stall the centre of pressure of a straight (1) (1) not move (1) move aft, (1) move aft, (1) move aft,
wing and of a strongly swept back wing (2) will: (2) move (2) not (2) move (2) move aft.
forward. move. forward.
5367 81
Compared with level flight prior to the stall, the lift (1) and (1) (1) (1) (1)
drag (2) in the stall change as follows : increases decreases decreases increases
(2) (2) (2) (2)
decreases. increases. decreases. increases.
5368 81
Which aeroplane behaviour will be corrected by a yaw Spiral dive. Buffeting. Dutch roll. Tuck under.
5369 81 damper ?
A statically unstable aeroplane is: never always sometimes sometimes
dynamically dynamically dynamically dynamically
5370 81 stable. stable. stable. unstable.

With increasing altitude and constant IAS the static (1) decrease (1) decrease (1) increase (1) increase
lateral stability (1) and the dynamic lateral/directional (2) (2) increase. (2) (2) increase.
stability (2) of an aeroplane with swept-back wing will: decrease. decrease.
5371 81
One of the requirements for dynamic stability is: a small C.G. effective positive a large
range. elevator. static deflection
stability. range of the
stabilizer
trim.

5372 81
 Which of the following statements about dihedral is The Effective Dihedral Dihedral is
correct? "effective dihedral is contributes necessary
dihedral" of the angle to dynamic for the
an between the but not to execution of
aeroplane 1/4-chord static lateral slip-free
component line and the stability. turns.
means the lateral axis
contribution of the
of that aeroplane.
component
to the static
lateral
stability.

5373 81
What happens during an engine failure with two similar The same The same Less roll More roll
aeroplanes with wing mounted engines, one of them with yaw roll tendency tendency for tendency for
jet engines, the other one with co-rotating propellers: tendency for for both the propeller the propeller
both aeroplanes. aeroplane. aeroplane.
aeroplanes
regardless
of left or
right engine
failure.

5374 81
The angle of attack for a propeller blade is the angle Aeroplane Principal Local air Direction of
between blade chord line and: heading. direction of speed propeller
propeller vector. axis.
blade.
5375 81
"Tuck under" is caused by (i) which movement of the (i) aft (ii) (i) forward (i) aft (ii) (i) forward
centre of pressure of the wing and (ii) which change of increasing (ii) decreasing (ii)
the downwash angle at the location of the stabilizer. increasing decreasing
5376 81
"Tuck under" may happen at: low Mach all Mach only at low high Mach
5377 81 numbers. numbers. altitudes. numbers.
Which of the following statements about the stall of a Buffeting is The nose The Just before
straight wing aeroplane is correct? the result of down effect horizontal the stall the
flow is the result tail will stall aeroplane
separation of increasing at a higher will be have
on the tail downwash, speed than a nose-down
plane. due to flow the wing. tendency.
separation.

5378 81
Which one of the following systems suppresses the Rudder Yaw damper. Roll spoilers. Spoiler
5379 81 tendency to "Dutch roll"? limiter. mixer.
Which statement is correct about a normal shock wave ? The airflow The airflow The airflow The airflow
changes expands changes changes
from when from direction
subsonic to passing the supersonic
supersonic aerofoil to subsonic
5380 81
Which statement is correct about a spring tab ? At high IAS it Its main At high IAS it At low IAS it
behaves like purpose is to behaves like behaves like
a fixed increase a servo tab a servo tab
extension of stick force
the elevator per g

5381 81
Which location on the aeroplane has the largest effect on Wing root Landing Wing tip Engine
5382 81 the induced drag ? junction gear cowling
Winglets create an decrease decrease increase the
elliptical lift the induced the static manoeuvrab
distribution. drag. lateral ility.
stability.
5383 81
 The interference drag is created as a result of separation the addition interaction downwash
of the of induced between behind the
induced and parasite aeroplane wing.
vortex. drag. parts (e.g.
wing/fuselag
e).
5384 81
(For this question use annex 081-6249A) Line c Line a Line b Line d
Which line represents the total drag line of an
5385 81 aeroplane?
Increasing dynamic (kinetic) pressure will have the The drag is The drag This has no The drag
following effect on the drag of an aeroplane (all other only affected increases. effect. decreases.
factors of importance remaining constant) : by the
ground
speed.
5386 81
A jet aeroplane is cruising at high altitude with a Mach- fly at a fly at a lower extend the fly at a
number, that provides a buffet margin of 0.3g larger angle altitude and flaps to the higher
incremental. In order to increase the buffet margin to of attack the same first Mach-
0.4g incremental the pilot must : Mach- selection number
number

5387 81
An aeroplane is descending at a constant Mach number It remains It increases It decreases It decreases
from FL 350. What is the effect on true airspeed ? constant as as pressure as altitude
temperature increases decreases
increases

5388 81
High Aspect Ratio, as compared with low Aspect Ratio, Increasing Increasing Decreasing Increasing
has the effect of : lift and drag induced induced lift and
drag and drag and critical angle
decreasing critical angle of attack
critical angle of attack
of attack

5389 81
What wing shape or wing characteristic is the least straight wing winglets swept wings
5390 81 sensitive to turbulence : wings dihedral
"A line connecting the leading- and trailing edge midway the upper the camber the chord the mean
between the upper and lower surface of a aerofoil". This camber line line line aerodynamic
5391 81 definition is applicable for : chord line
Which is one of the disadvantages of increasing the Increased Less power Higher tip- decrease
number of propeller blades ? noise can be speed propeller
absorbed by efficiency
the propeller

5392 81
One advantage of a movable-stabilizer system compared it is a more the structure it leads to the system's
with a fixed stabilizer system is that: powerful weighs less greater complexity is
means of stability in reduced
trimming flight
5393 81
When air has passed through a shock wave the speed of increased. not affected decreased. decreased
sound is and beyond
a certain
Mach
number start
increasing
again

5394 81
(For this question use annex 081-6250A) the parasite the induced the total the lift force.
The diagram shows the parameter X versus TAS. If a drag. drag. drag.
5395 81 horizontal flight is considered the axis X shows
 Which of the following statements is true? Through Limiting Through By
extension of factors in extension of increasing
the flaps in severe the flaps in the flap
severe turbulence severe setting in
turbulence are the turbulence it severe
the centre of possibility of is possible turbulence
pressure will a stall and to reduce the stall
move aft the margin the speed speed will
which will to the and increase be reduced
increase the structural the margins and the risk
margins to limitations to the for
the structural exceeding
structural limits the
limits structural
limits will be
decreased

5396 81
5397 81 Rotation about the lateral axis is called : yawing. slipping. pitching. rolling.
During landing of a low-winged jet aeroplane, the fully down up and the fully down up and the
maximum elevator up deflection is normally required and the C.G. C.G. is fully and the C.G. C.G. is fully
when the flaps are: is fully forward. is fully aft. aft.
forward.
5398 81
In a mechanically controlled aeroplane, the most forward wing elevator engine trim system,
allowable position of the centre of gravity could be limited surface, capability, thrust, trim tab
by the: stabilizer elevator engine surface.
surface. control location.
forces.
5399 81
If the total sum of moments about one of its axis is not would be would fly a would not be would
zero, an aeroplane: difficult to path with a affected experience
control. constant because the an angular
curvature. situation is acceleration
normal. about that
axis.
5400 81
The centre of gravity moving aft will: increase the decrease not affect the increase or
elevator up the elevator elevator up decrease
effectivenes up or down the elevator
s. effectivenes effectivenes up
s. s. effectivenes
s, depending
on wing
location.

5401 81
Increasing air pressure will have the following effect on The drag is The drag This has no The drag
the drag of an aeroplane (angle of attack, OAT and TAS only affected increases. effect. decreases.
are constant): by the
ground
speed.
5402 81
In which situation would the wing lift of an aeroplane in Aft centre of Forward Aft centre of Forward
straight and level flight have the highest value ? gravity and centre of gravity and centre of
idle thrust. gravity and take-off gravity and
take-off thrust. idle thrust.
thrust.
5403 81
(For this question use annex 081-6253A) V1 > V2 and V1 = 0 and V1 < V2 and V1 = 0 and
How are the speeds (shown in the figure) at point 1 and V2 < V V2 > V V2 < V V2 = V
5404 81 point 2 related to the relative wind/airflow V?
 The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the Will increase Will Will increase May
following factors: during turn, decrease with increase
increased with a increased during
mass and an forward c.g. load factor, turbulence
aft c.g. location, icing and will
location lower conditions always
altitude and and more increase
due to the flaps when
slip stream banking in a
from a turn
propeller on
an engine
located
forward of
the wing

5405 81
The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the Increase Increase Increase Decrease in
following factors: with with during turn, a forward
increased increased increased c.g. location,
load factor, load factor, mass and higher
icing more flaps forward c.g. altitude and
conditions but will not location due to the
and an aft increase due slip stream
c.g. location to the bank from a
angle in a propeller on
turn an engine
located
forward of
the wing

5406 81
The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the May May Will increase Will increase
following factors: increase increase in a turn, with
with altitude, when the higher increased
especially c.g. moves temperature load factor,
high altitude, forward, with and will more flaps
will increase higher increase and
during icing altitude and when the increased
conditions due to the c.g. moves bank angle
and will slip stream aft in a turn
increase from a
when the propellor on
c.g. moves an engine
forward located
forward of
the wing

5407 81
Which kind of boundary layer has the strongest change Laminar No Transition Turbulent
in velocity close to the surface? boundary difference boundary boundary
5408 81 layer layer layer
An aeroplane performs a continuous descent with 160 lift is less drag is less weight is lift is equal
kts IAS and 1000 feet/min vertical speed. In this than drag than the greater than to weight
condition: combined lift
forces that
move the
aeroplane
forward
5409 81
(For this question use annex 081-6239A) Body d Body c Body a Body b
Which one of the bodies in motion (all bodies have the
same cross section area) will have lowest drag?
5410 81
 An aeroplane, with a C.G. location behind the centre of upwards. zero. downwards. upwards or
pressure of the wing can only maintain a straight and downwards
level flight when the horizontal tail loading is: depending
on elevator
deflection.

5411 81
(For this question use annex 081-6271A) Krueger flap Slat Fowler flap Slotted flap
5412 81 The high lift device shown in the figure is a
An aeroplane has a stall speed of 78 KCAS at its gross 91 KCAS 78 KCAS 57 KCAS 67 KCAS
weight of 6850 Ibs. What is the stall speed when the
5413 81 weight is 5000 Ibs ?
What is the approximate value of the lift of an aeroplane 70 000 N 60 000 N 50 000 N 80 000 N
at a gross weight of 50 000 N, in a horizontal coordinated
5414 81 45 degrees banked turn ?
Load factor is : Lift/Weight Weight/Lift 1/Bank Wing
5415 81 angle loading
Which has the effect of increasing load factor ? (all other Increased Rearward Vertical Increased
relevant factors being constant) air density CG location gusts aeroplane
5416 81 mass
Which statement is correct? distance for glide glide distance for
The lift to drag ratio provides directly the climb up to a distance distance horizontal
certain from a given from a given flight.
altitude. altitude at altitude.
zero wind.

5417 81
The use of a slot in the leading edge of the wing enables it delays the the laminar it it changes
the aeroplane to fly at a slower speed because : stall to a part of the decelerates the camber
higher angle boundary the upper of the wing
of attack layer gets surface
thicker boundary
layer air
5418 81
(For this question use annex 081-6270A) Plain flap Split flap Single Fowler flap
5419 81 Which type of flap is shown in the picture? slotted flap
5420 81 What is the unit of measurement for power ? N/m Nm/s kgm/s² Pa/m²
(For this question use annex 081-6272A) Slot or slat Krueger flap Fowler flap Slotted flap
5421 81 The high lift device shown in the figure below is a
A plain flap will increase CLmax by boundary centre of lift increasing increasing
layer control. movement. the camber angle of
of the attack.
aerofoil.
5422 81
During the retraction of the flaps at a constant angle of sink bank. climb. yaw.
attack the aeroplane starts to (all other factors of suddenly.
5423 81 importance being constant)
During the extension of the flaps at a constant angle of yaw. climb. bank. sink
attack the aeroplane starts to (all other factors of suddenly.
5424 81 importance being constant)
Compared with the flap up configuration the maximum unchanged. smaller or smaller. larger.
angle of attack for the flaps down configuration is larger
depending
on flap
deflection.
5425 81
A slat will provide a increase the increase the increase the
boundary boundary camber of lift by
layer suction layer energy the aerofoil increasing
on the upper and and divert the wing
side of the prolongs the the flow area and the
wing. stall to a around the camber of
higher angle sharp the aft
of attack. leading portion of
edge. the wing.

5426 81
 (For this question use annex 081-6269A) Plain flap Split flap Fowler flap Double
5427 81 Which type of flap is shown in the picture? slotted flap
(For this question use annex 081-6263A) Point c Point d Point b Point a
Which point in the diagram gives the best glide
5428 81 condition?
Consider an aerofoil with a certain camber and a positive In the Upper side Lower side In front of
angle of attack. At which location will the highest flow stagnation the
velocities occur ? point stagnation
point
5429 81
Lift and drag on an aerofoil are vertical respectively horizon. relative chord line. longitudinal
parallel to the wind/airflow. axis.
5430 81
If an aeroplane flies in the ground effect the induced drag and lift the lift is the effective
angle of are reduced. increased angle of
attack is and the drag attack is
increased. is decreased.
decreased.
5431 81
Ground effect has the following influence on the landing does not increases, increases. decreases.
distance : change. only if the
landing flaps
are fully
extended.

5432 81
An aeroplane performs a straight and level horizontal the TAS at the TAS at the TAS at the TAS at
flight at the same angle of attack at two different the higher both the higher the higher
altitudes. (all other factors of importance being constant, altitude is altitudes is altitude altitude is
assume ISA conditions and no compressibility effects) higher the same cannot be lower
determined
5433 81
The propeller blade angle of attack on a fixed pitch velocity and forward velocity and RPM
propeller is increased when : RPM velocity RPM increases
increase increases decrease and forward
and RPM velocity
decreasing decreases

5434 81
(For this question use annex 081-6262A) Point d Point c Point a Point b
5435 81 Which point marks the value for minimum sink rate?
If the continuity equation is applicable, what will happen rho1 = rho2 rho1 < rho2 rho1 > rho2 The density
to the air density (rho) if the cross sectional area of a depends on
tube changes ? (low speed, subsonic and the change
incompressible flow) of the tube
area.
5436 81
(For this question use annex 081-6264A) Point b Point c Point d Point a
Which point in the diagram gives the lowest speed in
5437 81 horizontal flight?
What is the correct relation of the True Air Speed (TAS) VR/Dmin < VR/Dmin = VR/Dmin > VR/Dmin >
for minimum sink rate (VR/Dmin) and best glide angle VBest glide VBest glide VBest glide VBest glide
(VBest glide) at a given altitude? or VR/Dmin
< VBest
glide
depending
on the type
of
aeroplane.

5438 81
If you decrease the propeller pitch during a glide with decrease increase and decrease increase and
idle-power at constant IAS the lift to drag ratio will and the rate the rate of and the rate the rate of
of descent descent will of descent descent will
will increase. increase. will decrease.
decrease.

5439 81
 If you increase the propeller pitch during a glide with idle- increase and decrease decrease increase and
power at constant IAS the lift to drag ratio will the rate of and the rate and the rate the rate of
descent will of descent of descent descent will
increase. will will increase. decrease.
decrease.

5440 81
How is adverse yaw compensated for during entry into Differential Horn- Anti- Servo tabs
and roll out from a turn ? aileron balanced balanced
deflection controls rudder
control
5441 81
What increases the stalling angle of attack ? Use of : spoilers fuselage slats flaps
mounted
speed-
brakes
5442 81
(For this question use annex 081-6261A) Point c Point d Point a Point b
Which point shown in the figure corresponds with CL for
5443 81 minimum horizontal flight speed?
On an asymmetrical, single curve aerofoil, in subsonic remain move move aft. remain
airflow, at low angle of attack, when the angle of attack is unaffected. forward. matching the
increased, the centre of pressure will (assume a airfoil
conventional transport aeroplane) : aerodynamic
centre.
5444 81
Rolling is the rotation of the aeroplane about the: wing axis. longitudinal vertical axis. lateral axis.
5445 81 axis.
The aerodynamic centre of the wing is the point, where: pitching change of lift aerodynamic the
moment due to forces are aeroplane's
coefficient variation of constant. lateral axis
does not angle of intersects
vary with attack is with the
angle of constant. centre of
attack. gravity.
5446 81
With increasing angle of attack, the stagnation point will (I) up, (II) aft. (I) down, (II) (I) up, (II) (I) down, (II)
move (I) ...and the point of lowest pressure will move aft. forward. forward.
5447 81 (II) ...Respectively (I) and (II) are:
The angle between the aeroplane longitudinal axis and climb path angle of glide path angle of
5448 81 the chord line is the: angle. incidence. angle. attack.
The angle between the airflow (relative wind) and the same as the angle of glide path climb path
chord line of an aerofoil is: angle attack. angle. angle.
between
chord line
and fuselage
axis.

5449 81
On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the "pitch is caused by never is caused by is caused by
up" phenomenon: wingtip stall. occurs, extension of boundary
since a trailing edge layer fences
swept wing lift mounted on
is a augmentatio the wings.
"remedy" to n devices.
pitch up.
5450 81
The Cl - alpha curve of a positive cambered aerofoil in the origin. below the nowhere. above the
intersects with the vertical axis of the Cl - alpha graph: origin. origin.
5451 81
Low speed pitch up is caused by the: wing tip Mach trim spanwise spanwise
vortex. system. flow on a flow on a
swept back swept
wing. forward
wing.
5452 81
Where on the surface of a typical aerofoil will flow lower side upper side upper side lower side
separation normally start at high angles of attack? leading trailing edge. leading trailing edge.
5453 81 edge. edge.
 Which of the following statements about boundary layers The The The The
is correct? turbulent turbulent turbulent turbulent
boundary boundary boundary boundary
layer is layer gives a layer will layer has
thinner than lower skin separate more kinetic
the laminar friction than more easily energy than
boundary the laminar than the the laminar
layer. boundary laminar boundary
layer. boundary layer.
layer.

5454 81
Bernoulli's equation can be written as: pt = q - ps pt = ps / q pt = ps + q pt = ps - q
(pt= total pressure, ps = static pressure and q=dynamic
5455 81 pressure)
In a two-dimensional flow pattern, where the streamlines increase decrease. increase. not change.
converge the static pressure will : initially, then
decrease.
5456 81
Which one of the following statements about Bernoulli's The dynamic The dynamic The dynamic The total
theorem is correct? pressure is pressure pressure pressure is
maximum in increases as decreases zero when
the static as static the velocity
stagnation pressure pressure of the
point. decreases. decreases. stream is
zero.
5457 81
Consider a certain stream line tube. The velocity of the increase the not affect the increase the decrease
stream in the tube is V. An increase of temperature of the mass flow. mass flow. mass flow the mass
stream at constant value of V will: when the flow.
tube is
divergent in
the direction
of the flow.

5458 81
The angle of attack of a two dimensional wing section is the chord the chord the chord the fuselage
the angle between : line and the line of the line of the core line and
camber line aerofoil and aerofoil and the free
of the the free the fuselage stream
aerofoil. stream centreline. direction.
direction.
5459 81
The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady 3.18 2.13 1.09 2.0
horizontal flight is 0.4. Increase of angle of attack of 1
degree will increase CL by 0.09. A vertical up gust
instantly changes the angle of attack by 5 degrees. The
load factor will be :
5460 81
What is the influence of decreasing aeroplane weight on Mcrit Mcrit Mcrit Mcrit
Mcrit at constant IAS ? decreases increases as increases as decreases.
as a result of a result of a result of
flying at a flying at a compressibil
greater smaller ity effects.
angle of angle of
attack. attack.
5461 81
When the air has passed through a normal shock wave lower than equal to 1. higher than less than 1.
the Mach number is before but before.
still greater
than 1.
5462 81
The flight Mach number is 0.8 and the TAS is 400 kts. 500 kts 320 kts 480 kts 600 kts
5463 81 The speed of sound is:
Which aeroplane design has the highest probability of a Swept A low A T-tail. A canard
super stall? wings. horizontal wing.
5464 81 tail.
The sensor of a stall warning system can be activated by centre of lift. transition centre of stagnation
5465 81 a change in the location of the region. gravity. point.
 "Flutter" may be caused by: roll control high distorsion by low airspeed
reversal. airspeed bending and aerodynamic
aerodynamic torsion of wing stall.
wing stall. the structure
causing
increasing
vibration in
the
resonance
frequency.

5466 81
An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight while the x 2.0 x 0.5 x 4.0 x 0.25
IAS is doubled. The change in lift coefficient will be:
5467 81
Which formula or equation describes the relationship m=F.a a=F. m F=m / a F=m. a
between force (F), acceleration (a) and mass (m)?
5468 81
On a symmetrical aerofoil, the pitch moment for which negative zero equal to the positive
Cl=0 is: (pitch-down) moment (pitch-up)
coefficient
for stabilized
angle of
attack.

5469 81
On a non swept wing, when the aerofoil is accelerated remains slightly shifts shifts from shifts aft by
from subsonic to supersonic speeds, the aerodynamic unchanged. forward. 25% to about 10%.
centre : about 50%
of the
aerofoil
chord.
5470 81
Considering a positive cambered aerofoil, the pitch equal to infinite positive negative
moment when Cl=0 is: zero. (pitch-up). (pitch-
5471 81 down).

The aeroplane drag in straight and level flight is lowest induced parasite parasite induced
when the: drag is drag is drag equals drag is equal
lowest. equal to the twice the to zero.
induced induced
drag. drag.
5472 81
The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady 1.71 0.74 1.49 2.49
horizontal flight is 0.42, increase in angle of attack of 1
degree increases CL by is 0.1. A vertical up gust instantly
changes the angle of attack by 3 degrees. The load
factor will be :
5473 81
The lift of an aeroplane of weight W in a constant linear Wcos.gamm W(1- W(1- W/cos.gam
climb with a climb angle (gamma) is approximately: a. sin.gamma). tan.gamma). ma.
5474 81
Flaperons are controls which are used simultaneously as flaps and ailerons and ailerons and flaps and
elevator. flaps. elevator. speed
5475 81 brakes.
A light twin is in a turn at 20 degrees bank and 150 kt turn at a turn at a turn at a turn at the
TAS. A more heavy aeroplane at the same bank and the bigger turn smaller turn higher turn same turn
5476 81 same speed will: radius. radius. rate. radius.
During flap down selection in a continuous straight and the stall the total the centre of the lift
level flight at constant IAS and weight: speed boundary pressure coefficient
increases. layer moves aft. and the drag
becomes coefficient
laminar. increase.

5477 81
Which of the following situations leads to a decreasing increasing increasing decreasing increasing
5478 81 stall speed (IAS)? air density. load factor. weight. altitude.
 Two identical aeroplanes A and B are flying horizontal The load The turn The lift The rate of
steady turns. Further data are: factor A is radius A is coefficient A turn A is
A: larger than larger than is smaller larger than
W= 1500 kg the load the turn than the lift the rate of
Bank= 20° factor B. radius B. coefficient B. turn B.
TAS= 130 kt

B:
W= 1500 kg
Bank= 20°
TAS= 200 kt

Which of the following statements is correct?

5479 81
Which of the following statements about a constant The The RPM The selected The blade
speed propeller is correct? propeller decreases RPM is kept angle
system with constant by increases
keeps the increasing the manifold with
aeroplane aeroplane pressure. increasing
speed speed. speed.
constant.
5480 81
The difference between IAS and TAS will: decrease at decrease at increase at increase at
increasing decreasing decreasing increasing
speed. altitude. temperature. air density.
5481 81
Lift is generated when: a certain the shape of an aerofoil is a certain
mass of air the aerofoil placed in a mass of air
is is slightly high velocity is retarded.
accelerated cambered. air stream.
downwards.

5482 81
The turn indicator shows a right turn. The slip indicator is a higher turn more right more right less right
left of neutral. To coordinate the turn: rate is bank is rudder is bank is
5483 81 required. required. required. required.
Differential aileron deflection: equals the is required increases is required
drag of the to keep the the CLmax. to achieve
right and left total lift the required
aileron. constant roll-rate.
when
ailerons are
deflected.
5484 81
Which statement is correct about an aeroplane, that has turn turn turn turn
experienced a left engine failure and continues indicator left indicator left indicator indicator
afterwards in straight and level cruise flight with wings of neutral, of neutral, neutral, slip neutral, slip
level ? slip indicator slip indicator indicator indicator left
left of neutral. neutral. of neutral.
neutral.

5485 81
5486 81 The bank angle in a rate-one turn depends on: TAS. weight. load factor. wind.
 Which statement about induced drag and tip vortices is The wing tip The flow Tip vortices The flow
correct? vortices and direction at can be direction at
the induced the upper diminished the upper
drag side of the by vortex and under
decrease at wing has a generators. side of the
increasing component wing, both
angle of in wing root deviate in
attack. direction, the wing tip
flow at the direction.
underside of
the wing in
wing tip
direction.

5487 81
VA is: the the the speed at the speed
maximum maximum which a that should
speed at speed at heavy not be
which which rolls transport exceeded in
maximum are allowed. aeroplane the climb.
elevator should fly in
deflection up turbulence.
is allowed.

5488 81
The continuity equation states: If the area of a tube is sonic. decreasing. not increasing.
increasing, the speed of the subsonic and changing.
5489 81 incompressible flow inside is
When the air is passing through a shock wave the decrease. stay decrease increase.
density will constant. and beyond
a certain
Mach
number start
increasing
again

5490 81
Increase of wing loading will: decrease increase decrease increase the
the minimum CLmax. take off stall speeds.
gliding speeds.
angle.

5491 81
The Mach number: is the ratio is the ratio is the ratio increases at
between the between the between the a given TAS,
TAS of the TAS of the IAS of the when the
aeroplane aeroplane aeroplane temperature
and the local and the and the local rises.
speed of speed of speed of
sound. sound at sea sound.
level.

5492 81
Bernoulli's equation can be written as : pt = q - ps pt - q = ps pt = ps - q pt + ps = q
(pt = total pressure, ps = static pressure, q = dynamic
5493 81 pressure)
The units of wing loading (I) W / S and (II) dynamic (I) N / m3, (I) kg / m, (II) (I) N / m, (II) (I) N / m², (II)
5494 81 pressure q are: (II) kg / m². N / m². kg. N / m².
The units of the density of the air (I) and the force (II) are: (I) N / kg, (II) (I) kg / m3, (I) kg / m², (I) N / m3,
5495 81 kg. (II) N. (II) kg. (II) N.
In a stationary subsonic streamline flow pattern, if the (I) decrease, (I) increase, (I) increase, (I) increase,
streamlines converge, in this part of the pattern, the (II) increase. (II) increase. (II) (II)
static pressure (I) will ...and the velocity (II) will ... : decrease. decrease.
5496 81
 The angle of attack (aerodynamic angle of incidence) of bottom chord line bottom bottom
an aerofoil is the angle between the: surface and and the surface and surface and
the chord relative the the relative
line. undisturbed horizontal airflow.
airflow.
5497 81
Dihedral of the wing is: the angle the angle the angle the angle
between the between the between the between the
0.25 chord 0.25 chord leading 0.25 chord
line of the line of the edge of the line of the
wing and the wing and the wing and the wing and the
horizon. lateral axis. lateral axis. vertical axis.

5498 81
Does the pitch-angle of a constant-speed propeller alter No. Yes, but only Yes slightly. Yes strongly.
in medium horizontal turbulence? if the pitch is
full-fine.
5499 81
Flap selection at constant IAS in straight and level flight lift coefficient stall speed. lift and the maximum lift
will increase the : and the drag. coefficient
drag. (CLmax)
and the
drag.

5500 81
An example of differential aileron deflection during Left aileron: Left aileron: Left aileron: Left aileron:
initiation of left turn is: 2° down 5° up 2° up 5° down
Right Right Right Right
aileron: 5° aileron: 2° aileron: 5° aileron: 2°
up down down up
5501 81
A normal shock wave: is a can occur at is a is a
discontinuity different discontinuity discontinuity
plane in an points on the plane in an plane in an
airflow, aeroplane in airflow, in airflow, in
which is transonic which the which the
always flight. temperature pressure
normal to drops drops
the surface. suddenly. suddenly.

5502 81
If the sum of moments in flight is not zero, the aeroplane the centre of the neutral the the centre of
will rotate about: gravity. point of the aerodynamic pressure of
aeroplane. centre of the the wing.
wing.
5503 81
Dihedral of the wing: decreases increases is the only is only
the static the static way to positive for
lateral lateral increase the aeroplanes
stability. stability. static lateral with high
stability. mounted
wings.
5504 81
A C.G location beyond the aft limit leads to: a too high an a better an
pulling stick increasing recovery unacceptabl
force during static performance e low value
rotation in longitudinal in the spin. of the
the take off. stability. manoeuvre
stability
(stick force
per g, Fe/g).

5505 81
If the elevator trim tab is deflected up, the cockpit trim nose-left. nose-down. neutral. nose-up.
5506 81 indicator presents:
 The static pressure is acting: only only in the in all only in
perpendicul direction of directions. direction of
ar to the the total the flow.
direction of pressure.
the flow.
5507 81
The induced drag: increases as increases as increases as has no
the the lift the aspect relation to
magnitude coefficient ratio the lift
of the tip increases. increases. coefficient.
vortices
decreases.
5508 81
What is the position of the elevator in relation to the The elevator At a forward The elevator The position
trimmable horizontal stabilizer of a power assisted deflection CG the is always depends on
aeroplane, which is in trim ? (compared elevator is deflected speed, the
to the deflected slightly position of
stabilizer upward and downwards slats and
position) is at an aft CG in order to flaps and the
always zero. the elevator have position of
is deflected sufficient the centre of
downward. remaining gravity.
flare
capability.

5509 81
What data may be obtained from the Buffet Onset The values The values The values The values
Boundary chart? of the Mach of MMO at of Mcrit at of the Mach
Number at different different Number at
which low weights and weights and which low
speed and altitudes. altitudes. speed and
Mach Buffet shock-stall
occur at occur at
different different
weights and weights and
altitudes. altitudes.

5510 81
Which statement regarding the gust load factor on an 1 and 2 are 1 is incorrect 1 and 2 are 1 is correct
aeroplane is correct (all other factors of importance correct. and 2 is incorrect. and 2 is
being constant) ? correct. incorrect.

1. Increasing the aspect-ratio of the wing will increase

the gust load factor.

2. Increasing the speed will increase the gust load

factor.

5511 81
Which statement is correct? Extension of Spoiler Extension of Extension of
flaps has no extension flaps causes flaps will
influence on decreases a reduction increase
the minimum the stall of the stall (CL/CD)max
rate of speed and speed, the , causing the
descent, as the minimum maximum minimum
only the TAS rate of glide rate of
has to be descent, but distance descent to
taken into increases also decrease.
account. the minimum reduces.
descent
angle.

5512 81
 What will increase the sensitivity to Dutch Roll? A forward An An An
movement increased increased increased
of the centre anhedral. static lateral static
of gravity. stability. directional
stability.
5513 81
In which phase of the take-off is the aerodynamic effect All phases of The last part The take-off During climb
of ice located on the wing leading edge most critical? the take-off of the run. with all
are equally rotation. engines
critical. operating.

5514 81
Which statement with respect to the speed of sound is Doubles if Varies with Increases Is
correct ? the the square always if the independent
temperature root of the density of of altitude.
increases absolute the air
from 9° to temperature. decreases.
36°
Centigrade.
5515 81
Which statement is correct at the speed for minimum Propeller The gliding The CL/CD Induced
drag (subsonic) ? aeroplanes angle is ratio is drag is
fly at that minimum. minimum. greater than
speed at the parasite
max. drag.
endurance.
5516 81
From the polar diagram of the entire aeroplane one can the the the the
read: minimum maximum minimum minimum
CL/CD ratio CL/CD ratio drag and the drag
and the and maximum coefficient
minimum maximum lift lift. and the
drag. coefficient. maximum
lift.
5517 81
An aeroplane has a stall speed of 100 kt at a load factor 200 kt 141 kt 282 kt 70 kt
n=1. In a turn with a load factor of n=2, the stall speed is:
5518 81
The induced angle of attack is the result of: downwash a large local downwash change in
due to tip angle of due to flow direction of
vortices. attack in a separation. flow due to
two the effective
dimensional angle of
flow. attack.

5519 81
A propeller turns to the right, seen from behind. The roll the pitch the roll the pitch the
torque effect in the take-off will: aeroplane to aeroplane aeroplane to aeroplane
the right. nose up. the left. nose down.
5520 81
Which statement is correct for a side slip condition at the required the required the required the stick
constant speed and side slip angle, where the geometric lateral lateral lateral force per g
dihedral of an aeroplane is increased ? control force control force control force decreases.
increases. decreases. does not
change.

5521 81
Increasing the number of propeller blades will: increase the increase the increase the decrease
maximum propeller noise level the torque in
absorption efficiency. at maximum the propeller
of power. power. shaft at
maximum
power.

5522 81
The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a large jet 1.5 2.5 3.75 2.0
5523 81 transport aeroplane with flaps extended is:
 The following factors increase stall speed : an increase a higher increasing a lower
in load weight, bank angle, weight,
factor, a selecting a increasing decreasing
forward c.g. higher flap thrust, slat bank angle,
shift, setting, a extension. a smaller
decrease in forward c .g. flapsetting.
thrust. shift.
5524 81
Which statement is correct? The The As the angle The centre
stagnation stagnation of attack of pressure
point is point is increases, is the point
another always the on the
name for situated on stagnation wing's
centre of the point on the leading
pressure. chordline, wing's edge where
the centre of profile the airflow
pressure is moves splits up.
not. downwards.

5525 81
How will the density and temperature change in a Density will Density will Density will Density will
supersonic flow from a position in front of a shock wave increase, increase, decrease, decrease,
to behind it ? temperature temperature temperature temperature
will increase. will will increase. will
decrease. decrease.
5526 81
Which statement about a jet transport aeroplane is The rotation If the THS Early nose Nothing
correct, during take-off at the maximum allowable will require position is wheel special will
forward centre of gravity limit, while the THS (Trimmable extra stick just within raising will happen.
Horizontal Stabilizer) has been positioned at the force. the limits of take place.
maximum allowable AND (Aeroplane Noise Down) the green
position. band, the
take off
warning
system will
be activated.

5527 81
When flutter damping of control surfaces is obtained by in front of below the above the behind the
mass balancing, these weights will be located with the hinge. hinge. hinge. hinge.
respect to the hinge of the control surface:
5528 81
Gyroscopic precession of the propeller is induced by: pitching and increasing increasing pitching and
rolling. RPM and RPM and yawing.
5529 81 yawing. rolling.
A propeller is turning to the right, seen from behind. The high angles high speed. large angles large angles
asymmetric thrust effect is mainly induced by: of attack. of yaw. of climb.
5530 81
A propeller is turning to the right, seen from behind. The yaw the roll the yaw the roll the
asymmetric thrust effect in the climb will: aeroplane to aeroplane to aeroplane to aeroplane to
5531 81 the left. the left. the right. the right.

A jet transport aeroplane is in a straight climb at a VMO. VA. MD. MMO.

constant IAS and constant weight. The operational limit
5532 81 that may be exceeded is:
The term angle of attack in a two dimensional flow is the angle the angle the angle for the angle
defined as: between the formed by maximum between the
aeroplane the lift/drag ratio wing chord
climb path longitudinal line and the
and the axis of the direction of
horizon. aeroplane the relative
and the wind/airflow.
chord line of
the wing

5533 81
 A horn balance in a control system has the following to prevent to obtain to decrease to decrease
purpose: flutter. mass the effective stick forces.
balancing. longitudinal
dihedral of
the
aeroplane.

5534 81
Upon extension of a spoiler on a wing: CD is only CL is both CL and CD is
increased decreased CD are increased,
and CL is (CD remains increased. while CL
decreased. unaffected). remains
unaffected.

5535 81
Which statement with respect to the climb is correct ? At constant At constant At constant At constant
IAS the TAS Mach TAS the IAS the
decreases number the Mach Mach
IAS number number
increases decreases increases

5536 81
VMO : should be is equal to is the should be
chosen in the design calibrated not greater
between VC speed for airspeed at than VC.
and VD maximum which MMO
gust is reached at
intensity. 35 000 ft.

5537 81
Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given 1.20 VS. 1.30 VS. 1.12 VS. greater than
configuration, the airspeed at which stick shaker will be VS.
5538 81 triggered is:
In order to maintain straight and level flight at a constant decrease. remain increase or increase.
airspeed, whilst the flaps are being retracted, the angle constant. decrease
of attack will: depending
on type of
flap.
5539 81
What is the purpose of an auto-slat system ? extend provide ensures that assist the
automaticall automaticall the slats are ailerons
y when a y slat IN always during
certain value selection extended rolling.
of angle of after take- when the
atttack is off. ground/flight
exceeded. system is in
the "ground"
position.

5540 81
The critical Mach number for an aerofoil equals the free sonic speed the a shock- a
stream airfoil Mach number at which: (M=1) is maximum wave "supersonic
reached at a operating appears on bell"
certain point temperature the upper appears on
on the upper is reached. surface. the upper
side of the surface.
aerofoil.

5541 81
 The function of the slot between an extended slat and allow space reduce the slow the air cause a
the leading edge of the wing is to: for vibration wing flow in the venturi effect
of the slat. loading. slot so that which
more energizes
pressure is the
created boundary
under the layer.
wing.
5542 81
Which of the following series of configurations has an slats only slats only flaps only clean wing,
increasing critical angle of attack ? extended, extended, extended, flaps only
clean wing, flaps only clean wing, extended,
flaps only extended, slats only slats only
extended. clean wing. extended. extended.
5543 81
An aeroplane with swept back wings is equipped with Wing roots: Wing roots: Wing roots: Wing roots:
slats and/or leading edge (L.E.) flaps. One possible slats L.E. flaps L.E. flaps slats
efficient way to arrange the leading edge devices on the Wing tips: Wing tips: Wing tips: Wing tips:
wings is: no devices no devices slats L.E. flaps
5544 81
A deployed slat will: increase the increase the increase the decrease
camber of boundary boundary the
the aerofoil layer energy, layer energy boundary
and increase move the and increase layer energy
the effective suction peak the suction and
angle of from the peak on the decrease
attack, so fixed part of fixed part of the suction
that CLmax the wing to the wing, so peak on the
is reached at the slat, so that the stall slat, so that
higher that the stall is postponed CLmax is
angles of is postponed to higher reached at
attack. to higher angles of lower angles
angles of attack. of attack.
attack.

5545 81
An aeroplane has a servo-tab controlled elevator. What Pitch control Pitch control The servo- The pitch
will happen when only the elevator jams during flight ? reverses has been tab now control
direction. lost. works as a forces
negative double.
trim-tab.
5546 81
After take-off the slats (when installed) are always Because Because Because Because
retracted later than the flaps. Why ? VMCA with FLAPS SLATS SLATS
SLATS EXTENDED EXTENDED EXTENDED
EXTENDED gives a large gives a large provides a
is more decrease in decrease in better view
favourable stall speed stall speed from the
compared to with with cockpit than
the FLAPS relatively relatively FLAPS
EXTENDED less drag. less drag. EXTENDED.
situation.

5547 81
Mcrit is the free stream Mach Number at which: shockstall the critical somewhere Mach buffet
occurs. angle of about the occurs.
attack is airframe
reached. Mach 1 is
reached
locally.
5548 81
 When "spoilers" are used as speed brakes: at same at same CLmax of they do not
angle of angle of the polar affect wheel
attack, CL attack, CD is curve is not braking
remains increased affected. action during
unaffected. and CL is landing.
decreased.

5549 81
During initiation of a turn with speedbrakes extended, the downward upward on on the on the
roll spoiler function induces a spoiler deflection: on the the upgoing upgoing downgoing
upgoing wing and wing only. wing only.
wing and downward
upward on on the
the downgoing
downgoing wing.
wing.
5550 81
Stick forces, provided by an elevator feel system, elevator stabilizer elevator stabilizer
depend on: deflection, position, deflection, position,
static total dynamic static
pressure. pressure. pressure. pressure.
5551 81
For a fixed-pitch propeller designed for cruise, the angle decreases is lower in is always is optimum
of attack of each blade, measured at the reference when the ground run positive when the
section: aircraft than in flight during idling aircraft is in
speed (with descent. a stabilized
decreases identical cruising
(with engine flight.
identical RPM).
engine
RPM).

5552 81
Why is a propeller blade twisted from root to tip? To ensure To ensure Because the Because the
that the root that the tip local angle local angle
produces produces of attack of a of attack of a
most thrust. most thrust. blade blade
segment is segment is
dependent dependent
on the ratio on the ratio
of that of that
segment 's segment 's
speed in the speed in the
plane of plane of
rotation and rotation and
the true the angular
airspeed of velocity of
the the
aeroplane. propellers.

5553 81
Constant-speed propellers provide a better performance produce an have a produce a have more
than fixed-pitch propellers because they: almost higher greater blade
maximum maximum maximum surface area
efficiency efficiency thrust than a than a fixed-
over a wider than a fixed- fixed-pitch pitch
speed pitch propeller. propeller.
range. propeller.

5554 81
If you pull back the RPM lever of a constant speed decrease decrease increase and increase and
propeller during a glide with idle power and constant and the rate and the rate the rate of the rate of
speed, the propeller pitch will: of descent of descent descent will descent will
will will increase. decrease. increase.
decrease.

5555 81
 Trailing edge flap extension will: increase the decrease increase the decrease
critical angle the critical critical angle the critical
of attack and angle of of attack and angle of
increase the attack and decrease attack and
value of decrease the value of increase the
CLmax. the value of CLmax. value of
CLmax. CLmax.
5556 81
Propeller efficiency may be defined as the ratio between: the usable the thermal usable the thrust
(power power of (power and the
available) fuel-flow and available) maximum
power and shaft power. power of the thrust.
the propeller
maximum and shaft
power. power.

5557 81
Deploying a Fowler flap, the flap will: just turn move aft, turn down, just move
down. then turn then move aft.
5558 81 down. aft.

When the blades of a propeller are in the feathered the RPM is the drag of the propeller the
position: then just the propeller produces an windmilling
sufficient to is then optimal RPM is the
lubricate the minimal. windmilling maximum.
engine. RPM.

5559 81
An aeroplane has the following flap settings : 0°, 15°, 30° The slats. Flaps from Flaps from Flaps from
and 45°. Slats can be selected too. Which of the above 0° to 15°. 15° to 30°. 30° to 45°.
selections will produce the greatest negative influence
on the CL/CD ratio?
5560 81
When an aeroplane is flying through the transonic range much more a higher IAS a pitch up a stability
with increasing Mach Number the centre of the pressure thrust from to input of the augmentatio
of the wing will move aft. This requires: the engine. compensate stabilizer. n system.
the nose
down effect.

5561 81
How does stalling speed (IAS) vary with altitude? It remains It remains It increases It remains
constant at constant. with constant at
lower increasing lower
altitudes but altitude, altitudes but
increases at because the decreases at
higher density higher
altitudes due decreases. altitudes due
to to
compressibil compressibil
ity effects. ity effects.

5562 81
The extreme right limitation for both V-n (gust and VC Vflutter VMO VD
5563 81 manoeuvre) diagrams is created by the speed:
Which combination of speeds is applicable for structural 50 ft/sec and 66 ft/sec and 65 ft/sec at 55 ft/sec and
5564 81 strength in gust (clean configuration) ? VC. VD. all speeds. VB.
The shape of the gust load diagram is also determinated 25, 55, 75 35, 55, 66 25, 50, 66 15, 56, 65
by the following three vertical speed in ft/s (clean
5565 81 configuration) :
Which load factor determines VA? manoeuvrin gust load manoeuvrin manoeuvrin
g ultimate factor at 66 g flap limit g limit load
5566 81 load factor. ft/sec gust. load factor. factor.
By what percentage does VA (EAS) alter when the 4.36% lower. no change 19% lower. 10% lower.
5567 81 aeroplane's weight decreases by 19%?
The relationship between the stall speed VS and VA VS= VA Va= VA VA= VS VS= VA
(EAS) for a large transport aeroplane can be expressed SQRT(3.75) SQRT(3.75) SQRT(2.5) SQRT(2.5)
in the following formula:
(SQRT= square root)
5568 81
 A commercial jet aeroplane is performing a straight MMO. VMO. VNE. VD.
descent at a constant Mach Number with constant
weight. The operational limit that may be exceeded is:
5569 81
Two methods to increase the critical Mach Number are: thin aerofoils positive thick thin aerofoils
and dihedral cambering aerofoils and and sweep
of the wing. of the dihedral of back of the
aerofoil and the wing. wing.
sweep back
of the wing.

5570 81
5571 81 The bow wave will appear first at: M= 1.3 M= 1.0 M= Mcrit M= 0.6
What is the limit load factor of a large transport 3.75 6 2.5 1.5
5572 81 aeroplane in the manoeuvring diagram?
The additional increase of drag at Mach Numbers above wave drag. increased increased increased
the critical Mach Number is due to: angle of interference skin friction.
5573 81 attack. drag.

The most important problem of ice accretion on an increase in blocking of reduction in increase in
aeroplane during flight is: drag. control CLmax. weight.
5574 81 surfaces.
The speed of sound is affected by the: pressure of humidity of temperature density of
5575 81 the air. the air. of the air. the air.
Climbing at a constant Mach Number up to FL 350 the first increase. remain decrease.
TAS will: increase, constant.
then
decrease.
5576 81
If the altitude is increased and the TAS remains constant not change. increase or increase. decrease.
in the standard troposphere the Mach Number will: decrease,
depends of
the type of
aeroplane.
5577 81
The formula for the Mach Number is: M= TAS / a M= a / TAS M= TAS*a M= IAS / a
5578 81 (a= speed of sound)
To be able to predict compressibility effects you have to Mach EAS. TAS. IAS.
5579 81 determine the: Number.
In transonic flight the ailerons will be less effective than behind the aileron down aileron aileron
in subsonic flight because: shock wave deflection deflection deflection
pressure is moves the only affects only partly
lower. shock wave the air in affects the
forward. front of the pressure
shock wave. distribution
around the
wing.
5580 81
In supersonic flight, all disturbances produced by an in front of very weak in between a outside the
aeroplane are: the and conical area, conical area
aeroplane. negligible. depending depending
on the Mach on the Mach
Number. Number.

5581 81
The critical Mach Number of an aeroplane can be dihedral of sweep back vortex control
increased by: the wings. of the wings. generators. deflection
5582 81
The critical Mach Number of an aeroplane is the free buffet. shock wave. supersonic local sonic
stream Mach Number, which produces the first evidence flow. flow.
5583 81 of :
 When air has passed an expansion wave, the static increased. unchanged. decreased. decreased
pressure is: or
increased,
depending
on Mach
Number.
5584 81
5585 81 The Mach trim system will prevent: dutch roll. buffeting. shock stall. tuck under.
Air passes a normal shock wave. Which of the following The The The velocity The
statements is correct? pressure temperature increases. temperature
decreases. decreases. increases.
5586 81
If an aeroplane is accelerated from subsonic to to a position to a position to the mid forward.
supersonic speeds, the centre of pressure will move: near the near the chord
leading trailing edge. position.
edge.

5587 81
Which of the following (1) aerofoils and (2) angles of (1) thick and (1) thick and (1) thin and (1) thin and
attack will produce the lowest Mcrit values? (2) large. (2) small. (2) large. (2) small.
5588 81
Which kind of flow separation occurs at the smallest shockstall. high-speed low-speed deep stall.
5589 81 angle of attack? stall. stall.
When the Mach number is slowly increased in straight on the somewhere somewhere at the wing
and level flight the first shockwaves will occur: underside of on the fin. on the root
the wing. hoizontal segment,
tail. upperside.
5590 81
The consequences of exceeding Mcrit in a swept-wing an increase engine buffeting of buffeting of
aeroplane may be : (assume no corrective devices, in speed and unbalance the the
straight and level flight) a tendency and aeroplane aeroplane
to pitch up. buffeting. and a and a
tendency to tendency to
pitch up. pitch down.
5591 81
A jet aeroplane cruises buffet free at high constant Shock stall. Deep stall. Accelerated Low speed
altitude in significant turbulence. Which type of stall can stall. stall.
5592 81 occur if this aeroplane decelerates?
Which type of stall has the largest associated angle of Low speed Deep stall. Shock stall. Accelerated
5593 81 attack? stall. stall.
Which of the following statements is correct ? I is correct, II I is incorrect, I is incorrect, I is correct, II
I When the critical engine fails during take-off the speed is incorrect II is correct II is incorrect is correct
VMCL can be limiting.
II The speed VMCL is always limited by maximum rudder
deflection.
5594 81
Which of the following statements is correct ? I is correct, II I is incorrect, I is correct, II I is incorrect,
I When the critical engine fails during take-off the speed is correct II is incorrect is incorrect II is correct
VMCL can be limiting.
II The speed VMCL can be limited by the available
maximum roll rate
5595 81
Which of the following statements is correct ? I is incorrect, I is correct, II I is incorrect, I is correct, II
I VMCL is the minimum control speed in the landing II is incorrect is incorrect II is correct is correct
configuration.
II The speed VMCL can be limited by the available
maximum roll rate
5596 81
The speed for minimum glide angle occurs at a certain CLmax (CL/CD^2)m (CL^3/CD^2) (CL/CD)max
angle of attack. Which are the corresponding ax max
5597 81 aerodynamic coefficients(s) ?
 What can happen to the aeroplane structure flying at a It may suffer It may break It may suffer It will
speed just exceeding VA ? permanent if the permanent collapse if a
deformation elevator is deformation turn is
if the fully because the made.
elevator is deflected flight is
fully upwards. performed at
deflected too large
upwards dynamic
pressure.

5598 81
The maximum acceptable cruising altitude is limited by a Mach buffet turbulence turbulence a sudden
minimum acceptable loadfactor because exceeding that will occur may induce may exceed necessary
altitude: immediately. Mach buffet. the limit load bankangle
factor. may exceed
the limit load
factor.

5599 81
If you push forward the RPM lever of a constant speed decrease increase and increase and decrease
propeller during a glide with idle power and constant and the rate the rate of the rate of and the rate
speed, the propeller pitch will: of descent descent will descent will of descent
will increase. decrease. increase. will
decrease.

5600 81
Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing surface decrease increase the decrease increase the
will: the intensity critical Mach the span magnitude
of shock Number. wise flow at of the shock
wave high Mach wave.
induced air Numbers.
separation.

5601 81
Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing: increase decrease decrease increase
critical Mach critical Mach wave drag. wave drag.
Number. Number.
5602 81
The aft movement of the centre of pressure during the decrease increase the decrease increase the
acceleration through the transonic flight regime will: the static static the static lateral
lateral longitudinal longitudinal stability.
stability. stability. stability.
5603 81
In supersonic flight aerofoil pressure distribution is: rectangular. irregular. triangular. the same as
in subsonic
flight.
5604 81
Shock stall is: separation separation separation separation
of the flow of the flow at of the flow at of the
behind the high angles the trailing boundary
bow wave. of attack and edge of the layer behind
at high Mach wing at high the shock
Numbers. Mach wave.
Numbers.

5605 81
In the transonic range the aeroplane characteristics are the IAS. the CAS. the Mach the TAS.
5606 81 strongly determined by: Number.
The effect of a high wing with zero dihedral is as follows: Negative Its only Zero Positive
dihedral purpose is to dihedral dihedral
effect ease effect effect
aeroplane
loading
5607 81
The effect of a positive wing sweep on static directional Stabilizing No effect Destabilizing Negative
stability is as follows: effect dihedral dihedral
5608 81 effect effect
 Which of the following flight phenomena can only Elevator Mach buffet. Dutch roll. Speed
happen at Mach Numbers above the critical Mach stall. instability.
5609 81 Number?
Which of the following flight phenomena can happen at Shock stall. Dutch roll. Tuck under. Mach buffet.
Mach Numbers below the critical Mach Number?
5610 81
The effects of very heavy rain (tropical rain) on the increase of decrease of decrease of increase of
aerodynamic characteristics of an aeroplane are: CLmax and CLmax and CLmax and CLmax and
decrease of increase of decrease of increase of
drag. drag. drag. drag.

5611 81
How does VMCG change with increasing field elevation increases, increases, decreases, decreases,
and temperature ? because at a because because the because
lower VMCG is engine VMCG is
density a related to V1 thrust expressed in
larger IAS is and VR and decreases. IAS and the
necessary to those IAS
generate the speeds decreases
required increase if with TAS
rudder force the density constant and
decreases decreasing
density

5612 81
Which statement about stick force per g is correct? The stick The stick If the slope The stick
force per g force per g of the Fe-n force per g
increases, can only be line must have
when centre corrected by becomes both an
of gravity is means of negative, upper and
moved aft. electronic generally lower limit in
devices speaking order to
(stability this is not a assure
augmentatio problem for acceptable
n) in case of control of an control
an aeroplane. characteristi
unacceptabl cs.
e value.

5613 81
The correct drag formula is: D= CD 1/2 D= CD 2 D= CD 1/2 D= CD 1/2
5614 81 RHO V² S RHO V² S RHO V S 1/RHO V² S
At an aeroplane's minimum drag speed, what is the ratio 2/1 1/2 1/1 It varies
between induced drag Di and profile drag Dp? Di/Dp= between
aeroplane
types.
5615 81
If the nose of an aeroplane yaws to port (left), this a roll to a roll to port a decrease an increase
causes: starboard (left). in relative in lift on the
(right). airspeed on port (left)
the wing.
starboard
(right) wing.

5616 81
Drag is in the direction of - and lift is perpendicular to the: horizon. longitudinal relative chord line.
axis. wind/airflow.
5617 81
 Which one of the following statements about the lift-to- At the The highest The lift/drag The highest
drag ratio in straight and level flight is correct? highest value of the ratio always value of the
value of the lift/drag ratio increases as lift/drag ratio
lift/drag ratio is reached the lift is reached
the total when the lift decreases. when the lift
drag is is zero. is equal to
lowest. the aircraft
weight.

5618 81
Which of the following wing planforms gives the highest Rectangular. Elliptical. Tapered. Positive
local profile lift coefficient at the wingroot ? angle of
5619 81 sweep.
An aeroplane has a stalling speed of 100 kt in a steady 141 kt. 82 kt. 150 kt. 122 kt.
level flight. When the aeroplane is flying a level turn with
a load factor of 1.5, the stalling speed is:
5620 81
Which type of wing arrangement decreases the static Increased Anhedral. Dihedral. High wing.
5621 81 lateral stability of an aeroplane? wing span.
Why is VMCG determined with the nosewheel steering Because the Because it Because Because the
disconnected? nosewheel must be nosewheel value of
steering possible to steering has VMCG must
could abort the no effect on also be
become take-off the value of applicable
inoperative even after VMCG. on wet
after an the and/or
engine has nosewheel slippery
failed. has already runways.
been lifted
off the
ground.

5622 81
What is the effect of high aspect ratio of an aeroplane's It is It is It is reduced It is
wing on induced drag? unaffected increased because the increased
because because effect of because
there is no high aspect wing-tip high aspect
relation ratio vortices is ratio has
between produces reduced. greater
aspect ratio greater frontal area.
and induced downwash.
drag.

5623 81
Which part of an aeroplane provides the greatest The The engine. The The wing.
positive contribution to the static longitudinal stability ? horizontal fuselage.
5624 81 tailplane.

Extension of FOWLER type trailing edge lift no pitching a nose-up a force a nose-down
augmentation devices, will produce: moment. pitching which pitching
moment. reduces moment.
drag.
5625 81
(For this question use annex 081-1331A) M= 0.72 to M= 0.65 to M= 0.74 to M= 0.69 to
An A 310 aeroplane weighing 100 tons is turning at FL M higher M higher M= 0.84 M higher
350 at constant altitude with a bank of 50 degrees. Its than 0.84 than 0.84 than 0.84
flight Mach range between low-speed buffeting and high-
speed buffeting goes from:
5626 81
 Which of the following statements about static lateral and An The effects An Static
directional stability is correct? aeroplane of static aeroplane directional
with an lateral and with an stability can
excessive static excessive be increased
static directional static by installing
directional stability are directional more
stability in completely stability in powerful
relation to its independent relation to its engines.
static lateral of each static lateral
stability, will other stability, will
be prone to because be prone to
spiral dive. they take "Dutch roll".
(spiral place about
instability) different
axis.

5627 81
Which statement is correct about an expansion wave in 1 is correct 1 and 2 are 1 is incorrect 1 and 2 are
supersonic flow ? and 2 is correct. and 2 is incorrect.
incorrect. correct.
1. The temperature in front of an expansion wave is
higher than the temperature behind it.

2. The speed in front of an expansion wave is higher

than the speed behind it.
5628 81
The manoeuvrability of an aeroplane is best when the: speed is low. C.G. flaps are C.G. is on
position is down. the aft C.G.
on the limit.
forward C.G.
limit.
5629 81
When the C.G. position is moved forward, the elevator larger. smaller. unchanged. dependent
deflection for a manoeuvre with a load factor greater on trim
5630 81 than 1 will be: position.

By what approximate percentage will the stall speed 52% 19% 31% 41%
increase in a horizontal coordinated turn with a bank
5631 81 angle of 45° ?
The buffet margin : increases is always decreases is always
during a greatest during a positive at
descent with after a descent with Mach
a constant stepclimb a constant numbers
IAS. has been Mach below MMO.
executed. number.

5632 81
The angle of attack of a wing profile is defined as the The local The local The The
angle between : airflow and airflow and undisturbed undisturbed
the mean the airflow and airflow and
camberline. chordline. the mean the
camberline. chordline.
5633 81
Which of the following statements, about a venturi in a 1 and 2 are 1 is incorrect 1 and 2 are 1 is correct
sub-sonic airflow are correct? incorrect. and 2 is correct. and 2 is
correct. incorrect.
1. the dynamic pressure in the undisturbed flow and in
the throat are equal.

2. the total pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the

throat are equal.
5634 81
 Which statement is correct about the gust load on an 1 is incorrect 1 is correct 1 and 2 are 1 and 2 are
aeroplane (IAS and all other factors of importance and 2 is and 2 is correct. incorrect.
remaining constant) ? correct. incorrect.

1. the gust load increases, when the weight decreases.

2. the gust load increases, when the altitude increases.

5635 81
The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a light 4.4 2.5 3.8 6.0
aeroplane in the utility category in the clean configuration
5636 81 is:
How does the exterior view of an aeroplane change, The elevator The elevator The elevator Nothing
when the trim is used during a speed decrease ? is deflected is deflected is deflected changes in
further further further the exterior
downwards upwards by downwards view.
by means of means of a by means of
an upwards downwards a trimmable
deflected deflected horizontal
trimtab. trimtab. stabiliser.

5637 81
Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces spring tab, servo tab, balance tab, mass in the
are: servo tab, spring tab, horn nose of the
and power seal balance, and control
assisted between the mass surface,
control. wing trailing balance. horn
edge and balance and
the leading mass
edge of balance.
control
surface.

5638 81
Which statement is correct about an expansion wave in a 1 is incorrect 1 and 2 are 1 and 2 are 1 is correct
supersonic flow ? and 2 is incorrect. correct. and 2 is
correct. incorrect.
1- The density in front of an expansion wave is higher
than behind.

2- The pressure in front of an expansion wave is higher

than behind.
5639 81
The value of the parasite drag in straight and level flight angle of square of square of speed.
at constant weight varies linearly with the: attack. the angle of the speed.
5640 81 attack.
An engine failure can result in a windmilling (1) propeller (1) is larger (1) is equal (2) is larger impossible
and a non rotating (2) propeller. Which statement about than (2). to (2). than (1). to say which
propeller drag is correct? one is
largest.
5641 81
An aeroplane accelerates from 80 kt to 160 kt at a load (i) 1/2 (ii) (i) 4 (ii) 1/2 (i) 1/16 (ii) (i) 1/4 (ii) 2
factor equal to 1. The induced drag coefficient (i) and the 1/16 1/4
induced drag (ii) alter with the following factors:
5642 81
The terms "q" and "S" in the lift formula are: static static dynamic square root
pressure pressure pressure of surface
and wing and dynamic and the area and wing
surface area pressure of the wing loading

5643 81
 An advantage of locating the engines at the rear of the lighter wing less easier a wing which
fuselage, in comparison to a location beneath the wing, construction. influence on maintenance is less
is : longitudinal of the sensitive to
control of engines. flutter.
thrust
changes.

5644 81
Which phenomenon is counteracted with differential Sensitivity Turn co- Adverse Aileron
aileron deflection? for spiral ordination. yaw. reversal.
5645 81 dive.

The value of the induced drag of an aeroplane in straight V 1/V 1/V² V²

and level flight at constant weight varies linearly with:
5646 81
If flaps are deployed at constant IAS in straight and level increase. remain the increase or decrease.
flight, the magnitude of tip vortices will eventually : (flap same. decrease,
span less than wing span) depending
on the initial
angle of
attack.
5647 81
Which of the following wing planforms produces the Circular. Elliptical. Rectangular. Tapered.
lowest induced drag? (all other relevant factors constant)
5648 81
In what way do (1) induced drag and (2) parasite drag (1) (1) (1) (1)
alter with increasing speed? decreases increases decreases increases
and (2) and (2) and (2) and (2)
increases. increases. decreases. decreases.
5649 81
The effect of a ventral fin on the static stability of an 1 : no effect, 1 : positive, 1 : negative, 1 : no effect,
aeroplane is as follows : 2 : negative, 2 : negative, 2 : positive, 2 : positive,
(1=longitudinal, 2=lateral, 3=directional) 3 : positive 3 : negative 3 : positive 3: negative
5650 81
What is the effect of a decreasing aeroplane weight on increases. remains is decreases.
Mcrit at n=1, when flying at constant IAS ? The value of constant. independent
Mcrit: of the angle
of attack.

5651 81
One method to compensate adverse yaw is a balance differential balance tab. antibalance
5652 81 panel. aileron. tab.
Which moments or motions interact in a dutch roll? Pitching and Pitching and Pitching and Rolling and
yawing. rolling. adverse yawing.
yaw.
5653 81
The relationship between induced drag and the aspect induced an increase a decrease there is no
ratio is: drag = 1.3 in the aspect in the aspect relationship
aspect ratio ratio ratio
value increases increases
the induced the induced
drag drag
5654 81
A high aspect ratio wing produces: an increase a decrease less a decrease
in induced in induced sensitivity to in stall
drag drag gust effects speed
5655 81
 What is the effect on induced drag of weight and speed induced induced induced induced
changes ? drag drag drag drag
decreases increases increases decreases
with with with with
decreasing increasing decreasing increasing
speed and speed and speed and speed and
induced induced induced induced
drag drag drag drag
decreases increases increases decreases
with with with with
increasing decreasing increasing decreasing
weight weight weight weight

5656 81
What will happen in ground effect ? the wing an increase a significant the induced
downwash in strength increase in angle of
on the tail of the wing thrust attack and
surfaces tip vortices required induced
increases drag
decreases
5657 81
Floating due to ground effect during an approach to land when a at a speed when the when the
will occur : higher than approaching height is height is
normal the stall less than less than
angle of halve of the twice the
attack is length of the length of the
used wing span wing span
above the above the
surface surface
5658 81
Which statement is correct about the laminar and friction drag friction drag friction drag separation
turbulent boundary layer : is lower in will be equal is lower in point will
the laminar in both types the turbulent occur earlier
layer of layers layer in the
turbulent
layer

5659 81
A Machtrimmer: corrects increases is necessary has no effect
insufficient the stick for on the
stick force force per g compensatio shape of the
stability at at high Mach n of the elevator
high Mach Numbers. autopilot at position
Numbers. high Mach versus
Numbers. speed (IAS)
curve for a
fully
hydraulic
controlled
aeroplane.

5660 81
Sensitivity for spiral dive will occur when : the static the static the dutch roll the static
directional lateral and tendency is directional
stability is directional too strongly stability is
negative and stability are suppressed positive and
the static both by the yaw the static
lateral negative. damper. lateral
stability is stability is
positive. relatively
weak.

5661 81
The span-wise flow is caused by the difference between the top to beneath to the top to beneath to
the air pressure on top and beneath the wing and its beneath the the top of beneath the the top of
direction of movement goes from : wing via the the wing via wing via the the wing via
wing's the trailing leading the wing tip
trailing edge edge edge

5662 81
 A slotted flap will increase the CLmax by: increasing decreasing increasing increasing
the camber the skin only the the critical
of the friction. camber of angle of
aerofoil and the aerofoil. attack.
improving
the
boundary
layer.
5663 81
The Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC) for a given wing of the chord of the chord of the average the wing
any planform is a a large chord of the area divided
rectangular rectangular actual by the wing
wing with wing aeroplane span
same
moment and
lift
5664 81
What is the most effective flap system? Fowler flap. Split flap. Plain flap. Single
5665 81 slotted flap.
Which of the following statements about the difference Deploying a Deploying a Deploying a Deploying a
between Krueger flaps and slats is correct? Krueger flap slat will form Krueger flap slat will
will increase a slot, will form a increase
critical angle deploying a slot, critical angle
of attack, Krueger flap deploying a of attack,
deploying a does not. slat does deploying a
slat does not. Krueger flap
not. does not.

5666 81
In case the Mach trimmer fails: the Mach try to the speed the
number relocate the must be kept aeroplane
must be centre-of- constant. weight must
limited. gravity aft. be limited.

5667 81
Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of tailwind headwind increase of decrease of
ground distance during a glide ? aeroplane aeroplane
weight weight
5668 81
In general transport aeroplanes with power assisted trim tab effectivenes the pilot mechanical
flight controls are fitted with an adjustable stabilizer deflection s of trim tabs does not feel adjustment
instead of trim tabs on the elevator. This is because : increases is insufficient the stick of trim tabs
Mcrit for those forces at all creates too
aeroplanes many
problems
5669 81
What should be usually done to perform a landing with choose a choose a if possible, use the
the stabilizer jammed in the cruise flight position ? higher lower relocate as Mach
landing landing many trimmer until
speed than speed than passengers after
normal normal. as possible landing.
and/or use a to the front
lower of the cabin.
flapsetting
for landing.

5670 81
Which statement is correct about the Cl and angle of for an for a for a for an
attack? asymmetric symmetric symmetric asymmetric
aerofoil with aerofoil, if aerofoil, if aerofoil, if
positive angle of angle of angle of
camber, if attack = 0, attack = 0, attack = 0,
angle of Cl =0 Cl is not Cl =0
attack is equal to 0
greater than
0, Cl = 0

5671 81
 Comparing the lift coefficient and drag coefficient at CL is much CL is much CL has CL is lower
normal angle of attack: lower than greater than approximatel than CD
CD CD y the same
value as CD

5672 81
The critical angle of attack: changes remains increases if decreases if
with an unchanged the CG is the CG is
increase in regardless moved moved aft
gross weight of gross forward
weight
5673 81
The frontal area of a body, placed in a certain airstream 9. 6. 1.5 . 3.
is increased by a factor 3. The shape will not alter. The
aerodynamic drag will increase with a factor :
5674 81
The following unit of measurement: kgm/s² is expressed Newton Pascal Joule Watt
5675 81 in the SI-system as :
In what way is the longitudinal stability affected by the Negative, Positive, No effect, Positive,
degree of positive camber of the aerofoil? because the because the because because the
lift vector lift vector camber of centre of
rotates rotates the aerofoil pressure
forward at backward at produces a shifts
increasing increasing constant rearward at
angle of angle of pitch down increasing
attack. attack. moment angle of
coefficient, attack.
independent
of angle of
attack.

5676 81
An aeroplane is in a steady turn, at a constant TAS of 3354 2381 4743 9000
300 kt, and a bank angle of 45°. Its turning radius is metres. metres. metres. metres.
equal to:
(given: g= 10 m/s²)
5677 81
Which kind of ''tab'' is commonly used in case of manual Servo tab Spring tab Balance tab Anti-balance
5678 81 reversion of fully powered flight controls ? tab
When comparing a rectangular wing and a swept back Higher Greater Increased Lower
wing of the same wing area and wing loading, the swept critical Mach strength longitudinal stalling
back wing has the advantage of : number stability speed
5679 81
The Mach-trim function is installed on most commercial uncontrolled compressibil changes in increased
jets in order to minimize the adverse effects of : changes in ity effects on the position drag due to
stabilizer the stabilizer of centre of shock wave
setting pressure formation

5680 81
There are two types of boundary layer: laminar and it has less it is thinner skin friction energy is
turbulent. One important advantage the turbulent tendency to drag is less less
boundary layer has over the laminar type is that : separate
from the
surface
5681 81
Induced drag may be reduced by: a decrease the use of a an increase an increase
of the aspect wing tip with in aspect in the taper
ratio a much ratio ratio of the
thinner wing
aerofoil

5682 81
Excluding constants, the coefficient of induced drag CL²and S CL² and AR CL and CD CL and b
(CDi) is the ratio of : (wing (aspect (wing span)
5683 81 surface) ratio)
 Which of the following lists aeroplane features that each Low wing, Fuselage Sweep back, High wing,
increase static lateral stability ? dihedral, mounted under wing sweep back,
elliptical engines, mounted large and
wing dihedral, T- engines, high vertical
planform. tail. winglets. fin.

5684 81
What factors determine the distance travelled over the The wind The wind The wind The wind
ground of an aeroplane in a glide ? and the and the and CLmax and weight
lift/drag aeroplane's together with
ratio, which mass power
changes loading,
with angle of which is the
attack ratio of
power
output to the
weight

5685 81
For an aeroplane with one fixed value of VA the following the speed at the the speed at just another
applies. VA is : which the maximum which symbol for
aeroplane speed in unrestricted the rough air
stalls at the smooth air application speed
manoeuvrin of elevator
g limit load control can
factor at be used,
MTOW. without
exceeding
the
maximum
manoeuvrin
g limit load
factor

5686 81
One disadvantage of the swept back wing is it's stalling leading tip stall will wing root tip stall will
characteristics. At the stall : edge stall occur first, stall will occur first,
will occur which occur first, which
first, which produces a which produces a
produces a pitch-up produces a nose-down
nose-down moment. rolling moment
moment moment
5687 81
The polar curve of an aerofoil is a graphic relation Angle of CD and CL and CD TAS and
between : attack and angle of stall speed
5688 81 CL attack
Critical Mach-number is the : highest speed at speed at highest
speed which there which there speed at
without is subsonic is which the
supersonic airflow over supersonic aeroplane is
flow over all parts of airflow over certificated
any part of the all parts of for operation
the aircraaeropl the (MMO).
aeroplane. ane Mach aeroplane.
number < 1).

5689 81
S) - AEROPLANES

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0
1 0 0 0
0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1
0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0
1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0
0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0
0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0
0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0
1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0
0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0
1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0
0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0
1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0
0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0
1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0
0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0
0 1 0 0
0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0
0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0
1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0
0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0
0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0
0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0
0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1
0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0
0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0
1 0 0 0
0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0
0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0
0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0
0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1
1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1
0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0
0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0
0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0
0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0
0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1
0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1
0 0 1 0
0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1
1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0
0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0
1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1
1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0
0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0
0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0
0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1
1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0
0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0
0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0
 PERFORMANCE OF AEROPLANES

34 1hr

Which of the following statements with regard to the The There is no The A lower height
actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd minimum legal minimum than 400 ft is
climb segment is correct? value minimum value allowed in
according to value, according to special
regulations because this regulations circumstances
is 1000 ft. will be is 400 ft. e.g. noise
determined abatement.
from case to
case during
the
calculation
of the net
flight path.

1720 32 0 0 1 0
What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of The ROC is The ROC The ROC The ROC
climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain affected by and the speed speed
constant ? the mass, ROC speed increases decreases
but not the are with with
ROC speed. independant increasing increasing
of the mass. mass. mass.

1721 32 0 0 1 0
Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or VMCA V1 V2 VMCG
1722 32 absence of stopway and/or clearway ? 0 1 0 0
Uphill slope increases increases decreases decreases the
the allowed the take-off the take-off
take-off distance accelerate distance only.
mass. more than stop
the distance
accelerate only.
stop
distance.
1723 32 0 1 0 0
Balanced V1 is selected if it is equal if the for a runway for a runway
to V2. accelerate length length limited
stop limited take- take-off with a
distance is off with a clearway to
equal to the stopway to give the
one engine give the highest mass.
out take-off highest
distance. mass.

1724 32 0 1 0 0
A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where: The The The The one
accelerate clearway accelerate engine out
stop does not stop take-off
distance is equal the distance is distance is
equal to the stopway. equal to the equal to the
take-off all engine all engine
distance take-off take-off
available. distance. distance.
1725 32 1 0 0 0
 V2 has to be equal to or higher than 1.15 VMCG. 1.1 VSO. 1.15 VR. 1.1 VMCA.
1726 32 0 0 0 1
Which one of the following statements concerning drift- The drift- The drift- An engine When
down is correct? down down failure at determining
procedure procedure high cruising the obstacle
requires a requires a altitude will clearance
minimum minimum always during drift-
descent obstacle result in a down, fuel
angle after clearance of drift-down, dumping may
an engine 35 ft. because it is be taken into
failure at not account.
cruising permitted to
altitude. fly the same
altitude with
one engine
inoperative
as with all
engines
operating.

1727 32 0 0 0 1
The take-off safety speed V2min for turbo-propeller 1.2 Vs 1.2 Vs1 1.15 Vs 1.3 Vs
powered aeroplanes with more than three engines may
1728 32 not be less than: 0 0 1 0
The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed Depending Higher Lower Depending on
for maximum range cruise. on density the OAT and
altitude and net mass.
mass.
1729 32 0 1 0 0
According to JAR-OPS 1, which one of the following Malfunctioni The landing When Reverse
statements concerning the landing distance for a ng of an distance is determining thrust is one
turbojet aeroplane is correct? anti-skid the distance the of the factors
system has from 35 ft maximum always taken
no effect on above the allowable into account
the required surface of landing when
runway the runway mass at determining
length. to the full destination, the landing
stop. 60% of the distance
available required.
landing
runway
length
should be
taken into
account.

1730 32 0 0 1 0
The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the The climb The climb None. The effect
climb limit. What would be the effect on this limit of an limited take- limited take- would vary
increase in the headwind component? off mass off mass depending
would would upon the
increase. decrease. height of any
obstacle
within the net
take-off flight
path.

1731 32 0 0 1 0
 If the field length limited take off mass has been a greater a greater the obstacle the obstacle
calculated using a Balanced Field Length technique, field length field length clearance clearance
the use of any additional clearway in take off limited take limited take limit to be limit to be
performance calculations may allow off mass but off mass but increased increased
with a lower with a higher with no with an higher
V1 V1 effect on V1 V1

1732 32 1 0 0 0
The speed V2 is the lowest the take-off that speed the lowest
safety safety at which the airspeed
airspeed at speed. PIC should required to
which the decide to retract flaps
aeroplane is continue or without stall
under not the take- problems.
control with off in the
aerodynamic case of an
surfaces in engine
the case of failure.
an engine
failure.

1733 32 0 1 0 0
Which statement regarding the influence of a runway increases reduces V1 increases reduces V1
down-slope is correct for a balanced take-off? Down- V1 and and reduces V1 and and increases
slope... increases take-off reduces the the accelerate
the take-off distance accelerate stop distance
distance required stop required
required (TODR). distance (ASDR).
(TODR). required
(ASDR).

1734 32 0 1 0 0
Which of the following statements is applicable to the The The There is no The minimum
acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb maximum minimum requirement one engine
segment ? acceleration legally for minimum out
height allowed climb acceleration
depends on acceleration performance height must
the height is at when flying be maintained
maximum 1500 ft. at the in case of all
time take-off acceleration engines
thrust may height. operating.
be applied.

1735 32 1 0 0 0
 Which of the following statements with regard to the An An An An aeroplane
optimum cruise altitude (best fuel mileage) is correct? aeroplane aeroplane aeroplane always flies
usually flies sometimes always flies on the
above the flies above below the optimum
optimum the optimum optimum cruise
cruise cruise cruise altitude,
altitude, as altitude, altitude, as because this
this provides because otherwise is most
the largest ATC Mach buffet attractive from
specific normally can occur. an economy
range. does not point of view.
allow to fly
continuously
at the
optimum
cruise
altitude.

1736 32 0 1 0 0
Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance The speed V2 + 10 kt. The speed V2.
during climb? for which the for
ratio maximum
between rate of climb.
rate of climb
and forward
speed is
maximum.

1737 32 1 0 0 0
In a given configuration the endurance of a piston speed, mass altitude, altitude, speed and
engined aeroplane only depends on: and fuel on speed, mass speed and mass.
board. and fuel on mass.
board.

1738 32 0 1 0 0
A multi engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum Straight Straight Heading, Altitude
control speed (VMCA). Which parameter(s) must be flight flight and altitude and
maintainable after engine failure? altitude a positive
rate of climb
of 100 ft/min

1739 32 1 0 0 0
Which statement regarding the relationship between The The The The traffic
traffic load and range is correct? maximum maximum maximum load can be
zero fuel landing traffic load is limited by the
mass limits mass is not limited desired
the basically by the range.
maximum equal to the reserve fuel
quantity of maximum quantity.
fuel. zero fuel
mass.

1740 32 0 0 0 1
The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engined or three- 1.3 Vs 1.15 Vs 1.15 Vs1 1.2 Vs
engined turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not
1741 32 be less than: 0 0 0 1
Which of the jet engine ratings below is not a certified Maximum Maximum Go-Around Maximum
rating? Cruise Continuous Thrust Take-off
1742 32 Thrust Thrust Thrust 1 0 0 0
 Which statement with respect to the step climb is Performing a In principle a A step climb A step climb
correct ? step climb step climb is may not be provides
based on performed performed better
economy immediately unless it is economy than
can be after the indicated in a cruise climb.
limited by aircraft has the filed
the 1.3-g exceeded flight plan.
altitude. the optimum
altitude.

1743 32 1 0 0 0
The speed VLO is defined as long lift off speed. landing gear design low
distance operating operating
operating speed. speed.
speed.
1744 32 0 0 1 0
The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as take-off lift off speed. take-off critical engine
climb speed decision failure speed.
or speed at speed.
35 ft.
1745 32 1 0 0 0
The speed VS is defined as speed for stalling safety speed design stress
best specific speed or for take-off speed.
range. minimum in case of a
steady flight contaminate
speed at d runway.
which the
aeroplane is
controllable.

1746 32 0 1 0 0
The speed V1 is defined as take-off take-off speed for engine failure
decision climb speed. best angle of speed.
1747 32 speed. climb. 1 0 0 0
With all other things remaining unchanged and with T independent proportional proportional proportional
the outside static air temperature expressed in degrees from T to T to 1/T² to 1/T
K, the hourly fuel consumption of a turbojet powered
aeroplane in a cruise flight with a constant Mach
Number and zero headwind,is as follows:

1748 32 0 1 0 0
Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel 3787 kg/h 3426 kg/h 3259 kg/h 3602 kg/h
consumption is assumed to be constant) are in a
holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the
first one is 95 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is
equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the second one
is 105 000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is:

1749 32 0 0 1 0
A constant headwind component increases decreases increases increases the
the best rate the angle of the angle of flight
of climb. climb. maximum path during
endurance. climb.
1750 32 0 0 0 1
On a twin engined piston aircraft with variable pitch inferior to 95 is between equal to 125 equal to 95 kt
propellers, for a given mass and altitude, the minimum kts 95 and 125 kt
drag speed is 125 kt and the holding speed (minimum kt
fuel burn per hour) is 95 kt.

The best rate of climb speed will be obtained for a

speed:
1751 32 0 0 0 1
 Density altitude is the height above pressure altitude altitude read
the surface altitude reference to directly from
corrected for the standard the altimeter
'non datum plane
standard'
temperature

1752 32 0 1 0 0
If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage independent lower with higher with a lower with a
(nautical miles per kg) is from the an aft centre forward forward
centre of of gravity centre of centre of
gravity position. gravity gravity
position. position. position.
1753 32 0 0 0 1
V1 has to be higher than equal to or equal to or equal to or
than VR. higher than higher than higher than
1754 32 V2. VMCG. VMCA. 0 0 1 0
The take-off distance of an aircraft is 600m in standard 685 m 755 m 715 m 555 m
atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft pressure-altitude.
Using the following corrections:
"± 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation"
"- 5 m / kt headwind"
"+ 10 m / kt tail wind"
"± 15 m / % runway slope"
"± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature"
The take-off distance from an airport at 1 000 ft
elevation, temperature 17°C, QNH 1013,25 hPa, 1%
up-slope, 10 kt tail wind is:

1755 32 0 1 0 0
On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a an increase requires an an increase a higher
given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at in airspeed increase in in airspeed coefficient of
higher gross mass is required power and and power is drag is
but power decrease in required. required.
setting does the
not change. airspeed.

1756 32 0 0 1 0
On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a the lift/drag the airspeed the airspeed the airspeed
given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at ratio must will be and the drag will be
higher gross mass be increased will be decreased
increased. but the drag increased. and the drag
does not increased.
change.

1757 32 0 0 1 0
The take-off distance required increases due to due to head due to lower due to slush
downhill wind gross mass on the
slope because of at take-off. runway.
because of the drag
the smaller augmentatio
angle of n.
attack.
1758 32 0 0 0 1
Due to standing water on the runway the field length higher. unaffected. only higher lower.
limited take-off mass will be for three and
four engine
aeroplanes.

1759 32 0 0 0 1
 On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is by uphill by by low by a lower
increased slope. headwind. outside air take-off mass
temperature. because the
aeroplane
accelerates
faster to V1.

1760 32 1 0 0 0
Which statement regarding V1 is correct ? When The VR may not V1 may not
determining correction be lower be higher
V1, reverse for up-slope than V1 than Vmcg
thrust may on the
only be used balanced V1
on the is negative
remaining
symmetric
engines

1761 32 0 0 1 0
How does the thrust of fixed propeller vary during take- has no decreases increases varies with
off run ? The thrust change slightly while slightly while mass
during take- the the changes only.
off and aeroplane aeroplane
climb. speed builds speed builds
up. up.
1762 32 0 1 0 0
During climb to the cruising level, a headwind increases increases decreases decreases the
component the amount the climb the climb ground
of fuel for time. time. distance flown
the climb. during that
climb.
1763 32 0 0 0 1
A constant headwind increases increases increases increases the
the angle of the angle of the rate of descent
the descent descent. descent. distance over
flight path. ground.
1764 32 1 0 0 0
VR cannot be lower than: 105% of V1 1.2 Vs for 1.15 Vs for V1 and 105%
and VMCA. twin and turbo-prop of VMCA.
three engine with three or
jet more
aeroplane. engines.
1765 32 0 0 0 1
By what factor must the landing distance available (dry 60/115 0.60 115/100 1.67
runway) for a turbojet powered aeroplane be multiplied
to find the landing distance required? (planning phase
for destination).
1766 32 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-6570A or approximatel approximatel approximatel approximately
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) y : 1300 feet y : 950 feet y : 1400 feet : 750 feet
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine
aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height
of 50 ft .

Given :
O.A.T : ISA +15°C
Pressure Altitude: 0 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 2940 lbs
Tailwind component: 10 kt
Flaps: Landing position (down)
Runway: Tarred and Dry

1767 32 1 0 0 0
 (For this question use annex 032-6571A or approximatel approximatel approximatel approximately
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) y : 1700 feet y :1150 feet y : 1500 feet : 920 feet
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine
aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height
of 50 ft .

Given :
O.A.T : ISA
Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 3500 lbs
Tailwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: Landing position (down)
Runway: Tarred and Dry

1768 32 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-6572A or approximatel approximatel approximatel approximately
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) y : 1480 feet y : 940 feet y : 1650 feet : 1150 feet
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine
aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height
of 50 ft .

Given :
O.A.T : 0°C
Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 3500 lbs
Tailwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: Landing position (down)
Runway: Tarred and Dry

1769 32 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 032-6573A or approximatel approximatel approximatel approximately
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) y : 1450 feet y :1794 feet y : 1300 feet : 2000 feet
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine
aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height
of 50 ft .

Given :
O.A.T : ISA +15°C
Pressure Altitude: 0 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 2940 lbs
Headwind component: 10 kt
Flaps: Landing position (down)
Runway: short and wet grass- firm soil
Correction factor (wet grass): 1.38

1770 32 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-6574A or approximatel approximatel approximatel approximately
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1) y : 2800 feet y : 2200 feet y : 2470 feet : 1440 feet
With regard to the take off performance chart for the
single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance
to a height of 50 ft .

Given :
O.A.T : 30°C
Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 3450 lbs
Tailwind component: 2.5 kt
Flaps: up
Runway: Tarred and Dry

1771 32 0 0 1 0
 (For this question use annex 032-6575A or 2900 lbs > 3650 lbs 3240 lbs 3000 lbs
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)
With regard to the take off performance chart for the
single engine aeroplane determine the maximum
allowable take off mass .

Given :
O.A.T : ISA
Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft
Headwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: up
Runway: Tarred and Dry
Factored runway length: 2000 ft
Obstacle height: 50 ft

1772 32 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 032-6576A or approximatel approximatel approximatel approximately
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2) y : 2050 ft y : 1150 ft y : 2450 ft : 1260 ft
With regard to the take off performance chart for the
single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance
to a height of 50 ft.

Given :
O.A.T : -7°C
Pressure Altitude: 7000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 2950 lbs
Headwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: Approach setting
Runway: Tarred and Dry

1773 32 1 0 0 0
On a segment of the take-off flight path an obstacle 106425 kg 118455 kg 102150 kg 121310 kg
requires a minimum gradient of climb of 2.6% in order
to provide an adequate margin of safe clearance. At a
mass of 110000 kg the gradient of climb is 2.8%. For
the same power and assuming that the sine of the
angle of climb varies inversely with mass, at what
maximum mass will the aeroplane be able to achieve
the minimum gradient?

1774 32 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-6569A or approximatel approximatel approximatel approximately
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) y : 1120 feet y : 1700 feet y : 1370 feet : 1850 feet
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine
aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height
of 50 ft .

Given :
O.A.T : 27 °C
Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 2900 lbs
Tailwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: Landing position (down)
Runway: Tarred and Dry

1775 32 0 0 0 1
 Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet 286 781 kg 74 064 kg 209 064 kg 101 596 kg
aeroplane are as follows:
Thrust = 50 000 Newton / Engine
g = 10 m/s²
Drag = 72 569 N
Minimum gross gradient (2nd segment) = 2.7%
SIN(Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag) / Weight
The maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment
conditions is:

1776 32 0 0 0 1
What affect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance No affect Tailwind only The IAS will The IAS will
speed? effects be be decreased.
holding increased.
speed.

1777 32 1 0 0 0
When the outside air temperature increases, then the field the field the field the field
length length length length limited
limited take- limited take- limited take- take-off mass
off mass and off mass and off mass increases but
the climb the climb decreases the climb
limited take- limited take- but the climb limited take-
off mass off mass limited take- off mass
decreases. increases. off mass decreases.
increases.

1778 32 1 0 0 0
With regard to a take-off from a wet runway, which of The screen When the In case of a Screen height
the following statements is correct? height can runway is reverser cannot be
be lowered wet, the V1 inoperative reduced.
to reduce reduction is the wet
the mass sufficient to runway
penalties. maintain the performance
same information
margins on can still be
the runway used.
length.

1779 32 1 0 0 0
The one engine out take-off run is the distance the middle of the lift-off the point the point half
between the brake release point and: the segment point. where V2 is way between
between reached. V1 and V2.
VLOF point
and 35 ft
point.

1780 32 1 0 0 0
The decision speed at take-off (V1) is the calibrated below which at which the below which at which the
airspeed: the take-off failure of the take-off must take-off must
must be critical be rejected if be rejected.
continued. engine is an engine
expected to failure is
occur. recognized,
above which
take-off must
be
continued.

1781 32 0 0 1 0
 With regard to a unaccelerated horizontal flight, which The The The The minimum
of the following statement is correct? minimum minimum minimum drag is a
drag is is a drag is drag is function of the
function of independant proportional pressure
the density of the to the altitude.
altitude. aircraft aircraft
mass. mass.
1782 32 0 0 1 0
Which of the following statements is correct? Induced Induced Induced Induced drag
drag is drag drag increases with
independant decreases decreases increasing
of the with with speed.
speed. increasing increasing
angle of speed.
attack.
1783 32 0 0 1 0
Which of the following statements is correct? the minimum the minimum the minimum the minimum
If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, drag drag drag drag
decreases decreases increases increases decreases
and the IAS and the IAS and the IAS and the IAS
for minimum for minimum for minimum for minimum
drag drag drag drag
decreases. decreases. increases. increases.

1784 32 1 0 0 0
Consider the graphic representation of the power maximum minimum maximum critical angle
required versus true air speed (TAS), for a jet endurance. power. specific of attack.
aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the range.
tangent out of the origin, the point of contact
determines the speed of:
1785 32 1 0 0 0
A jet aeroplane is performing a maximum range flight. the point of the minimum the minimum the point of
The speed corresponds to: contact of drag. required contact of the
the tangent power. tangent from
from the the origin to
origin to the the power
Drag versus required (Pr)
TAS curve. versus TAS
curve.

1786 32 1 0 0 0
If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower The ASDR The take-off The one The VMCG
than VMCG, which of the following is correct ? will become is not engine out will be
greater than permitted. take-off lowered to V1.
the one distance will
engine out become
take-off greater than
distance. the ASDR.

1787 32 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-6581A or 18 832 ft 18 347 ft 21 505 ft 24 637 ft
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3)

Using the climb performance chart, for the single

engine aeroplane, determine the ground distance to
reach a height of 2000 ft above the reference zero
inthe following conditions:
Given :
O.A.T. at take-off: 25°C
Airport pressure altitude: 1000 ft
Aeroplane mass: 3600 lbs
Speed: 100 KIAS
Wind component: 15 kts Headwind

1788 32 0 1 0 0
 The speed VR is the speed must be must be must be equal
at which higher than higher than to or lower
rotation to V2. VLOF. than V1.
the lift-off
angle of
attack is
initiated.

1789 32 1 0 0 0
The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed VS. VMC. VSO. VS1.
at which the aeroplane is controllable in landing
1790 32 configuration is abbreviated as 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 032-6590A or 880 ft 1550 ft 1020 ft 1400 ft
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)
Using the Landing Diagramm, for single engine
aeroplane, determine the landing distance (from a
screen height of 50 ft) required, in the following
conditions:
Given :
Pressure altitude: 4000 ft
O.A.T.: 5°C
Aeroplane mass: 3530 lbs
Headwind component: 15 kt
Flaps: Approach setting
Runway: tarred and dry
Landing gear: down

1791 32 0 0 0 1
If the airworthiness documents do not specify a 20 % 15 % 5% 10 %
correction for landing on a wet runway; the landing
1792 32 distance must be increased by: 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-6588A or Flight 908 NM 902 NM 875 NM 860 NM
planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)
Using the Range Profile Diagramm, for the single
engine aeroplane, determine the range, with 45
minutes reserve, in the following conditions:
Given :
O.A.T.: ISA -15°C
Pressure altitude: 12000 ft
Power: Full throttle / 23,0 in/Hg./ 2300
RPM

1793 32 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-6587A or Flight 851 NM 911 NM 865 NM 739 NM
planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)
Using the Range Profile Diagramm, for the single
engine aeroplane, determine the range, with 45
minutes reserve, in the following conditions:

Given :
O.A.T.: ISA +16°C
Pressure altitude: 4000 ft
Power: Full throttle / 25,0 in/Hg./ 2100
RPM

1794 32 0 0 1 0
 (For this question use annex 032-6586A or Flight 136 kt and 131 kt and 125 kt and 134 kt and
planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3 Table 2.3.1) 56,9 lbs/hr 56,9 lbs/hr 55,7 lbs/hr 55,7 lbs/hr
Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine
aeroplane, determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow
(lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the
following conditions:
Given :
OAT: 3°C
Pressure altitude: 6000 ft
Power: Full throttle / 21,0 in/Hg./ 2100
RPM

1795 32 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 032-6585A or Flight 160 kt and 158 kt and 160 kt and 159 kt and
planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3) 69,3 lbs/hr 74,4 lbs/hr 71,1 lbs/hr 71,7 lbs/hr
Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine
aeroplane, determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow
(lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the
following conditions:

Given:
OAT: 13°C
Pressure altitude: 8000 ft
RPM: 2300

1796 32 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-6584A or Flight 22,4 in.Hg 23,0 in.Hg 22,4 in.Hg 22,4 in.Hg
Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3) and 69,3 and 69,0 and 71,1 and 73,8
Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine lbs/hr lbs/hr lbs/hr lbs/hr
aeroplane, determine the manifold pressure and fuel
flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in
the following conditions:

Given:
OAT: 13°C
Pressure altitude: 8000 ft
RPM: 2300

1797 32 1 0 0 0
If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy have no decrease increase the decrease the
limited a higher uphill slope would effect on the the required maximum maximum
maximum take-off mass for mass for take-
mass for distance. take-off. off.
take-off.

1798 32 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 032-6582A or 16 665 ft 18 909 ft 18 073 ft 20 109 ft
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3)
Using the climb performance chart, for the single
engine aeroplane, determine the ground distance to
reach a height of 1500 ft above the reference zero
inthe following conditions:
Given :
O.A.T at Take-off: ISA
Airport pressure altitude: 5000 ft
Aeroplane mass: 3300 lbs
Speed: 100 KIAS
Wind component: 5 kts Tailwind

1799 32 1 0 0 0
 In the drag versus TAS curve for a jet aeroplane, the the point of the point of the point of the point of
speed for maximum range corresponds with: intersection contact of contact of contact of the
of the the tangent the tangent tangent from
parasite from the from the the origin to
drag curve origin to the origin to the the drag
and the parasite induced curve.
induced drag curve. drag curve.
drag curve.
1800 32 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 032-6580A or 2375 ft 1900 ft 1600 ft 2000 ft
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2)
With regard to the take off performance chart for the
single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance
over a 50 ft obstacle height.

Given :
O.A.T : 30°C
Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 2950 lbs
Tailwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: Approach setting
Runway: Short, wet grass, firm subsoil
Correction factor: 1.25 (for runway conditions)

1801 32 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-6579A or 1290 ft/min 1370 ft/min 1210 ft/min 1150 ft/min
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3)
With regard to the climb performance chart for the
single engine aeroplane determine the climb speed
(ft/min).

Given :
O.A.T : ISA + 15°C
Pressure Altitude: 0 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 3400 lbs
Flaps: up
Speed: 100 KIAS

1802 32 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-6578A or approximatel approximatel approximatel approximately
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2) y : 4200 ft y : 5040 ft y : 3960 ft : 3680 ft
With regard to the take off performance chart for the
single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance
to a height of 50 ft.

Given :
O.A.T : 38°C
Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 3400 lbs
Tailwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: Approach setting
Runway: Dry Grass
Correction factor: 1.2

1803 32 0 0 1 0
 (For this question use annex 032-6577A or 65 and 75 71 and 82 73 and 84 68 and 78
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1) KIAS KIAS KIAS KIAS
With regard to the take off performance chart for the
single engine aeroplane determine the take off speed
for (1) rotation and (2) at a height of 50 ft.

Given :
O.A.T : ISA+10°C
Pressure Altitude: 5000 ft
Aeroplane mass: 3400 lbs
Headwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: up
Runway: Tarred and Dry

1804 32 0 1 0 0
At a given mass, the stalling speed of a twin engine 120 kt 130 kt 115 kt 125 kt
aircraft is 100 kt in the landing configuration. The
minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is:
1805 32 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-11661A or 440 m 615 m 525 m 415 m
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)

An extract of the flight manual of a single engine

propeller aircraft is reproduced in annex.
Airport characteristics: hard, dry and zero slope runway
Actual conditions are:
pressure altitude: 1 500 ft
outside tempereature: +18°C
wind component: 4 knots tailwind

For a take-off mass of 1 270 kg, the take-off distance

will be:

1806 32 0 0 1 0
Is there any difference between the vertical speed Yes, the No Yes, the Yes, the
versus forward speed curves for two identical difference is difference. difference is difference is
aeroplanes having different masses ? (assume zero that for a that the that the lighter
thrust and wind) given angle heavier aeroplane will
of attack aeroplane always glide a
both the will always greater
vertical and glide a distance.
forward greater
speeds of distance.
the heavier
aeroplane
will be
larger.

1807 32 1 0 0 0
The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at 500 ft/min 100 ft/min 0 ft/min 125 ft/min
1808 32 the absolute ceiling is: 0 0 1 0
During climb with all engines, the altitude where the Maximum Service Absolute Thrust ceiling
rate of climb reduces to 100 ft/min is called: transfer ceiling ceiling
1809 32 ceiling 0 1 0 0
 (For this question use annex 032-6583A or 1030 ft/min 1170 ft/min 1310 ft/min 1120 ft/min
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3) and 8,4% and 9,9% and 11,3% and 9,3%
Using the climb performance chart, for the single
engine aeroplane, determine the rate of climb and the
gradient of climb in the following conditions:
Given :
O.A.T at Take-off: ISA
Airport pressure altitude: 3000 ft
Aeroplane mass: 3450 lbs
Speed: 100 KIAS

1810 32 0 0 0 1
Which of the equations below defines specific range SR = SR = True SR = SR = Mach
(SR)? Groundspee Airspeed/Tot Indicated Number/Total
d/Total Fuel al Fuel Flow Airspeed/Tot Fuel Flow
Flow al Fuel Flow

1811 32 0 1 0 0
At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow increase are increase in decrease in
of a jet engine with independent proportion to proportion to
increasing of outside air the ambient the ambient
altitude. temperature pressure at pressure at
(OAT). constant constant
temperature. temperature.

1812 32 0 0 0 1
The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM is inversely increases in does not is
proportional proportion to change with independent
to the the changing of the
airspeed. airspeed. altitude. airspeed.

1813 32 0 1 0 0
The intersections of the thrust available and the drag in descent in in in
curve are the operating points of the aeroplane with accelerated unaccelerate unaccelerated
constant level flight. d climb. level flight.
IAS.
1814 32 0 0 0 1
At speeds below minimum drag the a lower a higher the aeroplane
aeroplane speed speed can not be
can be requires a requires a controlled
controlled higher higher manually.
only in level thrust. thrust.
flight.
1815 32 0 1 0 0
A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires a higher less thrust more thrust more thrust
coefficient of and a lower and a lower and a lower
lift. coefficient of coefficient of coefficient of
lift. lift. drag.

1816 32 1 0 0 0
A higher altitude at constant mass and Mach number a higher a lower a lower a lower angle
requires angle of coefficient of coefficient of of attack.
1817 32 attack. lift. drag. 1 0 0 0
The coefficient of lift can be increased either by flap increasing increasing decreasing increasing the
extension or by the angle of the TAS. the 'nose-up' CAS.
attack. elevator trim
setting.
1818 32 1 0 0 0
When flying the "Backside of Thrustcurve" means a lower a lower the thrust a thrust
airspeed airspeed required is reduction
requires less requires independent results in an
thrust more thrust. of the acceleration
because airspeed. of the
drag is aeroplane.
decreased.
1819 32 0 1 0 0
 "Maximum endurance" is the same can be flown can be is achieved in
as maximum in a steady reached with unaccelerated
specific climb only. the 'best rate level flight
range with of climb' with minimum
wind speed in fuel
correction. level flight. consumption.

1820 32 0 0 0 1
What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the The safety The take-off The The climb
event of a climb limited take-off? margin with distance accelerate limited take-
respect to required with stop off mass is
the runway one engine distance the highest.
length is out at V1 is required is
greatest. the shortest. the shortest.

1821 32 1 0 0 0
Which of the following statements is correct? The The take-off The climb The
accelerate distance limited take- performance
stop with one off mass is limited take-
distance engine out is independant off mass is
required is independant of the wind independant
independant of the wind component. of the wind
of the component. component.
runway
condition.

1822 32 0 0 1 0
The drift down requirements are based on: the landing the obstacle the actual the maximum
mass limit at clearance engine flight path
the during a thrust output gradient
alternate. descent to at the during the
the new altitude of descent.
cruising engine
altitude if an failure.
engine has
failed.

1823 32 0 1 0 0
The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS the radius of the bank the radius of the true
depends on the turn and angle only. the turn and airspeed and
the weight of the bank the bank
the angle. angle.
aeroplane.

1824 32 0 1 0 0
Long range cruise is selected as the speed the climbing specific the higher
for best cruise with range with speed to
economy. one or two tailwind. achieve 99%
engines of maximum
inoperative. specific range
in zero wind.

1825 32 0 0 0 1
 The optimum altitude is the is the increases as decreases as
altitude at altitude up to mass mass
which the which cabin decreases decreases.
specific pressure of and is the
range 8 000 ft can altitude at
reaches its be which the
minimum. maintained. specific
range
reaches its
maximum.

1826 32 0 0 1 0
To achieve the maximum range over ground with reduced to higher equal to the lower
headwind the airspeed should be the gust compared to speed for compared to
penetration the speed maximum the speed for
speed. for range cruise maximum
maximum with no range cruise
range cruise wind. with no wind.
with no
wind.
1827 32 0 1 0 0
The take-off run is the distance the 1.5 times the 1.15 times the
of the point horizontal distance distance from
of brake distance from the the point of
release to a along the point of brake release
point take-off path brake to the point at
equidistant from the release to a which VLOF
between the start of the point is reached
point at take-off to a equidistant assuming a
which VLOF point between the failure of the
is reached equidistant point at critical engine
and the between the which VLOF at V1.
point at point at is reached
which the which VLOF and the
aeroplane is reached point at
attains a and the which the
height of 50 point at aeroplane
ft above the which the attains a
runway aeroplane is height of 35
assuming a 35 ft above ft above the
failure of the the take-off runway with
critical surface. all engines
engine at operative.
V1.

1828 32 0 1 0 0
During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by The one V2 may be It may lead The stop
selecting a V1 greater than that required. Which engine out too high so to over- distance
problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed take-off that climb rotation. required will
immediatly above the correct value of V1? distance performance exceed the
required decreases. stop distance
may exceed available.
the take-off
distance
available.

1829 32 0 0 0 1
 Which combination of circumstances or conditions A high A low A high A low runway
would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off? runway runway runway elevation and
elevation elevation elevation a head wind.
and tail and a cross and a head
wind. wind. wind.

1830 32 1 0 0 0
During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off By selecting By selecting By selecting By selecting a
mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field a higher flap a higher V2. a lower V2. lower flap
length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the setting. setting.
performance limited TOM be increased? There are no
limiting obstacles.
1831 32 1 0 0 0
VX is the speed the speed the speed the speed for
for best for best for best rate best specific
angle of angle of of climb. range.
flight path. climb.
1832 32 0 1 0 0
The speed for maximum endurance is the lower can either is always is always
speed to be higher or higher than lower than the
achieve 99% lower than the speed speed for
of maximum the speed for maximum
specific for maximum specific
range. maximum specific range.
specific range.
range.
1833 32 0 0 0 1
A runway is contaminated by a 0,5 cm layer of wet increased unchanged decreased very
snow. The take-off is nevertheless authorized by a light- significantly
twin's flight manual. decreased
The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be:

1834 32 1 0 0 0
The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight 1, 5, 8, 10 1, 4, 6, 9 2, 3, 6, 9 1, 4, 5, 10
path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is
defined by the following parameters:
1 Gear up
2 Gear down
3 Wing flaps retracted
4 Wing flaps in take-off position
5 N engines at the take-off thrust
6 (N-1) engines at the take-off thrust
7 Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt
8 Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS
9 Speed over the path equal to V2
10 At a height of 35 ft above the runway

The correct statements are:

1835 32 0 1 0 0
Minimum control speed on ground, VMCG, is based on nosewheel primary primary primary
directional control being maintained by: steering aerodynamic aerodynamic aerodynamic
only. control only. control and control,
nosewheel. nosewheel
steering and
differential
braking.
1836 32 0 1 0 0
 The drift down procedure specifies requirements engine climb weight obstacle
concerning the: power at the gradient during clearance
altitude at during the landing at during
which descent to the alternate descent to the
engine the net level- net level-off
failure off altitude altitude
occurs
1837 32 0 0 0 1
The take-off performance requirements for transport all engines only one failure of failure of
category aeroplanes are based upon: operating. engine critical critical engine
operating. engine. or all engines
operating
which ever
gives the
largest take
off distance.

1838 32 0 0 0 1
Which of the following distances will increase if you Take-off run Accelerate Take-off All Engine
increase V1? Stop distance Take-off
1839 32 Distance distance 0 1 0 0
1840 32 Which of the following answers is true? V1 <= VR V1 > Vlof V1 > VR V1 < VMCG 1 0 0 0
The approach climb requirement has been established minimum obstacle manoeuvrab manoeuvrabili
to ensure: climb clearance in ility in case ty during
gradient in the of landing approach with
case of a approach with one full flaps and
go-around area. engine gear down, all
with one inoperative. engines
engine operating.
inoperative.
1841 32 1 0 0 0
Which statement related to a take-off from a wet A reduction The use of a In case of a Screenheight
runway is correct? of screen reduced Vr reverser reduction can
height is is sufficient inoperative not be applied
allowed in to maitain the wet because of
order to the same runway reduction in
reduce safety performance obstacle
weight margins as information clearance.
penalties for a dry can still be
runway used

1842 32 1 0 0 0
The length of a clearway may be included in: the distance the take-off the the take-off
to reach V1. distance accelerate- run available.
available. stop
distance
available.
1843 32 0 1 0 0
At constant thrust and constant altitude the fuel flow of increases increases is decreases
a jet engine with slightly with independent slightly with
decreasing increasing of the increasing
OAT. airspeed. airspeed. airspeed.
1844 32 0 1 0 0
A climb gradient required is 3,3%. For an aircraft 33,0 m/s 330 ft/min 3 300 ft/min 3,30 m/s
maintaining 100 kt true airspeed , no wind, this climb
gradient corresponds to a rate of climb of
approximately:
1845 32 0 1 0 0
 Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, 5°, the 5°, both 20°, the 20°, both
show the following limitations with flap 10° selected: obstacle limitations obstacle limitations are
- runway limit: 5 270 kg limit is are limit is increased
- obstacle limit: 4 630 kg increased increased increased
Estimated take-off mass is 5 000kg. but the but the
Considering a take-off with flaps at: runway limit runway limit
decreases decreases

1846 32 1 0 0 0
Following a take-off, limited by the 50 ft screen height, it will not 105 m 90 m 75 m
a light twin climbs on a gradient of 5%. clear the
It will clear a 160 m obstacle in relation to the runway obstacle
(horizontally), situated at 5 000 m from the 50 ft point
with an obstacle clearance margin of:

1847 32 0 1 0 0
Why are 'step climbs' used on long distance flights ? Step climbs To respect To fly as Step climbs
do not have ATC flight close as are only
any special level possible to justified if at
purpose for constraints. the optimum the higher
jet altitude as altitude less
aeroplanes; aeroplane headwind or
they are mass more tailwind
used for reduces. can be
piston expected.
engine
aeroplanes
only.

1848 32 0 0 1 0
Which force compensates the weight in unaccelerated the lift the thrust the drag the resultant
straight and level flight ? from lift and
1849 32 drag 1 0 0 0
An aeroplane operating under the 180 minutes ETOPS 90 minutes 180 minutes 180 minutes 180 minutes
rule may be up to : flying time flying time to flying time to flying time
from the first a suitable a suitable from suitable
enroute airport in still airport under airport in still
airport and air with one the air at a
another 90 engine prevailing normal
minutes inoperative. weather cruising
from the condition speed
second with one
enroute engine
airport in still inoperative.
air with one
engine
inoperative.

1850 32 0 1 0 0
ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight 75 minutes 60 minutes 60 minutes 30 minutes
conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is flying time at flying time in flying time in flying time at
within an area of the still air at the still air at the the normal
approved approved normal cruising
one engine one engine cruising speed.
out cruise out cruise speed.
speed. speed.

1851 32 0 1 0 0
 (For this question use annex 032-3589A or All the Because at Because at Due to higher
Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.24) curves start this mass it this mass TAS at this
With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet at the same takes about the engines mass it takes
aeroplane, why does the curve representing 35 000 kg point, which 3 minutes to slow down more time to
gross mass in the chart for drift down net profiles start is situated decelerate at a slower develop the
at approximately 3 minutes at FL370? outside the to the rate after optimal rate of
chart. optimum failure, there descent,
speed for is still some because of
drift down at thrust left the inertia
the original during four involved.
cruising minutes.
level.

1852 32 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-3590A or At higher At higher At lower The engines
Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5) temperature temperature temperature are pressure
With regard to the take-off performance of a twin jet s the flat s the VMBE s one has to limited at
aeroplane, why does the take-off performance climb rated determines take the lower
limit graph show a kink at 30°C, pressure altitude 0? engines the climb danger of temperature,
determines limit mass. icing into at higher
the climb account. temperatures
limit mass. they are
temperature
limited.

1853 32 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-3591A or There is a The climb The effect of There is no
Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5) built-in limit the wind effect of the
Consider the take-off performance for the twin jet safety performance must be wind on the
aeroplane climb limit chart. Why has the wind been measure. s are taken taken from climb angle
omitted from the chart? relative to another relative to the
the air. chart. ground.

1854 32 0 1 0 0
In which of the flight conditions listed below is the thrust In level flight In In a climb In a descent
required (Tr) equal to the drag (D)? with accelerated with with constant
constant IAS level flight constant IAS TAS
1855 32 1 0 0 0
How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20° is chosen instead of V2 has the V2 V2 has no V2 decreases
T/O flaps 10°? same value increases in connection if not
in both proportion to with T/O flap restricted by
cases. the angle at setting, as it VMCA.
which the is a function
flaps are set. of runway
length only.

1856 32 0 0 0 1
Following a take-off determined by the 50ft (15m) 115 m 100 m 85 m It will not clear
screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the- the obstacle
ground climb gradient.

It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the

runway (horizontally), situated at 10 000 m from the 50
ft clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:

1857 32 1 0 0 0
 The take-off distance of an aircraft is 800m in standard 810 m 970 m 890 m 870 m
atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft pressure-altitude.
Using the following corrections :

"± 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation "

"- 5 m / kt headwind "
"+ 10 m / kt tail wind "
"± 15 m / % runway slope "
"± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature "

The take-off distance from an airport at 2 000 ft

elevation, temperature 21°C, QNH 1013.25 hPa, 2%
up-slope, 5 kt tail wind is :

1858 32 0 1 0 0
The take-off decision speed V1 is: not less than a chosen sometimes a chosen limit.
V2min, the limit. If an greater than If an engine
minimum engine the rotation failure is
take-off failure is speed VR. recognized
safety recognized before
speed. after reaching V1
reaching V1 the take-off
the take-off must be
must be aborted.
aborted.

1859 32 0 0 0 1
The flight manual of a light twin engine recommends same speed an increase same speed an increase in
two cruise power settings, 65 and 75 %. The 75% and fuel- in speed, and an speed and
power setting in relation to the 65 % results in: burn/distanc fuel increase of fuel-
e, but an consumption the fuel-burn burn/distance,
increase in and fuel- per hour and but an
the fuel-burn burn/distanc fuel- unchanged
per hour. e. burn/distanc fuel-burn per
e. hour.

1860 32 0 1 0 0
With an true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 3° 3% 5° 8%
1861 32 1 000 ft/min, the climb gradient is about : 1 0 0 0
At a given altitude, when a turbojet aeroplane mass is 7.5% 10% 2.5% 5%
increased by 5% - assuming the engines specific
consumption remains unchanged -, its hourly
consumption is approximately increased by:

1862 32 0 0 0 1
For a turboprop powered aeroplane, a 2200 m long 1339 m. 1771 m. 1540 m. 1147 m.
runway at the destination aerodrome is expected to be
"wet". The "dry runway" landing distance, should not
exceed:
1863 32 1 0 0 0
During the certification flight testing of a twin engine 1547 m. 1720 m. 1779 m. 1978 m.
turbojet aeroplane, the real take-off distances are equal
to:
- 1547 m with all engines running
- 1720 m with failure of critical engine at V1, with all
other things remaining unchanged.
The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:

1864 32 0 0 1 0
 In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 based on the height by the height at the minimum
ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles is pressure which which power vertical
altitudes. acceleration is reduced to distance
and flap maximum between the
retraction climb thrust. lowest part of
should be the aeroplane
completed. and all
obstacles
within the
obstacle
corridor.

1865 32 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 032-915A) -1267 ft / 0 ft / min. +3293 ft / +1267 ft / min.
What is the maximum vertical speed of a three engine min. min.
turbojet aeroplane with one engine inoperative (N-1)
and a mass of 75 000 kg?
Using the following: g = 10 m/s²
1 kt = 100 ft/min
SIN( Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag)/
Weight
1866 32 0 0 0 1
A runway is contaminated with 0.5 cm of wet snow. increased unchanged reduced substantially
The flight manual of a light twin nevertheless decreased
authorises a landing in these conditions.
The landing distance will be, in relation to that for a dry
runway:

1867 32 1 0 0 0
The danger associated with low speed and/or high can be exists only has to be limits the
speed buffet reduced by above MMO. considered maneuvering
increasing at take-off load factor at
the load and landing. high altitudes.
factor.
1868 32 0 0 0 1
An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° an increased a reduced an increased a reduced
and 35°. landing landing landing landing
If a pilot chooses 25° instead of 35°, the aircraft will distance and distance and distance and distance and
have: degraded degraded better go- better go-
go-around go-around around around
performance performance performance performance

1869 32 0 0 1 0
What will be the influence on the aeroplane It will It will It will It will increase
performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increase the increase the decrease the take-off
increased? accelerate take-off the take-off distance
stop distance. distance. available.
distance
available.

1870 32 0 1 0 0
Which statement is correct? VR must not VR must not VR must not VR must not
be less than be less than be less than be less than
1.1 VMCA 1.05 VMCA 1.05 VMCA VMCA and
and not less and not less and not less not less than
than V1. than 1.1 V1. than V1. 1.05 V1.

1871 32 0 0 1 0
 The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the Improved Unchanged Unchanged, Degraded
climb performance. if a short
The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the field take-off
climb performance to be: is adopted

1872 32 0 0 0 1
How is wind considered in the take-off performance Since take- Not more Unfactored Not more than
data of the Aeroplane Operations Manuals ? offs with than 50% of headwind 80%
tailwind are a headwind and tailwind headwind and
not and not less components not less than
permitted, than 150% are used. 125%
only of the tailwind.
headwinds tailwind.
are
considered.

1873 32 0 1 0 0
A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature decreases decreases increases has no
the field the take-off the climb influence on
length distance. limited take- the allowed
limited take- off mass. take-off mass.
off mass.
1874 32 1 0 0 0
An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° an increased a reduced a reduced an increased
and 35°. landing landing landing landing
If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will distance and distance and distance and distance and
have: better go- degraded better go- degraded go-
around go-around around around
performance performance performance performance

1875 32 0 1 0 0
The critical engine inoperative does not decreases increases increases the
affect the the power the power power
aeroplane required required and required
performance because of decreases because of
since it is the lower the total the greater
independent drag caused drag due to drag caused
of the power by the the by the
plant. windmilling windmilling windmilling
engine. engine. engine and
the
compensation
for the yaw
effect.

1876 32 0 0 0 1
The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant gross VS1 (stalling VMO VA (design VSO (stalling
weight and altitude is highest at speed in (maximum manoeuvrin speed in
clean operating g speed) landing
configuration limit speed) configuration)
)

1877 32 0 0 0 1
A higher outside air temperature (OAT) increases increases decreases decreases the
the field the climb the take-off brake energy
length limited take- distance. limited take-
limited take- off mass. off mass.
off mass.
1878 32 0 0 0 1
 The effect of a higher take-off flap setting up to the a decrease an increase an increase a decrease of
optimum is: of both the of both the of the field the field
field length field length length length limited
limited take- limited take- limited take- take-off mass
off mass and off mass and off mass but but an
the climb the climb a decrease increase of
limited take- limited take- of the climb the climb
off mass. off mass. limited take- limited take-
off mass. off mass.

1879 32 0 0 1 0
The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in 4,9 % 3,9 % 4,3 % 4,7 %
standard atmosphere, no wind, at 0 ft pressure altitude.
Using the following corrections:
"± 0,2 % / 1 000 ft field elevation"
"± 0,1 % / °C from standard temperature"
" - 1 % with wing anti-ice"
" - 0,5% with engine anti-ice"
The climb gradient after take-off from an airport
situated at 1 000 ft, 17° C; QNH 1013,25 hPa, with
wing and engine anti-ice operating for a functional
check is :

1880 32 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-4732A or This gross The The The
Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.24) weight increment equivalent increment
With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet accounts for accounts for gross weight represents
aeroplane, what is meant by "equivalent gross weight the lower the higher at engine fuel used
at engine failure" ? Mach fuel flow at failure is the before engine
number at higher actual gross failure.
higher temperature weight
temperature s. corrected for
s. OAT higher
than ISA
+10°C.

1881 32 0 0 1 0
The approach climb requirement has been established minimum obstacle manoeuvera manoeuverabi
so that the aeroplane will achieve: climb clearance in bility in the lity during
gradient in the event of approach with
the event of approach landing with full flaps and
a go-around area. one engine gear down, all
with one inoperative. engines
engine operating.
inoperative.

1882 32 1 0 0 0
On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, with increasing remains increases at decreases remains
altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and unchanged constant and the CAS unchanged
configuraton the drag but the the TAS. decreases but the TAS
CAS too because increases.
increases. of the lower
air density.

1883 32 0 0 0 1
 Which of the following factors favours the selection of a High field Low field High field Low field
low flap setting for the take-off? elevation, elevation, elevation, no elevation, no
distant close-in obstacles in obstacles in
obstacles in obstacles in the climb-out the climb-out
the climb-out the climb-out path, low path, short
path, long path, long ambient runway and a
runway and runway and temperature low ambient
a high a high and short temperature.
ambient ambient runway.
temperature. temperature.

1884 32 1 0 0 0
Which of the following sets of factors will increase the Low flap Low flap Low flap High flap
climb-limited TOM? setting, high setting, high setting, low setting, low
PA, high PA, low OAT. PA, low OAT. PA, low OAT.
OAT.
1885 32 0 0 1 0
If there is a tail wind, the climb limited TOM will: increase. decrease. increase in not be
the flaps affected.
extended
case.
1886 32 0 0 0 1
Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how There is no Allowable Allowable Allowable
does increasing pressure altitude affect allowable take- effect on take-off take-off take-off mass
off mass? allowable mass mass increases.
take-off remains decreases.
mass. uninfluenced
up to 5000 ft
PA.
1887 32 0 0 1 0
In which of the following distances can the length of a In the one- In the all- In the take- In the
stopway be included? engine engine take- off run accelerate
failure case, off distance. available. stop distance
take-off available.
distance.

1888 32 0 0 0 1
If the antiskid system is inoperative, which of the The The It has no Take-off with
following statements is true? accelerate accelerate effect on the antiskid
stop stop accelerate inoperative is
distance distance stop not permitted.
increases. decreases. distance.

1889 32 1 0 0 0
The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane is only is the is dependent is dependent
with a pressurised cabin certified for highest on on the OAT.
four-engine pressure aerodynamic
aeroplanes. altitude ceiling.
certified for
normal
operation.
1890 32 0 1 0 0
The pilot of a light twin engine aircraft has calculated a less than 4 unchanged, only a new higher than 4
4 000 m service ceiling, based on the forecast general 000 m. equal to 4 performance 000 m.
conditions for the flight and a take-off mass of 3 250 kg. 000 m. analysis will
determine if
If the take-off mass is 3 000 kg, the service ceiling will the service
be: ceiling is
higher or
lower than 4
000 m.

1891 32 0 0 0 1
 (For this question use annex 032-4733A or 2600 m. 2700 m. 2900 m. 3100 m.
Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.28)
What is the minimum field length required for the worst
wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the
anti-skid inoperative?
Elevation: 2000 ft
QNH: 1013 hPa
Landing mass: 50 000 kg
Flaps: as required for minimum landing distance
Runway condition: dry
Wind:
Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt
Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt

1892 32 0 0 0 1
What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance It will It will It will It will
if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased? increase the increase the increase the decrease the
take-off take-off accelerate take-off
distance ground run. stop distance
required. distance. required.

1893 32 0 0 0 1
The absolute ceiling is the is the is the can be
altitude at altitude at altitude at reached only
which the which the which the with minimim
best climb aeroplane rate of climb steady flight
gradient reaches a theoretically speed
attainable is maximum is zero.
5% rate of climb
of 100
ft/min.

1894 32 0 0 1 0
The induced drag of an aeroplane is increases decreases decreases
independent with with with
of the increasing increasing increasing
airspeed. airspeed. airspeed. gross weight.

1895 32 0 0 1 0
Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway Yes, but the No. No, unless Yes, but the
length to determine the take-off distance available ? stopway its centerline stopway must
must have is on the be able to
the same extended carry the
width as the centerline of weight of the
runway. the runway. aeroplane.

1896 32 0 1 0 0
May anti-skid be considered to determine the take-off Only for Yes. No. Only for take-
1897 32 and landing data ? landing. off. 0 1 0 0
In case of an engine failure recognized below V1 the take-off the take-off the take-off the take-off is
must be may be should only to be
rejected. continued if be rejected if continued
a clearway a stopway is unless V1 is
is available. available. less than the
balanced V1.

1898 32 1 0 0 0
In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or the take-off a height of the take-off the take-off
above V1 must be 50 ft must should be must be
rejected if be reached rejected if continued.
the speed is within the the speed is
still below take-off still below
VLOF. distance. VR.

1899 32 0 0 0 1
 The take-off distance available is the total the length of the runway the runway
runway the take-off length minus length plus
length, run available stopway. half of the
without plus the clearway.
clearway length of the
even if this clearway
one exists. available.

1900 32 0 1 0 0
The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at a higher V1. a longer a shorter an increased
take-off is take-off run. ground roll. acceleration.
1901 32 0 0 1 0
Reduced take-off thrust has the can be used is not can be used if
benefit of if the actual recommend the headwind
improving take-off ed at very component
engine life. mass is low during take-off
higher than temperature is at least 10
the s (OAT). kt.
performance
limited take-
off mass.

1902 32 1 0 0 0
1903 32 The speed for best rate of climb is called VY. VX. V2. VO. 1 0 0 0
The aerodynamic ceiling is the is the depends is the altitude
altitude at altitude at upon thrust at which the
which the which the setting and best rate of
aeroplane speeds for increase climb
reaches 50 low speed with theoretically is
ft/min. buffet and increasing zero.
for high thrust.
speed buffet
are the
same.

1904 32 0 1 0 0
Which statement is correct? VR is the VR is the In case of VR is the
speed at lowest climb engine lowest speed
which speed after failure below for directional
rotation engine VR the take- control in
should be failure. off should be case of
initiated. aborted. engine failure.

1905 32 1 0 0 0
Given: VS< VMCA< VR< VMCA< VMU<= V2min<
VS= Stalling speed V2 min VLOF VMCA< V1 VMCA> VMU
VMCA= Air minimum control speed
VMU= Minimum unstick speed (disregarding engine
failure)
V1= take-off decision speed
VR= Rotation speed
V2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speed
VLOF: Lift-off speed
The correct formula is:

1906 32 1 0 0 0
Required runway length at destination airport for is less then is more than is 60% is the same
turboprop aeroplanes at an at an longer than as at an
alternate alternate at an alternate
airport. airport. alternate airport.
airport.
1907 32 0 0 0 1
 Which of the following are to be taken into account for Airport Airport Airport Airport
the runway in use for take-off ? elevation, elevation, elevation, elevation,
runway runway runway runway slope,
slope, slope, slope, outside air
outside air standard standard temperature,
temperature, temperature, temperature, standard
pressure standard pressure pressure and
altitude and pressure altitude and wind
wind and wind wind components.
components. components. components.

1908 32 1 0 0 0
Which of the following will decrease V1? Increased Inoperative Increased Inoperative
take-off flight outside air anti-skid.
mass. managemen temperature.
t system.
1909 32 0 0 0 1
Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air The VMCA only Straight The
minimum control speed)? aeroplane applies to flight can not aeroplane is
will not four-engine be uncontrollable
gather the aeroplanes maintained below VMCA
minimum below
required VMCA,
climb when the
gradient critical
engine has
failed.

1910 32 0 0 1 0
During take-off the third segment begins: when when flap when when landing
acceleration retraction is acceleration gear is fully
starts from completed. to flap retracted.
VLOF to V2. retraction
speed is
started.
1911 32 0 0 1 0
What margin above the stall speed is provided by the 1,10 VSO VMCA x 1,2 1,30 VSO 1,05 VSO
1912 32 landing reference speed VREF? 0 0 1 0
How does runway slope affect allowable take-off mass, Allowable A downhill A downhill An uphill
assuming other factors remain constant and not take-off slope slope slope
limiting? mass is not decreases increases increases
affected by allowable allowable take-off mass.
runway take-off take-off
slope. mass. mass.
1913 32 0 0 1 0
Provided all other parameters stay constant. Which of Increased Increased Decreased Decreased
the following alternatives will decrease the take-off pressure outside air take-off take-off mass,
ground run? altitude, temperature, mass, increased
increased decreased increased density,
outside air pressure pressure increased flap
temperature, altitude, altitude, setting.
increased decreased increased
take-off flap setting. temperature.
mass.

1914 32 0 0 0 1
The required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field Decreased Decreased Increased Increased
length limited Take-off Mass (TOM) are different for the TOD TOD TOD TOD required
zero flap case and take-off position flap case. What is required and required and required and and increased
the result of flap setting in take-off position compared to decreased increased decreased field length
zero flap position? field length field length field length limited TOM.
limited TOM. limited TOM. limited TOM.

1915 32 0 1 0 0
 The second segment begins when flaps when when when flap
are selected acceleration landing gear retraction
up. starts from is fully begins.
V2 to the retracted.
speed for
flap
retraction.
1916 32 0 0 1 0
Which one of the following is not affected by a tail the field the obstacle the take-off the climb
wind? limited take- limited take- run. limited take-
off mass. off mass. off mass.
1917 32 0 0 0 1
Field length is balanced when take-off calculated all engine one engine
distance V2 is less acceleration acceleration
equals than 110% to V1 and from V1 to
accelerate- VMCA and braking VLOF plus
stop V1, VR, distance for flare distance
distance. VMCG. rejected between
take-off are VLOF and 35
equal. feet are
equal.

1918 32 1 0 0 0
A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and Reduce / Reduce / Remain Remain
maximum climb thrust, how will the climb angle / the decrease. remain constant / constant /
pitch angle change? constant. decrease. become
larger.
1919 32 1 0 0 0
Which of the following statements is correct ? If a clearway A stopway An underrun A clearway is
or a stopway means an is an area an area
is used, the area beyond beyond the beyond the
liftoff point the take-off runway end runway which
must be runway, able which can can be used
attainable at to support be used for for an aborted
least at the the an aborted take-off.
end of the aeroplane take-off.
permanent during an
runway aborted
surface. take-off.

1920 32 0 1 0 0
For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles by banking by banking only by by standard
in the first segment may be avoided not more as much as using turns - but
than 15° needed if standard only after
between 50 aeroplane is turns. passing 1500
ft and 400 ft more than ft.
above the 50 ft above
runway runway
elevation. elevation.

1921 32 1 0 0 0
 Which of the following is true according to JAA Maximum Maximum Maximum Maximum
regulations for turbopropeller powered aeroplanes not Take-off Run use of Landing Landing
performing a steep approach? is 0,5 x clearway is Distance at Distance at
runway. 1,5 x the destination is
runway. destination 0,95 x LDA
aerodrome (Landing
and at any Distance
alternate Available).
aerodrome
is 0,7 x LDA
(Landing
Distance
Available).

1922 32 0 0 1 0
The net flight path climb gradient after take-off smaller. larger. equal. depends on
compared to the gross climb gradient is: type of
1923 32 aircraft. 1 0 0 0
The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is: 1.20 Vs for 1.15 Vs for 1.20 Vs for 1.15 Vs for all
all turboprop four-engine all turbojet turbojet
powered turboprop aeroplanes. aeroplanes.
aeroplanes. aeroplanes
and 1.20 Vs
for two or
three-engine
turboprop
aeroplanes.

1924 32 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-1562A or 52 000 kg 56 000 kg 55 000 kg 70 000 kg
Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4 )
For a twin engine turbojet aeroplane two take-off flap
settings (5° and 15°) are certified.
Given:
Field length avalaible= 2400 m
Outside air temperature= -10°C
Airport pressure altitude= 7000 ft
The maximum allowed take-off mass is:

1925 32 0 1 0 0
An airport has a 3000 metres long runway, and a 2000 4500 6000 4000 5000 metres.
metres clearway at each end of that runway. For the metres. metres. metres.
calculation of the maximum allowed take-off mass, the
take-off distance available cannot be greater than:

1926 32 1 0 0 0
During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, 2096 m. 1950 m. 2009 m. 2243 m.
the actual measured take-off runs from brake release to
a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is
reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35
feet above the take-off surface are:
- 1747 m, all engines operating
- 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at
V1, the other factors remaining unchanged.
Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off
run (TOR). What is the correct distance?

1927 32 0 0 1 0
 Which of the following statements is correct? When The drift The drift An engine
determining down down failure at high
the obstacle regulations procedure cruising
clearance require a requires a altitude will
during drift minimum minimum always result
down, fuel descent obstacle in a drift
dumping angle after clearance of down,
may be an engine 35 ft. because it is
taken into failure at not permitted
account. cruising to fly the
altitude. same altitude
as with all
engines
operating.

1928 32 1 0 0 0
How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure VMCA VMCA is not VMCA VMCA
altitude? increases affected by decreases increases with
with pressure with pressure
increasing altitude. increasing altitude higher
pressure pressure than 4000 ft.
altitude. altitude.

1929 32 1 0 0 0
Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of The obstacle The A take-off in Wind speed
the following statements is correct? limited mass maximum the direction plays no role
can never bank angle of an when
be lower which can obstacle is calculating
than the be used is also this particular
climb limited 10°. permitted in mass.
take-off tail wind
mass. condition.

1930 32 0 0 1 0
For jet aeroplanes which of the following statements is The required When In any case An anti-skid
correct? landing field determining runway system
length is the the slope is one malfunction
distance maximum of the has no effect
from 35 ft to allowable factors taken on the
the full stop landing into account required
point. mass at when landing field
destination, determining length.
60% of the the required
available landing field
distance is length.
taken into
account, if
the runway
is expected
to be dry.

1931 32 0 1 0 0
 Which statement is correct? The The climb The climb The climb
performance limited take- limited take- limited take-
limited take- off mass will off mass off mass
off mass is increase if increases depends on
the highest the when a pressure
of: headwind larger take- altitude and
field length component off flap outer air
limited take- increases. setting is temperature
off mass used.
climb limited
take-off
mass
obstacle
limited take-
off mass.

1932 32 0 0 0 1
Which of the following factors determines the maximum Aerodynami Theoretical Service Economy.
flight altitude in the "Buffet Onset Boundary" graph? cs. ceiling. ceiling.
1933 32 1 0 0 0
Maximum endurance for a piston engined aeroplane is The speed The speed The speed The speed
achieved at: for for minimum that that
maximum lift drag. corresponds approximately
coefficient. to the speed corresponds
for to the
maximum maximum rate
climb angle. of climb
speed.

1934 32 0 0 0 1
The pilot of a jet aeroplane wants to use a minimum Maximum Holding. Long range. Maximum
amount of fuel between two airfields. Which flight endurance. range.
1935 32 procedure should the pilot fly? 0 0 0 1
Before take-off the temperature of the wheel brakes To ensure To ensure To ensure Because
should be checked. For what reason? that the that the that the overheated
brake wear wheels have thermal brakes will not
is not warmed up blow-out perform
excessive. evenly. plugs are adequately in
not melted. the event of a
rejected take-
off.
1936 32 0 0 0 1
The stopway is an area which allows an increase only the take-off the take-off the landing the
in : run distance distance accelerate-
available. available. available. stop distance
available.

1937 32 0 0 0 1
Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take- V1, VMCG, V1, VR, V1, VR, V2, VMCG, V1,
1938 32 off? VR, V2. VMCG, V2. VMCA. VR, V2. 0 0 0 1
A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which The The Mach The The Stalling
operational speed limit is most likely to be reached? Minimum limit for the Maximum speed.
control Mach trim operating
speed air. system. Mach
number.
1939 32 0 0 1 0
A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. Never High Speed Maximum Maximum
Which of the following speed limits is most likely to be Exceed Buffet Limit Operational Operating
exceeded first? Speed Mach Speed
Number
1940 32 0 0 0 1
Maximum and minimum values of V1 are limited by : VR and V2 and VR and V2 and
1941 32 VMCG VMCA VMCA VMCG 1 0 0 0
 Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off The climb The climb 50% of a On high
mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct? limited take- limited take- head wind is elevation
off mass off mass is taken into airports
decreases determined account equipped with
with at the speed when long runways
increasing for best rate determining the aeroplane
OAT. of climb. the climb will always be
limited take- climb limited.
off mass.

1942 32 1 0 0 0
The minimum value of V2 must exceed "air minimum 15% 20% 30% 10%
1943 32 control speed" by: 0 0 0 1
Which statement regarding V1 is correct? When The V1 V1 is not V1 is not
determining correction allowed to allowed to be
the V1, for up-slope be greater greater than
reverse is negative. than VR. VMCG.
thrust is only
allowed to
be taken into
account on
the
remaining
symmetric
engines.

1944 32 0 0 1 0
When an aircraft takes off with the mass limited by the the actual the distance the the end of the
TODA: take-off from brake "balanced runway will be
mass equals release to take-off cleared by 35
the field V1 will be distance" feet following
length equal to the equals 115% an engine
limited take- distance of the "all failure at V1.
off mass. from V1 to engine take-
the 35 feet off distance".
point.

1945 32 1 0 0 0
For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the The greater Dry snow is A slush The
following statements is correct? the depth of not covered performance
contaminatio considered runway must data for take-
n at constant to affect the be cleared off must be
take-off take-off before take- determined in
mass, the performance off, even if general by
more V1 has . the means of
to be performance calculation,
decreased data for only a few
to contaminate values are
compensate d runway is verified by
for available. flight tests.
decreasing
friction.

1946 32 0 0 0 1
 To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the use use normal postpone make a
pilot should: maximum landing-, the landing "positive"
reverse braking- and until the risk landing and
thrust, and reverse of apply
should start technique. hydroplanin maximum
braking g no longer reverse thrust
below the exists. and brakes as
hydroplanin quickly as
g speed. possible.

1947 32 0 0 0 1
What is the advantage of a balanced field length For a A balanced A balanced A balanced
condition ? balanced field length field length take-off
field length provides the gives the provides the
the required greatest minimum lowest
take-off margin required elevator input
runway between field length force
length "net" and in the event requirement
always "gross" take- of an engine for rotation.
equals the off flight failure.
available paths.
runway
length.

1948 32 0 0 1 0
The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engined at the lowest at the at the at the
aeroplane, in level flight, is reached: possible optimum service practical
altitude. cruise ceiling. ceiling.
altitude.
1949 32 1 0 0 0
During a descent at constant Mach Number, the margin increase, decrease, increase, remain
to low speed buffet will: because the because the because the constant,
lift coefficient lift coefficient lift coefficient because the
increases. decreases. decreases. Mach number
remains
constant.

1950 32 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 032-2219A or 10 kt. No wind. 5 kt. 15 kt.
Performance Manual SEP1 1 Figure 2.4 )
With regard to the graph for landing performance, what
is the minimum headwind component required in order
to land at Helgoland airport?
Given:
Runway length: 1300 ft
Runway elevation: MSL
Weather: assume ISA conditions
Mass: 3200 lbs
Obstacle height: 50 ft

1951 32 1 0 0 0
The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance 15% 20% 10% 30%
with international requirements, the following margins
above stall speed in landing configuration:
1952 32 0 0 0 1
Changing the take-off flap setting from flap 15° to flap a better a shorter a longer a shorter
5° will normally result in : climb and an take-off take-off take-off
equal take- distance and distance and distance and
off distance. a better a better an equal
climb. climb. climb.

1953 32 0 0 1 0
 Which statement about reduced thrust is correct? In case of Reduced Reduced Reduced
reduced thrust can thrust is thrust is used
thrust V1 be used primarily a in order to
should be when the noise save fuel.
decreased. actual take- abatement
off mass is procedure.
less than the
field length
limited take-
off mass.

1954 32 0 1 0 0
What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a The time to The time to The time to The effect on
given altitude? climb does climb climb time to climb
not change. increases. decreases. will depend
on the
aeroplane
type.

1955 32 1 0 0 0
Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1: is an is the is the is always
airspeed at airspeed of airspeed on equal to VEF
which the the the ground (Engine
aeroplane is aeroplane at which the Failure
airborne but upon pilot is speed).
below 35 ft reaching 35 assumed to
and the pilot feet above have made
is assumed the take-off a decision to
to have surface. continue or
made a discontinue
decision to the take-off.
continue or
discontinue
the take-off .

1956 32 0 0 1 0
A flight is planned with a turbojet aeroplane to an 1 250 m. 1 090 m. 1 655 m. 1 440 m.
aerodrome with a landing distance available of 2400 m.
Which of the following is the maximum landing distance
for a dry runway?
1957 32 0 0 0 1
A twin engined aeroplane in cruise flight with one the long the speed the speed at the speed
engine inoperative has to fly over high ground. In order range correspondi the corresponding
to maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot should speed. ng to the maximum to the
choose: minimum lift. maximum
value of (lift / value of the
drag)^3/2. lift / drag ratio.

1958 32 0 0 0 1
Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives: a specific a 1% higher an IAS a specific
range which TAS for which is 1% range which
is about maximum higher than is 99% of
99% of specific the IAS for maximum
maximum range. maximum specific range
specific specific and a lower
range and range. cruise speed.
higher cruise
speed.

1959 32 1 0 0 0
 (For this question use annex 032-1014A) d c a b
Assuming constant L/D ratio, which of the diagrams
provided correctly shows the movement of the "Thrust
Required Curve .(M1>M2).
1960 32 0 1 0 0
For jet-engined aeroplanes, what is the effect of Decreases. Does not Increases Increases.
increased altitude on specific range? change. only if there
1961 32 is no wind. 0 0 0 1
Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum TAS for both will both will both will stay
endurance, other factors remaining constant, maximum increase decrease constant
range will with with regardless of
increase increasing increasing altitude.
with altitude. altitude.
increased
altitude
while TAS
for
maximum
endurance
will
decrease
with
increased
altitude.

1962 32 0 1 0 0
The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet is always is is only increases
aeroplane: equal to the independent dependent when the
powerplant of the on the aeroplane
ceiling. aeroplane outside air mass
mass. temperature. decreases.

1963 32 0 0 0 1
How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the TAS TAS TAS is TAS is not
troposphere? decreases. increases. constant. related to
Mach
Number.
1964 32 1 0 0 0
Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing Both will Both will Both will Vx will
altitude affect Vx and Vy: increase. remain the decrease. decrease and
same. Vy will
increase.
1965 32 1 0 0 0
With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range equal to that equal to that lower than equal to that
for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is: maximum correspondi that of of maximum
endurance. ng to zero maximum lift lift to drag
induced to drag ratio. ratio.
drag.

1966 32 0 0 0 1
The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to Increase at Smaller. Larger. Not change.
that with flaps retracted, will normally be: moderate
flap setting,
decrease at
large flap
setting.
1967 32 0 1 0 0
Two identical turbojet aeroplane (whose specific fuel 3365 kg/h. 3578 kg/h. 3804 kg/h. 4044 kg/h.
consumptions are considered to be equal) are at
holding speed at the same altitude.
The mass of the first aircraft is 130 000 kg and its
hourly fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the
second aircraft is 115 000 kg and its hourly fuel
consumption is:
1968 32 0 0 1 0
 An operator shall ensure that the net take-off flight path -90m + 90m + 90m + 0.125D
clears all obstacles. The half-width of the obstacle- 1.125D D/0.125 0.125D
corridor at the distance D from the end of the TODA is
at least:
1969 32 0 0 1 0
How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb Best angle Best angle Both Both increase.
vary with increasing altitude? of climb of climb decrease.
increases decreases
while best while best
rate of climb rate of climb
decreases. increases.

1970 32 0 0 1 0
Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces Weight and Thrust and Weight and Weight, drag
1971 32 determine an aeroplane's angle of climb? drag only. drag only. thrust only. and thrust. 0 0 0 1
A head wind will: increase the increase the increase the shorten the
climb flight angle of rate of climb. time of climb.
path angle. climb.
1972 32 1 0 0 0
At which minimum height will the second climb When gear 1500 ft 400 ft above 35 ft above
segment end? retraction is above field field ground.
1973 32 completed. elevation. elevation. 0 0 1 0
The requirements with regard to take-off flight path and 2 engined the failure of the failure of the failure of
the climb segments are only specified for: aeroplane. two engines the critical any engine on
on a multi- engine on a a multi-
engined multi- engined
aeroplane. engines aeroplane.
aeroplane.

1974 32 0 0 1 0
In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action deploy reduce the reverse apply wheel
to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the airbrakes or engine engine brakes.
1975 32 aeroplane is to: spoilers. thrust. thrust. 0 1 0 0
During certification flight testing on a four engine 2938 m 3050 m 3513 m 2555 m
turbojet aeroplane the actual take-off distances
measured are:
- 3050 m with failure of the critical engine recognised at
V1
- 2555 m with all engines operating and all other things
being equal

The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:

1976 32 0 1 0 0
Which of the following represents the maximum value VREF VR VMCA V2
for V1 assuming max tyre speed and max brake energy
1977 32 speed are not limiting? 0 1 0 0
Which of the following represents the minimum for V1? VMCG VLOF VMU VR
1978 32 1 0 0 0
Vx and Vy with take-off flaps will be: higher than same as that changed so lower than
that for for clean that Vx that for clean
clean configuration increases configuration.
configuration . and Vy
. decreases
compared to
clean
configuration
.

1979 32 0 0 0 1
 Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are At a given At a given At a given There is no
descending at idle thrust. Which of the following angle of angle of angle of difference
statements correctly describes their descent attack the attack the attack, both between the
characteristics ? heavier lighter the vertical descent
aeroplane aeroplane and the characteristics
will always will always forward of the two
glide further glide further speed are aeroplanes.
than the than the greater for
lighter heavier the heavier
aeroplane. aeroplane. aeroplane.

1980 32 0 0 1 0
Take-off run is defined as the horizontal distance to distance to Distance from
distance V1 and stop, 35 feet with brake release
along the assuming an an engine to V2.
take-off path engine failure at V1
from the failure at V1. or 115% all
start of the engine
take-off to a distance to
point 35 feet.
equidistant
between the
point at
which VLOF
is reached
and the
point at
which the
aeroplane is
35 ft above
the take-off
surface.

1981 32 1 0 0 0
A jet aeroplane is flying long range cruise. How does Decrease / Increase / Increase / Decrease /
1982 32 the specific range / fuel flow change? decrease. decrease. increase. increase. 0 1 0 0
During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch remain decrease. increase. increase at
angle of the aeroplane will: constant. first and
decrease later
on.
1983 32 0 1 0 0
During a cruise flight of a jet aeroplane at constant decrease / increase / increase / decrease /
flight level and at the maximum range speed, the IAS / decrease. decrease. increase. increase.
1984 32 the drag will: 1 0 0 0
An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL Is constant Decreases Increases in Increases in
270 at cruise Mach number, and from FL 270 to FL 100 in the first in the first the first part; the first part;
at the IAS reached at FL 270. part; part; is constant decreases in
How does the angle of descent change in the first and decreases in increases in in the the second.
in the second part of the descent? the second. the second. second.
Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore
compressibility effects.
1985 32 0 0 1 0
 Which statement with respect to the step climb is Executing a A step climb A step climb A step climb is
correct? desired step must be is executed executed in
climb at high executed because principle
altitude can immediately ATC desires when, just
be limited by after the a higher after leveling
buffet onset aeroplane altitude. off, the 1.3g
at g-loads has altitude is
larger than exceeded reached.
1. the optimum
altitude.

1986 32 1 0 0 0
Given that: V2min<= VMCG<=VE 1.05 1.05 VMCG<
VEF= Critical engine failure speed VEF<= VMU F < V1 VMCA<= VEF<= VR
VMCG= Ground minimum control speed VEF<= V1
VMCA= Air minimum control speed
VMU= Minimum unstick speed
V1= Take-off decision speed
VR= Rotation speed
V2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speed
The correct formula is:

1987 32 0 1 0 0
The determination of the maximum mass on brake 67 700 kg / 69 000 kg / 72 200 kg / 69 700 kg / 25
release, of a certified turbojet aeroplane with 5°, 15° 15 deg 15 deg 5 deg deg
and 25° flaps angles on take-off, leads to the following
values, with wind:
Flap angle: 5° 15° 25°
Runway limitation (kg): 66 000 69 500 71
500
2nd segment slope limitation: 72 200 69 000 61
800
Wind correction:
Head wind:+120kg / kt
Tail wind: -360kg / kt
Given that the tail wind component is equal to 5 kt, the
maximum mass on brake release and corresponding
flap angle will be:

1988 32 1 0 0 0
On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, with increasing increases increases decreases remains
altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and and the TAS but TAS slightly unchanged
configuraton the power required increases by remains because of but the TAS
the same constant. the lower air increases.
percentage. density.

1989 32 1 0 0 0
The speed range between low speed buffet and high narrows with decreases is only increases with
speed buffet increasing with limiting at increasing
mass and increasing low mass.
increasing mass and is altitudes.
altitude. independent
of altitude.

1990 32 1 0 0 0
For a turbojet aeroplane, what is the maximum landing 2 070 m. 1565 m. 1800 m. 2609 m.
distance for wet runways when the landing distance
available at an aerodrome is 3000 m?
1991 32 0 1 0 0
 Which of the following combinations basically has an Configuratio Mass and Altitude and Configuration
effect on the angle of descent in a glide? n and angle altitude. configuration and mass.
(Ignore compressibility effects.) of attack. .
1992 32 1 0 0 0
Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset The value of The value of The values The value of
Boundary Chart? the critical the Mach of the Mach maximum
Mach number at number at operating
number at which low which low Mach number
various speed and speed and (MMO) at
masses and shockstall Mach buffet various
altitudes. occur at occur at masses and
various various power
weights and masses and settings.
altitudes. altitudes.

1993 32 0 0 1 0
What is the effect of a head wind component, Maximum Maximum Maximum Maximum
compared to still air, on the maximum range speed range speed range speed range speed range speed
(IAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle decreases increases increases decreases
respectively? and and and and maximum
maximum maximum maximum climb angle
climb angle climb angle climb angle speed
speed speed speed stays increases.
decreases. increases. constant.

1994 32 0 0 1 0
The airspeed for jet aeroplanes at which power is lower than is the same is always is always
required is a minimum the minimum as the lower than higher than
drag speed minimum the minimum the minimum
in the climb drag speed. drag speed. drag speed.
and higher
than the
minimum
drag speed
in the
descent.

1995 32 0 0 1 0
Given a jet aircraft. Which order of increasing speeds in Vs, Maximum Vs, Vx, Maximum
the performance diagram is correct? Maximum endurance Maximum endurance
range speed, range speed speed, Long
speed, Vx Maximum range speed,
range Maximum
speed, Vx range speed

1996 32 0 0 1 0
The point where Drag coefficient/Lift coefficient is a the point the lowest at stalling on the "back
minimum is where a point of the speed (VS). side" of the
tangent from drag curve. drag curve.
the origin
touches the
drag curve.

1997 32 1 0 0 0
The lowest point of the drag or thrust required curve of minimum minimum maximum maximum
a jet aeroplane, respectively, is the point for specific drag. specific endurance.
1998 32 range. range. 0 1 0 0
 The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit improves the increases improves the decreases the
maximum the stalling longitudinal maximum
range. speed. stabiity. range.
1999 32 1 0 0 0
The Density Altitude is used to is used to is equal to is used to
calculate the determine the pressure establish
FL above the altitude. minimum
the aeroplane clearance of
Transition performance 2.000 feet
Altitude. . over
mountains.
2000 32 0 1 0 0
Which of the following combinations adversely affects High Low High Low
take-off and initial climb performance ? temperature temperature temperature temperature
and high and high and low and low
relative relative relative relative
humidity humidity humidity humidity
2001 32 1 0 0 0
What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off has no effect decreases decreases increases the
speeds? The slope on the take- the take-off the TAS for IAS for take-
off speed speed V1. take-off. off.
V1.
2002 32 0 1 0 0
A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a 14 kg/NM. 11.7 kg/NM. 10.7 kg/NM. 8.17 kg/NM.
specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of
thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a
fuel mileage of 14 kg per Nautical Mile. In the same
flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with
modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of
0.035 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel
mileage of:
2003 32 0 0 0 1
Moving the center of gravity from the forward to the aft decreases increases affects increases the
limit (gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain the induced the power neither drag induced drag.
unchanged) drag and required. nor power
reduces the required.
power
required.
2004 32 1 0 0 0
With a jet aeroplane the maximum climb angle can be 1.1 Vs The highest The highest 1.2 Vs
flown at approximately: CL/CD ratio. CL/CD²
2005 32 ratio. 0 1 0 0
A higher outside air temperature increases does not reduces the reduces the
the angle of have any angle of angle and the
climb but noticeable climb but rate of climb.
decreases effect on increases
the rate of climb the rate of
climb. performance climb.
.
2006 32 0 0 0 1
Which of the following provides maximum obstacle 1.2Vs. The speed The speed, The speed
clearance during climb? for at which the for maximum
maximum flaps may be climb angle
rate of climb. selected one Vx.
position
further UP.

2007 32 0 0 0 1
 What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant The "1.3G" The lift The TAS IAS stays
Mach number? altitude is coefficient continues to constant so
exceeded, increases. increase, there will be
so Mach which may no problems.
buffet will lead to
start structural
immediately. problems.

2008 32 0 1 0 0
The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in : The The The The maximum
maximum maximum maximum range for a jet
endurance angle of range for a aeroplane.
for a climb for a propeller
propeller propeller driven
driven driven aeroplane.
aeroplane. aeroplane.
2009 32 0 0 1 0
For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is Longest Minimum Minimum Minimum fuel
the reason for the use of 'maximum range speed' ? flight drag. specific fuel flow.
duration. consumption
.

2010 32 0 0 1 0
If a flight is performed with a higher "Cost Index" at a A better A better long A higher A lower cruise
given mass which of the following will occur? maximum range. cruise mach mach number.
range. number.
2011 32 0 0 1 0
Which of the following sequences of speed for a jet Maximum Maximum Vs, Vs, maximum
aeroplane is correct ? (from low to high speeds) endurance endurance maximum range speed,
speed, speed, long angle climb maximum
maximum range speed, angle climb
range speed, maximum speed.
speed, maximum range
maximum range speed.
angle of speed.
climb speed.

2012 32 0 0 1 0
What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during The drag The drag The drag The drag
the initial climb after take off, constant IAS is remains increases decreases. increases
maintained? almost considerably initially and
(Assume a constant mass.) constant. . decreases
thereafter.
2013 32 1 0 0 0
How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary The lift Only at low The lift The lift
with altitude? coefficient speeds the coefficient is coefficient
(No compressibility effects.) increases lift coefficient independant decreases
with decreases of altitude. with
increasing with increasing
altitude. increasing altitude.
altitude.

2014 32 0 0 1 0
A four jet-engined aeroplane (mass = 150 000 kg) is 7.86%. 12.86%. 1.286%. 27%.
established on climb with all engines operating. The lift-
to-drag ratio is 14.
Each engine has a thrust of 75 000 Newtons. The
gradient of climb is:
(given: g= 10 m/s²)
2015 32 0 1 0 0
 The maximum horizontal speed occurs when: The thrust is The thrust The The thrust is
equal to does not maximum equal to the
minimum increase thrust is maximum
drag. further with equal to the drag.
increasing total drag.
speed.
2016 32 0 0 1 0
A twin jet aeroplane is in cruise, with one engine giving the giving the for long- of greatest lift-
inoperative, and has to overfly a high terrain area. In lowest Cl/Cd highest range to-drag ratio.
order to allow the greatest clearance height, the ratio. Cd/Cl ratio. cruise.
appropriate airspeed must be the airspeed
2017 32 0 0 0 1
The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches is the is the point is the point is the point
the power required curve maximum where the where Drag where the Lift
drag speed. Lift to Drag coefficient is to Drag ratio
ratio is a a minimum. is a minimum.
maximum.

2018 32 0 1 0 0
An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other an increased an increased a reduced a reduced
things, the following consequences on landing landing landing landing landing
performance: distance and distance and distance and distance and
degraded improved degraded go improved go-
go-around go-around around around
performance performance performance performance

2019 32 0 0 0 1
A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other a reduced an increased a reduced an increased
things, the following consequences on take-off take-off take-off take-off take-off
performance: distance and distance and distance and distance and
improved improved degraded degraded
initial climb initial climb initial climb initial climb
performance performance performance performance

2020 32 0 0 0 1
An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other an increases an increased a reduced a reduced
things, the following consequences on take-off take-off take-off take-off take-off
performance: distance and distance and distance and distance and
degraded improved degraded improved
initial climb initial climb initial climb initial climb
performance performance performance performance

2021 32 0 0 0 1
The 'maximum tyre speed' limits: V1 in kt VLOF in V1 in kt TAS. VR, or VMU if
ground terms of this is lower
speed. ground than VR.
speed.
2022 32 0 1 0 0
The lift coefficient decreases during a glide with aircraft mass TAS glide angle IAS
constant Mach number, mainly because the : decreases. decreases. increases. increases.
2023 32 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 032-2211A) Figure b Figure c Figure a Figure d
Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the
movement of the power required curve with increasing
altitude .(H1 < H2)
2024 32 0 0 0 1
 In a steady descending flight (descent angle GAMMA) T + W sin T - W sin T-D=W T+D=-W
equilibrium of forces acting on the aeroplane is given GAMMA = D GAMMA = D sin GAMMA sin GAMMA
by:
(T = Thrust, D = Drag, W = Weight)
2025 32 1 0 0 0
Approaching in turbulent wind conditions requires a Increasing Increasing Lowering Keeping
change in the landing reference speed (VREF): VREF and VREF VREF same VREF
making a because wind
steeper glide has no
path to avoid influence on
the use of IAS.
spoilers.

2026 32 0 1 0 0
A headwind component increasing with altitude, as has no effect does not improves decreases
compared to zero wind condition, (assuming IAS is on rate of have any angle and angle and
constant) climb. effect on the rate of climb. rate of climb.
angle of
flight path
during climb.

2027 32 1 0 0 0
With respect to the optimum altitude, which of the An An An An aeroplane
following statements is correct ? aeroplane aeroplane aeroplane always flies
always flies flies most of sometimes below the
at the the time flies above optimum
optimum above the or below the altitude,
altitude optimum optimum because
because this altitude altitude Mach buffet
is because this because might occur.
economicall yields the optimum
y seen as most altitude
the most economic increases
attractive result. continuously
altitude. during flight.

2028 32 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 032-4744A) b c d a
Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS)
for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the
correct curves for "flaps down" compared to "clean"
configuration?
2029 32 0 0 0 1
A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number IAS IAS IAS IAS increases
below the tropopause. Which of the following decreases increases decreases and TAS
statements is correct? and TAS and TAS and TAS increases.
increases. decreases. decreases.
2030 32 0 0 1 0
With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum the the minimum the critical the minimum
time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding maximum drag. Mach angle of
2031 32 to: lift. number. descent. 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-2929A) maximum critical angle maximum maximum
Consider the graphic representation of the power thrust. of attack. specific endurance.
required versus true air speed (TAS), for a piston range.
engined aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing
the tangent from the origin, the point of contact (A)
determines the speed of:
2032 32 0 0 1 0
For a piston engined aeroplane, the speed for that which that which 1.4 times the that which
maximum range is : givesthe givesthe stall speed gives the
minimum maximun in clean maximum lift
value of value of lift configuration to drag ratio.
drag. .

2033 32 0 0 0 1
 Complete the following statement regarding the take-off (i) V2 (ii) 3 (i) V1 (ii) 1 (i) V1 (ii) 2 (i) V1 (ii) 2
performance of an aeroplane in performance class A. seconds (iii) second (iii) seconds (iii) seconds (iii)
Following an engine failure at (i) ........... and allowing Take-off Accelerate - Take-off Accelerate -
for a reaction time of (ii) ........... a correctly loaded distance stop distance stop distance
aircraft must be capable of decelerating to a halt within available. distance available. available.
the (iii) ......... available.

2034 32 0 0 0 1
What is the effect of increased mass on the There is no The gliding The lift/drag The speed for
performance of a gliding aeroplane? effect. angle ratio best angle of
decreases. decreases. descent
increases.

2035 32 0 0 0 1
If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed increase the have no decrease increase the
limited, downhill slope would required effect on the the maximum
take-off maximum maximum mass for take-
distance. mass for mass for off.
take-off. take-off.

2036 32 0 1 0 0
The first segment of the take-off flight path ends at 35 ft at at at reaching
above the completion completion V2.
runway. of gear of flap
retraction. retraction.
2037 32 0 1 0 0
The take-off mass could be limited by the take-off the take-off the the climb
distance distance maximum gradient with
available available brake one engine
(TODA) only. (TODA), the energy only. inoperative
maximum only.
brake
energy and
the climb
gradient with
one engine
inoperative.

2038 32 0 1 0 0
Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of Increase of Decrease of Headwind. Tailwind.
ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the aircraft aircraft
appropriate minimum glide angle speed? mass. mass.
2039 32 0 0 0 1
What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of The speed is The The altitude The elevator
the power curve'? unstable. aeroplane cannot be must be
will not stall. maintained. pulled to
lower the
nose.
2040 32 1 0 0 0
Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane maximum holding, maximum maximum
are basically identical? climb angle, maximum drag, range,
The speeds for: minimum climb angle maximum minimum drag
glide angle and endurance and minimum
and minimum and glide angle.
maximum glide angle. maximum
range. climb angle.
2041 32 0 1 0 0
 (For this question use annex 032-4743A or Yes, the It does not No, the Performance
Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.2) chart has matter which performance will be better
With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, been made take-off will be worse than in the
will the accelerate and stop distance be achieved in a for this technique is than in the chart.
take-off where the brakes are released before take-off situation. being used. chart.
power is set?

2042 32 0 0 1 0
In the event that the take-off mass is obstacle limited 15 degrees 10 degrees 20 degrees 25 degrees
and the take-off flight path includes a turn, the bank up to height up to a up to a up to a height
angle should not exceed of 400 ft. height of height of of 400 ft.
400 ft. 400 ft.
2043 32 1 0 0 0
You climb with a climb speed schedule 300/.78. What During the No The rate of The rate of
do you expect in the crossover altitude 29 200 ft (OAT acceleration noticeable climb climb
= ISA) ? to the Mach effect since increases decreases
number .78 the true since the since climb
the rate of airspeed at constant performance
climb is 300 kt IAS IAS-climb is at a constant
approximatel and .78 replaced by Mach number
y zero. Mach are the constant is grossly
the same (at Mach-climb. reduced as
ISA compared to
temperature constant IAS.
TAS=460 kt)

2044 32 0 0 1 0
If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to lower. higher. unchanged. only affected
290/.74 the new crossover altitude is by the
aeroplane
gross mass.

2045 32 1 0 0 0
The optimum cruise altitude is the pressure the pressure the pressure the pressure
altitude at altitude at altitude up to altitude at
which the which the which a which the
best specific fuel flow is a cabin speed for high
range can maximum. altitude of speed buffet
be achieved. 8000 ft can as TAS is a
be maximum.
maintained.

2046 32 1 0 0 0
The optimum cruise altitude increases if the if the if the if the
temperature tailwind aeroplane aeroplane
(OAT) is component mass is mass is
increased. is increased. decreased.
decreased.
2047 32 0 0 0 1
Below the optimum cruise altitude the TAS for the Mach the Mach the IAS for
long range number for number for long range
cruise long range long range cruise
increases cruise cruise increases
continuously increases decreases continuously
with continuously continuously with
decreasing with with decreasing
altitude. decreasing decreasing altitude.
altitude. altitude.

2048 32 0 0 1 0
 Under which condition should you fly considerably If at the If at the If the If the
lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude ? lower lower maximum temperature
altitude altitude altitude is is lower at the
either more either below the low altitude
headwind or considerably optimum (high altitude
less tailwind less altitude. inversion).
can be headwind or
expected. considerably
more
tailwind can
be expected.

2049 32 0 1 0 0
Which of the following is a reason to operate an In order to The aircraft In order to It is efficient to
aeroplane at 'long range speed'? achieve can be prevent loss fly slightly
speed operated of speed faster than
stability. close to the stability and with maximum
buffet onset tuck-under. range speed.
speed.

2050 32 0 0 0 1
Which of the following factors leads to the maximum High mass. Headwind. Tailwind. Low mass.
2051 32 flight time of a glide? 0 0 0 1
The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by selecting a selecting a selecting a a lower flap
lower V1. lower V2. lower VR. setting for
take-off and
selecting a
higher V2.
2052 32 0 0 0 1
Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used the runway it is dark. the runway obstacles are
when: is is wet. present close
contaminate to the end of
d. the runway.

2053 32 1 0 0 0
When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway decreases / increases / remains decreases /
the one engine out obstacle clearance / climb remains increases. constant / decreases.
performance: constant. remains
constant.
2054 32 1 0 0 0
The landing field length required for turbojet 43% 92% 67% 70%
aeroplanes at the destination (wet condition) is the
2055 32 demonstrated landing distance plus 0 1 0 0
Which statement is correct for a descent without engine A tailwind A tailwind A tailwind A headwind
thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed? component component component component
increases decreases increases increases the
fuel and time the ground the ground ground
to descent. distance. distance. distance.

2056 32 0 0 1 0
 If the level-off altitude is below the obstacle clearance the fuel the drift fuel
altitude during a drift down procedure recommend jettisoning down should jettisoning
ed drift down should be be flown should be
speed started when with flaps in started at the
should be the obstacle the beginning of
disregarded clearance approach drift down.
and it should altitude is configuration
be flown at reached. .
the stall
speed plus
10 kt.

2057 32 0 0 0 1
'Drift down' is the procedure to be applied after cabin to conduct to conduct a after engine
depressuriza an visual failure if the
tion. instrument approach if aeroplane is
approach at VASI is above the one
the available. engine out
alternate. maximum
altitude.
2058 32 0 0 0 1
The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if: The take-off The actual The actual The actual
distance take-off take-off take-off mass
available is mass (TOM) mass (TOM) (TOM) is
lower than including a is greater lower than the
the take-off margin is than the field length
distance greater than climb limited limited TOM.
required one the TOM.
engine out performance
at V1. limited TOM.

2059 32 0 0 0 1
The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at 67% 92% 43% 70%
the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated
2060 32 landing distance plus 0 1 0 0
Higher gross mass at the same altitude decreases the VY and VX VY and VX VY and VX VX is
gradient and the rate of climb whereas are not are are increased and
affected by a decreased. increased. VY is
higher gross decreased.
mass.

2061 32 0 0 1 0
The maximum mass for landing could be limited by the climb the climb the climb the climb
requirement requirement requirement requirements
s with one s with all s with all with one
engine engines in engines in engine
inoperative the the landing inoperative in
in the approach configuration the approach
landing configuration but with gear configuration.
configuration . up.
.

2062 32 0 0 0 1
An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for increases / decreases / increases / increases /
minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept increases / constant / increases / constant /
constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? decreases decreases constant increases

Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL/CD ratio

2063 32 1 0 0 0
 An aeroplane is in a power off glide at best gliding remains the may decreases. increases.
speed. If the pilot increases pitch attitude the glide same. increase or
distance: decrease
depending
on the
aeroplane.
2064 32 0 0 1 0
The speed V2 of a jet aeroplane must be greater than: 1.05VLOF. 1.3V1. 1.2Vs. 1.2VMCG.
2065 32 0 0 1 0
Which of the following speeds can be limited by the Lift-off IAS. Lift-off TAS. Lift-off EAS. Lift-off
'maximum tyre speed'? groundspeed.
2066 32 0 0 0 1
Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used windshear is it is dark. the runway the runway is
when: reported on is dry. wet.
the take-off
path.
2067 32 1 0 0 0
Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used the runway the OAT is anti skid is it is dark.
2068 32 when: is wet. ISA +10°C not usable. 0 0 1 0
After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain Emergency ETOPS. Long Range Drift Down
its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which Descent Cruise Procedure.
should be applied? Procedure. Descent.
2069 32 0 0 0 1
Which of the following statements is correct? VR is the VR should VR should VR is the
speed at not be not be speed at
which the higher than higher than which, during
pilot should V1. 1.05 VMCG. rotation, the
start to nose wheel
rotate the comes off the
aeroplane. runway.

2070 32 1 0 0 0
The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of true rate of climb the increase the increase
airspeed to to true of altitude to of altitude to
rate of climb. airspeed. horizontal air distance over
distance ground
expressed expressed as
as a a percentage.
percentage.

2071 32 0 0 1 0
The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass decreases increases increases is
with with with independent
increasing increasing increasing of altitude.
altitude altitude altitude due
since the since the to the higher
thrust drag true
available decreases airspeed.
decreases due to the
due to the lower air
lower air density.
density.

2072 32 1 0 0 0
As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb VX is VX is always VY is always VX is always
sometimes above VY. above VMO. below VY.
below and
sometimes
above VY
depending
on altitude.
2073 32 0 0 0 1
 Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power improves the improves the decreases decreases the
setting, climb rate of climb rate of climb rate of climb
gradient if if the and increses and the angle
the airspeed airspeed is angle of of climb.
is below VX. below VY. climb.

2074 32 0 0 0 1
If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for the the the the aeroplane
level flight aeroplane aeroplane aeroplane decelerates if
accelerates descends if decelerates the altitude is
if the altitude the airspeed if it is in the maintained.
is is region of
maintained. maintained. reversed
command.
2075 32 1 0 0 0
The rate of climb is angle of is the is is the downhill
climb times horizontal approximatel component of
true component y climb the true
airspeed. of the true gradient airspeed.
airspeed. times true
airspeed
divided by
100.
2076 32 0 0 1 0
Which of the equations below expresses approximately Climb Climb Climb Cimb
the unaccelerated percentage climb gradient for small Gradient = Gradient = Gradient = Gradient =
climb angles? ((Thrust - ((Thrust + ((Thrust - (Lift/Weight) x
Drag)/Weigh Drag)/Lift) x Mass)/Lift) x 100
t) x 100 100 100
2077 32 1 0 0 0
Which statement is correct for a descent without engine The higher The higher The higher The mass of
thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed? the gross the gross the average an aeroplane
mass the mass the temperature does not have
greater is lower is the (OAT) the any effect on
the speed speed for lower is the the speed for
for descent. descent. speed for descent.
descent.

2078 32 1 0 0 0
In unaccelerated climb lift equals thrust equals thrust equals lift is greater
weight plus drag plus drag plus than the gross
the vertical the uphill the downhill weight.
component component component
of the drag. of the gross of the gross
weight in the weight in the
flight path flight path
direction. direction.

2079 32 0 0 1 0
With one or two engines inoperative the best specific reduced. improved. not affected. first improved
range at high altitudes is and later
reduced.
2080 32 1 0 0 0
Which statement concerning the inclusion of a V1 is V1 remains The field The usable
clearway in take-off calculation is correct? increased. constant. length length of the
limited take- clearway is
off mass will not limited.
increase.

2081 32 0 0 1 0
 Which of the following statements, concerning the It should be It cannot be It should be It should not
obstacle limited take-off mass for performance class A calculated in lower than determined be corrected
aeroplane, is correct? such a way the on the basis for 30° bank
that there is correspondi of a 35 ft turns in the
a margin of ng climb obstacle take-off path.
50 ft with limited take- clearance
respect to off mass. with the
the "net take respect to
off flight the "net
path". take-off flight
path".

2082 32 0 0 1 0
Concerning the landing gear, which of the following Nitrogen Rate of Tyre Rate of
factors would limit the take-off mass? pressure in rotation of pressure rotation of the
the strut and the wheel at and brake wheel and
brake lift off and temperature. tyre pressure.
temperature. brake
energy.
2083 32 0 1 0 0
On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases The specific The speed The specific The specific
continuously as a consequence of the fuel range and must be range range
consumption. The result is: the optimum increased to increases decreases
altitude compensate and the and the
increases. the lower optimum optimum
mass. altitude altitude
decreases. increases.

2084 32 1 0 0 0
 INSTRUMENTATION - AEROPLANES
56 domande 1hr 1\2

The red pointer which is normally on the red line on the allows the shows the moves when shows the
EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicators: display of vibration the limit value
the level of the correspondin not to be
parameter engine g value is exceeded
value to be under exceeded .
adopted consideratio and remains
during take- n. positioned at
off. the
maximum
value that
has been
reached.

1117 22 0
A landing will be considered to be performed in the 3, 4 and 5. 1 and 4. 2, 3 and 5. 1 and 2.
SEMI-AUTOMATIC mode when:
1- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam
until the decision height is reached then is disengaged
automatically.
2- the autothrottle maintains a constant speed until the
decision height is reached then is disengaged
automatically.
3- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam
until the flare.
4- the autothrottle decreases the thrust when the height
is approximately 30 ft.
5- the flare and the ground roll are performed
automatically.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1118 22 0
When using the autopilot, the function of the pitch 1 and 2. 1, 2 and 3. 3. 1 and 3.
channel automatic trim is to:

1- cancel the hinge moment of the elevator

2- ease as much as possible the load of the servo-
actuator
3- restore to the pilot a correctly trimmed airplane
during the autopilot disengagement

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1119 22 0
Among the following functions of an autopilot, those 1, 3, 4 and 3, 4 and 5. 1, 2, and 6. 1, 2, 3
related to the airplane guidance are: 5. and 6.

1- pitch attitude holding

2- horizontal wing holding
3- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding
4- altitude holding
5- VOR axis holding
6- yaw damping

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1120 22 0
 Among the following functions of an autopilot, those 2, 4, and 5. 1, 2 and 5. 1, 2, 3 and 3, 4, 5
related to the airplane stabilization are: 6. and 6.

1- pitch attitude holding

2- horizontal wing holding
3- displayed heading or inertial track holding
4- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding
5- yaw damping
6- VOR axis holding

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1121 22 0
A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain read a little read a little freeze at react like
hole with the static port open causes the airspeed high. low. zero. an
1122 22 indicator to : altimeter. 0
A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet airspeed airspeed altimeter vertical
will affect the following instrument (s) : indicator, indicator only. speed
altimeter and only. indicator
vertical only.
speed
indicator.
1123 22 0
The altimeter is fed by : differential static dynamic total
1124 22 pressure pressure pressure pressure 0
The vertical speed indicator (VSI) is fed by : differential static dynamic total
1125 22 pressure pressure pressure pressure 0
The float type fuel gauges provide information on: mass whose mass whose volume volume
indication indication is whose whose
varies with independent indication indication
the of the varies with is
temperature temperature the independ
of the fuel. of the fuel. temperature ent of the
of the fuel. temperatu
re of the
fuel.

1126 22 0
Torque can be determined by measuring the : oil pressure phase frequency of quantity of
at the fixed difference an impulse light
crown of an between 2 tachometer passing
epicycloidal impulse attached to a through a
reducer of tachometers transmission rack-
the main attached to a shaft. wheel
engine transmission attached
gearbox. shaft. to a
transmissi
on shaft.

1127 22 1
A "close traffic advisory" is displayed on the display a blue or a red full a blue or an orange
device of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance white full square. white empty full circle.
System) by : lozenge. lozenge.
1128 22 0
A "resolution advisory" (RA) is represented on the blue or white red full red full blue or
display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision empty circle. square. white full
Avoidance System) by a : lozenge. lozenge.
1129 22 0
An "intruding traffic advisory" is represented on the a red full a yellow full a blue or a blue or
display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision square. circle. white empty white full
Avoidance System) by displaying : lozenge. lozenge.
1130 22 0
 On a TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) the that advises asking the asking the asking the
preventive "resolution advisory" (RA) is a "resolution the pilot to pilot to pilot to pilot to
advisory": avoid certain modify modify the modify the
deviations effectively heading of speed of
from the the vertical his aircraft. his
current speed of his aircraft.
vertical rate aircraft.
but does not
require any
change to be
made to that
rate.

1131 22 1
On a TCAS2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System), a asking the which does asking the asking the
corrective "resolution advisory" (RA) is a "resolution pilot to not require pilot to pilot to
advisory": modify any action modify the modify the
effectively from the pilot heading of speed of
the vertical but on the his aircraft. his
speed of his contrary aircraft.
aircraft. asks him not
to modify his
current
vertical
speed rate.

1132 22 1
When only one autopilot is used for climbing, cruising "fail survival" "fail safe" "fail soft" or "fail
and approach, the system is considered: or without with failure with passive"
failure effect effect minimized or without
with function without failure effect. failure
always disconnectio effect but
ensured. n. with
disconnec
tion.

1133 22 0
The Altitude Select System: Disengages Is Illuminates a Engages
autopilot annunciated light when autopilot
Auto Trim at by light selected Auto Trim
selected and/or altitude is at
altitude sound when attained selected
airplane is altitude
approaching
selected
altitude

1134 22 0
The purpose of Auto Trim function in autopilot is to : tell the pilot trim throttles control help Auto
when to obtain elevator trim Pilot
elevator smooth tab in order compens
trimming is engine to relieve ate for
required power elevator load crosswind
variation influence

1135 22 0
The purpose of Auto Throttle is: automatic to deactivate to to
shut down of manual synchronize maintain
one engine throttles and engines to constant
at too high transfer avoid engine
temperature engine "yawing" power or
control to airplane
Auto Pilot speed

1136 22 0
 The capacity fuel gauges provide information: on mass on mass which is which
whose whose independent varies
indication is indication of the with the
independent varies with temperature temperatu
of the the of the fuel. re of the
temperature temperature fuel.
of the fuel. of the fuel.

1137 22 1
The diagram on annex 022-648A shows three gyro 1C, 2B, 3A 1B, 2A, 3C 1A, 2B, 3C 1B, 2C,
assemblies: A, B and C. Among these gyros, 3A
-one is a roll gyro (noted 1)
-one is a pitch gyro (noted 2)
-one is a yaw gyro (noted 3)
The correct matching of gyros and assemblies is:

1138 22 0
An autopilot capable of holding at least altitude and for IFR or on multipilot for VFR and on
heading mode is compulsory: night flights airplanes. IFR flights airplanes
with only with only over 5.7 t.
one pilot. one pilot.

1139 22 1
If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked gradually under-read indicate a continue
during a descent the instrument will: indicate zero height to display
equivalent to the
the setting reading at
on the which the
millibar blockage
subscale occured

1140 22 0
The primary factor which makes the servo-assisted a sub-scale an induction more combinati
altimeter more accurate than the simple pressure logarithmic pick-off effective on of
altimeter is the use of: function device temperature counters/
compensatin pointers
g leaf
springs

1141 22 0
If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked continue to under-read over-read gradually
during a climb, the instrument will: indicate the by an return to
reading at amount zero
which the equivalent to
blockage the reading
occured at the time
that the
instrument
became
blocked

1142 22 1
If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) read zero continue to under-read over-read
becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will: indicate the
speed
applicable to
that at the
time of the
blockage

1143 22 0
When climbing at a constant Mach number below the decrease increase at a remain increase
tropopause, in ISA conditions, the Calibrated Airspeed linear rate constant at an
(CAS) will: exponenti
al rate
1144 22 1
 For a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) and a level lower True lower True higher True higher
flight, a fall in ambient temperature will result in a: Airspeed Airspeed Airspeed True
(TAS) due to (TAS) due to (TAS) due to Airspeed
a decrease an increase a decrease (TAS) due
in air density in air density in air density to an
increase
in air
density
1145 22 0
When descending through an isothermal layer at a decrease increase at a remain increase
constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS), the True Airspeed linear rate constant at an
(TAS) will: exponenti
al rate
1146 22 1
A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non- under-read. over-read. over-read in under-
pressurized aircraft to an airspeed indicator would a climb and read in a
cause it to: under-read climb and
in a descent. over-read
in a
descent.
1147 22 1
The airspeed indicator circuit consists of pressure the total the static the total the
sensors. The pitot tube directly supplies: pressure pressure pressure dynamic
and the pressure
static
pressure
1148 22 1
An aeroplane is in steady climb. The autothrottle decreases. remains decreases if increases.
maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total constant. the static
temperature remains constant, the Mach number : temperature
is lower than
the standard
temperature.

1149 22 0
The indications on a directional gyroscope or 2,3,5. 1,2,3,5. 3,4,5. 1,2,4,5.
gyrocompass are subject to errors, due to:

1- rotation of Earth.
2- aeroplane motion on Earth.
3- lateral and transversal aeroplane bank angles.
4- north change.
5- mechanical defects.

Chose the combination with true statements only:

1150 22 0
For an aircraft flying a true track of 360° between the depends 0°/hour +5°/hour -5°/hour
005°S and 005°N parallels, the precession error of the only on the
directional gyro due to apparent drift is equal to: aircraft's
ground
speed
1151 22 0
While inertial platform system is operating on board an without with with without
aircraft, it is necessary to use a device with the following damping and damping and damping and damping
characteristics, in order to keep the vertical line with a a period of a period of a period of and a
pendulous system: about 84 84 seconds about 84 period of
seconds minutes. about 84
minutes
1152 22 0
In order to align a strapdown inertial unit, it is required Position the Check Determine Re-erect
to insert the local geographical coordinates. This is computing operation of magnetic or laser
necessary to: trihedron laser gyros. true gyros.
with heading.
reference to
earth.
1153 22 1
 An automatic pilot is a system which can ensure the piloting from piloting and piloting only. navigation
functions of: take-off to guidance of .
landing an aircraft in
without any both the
action from horizontal
the human and vertical
pilot. planes.

1154 22 0
An aeroplane is equipped with a Flight Director (with deviates to deviates to deviates to disappear
crosshair trend bars), heading 270°, in HDG mode its right stop the right and the right and s, the new
(heading hold). A new heading, of 360°, is selected the as long as will be remains in heading
vertical trend bar : the centred as that position selection
aeroplane is soon as you until the has
more than roll the aircraft has deactivate
10° off the aircraft to reached d the
new the bank heading HDG
selected angle 360°. mode.
heading. calculated
by the flight
director.

1155 22 0
Alarms are standardised and follow a code of colours. flashing red amber red green
Those requiring action but not immediately, are
1156 22 signalled by the colour: 0
Among the errors of a magnetic compass, are errors: in North due to due to of
seeking, due cross-wind Schüler type parallax,
to bank gusts oscillations due to
angle and particularly oscillation
magnetic on westerly s of the
heading or easterly compass
headings rose

1157 22 1
On an aeroplane equipped with a constant speed control of selection of on a twin- control of
propeller, the RPM indicator enables : power. engine RPM. engine the
aeroplane, propeller
automatic regulator
engine and the
synchronisat display of
ion. propeller
RPM.

1158 22 0
A stall warning system is based on a measure of : groundspee aerodynamic airspeed. attitude.
d. incidence.
1159 22 0
When the auto-pilot is engaged; the role of the relieve the react to synchronize relieve
automatic trim is to: pressure on altitude the the A.P.
the control changes in longitudinal servo
column and Altitude Hold loop motor and
return, the mode return the
aircraft in- aircraft in-
trim at A.P. trim at
disconnect A.P.
disconnec
t

1160 22 0
 The command functions of an autopilot include, among 2-3-4 1-2-5 1-2-3-5 3-5
others, the holding of :

1- vertical speed
2- altitude
3- attitude
4- bank
5- heading

The combination which regroups all of the correct

statements is :

1161 22 0
Machmeter readings are subject to: temperature setting error. position density
error. pressure error.
1162 22 error 0
Sound propagates through the air at a speed which only temperature pressure. density. temperatu
depends on : and the re.
1163 22 pressure. 0
The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 4, 5, 6 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 3, 4, 5, 6
releases a warning in the following cases : 6

1- excessive rate of descent

2- excessive ground proximity rate
3- loss of altitude after take-off or go-around
4- abnormal gear/flaps configuration
5- excessive deviation under the glidepath
6- abnormal airbrakes configuration

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1164 22 1
In order to know in which mode the autothrottles are ND TCC (Thrust throttles PFD
engaged, the crew will check the : (Navigation Control position. (Primary
Display). Computer). Flight
Display)
1165 22 0
According to the JAR-OPS regulations, the Cockpit 1,2,3,4,5,6 1 1,3,4,5 1,2,4,5,6
Voice Recorder of a 50 seat multi-engined aircraft
having been granted the airworthiness certificate after
1st April 1998 will record:

1- the radiotelephonic communications transmitted or

received by the cockpit crew
2- the audio environment of the cockpit
3- the cabin attendants communications in the cabin via
the interphone
4- the flight crew members communications in the
cockpit via the interphone
5- the flight crew members communications in the
cockpit via the public address system
6- the audio signals identifiying the navigation or
approach aids

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

1166 22 0
 According to the JAR-OPS regulations, the Cockpit Automaticall From the When the Automatic
Voice Recorder of a 50 seat multi-engined aircraft, y when the first radio pilot selects ally prior
having been granted an airworthiness certificate after wheels leave contact with the "CVR: to the
1st April 1998, shall start recording : the ground Air Traffic ON" during aircraft
until the Control until engine start moving
moment radio until the pilot under its
when the shutdown selects the own
wheels after the "CVR: OFF" power
touch the flight. during the until flight
ground engine shut completio
again. down. n when
the
aircraft is
no longer
able to
move
under its
own
power.

1167 22 0
The TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) 1, 2, 3 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 3 1, 2
provides :

1- traffic information (TA: Traffic Advisory)

2- horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)
3- vertical resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)
4- ground proximity warning

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1168 22 0
The aim of the flight director is to provide information to allowing him allowing him allowing him about his
the pilot: to return to a to return to a to return to a position
desired path desired path desired path with
according to according to in an optimal regard to
a 45° a 30° way. a
intercept intercept radioelect
angle. angle. ric axis.

1169 22 0
(For this question use annex 022-9768A) located to located to experiencing experienci
An aircraft is under guidance mode following a VOR the leftside the rightside rightside ng a
radial. From the ADI and HSI information represented in of the of the wind. leftside
the enclosed annex, it is possible to deduce that the selected selected wind.
aircraft is : radial. radial.

1170 22 0
The correction of the control surface deflection made by 1,2. 1, 2, 3, 4. 1, 2, 3. 2, 3, 4.
the automatic pilot calculator in order to stabilize the
longitudinal attitude will be all the more significant as
the :

1- difference between the reference attitude and the

instantaneous attitude is high.
2- rate of change of the difference between the
reference attitude and the instantaneous attitude is
high.
3- temperature is low.
4- pressure altitude is high.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1171 22 1
 The correction of the control surface deflection made by 1, 2, 3 and 1 and 2. 3 and 4. 1, 2 and
the auto-pilot calculator in order to keep a given altitude 4. 3.
will be all the more significant when the :

1- difference between the attitude necessary to keep

the given or reference altitude and the instantaneous
attitude is high.
2 - variation speed of the difference between the
attitude necessary to maintain the altitude and the
instantaneous attitude is high.
3 - difference between the altitude of reference and the
instantaneous altitude is high.
4 - variation speed of the difference between the
reference altitude and the instantaneous altitude is high.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

1172 22 1
(For this question use annex 022-9771A) 781.85 hPa. 942.13 hPa. 1 013.25 644.41
The atmospheric pressure at FL 70 in a "standard + 10" hPa. hPa.
1173 22 atmosphere is: 1
The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a 30 ft to 5 the ground 50 ft to 2 the
system working according to a height span ranging from 000 ft to 500 ft 500 ft ground to
: 1 000 ft
1174 22 0
All the anemometers are calibrated according to: Bernouilli's St-Venant's Bernouilli's St-Venant'
limited formula limited formula
formula which formula which
which takes considers which takes into
into account the air as an considers account
the air uncompressi the air as an the air
compressibili ble fluid. uncompressi compressi
ty. ble fluid. bility.

1175 22 0
In the building principle of a gyroscope, the best close to the on the close to the on the
efficiency is obtained through the concentration of the axis and with periphery axis and with periphery
mass : a low and with a a high and with a
rotation high rotation rotation low
speed. speed. speed. rotation
speed.

1176 22 0
The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard 644 kt. 332 kt. 661 kt. 1059 kt.
1177 22 atmosphere is: 0
In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the lower than equal to the independent higher
calibrated airspeed (CAS) is : the true true of the true than the
airspeed airspeed airspeed true
(TAS). (TAS). (TAS). airspeed
(TAS).
1178 22 0
The GPWS calculator receives the following signals : 2,3,4,6 1,2,4,5 1,3,4,5,6 1,2,5,6

1 - vertical speed
2 - radio altimeter height
3 - pressure altitude
4 - glidepath deviation
5 - gear and flaps position
6 - angle of attack

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is :

1179 22 0
 The GPWS calculator is able to operate in the following 1,2,4,6,7 3,4,5,6 2,3,5,7 1,2,5,6,7
modes :

1- excessive descent rate

2- excessive rate of terrain closure
3- excessive angle of attack
4- too high descent attitude
5- loss of altitude after take-off
6- abnormal gear/flaps configuration
7- excessive glidepath deviation

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1180 22 0
The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is 50 ft to 5 50 ft to 2 0 ft to 2 500 0 ft to 5
active for a height range from: 000 ft 500 ft ft measured 000 ft
measured by measured by by the radio measured
the radio the radio altimeter. by the
altimeter. altimeter. radio
altimeter.
1181 22 0
For capturing and keeping a preselected magnetic 1,2,4 2,3,4 1,3,4 1,2,3
heading, the flight director computer takes into account:

1- track deviation
2- rate of track closure
3- rate of change of track closure
4- wind velocity given by the inertial reference unit

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is :

1182 22 0
The TCAS 1 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) 1, 2, 3 1, 2, 3, 4 1 1, 2
provides :

1- traffic information
2- horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)
3- vertical resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)
4- ground proximity warning

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1183 22 0
The angle of attack transmitter provides an electric 1, 2 and 3. 1. 2 and 3. 1 and 3.
signal varying with:

1- the angular position of a wind vane

2- the deviation between the airplane flight attitude and
the path calculated by the inertial unit
3- a probe differential pressure depending on the
variation of the angle of attack

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1184 22 0
 In a selected axis capture mode, the autopilot gives a proportional of a fixed of a fixed proportion
bank attitude input : to the value equal value equal al to the
deviation to 27°. to 20°. aircraft
between the true
selected airspeed
heading and but not
the current exceeding
heading but a given
not value.
exceeding a
given value.

1185 22 1
In transport airplanes, the temperatures are generally 1, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 5 2, 3 1, 2
measured with :

1- resistance thermometers
2- thermocouple thermometers
3- reactance thermometers
4- capacitance thermometers
5- mercury thermometers

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is :

1186 22 0
The QNH is by definition the value of the: altimeter atmospheric altimeter atmosphe
setting so pressure at setting so ric
that the the level of that the pressure
needles the ground needles of at the sea
indicate zero overflown by the altimeter level of
when the the aircraft. indicate the the
aircraft is on altitude of location
ground at the location for which
the location for which it is it is given.
for which it is given.
provided.

1187 22 0
A synchroscope is used on aircraft to: reduce the reduce the achieve set
vibration of rpm of each optimum several
each engine. engine. control of engines
on-board to the
voltages. same
speed.
1188 22 0
A landing will be considered to be performed in the 1 and 2. 2, 3 and 5. 1 and 4. 3, 4 and
AUTOMATIC mode when: 5.
1- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam
until the decision height is reached then is disengaged
automatically.
2- the autothrottle maintains a constant speed until the
decision height is reached then is disengaged
automatically.
3- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam
until the flare.
4- the autothrottle decreases the thrust when the height
is approximately 30 ft.
5- the flare and the ground roll are performed
automatically.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1189 22 0
 When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a "traffic "traffic "traffic "traffic
transponder without altitude reporting capability, the advisory" advisory", advisory" advisory"
TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) issues a : and vertical and only. and
horizontal horizontal vertical
"resolution "resolution "resolutio
advisory". advisory". n
advisory".

1190 22 0
In automatic landing mode, when the 2 autopilots are "fail survival" "fail soft" or "fail passive" "fail hard"
used, the system is considered: or without with or without or with
failure effect minimized failure effect failure
with function failure effect. but with effect and
always disconnectio disconnec
ensured. n. tion.

1191 22 1
In automatic landing mode, in case of failure of one of "fail soft" "fail passive" "fail survival" "fail hard"
the two autopilots, the system is considered: with or without or without or without
minimized failure effect failure effect failure
failure effect. but with with function effect and
disconnectio always disconnec
n. ensured. tion.

1192 22 0
The flight director indicates the : optimum path path optimum
path at the permitting permitting instantan
moment it is reaching a reaching a eous path
entered to selected selected to reach
reach a radial in radial over a selected
selected minimum minimum radial.
radial. time. distance.
1193 22 0
The stall warning system receives information about the 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 3, 4, 5 1, 3, 5 1, 4
:

1- airplane angle of attack

2- airplane speed
3- airplane bank angle
4- airplane configuration
5- load factor on the airplane

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1194 22 0
During an automatic landing, from a height of about 50 autopilot glideslope autopilot Loc and
ft the: maintains a mode is maintains an Glideslop
vertical disconnecte angle of e modes
speed d and the attack are
depending airplane depending disconnec
on the radio continues its on the radio ted and
altimeter descent until altimeter the
height. landing. height. airplane
carries on
its
descent
until
landing.

1195 22 1
 The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) 1, 2, 4 1, 2 1, 2, 3 1, 2, 3, 4
computer receives information :

1- about the pressure altitude through the mode S

transponder
2- from the radio-altimeter
3- specific to the airplane configuration
4- from the inertial units

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1196 22 0
An autopilot is selected "ON" in mode "altitude hold," aircraft will aircraft will mode aircraft
the pilot alters the barometric pressure set on the sub- remain at climb or altitude hold will
scale of his altimeter the: the same descend in will remain at
altitude, the the sense of disengage the same
autopilot the change, altitude,
takes its the autopilot the
pressure takes its autopilot
information pressure takes its
from the information pressure
altimeter from the informatio
corrected to altimeter n from the
standard static
pressure, source
1013.25 hPa

1197 22 0
The white sector of the arc of a temperature gauge an a forbidden a special a normal
corresponds to: exceptional operating operating operating
operating range. range. range.
range.
1198 22 0
On a modern aircraft, the flight director modes are control panel upper strip upper strip upper
displayed on the: of the flight of the PFD of the ND strip of
director only. (Primary (Navigation the ECAM
Flight Display). (Electroni
Display). c
Centralize
d A/C
Managem
ent).

1199 22 0
All the last generation aircraft use flight control systems. managemen global 2-D global 3-D managem
The Flight Management System (FMS) is the most t system Flight Flight ent
advanced system ; it can be defined as a: optimized in Managemen Managemen system
the t System t System optimized
horizontal in the
plane vertical
plane
1200 22 0
When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a "traffic "traffic "traffic "traffic
serviceable mode C transponder, the TCAS II (Traffic advisory", advisory" advisory" advisory"
Collision Avoidance System) generates a : vertical and and vertical and only.
horizontal "resolution horizontal
"resolution advisory". "resolution
advisory". advisory".
1201 22 0
The airspeed indicator of an aircraft is provided with a speed speed maximum maximum
moving red and white hatched pointer. This pointer indicated on indicated on speed in speed in
indicates the: the the VMO VMO
autothrottle autothrottle operation operation,
control box, control box versus versus
versus versus altitude temperatu
temperature altitude re

1202 22 0
 An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The decreases. increases if remains increases.
autothrottle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the outside constant.
the total temperature decreases, the Mach number : temperature
is higher
than the
standard
temperature,
decreases if
lower.

1203 22 0
At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance +/-60 feet +/-75 feet +/-30 feet +/-70 feet
1204 22 in feet from indicated must not exceed : 1
The temperature measured by the CHT (Cylinder Head temperature average temperature temperatu
temperature) probe is the : within the temperature of the re of the
hottest within the exhaust carburator
cylinder, whole set of gases. to be
depending cylinders. monitored
on its when the
position in outside
the engine air
block. temperatu
re is
between
-5°C and
10°C.

1205 22 1
A transport airplane has to be equipped with an altitude 2 1,3,4 1,5 3,4
warning device. This system will warn the crew about :

1 - getting close to the preselected altitude, during both

climb and descent.
2 - getting close to the preselected altitude, during climb
only.
3 - the loss of altitude during take-off or missed
approach.
4 - a wrong landing configuration.
5 - a variation higher or lower than a preselected
altitude.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

1206 22 0
During the approach, a crew reads on the radio height of the altitude of height of the height of
altimeter the value of 650 ft. This is an indication of the aircraft with the aircraft. lowest the
true: regard to the wheels with aircraft
runway. regard to the with
ground at regard to
any time. the
ground at
any time.

1207 22 0
 A transport airplane is compelled to carry on board a 2,5 2,3,4,5 2 1,3,4
Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS). This
system will warn the crew in case of :

1 - keeping the altitude at a lower level than the one

shown in the flight plan entered in the FMS.
2 - dangerous ground proximity.
3 - loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach.
4 - wrong landing configuration.
5 - descent below glidepath, within limits.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is :

1208 22 0
The turn rate indicator uses a gyroscope: 1-3-4 2-5 1-6 1-3

1 - with one degree of freedom.

2 - with two degrees of freedom
3 - the frame of which is supported by two return
springs.
4 - the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the
pitch axis.
5 - the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the
yawing axis.
6 - the spinning wheel axis of which is horizontal.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1209 22 0
In case of accidental closing of an aircraft's left static underreads overreads overreads keeps on
pressure port (rain, birds), the altimeter: the altitude. the altitude the altitude providing
in case of a in case of a reliable
sideslip to side-slip to reading in
the left and the right and all
displays the displays the situations
correct correct
information information
during during
symmetric symmetric
flight. flight.

1210 22 0
An aircraft is flying at a 120 kt true airspeed (VV), in 18°. 12°. 36°. 30°.
order to achieve a rate 1 turn, the pilot will have to bank
1211 22 the aircraft at an angle of: 1
The yellow sector of the temperature gauge a frequent a forbidden an a normal
corresponds to: operating operating exceptional operating
range. range. operating range.
range.
1212 22 0
The pendulum type detector system of the directional a torque 2 torque a levelling a nozzle
gyro feeds : motor on the motors erection integral
sensitive arranged torque motor with the
axis horizontally outer
gimbal
ring
1213 22 0
The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an equal to the higher than the same as lower
atmosphere where all atmosphere layers below the standard the real the real than the
aircraft are warm is: altitude. altitude. altitude. real
altitude.
1214 22 0
 Mach Trim is a device to compensate for : weight backing of the effects of the effects
reduction the fuel transfer of
resulting aerodynamic between the temperatu
from fuel center at main tanks re
consumption high Mach and the tank variation
during the numbers by located in during a
cruise moving the the climb or
elevator to horizontal descent at
nose-up tail constant
Mach

1215 22 0
In some configurations, modern aircraft do not respect 10% 3% 7% 5%
the regulatory margins between stall and natural buffet.
The warning system supplies the corresponding alarm.
The required margin related to the stall speed is:

1216 22 0
The Mach number is : the ratio of a direct the ratio of the ratio
the aircraft function of the indicated of the
true temperature airspeed to aircraft
airspeed to ; it varies in the sonic conventio
the sonic proportion to velocity at nnal
velocity at the square the altitude airspeed
the altitude root of the considered to the
considered absolute sonic
temperature velocity at
the
altitude
considere
d

1217 22 1
The use of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance both the the replies the echos the echos
System) for avoiding an aircraft in flight is now general. replies from from the from the of
TCAS uses for its operation : the transponder ground air collision
transponder s of other traffic control avoidance
s of other aircraft radar system radar
aircraft and system
the ground- especially
based radar installed
echoes on board

1218 22 0
Different pressure sensors are used according to the 2,1,3 3,1,2 1,2,3 3,2,1
intensity of the pressure measured (low, medium or
high)
Classify the following sensors by order of increasing
pressure for which they are suitable :
1- bellows type
2- Bourdon tube type
3- aneroid capsule type
1219 22 0
The measurement of the turbine temperature or of the combustion combustion high high
EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) is carried out at the : chamber chamber pressure pressure
outlet. intake. chamber turbine
intake. outlet.
1220 22 0
 The sensors used to measure the exhaust gas thermocoupl based on based on capacitors
temperature on an aircraft equipped with turbojets are: es. metallic metallic whose
parts whose conductors capacity
expansion/c whose varies
ontraction is resistance proportion
measured. increases nally with
linearly with temperatu
temperature. re.

1221 22 1
The aircraft radio equipment which emits on a weather primary radio high
frequency of 4400 MHz is the : radar. radar. altimeter. altitude
radio
altimeter.
1222 22 0
A rate integrating gyro is a detecting element used in 1,4. 1,2,3,4,5. 2,3,5. 2,3,4.
1. An inertial attitude unit
2. An automatic pilot
3. A stabilizing servo system
4. An inertial navigation system
5. A rate-of-turn indicator
The combination of correct statements is :

1223 22 1
In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is The Measureme Measureme Measure
calculated from: difference nt of outside nt of elapsed ment of
between air time for a absolute
absolute and temperature radio signal barometri
dynamic (OAT) transmitted c
pressure at to the pressure
the fuselage ground from a
surface and static
back source on
the
fuselage

1224 22 0
The gimbal error of the directional gyro is due to the a bank or an apparent too slow the
effect of : pitch attitude weight and precession aircraft's
of the an apparent on the track over
aircraft vertical horizontal the earth
gimbal ring

1225 22 1
An Air Data Computer (ADC) : Measures Transforms Is an Converts
position air data auxiliary air data
error in the measureme system that measure
static system nts into provides ments
and electric altitude given by
transmits impulses information ATC from
this driving servo in the event the
information motors in that the ground in
to ATC to instruments static source order to
provide is blocked provide
correct correct
altitude altitude
reporting and
speed
informatio
n

1226 22 0
The directional gyro axis spins about the local vertical in the in the on the on the
by 15°/hour : latitude 30° latitude 45° equator North
1227 22 pole 0
The directional gyro axis no longer spins about the local on the in the in the on the
vertical when it is located : equator latitude 30° latitude 45° North
1228 22 pole 1
 A gravity type erector is used in a vertical gyro device to an artificial a directional a turn a
correct errors on : horizon gyro unit indicator gyromagn
etic
indicator
1229 22 1
When an aircraft has turned 90 degrees with a constant too much too much too much attitude
attitude and bank, the pilot observes the following on a nose-up and nose-up and nose-up and and bank
classic artificial horizon : bank correct bank too bank too low correct
high
1230 22 0
When an aircraft has turned 360 degrees with a too much too much attitude and too much
constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the nose-up and nose-up and bank correct nose-up
following on a classic artificial horizon : bank correct bank too and bank
high too low
1231 22 0
When an aircraft has turned 270 degrees with a too much too much attitude and too much
constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the nose-up and nose-up and bank correct. nose-up
following on a classic artificial horizon : bank too bank too and bank
high. low. correct.
1232 22 1
The pressure altitude is the altitude corresponding : in standard in ambiant in standard in
atmosphere, atmosphere, atmosphere, ambiant
to the to the to the atmosphe
reference pressure Ps pressure Ps re, to the
pressure Ps prevailing at prevailing at reference
this point this point pressure
Ps

1233 22 0
The response time of a vertical speed detector may be correction bimettalic return spring second
increased by adding a: based on an strip calibrated
acceleromet port
er sensor.

1234 22 1
The density altitude is : the altitude the the pressure the
of the temperature altitude pressure
standard altitude corrected for altitude
atmosphere corrected for the relative corrected
on which the the density for the
density is difference prevailing at density of
equal to the between the this point air at this
actual real point
density of temperature
the and the
atmosphere standard
temperature

1235 22 1
The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation position barometric instrument hysteresis
of the static pressure near the source is known as: pressure error. error. effect.
1236 22 error. 1
Under normal operating conditions, when an aircraft is 3,4. 2,4. 1,3. 1,2.
in a banked turn, the rate-of-turn indicator is a valuable
gyroscopic flight control instrument ; when it is
associated with an attitude indicator it indicates :

1. the angular velocity of the aircraft about the yaw axis

2. The bank of the aircraft
3. The direction of the aircraft turn
4. The angular velocity of the aircraft about the real
vertical

The combination of correct statements is :

1237 22 0
 The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a a three- a DC voltage an AC an AC
magnetic sensor, connected to an RPM indicator is : phase varying with voltage voltage,
voltage the RPM ; varying with the
frequency the indicator the RPM ; frequency
varies with is a simple the indicator of which
the RPM; voltmeter rectifies the varies
the indicator with a signal via a with the
is provided rev/min. diode bridge RPM; the
with a motor scale and is indicator
which drives provided converts
a magnetic with a the signal
tachometer voltmeter into
square
pulses
which are
then
counted

1238 22 0
The TCAS II data display devices can be in the form of: 1, 2 and 3. 3 and 4. 1 and 3. 1, 2, 3
and 4.
1- a specific dedicated screen
2- a screen combined with the weather radar
3- a variometer represented on a liquid crystal screen
which allows the display of Traffic Advisory (TA) and
Resolution Advisory (RA)
4- an EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System) screen

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1239 22 0
In a non-pressurized aircraft, if one or several static breaking the slightly descending calculatin
pressure ports are damaged, there is an ultimate rate-of-climb opening a as much as g the
emergency means for restoring a practically correct indicator window to possible in ambient
static pressure intake : glass restore the order to fly static
window ambient at a pressure,
pressure in pressure as allowing
the cabin close to for the
1013.25 hPa altitude
as possible and QNH
and
adjusting
the
instrumen
ts

1240 22 1
Today's airspeed indicators (calibrated to the Saint- The The The The true
Venant formula), indicate, in the absence of static (and airspeed, equivalent conventional airspeed
instrumental) error : whatever the airspeed, in airspeed
altitude all cases (CAS) in all
cases
1241 22 0
The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance F.M.S. air traffic transponder airborne
Systems) is based on the use of : (Flight control radar s fitted in the weather
Managemen systems aircraft radar
t System) system
1242 22 0
In the event of a conflict, the TCAS (Traffic Collision turn left/turn too low glide slope climb/des
Avoidance System) will give information such as : right terrain cent
1243 22 0
 The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives in horizontal based on only in the only in the
avoidance resolutions : and vertical speed vertical horizontal
planes control plane plane
1244 22 0
Concerning the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Resolution No In one of the In one of
System) : Advisory protection is system the
(RA) must available modes, the system
not be against warning : modes,
followed aircraft not "TOO LOW the
without equipped TERRAIN" is warning :
obtaining with a generated "PULL
clearance serviceable UP" is
from ATC SSR generated
transponder

1245 22 0
The operation of the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning 2,3 1,3 1,2,4 2,4
System) is governed by laws taking the aircraft height
into account as well as :
1- the descent rate
2- the climb rate
3- the aircraft configuration
4- the selected engine rpm
The combination of correct statements is :
1246 22 0
The indication of a fuel float gauge varies with : 4 1,2 1,2,4 1,2,3,4
1- aircraft attitude
2- accelerations
3- atmospheric pressure
4- temperature
The combination of correct statements is :
1247 22 0
The transmitter of RPM indicator may consist of : 1,2,3 1,2,3,4 2,3,4 1,4
1- a magnetic sensor supplying an induced AC voltage
2- a DC generator supplying a DC voltage
3- a single-phase AC generator supplying an AC
voltage
4- a three-phase AC generator supplying a three-phase
voltage
The combination of correct statements is :

1248 22 0
The yaw damper indicator supplies the pilot with yaw damper rudder yaw damper rudder
information regarding the: action on the displacemen action only position
rudder t by the on the
rudder ground
pedals
1249 22 1
A vibration indicator receives a signal from different vibration vibration acceleration vibration
sensors (accelerometers). It indicates the : period amplitude at measured by frequency
expressed in a given the sensors, expresse
seconds frequency expressed in d in Hz
g

1250 22 0
The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an equal to the lower than the same as higher
atmosphere where all the atmosphere layers below the standard the real the real than the
aircraft are cold is : altitude. altitude. altitude. real
altitude.
1251 22 0
 The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a 3- a DC voltage an AC an AC a three-
phase AC generator, connected to RPM indicator, is : varying with voltage, the voltage phase
the RPM; frequency of varying with voltage,
the indicator which varies the RPM; the
is a plain with the the indicator frequency
voltmeter RPM; the rectifies the of which
with a indicator signal via a varies
rev/min. converts the diode bridge with the
scale signal into and is RPM; the
square provided indicator
pulses which with a is
are then voltmeter provided
counted with a
motor
which
drives a
magnetic
tachomet
er

1252 22 0
Given : Tt = Ts(1-0.2 Tt = Tt = Ts/ Tt =
- Ts the static temperature (SAT) M²) Ts(1+0.2 (1+0.2 Ts(1+0.2
- Tt the total temperature (TAT) Kr.M²) Kr.M²) M²)
- Kr the recovery coefficient
- M the Mach number
The total temperature can be expressed approximately
by the formula :
1253 22 0
The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) is a serviceable serviceable SELCAL DME
proximity alarm system which detects a "traffic" when SSR weather system system
the conflicting traffic is equipped with a : transponder radar
1254 22 1
When being engaged, and without selecting a particular a constant all aeroplane aeroplane aeroplane
mode, an automatic pilot enables : speed on piloting and stabilisation piloting
track, wings guidance with attitude and
horizontal. functions hold or guidance
except maintaining functions.
maintaining vertical
radio- speed and
navigation possibly
course lines. automatic
trim.

1255 22 0
On an autopilot coupled approach, GO AROUND mode by the pilot by the pilot automaticall if the
is engaged: pushing a selecting y in case of aircraft
button G.A. mode an autopilot reaches
located on on the thrust or flight the
the throttles. computer director decision
control alarm. height
panel. selected
on the
radio
altimeter
at a
higher
speed
than the
one
selected.

1256 22 1
 Mode "Localizer ARM" active on Flight Director means: Localizer Coupling Localizer is System is
ALARM, has occurred armed and armed for
making and system coupling will localizer
localizer provides occur when approach
approach control data flag warning and
not to capture disappears coupling
authorized the will occur
centerline upon
capturing
center
line

1257 22 0
A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator: Is Is fully Only works Contains
automaticall independent of there is a its own
y connected of external complete separate
to the energy electrical gyro
primary resources in failure
vertical gyro an
if the emergency
alternator situation
fails

1258 22 0
If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is At high There will be ATC will get At high
compensated for position error and another altimeter speed the no difference an speed,
which is not ; and all other factors being equal... non- between erroneous the non-
compensate them if the altitude compens
d altimeter air data report SSR ated
will indicate computer altimeter
a lower (ADC) is will
altitude functioning indicate a
normally higher
altitude

1259 22 0
For most radio altimeters, when a system error occurs Height DH lamp DH lamp Audio
during approach the .. indication is flashes red flashes red warning
removed and the signal
audio signal sounds
sounds
1260 22 1
Indication of Mach number is obtained from: Indicated An ordinary A kind of Indicated
speed and airspeed echo sound speed
altitude indicator comparing (IAS)
using a scaled for velocity of compared
speed Mach sound with with true
indicator numbers indicated air speed
equipped instead of speed (TAS)
with an knots from the
altimeter air data
type aneroid computer

1261 22 1
The altimeter consists of one or several aneroid (i) static (i) vacuum (i) static (i) total
capsules located in a sealed casing. pressure (ii) (or a very pressure at pressure
The pressures in the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii) total low time t (ii) (ii) static
are respectively : pressure pressure) (ii) static pressure
static pressure at
pressure time t - t
1262 22 0
 In low altitude radio altimeters, the height measurement a triangular a frequency a pulse a wave
(above the ground) is based upon: amplitude modulation transmission transmissi
modulation wave, for , for which on, for
wave, for which the time which the
which frequency between frequency
modulation variation transmission shift by
phase shift between the and DOPPLE
between transmitted reception is R effect
transmitted wave and measured after
and received the received on a circular ground
waves after wave after scanning reflection
ground ground screen. is
reflection is reflection is measured
measured. measured. .

1263 22 0
On board an aircraft the altitude is measured from the: standard pressure density temperatu
altitude altitude altitude re altitude
1264 22 0
The limits of the yellow scale of an airspeed indicator VLO for the VLE for the VFE for the VNO for
are : lower limit lower limit lower limit the lower
and VNE for and VNE for and VNE for limit and
the upper the upper the upper VNE for
limit limit limit the upper
limit

1265 22 0
During a straight and uniform climb, the pilot maintains The Mach The Mach The Mach The Mach
a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS) : number number number is number is
increases increases constant and constant
and the true and the true the true and the
airspeed airspeed airspeed true
(TAS) (TAS) is (TAS) is airspeed
increases. constant. constant. (TAS)
decrease
s.

1266 22 1
The RPM indicator (or tachometer) of a piston engine rating is the propeller propoller rating is
can include a small red arc within the arc normally used minimum efficency is generates the
(green arc) usable in minimum at vibration, maximum
In the RPM range corresponding to this small red arc cruise this rating continuous possible
the : rating is in
forbidden continuou
s mode
1267 22 0
The airspeed indicator of a twin-engined aircraft maximum optimum speed not to minimum
comprises different sectors and color marks. The blue speed in climbing be control
line corresponds to the : operations, speed with exceeded, or speed, or
or VMO one engine VNE VMC
inoperative,
or Vy
1268 22 0
The interception of a localizer beam by the autopilot according to according to at a constant at a
takes place : an an heading constant
interception interception magnetic
versus radio versus range course
deviation law and angular

1269 22 0
 The "heading hold" mode is selected on the flight cannot be is centered if is centered if is
director (FD) with a course to steer of 180°. Your aircraft centered the aircraft is the aircraft centered
holds a heading of 160°. The vertical bar of the FD: on optimum has a if the
path to join starboard aircraft
heading drift of 20° has a port
180° drift of 20°

1270 22 0
The calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach holding mode is 2 and 4. 1 and 3. 2 and 3. 1 and 4.
carried out by:

1- the autopilot pitch channel in the climb mode at a

constant calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach number
2- the autothrottles in the climb mode at a constant
calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach number
3- the autopilot pitch channel in the altitude or glide path
holding mode
4- the autothrottles in the altitude or glide path holding
mode

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1271 22 0
A gyromagnetic compass or heading reference unit is 2,5 1,3,5 2,3,5 1,4
an assembly which always consists of :
1- a directional gyro
2- a vertical axis gyro
3- an earth's magnetic field detector
4- an azimuth control
5- a synchronising control
The combination of correct statements is :
1272 22 0
A radio altimeter can be defined as a : ground radio ground radio self- self-
aid used to aid used to contained contained
measure the measure the on-board aid on-board
true height true altitude used to aid used
of the of the measure the to
aircraft aircraft true height measure
of the the true
aircraft altitude of
the
aircraft

1273 22 0
The limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator are VSI for the VSO for the VSI for the VSO for
: lower limit lower limit lower limit the lower
and VFE for and VLE for and VLE for limit and
the upper the upper the upper VFE for
limit limit limit the upper
limit

1274 22 0
 When an automatic landing is interrupted by a go- 1, 3 and 4. 1, 2 and 3. 1, 2 and 5. 1, 4 and
around : 5.

1- the autothrottle reacts immediately upon the pilot

action on the TO/GA (Take-off/Go-around) switch in
order to recover the maximum thrust
2- the autopilot monitors the climb and the rotation of
the airplane
3- the autopilot retracts the landing gear and reduces
the flap deflection in order to reduce the drag
4- the pilot performs the climb and the rotation of the
airplane
5- the pilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the
flap deflection in order to reduce the drag

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1275 22 0
The velocity maximum operating (V.M.O.) is a speed true computed calibrated equivalent
expressed in : airspeed airspeed airspeed airspeed
(TAS). (COAS). (CAS). (EAS).
1276 22 0
A failed RMI rose is locked on 090° and the ADF pointer 225°. 135°. Impossible 315°.
indicates 225°. The relative bearing to the station is : to read, due
to failure
RMI.
1277 22 0
An airplane is in steady descent. The autothrottle remains decreases if increases. decrease
maintains a constant Mach number. If the total constant. the static s.
temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed: temperature
is lower than
the standard
temperature,
increases if
above.

1278 22 0
A ground proximity warning system (GPWS), when a sound a sound and a visual at least
mandatorily installed on board an aircraft, must in all alarm or a visual alarm alarm to one
cases generate : visual alarm which a sound
sound alarm alarm to
can be which a
visual
alarm can
be added

1279 22 0
The essential components of a flight director are : 2,4 2,3 1,4 1,2
1- a computer
2- an automatic pilot
3- an autothrottle
4- command bars
The combination of correct statements is :

1280 22 0
A pilot has to carry out a single-pilot IFR flight on a light heading altitude heading, to heading
twin-engined aircraft for cargo transport. The purpose of hold the and to
the automatic pilot is at least to hold the: altitude and hold the
to have a altitude
radio axis
tracking
function
1281 22 0
 An automatic landing is carried out when the automatic and the ensures a and the and the
pilot : autothrottle correct final autothrottle autothrottl
ensure a approach, at ensure a e ensure
correct final least up to correct final a correct
approach, at ground roll approach, at final
least up to while the least up to approach,
ground roll human pilot flare-out at least up
controls the to flare-
power out while
the
human
pilot
controls
the power

1282 22 1
Considering the maximum operational Mach number initially by by the MMO by the VMO initially by
(MMO) and the maximum operational speed (VMO), the theVMO, in still air the MMO,
captain of a pressurized aircraft begins his descent from then by the then by
a high flight level. In order to meet his scheduled time of MMO below the VMO
arrival, he decides to use the maximum ground speed a certain below a
at any time of the descent. He will be limited : flight level certain
flight level

1283 22 0
The pressure measured at the forward facing orifice of total dynamic total static
a pitot tube is the : pressure pressure. pressure. pressure.
plus static
pressure.
1284 22 0
An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The increases. decreases. decreases if remains
autothrottle maintains a constant Mach number. If the the outside constant.
total temperature decreases, the calibrated airspeed: temperature
is lower than
the standard
temperature,
increases if
higher.

1285 22 0
An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The decreases. increases if remains increases.
autothrottle maintains a constant Mach number. If the the static constant.
total temperature increases, the calibrated airspeed: temperature
is higher
than the
standard
temperature,
decreases if
lower.

1286 22 0
The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) WHOOP DON'T SINK DON'T SINK DON'T
generates the following sound signal or signals when WHOOP always followed by SINK
the aircraft is sinking after a take-off or a go-around : PULL UP followed by WHOOP repetitive
repetitive WHOOP WHOOP only
only WHOOP PULL UP if
PULL UP the sink rate
overshoots a
second level

1287 22 0
 The basis properties of a gyroscope are : 3,4 2,5 2,3,5 1,3,5
1. The gyro's weight.
2. The rigidity in space.
3. The inertia.
4. The high RPM.
5. The precession
The combination of correct statements is :
1288 22 0
The static pressure error of the static vent on which the static Mach deformation aircraft
altimeter is connected varies substantially with the: temperature number of of the altitude
the aircraft aneroid
capsule
1289 22 0
The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to: allow reduce the reduce the inform the
damping of hysteresis effect of crew of a
the effect friction in the failure of
measureme linkages the
nt in the unit instrumen
t

1290 22 0
The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially time passed mach aircraft static
with the: at a given number of altitude. temperatu
altitude. the aircraft. re.
1291 22 1
VLE is the maximum : speed flight speed speed at speed
authorized in with landing which the with flaps
flight gear down landing gear extended
can be in a given
operated position
with full
safety

1292 22 0
VLO is the maximum : speed at flight speed speed with cruising
which the with landing flaps speed not
landing gear gear down. extended in to be
can be a given exceeded
operated position. except in
with full still air
safety. with
caution.
1293 22 1
VNE is the maximum speed : at which the with flaps which must not to be
flight extended in never be exceeded
controls can landing exceeded except in
be fully position still air
deflected and with
caution
1294 22 0
VNO is the maximum speed : which must at which the with flaps not to be
never be flight extended in exceeded
exceeded. controls can landing except in
be fully position. still air
deflected. and with
caution.
1295 22 0
The vertical speed indicator of an aircraft flying at a true - 300 ft/min - 150 ft/min - 250 ft/min - 500
airspeed of 100 kt, in a descent with a slope of 3 ft/min.
1296 22 degrees, indicates : 0
 The advantages provided by an air data computer to 1,2,3,4 2,3,4 1,2,3 1,3,4
indicate the altitude are :

1. Position/pressure error correction

2. Hysteresis error correction
3. Remote data transmission capability
4. Capability of operating as a conventional altimeter in
the event of a failure

The combination of correct statements is :

1297 22 0
The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying a an an antenna and
to the indicated airspeed (IAS) : compressibili instrument and instrumen
ty and and compressibili t and
density position/pres ty correction. density
correction. sure error correction
correction. .
1298 22 0
The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator VS1 for the VS1 for the VS1 for the VS0 for
are : lower limit lower limit lower limit the lower
and VNE for and VLO for and VNO for limit and
the upper the upper the upper VNO for
limit limit limit the upper
limit

1299 22 0
Among the flight control instruments, the artificial two degrees two degrees one degree one
horizon plays an essential part. It uses a gyroscope with of freedom, of freedom, of freedom, degree of
: whose axis whose whose freedom,
Note : in this question, the degrees of freedom of a gyro is oriented horizontal horizontal whose
are determined by the number of gimbal rings it and axis axis is vertical
comprises. continously correspondin maintained axis
maintained g to a in a oriented
to local reference horizontal in the
vertical by direction is plane by an direction
an automatic maintained automatic of the real
erecting in a erecting vertical to
system. horizontal system the
plane by an location is
automatic maintaine
erecting d in this
system direction
by an
automatic
erecting
system

1300 22 1
With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the increasing fluctuating decreasing constant
aircraft airspeed indicator will indicate in descent a : speed. speed. speed. speed.
1301 22 0
The indication of the directional gyro as an on-board 1,3,4 1,2,3,4,5,6 2,5,6 1,3,4,6
instrument are valid only for a short period of time. The
causes of this inaccuracy are :
1. The earth's rotation
2. The longitudinal acceleration
3. The aircraft's motion over the surface of the earth.
4. The mechanical defects of the gyro
5. The gyro's weight
6. The gimbal mount of the gyro rings
The combination of correct statements is :

1302 22 0
 With a constant weight, irrespective of the airfield calibrated ground true equivalent
altitude, an aircraft always takes off at the same : airspeed. speed. airspeed. airspeed.
1303 22 1
During a climb after take-off from a contaminated decreases increases increases decrease
runway, if the total pressure probe of the airspeed abruptly steadily abruptly s stadily
indicator is blocked, the pilot finds that indicated towards zero towards
airspeed : VNE
1304 22 0
The mach number is the: indicated equivalent true corrected
airspeed airspeed airspeed airspeed
(IAS) divided (EAS) (TAS) (CAS)
by the local divided by divided by divided by
speed of the local the local the local
sound speed of speed of speed of
sound sound sound

1305 22 0
The principle of the Mach indicator is based on the (Pt + Ps) to (Pt - Ps) to Pt to Ps (Pt - Ps)
1306 22 computation of the ratio : Ps Ps to Pt 0
After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud increases decreases decreases increases
which has blocked the total pressure probe inlet of the steadily abruptly steadily abruptly
airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent towards zero towards
and finds that the indicated airspeed : VNE

1307 22 0
The reading of a Mach indicator is independent of : the outside the static the total the
temperature pressure pressure differential
pressure
measure
ment

1308 22 1
The calculator combined with the stick shaker system of 1, 2, 3 and 1 and 3. 1, 2, 3, 4 1 and 5.
a modern transport airplane receives information about 4. and 5.
the:

1- angle of attack
2- engine R.P.M.
3- configuration
4- pitch and bank attitude
5- sideslip

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1309 22 0
A Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) 1, 2, 3, 5 1, 2, 3, 4 1,2 and 4. 3, 4, 5
generates automatically a distinct warning to the flight and 6. and 5. and 6.
crew with aural and/or light warning signals in the case
of:

1- an excessive rate of descent with respect to terrain

2- a dangerous proximity to the ground
3- a loss of altitude following take-off or go-around
4- an abnormal flight attitude
5- an abnormal landing configuration
6- an abnormal deviation below ILS glide slope

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1310 22 1
 A VMO-MMO warning device consists of an alarm a barometric a barometric a barometric a
connected to : aneroid aneroid aneroid barometic
capsule and capsule and capsule aneroid
an airspeed an airspeed subjected to capsule
sensor sensor a static subjected
subjected to subjected to pressure to a
dynamic a static and an dynamic
pressure. pressure. airspeed pressure
sensor and an
subjected to airspeed
a dynamic sensor
pressure. subjected
to a static
pressure.

1311 22 0
The characteristics of the directional gyro (DG) used in one degree two degrees two degrees one
a gyro stabilised compass system are : of freedom, of freedom, of freedom, degree of
whose whose whose axis freedom,
vertical axis, horizontal aligned with whose
aligned with axis the vertical horizontal
the real correspondin to the axis is
vertical to g to the location is maintaine
the location reference maintained d in the
is direction is in this horizontal
maintained maintained direction by plane by
in this in the an erecting an
direction by horizontal system. automatic
an automatic plane by an erecting
erecting automatic system.
system. erecting
system.

1312 22 0
The electromotive force of a thermocouple is not these metals these metals contact these
modified if one or several intermediate metals are are are points are metals
inserted in the circuit provided that: maintained maintained maintained are not
at a at a at equal the same
temperature temperature temperature as those
higher than lower than between constitutin
that of the that of the these g the
cold source. cold source. different thermoco
metals. uple.

1313 22 0
An aeroplane is in a steady climb. The autothrottle decreases if decreases. increases. remains
maintains a constant Mach number. If the total the static constant.
temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed : temperature
is lower than
the standard
temperature,
increases if
higher.

1314 22 0
 A "TCAS II" (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) the intruder the intruder the intruder a simple
provides: relative relative relative intruding
position and position and position and airplane
possibly an possibly an possibly an proximity
indication of indication of indication of warning.
a collision a collision a collision
avoidance avoidance avoidance
manoeuvre manoeuvre manoeuvre
within both within the within the
the vertical horizontal vertical
and plane only. plane only.
horizontal
planes.

1315 22 0
A "Bourdon Tube" is used in: pressure vibration smoke turbine
sensors detectors detectors temperatu
re probes
1316 22 1
The heading read on the dial of a directional gyro is is at its shows itself is dependent is, in spite
subject to errors, one of which is due to the movement greatest by an on the of this,
of the aircraft. value when apparent ground insignifica
This error... the aircraft rotation of speed of the nt and
follows a the aircraft, its may be
meridional horizontal true track neglected
track axis of the and the
gyroscope average
which seems latitude of
to turn at 15° the flight
per hour to
the right in
the northern
hemisphere

1317 22 0
A closed loop control system in which a small power an amplifier. a feedback an autopilot. a
input controls a much larger power output in a strictly control servomec
1318 22 proportionate manner is known as : circuit. hanism. 0
(Use the appendix to answer this question) 1 2 3 4

The diagram which shows a 40° left bank and 15° nose
down attitude is n°
1319 22 1
The operating principle of the vertical speed indicator Kinetic Static Dynamic Total
(VSI) is based on the measurement of the rate of pressure pressure pressure pressure
1320 22 change of: 0
When turning onto a northerly heading the rose of a 2, 3, and 4. 1 and 3. 2 and 3. 1, 2, and
magnetic compass tends to "undershoot;" when turning 4.
onto a southerly heading it tends to "overshoot":

1)these compass indications are less reliable in the

northern hemisphere than in the southern hemisphere.
2)these compass oscillations following a lateral gust are
not identical if the aircraft is heading north or south.
3) this behaviour is due to the mechanical construction
of the compass.
4) this behaviour is a symptom of a badly swung
compass.

The correct statements are :

1321 22 0
 A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of 1, 2, and 3. 1 and 2. 1 and 3. 2 and 3.
turn.
Rate of turn depends upon :

1 : bank angle
2 : aeroplane speed
3 : aeroplane weight

The combination regrouping the correct statements is :

1322 22 0
The pressure probe used to measure the pressure of a an aneroid a bellows a Bourdon a
low pressure fuel pump is: capsule. sensor. tube. differential
capsule.
1323 22 1
The probe used to measure the air intake pressure of a a differential a Bourdon a bellows an
gas turbine engined powerplant is: capsule. tube. sensor. aneroid
1324 22 capsule. 0
The advantages of an electrical induction tachometer 1, 3, 4. 1, 2, 3, 4. 2, 3, 4. 1, 2, 4.
are:

1- the display is not sensitive to line resistance

2- the measurement is independent of aircraft power
supply
3- the measurement is independent of temperature
variations
4- the option to use without restriction several indicators
connected in parallel to a single transmitter

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1325 22 0
A millivoltmeter measuring the electromotive force cold junction hot junction cold junction hot
between the "hot junction" and the "cold junction" of a is is is junction is
thermocouple can be directly graduated in temperature maintained maintained maintained maintaine
values provided that the temperature of the: constant. constant. at 15 °C. d at 15
°C.

1326 22 1
Compared with a conventional gyro, a laser gyro : consumes a has a longer is influenced has a
lot of power life cycle by fairly long
temperature starting
cycle

1327 22 0
Among the following engine instruments, the one oil pressure fuel pressure oil manifold
operating with an aneroid pressure diaphragm is the : gauge. gauge. thermometer pressure
1328 22 . gauge. 0
Heading information from the gyromagnetic compass amplifier. error erecting heading
1329 22 flux gate is transmitted to the : detector. system. indicator. 0
The principle of capacitor gauges is based on: the variation the variation the variation the
of capacity of flow and in capacity current
by torque of a variation
volumetric exercised in condensor in a
measureme a supply line with the Wheaston
nt exercised nature of the e bridge
on the dielectric
sensor

1330 22 0
 A paddle-wheel placed in a the fuel circuit of a gas volumetric mass flow by volumetric mass flow
turbine engine initially measures: flow by a a tally of the flow by by
tally of the impulses measure of measure
impulses a voltage of a
proportional voltage
to the proportion
rotational al to the
speed rotational
speed

1331 22 1
The purpose of a compass swing is to attempt to compass compass compass true north
coincide the indications of: north and north and north and and
the lubber magnetic true north. magnetic
line. north. north.

1332 22 0
The position of a Flight Director command bars: indicates the repeats the enables the only
manoeuvers ADI and HSI measureme displays
to execute, information nt of informatio
to achieve or deviation n relating
maintain a from a given to radio-
flight position. electric
situation. deviation.

1333 22 1
In a steep turn, the northerly turning error on a magnetic equal to none on a none on a equal to
compass on the northern hemisphere is: 180° on a 270° 090° 180° on a
090° heading in a heading in a 270°
heading in a left turn. right turn. heading
right turn. in a right
turn.
1334 22 1
(For this question use appendix ) 2 3 4 1

The diagram representing a left turn with insufficient

rudder is:

1335 22 0
The advantages of an electric float gauge are: 1, 2, 4 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 3, 4 2, 3, 4

1- ease of manufacture
2- independence of the indication relative to the
variations of the aircraft power system if the
measurement is made by a ratiometer
3- independence of the indication relative to the
variations of the aircraft power system if the
measurement is made by a galvanometer
4- independence of the indication relative to
temperature variations

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1336 22 1
The gauge indicating the quantity of fuel measured by a twice that of the same as twice that of the same
capacity gauging system can be graduated directly in air and that of air air and as that of
weight units because the dielectric constant of fuel is: varies and varies varies air and
directly with directly with inversely varies
density. density. with density. inversely
with
density.

1337 22 1
Flight Director Information supplied by an FD computer ADI Attitude BDHI RMI Radio HSI
is presented in the form of command bars on the Display Bearing Magnetic Horizontal
following instrument: Indicator. Distance Indicator. Situation
Heading Indicator.
Indicator.
1338 22 1
 The main advantage of a ratiometer-type temperature is simple. can operate is very carries
indicator is that it: without an accurate. out an
electrical independ
power ent
supply. measure
ment of
the supply
voltage.

1339 22 0
Given : Ts = Tt. Ts = Tt.(0.2. Ts = Tt/( 0.2 Ts = Tt /
M is the Mach number (1+0.2. M²) M²) M²) (1+0.2.
Ts is the static temperature M²)
Tt is the total temperature
1340 22 0
Regarding Electronic Instrument System (EFIS) : 1, 2. 2, 3. 3, 4. 1, 4.

1- the Navigation Display (ND) displays Flight Director

Bars.
2- the altimeter setting is displayed on the PFD (Primary
Flight Display).
3- the PFD is the main flying instrument.
4- the FMA (Flight Mode Annunciator) is part of the ND.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is :

1341 22 0
The data supplied by a radio altimeter: indicates the concerns is used only is used by
distance only the by the radio the
between the decision altimeter automatic
ground and height. indicator. pilot in the
the aircraft. altitude
hold
mode.

1342 22 1
The low-altitude radio altimeters used in precision 3, 5 3, 4 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 5
approaches:

1 operate in the 1540-1660 MHz range.

2 are of the pulsed type.
3 are of the frequency modulation type.
4 have an operating range of 0 to 5000 ft.
5 have a precision of +/- 2 feet between 0 and 500 ft.

The combination of the correct statements is :

1343 22 1
In low altitude radio altimeters, the reading is zero when change the compensate account for place the
main landing gear wheels are on the ground. For this, it display scale residual signal antennas
is necessary to: in short final, altitude due processing on the
in order to to antennas time in the bottom of
have a height above unit and the
precise the ground apply a aeroplane
readout. and coaxial correction .
cables factor to the
length. reading.

1344 22 0
 (For this question use annex 022-10217A) increase the decrease the increase the decrease
After having programmed your flight director, you see flight attitude flight attitude flight attitude the flight
that the indications of your ADI (Attitude Director until the until the until the attitude
Indicator) are as represented in diagram N°1 of the command command command until the
appended annex. On this instrument, the command bars bars bars command
bars indicate that you must bank your airplane to the recentre on recentre on recentre on bars
left and : the symbolic the symbolic the horizon. recentre
airplane. airplane. on the
horizon.

1345 22 1
During deceleration following a landing in a Southerly an apparent an apparent a heading no
direction, the magnetic compass will indicate : turn to the turn to the fluctuating apparent
East. West. about 180°. turn.
1346 22 0
The principle of detection of a vibration monitoring 2 2 high and 2 high and a
system is based on the use of: acceleromet low low frequency
ers. frequency frequency converter.
amplifiers. filters.

1347 22 1
In the Northern hemisphere, during deceleration an apparent an apparent no apparent a heading
following a landing in a Westerly direction, the magnetic turn to the turn to the turn. fluctuating
compass will indicate : South. North. about
270°.

1348 22 1
In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration no apparent a heading an apparent an
following a landing in an Easterly direction, the turn. fluctuating turn to the apparent
magnetic compass will indicate : about 090°. North. turn to the
South.

1349 22 0
The quadrantal deviation of a magnetic compass is magnetized soft iron hard iron pairs of
corrected by using : needles pieces pieces permanen
t magnets
1350 22 0
The quadrantal deviation of the magnetic compass is the hard iron the hard iron the soft iron the hard
due to the action of : pieces pieces pieces iron ices
influenced influenced influenced and the
by the by the mild by the soft iron
geomagnetic iron pieces geomagnetic pieces
field field influenced
by the
hard iron
pieces

1351 22 0
In order to measure temperature the cylinder head thermocoupl wheatstone ratiometer bourdon
temperature (CHT) gauge utilises a : e consisting bridge circuit. tube.
of two circuit.
dissimilar
metals.

1352 22 1
The yaw damper, which suppresses Dutch roll: controls the controls the controls the controls
ailerons, rudder, with ailerons, the
with the the angular with Mach rudder,
angular rate rate about Number as with Mach
about the the vertical the input Number
vertical axis axis as the signal. as the
as the input input signal. input
signal. signal.

1353 22 0
A laser gyro consists of : two moving a laser 2 electrodes a gyro
cavities generating (anodes+cat with 2
provided two light hodes) degrees
with mirrors waves of
freedom
1354 22 0
 A gravity erector system is used to correct the errors an artificial a directional a turn a
on : horizon. gyro. indicator. gyromagn
etic
compass.

1355 22 1
A pilot wishes to turn right on to a southerly heading 150° 170° 190° 210°
with 20° bank at a latitude of 20° North. Using a direct
reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop
the turn on an approximate heading of :

1356 22 0
A pilot wishes to turn left on to a southerly heading with 190° 160° 200° 170°
20° bank at a latitude of 20° North. Using a direct
reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop
the turn on an approximate heading of :

1357 22 0
A pilot wishes to turn left on to a northerly heading with 355° 330° 015° 030°
10° bank at a latitude of 50° North. Using a direct
reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop
the turn on an approximate heading of :
1358 22 0
A pilot wishes to turn right on to a northerly heading with 010° 330° 350° 030°
20° bank at a latitude of 40° North. Using a direct
reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop
the turn on to an approximate heading of :

1359 22 0
An aeroplane is in steady descent. The autothrottle increases if decreases. increases. remains
maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total the static constant.
temperature remains constant, the Mach number : temperature
is lower than
the standard
temperature,
decreases if
higher.

1360 22 0
The purpose of compass swinging is to determine the on any on a given at any at a given
deviation of a magnetic compass : heading heading latitude latitude
1361 22 1
The compass heading can be derived from the deviation map compass map
magnetic heading by reference to a: correction showing the swinging showing
curve isogonic curve the
lines isoclinic
lines
1362 22 0
The magnetic heading can be derived from the true compass map map deviation
heading by means of a : swinging showing the showing the correction
curve isogonal isoclinic curve
lines lines

1363 22 0
The total air temperature (TAT) is always : higher than higher lower higher than lower
Static Air than Static Static Air than
Temperature Air Temperature Static Air
(SAT) Temperature (SAT) Temperat
depending (SAT) depending ure (SAT)
on the depending on the dependin
Calibrated on the altitude. g on the
Air Speed Calibrated altitude.
(CAS). Air Speed
(CAS).

1364 22 1
 The static air temperature (SAT) is : an absolute a differential a relative a relative
temperature temperature temperature temperatu
expressed in expressed in expressed in re
degrees degrees degrees expresse
Celsius Kelvin Celsius d in
degrees
Kelvin
1365 22 1
The electronic tachometer sensor is composed of: the rotor of a the rotor of a a notched a circular
single phase three-phase wheel magnet
A.C. A.C. rotating in with four
generator. generator. front of an poles.
electro-
magnet.
1366 22 0
The "Bourdon tube" is used to measure : a flow rate. pressure. temperature. quantity.
1367 22 0
An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 an artificial a turn a fluxgate a
degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is: horizon indicator compass directional
1368 22 gyro 0
When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball turning right turning right turning left turning
indicator are on the left, the aircraft is: with too with not with too left with
much bank enough bank much bank not
enough
bank
1369 22 0
On the ground, during a left turn, the turn indicator needle to the needle in the needle in the needle to
indicates : left, ball to middle, ball middle, ball the left,
the left to the right to the left ball to the
right
1370 22 0
On the ground, during a right turn, the turn indicator needle in the needle to the needle to the needle in
indicates : middle, ball right, ball to right, ball to the
to left left right middle,
ball to
right
1371 22 0
The rate-of-turn is the: pitch rate in change-of- yaw rate in a aircraft
a turn heading rate turn speed in
of the a turn
aircraft
1372 22 0
At a low bank angle, the measurement of rate-of-turn angular yaw rate of pitch rate of roll rate of
actually consists in measuring the : velocity of the aircraft the aircraft the
1373 22 the aircraft aircraft 0
In a Turn-indicator, the measurement of rate-of-turn high bank high bank low bank low bank
consists for : angles,in angles, in angles, in angles , in
measuring measuring measuring measurin
the yaw rate the roll rate the yaw rate g the roll
rate

1374 22 0
In a turn at constant rate, the turn indicator reading is: proportional independent proportional inversely
to the to the to the proportion
aircraft true aircraft true aircraft al to the
airspeed airspeed weight aircraft
true
airspeed
1375 22 0
An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 a directional an artificial a turn a flux gate
degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is : gyro horizon indicator compass
1376 22 1
An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 1 fluxgate directional turn indicator gyromagn
degree of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is a : compass gyro etic
1377 22 compass 0
 At a constant Mach number, the calibrated air speed remains remains decreases increases
(CAS) : unchanged unchanged when the when the
when the when the altitude altitude
outside outside increases increases
temperature temperature
increases decreases

1378 22 0
At a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS), the Mach increases decreases remains remains
number : when the when the unchanged unchange
altitude altitude when the d when
increases increases outside the
temperature outside
increases temperatu
re
decrease
s

1379 22 1
When compared with the volumetric fuel flowmeter, the temperature. pressure. dielectrical density.
mass fuel flowmeter takes into account the fuel : constant.
1380 22 0
The heading reference unit of a three-axis data 2 degrees of 2 degrees of 1 degree of 1 degree
generator is equipped with a gyro with: freedom and freedom and freedom and of
horizontal vertical spin horizontal freedom
spin axis axis spin axis and
vertical
spin axis
1381 22 1
When, in flight, the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator turning left turning right turning right turning
is on the left and the ball on the right, the aircraft is: with too with not with too left with
much bank enough bank much bank not
enough
bank
1382 22 0
The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft pulse a frequency amplitude
is based on: modulation combination modulation modulatio
of the carrier of frequency of the carrier n of the
wave. modulation wave. carrier
and pulse wave.
modulation.

1383 22 0
A manifold pressure gauge of a piston engine measures fuel pressure vacuum in absolute absolute
: leaving the the pressure in airpressur
carburettor. carburettor. intake e entering
system near the
the inlet carburetto
valve. r.

1384 22 0
The stick shaker calculator receives the following 2, 3 2, 3, 5 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 3, 4,
informations : 5, 6

1- mass of the airplane

2- angle of attack
3- wing flap deflection
4- position of the landing gear
5- total air temperature
6- pressure altitude

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1385 22 1
If a manifold pressure gauge consistently registers leak in too high float fuel of too ice in
atmospheric pressure, the cause is probably; pressure level. low volatility. induction
1386 22 gauge line. system. 1
 A directional gyro is: 1-4 2-4 2-3 1-3

1- a gyroscope free around two axis

2- a gyroscope free around one axis
3- capable of self- orientation around an earth-tied
direction
4- incapable of self-orientation around an earth-tied
direction

The combination which regroups all of the correct

statements is:

1387 22 1
Modern low altitude radioaltimeters emit waves in the HF (High UHF (Ultra SHF (Super VLF (Very
following frequency band: Frequency). High High Low
Frequency). Frequency). Frequenc
y).

1388 22 0
The Primary Flight Display (PFD) displays information engines and systems. piloting. weather
1389 22 dedicated to: alarms. situation. 0
(For this question use annex 022-3880A) real offset pilot aircraft
The block diagram of an auto-pilot is shown in the deflection of EPSILON at command E. response
annex. the control the S.
For each control channel (pitch, roll and yaw) the surface computer
piloting law is the relationship between the deflection of (BETA input.
the control surface commanded by the computer (BETA control
c) and the: surface
feedback).

1390 22 0
The Decision Height (DH) warning light comes on when passes over descends passes over descends
an aircraft: the outer below a pre- the ILS inner below a
marker. set marker. pre-set
barometric radio
altitude. altitude.
1391 22 0
(For this question use annex 022-11232A) increase the increase the decrease the decrease
After having programmed your flight director, you see flight attitude flight attitude flight attitude the flight
that the indications of your ADI (Attitude Director and bank and bank and bank attitude
indicator) are as represented in diagram N°1 of the your airplane your your airplane and bank
appended annex. On this instrument, the command to the left aeroplane to to the left your
bars indicate that you must : until the the right until until the airplane
command the command to the
bars command bars right until
recentre on bars recentre on the
the symbolic recentre on the symbolic command
aeroplane. the symbolic aeroplane. bars
aeroplane. recentre
on the
symbolic
aeroplane
.

1392 22 1
An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The decreases. decreases if remains increases.
autothrottle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the outside constant.
the total temperature increases, the Mach number : temperature
is higher
than the
standard
temperature,
increases if
lower.

1393 22 0
 The vertical reference unit of a three-axis data 1 degree of 1 degree of 2 degrees of 2 degrees
generator is equipped with a gyro with : freedom and freedom and freedom and of
horizontal vertical spin vertical spin freedom
spin axis axis axis and
horizontal
spin axis

1394 22 0
The fields affecting a magnetic compass originate from: 1, 2, 4 1, 2, 3 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 3, 4
1. magnetic masses
2. ferrous metal masses
3. non ferrous metal masses
4. electrical currents
The combination of correct statements is:

1395 22 1
The purpose of the automatic trim is to: 1, 3. 2, 3. 1, 2, 3. 1, 2.

1- reduce to zero the hinge moment of the entire control

surface in order to relieve the load on the servo-
actuator
2- ensure the aeroplane is properly trimmed when the
autopilot is disengaged
3- maintain the same stability/manoeuverablity trade-off
within the whole flight envelope

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1396 22 0
The angle of attack transmitters placed laterally on the 1, 3. 1, 2. 1, 2, 3. 2, 3.
forward part of the fuselage supply an electrical signal
indicating:

1- the angular position of a wind vane

2- a differential pressure in a probe, depending on the
variation of the angle of attack
3- a differential pressure in a probe, depending on the
variation of the speed

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1397 22 0
The purpose of the altitude alert system is to generate a airplane proximity to altimeter airplane
visual and aural warning to the pilot when the: altitude is the ground setting altitude
equal to the becomes differs from differs
decision dangerous. the standard from a
altitude. setting selected
above the altitude.
transition
altitude.

1398 22 0
The advantages of a D.C. generator tachometer are: 2, 3. 1, 3. 1, 2. 1, 2, 3.

1- easy transmission of the information.

2- independence of the information relative to the
airborne electrical power supply.
3- freedom from any spurious current due to the
commutator.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1399 22 0
 The advantages of single-phase A.C. generator 1, 3. 1, 2, 3, 4. 2, 3, 4. 2, 4.
tachometer are:

1- the suppression of spurious signals due to a D.C.

generator commutator
2- the importance of line resistance on the information
value
3- the independence of the information in relation to the
airborne electrical power supply
4- the ease of transmission of the information

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1400 22 1
The disadvantages of a single-phase A.C. generator 2. 1, 2, 3. 1, 2. 1, 3.
tachometer are:

1- the presence of spurious signals due to a D.C.

generator commutator
2- the importance of line resistance on the information
value
3- the influence of temperature on the tachometer
information

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1401 22 1
In a modern airplane equipped with an ECAM 1, 2. 1, 2, 3. 1, 3, 4. 3, 4.
(Electronic centralized aircraft monitor), when a failure
occurs in a circuit, the centralized flight management
system:

1- releases an aural warning

2- lights up the appropriate push-buttons on the
overhead panel
3- displays the relevant circuit on the system display
4- processes the failure automatically

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1402 22 0
The engagement of an autopilot is not possible when: 1, 2, 4. 2, 3, 4. 1, 3, 4. 1, 2, 3, 4.

1- there is a fault in the electrical power supply

2- the controlled-turn knob is not set to centre-off
3- there is a synchronization fault in the pitch channel
4- there is a fault in the attitude reference unit

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1403 22 0
The oncoming stall of a large transport airplane control stick an orange a natural a bell type
appears in the form of: vibrations light on the buffeting warning.
simulating warning which occurs
natural display. prior to the
buffeting. simulated
buffeting.

1404 22 1
 The voice recorder records on four different channels 1, 2, 3, 4. 1, 3. 1, 4. 1, 2, 3.
the following information:

1- aural warnings
2- radio communications
3- conversations between the crew members through
the cockpit interphone
4- announcements to the passengers

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1405 22 1
The stall warning system of a large transport airplane 1, 4. 1, 2, 4, 5. 1, 2, 5. 1, 2, 4.
includes:

1- an angle of attack sensor

2- a computer
3- a transmitter originating from the anemometer
4- an independent pitot probe
5- a transmitter of the flap/slat position indicating
system

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1406 22 0
When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball turning left turning left turning right turning
indicator are on the right, the aircraft is : with too with not with too right with
much bank enough bank much bank not
enough
bank
1407 22 0
If an aircraft is flying (with flaps and landing gear "DON'T "TERRAIN, "TOO LOW, "SINK
retracted) in proximity to terrain and its GPWS (Ground SINK, TERRAIN" TERRAIN" RATE,
Proximity Warning System) get activated, because it is DON'T followed by (twice) SINK
detecting that the aeroplane has an excessive rate of SINK" "WHOOP followed by RATE"
descent, the system provides the following aural WHOOP "TOO LOW followed
warning signals : PULL UP" GEAR" by
(twice) (twice) "WHOOP
WHOOP
PULL UP"
(twice)

1408 22 0
When, in flight, the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator turning left turning right turning right turning
is on the right and the ball on the left, the aircraft is : with too with not with too left with
much bank enough bank much bank not
enough
bank
1409 22 0
A turn indicator is built around a gyroscope with: 1 degree of 3 degrees of 2 degrees of 0 degree
freedom. freedom. freedom. of
1410 22 freedom. 0
If the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) the aircraft during take- the aircraft at too low
activates, and alerts the pilot with an aural warning experiences off or missed experiences altitude,
"DON'T SINK" (twice times), it is because : an approach an the
unexpected manoeuvre, unexpected aircraft
proximity to the aircraft proximity to has an
terrain, has started the terrain, excessive
without to loose with landing rate of
landing-flap altitude. gear descent.
selected. retracted.

1411 22 0
In the automatic trim control system of an autopilot, pitch axis roll and yaw pitch roll and pitch and
automatic trimming is normally effected about the : only. axes only. yaw axes. roll axes
1412 22 only. 1
 Which one of the following statements is true with It only It operates It only It
regard to the operation of a Mach trim system : operates to counteract operates operates
above a pre- the larger when the over the
determined than normal autopilot is full aircraft
Mach forward engaged. speed
number. movements range.
of the wing
centre of
pressure at
high
subsonic
airspeeds.

1413 22 1
In an engine vibration monitoring system for a turbojet directly fed directly amplified inversely
any vibration produced by the engine is : proportional to the and filtered proportion
to engine cockpit before being al to
speed. indicator fed to the engine
without cockpit speed.
amplification indicator.
or filtering.

1414 22 0
Among the systematic errors of the "directional gyro", 15°/hour to 7.5°/hour to 7.5°/hour to 10.5°/hou
the error due to the earth rotation make the north the right. the right. the left. r to the
reference turn in the horizontal plane. At a mean right.
latitude of 45°N, this reference turns by...
1415 22 0
The operating principle of Flowmeters, or "unit flow quantity of pressure volumetric volume
meters," the most commonly used at the present time, fuel and mass and di- and
is to measure across their system the : movement temperature electric viscosity
of the fuel resistance of of the fuel
the fuel
1416 22 1
The quantity of fuel in the tanks is measured by di-electric height of the volume of charge of
capacitor type contents gauges. The working principle resistivity of fuel the fuel condenso
of these sensors is to measure the : the fuel rs
1417 22 0
To permit turbine exit temperatures to be measured, gas pressure thermocoupl bi-metallic liquid
gas turbines are equipped with thermometers which e strip expansion
work on the following principle:
1418 22 0
During an acceleration phase at constant attitude, the nose-down constant nose-down nose-up
resetting principle of the artificial horizon results in the attitude attitude followed by attitude
horizon bar indicating a : a nose-up
attitude
1419 22 0
An aircraft takes-off on a runway with an alignment of will be nul is such that is such that will be nul
045°. The isogonic line on the area chart indicates 0°. the compass the compass if the
The compass deviation is O°. will indicate will indicate wings are
On a take-off with zero wind, the northerly turning error: a value a value kept level.
noticeably noticeably
below 045°. above 045°.

1420 22 0
During deceleration following a landing in Northerly an apparent an apparent a heading no
direction, the magnetic compass will indicate : turn to the turn to the fluctuating apparent
East. West. about 360°. turn.
1421 22 0
 The inputs to the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning 1,2,5,6,7 1,2,3,5,7 2,3,4,5,7 1,2,5,6,7
System), are:

1- Air Data Computer - (Mach number and Vertical

Speed)
2- Radio Altimeter
3- NAV/ILS (Glide Slope)
4- NAV/VOR
5- Flap (position)
6- Angle of Attack
7- Landing Gear (position)

The combination of correct statement is:

1422 22 0
Following 180° stabilized turn with a constant attitude too high too high attitude and too high
and bank, the artificial horizon indicates : pitch-up and pitch-up and banking pitch up
too low correct correct and too
banking banking high
banking
1423 22 1
The disavantages of an "electric" fuel (float) gauge are : 1 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 3, 4 2, 3, 4, 5

1- the design is complex

2- the indications are influenced by the airplane attitude
variations
3- the indications are influenced by the accelerations
4- the indications are influenced by temperature
variations
5- that an alternative current supply is necessary

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is :

1424 22 0
In an average or heavy weight transport airplane, 1, 3 1, 2 1, 2, 3 2
generally, the fuel quantity is measured by "capacitor"
gauges because these give :

1- indications partly independent of fuel temperature

variations
2- indications almost independent of the airplane's
attitude and accelerations
3- indications expressed in density

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1425 22 0
The operating principle of an "electronic" tachometer is rotation magnetic frequency of electromo
to measure the: speed of an field the electric tive force
asynchronou produced by impulse (EMF)
s motor a dynamo or created by a produced
energized by an notched by a
an alternator. wheel dynamo
alternator. rotating in a or an
magnetic alternator.
field.

1426 22 0
 The operating principle of the "induction" type of electromotiv frequency of magnetic rotation
tachometer is to measure the: e force the electric field speed of
(EMF) impulse produced by an
produced by created by a a dynamo or asynchro
a dynamo or notched an nous
an wheel alternator. motor
alternator. rotating in a energized
magnetic by an
field. alternator.

1427 22 0
An automatic landing system which can keep on "REDUNDA "OPERATIO "PASSIVE" "SAFE"
operating without deterioration of its performances NT" NAL"
following the failure of one of the autopilots is called
"FAIL...:
1428 22 0
An automatic landing system necessitating that the "OPERATIO "SAFE" "REDUNDA "PASSIVE
landing be continued manually in the case of a system NAL" NT" "
failure during an automatic approach is called "FAIL...."
1429 22 0
The input signal of the amplifier of the gyromagnetic directional error flux valve. directional
compass resetting device originates from the: gyro erection detector. gyro unit.
device.
1430 22 0
The heading information originating from the error erector heading amplifier.
1431 22 gyromagnetic compass flux valve is sent to the: detector. system. indicator. 1
The flight data recorder must start data recording when lining before the when taking- when the
automatically: up. airplane is off. landing
able to move gear is
by under its retracted.
own power.

1432 22 0
VFE is the maximum speed : at which the with the with the with the
flaps can be flaps flaps flaps
operated. extended in extended in extended
take-off a given in landing
position. position. position.
1433 22 0
The operating frequency range of a low altitude radio 2700 MHz to 5 GHz. 4200 MHz to 5400 MHz
altimeter is: 2900 MHz. 4400 MHz. or 9400
MHz.
1434 22 0
In the northern hemisphere, during deceleration a heading an apparent an apparent a constant
following a landing in an Easterly direction, the fluctuating turn to the turn to the heading.
magnetic compass will indicate : about 090°. South. North.
1435 22 0
If the outside temperature at 35 000 feet is -40°C, the 686 kt. 596 kt. 247 kt. 307 kt.
1436 22 local speed of sound is : 0
A semi-automatic landing system disconnects itself on ground. when going at at the
automatically: around. approximatel decision
1437 22 y 100 ft. height. 0
The airplane outside air temperature "probe" measures "static" air "total" air "static" air "total" air
the : temperature temperature temperature temperatu
minus minus kinetic minus kinetic re minus
compressibili heating heating compressi
ty effects in effects in effects in bility
order to order to order to effects in
obtain the obtain the obtain the order to
total static total obtain the
temperature. temperature. temperature. static
temperatu
re.

1438 22 0
 When an aircraft, operating in the VOR coupled mode, remains is temporarily is
approaches the "cone of confusion" over a VOR station, always temporarily switches damped
the roll channel of the autopilot : coupled to disconnecte over to the by a trim
the selected d. heading input
VOR radial. mode. signal
from the
lateral
trim
system.

1439 22 0
Heading information given by a gyro platform, is given 2 degrees- 1 degree-of- l degree-of- 2
by a gyro at : of-freedom freedom in freedom in degrees-
in the the the vertical of-
vertical axis horizontal axis freedom
axis in the
horizontal
axis
1440 22 0
For this question use annex (022-10179A) 3 2 1 4

Four scenarios of VOR axis interception are

represented in the appended annex. The one
corresponding to the optimal interception path
calculated by a flight director is number :
1441 22 0
The requirement to carry a GPWS (Ground Proximity 1, 3 1 1, 2, 3 3
Warning System) concerns aeroplanes which are,
depending on their age, weight and passenger capacity
:

1- turboprop-powered
2- piston-powered
3- jet-powered

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is :

1442 22 1
The gyromagnetic compass torque motor : causes the causes the feeds the is fed by
directional heading error the flux
gyro unit to indicator to detector valve
precess precess system
1443 22 1
A flux valve senses the changes in orientation of the 2-3-5 1-3-4-5 3-5 1-4-5
horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field.

1- the flux valve is made of a pair of soft iron bars

2- the primary coils are fed A.C. voltage (usually 487.5
Hz)
3- the information can be used by a "flux gate" compass
or a directional gyro
4- the flux gate valve casing is dependent on the aircraft
three inertial axis
5- the accuracy on the value of the magnetic field
indication is less than 0,5%

Which of the following combinations contains all of the

correct statements?

1444 22 1
The flight data recorders must preserve the 48 hours of 30 minutes 25 hours of flight
conversation and aural warnings of the last : operation of operation operation
1445 22 0
 A thermocouple can be made of: a three wire a single wire two metal two metal
coil. coil. conductors conductor
of different s of the
nature fixed same
together at nature
two points. fixed
together
at two
points.

1446 22 0
The main input data to the Stall Warning Annunciator 1,4 1,2 2,4 2,3
System are :

1- Mach Meter indication

2- Angle of Attack
3- Indicate Airspeed (IAS)
4- Aircraft configuration (Flaps/Slats)

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is :

1447 22 0
In accordance with (ICAO) Annex 6 part I, the flight data at the right as far to the as far as near to
recorder is to be located in the aircraft : or left wing rear as forward as the
tip practicable practicable landing
gear as
practicabl
e
1448 22 0
Magnetic compass swinging is carried out to reduce as acceleration. deviation. variation. regulation
much as possible : .
1449 22 0
In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration no apparent a heading an apparent an
following a landing in a Westerly direction, the magnetic turn. fluctuating turn to the apparent
compass will indicate : about 270°. North. turn to the
South.

1450 22 0
The automatic trim is a component of the autopilot pitch reset the set the automaticall transfer a
channel. Its function is to: attitude, attitude to an y disengage stabilized
after instantaneou the autopilot aeroplane
engaging s value in the case to the pilot
(the before of an during
autopilot). engaging the excessive autopilot
autopilot. pitch up. disengag
ement.

1451 22 0
The autothrottle : 1 and 3 2 and 3 1 and 4 1, 3 and 4

1- enable to catch and to maintain the N1 RPM

2- enable to catch and to maintain the N2 RPM
3- enable to catch and to maintain an airplane indicated
airspeed (IAS)
4- is always engaged automatically at the same time as
the autopilot

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1452 22 1
 The advantages of an "electric" fuel (float) gauge are : 1 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 3, 4

1- easy construction
2- independence of indications with regard to airplane
attitude
3- independence of indications with regard to the
accelerations
4- independence of indications with regard to
temperature variations
5- independence of indications with regard to vibrations

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1453 22 1
The maximum directional gyro error due to the earth 180°/hour 5°/hour 15°/hour 90°/hour
1454 22 rotation is: 0
Landing shall be considered as having been carried out at the outer during during the at the
automatically when the autopilot and the auto-throttle of marker. ground roll. flare. decision
an aircraft are disengaged by flight crew : height.
1455 22 0
When the altitude acquisition mode is engaged on a jet true indicated indicated true
transport airplane equipped with autopilot (AP) and airspeed airspeed airspeed airspeed
auto-throttle (ATS) systems the: (TAS) is (IAS) is (IAS) is (TAS) is
maintained maintained maintained maintaine
constant by constant by constant by d constant
the auto- the auto- the autopilot by the
throttle throttle by means of autopilot
system. system. elevator. by means
of
elevator.

1456 22 0
The CVR (Cockpit Voice Recorder) includes: 1, 2, 3, 4 2, 4 1, 2 1, 4
1. a microphone
2. a recorder in compliance with the shock and fire
resistance standards
3. an independent battery
4. a flight data recorder
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
1457 22 0
The computers of the electrical flight controls system 1, 3, 4 1, 2, 3 2, 3 1, 2, 3, 4
comply with programs defined by attitude control laws
such as :

1- on the longitudinal axis, the law may combine the

load factor and the changes in the pitch rate as control
data sources
2- the trimming is automatic and ensures neutral
stability
3- the protections apply to pitch and bank attitudes
depending on the speed
4- these laws do not apply to the whole flight envelope

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1458 22 0
 The synchronization of the autopilot control channel 3, 4 2, 4 1, 4 2, 3
system :

1- enables the prevention of jerks during

disengagement
2- enables the cancellation of rudder control signals
3- enables the prevention of jerks during engagement
4- functions in the heading, navigation, approach
modes

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1459 22 1
A Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) has the 1, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 4, 5 1, 3, 5
following functions :

1- flow regulation (fuel, decelerations and accelerations

monitoring)
2- automatic starting sequence
3- transmissions of engine data to the pilot's
instruments
4- thrust management and protection of operation limits
5- monitoring of the thrust reversers

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1460 22 0
In a 3-phase synchronous motor type tachometer 3, 5 1, 2 2, 5 1, 4
indicator :

1- the transmitter is a direct current generator

2- the voltage is proportional to the transmitter drive
speed
3- the frequency is proportional to the transmitter drive
speed
4- the speed indicating element is a galvanometer
5. the speed indicating element is an asynchronous
motor driving a magnetic tachometer

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1461 22 1
The two main sources of information used to calculate fan rotation fan rotation high fan
turbojet thrust are the: speed (or speed (or pressure rotation
N1) or the N1) or the turbine speed (or
total EPR (Engine rotation N1) or the
pressure at Pressure speed or the total
the low Ratio). EPR (Engine pressure
pressure Pressure at the
turbine Ratio). high
outlet. pressure
compress
or outlet.

1462 22 0
 A cockpit voice recorder (CVR) will record : 1, 5 2, 4 3, 4 1, 2

1. the information exchanged by the cabin crew

2. the conversations between the crew members and
voice communications transmitted from or received on
the flight deck by radio
3. the announcements made via the public address
even if it has not been selected
4. the conversations and alarms audible in the cockpit
5. the captain conversations only

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is :

1463 22 0
An "altitude warning system" must at least warn the 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 4, 5 1, 3, 4 1, 3
crew :

1- when approaching the pre-selected altitude

2- when the airplane is approaching the ground too fast
3- in case of a given deviation above or below the pre-
selected altitude (at least by an aural warning)
4- in case of excessive vertical speed
5- when approaching the ground with the gear retracted

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is :

1464 22 0
In an auto-pilot slaved powered control circuit, the prevents is inhibited can itself, intervene
system which ensures synchronisation : uncommand when the when it fails, s only
ed surface automatic prevent the when the
deflection pilot is automatic automatic
when the engaged. pilot from pilot has
automatic being been
pilot is engaged. engaged.
disengaged.

1465 22 0
The purpose of an airplane automatic trim system is to rudder(s) elevator(s) elevator(s), elevator(s
trim out the hinge moment of the : and rudder(s) )
rudder(s) and ailerons.
1466 22 0
The automatic power control system (autothrottle) of a 1, 2, 4 1, 2, 3, 5 2, 4 1, 4, 5
transport airplane has the following mode(s) :

1- capture and holding of speeds

2- capture and holding of Mach number
3- capture and holding of flight angle of attack
4- capture and holding of N1 or EPR (Engine Power
Ratio)
5- capture and holding of flight paths

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is :

1467 22 1
 A landing is performed automatically when the autopilot until the until during the until
and auto-throttle ensure good performance from the flare. reaching landing roll reaching
final approach : decision and 100 ft,
height. sometimes height at
until the which
aircraft point the
comes to a autopilot
complete is
stop. automatic
ally
disconnec
ted.

1468 22 0
The flight data recorder must automatically stop data landing gear airplane airplane main gear
recording when the: is extended clears the cannot any shock
and locked. runway. longer move strut
by its own compress
power. es when
touching
the
runway.

1469 22 0
The functions of an autopilot (basic modes) consist of : guiding the stabilizing stabilizing monitorin
airplane and and g the
path. monitoring monitoring movemen
the the t of the
movement movement airplane
around the around the centre of
airplane airplane gravity.
aerodynamic centre of
centre. gravity.

1470 22 0
A pilot engages the control wheel steering (CWS) of a restore the maintain the roll wings maintain
conventional autopilot and carries out a manoeuvre in flight attitude flight attitude level and the track
roll. When the control wheel is released, the autopilot and the rate obtained at maintain the and the
will : of turn that heading flight
selected on moment. obtained at attitude
the autopilot that obtained
control moment. at that
display unit. moment.

1471 22 0
A slaved directional gyro derives it's directional signal a direct the flight the flux the air-
from : reading director. valve. data-
magnetic computer.
compass.
1472 22 0
If the tanks of your airplane only contain water, the a mass a mass of the exact a mass
capacitor gauges indicate: equal to the water mass of equal to
mass of a different water zero.
same from zero, contained in
volume of but the tanks.
fuel. inaccurate.
1473 22 0
 From a flight mechanics point of view, the "guidance" stabilizing monitoring stabilizing monitorin
functions of a transport airplane autopilot consist in: and the and g the
monitoring movements monitoring movemen
the of the centre the ts of the
movements of gravity in movements aerodyna
around the the three around the mic centre
aerodynamic dimensions centre of in the
centre. of space gravity. three
(path). dimension
s of space
(path).

1474 22 0
During a Category II automatic approach, the height altimeter. radio GPS (Global encoding
information is supplied by the : altimeter. Positioning altimeter.
System).
1475 22 0
Except for airplanes under 5,7 t airworthiness certificate 10 hours. 30 minutes. 60 minutes. 25 hours.
of which is subsequent to 31 march 1998, a flight data
recording system must be able to store the recorded
data for a minimum of the last :

1476 22 0
The autopilot basic modes include, among other things, 1, 4 1, 3 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 3
the following functions :

1- pitch attitude hold

2- pressure altitude hold
3- horizontal wing hold
4- heading hold

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is :

1477 22 0
The basic principle used for measuring a quantity of fuel internal capacity of a electromotiv capacity
in a transport airplane equipped with "capacitor" gauges resistance of capacitor e force of a of a
is that the: a capacity depends on capacity capacitor
depends on the distance depends on depends
the nature of between its the nature of on the
the dielectric plates. the dielectric nature of
in which it is in which it is the
immersed. immersed. dielectric
in which it
is
immersed
.

1478 22 0
The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is computed by : dividing dividing multiplying
turbine compressor compressor multiplyin
discharge discharge inlet g
pressure by pressure by pressure by compress
compressor turbine turbine or
inlet discharge discharge discharge
pressure. pressure. pressure. pressure
by turbine
inlet
pressure.

1479 22 1
The command bars of a flight director are generally HSI RMI (Radio ILS ADI
represented on an: (Horizontal Magnetic (Instrument (Attitude
Situation Indicator) Landing Director
Indicator) System) Indicator)
1480 22 0
 A thermocouple type thermometer consists of: a single-wire two metal two metal a
metal conductors conductors Wheatsto
winding. of different of the same ne bridge
type type connecte
connected at connected at d to a
one point. two points. voltage
indicator.

1481 22 0
The disadvantage of an electronic rpm indicator is the : necessity of generation influence of high
providing a of spurious temperature influence
power signals at on the of line
supply the indication. resistance
source. commutator. on the
indication.

1482 22 1
In a transport airplane, an autopilot comprises, in 1, 3, 4, 6 1, 2, 6 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 2, 3, 4, 5
addition to the mode display devices, the following
fundamental elements :

1- Airflow valve
2- Sensors
3- Comparators
4- Computers
5- Amplifiers
6- Servo-actuators

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

1483 22 0
The principle of capacity gauges is based on the: capacitance flow rate and capacitance current
variation by torque variation of a variation
the volume variation given in the
measureme occurring in capacitor Wheatsto
nt carried a supply with the type ne bridge.
out on the line. of dielectric.
sensor.

1484 22 0
The Head Up Display (HUD) is a device allowing the a monitoring a synthetic a flying and a
pilot, while still looking outside, to have: only during view of the flight path monitorin
Cat III instrument control aid. g of
precision procedure. engine
approaches. data.

1485 22 0
The control law of a transport airplane autopilot control computer input and crew inputs computer
channel may be defined as the relationship between input output to the input
the : deviation signals at computer deviation
data and the the amplifier and the data and
signals level detector the output
received by respectively responses control
the control (returned to deflection
servoactuato deviation the signals.
rs. data and airplane).
control
deflection
signals.

1486 22 0
 Flight recorder duration must be such that flight data, 20 hours for 48 hours for 25 hours for 24 hours
cockpit voice and sound warnings may respectively be flight data, flight data, flight data, for flight
recorded during at least: 15 minutes 60 minutes 30 minutes data, 60
for cockpit for cockpit for cockpit minutes
voices and voices and voices and for cockpit
warnings warnings warnings voices
horns. horns horns. and
warnings
horns.

1487 22 0
When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder underread. be just as show the overread.
air, the altimeter will : correct as actual height
before. above
ground.

1488 22 0
0 1 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

1 0 0
1 0 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

1 0 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 1 0

1 0 0
0 0 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 1
0 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 0
1 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 0
1 0 0

1 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 0 1
1 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

0 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 1
0 0 1

0 1 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

0 0 0
0 0 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

1 0 0
0 0 1

1 0 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

0 0 1
0 0 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

0 0 1

0 0 1
0 1 0

0 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 1

0 0 0
0 1 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 1 0
0 1 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 1 0
1 0 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 1 0

1 0 0
1 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 0

1 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 1
0 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 0
0 0 0

0 1 0

0 1 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

0 1 0
0 0 1

0 0 1

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 1 0

0 0 1
0 1 0

1 0 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 0 0

1 0 0

1 0 0
0 0 1

0 0 1

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 0
0 0 1

0 0 1

0 0 1

0 0 0

0 0 0

1 0 0
1 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 1 0
1 0 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 1
0 1 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

0 0 1
0 0 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

0 0 1
1 0 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

0 0 1
0 0 1

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 1
0 0 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 0
0 1 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0
0 1 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

0 0 0

1 0 0

0 1 0
1 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 1

0 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 1 0
0 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 0
0 0 1

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

0 1 0
0 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 0

1 0 0

1 0 0
0 0 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 0 0
0 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

1 0 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

0 0 0

0 1 0
0 1 0

0 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

0 1 0

0 0 0

0 0 0
0 0 0

0 1 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 0

0 1 0
0 1 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 0 1

0 1 0
0 0 0

0 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 0
0 0 0

0 1 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 0 0
0 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

0 0 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 0 1
1 0 0

0 0 0

1 0 0

1 0 0

0 1 0
0 0 1

1 0 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 0 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0
0 1 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

1 0 0
0 1 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

0 0 0
0 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 1 0

1 0 0
0 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 0

1 0 0
1 0 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

0 0 1

0 0 0
0 1 0

0 1 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0
1 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 0

0 0 1
1 0 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 0 1
0 1 0

0 0 1
 GENERAL NAVIGATION

54 2hr

In a remote indicating compass system the amount of positioning using a mounting the use of
deviation caused by aircraft magnetism and electrical the master vertically the detector repeater
circuits may be minimised by: unit in the mounted unit in the cards
centre of the gyroscope wingtip
aircraft
4090 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12401A) 091° - 105° - 105° - 091° -
What are the average magnetic course and distance 562 NM 480 NM 562 NM 480 NM
between
position N6000 W02000 and Sumburg VOR (N5955 W
00115)?
4091 61 0 0 1 0
When decelerating on a westerly heading in the anti- clockwise anti- clockwise
Northern hemisphere, the compass card of a direct clockwise giving an clockwise giving an
reading magnetic compass will turn : giving an apparent giving an apparent
apparent turn toward apparent turn towards
turn towards the south turn towards the north
the north the south

4092 61 0 1 0 0
The value of magnetic variation: must be 0° varies cannot has a
at the between a exceed 90° maximum of
magnetic maximum of 180°
equator 45° East and
45° West

4093 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-2304A) 0930 0113 2230 1413
The UTC of sunrise on 6 December at WINNIPEG
4094 61 (Canada) (49°50'N 097°30'W) is: 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annexes 061-2305A and 061- 1200 1300 0700 0800
2305B)
When it is 1000 Standard Time in Kuwait, the Standard
Time in Algeria is:
4095 61 0 0 0 1
The north and south magnetic poles are the only the value of a freely isogonals a freely
positions on the earth's surface where: magnetic suspended converge suspended
variation compass compass
equals 90° needle will needle will
stand stand
vertical horizontal
4096 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12400A) 118° - 117° - 130° - 131° -
What are the average magnetic course and distance 440 NM 494 NM 440 NM 494 NM
between
INGO VOR (N6350 W01640) and Sumburg VOR
(N5955 W 00115)?
4097 61 0 0 0 1
On a Direct Mercator, rhumb lines are: ellipses curves straight lines curves
convex to concave to
4098 61 the equator the equator 0 0 1 0
What is the value of the convergence factor on a Polar 0.866 0.5 0.0 1.0
4099 61 Stereographic chart? 0 0 0 1
 Which one of the following describes the appearance of Ellipses Curves Straight Curves
rhumb lines, except meridians, on a Polar around the convex to lines concave to
4100 61 Stereographic chart? Pole the Pole the Pole 0 0 0 1
Which one of the following statements is correct They are They are The higher Any straight
concerning the appearance of great circles, with the complex curves the latitude line is a
exception of meridians, on a Polar Stereographic chart curves that convex to the closer great circle
whose tangency is at the pole ? can be the Pole they
convex approximate
and/or to a straight
concave to line
the Pole
4101 61 0 0 1 0
On a Lambert conformal conic chart, the distance expands is constant reduces is constant
between parallels of latitude spaced the same number between, throughout between, between,
of degrees apart : and reduces the chart and expands and expands
outside, the outside, the outside, the
standard standard standard
parallels parallels parallels

4102 61 0 0 1 0
Which one of the following, concerning great circles on They are all They They are all With the
a Direct Mercator chart, is correct? curves approximate curves exception of
concave to to straight convex to meridians
the equator lines the equator and the
between the equator,
standard they are
parallels curves
concave to
the equator

4103 61 0 0 0 1
Parallels of latitude on a Direct Mercator chart are : parallel arcs of straight lines parallel
straight lines concentric converging straight lines
equally circles above the unequally
spaced equally pole spaced
spaced
4104 61 0 0 0 1
On a Direct Mercator chart, meridians are: parallel, inclined, parallel, inclined,
equally equally unequally unequally
spaced, spaced, spaced, spaced,
vertical straight lines vertical curved lines
straight lines that meet at straight lines that meet at
the nearer the nearer
pole pole
4105 61 1 0 0 0
Which is the highest latitude listed below at which the 66° 68° 72° 62°
sun will rise above the horizon and set every day?
4106 61 1 0 0 0
The angle between Magnetic North and Compass North compass compass magnetic alignment
4107 61 is called: deviation error variation error 1 0 0 0
A straight line on a Lambert Conformal Projection chart is is a is a Rhumb can only be
for normal flight planning purposes: approximatel Loxodromic line a parallel of
y a Great line latitude
Circle
4108 61 1 0 0 0
A Rhumb line is : a line a line on the the shortest any straight
convex to surface of distance line on a
the nearest the earth between two Lambert
pole on a cutting all points on a projection
Mercator meridians at Polyconic
projection the same projection
angle

4109 61 0 1 0 0
 Contour lines on aeronautical maps and charts connect having the with the having the of equal
points : same same same latitude
elevation variation longitude
above sea
level
4110 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-1828A and the data 41°00'N 41°05'N 40°55'N 40°50'N
for 1215 UTC) 028°10'W 027°50'W 027°55'W 027°40'W
1215 UTC LAJES VORTAC (38°46'N 027°05'W) RMI
reads 178°,
range 135 NM.
Calculate the aircraft position at 1215 UTC?
4111 61 0 0 1 0
A chart has the scale 1 : 1 000 000. From A to B on the 20.6 38.1 44.5 54.2
chart measures 1.5 inches (one inch equals 2.54
centimetres), the distance from A to B in NM is :
4112 61 1 0 0 0
The angle between the plane of the ecliptic and the 23.5° 25.3° 27.5° 66.5°
4113 61 plane of equator is approximately : 1 0 0 0
A ground feature appears 30° to the left of the centre 310° 130° 160° 220°
line of the CRT of an airborne weather radar. If the
heading of the aircraft is 355° (M) and the magnetic
variation is 15° East, the true bearing of the aircraft from
the feature is:
4114 61 0 0 1 0
On which of the following chart projections is it NOT Transverse Polar Direct Lambert's
possible to represent the north or south poles? Mercator stereographi Mercator conformal
4115 61 c 0 0 1 0
The chart distance between meridians 10° apart at 1 : 6 000 1 : 2 500 1 : 3 000 1 : 5 000
latitude 65° North is 3.75 inches. The chart scale at this 000 000 000 000
4116 61 latitude approximates: 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-1818A) 70°15'N 80°00'N 78°45'N 79°15'N
Assume a North polar stereographic chart whose grid is 080°E 080°E 087°E 074°E
aligned with the Greenwich meridian.
An aircraft flies from the geographic North pole for a
distance
of 480 NM along the 110°E meridian, then follows a grid
track
of 154° for a distance of 300 NM.
Its position is now approximately:

4117 61 0 1 0 0
Some inertial reference and navigation systems are only the gyros and gyros and the
known as "strapdown". gyros, and acceleromet acceleromet gyroscopes
This means that: not the ers are ers need and
acceleromet mounted on satellite acceleromet
ers, become a stabilised information ers become
part of the platform in input to part of the
unit's fixture the aircraft obtain a unit's fixture
to the vertical to the
aircraft reference aircraft
structure structure

4118 61 0 0 0 1
As the INS position of the departure aerodrome, 080° 27.4'W 099° 32.6'W 099° 32.6'E 080° 27.4'E
coordinates 35°32.7'N 139°46.3'W are input instead of
35°32.7'N 139°46.3'E. When the aircraft subsequently
passes point 52°N 180°W, the longitude value shown
on the INS will be:
4119 61 0 1 0 0
 In order to maintain an accurate vertical using a without with with without
pendulous system, an aircraft inertial platform damping damping damping damping
incorporates a device: and a period and a period and a period and a period
of 84.4 SEC of 84.4 SEC of 84.4 MIN of 84.4 MIN

4120 61 0 0 1 0
On a Transverse Mercator chart, scale is exactly correct meridian of Equator, datum prime
along the: tangency parallel of meridian meridian
origin and and and the
prime meridian equator
vertical perpendicul
ar to it
4121 61 1 0 0 0
On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart earth parallel of north and standard Equator
convergency is most accurately represented at the: origin south limits parallels
4122 61 of the chart 1 0 0 0
The total length of the 53°N parallel of latitude on a 1 : 30 000 1 : 18 000 1 : 21 000 1 : 25 000
direct Mercator chart is 133 cm. What is the 000 000 000 000
4123 61 approximate scale of the chart at latitude 30°S? 0 0 0 1
What is the chart distance between longitudes 179°E 167 mm 72 mm 133 mm 106 mm
and 175°W on a direct Mercator chart with a scale of 1 :
4124 61 5 000 000 at the equator? 0 0 1 0
The constant of the cone, on a Lambert chart where the 0.50 0.64 0.75 0.40
convergence angle between longitudes 010°E and
4125 61 030°W is 30°, is: 0 0 1 0
The platform of an inertial navigation system (INS) is gyroscopic vertical movement in aircraft
maintained at right angles to the local vertical by inertia, earth velocities, the yawing manoeuvres
applying corrections for the effects of: rotation and earth plane, , earth
real drift precession, secondary rotation,
centrifugal precession transport
forces and and wander and
transport pendulous coriolis
drift oscillation

4126 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-2326A to 061-2326D) 0200 0600 1000 1200
When it is 0600 Standard Time in Queensland
(Australia) the Standard Time in Hawaii (USA) is:
4127 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-2325A to 061-2325D) 1715 on 30 1215 on 1 1315 on 1 1615 on 30
An aircraft takes off from Guam at 2300 Standard Time April May May April
on 30 April local date.
After a flight of 11 HR 15 MIN it lands at Los Angeles
(California).
What is the Standard Time and local date of arrival
(assume summer time rules apply)?

4128 61 1 0 0 0
Isogonals converge at the: Magnetic North North and North and
equator magnetic South South
pole only magnetic geographic
poles only and
magnetic
poles
4129 61 0 0 0 1
When accelerating on an easterly heading in the anti- clockwise clockwise anti-
Northern hemisphere, the compass card of a direct clockwise giving an giving an clockwise
reading magnetic compass will turn : giving an apparent apparent giving an
apparent turn toward turn toward apparent
turn toward the north the south turn toward
the south the north
4130 61 0 1 0 0
 When turning right from 330°(C) to 040°(C) in the over-indicate under- over-indicate under-
northern hemisphere, the reading of a direct reading the turn and indicate the the turn and indicate the
magnetic compass will: liquid swirl turn and liquid swirl turn and
will liquid swirl will increase liquid swirl
decrease will the effect will increase
the effect decrease the effect
the effect
4131 61 0 0 0 1
An aircraft in the northern hemisphere makes an 060° more than more or less less than
accurate rate one turn to the right/starboard. If the initial 060° than 060° 060°
heading was 330°, after 30 seconds of the turn the depending
direct reading magnetic compass should read: on the
pendulous
suspension
used

4132 61 0 0 0 1
The horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field: weakens weakens is is
with with approximatel approximatel
increasing increasing y the same y the same
distance distance at all at magnetic
from the from the magnetic latitudes
magnetic nearer latitudes 50°N and
poles magnetic less than 50°S
pole 60°
4133 61 0 0 0 1
A line drawn on a chart which joins all points where the agonic line aclinic line isogonal isotach
value of magnetic variation is zero is called an:
4134 61 1 0 0 0
A Lambert conformal conic projection, with two standard shows lines the scale is shows all the scale is
parallels: of longitude only correct great circles only correct
as parallel along the as straight at parallel of
straight lines standard lines origin
parallels

4135 61 0 1 0 0
On a Lambert Conformal chart the distance between 1 : 2 000 1 : 6 000 1 : 5 000 1 : 3 750
meridians 5° apart along latitude 37° North is 9 cm. The 000 000 000 000
scale of the chart at that parallel approximates:
4136 61 0 0 1 0
On the 27th of February, at 52°S and 040°E, the sunrise 0523 UTC 0743 UTC 0243 UTC 2143 UTC
is at 0243 UTC.
On the same day, at 52°S and 035°W, the sunrise is at:
4137 61 0 1 0 0
An aeroplane flies from A (59°S 142°W) to B (61°S varies by decreases varies by 4° increases by
148°W) with a TAS of 480 kt. 10° by 6° 5°
The autopilot is engaged and coupled with an Inertial
Navigation System in which AB track is active.
On route AB, the true track:

4138 61 0 0 0 1
The rhumb-line distance between points A (60°00'N 300 NM 450 NM 600 NM 150 NM
4139 61 002°30'E) and B (60°00'N 007°30'W) is: 1 0 0 0
An aircraft is over position HO (55°30'N 060°15'W), 031° 332° 028° 208°
where YYR VOR (53°30'N 060°15'W) can be received.
The magnetic variation is 31°W at HO and 28°W at
YYR.
What is the radial from YYR?
4140 61 0 0 1 0
 Given: 0.87 0.825 0.90 0.85
TAS = 485 kt,
OAT = ISA +10°C,
FL 410.
Calculate the Mach Number?
4141 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 099° 279° 049° 229°
A polar stereographic chart whose grid is aligned with
the zero meridian.
Grid track 344°,
Longitude 115°00'W,
Calculate the true course?
4142 61 0 0 0 1
For a distance of 1860 NM between Q and R, a ground 1685 NM 1532 NM 930 NM 1865 NM
speed "out" of 385 kt, a ground speed "back" of 465 kt
and an endurance of 8 HR (excluding reserves) the
distance from Q to the point of safe return (PSR) is:

4143 61 1 0 0 0
An aircraft travels from point A to point B, using the 277° 284° 263° 270°
autopilot connected to the aircraft's inertial system. The
coordinates of A (45°S 010°W) and B (45°S 030°W)
have been entered.
The true course of the aircraft on its arrival at B, to the
nearest degree, is:
4144 61 1 0 0 0
The constant of cone of a Lambert conformal conic 68°25' 21°35' 23°18' 66°42'
chart is quoted as 0.3955.
At what latitude on the chart is earth convergency
correctly represented?
4145 61 0 0 1 0
The duration of civil twilight is the time: agreed by needed by between between
the the sun to sunset and sunset and
international move from when the when the
aeronautical the apparent centre of the centre of the
authorities height of 0° sun is 12° sun is 6°
which is 12 to the below the below the
minutes apparent true horizon true horizon
height of 6°

4146 61 0 0 0 1
The Great Circle bearing of 'B' (70°S 060°E), from 'A' 150°(T) 090°(T) 315°(T) 135°(T)
4147 61 (70° S 030° W), is approximately: 0 0 0 1
In a navigation chart a distance of 49 NM is equal to 7 1 : 7 000 1 : 1 300 1 : 700 000 1 : 130 000
4148 61 cm. The scale of the chart is approximately: 000 000 0 1 0 0
At 60° N the scale of a direct Mercator chart is 1 : 3 000 1 : 3 000 1 : 3 500 1 : 1 500 1 : 6 000
000. 000 000 000 000
4149 61 What is the scale at the equator? 0 0 0 1
During initial alignment an inertial navigation system is horizontal the aircraft computer vertical
north aligned by inputs from: acceleromet remote matching of acceleromet
ers and the reading measured ers and the
east gyro compass gravity north gyro
system magnitude
to gravity
magnitude
of initial
alignment

4150 61 1 0 0 0
 An aircraft is flying with the aid of an inertial navigation 60°00.0'N 59°49.0'N 60°11.0'N 60°05.7'N
system (INS) connected to the autopilot. The following
two points have been entered in the INS computer:
WPT 1: 60°N 030°W
WPT 2: 60°N 020°W
When 025°W is passed the latitude shown on the
display unit of the inertial navigation system will be:

4151 61 0 0 0 1
The azimuth gyro of an inertial unit has a drift of 6 NM 60 NM 12 NM 1 NM
0.01°/HR.
After a flight of 12 HR with a ground speed of 500 kt,
the error on the aeroplane position is approximately :

4152 61 0 0 1 0
The drift of the azimuth gyro on an inertial unit induces proportional sinusoîdal proportional proportional
an error in the position given by this unit. "t" being the to t/2 to t to the
elapsed time. square of
The total error is: time, t²
4153 61 0 0 1 0
With reference to inertial navigation systems, a TAS required to not required required for required for
input is: provide a Polar rhumb line
W/V read navigation navigation
out
4154 61 1 0 0 0
Given: GD = (AD X GD = (AD - GD = AD X GD = TAS/
AD = Air distance GS)/TAS TAS)/TAS (GS (GS X AD)
GD = Ground distance -TAS)/GS
TAS = True Airspeed
GS = Groundspeed
Which of the following is the correct formula to calculate
ground distance (GD) gone?
4155 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12583A) N5210 N5155 N5205 N5200
Given: W00800 W00810 W00805 W00800
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 143°,
CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 050°.
What is the aircraft position?
4156 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12604A) Connemara Punchestow KERRY/Farr Waterford
What feature is shown on the chart at position N5211 aerodrome n aerodrome anfore NDB
4157 61 W00931? aerodrome 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12589A) SHA 205° SHA 033° SHA 212° SHA 025°
Given: CRK 321° CRK 149° CRK 328° CRK 141°
SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1
CRK VOR N5150.4 W00829.7
Aircraft position N5220 W00910
Which of the following lists two radials that are
applicable to the aircraft position?
4158 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12588A) N5228 N5300 N5258 N5225
Given: W00920 W0830 W00825 W00917
SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 048°/22
NM.
What is the aircraft position?
4159 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12587A) N5155 N5200 N5330 N5328
Given: W00915 W0925 W00830 W00820
SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 025°/49
NM.
What is the aircraft position?
4160 61 0 0 1 0
 (For this question use annex 061-12586A) N5228 N5303 N5220 N5305
Given: W00935 W00810 W00930 W00815
SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 232°/32
NM.
What is the aircraft position?
4161 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12591A) SHA 068° SHA 060° SHA 240° SHA 248°
Given: CRK 145° CRK 138° CRK 137° CRK 325°
SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1
CRK VOR N5150.4 W00829.7
Aircraft position N5230 W00930
Which of the following lists two radials that are
applicable to the aircraft position?
4162 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-12584A) N5250 N5230 N5300 N5225
Given: W00950 W00800 W00945 W00805
SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 120°/35
NM.
What is the aircraft position?
4163 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12592A) SHA 042° SHA 213° SHA 033° SHA 221°
Given: CON 138° CON 310° CON 130° CON 318°
SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1
CON VOR N5354.8 W00849.1
Aircraft position N5330 W00800
Which of the following lists two radials that are
applicable to the aircraft position?
4164 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12582A) N5220 N5215 N5210 N5205
Given: W00750 W00755 W00750 W00755
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 129°,
CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 047°.
What is the aircraft position?
4165 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12581A) N5230 N5225 N5220 N5240
Given: W00800 W00805 W00750 W00750
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 120°,
CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 033°.
What is the aircraft position?
4166 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12580A) N5205 N5215 N5210 N5118
Given: W00915 W00917 W00910 W00913
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 205°,
CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 317°.
What is the aircraft position?
4167 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12579A) N5210 N5220 N5230 N5210
Given: W00930 W00920 W00910 W00910
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 223°,
CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 322°.
What is the aircraft position?
4168 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12578A) 035° - 80 042° - 83 036° - 81 044° - 82
What is the average track (°T) and distance between NM NM NM NM
CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5) and EKN NDB
(N5423.6 W00738.7)?
4169 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12577A) 327° - 124 335° - 128 325° - 126 320° - 127
What is the average track (°T) and distance between NM NM NM NM
BAL VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9) and CFN NDB
(N5502.6 W00820.4)?
4170 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12585A) N5210 N5208 N5315 N5317
Given: W00830 W00840 W00915 W00908
SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 165°/36
NM.
What is the aircraft position?
4171 61 1 0 0 0
 Where and when are the IRS positions updated? During flight IRS Updating is Only on the
IRS positions are normally ground
positions are updated by carried out during the
automaticall pressing the by the crew alignment
y updated by 'Take-off/ when over- procedure
the FMC Go-around' flying a
button at the known
start of the position
take-off roll (VOR station
or NDB)

4172 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-12560A) 165° - 27 335° - 43 025° - 38 233° - 35
What is the radial and DME distance from CON NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) to position N5330
W00930?
4173 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question refer to annex 061-12602A) 265° - 17 077° - 18 257° - 17 086° - 18
Given: NM NM NM NM
CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1)
Castlebar aerodrome (N5351 W00917)
What is the CON radial and DME distance when
overhead Castlebar aerodrome?
4174 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12601A) 154° - 38 326° - 37 146° - 38 333° - 37
Given: NM NM NM NM
SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1)
Connemara aerodrome (N5314 W00928)
What is the SHA radial and DME distance when
overhead Connemara aerodrome?
4175 61 0 0 0 1
An aircraft is descending down a 12% slope whilst 4500 3900 6500 650 FT/MIN
maintaining a GS of 540 kt. FT/MIN FT/MIN FT/MIN
The rate of descent of the aircraft is approximately:
4176 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12600A) 240° - 41 068° - 41 248° - 42 060° - 42
Given: NM NM NM Nm
SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1)
Birr aerodrome (N5304 W00754)
What is the SHA radial and DME distance when
overhead Birr aerodrome?
4177 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12590A) SHA 124° SHA 131° SHA 304° SHA 312°
Given: CRK 009° CRK 017° CRK 189° CRK 197°
SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1
CRK VOR N5150.4 W00829.7
Aircraft position N5230 W00820
Which of the following lists two radials that are
applicable to the aircraft position?
4178 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12598A) N5330 N5343 N5335 N5337
Given: W00820 W00925 W00925 W00820
CON VOR (N5354.8 W00849.1) DME 30 NM,
CRN VOR (N5318.1 W00856.5) DME 25 NM,
Aircraft heading 270°(M),
Both DME distances decreasing.
What is the aircraft position?
4179 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12574A) 156° - 136 164° - 138 336° - 137 344° - 139
What is the average track (°T) and distance between NM NM NM NM
WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and SLG NDB
(N5416.7 W00836.0)?
4180 61 0 0 1 0
 What is the source of magnetic variation information in Magnetic Magnetic The main The FMS
a Flight Management System (FMS)? variation is variation directional calculates
calculated information gyro which MH and MT
by each IRS is stored in is coupled to from the
based on each IRS the magnetic FMC
the memory; it is sensor (flux position
respective applied to valve)
IRS position the true positioned in
and the heading the wingtip
aircraft calculated
magnetic by the
heading respective
IRS

4181 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12597A) N5255 N5250 N5305 N5310
Given: W00815 W0030 W00930 W00820
CRN VOR (N5318.1 W00856.5) DME 34 NM,
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 26 NM,
Aircraft heading 090°(M),
Both DME distances increasing.
What is the aircraft position?
4182 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12596A) N5307 N5355 N5310 N5252
Given: W00923 W00825 W00830 W00923
CRN VOR (N5318.1 W00856.5) DME 18 NM,
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 30 NM,
Aircraft heading 270°(M),
Both DME distances decreasing.
What is the aircraft position?
4183 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12595A) N5225 N5215 N5205 N5215
Given: W00810 W00805 W00915 W00915
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 41 NM,
CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) DME 30 NM,
Aircraft heading 270°(M),
Both DME distances decreasing.
What is the aircraft position?
4184 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12594A) N5235 N5200 N5215 N5215
Given: W00750 W00935 W00940 W00745
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 50 NM,
CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) DME 41 NM,
Aircraft heading 270°(M),
Both DME distances increasing.
What is the aircraft position?
4185 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12593A) SHA 137° SHA 317° SHA 145° SHA 325°
Given: CON 046° CON 226° CON 055° CON 235°
SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1
CON VOR N5354.8 W00849.1
Aircraft position N5320 W00950
Which of the following lists two radials that are
applicable to the aircraft position?
4186 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question refer to annex 061-12599A) 119° - 44 127° - 45 299° - 42 307° - 43
Given: NM NM NM NM
CRK VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7)
Kerry aerodrome (N5210.9 W00931.4)
What is the CRK radial and DME distance when
overhead Kerry aerodrome?
4187 61 0 0 0 1
 Which of the following lists, which compares an Inertial The platform It does not There is little There is little
Reference System that utilises Ring Laser Gyroscopes is kept suffer from or no 'spin or no 'spin
(RLG) instead of conventional gyroscopes, is stable 'lock in' error up' time and up' time and
completely correct? relative to and it is it does not it is
the earth insensitive suffer from insensitive
mathematica to 'lock in' error to
lly rather gravitational gravitational
than ('g') forces ('g') forces
mechanicall
y but it has a
longer 'spin
up' time

4188 61 0 0 0 1
Gyrocompassing of an inertial reference system (IRS) is ON ALIGN STBY ATT/REF
accomplished with the mode selector switched to:
4189 61 0 1 0 0
With reference to an inertial navigation system (INS), HDG/DA TK/GS XTK/TKE DSRTK/STS
the initial great circle track between computer inserted
waypoints will be displayed when the control display
unit (CDU) is selected to:
4190 61 0 0 0 1
Which of the following statement is correct concerning Gyro- Gyro- Gyro- Gyro-
gyro-compassing of an inertial navigation system (INS)? compassing compassing compassing compassing
of an INS is of an INS is of an INS is of an INS is
not possible possible in possible in not possible
in flight flight flight in flight
because it because it because it because it
cannot can cannot can
differentiate differentiate differentiate differentiate
between between between between
movement movement movement movement
induced and induced and induced and induced and
misalignmen misalignmen misalignmen misalignmen
t induced t induced t induced t induced
acceleration acceleration acceleration acceleration
s. s. s. s.

4191 61 1 0 0 0
During the initial alignment of an inertial navigation will accept a will not will accept a will not
system (INS) the equipment: 10° error in accept a 10° 10° error in accept a 10°
initial error in initial initial error in initial
latitude and latitude but latitude but latitude or
initial will accept a will not initial
longitude 10° error in accept a 10° longitude
initial error in initial
longitude longitude

4192 61 0 1 0 0
Double integration of the output from the east/west velocity distance vehicle distance
accelerometer of an inertial navigation system (INS) in east/west east/west longitude north/south
4193 61 the NAV MODE give: 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12576A) 268° - 91 272° - 89 270° - 90 278° - 89
What is the average track (°T) and distance between NM NM NM NM
BAL VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9) and CRN NDB
(N5318.1 W00856.5)?
4194 61 0 0 1 0
 The principle of 'Schuler Tuning' as applied to the both gyro- only gyro- both gyro- only to
operation of Inertial Navigation Systems/ Inertial stabilised stabilised stabilised 'strapdown'
Reference Systems is applicable to: platform and systems and laser laser gyro
'strapdown' gyro systems
systems systems but
only when
operating in
the non
'strapdown'
mode

4195 61 1 0 0 0
The automatic flight control system is coupled to the 60°N to 60°N to 30°S to 30°S to
guidance outputs from an inertial navigation system. 60°N 50°N 30°N 25°S
Which pair of latitudes will give the greatest difference
between initial track read-out and the average true
course given, in each case, a difference of longitude of
10°?

4196 61 1 0 0 0
The resultant of the first integration of the output from change of vehicle departure velocity
the east/west accelerometer of an inertial navigation longitude longitude along the
system (INS) in NAV MODE is: local parallel
of latitude

4197 61 0 0 0 1
One of the errors inherent in a ring laser gyroscope cavity zero drop beam lock dither
occurs at low input rotation rates tending towards zero rotation
when a phenomenon known as 'lock-in' is experienced.
What is the name of the technique, effected by means
of a piezo-electric motor, that is used to correct this
error?

4198 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-9442A) HDG 064° - HDG 075° - HDG 070° - HDG 075° -
Complete line 6 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', ETA 1449 ETA 1452 ETA 1459 ETA 1502
positions 'L' to 'M'. UTC UTC UTC UTC
What is the HDG°(M) and ETA?
4199 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-9441A) HDG 337° - HDG 320° - HDG 337° - HDG 320° -
Complete line 5 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', ETA 1422 ETA 1412 ETA 1322 ETA 1432
positions 'J' to 'K'. UTC UTC UTC UTC
What is the HDG°(M) and ETA?
4200 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-9440A) HDG 344° - HDG 344° - HDG 354° - HDG 034° -
Complete line 4 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', ETA 1303 ETA 1336 ETA 1326 ETA 1336
positions 'G' to 'H'. UTC UTC UTC UTC
What is the HDG°(M) and ETA?
4201 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-9439A) HDG 095° - HDG 106° - HDG 115° - HDG 105° -
Complete line 3 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', ETA 1155 ETA 1215 ETA 1145 ETA 1205
positions 'E' to 'F'. UTC UTC UTC UTC
What is the HDG°(M) and ETA?
4202 61 0 0 0 1
The resultant of the first integration from the north/south change latitude velocity groundspee
accelerometer of an inertial navigation system (INS) in latitude along the d
the NAV MODE is: local
meridian
4203 61 0 0 1 0
Given: 900 FT/MIN 1000 700 FT/MIN 800 FT/MIN
ILS GP angle = 3.5 DEG, FT/MIN
GS = 150 kt.
What is the approximate rate of descent?
4204 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12605A) Clonbullogu TUSKAR WTD NDB KERRY/Farr
What feature is shown on the chart at position N5212 e aerodrome ROCK LT.H. anfore
4205 61 W00612? NDB aerodrome 0 1 0 0
 (For this question use annex 061-12573A) 286° - 81 294° - 80 075° - 81 277° - 83
What is the average track (°T) and distance between NM NM NM NM
WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and FOY NDB
(N5234.0 W00911.7)?
4206 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12572A) 011° - 47 020° - 46 348° - 46 191° - 45
What is the average track (°T) and distance between NM NM NM NM
SLG NDB (N5416.7 W00836.0) and CFN NDB
(N5502.6 W00820.4)?
4207 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12571A) 113° - 97 293° - 98 063° - 101 071° - 100
What is the average track (°T) and distance between NM NM NM NM
CON VOR (N5354.8 W00849.1) and BEL VOR
(N5439.7 W00613.8)?
4208 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12570A) 089° - 95 229° - 125 237° - 130 057° - 126
What is the average track (°M) and distance between NM NM NM NM
CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5) and BEL VOR
(N5439.7 W00613.8)?
4209 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-12569A) 262° - 86 128° - 99 308° - 98 316° - 96
What is the average track (°M) and distance between NM NM NM NM
BAL VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9) and SLG NDB
(N5416.7 W00836.0)?
4210 61 0 0 0 1
The following points are entered into an inertial zero a 9° a 4° a 9°
navigation system (INS). increase decrease decrease
WPT 1: 60°N 30°W
WPT 2: 60°N 20°W
WPT 3: 60°N 10°W
The inertial navigation system is connected to the
automatic pilot on route (1-2-3).
The track change when passing WPT 2 will be
approximately:

4211 61 0 0 0 1
Given: 8.3 NM 7.0 NM 13.1 NM 14.5 NM
aircraft height 2500 FT,
ILS GP angle 3°.
At what approximate distance from THR can you expect
to capture the GP?
4212 61 1 0 0 0
The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft 9° greater 5° less than 9° less than 5° greater
is coupled to the guidance outputs from an inertial than the final the final one the final one than the final
navigation system (INS) and the aircraft is flying from one one
waypoint No. 2 (60°00'S 070°00'W) to No. 3 (60°00'S
080°00'W).
Comparing the initial track (°T) at 070°00'W and the
final track (°T) at 080°00'W, the difference between
them is that the initial track is approximately:

4213 61 0 0 1 0
Given: 800 FT/MIN 950 FT/MIN 1500 1400
TAS = 197 kt, FT/MIN FT/MIN
True course = 240°,
W/V = 180/30kt.
Descent is initiated at FL 220 and completed at FL 40.
Distance to be covered during descent is 39 NM.
What is the approximate rate of descent?

4214 61 0 0 0 1
What is the effect on the Mach number and TAS in an Mach Mach Mach Mach
aircraft that is climbing with constant CAS? number number number number
remains decreases; increases; increases;
constant; TAS TAS remains TAS
TAS decreases constant increases
increases
4215 61 0 0 0 1
 Which of the following statements concerning the Dip is the The blue At the The earth's
earth's magnetic field is completely correct? angle pole of the earth's magnetic
between earth's magnetic field can be
total magnetic equator, the classified as
magnetic field is inclination transient,
field and situated in varies semi-
vertical field North depending permanent
component Canada on whether or
the permanent
geograhic
equator is
north or
south of the
magnetic
equator

4216 61 0 1 0 0
Which of the following correctly lists the order of OFF - OFF - ON OFF - OFF -
available selections of the Mode Selector switches of an ALIGN - - ALIGN - STBY - ALIGN -
inertial reference system (IRS) mode panel? NAV - ATT NAV ALIGN - ATT - NAV
NAV
4217 61 1 0 0 0
The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft 266° 270° 274° 278°
is coupled to the guidance outputs from an inertial
navigation system (INS).
The aircraft is flying between inserted waypoints No. 3
(55°00'N 020°00'W) and No.4 (55°00'N 030°00'W).
With DSRTK/STS selected on the CDU, to the nearest
whole degree, the initial track read-out from waypoint
No. 3 will be:

4218 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12575A) 010° - 71 358° - 72 006° - 71 002° - 72
What is the average track (°T) and distance between NM NM NM NM
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) and CON VOR
(N5354.8 W00849.1)?
4219 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-12568A) 205° - 71 017° - 70 025° - 70 197° - 71
What is the average track (°M) and distance between NM NM NM NM
KER NDB (N5210.9 W00931.5) and CRN NDB
(N5318.1 W00856.5)?
4220 61 0 0 1 0
The direct reading magnetic compass is made aperiodic using long pendulous keeping the using the
(dead beat) by: magnets suspension magnetic lowest
of the assembly acceptable
magnetic mass close viscosity
assembly to the compass
compass liquid
point and by
using
damping
wires

4221 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12603A) 296° - 46 304° - 47 124° - 46 116° - 47
Given: NM NM NM NM
CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1)
Abbey Shrule aerodrome (N5335 W00739)
What is the CON radial and DME distance when
overhead Abbey Shrule aerodrome?
4222 61 0 0 1 0
What is the validity period of the 'permanent' data base 28 days one 3 calendar 14 days
of aeronautical information stored in the FMC In the calendar months
4223 61 B737-400 Flight Management System? month 1 0 0 0
 What indication, if any, is given in the B737-400 Flight A warning No A warning A warning
Management System if radio updating is not available? message is indication is message is message is
displayed on given so displayed on displayed on
the Flight long as the the EHSI the IRS
Director IRS and MFDU displays
System positions
remain
within limits
4224 61 0 0 1 0
Which component of the B737-400 Flight Management Multi- Flight Inertial Flight
System (FMS) is used to enter flight plan routeing and Function Managemen Reference Director
performance parameters? Control t Computer System System
Display Unit
4225 61 1 0 0 0
The purpose of the Flight Management System (FMS), both manual continuous manual continuous
as for example installed in the B737-400, is to provide: navigation automatic navigation automatic
guidance navigation guidance navigation
and guidance and guidance as
performance and automatic well as
managemen performance performance manual
t managemen managemen performance
t t managemen
t

4226 61 0 1 0 0
How is the radio position determined by the FMC in the DME/DME DME/DME DME ranges VOR/DME
B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System? or and/ or range and
VOR/DME VOR/ADF bearing
bearings

4227 61 1 0 0 0
A direct reading compass should be swung when: the aircraft there is a there is a the aircraft is
has made large, and large stored for a
more than a permanent, change in long period
stated change in magnetic and is
number of magnetic longitude frequently
landings latitude moved

4228 61 0 1 0 0
In which of the following situations is the FMC present Just after At top of At top of On final
position of a B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument take-off climb descent approach
4229 61 System likely to be least accurate? 1 0 0 0
The annunciator of a remote indicating compass system synchronisin compensatin setting local setting the
is used when: g the g for magnetic 'heading'
magnetic deviation variation pointer
and gyro
compass
elements
4230 61 1 0 0 0
The convergence factor of a Lambert conformal conic 38°15' 51°45' 52°05' 80°39'
chart is quoted as 0.78535.
At what latitude on the chart is earth convergency
correctly represented?
4231 61 0 1 0 0
At 47° North the chart distance between meridians 10° 1 : 8 000 1 : 3 000 1 : 2 500 1 : 6 000
apart is 5 inches. 000 000 000 000
4232 61 The scale of the chart at 47° North approximates: 0 0 0 1
On a Direct Mercator chart a great circle will be curve straight line curve complex
represented by a: convex to concave to curve
4233 61 the equator the equator 0 0 1 0
 An aircraft in the northern hemisphere is making an 225° less than more or less more than
accurate rate one turn to the right. 225° than 225° 225°
If the initial heading was 135°, after 30 seconds the depending
direct reading magnetic compass should read: on the
pendulous
suspension
used

4234 61 0 0 0 1
When accelerating on a westerly heading in the clockwise clockwise anti- anti-
northern hemisphere, the compass card of a direct giving an giving an clockwise clockwise
reading magnetic compass will turn: apparent apparent giving an giving an
turn towards turn towards apparent apparent
the north the south turn towards turn towards
the north the south

4235 61 0 0 1 0
On a Lambert conformal conic chart, with two standard along the along the in the area along the
parallels, the quoted scale is correct: prime two standard between the parallel of
meridian parallels standard origin
parallels

4236 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12615A) 6 2 3 5
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a
4237 61 DME? 0 1 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12623A) 2 3 4 5
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a Control
4238 61 Zone boundary? 0 1 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12621A) 1 3 4 5
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a Flight
4239 61 Information Region (FIR) boundary? 1 0 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12620A) 3 6 7 1
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a
4240 61 VORTAC? 0 0 1 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12619A) 6 7 1 2
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a
4241 61 TACAN? 1 0 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12618A) 5 6 2 3
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a
4242 61 basic, non-specified, navigation aid? 1 0 0 0
In the B737-400 Flight Management System the CDUs manually manually automaticall manually
are used during preflight to: initialize the initialize the y initialize initialize the
IRSs, FMC IRSs and the IRSs Flight
and FMC with and FMC Director
Autothrottle dispatch with System and
with information dispatch FMC with
dispatch information dispatch
information information
4243 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12616A) 3 5 6 2
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a
4244 61 VOR? 1 0 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12613A) VOR: NDB civil airport: NDB: ILS civil airport:
Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart ILS NDB
4245 61 symbols shown at position N5211 W00705? 0 0 0 1
(For this question refer to annex 061-12614A) 6 7 1 2
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a
4246 61 VOR/DME? 0 0 1 0
 Which of the following lists the first three pages of the POS INIT - IDENT - POS INIT - IDENT -
FMC/CDU normally used to enter data on initial start-up RTE - RTE - RTE - POS INIT -
of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System? IDENT DEPARTUR DEPARTUR RTE
E E
4247 61 0 0 0 1
Which FMC/CDU page normally appears on initial INITIAL POS INIT PERF INIT IDENT
power application to the B737-400 Electronic Flight
4248 61 Instrument System? 0 0 0 1
Which of the following lists all the methods that can be Identifier Identifier Identifier Identifier
used to enter 'Created Waypoints' into the CDU of a bearing/dista bearing/dista bearing/dista bearing/dista
B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System? nce; place nce; place nce; place nce; place
distance/pla bearing/plac bearing/plac bearing/plac
ce distance; e bearing; e distance; e bearing;
along-track along-track along/across latitude and
displacemen displacemen -track longitude;
t; latitude t; latitude displacemen waypoint
and and t; latitude name
longitude longitude and
longitude

4249 61 0 1 0 0
Which of the following can all be stored as five letter Waypoint Waypoint Waypoint Airway
waypoint identifiers through the CDU of a B737-400 names; names; names; names;
Electronic Flight Instrument System? navaid navaid navaid navaid
frequencies; positions; identifiers; identifiers;
runway airport ICAO runway airport
codes; identifiers; numbers; names;
airport ICAO airport airport ICAO waypoint
identifiers names identifiers code
numbers

4250 61 0 0 1 0
What are, in order of highest priority followed by lowest, Urgent and Priority and Urgent and Alerting and
the two levels of message produced by the CDU of the Routine Alerting Advisory Advisory
B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?
4251 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question refer to annex 061-12617A) 2 3 4 6
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates an
4252 61 NDB? 0 0 1 0
ATT Mode of the Inertial Reference System (IRS) is a only attitude navigation altitude, only attitude
back-up mode providing: information information heading and and heading
position information
information

4253 61 0 0 0 1
Permanent magnetism in aircraft arises chiefly from: the the effect of hammering, exposure to
combined internal and the the earth's
effect of wiring and effect of the magnetic
aircraft exposure to earth's field during
electrical electrical magnetic normal
equipment storms field, whilst operation
and the under
earth's construction
magnetic
field

4254 61 0 0 1 0
An island appears 30° to the left of the centre line on an 325° 145° 195° 205°
airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing
of the aircraft from the island if at the time of
observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading
(MH) of 020° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 25°W?

4255 61 0 1 0 0
 An island appears 30° to the right of the centre line on 130° 160° 190° 220°
an airborne weather radar display. What is the true
bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of
observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading
(MH) of 355° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 15°E?

4256 61 0 0 0 1
An island appears 45° to the right of the centre line on 329° 059° 101° 239°
an airborne weather radar display. What is the true
bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of
observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading
(MH) of 215° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 21°W?

4257 61 0 1 0 0
An island appears 60° to the left of the centre line on an 086° 226° 026° 046°
airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing
of the aircraft from the island if at the time of
observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading
(MH) of 276° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 10°E?

4258 61 0 0 0 1
Waypoints can be entered in an INS memory in different bearing and hexadecimal by geographic
formats. distance waypoints coordinates
In which of the following formats can waypoints be name
entered into all INSs?
4259 61 0 0 0 1
Which of the following statements concerning the The It is not It is It is updated
position indicated on the Inertial Reference System positions updated constantly when 'go-
(IRS) display is correct? from the two once the updated around' is
IRSs are IRS mode is from selected on
compared to set to NAV information take-off
obtain a obtained by
'best the FMC
position'
which is
displayed on
the IRS

4260 61 0 1 0 0
What additional information is required to be input to an Mach TAS IAS Altitude and
Inertial Navigation System (INS) in order to obtain an Number OAT
4261 61 W/V readout? 0 1 0 0
An aircraft departs from position A (04°10' S 178°22'W) 53°20'N 45°00'N 53°20'N 45°00'N
and flies northward following the meridian for 2950 NM. 172°38'E 172°38'E 169°22W 169°22W
It then flies westward along the parallel of latitude for
382 NM to position B.
The coordinates of position B are?
4262 61 0 1 0 0
The angle between the true great-circle track and the 7.8° 9° 15.6° 5.2°
true rhumb-line track joining the following points: A (60°
S 165° W) B (60° S 177° E), at the place of departure
A, is:
4263 61 1 0 0 0
Given: Waypoint 1. 60°S 030°W 060°11'S 059°49'S 060°00'S 060°06'S
Waypoint 2. 60°S 020°W
What will be the approximate latitude shown on the
display unit of an inertial navigation system at longitude
025°W?
4264 61 0 0 0 1
What is the time required to travel along the parallel of 5 HR 00 2 HR 30 1 HR 15 1 HR 45
latitude 60° N between meridians 010° E and 030° W at MIN MIN MIN MIN
4265 61 a groundspeed of 480 kt? 0 1 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12607A) Brittas Bay Castlebar Connaught Connemara
What feature is shown on the chart at position N5351 aerodrome aerodrome aerodrome aerodrome
4266 61 W00917? 0 1 0 0
 (For this question refer to annex 061-12606A) Punchestow Connemara KERRY/Farr Clonbullogu
What feature is shown on the chart at position N5311 n aerodrome aerodrome anfore e aerodrome
4267 61 W00637? aerodrome 1 0 0 0
Which of the following statements concerning the loss It is not The The IRS has The mode
of alignment by an Inertial Reference System (IRS) in usable in navigation to be selector has
flight is correct? any mode mode, coupled to to be rotated
and must be including the to ATT then
shut down present remaining back
for the rest position and serviceable through
of the flight ground system and ALIGN to
speed a NAV in order
outputs, is realignment to obtain an
inoperative carried out in-flight
for the in flight realignment
remainder of
the flight

4268 61 0 1 0 0
The two standard parallels of a conical Lambert 0.90 0.66 0.18 0.44
projection are at N10°40'N and N41°20'.
The cone constant of this chart is approximatively :
4269 61 0 0 0 1
Given: 4° Left 8° Left 12° Left 16° Left
Distance 'A' to 'B' is 90 NM,
Fix obtained 60 NM along and 4 NM to the right of
course.
What heading alteration must be made to reach 'B'?

4270 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12612A) VOR: DME: civil airport: VOR: DME: civil airport:
Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart NDB: VOR: DME: NDB: NDB: DME:
symbols shown at position N5318.1 W00856.5? compulsory non- compulsory non-
reporting compulsory reporting compulsory
point reporting point reporting
point point
4271 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question refer to annex 061-12611A) civil airport: VOR: DME: civil airport: VOR: DME:
Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart NDB: DME: NDB: VOR: DME: NDB: non-
symbols shown at position N5416.7 W00836.0? compulsory compulsory non- compulsory
reporting reporting compulsory reporting
point point reporting point
point
4272 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12610A) military VOR: DME: military civil airport:
Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart airport: danger area airport: VOR: DME
symbols shown at position N5318.0 W00626.9? VOR: NDB VOR: DME
4273 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12609A) VOR: DME: VOR: DME: civil airport: civil airport:
Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart NDB:compul NDB: ILS VOR: DME: VOR: non-
symbols shown at position N5150.4 W00829.7? sory compulsory compulsory
reporting reporting reporting
point point point
4274 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12608A) Belmullet Carnmore Clonbullogu EAGLE
What feature is shown on the chart at position N5417 aerodrome aerodrome e aerodrome ISLAND
4275 61 W01005? LT.H. NDB 0 0 0 1
 The main reason for usually mounting the detector unit place it reduce the facilitate place it in a
of a remote indicating compass in the wingtip of an where it will amount of easy position
aeroplane is to: not be deviation maintenance where there
subjected to caused by of the unit is no
electrical or aircraft and increase electrical
magnetic magnetism its exposure wiring to
interference and to the cause
from the electrical Earth's deviation
aircraft circuits magnetic errors
field

4276 61 0 1 0 0
Given: N01°40' S01°40' N01°40' S01°40'
Position 'A' is N00° E100°, E101°40' E097°07' E097°07' E101°40'
Position 'B' is 240°(T), 200 NM from 'A'.
What is the position of 'B'?
4277 61 0 1 0 0
The main advantage of a remote indicating compass requires less is able to senses, has less
over a direct reading compass is that it: maintenance magnify the rather than moving parts
earth's seeks, the
magnetic magnetic
field in order meridian
to attain
greater
accuracy

4278 61 0 0 1 0
Which of the following statements concerning the The The The The
aircraft positions indicated on a triple fit Inertial positions will positions will positions will positions are
Navigation System (INS)/ Inertial Reference System be the same only differ if only differ if likely to
(IRS) on the CDU is correct? because one of the an error has differ
they are an systems has been made because
average of been when they are
three decoupled inputting the calculated
different because of a present from
positions detected position at different
malfunction the sources
departure
airport

4279 61 0 0 0 1
Which of the following statements concerning the NAV mode NAV mode NAV mode NAV mode
operation of an Inertial Navigation System (INS)/Inertial must be must be must be must be
Reference System (IRS) is correct? selected selected on selected selected
prior to the runway prior to the when the
movement just prior to loading of alignment
of the take-off passengers procedure is
aircraft off and/or commenced
the gate freight

4280 61 1 0 0 0
Which of the following statements concerning the INS/IRS can INS/IRS can INS/IRS can INS/IRS can
alignment procedure for Inertial Navigation only be be aligned in only be be aligned in
Systems(INS)/Inertial Reference Systems (IRS) at mid- aligned in either the aligned in either the
latitudes is correct? NAV mode ALIGN or the ALIGN ALIGN or
NAV mode mode ATT mode
4281 61 0 1 0 0
The alignment time, at mid-latitudes, for an Inertial 5 MIN 10 MIN 20 MIN 2 MIN
Reference System using laser ring gyros is
4282 61 approximately: 0 1 0 0
 What is the name given to an Inertial Reference System Solid state Ring laser Strapdown Rigid
(IRS) which has the gyros and accelerometers as part
of the unit's fixture to the aircraft structure?
4283 61 0 0 1 0
The sensors of an INS measure: precession acceleration velocity the
horizontal
component
of the earth's
rotation

4284 61 0 1 0 0
A pilot accidently turning OFF the INS in flight, and then the INS is it can only no useful everything
turns it back ON a few moments later. Following this usable in be used for information returns to
incident: NAV MODE attitude can be normal and
after a reference obtained is usable
position from the INS
update
4285 61 0 1 0 0
The chart that is generally used for navigation in polar Direct Gnomonic Lambert Stereographi
areas is based on a: Mercator projection conformal cal
4286 61 projection projection projection 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-9438A) HDG 193° - HDG 188° - HDG 193° - HDG 183° -
Complete line 2 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', ETA 1239 ETA 1229 ETA 1249 ETA 1159
positions 'C' to 'D'. UTC UTC UTC UTC
What is the HDG°(M) and ETA?
4287 61 1 0 0 0
Position A is located on the equator at longitude 01°11'N 01°11'S 01°11'N 01°11'S
130°00E. 128°49'E 128°49'E 131°11'E 131°11'E
Position B is located 100 NM from A on a bearing of
225°(T).
The coordinates of position B are:
4288 61 0 1 0 0
In order to fly from position A (10°00'N, 030°00'W) to the great- a straight a rhumb line the constant
position B (30°00'N, 050°00'W), maintaining a constant circle route line plotted track average drift
true course, it is necessary to fly: on a route
Lambert
chart
4289 61 0 0 1 0
The rhumb line track between position A (45°00'N, 345 315 330 300
010°00'W) and position B (48°30'N, 015°00'W) is
4290 61 approximately: 0 1 0 0
4291 61 The diameter of the Earth is approximately: 40 000 km 12 700 km 6 350 km 18 500 km 0 1 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12624A) 3 4 5 2
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an
4292 61 uncontrolled route? 0 1 0 0
The nominal scale of a Lambert conformal conic chart is scale at the scale at the mean scale mean scale
the: equator standard between between the
parallels pole and parallels of
equator the secant
cone

4293 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12625A) 2 3 4 5
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates the boundary
4294 61 of advisory airspace? 0 0 0 1
A Mercator chart has a scale at the equator = 1 : 3 704 1 : 3 208 1 : 185 200 1 : 1 852 1 : 7 408
000. 000 000 000
4295 61 What is the scale at latitude 60° S? 0 0 1 0
The distance measured between two points on a 370.00 NM 67.20 NM 3.69 NM 36.30 NM
navigation map is 42 mm (millimetres). The scale of the
chart is 1:1 600 000.
The actual distance between these two point is
approximately:
4296 61 0 0 0 1
 The standard parallels of a Lambert's conical 0.42 0.39 0.60 0.92
orthomorphic projection are 07°40'N and 38°20' N.
4297 61 The constant of the cone for this chart is: 0 1 0 0
On a Lambert conformal conic chart the convergence of is zero varies as the equals earth is the same
the meridians: throughout secant of the convergency as earth
the chart latitude at the convergency
standard at the
parallels parallel of
origin
4298 61 0 0 0 1
A straight line drawn on a chart measures 4.63 cm and 1 : 6 000 1 : 3 000 1 : 5 000 1 : 1 000
represents 150 NM. 000 000 000 000
4299 61 The chart scale is: 1 0 0 0
On a Polar Stereographic chart, the initial great circle 030° (T) 330° (T) 150° (T) 210° (T)
course from A 70°N 060°W to B 70°N 060°E is
4300 61 approximately: 1 0 0 0
The maximum difference between geocentric and 90° North 0° North and 45° North 60° North
geodetic latitude occurs at about: and South South and South and South
4301 61 (equator) 0 0 1 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12632A) 9 10 11 12
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a group of
4302 61 lighted obstacles? 0 0 0 1
A course of 120°(T) is drawn between 'X' (61°30'N) and 66.7 cm 33.4 cm 38.5 cm 36.0 cm
'Y' (58°30'N) on a Lambert Conformal conic chart with a
scale of 1 : 1 000 000 at 60°N.
The chart distance between 'X' and 'Y' is:

4303 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12638A) 14 16 10 12
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a lightship?
4304 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12637A) 15 16 10 14
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an
4305 61 aeronautical ground light? 1 0 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12636A) Shipwreck Off-shore Lightship Off-shore
What is the meaning of aeronautical chart symbol No. showing lighthouse helicopter
16? above the landing
surface at platform
low tide
4306 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12635A) Hazard to Lighthouse Aeronautical Visual
What is the meaning of aeronautical chart symbol No. aerial ground light reference
4307 61 15? navigation point 0 0 1 0
Given: 6 378.4 6 367.0 6 399.9 6 356.9
value for the ellipticity of the Earth is 1/297.
Earth's semi-major axis, as measured at the equator,
equals 6378.4 km.
What is the semi-minor axis (km) of the earth at the axis
of the Poles?
4308 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question refer to annex 061-12633A) 9 11 13 14
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an
4309 61 exceptionally high unlighted obstacle? 0 0 1 0
On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart great circles that curves straight lines curves straight lines
are not meridians are: concave to within the concave to regardless
the pole of standard the parallel of distance
projection parallels of origin

4310 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12631A) 9 11 12 13
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a group of
4311 61 unlighted obstacles? 0 1 0 0
 (For this question refer to annex 061-12630A) 9 10 11 12
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a lighted
4312 61 obstacle? 0 1 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12629A) 12 9 10 11
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an unlighted
4313 61 obstacle? 0 1 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12628A) 15 6 7 8
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a Way-
4314 61 point? 0 0 0 1
(For this question refer to annex 061-12627A) 8 15 6 7
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a
4315 61 compulsory reporting point? 0 0 0 1
(For this question refer to annex 061-12626A) 15 6 7 8
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a non-
4316 61 compulsory reporting point? 0 1 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12634A) 14 10 12 13
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an
4317 61 exceptionally high lighted obstacle? 1 0 0 0
What is the longitude of a position 6 NM to the east of 093°53.1'W 094°12.0'W 093°48.5'W 093°54.0'W
4318 61 58°42'N 094°00'W? 0 0 1 0
Given: 360° / 15 kt 190° / 15 kt 010° / 15 kt 180° / 15 kt
True Heading = 090°
TAS = 180 kt
GS = 180 kt
Drift 5° right
Calculate the W/V?
4319 61 1 0 0 0
Given: 180 kt 200 kt 220 kt 230 kt
True Heading = 090°
TAS = 200 kt
W/V = 220° / 30 kt.
Calculate the GS?
4320 61 0 0 1 0
An aeroplane is flying at TAS 180 kt on a track of 090°. 85 NM 88 NM 56 NM 176 NM
The W/V is 045° / 50kt.
How far can the aeroplane fly out from its base and
return in one hour?

4321 61 1 0 0 0
The following information is displayed on an Inertial 220° / 60 kt 325° / 60 kt 320° / 60 kt 225° / 60 kt
Navigation System:
GS 520 kt,
True HDG 090°,
Drift angle 5° right,
TAS 480 kt.
SAT (static air temperature) -51°C.
The W/V being experienced is:
4322 61 0 0 1 0
The reported surface wind from the Control Tower is 30 kt 24 kt 27 kt 21 kt
240°/35 kt. Runway 30 (300°).
4323 61 What is the cross-wind component? 1 0 0 0
On a Direct Mercator chart, a rhumb line appears as a: small circle spiral curve curve straight line
concave to convex to
the nearer the nearer
pole pole
4324 61 0 0 0 1
A great circle track joins position A (59°S 141°W) and B It increases It decreases It increases It decreases
(61°S 148°W). by 6° by 6° by 3° by 3°
What is the difference between the great circle track at
A and B?
4325 61 1 0 0 0
 Given: 435 kt 600 kt 535 kt 450 kt
True Heading = 180°
TAS = 500 kt
W/V 225° / 100 kt
Calculate the GS?
4326 61 1 0 0 0
A pilot receives the following signals from a VOR DME +/- 2 NM +/- 7 NM +/- 3.5 NM +/- 1 NM
station:
radial 180°+/- 1°, distance = 200 NM.
What is the approximate error?
4327 61 0 0 1 0
An aircraft is maintaining a 5.2% gradient is at 7 NM 3640 FT 2210 FT 680 FT 1890 FT
from the runway, on a flat terrain; its height is
4328 61 approximately: 0 1 0 0
A useful method of a pilot resolving, during a visual fly the fly fly reverse set heading
flight, any uncertainty in the aircraft's position is to reverse of expanding headings towards a
maintain visual contact with the ground and: the heading circles until and line feature
being flown a pinpoint is associated such as a
prior to obtained timings until coastline,
becoming the point of motorway,
uncertain departure is river or
until a regained railway
pinpoint is
obtained

4329 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-12405A) KIRKWALL STORNOWA SUMBURG SAXAVORD
Which of the following beacons is 185 NM from (N5858 W Y (N5815 H (N5955 (N6050
4330 61 AKRABERG (N6124 W00640)? 00254) W00617) W00115) W00050) 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12404A) N6127 N6010 N6109 N6027
An aircraft on radial 110° at a range of 120 NM from W00443 E00255 E00255 E00307
SAXAVORD VOR (N6050 W00050) is at position:
4331 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-12403A) N6320 N6020 N6345 N6040
An aircraft on radial 315° at a range of 150 NM from W01205 W00405 W01125 W00320
MYGGENES NDB (N6206 W00732) is at position:
4332 61 1 0 0 0
An aircraft passes position A (60°00'N 120°00'W) on 279° 288° 261° 270°
route to position B (60°00'N 140°30'W).
What is the great circle track on departure from A?
4333 61 1 0 0 0
Given the following: 180° 190° 194° 204°
True track: 192°
Magnetic variation: 7°E
Drift angle: 5° left
What is the magnetic heading required to maintain the
given track?
4334 61 0 1 0 0
An aircraft equipped with an Inertial Navigation System only inertial the autopilot at least one only inertial
(INS) flies with INS 1 coupled with autopilot 1. Both navigation is of the inertial navigation
inertial navigation systems are navigating from way- system No. unserviceabl navigaton system No.
point A to B. The inertial systems' Central Display Units 1 is drifting e in NAV systems is 2 is drifting
(CDU) sho shows: mode drifting
- XTK on INS 1 = 0
- XTK on INS 2 = 8L
(XTK = cross track)
From this information it can be deduced that:

4335 61 0 0 1 0
On a direct Mercator projection, at latitude 45° North, a 57 NM 70 NM 81 NM 86 NM
certain length represents 70 NM.
At latitude 30° North, the same length represents
approximately:
4336 61 0 0 0 1
 Given: 38°39'E 49°57'E 51°51'E 40°33'E
Position A 45°N, ?°E
Position B 45°N, 45°15'E
Distance A-B = 280 NM
B is to the East of A
Required: longitude of position A?
4337 61 1 0 0 0
On a polar stereographic projection chart showing the 315° 225° 250° 135°
South Pole, a straight line joins position A (70°S 065°E)
to position B (70°S 025°W).
The true course on departure from position A is
approximately:
4338 61 0 1 0 0
On a direct Mercator projection, the distance measured 1 : 4 750 1 : 7 000 1 : 6 000 1 : 3 500
between two meridians spaced 5° apart at latitude 60°N 000 000 000 000
is 8 cm.
The scale of this chart at latitude 60°N is approximately:

4339 61 0 0 0 1
Two positions plotted on a polar stereographic chart, A 023° 247° 305° 203°
(80°N 000°) and B (70°N 102°W) are joined by a
straight line whose highest latitude is reached at 035°W.
At point B, the true course is:

4340 61 0 0 0 1
If an aeroplane was to circle around the Earth following 240 kt 550 kt 480 kt 960 kt
parallel 60°N at a ground speed of 480 kt. In order to
circle around the Earth along the equator in the same
amount of time, it should fly at a ground speed of:

4341 61 0 0 0 1
Given: 208° 211° 180° 221°
Magnetic heading 311°
Drift angle 10° left
Relative bearing of NDB 270°
What is the magnetic bearing of the NDB measured
from the aircraft?
4342 61 0 0 0 1
Given: 090° / 33 kt 180° / 33 kt 270° / 33 kt 360° / 33 kt
True heading = 310°
TAS = 200 kt
GS = 176 kt
Drift angle 7° right.
Calculate the W/V?
4343 61 0 0 1 0
Given the following: 048° 072° 056° 064°
Magnetic heading: 060°
Magnetic variation: 8°W
Drift angle: 4° right
What is the true track?
4344 61 0 0 1 0
An aircraft is following a true track of 048° at a constant 192 kt, 7° 200 kt, 3.5° 192 kt, 7° 225 kt, 7°
TAS of 210 kt. right right left left
The wind velocity is 350° / 30 kt.
The GS and drift angle are:
4345 61 1 0 0 0
Given: 461 kt , LSS 461 kt , LSS 237 kt, LSS 490 kt, LSS
FL 350, 296 kt 576 kt 296 kt 461 kt
Mach 0.80,
OAT -55°C.
Calculate the values for TAS and local speed of sound
(LSS)?
4346 61 0 1 0 0
 For a given track the: -35 kt -65 kt -55 kt -45 kt
Wind component = +45 kt
Drift angle = 15° left
TAS = 240 kt
What is the wind component on the reverse track?
4347 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 16° right 7° left 7° right 9° left
Magnetic heading = 255°
VAR = 40°W
GS = 375 kt
W/V = 235°(T) / 120 kt
Calculate the drift angle?
4348 61 0 1 0 0
The great circle distance between position A (59°34.1'N 2 700 NM 10 800 NM 5 400 NM 10 800 km
008°08.4'E) and B (30°25.9'N 171°51.6'W) is:
4349 61 0 0 1 0
On a Mercator chart, the scale: is constant varies as 1/2 varies as varies as the
throughout cosine of the 1/cosine of sine of the
the chart co-latitude latitude latitude
(1/cosine=
secant)
4350 61 0 0 1 0
Given: 8° right 6° right 4° right 8° left
Distance A to B = 120 NM,
After 30 NM aircraft is 3 NM to the left of course.
What heading alteration should be made in order to
arrive at point 'B'?
4351 61 1 0 0 0
Given: 130 MIN 145 MIN 162 MIN 181 MIN
Distance 'A' to 'B' 1973 NM
Groundspeed 'out' 430 kt
Groundspeed 'back' 385 kt
The time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET)
between 'A' and 'B' is:
4352 61 1 0 0 0
An aircraft was over 'Q' at 1320 hours flying direct to 'R'. 1510 NM 2290 NM 2370 NM 1310 NM
Given:
Distance 'Q' to 'R' 3016 NM
True airspeed 480 kt
Mean wind component 'out' -90 kt
Mean wind component 'back' +75 kt
Safe endurance 10:00 HR
The distance from 'Q' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR)
'Q' is:

4353 61 0 1 0 0
An aircraft was over 'Q' at 1320 hours flying direct to 'R'. 1742 1752 1756 1820
Given:
Distance 'Q' to 'R' 3016 NM
True airspeed 480 kt
Mean wind component 'out' -90 kt
Mean wind component 'back' +75 kt
The ETA for reaching the Point of Equal Time (PET)
between 'Q' and 'R' is:

4354 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 1630 NM 1940 NM 1908 NM 1736 NM
Distance 'A' to 'B' 2484 NM
Mean groundspeed 'out' 420 kt
Mean groundspeed 'back' 500 kt
Safe endurance 08 HR 30 MIN
The distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR)
'A' is:

4355 61 0 1 0 0
 Given: 193 MIN 163 MIN 173 MIN 183 MIN
Distance 'A' to 'B' 2484 NM
Groundspeed 'out' 420 kt
Groundspeed 'back' 500 kt
The time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET)
between 'A' and 'B' is:
4356 61 1 0 0 0
An aircraft at latitude 10° South flies north at a GS of 22°00'N 03°50'N 02°00'N 12°15'N
890 km/HR.
4357 61 What will its latitude be after 1.5 HR? 0 0 1 0
An aircraft was over 'A' at 1435 hours flying direct to 'B'. 1744 1846 1721 1657
Given:
Distance 'A' to 'B' 2900 NM
True airspeed 470 kt
Mean wind component 'out' +55 kt
Mean wind component 'back' -75 kt
The ETA for reaching the Point of Equal Time (PET)
between 'A' and 'B' is:

4358 61 0 0 0 1
Given: 290 MIN 219 MIN 197 MIN 209 MIN
Distance 'A' to 'B' 2346 NM
Groundspeed 'out' 365 kt
Groundspeed 'back' 480 kt
Safe endurance 8 HR 30 MIN
The time from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'A'
is:
4359 61 1 0 0 0
Transverse Mercator projections are used for: maps of maps of radio plotting
large large navigation charts in
north/south east/west charts in equatorial
extent extent in equatorial areas
equatorial areas
areas
4360 61 1 0 0 0
An Oblique Mercator projection is used specifically to topographic plotting charts of the radio
produce: al maps of charts in great circle navigational
large east/ equatorial route charts in
west extent regions between two equatorial
points regions
4361 61 0 0 1 0
On a transverse Mercator chart, with the exception of straight lines hyperbolic parabolas ellipses
the Equator, parallels of latitude appear as: lines
4362 61 0 0 0 1
On a transverse Mercator chart, the scale is exactly meridians of equator and meridian of prime
correct along the: tangency parallel of tangency meridian
origin and the and the
parallel of equator
latitude
perpendicul
ar to it
4363 61 1 0 0 0
 The main reason for mounting the detector unit of a to ensure by having to minimise to maximise
remote reading compass in the wingtip of an aeroplane that the unit detector the amount the units
is: is in the units on both of deviation exposure to
most wingtips, to caused by the earth's
accessible cancel out aircraft magnetic
position on the deviation magnetism field
the aircraft effects and
for ease of caused by electrical
maintenance the aircraft circuits
strucure

4364 61 0 0 1 0
Route 'A' (44°N 026°E) to 'B' (46°N 024°E) forms an 038° 322° 328° 032°
angle of 35° with longitude 026°E. Average magnetic
variation between 'A' and 'B' is 3°E.
What is the average magnetic course from 'A' to 'B'?

4365 61 0 1 0 0
An aircraft was over 'A' at 1435 hours flying direct to 'B'. 2844 NM 2141 NM 1611 NM 1759 NM
Given:
Distance 'A' to 'B' 2900 NM
True airspeed 470 kt
Mean wind component 'out' +55 kt
Mean wind component 'back' -75 kt
Safe endurance 9 HR 30 MIN
The distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR)
'A' is:

4366 61 0 1 0 0
An aircraft is planned to fly from position 'A' to position 1157 1206 1203 1153
'B',
distance 480 NM at an average GS of 240 kt. It departs
'A' at 1000 UTC.
After flying 150 NM along track from 'A', the aircraft is 2
MIN behind planned time.
Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised
ETA at 'B'?
4367 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12402A) 032° - 036° - 029° - 042° -
What are the initial true course and distance between 470 NM 638 NM 570 NM 635 NM
positions N5800 W01300 and N6600 E00200?
4368 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 18° Right 15° Right 9° Right 6° Right
Distance 'A' to 'B' is 100 NM,
Fix obtained 40 NM along and 6 NM to the left of
course.
What heading alteration must be made to reach 'B'?

4369 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 375 kt 395 kt 335 kt 355 kt
Distance 'A' to 'B' is 325 NM,
Planned GS 315 kt,
ATD 1130 UTC,
1205 UTC - fix obtained 165 NM along track.
What GS must be maintained from the fix in
order to achieve planned ETA at 'B'?
4370 61 0 0 0 1
 Given: 340 kt 360 kt. 300 kt 320 kt.
Distance 'A' to 'B' is 475 NM,
Planned GS 315 kt,
ATD 1000 UTC,
1040 UTC - fix obtained 190 NM along track.
What GS must be maintained from the fix in
order to achieve planned ETA at 'B'?
4371 61 1 0 0 0
Given: 235°/50 kt 300°/30 kt 265°/50 kt 195°/50 kt
Magnetic track = 210°,
Magnetic HDG = 215°,
VAR = 15°E,
TAS = 360 kt,
Aircraft flies 64 NM in 12 MIN.
Calculate the true W/V?
4372 61 0 0 1 0
Given: 180°/45 kt 340°/45 kt 320°/50 kt 210°/15 kt
Magnetic track = 075°,
HDG = 066°(M),
VAR = 11°E,
TAS = 275 kt
Aircraft flies 48 NM in 10 MIN.
Calculate the true W/V °?
4373 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 1664 NM 1698 NM 1422 NM 1490 NM
Distance 'A' to 'B' 1973 NM
Groundspeed 'out' 430 kt
Groundspeed 'back' 385 kt
Safe endurance 7 HR 20 MIN
The distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR)
'A' is:
4374 61 0 0 0 1
An aircraft is planned to fly from position 'A' to position 1347 UTC 1340 UTC 1333 UTC 1401 UTC
'B',distance
320 NM, at an average GS of 180 kt. It departs 'A' at
1200 UTC.
After flying 70 NM along track from 'A', the aircraft is 3
MIN ahead of planned time.
Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised
ETA at 'B'?
4375 61 0 0 1 0
Given: 167 MIN 219 MIN 290 MIN 197 MIN
Distance 'A' to 'B' 2346 NM
Groundspeed 'out' 365 kt
Groundspeed 'back' 480 kt
The time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET)
between 'A' and 'B' is:
4376 61 0 1 0 0
An island is observed to be 15° to the left. 268 302 088 122
The aircraft heading is 120°(M), variation 17°(W).
4377 61 The bearing °(T) from the aircraft to the island is: 0 0 1 0
A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 12 NM 3 NM 6 NM 9 NM
315° and 3 MIN later on a relative bearing of 270°.
The W/V is calm; aircraft GS 180 kt.
What is the minimum distance between the aircraft and
the ground feature?

4378 61 0 0 0 1
Given: 238 MIN 263 MIN 288 MIN 323 MIN
Distance 'A' to 'B' 3623 NM
Groundspeed 'out' 370 kt
Groundspeed 'back' 300 kt
The time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET)
between 'A' and 'B' is:
4379 61 0 1 0 0
 Given: 1467 NM 1642 NM 1838 NM 1313 NM
Distance 'Q' to 'R' 1760 NM
Groundspeed 'out' 435 kt
Groundspeed 'back' 385 kt
Safe endurance 9 HR
The distance from 'Q' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR)
between 'Q' and 'R' is:
4380 61 0 0 1 0
Given: 110 MIN 106 MIN 102 MIN 114 MIN
Distance 'Q' to 'R' 1760 NM
Groundspeed 'out' 435 kt
Groundspeed 'back' 385 kt
The time from 'Q' to the Point of Equal Time (PET)
between 'Q' and 'R' is:
4381 61 0 0 0 1
An aircraft at latitude 02°20'N tracks 180°(T) for 685 km. 04°30'S 09°05'S 03°50'S 04°10'S
On completion of the flight the latitude will be:
4382 61 0 0 1 0
An aircraft is planned to fly from position 'A' to position 1110 UTC 1044 UTC 1050 UTC 1115 UTC
'B',
distance 250 NM at an average GS of 115 kt. It departs
'A' at 0900 UTC.
After flying 75 NM along track from 'A', the aircraft is 1.5
MIN behind planned time.
Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised
ETA at 'B'?
4383 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-12554A) 070° - 58 207° - 31 019° - 31 035° - 30
What is the radial and DME distance from SHA NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) to position N5310
W00830?
4384 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-12561A) 320° - 44 333° - 36 236° - 44 223° - 36
What is the radial and DME distance from BEL NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5439.7 W00613.8) to position N5410
W00710?
4385 61 0 0 1 0
Fuel flow per HR is 22 US-GAL, total fuel on board is 83 2 HR 15 4 HR 32 3 HR 12 3 HR 53
IMP GAL. MIN MIN MIN MIN
4386 61 What is the endurance? 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12559A) 311° - 22 240° - 24 140° - 23 119° - 42
What is the radial and DME distance from CON NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) to position N5340
W00820?
4387 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12558A) 320° - 8 094° - 64 260° - 30 088° - 29
What is the radial and DME distance from CON NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) to position N5400
W00800?
4388 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-12557A) 214° - 26 049° - 45 169° - 35 358° - 36
What is the radial and DME distance from CON NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) to position N5430
W00900?
4389 61 0 0 0 1
An aircraft at latitude 10°North flies south at a 03°50'S 02°00'S 12°15'S 22°00'S
groundspeed of 445 km/HR.
4390 61 What will be its latitude after 3 HR? 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12555A) 132° - 36 212° - 26 139° - 35 129° - 46
What is the radial and DME distance from SHA NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) to position N5220
W00810?
4391 61 0 0 1 0
 (For this question use annex 061-12563A) 296° - 65 126° - 33 222° - 48 315° - 34
What is the radial and DME distance from BEL NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5439.7 W00613.8) to position N5500
W00700?
4392 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-12553A) 309° - 33 057° - 27 293° - 33 324° - 17
What is the radial and DME distance from SHA NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) to position N5300
W00940?
4393 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12552A) 293° - 39 106° - 38 113° - 38 104° - 76
What is the radial and DME distance from CRK NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5140
W00730?
4394 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12551A) 023° - 48 017° - 43 039° - 48 024° - 43
What is the radial and DME distance from CRK NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5230
W00750?
4395 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12550A) 350° - 22 295° - 38 170° - 22 311° - 38
What is the radial and DME distance from CRK NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5210
W00920?
4396 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-12549A) 014° - 33 220° - 40 030° - 33 048° - 40
What is the radial and DME distance from CRK NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5220
W00810?
4397 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-9437A) 268° - 1114 282° - 1128 282° - 1114 268° - 1128
Complete line 1 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG'; UTC UTC UTC UTC
positions 'A' to 'B'.
What is the HDG°(M) and ETA?
4398 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12556A) 354° - 34 198° - 37 346° - 34 214° - 37
What is the radial and DME distance from SHA NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1)
to position N5210 W00920?
4399 61 0 0 0 1
On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude of 45°N, a certain 110 NM 73.5 NM 78 NM 45 NM
length represents a distance of 90 NM on the earth.
The same length on the chart will represent on the
earth, at latitude 30°N, a distance of :

4400 61 1 0 0 0
The 'departure' between positions 60°N 160°E and 170°W 140°W 145°E 175°E
60°N 'x' is 900 NM.
4401 61 What is the longitude of 'x'? 1 0 0 0
An aircraft at position 60°N 005°W tracks 090°(T) for 002°10'W 000°15'E 000°40'E 005°15'E
315 km.
4402 61 On completion of the flight the longitude will be: 0 0 1 0
A flight is to be made from 'A' 49°S 180°E/W to 'B' 58°S, 540 804 1000 1222
180°E/W.
The distance in kilometres from 'A' to 'B' is
approximately:
4403 61 0 0 1 0
At what approximate date is the earth furthest from the End of Beginning of End of Beginning of
4404 61 sun (aphelion)? December January September July 0 0 0 1
At what approximate date is the earth closest to the sun Beginning of End of Beginning of End of June
4405 61 (perihelion)? January March July 1 0 0 0
Assuming mid-latitudes (40° to 50°N/S). Spring Summer summer Winter
At which time of year is the relationship between the equinox and solstice and solstice and solstice and
length autumn spring winter autumn
of day and night, as well as the rate of change of equinox equinox solstice equinox
declination
of the sun, changing at the greatest rate?
4406 61 1 0 0 0
 Two points A and B are 1000 NM apart. TAS = 490 kt. 470 NM 455 NM 500 NM 530 NM
On the flight between A and B the equivalent headwind
is -20 kt.
On the return leg between B and A, the equivalent
headwind is +40 kt.
What distance from A, along the route A to B, is the the
Point of Equal Time (PET)?

4407 61 0 0 0 1
In which two months of the year is the difference June and April and February March and
between the transit of the Apparent Sun and Mean Sun December August and September
across the Greenwich Meridian the greatest? November
4408 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12562A) 098° - 45 278° - 44 090° - 46 278° - 10
What is the radial and DME distance from BEL NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5439.7 W00613.8) to position N5440
W00730?
4409 61 0 1 0 0
On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude 15°S, a certain 124.2 NM 118.2 NM 122.3 NM 117.7 NM
length represents a distance of 120 NM on the earth.
The same length on the chart will represent on the
earth, at latitude 10°N, a distance of :

4410 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12567A) 206° - 71 198° - 72 026° - 71 018° - 153
What is the average track (°M) and distance between NM NM NM NM
WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and BAL VOR
(N5318.0 W00626.9)?
4411 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12566A) 135° - 96 322° - 95 142° - 95 315° - 94
What is the average track (°M) and distance between NM NM NM NM
CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5) and WTD NDB
(N5211.3 W00705.0)?
4412 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12565A) 177° - 92 357° - 89 169° - 91 349° - 90
What is the average track (°M) and distance between NM NM NM NM
CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) and CRN NDB
(N5318.1 W00856.5)?
4413 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12564A) 090° - 91 270° - 89 098° - 90 278° - 90
What is the average track (°M) and distance between NM NM NM NM
WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and KER NDB
(N5210.9 W00931.5)?
4414 61 0 0 0 1
Given: 12 NM 21 NM 22 NM 14 NM
Direct Mercator chart with a scale of 1 : 200 000 at
equator;
Chart length from 'A' to 'B', in the vicinity of the equator,
11 cm.
What is the approximate distance from 'A' to 'B'?
4415 61 1 0 0 0
What is the highest latitude listed below at which the 0° 23° 45° 66°
sun will reach an altitude of 90° above the horizon at
4416 61 some time during the year? 0 1 0 0
What is the meaning of the term "standard time" ? It is the time It is an It is another It is the time
zone system expression term for set by the
applicable for local UTC legal
only in the mean time authorities
USA for a country
or part of a
country

4417 61 0 0 0 1
 Given: S41°10' S41°10' S48°50' S48°50'
The coordinates of the heliport at Issy les Moulineaux W177°43.5' E177°43.5' W177°43.5' E177°43.5'
are:
N48°50' E002°16.5'
The coordinates of the antipodes are :
4418 61 0 0 1 0
How many NM would an aircraft travel in 1 MIN 45 SEC 2.36 3.25 39.0 3.94
4419 61 if GS is 135 kt? 0 0 0 1
Given: 120° 130° 145° 115°
Course 040°(T),
TAS is 120 kt,
Wind speed 30 kt.
Maximum drift angle will be obtained for a wind
direction of:
4420 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 120 kt 132 kt 141 kt 102 kt
IAS 120 kt,
FL 80,
OAT +20°C.
What is the TAS?
4421 61 0 0 1 0
Given: 340°/25 kt 340°/98 kt 155°/25 kt 160°/50 kt
Compass Heading 090°,
Deviation 2°W,
Variation 12°E,
TAS 160 kt.
Whilst maintaining a radial 070° from a VOR station,
the aircraft flies a ground distance of 14 NM in 6 MIN.
What is the W/V °(T)?

4422 61 0 0 0 1
Given: 27500 FT 31000 FT 33500 FT 26000 FT
Pressure Altitude 29000 FT,
OAT -55°C.
Calculate the Density Altitude?
4423 61 1 0 0 0
Given: 025°/45 kt 020°/95 kt 025°/47 kt 200°/95 kt
M 0.80,
OAT -50°C,
FL 330,
GS 490 kt,
VAR 20°W,
Magnetic heading 140°,
Drift is 11° Right.
Calculate the true W/V?

4424 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 0.76 0.78 0.81 0.84
TAS 487kt,
FL 330,
Temperature ISA + 15.
Calculate the MACH Number?
4425 61 0 0 1 0
4426 61 What is the ISA temperature value at FL 330? -56°C -66°C -81°C -50°C 0 0 0 1
When an aircraft on a westerly heading on the northern lag behind indicate a to turn faster indicate a
hemisphere accelerates, the effect of the acceleration the turning turn towards than the turn towards
error causes the magnetic compass to: rate of the the south actual the north
aircraft turning rate
of the
aircraft
4427 61 0 0 0 1
 When is the magnetic compass most effective? In the region On the About In the region
of the geographic midway of the
magnetic equator between the magnetic
North Pole. magnetic South Pole.
poles

4428 61 0 0 1 0
Given: 7°R - 487 kt 6°L - 487 kt 7°R - 491 kt 7°L - 491 kt
TAS = 472 kt,
True HDG = 005°,
W/V = 110°(T)/50kt.
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
4429 61 0 1 0 0
What is the local mean time, position 65°25'N 123°45'W 2200 0615 0815 1345
4430 61 at 2200 UTC? 0 0 0 1
An aircraft flies the following rhumb line tracks and 04°00'N 03°58'N 04°00'N 04°00'N
distances 030°00'W 030°02'W 029°58'W 030°02'W
from position 04°00'N 030°00'W :
600 NM South,
then 600 NM East,
then 600 NM North,
then 600 NM West.
The final position of the aircraft is:
4431 61 0 0 1 0
Isogrives are lines that connect positions that have: the same O° magnetic the same the same
variation dip grivation horizontal
magnetic
field strength

4432 61 0 0 1 0
An aircraft flies a great circle track from 56° N 070° W to 1788 NM 2040 NM 3720 NM 5420 NM
62° N 110° E.
4433 61 The total distance travelled is? 0 0 1 0
An aircraft travels 2.4 statute miles in 47 seconds. 209 kt 131 kt 160 kt 183 kt
What is its groundspeed?
4434 61 0 0 1 0
How long will it take to fly 5 NM at a groundspeed of 0 MIN 34 1 MIN 07 1 MIN 55 2 MIN 30
4435 61 269 Kt ? SEC SEC SEC SEC 0 1 0 0
4436 61 730 FT/MIN equals: 5.2 m/sec 1.6 m/sec 2.2 m/sec 3.7 m/sec 0 0 0 1
4437 61 265 US-GAL equals? (Specific gravity 0.80) 862 kg 895 kg 940 kg 803 kg 0 0 0 1
Given: 9°R - 143 kt 9°L - 146 kt 18°R - 146 16°L - 156 kt
TAS = 140 kt, kt
True HDG = 302°,
W/V = 045°(T)/45kt
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
4438 61 0 0 0 1
Given: 4°L - 314 kt 4°R - 310 kt 4°R - 314 kt 4°L - 310 kt
TAS = 290 kt,
True HDG = 171°,
W/V = 310°(T)/30kt
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
4439 61 1 0 0 0
Given: GS = 135 kt. 3 HR 20 3 HR 12 3 HR 25 3 HR 19
Distance from A to B = 433 NM. MIN MIN MIN MIN
4440 61 What is the time from A to B? 0 1 0 0
The angular difference, on a Lambert conformal conic difference in map earth conversion
chart, between the arrival and departure track is equal longitude convergence convergence angle
4441 61 to: 0 1 0 0
 Given: 0810 UTC 0716 UTC 0736 UTC 0730 UTC
True course A to B = 250°
Distance A to B = 315 NM
TAS = 450 kt.
W/V = 200°/60kt.
ETD A = 0650 UTC.
What is the ETA at B?
4442 61 0 0 1 0
An Agonic line is a line that connects: positions positions points of points of
that have 0° that have equal equal
variation the same magnetic dip magnetic
variation horizontal
field strength

4443 61 1 0 0 0
Parallels of latitude, except the equator, are: Rhumb lines Great circles both Rhumb are neither
lines and Rhumb lines
Great circles nor Great
circles

4444 61 1 0 0 0
Given: GS = 510 kt. 6 7 5 4
Distance A to B = 43 NM
4445 61 What is the time (MIN) from A to B? 0 0 1 0
Given: 089° 091° 100° 101°
true track 070°
variation 30°W
deviation +1°
drift 10°R
Calculate the compass heading?
4446 61 1 0 0 0
The angle between True North and Magnetic North is drift variation deviation compass
4447 61 called : error 0 1 0 0
Given: GS = 122 kt. 8 HR 10 8 HR 04 7 HR 48 7 HR 49
Distance from A to B = 985 NM. MIN MIN MIN MIN
4448 61 What is the time from A to B? 0 1 0 0
What is the value of the magnetic dip at the magnetic 0° 90° 45° 60°
4449 61 south pole ? 0 1 0 0
Given: GS = 236 kt. 1 HR 40 1 HR 30 1 HR 09 1 HR 10
Distance from A to B = 354 NM MIN MIN MIN MIN
4450 61 What is the time from A to B? 0 1 0 0
Given: GS = 435 kt. 4 HR 10 4 HR 25 3 HR 25 3 HR 26
Distance from A to B = 1920 NM. MIN MIN MIN MIN
4451 61 What is the time from A to B? 0 1 0 0
Given: GS = 345 kt. 11 HR 00 11 HR 02 10 HR 19 10 HR 05
Distance from A to B = 3560 NM. MIN MIN MIN MIN
4452 61 What is the time from A to B? 0 0 1 0
Given: GS = 480 kt. 11 HR 07 11 HR 15 11 HR 10 11 HR 06
Distance from A to B = 5360 NM. MIN MIN MIN MIN
4453 61 What is the time from A to B? 0 0 1 0
Given: GS = 95 kt. 5 HR 03 4 HR 59 5 HR 00 5 HR 08
Distance from A to B = 480 NM. MIN MIN MIN MIN
4454 61 What is the time from A to B? 1 0 0 0
Given: GS = 105 kt. 00 HR 58 01 HR 01 00 HR 59 00 HR 57
Distance from A to B = 103 NM. MIN MIN MIN MIN
4455 61 What is the time from A to B? 0 0 1 0
Given: 3°R - 470 kt 5°L - 475 kt 5°R - 475 kt 5°L - 470 kt
TAS = 470 kt,
True HDG = 317°
W/V = 045°(T)/45kt
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
4456 61 0 0 0 1
 At a specific location, the value of magnetic variation: depends on depends on depends on varies slowly
the type of the magnetic the true over time
compass heading heading
installed
4457 61 0 0 0 1
Given: 6L - 256kt 6R - 251kt 8R - 259kt 6R - 259kt
TAS = 270 kt,
True HDG = 270°,
Actual wind 205°(T)/30kt,
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
4458 61 0 0 0 1
Given: 065°(T) / 70 050°(T) / 70 040°(T) / 055°(T) /
FL120, kt. kt. 105 kt. 105 kt .
OAT is ISA standard,
CAS is 200 kt,
Track is 222°(M),
Heading is 215°(M),
Variation is 15°W.
Time to fly 105 NM is 21 MIN.
What is the W/V?

4459 61 0 1 0 0
At latitude 60°N the scale of a Mercator projection is 1 : 16.2 cm 35.6 cm 19.2 cm 17.8 cm
5 000 000. The length on the chart between 'C' N60°
4460 61 E008° and 'D' N60° W008° is: 0 0 0 1
Given : 096° 104° 107° 100°
A is N55° 000°
B is N54° E010°
The average true course of the great circle is 100°.
The true course of the rhumbline at point A is:

4461 61 0 0 0 1
Given: 180 NM 170 NM 165 NM 195 NM
Distance A to B is 360 NM.
Wind component A - B is -15 kt,
Wind component B - A is +15 kt,
TAS is 180 kt.
What is the distance from the equal-time-point to B?

4462 61 0 0 1 0
Given: 373 kt 360 kt 403 kt 354 kt
Half way between two reporting points the navigation
log gives the following information:
TAS 360 kt,
W/V 330°/80kt,
Compass heading 237°,
Deviation on this heading -5°,
Variation 19°W.
What is the average ground speed for this leg?

4463 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use appendix ) 1302 UTC 1257 UTC 1300 UTC 1303 UTC
Given:
TAS is120 kt.
ATA 'X' 1232 UTC,
ETA 'Y' 1247 UTC,
ATA 'Y' is 1250 UTC.
What is ETA 'Z'?
4464 61 1 0 0 0
A negative (westerly) magnetic variation signifies that : Compass Compass True North is True North is
North is East North is East of West of
of Magnetic West of Magnetic Magnetic
North Magnetic North North
North
4465 61 0 0 1 0
 In northern hemisphere, during an acceleration in an a heading of a decrease an increase an apparent
easterly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate: East in heading in heading turn to the
South
4466 61 0 1 0 0
Deviation applied to magnetic heading gives: magnetic compass true heading magnetic
4467 61 track heading course 0 1 0 0
The purpose of compass check swing is to: cancel out cancel out measure the cancel out
the the effects of angle the vertical
horizontal the magnetic between component
component fields found Magnetic of the earth's
of the earth's on board the North and magnetic
magnetic aeroplane Compass field
field North

4468 61 0 0 1 0
At what approximate latitude is the length of one minute 30° 45° 0° 90°
of arc along a meridian equal to one NM (1852 m)
4469 61 correct? 0 1 0 0
Isogonals are lines of equal : wind magnetic compass pressure.
4470 61 velocity. variation. deviation. 0 1 0 0
Given: GS = 120 kt. 00 HR 43 00 HR 44 00 HR 45 00 HR 42
Distance from A to B = 84 NM. MIN MIN MIN MIN
4471 61 What is the time from A to B? 0 0 0 1
The distance between positions A and B is 180 NM. An 8° Right 2° Left 4° Right 6° Right
aircraft departs position A and after having travelled 60
NM, its position is pinpointed 4 NM left of the intended
track. Assuming no change in wind velocity, what
alteration of heading must be made in order to arrive at
position B?
4472 61 0 0 0 1
An aircraft at FL290 is required to commence descent 1800 1900 2000 1700
when 50 NM from a VOR and to cross that VOR at FT/MIN FT/MIN FT/MIN FT/MIN
FL80.
Mean GS during descent is 271kt.
What is the minimum rate of descent required?

4473 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 190 º/63 kt 355 º/15 kt 195 º/61 kt 195 º/63 kt
Magnetic track = 315 º,
HDG = 301 º(M),
VAR = 5ºW,
TAS = 225 kt,
The aircraft flies 50 NM in 12 MIN.
Calculate the W/V(°T)?
4474 61 1 0 0 0
Assuming zero wind, what distance will be covered by 16.0 NM 26.7 NM 19.2 NM 38.4 NM
an aircraft descending 15000 FT with a TAS of 320 kt
and maintaining a rate of descent of 3000 FT/MIN?
4475 61 0 1 0 0
A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the 011°E 009°36'E 008°E 019°E
cone of 0.80.
A straight line course drawn on this chart from A (53°N
004°W) to B is 080° at A; course at B is 092°(T).
What is the longitude of B?

4476 61 1 0 0 0
Given: 21 kt 24 kt 27 kt 18 kt
Runway direction 305°(M),
Surface W/V 260°(M)/30 kt.
Calculate the cross-wind component?
4477 61 1 0 0 0
 An aircraft at FL350 is required to commence descent 1800 1900 1600 1700
when 85 NM from a VOR and to cross the VOR at FT/MIN FT/MIN FT/MIN FT/MIN
FL80.
The mean GS for the descent is 340 kt.
What is the minimum rate of descent required?

4478 61 1 0 0 0
An island is observed by weather radar to be 15° to the 088° 122° 268° 302°
left.
The aircraft heading is 120°(M) and the magnetic
variation 17°W.
What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island?

4479 61 0 0 1 0
During a low level flight 2 parallel roads that are drift groundspee position track
crossed at right angles by an aircraft. The time between d
these roads can be used to check the aircraft:
4480 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 0.44 0.39 0.40 0.42
FL250,
OAT -15 ºC,
TAS 250 kt.
Calculate the Mach No.?
4481 61 0 0 1 0
Given: 290 kt 246 kt 250 kt 186 kt
TAS = 220 kt;
Magnetic course = 212 º,
W/V 160 º(M)/ 50kt,
Calculate the GS?
4482 61 0 0 0 1
An aircraft travels 100 statute miles in 20 MIN, how long 90 MIN 80 MIN 50 MIN 100 MIN
4483 61 does it take to travel 215 NM? 0 0 1 0
Given: 9°R - 533 kt 7°R - 531 kt 9°R - 433 kt 8°L - 435 kt
TAS = 485 kt,
True HDG = 226°,
W/V = 110°(T)/95kt.
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
4484 61 1 0 0 0
Which of the following statements concerning earth An isogonal An isogonal An isogonal An isogonal
magnetism is completely correct? is a line is a line is a line is a line
which which which which
connects connects connects connects
places of places with places with places with
equal dip; the same the same the same
the aclinic is magnetic magnetic magnetic
the line of variation; the variation; the variation; the
zero aclinic aclinic is the agonic line
magnetic dip connects line of zero is the line of
places with magnetic dip zero
the same magnetic dip
magnetic
field strength

4485 61 0 0 1 0
Given: 40 NM 74 NM 100 NM 4 NM
Chart scale is 1 : 1 850 000.
The chart distance between two points is 4 centimetres.
Earth distance is approximately :

4486 61 1 0 0 0
 The Earth can be considered as being a magnet with red pole blue pole red pole blue pole
the: near the near the near the near the
north pole of north pole of north pole of north pole of
the earth the earth the earth the earth
and the and the and the and the
direction of direction of direction of direction of
the magnetic the magnetic the magnetic the magnetic
force force force force
pointing pointing pointing pointing
straight straight up straight up straight
down to the from the from the down to the
earth's earth's earth's earth's
surface surface surface surface

4487 61 0 0 0 1
Complete the following statement regarding magnetic magnetic magnetic a reducing an
variation. pole pole field strength increasing
The charted values of magnetic variation on earth movement movement causing field strength
normally change annually due to: causing causing numerical causing
numerical numerical values at all numerical
values at all values at all locations to values at all
locations to locations to decrease. locations to
increase or increase. increase.
decrease

4488 61 1 0 0 0
Which one of the following is an advantage of a remote It eliminates It is more It senses the It is lighter
reading compass as compared with a standby the effect of reliable magnetic than a direct
compass? turning and because it is meridian reading
acceleration operated instead of compass
errors by electrically seeking it, because it
pendulously and power is increasing employs,
suspending always compass apart from
the detector available sensitivity the detector
unit from unit, existing
sources aircraft
within the equipment
aircraft

4489 61 0 0 1 0
Which of the following statements is correct concerning Turning Turning Turning Turning
the effect of turning errors on a direct reading errors are errors are errors are errors are
compass? greatest on greatest on greatest on greatest on
east/west north/south east/west north/south
headings, headings, headings, headings,
and are and are and are and are
greatest at greatest at least at high least at high
high high latitudes latitudes
latitudes latitudes

4490 61 0 1 0 0
Which of the following is an occasion for carrying out a Before an After any of Whenever After an
compass swing on a Direct Reading Compass? aircraft goes the aircraft an aircraft aircraft has
on any flight radio carries a passed
that involves equipment large freight through a
a large has been load severe
change of changed regardless electrical
magnetic due to of its content storm, or
latitude unserviceabi has been
lity struck by
lightning

4491 61 0 0 0 1
 The parallels on a Lambert Conformal Conic chart are straight lines parabolic hyperbolic arcs of
represented by: lines lines concentric
4492 61 circles 0 0 0 1
The main reason that day and night, throughout the inclination of earth's relative gravitational
year, have different duration, is due to the: the ecliptic rotation speed of the effect of the
to the sun along sun and
equator the ecliptic moon on the
speed of
rotation of
the earth
4493 61 1 0 0 0
An aircraft departing A(N40º 00´ E080º 00´) flies a N40º 00´ N40º 00´ N40º 00´ N40º 00´
constant true track of 270º at a ground speed of 120 kt. E068º 10´ E064º 20´ E070º 30´ E060º 00´
What are the coordinates of the position reached in 6
HR?

4494 61 0 1 0 0
The lines on the earth's surface that join points of equal isogrives isoclines isogonals isotachs
4495 61 magnetic variation are called: 0 0 1 0
An island appears 30° to the left of the centre line on an 234° 038° 054° 318°
airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing
of the aircraft from the island if at the time of
observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading of
276° with the magnetic variation 12°W?
4496 61 0 0 1 0
At the magnetic equator, when accelerating after take underreads indicates a indicates the overreads
off on heading West, a direct reading compass : the heading turn to the correct the heading
4497 61 south heading 0 0 1 0
The ICAO definition of ETA is the: actual time estimated estimated estimated
of arrival at time of time en time of
a point or fix arrival at an route arrival at
en-route destination
point or fix
4498 61 0 0 0 1
An aircraft at FL350 is required to descend to cross a 69 NM 79 NM 49 NM 59 NM
DME facility at FL80.
Maximum rate of descent is 1800 FT/MIN and mean GS
for descent is 276 kt.
The minimum range from the DME at which descent
should start is:
4499 61 1 0 0 0
Given: 4°L - 145 kt 8°L - 146 kt 7°L - 156 kt 4°L - 168 kt
TAS = 190 kt,
True HDG = 085°,
W/V = 110°(T)/50kt.
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
4500 61 0 1 0 0
The term drift refers to the wander of the axis of a gyro the vertical any plane the the vertical
in: and horizontal plane
horizontal plane
plane
4501 61 0 0 1 0
An aircraft at FL370 is required to commence descent 1650 2400 1000 1550
when FT/MIN FT/MIN FT/MIN FT/MIN
100 NM from a DME facility and to cross the station at
FL120.
If the mean GS during the descent is 396 kt, the
minimum
rate of descent required is approximately:
4502 61 1 0 0 0
 An aircraft at FL140, IAS 210 kt, OAT -5°C and wind 15 kt 20 kt 25 kt 30 kt
component minus 35 kt, is required to reduce speed in
order to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than
planned.
Assuming that flight conditions do not change, when
150 NM from the reporting point the IAS should be
reduced by:
4503 61 0 1 0 0
An aircraft at FL370 is required to commence descent 860 FT/MIN 890 FT/MIN 920 FT/MIN 960 FT/MIN
at 120 NM from a VOR and to cross the facility at
FL130. If the mean GS for the descent is 288 kt, the
minimum rate of descent required is:
4504 61 0 0 0 1
An aircraft at FL310, M0.83, temperature -30°C, is M0.74 M0.76 M0.78 M0.80
required to reduce speed in order to cross a reporting
point five minutes later than planned.
Assuming that a zero wind component remains
unchanged, when 360 NM from the reporting point
Mach Number should be reduced to:
4505 61 1 0 0 0
A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the 34°W 36°W 38°W 41°W
cone of 0.75.
The initial course of a straight line track drawn on this
chart from A (40°N 050°W) to B is 043°(T) at A; course
at B is 055°(T).
What is the longitude of B?
4506 61 1 0 0 0
Given: 19 kt 16 kt 13 kt 10 kt
Runway direction 210°(M),
Surface W/V 230°(M)/30kt.
Calculate the cross-wind component?
4507 61 0 0 0 1
At 0422 an aircraft at FL370, GS 320kt, 0451 0454 0445 0448
is on the direct track to VOR 'X' 185 NM distant.
The aircraft is required to cross VOR 'X' at FL80.
For a mean rate of descent of 1800 FT/MIN at a mean
GS of 232 kt,
the latest time at which to commence descent is:

4508 61 0 0 1 0
An aircraft at FL330 is rerquired to commence descent 1850 1950 1650 1750
when 65 NM from a VOR and to cross the VOR at FT/MIN FT/MIN FT/MIN FT/MIN
FL100.
The mean GS during the descent is 330 kt.
What is the minimum rate of descent required?

4509 61 0 1 0 0
An aircraft obtains a relative bearing of 315° from an 60 NM 30 NM 40 NM 50 NM
NDB at 0830. At 0840 the relative bearing from the
same position is 270°.
Assuming no drift and a GS of 240 kt, what is the
approximate range from the NDB at 0840?
4510 61 0 0 1 0
4511 61 The equivalent of 70 m/sec is approximately: 136 kt 145 kt 210 kt 35 kt 1 0 0 0
A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 30 NM and 30 NM and 40 NM and 40 NM and
325° and five minutes later on a relative bearing of 060° 240° 110° 290°
280°. The aircraft heading was 165°(M), variation 25°W,
drift 10°Right and GS 360 kt. When the relative bearing
was 280°, the distance and true bearing of the aircraft
from the feature was:

4512 61 0 1 0 0
On a chart, the distance along a meridian between 1 : 185 000 1 : 18 500 1 : 1 850 1 : 1 000
latitudes 45°N and 46°N is 6 cm. The scale of the chart 000 000 000
4513 61 is approximately: 0 0 1 0
 An aircraft at FL120, IAS 200kt, OAT -5° and wind 174 kt 159 kt 165 kt 169 kt
component +30kt, is required to reduce speed in order
to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than planned.
Assuming flight conditions do not change, when 100
NM from the reporting point IAS should be reduced to:

4514 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 27 kt 31 kt 34 kt 24 kt
Runway direction 083°(M),
Surface W/V 035/35kt.
Calculate the effective headwind component?
4515 61 0 0 0 1
Approximately how many nautical miles correspond to 130 150 329 43
12 cm on a map with a scale of 1 : 2 000 000?
4516 61 1 0 0 0
An aircraft at FL350 is required to cross a VOR/DME 1340 1390 1240 1290
facility at FT/MIN FT/MIN FT/MIN FT/MIN
FL110 and to commence descent when 100 NM from
the facility.
If the mean GS for the descent is 335 kt, the minimum
rate of
descent required is:
4517 61 1 0 0 0
An aircraft at FL370, M0.86, OAT -44°C, headwind M0.73 M0.75 M0.79 M0.81
component 110 kt, is required to reduce speed in order
to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than planned.
If the speed reduction were to be made 420 NM from
the reporting point, what Mach Number is required?

4518 61 0 0 0 1
Given: 18 kt and 20 kt and 12 kt and 15 kt and
For take-off an aircraft requires a headwind component 50 kt 40 kt 38 kt 43 kt
of at least 10 kt and has a cross-wind limitation of 35 kt.
The angle between the wind direction and the runway is
60°,
Calculate the minimum and maximum allowable wind
speeds?

4519 61 0 1 0 0
An aircraft at FL390 is required to descend to cross a 68 NM 53 NM 58 NM 63 NM
DME facility at FL70. Maximum rate of descent is 2500
FT/MIN, mean GS during descent is 248 kt. What is the
minimum range from the DME at which descent should
commence?
4520 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 328° 322° 316° 326°
An aircraft is on final approach to runway 32R (322°);
The wind velocity reported by the tower is 350°/20 kt.;
TAS on approach is 95 kt.
In order to maintain the centre line, the aircraft's
heading (°M) should be :

4521 61 1 0 0 0
 (For this question use annex 061-1829A and the data 1344 1341 1354 1348
for 1300 UTC)
1300 UTC DR position 37°30'N 021°30'W alter heading
PORT SANTO NDB (33°03'N 016°23'W)
TAS 450 kt,
Forecast W/V 360°/30kt.
Calculate the ETA at PORT SANTO NDB?

4522 61 0 0 0 1
What is the ratio between the litre and the US-GAL ? 1 US-GAL 1 litre equals 1 US-GAL 1 litre equals
equals 4.55 4.55 US- equals 3.78 3.78 US-
4523 61 litres GAL litres GAL 0 0 1 0
The sensitivity of a direct reading compass varies: inversely directly with directly with inversely
with the the the vertical with both
vertical horizontal component vertical and
component component of the earth's horizontal
of the earth's of the earth's magnetic components
magnetic magnetic field of the earth's
field field magnetic
field

4524 61 0 1 0 0
What is the final position after the following rhumb line 59°00'N 60°00'N 60°00'N 59°00'N
tracks and distances have been followed from position 090°00'W 090°00'W 030°00'E 060°00'W
60°00'N 030°00'W?
South for 3600 NM,
East for 3600 NM,
North for 3600 NM,
West for 3600 NM.
The final position of the aircraft is:
4525 61 0 1 0 0
In an Inertial Navigation System (INS), Ground Speed from TAS from TAS by by
(GS) is calculated: and W/V and W/V integrating integrating
from Air from RNAV gyro measured
Data data precession acceleration
Computer in N/S and
(ADC) E/W
directions
respectively

4526 61 0 0 0 1
Given: 126 - 320 kt 125 - 318 kt 123 - 320 kt 125 - 322 kt
TAS = 375 kt,
True HDG = 124°,
W/V = 130°(T)/55kt.
Calculate the true track and GS?
4527 61 0 0 1 0
Given: 018° 025° 358° 346°
true track 352°
variation 11° W
deviation is -5°
drift 10°R.
Calculate the compass heading?
4528 61 0 0 1 0
Given : 215 kt 200 kt 210 kt 220 kt
True altitude 9000 FT,
OAT -32°C,
CAS 200 kt.
What is the TAS?
4529 61 0 0 0 1
 Given: less than it the same as greater than randomly
An aircraft is flying a track of 255°(M), was at 2254 it was at it was at different
2254 UTC, it crosses radial 360° from a VOR station, UTC 2254 UTC 2254 UTC than it was
2300 UTC, it crosses radial 330° from the same station. at 2254 UTC
At 2300 UTC, the distance between the aircraft and the
station is :

4530 61 0 1 0 0
The distance between two waypoints is 200 NM, 14 NM 7 NM 0 NM 21 NM
To calculate compass heading, the pilot used 2°E
magnetic variation instead of 2°W.
Assuming that the forecast W/V applied, what will the
off track distance be at the second waypoint?

4531 61 1 0 0 0
The scale on a Lambert conformal conic chart : is constant is constant varies is constant
along a across the slightly as a along a
meridian of whole map function of parallel of
longitude latitude and latitude
longitude
4532 61 0 0 0 1
5 HR 20 MIN 20 SEC corresponds to a longitude 75°00' 78°45' 80°05' 81°10'
4533 61 difference of: 0 0 1 0
The Local Mean Time at longitude 095°20'W, at 0000 1738:40 0621:20 1738:40 0621:20
UTC, is : same day same day previous day previous day
4534 61 0 0 1 0
Isogonic lines connect positions that have: the same the same 0° variation the same
angle of variation elevation
magnetic dip
4535 61 0 1 0 0
4536 61 The circumference of the earth is approximately: 10800 NM 21600 NM 43200 NM 5400 NM 0 1 0 0
Seasons are due to the: Earth's variable inclination of Earth's
rotation on distance the polar elliptical
its polar axis between axis with the orbit around
Earth and ecliptic the Sun
Sun plane
4537 61 0 0 1 0
Given: 189 - 370 kt 186 - 370 kt 176 - 370 kt 192 - 370 kt
TAS = 370 kt,
True HDG = 181°,
W/V = 095°(T)/35kt.
Calculate the true track and GS?
4538 61 0 1 0 0
Civil twilight is defined by : sun altitude sun altitude sun upper sun altitude
is 12° below is 18° below edge is 6° below
the celestial the celestial tangential to the celestial
horizon horizon horizon horizon

4539 61 0 0 0 1
Given: 002 - 98 kt 005 - 102 kt 345 - 100 kt 348 - 102 kt
TAS = 125 kt,
True HDG = 355°,
W/V = 320°(T)/30kt.
Calculate the true track and GS?
4540 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 283 - 150 kt 279 - 152 kt 282 - 148 kt 275 - 150 kt
TAS = 135 kt,
HDG (°T) = 278,
W/V = 140/20kt
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?
4541 61 1 0 0 0
 Given: 032 - 425 kt 036 - 435 kt 034 - 445 kt 028 - 415 kt
TAS = 480 kt,
HDG (°T) = 040°,
W/V = 090/60kt.
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?
4542 61 0 0 1 0
Given: 226 - 186 kt 231 - 196 kt 224 - 175 kt 222 - 181 kt
TAS = 155 kt,
HDG (T) = 216°,
W/V = 090/60kt.
Caslculate the Track (°T) and GS?
4543 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 098 - 178 kt 109 - 182 kt 091 - 183 kt 103 - 178 kt
TAS = 170 kt,
HDG(T) = 100°,
W/V = 350/30kt.
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?
4544 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 5R - 207 kt 7R - 204 kt 7L - 269 kt 5L - 255 kt
TAS = 235 kt,
HDG (T) = 076°
W/V = 040/40kt.
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
4545 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 5L - 385 kt 4L - 415 kt 2L - 420 kt 6L - 395 kt
TAS = 440 kt,
HDG (T) = 349°
W/V = 040/40kt.
Calculate the drift and GS?
4546 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 294° 278° 306° 322°
True course 300°
drift 8°R
variation 10°W
deviation -4°
Calculate the compass heading?
4547 61 0 0 1 0
Given: 4L - 400 kt 6L - 400 kt 8L - 415 kt 3L - 415 kt
TAS = 465 kt,
HDG (T) = 124°,
W/V = 170/80kt.
Calculate the drift and GS?
4548 61 0 0 1 0
Given: 3°L - 166 kt 4°R - 165 kt 2°R - 166 kt 4°L - 167 kt
TAS = 132 kt,
True HDG = 257°
W/V = 095°(T)/35kt.
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
4549 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 9°W 21°W 25°W 5°W
True track 180°
Drift 8°R
Compass heading 195°
Deviation -2°
Calculate the variation?
4550 61 0 1 0 0
On a Mercator chart, at latitude 60°N, the distance 1 : 2 780 1 : 278 000 1 : 5 560 1 : 556 000
measured between W002° and E008° is 20 cm. The 000 000
scale of this chart at latitude 60°N is approximately:
4551 61 1 0 0 0
An aircraft takes-off from an airport 2 hours before 115 NM 105 NM 84 NM 97 NM
sunset. The pilot flies a track of 090°(T), W/V 130°/ 20
kt, TAS 100 kt. In order to return to the point of
departure before sunset, the furthest distance which
may be travelled is:
4552 61 0 0 0 1
 Assume a Mercator chart. 60° N or S 30° N or S 0° 45° N or S
The distance between positions A and B, located on the
same parallel and 10° longitude apart, is 6 cm. The
scale at the parallel is 1 : 9 260 000.
What is the latitude of A and B?
4553 61 1 0 0 0
On a Lambert chart (standard parallels 37°N and 65°N), great circle great circle great circle rhumb line is
with respect to the straight line drawn on the map and rhumb and rhumb is to the to the north,
between A ( N49° W030°) and B (N48° W040°), the: line are to line are to north, the the great
the south the north rhumb line is circle is to
to the south the south

4554 61 1 0 0 0
A direct Mercator graticule is based on a projection that spherical concentric cylindrical conical
4555 61 is : 0 0 1 0
Given: 14 720 FT 15 280 FT 15 840 FT 14 160 FT
Aircraft at FL 150 overhead an airport
Elevation of airport 720 FT.
QNH is 1003 hPa.
OAT at FL150 -5°C.
What is the true altitude of the aircraft?
(Assume 1 hPa = 27 FT)
4556 61 0 1 0 0
An aircraft takes off from the aerodrome of BRIOUDE 6 400 FT 6 800 FT 6 000 FT 4 000 FT
(altitude 1 483 FT, QFE = 963 hPa, temperature =
32°C).
Five minutes later, passing 5 000 FT on QFE, the
second altimeter set on 1 013 hPa will indicate
approximately :
4557 61 1 0 0 0
Given : 75 kt 60 kt 40 kt 90 kt
ETA to cross a meridian is 2100 UTC
GS is 441 kt
TAS is 491 kt
At 2010 UTC, ATC requests a speed reduction to cross
the meridian at 2105 UTC.
The reduction to TAS will be approximately:
4558 61 0 0 1 0
The flight log gives the following data : 117°, 4°L, 125°, 2°R, 119°, 3°L, 115°, 5°R,
"True track, Drift, True heading, Magnetic variation, 121°, 1°E, 123°, 2°W, 122°, 2°E, 120°, 3°W,
Magnetic heading, Compass deviation, Compass 122°, -3°, 121°, -4°, 120°, +4°, 123°, +2°,
heading" 119° 117° 116° 121°
The right solution, in the same order, is :

4559 61 0 0 1 0
Given : 52 NM and 60 NM and 60 NM and 30 NM and
Position 'A' N60 W020, 60 NM 30 NM 52 NM 60 NM
Position 'B' N60 W021,
Position 'C' N59 W020.
What are, respectively, the distances from A to B and
from A to C?
4560 61 0 0 0 1
Concerning direct reading magnetic compasses, in the on an on a on a on an
northern hemisphere, it can be said that : Easterly Westerly Westerly Easterly
heading, a heading, a heading, a heading, a
longitudinal longitudinal longitudinal longitudinal
acceleration acceleration deceleration acceleration
causes an causes an causes an causes an
apparent apparent apparent apparent
turn to the turn to the turn to the turn to the
South South North North

4561 61 0 0 0 1
 Given: 134 - 178 kt 134 - 188 kt 120 - 190 kt 128 - 180 kt
TAS = 225 kt,
HDG (°T) = 123°,
W/V = 090/60kt.
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?
4562 61 1 0 0 0
Compass deviation is defined as the angle between: True North the Magnetic True North
and horizontal North and and
Compass and the total Compass Magnetic
North intensity of North North
the earth's
magnetic
field

4563 61 0 0 1 0
At 0020 UTC an aircraft is crossing the 310° radial at 40 080° - 226 kt 088° - 232 kt 085° - 226 kt 090° - 232 kt
NM of a VOR/DME station.
At 0035 UTC the radial is 040° and DME distance is 40
NM.
Magnetic variation is zero.
The true track and ground speed are :
4564 61 0 0 1 0
A straight line on a chart 4.89 cm long represents 185 1 : 5 000 1 : 7 000 1 : 3 500 1 : 6 000
NM. 000 000 000 000
4565 61 The scale of this chart is approximately : 0 1 0 0
From the departure point, the distance to the point of inversely inversely proportional inversely
equal time is : proportional proportional to the sum proportional
to ground to the sum of ground to the total
speed back of ground speed out distance to
speed out and ground go
and ground speed back
speed back
4566 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 036° and 052° and 056° and 055° and
Required course 045°(M); 151 kt 154 kt 137 kt 147 kt
Variation is 15°E;
W/V is 190°(T)/30 kt;
CAS is 120 kt at FL 55 in standard atmosphere.
What are the heading (°M) and GS?
4567 61 0 0 0 1
Given: 6°R - 259 kt 6°L - 256 kt 6°R - 251 kt 8°R - 261 kt
TAS = 270 kt,
True HDG = 145°,
Actual wind = 205°(T)/30kt.
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
4568 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 1680 FT 320 FT 680 FT - 320 FT
Airport elevation is 1000 ft.
QNH is 988 hPa.
What is the approximate airport pressure altitude?
(Assume 1 hPa = 27 FT)

4569 61 1 0 0 0
Given: 25 kt 33 kt 31 kt 26 kt
Maximum allowable crosswind component is 20 kt.
Runway 06, RWY QDM 063°(M).
Wind direction 100°(M)
Calculate the maximum allowable windspeed?

4570 61 0 1 0 0
The circumference of the parallel of latitude at 60°N is 18 706 NM 20 000 NM 34 641 NM 10 800 NM
4571 61 approximately: 0 0 0 1
 Given: 31 kt 36 kt 21 kt 26 kt
Runway direction 230°(T),
Surface W/V 280°(T)/40 kt.
Calculate the effective cross-wind component?
4572 61 1 0 0 0
Given: 180/10kt 180/05kt 000/05kt 000/10kt
True HDG = 206°,
TAS = 140 kt,
Track (T) = 207°,
GS = 135 kt.
Calculate the W/V?
4573 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 8R - 104 kt 9R - 108 kt 10L - 104 kt 9L - 105 kt
TAS = 95 kt,
HDG (T) = 075°,
W/V = 310/20kt.
Calculate the drift and GS?
4574 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 312 - 232 kt 311 - 230 kt 313 - 235 kt 310 - 233 kt
TAS = 227 kt,
Track (T) = 316°,
W/V = 205/15kt.
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?
4575 61 1 0 0 0
Given: 179 - 220 kt 181 - 180 kt 180 - 183 kt 180 - 223 kt
TAS = 198 kt,
HDG (°T) = 180,
W/V = 359/25.
Calculate the Track(°T) and GS?
4576 61 0 0 0 1
Given: 075 - 213 kt 077 - 210 kt 077 - 214 kt 079 - 211 kt
TAS = 200 kt,
Track (T) = 073°,
W/V = 210/20kt.
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?
4577 61 0 0 1 0
Given: 097 - 201 kt 099 - 199 kt 121 - 207 kt 121 - 199 kt
TAS = 200 kt,
Track (T) = 110°,
W/V = 015/40kt.
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?
4578 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 262 - 237 kt 264 - 241 kt 264 - 237 kt 262 - 241 kt
TAS = 270 kt,
Track (T) = 260°,
W/V = 275/30kt.
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?
4579 61 0 0 0 1
Given: 265/30kt 260/30kt 257/35kt 255/25kt
True HDG = 307°,
TAS = 230 kt,
Track (T) = 313°,
GS = 210 kt.
Calculate the W/V?
4580 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 105/75kt 110/75kt 115/70kt 110/80kt
True HDG = 233°,
TAS = 480 kt,
Track (T) = 240°,
GS = 523 kt.
Calculate the W/V?
4581 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 305 - 169 kt 309 - 170 kt 309 - 141 kt 301 - 169 kt
TAS = 155 kt,
Track (T) = 305°,
W/V = 160/18kt.
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?
4582 61 0 0 0 1
 Given: 180/40kt 180/35kt 180/30kt 185/35kt
True HDG = 074°,
TAS = 230 kt,
Track (T) = 066°,
GS = 242 kt.
Calculate the W/V?
4583 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 002 - 173 kt 359 - 166 kt 357 - 168 kt 001 - 170 kt
TAS = 130 kt,
Track (T) = 003°,
W/V = 190/40kt.
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?
4584 61 0 0 0 1
Given: 010/45kt 010/50kt 005/50kt 010/55kt
True HDG = 054°,
TAS = 450 kt,
Track (T) = 059°,
GS = 416 kt.
Calculate the W/V?
4585 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 360/35kt 180/35kt 295/35kt 115/35kt
True HDG = 145°,
TAS = 240 kt,
Track (T) = 150°,
GS = 210 kt.
Calculate the W/V?
4586 61 0 0 0 1
Given: 095/25kt 095/20kt 090/15kt 090/20kt
True HDG = 002°,
TAS = 130 kt,
Track (T) = 353°,
GS = 132 kt.
Calculate the W/V?
4587 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 335/55kt 340/45kt 340/50kt 335/45kt
True HDG = 035°,
TAS = 245 kt,
Track (T) = 046°,
GS = 220 kt.
Calculate the W/V?
4588 61 0 0 1 0
Given: 096°, 29 095°, 31 075°, 39 076°, 34
course required = 085° (T), MIN MIN MIN MIN
Forecast W/V 030/100kt,
TAS = 470 kt,
Distance = 265 NM.
Calculate the true HDG and flight time?
4589 61 0 0 1 0
Given: 069° - 448 kt 068° - 460 kt 078° - 450 kt 070° - 453 kt
True course from A to B = 090°,
TAS = 460 kt,
W/V = 360/100kt,
Average variation = 10°E,
Deviation = -2°.
Calculate the compass heading and GS?
4590 61 1 0 0 0
For a landing on runway 23 (227° magnetic) surface 20 kt 22 kt 26 kt 15 kt
W/V reported by the ATIS is 180/30kt.
VAR is 13°E.
Calculate the cross wind component?

4591 61 0 1 0 0
 Given: 033° 007° 359° 337°
true track is 348°,
drift 17° left,
variation 32° W,
deviation 4°E.
What is the compass heading?
4592 61 1 0 0 0
Given: 18 kt 8 kt 15 kt 11 kt
Maximum allowable tailwind component for landing 10
kt.
Planned runway 05 (047° magnetic).
The direction of the surface wind reported by ATIS 210°.
Variation is 17°E.
Calculate the maximum allowable windspeed that can
be accepted without exceeding the tailwind limit?

4593 61 0 0 0 1
Given: 075/50kt 075/45kt 070/40kt 070/45kt
True HDG = 133°,
TAS = 225 kt,
Track (T) = 144°,
GS = 206 kt.
Calculate the W/V?
4594 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 1R - 165 kt 1L - 215 kt 1L - 225 kt 1R - 175 kt
TAS = 190 kt,
HDG (T) = 355°,
W/V = 165/25kt.
Calculate the drift and GS?
4595 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 11R - 142 kt 11R - 140 kt 10R - 146 kt 9R - 140 kt
TAS = 140 kt,
HDG (T) = 005°,
W/V = 265/25kt.
Calculate the drift and GS?
4596 61 0 0 1 0
Given: 358 - 428 kt 001 - 432 kt 000 - 430 kt 357 - 430 kt
TAS = 465 kt,
Track (T) = 007°,
W/V = 300/80kt.
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?
4597 61 1 0 0 0
Given: 175 - 420 kt 175 - 432 kt 174 - 428 kt 173 - 424 kt
TAS = 485 kt,
HDG (T) = 168°,
W/V = 130/75kt.
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?
4598 61 0 0 1 0
Given: 1L - 225 kt 1R - 221 kt 2R - 223 kt 2L - 224 kt
TAS = 230 kt,
HDG (T) = 250°,
W/V = 205/10kt.
Calculate the drift and GS?
4599 61 0 0 1 0
Given: 358 - 101 kt 359 - 102 kt 346 - 102 kt 006 - 95 kt
TAS = 90 kt,
HDG (T) = 355°,
W/V = 120/20kt.
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?
4600 61 0 0 1 0
Given: 057 - 144 kt 052 - 143 kt 051 - 144 kt 050 - 145 kt
TAS = 132 kt,
HDG (T) = 053°,
W/V = 205/15kt.
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?
4601 61 0 0 0 1
 Given: 4L - 195 kt 6L - 194 kt 7L - 192 kt 3L - 190 kt
TAS = 205 kt,
HDG (T) = 180°,
W/V = 240/25kt.
Calculate the drift and GS?
4602 61 0 1 0 0
Given: 1L - 205 kt 1R - 205 kt 1L - 265 kt 1R - 295 kt
TAS = 250 kt,
HDG (T) = 029°,
W/V = 035/45kt.
Calculate the drift and GS?
4603 61 1 0 0 0
 METEOROLOGY

90 2 1\2 hr

Continuous updraughts occur in a thunderstorm during period in cumulus mature dissipating

the which stage. stage. stage.
precipitation
is falling.
3272 50
Which of the following phenomena should be described BCFG FZFG HZ SN
as precipitation at the time they are observed?
3273 50
What prevents air from flowing directly from high- Katabatic The Coriolis Surface
pressure areas to low-pressure areas ? force pressure force friction
gradient
force
3274 50
With an intense trough of low pressure over Iceland strong wind strong wind strong wind light wind,
during wintertime the weather likely to be experienced with associated shear, good
is : subsidence with an convection visibility and
at low levels almost clear and snow a high cloud
sky showers ceiling

3275 50
Select the true statement concerning isobars and wind When the Surface Isobars When the
flow patterns around high- and low-pressure systems isobars are winds flow connect isobars are
that are shown on a surface weather chart. close perpendicul contour lines far apart,
together, the ar to the of equal crest of
pressure isobars. temperature. standing
gradient waves may
force is be marked
greater and by stationary
wind lenticular
velocities clouds.
are stronger.

3276 50
What type of fog is most likely to form over flat land Advection. Steam. Orographic. Radiation.
during a clear night, with calm or light wind conditions ?
3277 50
The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence there are a warm front freezing rain a cold front
that thunderstor has passed occurs at a has passed
ms in the higher
area altitude
3278 50
Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the mature cumulus dissipating period in
stage. stage. stage. which
precipitation
is not falling.

3279 50
3280 50 The most dangerous form of airframe icing is dry ice. rime ice. clear ice. hoar frost.
In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely Cirrus Stratus Snow. Freezing
3281 50 to have the highest rate of accretion ? clouds. clouds. rain.
 What are the differences between radiation fog and Radiation Radiation Radiation Radiation
advection fog ? fog forms fog is fog forms fog forms
due to night formed by due to only on the
cooling and surface surface ground,
advection cooling in a cooling at advection
fog due to calm wind. night in a fog only on
daytime Advection light wind. the sea.
cooling. fog is Advection
formed by fog forms
evaporation when warm
over the humid air
sea. flows over a
cold surface.

3282 50
The geostrophic wind is less than the gradient wind effect of coriolis centrifugal centrifugal
around an anticyclone because the coriolis is effect force is force
added to opposes the added to the opposes the
friction centrifugal pressure pressure
force gradient gradient

3283 50
The geostrophic wind is greater than the gradient wind centrifugal coriolis force coriolis force centrifugal
around a low pressure system because the force is is added to opposes to force
added to the the pressure the opposes the
pressure gradient centrifugal pressure
gradient force gradient

3284 50
The most likely reason for radiation fog to dissipate or increasing an surface a low level
become low stratus is : surface wind increasingly cooling. temperature
speed. stable inversion.
atmosphere.

3285 50
What characterizes a stationary front ? The weather The surface The surface The warm
conditions wind usually wind usually air moves at
that it has its has its approximate
originates is direction direction ly half the
a parallel to perpendicul speed of the
combination the front ar to the cold air
between front
those of an
intense cold
front and
those of a
warm and
very active
front

3286 50
If a saturated air mass descends down a slope its a lower rate the same a lower rate a higher rate
temperature increases at than in dry rate as if the than in dry than in dry
air, as air mass air, as air, as it
evaporation were dry. condensatio gives up
absorbs n gives out latent
heat. heat. evaporation
heat.
3287 50
 How are the air masses distributed in a cold occlusion ? The coldest The coldest The coldest The coldest
air in front of air in front of air behind air mass
and the less and the and the behind and
cold air is warm air warm air in the less cold
behind the behind the front of the air in front of
occlusion; occlusion; occlusion; the
the warm air the less cold the less cold occlusion;
mass is air is above air mass is the warm air
above ground level. above mass is
ground level. ground level. above
ground
level.

3288 50
In the lower part of the stratosphere the temperature decreases increases increases at is almost
with altitude with altitude first and constant
decreases
afterward
3289 50
The thickness of the troposphere varies with longitude rotation of the wind latitude
3290 50 the earth
Half the mass of the atmosphere is found in the first 5 km 3 km 8 km 11 km
3291 50
In an air mass with no clouds the surface temperature is stable unstable a layer of conditionally
15°C and 13°C at 1000m. This layer of air is: heavy unstable
3292 50 turbulence
The degree of clear air turbulence experiencied by an height of the stability of intensity of intensity of
aircraft is proportional to the aircraft the air the solar vertical and
radiation horizontal
windshear
3293 50
An aircraft is flying in the southern hemisphere at low From the left From the left From the From the
altitude (less than 2000 feet) and going directly away and slightly and slightly right and right and
from a centre of low pressure. What direction, relative to on the tail on the nose slightly on slightly on
the aircraft, does the wind come from ? the nose the tail

3294 50
Where does polar continental air originate? The region Siberian Areas of The region
of landmass. arctic water. of the Baltic
3295 50 Greenland. sea.
What is characteristic of the pamperos? A marked Foehn A marked Katabatic
advance of conditions in advance of winds in the
cold arctic the Spanish cold air in Atlas
air in North Pyrenees South Mountains
America America
3296 50
Friction between the air and the ground results in the backing of veering of backing of veering of
northern hemisphere in: the wind and the wind and the wind and the wind and
increase of increase of decrease of decrease of
wind speed wind speed wind speed wind speed
at the at the at the at the
surface. surface. surface. surface.

3297 50
Whilst flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere an It decreases It increases. It remains Without
aircraft experiences right drift. What effect, if any, will constant. knowing the
this have on the aircraft's true altitude ? pressure
change this
question
cannot be
answered.

3298 50
What is the most likely temperature at the tropical -25°C. -75°C. -55°C. -35°C.
3299 50 tropopause?
Which weather condition lowers true altitude as Warm Cold high. Warm high. Cold low.
compared to pressure altitude to a position where flight depression.
3300 50 over mountains could be dangereous?
 In the southern hemisphere what wind effect would you Tailwind with Headwind Wind from Wind from
expect when flying from a high pressure area towards a no drift. with no drift. the right. the left.
low pressure area at FL 100?
3301 50
What degree of turbulence, if any, is likely to be Light Severe Moderate Light
encountered while flying through a cold front in the turbulence in turbulence in turbulence in turbulence
summer over Central Europe at FL 100? ST cloud. CB cloud. NS cloud. in CB cloud.
3302 50
You are flying at 2 500 FT/AGL, with a southerly wind, South- Southwest. South. South-
and intend to land at an airport, at sea level directly southwest. southeast.
below. From approximately which direction would you
expect the surface wind (mid-latitude, northern
hemisphere)?
3303 50
A mountain breeze (katabatic wind) blows up the slope down the up the slope down the
during the slope during during the slope during
day. the day. night. the night.
3304 50
Where is the source of tropical continental air that The Southern Southern The Azores
affects Europe in summer? southern Italy. France. region.
Balkan
region and
the Near
East.
3305 50
A high pressure area (shallow pressure gradient) covers Variable. Parallel to Sea to land. Land to sea.
an area of the Mediterranean Sea and its nearby the
airport. What surface wind direction is likely at the coastline.
airport on a sunny afternoon?
3306 50
In which air mass are extremely low temperatures Arctic Polar Polar Tropical
encountered? maritime air. continental maritime air. continental
3307 50 air. air.
With what type of clouds are showers most likely Stratus. Cumulonimb Stratocumul Nimbostratu
3308 50 associated? us. us. s.
At what time of day, or night, is radiation fog most likely Shortly after At sunset. Late Shortly after
to occur? sunrise. evening. midnight.
3309 50
What is the average vertical extent of radiation fog? 2 000 FT. 5 000 FT. 10 000 FT. 500 FT.
3310 50
When does frontal fog, also known as mixing fog, When very When very When very When very
occur? humid warm humid cold dry cold air humid warm
air meets air meets meets with air meets
with dry cold with dry very dry with very
air. warm air. warm air. humid cold
air.
3311 50
What wind conditions, occuring just before dawn, favour Westerly, 10 Easterly, 10 Calm. Northerly, 10
the formation of fog at an airport where the temperature kt variable. kt. kt.
3312 50 is 15°C and the dew point is 14°C?
Which of the following weather conditions favour the Light wind, Light wind, Strong wind, Light wind,
formation of radiation fog? extensive extensive little or no little or no
cloud, dry cloud, moist cloud, moist cloud, moist
air. air. air. air.
3313 50
What type of fronts are most likely to be present during Cold fronts. Warm fronts, Cold High level
the winter in Central Europe when temperatures close warm occlusions. cold fronts.
to the ground are below 0°C, and freezing rain starts to occlusions.
fall?
3314 50
What are the typical differences between the The air of The North- The air of The North-
temperature and humidity between an air mass with its the Azores is Russian air the Azores is Russian air
origin in the Azores and an air mass with its origin over warmer and is warmer warmer and is colder and
northern Russia ? dryer than and dryer more humid more humid
the North- than the air than the than the air
Russian air. of the North- of the
Azores. Russian air. Azores.

3315 50
 Which of the following clouds may extend into more Altocumulus. Cirrus. Nimbostratu Stratus.
3316 50 than one layer? s.
Which form of precipitation from clouds containing only Moderate Heavy rain Hail. Drizzle.
water is most likely to fall in mid-latitudes? rain with with large
large drops. drops.
3317 50
Which of the following zones is most likely to encounter Occlusions. The north The north Frontal
little or no precipitation? side of the side of the zones.
alps with a alps with a
prevailing prevailing
Foehn from Foehn from
the south. the north.
3318 50
Which of the following is a cause of stratus forming over The release Radiation Unstable air. Convection
flat land? of latent during the during the
heat. night from day.
the earth
surface in
moderate
wind.
3319 50
Which of the following processes within a layer of air Subsidence. Frontal lifting Convection. Radiation.
may lead to the building of CU and CB clouds? within stable
layers.
3320 50
What are the characteristics of cumuliform clouds? Large water Small water Large water Small water
droplets, droplets, droplets, droplets,
instability, stability, no stability, no instability,
turbulence, turbulence turbulence, turbulence,
showers and and showers and extensive
mainly clear extensive mainly rime areas of rain
ice. areas of ice. and rime
rain. ice.

3321 50
Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of ST, CS. SC, NS. CI, SC. CU, CB.
3322 50 unstable air conditions?
Which of the following clouds are classified as medium AS, AC. SC, NS CI, CC. CS, ST.
3323 50 level clouds in temperate regions ?
(For this question use annex 050-1914A) 3. 1. 2. 4.
Which one of the displayed cloud forms is
3324 50 representative of altocumulus castellanus?
Generally northern hemisphere winds at 5000 FT/AGL A strong Stronger The Friction
are southwesterly while most of the surface winds are pressure Coriolis influence of between the
southerly. What is the primary reason of difference gradient at force at the warm air at wind and the
between these two wind directions? higher surface. the lower surface.
altitudes. altitude.
3325 50
A plain in Western Europe with an average elevation of 100 - 1500 1500 - 7000 15000 - 7000 -
500 m (1600 FT) above sea level is covered with a FT above FT above 25000 FT 15000 FT
uniform AC layer of cloud during the summer months. At the terrain. the terrain. above the above the
what height above the ground is the base of this cloud terrain. terrain.
to be expected?
3326 50
What cloud formation is most likely to occur at low Cumulus. Altostratus. Cumulonimb Nimbostratu
levels when a warm air mass overrides a cold air mass? us. s.
3327 50
Which one of the following types of cloud is most likely NS. CS. SC. ST.
3328 50 to produce heavy precipitation ?
What characteristics will the surface winds have in an Strong and Moderate Strong and Very weak
area where the isobars on the weather map are very parallel to and parallel flowing but gusty
close together? the isobars. to the across the and flowing
isobars. isobars. across the
isobars.

3329 50
 Which forces are balanced with geostrophic winds? Pressure Friction Pressure Pressure
gradient force, gradient gradient
force, pressure force, force,
Coriolis gradient Coriolis centrifugal
force. force, force, force,
Coriolis centrifugal friction
force. force. force.
3330 50
How does moderate turbulence affect an aircraft? Continued Changes in Rapid and Large,
flight in this altitude or somewhat abrupt
environment attitude rhythmic changes in
will result in occur but bumpiness altitude or
structural the aircraft is attitude
damage. remains in experienced occur but
positive without the aircraft
control at all appreciable may only be
times. changes in out of
altitude or control
attitude. momentarily.

3331 50
Which degree of aircraft turbulence is determined by Light. Severe. Violent. Moderate.
the following ICAO description?
"There may be moderate changes in aircraft attitude
and/or altitude but the aircraft remains in positive
control at all times. Usually, small variations in air
speed. Changes in accelerometer readings of 0.5 to 1.0
g at the aircraft's center of gravity. Occupants feel strain
against seat belts. Loose objects move about. Food
service and walking are difficult."

3332 50
For an aircraft what are the meteorological dangers Thunderstor Sand up to Hail. Dust and
associated with a Harmattan wind? ms. FL 150. poor
3333 50 visibility.
What is the strong relatively cold katabatic wind, Mistral. Scirocco. Bora. Ghibli.
blowing down the northern Adriatic coast, mainly during
3334 50 the winter and spring called?
In a land- and sea-breeze circulation the land-breeze during the during the during the during the
blows : night and is day and is day and is night and is
weaker than stronger weaker than stronger
the sea- than the the sea- than the
breeze. sea-breeze. breeze. sea-breeze.

3335 50
What is the main composition of clouds classified as Water Water Ice crystals. Supercooled
"high level clouds"? droplets. vapour. water
3336 50 droplets.
Where is a squall line to be expected? In front of an Behind a In front of a At the
active cold cold front. cold front surface
front. occlusion at position of a
higher warm front.
levels.
3337 50
In temperate latitudes what weather conditions may be NS. Calm winds, TS, SH. CB, TS.
expected over land during the summer in the centre of a haze.
3338 50 stationary high pressure zone ?
At what time of the year, are the paths of north Atlantic Summer. Spring. Autumn. Winter.
lows moving from west to east generally at their most
3339 50 southerly position?
What is the relationship between meteorological The met. vis. The met. vis. The met. vis. There is no
visibility (met.vis.) and RVR in homogeneous fog? is generally generally is generally is specific
less than the greater than the same as relationship
RVR. the RVR. the RVR. between the
two.

3340 50
 The wind indicator for a weather observation receives On a mast 1 m above Close to the On the roof
the measured value from an anemometer. Where is this 8-10 m the runway. station about of the
instrument placed? above the 2 m above weather
ground. the ground. station.

3341 50
You are flying with an outside air temperature of -12°C In clouds Over flat Over flat In clouds
and a TAS of 250 kt at FL 150 through 8 oktas NS. pushed up terrain, away terrain, pushed up
What type and degree of icing is most probable? against the from fronts, moderate against the
mountains, moderate to hoar frost. mountains,
moderate to severe moderate to
severe rime mixed ice. severe
ice. mixed ice.
3342 50
You intend to carry out a VFR flight over the Alps, on a Mid-day. Afternoon. Early Morning.
hot summer day, when the weather is unstable. What is evening.
the best time of day to conduct this flight?
3343 50
At what time of the year are tornadoes most likely to Spring, Summer, Autumn, Winter.
3344 50 occur in North America? summer. autumn. winter.
In Central Europe when is the greatest likelihood for Around Early Late Mid -
3345 50 thunderstorms due to warm updrafts? midnight. morning. morning. afternoon.
Which of the following conditions are you most likely to Extreme High cloud Low cloud Severe
encounter when approaching an active warm front at turbulence base, good base and thunderstor
medium to low level ? and severe surface poor ms at low
lightning visibility, and visibility. altitude.
striking the isolated
ground. thunderstor
ms.

3346 50
What are the meteorological prerequisites, at low level, Low Subsidence, High High air
for thunderstorms formed by lifting processes, over temperature inversion. temperature pressure (>
land? s, low s, high 1013 hPa),
humidity. humidity. high
temperature
s.
3347 50
What type of air movement is associated with the centre Divergence Divergence Convergenc Convergenc
line of a trough? with with lifting. e with e with lifting.
descending descending
air. air.
3348 50
What are squall lines? Bands of Unusual The surface The paths of
intensive intensive weather tropical
thunderstor cold fronts. associated revolving
ms. with upper storms.
air troughs.

3349 50
Which weather phenomena are typical for the northern Continuous Decrease in Icing, huge Good
side of the Alps with stormy winds from the south precipitation, temperature, mass of visibility,
(Foehn)? severe moderate to clouds. turbulence.
turbulence. severe icing.

3350 50
What weather is prevalent in the zone of easterly Continuous Clear skies. Frontal Thunderstor
waves? rain. weather. ms and rain.
3351 50
What winds are mainly associated with the winter Southeasterl Northeasterl Southwester Northwesterl
monsoon in the monsoon regions of the Indian sub- y winds y winds ly winds y winds
continent ? carrying bringing dry carrying bringing dry
warm and and hazy air. warm and and hazy air.
humid air. humid air.
3352 50
Which of the following cloud types can project up into Cumulonimb Cirrostratus Altocumulus Altostratus
3353 50 the stratosphere? us
 What is the most likely cause of a lack of clouds at Rising air Instability Divergence Sinking air
higher levels in a stationary high? at higher
3354 50 levels
On which coast of North America, is the danger of SE coast W coast N coast NE coast
3355 50 tropical revolving storms the greatest?
Which of the following phenomena should be described SA TS SQ DZ
as precipitation at the time they are observed?
3356 50
During which stage of thunderstorm development are Cumulus Dissipating Cumulus Mature
rotor winds characterized by roll clouds most likely to stage. stage. stage and stage.
occur ? mature
stage.
3357 50
In which of the following bands of latitude is the 3° - 8°S. 8° - 12°S. 7° - 12°N. 0° - 7°N.
intertropical convergence zone most likely to be
encountered in January, between Dakar and Rio de
Janeiro?
3358 50
Which of the following changes of state is known as Liquid direct Solid direct Solid direct Liquid direct
sublimation? to vapour to vapour to liquid to solid
3359 50
3360 50 The approximate inclined plane of a warm front is: 1/150 1/50 1/300 1/500
What type of low pressure area is associated with a A low on lee Heat low. Polar front A cold air
surface front? side of a low. pool.
3361 50 mountain.
In which approximate direction does the centre of a In the In the In the In the
frontal depression move? direction of direction of direction of direction of
the warm the isobars the sharpest the isobars
sector ahead of the pressure behind the
isobars. warm front. increase. cold front.

3362 50
Where is the coldest air to be found, in an occlusion At the Behind the Ahead of the At the
with cold front characteristics? junction of front. front. surface
the position of
occlusion. the front.
3363 50
What type of front / occlusion usually moves the Warm Cold front. Warm front. Cold
3364 50 fastest? occlusion. occlusion.
Over Central Europe what type of cloud cover is typical CI, CS. Fair weather CU, CB. ST with
of the warm sector of a depression during winter? CU. drizzle.
3365 50
What weather conditions are prevalent during the Rain 8 octas CS, Cloud cover Showers
summer, over the North Sea, approximately 300 km covering a AS without mostly and
behind a quickly moving cold front? large area, 8 precipitation. scattered, thunderstor
octas NS. isolated ms.
showers.

3366 50
What surface weather is associated with a stationary A tendency Thunderstor NS with The
high pressure region over land in the winter? for fog and ms. continuous possibility of
low ST. rain. snow
showers.
3367 50
Which one of the following statements regarding the Thunderstor The ITCZ is The ITCZ Frequent
intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) is correct? ms seldom always does not and
occur within associated change its widespread
the area of with a strong position thunderstor
the ITCZ. jet stream. during the ms are to be
course of expected
the year. within the
area of the
ITCZ.

3368 50
What is the correct term for the descending air flow in a Subsidence. Convergenc Advection. Convection.
3369 50 large high pressure area? e.
 What weather conditions are indications of the summer Stratus Sandstorms. Fog. Thunderstor
monsoon in India? clouds and ms, showers
drizzle. of heavy
rain.

3370 50
After passing at right angles through a very active cold A backing in An increase A decrease A veering in
front in the direction of the cold air, what will you the wind in tailwind. in headwind. the wind
encounter, in the northern hemisphere immediately after direction. direction.
a marked change in temperature?

3371 50
When are the rainy seasons in equatorial Africa? March to December to March to April to July
May and February May and and
October to and July to August to December
November. October. October. to February.

3372 50
Which of the following best describes the intertropical The zone The zone The zone The zone
convergence zone ? where cold where the where the where the
fronts form west winds trade winds Harmattan
in the meet the of the meets the
tropics. subtropical northern northeasterl
high hemisphere y trade
pressure meet those winds over
belt. of the Africa.
southern
hemisphere.

3373 50
What is the likely track for a hurricane in the Carribean West in the West in the East then West deep
area? earlier earlier south. into the
stages and stages and USA.
later turning later turning
south east. north east.
3374 50
During which seasons are hurricanes most likely to Winter. Winter and All seasons. Summer
appear in the northern hemisphere? spring. and autumn.
3375 50
What is encountered during the summer, over land, in Strong Fine Nothing Showers
the centre of a cold air pool? westerly weather CU. (CAVOK). and
winds. thunderstor
ms.
3376 50
How do you recognize a cold air pool? As a high A cold air A cold air As a low
pressure pool may pool may pressure
area aloft only be only be area aloft
(e.g. on the recognized recognized (e.g. on the
500 hPa on the on the 500 hPa
chart). surface surface chart).
chart as a chart as a
low pressure high
area. pressure
area.

3377 50
During a cross-country flight at FL 50, you observe the Decreasing Strong, A strong Increasing
following sequence of clouds: temperature gusty winds. downdraugh temperature
Nimbostratus, Altostratus, Cirrostratus, Cirrus. s. t. s.
Which of the following are you most likely to
encounter ?
3378 50
What is the surface visibility most likely to be, in a warm Very good Moderate Very poor Good
sector of tropical maritime air, during the summer? (greater than (several (less than 1 (greater
50 km). km). km). than 10 km).
3379 50
In which meteorological forecast chart is information 300 hPa Significant 24 hour 500 hPa
about CAT regions found? chart. Weather surface chart.
3380 50 Chart. forecast.
 A parcel of unsaturated air is lifted to just below the It depends The same Higher than Lower than
condensation level and then returned to its original upon the as the the starting the starting
level. What is the final temperature of the parcel of air? QFE. starting temperature. temperature.
temperature.

3381 50
What is the effect of a strong low level inversion ? It promotes It promotes It prevents It results in
vertical extensive vertical good visual
windshear. vertical windshear. conditions.
movement
of air.
3382 50
The temperature at FL 140 is -12°C. What will the -9°C. -15°C. -6°C. -18°C.
temperature be at FL 110 if the ICAO standard lapse
3383 50 rate is applied ?
If atmospheric conditions exist such that the 5900 FT. 5760 FT. 6240 FT. 6000 FT.
temperature deviation is ISA +10°C in the lower
troposphere up to 18000 FT, what is the actual layer
thickness between FL 60 and FL 120 ?
3384 50
Which of the following is a common cause of ground or Terrestrial Warm air The Heating of
surface temperature inversion ? radiation on being lifted movement the air by
a clear night rapidly aloft, of colder air subsidence
with no or in the vicinity under warm
very light of air, or the
winds. mountainous movement
terrain. of warm air
over cold air.

3385 50
At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa -58°C. -54°C. -50°C. -56,5°C.
chart is -48°C; according to the tropopause chart, the
tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely
temperature at FL 350 ?
3386 50
3387 50 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "BKN"? 5 - 7 oktas. 3 - 4 oktas. 6 - 8 oktas. 8 oktas.
When is the RVR reported at most airports? When the When the When the When the
meteorologic RVR RVR meteorologi
al visibility decreases decreases cal visibility
decreases below 800 below 2000 decreases
below 800 m. m. below 1500
m. m.
3388 50
A vertical spacing of 1000 FT, is the standard required Less than It remains More than Without
separation between two FL. Under conditions of cold 1000 FT 1000 FT 1000 FT QNH
air advection (ISA -15°C), what would the true vertical information,
separation be? it can not be
determined

3389 50
What positions are connected with contour lines on the Positions Positions Positions Positions
weather chart? with the with the with the with the
same air same wind same height same
density. velocity. in a chart of thickness
constant between two
pressure. constant
pressure
levels.

3390 50
Several physical processes contribute to atmospheric Solar Absorption Absorption Convection
warming. Which of the following contribute the most ? radiation and and and
and vaporization. evaporation. condensatio
conduction. n.
3391 50
On which of the following aviation weather charts can a Significant Wind / Surface Upper air
pilot most easily find a jetstream? weather temperature chart. chart.
3392 50 chart. chart.
 How may the correct wind speed be found, for a level, By reading By By simple By reading
which is between two upper air chart levels? (e.g. wind wind interpolation interpolation wind
at FL 250, when the 500 hPa and the 300 hPa chart are direction and of the wind of wind direction
available). speed from information information and speed
the 300 hPa available available from the
chart. from the two from the two next higher
charts, while charts. chart.
also
considering
the
maximum
wind
information
found on the
Significant
Weather
Chart.

3393 50
Why are indications about the height of the tropopause The The The Tropopause
not essential for flight documentation in the tropics? tropopause meteorologic temperature informations
is generally al services s of the are of no
well above are unable tropical value.
the flight to provide tropopause
level actually such a chart. are always
flown. very cold
and
therefore not
important.

3394 50
In the TAF for Dehli, during the summer, for the time of 20 minutes. 60 minutes. 120 minutes. 10 minutes.
your landing you note: TEMPO TS. What is the
maximum time this deterioration in weather can last in
anyone instance ?
3395 50
How are well separated CB clouds described on the ISOL CB. OCNL CB. EMBD CB. FREQ CB.
3396 50 Significant Weather Chart?
Which one of the following statements applies to the It is, by It indicates a It is, by It separates
tropopause? definition, an strong definition, a the
isothermal temperature temperature troposphere
layer lapse rate inversion from the
stratosphere

3397 50
The 0° isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL FL 110 FL 80 FL 20 FL 100
3398 50 would you expect a temperature of -6° C?
Which of the following are favourable conditions for the An Warm air Water Cold air aloft
formation of freezing rain? isothermal aloft from droplets from which
layer aloft which rain is falling from hail is falling
with a falling into cold air aloft into air that
temperature air with a with a is warm.
just above temperature temperature
0°C through below 0°C. below 0°C.
which rain is
falling.

3399 50
 How is the direction and speed of upper winds The The The The
described in forecasts ? direction is direction is direction is direction is
relative to relative to relative to relative to
true north magnetic magnetic true north
and the north and north and and the
speed is in the speed is the speed is speed is in
knots. in knots. in miles per miles per
hour. hour.
3400 50
(For this question use annex 050-2061A) 4 3 1 2
Which cross-section of air mass and cloud presentation
3401 50 is applicable to the straight line A-B?
How does the height of the tropopause normally vary It remains It increases It remains It decreases
with latitude in the northern hemisphere ? constant from south constant from south
from north to to north. throughout to north.
south. the year.
3402 50
What, approximately, is the average height of the 40 km 16 km 8 km 11 km
3403 50 tropopause over the equator ?
In which layer is most of the atmospheric humidity Stratopause. Troposphere Tropopause. Stratospher
3404 50 concentrated ? . e.
At FL 180, the air temperature is -35°C.The air density Unable to be Greater than Less than Equal to the
at this level is: determined the density the density density of
without of the ISA of the ISA the ISA
knowing the atmosphere atmosphere atmosphere
QNH. at FL 180. at FL 180. at FL 180.

3405 50
(For this question use annex 050-2053A) 270° 15 kt. 240° 25 kt. 240° 20 kt. 270° 30 kt.
What is the wind direction and speed at 3 000 FT
3406 50 overhead position "Q" at 0600 UTC?
(For this question use annex 050-2055A) 1 3 4 2
The cold front is indicated with a number at position:
3407 50
(For this question use annex 050-2056A) 4 2 1 3
Of the four radio soundings, select the one that
3408 50 indicates ground fog:
(For this question use annex 050-2058A) The upper The lower The center The center
What does the symbol indicate on a significant weather limit of limit of the of a of a high
chart? significant tropopause. tropopause pressure
weather at "high", area at 400
FL 400. where the hPa.
tropopause
is at FL 400.

3409 50
A layer is conditionally unstable if the air is stable for becomes is unstable is unstable
saturated air stable by for saturated for saturated
and unstable lifting it. air as well air and
for dry air. as for dry stable for
air. dry air.

3410 50
(For this question use annex 050-2060A) Track D-A Track C-A Track B-A Track B-C
Which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is represented
by the cross-section shown on the left ?
3411 50
3412 50 What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate per 1000 FT ? 2.0°C 1.5°C 3.5°C 3.0°C.
(For this question use annex 050-2064A) Position 1 Position 2 Position 4 Position 3
Refer to the diagram. Assuming the usual direction of
movement, where will this polar frontal wave have
moved ?
3413 50
(For this question use annex 050-2065A) Polar Tropical Tropical Polar
What is the classification of the airmass affecting continental. continental. maritime. maritime.
3414 50 position "Q" at 0600 UTC?
 The lowest assumed temperature in the International -100°C -56.5°C -273°C -44.7°C
3415 50 Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is :
Under what condition does pressure altitude have the At sea level When the When the At standard
same value as density altitude ? when the altimeter has altimeter temperature.
temperature no position setting is
is 0°C. error. 1013,2 hPa.

3416 50
In the troposphere the decrease of pressure per 100 m is in the is smaller at remains is greater at
increase in height order of 27 higher levels constant at higher levels
hPa near than at lower all levels. than at
MSL. levels. lower levels.

3417 50
A 200 hPa pressure altitude level can vary in height. In FL 50. FL 390. FL 300. FL 100.
temperate regions which of the following average
3418 50 heights is applicable ?
What is the approximate vertical interval which is equal 15 m (50 8 m (27 FT). 32 m (105 64 m (210
to a pressure change of 1 hPa at an altitude of 5500 FT). FT). FT).
3419 50 m ?
In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the Elevation of Temperature Elevation of Elevation
following must be known ? the airfield. at the the airfield and the
airfield. and the temperature
temperature at the
at MSL. airfield.
3420 50
At which pressure and temperature conditions may you In a cold low At a In a warm At a
safely assume that the minimum usable flight level at pressure temperature high temperature
least lies at the same height, as the minimum safe region less than or pressure greater than
altitude? equal to that region or equal to
of the ISA that of the
and where ISA and
the QNH is where the
less than QNH is
1013 hPa greater than
or equal to
1013 hPa

3421 50
(For this question use annex 050-2059A) Uniform Cutting West wind Warm south
Which typical weather situation is shown on the weather pressure wind. condition. wind
chart ? (Spacing of the isobars: 5 hPa) pattern. condition
(Foehn).
3422 50
What does dewpoint mean? The The The freezing The
temperature temperature level temperature
to which a at which ice (danger of at which the
mass of air melts. icing). relative
must be humidity and
cooled in saturation
order to vapour
reach pressure are
saturation. the same.

3423 50
Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead The coastal Cold air Warm air The sea is
to the formation of steam fog (arctic smoke)? region of the moving over moving over warmed by
sea cools at warm water cold water strong
night radiation
from the sun

3424 50
 How does freezing rain develop? Through Through Rain falls Rain falls on
melting of melting of through a cold ground
sleet grains ice crystals layer where and then
temperature freezes
s are below
0°C

3425 50
3426 50 What type of cloud can produce hail showers? AC CB NS CS
What is the boundary layer between troposphere and Tropopause. Ionosphere. Stratosphere Atmosphere.
3427 50 stratosphere called? .
Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 850 hPa. 700 hPa. 500 hPa. 300 hPa.
3428 50 4781 FT pressure level (FL50)?
An outside air temperature of -35°C is measured while 5°C colder 10°C colder 10°C 5°C warmer
cruising at FL 200. What is the temperature deviation than ISA. than ISA. warmer than than ISA.
3429 50 from the ISA at this level? ISA.
Convective activity over land in mid-latitudes is greatest winter during summer winter in the summer in
in the night during the afternoon. the
and early night and afternoon.
morning. early
morning.
3430 50
Absolute instability exists whenever the environmental exceeds the exceeds the is less than is between
lapse rate dry adiabatic saturated the the dry and
lapse rate. adiabatic saturated saturated
lapse rate. adiabatic adiabatic
lapse rate. lapse rate.
3431 50
What positions are connected by isobars on the surface Positions Positions Positions Positions
weather chart? with the with the with the with the
same same wind same same air
temperature velocity at a relative pressure at
at a given given level pressure a given level
level heights
3432 50
The polar front is the boundary between: polar air and arctic air and arctic air and maritime
tropical air. polar air. tropical air. polar air and
continental
polar air.

3433 50
What flying conditions may be encountered when flying Average Average Average Average
in cirrus clouds? horizontal horizontal horizontal horizontal
visibility less visibility less visibility visibility
than 500 m; than 500 m; more than more than
nil icing. light to 1000 m; light 1000 m; nil
moderate to moderate icing.
icing. rime ice.

3434 50
Which of the following is the definition of relative Ratio Ratio Ratio Ratio
humidity ? between the between air between between
actual temperature water water
mixing ratio and vapour vapour (g)
and the dewpoint pressure and air (kg)
saturation temperature and X 100
mixing ratio X 100 atmospheric
X 100 pressure X
100

3435 50
The relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. How It decreases It is only It increases It is not
is the relative humidity of this air mass influenced by with influenced with influenced
changes of the amount of water vapour in it? increasing by increasing by changing
water temperature. water water
vapour. vapour. vapour.

3436 50
 Relative humidity is not does not changes is not
affected by change when water affected
temperature when water vapour is when air is
changes of vapour is added, even ascending
the air. added though the or
provided the temperature descending.
temperature remains
of the air constant.
remains
constant.

3437 50
How, if at all, is the relative humidity of an unsaturated It is only It decreases It is not It increases
airmass influenced by temperature changes? influenced with influenced with
by the increasing by increasing
amount of temperature. temperature temperature.
water changes.
vapour.
3438 50
How does relative humidity and the dewpoint in an When When When When
unsaturated air mass change with varying temperature? temperature temperature temperature temperature
increases, decreases, decreases, increases,
the relative the relative the relative the relative
humidity humidity humidity and humidity
increases, decreases, the dewpoint decreases,
and the and the remain and the
dewpoint dewpoint constant. dewpoint
decreases. increases. remains
constant.

3439 50
When a given mass of air descends, what effect will it It remains It increases It decreases. It increases.
have on relative humidity? constant. up to 100%,
then
remains
stable.
3440 50
During the late afternoon an air temperature of +12°C It must It must It must It must
and a dew point of +5°C were measured. What decrease to decrease by decrease to decrease to
temperature change must occur during the night in +5°C. 5°C. +6°C. +7°C.
order to induce saturation?
3441 50
Where, during a flight from Marseille to Dakar, in July, In the Near the At the At the
may the ITCZ be encountered? vicinity of Canary latitudes of latitudes of
3442 50 Dakar Islands Gibraltar Algeria

Which of the following is a common result of An inversion CB-clouds Wide spread Clear air
subsidence ? over a large and NS and AS turbulence
area with thunderstor clouds and at higher
haze, mist. ms over a intense altitudes .
large area. precipitation.

3443 50
What cloud cover is typical for a wide warm sector of a BKN CU and Sky clear ST with Fair weather
polar front depression over Central Europe in the CB drizzle CU
3444 50 summer ?
What is the main cause for the formation of a polar front Strong The north- The The varied
jet stream? winds in the south pressure elevations of
upper horizontal difference, the
atmosphere temperature close to the tropopause
gradient at ground, in the polar
the polar between a front region
front high over
the Azores
and a low
over Iceland

3445 50
 Which jet stream is connected with a surface front The polar The arctic jet The The
system? front jet stream subtropical equatorial
3446 50 stream jet stream jet stream
At approximately what altitude is the subtropical jet FL 500 FL 400 FL 200 FL 300
3447 50 stream found over Europe?
A parcel of moist but not saturated air rises due to Specific Relative Absolute Mixing ratio
adiabatic effects. Which of the following changes ? humidity humidity humidity
3448 50
In which of the following changes of state is latent heat Solid to gas Liquid to gas Gas to liquid Solid to
3449 50 released ? liquid
In which of the following regions does polar maritime air Region of Baltic Sea Black Sea East of
3450 50 originate ? British Isles Greenland
In which of the following situations can freezing rain be Ahead of a Ahead of a Ahead of a Behind a
encountered ? cold front in warm front cold front in warm front
the summer in the winter the winter in the
summer
3451 50
How do air masses move at a warm front ? Cold air Cold air Warm air Warm air
overrides a undercuts a undercuts a overrides a
warm air warm air cold air cold air
mass mass mass mass
3452 50
Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead Moist warm Moist cold Dry warm air Dry cold air
to the formation of advection fog ? air moving air moving moving over moving over
over a cold over a warm a cold a warm
surface surface surface surface

3453 50
What is the relative movement of the two airmasses Cold air Warm air Cold air Warm air
along a cold front ? pushes pushes over slides over a pushes
under a a cold air warm air under a cold
warm air mass mass air mass
mass
3454 50
Which of the following is most likely to lead to the A marked Ground A build up of A marked
dissipation of radiation fog ? decrease in cooling a high increase in
wind velocity caused by pressure wind velocity
close to the radiation area near the
ground during the resulting in ground
night adiabatic
warming
associated
with a
sinking air
mass

3455 50
Which of the following describes a warm occlusion? The air The warmer The coldest The air
mass ahead air mass is air mass is mass behind
of the front ahead of the ahead of the the front is
is drier than original original more
the air mass warm front warm front unstable
behind the than the air
front mass ahead
of the front

3456 50
When do cold occlusions occur most frequently in Winter and Summer Winter Autumn and
3457 50 Europe? spring winter
In which main direction does a polar front depression Across the Across the Along the Along the
move? front front front front
towards the towards the towards the towards the
north south east west
3458 50
(For this question use annex 050-2388A) A rise in A drop in Irregular Approximate
What change in pressure, will occur at point A, during pressure pressure fluctuations ly constant
the next hour? pressure
3459 50
 How are high level condensation trails formed that are Through a Only through In conditions Through
to be found occasionally behind jet aircraft ? decrease in unburnt fuel of low water
pressure, in the humidity, vapour
and the exhaust through the released
associated gases particles of during fuel
adiabatic soot combustion
drop in contained in
temperature the exhaust
at the wing gases
tips while
flying
through
relatively
warm but
humid air

3460 50
What process in an air mass leads to the creation of Lifting Sinking Convection Radiation
3461 50 wide spread NS, AS and ST cloud coverage? process
Which of the following cloud is classified as low level CS AS CC ST
3462 50 cloud ?
In which of the following conditions is moderate to Within cloud In Below the In clear air
severe airframe icing most likely to be encountered? of any type Nimbostratu freezing above the
s cloud level in clear freezing
air level
3463 50
Clouds, fog or dew will always be formed when: water water relative temperature
vapour vapour is humidity and dew
condenses. present. reaches point are
98%. nearly
equal.
3464 50
What type of precipitation would you expect at an active Showers Freezing Light to Drizzle
unstable cold front? associated rain moderate
with continuous
thunderstor rain
ms
3465 50
Which of the four answers is a correct interpretation of Meteorologic Meteorologic RVR for RVR for
data from the following METAR ? al visibility al visibility runway 16 runway 14
16003KT 0400 R14/P1500 R16/1000N FZFG VV003 1000 m, 400 m, RVR 1000 m, 1500 m,
M02/M02 Q1026 BECMG 2000 = RVR 400 m, for runway meteorologic meteorologi
freezing 16 1000 m, al visibility cal visibility
level at 300 dew point increasing in 400 m, QNH
m, variable -2°C, the next 2 1026 hPa,
winds, freezing fog. hours to wind 160° at
temperature 2000 m, 3 kt.
2°C. vertical
visibility 300
m,
temperature
-2°C.

3466 50
What type of clouds, visible even at a long distance, Excessive NS spread Dense CI Frequent SC
could indicate the presence of a tropical revolving accumulatio over a large
3467 50 storm? n of CU area

An aircraft is flying through the polar front jet stream It decreases. It increases. It first It remains
from south to north, beneath the core. How would the increases, constant.
OAT change, in the northern hemisphere, during this then
portion of the flight? decreases.
3468 50
What is the average height of the arctic jet stream core? 30000 FT. 40000 FT. 50000 FT. 20000 FT .
3469 50
What is the approximate ratio between height and width 1/1 1/10 1/1000 1/100
3470 50 for a jet stream cross section?
Which jet stream blows all year round, over the northern The polar The The arctic jet The
hemisphere? night jet equatorial jet stream. subtropical
3471 50 stream. stream. jet stream.
 What is the average height of the jet core within a polar 40000 FT. 50000 FT. 30000 FT. 20000 FT.
3472 50 front jet stream?
An aircraft is flying from south to north, above the polar It falls and It falls. It rises. It stays the
front jet stream, at FL 400 in the southern hemisphere. then rises. same.
What change, if any, in temperature will be experienced
?
3473 50
A wind speed of 350 kt within a jet stream core should possible but not possible. a common not unusual
be world-wide regarded as: a very rare occurence. in polar
phenomeno regions.
n.

3474 50
How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2000 He ascends He He turns He
FT/AGL, when he is unable to deice, nor land? to the cold continues to back before descends to
air layer fly at the the aircraft the warm air
above. same loses layer below.
altitude. manoeuvrab
ility.

3475 50
You receive the following METAR : The RVR is 300 m. 700 m. 900 m.
LSGG 0750Z 00000KT 0300 R05/0700N FG VV001 unknown,
M02/M02 Q1014 NOSIG = because the
What will be the RVR at 0900 UTC? "NOSIG"
does not
refer to
RVR.

3476 50
Rime ice forms through the freezing onto aircraft small large water snow.
surfaces of supercooled supercooled vapour.
water drops. water drops.
3477 50
An aircraft over Western Europe is crossing a jet stream tailwind. headwind. from the from the left.
2500 FT below its core at right angles. While crossing, right
the outside temperature is increasing. The prevailing
wind is
3478 50
(For this question use annex 050-3030A) EKCH LOWW LFPG LEMD
To which aerodrome is the following TAF most
applicable ?
TAF 231019 24014KT 6000 SCT030 BKN100 TEMPO
1113 25020G38KT 2500 +TSRA SCT008 BKN025CB
BECMG 1315 28012KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 5000
SHRA BKN020 BECMG 1719 27008KT 9999 SCT030

3479 50
What name is given to the low level wind system Monsoon. Trade winds. Doldrums. Westerly
between the subtropical high pressure belt and the winds.
3480 50 equatorial trough of low pressure (ITCZ) ?
In which zone of a jet stream is the strongest CAT to be The cold air The warm Exactly in About 12000
expected ? side of the air side of the centre of FT above
core. the core. the core. the core.
3481 50
What is the minimum speed for a wind to be classified 100 kt. 60 kt. 50 kt. 70 kt.
3482 50 as a jet stream?
 A wind sounding in the region of a polar front jet stream With a ITCZ. With an With a warm With a cold
gives the following windprofile (Northern hemisphere). easterly front. front.
900hPa 220/20kt wave.
800hPa 220/25kt
700hPa 230/35kt
500hPa 260/60kt
400hPa 280/85kt
300hPa 300/100kt
250hPa 310/120kt
200hPa 310/80kt
Which system is the jet stream associated with?

3483 50
Where is the most dangerous zone in a tropical Anywhere in In the centre About 600 In the wall of
revolving storm? the eye. of the eye. km away clouds
from the around the
eye. eye.
3484 50
In the weather briefing room during the pre-flight phase You show no Owing to You cancel Because of
of a passenger flight from Zurich to Rome, you examine further these the flight the
the following weather reports of pressing importance at interest in reports and since the expected
the time: these taking into expected turbulence
EINN SHANNON 2808 sigmet 2 valid 0800/1100 loc reports, account the dangerous you select a
sev turb fcst einn fir blw fl 050 south of 53n wkn = since they presence of weather flight level
LIMM MILANO 2809 sigmet 2 valid 0900/1500 mod sev do not heavy conditions below FL
cat btn fl 250 and fl 430 fcst limm fir stnr nc = concern the thunderstor along the 250.
EGLL LONDON 2808 sigmet nr01 valid 0800/1200 for route to be ms at route would
london fir isol cb embd in lyr cloud fcst tops fl 300 btn flown. planned FL demand too
52n and 54n east of 002e sev ice sev turb ts also fcst 310 you much of the
mov e wkn = select a passengers.
Which decision is correct? higher flight
level (FL
370).

3485 50
Does the following report make sense? The report The report is The report is The report is
LSZH VRB02KT 5000 MIFG 02/02 Q1015 NOSIG would never nonsense, not possible, possible,
be seen, because it is because, because
because impossible with a shallow fog
shallow fog to observe a temperature is defined as
is not meteorologic of 2°C and a a thin layer
reported al visibility of dew point of of fog below
when the 5 km if 2°C there eye level.
meteorologic shallow fog must be
al visibility is is reported. uniform fog.
more than 2
km.

3486 50
During a flight at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 one of the the air at the the air at
hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1015 hPa), an aircraft two QNH Marseille is altimeters Marseille is
remains at a constant true altitude. The reason for this values may warmer than are colder than
is that : be incorrect. that at erroneous, that at
Palma de and need to Palma de
Mallorca. be tested. Mallorca.
3487 50
Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe Nimbostratu Altocumulus Stratocumul Cirrocumulu
turbulence ? s lenticularis us s
3488 50
The initial phase of a thunderstorm is characterized by rain starting continuous continuous frequent
at surface updraughts downdraugh lightning
3489 50 ts
What is the vertical temperature lapse rate, up to 11 km, 3°C per 2°C per 6.5°C per 4.5°C per
3490 50 in the standard ICAO atmosphere ? 1000 m 1000 m 1000 m 1000 m
 Which of the following conditions would cause the Air Air Atmospheric Pressure
altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than that actually temperature temperature pressure altitude the
flown ? lower than higher than lower than same as
standard. standard standard indicated
altitude.
3491 50
Which of the following conditions are most favourable to Unstable air Either stable Moist Stable air at
the formation of mountain waves ? at mountain or unstable unstable air mountain
top altitude air at at mountain top altitude
and a wind mountain top and wind and a wind
at least 20 top and a of less than at least 20
knots wind of at 5 knots knots
blowing least 30 blowing blowing
across the knots across the across the
mountain blowing mountain mountain
ridge. parallel to ridge. ridge.
the
mountain
ridge.

3492 50
An aircraft is approaching a cold front from the warm air Climbing Turn right Maintain FL Descending
mass side at FL 270 and experiencing moderate to 270
severe turbulence. A jet stream is forecast to be at FL
310. The shortest way to get out of this turbulence is
by :
3493 50
The QNH of an airport at sea level is 983 hPa and the 10210 FT. 9790 FT. 11410 FT. 8590 FT.
temperature deviation from ISA is -15°C below FL 100.
What is the true altitude of FL 100?
3494 50
What information is required to convert a minimum safe Lowest Highest Highest Lowest
altitude into a lowest usable flight level? value of value of value of value of
QNH and QNH and QNH and QNH and
the highest the highest the highest the lowest
negative negative positive negative
temperature temperature temperature temperature
deviation deviation deviation deviation
from ISA. from ISA. from ISA from ISA
3495 50
(For this question use annex 050-3017A) Equatorial Polar front Arctic jet Sub-tropical
What name is given to the jet stream lying across India jet stream. jet stream. stream. jet stream.
3496 50 (A) ?
You plan a flight over a mountain range at a true altitude 15690 FT. 14370 FT. 13830 FT. 16230 FT.
of 15000 FT/AMSL. The air is on an average 15°C
colder than ISA, the pressure at sea level is 1003 hPa.
What indication must the altimeter (setting 1013.2 hPa)
read?
3497 50
Which of the following types of jet streams can be Equatorial Arctic jet Equatorial Subtropical
observed all year round? jet stream / stream / jet stream / jet stream /
polar front subtropical arctic jet polar front
jet stream. jet stream. stream. jet stream.
3498 50
An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 1240 FT, 1105 FT. 1280 FT. 1375 FT. 1200 FT.
QNH 1008 hPa). The altimeter is set to 1013 hPa. The
3499 50 altimeter will indicate :
At what time of the year are typhoons most likely to January to May to July. July to September
3500 50 occur over the southern islands of Japan? May. November. to January.
3501 50 What units are used to report vertical wind shear? m/100 FT. m/sec. kt/100 FT. kt.
Which of the following weather reports is a warning of SIGMET. ATIS. SPECI. TAF.
conditions that could be potentially hazardous to aircraft
3502 50 in flight ?
 In which of the following circumstances is a SIGMET A sudden Marked Fog or a Clear ice on
issued ? change in mountain thunderstor the runways
the weather waves. m at an of an
conditions aerodrome. aerodrome.
contained in
the METAR.

3503 50
After landing at an aerodrome (aerodrome elevation 998 hPa. 1028 hPa. 1015 hPa. 1013 hPa.
1715 FT), the altimeter indicates an altitude of 1310 FT.
The altimeter is set to the pressure value of 1013 hPa.
What is the QNH at this aerodrome?

3504 50
You intend to overfly a mountain range. The 14100 FT. 13830 FT. 14370 FT. 15900 FT.
recommended minimum flight altitude is, according to
the aviation chart, 15000 FT/AMSL. The air mass that
you will fly through is on average 15°C warmer than the
standard atmosphere. The altimeter is set to QNH
(1023 hPa). At what altimeter reading will you effectively
be at the recommended minimum flight altitude?

3505 50
You are flying at FL 130, and your true altitude is 12000 ISA -20°C ISA +/-0°C ISA +20°C ISA +12°C
FT. What is the temperature deviation from that of the
standard atmosphere at FL 130 (QNH 1013,2 hPa) ?
3506 50
What is the relationship, if any, between QFE and QNH QFE equals No clear QFE is QFE is
at an airport situated 50 FT below sea level? QNH. relationship greater than smaller than
3507 50 exists. QNH. QNH.
Around Paris on January 3rd at 1800 UTC, the surface significantly slightly significantly slightly
temperature, under shelter, is 3°C. The sky is covered below 0°C. above +3°C. above +3°C. below +3°C.
by 8 oktas of stratus. QNH is 1033 hPa. If the sky is
covered all night, the minimum temperature of the night
of January 3rd to January 4th should be

3508 50
At the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions, cirrus. cumulus altocumulus cirrostratus.
3509 50 the cloud most likely to be encountered is mediocris. lenticularis.
At a weather station, at 0600 UTC, the air temperature M00/M01 M01/M02 00/M01 M01/M01
and dew point are respectively: T = - 0,5°C,Td = -1,5°C.
In the METAR message transmitted by this station, the
"temperature group" will be:

3510 50
In the mid-latitudes the stratosphere extends on an 50 to 85 km 85 to more 11 to 50 km 0 to 11 km
average from than 200 km
3511 50
What type of clouds are associated with snow Altostratus Nimbostratu Cumulus Cumulus
showers ? and stratus s and and
cumulonimb altostratus
us
3512 50
What type of clouds are associated with rain showers ? Nimbostratu Towering Towering Altostratus
s. cumulus and cumulus and and stratus.
cumulonimb altostratus.
us.

3513 50
From what type of cloud does drizzle fall ? Stratus. Altostratus Cumulus Cirrostratus.
3514 50
 Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation water dew point actual water water
between vapour and air vapour vapour
weight and temperature content and weight and
humid air saturated dry air
volume water weight
vapour
content

3515 50
Before landing, an altimeter set to QFE indicates the height of in standard the flight the aircraft's
the aircraft's atmosphere, level. altitude
wheels the height of above the
above the the aircraft mean sea
runway. above the level.
official
airport
elevation.

3516 50
In the month of August you prepare a flight (cruising Tailwinds. Strong Headwinds. Light winds
level FL 370) from Bombay (19°N - 73°E) to Bangkok northerly diagonal to
(13°N - 100°E). What wind conditions can you expect? winds. the route.
3517 50
On a clear sky, continental ground surface, wind calm, half an hour at the one hour half an hour
the minimum temperature is reached approximately before moment the before after sunrise
3518 50 sunrise sun rises sunrise
How long does a typical microburst last? About 30 1 to 5 Less than 1 1 to 2 hours.
3519 50 minutes. minutes. minute.
In which month does the humid monsoon in India start? In October. In In March. In June.
3520 50 December.
At about what geographical latitude as average is 10°N. 30°N. 80°N. 50°N.
3521 50 assumed for the zone of prevailing westerlies?
During July flights from Bangkok (13°N - 100°E) to The flights The wind The flights The flights in
Karachi (25°N - 67°E) experience an average tailwind happen to components during the January
component of 22 kt. In January the same flights, also be in the correspond summer encountered
operating at FL 370, have an average headwind of 50 area of the to the encountered , by chance,
kt. What is the reason for this difference? polar front seasonal , by chance, very
jet stream. change of very unusual,
the regional unusual, adverse
wind favourable conditions.
system. conditions.

3522 50
What jet streams are likely to be crossed during a flight A subtropical A polar front One A polar front
from Stockholm to Rio de Janeiro (23°S) at FL 350 in jet stream jet stream subtropical jet stream
July ? followed by followed by jet stream. followed by
a polar front a subtropical one or two
jet stream. jet stream subtropical
and later, a jet streams.
second polar
front jet
stream.

3523 50
While crossing a jet stream at right angles in Western Crosswind A headwind. A tailwind. Crosswind
Europe (3000 FT below its core) and OAT is from the from the left
decreasing, what would be the prevailing wind? right
3524 50
What is normally the most effective measure to reduce Change of Increase of Decrease of Change of
3525 50 or avoid CAT effects? course. speed. speed. flight level.
 Which area of a polar front jet stream in the northern In the core Above the Looking Looking
hemisphere has the highest probability of turbulence? of the jet core in the downstream, downstream
stream. boundary the area to , the area to
between the left of the right of
warm and the core. the core.
cold air.
3526 50
Atmospheric soundings give the following temperature FL 150 FL 80 FL 180 FL 220
profile :
3000 FT +15°C
6000 FT +8°C
10000 FT +1°C
14000 FT -6°C
18000 FT -14°C
24000 FT -26°C
At which of the following flight levels is the risk for
aircraft icing, in cloud, greatest?

3527 50
An isohypse (contour) is the limit indicates the indicates the is the
between two altitude of true altitude longest
air masses the zero of a slope line of
of different degree pressure a frontal
temperature isotherm level surface

3528 50
A zone of strong convection currents is encountered Decrease Increase the Decrease Increase the
during a flight. In spite of moderate gust you decide to the speed / speed / try the speed / speed / try
continue the flight. What are your precautionary try to climb to climb try to to descend
measures? above the above the descend below the
zone of zone of below the zone of
convective convective zone of convective
currents if currents if convective currents.
aircraft aircraft currents.
performance performance
parameters parameters
allow. allow.

3529 50
What conditions are most likely to lead to the formation Humid High relative Clear skies, Precipitation
of hill fog? stable air humidity and calm or light which is
mass, wind an unstable winds, with lifted by the
blowing air mass relatively low action of
towards the humidity moderate
hills. winds
striking the
range
3530 50
Tropical revolving storms do not occur in the southeast of the low there is no of the strong the
Pacific and the south Atlantic because water coriolis force southeast southeast
temperature. present. wind. trade winds
cross over
into the
northern
hemisphere.

3531 50
Refer to the following TAF extract: Between 0 500 m. 2000 m. Between
BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 m and 1000 500 m and
0500 FG VV001 m. 2000 m.
What visibility is forecast for 2400 UTC?
3532 50
Refer to the following TAF extract: Vertical Vertical RVR less RVR greater
BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 visibility 100 visibility 100 than 100 m. than 100 m.
0500 FG VV001 m. FT.
What does the abbreviation "VV001" mean?
3533 50
 What is the main energy source of a tropical revolving Temperature Cold air The Latent heat
storm? difference advancing equatorial jet released
between from stream. from
equatorial temperate condensing
low pressure latitudes. water
trough and vapour.
subtropical
high
pressure
belt.

3534 50
Which of the following meteorological phenomenon AC AC Halo. Red cirrus.
indicates upper level instability which may lead to castellanus. lenticularis.
3535 50 thunderstorm development ?
Isolated thunderstorms of a local nature are generally frontal thermal frontal lifting frontal lifting
caused by occlusion. triggering. (warm front). (cold front).

3536 50
Which thunderstorms move forward the fastest? Thermal Orographic Frontal Thunderstor
thunderstor thunderstor thunderstor ms formed
ms. ms. ms. by lifting
processes.
3537 50
During which months is the Hurricane season in the July until October until January until April until
Caribbean? November. January. April. July.
3538 50
How long from the time of observation is a TREND in a 9 hours. 1 hour. 30 minutes. 2 hours.
3539 50 METAR valid?
You cross a jet stream in horizontal flight at You assume Since the This This
approximately right angles. While crossing, in spite of a the front result of phenomeno phenomeno
strong wind of 120 kt, you notice the temperature barely associated such n does not n is
changes. with the jet readings surprise you absolutely
stream to be seems at all, since normal as
very weak impossible, normally no you are
with you will after large crossing the
practically landing have temperature jet core.
no the differences
temperature instruments are possible
difference tested. at these
between the heights.
two
airmasses.

3540 50
At which altitude, at temperate latitudes, may hail be From the From the From the From the
expected in connection with a CB? ground up to ground up to ground up to base of the
a maximum about FL about FL clouds up to
of FL 450. 200. 100. FL 200.

3541 50
What is a microburst? A A An A small low
concentrate concentrate extremely pressure
d downdraft d downdraft strong wind system
with high with high gust in a where the
speeds and speeds and tropical wind
a lower a higher revolving circulates
temperature temperature storm. with very
than the than the high speeds.
surrounding surrounding
air. air.

3542 50
 What is a SPECI? An A selected A routine A warning of
aerodrome special aerodrome meteorologi
forecast aerodrome weather cal dangers
issued every weather report at an
9 hours. report, issued every aerodrome,
issued when 3 hours. issued only
a significant when
change of required.
the weather
conditions
have been
observed.

3543 50
Appended to a METAR you get the following runway The friction The braking The runway Aquaplaning
report: 01650428 coefficient is action will be will be wet. conditions.
What must you consider when making performance 0.28. medium to
calculations? good.
3544 50
Refer to the following TAF extract: Many long The new A quick Many short
BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 term conditions change to term
0500 FG VV001 changes in are achieved new changes in
What does the "BECMG" data indicate for the 18 to 21 the original between conditions the original
hour time frame? weather. 1800 and between weather.
2100 UTC 1800 UTC
and 1900
UTC.
3545 50
Refer to the following TAF extract: 4 - 8 oktas, 1 - 4 oktas, 5 - 7 oktas, 1 - 4 oktas,
BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 ceiling 400 ceiling 400 ceiling 400 ceiling 400
0500 FG VV001 m. m. FT. FT.
What does the abbreviation "BKN004" mean?
3546 50
Refer to the following TAF extract; Probability Conditions The cloud Change
BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 of 30%. will last for ceiling expected in
0500 FG VV001 at least 30 should lift to less than 30
What does the abbreviation "PROB30" mean? minutes. 3000 FT. minutes.
3547 50
Where, as a general rule, is the core of the polar front In the warm In the cold Just above Just below
jet stream to be found? air mass. air mass. the warm-air the cold-air
tropopause. tropopause.

3548 50
What is the most significant difference between an Wind Vertical Horizontal Windspeed.
equatorial jet stream and all the other jet streams ? direction. dimension. dimension.
3549 50
What does the term METAR signify? A METAR is A METAR is A METAR is A METAR
a warning of a flight a landing signifies the
dangerous forecast, forecast actual
meteorologic issued by added to the weather
al conditions the actual report at an
within a FIR. meteorologic weather aerodrome
al station report as a and is
several brief generally
times daily. prognostic issued in
report. half-hourly
intervals.

3550 50
Which of the following meteorological phenomena can MIFG FG HZ +FZRA
rapidly change the braking action of a runway?
3551 50
During the winter months in mid-latitudes in the south and north and south and north and
northern hemisphere, the polar front jet stream moves speed speed speed speed
3552 50 toward the increases decreases decreases increases
 What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars Greater Greater Surface Coriolis
at an angle rather than parallel to the isobars ? density of atmospheric friction force
the air at the pressure at
surface the surface

3553 50
Which type of fog is likely to form when air having Frontal fog Advection Radiation Steam fog
temperature of 15°C and dew point of 12°C blows at 10 fog fog
knots over a sea surface having temperatures of 5°C ?
3554 50
In addition to a lifting action, what are two other Stable Unstable Unstable Stable
conditions necessary for thunderstorm formation ? conditions conditions conditions conditions
and low and low and high and high
atmospheric atmospheric moisture moisture
pressure pressure content content
3555 50
If you have to fly through a warm front when freezing 5000 feet 3000 feet 12000 feet 9000 feet
level is at 10000 feet in the warm air and at 2000 feet in
the cold air, at which altitude is the probability of
freezing rain the lowest ?
3556 50
Refer to TAF below. a maximum a minimum more than not less than
EGBB 261812 28015G25KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 5 km. of 1,5 km 10 km 1,5 km but
1822 29018G35KT 5000 SHRASN BKN010CB and a could be in
PROB30 TEMPO 1821 1500 TSGR BKN008CB maximum of excess of 10
BECMG 2124 26010KT 5 km. km.
From the TAF above you can assume that visibility at
2055Z in Birmingham (EGBB) will be :
3557 50
What does the term SIGMET signify? A SIGMET is A SIGMET is A SIGMET is A SIGMET is
a flight a brief an actual a warning of
forecast, landing weather dangerous
issued by forecast report at an meteorologi
the added to the aerodrome cal
meteorologic actual and is conditions
al station weather generally
several report issued at
times daily half-hourly
intervals

3558 50
What does the term TREND signify? It is a flight It is a brief It is the It is a
forecast, landing actual warning of
issued by forecast weather dangerous
the added to the report at an meteorologi
meteorologic actual aerodrome cal
al station weather and is conditions
several report generally
times daily issued at
half-hourly
intervals

3559 50
The barometric compensator of an altimeter is locked -10 FT. 560 FT. 20 FT. 11 FT.
on reference 1013.2 hPa. The aircraft has to land on a
point with an elevation of 290 feet where the QNH is
1023 hPa.
Assuming that 1 hPa corresponds to 27 FT, the reading
on the altimeter on the ground will be:
3560 50
Which of the following phenomena should be described BR MIFG +SHSN VA
as precipitation at the time they are observed?
3561 50
(For this question use annex 050-2432A) LFPO LOWW LEMD EDDL
At which airport, is the following weather development
taking place?
TAF 060716 25006KT 8000 BKN240 BECMG 0710
OVC200 BECMG 1013 23010KT 8000 OVC100
BECMG 1316 23014KT 6000 RA SCT030 OVC050 =

3562 50
 Which of the following phenomena can produce a risk BCFG SA +RA FG
3563 50 of aquaplaning?
Which of these four METAR reports suggests that rain 34004KT 16002KT 05016G33K 23015KT
is most likely in the next few hours? 9999 0100 FG T 8000 8000
SCT040 SCT300 OVC015 BKN030
SCT100 06/06 08/06 OVC070
m05/m08 Q1022 Q1028 17/14
Q1014 BECMG NOSIG = Q1009
NOSIG = 1000 = BECMG
4000 =
3564 50
Which of these four METAR reports suggests that a 1350Z 1350Z 1350Z 1350Z
thunderstorm is likely in the next few hours? 21005KT 16004KT 34003KT 04012KT
9999 8000 0800 SN 3000
SCT040CB SCT110 VV002 OVC012
SCT100 OVC220 m02/m04 04/03
26/18 02/m02 Q1014 Q1022
Q1016 Q1008 NOSIG = BECMG
TEMPO NOSIG = 5000 =
24018G30
TS =

3565 50
In which of the following METAR reports, is the 1850Z 1850Z 1850Z 1850Z
probability of fog formation in the coming night the 06018G30K 25010KT 15003KT 21003KT
highest? T 5000 4000 RA 6000 8000
OVC010 BKN012 SCT120 SCT250
04/01 OVC030 05/04 12/m08
Q1024 12/10 Q1032 Q1028
NOSIG = Q1006 BECMG NOSIG =
TEMPO 1600 =
1500 =

3566 50
Look at this TAF for Zurich Airport Meteorologic Meteorologic Severe Meteorologi
TAF LSZH 211322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012 BKN030 al visibility al visibility rainshowers, cal visibility
BECMG 1315 25025G45KT TEMPO 1720 4000 +SHRA 4000 10 meteorologic 10
BKN025TCU BECMG 2022 25015KT T1815Z T1618Z = metres, kilometres or al visibility kilometres
Which of these statements best describes the weather gusts up to more, main 4000 or more,
most likely to be experienced at 1500 UTC? 25 knots, cloudbase metres, main
temperature 1200 feet, temperature cloudbase
18°C. gusts up to 15°C, gusts 3000 feet,
45 knots. up to 35 wind 250°,
knots. temperature
18°C.

3567 50
An altimeter adjusted to 1013 hPa indicates an altitude 2922 FT. 4278 FT. 4194 FT. 3006 FT.
of 3600 FT. Should this altimeter be adjusted to the
local QNH value of 991 hPa, the altitude indicated
would be
3568 50
In Geneva, the local QNH is 994 hPa. The elevation of 961 hPa. 948 hPa. 942 hPa. 967 hPa.
Geneva is 1411 FT. The QFE adjustment in Geneva is
3569 50
How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in Increases At first it Remains Decreases
the ICAO standard atmosphere below the tropopause? increases constant
and higher
up it
decreases
3570 50
(For this question use annex 050-4369A) FL 260 FL 100 FL 20 FL 180
Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at
what altitude will the freezing level above Tunis be
found?
3571 50
(For this question use annex 050-2422A) Symbol a) Symbol b) Symbol c) Symbol d)
Which of the following symbols represents a tropical
3572 50 revolving storm?
 Which wind systems converge on the ITCZ, when it lies SW NW SE trade SW
at the equator? monsoon monsoon winds and monsoon
and NW and SW NE trade and NW
trade winds trade winds winds monsoon

3573 50
From which direction do the trade winds blow, in the SE NE SW N
3574 50 southern hemisphere?
What weather conditions in the region of the Alps would Heavy Clouds, on Heavy clear Strong north
you expect with Foehn from south? airframe the southern air winds on the
icing sides of turbulence southern
conditions passes in on the side of the
on the the Alps southern Alps
northern side of the
side of the Alps
Alps
3575 50
Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest Between Between Close to the Between
clear ice accretion to occur in a CB? -2°C and -20°C and freezing -30°C and
3576 50 -15°C -30°C level -40°C
Clear ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of : water small snow large
vapour supercooled supercooled
water drops water drops
3577 50
What weather condition would you expect at a squall Thunderstor Strong Fog Strong
line? ms steady rain whirlwinds
reaching up
to higher
levels

3578 50
What is the approximate maximum diameter of a 400 m 20 km 50 km 4 km
3579 50 microburst ?
In general, the meteorological visibility during rainfall the same less in rain - greater
compared to during drizzle is below 1 km,
in drizzle -
more than 2
km

3580 50
The jetstream and associated clear air turbulence can a high- long streaks dust or haze a constant
sometimes be visually identified in flight by pressure of cirrus at high level outside air
centre at clouds. temperature
high level
3581 50
(For this question use annex 050-2421A) Symbol a) Symbol b) Symbol c) Symbol d)
Which of the following symbols represents a squall line?
3582 50
(For this question use annex 050-2433A) 26012KT 22020G36K 20004KT 23014KT
What weather conditions are expected at Paris airport 9999 T 1500 8000 3000 +RA
(LFPO) around 0550 UTC? SCT025 TSGR SCT110 SCT008
SCT040 SCT004 SCT250 OVC025
14/09 BKN007 22/08 15/13
Q1018 BKN025CB Q1016 Q1004
TEMPO 18/13 NOSIG = NOSIG =
5000 SHRA Q1009
= BECMG
NSW =

3583 50
What is a trend forecast? A route A routine A landing An
forecast report forecast aerodrome
valid for 24 appended to forecast
hours METAR/SPE valid for 9
CI, valid for hours
2 hours

3584 50
 What does the expression "Broken (BKN)" mean? 3-5 Eights of Nil 5-7 Eights of 3-4 Eights of
the sky is significant the sky is the sky is
cloud cloud cover cloud cloud
covered covered covered
3585 50
What does the abbreviation "nosig" mean? No report No weather Not signed No
received related by the significant
problems meteorologis changes
t
3586 50
In which weather report would you expect to find GAFOR TAF METAR SIGMET
3587 50 information about icing conditions on the runway?
In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, is 00000KT VRB01KT 22004KT VRB02KT
the probability of fog formation, in the coming night, the 9999 8000 6000 -RA 2500
highest? SCT300 SCT250 SCT012 SCT120
21/01 11/10 Q1028 OVC030 14/M08
Q1032 BECMG 17/14 Q1035
NOSIG = 3000 = Q1009 NOSIG =
NOSIG =
3588 50
Which of the following weather reports could be, in LSZB LFSB LSGG LSZH
accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to 30004KT 00000KT 22003KT 26024G52K
"CAVOK"? (MSA above ground: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 9999 9000 9999 T 9999
8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT) SCT090 SCT080 SCT120 BKN060
10/09 22/15 BKN280 17/14
Q1006 Q1022 09/08 Q1012
NOSIG = NOSIG = Q1026 RETS
BECMG TEMPO
5000 = 5000 TSRA
=

3589 50
Which of the following weather reports could be, in LFSB LSZH LSGG LSZB
accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to 24008KT VRB02KT 22006KT 28012KT
"CAVOK"? (MSA above ground : LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 9999 9000 9999 9999
8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT) SCT050 BKN080 BKN090 OVC100
18/11 Q1017 21/14 17/15 16/12
RERA Q1022 Q1008 Q1012
NOSIG = NOSIG = RERA BECMG
NOSIG = 5000 =
3590 50
Within a short interval, several flight crews report that The The The The
they have experienced strong clear air turbulence in a competent competent competent airspace in
certain airspace. What is the consequence of these aviation aviation aviation question,
reports? weather weather weather will be
office will office will office will temporarily
issue a issue a issue a closed
SPECI storm SIGMET
warning
3591 50
A microburst phenomenon can arise in the downdraugh updraught of downdraugh updraught of
t of a a t of a a
cumulonimb cumulonimb cumulonimb cumulonimb
us at the us at the us at the us at the
mature mature formation growth
stage. stage. stage. stage.
3592 50
Which weather chart gives information about icing and Surface Significant 500 hPa 700 hPa
the height of the freezing level ? chart weather chart chart
3593 50 chart
Frontal depressions can be assumed to move in the in the warm in front of behind the at the apex
direction of the 2000 feet wind sector the warm cold front of the wave
3594 50 front
(For this question use annex 050-2547A) -15°C -25°C -19°C -23°C
What is the average temperature at FL 160 between
3595 50 Oslo and Paris ?
(For this question use annex 050-2548A) ISA -4°C ISA -12°C ISA +12°C ISA +4°C
What is the temperature deviation in degrees Celsius,
from the International Standard Atmosphere overhead
Frankfurt ?
3596 50
 (For this question use annex 050-2549A) 10 kt 30 kt 15 kt 25 kt
What is the speed of the front located over France ?
3597 50
(For this question use annex 050-2550A) 230° / 120 220° / 120 kt 050° / 120 050° / 120 kt
Flight Munich to London. What is the direction and m/sec km/h
maximum speed of the jet stream affecting the route
between Munich and London ?
3598 50
Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport. 250° / 20 kt 120° / 15 kt 140° / 10 kt 300° / 15 kt
FCNL31 281500 gusts 25 kt maximum
EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG wind 25 kt
1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823
3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT
8000 NSW BKN020 =
Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. At
ETA Amsterdam what surface wind is forecast ?

3599 50
Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport. 5 km 5 NM 6 km 3 km
FCNL31 281500
EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG
1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823
3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT
8000 NSW BKN020 =
Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC.
What is the minimum visibility forecast for ETA
Amsterdam ?

3600 50
(For this question use annex 050-2554A) Scattered Well Overcast Scattered
Flight Shannon to London. What amount and type of castellanus separated nimbo towering
cloud is forecast for the eastern sector of the route cumulonimb layered cumulus
between Shannon and London at FL 220 ? us cumulonimb
us
3601 50
(For this question use annex 050-2555A) 5 to 7 oktas Mainly 5 to 8 4 oktas Isolated
Over Amsterdam, what amount and general type of towering oktas of broken cumulonimb
cloud would you expect at FL 160 ? cumuliform stratiform cumulus us only
cloud and cloud in
with layers
moderate
turbulence
3602 50
An aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 7650 FT. 8600 FT. 8350 FT. 8000 FT.
hPa. After the second altimeter has been adjusted to
the local QNH, the reading will be approximately
3603 50
(For this question use annex 050-2558A) -16°C -28°C -24°C -20°C
What OAT would you expect at FL 200 over Geneva ?
3604 50
Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport. Light drizzle Moderate Heavy rain Continuous
FCFR31 281400 and fog snow showers moderate
LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO showers rain
1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30
TSRA =
Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. What type
of precipitation is forecast on the approach to
Bordeaux ?
3605 50
What types of cloud will you meet flying towards a warm At some 500 At some 800 Extensive At some 500
front ? km from the km CS, later areas of fog. km AS, later
front, groups AS, and at At some 100 CS and at
of CB, later some 300 km from the some 80 km
at some 250 km NS until front NS before the
km the front begin front CB
thickening
AS

3606 50
 A frontal depression passes through the airport. What Rain or Continuous Continous Showers
form of precipitation do you expect ? snow during rain or snow rain or snow during some
about 12 during 6 while the 2 hours until
hours until hours until frontal wave the warm
the warm the warm passes for a front arrives.
front arrives. front arrives. period of Drizzle in
Within the The some 24 the warm
warm sector precipitation hours. sector within
the rain stops for 12 hours.
increases. several Rain or
Improvemen hours within snow on the
t on the the warm passage of
passage of sector. On the cold
the cold the arrival of front.
front. the cold
front,
showers
within a
couple of
hours.

3607 50
What characteristic is associated with a temperature Clear ice Area of Stability Instability
inversion ? active
3608 50 storms

What pressure is defined as QFE? The The The The

pressure at pressure of pressure pressure
field the altimeter reduced to reduced to
elevation sea level sea level
using actual using ISA
temperature temperature
s s

3609 50
In the lower layers of the atmosphere due to friction the the pressure turbulence is turbulence is wind speed
wind changes direction towards the low pressure area gradient formed and formed and decreases
because : increases pressure pressure and
increases decreases therefore
coriolis force
decreases

3610 50
The most frequent wind direction in a valley caused by mountain mountain at valley during valley during
thermal effects is toward the : during night. daylight daylight as
daylight hours. much as at
hours. night.

3611 50
The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart at height of at a reduced to at flight level
represent lines of equal pressure observatory determined sea level
density
altitude
3612 50
On the approach, the surface temperature is given as No, Yes, Yes, but only No, flights
-5°C. The freezing level is at 3000 FT/AGL. At 4000 absolutely between between clear of
FT/AGL, there is a solid cloud layer from which rain is no icing will ground level 3000 and cloud
falling. occur. and 3000 4000 experience
According to the weather briefing, the clouds are due to FT/AGL. FT/AGL. no icing.
an inversion caused by warm air sliding up and over an
inclined front. Would you expect icing?

3613 50
(For this question use annex 050-2556A) 3 to 5 oktas 5 to 8 oktas 1 to 4 oktas 5 to 7 oktas
3614 50 To what extent is Munich covered by clouds ?
 (For this question use annex 050-2510A) From FL 250 From FL 220 From FL 240 From below
In what height range and at what intensity could you to FL 320, to FL 400, to FL 370, FL 130 to FL
encounter turbulence in CAT area n°2? moderate moderate light 270, light
3615 50
While approaching your target aerodrome you receive length of meteorologic portion of minimum
the following message: runway al visibility runway visibility at
RVR runway 23: 400m which a pilot on runway which a pilot this
This information indicates the in an aircraft 23. on the aerodrome,
on the threshold of with runway
ground any of the 23 being the
would see, runways one in
on the would see, service.
threshold of with runway
runway 23. 23 in
service.

3616 50
3617 50 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "SCT" ? 5 - 7 oktas 1 - 4 oktas 3 - 4 oktas 1 - 2 oktas
(For this question use annex 050-2493A) Moderate Severe Severe Moderate
Over Madrid, what intensity of turbulence and icing is turbulence, turbulence, turbulence, turbulence,
forecast at FL 200 ? light icing moderate severe icing moderate
icing icing
3618 50
(For this question use annex 050-2496A) LSZH ESSA ENFB EFHK
Which airport, at 1200 UTC, has the lowest probability
3619 50 of precipitation?
(For this question use annex 050-2503A) 33000 FT 15000 FT 28000 FT 30000 FT
Over Paris at what height would you expect to find the
3620 50 tropopause according to the map?
(For this question use annex 050-2504A) FL 160 FL 360 FL 220 FL 340
What is the optimum flight level between Rome and
3621 50 Paris according to the significant weather chart?
(For this question use annex 050-2505A) FL 320 FL 140 FL 220 FL 160
Flight Zurich to Rome, ETD 1600 UTC, ETA 1800 UTC.
At what flight level would you first expect to encounter
clear air turbulence on the climb out from Zurich?

3622 50
(For this question use annex 050-2506A) FL 340 FL 280 FL 300 FL 390
What is the approximate height of the tropopause
3623 50 between Munich and Helsinki?
(For this question use annex 050-2545A) 030/40 190/40 210/40 240/20
3624 50 What wind is forecast at FL 390 over Paris ?
(For this question use annex 050-2509A) FL 140 FL 260 FL 320 FL 180
You are flying from Munich to Amsterdam. Which of the
following flight levels would you choose in order to
avoid turbulence and icing?
3625 50
Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport. 10 or more 8 km 8 NM 10 NM
FCFR31 281400 km
LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO
1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30
TSRA =
Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA
Bordeaux what is the lowest quoted visibility forecast ?

3626 50
(For this question use annex 050-2511A) FL 330 FL 360 FL 300 FL 280
At what flight level is the jet stream core that is situated
3627 50 over nothern Scandinavia ?
(For this question use annex 050-2512A) Position C, Position D, Position B, Position A,
At which position could you encounter thunderstorms, FL 200. FL 290. FL 270. FL 200.
and what is the maximum height of the CB clouds?
3628 50
 (For this question use annex 050-2513A) FL 330 FL 300 FL 350 FL 240
At what approximate flight level is the tropopause over
3629 50 Frankfurt?
(For this question use annex 050-2522A) 220 / 60 250 / 80 040 / 60 160 / 90
Select from the map the wind for the route Zurich -
3630 50 London at FL 280.
(For this question use annex 050-2523A) 020/50 050/40 200/45 350/40
What is the average wind at FL 160 between Zurich and
3631 50 Rome ?
(For this question use annex 050-2529A) -57°C -45°C -39°C -33°C
The temperature at FL 330 overhead London will be
3632 50
(For this question use annex 050-2539A) Warm front Cold front Warm front Cold front
occlusion occlusion
3633 50 The front labelled "Z" is a:
(For this question use annex 050-2541A) Equatorial Polar front Arctic jet Sub-tropical
What name is given to the jet stream lying over North jet stream jet stream stream jet stream
3634 50 Africa (B) ?
What is the approximate composition of the dry air by 88 % 50 % 21 % 10 %
volume in the troposphere ? oxygen, 9 % oxygen, 40 oxygen, 78 oxygen, 89
nitrogen, % nitrogen, % nitrogen, % nitrogen,
and the rest and the rest and the rest and the rest
other gasses other gasses other gasses other
gasses
3635 50
Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport. 500 m 800 FT 500 FT 250 FT
FCNL31 281500
EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG
1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823
3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT
8000 NSW BKN020 =
Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC.
What lowest cloud base is forecast for arrival at
Amsterdam?

3636 50
The Bora is a cold cold cold squally
catabatic catabatic catabatic warm
wind with wind always wind with catabatic
gusts associated the wind which
associated with clouds possibility of occurs
with a and heavy violent gusts mainly in
maritime air showers summer
mass
3637 50
Which of the following phenomena are formed when a Stratified Inversions Showers Areas of
moist, stable layer of air is forced to rise against a clouds and severe
mountain range ? thunderstor turbulence
ms
3638 50
The most effective way to dissipate cloud is by subsidence convection a decrease a decrease
in in pressure
temperature
3639 50
Altostratus clouds are classified as high level convective medium low level
3640 50 clouds clouds level clouds clouds
Convective clouds are formed in summer in mid- in unstable in stable
during the latitudes atmosphere atmosphere
3641 50 day only only

The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can stability of dewpoint air relative
contain depends on the the air temperature humidity
3642 50
Steady precipitation, in contrast to showery precipitation stratiform convective stratiform convective
falls from clouds with clouds with clouds with clouds with
severe moderate little or no little or no
turbulence turbulence turbulence turbulence
3643 50
 A super-cooled droplet is a water a droplet still a water a small
droplet that in liquid droplet that particle of
has been state at a is mainly water at a
frozen temperature frozen temperature
during its below below -50°C
descent freezing
3644 50
Precipitation in the form of showers occurs mainly from cirro-type clouds convective stratified
clouds containing clouds clouds
only ice
crystals
3645 50
A sample of moist but unsaturated air may become raising the lowering the compressing expanding it
saturated by temperature pressure, it adiabatically
keeping adiabatically
temperature
constant

3646 50
A moist but unsaturated parcel of air becomes saturated moving the lifting the lowering the moving the
by parcel to an parcel to a parcel to a parcel to an
area with higher level lower level area with
higher lower
pressure pressure
and equal and equal
temperature temperature

3647 50
When water evaporates into unsaturated air relative heat is heat is relative
humidity is absorbed released humidity is
decreased not changed
3648 50
In METAR messages, the pressure group represents QFE QNH QFE QNH
the rounded to rounded up rounded rounded
the nearest to the down to the down to the
hPa. nearest hPa. nearest hPa. nearest hPa.

3649 50
Strongly developed cumulus clouds are an indication of poor surface instability in the the
visibility the presence of presence of
atmosphere a low level warm air
inversion aloft

3650 50
The range of wind speed in which radiation fog is most between 10 between 5 above 15 kt below 5 kt
likely to form is : and 15 kt and 10 kt
3651 50
 Aircraft struck by lightning may sometimes get An aircraft Aircraft Aircraft An aircraft
considerable damage and at least temporarily the has in the made by made by made by
manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult. atmosphere composite composite metal has a
Which one of the following statements is correct? the same material can material may certain
qualities as ´t conduct a get severe capacity to
a "Faradays lightning and damage, the attract a
cage", which will therefore crew may be lightning, but
means that very seldom blinded and the lightning
struck of be struck. temporarily will follow
lightning lose the the surface
seldom hearing. and
occurs. But therefore no
if it happens, damage will
the result be caused.
will be an
occasional
engine
failure. The
crew may
get a shock.

3652 50
3653 50 Isobars on a surface chart are lines of equal QFF QFE QNE QNH
In what hPa range is an upper weather chart for FL 340 400 - 300 500 - 400 600 - 500 300 - 200
3654 50 situated? hPa hPa hPa hPa
Flight visibility from the cockpit during approach in a about 1000 tens of about 200 about 500
3655 50 tropical downpour can decrease to minimal metres metres metres metres
Given the following METAR: EDDM 250850Z 33005KT Visibility is There is a Runway 26R RVR on
2000 R26R/P1500N R26L/1500N BR SCT002 OVC003 reduced by distinct and runway runway 26R
05/05 Q1025 NOSIG water change in 26L have is increasing
droplets RVR the same
observed RVR

3656 50
A wide body takes off on a clear night in Dhahran, Saudi low relative a very sand/dust in very
Arabia. Shortly after take off the aircraft's rate of climb humidity strong the engines pronounced
drops to zero. This can be due to temperature downdrafts
inversion

3657 50
What values are used for the forecasted wind at higher Direction Direction Direction Direction
levels? relative to relative to relative to relative to
true north magnetic magnetic grid north
and speed in north and north and and speed
knots speed in speed in in kmh
knots kmh
3658 50
The troposphere is the reaches the has a contains all
separation same height greater oxygen of
layer at all vertical the
between the latitudes extent above stratosphere
stratosphere the equator
and than above
atmosphere the poles

3659 50
You must make an emergency landing at sea. The QNH 4000 FT Less than 0 0 FT More than 0
of a field on a nearby island with an elevation of 4000 FT FT, but less
FT is 1025 hPa and the temperature is -20°C. What is than 4000
your pressure altimeter reading when landing if 1025 FT
hPa is set in the subscale?
3660 50
 The pressure altitude is equal to the true altitude if the indicated standard the outside the air
altitude is atmospheric air pressure is
equal to the conditions temperature 1013.25 hPa
pressure occur is standard at the
altitude for that surface
height

3661 50
Which of the following conditions gives the highest QFE = 995 QFE = 995 QFE = 1000 QFE = 1003
value of the QNH? hPa, hPa, hPa, hPa,
elevation = elevation = elevation = elevation =
1200 FT 1600 FT 1200 FT 1200 FT
(366m) (488m) (366m) (366m)
3662 50
The QNH is equal to the QFE if T actual < T the elevation T actual = T T actual > T
standard =0 standard standard
3663 50
The cloud base, reported in the METAR, is the height mean sea the pressure the highest airfield level
above level altitude of terrain within
the a radius of 8
observation km from the
station at the observation
time of station
observation

3664 50
The RVR, as reported in a METAR, is always the value average highest lowest value
representati value of the value of the of the A-, B-
ve of the A-, B- and A-, B- and and C-
touchdown C-position C-position position
zone
3665 50
For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 540 metres 120 metres 160 metres 600 metres
1000 hPa. The approximate elevation of the airfield is
3666 50
Hoar frost is most likely to form when flying inside flying in taking off flying inside
stratiform supercooled from an convective
clouds. drizzle. airfield with clouds.
a significant
ground
inversion.

3667 50
In the northern hemisphere the gradient wind of a 030/28 340/20 030/20 340/28
cyclonic pressure distribution is 350/24, over the sea
3668 50 the surface wind would approximate
Which of the following are medium level clouds ? Cirrocumulu Cumulonimb All Altostratus
s and us convective and
cirrostratus clouds altocumulus
3669 50
Clouds, classified as being low level are considered to 500 to 1000 100 to 200 the surface 1000 to
3670 50 have bases from FT FT to 6500 FT 2000 FT
Above and below a low level inversion the wind is likely experience change change in change in
to little or no significantly speed but direction but
change in in speed and not in not in speed
speed and direction direction
direction
3671 50
Which of the following is true concerning an aircraft that There is a Without There is no There is a
is flying at FL180 in the northern hemisphere, where cross wind knowing cross wind cross wind
wind is geostrophic and the true altitude remains from the temperature from the left
constant ? right at FL 180
this question
can not be
answered

3672 50
 Which of the following statements concerning the core It lies in the It lies in the It lies at a It and its
of a polar front jet stream is correct ? warm air; its cold air; the height where surface
pressure thermal wind there is no projection lie
surfaces are reverses horizontal in the warm
horizontal at direction at temperature air
the height of the height of gradient; the
the core the core slope of the
pressure
surfaces at
the height of
the core is at
its maximum

3673 50
On a particular day part of a polar front jet stream runs the polar air the polar air below the above the
from north to south in the northern hemisphere. This is below and is on the core of the core of the
means that to the east eastern side jet the jet the
of the core and above horizontal horizontal
of the jet the core of temperature temperature
the jet gradient gradient
runs from runs from
north to north to
south south

3674 50
An isohypse of the 500 hPa pressure surface is labelled topography pressure is topography pressure
with the number 552. This means that for all points on is 552 552 hPa is 552 altimeter will
the isohypse the decameters meters overread by
above MSL above MSL 552 FT

3675 50
Which of the following statements concerning trade They reach They reach They occur They occur
winds is correct? up to the up to the only in the only in the
tropopause tropopause lower part of lower part of
and are and are the the
more more troposphere troposphere
pronounced pronounced and are and more
over the over the more pronounced
continents oceans pronounced over the
over the oceans
continents

3676 50
In the central part of the Atlantic Ocean between 10°N SE trade SW winds NE trade NE
and 20°N the prevailing winds are winds throughout winds monsoon in
the whole winter and
year SW
monsoon in
summer
3677 50
Along the West coast of India the prevailing winds are SW SW NE SE
the monsoon in monsoon in monsoon in monsoon in
July and a July and a July and a July and a
NE SE monsoon SW SW
monsoon in in January monsoon in monsoon in
January January January
3678 50
The main factor which contributes to the formation of reduction of warm air saturation of saturation of
very low clouds ahead of a warm front is the outgoing moving over the cold air the warm air
radiation a cold by rain by rain
due to surface falling into it falling into it
clouds and and
evaporating evaporating

3679 50
 A cumulonimbus cloud at moderate latitudes in summer a only water only ice a
contains combination droplets crystals combination
of ice of ice
crystals, crystals and
water water
droplets and droplets
supercooled
water
droplets

3680 50
Which of the following factors have the greatest effect Aircraft Relative Cloud Aircraft
on the formation of the various types of ice on an speed and humidity temperature speed and
aircraft ? curvature of inside the and droplet size of cloud
the airfoil cloud size droplets

3681 50
The wind direction in a METAR is measured relative to magnetic the 0- grid north true north
3682 50 north meridian
Two aircraft, one with a sharp wing profile (S), and the Neither of Aircraft S Aircraft T Aircraft S
other with a thick profile (T), are flying through the same the aircraft experiences experiences and T
cloud with same true airspeed. The cloud consists of accumulate more icing more icing experience
small supercooled droplets. Which of the following ice due to than T. than S. the same
statements is most correct concerning ice accretion ? the small amount of
size of icing
droplets.
3683 50
While descending through a cloud cover at high level, a Mixed ice. Frost. Rime ice. Clear ice.
small amount of a white and rough powderlike
contamination is detected along the leading edge of the
wing. This contamination is called:

3684 50
A small supercooled cloud droplet that collides with an freeze freeze travel back travel back
airfoil will most likely immediately immediately over the over the
and create and create wing, wing,
rime ice. clear ice. creating creating
rime ice. clear ice.
3685 50
What is the name of the northerly, cold and strong wind, Typhoon. Mistral. Foehn. Bora.
that sometimes blows over a certain part of Europe?
3686 50
What are the characteristics of the Bora ? It is a very It is a warm It is a dry It is a cold
cold wind and moist, and hot and very
that blows southwesterl southerly strong wind
mainly in y wind wind that blows
winter from experienced experienced mainly in
a in the in the winter from
northwesterl eastern Sahara a tableland
y direction in Mediterrane desert, that downwards
the an, that often carries to the
Mediterrane usually dust. Adriatic
an carries
precipitation.

3687 50
What is the name of the hot, local wind, that blows Bora. Scirocco. Foehn. Mistral.
downwards from mountain chains? In the Alps, for
instance, it may exist both as a southerly or northerly
wind depending on the weather situation.

3688 50
 The reason for the fact, that the Icelandic low is the the low the strong converging
normally deeper in winter than in summer is that temperature pressure winds of the air currents
contrasts activity of north are of
between the sea east Atlantic in greater
arctic and of Canada is winter are intensity in
equatorial higher in favourable winter.
areas are winter. for the
much development
greater in of lows.
winter.

3689 50
Which one of the following statements is correct It reaches its It reaches its It oscillates It oscillates
concerning the movement of the ITCZ in the region of maximum maximum during the during the
West Africa? northerly southerly year year
position of position of between 10 between the
15° - 20° N 5° S in degrees Equator and
in July January North and 10 degrees
10 degrees North.
South.
3690 50
What is the name of the wind or airmass which gives to South-west South-east Indian, Winter
the main part of India its greatest proportion of monsoon. trade wind. maritime monsoon.
precipitation? tropical air
mass.
3691 50
Most strong air currents at higher levels (jet streams) In winter In summer Throughout In summer
have a westerly direction. There is, however, an along the from the the year to from south-
important easterly jet stream. When and where is it Russian Middle East the south of east Asia
likely to be encountered ? coast facing extending the Azorian extending
the Arctic over the high. over
ocean. southern southern
part of the India to
Mediterrane central
an to Africa.
southern
Spain.

3692 50
What is the type, intensity and seasonal variation of Warm fronts Precipitation Showers of Rainshower
precipitation in the equatorial region ? are common is generally rain or hail s, hail
with in the form occur showers and
continuous of showers throughout thunderstor
rain. The but the year; the ms occur
frequency is continuous frequency is the whole
the same rain occurs highest in year, but
throughout also. The January. frequency is
the year greatest highest
intensity is in during two
July. periods:
April-May
and
October-
November.

3693 50
A flight is to depart from an airport with runways 09 and Depart Take-off is Depart on Depart
27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at runway 27 not possible runway 09 runway 27
300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just with as under these with a with
above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest steep an conditions. tailwind. maximum
departure procedure ? ascent as throttle
possible. during the
passage
through the
inversion.

3694 50
 The turbulence which occurs at high flight levels (above The The The The
FL 250) is mainly of the type Clear Air Turbulence. In turbulence is turbulence turbulence is turbulence is
what way can moderate to severe Clear Air Turbulence a large scale can be wave like a small
affect an aircraft, the flight and the passengers? one (waving) resembled which scale one
so that the with the makes the and can
aircraft will roughness flight cause
be difficult to of a unpleasant damage of
manoeuvre. washing- for the worn out
The board (small passengers type. The
passengers scale) and but the manoeuvrin
will feel will not have manoeuvrin g of the
some influence on g will not be aircraft will
discomfort. the aircraft affected be made
and its essentially. more difficult
solidity, but or even
will make impossible.
flight a little For the
more passengers
difficult. The the flight will
passengers be
will seldom unpleasant.
notice
anything of
this
turbulence.

3695 50
Areas of sinking air are generally cloudless because as is heated by loses water is heated by reaches
air sinks it expansion vapour compression warmer
layers
3696 50
Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 200 hPa 300 hPa 500 hPa 700 hPa
3697 50 38662 FT pressure level (FL 390) ?
Which is true of the temperature at the tropopause? There is no It is higher in It is higher in It is highest
significant polar equatorial in middle
difference regions than regions than latitudes
with change in equatorial in polar
of latitude regions regions

3698 50
(For this question use annex 050-4339A) Symbol a) Symbol c) Symbol b) Symbol d)
According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to
3699 50 an aircraft in flight?
(For this question use annex 050-4338A) Symbol b) Symbol a) Symbol d) Symbol c)
According to ICAO, which symbol indicates a tropical
3700 50 revolving storm?
(For this question use annex 050-4337A) Symbol c) Symbol d) Symbol a) Symbol b)
According to ICAO, which symbol indicates severe icing
3701 50 ?
(For this question use annex 050-4336A) Anticyclone Trough of Depression Ridge of
Which of the following best describes Zone D? low pressure high
3702 50 pressure

The value of the saturated adiabatic lapse rate is freezing fog stratus cumulus cirrus
3703 50 closest to that of the dry adiabatic lapse rate in
(For this question use annex 050-4335A) Col Trough of Depression Ridge of
Which of the following best describes Zone C? low pressure high
3704 50 pressure

(For this question use annex 050-4334A) Ridge of Depression Trough of Col
Which of the following best describes Zone B? high low pressure
3705 50 pressure
 (For this question use annex 050-4333A) Ridge of Depression Trough of Col
Which of the following best describes Zone A? high low pressure
3706 50 pressure
(For this question use annex 050-4332A) C B D A
3707 50 The warm sector is indicated by letter:
(For this question use annex 050-4331A) C D A B
3708 50 A trough is indicated by letter:
When planning a flight at FL 110, which upper wind and 700 hPa 850 hPa 300 hPa 500 hPa
temperature chart would be nearest your flight level ?
3709 50
On the European continent METARs of main airports 2 hours 3 hours 0.5 hour 1 hour
are compiled and distributed with intervals of
3710 50
Below a low level inversion visibility is often moderate or very good at very good in moderate or
poor night the early poor due to
because morning heavy snow
there is no showers.
vertical
exchange
3711 50
Which of the following weather reports could be, in 24009KT 29010KT 04012G26K 15003KT
accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to 6000 RA 9999 T 9999 9999
"CAVOK"? SCT010 SCT045TCU BKN030 BKN100
OVC030 16/12 11/07 Q1024 17/11
12/11 Q1007 Q1015 NOSIG = Q1024
TEMPO RESHRA NOSIG =
4000 = NOSIG =

3712 50
Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 500 hPa 300 hPa 200 hPa 700 hPa
3713 50 30065 FT pressure level (FL 300)?
For a similar pressure gradient, the geostrophic wind greater at greater at the same at equivalent to
speed will be 30°N than at 60°N than at all latitudes gradient
60°N 30°N north or wind ±
south of 15° thermal
component
3714 50
Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 200 hPa 700 hPa 500 hPa 300 hPa
3715 50 18289 FT pressure level (FL 180) ?
For the same pressure gradient at 60°N, 50°N and greatest at the same at greatest at least at
3716 50 40°N the speed of the geostrophic wind will be 40°N all latitudes 60°N 50°N
Under anticyclone conditions in the northern proportional greater than less than the the same as
hemisphere, with curved isobars the speed of the only to the the geostrophic the thermal
gradient wind is Coriolis geostrophic wind component
force wind
3717 50
In which of the following areas do surface high pressure Greenland, Azores, SE Greenland, Iceland, SW
systems usually predominate over the North Atlantic SW Europe, USA, SW Azores, NE USA, Azores
region between 30°N and 65°N and the adjoining land NE Canada Europe Canada
areas during the northern summer?

3718 50
(For this question use annex 050-10721A) w t u v
Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind
circulation, the SE trade winds are applicable to zone
3719 50
(For this question use annex 050-10722A) SE trade travelling NE trade subtropical
Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic winds low pressure winds high
and wind circulation, zone "t" is an area of systems pressure
systems
3720 50
(For this question use annex 050-10723A) u and w s and y t only t and x
Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind
circulation the travelling low pressure systems are
applicable to zone
3721 50
 (For this question use annex 050-10724A) disturbed equatorial subtropical antarctic
Considering Melbourne (C) in July, the weather is temperate low pressure high high
predominantly influenced by the zone of low due to the pressure, pressure
pressure, proximity of with the due to the
bringing an the occasional absence of
almost intertropical passage of any
continuous convergence fronts protective
succession zone over originating in land mass
of fronts central the adjacent between
resulting in Australia zone of south
strong disturbed Australia
winds, low temperate and
cloud and low pressure Antarctica
rain

3722 50
(For this question use annex 050-10725A) SE trade subtropical travelling NE trade
Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic winds high low pressure winds
and wind circulation, zone "y" is an area of pressure systems
systems
3723 50
(For this question use annex 050-10726A) w u t v
Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind
circulation, the NE trade winds are applicable to zone
3724 50
(For this question use annex 050-10727A) SW trade subtropical NE trade travelling
Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic winds high winds depressions
3725 50 and wind circulation, zone "u" is in area of pressure
If you are planning a flight at FL 290, which of these 850 hPa 300 hPa 500 hPa 700 hPa
upper wind and temperature charts would be nearest
3726 50 your flight level ?
Low level wind shear is likely to be greatest at the top of at the at the at the top of
a marked condensatio condensatio the friction
surface- n level when n level when layer.
based there is no there is
inversion. night strong
radiation. surface
friction.
3727 50
The height of the lifting condensation level is wet temperature temperature wind and
determined by adiabatic and at surface dewpoint at
lapse rate dewpoint at and air the surface
and the surface pressure
dewpoint at
the surface
3728 50
SIGMET information is issued as a warning for all aircraft light aircraft VFR heavy
significant weather to only operations aircraft only
3729 50 only
Runway visual range can be reported in a SIGMET both a TAF a METAR a TAF
and a
3730 50 METAR

If CAVOK is reported then no low no clouds low level any CB's

drifting snow are present windshear have a base
is present has not above 5000
been FT
reported
3731 50
ATIS information contains only meteorologic only operational
operational al and meteorologic information
information operational al and if
information information necessary
meteorologi
cal
information
3732 50
 (For this question use annex 050-4725A) SW warm localised NE wind
Considering the route indicates from Lisbon to monsoonal southerly depression affecting
Freetown, the Harmattan is a wind dust-bearing giving north-west
causing wind squally Africa during
extensive affecting the winds. November
areas of coast of to April
advection North Africa. reducing
fog along visibility in
the West rising dust.
African
coast south
of 15°N.

3733 50
Going from the equator to the north pole, the altitude of increases decreases decreases increases
the tropopause and its and its and its and its
temperature temperature temperature temperature
decreases decreases increases increases

3734 50
All pilots encountering Clear Air Turbulence are severe extreme moderate light
requested to report it. You experience CAT which
causes passengers and crew to feel definite strain
against their seat belt or shoulders straps. Unsecured
objects are dislodged. Food service and walking are
difficult. This intensity of CAT should be reported as

3735 50
The equatorial easterly jet is a jet stream that occurs : during the during the only in the only in the
whole year whole year summer of winter of the
in the in the the northern northern
southern northern hemisphere hemisphere
hemisphere hemisphere at approx. at approx.
45 000 FT 30 000 FT

3736 50
Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated surface surface surface surface
with a non frontal thermal depression because of : convergence convergence divergence divergence
and upper and upper and upper and upper
level level level level
divergence divergence convergence convergenc
causing causing causing e causing
widespread widespread widespread widespread
ascent of air descent of descent of ascent of air
in the air in the air in the in the
depression depression depression depression

3737 50
The validity of a TAF is between 6 9 hours from stated in the 2 hours
and 9 hours the time of TAF
issue
3738 50
The region of the globe where the greatest number of the northern the north- the the south-
tropical revolving storms occur is Indian west Pacific, carribean western
ocean, affecting sea, Indian
affecting Japan, affecting the ocean,
India, Sri Formosa, West Indies, affecting
Lanka and Korea and Mexico and Madagascar
Bangladesh. the Chinese the south- , Mauritius
coastline. east and the
coastline of island of
the USA. Réunion.

3739 50
 In a polar front depression, an occlusion is called a behind is in front of behind is behind is
warm occlusion when the cold air less cold the surface colder than colder than
than the cold position of the cold air the cold air
air in front, front is only in front. in front, with
with the at a high the warm air
warm air at altitude. being at a
a high high altitude.
altitude.

3740 50
(For this question use annex 050-4340A) Symbol b) Symbol c) Symbol d) Symbol a)
According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to
3741 50 an aircraft in flight?
(For this question use annex 050-4362A) EKCH EINN ESSA LSZH
At which airport is the following weather development
taking place?
TAF 231322 24014G32KT 4000 +TSRA SCT005
BKN015 BKN020CB BECMG 1416 29012KT 9999
BKN030TCU SCT100 TEMPO 8000 SHRA
BKN025TCU BECMG 1922 27012KT 9999 SCT030
OVC220 =
3742 50
A SPECI is an aviation a warning a forecast an aviation
routine for special for special selected
weather weather weather special
report phenomena phenomena weather
report
3743 50
Which of the following weather reports could be, in 27019G37K 34004KT 00000KT 26012KT
accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to T 9999 7000 MIFG 0100 FG 8000 SHRA
"CAVOK"? BKN050 SCT260 VV001 11/11 BKN025
18/14 09/08 Q1025 16/12
Q1016 Q1029 BECMG Q1018
NOSIG = BECMG 0500 = NOSIG =
1600 =
3744 50
Which of the following statements is an interpretation of Broken, Wind 250°, Gusts of 38 Mean wind
the METAR ? cloudbase thunderstor knots, speed 20-38
25020G38KT 1200 +TSGR BKN006 BKN015CB 23/18 600 feet and m with thunderstor knots,
Q1016 BECMG NSW = 1500 feet, moderate m with meteorologi
temperature hail, QNH heavy hail, cal visibility
18°C 1016 hPa dew point 1200
18°C metres,
temperature
23°C

3745 50
Which of the following statements is an interpretation of RVR for Meteorologic Meteorologic Meteorologi
the METAR ? runway 14 al visibility al visibility cal visibility
00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 800 metres, 200 metres, 200 feet, for runway
m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 = vertical RVR for RVR for 14 800
visibility 100 runway 16 runway 16 metres, fog
feet, calm, 1500 more than with hoar
meteorologic metres, 1500 frost, RVR
al visibility temperature metres, for runway
improving to -3°C, vertical vertical 16 more
800 metres visibility 100 visibility 100 than 1500
in the next 2 metres feet, fog with metres
hours hoar frost

3746 50
 Which of the following statements is an interpretation of Moderate to Moderate to Zone of Severe
the SIGMET ? strong clear severe clear moderate to turbulence
LSAW SWITZERLAND 0307 SIGMET 2 VALID air air severe observed
030700/031100 LSSW mod to sev cat fcst north of alps turbulence turbulence turbulence below FL
btn fl 260 and fl 380 / stnr / intsf = of constant to be moving 260 north of
intensity to expected towards the the Alps.
be expected north of the area north of Pilots
north of the Alps. the Alps. advised to
Alps Intensity Intensity cross this
increasing. increasing. area above
Danger zone Pilots FL 380
between FL advised to
260 and FL cross this
380 area above
FL 260

3747 50
The intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) particularly western western western the Atlantic
affects Africa, Africa Africa, at a ocean,
where it is between 10° latitude of between
situated and 20°N 25°N in July. latitudes
between the and the 10°N and
10°N and northern 30°N,
30°N coasts of the depending
parallels, Arabian sea on the time
depending in July. of year.
on the time
of the year.

3748 50
Compare the following TAF and VOLMET reports for That the That the That the That the
Nice: weather at weather weather in VOLMET
TAF 240716 VRB02KT CAVOK = Nice is conditions at Nice after speaker has
0920Z 13012KT 8000 SCT040CB BKN100 20/18 clearly more 0920 were 0920 is also got his
Q1015 TEMPO TS = volatile than actually likely to be locations
What can be concluded from the differences between the TAF predicted in as predicted mixed up,
the two reports ? could have the TAF in the TAF because
predicted there is no
earlier in the way the
morning latest
VOLMET
report could
be so
different
from the
TAF

3749 50
On an aerodrome, when a warm front is approaching QFE QFE and QFE and QFE
decreases QNH QNH increases
and QNH decrease. increase. and QNH
increases. decreases.
3750 50
(For this question use annex 050-4363A) 16002KT 26014KT 23018G35K 21002KT
Which of the following weather conditions would be 0200 8000 T 9999 6000 BR
expected at Athens Airport (LGAT) at around 1450 R33L/0600N BKN090 SCT035 SCT040
UTC? FG VV001 17/12 10/04 29/16
12/12 Q1009 Q0988 Q1026
Q1031 BECMG NOSIG = NOSIG =
BECMG 4000 =
0800 =

3751 50
(For this question use annex 050-4364A) LSZH ENFB EKCH ESSA
Which airport is most likely to have fog in the coming
3752 50 night?
(For this question use annex 050-4365A) 230/10 200/30 040/10 250/20
Select from the map the average wind for the route
3753 50 Zurich - Rome at FL110.
 (For this question use annex 050-4366A) -12°C -6°C +5°C -9°C
Select from the map the average temperature for the
3754 50 route Zurich - Rome at FL 110.
(For this question use annex 050-4367A) FL 20 FL 140 FL 120 FL 60
Look at the chart. Assuming a normal vertical
temperature gradient, at what altitude will the freezing
level above Shannon be found?
3755 50
Refer to the TAF for Zurich Airport Meteorologic Meteorologic Meteorologic Meteorologi
TAF LSZH 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 BECMG al visibility al visibility al visibility 6 cal visibility
0810 0800 VV002 BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 800 metres, 800 metres, kilometres, 2,5
BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000 SCT007 = wind from vertical cloudbase kilometres,
Which of these statements best describes the weather 230°, visibility 200 500 feet, cloudbase
that can be expected at 1200 UTC? cloudbase feet, calm windspeed 5 500 feet,
500 feet knots windspeed 5
knots
3756 50
Which of the following statements is an interpretation of Thunderstor Thunderstor Athens The
the SIGMET ? ms must be ms have Airport is thunderstor
SIGMET VALID 121420/121820 embd ts obs and fcst in expected in formed in closed due ms in the
w part of athinai fir / mov e / intst nc = the western the eastern to Athens FIR
part of the part of the thunderstor are
Athens FIR. Athens FIR ms. The increasing in
The and are thunderstor intensity, but
thunderstor slowly m zone are
m zone is moving west should be stationary
moving east. east of above the
Intensity is Athens by western part
constant 1820 UTC of the
Athens FIR

3757 50
Supercooled droplets can be encountered in winter only in only in at any time
only in high winter above winter at of the year
clouds 10000 FT high altitude
3758 50
In an unstable layer there are cumuliform clouds. The air pressure pressure at thickness of wind
vertical extent of these clouds depends on the at the different the unstable direction
surface levels layer
3759 50
Advection fog can be formed when warm moist cold moist warm moist cold moist
air flows air flows air flows air flows
over a over a over a over warmer
colder warmer warmer water
surface surface surface
3760 50
The morning following a clear, calm night when the advection good clear radiation fog a cold front
temperature has dropped to the dewpoint, is likely to fog weather
3761 50 produce
When the temperature and dew point are less than one unlimited fog or low clear and high
degree apart the weather conditions are most likely to visibility cloud cool scattered
3762 50 be clouds
An observer on the northern hemisphere is under continuously continuously initially initially
influence of the wind system of a depression, which is backing veering backing, veering,
moving from West to East. The centre of the depression then veering then backing
passes to the South of the observer. For this observer
the wind direction is
3763 50
With which type of cloud are tornadoes normally Stratus Nimbostratu Cumulonimb Cumulus
3764 50 associated ? s us
The diameter of a typical tornado is only a few about 2 to 6 in the order 100 to 150
3765 50 metres km of 10 km metres
In which stage of the life cycle of a single thunderstorm Mature Cumulus Dissipating In all stages
cell occur both up- and downdrafts simultaneously? stage stage stage
3766 50
 Which of the following statements describes a An A small low A high A high
microburst ? extremely pressure speed speed
strong wind system downburst of downdraft of
gust where the air with a air with a
associated wind generally higher
with a circulates at lower temperature
tropical high speed temperature than its
revolving than its surrounding
storm surrounding s
s

3767 50
Fallstreaks or virga are strong water or ice strong gusts
katabatic particles downdraugh associated
winds in falling out of ts in the with a well
mountainous a cloud that polar jet developed
areas and evaporate stream, Bora
accompanie before associated
d by heavy reaching the with jet
precipitation ground streaks

3768 50
The diameter and the life time of a typical microburst 12 km and 4 km and 1- 4 km and 8 km and 5-
are in the order of 5-10 5 minutes 30-40 15 minutes
3769 50 minutes minutes
Supercooled droplets can occur in clouds, fog clouds but precipitation clouds but
and not in but not in not in fog
precipitation precipitation clouds
3770 50
Frontal fog is most likely to occur in summer in in winter in in advance in rear of a
the early the early of a warm warm front
3771 50 morning morning front
Supercooled droplets are always at a small and at large and at at a
temperature a a temperature
below temperature temperature below -60°C
freezing below below
freezing freezing
3772 50
Visibility is reduced by haze when a light a cold front small dust
drizzle falls just passed waterdroplet particles are
s are trapped
present below an
inversion
3773 50
Glaze or clear ice is formed when supercooled droplets small and of any size large and at small and at
are freeze at a a
rapidly temperature temperature temperature
s below just below just below
-35°C. freezing freezing

3774 50
During an adiabatic process heat is added but neither added lost
the result is added nor
an overall lost
loss
3775 50
The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in an 1°C 2°C 0.65°C 0.5°C
3776 50 unsaturated rising parcel of air is
The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in a 0.6°C 1°C 1.5°C 0.35°C
saturated rising parcel of air at lower level of the
3777 50 atmosphere is approximately
 The following temperatures have been observed over a The height The The layer Assuming
station at 1200 UTC. Assume the station is at MSL. of the temperature between that the MSL
Height in feet. Temperature in degrees C. freezing at 10000 FT 16000 and pressure is
20000.-12 18000.-11 16000.-10 14000.-10 12000.-6 level over is in 18000 FT is 1013.25 hPa
10000.-2 8000. +2 6000. +6 4000. +12 2000. +15 the station is agreement absolutely the true
surface+15. approximatel with the unstable altitude of
y 12000 FT. temperature an aircraft
in the would
International actually be
Standard higher than
Atmosphere. the indicated
altitude.

3778 50
In unstable air, surface visibility is most likely to be low stratus showers of haze drizzle
restricted by rain or snow
3779 50
A vertical temperature profile indicates the possibility of coincides indicates indicates intersects
severe icing when the temperature profile with a dry temperature temperature the 0°C
adiabatic s below s above 3°C isotherm
lapse rate -40°C twice
3780 50
A pilot is warned of severe icing at certain flight levels SWC and TAF and METAR and TAF and
3781 50 by information supplied in SIGMET METAR SIGMET SIGMET
Freezing precipitation occurs mainly in the mainly in the only in the only in the
form of form of precipitation precipitation
freezing hail freezing rain of a cold of a warm
or freezing or freezing front front
snow drizzle

3782 50
In the vicinity of industrial areas, smoke is most likely to there is a the surface cumulus a rapid
affect surface visibility when low level wind is clouds have moving cold
inversion strong and developed in front has
gusty the just passed
afternoon the area

3783 50
The rate of cooling of ascending saturated air is less water water heat is moist air is
than the rate of cooling of ascending unsaturated air vapour vapour released heavier than
because: doesn't cool absorbs the during the dry air
as rapidly as incoming condensatio
dry air heat from n process
the sun

3784 50
If the surface temperature is 15°C , then the 0°C 5°C -5°C -15°C
temperature at 10000 FT in a current of ascending
3785 50 unsaturated air is:
An inversion is a decrease an increase an increase a decrease
of of of pressure of pressure
temperature temperature with height with height
with height with height

3786 50
During the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets rapidly and slowly and slowly and rapidly and
freeze do not do not spread out spread out
3787 50 spread out spread out

The prevailing surface wind in the area of the west SW NE NE SW

coast of Africa north of the equator (gulf of Guinea) is a monsoon in tradewind in monsoon in monsoon in
winter and summer and winter and summer and
NE SE SE NE
monsoon in tradewind in tradewind in tradewind in
summer winter summer winter
3788 50
 Thunderstorms can occur on a warm front if the cold air is warm air is cold air is warm air is
moist and moist and moist and moist and
the the the the
environment environment environment environment
al lapse rate al lapse rate al lapse rate al lapse rate
is less than is less than exceeds the exceeds the
the dry the saturated saturated
adiabatic saturated adiabatic adiabatic
lapse rate adiabatic lapse rate lapse rate
lapse rate

3789 50
A microburst has a has a life is always occurs only
diameter up time of more associated in tropical
to 4 km than 30 with areas
minutes thunderstor
ms
3790 50
In which of the following areas is the highest frequency Subtropical Temperate Tropical Polar
3791 50 of thunderstorms encountered ?
Which thunderstorms generally develop in the Warm front Cold mass Occlusion Airmass
afternoon in summer over land in moderate latitudes? thunderstor thunderstor thunderstor thunderstor
3792 50 ms ms ms ms

What are the requirements for the formation of a A cumulus An adequate Water A
thunderstorm? cloud with supply of vapour and stratocumul
sufficient moisture, high us cloud
moisture conditional pressure with
associated instability sufficient
with an and a lifting moisture
inversion action

3793 50
A gustfront is characterize another formed by normally
d by heavy name for a the cold air encountered
lightning cold front outflow from directly
a below a
thunderstor thunderstor
m m
3794 50
Which of the statements is true concerning squall For severe Severe For severe Severe
lines ? squall lines squall lines squall lines squall lines
a SIGMET is only occur in a TAF is always
issued the tropics issued move from
northwest to
southeast

3795 50
Large hail stones only occur in are entirely only occur in are typically
thunderstor composed of frontal associated
ms of mid- clear ice thunderstor with severe
latitudes ms thunderstor
ms

3796 50
What feature is normally associated with the cumulus Rain or hail Continuous Roll cloud Frequent
stage of a thunderstorm? at the updraft lightning
3797 50 surface
During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is Anvil stage Dissipating Cumulus Mature
characterized predominantly by downdrafts? stage stage stage
3798 50
The most hazardous type of cloud that may be cumulus cirrus cumulonimb stratocumul
3799 50 encountered on a cross country flight is us us
Vertical wind shear is horizontal horizontal vertical vertical
variation in variation in variation in variation in
the the vertical the the vertical
horizontal wind horizontal wind
wind wind
3800 50
 Steaming fog (arctic sea smoke) occurs in air with warm that is that is stable with cold
mass absolutely mass
3801 50 properties stable properties
What information is given on a Significant Weather The The The The
Chart? significant significant significant significant
weather weather weather that weather in a
forecast for forecast for is observed period 3
a period 6 the time at the time hours before
hours after given on the given on the and 3 hours
the time chart chart after the
given on the time given
chart on the chart

3802 50
Clear ice is dangerous because it spreads out is heavy and is is not
and contains is difficult to translucent translucent
many air remove from and only and forms at
particles the aircraft forms at the the leading
surfaces leading edges
edges

3803 50
An easterly wave is a disturbance wave in a wave-like small scale
in the higher trade wind disturbance wave
levels belt, moving in the disturbance
associated from east to monsoon in the
with the west, with regime of tropics,
equatorial severe India, moving from
easterly jet, convective moving from east to west,
moving from activity in east to west, with severe
east to west, rear of its with severe convective
with severe trough convective activity
convective activity ahead of its
activity in ahead of its trough
rear of its trough
trough

3804 50
Which of the following statements concerning the It does not It is an area There are It lies totally
intertropical convergence zone is true? change its of low frequent in the
position over pressure occurrences northern
the oceans and low of CB hemisphere
during the relative in July and
year humidity totally in the
southern
hemisphere
in January

3805 50
The transition from SW to NE monsoon in India occurs September, July, August, December, February,
in October, September January, March, April
3806 50 November February
A blocking anticyclone on the northern hemisphere is situated a cold a warm quasi
between 50° anticyclone/ anticyclone/ stationary/sit
and 70°N/a steering quasi uated
cold depressions/ stationary/sit between
anticyclone/ situated over uated 50°N and
steering Scandinavia between 70°N/a cold
depressions 50°N and anticyclone
70°N
3807 50
The stable layer at some height in the low troposphere trade wind subsidence friction radiation
of an older high pressure area in the mid-latitudes is inversion inversion inversion inversion
3808 50 called
 A cold pool is usually develops normally occurs
most evident usually in disappears frequently in
in the winter when at night and winter to the
circulation very occurs south of the
and unstable almost Alps when
temperature maritime exclusively this region is
fields of the polar or in summer under the
middle maritime influence of
troposphere arctic air cold north-
and may currents westerly
show little or stream airstream
no sign on a southwards
surface along the
chart eastern side
of an
extensive
ridge of high
pressure, in
association
with
occluded
systems

3809 50
If the pressure surfaces bulge upwards in all levels then warm high cold low cold high warm low
3810 50 the pressure system is a
A squall line usually is most likely to be encountered in an behind of a ahead of a at an
airmass with stationary cold front occluded
cold mass front front
properties

3811 50
In a warm front occlusion the warm air the warm the warm the cold air
is lifted front front is lifted
overtakes becomes a
the cold front aloft
front
3812 50
Which of the following circumstances most favour the Warm moist Maritime Advection of Moist air
development of radiation fog? air at the tropical air very cold air over land
windward flowing over over much during clear
side of a cold sea warmer sea night with
mountain little wind

3813 50
Which of the following statements is true concerning It forms at It forms It forms It can be
advection fog? night or the when slowly and formed
early unstable air disappears suddenly by
morning is cooled rapidly day or night
adiabatically

3814 50
Runway Visual Range (RVR) is measured usually reported reported in
with better than when TAF and
ceilometers meteorologic meteorologic METAR
alongside al visibility al visibility is
the runway less than
2000m
3815 50
Freezing fog exists if fog droplets are are frozen are freezing freeze when
supercooled very rapidly temperature
falls below
zero

3816 50
 The most dangerous low level wind shears are during any near valleys when strong in areas with
encountered period when and at the ground layered
wind speed windward inversions clouds and
is greater side of are present wind speeds
than 35 kt mountains. and near higher than
and near thunderstor 35 kt
valleys ms

3817 50
Under which of the following conditions is the most A jet stream, A westerly A straight jet A curved jet
severe CAT likely to be experienced ? with great jet stream at stream near stream near
spacing low latitudes a low a deep
between the in the pressure trough
isotherms summer area

3818 50
The type of icing that occurs in dense clouds with large clear ice hoar frost rime ice cloudy ice
supercooled drops that have a temperature of -5°C is
3819 50 most likely to be
What is the track most likely to be taken by a hurricane West in the West in the East West deep
in the Carribean area? earlier earlier into the U.S.
stages and stages and
later south later north
east east
3820 50
Low level vertical wind shear can be expected during in unstable and early and early in
the night atmosphere morning only morning only association
s in winter in summer with
radiation
inversions
3821 50
The sea breeze is a wind from the sea blowing at occurring occurring that reaches
night in mid- only in mid- only in the up to the
latitudes latitudes and lower layers tropopause
in daytime of the in daytime
atmosphere
in daytime

3822 50
The Foehn wind is a warm fall cold fall wind warm cold
wind anabatic anabatic
3823 50 wind wind
During a descent from 2000 FT above the surface to the veers and backs and veers and backs and
surface (no frontal passage) the wind normally decreases decreases increases increases
3824 50
Wind is caused by the horizontal the rotation friction
movements pressure of the earth between the
of fronts differences air and the
ground
3825 50
In the northern hemisphere the wind at the surface counter- counter- from a low clockwise
blows clockwise clockwise pressure around, and
around, and around, and area to a away from
away from toward the high the centre
the centre centre of, a pressure of, a low
of, a high low pressure area pressure
pressure area area
area.

3826 50
In the northern hemisphere a pilot flying at 1000 right and about 45 directly left and
FT/AGL directly towards the centre of a low pressure behind degrees to ahead behind
area, will find the wind blowing from the right of
directly
ahead
3827 50
 When isobars, for an area in the mid-latitudes on a strong blowing changing light
weather map, are close together, the wind is most likely perpendicul direction
to be ar to the rapidly
isobars
3828 50
In order to reduce QFE to QNH, which of the following Elevation of Elevation of Elevation of Temperature
item(s) must be known ? the airfield the airfield the airfield at the
and the and the airfield
temperature temperature
at MSL at the airfield

3829 50
Which statement is true for hurricanes in the North They The Their From the
Atlantic? intensify diameter is greatest earth's
rapidly after 50-500 m frequency of surface up
landfall occurrence to the
is in winter tropopause
the core is
warmer than
its
surrounding
s

3830 50
In still air the temperature decreases at an average of environment saturated dry adiabatic normal
1.2°C per 100 m increase in altitude. This temperature al lapse rate adiabatic lapse rate lapse rate
3831 50 change is called: lapse rate

Which of the following statements concerning jet In the In the In the In the
streams is correct? southern northern northern southern
hemisphere hemisphere hemisphere hemisphere
only easterly both only no jet
jet streams westerly and westerly jet streams
occur easterly jet streams occur
streams occur
occur

3832 50
Freezing rain occurs when snow falls rain falls into ice pellets water
into an a layer of air melt vapour first
above- with turns into
freezing temperature water
layer of air s below 0°C droplets

3833 50
An aircraft is flying at FL 180 on the northern It remains Without It decreases It increases
hemisphere with a crosswind from the left. Which of the constant knowing
following is correct concerning its true altitude ? temperature
s at FL 180
this question
can not be
answered.

3834 50
A layer is absolutely unstable if the temperature less than more than between 1°C 0.65°C per
decrease with height is 0.65°C per 1°C per per 100m 100m
100m 100m and 0.65°C
per 100m

3835 50
A layer in which the temperature remains constant with neutral conditionally absolutely unstable
3836 50 height is unstable stable
A layer in which the temperature increases with height conditionally neutral absolutely absolutely
3837 50 is unstable stable unstable
A layer in which the temperature decreases with 1°C absolutely absolutely conditionally neutral for
3838 50 per 100m is stable unstable unstable dry air
If in a 100 m thick layer the temperature at the bottom of absolutely conditionally neutral absolutely
the layer is 10°C and at the top of the layer is 8°C then stable unstable unstable
3839 50 this layer is
 An inversion is a layer that an a an unstable
can be absolutely conditionally layer
either stable stable layer unstable
or unstable layer

3840 50
The greater the pressure gradient the closer the further the closer the further the
isobars and isobars will isobars and isobars will
the stronger be apart and the lower the be apart and
the wind the weaker temperature the higher
the wind s the
temperature

3841 50
When otherwise calm and clear conditions exist a continually from the from the continually
station on the shore of a large body of water will from water land in water in from land to
experience wind to the land daytime and daytime and water
from the from the
water at land at night
night
3842 50
The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication presence of presence of risk of developmen
of the valley winds mountain orographic t of thermal
waves thunderstor lows
ms
3843 50
The presence of altocumulus castellanus indicates stability in subsidence instability in strong
the higher in a large the middle convection
troposphere part of the troposphere at low height
troposphere

3844 50
What type of cloud is being described ? Nimbostratu Cirrostratus Stratus Altostratus
A generally grey cloud layer with fairly uniform base and s
uniform appearance, which may give drizzle or snow
grains. When the sun is visible through the cloud, the
outline is clearly discernible. Sometimes it appears in
the form of ragged patches.

3845 50
Cumulus clouds are an indication for up and stability the the
downdrafts approach of approach of
a cold front a warm front
3846 50
Assume that an aircraft is flying in the northern If in this If in this If in this If in this
hemisphere at the 500 hPa pressure surface on a pressure pressure pressure pressure
heading of 270 degrees. Which of the following surface the surface the surface the surface the
statements is correct? wind comes wind comes wind comes wind comes
from the from the from the from the
direction 360 direction 180 direction 270 direction
degrees, degrees, degrees, 090
then true then true then true degrees,
altitude is altitude is altitude is then true
increasing increasing increasing altitude is
increasing

3847 50
The vertical extent of the friction layer depends primarily wind speed, roughness temperature, stability,
on roughness of surface, local time, wind speed,
of surface, temperature, environment roughness
temperature local time al lapse rate of surface

3848 50
If you are planning a flight at FL 170, which of these 850 hPa 700 hPa 500 hPa 300 hPa
upper wind and temperature charts would be nearest
3849 50 your flight level ?
 A super-cooled droplet is one that has a shell is at an remains has frozen
of ice with above liquid at a to become
water inside freezing below an ice pellet
it temperature freezing
in below temperature
freezing air
3850 50
Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of water freezing rain droplets small super-
vapour striking the forming on cooled
turning aircraft the aircraft droplets
directly into and then striking the
ice crystals freezing aircraft
on the
aircraft
surface
3851 50
An airmass is unstable when an temperature pressure temperature
ascending and humidity shows a increases
parcel of air are not marked with height
continues to constant variation
rise to a over a given
considerable horizontal
height. area

3852 50
An airmass is stable when the lapse the vertical temperature pressure is
rate is 1°C motion of a in a given constant
per 100 m rising parcel area drops
of air tends off very
to become rapidly with
weaker and height
disappears.

3853 50
On a clear summer day, turbulence caused by solar during the immediately during early about
heating is most pronounced early after sunset morning midmorning
afternoon hours before
sunrise

3854 50
A significant inversion at low height is a characteristic of advection cumulus nocturnal the passage
fog clouds radiation of cold front
3855 50
Clear ice forms as a result of supercooled supercooled water ice pellets
droplets water vapour splattering
freezing on droplets freezing to on the
impact spreading the aircraft aircraft
during the
freezing
process
3856 50
In a low pressure system the convergence at the centripetal the the frictional
surface is caused by forces inbalance of curvature of forces
the the isobars
horizontal
gradient
force and
the Coriolis
force
3857 50
Geostrophic wind always veers with is is directly
increases height if cold perpendicul proportional
with air is ar to the to the
increasing advected in horizontal density of
height the northern pressure the air
hemisphere gradient
force
3858 50
 A dry, sand- and dust-laden North Easterly wind that Pampero Khamsin Harmattan Scirocco
blows in winter over large parts of North West Africa is
3859 50 known as a
A strong, dry and warm katabatic wind, produced by Foehn Harmattan Mistral Bora
prior enforced ascent of air over hills or mountains is
3860 50 known as a
The geostrophic wind speed is directly proportional to density of horizontal curvature of sine of
the the air pressure isobars latitude
3861 50 gradient
Large supercooled water drops, which freeze on impact rime ice hoar frost cloudy ice clear ice
3862 50 on an aircraft, form
The wind speed in a system with curved isobars higher if always always lower higher if
compared to a system with straight isobars is (other curvature is higher curvature is
conditions being the same) anticyclonic cyclonic
3863 50
Freezing fog consists of ice crystals supercooled frozen water frozen
water droplets minute snow
droplets flakes
3864 50
In an area of converging air convective stratified clouds can clouds can
clouds can clouds can not be be formed
be dissolved be dissolved formed
3865 50
You are flying from east to west in the northern If the wind is If the wind is If you have a If you have
hemisphere at the 500 hPa pressure surface. Which of from the from the head wind a tail wind
the following statements is correct? north you south you you are you are
are gaining are gaining gaining losing
altitude altitude altitude altitude
3866 50
Geostrophic wind is the wind when isobars are straight lines curved lines straight lines curved lines
and friction and friction and no and no
is involved. is involved. friction is friction is
involved. involved
3867 50
Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of smooth a high risk of turbulence poor
flying thunderstor at and below visibility at
conditions ms the cloud surface
below the level
cloud level
3868 50
The Chinook is a warm warm and very cold downslope
anabatic dry wind that wind with wind that
wind up the forms as air blowing occurs
slopes of descends on snow particularly
snowfields the leeward at night as
or glaciers side of the air cools
Rocky along
Mountains mountain
slopes

3869 50
The wind tends to follow the contour lines (isohypses) the friction of the coriolis contour lines the coriolis
above the friction layer because the air with force tends are lines that force acts
the earth's to balance connect perpendicul
surface with the points with ar on a line
gives the horizontal the same that
airflow a pressure windspeed connects
diversion gradient in the upper high and low
perpendicul force air pressure
ar to the system
gradient
force.

3870 50
 During periods of prolonged clear skies associated with surface wind angle wind tends surface wind
anticyclonic conditions, the speed tends between to back from speed tends
to be highest isobars and early to be
at night surface wind morning until highest
direction early during the
tends to be afternoon early
greatest in afternoon
the early
afternoon

3871 50
Divergence in the upper air results, near the surface, in rising rising falling falling
pressure pressure pressure pressure
and likely and likely and likely and likely
formation of dissipation dissipation formation of
clouds of clouds of clouds clouds
3872 50
The geostrophic wind depends on density, earth's geographic centripetal
earth's rotation, latitude, force,
rotation, geographic centripetal height,
geographic latitude, force, height pressure
latitude centripetal gradient
force
3873 50
In a mountain-valley wind circulation, the mountain wind during the at night at night up during the
blows day up from down from from the day down
the valley the valley from the
mountains mountains
3874 50
At the approach of a warm front (northern hemisphere) veers in the backs in the veers in the backs in the
the wind direction changes from the surface up to the friction layer friction layer friction layer friction layer
tropopause. The effect of this change is that the wind and veers and veers and backs and and
above the above the above the backs above
friction layer friction layer friction layer the friction
layer

3875 50
The difference between geostrophic wind and gradient curvature of friction horizontal slope of
wind is caused by isobars temperature pressure
3876 50 gradients surfaces

From which of the following pieces of information can Environment Surface Dry Pressure at
the stability of the atmosphere be derived? al lapse rate temperature adiabatic the surface
3877 50 lapse rate
What relationship exists between the wind at 3000 feet The wind at They have They are The surface
and the surface wind? 3000 feet is the same practically wind is
parallel to direction, but the same, veered
the the surface except when compared to
isohypses wind is eddies exist, the wind at
and the weaker, caused by 3000 feet
surface wind caused by obstacles and is
direction is friction usually
across the weaker.
isobars
toward the
low pressure
and the
surface wind
is weaker.

3878 50
During the climb after take-off, the altimeter setting is It will remain It is not It will It will
adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is the same possible to decrease increase
1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading give a
during the resetting procedure ? definitive
answer
3879 50
 Which of the following cloud types are most likely to Altostratus Altocumulus Stratocumul Stratus and
produce light to moderate icing when they are not and and us and cumulonimb
subject to orographic lifting and consist of supercooled cirrocumulus altostratus. cirrostratus us
cloud droplets?
3880 50
(For this question use annex 050-4371A) 260/40 050/35 240/40 210/25
Select from the map the average wind for the route
3881 50 Athens - Geneva at FL 160.
(For this question use annex 050-4370A) 10°C colder 10°C 4°C colder 4°C warmer
What is the mean temperature deviation from ISA for than ISA warmer than than ISA than ISA
3882 50 the Frankfurt - Rome route? ISA
(For this question use annex 050-4368A) 050/40 030/35 230/40 200/50
Select from the map the average wind for the route
3883 50 Frankfurt - Rome at FL 170.
The following weather report 9 hour TAF. 24 hour TAF. SPECI. METAR.
EDDM 241322 VRB03KT 1500 HZ OVC004 BECMG
1517 00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022 0400 FG
VV001
is a :
3884 50
Refer to the following TAF for Zurich. 1500 m. 5000 FT. 1500 FT. 1000 FT.
LSZH 061019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080
TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG
1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010=
The lowest cloud base forecast at ETA Zurich (1200
UTC) is:

3885 50
Refer to the following TAF for Zurich. 6 NM. 4 km. 10 km. 6 km.
LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080
TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG
1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010=
The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is:

3886 50
8/8 stratus base 200 FT/AGL is observed at sunrise at Winter: SCT Winter: OVC Winter: clear Winter: BKN
an aerodrome in the north of France; the QNH is 1028 base 3000 base 500 sky; summer base 2500
hPa and there is a variable wind of 3 kt. FT/AGL; FT/AGL; BKN CB FT/AGL;
What change in these clouds is likely at 12:00 UTC in summer summer base 1500 summer
summer and winter? OVC base SCT base FT/AGL. BKN base
500 FT/AGL. 3000 3500
FT/AGL. FT/AGL.

3887 50
You are flying at FL 200. Outside air temperature is 21740 feet 18260 feet 19340 feet 20660 feet
-40°C, and the pressure at sea level is 1033 hPa. What
3888 50 is the true altitude?
(For this question use annex 050-4249A) Wind speed The true The true Wind speed
An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper at B is altitude will altitude will at A and at B
level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa. higher than be higher at be higher at is the same
Which of these statements is correct? at A B than at A A than at B
3889 50
(For this question use annex 050-4248A) Wind speed Wind speed The true The true
An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper at Madrid is at B is altitude will altitude will
level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa. higher than higher than be higher at be higher at
Which of these statements is correct? at A at A B than at A A than at B

3890 50
(For this question use annex 050-4247A) Wind speed The true The true Wind speed
An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper at A and at B altitude will altitude will at A is higher
level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa. is the same be higher at be higher at than at B
Which of these statements is correct? A than at B B than at A
3891 50
(For this question use annex 050-4373A) 4°C warmer 8°C warmer 12°C colder 8°C colder
What is the deviation of the temperature at FL 140 than ISA than ISA than ISA than ISA
3892 50 above Copenhagen compared to ISA?
 During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is It will It will remain It is not It will
adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is decrease the same possible to increase
966 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading give a
during the resetting procedure? definitive
answer
3893 50
(For this question use annex 050-4374A) 020/20 200/15 260/25 230/20
Select from the map the average wind for the route
3894 50 Zurich - Hamburg at FL 240.
An aircraft is descending to land under IFR. If the local It will It will It will remain It will not be
QNH is 1009 hPa, what will happen to the altitude decrease increase the same affected
reading when the altimeter is reset at the transition level
?
3895 50
An aircraft is flying through the Alps on a warm There is A lower A higher The same
summer's day. The weather is fine, and there is a high insufficient altitude than altitude than altitude as
pressure system in the area. During the flight, a information the elevation the elevation the elevation
mountain is passed at an altitude of its summit. What to come to a of the of the of the
reading will the aneroid altimeter give, compared to the conclusion summit summit summit
summit's elevation?
3896 50
An aircraft is flying through the Alps on a very cold The same There is A higher A lower
winter's day. The regional QNH is 1013 hPa. During the altitude as insufficient altitude than altitude than
flight, you circle around a mountain at an altitude of its the elevation information the elevation the elevation
summit. What reading will the aneroid altimeter give, of the to come to a of the of the
compared to the elevation of the summit? summit conclusion summit summit

3897 50
An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 100, with a true It is warmer Its average It is colder There is
altitude of 10000 feet; local QNH is 1003 hPa. than ISA temperature than ISA insufficient
What assumption, if any, can be made about the air is about ISA information
mass in which the aircraft is flying ? to come to
any
conclusion
3898 50
An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 120, with a true It is warmer There is Its average It is colder
altitude of 12000 feet; local QNH is 1013 hPa. What than ISA insufficient temperature than ISA
assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in information is the same
which the aircraft is flying ? to come to as ISA
any
conclusion
3899 50
An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 90; the true It is colder It is warmer Its average There is
altitude is 9100 feet; local QNH is unknown. What than ISA than ISA temperature insufficient
assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in is the same information
which the aircraft is flying ? as ISA to make any
assumption

3900 50
During a flight over the sea at FL 135, the true altitude Its average It is warmer There is It is colder
is 13500 feet; local QNH is 1019 hPa. What information, temperature than ISA insufficient than ISA
if any, can be gained about the air mass in which the is the same information
aircraft is flying? as ISA to make any
assumption

3901 50
During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille The air at One of the The The aircraft
(QNH 1016 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1016 Marseille is QNH values altimeter is is being
hPa), the true altitude is constantly decreasing. What is warmer than must be faulty blown off
the probable reason for this ? that at wrong track to the
Palma de left
Mallorca
3902 50
 During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille Have your Recheck the Compensate None, the
(QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1012 altimeter QNH by heading reason for
hPa), the true altitude is constantly increasing. What checked, because one further to the the change
action, if any, should be taken ? because its of the QNH left is that the
readings are values must air around
obviously be wrong Palma is
wrong warmer than
the air
around
Marseille

3903 50
An aircraft flying at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 the air at the air at the one of the
hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1006 hPa) Palma de Palma de altimeters two QNH
experiences no change to true altitude. The reason for Mallorca is Mallorca is are values may
this is that : warmer than colder than erroneous, be incorrect
that at that at and need to
Marseille Marseille be tested
3904 50
If you are flying at FL 120 and the outside temperature FL 90 FL 110 FL 130 FL 150
is -2°C, at what altitude will the "freezing level" be?
3905 50
If you are flying at FL 100 in an air mass that is 10°C +15°C -10°C -15°C +5°C
warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the
3906 50 outside temperature likely to be?
(For this question use annex 050-4246A) The true Wind speed Wind speed The true
An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper altitude will at A is higher at Paris is altitude will
level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa. be higher at than at B higher than be higher at
Which of these statements is correct? B than at A at B A than at B

3907 50
When planning a flight at FL 60, which upper wind and 500 hPa 300 hPa 850 hPa 700 hPa
temperature chart would be nearest your flight level ?
3908 50
In which of the following situations is an aircraft most Level flight Flying in Level flight Flying in
susceptible to icing ? in snowfall heavy below a rain dense cirrus
below a drizzle. producing clouds.
nimbostratus cloud when
layer. OAT is
below zero
degrees C.

3909 50
The environmental lapse rate in an actual atmosphere has a fixed has a fixed varies with has a fixed
value of value of time value of
0.65°C/100 2°C/1000 FT 1°C/100m
m
3910 50
An inversion is a layer of air which is absolutely conditionally conditionally absolutely
3911 50 unstable unstable stable stable
Marseille Information gives you the following 8000 FT at 1000 FT at 1000 FT at 1000 FT at
meteorological information for Ajaccio and Calvi for Ajaccio and Ajaccio and Ajaccio and Ajaccio and
1600 UTC : 9000 FT at 2000 FT at 9000 FT at 500 FT at
Ajaccio: wind 360°/2 kt, visibility 2000 m, rain, BKN Calvi Calvi Calvi Calvi
stratocumulus at 1000 FT, OVC altostratus at 8000 FT,
QNH 1023 hPa.
Calvi: wind 040°/2 kt, visibility 3000 m, mist, FEW
stratus at 500 FT, SCT stratocumulus at 2000 FT, OVC
altostratus at 9000 FT, QNH 1023 hPa.
The ceilings (more than 4 oktas) are therefore:

3912 50
The upper wind and temperature chart of 250 hPa 39 000 FT 30 000 FT 32 000 FT 34 000 FT
3913 50 corresponds, in a standard atmosphere, to about
 An airborne weather radar installation makes it possible all clouds cumulonimb stratocumulu zones of
to detect the location of us, but s and its precipitation,
provided vertical particulary
that cloud of development liquid-state
this type is precipitation,
accompanie and also
d by falls of their
hail intensity

3914 50
Thunderstorms in exceptional circumstances can occur the cold air the cold air the warm air the warm air
in a warm front if is is is is
convectively convectively convectively convectively
unstable. stable. stable. unstable.
3915 50
You have been flying for some time in dense layered If you do not In a dense Severe Severe
cloud. The outside air temperature is -25°C. Which of have layered airframe airframe
the following statements is true? weather cloud icing is icing is icing is quite
radar on unlikely also unlikely likely under
board there at an outside under these these
is no need to air conditions conditions
worry, as CB temperature
is unlikely to of -5°C
form in such
cloud

3916 50
(For this question use annex 050-4393A) TAF LSZH TAF LSZH TAF LSZH TAF LSZH
The attached chart shows the weather conditions on the 101601 101601 101601 101601
ground at 1200 UTC on October 10. Which of the 05020G35K 23012KT 32008KT VRB02KT
following reports reflects weather development at Zurich T 8000 6000 RA 9999 8000
Airport? BKN015 BKN012 SCT030TCU SCT280
TEMPO OVC030 TEMPO BECMG
1720 TEMPO 2201 1618
05018KT 2023 32020G32K 00000KT
0300 22025G40K T 3000 3500 MIFG
+SHSN T 1600 TSRA BECMG
VV002 = +SNRA BKN020CB 1820 1500
BKN003 = BCFG
OVC015 = BECMG
2022 0100
FG VV001 =

3917 50
(For this question use annex 050-4392A) Westerly Easterly High Warm
Which typical weather condition is shown by the design wind wind pressure southerly
3918 50 for northern Italy? wind

(For this question use annex 050-4391A) Uniform Cutting wind Easterly Westerly
Which typical weather condition is shown by the design pressure waves waves
3919 50 for the area of Central Europe ? pattern
 In Zurich during a summer day the following weather A cold front A trough line Storm A warm front
observations were taken: passed the passed the clouds due passed the
160450Z 23015KT 3000 +RA SCT008 SCT020 station early station early to warm air station early
OVC030 13/12 Q1010 NOSIG = in the in the came close in the
160650Z 25008KT 6000 SCT040 BKN090 18/14 Q1010 morning and morning and to and morning and
RERA NOSIG = a warm front a warm front grazed the a cold front
160850Z 25006KT 8000 SCT040 SCT100 19/15 Q1009 during late during late station during late
NOSIG = afternoon afternoon afternoon
161050Z 24008KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 21/15 Q1008
NOSIG =
161250Z 23012KT CAVOK 23/16 Q1005 NOSIG =
161450Z 23016KT 9999 SCT040 BKN090 24/17 Q1003
BECMG 25020G40KT TS =
161650Z 24018G35KT 3000 +TSRA SCT006
BKN015CB 18/16 Q1002 NOSIG =
161850Z 28012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT100 13/11 Q1005
NOSIG =
What do you conclude based on these observations?

3920 50
(For this question use annex 050-4372A) -27°C -14°C -21°C -11°C
Select from the map the average temperature for the
3921 50 route Athens - Geneva at FL 150.
(For this question use annex 050-4388A) Zurich - Zurich - Zurich - Hamburg -
On which of these routes would you not need to worry Madrid Hamburg Vienna Stockholm
3922 50 about icing at FL 180?
If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1005 hPa 990 hPa 995 hPa 1000 hPa
1015 hPa, what is the approximate QFE?
3923 50 (Assume 1hPa = 8m)
(For this question use annex 050-4386A) Constantly Constantly First in the In the
If you are flying from Zurich to Shannon at FL 340, in the in the troposphere stratosphere
where will your cruising altitude be? stratosphere troposhere and later in for part of
the time
stratosphere

3924 50
(For this question use annex 050-4385A) Paris - Zurich - London - Zurich -
Judging by the chart, on which of these routes can you Bordeaux Rome Zurich Copenhage
expect to encounter moderate and locally severe CAT n
at FL 300?
3925 50
(For this question use annex 050-4384A) 140 km/h 145 kt 340 kt 95 kt
Judging by the chart, what windspeeds can you expect
3926 50 at FL 340 above Rome?
(For this question use annex 050-4383A) Cloud most Scattered Out of cloud Largely free
If you are flying from Zurich to Stockholm at FL 240, of the way; thunderstor throughout of cloud;
what conditions can you expect at cruising altitude? little chance ms the flight moderate
of CAT icing half
way along
the route

3927 50
(For this question use annex 050-4382A) Zurich - Rome - Shannon - Zurich -
On which of these routes would you not have to worry Athens Berlin Hamburg Rome
3928 50 about turbulence at FL 340?
(For this question use annex 050-4381A) The front to The jet Thunderclou There is no
Which of the following statements is true? the north of stream ds have significant
Frankfurt is above Italy formed over cloud above
moving has a the Iberian Rome
north-east at maximum peninsula
about 5 kt speed of extending to
120 km/h some 25000
meters

3929 50
 (For this question use annex 050-4380A) Flight largely Prolonged CAT for the Scattered
If you are flying from Zurich to London at FL 220, what in cloud; no severe first half of thunderstor
conditions can you expect at cruising altitude? turbulence turbulence the flight ms
and icing
throughout
the flight
3930 50
(For this question use annex 050-4379A) FL 280 FL 310 FL 350 FL 250
Looking at the chart, at what altitude above Frankfurt
would you expect the tropopause to be located?
3931 50
(For this question use annex 050-4378A) Tunis - Copenhage Rome - Hamburg -
On which of the following routes can you expect icing to Rome n - Helsinki Frankfurt Oslo
3932 50 occur, on the basis of the chart?
(For this question use annex 050-4377A) -51°C -55°C -63°C -47°C
Select from the map the average temperature for the
3933 50 route Geneva -Stockholm at FL 260.
(For this question use annex 050-4376A) 030/70 190/75 340/90 360/80
Select from the map the average wind for the route
3934 50 Shannon - Lisboa at FL 290.
(For this question use annex 050-4375A) -41°C -49°C -33°C -30°C
Select from the map the average temperature for the
3935 50 route Zurich - Lisboa at FL 200.
In the northern hemisphere with an anticyclonic 060/12 060/18 075/12 045/12
pressure system the geostrophic wind at 2000 FT over
the sea is 060/15. At the same position the surface wind
is most likely to be
3936 50
A temperature of +15°C is recorded at an altitude of 500 0°C -2°C +2°C +4°C
metres above sea level. If the vertical temperature
gradient is that of a standard atmosphere, what will the
temperature be at the summit of a mountain, 2500
metres above sea level?

3937 50
(For this question use annex 050-10797A) northerly northerly mean mean
The dotted line designated "Z" represents the limit of the limit of the position of position of
sub tropical SE trade the the
jet stream winds during intertropical intertropical
during July January front (ITCZ) front (ITCZ)
during July during
January
3938 50
(For this question use annex 050-10798A) axis of the mean mean mean
The dotted line labelled "Y" represents the subtropical position of position of position of
jet stream the the the
during intertropical temperate/tr intertropical
January convergence opical front convergenc
zone (ITCZ) during July e zone
during July (ITCZ)
during
January

3939 50
(For this question use annex 050-10799A) Generally Reduced Wet and Dry and
What weather conditions are most likely to affect an clear skies - visibility due thundery clear due to
approach to Dakar during July? NW trade to the rising due to the the influence
winds sand of the proximity of of the
Harmattan intertropical Azores high
convergence pressure
zone (ITCZ) system

3940 50
 (For this question use annex 050-10800A) SW NE passage of high
Weather conditions at Bombay during early July are monsoon monsoon frontal incidence of
mainly influenced by the and the system tropical
proximity of generated in revolving
the ITCZ the south storms
indian ocean originating in
the persian
gulf

3941 50
(For this question use annex 050-10801A) SW NW SE monsoon NE
Weather conditions at Bombay during January are monsoon monsoon monsoon
3942 50 mainly influenced by the
(For this question use annex 050-10802A) mainly fine and early increasing
The weather most likely to be experienced at position overcast warm with morning fog high and
"R" is with little or no lifting to low medium
anticyclonic cloud stratus cloud cover
gloom and
generally
good
visibility
3943 50
A 700 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In FL 100 FL 180 FL 300 FL 390
temperate regions which of the following average
3944 50 heights is applicable ?
A 500 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In FL 100 FL 390 FL 180 FL 160
temperate regions which of the following average
3945 50 heights is applicable ?
A 300 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In FL 300 FL 390 FL 100 FL 50
temperate regions which of the following average
3946 50 heights is applicable ?
The station pressure used in surface weather charts is QFE QNH QNE QFF
3947 50
What is the technical term for an increase in Inversion Subsidence Adiabatic Advection
3948 50 temperature with altitude?
How would you characterise an air temperature of High Low Very high Within +/-
-55°C at the 200 hPa level over western Europe? 5°C of ISA
3949 50
If you are flying at FL 300 in an air mass that is 15°C -30°C -45°C -60°C -15°C
warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the
3950 50 outside temperature likely to be?
How would you characterise an air temperature of Within +/- 20°C below Low High
-15°C at the 700 hPa level over western Europe? 5°C of ISA standard
3951 50
(For this question use annex 050-10793A) May to July December to July to January to
The arrows labelled "u" represent the tracks of tropical and are April and are October and March and
revolving storms which occur mainly from called called are called are called
cyclones tornadoes typhoons willy-willies

3952 50
The temperature at FL 160 is -22°C. What will the 0°C +4°C -8°C -4°C
temperature be at FL 90 if the ICAO standard lapse rate
3953 50 is applied ?
The temperature at FL 110 is -5°C. What will the +3°C 0°C -3°C +7°C
temperature be at FL 50 if the ICAO standard lapse rate
3954 50 is applied ?
The temperature at FL 80 is +6°C. What will the 0°C +2°C -4°C -6°C
temperature be at FL 130 if the ICAO standard lapse
3955 50 rate is applied ?
Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 Ionosphere Troposphere Lower Upper
per cent of all water vapour? stratosphere stratosphere
3956 50
 (For this question use annex 050-10803A) overcast fine and early increasing
The weather most likely to be experienced at position with drizzle warm at first morning fog amounts of
"R" is and hill fog - AC lifting to low AS and NS -
Castellanus stratus heavy rain
and CB in
late
afternoon
with
thunderstor
ms

3957 50
Which one of the following local winds is a Foehn wind? Scirocco Harmattan Bora Chinook
3958 50
Dew point is defined as the the lowest the lowest the
temperature temperature temperature temperature
to which at which to which air below which
moist air evaporation must be the change
must be will occur for cooled in of state in a
cooled to a given order to given
become pressure reduce the volume of
saturated at relative air will result
a given humidity in the
pressure absorption
of latent
heat

3959 50
The process by which water vapour is transformed supercooling supersaturat radiation sublimation
3960 50 directly into ice is known as ion cooling
(For this question use annex 050-10850A) ridge of high col trough of low depression
The pressure distribution located mainly in square 2A is pressure pressure
3961 50 a
A trough of low pressure on a surface synoptic chart is divergence divergence convergence convergenc
an area of and and and e and
subsidence widespread subsidence widespread
ascent ascent
3962 50
Which is true of a typical non frontal thermal It forms over It forms over It forms over It forms over
depression? the ocean in land in land in the ocean in
winter winter summer summer
3963 50
A Foehn wind occurs on the windward leeward side leeward side windward
side of a of a of a side of a
mountain mountain mountain mountain
range and is range and is range and is range and is
caused by caused by caused by caused by
surface the significant surface
cooling and condensatio moisture heating
reverse air n level being loss by
flow lower on the precipitation
leeward side from cloud
than on the
windward
side

3964 50
How would you characterise an air temperature of High Within +/- Low Very low
-30°C at the 300 hPa level over western Europe? 5°C of ISA
3965 50
The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea Less than More than 1016 hPa It is not
level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C lower 1016 hPa 1016 hPa possible to
than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH? give a
definitive
answer
3966 50
 (For this question use annex 050-4389A) TAF LSGG TAF LSGG TAF LSGG TAF LSGG
This chart shows the weather conditions on the ground 230716 230716 230716 230716
at 0600 UTC on May 4. Which of the following reports VRB03KT 23016KT 05014KT 26012KT
reflects weather development at Geneva Airport? 6000 BR 8000 -RA 5000 9999
SCT020 BKN030 OVC015 SCT030
BECMG OVC070 BECMG BKN080
0811 BECMG 0810 8000 TEMPO
23005KT 0810 5000 BKN018 1013
9999 RA BKN020 BECMG 25020G35K
SCT025TCU OVC050 1013 T 3000
PROB 40 TEMPO 05015G30K TSRA or
TEMPO 3000 +RA T 9999 +SHRA
1216 BKN010 SCT025 = BKN030CB
34012G30K OVC030 BECMG
T 3000 BECMG 1316
TSRA 1215 VRB02KT
BKN020CB 25014KT 3000 BCFG
= 8000 SCT100 =
SCT030
BKN090 =

3967 50
An isothermal layer is a layer of air in which the increases decreases increases remains
temperature with height with height with height constant
at a constant at a constant with height
rate rate

3968 50
An inversion is a layer of air in which the temperature increases decreases increases remains
with height with height with height constant
more than more than with height
1°C/100m 1°C/100m
3969 50
The height and the temperature of the tropopause are 16 km and 16 km and 8 km and 8 km and -
respectively in the order of -40°C over -75°C over -40°C over 75°C over
3970 50 the poles the equator the equator the poles
The average height of the tropopause at 50°N is about 11 km 8 km 14 km 16 km
3971 50
What of the following is the most important constituent Hydrogen Water Nitrogen Oxygen
in the atmosphere from a weather stand-point ? vapour
3972 50
The rate of decrease of temperature with height per 100 0.5°C variable 0.65°C 1°C
m in the International Standard Atmosphere is :
3973 50
If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 990 hPa 1035 hPa 1025 hPa 985 hPa
3974 50 1000 hPa, what is the approximate QNH?
If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1000 hPa 1015 hPa 1010 hPa 1005 hPa
3975 50 980 hPa, what is the approximate QNH ?
The QFF at an airfield in California located 69 metres Less than 1030 hPa It is not More than
below sea level is 1030 hPa. The air temperature is 1030 hPa possible to 1030 hPa
10°C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the give a
QNH? definitive
answer
3976 50
The QNH at an airfield in California located 69 metres 1018 hPa It is not More than Less than
below sea level is 1018 hPa. The air temperature is possible to 1018 hPa 1018 hPa
10°C higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the give a
QFF? definitive
answer
3977 50
The QNH at an airfield located 0 metres above sea Less than More than It is not 1022 hPa
level is 1022 hPa. The air temperature is not available. 1022 hPa 1022 hPa possible to
What is the QFF? give a
definitive
answer
3978 50
 (For this question use annex 050-10795A) a westerly variable in light a subtropical
Considering that portion of the route indicated from polar front direction and easterlies westerly jet
30°E to 50°E, the upper winds in January above FL 300 jet stream, less than 30 stream,
are most likely to be maximum kt maximum
speed speed
exceeding exceeding
90 kt 90 kt

3979 50
The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea 1009 hPa Less than It is not More than
level is 1009 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C lower 1009 hPa possible to 1009 hPa
than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF? give a
definitive
answer
3980 50
When, if at all, is a tropical revolving storm most likely to December to May to July August to Not
affect Darwin, on the central north coast of Australia? April October experienced
3981 50 at Darwin

The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea 1016 hPa Less than It is not More than
level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C higher 1016 hPa possible to 1016 hPa
than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH? give a
definitive
answer
3982 50
A 850 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In FL100 FL 300 FL 390 FL 50
temperate regions which of the following average
3983 50 heights is applicable ?
The temperature at 10000 FT in the International -35°C -5°C 0°C -20°C
3984 50 Standard Atmosphere is :
The tropopause is lower south of the over the over the in summer
equator than equator than North Pole than winter
north of it over the than over in moderate
South Pole the equator latitudes

3985 50
The tropopause is a level at which temperature water pressure vertical
ceases to vapour remains currents are
fall with content is constant strongest
increasing greatest
height
3986 50
The troposphere is the part of the boundary boundary part of the
atmosphere between the between the atmosphere
above the mesosphere stratosphere below the
stratosphere and and the tropopause
thermospher mesosphere
e

3987 50
Considering the North Atlantic region between 30°N and NE Canada, Greenland, Azores, Siberia,
65°N together with the adjacent land areas during Iceland Iberian Siberia Iceland,
winter, the normal disposition of the main anticyclones peninsula Canaries
at the surface is
3988 50
(For this question use annex 050-10788A) December to June to June to December
The arrows labelled "r" represent the mean tracks of April and are October and October and to April and
tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from called are called are called are called
tornadoes typhoons hurricanes cyclones

3989 50
Which is true of a secondary depression in the northern It tends to It rapidly It tends to It tends to
hemisphere? move round closes on, maintain its move round
the primary and merges position the primary
in an with the relative to in a cyclonic
anticyclonic primary the primary sense
sense
3990 50
 Why do tropical revolving storms tend to develop mostly Because Because Because the Because
in the western parts of the tropical oceans? they are there is a gulf there is a
areas in maximal formation of maximum of
which there temperature the humidity as
is a strong difference coastlines a result of
progressive between triggers a the trade
windshear land mass strong rotary winds`long
with and sea circulation sea passage
increase of
height

3991 50
(For this question use annex 050-10791A) December to May to December to May to
The arrows labelled "s" represent the mean tracks of April and are November April and are November
tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from called and are called and are
typhoons called cyclones called
cyclones hurricanes
3992 50
(For this question use annex 050-10792A) June to December to June to June to
The arrows labelled "t" represents the mean track of October and April and are October and October and
tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from are called called are called are called
cyclones hurricanes tornadoes hurricanes

3993 50
If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1000 hPa 995 hPa 1005 hPa 1025 hPa
3994 50 1025 hPa, what is the approximate QFE?
The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea Less than It is not More than 1022 hPa
level is 1022 hPa. The air temperature is not available. 1022 hPa possible to 1022 hPa
What is the QFF? give a
definitive
answer
3995 50
Which of the following cloud types is least likely to NS CI AS CB
3996 50 produce precipitation ?
Which of the following cloud types is found at high AS CU CI SC
3997 50 levels?
Which of the following cloud types is a medium level CS ST SC AS
3998 50 cloud ?
Under which of these conditions is radiation fog most Strong Very low Little or no Very dry air
likely to form? surface temperature cloud
3999 50 winds s
Which of the following is most likely to lead to the Heat loss Dry, warm The Cold air
formation of radiation fog? from the air passing passage of passing over
ground on over warm fronts warm
clear nights ground ground
4000 50
With which of the following types of cloud is "+RA" SC ST NS AC
4001 50 precipitation most commonly associated?
Which of the following is typical for the passage of a Mainly Mainly Rapid drop Rapid
cold front in the summer ? towering layered in pressure increase in
clouds clouds once the temperature
front has once the
passed front has
passed
4002 50
With what type of cloud is "DZ" precipitation most CB CC CU ST
4003 50 commonly associated?
Which of the following types of cloud can extend over ST CI CB AC
4004 50 the low, medium and high cloud levels ?
With what type of cloud is heavy precipitation unlikely CB, ST NS, CC AS, NS SC, AS
4005 50 during the summer months ?
With what type of cloud is "+TSRA" precipitation most SC NS CB AS
4006 50 commonly associated?
 Read this description: "After such a fine day, the ring A warm front A blizzard Weather at A cold front
around the moon was a bad sign yesterday evening for the back of a
the weather today. And, sure enough, it is pouring down cold front
outside. The clouds are making an oppressively low
ceiling of uniform grey; but at least it has become a little
bit warmer." Which of these weather phenomena is
being described?
4007 50
What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of It will remain It will have It will show a It will have
an aircraft parked on the ground during the period unchanged. increased. small decreased.
following the passage of an active cold front ? increase or
decrease.
4008 50
What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of It will remain It will be It will It will be
an aircraft parked on the ground shortly before an unchanged. decreasing. fluctuate up increasing.
active cold front passes? and down by
about +/- 50
feet.
4009 50
An aircraft flying in the southern hemisphere at 2000 Behind. To the left. To the right. In front.
feet, has to turn to the right in order to allow for drift. In
which direction, relative to the aircraft, is the centre of
low pressure ?
4010 50
With what type of cloud is "GR" precipitation most ST CC CB AS
4011 50 commonly associated?
An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an Tailwind Headwind Crosswind Crosswind
airfield whose runway is parallel to the coast. When from the from the left
downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the right. What right
wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and
landing during a sunny afternoon?

4012 50
Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the 25° - 35°. 10° - 15°. 35° - 55°. 55° - 75°.
4013 50 subtropical high-pressure belt ?
Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the 25° - 35° 10° - 15° 55° - 75° 35° - 55°
region of travelling low pressure systems ?
4014 50
Where, in central Europe, are the highest wind speeds Close to the In the Just below At about
to be found ? ground stratosphere the 5500 metres
tropopause altitude
4015 50
A winter day in northern Europe with a thick layer of A high Decreasing Reduced Turbulence
stratocumulus clouds and temperature close to zero probability visibility due visibility and due to a
degrees C at ground level, you can expect: for icing in to snowfall light icing in strong
clouds. below cloud clouds inversion,
Severe icing base, but but no icing
in the upper only light because
part due to icing in clouds
accumulatio clouds. consist of
n of large ice crystals
droplets.

4016 50
If Paris reports a wind of 08010KT on the METAR, what 08015KT 05020KT 08005KT 11020KT
wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height
of 2000 feet above the ground ?
4017 50
(For this question use annex 050-4387A) Turbulence Scattered Freezing The front to
Which of these statements is true? is likely to be thunderstor level above the north of
encountered ms can be Madrid is London is
at FL 410 expected higher than moving
over Madrid over France FL 120 south

4018 50
 A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 100 - 1500 15000 - 7000 - 1500 - 7000
500 m (1600 FT) above sea level is covered with a FT above 35000 FT 15000 FT FT above
uniform CC layer of cloud during the summer months. the terrain above the above the the terrain
At what height above the ground is the base of this terrain terrain
cloud to be expected?
4019 50
Which of the following is true of a land breeze? It blows only It blows from It blows from It blows by
at noon land to water water to land day
4020 50
A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 7000 - 15000 - 1500 - 7000 100 - 1500
500 m (1600 FT) above sea level is covered with a 15000 FT 25000 FT FT above FT above
uniform SC layer of cloud during the summer months. At above above ground ground
what height above the ground is the base of this cloud ground ground
to be expected?
4021 50
An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an Tailwind Headwind Crosswind Crosswind
airfield whose runway is parallel to the coast. When from the left from the
downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the left. What right
wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and
landing during a sunny afternoon ?

4022 50
Which of the following statements is true of the dew It can be It can be It can be It can only
point of an air mass? higher than used used to be equal to,
the together with estimate the or lower,
temperature the air air mass's than the
of the air pressure to relative temperature
mass estimate the humidity of the air
air mass's even if the mass
relative air
humidity temperature
is unknown

4023 50
Which types of clouds are typical evidence of stable air ST, AS CU, CB NS, CU CB, CC
4024 50 conditions?
(For this question use annex 050-4273A) 2 3 4 1
Which one of the displayed cloud forms is
4025 50 representative of altocumulus lenticularis?
(For this question use annex 050-4274A) 2 1 4 3
Which one of the displayed cloud forms is
4026 50 representative of a cumulonimbus capillatus?
(For this question use annex 050-4297A) Track B-C Track A-D Track A-E Track B-D
Examining the pictures, on which one of the tracks
(dashed lines) is this cross-section to be expected?
4027 50
If Paris reports a wind of 30012KT on the METAR, what 33025KT 23030KT 30025KT 27020KT
wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height
of 2000 feet above the ground ?
4028 50
The dewpoint temperature can not be can be equal is always is always
equal to the to the air lower than higher than
air temperature the air the air
temperature temperature temperature

4029 50
Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 700 hPa 850 hPa 500 hPa 300 hPa
4030 50 9882 FT pressure level (FL 100) ?
Which statement is true for a conditionally unstable The layer is The wet The The
layer? unstable for adiabatic environment environment
unsaturated lapse rate is al lapse rate al lapse rate
air 0.65°C/100 is less than is less than
m 1°C/100m 0.65°C/100
m

4031 50
 The stability in a layer is increasing if warm and cold and dry warm air is warm air is
moist air is air is advected in advected in
advected in advected in the upper the lower
the lower the upper part and part and
part part cold air in cold air in
the lower the upper
part part
4032 50
Which of the following statements concerning the lifting Unsaturated Unsaturated Unsaturated Saturated
of a parcel of air is correct ? parcels cool parcels cool parcels cool parcels
more rapidly less rapidly at a rate of always cool
than than 0.65°C per at a rate of
saturated saturated 100m 0.65°C per
parcels parcels 100m

4033 50
When in the upper part of a layer warm air is advected wind will wind speed stability stability
the back with will always increases in decreases in
increasing decrease the layer the layer
height in the with
northern increasing
hemisphere height in the
northern
hemisphere

4034 50
What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of It will first It will remain It will first It will
an aircraft parked on the ground as an active cold front increase unchanged. decrease fluctuate up
is passing? then then and down by
decrease. increase. about +/- 50
feet.

4035 50
The difference between temperature and dewpoint is moist air air with high air with low dry air
greater in temperature temperature

4036 50
(For this question use annex 050-4319A) 2 4 3 1
Of the four radio soundings, select the one that
4037 50 indicates low stratus:
Relative humidity depends on moisture moisture temperature moisture
content and content of of the air content and
pressure of the air only only temperature
the air of the air

4038 50
The dewpoint temperature can be can be can not be can not be
reached by reached by equal to the lower than
cooling the lowering the air the air
air whilst pressure temperature temperature
keeping whilst
pressure keeping
constant temperature
constant

4039 50
Considering the North Atlantic region between 30°N and weak low Azores low Azores high Scandinavia
65°N and the adjacent land areas during mid-summer, over NE and and weak n high and
the predominant pressure systems are Canada and Icelandic low over NE Azores high
Scandinavia high Canada
n high

4040 50
(For this question use annex 050-10784A) secondary trough of low ridge of high col
The pressure system at position "D" is a low pressure pressure
4041 50
 Select the answer which you consider will complete Siberia Azores Iceland / USA
correctly the following statement in relation to the main Greenland
pressure systems affecting the North Atlantic region
between 30°N and 65°N. During winter the predominant
mean low pressure system at the surface is usually
centred over
4042 50
The following statements deal with precipitation, Precipitation Precipitation Precipitation Precipitation
turbulence and icing. Select the list containing the most may be is frequently and icing are may be
likely alternatives for NS cloud: snow, sleet in the form usually nil. snow, sleet
or rain. Icing of hail. Icing Turbulence or rain. Icing
and and is rarely is probable
turbulence turbulence more than and may
are are moderate. range
frequently frequently between
severe. severe. light and
severe.
Turbulence
is rarely
more than
moderate.

4043 50
Relative humidity is higher in is higher in decreases if increases if
warm air cool air than the air is the air is
than in cool in warm air cooled whilst cooled
air maintaining whilst
the vapour maintaining
pressure the vapour
constant pressure
constant
4044 50
Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause PE +FZRA GR SHSN
4045 50 airframe icing ?
(For this question use annex 050-4298A) Position B Position C Position D Position A
Refer to the diagram. Assuming the usual direction of
movement, to which position will the polar frontal wave
have moved ?
4046 50
With a uniform pressure pattern and no thunderstorms Apparently Increase Show strong Decrease
around, what will the indication of the aneroid altimeter nothing, rapidly. fluctuations. rapidly.
of an aircraft parked on the ground do over a period of because any
about ten minutes? changes
would be
small.

4047 50
(For this question use annex 050-4305A) Severe Moderate to Radiation Thunderstor
Under the weather conditions depicted, which of the gradient strong fog is ms may
following statements is likely to apply? wind likely Foehn in the unlikely in occur in the
over Central Alps. Central summer
Europe. Europe in months over
the winter. Central
Europe.

4048 50
In which of these temperature bands is ice most likely to -20°C to -35°C to 0°C to -10°C +10°C to
4049 50 form on the aircraft's surface? -35°C -50°C 0°C
Which of the following statements is true regarding It may occur It always It is likely to It will occur
moderate-to-severe airframe icing? in the occurs in occur in in clear-sky
uppermost altostratus nimbostratus conditions
levels of a cloud cloud
cumulonimb
us capillatus
formation

4050 50
 Which of the following statements is true regarding It will not It always It is unlikely It may occur
moderate-to-severe airframe icing? occur in occurs in to occur in in the
clear-sky altostratus nimbostratus uppermost
conditions cloud cloud levels of a
cumulonimb
us capillatus
formation

4051 50
Which of the following causes echoes on Any cloud Hail Water Fog
4052 50 meteorological radar screens? vapour
In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled NS CS AS SC
4053 50 out?
What are the images of satellites provided daily by the To locate To measure To help To locate
Weather Service used for? fronts in wind provide 14- precipitation
areas with currents on day zones
few the ground forecasts
observation
stations
4054 50
(For this question use annex 050-4314A) Diagram b) Diagram a) Diagram d) Diagram c)
Continuous freezing rain is observed at an airfield.
Which of the four diagrams is most likely to reflect
temperatures above the airfield concerned?
4055 50
At what degree of icing should ICAO's "Change of Moderate Light Severe Extreme
course and/or altitude desirable" recommendation be
4056 50 followed?
At what degree of icing should ICAO's "Change course Severe Light Moderate Extreme
and/or altitude immediately" instruction be followed?
4057 50
At what degree of icing can ICAO's "No change of Light Moderate Severe Extreme
course and altitude necessary" recommendation be
4058 50 followed?
When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust With gusts When gusts When gusts With gusts
factor ? of at least 35 are at least are at least of at least
knots 10 knots 15 knots 25 knots
above the above the
mean wind mean wind
speed speed

4059 50
If Paris reports a wind of 19015KT on the METAR, what 25025KT 22010KT 22030KT 16020KT
wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height
of 2000 feet above the ground ?
4060 50
In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled CU CI SC NS
4061 50 out?
What is the approximate speed of a 25-knot wind, 45 km/h 35 km/h 55 km/h 60 km/h
4062 50 expressed in kilometres per hour?
The dry adiabatic lapse rate is greater in is greater has a has a
summer during the variable constant
than in night than value fixed value
winter during the
day
4063 50
The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of 2°C/1000FT 0.65°C/100 0.5°C/100m 1°C/100m
4064 50 m
 Which one of the following statements concerning the Probability A cloud Greatest risk Risk for
formation of aircraft icing is most correct ? of icing consisting of of icing icing
increases both conditions is increases
when dry supercooled experienced when cloud
snow starts cloud in cirrus temperature
to fall from a droplets and clouds. decreases
cloud. ice crystals well below
produces minus 12
aircraft icing degrees C.

4065 50
An air mass is called stable when the the vertical the the pressure
environment motion of temperature in a given
al lapse rate rising air in a given air area is
is high, with tends to mass constant
little vertical become decreases
motion of air weaker and rapidly with
currents disappears height

4066 50
Rising air cools because it contracts it expands surrounding it becomes
air is cooler more moist
at higher
levels

4067 50
A layer can be stable for stable for unstable for unstable for
unsaturated saturated air unsaturated unsaturated
air and and unstable air and air and
unstable for for neutral for conditionally
saturated air unsaturated saturated air unstable
air

4068 50
In a layer of air the decrease in temperature per 100 conditionally conditionally absolutely absolutely
metres increase in height is more than 1°C. This layer unstable stable unstable stable
4069 50 can be described as being
You are flying at FL 160. Outside air temperature is 15630 feet 16370 feet 16910 feet 15090 feet
-27°C, and the pressure at sea level is 1003 hPa. What
4070 50 is the true altitude?
You are planning to fly across a mountain range. The 12210 feet 11250 feet 11790 feet 11520 feet
chart recommends a minimum altitude of 12000 feet
above mean sea level. The air mass you will be flying
through is an average 10°C warmer than ISA. Your
altimeter is set to 1023 hPa (QNH of a nearby airport at
nearly sea level). What altitude will the altimeter show
when you have reached the recommended minimum
altitude?
4071 50
In the International Standard Atmosphere the decrease 0.65°C per 1°C per 0.5°C per 0.6°C per
in temperature with height below 11 km is 100m 100m 100m 100m
4072 50
An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 540 FT, 1080 FT 700 FT 380 FT 0 FT
QNH 993 hPa) with the altimeter set to 1013 hPa. What
4073 50 will it indicate ?
Which statement is correct regarding the International At MSL At MSL At MSL At MSL
Standard Atmosphere ? temperature pressure is temperature temperature
is 10°C and 1013.25 hPa is 15°C and is 15°C and
the and the pressure is the
decrease in decrease of 1013.25hPa decrease in
temperature temperature temperature
with height with height with height
is 1°C per is 1°C per is 1°C per
100m 100m 100m

4074 50
 The diurnal variation in temperature is largest when the overcast and clear and clear and overcast
sky is winds are winds are winds are and winds
4075 50 strong weak strong are weak
What is the approximate speed of a 90 km/h wind, 50 kt 55 kt 60 kt 70 kt
4076 50 expressed in knots?
Where are you likely to find the strongest winds close to At the centre Where there In the At the centre
the ground? of a high- is little transition of a low-
pressure variation in zone pressure
system pressure between two system
over a large air masses
area during
the winter
months

4077 50
Subsidence is : vertically horizontal vertically the same as
downwards motion of air upwards convection
motion of air motion of air
4078 50
Advection is : the same as horizontal vertical the same as
convection motion of air motion of air subsidence
4079 50
When the subscale is set to the QNH of an airfield the zero while elevation zero while elevation
pressure altimeter indicates landing only while landing while
if conditions landing landing only
are as in the if conditions
International are as in the
Standard International
Atmosphere Standard
Atmosphere

4080 50
After landing at an aerodrome (QNH 993 hPa) it is 2280 feet. 660 feet. 1200 feet. 1740 feet.
noticed that the altimeter is still set to 1013,2 hPa and
that it reads 1200 feet. What is the elevation of the
aerodrome above mean sea level ?
4081 50
Which statement is true ? QNH is QNH can be QNH can be QNH can
lower than 1013.25 only lower as well not be
1013.25 hPa for a station as higher 1013.25 hPa
at any time at MSL than
1013.25 hPa

4082 50
What is the approximate speed of a 40-knot wind, 30 m/sec 20 m/sec 15 m/sec 25 m/sec
4083 50 expressed in m/sec?
The radiation of the sun heats the air in the the surface the air in the the water
troposphere of the earth, troposphere vapour in
only directly which heats directly the air of the
if no clouds the air in the troposphere
are present troposphere

4084 50
Which of the following statements is true ? QNH is QNH is QNH is QNH can be
always lower always always equal to
than QFE higher than equal to QFE
QFE QFE
4085 50
 QNH is defined as pressure at pressure at QFE QFE
MSL in the MSL in the reduced to reduced to
standard actual MSL using MSL using
atmosphere atmosphere the values of the values of
the actual the standard
atmosphere atmosphere

4086 50
Which of the following is true concerning atmospheric It decreases It is higher in It is higher at It always
pressure ? with height winter than night than decreases
in summer during the with height
day at a rate of 1
hPa per 8m

4087 50
What is the wind speed given in a METAR report based The average The The actual The average
on? speed of the strongest speed at the speed of the
previous 30 gust in the time of previous 10
minutes previous recording minutes
hour

4088 50
If Paris reports a wind of 16020KT on the METAR, what 14020KT 17015KT 19040KT 16030KT
wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height
of 2000 feet above the ground?
4089 50
0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0
0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1
0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0
0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1
0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0
0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0
1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0
0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0
1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0
0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0
0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0
1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0
0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0
1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0
0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0
0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0
0 0 1 0
0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0
0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0
1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0
0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1
0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0
0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0
0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0
0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0
0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0
0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1
0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0
0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0
0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0
0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1
0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0
0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0
0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0
0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0
0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0
0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0
0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0
1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0
0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1
0 0 1 0
1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0
0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0
0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0
1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0
1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0
0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1
0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0
0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0
0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0
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0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0
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0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0
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0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0
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0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0
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0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1
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1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0
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0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0
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1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0
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0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1
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0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1
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1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0
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1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0
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1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0
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0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0
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0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1
0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0
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1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1
0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1
0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0
0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0
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0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0
0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0
0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1
0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1
0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0
1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0
0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0
0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1
0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0
1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1
0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0
0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1
0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0
 COMMUNICATION

46 1hr

Which of these statements best describes the meaning Select Permission Wait and I Continue on
of the phrase "Standby" ? STANDBY granted for will call you present
on the SSR action heading and
transponder proposed listen out

5690 91 0 0 1 0
What does the phrase "Read back" mean: Did you Check and Repeat all, Let me know
correctly confirm with or the that you
receive this originator specified have
message? part, of this received and
message understood
back to me this
exactly as message
received
5691 91 0 0 1 0
Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "I Request Report Acknowledg Confirm
5692 91 should like to know..." or "I wish to obtain..."? e 1 0 0 0
Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "Pass Report Request Say again Check
5693 91 me the following information...": 1 0 0 0
Which phrase shall be used to confirm that a message That is right Affirm That is Correct
5694 91 has been repeated correctly: affirmative 0 0 0 1
Which phrase shall be used if you want to say:"I Roger Will comply OK, will do it Wilco
understand your message and will comply with it": with your
5695 91 instruction 0 0 0 1
Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "An QNH 1017, QNH 1017, QNH 1017, QNH 1017,
error has been made in this transmission (or message negative negative I correction negative
indicated). The correct version is ...": 1016 say again QNH 1016 QNH 1016
1016
5696 91 0 0 1 0
What does the phrase "Roger" mean: A direct A direct Cleared for I have
answer in answer in take-off or received all
the the negative cleared to of your last
affirmative land transmission

5697 91 0 0 0 1
Which phrase shall be used if the repetition of an entire Repeat your What was Repeat your Say again
message is required: message your last
message? transmission
5698 91 0 0 0 1
When transmitting a message preceded by the phrase Return to Advise the Join base Land at the
"Transmitting blind due to receiver failure" during an the airport of time of its leg when nearest
en-route flight, the aircraft station shall also: departure next approaching airfield/airpo
intended the airfield rt
transmission for landing

5699 91 0 1 0 0
Which of the following abbreviated call signs of aircraft ABC BC X-BC XY-BC
5700 91 XY-ABC is correct: 0 0 1 0
When the term "Overcast" is used in an aviation routine 50% or more Less than No clouds 100%
weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds 50% but poor
covering the sky is: ground
visibility
5701 91 0 0 0 1
 Which is the frequency band containing frequencies of 118.000 - 108.000 - 1810 - 2850 11650 -
the Aeronautical Mobile Service? 136.975 117.975 KHz 13200 KHz
5702 91 MHZ MHz 1 0 0 0
Which frequency shall be used for the first transmission Any The air- The The regional
of an urgency call: frequency at ground international guard
pilot's frequency in emergency frequency
discretion use at the frequency
time
5703 91 0 1 0 0
An urgency message shall be preceded by the ALERFA, PAN PAN, URGENCY,s MAYDAY,
radiotelephony urgency signal: spoken spoken poken three spoken
5704 91 three times three times times three times 0 1 0 0
Urgency is defined as: A condition A condition A condition A condition
of being concerning concerning concerning
threatened the safety of the safety of the attitude
by serious an aircraft a person on of an aircraft
and/or other board or when
imminent vehicles or within sight intercepting
danger and of a person and the localizer
of requiring on board, requiring during an
immediate but which immediate ILS
assistance does not assistance approach
require
immediate
assistance

5705 91 0 1 0 0
Under which of the following circumstances shall an When When flying When In distress
aircraft squawk 7700 ? following a within passing the
SID controlled transition
airspace level
5706 91 0 0 0 1
5707 91 An aircraft in state of emergency shall squawk: 7500 7700 6700 7600 0 1 0 0
Which of the following frequencies is an international 121.050 121.500 122.500 6500 KHz
5708 91 emergency frequency: MHz MHz MHz 0 1 0 0
The distress message shall contain as many as Aircraft call Aircraft call Aircraft call Aircraft call
possible of the following elements/details: sign, sign, present sign, nature sign, route
aerodrome position, of distress, of flight,
of departure, assistance pilot's destination
position and required intention, airport
level present
position,
level and
heading

5709 91 0 0 1 0
The frequency used for the first transmission of a The distress Any other Any The
"MAYDAY" call shall be: frequency international frequency at frequency
121.5 MHz emergency pilot's currently in
frequency discretion use

5710 91 0 0 0 1
An aircraft in distress shall send the following signal by DETRESFA, PAN PAN, URGENCY, MAYDAY,
radiotelephony: DETRESFA, PAN PAN, URGENCY, MAYDAY,
5711 91 DETRESFA PAN PAN URGENCY MAYDAY 0 0 0 1
 Distress is defined as: A condition A condition A condition A condition
concerning concerning of being concerning
the attitude the safety of threatened the safety of
of an aircraft a person on by serious an aircraft or
when board or and/or of a person
intercepting within sight imminent on board,
the localizer and danger and but which
during an requiring requiring does not
ILS immediate immediate require
approach assistance assistance immediate
assistance

5712 91 0 0 1 0
When the term "Scattered" is used in an aviation No clouds Half or less More than Sky entirely
routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds below 5000 than half (3 half but less covered (8
covering the sky is: feet/GND or 4 octas) than octas)
overcast (5
to 7 octas)
5713 91 0 1 0 0
An aircraft is squawking 7600. This indicates: It is It is about to It is unable It is diverting
requesting make a to establish to the
immediate forced communicati alternate
level change landing on due to aerodrome
radio
equipment
failure
5714 91 0 0 1 0
When the term "CAVOK" is used in an aviation routine Visibility 10 Visibility 10 Visibility Visibility
weather report (METAR), the values of visibility and km or more, km or more, more than 8 more than
clouds are: no clouds no clouds km, no 5000 m, no
below 5000 below 1500 clouds clouds
feet/GND feet/GND below 3000 below 1500
feet/GND m/GND
5715 91 1 0 0 0
How is the visibility in an aviation routine weather Up to 1500 In feet and In nautical Up to 5000
report (METAR) expressed in plain language: m in metres, nautical miles only m in metres,
above in miles above in
kilometres kilometres

5716 91 0 0 0 1
What is the correct way of expressing visibility ? Visibility Visibility Visibility 1.2 Visibility 1.2
1200 metres 1200 feet nautical kilometres
5717 91 miles 1 0 0 0
What is normally used for ATIS broadcasts ? Discrete Voice NDB DME voice
VHF channel of frequencies channel
frequency an ILS
or/and VOR
5718 91 1 0 0 0
How can aviation routine weather reports (METAR) of VOLMET ATIS AFIS SIGMET
specific airports be obtained by aircraft in flight:
5719 91 1 0 0 0
When shall the pilot of an aircraft experiencing When flying When the When When the
communications failure keep a watch for instructions VFR above aircraft is entering a aircraft is
passed by visual signals ? clouds entering the FIR during forming part
traffic an IFR flight of the
pattern of an aerodrome
uncontrolled traffic at a
airport controlled
aerodrome
5720 91 0 0 0 1
What is the transponder code for radio communication 7600 6700 7500 7700
5721 91 failure: 1 0 0 0
 Under which of the following circumstances shall an In case of When When When flying
aircraft station squawk 7600 ? radio entering bad approaching over desert
communicati weather a prohibited areas
on failure areas area

5722 91 1 0 0 0
An aircraft station fails to establish radio contact with an Attempt to Continue the Return to Land at the
aeronautical station on the designated frequency. What establish flight to the the airport of nearest
action is required by the pilot: contact with destination departure airport
the station airport without an
on an without any ATC unit
alternative communicati
frequency on

5723 91 1 0 0 0
What action is required by the pilot of an aircraft station Try to Divert to the Squawk Land at the
if he/she is unable to establish radio contact with an establish alternate mode A nearest
aeronautical station ? communicati airport code 7500 aerodrome
on with other appropriate
aircraft or to the route
aeronautical of flight
stations

5724 91 1 0 0 0
A message preceded by the phrase "Transmitting blind On the On the On the On all
due receiver failure" shall be transmitted: frequency regional international available
presently in guard emergency aeronautical
use frequency frequency stations

5725 91 1 0 0 0
If all attempts to establish radio contact with a ground PAN PAN, "Transmittin "Read you "How do you
station fail, the pilot of an aeroplane shall transmit PAN PAN, g blind" one, read read?"
5726 91 messages preceded by the phrase: PAN PAN you one" 0 1 0 0
In the event that a pilot is required to make a blind During VFR Twice on the Only once On the
transmission, this should be made: flights only designated on the emergency
frequency designated frequency
frequency only
5727 91 0 1 0 0
How shall a pilot inform a radar control unit that the Negative No SSR Transponder Negative
aircraft is not equipped with transponder: transponder not available squawk
5728 91 1 0 0 0
Which information can aircraft in flight obtain by SIGMET Runway Aviation SPECI and
VOLMET: reports routine TAF
weather
reports
(METAR) of
specific
airports
5729 91 0 0 1 0
Aircraft XY-ABC is making a test transmission with Stephenville Stephenville Stephenville Stephenville
Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.7. What is the TOWER XY- TOWER XY- TOWER XY- TOWER XY-
correct phrasing for this transmission: ABC signal ABC ABC radio ABC
check frequency check 118.7 preflight
check check
5730 91 0 0 1 0
How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he is Ready for Ready to Ready to go Ready for
prepared for take-off: take-off line-up departure or
5731 91 ready 0 0 0 1
Which of these phrases is used to inform the control Going Overshootin Will make Pulling up
tower that a pilot perform a missed approach: around g another
5732 91 approach 1 0 0 0
What does the instruction "Go around" mean ? Make a 360° Proceed Carry out a Overtake the
turn with your missed aircraft
5733 91 message approach ahead 0 0 1 0
 What does the instruction "Orbit right" mean ? Right-hand Leave the Make 360° Turn right to
circuits are runway to turns to the avoid other
5734 91 in use the right right traffic 0 0 1 0
What does the instruction "Vacate left" mean ? Clear the Hold Turn left to Give way to
runway position on leave the aircraft from
immediately the left side runway the left
of the
runway
5735 91 0 0 1 0
What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the CONTROL AERODRO APRON TOWER
aeronautical station indicating aerodrome control ME
5736 91 service: 0 0 0 1
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical FLIGHT CONTROL INFORMATI FLIGHT
station providing flight information service: CENTRE ON INFORMATI
5737 91 ON 0 0 1 0
CENTRE
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical CONTROL GROUND APPROACH TOWER
station providing surface movement control of aircraft
5738 91 on the manoeuvring area: 0 1 0 0
When may the name of the location or the call sign Never Only after In dense When
suffix in the call sign of an aeronautical station be the traffic during satisfactory
omitted ? aeronautical rush hours communicati
station has on has been
used the established
abbreviated and
call sign provided it
will not be
confusing to
do so

5739 91 0 0 0 1
Which of the following abbreviated call signs of Cherokee Cherokee Cherokee X- Cherokee X-
5740 91 Cherokee XY-ABC is correct: BC XY-BC BC ABC 1 0 0 0
When is an aircraft station allowed to use its Only after Provided no In dense After it has
abbreviated call sign ? satisfactory confusion is traffic been
communicati likely to addressed in
on has been result this manner
established by the
aeronautical
ground
station

5741 91 0 0 0 1
How should aircraft XY-ABC call Stephenville TOWER TOWER XY- Stephenville Stephenville Stephenville
on initial call ? ABC TOWER XY- TOWER X- XY-ABC
5742 91 ABC BC 0 1 0 0
Aircraft X-BC has been instructed to contact 118.7 X-BC Will change Changing Stephenville
Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.7. What is the to TOWER over X-BC TOWER X-
correct response to indicate that it will follow this X-BC BC
instruction ?
5743 91 1 0 0 0
When the term "Broken" is used in an aviation routine 1 to 4 octas 8 octas No clouds 5 to 7 octas
weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds below 10000 below 5000
5744 91 covering the sky is: feet feet 0 0 0 1
 Cherokee XY-ABC receives the following instruction: Right turn Straight Straight Wilco,
"X-BC climb straight ahead until 2500 feet before after 2500, ahead, 2500 ahead, at cleared for
turning right, wind 270 degrees 6 knots, cleared for roger, X-BC feet right 2500 feet take-off, X-
take-off".What is the correct read back: turn, wind right turn, BC
west 6 cleared for
knots, take-off, X-
cleared for BC
take-off, X-
BC

5745 91 0 0 1 0
RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC: "X-BC recycle 1015". X-BC is X-BC has X-BC has X-BC is
What does this mean: requested to been been requested to
set new identified by identified at reselect
code 1015 SSR code 10:15 (UTC) SSR code
1015 1015
5746 91 0 0 0 1
RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC: X-BC is X-BC is X-BC is X-BC is
"X-BC squawk standby ". What does this mean? requested to requested to requested to requested to
standby as switch to standby on standby for
the radar standby the radar
controller is position frequency vectors
busy

5747 91 0 1 0 0
RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC: Radar X-BC should X-BC shall X-BC shall
"X-BC squawk ident". What does this mean: identification perform an reselect his operate the
has been identification assigned IDENT
achieved by turn of at mode and button
correlating least 020 code
an observed degrees
radar blip
with aircraft
XY-ABC

5748 91 0 0 0 1
RADAR informs aircraft X-BC: "X-BC identified". What X-BC should Radar X-BC is not X-BC should
does this mean: operate the identification visible on perform an
IDENT- has been the radar identification
button achieved screen turn

5749 91 0 1 0 0
What does the phrase "Squawk 1234" mean: Select code Give a short Make a test Standby on
1234 on the count for DF transmission frequency
SSR (direction on 123.4 123.4 MHz
transponder finder) MHz

5750 91 1 0 0 0
Aircraft X-BC has been instructed to listen on ATIS Changing to Will contact Checking Monitoring
frequency 123.25, on which information are being 123.25 X-BC 123.25 X-BC 123.25 X-BC 123.25 X-BC
broadcast. What is the correct response to indicate that
it will follow this instruction ?
5751 91 0 0 0 1
How should a pilot terminate the read-back of an ATC With his own With the With the With the
clearance ? aircraft call word "wilco" ATC ground word "roger"
sign station call
sign

5752 91 1 0 0 0
What is the correct way to transmit and read back One two One two One twenty One two
frequency 120.375 MHz (VHF channel separated by 25 zero three zero decimal decimal zero decimal
KHz): seven three seven three seven three seven
five

5753 91 0 1 0 0
 An aircraft is instructed to hold short of the runway-in- Roger Will stop Wilco Holding
use. What is the correct phraseology to indicate it will before short
5754 91 follow this instruction ? 0 0 0 1
Shall an ATC route clearance always be read back: Yes, unless No, if the No, if the No, if the
authorized ATC route communicati content of
otherwise by clearance is on channel the ATC
ATS transmitted is clearance is
authority in a overloaded clear and no
concerned published confusion is
form (e.g. likely to
Standard arise
Instrument
Departure
Route/SID)

5755 91 1 0 0 0
Which elements of instructions or information shall Time check, Runway-in- Runway-in- Surface
always be read back ? runway-in- use, use, wind,
use, altimeter visibility, visibility,
altimeter settings, surface ground
settings, SSR codes, wind, temperature,
level level heading runway-in-
instructions, instructions, instructions, use,
SSR codes heading and altimeter altimeter
speed settings settings,
instructions heading and
speed
instructions

5756 91 0 1 0 0
On the readability scale what does "Readability 5" Readable Perfectly Unreadable Problem to
mean: but with readable understand
5757 91 difficulty 0 1 0 0
On the readability scale what does "Readability 3" Loud and Unreadable Readable No problem
mean: clear but with to
5758 91 difficulty understand 0 0 1 0
Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "Yes": Yes Roger Affirmative Affirm
5759 91 0 0 0 1
An aircraft is flying north-east at 2500 feet.TOWER Heading 045 Heading Heading 45 045 and
requests heading and level. What is the correct at 2500 feet north-east at at 2500 feet 2500
5760 91 response: level 25 1 0 0 0
The message addressed to an Area Control Center A flight A An urgency A message
"request radar vectors to circumnavigate adverse safety meteorologic message. relating to
weather" is: message. al message. direction
finding.
5761 91 1 0 0 0
A message concerning an aircraft being threatened by Urgency Class B Distress Flight safety
grave and imminent danger, requiring immediate message. message. message. message.
5762 91 assistance is called: 0 0 1 0
Which of the messages listed below shall not be Radio Meteorologic Flight safety Urgency
handled by the aeronautical mobile service? teletype al messages. messages.
5763 91 messages. messages. 1 0 0 0
The message to an aeronautical ground station "please An urgency An A flight A flight
call a taxi-cab for us. We will arrive at 1045" is: message. unauthorize regularity safety
5764 91 d message. message. messages. 0 1 0 0
 The priority of the instruction "taxi to runway 05" is: Less than Same as Greater than Greater than
"cleared to "line-up "transmit for "caution,
land". runway 07 QDM". construction
and wait". work left of
taxiway".

5765 91 0 1 0 0
What is the correct way of spelling out HB-JYC in a Hotel Bravo Hotel Bravo Hotel Bravo Hotel Bravo
radio message? India Yankee India Victor Juliett Juliett India
Charlie Charlie Yankee Kilo
Charlie
5766 91 0 0 1 0
What is the correct way of transmitting the number three three five three five three five
3500 when indicating an altitude or an height ? thousand zero zero hundred double zero
five hundred
5767 91 1 0 0 0
What is the correct way of transmitting 1001 as a QNH one QNH one QNH one QNH one
QNH ? double "O" thousand double zero zero zero
5768 91 one and one one one 0 0 0 1
When transmitting time, which time system shall be Local time Local time No specific Co-
used? (LT), 24- (LT) A.M. system, as ordinated
hour clock and P.M. only the universal
minutes are time (UTC)
normally
required
5769 91 0 0 0 1
The time is 9:20 A.M. What is the correct way of Two zero. Twenty. Two zero Nine twenty
transmitting this time if there is no possibility of this hour. A.M.
5770 91 confusion about the hour ? 1 0 0 0
The order of priority of the following messages in the Flight Flight safety Flight safety Meteorologic
aeronautical mobile service is: regularity message, message, al message,
message, direction meteorologic direction
distress finding al message, finding
message, message, flight message,
meteorologic urgency regularity flight safety
al message. message. message. message.

5771 91 0 0 1 0
The order of priority of the following messages in the Distress Meteorologic Distress Direction
aeronautical mobile service is: message, al message, message, finding
flight safety direction urgency message,
message, finding message, distress
urgency message, direction message,
message. flight finding urgency
regularity message. message.
message.

5772 91 0 0 1 0
Flight safety messages are: Messages Air traffic Operation Messages
relating to control messages concerning
direction messages. concerning the safety of
finding. non-routine an aircraft, a
landings. vessel, any
other vehicle
or a person.

5773 91 0 1 0 0
Air traffic control messages (clearances, instructions, Flight safety Class B Flight Service
etc.) belong to the category of: messages. messages. regularity messages.
5774 91 messages. 1 0 0 0
 To which frequency bands do the frequencies 118.000 - Low Medium Very high Very low
136.975 MHz of the Aeronautical Mobile Service frequency frequency frequency frequency
5775 91 belong ? 0 0 1 0
What does the phrase "Go ahead" mean: Pass me the Yes Proceed Taxi on
following with your
information.. message
.

5776 91 0 0 1 0
Which is the frequency separation between 75 KHz 250 KHz 25 KHz 50 KHz
5777 91 consecutive frequencies in the VHF band: 0 0 1 0
Which phenomena will normally influence the reception Level of The Electrical Day- and
of VHF transmission ? aircraft and ionosphere discharges night effect
terrain as they
elevations happen
frequently in
thunderstor
ms

5778 91 1 0 0 0
Under which of the following circumstances may you Aircraft at Aircraft at Aircraft at Aircraft at
expect a solid reception of theTOWER frequency 118.2 low level, far low level, in high level in low level but
MHz: away from the vicinity the vicinity far away
the ground of the of the from the
station, in ground ground ground
the radio station, in station station
shadow the radio
zone of a hill shadow
zone of a hill

5779 91 0 0 1 0
Which is the maximum distance at which you might About 8 NM About 15 About 150 About 85
expect solid VHF contact over flat terrain at flight level NM NM NM
5780 91 50: 0 0 0 1
Which is the maximum distance at which you might About 12 About 120 About 300 About 30
expect solid VHF contact over flat terrain at flight level NM NM NM NM
5781 91 100: 0 1 0 0
What does the term "blind transmission" mean? A A A A
transmission transmission transmission transmission
of messages where no from one of
relating to reply is station to information
en-route required another relating to
weather from the station in air
information receiving circumstanc navigation
which may station. es where that is not
affect the two-way addressed
safety of communicati to a specific
aircraft on cannot station or
operations be stations.
that is not established
addressed but it is
to a specific believed that
station or the called
stations. station is
able to
receive the
transmission
.

5782 91 0 0 1 0
 The priority of the pilot's message "request QDM" is: Less than Same as Greater than Less than
"descend to "latest QNH "turn left "request
flight level..." 1018". heading..." climb to
flight level..."

5783 91 0 0 1 0
Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say : Wilco. Standby. Go ahead. Roger.
"Wait and i will call you"?
5784 91 0 1 0 0
During the transmission of numbers containing a The term The term The term The term
decimal point : DECIMAL DECIMAL DECIMAL DECIMAL
can be must be must always can be
omitted if no spoken only be omitted with
chance of if followed transmitted. friendly ATS
misundersta by three units only.
nding exists. digits.

5785 91 0 0 1 0
What is meant by good microphone technique ? Speak very Keep the Make large Use a
loudly into microphone use of normal
the far away hesitation conversation
microphone. since it sounds as tone, speak
improveds "er". clearly and
the distinctly.
readability.
5786 91 0 0 0 1
My message will be more effective and understandable Stress every Maintain the Use the Stress the
if I : beginning of speaking words twice end of
message volume at a method message
constant
level
5787 91 0 1 0 0
The clearance : "cleared for immediate take-off runway An urgency An A flight A flight
03" is: message. unauthorize regularity safety
5788 91 d message. message. message. 0 0 0 1
Which abbreviation is used for "Co-ordinated universal COUT. UTC. CUT. GMT.
5789 91 time"? 0 1 0 0
Which abbreviation is used for the term "control zone"? CTZ. CTA. CTR. CZ.
5790 91 0 0 1 0
What does the abbreviation "AFIS" mean? Aerodrome Aerodrome Automatic Aeronautical
flashing flight flight flight
identification information information information
signal. service. service. system.
5791 91 0 1 0 0
What does the abbreviation "FIR" mean? Flow Flight Flight Flight
information information information information
5792 91 received. radar. region. required. 0 0 1 0
A message concerning aircraft parts and material An urgency A flight A flight A flight
urgently required is: message. safety security regularity
5793 91 message. message. message. 0 0 0 1
What does the abbreviation "HJ" mean? Sunset to No specific Continuous Sunrise to
sunrise. working day and sunset.
hours. night
service.
5794 91 0 0 0 1
What does the abbreviation "HX" mean? No specific Sunrise to Sunset to Continuous
working sunset. sunrise. day and
hours. night
service.
5795 91 1 0 0 0
 Which phraseology is to be used to ask the control "Backtrack "Request "Clearance "To enter
tower for permission to taxi on a runway in the direction clearance". backtrack on to back
opposite to that in use ? runway". backtrack". runway".
5796 91 0 1 0 0
What are the propagation characteristics of VHF: Practically The waves The waves Similar to
straight-line are reflected travel along short waves
similar to at the the surface with
light waves ionosphere of the earth practically
at the height and no
of about 100 penetrate atmospheric
km and into valleys disturbance
reach the in a way that
earth topographic
surface in al obstacles
the form of have no
sky-waves influence

5797 91 1 0 0 0
What does QDM mean? True bearing Magnetic Magnetic True
from the heading to bearing from heading to
station the station the station the station
(no wind) (no wind)
5798 91 0 1 0 0
What is the Q-code for "magnetic bearing from the QDR QTE QDM QFE
5799 91 station"? 1 0 0 0
What does QDR mean? True Magnetic Magnetic True bearing
heading to bearing from heading to from the
the station the station the station station
(no wind)
5800 91 0 1 0 0
What is the Q-code for "true bearing from the station"? QFE QTE QDR QDM
5801 91 0 1 0 0
What is the Q-code for "magnetic heading to the station QTE. QDM. QDR. QNE.
5802 91 (no wind)? 0 1 0 0
5803 91 Which Q-code is used to report altitude ? QFF QNJ QNH QFE 0 0 1 0
If you are requested to report your height, to which Q- QBI QFE QNH QDM
5804 91 code-setting would you refer ? 0 1 0 0
What does QTE mean? Magnetic True Magnetic True bearing
bearing from heading to heading to from the
the station. the station the station. station.
(no wind).
5805 91 0 0 0 1
Must a "general call" be acknowledged"? Yes, from all No. Yes, but only Yes, from all
stations in a from the stations in
random station first the
sequence. called. sequence
they have
been
adressed.
5806 92 0 1 0 0
Which of the following messages sent by ATC to an 1, 2, 3, 5 1, 3, 4, 5, 6 1, 3, 4, 5 all
aircraft in flight must be read back?

1 - "descend to (altitude) 3.000 feet"

2 - "wind 240°, 15 knots, gusts 30 knots"
3 - "turn right heading 210"
4 - "reduce speed to 160 knots"
5 - "squawk 1723"
6 - "braking action poor"

5807 92 0 0 1 0
 What does the word "check" mean ? Confirm your Read back I understand Examine a
last my last your system or
transmission instruction. message. procedure.
.
5808 92 0 0 0 1
Before transmitting the pilot should...: Make sure Listen out on Make sure Always write
that the the that the the message
emergency frequency to aircraft is and read it
frequency is ensure no levelled off. during the
tuned in at interference transmission
the same with another .
time. station
already
transmitting
will occur.

5809 92 0 1 0 0
What does the word "acknowledge" mean ? Repeat all of Let me know Pass me the Repeat all of
your last that you following this
transmission have information. message
. received and back to me
understood exactly as
this received.
message.

5810 92 0 1 0 0
What is meant by the phrase " readibility 4"? Perfectly Readable Readable. Readable
readable. but with now and
5811 92 difficulty. then. 0 0 1 0
Radio silence can be imposed by an aeronautical Distress Urgency Overload of Technical
station in case of : traffic. communicati the difficulties.
5812 92 on. frequency. 1 0 0 0
What does the word "approved" mean ? Permission That is Authorized I repeat for
for proposed correct. to proceed clarity or
action under the emphasis.
granted. conditions
specified.
5813 92 1 0 0 0
Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate a Break. Stop. I say again. Over.
5814 92 separation between portions of a message ? 1 0 0 0
On the readability scale what does "readability 1" mean Readable Unreadable. Readable. Perfectly
? but with readable.
5815 92 difficulty. 0 1 0 0
What does the word "cancel" mean ? Annul the A change Wait and I Consider
previously has been will call you. that
transmitted made to transmission
clearance. your last as not sent.
clearance.
5816 92 1 0 0 0
What is meant by the phrase "readability 2"? Readable Readable Readable. Unreadable.
but with now and
5817 92 difficulty. then. 0 1 0 0
Which of the following calls is a "general call" ? YX-EFG, ALL YX-ABC, YX-DEF
YX-FGH STATIONS YX-BCD, Stephenville
over. Stephenville YX-CDE CONTROL.
CONTROL. Stephenville
CONTROL.

5818 92 0 1 0 0
 What does the phrase "Verify" mean: Check and Repeat your Read back Consider
confirm with last VDF bearing that
originator transmission transmission
as not sent

5819 92 1 0 0 0
During radar vectoring, the controller asks the pilot of Heading Heading Heading A read back
XY-ABC to turn on to heading 360°. The correct read three six north, X-BC. three is not
back of this instruction is : zero, X-BC. hundred necessary
sixty, X-BC. as XY-ABC
has been
identified
5820 92 1 0 0 0
Which word or phrase shall be used when giving Approved. I say again : Cleared. Go ahead.
authorization to proceed under specified conditions ? proceed.
5821 92 0 0 1 0
What is the consequence of a microphone button stuck Readability The None. Other
on transmit (switched "on") ? will improve frequency stations will
for all can not be have to use
stations. used by the "words
others. twice"
technique.
5822 92 0 1 0 0
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical ARRIVAL RADAR CONTROL APPROACH
station providing approach control (no radar service) ?
5823 92 0 0 0 1
To indicate that he is no longer occupying the active Runway Runway Clear of Runway
5824 92 runway a pilot shall report to the controller : cleared. free. runway. vacated. 0 0 0 1
A message concerning a protected medical transport PAN PAN MEDICAL PROTECTE PAN PAN
operated by aircraft assigned exclusively to medical MEDICAL TRANSPOR D TRANSPOR
transportation shall be preceded by the signal: T TRANSPOR T
T
5825 92 1 0 0 0
What do the spoken words '' PAN PAN MEDICAL '' The aircraft The The The aircraft
mean ? has an phrase/signa message has a sick
urgent need l is which passenger
of medical inadmissible follows on board
care upon in concerns a and
landing at radiotelepho protected requests
destination ny medical priority to
airport transport land
operated by
aircraft
assigned
exclusively
to medical
transportatio
n

5826 92 0 0 1 0
In case the transponder fails before the departure for Inform ATC Obtain prior Inform FIS Insert under
an IFR flight, the pilot shall: after permission for relay to item 18 of
departure by ATC to AIS the flight
conduct the plan
flight "transponder
unserviceabl
e"

5827 92 0 1 0 0
 When transmitting runway visual range (RVR) for RVR runway The values RVR at the RVR runway
runway 16 ATC will use the following phrase: 16 of the beginning of 16 ... metres
touchdown .. transmissom runway 16 is diagonal ...
. metres, eter are: ... ... metres metres
mid-point ... metres diagonal ...
metres, stop and ... metres
end ... metres
metres
5828 92 1 0 0 0
What does "Friction coefficient 45" in a runway report Braking Braking Braking Braking
mean: action poor action not action good action
5829 92 measurable medium 0 0 1 0
What does "Friction coefficient 20" in a runway report Braking Braking Braking Braking
mean: action action poor action action good
5830 92 unreliable medium 0 1 0 0
What does the phrase "break break" mean ? My It indicates It indicates The
transmission the the exchange of
is ended and separation separation transmission
I expect a between between s is ended
response messages portions of a and no
from you. transmitted message response is
to different transmitted expected.
aircraft in a to an aircraft
very busy station.
environment
.

5831 92 0 1 0 0
What does the word "report" mean ? Examine a Pass me the Repeat all of Say again.
system or following this
procedure. information. message
back to me
exactly as
received.
5832 92 0 1 0 0
What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the RADAR- RADAR- RADAR. CONTROL.
aeronautical station providing radar service (in general) CONTROL. SERVICE.
5833 92 ? 0 0 1 0
How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he has to Cancelling Stopping Abandoning Aborting
5834 92 abandon the take-off manoeuvre: take-off take-off take-off 0 1 0 0
When shall the phrase "Take-off" be used by a pilot : Never, it is To inform Only when To
used only by TOWER the aircraft acknowledg
the control when ready has already e take-off
tower for departure moved onto clearance
the active only
runway
5835 92 0 0 0 1
What does the word "wilco" mean ? I understand I have I read you As
your received all five. communicati
message of your last on is difficult,
and will transmission I will call you
comply with . later.
it.

5836 92 1 0 0 0
What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the CLEARANC CLEARANC RADIO. DELIVERY.
aeronautical station indicating clearance delivery ? E. E
5837 92 DELIVERY. 0 0 0 1
 When an aircraft station receives the call "ALL To assist To leave the Not to To continue
STATIONS Stephenville RADAR, stop transmitting Stephenville frequency in interfere with normal
MAYDAY" it is requested : RADAR in use. the distress communicati
handling the communicati on on the
distress on. frequency in
traffic. use.
5838 92 0 0 1 0
Which of these phrases is used if you want to My last Disregard Cancel my Forget it
communicate that a message: "Consider that transmission last
transmission as not sent": is cancelled message
5839 92 0 1 0 0
When an aircraft station receives the call "ALL Discontinue To resume To impose Acknowledg
STATIONS Stephenville RADAR, distress traffic ended" communicati normal silence to e receipt of
it is requested : on with communicati other this
Stephenville on with stations in message.
RADAR. Stephenville its vicinity.
RADAR.
5840 92 0 1 0 0
What, if any, is the abbreviated call sign of Fastair 2345 Fastair 345 Fastair 45 2345 No
? abbreviated
5841 92 form 0 0 0 1
When an aeronautical station broadcasts information "Message "Please "All "General
to more than one station, the call starts with : to all aircraft listen" stations" broadcast"
on this
frequency"

5842 92 0 0 1 0
Under what runway conditions is the braking action Runway Runway Runway Runway
reported to be "Unreliable": covered with covered with covered with conditions
wet snow ice dry snow normal
and slush

5843 92 1 0 0 0
What does the word "disregard" mean ? Consider An error has Annul the Wait and I
that been made previously will call you.
transmission in this transmitted
as not sent. transmission clearance.
.
5844 92 1 0 0 0
Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say : Speak Words twice. Repeat. Say again.
5845 92 "Reduce your rate of speech" ? slower. 1 0 0 0
Which word shall be used to ask a station whether you Verify. Confirm. Correct. Acknowledg
have correctly received a message, clearance, e.
5846 92 instruction, etc ? 0 1 0 0
What does the word "recleared" mean ? An error has Consider A change Permission
been made that has been for proposed
in my last transmission made to action
transmission as not sent. your last granted.
. clearance.

5847 92 0 0 1 0
What is the correct way for the pilot to acknowledge We have the Information Weather We have the
that ATIS Information Golf has been received: ATIS Golf Golf Golf Information
5848 92 received 0 1 0 0
Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate that a Cleared. Approved. Break break. Recleared.
change has been made to your last clearance and this
new clearance supersedes your previous clearance or
part thereof ?
5849 92 0 0 0 1
What does the word "negative" mean ? Consider Annul the I say again. That is not
that previously correct.
transmission transmitted
as not sent. clearance.

5850 92 0 0 0 1
 What does the word "negative" mean ? Proposed Disregard Consider Permission
action last that not granted.
granted. instruction. transmission
as not sent.

5851 92 0 0 0 1
What phrase shall be used when asking for the How do you Read back . Report Read you
readability of a transmission ? read ? readability . loud and
5852 92 clear . 1 0 0 0
Which word shall be used to indicate that an error has Correction. Correct. Negative. Disregard.
5853 92 been made in a transmission or message ? 1 0 0 0
QFE is the RTF Q-code to indicate: The The The The
atmospheric altimeter atmospheric atmospheric
pressure sub-scale pressure at pressure
corrected to setting to aerodrome referred to
the aircraft obtain the elevation (or the highest
cockpit flight level at runway fixed
height. reference threshold). obstacle
datum. located on
the surface
of an
aerodrome.

5854 92 0 0 1 0
QNH is the Q-code to indicate: The The The The
atmospheric atmospheric atmospheric altimeter
pressure at pressure pressure sub-scale
aerodrome measured at referred to setting to
elevation (or the the highest obtain
at runway aerodrome obstacle elevation
threshold). reference located on when on the
point (ARP). the surface ground.
of an
aerodrome.

5855 92 0 0 0 1
What does the word "correct" mean ? An error has Permission Negative, That is
been made for proposed the correct correct.
in this action not version
transmission granted. is ... .
. The correct
version
is ... .

5856 92 0 0 0 1
Which word or phrase shall be used in order to repeat I say again . Confirm . Read back . Verify .
5857 92 for clarity or emphasis ? 1 0 0 0
What does the word "contact" mean ? That is Establish Radar Listen out on
correct . radio contact contact (frequency) .
with ... . established .
5858 92 0 1 0 0
The expression " transmitting blind due to receiver An aircraft An aircraft A radar A ground
failure" implies that no answer is expected. It shall be station being station doing controller station
used by: aware of blind performing a broadcasting
receiver transmission PAR or SRE information
failure s at a "non- final to all
towered" approach. listening
airfield stations.

5859 92 1 0 0 0
What does the abbreviation "ATIS" mean? Automatic Air traffic Automatic Airport
terminal information terminal terminal
information service. information information
system. service. service.
5860 92 0 0 1 0
 What does the abbreviation "RVR" mean: Runway Recleared Runway Radar
visibility via route... visual range vectors
5861 92 report requested 0 0 1 0
What does the abbrevation "RNAV" mean: Route Radio Area Radar aided
navigation navigation navigation navigation
5862 92 0 0 1 0
What does the abbreviation "SSR" mean: Surface Standard Secondary Search and
strength of snow report surveillance surveillance
5863 92 runway radar radar 0 0 1 0
What does "SELCAL" mean: A system A system in A system in A system
which which which provided for
permits the radiotelepho radiotelepho direct
selective ny ny exchange of
calling of communicati communicati information
individual on can be on between between air
aircraft over established two stations traffic
radiotelepho between can take services
ne channels aircraft only place in both (ATS) units
linking a directions
ground simultaneou
station with sly
the aircraft

5864 92 1 0 0 0
What does the abbrevation "MLS" mean: Minimum Microwave Minimum Mean sea
sector level landing safe level level
5865 92 system 0 1 0 0
What does the abbrevation "INS" mean: International International Inertial Instrument
NOTAM navigation navigation navigation
5866 92 system service system system 0 0 1 0
What does the term "way point" mean: A specified A defined A signal A general
geographica position on indicating term
l position an the direction meaning the
used to aerodrome of the taxiway-
define an used for the runway-in- and the
area calibration of use runway-
navigation the inertial system of an
route or the navigation international
flight path of system airport
an aircraft
employing
area
navigation

5867 92 1 0 0 0
An "Automatic Terminal Information Service" provides: Routine Information Current Weather
information concerning meteorologic reports
to arriving en-route al and relating a
and weather operational specific
departing phenomena information number of
aircraft by which may essential for aerodromes
means of effect the the safety of located
continuous safety of the air within a
and aircraft navigation flight
repetitive operation. within a FIR. information
broadcast . region (FIR).

5868 92 1 0 0 0
 What does the term "clearance limit" mean: The time The point to The time of The time at
after which which an expiry of an which an
an air traffic aircraft is air traffic aircraft is
control granted an control given an air
clearance air traffic clearance traffic control
will be control clearance
automaticall clearance
y cancelled
if the flight
has not
been
commenced

5869 92 0 1 0 0
When flying in accordance with IFR, which of the An An approach An approach A visual
following best describes the term "Visual approach" ? extension of by an IFR executed by manoeuvre
an flight when an IFR flight executed by
instrument either part or unable to an IFR flight
approach all of an maintain when the
procedure to instrument VMC weather
bring an approach conditions at
aircraft into procedure is the
position for not aerodrome
landing on a completed of
runway and the destination
which is not approach is are equal to
suitably executed in or better
located for visual than
straight-in- reference to required
approach terrain VMC minima

5870 92 0 1 0 0
What does the term "Expected Approach Time" mean: The holding The time at The time at The time at
time over which ATC which an which an
the radio expects that arriving arriving
facility from an arriving aircraft, aircraft
which the aircraft, upon expects to
instrument following a reaching the arrive over
approach delay, will radio aid the
procedure leave the serving the appropriate
for a landing holding point destination designated
will be to complete aerodrome, navigation
initiated its approach will aid serving
for a landing commence the
the destination
instrument aerodrome
approach
procedure
for a landing

5871 92 0 1 0 0
The time is 4:15 P.M. What is the correct way of Four fifteen One six one Four fifteen Sixteen
transmitting this time if there is any possibility of in the five P.M. fifteen
5872 92 confusion about the hour ? afternoon 0 1 0 0
 When shall an aircraft in the heavy-wake-turbulence Never In all calls In all calls to In the initial
category include the word "Heavy" immediately after its the call to the
call sign e.g. Fastair 345 heavy: aerodrome aerodrome
tower and control tower
the and the
approach approach
control unit control unit

5873 92 0 0 0 1
What is the correct way of transmitting the number one one one one one one one
118.1 to indicate a frequency ? eight eighteen eight one eight point
5874 92 decimal one one one 1 0 0 0
Fastair 345 has been instructed to contact Stephenville Stephenville 118.0 Changing Changing to
ARRIVAL on frequency 118.0. What is the correct way ARRIVAL Fastair 345 over Fastair ARRIVAL
to indicate it will follow this instruction: Fastair 345 345 Fastair 345
5875 92 0 1 0 0
What does the abbreviation "SAR" mean? Surveillance Standard Secondary Search and
airport radar. arrival route. altimeter rescue.
5876 92 responder. 0 0 0 1
Which of the following messages shall a station in Stop Stop Stop All stations
control of distress use to impose silence ? transmitting, transmitting, transmitting, in this
MAYDAY DISTRESS EMERGENC frequency,
Y MAYDAY
traffic
5877 92 1 0 0 0
The distress communication and silence conditions Distress Emergency MAYDAY Disregard
shall be terminated by transmitting a message. Which traffic ended communicati traffic ended distress
words shall this message include ? on finished communicati
on, OUT
5878 92 1 0 0 0
What does the abbreviation "AIS" mean? Aerodrome Airport Aerodrome Aeronautical
identification information information information
signal-area. system. service. service.
5879 92 0 0 0 1
What does the abbreviation "H24" mean? Sunrise to Sunset to No specific Continuous
sunset. sunrise. working day and
hours. night
service.
5880 92 0 0 0 1
What does the abbreviation "IMC" mean? In most International In Instrument
cases. meteorologic meteorologic meteorologic
al channel. al al
conditions. conditions.

5881 92 0 0 0 1
Which phrase shall be used if you want to say : Say again, Repeat Message Words twice
''Communication is difficult. Please send every word or say again twice second time
5882 92 group of words twice'' ? 0 0 0 1
When an aircraft is no longer in distress, it shall ... MAYDAY, ... MAYDAY ... distress ... cancel
transmit a message cancelling the distress condition. resuming cancelled condition distress
Which words shall this message include ? normal terminated
operations

5883 92 0 0 0 1
 What does the term "air-ground communication" Two-way One-way One-way Any
mean? communicati communicati communicati communicati
on between on from on from on from
aircraft and aircraft to stations or aircraft to
stations or stations or locations on ground
locations on locations on the surface station
the surface the surface of the earth requiring
of the earth of the earth handling by
the
Aeronautical
Fixed
Telecommun
ication
Network
(AFTN)

5884 92 1 0 0 0
What does the term "broadcast" mean? A A A A
transmission transmission radiotelepho transmission
containing of ny where no
meteorologic information transmission reply is
al and relating to from ground required
operational air station to from the
information navigation aircraft in receiving
to aircraft that is not flight. station.
engaged in addressed
flights over to a specific
remote and station or
oceanic stations.
areas out of
range of
VHF ground
stations.

5885 92 0 1 0 0
The urgency message to be sent by an aircraft Aircraft call Name of the Aircraft Aircraft call
reporting an urgency condition shall contain at least the sign, station identification sign, nature
following elements/details : destination addressed, , aerodrome of the
airport, ETA present of departure, urgency
at position, level and condition,
destination, assistance heading pilot's
route of required intention,
flight present
position,
level and
heading

5886 92 0 0 0 1
Which of the following statements is correct ? ATC The urgency The urgency There is no
clearances communicati communicati difference
have the ons have ons have regarding
same priority priority over priority over priority
as urgency all the other all the other between
communicati communicati communicati distress
ons ons, except ons communicati
distress ons and
urgency
communicati
ons

5887 92 0 1 0 0
 What is the correct way of transmitting the number thirteen one three one three one three
13.500 to indicate an altitude or cloud height ? thousand thousand five hundred five zero
five hundred five hundred zero
5888 92 0 1 0 0
A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the The aircraft The aircraft The aircraft Imminent
spoken word MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY means: has a very has a is forced to danger
urgent message to perform a threatens
message to transmit fuel dumping the aircraft
transmit concerning procedure and
concerning adverse immediate
the safety of weather assistance is
a ship, conditions required
aircraft or along its
vehicle route of
flight

5889 92 0 0 0 1
In case of a SSR transponder failure occuring after Land at the Squawk Continue the Inform the
departure of an IFR flight, the pilot shall: nearest 7600 flight in VMC competent
suitable ATC unit
aerodrome immediately
for repair
5890 92 0 0 0 1
A departing aircraft experiencing radio communication Squawk Squawk Squawk Squawk
failure on an IFR flight under radar vectors has to: 7600 and 7600 and 7600 and 7600,
thereafter, thereafter maintain the maintain
regardless return to the heading last present
of any route assigned by heading for
limitation indicated in ATC for a 1 minute
instructed by the current period of 3 and
ATC, return flight plan in minutes and thereafter
to the route the most then return return to the
indicated in direct to the flight route
the current manner path in indicated in
flight plan on accordance the current
the shortest with the flight plan on
way current flight the shortest
plan way

5891 92 0 1 0 0
Within the European Region, an aircraft experiencing Maintain the Climb Land at the Maintain the
radio communication failure on an IFR departure has to level last immediately departure altitude last
squawk 7600 and: assigned by to the aerodrome assigned by
the ATC for cruising in any case ATC for a
a period of 3 level period of 5
minutes and indicated in minutes and
then climb in the flight then
accordance plan continue in
with the accordance
flight plan with the
flight plan

5892 92 1 0 0 0
An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on 30 minutes 30 minutes 15 minutes 30 minutes
an IFR flight in IMC has to land, if possible, within: after noticing after waiting after after ETA or
the radio for the EAT vacating the the last EAT,
failure transition whichever is
layer later

5893 92 0 0 0 1
 An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on Immediately After 3 At, or as 5 minutes
an IFR flight in IMC has to commence descent over the after minutes, if close to, the after the last
designated navigation aid serving the destination reaching in an expected ETA expected
aerodrome (no EAT received): any case approach resulting approach
time is not from the time
acknowledg current flight acknowledg
ed plan ed

5894 92 0 0 1 0
An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on Until the Under no 5 minutes in 3 minutes, if
an IFR flight in IMC has to hold over the designated expected circumstanc any case an expected
navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome: approach es approach
time last time is not
received and acknowledg
acknowledg ed
ed

5895 92 1 0 0 0
An aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on Proceed to Divert to the Execute a Proceed in
an IFR flight in IMC is assumed to: an area from most VMC accordance
where the suitable approach at with the
flight can be aerodrome the nearest current flight
continued according to suitable plan to the
according to the route of aerodrome designated
the visual flight navigation
flight rules aid serving
the
destination
aerodrome

5896 92 0 0 0 1
An aircraft on an IFR flight in VMC experiences radio Land at the Return to Land at the Land at the
communication failure. The aircraft is assumed to : nearest the alternate destination
suitable aerodrome aerodrome aerodrome
aerodrome of departure

5897 92 1 0 0 0
An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on Leave Squawk Continue the Continue to
an IFR flight in VMC is assumed to: controlled IDENT and flight to fly in VMC,
airspace and proceed to destination land at the
continue the the alternate aerodrome nearest
flight within aerodrome in any case suitable
uncontrolled aerodrome,
airspace report its
arrival

5898 92 0 0 0 1
Blind transmission shall be made: On regional During IFR On the To all
guard flights only designated available
frequencies frequency aeronautical
only (frequency stations
in use)
5899 92 0 0 1 0
Which elements of a position report cannot be Aircraft Aircraft Aircraft Aircraft
omitted ? identification identification identification identification
, position, , position, , position, , position,
next position time time, level level

5900 92 0 1 0 0
 ATC clears Fastair 345 to descend from FL 100 to FL Leaving 100 Leaving Descending Down to
80. What is the correct readback by the pilot: to 80, flight level to 80, flight level
Fastair 345 100 Fastair 345 80, Fastair
descending 345
to flight level
80, Fastair
345
5901 92 0 1 0 0
What does the word "Monitor" mean: Wait and I Establish Examine a Listen out on
will call you radio contact system or (frequency).
with... procedure
5902 92 0 0 0 1
What shall the pilot's readback be for Climbing to Climbing to Climbing two Climbing to
"Climb to FL 280": flight level flight level eight zero two eighty
two eight two eighty
zero
5903 92 1 0 0 0
What does the instruction: Fastair 345 Fastair 345 Fastair 345 Fastair 345
"Fastair 345 standby 118.9 for TOWER" mean: should listen should should should
on change contact standby on
frequency frequency to TOWER on the current
118.9 on 118.9, on 118.9 frequency
which which
TOWER will aerodrome
initiate data are
further being
communicati broadcast
ons

5904 92 1 0 0 0
Which elements of instructions or information shall ATC QNH, SSR SSR code, QNH,
always be read back ? clearance, code, QNH, take- weather
speed approach off information,
instructions, aid clearance, runway-in-
runway state serviceability speed use
information instructions

5905 92 0 0 1 0
The distress signal and the distress message to be The air- The The regional The FIS
sent by an aircraft in distress be on: ground emergency guard frequency
frequency in frequency in frequency designated
use at the any case for the
time airspace
concerned
5906 92 1 0 0 0
What is the correct call sign of Fastair 345 in the initial Fastair 345 Fastair 345 Heavy Fastair 345
call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach widebody heavy Fastair 345
control unit, if the aircraft has a maximum take-off
weight of more than 136 tonnes:

5907 92 0 1 0 0
The frequency 121.500 MHz is designated as: An airline An A frequency A regional
operation international for air-to-air UHF
frequency emergency communicati frequency
frequency on

5908 92 0 1 0 0
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical ...APPROAC ...RADAR ...DIRECTO ...ARRIVAL
station indicating approach control radar arrivals: H R
5909 92 0 0 0 1
 An aircraft squawking 7700 indicates to the ground There is a The aircraft The aircraft The aircraft's
station that: sick is in distress is being transceiver
passenger hijacked is
on board unserviceabl
e

5910 92 0 1 0 0
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical ...APPROAC ...DEPARTU ...CONTROL ...RADAR
station indicating approach control radar departures: H RE
5911 92 0 1 0 0
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical ...RADAR ...CONTROL ...CENTRE ...APPROAC
station indicating area control centre (no radar): H
5912 92 0 1 0 0
A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the Imminent The aircraft An aircraft The aircraft
spoken words PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN means: danger is diverting on final has a very
threatens from the approach is urgent
the aircraft route starting the message to
and cleared missed transmit
immediate because of a approach concerning
assistance is thunderstor procedure the safety of
required m and asks a ship,
for aircraft or
immediate other
reclearance vehicle, but
immediate
assistance is
not required

5913 92 0 0 0 1
Which phrase should a pilot use to inform ATC that he Going Missed Pulling up Overshootin
5914 92 is initiating a missed approach procedure: around approach g 1 0 0 0
Which phraseology shall a pilot use if he receives an Unable to Negative Impossible Disregard
instruction from ATC which he cannot carry out: comply instruction to make it
5915 92 1 0 0 0
On hearing an urgency message a pilot shall: Acknowledg Impose Change the Monitor the
e the radio silence frequency, frequency to
message on the because ensure
immediately frequency in radio silence assistance if
use will be required
imposed on
the
frequency in
use

5916 92 0 0 0 1
If you are requested to "Report flight conditions", what Indicate Indicate Indicate Indicate if
does that mean: whether you whether you weather visibility is
are flying are flying in conditions sufficient for
IFR or VFR IMC or in as wind, landing
VMC visibility,
temperature

5917 92 0 1 0 0
What shall the pilot's readback be for "climb to 2500 Climbing to Climbing to Climbing to Up to two
feet": two point two two thousand
five thousand thousand five hundred
five hundred five hundred
feet

5918 92 0 0 1 0
85%
82%
 AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES

Domanda rispostaA
The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating Two consecutive periods
in an area distant from designated medical examination each of three month in the
facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the licence case a flight crew member
authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made of an aircraft engaged in
as an exception and shall not exceed: non-commercial
operations.

1 10
Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS +/- 20 kt.
authority, a radar controller may request radar-controlled
aircraft to adjust their speed when established on
intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment
should not be more than:
2 10
The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the 4 NM from the threshold
3 10 speed where the aircraft has passed: on final approach.
Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory need to file a flight plan
airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic advisory
service:
4 10
The color identification of the contents of droppable Red for medical supplies
containers and packages containing survival equipment and first aid equipment.
should take the form of coloured streamers according to the
following code:
5 10
The color identification of the contents of droppable Black for food and water.
containers and packages containing survival equipment
should take the form of coloured streamers according to the
following code:
6 10
The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using 20 NM.
DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is:

7 10
The color identification of the contents of droppable Red for food and water.
containers and packages containing survival equipment
should take the form of coloured streamers according to the
following code:
8 10
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS 5 NM.
authority, the radar controller should notify the non-radar
controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is
approximately:
9 10
When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by Shall not extend beyond
another contracting state, the validity of the authorization: one year for ATPL and
10 10 PCL.
The transition level: Is published on the
approach and landing
chart for each aerodrome
11 10
The transition level: is calculated and decided
by the commander

12 10
 Which information is not included in Instrument Appraoch OCA or OCH
Charts (IAC) in the AIP
13 10
According to international agreements wind direction shall When the local variation
be adjusted to the local variation and given in degrees exceeds 10° East or 10°
magnetic : West.
14 10
An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference As soon as possible
('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or commence emergency
cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS descent in order minimize
shall try to: the difference between
cabin pressure and outside
pressure

15 10
The color identification of the contents of droppable Red for miscellaneous
containers and packages containing survival equipment equipment.
should take the form of coloured streamers according to the
following code:
16 10
The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived +/- 250 ft.
level information displayed to the controller is accurate shall
17 10 be:

The Air Traffic control Services : do not prevent collisions Except when an aircraft is
with terrain. flying IFR in IMC.
18 10
A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be used 60 NM.
at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft
reports its distance to or from the same "on track" way-point.
This minimum is:
19 10
A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, B, C, D and E.
when operating in controlled airspaced classified as:
20 10
One minute separation may be used between departing 45° immediately after take-
aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least: off.
21 10
Two minutes separation may be used between departing The preceeding aircraft is
aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when: 20 kt or more faster than
the following aircraft.
22 10
When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, 20 degrees.
the final vector furnished shall be such as to enable the
aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not
greater than:
23 10
When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar 2 NM from touchdown.
controller shall terminate the surveillance radar approach,
except as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, at a
distance of:
24 10
The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft 2.0 NM between aircraft on
established on the localizer course shall be: the same localizer course.
25 10
An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to 3 NM.
consider executing a missed approach, if the position or
identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of
the final approach or if the aircraft is not visible on the radar
display for significant interval during the last:

26 10
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS 5.0 NM.
authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be:
27 10
The criterion which shall be used to determine that a +/- 200 ft.
specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except that
appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller criterion):
28 10
 An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level +/- 500 ft of the assigned
as long as the SSR mode C derived level information level.
29 10 indicated that it is within:
An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed +/- 300 ft.
a level when the SSR mode C derived level information
indicates that it has passed this level in the required
direction by:
30 10
The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not 1.5 NM.
31 10 below:
Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies 900 metres
dimensions of aerodromes is a specific dimension given for
the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the
length of this approach light system?

32 10
The following minimum radar separation shall be provided 2 NM.
between aircraft on the same localizer with additional
longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence:
33 10
Except in special circumstances determined by the public the passenger is to leave
authorities concerned, when a passenger is passing through that state within one (1)
the territory of a contracting state and has to stay in that day from the day of his
contracting state until the next flight for lack of facilities or (her) arrival
any other circumstances, the contracting state where the
international airport is located shall permit such a passenger
to remain within its territory without requiring visas prior to
the arrival when

34 10
What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E? 250 kt only for IFR up to FL
35 10 100
In case of aircraft registered in other Contracting States, at least 12 hours in
which are not engaged in schedule international services, advance of the expected
and which are making flights across the territory of a ETA
Contracting State or stopping for non traffic purposes, such
Contracting State shall accept the information contained in a
flight plan as adequate advance notification. This
information is to be received :

36 10
An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international for a period of 12 hours
air services and which is making a flight to or through any
designated airport of a Contracting State and is admitted
temporarily free of duty shall be allowed to remain within
that State without security for customs duty.

37 10
Which one of the statements is correct : contracting states shall
accept an oral declaration
of baggage from
passengers and crew

38 10
In cases where a visitor travelling by air holds a valid may require him to obtain
passport and no visa is required of him, contracting states any other identity
document prior to the
commencement of his
flight
39 10
When cargo, unaccompanied baggage or stores are not shall not impose penalties,
unladen at their intended destination but are unladen at fines and custom duties
another international airport, the contracting state where the but taxes on the operator
unlading takes place; if satisfied that there has been no
gross negligence or careless by the operator

40 10
 A contracting state which continues to require the The air waybill number and
presentation of a cargo manifest shall, apart from the the number of packages
information indicated in the heading of the format of the related to the air way bill
cargo manifest, not require more than the following item(s) : number

41 10
Contracting states shall carry out the handling, forwarding in the Acts in force of the
and clearance of airmail and shall comply with the Universal Postal Union
42 10 documentary procedures as prescribed :

The informations on holding, approach and departure GEN

43 10 procedures, are found in the following part of the AIP
The documents for entry and departure of aircraft : has to be typewritten or
produced by electronic
data processing
techniques
44 10
When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the is not responsible for the
operator for transport away from the territory of the state, the person inadmissible for
operator : entry in the receiving state
45 10
The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of annex 6
persons and their baggage in international flights is :
46 10
The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of annex 9
cargo and other articles on international flights is :
47 10
Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of 2 months following the
Montreal by written notification to the depositary date ICAO is informed
governments. The denounciation shall take effect :

48 10
The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds may require the assistance
to believe that a person has commited or is about to commit, of passengers to restrain
on board the aircraft, an offense against penal law such person
49 10
Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared cargo but is free from any
under the procedure applicable to : kind of declaration forms

50 10
Operationaly significant changes to the AIP shall be AIP supplements and shall
published in accordance with : be clearly identifical

51 10
When an aircraft will pass through the level of another 20 minutes at the time the
aircraft on the same track, the following minimum level is crossed.
52 10 longitudinal separation shall be provided:
One of the main objectives of ICAO is to : approve the ticket prices
set by international airline
53 10 companies
The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago binding for all air line
convention are to be considered: companies with
international traffic
54 10
The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with: the regulation of
transportation of
dangerous goods
55 10
 An integrated aeronautical information package consists of AIP, including amendment
the following elements service; supplements to
AIP; NOTAM and pre-flight
information bulletin (PIB);
AIC; checklists and
summuries

56 10
The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger The nationality letters for
area shall be composed by : the location indicators
assigned to the state,
followed by P, R and D

57 10
Contracting states shall not require the authorized agent or 2 copies of General
pilot-in-command to deliver to the public authorities Declarations and Cargo
concerned, before departure of the aircraft, more than some Manifest and one copie of
copies of General Declaration, Cargo Manifest and stores a simple stores list.
list. The numbers of the copies are :

58 10
Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of Three months or longer
long duration and information of short duration which
contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published
as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration.

59 10
Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies 50 metres
dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different runways.
Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code
4?
60 10
A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be Not more than 2 months
61 10 issued at intervals of :
A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at No more than 15 days
62 10 the AFTN at intervals of :
The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity YELLOW
of a volcano when a change in its activity is, or is expected
to be of operational significance. This information is
provided using the volcano level of colour code. When
volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous,
eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL
250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert
colour code is
63 10
The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) GEN, ENR (en-route) and
64 10 are : AD (aerodromes)
The SIGMET service, is in the AIP, in the following part : ENR
65 10
The informations concerning charges for FAL
aerodromes/heliports and Air Navigation Services are on the
66 10 following part of the AIP
In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given At least 6 months after
to each prohibited area, restricted area and danger area cancellation of the area to
67 10 shall not be re-used for a period of which they refer

In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design The terrain surrounding the
68 10 of an instrument departure procedure? airport.
Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are Service provided : Traffic
CORRECT? Information as far as
practical; ATC Clearance :
required ;
69 10
VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above No minima, VFR flights are
3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are : not permitted
70 10
During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you Select A7600 and continue
experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will : according currenct flight
plan to destination ;
71 10
 The profeciency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. 31th of December the
The validity of the previous profeciency check was the 30th same year
of June. The period of the new profeciency check can be
and can't exceed:
72 10
What does the abbreviation OIS mean? Obstacle identification
73 10 surface.
The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and 10 NM provided that the
each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is: leading aircraft maintains a
true airspeed of 20 kt or
more faster than the
succeding aircraft.

74 10
If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be To ignore the wind and
followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected: proceed on an heading
75 10 equal to the track.

In which chapter of the AIP can you find a list with "location AGA
76 10 indicators"?
In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle 35 ft.
clearance at the departure end of runway equals:
77 10
In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the 15°.
78 10 aligment of the runway centre line within:
In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack 1 minute.
79 10 procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to:
How many separate segments has an instrument approach 4.
80 10 procedure.
Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument At the FAF.
81 10 approach procedure commence?
Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the At least 300m (984 ft).
initial approach segment in an instrument approach
82 10 procedure?
What does the abbreviation DER mean? Depature end of runway.
83 10
Which code shall be used on Mode "A" to provide Code 2000.
recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference?
84 10
Which code shall be used on mode "A" to provide Code 7000.
85 10 recognition of an emergency aircraft?
One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the To conduct surveillance
provision of approach control service is: radar approaches.

86 10
The primary duty provided by a radar unit is: To provide radar
separation.
87 10
When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC not advise the aircraft
unit shall: before issuing instructions.

88 10
One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the To apply a reduced vertical
provision of approach control service is: separation of 500 feet
between IFR and VFR
flights.
89 10
Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS 3 NM.
authority a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be
90 10 terminated at a distance from the touchdown of:
An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches 70 degrees with the plane
the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of of symmetry of the latter
91 10 less than :

Where a "Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not To instruct the pilot to

available, radar identification may be achieved by one of the execute one or more
92 10 following procedures: changes of 10°.
93 10 The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is : 17 years
Which does ATC Term "Radar contact" signify? Your aircraft has been
identified and you will
receive separation from all
aircraft while in contact
with this radar facility.

94 10
What is meant when departure control instruct you to Advisories will no longer
"resume own navigation" after you have been vectored to an be issued by ATC.
95 10 airway?
Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and the Regional Air Navigation
Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for meeting
96 10 adoption ?

You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight With a PPL plus flight
97 10 instruction for the issue of a PPL instructor rating
The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is : 2 years
98 10
In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in Based turn.
99 10 a holding pattern is called:
When "Secondary Radar" is used, an aircraft may be To request pilot to set
identified by one of the following procedures: transponder on position
"OFF".
100 10
Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator Requested by ATC.
101 10 (IDENT) feature unless:
In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the 1 minute.
outbound track is performed from the start of turn for
102 10 categories A and B aircraft for:
The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below: 1500 ft.
103 10
The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition as hlight level.
104 10 altitude will be reported:
The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition as altitude.
105 10 level will be reported :
When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot At all times during flight,
shall operate the transponder: regardless of whether the
aircraft is within or outside
airspace where SSR is
used for ATS purposes.

106 10
When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, Shall continuously operate
the pilot: this mode only when the
aircraft is within controlled
airspace.

107 10
Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there 15°.
is a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors
108 10 boundaries of:
When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the 7700.
pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the
109 10 transponder to:
In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the Track.
110 10 holding pattern shall be according to:
When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions, pilots Read back only the code
111 10 shall: to be set.
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between 10 minutes.
aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit
frequent determination of position and speed, is:
112 10
 The longitudinal separation minima based on time between 10 minutes.
aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit
frequent determination of position and speed and the
preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or
more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:

113 10
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between 5 minutes.
aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit
frequent determination of position and speed and the
preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or
more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:

114 10
The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft 10 minutes.
departed from the same aerodrome and following the same
track, and the preceeding aircraft is maintaining a true
airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft,
is:
115 10
The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft 8 minutes.
departed from the same aerodrome and following the same
track, and the preceeding aircraft is maintaining a true
airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft,
is:
116 10
The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall 7500.
set the transponder to Mode A Code:
117 10
Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure? Arrival, initial, intermediate
118 10 and final.
The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire the Rome Convention
to endure adequate compensation for persons who suffer
damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is :
119 10
Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS Intersect the localizer at
procedure may include a dead reckoning segment from a fix 30° and will not be more
120 10 to the localizer. The DR track will: 10 NM in length.

Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the 150m (492 ft).
intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach
121 10 procedure?
In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which Final approach segment.
alignment and descent for landing are made is called:
122 10
In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment IF.
123 10 begins at the:
In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path 300m (984 ft) to 600m
intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from: (1968 ft).
124 10
How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends 5 NM.
125 10 the buffer area?
In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are 6m.
based among other standard conditions, on a vertical
distance between the flight paths of the wheels and glide
path antenna, not greater than:
126 10
In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the 1 minute 30 seconds.
outbound track is performed from the start of the turn for
127 10 categories C, D, E aircraft for:

Normally missed approach procedures are based on a 3.3%.

128 10 nominal missed approach climb gradient of:
Where does the initial phase of a missed approach At the point where the
procedure end? climb is established.
129 10
 The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after Aerodrome traffic pattern.
completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into
position for landing on runway which is not suitably located
for straight-in approach, is:
130 10
It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular Prohibits circling within the
sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual total sector in which the
manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and obstacle exists.
missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the
published procedure:
131 10
Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the half scale deflection of the
assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the centre glidepath indicator and
line more than : horizontal 35 ° off the
centerline.

132 10
A circling approach is: A flight manoeuvre to be
performed only under
133 10 radar vectoring.
In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces Half a scale deflection.
assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the
centreline, after being established on track, more than:
134 10
An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision outside the daylight-period
light: in flight, but not on the
ground when it is being
towed;
135 10
Which statement is correct? The lower limit of an UIR
may coincide with an IFR
cruising level
136 10
The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal Essential separation
separation may be reduced till a maximum of half the
137 10 standard criteria is called :

The closure of a runway for a year, because of only in AIP

138 10 maintenance, will be published :
Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration : information signs; orange
background with black
139 10 inscriptions.
When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its the TAS varies by plus or
current flightplan, ATC has to be informed in case : minus 5% of the TAS
140 10 notified in the flightplan.
Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of International Civile Aviation
141 10 Tokyo by notification addressed Organisation
Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the at least 2000 feet within
minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle 5KM of the estimated
over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an position
IFR flight :
142 10
Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the 7%.
final approach segment to ensure the required minimum
143 10 obstacle clearance, is :
The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates landing, take-off and
that : taxiing is allowed on
runway and/or taxiway
only;
144 10
Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft follow ATC instructions.
The signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC
instructions
You should :
145 10
 The primary area of an instrument approach segment is : the outside part of the
segment where the
obstacle clearance
increases from o ft to the
appropriate minimum

146 10
In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial decreasing from 984 to
147 10 approach segment provides at least : 492 ft
A so called "Visual Approach" can be performed : during IFR flights, if there
is permanent sight on the
movement area and the
underlying ground;

148 10
An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if : the pilot has the field and
the underlying terrain in
sight and will keep it in
sight;
149 10
When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to the flight can only continue
departure and restorage is impossible, than : in the most direct manner;

150 10
To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E / a clearance and/or two-
way radiocommunication is
required.
151 10
What is the length of an approach lighting system of a 900m
152 10 precision-approach runway CAT II :
What is a "barrette"? a frangible structure on
which approach lights are
fixed.

153 10
A precision approach runway CAT. II is an instrument a RVR of 550 meters and a
runway served by ILS and visual aids intended for DH of not less than 200 ft.
154 10 operations down to:
155 10 Turning departures provide track guidance within : 10 Km
When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this 150 m from threshold
156 10 marking shall commence at :
In a standard holding pattern turns are made : in a direction depending on
157 10 the wind direction
Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome Suspension of VFR
control service is correct? operations can not be
initiated by the aerodrome
controller;

158 10
On a non-precision approach a so-called "straight-in- 40 degrees or less
approach" is considered acceptable, if the angle between
the final approach track and the runway centreline is :
159 10
Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service The Alert phase is
is correct? established when no
communication has been
received from an aircraft
within a period of thirty
minutes after the time a
communication should
have been received;

160 10
 Which statement regarding approach control service is During a visual approach
correct ? an aircraft is maintaining
its own separation ;

161 10
Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if 3NM
a radar blip is observed within a certain distance from the
end of the runway.
Identification has to be achieved within :
162 10
Runway-lead-in lighting should consist : of group of at least three
white lights flashing in
sequence towards the
runway ;
163 10
The MSA, which must be established around a navigation 30 NM
facility, is in general valid within a sector of :
164 10
We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a 5° of the alignment of the
straight departure the initial departure track is within : runway centre-line
165 10
Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by 2,5 NM
agreements, aircraft under radar-control shall not be
vectored closer to the boundary of controlled airspace than :
166 10
Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance the operator
167 10 Altitude/Height) for an approavh procedure?
When letters are used for registration mark combinations RCC
shall not be used which might be confused with urgent
168 10 signals for example

To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum 16 and 60 years

169 10 and maximum age (with ATPL) is :
Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be by regional air navigation
prescribed agreements
170 10
Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in C, D, E, F, and G
order to avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace
171 10 classes :
The assigment of the common mark to a common mark the International Civil
registering authority will be made by : Aviation Organisation

172 10
The common mark shall be selected from the series of to state of the operator
symbols included in the radio call signs allocated :

173 10
The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a the state of registry or
combination of letters and numbers and shall be that common mark registering
174 10 assigned by : authority
An information issued by a meteorological watch office An AIRMET information
concerning the occurence or expected occurence of
specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the
safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not
already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in
the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof
is
175 10
When letters are used for registration mark combinations LLL
shall not be used which might be confused with urgent
176 10 signals for example
 Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording 30 seconds of UTC at all
devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct times
177 10 time to within plus or minus
When letters are used for the registration mark RCC
combinations shall not be used which might be confused
178 10 with urgent or distress signals for example
The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air at least between 40
aircraft shall be centimetres and 50
179 10 centimetres
The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent at least 30 centimetres
structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air
180 10 aircraft shall be
The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a over 5.700 kg maximum
continuing structural integrity program to ensure the certificate take-off and
airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific landing mass
information concerning corrosion prevention and control, in
respect of aeroplanes :
181 10
When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be the state of registry, the
allowed to resume its flight, if state of design and the
state of manufacture
consider that the aircraft is
still airworthy

182 10
The loading limitations shall include : all limiting mass and
centres of gravity
183 10
When letters are used for the registration mark four letter combinations
combinations shall not be used which might be confused beginning with Q
with the
184 10
When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all 25 NM on the route
turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a between 30° and 90° at
tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a and below FL190
radius of :
185 10
Each member state should designate an appropriate only to passengers and
authority with its administration to be responsible for the aircrew in international civil
development implementation and maintenance of a national transport flights and
aviation security programme. This programme should domestic flights
apply :

186 10
During radar-control, a "radar-controller" shall issue a 1NM from touch-down;
missed-approach instruction, in case the "tower-controller"
has not issued a "landing-clearance" at the moment the
aircraft is :
187 10
Which statement is correct ? ATC will apply separation
During a "Visual Approach" in Controlled Airspace (Classe only with other IFR-traffic
188 10 C):
189 10 "Cabotage" refers to: crop spraying
A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections. flight identification and
In section I the pilot fills in : weather noted ;
190 10
 When a member state allows police officers, security staff, Prior notification by the
bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to carry state of embarcation to the
weapons in their territory for the protection of aircraft in foreign state in which the
flight, permission for the carriage of weapons should be weapons will be carried on
conditional upon : the airport of arrival and
notification of the pilot in
command of a decision to
permit a weapon to be
carried on board his
aircraft

191 10
Except in some special cases the establishment of change- 100 NM or more
over points should be limited to route segments of
192 10
For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some boarding after to all other
supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as : passengers
193 10
The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as 5 minutes or more.
194 10 possible, in case the expected delay is :
Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) plus or minus 4 NM on a
types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation 90 per cent containment
195 10 accuracy of basis
When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all 22.5 NM between 30° and
turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a 90° at and above FL260
tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined
with a radius of :
196 10
The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, 1 minute
197 10 not exceed
Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall immediately a significant
be updated change occurs
198 10
Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and both air traffic services and
dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the the meteorological office
199 10 responsability of

ATIS broadcast shall not be transmitted on

the voice channel of an ILS

200 10
Member states should introduce specific security measures None of the answers is
for the air transport of the following groups of potentially correct
201 10 disruptive passengers defined below :
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have 20 hours of instrument
completed in aeroplanes not less than : instruction time of which
not more than 10 hours
may be instrument ground
time
202 10
In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot the OCH
be below:
203 10
The duration of the period of currency of a medical the licence is issued or
204 10 assessment shall begin on the date : validated
When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by shall not extend more than
another contracting state the validity of the authorization 15 days from the date of
the licence

205 10
When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences 12 months to 6 months
aeroplane and helicopter have passed their 40th birthday
the medical examination shall be reduced from :
206 10
 Type ratings shall be established all the answers are correct

207 10
The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot the flight time towards the
performing under the supervision of the pilot in command total time required for
the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be higher grade of pilot
entitled to be credit : licence in accordance with
the requirements of the
licensing authority
208 10
An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence 50 hours and 10 hours
aeroplane for the issue of an instrument rating, shall have
completed ..... hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-
command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the
licensing Authority, of which not less than ..... hours shall be
in aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectively

209 10
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall 200 hours of flight time and
have completed in aeroplanes not less than : 70 hours as pilot in
command
210 10
The licensing authority shall determine whether experience 100 hours of which not
as pilot under instruction in a synthetic flight trainer which it more than 15 hours shall
has approved, is acceptable as part of the total flight time of have been acquired in a
1 500 hours. Credit for such experience shall be limited to a flight procedure trainer or
maximum of : basic instrument flight
trainer

211 10
The national civil aviation security programme shall be ECAC
established by :

212 10
Each contracting state shall designate an appropriate Shall be specified to ICAO
authority within its administration to be responsible for the and to ECAC
development, implementation and maintenance of the
national civil aviation security programme. The said
appropriate authority :
213 10
Each contracting state shall establish measures to ensure The state above question
that the aircraft operator is informed when passengers are in incomplete. The pilot in
obliged to travel because they have been the subject of command and the aircraft
judicial or administrative proceedings in order that operator are to be
appropriate security measures can be taken informed.

214 10
During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC the airport controller.
conditions, traffic avoidance is the responsibility of:
215 10
When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the air traffic control and flight
alert phase is the responsibility of: information centers.
216 10
Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach 25 knots at any stage
may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by
ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than :
217 10
For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall 5 hours of night flight time
have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges including 3 take offs and 5
of the licence are to be exercised at night landings as pilot in
command
218 10
 The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence- to act as pilot-in command
aeroplane shall be : in any aeroplane engaged
in operations other than
commercial air
transportation

219 10
When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been Only for categories C, D
established the obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) and E aircraft.
220 10 is determined:
Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon the Chicago Convention
proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or
by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to
compensation as provided by :

221 10
The convention on offences and certain acts committed on the convention of Chicago
222 10 board aircraft, is :
The convention which deals with offences againts penal law, the convention of Madrid
223 10 is
The convention of Tokyo applies to damage : caused in the territory of a
contrating state by any
aircraft regardless the
registration

224 10
The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an 50 % of the co-pilot flight
aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be time towards the total flight
entitled to be credit with not more than : time required for a higher
grade of pilot licence

225 10
In certain circumstances a medical examination may be A single period of six
deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority, provided months in the case of a
that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and flight crew member of an
shall not exceed : aircraft engaged in non
commercial operations.

226 10
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold a current class I medical
assessment
227 10
The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is : ± 12.5 NM

228 10
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall 15 hours and 540 km
have completed not less than ........ hours of cross country (300NM)
flight time as pilot in command including a cross country
flight totalling not less than ........ km (-NM), in the course of
which full stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be
made. The hours and distance referred are :

229 10
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall 10 hours of cross country
have completed in aeroplanes not less than : flight time as pilot-in-
command including a
cross country flight not less
than 540 km (300NM)

230 10
 An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane 150 hours and 75 hours
shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours,
either as pilot in command or made up by not less than ......
hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as
co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-
command the duties and functions of a pilot in command
provided that the method of supervision employed is
acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above
hours are respectively :

231 10
The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall 250 hours and 10 hours
have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours of
cross-country flight time, of which not less than ...... hours
shall be as pilot-in command or co-pilot performing, under
the supervision of the pilot in command, the duties and
functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of
supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing
authority. The state above hours are respectively :

232 10
An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have 75 hours of instrument
completed in aeroplanes not less than : time, of which not more
than 30 hours may be
instrument ground time.
233 10
An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have 100 hours of night flight as
completed in aeroplanes not less than : pilot in command or as co-
234 10 pilot
The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall 17 years of age
235 10 not be less than :
The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing Annex 12
standards and recommended practices for Personnel
236 10 Licensing is :
For a category I precision approach, the decision height 200 ft
cannot be lower than :
237 10
The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the true air speed at 65%
cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed power.
238 10 box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:
Three aircraft, (1), (2) and (3), arrive successively at ten (1) until the completion of
minute intervals, overhead the scene of a recent aircraft operations.
accident.

-aircraft (1) is unable to establish contact with the Search

and Rescue Centre
-aircraft (2) is able to contact the Search and Rescue Centre
-aircraft (3) is a Search and Rescue helicopter

The command of the situation is the responsibility of;

239 10
At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting make at least one
help. To indicate that he has received these ground signals, complete turn over the
the pilot must : group of people in difficulty.

240 10
The international convention defining rules relative to the Tokyo Convention.
responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of
241 10 passengers, baggage and freight is the :
The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) standards and
establishes; recommended
international practices for
contracting member states.

242 10
 Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is only at transition level.
done:

243 10
The first freedom of the air is: The opportunity to operate
a commercial flight with
passengers on board
between two states.

244 10
An air traffic control unit : may not ask an aircraft to
change its call sign after
accepting the flight plan.

245 10
The second freedom of the air is the : right to operate a
commercial passenger
flight with passengers on
board between two states.

246 10
The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was Montreal
247 10 established by the international convention of :
An aircraft is flying over a mountainous region in which a "Need mechanical
search is being carried out to find the survivors of an aircraft assistance".
accident. The pilot sees a ground signal in the form of an
"X".
This indicates :
248 10
An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives a give way to another
series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies aircraft.
that the aircraft must :
249 10
When mixing or contact does take place between the persons not subjected
passengers subjected to security control and other persons to security control shall be
not subjected to such control after the security screening identified
points at airports serving international civil aviation have
been passed
250 10
The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with : Damage caused by foreign
aircraft to third parties on
251 10 the surface

An AIRAC is : An Acronym for a system

aimed at advance
notification based on
common effective dates, of
circumstances
necessitating significant
changes in operating
procedures.

252 10
The letter "L" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight 5 700 kg for airplanes and
plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an 2 700 kg for helicopters.
253 10 aircraft is less than or equal to:
Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound 10 NM
radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established
254 10 for a distance from the IAF of:
 Given: FL 30 or 1 500 ft AGL.

AGL = above ground level

AMSL = above mean sea level
FL = flight level

within uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR

must provide a 500 ft margin above the following two levels:

255 10
For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the will stop on the parking
estimated time of arrival is the estimated time at which the area.
256 10 aircraft:
Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach 2.5%
procedures published on the IAC charts are based on a
257 10 minimum climb gradient of:

A "precision approach" is a direct instrument approach... using at least one source

of bearing information and
one source of elevation or
distance information.

258 10
While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller is cleared for take-off.
the following light signal : a series of green flashes. This
259 10 signal means that the aircraft :

The "estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is of endurance at cruising
the estimated time : power taking into account
pressure and temperature
on that day.
260 10
If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate write XXXX in box 16 and
airport (box 16) of a flight plan form... indicate in box 18
(additional information)
ALTN/followed by the
name of the
261 10 airport
An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical 1st freedom
landing in a neighboring state. Which freedom of the Air will
262 10 be exercised ?
When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: 030° magnetic in still air
"fly heading 030", the pilot must fly heading: conditions (thereby flying
the magnetic track)
263 10
Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320. A 7620 Mode C
In flight, in case of radio communications failure, you will
squawk code :
264 10
Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Sercice (AFIS) : it can only supply limited
services to the users and
under no circumstances
may it supply ATC
services.
265 10
The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is automatically at the control
done : zone boundary.
266 10
Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft must give way to another
receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft.
aircraft :
267 10
 The pilot in command of an aircraft: 3-4-5

1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received from

ATC.
2 - is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying".
3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons.
4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to
an ATC instruction.
5 - may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory
clearance.

Which of the following combinations contains all of the

correct statements?

268 10
While taxying an aircraft receives the following light signal may continue to taxi to the
from the control tower : series of red flashes. This signal take-off area.
269 10 means that the aircraft :
According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a Instructional flight time as
PPL (A)including a night qualification or CPL(A) and shall studen-pilot-in-command
have completed at least 50 hours : of aeroplanes.

270 10
When independent parallel approaches are being 20 degrees
conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer
course or MLS final approach track,the final vector shall be
such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer
course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater
than :
271 10
Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to the missed approach track
parallel runways provided that : for one approach diverges
by at least 20° (degrees)
from the missed approach
track of the adjacent
approach

272 10
During circling-to-land ( with or without prescribed flight 120 kt
tracks), the maximum allowed airspeed for a Cat B
aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection envelope,
is:
273 10
A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport ceiling greater or equal to
where poor weather conditions are prevailing. The closest DH or MDH, and VH
accessible aerodrome is three flying hours away. (horizontal visibility)
The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield are: greater or equal to VH
required for landing, with
an available instrument
approach procedure to be
envisaged with one engine
out

274 10
A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft 3.0 NM
are etablished inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or
MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when
independent parallel approaches are being conducted :

275 10
A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or 5 minutes
MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a
LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier
aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter
aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction runway for take off,
this minimum is :
276 10
 A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or 760 m
MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a
LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier
aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter
aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite
direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway
separated by :
277 10
A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft 200 m (660 ft)
are etablished inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or
MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when
independent parallel approaches are being conducted :

278 10
In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft medium aircraft behind
and using timed approaches, what minima shall be applied heavy aircraft - 2 minutes
to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft ?
279 10
Special VFR flights may the authorized to operate locally C, D and E airspaces
within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less
than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped
with a functioning radio receiver within class :

280 10
What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria 2 minutes
when a light aircraft is taking off behind a medium aircraft
and both are using the same runway ?
281 10
According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class Two years
282 10 ratings are valid for :
According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi- Of the skill test
engine class ratings will be one year from the date :
283 10
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller 4 KT
possesses wind information in the form of components,
significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and
speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind
component significant change is :

284 10
Repetitive flight plans (RPL's) shall not be used for flights On at least 20 days
operated regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive weeks consecutively
285 10 and :
A radio communications, "Distress" differs from "Urgency" The aeroplane will not be
because in the first case: able to reach a suitable
aerodrome.
286 10
Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is Setting the SSR decoder to
suspected, and where automatic distinct display of SSR mode A code 7000 and
Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the radar thereafter to code 7500
controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by :

287 10
When the Mach number tecnique (MNT) is being applied, 80 NM
and the preceding aircraft shall maintain a mach number
equal to or greater than the following aircraft a RNAV
distance based separation minimum may be used on the
same direction tracks in lieu of 10 minutes longitudinal
separation minimum. The distance is :

288 10
Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using 40 NM
DME for aircraft at the same cruising level and track,
provided that each aircraft utilizes "on Track" DME stations
and separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME
readings, is :
289 10
 Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at 2 minutes
the same cruising level when navigation aids permit
frequent determination of position and speed provided that
the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt
or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be

290 10
According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type A certificate of
rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three airworthiness issued by a
criteria. One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane non-member state.
has :
291 10
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at 3 minutes
the same cruising level when navigation aids permit
frequent determination of position and speed will be
292 10
According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for Microlights having fixed
single pilots aeroplanes not requiring a type rating, including wings and moveable
: aerodynamic control
surfaces acting in all three
dimensions.
293 10
According to JAR-FCL, a professionnal flight crew licence At the diiscretion of the
license issued by a non JAA State may be rendered valid for Authority of the Member
use on aircraft registered in a JAA Member State State concerned for a
period not exceeding the
period validity of basic
licence
294 10
According to JAR-FCL, licence holders do not exercise the Any period
privileges of their licences, related ratings or authorisations
at any time when they are aware of any decrease in their
medical fitness which might render them unable to safely
exercise those privileges. They shall without undue delay
seek the advice of the authority or AME when becoming
aware of hospital or clinic admissions for:

295 10
According to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for 24 months until age of 40,
private pilots will be valid for 12 months thereafter

296 10
According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has 150 hours of flight time
satisfactorily followed an completed an integrated flying plus 10 hours of instrument
training course shall have completed as a pilot of ground time
aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or
accepted by a JAA Member State at least:

297 10
According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for : two years
298 10
An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area continue flight onto
where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of destination, complying with
clouds), when it totally loses radiocommunications. The last received clearances
procedure to be followed is: then with filed flight plan.

299 10
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at 3 minutes
the same cruising level when navigation aids permit
frequent determination of position and speed provided that
the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 Kt
or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be

300 10
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted Airspace D
and all flights are subject to air traffic control service. IFR
flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive
traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights
receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is
classified as :
301 10
 Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to 610 m is established
parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone between extended runway
(NTZ) of at least : centre lines and as is
depicted on the radar
display
302 10
Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is have to be as indicated by
established, the procedures applicable there in : ICAO council
303 10
The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace 8 km visibility when at or
classified as B, is : above 3050 m (10.000 ft)
AMSL and clear of clouds

304 10
A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as 5 km visibility, 1500 m
B has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and horizontal and 300 m
305 10 distance from clouds vertical from clouds
A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as 5km at or above 3050 m
C has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m
distance from clouds horizontal and 300 m
vertical from clouds

306 10
Flight information service provided to flights shall include the C to G (inclusive)
provision of information concerning collision hazards to
aircraft operating in airspace classes:
307 10
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, Airspace E
all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are
separated from each other is classified as
308 10
A strayed aircraft is : only that aircraft which has
deviated significantly its
intended track
309 10
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR Airspace B
flights are subject to Air Trafic Control Service and are
separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic
information as far as is practical, is classified as

310 10
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, Airspace D
all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory
service and all flights receive flight information service if
requested, is classified
311 10
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and Airspace F
receive flight information service if requested, is classified as
312 10
Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention Annex 14
contains international standards and recommended
313 10 practices for air traffic services (ATS)?
What will be your action if you can not comply with a a non-standard holding
standard holding pattern? pattern is permitted.

314 10
Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which 230 kt TAS.
315 10 will be the maximum speed ?
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, Airspace C
all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR
flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR
flights VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive
traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified
as :
316 10
 Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to at least 30° (degrees) from
parallel runways provided that : the missed approach track the missed approach track
for one approach diverges by : of the adjacent approach
317 10
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller 5 KT
possesses wind information in the form of components,
significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and
speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind
component significant change is :

318 10
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the Horizontally moving his
following signals: hands, fingers extended,
palms toward ground
319 10
While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes The appropriate ATC unit
a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be shall be notified of the
taken? action taken as soon as
circumstances permit
320 10
Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a Adjust the heading of
controlled flight deviates from the track? aircraft to regain track as
321 10 soon as practicable

Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC Aircraft "A" regardless of
conditions within a control area. Aircraft "B" with no ATC the direction which "B" is
clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude approaching
and on a converging course. Which has the right of way?

322 10
ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival cumulonimbus
information should include cloud cover, when the clouds
are :

323 10
When independent parallel approaches are being at least 2.0 NM prior to
conducted to parallel runways and vectoring to intercept the intercepting the ILS glide
ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the vector path or specified MLS
shall be such as to enable the aircraft to be established on elevation angle
the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track in level
flight for :
324 10
A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means : Come back and land.

325 10
In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum 1 minute
separation should be applied when a medium aircraft is
taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are using the
same runway ?
326 10
The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace 240 KT IAS
classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft)
327 10 AMSL, is :
The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace 250 KT TAS
classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft)
328 10 AMSL, is :
The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace 250 KT IAS
classified as E, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL,
329 10 is :

The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights 250 KT TAS
inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below 3.050
330 10 m (10.000 ft) AMLS, is :
Upon receipt of the modification and a request by the state Has a maximum mass over
of occurrence for participation, the state of design and the 5 700 kg
state of manufacture shall in the case of an accident or
serious incident inform the state of occurence of the name of
its representative to be present at the investigation when the
aircraft :
331 10
 Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level 2 000 feet above the
to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled highest obstacle within 8
airspace? nautical miles of course

332 10
333 10 A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is : Medium
Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition: GVATAM
an special NOTAM series notifying, by means of a specific
format, an important change for the aircraft operations, due
to a volcano activity, a volcano eruption or a volcanic ash
cloud.
334 10
What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing 10 km
between a 'Heavy' aircraft preceding a 'Light' aircraft
335 10
A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a Reversal track.
designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction
to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the
reciprocal of the designated track is called a :

336 10
337 10 In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to: Aerodrome elevation.
If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a pass the fix at the rate of
descend shall be made so as to : descent of 500 feet/min,
which is obligatory.
338 10
A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach Race track
between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of
the intermediate or final approach track is a:
339 10
Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR When seems possible to
approach continue its descend below the OCA? land

340 10
The protection areas associated with instrument approach 25° or the bank angle
procedures are determined with the assumption that turns giving a 3°/s turn rate,
are performed at a bank angle of: whichever is lower, for
departure, approach or
missed approach
instrument procedures, as
well as circling-to-land
(with or without prescribed
flight tracks).

341 10
If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled The meteorological
aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a clearance for 'visual visibility must not be less
approach' may be given under certain conditions than 8 km
342 10
For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of When the commander in
an airport, separation minima may be reduced: the following aircraft has
the preceding aircraft in
sight and is able to
maintain own separation

343 10
Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible If the commander so
requests

344 10
Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace When QNH is higher than
shall be given as flight level (FL) the standard pressure
345 10 1013 hPa

At what moment during the approach should the reported When passing the
346 10 airfield altimeter setting be set? transition altitude
 At the commencement of final approach, if the controller 8 KT
possesses wind information in the form of components,
significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and
speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind
component significant change is :

347 10
What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft 1000 feet
348 10 flying IFR below flight level 290?
Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention Annex 14
contains minimum specifications for the design of
349 10 aerodromes?
Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention Annex 1
contains minimum specifications for a crew licence to have
350 10 international validity?
An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference As soon as possible
('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or commence emergency
cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS descent in order minimize
shall try to: the difference between
cabin pressure and outside
pressure

351 10
Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO ? ICAO must be informed
about changes in the
national regulations

352 10
What action should be taken if contact is los with the Maintain your circling
aerodrome on the down wind leg ? altitude and turn towards
353 10 the aerodrome
Which of the following is information that is not given in AIP Visibility minima
approach and landing charts

354 10
Change from IFR to VFR will always take place : when the aircraft is leaving
controlled airspace during
355 10 VMC

Who is responsible, under Annex 13 of the Chicago The law enforcement

convention for the initation of an accident investigation? authorities of the state in
which the aircraft is
registered
356 10
The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what The pilot does not have to
does that mean to the pilot? follow up the position of
357 10 the aircraft

Which of the following alternatives describes the complete 3 crossbars, centre line
CAT 1 ('Calvert') type of approach light system? with 3 or 2 lamps per light
358 10 unit
During flight through the transition layer the vertical position flight level during descent
of the aircraft should be expressed as
359 10
In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by flight level on or below the
the aircraft the vertical position of the aircraft shall be transition level
360 10 expressed in:

An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. When the other aircraft has
Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a clearance to reported that it has
descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When descended through FL 130
is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or
below can be expected ?
361 10
The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrumental Amphibious/inactive or
Flight Rating in_____ aeroplanes shall prove, according to simulated inactive.
Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her capability to
pilot such aircraft only by instrumental rules and an engine
_________.
362 10
 If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a Turn 90 degrees towards
circling manoeuvre, what actions should be taken ? the runway and wait for
visual conctact
363 10
When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to 4 NM from the touchdown
the threshold of the runway transmission should not be
interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the
aircraft is within a distance of :
364 10
The system notifying in advance the circumstances IFPS
requiring important changes in the methods of operation,
based on common effective dates, is identified by the
acronym:
365 10
Which of the following is NOT an international distress 121.5 MHz
366 10 frequency ?
The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of 30
any illness which they are suffering which involves
incapacity to undertake those functions to which the licence
relates throughout a period of a certain number of days or
more. The number of days is :

367 10
If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an MAP.
instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make
368 10 an initial climbing turn towards the:
If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew if still not fit to fly when
functions appropriate to that licence due to illness, the his/her current medical
369 10 authority must be informed : certificate expires

(For this question use annex 010-9805A) 4

Using the ground - air visual signal code, the letter similar to
the symbol meanning "REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE"
is :
370 10
If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a until two minutes before
departing aircraft may take off in any direction the arriving aircraft is
estimated to be over the
instrument runway
371 10
(For this question use annex 010-9804A) Proceding in the direction
372 10 The ground - air visual code illustrated means : shown
The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a half NM
distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when as
determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the accuracy
of the radar equipment permits to be continued to a
prescribed point less than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this
case distance and level information shall be given at each

373 10
Clearence to land or any alternative clearence received from 4 NM from touchdown
the non-radar controller should normally be passed to the
aircraft before it reaches a distance of :
374 10
An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to 2 NM from the touchdown
execute a missed approach if no clearance to land has been
received from the non-radar controller by the time the
aircraft reaches a distance of :

375 10
An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to Last 5 NM of the approach
consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not
visible on the radar display for any significant interval during
the :
376 10
What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should ± 10KT
be requested to make when under radar control and
established on intermediate and final approach ?
377 10
 Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned At least 15 minutes before
off, provided that they can be again brought into operation : the expected arrival of an
378 10 aircraft
Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises You are still in radar
you that you are on the airway and to "resume own contact, but must make
navigation". This phrase means that: position reports.
379 10
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed 120 m (384 ft)
approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the
380 10 intermediate phase of this missed approach is :
In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a : maximum bank angle of
25°.

381 10
The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and Security program.
buildings or the parts of them with controlled access is
382 10 called:

Referring to the operational aspects in the unlawful seizure The contracting States will
acts, it can be said: not assist with navigation
aids, air transit services,
etc, to an aircraft affected
by an unlawful seizure act.

383 10
Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by 12 NM
DME-distances from the same DME and it is confirmed that
the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the shortest
difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one
aircraft to climb or descend
384 10
The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the : Geneva convention 1936
385 10
(For this question use annex 010-9806A) operation completed
What is the meanning of the showed symbol in the ground-
air visual signal code for use by rescue units ?
386 10
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed 30 m (98 ft)
approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the
387 10 intermediate phase of this missed approach is :
The temporary, long-term modification ( 3 months or more) AIP Supplements
and the short-term extensive or graphical information are
388 10 published as follows:
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed 90 m (295 ft)
approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the
389 10 final phase of this missed approach is :

Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes Distress 7700. Hijacking
that are to be used in conjunction with Secondary 7600. Communicaton
390 10 Surveillance Radar (SSR)? failure 7500.
Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft ? Right hand turns / 1 minute
391 10 outbound
(For this question use annex 010-9801A) 3
Using the ground - air visual code the letter(s) similar to the
symbol meaning "REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is (are) :
392 10
(For this question use annex 010-9802A) 2
Using the ground - air visual code the symbol meaning "we
393 10 have found all personnel" is :
(For this question use annex 010-9803A) Require assistance
What is the meaning of the showed symbol in the ground air
394 10 visual signal code for use by survivors ?
 During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle 150 m (492 ft)
clearance (MOC) of the initial approach segment primary
395 10 area is equal to :
The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is The longuest aeroplane
based on: maximum width only

396 10
If radio communication is established during an interception Descend for landing
but communications in a common language is not possible,
which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting
aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for
landing ?
397 10
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the Raising arm and hand
following signals: horizontally in front of
body, fingers extended
then clenching fist.
398 10
In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted 60 minutes in excess of the
flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight estimated time off blocks.
399 10 plan submitted when the delay is:

Which is the content of section 2 of Air-Report (AIREP)? Estimated time over FIR
400 10 boundary, endurance.
The position reports shall contain the following elements of Aircraft identification,
information in the order listed: position, time, flight level or
altitude, next position and
time over and ensuing
significant point.

401 10
If radio communication failure is experienced on an IFR Land on the nearest
flight in IMC, generally the pilot shall: suitable aerodrome and
report the termination of
the flight to ATC.

402 10
Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight Y
commences in accordance with VFR and subsequently
403 10 changes to IFR?
A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a 50 minutes prior to leave
404 10 controlled flight at least: the blocks.
Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight I
commences in accordance with IFR and subsequently
405 10 changes to VFR?
A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal Need special precautions
area means: while approaching for
landing.
406 10
407 10 The runway edge lights shall be : red
On aerodromes aircraft taxying on the manoeuvring area of all vehicles moving on the
an aerodrome shall give way to: apron except the "follow
408 10 me" vehicle

A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to The airport is unsafe, do
land means: not land
409 10
Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows: A controlled airspace
extending upwards from
the surface of the earth to
a specified limit.
410 10
Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in The air traffic service
respect to terrain clearance? reporting office when
411 10 accepting the flight plan.
 You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A 1, 2.
descend below the MDA should not be made until :

1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight

2. visual reference has been established and can be
maintained
3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a
landing can be made

The combination regrouping all the correct answers is :

412 10
A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least: 15 miles from the centre of
the aerodrome or
aerodromes concerned in
the direction from which
approaches may be made.

413 10
A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a 200 metres.
height above the ground level or water of not less than:
414 10
The units providing Air Traffic Services are: Area Control Centre -
Approach Control Office
and Aerodrome Control
Tower.

415 10
The Approach Control Service is an air traffic control service An air traffic control service
for IFR flights arriving and
departing.
416 10
Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of: Preventing collisions
between aircraft, between
aircraft and obstacles on
the manoeuvring area and
expediting and maintaining
an orderly flow of air traffic

417 10
When, in air space where VFR are permitted, the pilot in 1 and 4
command of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in
accordance with visual flight rules, until the destination is
reached:
1 He must inform the control unit ("cancel IFR")
2 He must request and obtain clearance.
3 He may request his IFR flight plan to be changed to a VFR
flight plan.
4 The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight plan.
The correct combination of statements is:

418 10
Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of: Providing advisory
419 10 services
Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic Switching on and off three
pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to times the landing lights
indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring
immediate assistance?
420 10
When are ATIS broadcasts updated ? Every 30 minutes if
weather conditions are
below those for VFR ;
otherwise hourly

421 10
 When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the operational air traffic
decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of control centres
422 10 the:
Alert phase is defined as follows: A situation related to an
aircraft and its occupants
are considered to be in a
state of emergency.

423 10
The rule governing flight over water for a single engined limits flight to up to 10
aeroplane engaged in the public transport of passengers: minutes flying time from
424 10 the nearest shore.
The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by CEU is 5 minutes.
(flow control centre):
425 10
"ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC" is that controlled flight to which the Controlled VFR flights and
provision of separation by ATC is applicable, but which, in VFR flights.
relation to a particular controlled flight is not separated
therefore by the appropriate separation minima. Whenever
separation minima is not applied. The following flights are
considered essential traffic one to each other.

426 10
The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed uncertainty phase, urgency
in emergency are: phase, distress phase.
427 10
Above flight level FL 290 the vertical flight separation 3 000 feet.
428 10 between aircraft on the same direction is:
If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established UNABLE TO COMPLY
but communication on a common language is not possible,
which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted
aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the
instructions received ?
429 10
The person who has final authority as to the disposition of The airliner operator
430 10 an aircraft during flight time is:
Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a 1 500 feet or visibility is
VFR flight can not enter or leave a control zone when ceiling less than 5 km
431 10 is less than :
The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC 2000 feet (600 m).
432 10 within a controlled airspace below FL 290 is:
The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC 2000 feet (600 m).
433 10 within a controlled airspace above FL 290 is:
An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL and Clear of clouds and in sight
9 000 feet MSL outside controlled airspace under VFR, must of the surface; 8 km
434 10 remain on principle at least: visibility.
Flying exactly on your current flight plan route, you receive With an intercept of 20° or
and acknowledge the following instruction from the radar more.
controller:
"Turn immediately, continue heading 050° until further
advised".
Time now is 18:36 UTC. At 18:37 UTC you find out that
radio communication cannot be stablished again and you
have to return to your current flight plan route:
435 10
The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "B" above 10 1 mile horizontaly and 1
000 feet MSL are : 000 feet verticaly from
clouds; 5 km visibility
436 10
The minimum sector altitude provides 300 metres obstacle 15 NM (28 km).
clearance within how many miles radius from the navigation
facility upon which the instrument approach procedure is
predicated:
437 10
"Time Approach Procedure" is used as necessary to To pass the specified point
expedite the approach of a number of arriving aircraft. This inbound at the previously
438 10 will be obtained requesting aircraft: notified time.
 During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling the When advised by Tower.
pilot should contact departure control:
439 10
When a runway is 2 000 metres in length, and taxi holding 45 metres.
positions have not been established, aircraft shall not be
held closer to the runway in use more than:
440 10
Flight information service shall be provided to all aircraft Known to the relevant air
which are likely to be affected by the information and which traffic services units.
are:
441 10
Alerting service shall be provided: In so far as practicable to
all aircraft having filed a
flight plan or otherwise
known by the ATS.

442 10
Track separation between aircraft using the same VOR shall At least 15° separated at a
be applied requiring the aircraft to fly: distance of 15 NM or more
443 10 from the facility.
If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command The pilot should propose
of an aircraft: another clearance to the
ATC concerned.
444 10
Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting Executing a climbing turn
aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted of 90 degrees or more
aircraft "YOU MAY PROCEED" ? without crossing the line of
flight of the intercepted
aircraft.
445 10
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz
attempt to establish radio communication with the
intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:
446 10
In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a The delay is more than 60
flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be minutes of the estimated
amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one time of departure.
cancelled, when:
447 10
A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should: Read back those parts
containing level
assignments, vectors or
any part requiring
verification.
448 10
Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC Continue the flight
you have two way communication failure? maintaining VMC and land
as soon as practicable.
449 10
Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land Emergency aircraft
?
450 10
Track separation between aircraft using the same FIX shall At least 45° separated at a
be applied requiring the aircraft to fly: distance of 15 miles or
451 10 more from the FIX.
Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of: Achieving separation
452 10 between IFR flights
The "VMC and own separation" ATC clearance is used for a This procedure is not
controlled flight to cross the level of another controlled flight allowed.
when:
453 10
 Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller the weather permits.
have to be executed as:
454 10
What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied by Vertical, horizontal and
455 10 ATC? composite separation.
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with 7 600
SSR transponder shall, unless otherwise instructed by the
appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following code on
mode "A"
456 10
A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC 5%
unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level
varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan
by plus or minus:
457 10
The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "G" above 10 1 nautical mile horizontally
000 feet MSL are : and 1 000 feet vertically
from clouds; 5 km visibility
458 10
Track separation between aircraft using the same NDB shall At least 45° separated at a
be applied requiring the aircraft to fly: distance of 15 NM or more
459 10 from the facility.
In which section of AIP are contained information elements AGA.
relating to prohibited, restricted and dangerous areas?
460 10
The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground A landing aircraft can be
at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable stopped if overcoming the
461 10 area where: end of runway.
Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which Flight Information Service,
the following services are provided: Alerting Service and
Advisory Service.
462 10
The "Aerodrome Reference Code" is a code composed of 2B.
two elements which are related to the aeroplane
performance characteristics and dimensions. These
elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in
the example under listed:
463 10
You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearence If not airborne until 0920, a
expires at 0920. What does it mean ? new clearence has to be
464 10 issued
According to the "Aerodrome Reference Code", the "Code 36 m up to but not
465 10 Letter E" shall identify an aircraft wing span of: including 52 m.
Which "code letter" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to Code letter "D".
be used by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m?
466 10
"Clearway" is defined rectangular area established to: Permit aircraft to make a
portion of its initial climb to
467 10 a specific height.

"TODA" take-off distance available is: The length of the runway

available plus the length of
clearway available (if
provided).

468 10
"Code letter D" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by 15 m.
aircraft having an outer main gear wheel span of less than 9
469 10 m. The taxiway width shall be:
"Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for Non precision approach
the operation of aircraft using instrument approach runways, precision
procedures. approach runways
category I, II and III.
470 10
 Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Only AIP and NOTAM's.
Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in
which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services
outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation
and origination of:
471 10
"ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is: The length of the take-off
run available plus the
length of stopway and
clearway (if provided) .
472 10
A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air Aeronautical Information
navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters Publication (AIP).
and originated at the AIS of a state is called:
473 10
According with the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the "Code 1 500 m.
number 4" shall identify an aircraft reference field length of:
474 10
In which section of AIP are contained information elements AD.
relating to refuelling facilities and limitations on refuelling
475 10 services?

In which section of AIP are contained information elements RAC.

relating to areas and/or routes for which meteorological
476 10 service is provided?
What will be the transponder mode and code for radio Mode B code 7600.
477 10 communication failure?
The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall Transition altitude.
change the altimeter setting from QNH to standard setting
478 10 1013.25 hPa when passing:
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 1 minute.
479 10 140?
You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The Direct.
published holding procedure is: all turns to the right, 1
minute outbound, inbound MC 052°. You are approaching
the fix on an inbound Magnetic Track 232°. Select the
available entry procedure.
480 10
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 2 minutes
481 10 140?
Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns First right and then to the
after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into left.
482 10 which direction?
The units responsable for promoting efficient organization of Area control centre, flight
search and rescue service are: information centre and
rescue coordination centre.
483 10
Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently on Since no physical injury
the grass, a wheel falls into a hole, which seriously has been noticed and the
damages the aircraft and obliges the crew to delay the flight is over, the actions to
departure. be taken are related only
to insurance, to the repair
man, the operator and the
persons in charge of the
runway and taxiways.

484 10
The Alerting Service is provided by: The ATS unit responsible
for the aircraft at that
moment.

485 10
A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic An ATS NOTAM.
Services and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in
486 10 advance of its effective date is:
487 10 Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be: Flashing yellow.
The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away The stated above is
from the territory of a Contracting State shall terminate from correct.
the moment such person has been definitely admitted in
other Contracting State of destination.

488 10
Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced Fixed lights showing
489 10 threshold shall be: variable white.
Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, Flashing green.
490 10 should be:
The light shown by an "Aerodrome Identification Beacon" at Blue colour identification
a land aerodrome shall be: given by Morse Code.
491 10
In the "VASIS" , how many light units are in each wing bar? 2.
492 10
How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final None.
approach, is following a normal glide path defined by a
493 10 PAPI?

Runway threshold lights shall be: Fixed lights showing green

or white colours.

494 10
In the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2 Only the aircraft wing span.
495 10 shall identify:
In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the 150 m.
single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a
496 10 length of:
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified Control area.
497 10 limit above the earth is:
A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of Control zone.
498 10 the earth to a specified upper limit is:
ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all Class A.
flights are subject to air traffic control service and are
separated from each other is classified as:
499 10
Aerodrome traffic is: All traffic on the
manoeuvring area and
flying in the vicinity of an
aerodrome.
500 10
When desinsecting is required by a Contracting State as a At least 30 minute prior to
public health measure, the desinsecting is made when the land.
aircraft is suitably equipped by means of an automatic
dispersal or vapour while the aircraft is flying, but as far in
advance as possible and:
501 10
Air Traffic Service unit means: Air Traffic Control units,
Flight Information Centers
or Air Services reporting
offices.
502 10
Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be The aerodrome shall be
considered controlled? provided with a Control
503 10 Tower.
504 10 High intensity obstacle lights should be: Flashing white.
Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be: Fixed lights showing
505 10 green.
506 10 Taxiway edge lights shall be: Fixed showing blue.
In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation By a letter - for example 3
number shall be supplemented: parallel runways "L" and
"R" and the central has no
letter.
507 10
 In the "PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will see Only on the approach
the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units slope.
508 10 farthest from the runway as white when:
The "PAPI" shall consist of: Two wing bars of 4 sharp
transition multi-lamp or
paired units equally
spaced.
509 10
The abbreviation PAPI stands for: Precision Approach Path
510 10 Indicator.
In a precision approach category I lighting system, the Fixed lights showing
511 10 centre line and crossbar lights shall be: variable white.
Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be: Fixed red or preferably
512 10 orange.
Runway end lights shall be: Fixed lights showing
variable white.
513 10
EDURES

rispostaB rispostaC rispostaD ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

A single period of three Two consecutive periods each of six A single period of six month in the
month in the case of a month in the case of a flight crew case of a flight crew member of an
flight crew member of an member of an aircraft engaged in aircraft engaged in non-commercial
aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations. operations.
commercial operations.

0 0 0 1
+/- 10 kt. +/- 15 kt. +/- 8 kt.

1 0 0 0
2 NM from the threshold 3 NM from the threshold on final 5 NM from the threshold on final
on final approach. approach. approach. 1 0 0 0
may file a flight plan under Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan Shall nevertheless submit a flight
pilot's discretion. and notify changes made thereto to plan but changes made thereto are
the ATS unit providing that service. not necessary to be notified.
0 0 1 0
Blue for blankets and Black for food and water. Yellow for miscellaneous
protective clothing. equipment.

1 0 0 0
Yellow for blankets and Red for food and water. Blue for medical supplies and first
protective clothing. aid equipment.

0 1 0 0
10 NM. 5 NM. 20 NM when the leading aircraft
maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or
more faster than the succeding
aircraft.
1 0 0 0
Yellow for medical supplies Black for miscellaneous equipment. Blue for blankets and protective
and first aid equipment. clothing.

0 0 1 0
6 NM. 8 NM. 10 NM.

0 0 1 0
Is only considered for PPL. Shall not extend beyond the period of Depends on the regulations of the
validity of the licence. contracting sate which renders valid
the licence. 0 0 1 0
Is calculated by the Will be distributed via NOTAM Is calculated by ATS
commander

0 0 0 1
shall be the lowest shall be the highest available flight for the aerodrome is published in
available flight level above level below the transition altitude that the AGA section of the AIP
the transition altitude that has been established
has been established

0 1 0 0
DME-frequencies Any addition to minima when the Obstacles penetrating the obstacle
aerodrome is used as alternate free area in the final approach
sector 0 0 1 0
In upper wind forecast for When an aircraft on the request by a Before landing and take-off
areas north of lat 60° north meteorological watch office (MWO) or
or 60° south. at specified points transmits a PIREP
0 0 0 1
Continue at an altitude that Fly the emergency triangle Declare an emergency
differs from the
semicircular rule with 1000
feet when above FL 290
and 500 feet when lower
than FL 290

0 1 0 0
Blue for food and water. Yellow for medical supplies and first Black for food and water.
aid equipment.

0 1 0 0
+/- 500 ft. +/- 300 ft. +/- 200 ft.

0 0 1 0
Correct, expect when an Prevent collisions with terrain Do not prevent collisions with
IFR flight is vectored by terrain
radar. 0 1 0 0
50 NM. 20 NM. 80 NM.

0 0 0 1
B. B and C. B, C and D.

0 1 0 0
30° immediately after take- 15° immediately after take-off. 25° immediately after take-off.
off.
1 0 0 0
The preceeding aircraft is The preceeding aircraft is 40 kt or The preceeding aircraft is 30 kt or
10 kt or more faster than more faster than the following aircraft. more faster than the following
the following aircraft. aircraft.
0 0 1 0
30 degrees. 25 degrees. 15 degrees.

0 1 0 0
3 NM from touchdown. 2.5 NM from touchdown. 1 NM from touchdown.

1 0 0 0
5.0 NM between aircraft on 3.0 NM between aircraft on the same 3.0 NM between aircraft on
the same localizer course. localizer course. adjacent localizer course.
0 0 1 0
1 NM. 4 NM. 2 NM.

0 0 0 1
3.0 NM. 10.0 NM. 3.5 NM.

1 0 0 0
+/- 150 ft. +/- 250 ft. +/- 300 ft.

0 0 0 1
+/- 300 ft of the assigned +/- 200 ft of the assigned level. +/- 250 ft of the assigned level.
level.
0 1 0 0
More than 200 ft. More than 300 ft. 300 ft.

0 0 1 0
3.0 NM. 5.0 NM. 2.0 NM.
0 1 0 0
420 metres 1000 metres 1200 metres

1 0 0 0
5 NM. 2.5 NM. 3 NM.

the passenger is to leave
that state within 72
(seventy two) hours from
the time of arrival of that
passenger
0 0 0 1
the passenger is to leave that state the passenger is to leave that state
within two (2) days from the day of his within two (2) weeks from the day of
(her) arrival his (her) arrival

0 0 1 0
250 kt for IFR and VFR UP 250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195 250 kt VFR and IFR, all levels
TO FL 100 0 1 0 0
at least 2 hours in advance at least 4 hours in advance of arrival at least 1 hour in advance of arrival
of arrival

0 1 0 0
For a period to be for a period of 24 hours for a period of 48 hours
established by that State

0 1 0 0
contracting states shall contracting states shall accept an oral contracting states may not accept
accept an oral declaration declaration of baggage only from oral declaration of baggages
of baggage only from crew passengers

in certain cases any other
identity may be required
none of the answers are applicable
1 0 0 0
shall not require him to obtain any
other identity document from their
consultates or operators prior to
initiate the flight

0 0 0 1
shall not impose penalties, shall not impose penalties, fines, shall not impose penalties and fines
fines and taxes but custom customs duties and taxes on the but customs duties and taes on
duties on the operator operator thexes on the operator

0 0 1 0
The air waybill number The air waybill number; the number of The air waybill number and the
packages related to each air waybill nature of the goods
number and the nature of the goods

0 0 1 0
by IATA and accepted by by IATA and accepted by ICAO by the Regional Postal Office
the contracting states
1 0 0 0
AD MAP ENR
0 0 0 1
are accepted at the are accepted in handwritten block has to be typewritten
contracting state discretion lettering in ink

0 0 1 0
and the state of the shall not be preclude from recovering shall not recover from such person
operator are both from such person any transportation any transportation costs arising
responsible for the person costs arising from his (her) from his (her) inadmissibility
inadmissible inadmissibility
0 0 1 0
annex 15 annex 9 annex 8

0 0 1 0
annex 8 annex 15 annex 16

1 0 0 0
4 months following the 6 months following the date on which 3 months following the date on
date on which notification notification is received by the which notification is received by the
is received by the Depositary Governments Depositary Governments
Depositary Governements

0 0 1 0
may not require or may deliver such person to the may request such person to
authorise the assistance of competent authorities disembark
other crew members
0 0 1 0
cargo but clearence accompanied baggage or under cargo and is covered by a traffic
documents provided by another simplified customs procedure document
airlines shall be completed distinct from that normally applicable
by the passenger prior to to other cargo
shipment

AIC procedures and
identified by the acronym
AIC followed by a number
15 minutes at the time the
level is crossed.
approve new internationel
airlines with jet aircraft
binding for the member
states that have not
notified ICAO about a
national difference
operator¹s licence for
international scheduled
aviation
0 0 1 0
AIRAC procedures and identified by NOTAM procedures and identified
the acronym AIRAC by acronym NOTAM followed by a
number
0 0 1 0
10 minutes at the time the level is 5 minutes at the time the level is
crossed. crossed.
0 1 0 0
approve new international airlines develop principles and techniqe for
international aviation
0 0 0 1
advice and guidance for the aviation binding for all member states
legislation within the member states
0 1 0 0
the security system at airports limitation of the operator¹s
responsibility vis-á-vis passenger
and goods transported
0 0 0 1
AIP, including amendment AIP, supplements to AIP; NOTAM and AIP including amendment service;
service; supplements to PIB; AIC and checklist summaries supplements to AIP; NOTAM, AIC;
AIP, NOTAM, AIC and AIRAC
checklist summaries

The letters P (Prohibited),
R (Restricted) and D
(Dangerous) followed by
figures
The nationality letters for location
indicators assigned to the state or
territory, followed the letters P. R and
D and figures
1 0 0 0
The letters P (Prohibited), R
(Restricted) and D (Dangerous) for
the area concerned and figures

0 0 1 0
2 copies of General 2 of each 3 of each
Declaration and of Cargo
Manifest and of a stores
list

0 0 1 0
Six months or longer One year or longer Two months or longer

1 0 0 0
45 metres 35 metres 40 metres

0 1 0 0
Not more than one month Not more than three months Not more than 28 days
0 1 0 0
Not more than 28 days Not more than 10 days Not more than one month
0 0 0 1
GREEN ORANGE RED

0 0 0 1
GEN, AGA, COM, RAC, GEN, ENR, RAC, AD GEN, AGA, COM, ENR, FAL
FAL, SAR, MET, MAP. 1 0 0 0
AGA MET GEN
0 0 0 1
RAC AD GEN

0 0 0 1
At least 3 months after At least 2 months after cancellation of At least one year after cancellation
cancellation of the area to the area to which they refer of the area to which they refer
which they refer 0 0 0 1
ATC requirements. Navigation aids. Airspace restrictions.
1 0 0 0
Service provided : Air Service provided : Traffic Information Service provided : Air Traffic Control
Traffic Control Service; as far as practical; ATC Clearance : Service; ATC Clearance : required ;
ATC Clearance : not not required ;
required
0 0 1 0
8 km visibility, and clear of 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal
clouds ; 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds ; and 1000 ft vertical distance from
clouds ; 0 1 0 0
Descend to the flight level Land at the nearest suitable Land at the nearest suitable
submitted for that portion aerodrome and inform ATC aerodrome maintaining VMC and
of flight ; inform ATC ;
0 0 0 1
15th of October the same 30th of October the same year 30th of April the following year
year

Obstacle in surface.
10 NM provided that the
leading aircraft maintains a
true airspeed of 40 kt or
more faster than the
succeding aircraft.
1 0 0 0
Obstacle identification slope. Obstruction in surface.
1 0 0 0
20 NM provided that the leading 10 NM provided that the leading
aircraft maintains a true airspeed of aircraft maintains a true airspeed of
10 kt or more faster than the 10 kt or more faster than the
succeding aircraft. succeding aircraft.

1 0 0 0
To request clearance from To correct for known wind to remain To request from ATC different
ATC for applying a wind within the protected airspace. heading for wind correction.
correction. 0 0 1 0
ENR AD GEN
0 0 0 1
0.8 % gradient. 0 ft. 3.3 % gradient.

0 0 1 0
30°. 45°. 12.5°.
1 0 0 0
2 minutes. 3 minutes. 1 minute 30 seconds.
0 0 0 1
Up to 4. Up to 5. 3.
0 0 1 0
At the final en-route fix. At the IAF. At the IF.
0 0 1 0
150m (492 ft). 300m (984 ft). At least 150m (492 ft).

1 0 0 0
Distance end of route. Departure end of route. Distance end of runway.
1 0 0 0
Code 7500. Code 7700. Code 7600.

0 1 0 0
Code 7700. Code 7500. Code 7600.
0 1 0 0
To apply a reduced vertical To apply a horizontal separation less To provide instructions in order to
separation of 500 feet than 5 NM. reduce separations minima, if
between IFR flights and accepted by the pilots.
VFR flights.
1 0 0 0
To assist aircraft due to To assist aircraft on the location To assist aircraft where navigation
failure of airborne storms. appears unsatisfactory.
equipment. 1 0 0 0
Inform the aircraft only if Inform the aircraft prior to issue any Inform the aircraft only if
radar identification has instructions or advice based on the communication's load permits it.
been achieved without use of radar.
availability of SSR.
0 0 1 0
To provide instructions to To conduct precision radar approach To apply a horizontal separation
reduce the separation (PAR). less than 5 NM.
minima.
0 0 1 0
2 NM. 4 NM. 5 NM.

50 degrees with the plane
of symmetry of the latter
To instruct the pilot to
execute one or more
changes of 45°.
0 1 0 0
60 degrees with the plane of 80 degrees with the plane of
symmetry of the latter symmetry of the latter
1 0 0 0
To instruct the pilot to execute one or To instruct the pilot to execute one
more changes of 30° or more. or more changes of 20° or more.
0 0 1 0
16 years
You will be given traffic
advisories until advised
that the service has been
terminated or that radar
contact has been lost.
18 years
ATC is receiving your transponder
and will furnish vectors and traffic
advisories until you are advised that
contact has been lost.
21 years 1 0 0 0
Your aircraft has been identified on
the radar display and radar flight
instructions will be provided until
radar identification is terminated.

0 0 0 1
You are still in radar You should maintain that airway by Radar Service is terminated.
contact, but must make use of your navigation equipment.
position reports. 0 0 1 0
the Air Navigation the Assembly the Council
Commission
0 1 0 0
With a CPL With a theorical CPL examination plus With an ATPL
flight instructor rating 0 0 1 0
1 year 6 months 5 years
0 1 0 0
Racetrack pattern. Procedure turn. Shuttle.
0 0 0 1
To request pilot to switch Observation of compliance with an To request pilot to set transponder
from "ON" to "STDBY". instruction to operate transponder on position "ON".
from "ON" to "STBY" and back to
"ON".
0 0 1 0
They operate within They operate a transponder with They operate within non controlled
controlled airspace. Mode C. airspace. 1 0 0 0
1 minute 15 seconds. 1minute 30 seconds. 2 minutes.

1 0 0 0
1000 ft. 3000 ft. 2500 ft.
0 0 1 0
according pilot's choice. as altitude. as height.
0 0 1 0
According to pilot's choice. as flight level. as height.
0 0 1 0
Only when the aircraft is Only when the aircraft is flying within Only when directed by ATC.
flying within airspace controlled airspace.
where SSR is used for ATS
purposes.

1 0 0 0
Shall continuously operate Shall continuously operate this mode Shall continuously operate this
this mode unless only when directed by ATC. mode regardless of ATC
otherwise directed by ATC. instructions.

0 1 0 0
20°. 5°. 10°.

0 0 1 0
7600. 7000. 7500.

0 0 0 1
Heading. Course. Bearing.
0 1 0 0
Read back the mode and Use only the word ROGER. Use only the word WILCO.
code to be set. 0 1 0 0
5 minutes. 15 minutes. 3 minutes.

1 0 0 0
15 minutes. 5 minutes. 3 minutes.

0 0 1 0
6 minutes. 10 minutes. 3 minutes.

0 0 0 1
2 minutes. 5 minutes. 3 minutes.

0 0 1 0
3 minutes. 5 minutes. 10 minutes.

0 1 0 0
7700. 7600. 2000.

0 0 1 0
Arrival, intermediate and Initial and final. Initial, intermediate and final.
final. 0 0 0 1
the Warsaw Convention the Paris Convention the Tokyo Convention

1 0 0 0
Intersect the localizer at Intersect the localizer at 30° and will Intersect the localizer at 45° and will
45° and will not be more not be more 5 NM in length. not be more 5 NM in length.
10 NM in length. 0 1 0 0
300m (984 ft). 450m (1476 ft). 600m (1968 ft).

1 0 0 0
Initial approach segment. Intermediate approach segment. Arrival segment.

1 0 0 0
FAP. FAF. MAP.
0 1 0 0
150m (492 ft) to 300m 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft). 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
(984 ft).
0 0 0 1
3 NM. 5 km. 3 km.
1 0 0 0
3m. 9m. 12m.

1 0 0 0
2 minutes. 1 minute 15 seconds. 1 minute.

0 0 1 0
5%. 2.5%. 0.8%.
0 0 1 0
At the missed approach At the first point where 50m (164 ft) At the point where a new approach,
point. obstacle clearance is obtained and holding or return to en-route flight is
can be maintained. initiated. 1 0 0 0
Visual manoeuvring Visual approach. Contact approach.
(circling).

0 1 0 0
Permits circling only in Recommends not to perform circling Prohibits the circling approach to
VMC. within the total sector in which the the affected runway.
obstacle exists.

1 0 0 0
full scale deflection of the half scale deflection of the localizer full scale deflection of the localizer
localizer indicator and half indicator. indicator.
scale deflection of the
glidepath indicator.

A contact flight
manoeuvre.
One scale deflection.
0 0 1 0
A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the A visual manoeuvre to be
runway in sight. conducted only in IMC.
0 0 1 0
A quarter of scale deflection. One and a half of scale deflection.

1 0 0 0
while taxiing, but not when outside the daylight-period at engine- on the ground when the engines are
it is being towed; start. During the daylight-period this is running
not applicable;
0 0 0 1
The lower limit of a TMA The lower limit of a CTA shall be The upper limit of a CTR shall be
shall be established at a established at a height of at least established at a height of at least
height of at least 700ft 1500ft AGL; 3000ft AMSL;
AGL;
0 1 0 0
Composite separation Combined separation Reduced separation

0 1 0 0
NOTAM, AIP and MAL in NOTAM and AIP, inclusive only in NOTAM
Supplement. 0 0 1 0
mandatory instruction information signs; yellow or black mandatory instruction signs ; red
signs; black background background with black or yellow background with black inscriptions.
with red inscriptions. inscriptions. 0 0 1 0
of an emergency. the estimated time is in error by more it is a deviation from the track.
than 10 minutes.
1 0 0 0
the other Contracting United Nations to all States Members of United
States Nations 1 0 0 0
at least 2000 feet within 8 at least 1000 feet within 5KM of the at least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the
KM of the estimated estimated position estimated position
position
0 1 0 0
8%. 6,5%. 5%.

0 0 1 0
this aerodrome is using taxiing need not be confined to the gliderflying is performed outside the
parallel runways taxiways ; landing area;

0 0 1 0
request ATC for other select code A7500 on your follow the instructions of the
instructions. transponder. intercepting aircraft.

0 0 0 1
A defined are the most critical part of the segment the first part of the segment ;
symmetrically disposed where the minimum altitude should be
about the nominal flight kept very carefully;
track in which full obstacle
clearance is provided.

0 1 0 0
984 ft 1476 ft 492 ft
0 1 0 0
during IFR and VFR flights during IFR flights, if the cloudbase is as in above, but in addition there
in VMC; 1000 ft more than the appropriate DA should be a visibility of 5,5 km or
or MDA for that procedure; more

1 0 0 0
the aircraft gets radar the pilot is following the published all mentioned answers are correct
vectors ; approach procedure

0 0 0 1
you are not allowed to departure to the nearest suitable you must indicate the failure in the
commence the flight airport where repair can be effected is fightplan, after which the ATC will
allowed endeavour to provide for
continuation of the flight;
0 0 1 0
two way a clearance is required. a clearance and two-way
radiocommunication is not radiocommunication is required.
required.
0 1 0 0
150m 300m 600m
1 0 0 0
three or more groundlights a highted obstacle near the runway a CAT II or III holding position.
closely spaced together to and/or taxiway.
appear as a bar of lights.

0 1 0 0
a RVR of 200 meters and a RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of a RVR of 250 meters and a DH of
a DH of not less than 100 not less than 100 ft. not less than 200 ft.
ft. 0 0 1 0
5 Km 15 Km 20 Km 1 0 0 0
450 m from threshold 600 m from threshold 300 m from threshold
0 0 0 1
to the right to the left in a direction depending on the
entry ; 0 1 0 0
ATC permission is required An aircraft entering the traffic circuit The aerodrome control service is a
for entering the apron with without permission of ATC, will be service provided for the purpose of
a vehicule cleared to land if this is desirable ; preventing collisions between
aircraft on the movement area;

0 0 1 0
20 degrees or less 10 degrees or less 30 degrees or less

0 0 0 1
The distress phase is Aircraft in the vicinity of an aircraft Alerting Service and Flight
established when an known or believed to be the subject of Information Service are often
aircraft is known or unlawful interference, shall be provided by the same ATS unit
believed th be the subject informed about this;
of unlawful interference

0 0 0 1
If it is anticipated that an
aircraft has to hold for 30
minutes or more, an
Expected Approach Time
will be transmitted by the
most expeditious means to
the aircraft
5NM
Approach control have to advise the An approach sequence shall be
aircraft operators about substantial established according to the
delays in departure in any event when sequence of initial radio contact
they are expected to exceed 45 between aircraft and approach
minutes ; control ;
0 1 0 0
1NM 2NM

0 0 1 0
always of a straight row of of flashing lights only; of an arbitrary amount of green
lights towards the runway lights;

1 0 0 0
25 NM 10 NM 15 NM

0 1 0 0
10° of the alignment of the 25° of the alignment of the runway 15° of the alignment of the runway
runway centre-line centre-line centre-line
0 0 0 1
1,5 NM 3 NM 5 NM

1 0 0 0
the pilot-in-command ; the "flight-operations" of the company the state
0 0 0 1
LLL DDD PAN

0 0 0 1
17 and 59 years 18 and 60 years 21 and 59 years
0 0 0 1
by states on the basis of by states but not on the basis of by ICAO on the basis of regional air
regional air navigation regional air agreements navigation agreements
agreements 0 1 0 0
F and G only A, B, C, D, E, F and G F only

1 0 0 0
the state of registry and the International Telecommunication the state of registry
accepted by the Union
International
Telecommunication Union

to the International Civil
Aviation Organisation by
the International
Telecommunication Union
1 0 0 0
to the state of registry by the to the State of registry by the
International Civil Aviation International Telecommunication
Organisation Union

0 1 0 0
the state of registry only the International Civil Aviation the Internationnal
Organisation Telecommunication Union
1 0 0 0
A SIGMET information A NOTAM An En-Route Meteo Report

1 0 0 0
TTT FFF RCC

0 1 0 0
15 seconds of UTC at all 10 seconds of UTC at all times 1 minute of UTC at all times
times
1 0 0 0
LLL XXX DDD

0 0 1 0
at least 60 centimetres at least 75 centimetres at least 50 centimetres

at least 40 centimetres
up to 5.700 kg maximum
certificate take-off mass
0 0 0 1
at least 20 centimetres at least between 20 centimetres
and 40 centimetres
1 0 0 0
up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate over 5.700 kg maximum certificate
take-off and landing mass take-off mass

0 0 0 1
the state of manufacture the state of design and the state of the state of registry considers that
informs the state of manufacture inform the state of the damage sustained is of a nature
registry that the damage registry that the aircraft is still such that the aircraft is still
sustained is of a nature airworthy airworthy
such that the aircraft is still
airworthy
0 0 0 1
all limiting mass, mass all limiting mass, centres of gravity all limiting mass, centres of gravity
distributions and centres of position and floor loadings position, mass distributions and
gravity floor loadings 0 0 0 1
three letters combinations letters used for ICAO identification five letter combinations used in the
used in the international documents international code of signals
code of signals
0 0 0 1
15 NM on the route 15 NM on the route between 30° and 22.5 NM on the route between 30°
between 30° and 90° at 90° at and above FL 200 and 90° at and above FL 250
and below FL 190
0 1 0 0
to all international civil air only to all international civil transport only to passengers and aircrew in
transport including aircraft including aircraft engaged solely in international civil transport flights
engaged solely in the the carriage of cargo
carriage of cargo and yet
to domestic flights at the
discretion of each member
state
0 1 0 0
3 NM from touch-down; 4 NM from touch-down; 2 NM from touch-down;

0 0 0 1
ATC will apply separation ATC will apply separation with other the pilot to apply separation with
with other arriving traffic traffic other traffic;
0 0 1 0
domestic air services ; a national air carrier; a flight above territorial waters; 0 1 0 0
urgent messages a position report, including aircraft weather noted ;
identification, height, position and
time ; 0 0 1 0
Notification of the pilot in
command of a decision to
permit a weapon to be
carried on board his
aircraft only
Agreement between the state of Agreement between the state of
embarcation and the state of embarcation and the airport of
destination arrival

1 0 0 0
60 NM or more 75 NM or more 50 NM or more

0 1 0 0
the boarding will be at the the boarding has to be done at the boarding prior to all passengers
pilot in command state discretion
discretion 0 0 0 1
15 minutes or more 10 minutes 20 minutes
1 0 0 0
plus or minus 4 NM on a plus or minus 4 miles on a 90 per cent plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per
98 per cent containment containment basis cent containment basis
basis 0 0 0 1
20 NM on the route 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and 25.0 NM on the route between 30°
between 30° and 90° at above FL200 and 90° at and above FL 250
and above FL200
0 0 1 0
2 minutes 3 minutes 30 seconds
0 0 0 1
at least every half an hour as prescribed by the meteorological as prescribed by the state
independently of any office
significant change 1 0 0 0
the unit as prescribed the the air traffic services the meteorological office serving the
states aerodrome (s)
0 0 1 0
Shall be transmitted on the Shall not be transmitted on the voice Shall only be transmitted on a
voice channel of an ILS, of a VOR discrete VHF frequency
on a discrete VHF
frequency or on the voice
channel of a VOR
1 0 0 0
Deportees, inadmissible Deportees and persons in lawful Deportees and inadmissible
persons and persons in custody only persons only
lawful custody 0 1 0 0
15 hours of instrument 10 hours of instrument instruction 20 hours of instrument instruction
time of which not more time of which not more than 5 hours time of which not more than 5 hours
than 5 hours as pilot in may be instrument ground time may be instrument ground time.
command

0 0 1 0
200 ft 350 ft 400 ft

1 0 0 0
the licence is issued or the licence is delivered to the pilot the medical assessment is issued
renewed 0 0 0 1
the Contracting state shall not extend beyond the period of shall not extend beyond the period
rendering a licence valid validity of the licence other than for of validity of the licence
may extend the date of the use in private flights
validity at its own
discretion
0 0 0 1
12 months to 3 months 24 months to 12 months none of the answers are correct

1 0 0 0
for any type of aircraft only aircraft certificated for operation only for aircraft certificated for
whenever considered with a minimum crew of at least two operation with a minimum crew of at
necessary by the authority pilots least two pilots and each type of
helicopter
0 1 0 0
50% of his flight time in full with his flight time towards the in full with his flight but not more
towards the total time total time required for higher grade of than 300 hours towards the total
required for higher grade pilot licence time required for a higher grade of
of pilot licence pilot licence

0 0 1 0
40 hours and 10 hours 40 hours and 15 hours 50 hours and 15 hours

150 hours of flight time
and 100 hours as pilot in
command
75 hours of which not
more than 20 hours shall
have been acquired in a
flight procedure trainer or
basic instrument flight
trainer
1 0 0 0
200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if 200 hours of flight time and 80
completed during a course of hours as pilot in command
approved training as a pilot of
aeroplanes
0 0 1 0
100 hours, of which not more than 25 100 hours of which not more than
hours shall have been acquired in a 20 hours shall have been acquired
flight procedure trainer or basic in a basic instrument flight trainer
instrument flight trainer

0 0 1 0
ICAO and other Each contracting state ICAO
organisations including the
contracting state
concerned
0 0 1 0
Shall be specified to ICAO, Should be specified to ICAO and to Shall be specified to ICAO
ECAC and to other ECAC
contracting states

0 0 0 1
Correct. The aircraft operator and the pilot in These measures are of the
command are only to be informed discretion of the contracting state.
when any passenger is the subject of
judicial proceedings.

1 0 0 0
the pilot in command. the approach controller. the radar controller.

0 1 0 0
search and rescue air traffic coordination centres. control centres only.
coordination centres.
1 0 0 0
20 knots and not within 4 10 knots and not within 5 NM of 15 knots at any stage
NM of threshold threshold

0 1 0 0
5 hours of night flight time 5 hours of night flight time including 5 5 hours of night flight time including
including 5 take offs and 5 take offs and 5 landings either as pilot 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in
landings as pilot in in command or as co-pilot command
command
0 1 0 0
to act as pilot in command to act as pilot in command in any none of the answers are correct
in any aeroplane engaged aeroplane certificate for single pilot
in commercial air operation other than in commercial air
transportation transportation

1 0 0 0
For all categories of For each category of aircraft, and it Only for categories A and B aircraft.
aircraft, and it is the same may be different for each one of them.
for all of them. 0 0 1 0
the Warsaw Convention the Montreal Convention the Rome Convention

0 0 0 1
the convention of Tokyo the convention of Paris the convention of Rome
0 1 0 0
the convention of Tokyo the convention of Warsaw the convention of Rome
0 1 0 0
the above convention does caused in the territory of a contracting only caused in the territory of a
not deal with this item state or in a ship or aircraft registered contracting state by an aircraft
there in , by an aircraft registered in registered in the territory of another
the territory of another contraction contracting state
state
0 0 1 0
40 % of the co-pilot flight 100 hours of flying time required for a 60 % of the co-pilot flight time
time towards, the total higher grade of a pilot licence towards, the total flight time
flight time required for a required for a higher grade of a pilot
higher grade of a pilot licence
licence
1 0 0 0
Two consecutive periods A single period of six months in the in the case of a private pilot, a
each of three months in case of a flight crew member of an single period of 12 months
the case of a flight crew aircraft engaged in commercial
member of an aircraft operations.
engaged in non
commercial operations

1 0 0 0
a current class II medical a current class III medical assessment a current class medical assessment
assessment as prescribed by the state issuing
the licence 1 0 0 0
± 2.5 NM ± 5 NM ± 10 NM

0 0 1 0
20 hours and 270 km 20 hours and 540 km (300NM) 10 hours and 270 km (150 NM)
(150NM)

25 hours of cross country
flight time as pilot-in-
command including a
cross country flight not
less than 540 km (300NM)
15 hours of cross country flight time
as pilot-in-command including a cross
country flight not less than 540 km
(300NM)
0 0 1 0
20 hours of cross country flight time
as pilot-in-command including a
cross country flight not less than
540 km (300NM)

0 0 0 1
250 hours and 100 hours 200 hours and 75 hours 200 hours and 100 hours

0 1 0 0
150 hours and 75 hours 200 hours and 75 hours 200 hours and 100 hours

0 0 0 1
100 hours of instrument 150 hours of instrument time, of which 75 hours of instrument time, of
time, of which not more not more than 75 hours of instrument which not more than 20 hours of
than 30 hours of ground time. instrument ground time.
instrument ground time
1 0 0 0
100 hours of night flight 75 hours of night flight as pilot in 75 hours of night time only as pilot
only as pilot in command command or as co-pilot in command
1 0 0 0
16 years of age 18 years of age 21 years of age
0 0 1 0
Annex 1 Annex 2 Annex 11

0 1 0 0
250 ft 150 ft 100 ft

1 0 0 0
true air speed (TAS). estimated ground speed (G/S). indicated air speed (IAS).

0 1 0 0
(1), then by mutual (1), then by mutual consent (2) until (1), and then by mutual consent to
consent (2) and then (3). the completion of operations. (3).

0 1 0 0
transmit, by luminous fly over the group of people in switch his landing lights on and off
Morse signal, a series of difficulty as low as possible. twice or, if he is not so equipped, his
the letter "R" using his navigation lights twice.
navigational lights.

0 0 0 1
Hague Convention. Montreal Convention. Warsaw Convention.

0 0 0 1
aeronautical standards proposals for aeronautical regulations standards and recommended
adopted by all states. in the form of 18 annexes. practices applied without exception
by all states, signatory to the
Chicago convention.

1 0 0 0
at transition altitude during at transition level during climb and
climb and transition level
during descent.
The right to board The right to overfly without landing.
passengers from the state
where the aircraft is
registered and to fly to an
other state.
may ask an aircraft to
temporarily change its call
sign for safety reasons
when there is a risk of
confusion between two or
more similar call signs.
right to land for a technical right to overfly without landing
stop
Chicago
"Need medical
assistance".
return to land and that
clearance to land will be
communicated in due
course.
the passengers concerned only the passengers are to be re
and their cabin baggage screened
shall be re screened
before boarding an aircraft
Regulation of
transportation of
dangerous goods
A publication issued by or
with the authority of a state
containing aeronautical
information of a lasting
character essential to air
navigation.
7 000 kg.
5 NM
only at transition altitude.
transition altitude during descent.
0 1 0 0
The right to land for a technical
stop.
0 0 1 0
may require to change the call sign must not ask an aircraft to change
for safety reasons when there is a risk its call sign.
of confusion between two or more
similar call signs providing the aircraft
is on a repetitive flight plan.
0 1 0 0
right to "cabotage" traffic, (trans-
border traffic).
0 1 0 0
The Hague Warsaw
0 1 0 0
"Landing impossible". "All occupants alive".
0 1 0 0
not land for the moment regardless of not land because the airport is not
previous instructions. available for landing.
0 0 0 1
only the passengers cabin baggage
are to be re screened
0 1 0 0
Damage caused by any aircraft to offences and certain other acts
third parties on the surface committed on board aircraft
1 0 0 0
A notice distributed by means of A package which consists of the
telecommunication containing following elements : AIP,
information supplements to the AIP, NOTAM,
concerning the establishment, AIC, checklists and summaries.
condition or change in any
aeronautical
facility service, procedure or
hazard, the timely knowledge of which
is essential to personnel concerned
with flight operations.
1 0 0 0
14 000 kg. 20 000 kg.
0 1 0 0
25 NM 20 NM
0 0 1 0
3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000ft 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 500 ft AGL. FL 30 or 100 ft AGL.
AGL.

0 1 0 0
will leave the initial will arrive overhead the initial will land.
approach fix to start the approach fix.
final approach. 0 0 1 0
2% 5% 3.3%

1 0 0 0
using bearing, elevation carried out by a crew of at least two using bearing, elevation and
and distance information, pilots trained with a specific working distance information.
providing the pilot uses a method.
flight director or an
autopilot certified to a
height below 200 ft.

0 0 0 1
may continue to taxy must stop. must return to its point of departure.
towards the take-off area.
0 1 0 0
required by the aircraft required by the aircraft from the required by the aircraft from brake
from take-off to arrive moment it moves by its own power release at take-off until landing.
overhead the destination until it stops at the end of the flight
airport. (block time).
0 1 0 0
write XXXX in box 16 and write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in
indicate in box 18 box 18 (additional information) box 18 (additional information)
(additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the ALTN/followed by the name of the
DEGT/followed by the airport. airport.
name of the airport
0 0 0 1
3rd freedom 4th freedom 2nd freedom

0 0 0 1
030° true 030° true, in still air conditions 030° magnetic
(thereby flying the true track)

0 0 0 1
A 0020 Mode C A 7600 Mode C A 5300 Mode C

0 0 1 0
its purpose is to supply it has the same privileges and its only purpose is to relay ATC
ATC services but it is not a prerogatives as an ATC organisation information to the aircraft in flight or
state organisation. but its activity is neither continuous on the ground.
nor regular.

1 0 0 0
with the pilot's consent. through a central control unit. by agreement with the receiving
unit.
0 0 0 1
must come back to land is cleared to land. must land immediately and clear the
and the landing clearance landing area.
will be sent in due time.
0 1 0 0
1-4 2-3-5 3-5

0 0 0 1
must vacate the landing must stop. must return to its point of departure.
area in use.
0 1 0 0
Instructional flight time as Cross country flight time as pilot-in- Cross country flight time as pilot of
student-pilot-in-command command in aeroplanes or aeroplanes or helicopters of which
of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours at least 10 hours shall be in
helicopters of which at shall be in aeroplanes. aeroplanes.
least 10 hours shall be in
aeroplanes.
0 0 1 0
15 degrees 30 degrees 25 degrees

the missed approach track
for one approach diverges
by at least 25° (degrees)
from the missed approach
track of the adjacent
approach
the missed approach track for one
approach diverges by at least 45°
(degrees) from the missed approach
track of the adjacent approach
0 0 1 0
the missed approach track for one
approach diverges by at least 30°
(degrees) from the missed
approach track of the adjacent
approach

0 0 0 1
125 kt 150 kt 135 kt

VH (visibility horizontal)
greater or equal to VH
required for landing, and
ceiling greater or equal to
ceiling required for
landing, with an available
instrument approach
procedure
0 0 0 1
ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, VH (visibility horizontal) greater or
and VH (horizontal visibility) greater equal to VH required for landing on
or equal to VH required for landing, the runway to be used
with an available instrument approach
procedure

0 0 1 0
5.0 NM 1.0 NM 2.0 NM

1 0 0 0
3 minutes 1 minute 2 minutes

0 0 0 1
Less than 730 m 730 m Less than 760 m

0 0 0 1
150 m (500 ft) 100 m (330 ft) 300 m (1000 ft)

0 0 0 1
medium aircraft other light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 medium aircraft behind heavy
medium aircraft - 2 minutes aircraft - 3 minutes
minutes
1 0 0 0
E airspace D and E airspaces D airspace

0 1 0 0
3 minutes 1 minute 5 minutes

1 0 0 0
One year Two years up to age 40 years then Five years after licence issuie.
one year thereafter. 1 0 0 0
The application is received Of the last medical certificate Of issue
by the Authority.
0 0 0 1
5 KT 3 KT 2 KT

0 0 0 1
On at least 20 occasions On at least ten occasions or every On at least ten occasions or every
day over a period of at least ten day over a period of at least 20
consecutive days consecutive days 0 0 1 0
The aeroplane or a There is a serious and imminent The aeroplane has suffered
passenger's safety require danger requiring immediate damages which impair its fitness to
the flight immediately assistance. fly.
interrupted.
0 0 1 0
Setting the SSR decoder Setting the SSR decoder to mode A Setting the SSR decoder to mode A
to mode A 7500 then to 7700 then to standby and thereafter code 7500 and thereafter to code
standby and thereafter to to code 7500 7700
code 7700

0 0 0 1
100 NM 70 NM 60 NM

1 0 0 0
20 NM 10 NM 25 NM

0 1 0 0
3 minutes 5 minutes 10 minutes

0 1 0 0
A certificate of Handling characteristics that require Handling characteristics that require
airworthiness issued by additional flying or simulator training the use of more than one crew
the manufacturer. member
0 0 1 0
10 minutes 15 minutes 5 minutes

0 1 0 0
Any other type of All self.-sustaining gliders. All types of single-pilot, single-
aeroplane if considered engine aeroplanes fitted with a
necessary. turbojet engine.

At the discretion of the
Authority of that Member
State concerned for a
period not exceeding one
year
At the discretion of the Authority of
that Member State concerned for a
period not exceeding one year,
provided that the basic licence
remains valid.
0 0 1 0
At the discretion of the Authority of
that Member State concerned for a
period not exceeding one year,
provided that the basic licence
remains valid.

0 0 0 1
More than 12 hours More than 12 days More than one week

24 months until age of 40,
12 months until age of 60
and 6 months thereafter
200 hours of flight time
plus 10 hours of
instrument ground time
0 1 0 0
60 months until age of 30, 24 months 60 months until age of 30, 24
until age of 50, 12 months until age of months until age of 40, 12 months
65 and 6 months thereafter thereafter
0 0 1 0
150 hours of flight time 200 hours of flight time

0 0 1 0
The period of validity of the Indefinitely one year
licence. 0 0 0 1
descend to En-route land on the closest appropriate adopt a VFR flight level and
Minimum Safe Altitude and aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic continue flight onto destination
join closest airfield open to Services of landing
IFR operations

0 0 1 0
10 minutes 2 minutes 5 minutes

0 0 0 1
Airspace B Airspace E Airspace A

1 0 0 0
500 m is established 710 m is established between 600 m is established between
between extended runway extended runway centre lines and as extended runway centre lines and
centre lines and as is is depicted on the radar display as is depicted on the radar display
depicted on the radar
display
1 0 0 0
have to be as agreed at need not to be identical with those has to be the same as the
the regional air navigation applicable in the underlying flight underlying flight information region
meetings information region 0 0 1 0
8 km visibility when at or 5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10.000 5 NM visibility when below 3050 m
above 3050 m (10.000 ft) ft) AMSL, clear of clouds (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal
AMSL, and 1500 m and 300 m vertical from cloud
horizontal and 300 m
vertical from clouds
1 0 0 0
5 km below 3050 m 5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMS 8 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft)
(10.000 ft) AMSL and clear 1.500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical AMSL, 1 500 m horizontal and 300
of clouds from clouds m vertical from clouds 0 1 0 0
5 NM at or above 3050 m 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft)
(10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m AMSL, and clear of clouds AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m
horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
vertical from clouds

0 0 0 1
A to G (inclusive) A to E (inclusive) F and G

1 0 0 0
Airspace B Airspace C Airspace D

0 1 0 0
only that aircraft which an aircraft in a given area but whose An aircraft which has deviated
reports that it is lost identity has not been established significantly from its intended track
or which reports that it is lost
0 0 0 1
Airspace A Airspace E Airspace D

0 0 1 0
Airspace F Airspace G Airspace E

0 1 0 0
Airspace C Airspace E Airspace G

0 0 0 1
Annex 6 Annex 17 Annex 11

0 0 0 1
it is permitted to deviate Follow the radio communication inform the ATC immediately and
from the prescribed failure procedure. request a revised clearance.
holding pattern at pilots
discretion.
0 0 0 1
240 kt IAS. 240 kt TAS. 230 kt IAS.
0 0 0 1
Airspace D Airspace E Airspace B

1 0 0 0
at least 45° (degrees) from at least 25° (degrees) from the at least 15° (degrees) from the
the missed approach track missed approach track of the adjacent missed approach track of the
of the adjacent approach approach adjacent approach
1 0 0 0
3 KT 10 KT 8 KT

1 0 0 0
Raise arm and hand, with Arms down , palms facing inwards, Crossing arms extended above his
fingers extended, moving arms from extended position head
horizontally in front of body inwards.
, then clench fist
0 1 0 0
Request an amended Submit a detailed report to ATC within Squawk 7700
clearance or cancel the 24 hours
IFR flight plan
1 0 0 0
Inform the ATC unit If VMC, maintain this condition, Notify ATC of the new track
immediately waiting for the ATC instructions immediately and comply with
instructions 1 0 0 0
Aircraft "B" regardless of Aircraft "B" if "A" is on its left Aircraft "A" if "B" is on its right
the direction "A" is
approaching

0 0 1 0
below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) or below 900 m (3.000 ft) or below the below 2 000 m (600 ft) or below the
below the highest highest minimum sector altitude, highest minimum sector altitude,
minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater whichever is the greater
whichever is the greater

0 1 0 0
at least 3.0 NM prior to at least 1.5 NM prior to intercepting at least 2.5 NM prior to intercepting
intercepting the ILS glide the ILS glide path or specified MLS the ILS glide path or specified MLS
path or specified MLS elevation angle elevation angle
elevation angle

1 0 0 0
Give way to another Dangerous airfield. Do not land. Not with standing any previous
aircraft and hold the circuit. instructions, do not land for the time
being. 0 0 0 1
2 minutes 3 minutes 4 minutes

0 1 0 0
Not applicable 250 KT IAS 250 KT TAS

0 1 0 0
Not applicable 240 KT IAS 250 KT IAS

0 0 0 1
250 KT TAS Not applicable 260 KT IAS

1 0 0 0
260 KT IAS Not applicable 250 KT IAS

0 0 1 0
Has a maximum mass Has a maximum mass over 100.000 Has a maximum mass over 27.000
over 2 250 kg kg kg

0 0 1 0
1 000 feet above the 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle 1 000 feet above the highest
highest obstacle within 8 within 8 kilometres of course obstacle within 8 nautical miles of
kilometres of the estimated course
position of the aircraft

0 1 0 0
Poor Good Medium/poor 0 1 0 0
NAVTAM VULTAM ASHTAM

0 0 0 1
6 NM 3 NM 2 km

0 1 0 0
Procedure turn. Base turn. Race track.

Mean sea level.
leave the intermediate
approach altitude, step by
step until reaching the
MAPt.
Base turn
0 1 0 0
Aeredrome reference point. Relevant runway threshold. 0 1 0 0
pass the fix not below the specified follow approximately 50 feet above
crossing altitude. the nominal glide path.
0 0 1 0
Procedure turn Reversal procedure

When the aircraft is in
visual contact with the
ground and with the
runway lights in sight
25° or the bank angle
giving a 3°/s turn rate,
whichever is lower, for
departure and approach
instrument procedures, as
well as circle-to-land, and
15° for missed approach
procedures.
When the aircraft has the control
tower in sight
The bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate
for all procedures with airspeed
limitation related to aeroplane
categories.
0 1 0 0
When the aircraft is in contact with
the ground but not with the runway
in sight yet
0 1 0 0
25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s
turn rate, whichever is lower, for
departure and approach instrument
procedures, 25° for circling-to-land
with prescribed flight tracks and 15°
for missed approach procedures.

1 0 0 0
The air traffic controller will Continued approach will be according The approach must be passing the
provide separation to other to VFR FAF
controlled traffic
0 1 0 0
At the discretion of the air If the commander of the involved Only if the air traffic controller has
traffic controller aircraft so requests the involved aircraft in sight

1 0 0 0
If instructed by ATC so If instructed by ATCso long as VMC is Only when leaving controlled
long as VMC is forecasted forecasted during the next 60 minutes airspace
during the next 30 minutes
1 0 0 0
only in airspace class A if the obstacle clearance is more than Above the transition altitude when
2000 feet applicable
0 0 0 1
Within the transition layer When passing 3000 FT AMSL or 1000 When passing the transition level
FT AGL 0 0 0 1
4 KT 10 KT 5 KT

0 0 1 0
500 feet 1500 feet 2000 feet
1 0 0 0
Annex 6 Annex 11 Annex 10

1 0 0 0
Annex 2 Annex 3 Annex 4

1 0 0 0
Continue at an altitude that Fly the emergency triangle Declare an emergency
differs from the
semicircular rule with 1000
feet when above FL 290
and 500 feet when lower
than FL 290

0 1 0 0
ICAO must be informed ICAO must be informed about ICAO shall approve the pricing of
about new flight crew differences from the standards in any tickets on international airline
licenses and any of the Annexes to the convention connections
suspended validity of such
licenses
0 0 1 0
Request an amended Initiate a missed approach Descend to OCL/ACH and in the
clearance hope that the visibility is better at a
lower altitude 0 0 1 0
Obstacles penetrating the OCH or OCA DME-frequencies
obstacle free area in the
final approach sector
1 0 0 0
on the initiative of the at the clearance limit, irrespective of as instructed by an air traffic control
aircraft commander the weather conditions unit
0 1 0 0
The government of the Operators of the same aircraft type The aircraft manufacturer
state in which the accident
took place
0 1 0 0
The aircraft is subject to Position reports may be omitted The radar identity of the aircraft has
positive control been established
0 0 0 1
5 crossbars, centre line 4 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 3 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 or
with 3, 2 and 1 lamp per lamps per light unit 1 lamp per light unit
light unit 0 1 0 0
either altitude above mean altitude above mean sea level during altitude above mean sea level
sea level or flight level descent during climb
during climb 0 0 1 0
flight level on or below the altitude above sea level on or below altitude above sea level on or above
transition altitude the transition altitude the transition altitude
0 0 1 0
When the other aircraft When the other aircraft has reported When the other aircraft has
has reported that it has left that it has reached FL 70 reported that it has left FL 120
FL 140

1 0 0 0
Single-engine/inactive. Multi-engine / inoperative or simulated Land/inactive.
inoperative.

0 0 1 0
If you have other visual Turn towards the inner marker for the Initiate a missed approach
cues, continue with ground runway in use, maintaining circling
contact alitude
0 0 0 1
2 NM from the touchdown 3 NM from the touchdown 1.5 NM from the touchdown

1 0 0 0
NOTAM EATCHIP AIRAC

0 0 0 1
243.0 MHz 2.182 KHz 2430 KHz
0 0 0 1
60 90 21

0 0 0 1
FAF. Final missed approach track. Landing runway.

0 0 0 1
After 21 days of as soon as possible if the illness is after one calendar month of
consecutive "illness" expected to last more than 21days consecutive illness
0 1 0 0
1 2 3

0 1 0 0
until ten minutes before until five minutes before the arriving until three minutes before the
the arriving aircraft is aircraft is estimated to be over the arriving aircraft is estimated to be
estimated to be over the instrument runway over the instrument runway
instrument runway
0 0 1 0
Require medical Require assistance Please indicate direction
assistance 0 0 1 0
1 NM 1.5 NM half mile

1 0 0 0
5 NM from touchdown 2 NM from touchdown 3 NM from touchdown

0 0 1 0
4 NM from the touchdown 5 NM from the touchdown 1.5 NM from the touchdown

1 0 0 0
Last 2 NM of the approach Last 4 NM of the approach Last 3 NM of the approach

0 1 0 0
± 25 KT ± 20KT ± 15 KT

0 0 1 0
At least 5 minutes before At least one hour before the expected At least 30 minutes before the
the expected arrival of an arrival of an aircraft expected arrival of an aircraft
aircraft 0 0 1 0
Radar services are You are to contact the centre at the You are to assume responsability
terminated and you will be next reporting point. for your own navigation.
responsable for position
reports.
0 0 0 1
30 m (98 ft) 50 m (164 ft) 90 m (295 ft)

0 1 0 0
rate of 3°per second or at rate of 3°per second or at a bank rate of 3°per second.
a bank angle of 20°, which angle of 25°, which ever requires the
ever requires the lesser lesser bank.
bank.
0 0 1 0
Manoeuvring area. Terminal. Aeronautical part

The Annex 17 does not
recognise the importance
of consusltations between
the State where an aircraft
affected by an unlawful
interference act has
landed and the aircraft
operator's State.
The contracting States will make
provisions to ensure that an aircraft
affected by an unlawful seizure act,
which has landed in their territory,
world be retained, unless its
departure is justified to protect lives.
0 0 0 1
The contracting States will make
provisions to ensure that an aircraft
affected by an unlawful seizure act,
which has landed in their territory,
would be detained in all cases.

0 0 1 0
15 NM 20 NM 10 NM

0 0 0 1
Chicago convention 1944 Warzaw convention 1929 Geneva convention 1948
0 1 0 0
we have found all we have found only some personnel we are returning to base
personnel

1 0 0 0
50 m (164 ft) 90 m (295 ft) 120 m (384 ft)

1 0 0 0
AIP Amendments NOTAM Trigger NOTAM

1 0 0 0
120 m (384 ft) 50 m (164 ft) 30 m (98 ft)

0 0 1 0
Distress 7500. Hijacking Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500.
7700. Communication Communication failure 7700. Communication failure 7600.
failure 7600. 0 0 0 1
Right hand turns / 1.5 Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes
minutes outbound outbound 1 0 0 0
4 1 2

0 0 1 0
3 4 1

0 0 0 1
Landing here impossible Drop emergency supplies at this point Require medical assistance

0 0 0 1
300 m (984 ft) 210 m (690 ft) 120 m (394 ft)

1 0 0 0
The over-all length of the The over-all length of the longest The over-all length of the longest
longest aeroplane aeroplane normally using the aeroplane.
normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage
aerodrome and its weight.
maximum fuselage width.

0 1 0 0
Descend Let down You land

0 1 0 0
Arms down, palms facing Crossing arms extended above his Horizontally moving hands, fingers
inwards, moving arms from head. extended, palms toward ground.
extended position inwards.
1 0 0 0
60 minutes in excess of 30 minutes in excess of the estimated 30 minutes in excess of the
the estimated time of time off blocks. estimated time of departure.
departure. 0 0 1 0
Estimated time of arrival Estimated elapse time (EET), Present position, estimated time of
(ETA), endurance. endurance. arrival (ETA). 0 1 0 0
Aircraft identification, Aircraft identification, position, time, Aircraft identification, position, time,
position, flight level or true air speed, flight level or altitude, flight level or altitude, next position
altitude,time, next position next position and time over. and time over.
and time over and ensuing
significant point.

1 0 0 0
Try to get contact on other Transmit blind indicating details Try to get contact on other
frequencies either ground required at least 2 times. frequencies either ground or aircraft
or aircraft stations. stations - Transmit being indicating
important details required 2 times.

0 0 0 1
Z I V

0 1 0 0
60 minutes prior to 10 minutes prior to departure. 30 minutes prior to leave the blocks.
departure. 0 1 0 0
V Z Y

0 0 0 1
The aerodrome is being An area unit for the movement of Special precautions must be
used by gliders and that aircraft. observed due to bad state of the
glider flights are being taxiways.
performed.
0 1 0 0
white blue green 0 1 0 0
aircraft taking off or about other vehicles and pedestrians other converging aircraft
to take off
0 1 0 0
The airport is temporarily Give way to other aircraft in Continue circling and wait for further
closed, continue circling emergency instructions
1 0 0 0
A controlled airspace A controlled airspace extending A controlled airspace extending
extending upwards from a upwards from a specified limit above upwards from a height of 900 feet
height of 1000 feet above the earth. above the earth.
the earth.
0 0 1 0
The pilot in command. The aircraft operator. The ATC.

0 1 0 0
2, 3. 1, 3. 1, 2, 3.

20 miles from the centre of
the aerodrome or
aerodromes concerned in
the direction from which
approaches may be made.
5 nautical miles from the centre of the
aerodrome or aerodromes concerned
in the direction from which
approaches may be made.
0 0 0 1
10 miles from the centre of the
aerodrome or aerodromes
concerned in the direction from
which approaches may be made.

0 0 1 0
300 metres. 150 metres. 500 metres.

Area Control Centre -
Advisory Centre - Flight
Information Centre -
Approach Control Office
and Tower.
An air traffic control
service provided for IFR
and VFR flights within a
Control Zone.
Applying separation
between aircraft and
expediting and maintaining
an orderly flow of air traffic
Area Control Centre - Flight
Information Region - Approach
Control Office and Tower.
An air traffic control service provided
for IFR traffic within a Control Zone.
Preventing collisions between
controlled air traffic and expediting
and maintaining an orderly flow of air
traffic
1 0 0 0
Area Control Centre - Flight
Information Centre - Approach
Control Office - Aerodrome Control
Tower and Air Traffic Services
reporting office.
0 0 0 1
An air traffic control service
provided for the arriving and
departing controlled flights.
0 0 0 1
Avoiding colisions between all
aircraft and maintaining an orderly
flow of air traffic

1 0 0 0
2 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 3

1 0 0 0
Providing alerting services Achieving separation between Providing flight Information Service
controlled flights 0 0 1 0
Switching on and off four Switching on and off four times the The repeated switching on and off
times the landing lights navigation lights of the landing lights

0 0 0 1
Only when weather Only when the ceiling and/or visibility Upon receipt of any official weather,
conditions change enough changes by a reportable value regardless of content change or
to require a change in the reported values
active runway or
instrument approach in
use
0 0 0 1
flight information or control air traffic co-ordination services search and rescue co-ordination
organisations centres
1 0 0 0
A situation related to an A situation where an apprehension An emergency event in which an
aircraft which reports that exists as to the safety of an aircraft aircraft and its occupants are
the fuel on board is and its occupants. considered to be threatened by a
exhausted. danger.

limits flight to up to 8 NM
from the nearest shore.
is 15 minutes.
All IFR flights.
0 0 1 0
limits such flight to a height sufficient does not permit such flight in any
to land safely if the engine fails. circumstances.
0 0 1 0
depends on the type of flight (10 is 10 minutes.
minutes for international flights, 5
minutes for domestic flights). 0 1 0 0
Only controlled IFR flights. All IFR flight in controlled airspaces
and controlled VFR.

0 0 0 1
uncertainty phase, distress uncertainty phase, alert phase, uncertainty phase, alert phase,
phase, urgency phase. distress phase and urgency phase. distress phase.
0 0 0 1
1 500 feet. 4 000 feet. 2 000 feet.
0 0 1 0
NOT POSSIBLE CAN NOT CAN NOT COMPLY

The commander
1 000 feet or visibility is
less than 5 km
500 feet (150 m).
1000 feet (300 m).
2 000 feet horizontally,
1000 feet vertically from
clouds; 5 km visibility.
With an intercept of at
least 45°.
0 0 1 0
The ATC controller if the aircraft is The aircraft owner
flying in a controlled airspace 0 1 0 0
2 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 1 000 feet or visibility is less than 8
km km
1 0 0 0
2500 feet (750 m). 1000 feet (300 m).
0 0 0 1
500 feet (150 m). 4000 feet (1200 m).
1 0 0 0
1 500 m horizontally, 1000 feet 1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet
vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility. vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility.
0 0 1 0
With an intercept of at least 30°. On the nearest way.

0 0 0 1
2 000 metres horizontaly, 1 1 nautical mile horizontaly and 1 000 clear of clouds; 8 km visibility
000 feet verticaly from feet verticaly from clouds; 8 km
clouds; 8 km visibility visibility
0 0 0 1
20 NM (37 km). 30 NM (55 km). 25 NM (46 km).

0 0 0 1
To pass a specified point. To apply a step down descent To maintain a specified speed
between aircraft in the approach during the approach procedure.
sequence. 1 0 0 0
Before penetrating the When clear of the airport and After take-off.
clouds. established on the first heading given
in the clearance. 1 0 0 0
60 metres. 50 metres. 30 metres.

Known to the relevant air
traffic services units by a
filed flight plan.
For all controlled flight, to
any aircraft known or
believed to be subject of
unlawful interference, and
in so far as practicable to
all aircraft having filed a
flight plan or otherwise
known to the ATS.
0 0 1 0
Provided with the air traffic control Provided with air traffic control
services and otherwise known to the services, only.
relevant air traffic service units.
0 0 1 0
For all aircraft provided with air traffic To any aircraft known or believed to
control services, only. be subject of unlawful interference,
only.

0 1 0 0
At least 30° separated at a At least 45° separated at a distance of At least 15° separated at a distance
distance of 15 NM or more 15 NM or more from the facility. of 15 miles or more from the facility.
from the facility. 1 0 0 0
He may request and, if He may request another clearance The pilot has to accept the ATC
practicable, obtain an and the ATC concerned has to accept clearance because it has been
amended clearance. the pilot request. based on the flight plan filed with
ATC.
0 1 0 0
Rocking wings twice and Circling the intercepted aircraft in a Rocking the wings and flashing the
crossing in front of the clock-wise pattern. navigational lights.
aircraft.

1 0 0 0
121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz

1 0 0 0
The delay is more than 30 The delay is more than 60 minutes of The delay is more than 30 minutes
minutes of the estimated the estimated time off-blocks. of the estimated time off-blocks.
time off departure.
0 0 1 0
Read back the initial route Read back should be unsolicited. Read back the entire clearance as
clearance, level required by regulation.
assignments and
transponder codes.

0 0 0 1
Continue the flight at the Maintain your assigned level and Return to the aerodrome of
assigned level and route; route and land at the nearest departure.
start approach at your aerodrome that has VMC conditions.
ETA.
1 0 0 0
Military aircraft VIP (Head of state) aircraft Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick
person needing immediate medical
attention 1 0 0 0
At least 30° separated at a At least 30° separated at a distance of At least 45° separated at a distance
distance of 15 NM or more 15 miles or more from the FIX. of 15 NM or more from the fix.
from the FIX. 0 0 0 1
Providing flight Information Providing advisory service Achieving separation between
Service controlled flights 0 0 0 1
Requested by the pilot, Requested by the pilot and during the Requested by the pilot and
during the day light and day light. authorized by the state overflown.
authorized by the state
overflown.
0 1 0 0
Standard rate turns if not Decided on pilot's discretion. Prescribed by the aircraft
otherwise instructed by operations.
ATC. 0 1 0 0
Vertical, horizontal and Time separation and track separation. Composite separation.
longitudinal separation. 1 0 0 0
7 000 7 700 7 500

0 0 1 0
3% 2% 10 %

1 0 0 0
1 nautical mile horizontally 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet
and 1000 feet vertically vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility. verticaly from clouds; 5 km visibility
from clouds; 8 km visibility
0 0 1 0
At least 30° separated at a At least 30° separated at a distance of At least 15° separated at a distance
distance of 15 miles or 15 NM or more from the facility. of 15 NM or more from the facility.
more from the facility. 0 0 1 0
ENR. MAP. GEN.

A landing aircraft can be
stopped only in
emergency.
Flight Information Service
only.
0 1 0 0
An aircraft taking-off or landing can be An aircraft can be stopped in the
stopped. case of an abandoned take-off.
0 0 0 1
Flight Information Service and Flight Information Service and
Advisory Service. Alerting Service.

0 0 0 1
6D. 5E. 4F.

1 0 0 0
Do not take off before The take off clearence is expected at After 0920 return to the ramp and
0920 0920 file a new flight plan
1 0 0 0
24 m up to but not 15 m up to but not including 24 m. 52 m up to but not including 65 m.
including 36 m. 0 0 0 1
Code letter "E". Code letter "C". Code letter "B".

0 0 1 0
Reduce the risk of damage Protect aircraft during take-off or Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails
to aircraft running off a landing operations. the take-off.
runway. 1 0 0 0
The length of the take-off The length of the take-off run The length of the take-off run
run available plus the available plus the length of the available plus the length of
length of the stopway and stopway. clearway available (if provided).
clearway (if provided).

0 0 0 1
23 m. 25 m. 18 m.

0 0 0 1
Precision approach Instrument approach runways, Precision approach runways in
runways category I, II and precision approach runways category general.
III. I, II and III.
1 0 0 0
AIP, NOTAM's, Circular Only NOTAM's and Circulars. Integrated Aeronautical Information
and AIRAC. Package.

0 0 0 1
The length of the take-off The length of the take-off run The length of the runway plus the
run available plus the available plus the length of stopway (if length of stopway available (if
length of the clearway. stopway provided) . stopway provided).
0 0 1 0
NOTAM. AIRAC. Aeronautical Information Circular
(AIC).

0 0 0 1
1 200 m. 1 800 m and over. 1 600 m.

0 0 1 0
FAL. GEN. SAR.

1 0 0 0
COM. MET. GEN.

0 0 0 1
Mode A code 7700. Mode A code 7600. Mode A code 7500.
0 0 1 0
Transition layer. Transition level. The level specified by ATC.

1 0 0 0
2 minutes. 2 minutes 30 seconds. 1 minute 30 seconds.
0 0 0 1
Either "off set" or "parallel". Off set. Parallel.

0 1 0 0
1,5 minutes 30 secondes 1 minute
0 0 0 1
Teardrop to the left and To the right. To the left.
then to the right.
0 0 1 0
Rescue coordination Alerting centre and rescue Flight information centre and rescue
centre and rescue sub- coordination centre. coordination centre.
centres.
0 1 0 0
This is an irregularity in the This is an incident and the pilot-in- This is an accident and the crew
operation, the crew must command must report it to the airport must follow the procedure relevant
inform the operator of the authority within the next 48 hours. to this case.
delay caused by
necessary repair.

0 0 0 1
The ATC unit responsible Only by ATC units. The Area Control Centres.
for the aircraft at that
moment, when it is
provided with 121.5 MHz.

1 0 0 0
An Advisory NOTAM. An AIRAC. A NOTAM RAC.

0 0 1 0
Fixed orange. Fixed red. Flashing red. 0 0 1 0
The operator has no The obligation is for the Contracting The obligation of the operator
obligation. State of the operator. terminates as soon as the person
leaves the aeroplane.

1 0 0 0
Fixed lights, white or Fixed lights showing variable white or Flashing white.
yellow colour. yellow. 1 0 0 0
Fixed white. Flashing white. Fixed green.
0 0 1 0
White and green colour White colour identification given by Green colour identification given by
identification given by Morse Code. Morse Code.
Morse Code. 0 0 0 1
4. 5. 3.
0 0 0 1
1. 2. 3.

Fixed unidirectional lights
showing green in the
direction of approach to
the runway.
0 0 1 0
Fixed unidirectional lights showing Fixed lights green colours.
white in the direction of approach to
the runway.

0 1 0 0
The width of the aircraft The lenght of the aircraft fuselage. The aircraft wing span and the outer
wing. main gear wheel span. 0 0 0 1
200 m. 250 m. 300 m.

0 0 0 1
Control zone. Advisory airspace. Flight Information Region.
1 0 0 0
Control area. Air traffic zone. Advisory airspace.
1 0 0 0
Class D. Class E. Class B.

0 0 0 1
All traffic on the All traffic on the movement area and All traffic in the aerodrome circuit.
manoeuvring area. flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.

1 0 0 0
At least one hour prior to At least when the aircraft enter that At least immediately before landing.
land. state airspace.

1 0 0 0
Air Traffic Control units Air Traffic Control units and Air Flight Information Centers and Air
and Flight Information Services reporting offices. Services reporting offices.
Centers.
1 0 0 0
The aerodrome shall be The aerodrome shall be located within The aerodrome shall be located
located within a Control a controlled airspace. within a Control Zone (CTR) and
Zone. provided with a Control Tower. 1 0 0 0
Flashing red. Fixed red. Fixed orange. 1 0 0 0
Fixed lights showing blue. Fixed lights showing yellow. Fixed lights showing white.
1 0 0 0
Fixed showing green. Fixed showing yellow. Flashing showing blue. 1 0 0 0
By a letter - for example 2 By a number like "0" and "01" for 2 By a letter for 2 parallel runways.
parallel runways "L" and parallel runways.
"R" - for 3 "L", "C" and
"R".
0 1 0 0
On or close to the Above the approach slope. Below the approach slope.
approach slope.
0 1 0 0
Two wing bars of 6 sharp A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi- A wing bar of 4 sharp transition
transition multi-lamp or lamp equally spaced. multi-lamp or paired units equally
paired units equally spaced.
spaced.
0 0 0 1
Precision Approach Path Precision Approach Power Indicator. Precision Approach Power Index.
Index. 1 0 0 0
Flashing lights showing Fixed lights showing variable green. Flashing lights showing variable
variable white. green. 1 0 0 0
Fixed red or preferably Flashing blue. Flashing red or preferably yellow.
blue. 0 0 0 1
Fixed unidirectional lights Fixed unidirectional lights showing Fixed lights showing variable red.
showing red in the white in the direction of the runway.
direction of the runway. 0 1 0 0
 AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS, ELECTRICS, POWERPLA

The number of manual fire-extinguishers, on board the passenger cabin 1 3 0

of an airplane, whose maximum approved configuration for passenger
514 21 seats is 31, is:
The emergency lighting system must be able to function and supply a 5 minutes 30 minutes 10 minutes
certain level of lighting after the main electric power system has been
515 21 cut off for at least:
The operations of an airline plan the operation of a pressurized aircraft 3,4 2,3 1,2,3,4
at a 240 flight level on its whole route with 150 passengers on board.
As concerns the regulatory requirements about oxygen:

1. each crew member will have available a quick fitting inhaler device.
2. the aircraft will be equipped with a warning system indicating that the
cabin altitude is higher than 3 000 m.
3 . the quantity of oxygen on board will be sufficient for the supply of
100 % of the occupants during the whole flight time above the flight
level 150 after an eventual depressurization.
4. the first aid quantity of oxygen will be sufficient for the supply of two
passengers during the whole flight time when the cabin altitude is
greater than 8 000 feet.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

516 21
The function of a constant speed drive (CSD) in an AC generating vary the drive the vary
system is to : engine rpm generator at generator
(within a constant rpm in order
limits) to speed. to
compensate compensate
for various for various
AC loads. AC loads.

517 21
An aircraft whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats one fire- three fire- two fire-
is 10 seats must be equipped with: extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher
in the s in the s in the
cockpit and passenger cockpit and
two fire- cabin only. two fire-
extinguisher extinguisher
s in the s in the
passenger passenger
cabin. cabin.

518 21
The number of crash axes on board an airplane, whose maximum 4 2 1
519 21 approved configuration of passenger seats is 201, is :
 In accordance with the JAR-OPS and with the exception of amphibians 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 2 3, 4
and hydroplanes, the carriage of a life jacket per person on board is
compulsory when the airplane is :

1. cruising at such a distance from the shore that it would not be able to
return in the case of an engine failure.
2. is flying over a water surface at more than 50 NM off shore.
3. is using departure and arrival paths above the water and when a
ditching probability exists in the case of a problem.
4. is flying over a stretch of water at more than 100 NM off shore.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

520 21
In a ditching situation, the passenger life jackets will be inflated : once the when immediately
passengers leaving the on the
are in the airplane. opening of
water. the exits.
521 21
In accordance with the JAR-OPS, an airplane constituted of only one no 1 2
passenger deck, equipped with 61 seats and effectively carrying megaphone. megaphone. megaphone
passengers, must be equipped with : s.

522 21
The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to: provide provide the supply all
some cabin the
passengers attendants passengers
with with in case of
additional respiratory depressuriza
respiratory protection. tion.
assistance
after an
emergency
descent
following a
depressuriza
tion.

523 21
The survival oxygen is: the oxygen the oxygen a
supplied to a used for therapeutical
passenger protection oxygen
who needs against specifically
oxygen for smoke and carried for
pathological carbon certain
reasons. dioxide. passengers.

524 21
The purpose of the proximity of the emergency evacuation path marking replace the replace the mark only
system is to : overhead overhead the exits at
emergency emergency the floor
lighting lighting in level.
during an case of
emergency failure.
evacuation
with a thick
smoke.

525 21
 In a gas turbine engine, the maximum gas temperature is attained: within the across the in the
combustion turbine. cooling
chamber. airflow
around the
flame tube.
526 21
(For this question use annex 021-9377A) the the the
When fire is detected on engine n°2, the fire shutoff handle n°2 is pulled discharge of discharge of discharge of
and the extinguishing agent n°1 is discharged. This results in : fire fire fire
extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher
bottle n°2 bottle n°1 bottle n°1
and and and
illumination illumination illumination
of the of the of the
DISCH DISCH DISCH
indicator (discharge) indicator
lamp of indicator lamp of
agent n°1 on lamp agent n°1 on
engine n°1 both engines
and agent
n°2 on
engine n°2

527 21
Generally, when the fire handle of the fire-extinguishing system on an 1,2,5,6 2,3,4,5 1,3,4
aircraft is pulled, the effects are :

1. closing of the LP valve of the fuel system

2. opening of the air bleed valves and HP valves on the engine
concerned
3. setting of extinguishing systems
4. closing of the isolation and de-icing valves
5. isolation of the associated electric current generators
6. immediate discharge of extinguishing agent

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

528 21
A passenger emergency mask is a : mask with continuous mask with
flow on flow mask flow on
request and and can be request and
cannot be used if there can be used
used if there is smoke in if there is
is smoke in the cabin. smoke.
the cabin.

529 21
In the cockpit of a transport airplane, at least one manual fire- special halon. powder.
530 21 extinguisher must be conveniently located containing : fluids.
An aircraft whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats 7 manual- 4 manual 3 manual
is 200 seats must be equipped with: fire fire- fire-
extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher
s in the s in the s in the
passenger passenger passenger
cabin. cabin. cabin.
531 21
 The equipment of an oxygen supply installation must be kept absolutely the oxygen these these
free of oil or grease traces as: system substances substances
would be mixed with could plug
contaminate oxygen the oxygen
d. could catch masks
fire in the filters.
presence of
a spark.

532 21
An exit is considered to be out of service when the following elements 1, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 1, 2, 5, 6
are inoperative the: 6

1. external door opening mechanism

2. internal door opening mechanism
3. door opening aid device
4. open door locking system
5. auxiliary means of evacuation
6. emergency lighting

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

533 21
The opening of the doors giving access to the oxygen masks for the 1, 3 2, 3 2, 4
passengers is :

1. pneumatic for the gaseous oxygen system,

2. electrical for the chemical oxygen system,
3. pneumatic for the chemical oxygen system,
4. electrical for the gaseous oxygen system.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

534 21
In order to enable a fire to be controlled as quickly as possible, the fire 1,2,3,4,5 1,4,5 2,3
detectors are located in the highest risk compartments. Theses
compartments are :

1. the main landing gear wheel wells

2. the fuel tanks
3. the oil tanks
4. the auxiliary power unit
5. around the engines

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

535 21
Smoke detectors fitted on transport aircraft are of the following type : optical or chemical electrical
536 21 ionization
On an aircraft provided with resistance and capacitance variation type only at an only in a on at least
fire detection loops, a fire alarm is initiated by a temperature increase isolated uniform way one loop
detected: point of the along the
loops loops

537 21
Continuous loop fire detector systems operate on the principle that an a decrease a decrease a decrease
increase in temperature produces : in the in pressure in resistance
reference
current
538 21
 (For this question use annex 021-6736A) a condition since the jack will
The schematic diagram annexed illustates a jack and selector valve in a of hydraulic pressures move to the
typical hydraulic system. Assuming hydraulic pressure throughout : lock exists are equal, left due to
and no the jack is pressure
movement free to move acting on
of the jack in response differential
will take to external areas.
place. forces.

539 21
In hydraulic system, a shuttle valve : regulates allows two is a self-
pump possible lapping non-
delivery sources of return valve.
pressure. pressure to
operate one
unit.
540 21
To allow for failure of the normal method of system pressure limiting auxiliary a high a stand-by
control, a hydraulic system often incorporates hydraulic pressure hydraulic
541 21 motors. relief valve. pump.
The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides emergency hydraulic power for : undercarriag flap flight
e selection extension controls in
and only. the event of
automatic loss of
brake engine
system. driven
hydraulic
power.
542 21
In a compensated capacitance type quantity indicating system, the increase by remain the increase by
contents gauge of a half-full fuel tank indicates a fuel mass of 8000 lb. If 10 %. same. 5 %.
a temperature rise increased the volume of fuel by 5 %, the indicated
fuel weight would :
543 21
Tyre "creep" may be described as the : circumferenti the increase the
al movement in inflation decrease in
of the tyre in pressure inflation
relation to due to pressure
the wheel drease in due to
flange. ambient increase in
temperature. ambient
temperature.

544 21
The function of a NOT logic gate within a circuit is to : ensure the invert the ensure the
output signal input signal input signal
is of the such that the is AC only.
same state output is
as the input always of
signal. the opposite
state.

545 21
In addition to fire detention/protection, most auxiliary power units high TGT high turbine high TGT
(APUs) have automatic controls for stating, stopping and maintaining only. gas and loss of
operation within safe limits. These controls provide correct sequencing temperature oil pressure
of the starting cycle as well as protection against : (TGT), only.
overspeed,
loss of oil
pressure
and high oil
temperature.

546 21
 Discounting the possibility of leak, the level in a hydraulic reservoir will : increase as fluctuate always
ambient with jack remain the
temperature displacemen same.
decreases. t and
accumulator
pressure.
547 21
The part of a piston engine that transforms reciprocating movement into reduction crankshaft piston
548 21 rotary motion is termed the : gear
Which of the following factors would be likely to increase the possibility slightly using too the use of a
of detonation occurring within a piston engine ? retarding the lean a fuel with a
ignition fuel/air high octane
timing mixture ratio rating as
compared to
the use of
one with a
low octane
rating

549 21
In a piston engine if the ratio of air to fuel, by weight, is approximately rich weak too weak to
9:1, the mixture is said to be : support
550 21 combustion
To ensure that the fuel flow is kept directly proportional to the volume of a diffuser a power jet an
air flowing through the choke, thus preventing the main jet supplying accelerator
excessive fuel as engine speed is increased, a carburettor is fitted with : pump
551 21
The oil system for a piston engine incorporates an oil cooler that is fitted between the after the after the oil
: oil tank and pressure has passed
the pressure pump but through the
pump before the engine and
oil passes before it
through the enters the
engine sump

552 21
When leaning the mixture for the most economic cruise fuel flow, low cylinder high high cylinder
excessive leaning will cause : head and manifold head and
exhaust gas pressure exhaust gas
temperature temperature

553 21
On a multi-engined aircraft a fire detection system includes : a single both a a warning
warning light warning light light for each
and a single and an engine and
alarm bell alarm bell a single
unique to alarm bell
each engine common to
all engines

554 21
 With respect to a piston engined aircraft, ice in the carburettor : will only will only will only
form at form at form at
OAT's below outside air OAT's below
+10°C. temperature the freezing
s (OAT's) point of fuel.
below the
freezing
point of
water.

555 21
A modern Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) is designed to provide power for air air either air
ground starting of an engine. It also supplies both in the air (subject to conditioning conditioning conditioning
certification limitations) and on the ground : and and thrust in or electrical
electrical the event of services, but
services. engine never both
failure. at the same
time.

556 21
557 21 The moving part in an AC generator is usually referred to as the : stator. oscillator. slip ring.
A cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by mass air position of position of
regulating the : flow into the the inward the duct
cabin. relief valve. relief
valve(s).
558 21
In a manually operated system, the cabin altitude rate of change is the the duct a rate of
normally controlled by : difference relief valve change
between the when selector.
barometric operating at
pressure the
selected on maximum
the cabin cabin
pressure differential
controller pressure.
and ambient
barometric
pressure.

559 21
(For this question use annex 021-6716A) 100 N. 1000 N. 20 N.
In the hydraulic press schematically shown, what balancing Force would
be acting on the right hand side ? (The diagram is not to scale)
560 21
Assuming an accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi and the 1000 psi. 500 psi. 1500 psi.
hydraulic system is pressurised to 1500 psi, the accumulator gauge will
561 21 read :
Internal leakage in a hydraulic system will cause : an increased fluid loss. a decreased
fluid fluid
temperature. temperature.

562 21
On large aeroplanes equipped with power brakes, the main source of the the master pressure to
power is derived from : aeroplane's cylinders. the rudder
hydraulic pedals.
system.
563 21
 Assuming a hydraulic accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi. If 1000 psi. 4000 psi. 3000 psi.
the hydraulic system is then pressurised to its operating pressure of
3000 psi, the indicated pressure on the air side of the accumulator
should be :
564 21
"Nose wheel shimmy" may be described as : aircraft a possibly the
vibration damaging oscillatory
caused by vibration of movement
the nose the nose of the nose
wheel upon wheel when wheel when
extension of moving on extended
the gear. the ground. prior to
landing.

565 21
An accumulator in a hydraulic system will : reduce fluid reduce fluid store fluid
temperature temperature under
and only. pressure.
pressure.

566 21
The term "Bootstrap", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and charge air cold air unit source of
pressurisation system, refers to the : across the (air cycle the charge
inter-cooler machine) air.
heat arrangement
exchanger. .
567 21
In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first : used to compressed, passed
increase the passed across an
cabin air through a expansion
supply secondary turbine, then
pressure heat compressed
when the exchanger, and passed
charge and then through a
pressure is across an secondary
too low. expansion heat
turbine. exchanger.

568 21
The term "pressure cabin" applies when an aeroplane : has the has the is only
ability to means to pressurised
maintain a maintain in the area
constant cabin of the
cabin pressure control
altitude at all higher than cabin.
flight ambient
altitudes. pressure.

569 21
Under normal flight conditions, cabin pressure is controlled by : engine rpm. inward relief regulating
valve(s). the
discharge of
air through
the outflow
valve(s).

570 21
 Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in the the outflow the
normal flight conditions, if flight altitude is maintained : pressurisatio valves will pressurisatio
n system move to the n system
ceases to fully open must be
function until position. controlled
leakage manually.
reduces the
pressure.

571 21
Assuming cabin pressure decreases, the cabin rate of climb indicator a rate of a rate of zero.
should indicate : climb. descent of
approximatel
y 300 feet
per minutes.

572 21
Spark timing is related to engine speed in the way that the: faster the slower the faster the
engine engine engine
functions, functions, functions,
the more the the more the the further
spark is spark is past TDC
advanced advanced the spark
occurs
573 21
Fire precautions to be observed before refuelling are : All bonding Ground Passengers
and earthing Power Units may be
connections (GPU) are boarded
between not to be (traversing
ground operated. the refuelling
equipment zone)
and the providing
aircraft suitable fire
should be extinguisher
made before s are readily
filler caps available.
are
removed.

574 21
There are 60 passengers and crew members on board a turbo-prop 60 life 60 life One 30-seat
aircraft. Its speed is 240 kt. At a point along the course steered, above jackets and jackets life boat and
the sea, the aircraft is at 1h45 min from an airdrome suitable for three 30- two 20-seat
emergency landing. The minimum equipment complying with seat life life boats
regulations is : boats

575 21
An impulse coupling does not function at such speeds above those centrifugal engine oil a coil spring
encountered in starting. Its engaging pawls are prevented from force pressure
operating at higher speeds by

576 21
 The reason for the trim switch on a control column to consist of two To be able To reduce To prevent
separate switches is to use two the that both
different trim probability of pilots
speeds, a trim- perform
slow trim runaway opposite trim
rate at high inputs.
speed and
high trim
rate at low
speed

577 21
Assume that during cruise flight with airconditioning packs ON, the the air the skin of the
outflow valve(s) would close. The result would be that: supply the cabin pressure
would would be differential
automaticall overstressed would go to
y be stopped the
maximum
value

578 21
The function of an air cycle machine is to : cool the decrease remove the
bleed air. the pressure water from
of the bleed the bleed air.
air.

579 21
The hydraulic oil, entering the hydraulic pump, is slightly pressurised to : ensure prevent prevent
sufficient overheating vapour
pump output of the pump. locking.
580 21
A manual inflation handle: serves to serves to operates a
actuate inflate a life hand pump
inflation of a jacket when for manual
slide when the normal inflation of a
automatic inflation slide
inflation fails function fails

581 21
The advantages of thermal anti-icing are : 1,2 3,4 1,3
1. Simple and reliable system
2. Profiles maintained
3. Greater efficiency than that of an electrical resistor
4. Direct use of the hot air from the jet engine without substantial
reduction in engine thrust
The combination of correct statements is:
582 21
The crash/fire axe is part of the safety equipment fitted to passenger activate a settle an obtain
aircraft. Its function is to : radio escalating forced
survival conflict with access to a
beacon by unreasonabl fire behind a
cutting off e panel and a
the red passengers, general
coloured top who purpose tool
threaten during
flight safety. evacuation.

583 21
 The difference between (1) a fuse and (2) a circuit breaker is: (1)not (1)not (1) suitable
resettable, resettable, for high
(2) not (2)resettable currents, (2)
resettable. . not suitable
for high
currents.fus
e circuit
breaker

584 21
The part of the flight that will cause the highest loads on the torsion link Braking with Taxiing with Touch down
in a bogie gear is an a small with
inoperative turning crosswind
anti skid radius.
system.
585 21
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum requirement for the the entire the entire 10 minutes
survival oxygen needed to supply 100 % of the passengers during and flight time flight time or the entire
following an emergency descend is: where the where the flight time
cabin cabin where the
pressure pressure cabin
altitude is altitude is pressure
above above altitude is
13000 ft. 10000 ft above
minus 30 15000 ft,
minutes. whichever is
the greater.

586 21
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1 and if necessary, the number of liferafts plus 30 %. in the case in the case
to be found on board an aircraft must allow the transportation of the of a loss of of a loss of
entire aircraft occupants: two rafts. one raft of
the largest
rated
capacity.
587 21
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, each occupant of the cockpit seats on 12500 ft. 13000 ft. 14000 ft.
duty in a non-pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve
for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes greater than:
588 21
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, 100 % of the passengers in a non- 13000 ft. 10000 ft. 14000 ft.
pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire
589 21 flight time at pressure altitudes greater than:
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, 10 % of the passengers in a non- 10000 ft but 13000 ft. 10000 ft.
pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire not
flight time when the cabin altitude pressure is greater than: exceeding
13000 ft
minus 30
minutes.
590 21
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, when an airplane flies at over 25000 ft, seats by 30 passengers seats by 10
the total number of oxygen dispensing units and supply terminals must %. by 30%. %.
591 21 be at least greater than the number of:
The type of a aircraft oxygen system intended for use by passengers, is a pressure portable an air
mostly : demand equipment recycle
system only system
592 21
 On-board electrical systems are protected against faults of the following 1,2,4,6 1,3,5,6 2,3,4,5,6
type:
1. AC generator over-voltage
2. AC generator under-voltage
3. over-current
4. over-speed
5. under-frequency
6. undue vibration of AC generators
The combination of correct statements is :

593 21
An engine pressure ratio (EPR) gauge reading normally shows the ratio compressor jet pipe jet pipe
of: outlet pressure to pressure to
pressure to compressor combustion
compressor inlet chamber
inlet pressure. pressure.
pressure.
594 21
Because of the input/output relationship of an AND gate, it is often "all or "any or all" "state
referred to as the : nothing" gate. indicator"
gate. gate.
595 21
A condenser in parallel with breaker points will permit assist in assist in
arcing negative collapse of
across feedback to secondary
points secondary winding.
coil
596 21
An impulse magneto coupling advances gives an gives a
ignition automatic retarded
timing and spark spark at
gives a increase starting
hotter spark during high
at starting speed
operation.
597 21
If an engine fails to stop with the magneto switch in OFF position, the defective fouled spark excessive
cause may be : condenser plugs carbon
formation in
cylinder
head.
598 21
If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch cannot be cannot be will not
becomes disconnected, the most noticeable result will be that the started with shut down operate at
engine the switch in by turning the left
the ON the switch to magneto
position the OFF
position.
599 21
An impulse coupling used on a magneto for a piston engine is for advancing quick absorbing
ignition removal and starting
timing installation loads

600 21
Low oil pressure is sometimes the result of a worn oil too large oil restricted oil
pump pump passage
601 21
 Generally speaking when the oxygen flows to the masks in the pushing the firmly activating
passenger cabin, the system is activated by mask pulling the the relevant
against the mask switch in the
face and towards the cockpit.
breath face, after
normally. the cover
has opened.

602 21
A Constant Speed Drive aims at ensuring that the that the that the CSD
electric starter-motor remains at a
generator maintains a constant
produces a constant RPM not
constant RPM not withstanding
frequency. withstanding the
the generator
acceleration RPM
of the
engine.

603 21
An aircraft magneto is switched off by grounding grounding opening the
the the primary primary
secondary circuit circuit
circuit.
604 21
The reason for the fact that an aeroplane designed for long distances the lifetime the these
cannot simply be used for short haul flights at higher frequencies is that of the procedures aeroplanes
fatigue and often
sensitive checklists consume too
parts has for this kind much fuel on
been based of short haul
on a aeroplanes flights.
determined will take too
load much time
spectrum

605 21
The ABS (Auto Brake System) is being diconnected after landing .. by pilot at a certain
action automaticall low speed
606 21 y
The purposes of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic strut are : the oil the oil the oil
supplies the supplies the supplies the
spring sealing and damping
function and lubrication and
the nitrogen function, the lubrication
supplies the nitrogen function, the
damping supplies the nitrogen
function. damping supplies the
function. heat-
dissipation
function.

607 21
 A pressurized aeroplane is operated at FL 300. It undergoes a rapid the oxygen if the manual
decompression so that the pressure in the cabin goes quickly down to masks are automatic override of
the outside pressure value. What happens concerning the oxygen automaticall mask the
system ? y presented presentation automatic
to flight crew has been presentation
members activated, of
the oxygen passenger
will flow oxygen
within the masks is,
first 3 generally
minutes speaking,
not possible

608 21
Load shedding means .. To leave Reduction of A procedure
behind extra airloads on used in
cargo if the the flaps by control
centre of means of systems to
gravity the flap load reduce the
moves relief value stick forces
outside
limits

609 21
A substance which may never be used in the vicinity or on parts of an Grease Water Halon
610 21 oxygen installation is :
The function of a feed box in the fuel tank is to increase the trap fuel distribute the
fuel level at sediments or fuel to the
the boost sludge in the various
pump lower part of tanks during
location the tank refuelling

611 21
A unit that converts electrical DC into AC is : an AC a a thermistor.
generator. transformer
rectifier unit.
612 21
Turbine blade stages may be classed as either "impulse" or "reaction". the pressure the pressure the pressure
In an impulse blade section : rises across remains remains
the nozzle constant constant
guide vanes across the across the
and remains nozzle guide nozzle guide
constant vanes and vanes and
across the drops across rises
rotor the rotor constant
blades . blades . across the
rotor
blades .

613 21
A turbocharger consists of a : compressor compressor turbine
and turbine driving a driving a
on individual turbine via a compressor
shafts. reduction via a
gear. reduction
gear.
614 21
 In a single spool gas turbine engine, the compressor rpm is : the same as independent greater than
turbine rpm. of turbine turbine rpm.
615 21 rpm.
When the combustion gases pass through a turbine the : pressure pressure velocity
drops. rises. decreases.
616 21
For a turbine engine, the term self-sustaining speed relates to the will run is designed operates
speed at which the engine : without any to idle after most
external starting. efficiently in
assistance. the cruise..

617 21
The primary reason for a limitation being imposed on the temperature of prevent prevent ensure that
gas flow is to : damage to overheating the
the jet pipe and maximum
from subsequent acceptable
overheating. creep of the temperature
nozzle guide within the
vanes. combustion
chamber is
not
exceeded.

618 21
In a gas turbine engine, compressor blades, which are not rigidly fixed oil pressure. thermal blade creep.
in position when the engine is stationary, take up a rigid position when expansion.
the engine is running due to :

619 21
"Conditioned" air is air that has : had the had the been
oxygen oxygen controlled in
content content respect of
increased. reduced. temperature
and
pressure.

620 21
The primary purpose of the bleed valves fitted to axial flow compressors control the spill enable an
is to : acceleration compressor external air
time of the air should supply to
engine. the engine spin up the
overspeed compressor
thus for engine
controlling starting.
the speed.
621 21
The very rapid magnetic field changes (flux) around the primary coil in a contact rotor turning contact
magneto are accomplished by the: breaker past the breaker
points position of points
closing. maximum opening.
flux in the
armature.
622 21
An aircraft electrical circuit which uses the aircraft structure as a return complete double pole semi-
path to earth, may be defined as a negative circuit. negative
623 21 system. system.
The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of : ampere- volts. watts.
624 21 hours.
 A test to assess the state of charge of a lead-acid battery would checking the checking the comparing
involve : discharge battery the "on-load"
current of voltage "off- and "off-
the battery load". load" battery
"on-load". voltages.

625 21
When an "open circuit" occurs in an electrical supply system, the : load as loss of fuse or CB
indicated by continuity should
the ammeter will prevent isolate the
will increase. its working circuit due to
components excess
from current
functioning. drawn.
626 21
When two DC generators are operating in parallel, control of load an an carrying out
sharing is achieved by : equalising equalising systematic
circuit which, circuit which, load-
in in turn, shedding
conjunction controls the procedures.
with the speed of the
voltage generators.
regulators,
varies the
field
excitation
current of
the
generators.

627 21
The services connected to a supply bus-bar are normally in: series, so parallel, so series, so
that isolation that isolating that isolating
of loads individual one load
increases loads increases
the bus-bar decreases the bus-bar
voltage. the bus-bar current
current consumption
consumption .
.

628 21
In a two generator system, a differential relay will ensure that : generator only one generator
voltages are generator voltages are
almost equal can supply not equal,
before the the bus-bar dependent
generators at a time. on load.
are
paralleled.

629 21
If air is tapped from a gas turbine HP compressor, the effect on the EPR both EPR EPR
engine pressure ratio (EPR) and the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) is decreases and EGT decreases
that : and EGT decrease. and EGT
increases. remains
constant.
630 21
A reverse thrust door warning light on the flight deck instrument panel the reverser reverse has the reverser
illuminates when: doors are been doors have
locked. selected but moved to
the doors the reverse
have thrust
remained position.
locked.
631 21
 The demand valve of a diluter-demand type oxygen regulator in normal pressure in user diluter
mode, operates when the : the oxygen breathes in control is in
reservoir is normal
more than position
500 psi
632 21
Concerning the centrifugal compressor, the compressor diffuser is a velocity rises pressure pressure
device in which the: and rises and rises at a
pressure velocity falls. constant
falls. velocity.

633 21
A "fan" stage of a ducted-fan turbine engine is driven by: the high the high airflow
pressure pressure drawn
compressor turbine. across it by
through the high
reduction pressure
gearing. compressor.

634 21
In a gas turbine engine, the power changes are normally made by air entering fuel air entering
controlling the amount of: the supplied. the
compressor compressor.
and fuel
entering the
combustion
chambers.

635 21
In a free turbine engine: the there is no its shaft may
compressor mechanical be
and power connection connected to
output shaft between the either a
are compressor compressor
mechanicall and the or another
y connected. power turbine.
output shaft.

636 21
The fan in a high by-pass ratio turbo-jet engine produces: none of the the greater half the
thrust. part of the thrust.
637 21 thrust.
At constant fuel flow, if engine compressor air is bled off for engine anti- may rise or will fall. will rise.
icing or a similar system, the turbine temperature: fall
depending
on which
stage of the
compressor
is used for
the bleed
and the rpm
of the
engine at
the moment
of selection.

638 21
 A turbocharger system is normally driven by: an the exhaust an electric
electrically system. motor.
activated
hydraulically
powered
clutch.
639 21
A "hung start" is the failure of an engine to accelerate to its normal idle an attempt compressor the starter
speed. It may be caused by: to ignite the surging. cutting out
fuel before early in the
the engine starting
has been sequence
accelerated before the
sufficiently engine has
by the accelerated
starter. to the
required rpm
for ignition.

640 21
The reading on the oil pressure gauge is the: pressure in pressure of pressure of
the oil tank the oil on the the oil on the
reservoir. inlet side of outlet side of
the pressure the pressure
pump. pump.

641 21
A Continuous-Loop-Detector-System is a: Fire Smoke Carbon
detection detection dioxide
system system warning
system
642 21
The compression ratio of a piston engine is the ratio of the: area of the weight of the volume of
piston to the air induced the cylinder
cylinder to its weight with the
volume. after piston at
compression bottom dead
. centre to
that with the
piston at top
dead centre.

643 21
Prolonged running at low rpm may have an adverse effect on the oil pump. fuel filter. sparking
644 21 efficiency of the: plugs.
The purpose of the venturi in a carburettor is to: ensure create a rise create the
complete in pressure depression
atomisation at the throat necessary to
of the fuel before the cause fuel to
before mixture flow through
entering the enters the the
induction induction carburettor
system. system. jets.

645 21
 The mixture control for a carburettor achieves its control by: moving the altering the varying the
butterfly depression air supply to
valve on the main the main
through a discharge discharge
separate tube. tube.
linkage to
the main
throttle
control.

646 21
The purpose of a distributor in an ignition system is to distribute: primary secondary primary
current to current to current to
the sparking the sparking the
plugs. plugs. condenser.

647 21
The frequency of an AC generator is dependent upon the : number of number of number of
individual pairs of individual
poles only. poles and poles and
the speed of the field
the rotor. strength.
648 21
The reason for having a low pressure fuel-cooled oil cooler in a heat the fuel cool the oil cool the oil
recirculatory type oil system is to: only. and heat the only.
649 21 fuel.
The true statement among the following in relation to the application of current in a Current in a The current
Ohm's law is : circuit is circuit is in a circuit is
inversely directly directly
proportional proportional proportional
to the to the to the
electromotiv applied resistance of
e force. electromotiv the circuit.
e force.
650 21
In an aircraft equipped with a DC main power system, AC for instrument a TRU. an inverter. a rectifier.
651 21 operation may be obtained from :
When operating two AC generators unparalleled, the phase relationship must be 90° is must be
of each generator: out of unimportant. synchronous
synchronisat .
ion.
652 21
When AC generators are operated in paralllel, they must be of the voltage and amperage voltage and
same: frequency. and kVAR. amperage.
653 21
The measured output power components of a constant frequency AC amperes kVA and volts and
system are : and kVAR. amperes.
654 21 kilowatts.
"Frequency wild" in relation to a AC generation system means the voltage output output
generator : regulator is frequency is frequency
out of too low. varies with
adjustment. engine
speed.
655 21
If the frequency of the supply in a series capacitive circuit is increased, decrease. remain the increase.
656 21 the current flowing in the circuit will : same.
 Real load sharing in a parallel AC system is achieved by : automatic controlling carefully
adjustment the selecting the
of the torque generator number of
on each field current. loads on the
generator bus-bars at
rotor via the any one
CSD unit. time.

657 21
An AC generator driven by a CSD unit : does not requires a requires a
need a voltage voltage
voltage controller to controller to
controller maintain maintain
since an AC constant constant
generator frequency. voltage
voltage under load.
cannot alter
under load.

658 21
On an aeroplane utilising AC as primary power supplies, the batteries a a static a DC
are charged in flight from : Transformer inverter. transformer
Rectifier and rectifier.
Unit.
659 21
On the flight deck, an oil operated CSD unit is normally provided with oil over- oil output
means of monitoring the: temperature temperature speed and
and low oil and oil pressure.
pressure. synchronous
speed.
660 21
When a battery is almost fully discharged there is a tendency for the : voltage to voltage to current
decrease increase due produced to
under load. to the increase due
current to the
available. reduced
voltage.
661 21
Immediately after starting engine(s) with no other electrical services indicates a would be indicates a
switched on, an ammeter showing a high charge rate to the battery : faulty normal and battery
reverse is only failure since
current cause for there should
relay. concern if be no
the high immediate
charge rate charge.
persists.

662 21
Circuit breakers protecting circuits may be : used only in used only in reset at any
AC circuits. DC circuits. time.
663 21
A "trip-free" type circuit breaker is a circuit protection device which : can be reset will allow the will not allow
at any time. contacts to the contacts
be held to be held
closed in closed while
order to a current
clear a fault fault exists
in the circuit. in the circuit.

664 21
 The function of a CSD in an AC generating system is to: vary directly drive the
generator maintain a generator at
rpm in order constant a constant
to proportion speed.
compensate between the
for various rpm of
AC loads. engine and
generator.
665 21
The frequency of an AC generator is dependent on the : field strength number of number of
and the individual pairs of
speed of the poles only. poles and
moving part. the speed of
the moving
part.

666 21
Real load sharing in a parallel AC system is achieved by : monitoring adjusting the carefully
the kVAR of torque on secting the
each each number of
generator/alt generator loads on the
ernator. rotor via the bus-bars at
CSD unit. any one
time.
667 21
In an aeroplane utilising a constant frequency AC power supply, DC 3 phase rotary Transformer
power is obtained from a : current converter. Rectifier
transformer Unit.
unit.
668 21
Connecting two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour capacity batteries in series will 24 volts, 80 12 volts, 80 24 volts, 40
result in a total voltage and capacity respectively of : ampere- ampere- ampere-
669 21 hours. hours. hours.
The purpose of the "Pressure Relief Valve" in a high pressure oxygen act as a maximize relieve
system is to : manual the charging overpressur
shut-off pressure of e if the
valve the system pressure
reducing
valve
malfunctions

670 21
If two constant frequency AC generators are operating independently, must be is must be
then the phase relationship of each generator: 240° out of unimportant. synchronise
671 21 phase. d.

To ensure correct load sharing between AC generators operating in only reactive only real both real an
parallel : loads need loads need reactive
to be to be loads must
matched. matched. be matched.

672 21
A bus-bar is : the stator of a device a distribution
a moving which may point for
coil only be used electrical
instrument. in DC power.
circuits.

673 21
 A CSD of an AC generator may be disconnected in flight. The primary slight low oil excessive
reason(s) for disconnection are : variation pressure variation of
about the and/or high voltage and
normal oil kVAR.
operating temperature
frequency. of the
generator
drive.
674 21
A CSD unit which has been disconnected in flight : automaticall automaticall may be
y resets in y resets at reset on the
flight engine shut- ground only,
providing down. after engine
engine rpm shut-down.
is below a
given value.

675 21
(For this question use annex 021- 6660A) a NAND a NOR gate. an
The logic symbol shown represents (assuming positive logic) : gate. EXCLUSIVE
676 21 gate.
Assuming a CSD fault is indicated, the CSD should be disconnected : during at flight idle in
engine engine rpm. accordance
operation with the
only. regulated
voltage level
of the AC
generator.

677 21
When carrying out battery condition check using the aircraft's voltmeter : a load no load the battery
should be should be should be
applied to applied to isolated.
the battery the battery
in order to because it
give a better would
indication of depress the
condition. voltage.

678 21
If a current is passed through a conductor which is positioned in a there will be the intensity a force will
magnetic field : no effect of the be exerted
unless the magnetic on the
conductor is field will conductor.
moved. decrease.

679 21
When a conductor cuts the flux of a magnetic field : there will be the field will current will
no effect on collapse. flow in
the accordance
conductor. with
Flemings left
hand rule.

680 21
 In order that DC generators will achieve equal load sharing when their the equal loads
operating in parallel, it is necessary to ensure that : voltages are synchronisin are
almost g bus-bar is connected to
equal. disconnecte each
d from the generator
busbar busbar
system. before
paralleling.
681 21
The purpose of a voltage regulator is to control the output voltage of the batteries at generators output of the
: varying at varying TRU.
loads. speeds and
the batteries
at varying
loads.

682 21
A circuit breaker : may be is self can only be
reset resetting reset after
manually after the major
after the fault has maintenance
fault has been .
been rectified.
rectified.
683 21
A current limiter fuse in a DC generation system is used to : allow a short limit the instantaneou
term current in sly rupture
overload the field to limit the
before circuit. current in
rupturing. the load.

684 21
The primary purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an aircraft is to : provide a prevent isolate all
single earth electrolytic components
for electrical corrosion electrically
devices. between and thus
mating make the
surfaces of static
similar potential
metals. constant.

685 21
A 3 phase AC generator has 3 separate stator windings spaced at : 90°. 120°. 60°.
686 21
Because of the input/output relationship of an OR gate, it is often "all or "any or all" "inhibited" or
referred to as the : nothing" gate. "negated"
gate. gate.
687 21
A static inverter is a: transistorize device for static
d unit used reversing discharger.
to convert the polarity
DC into AC. of the static
charge.
688 21
On most modern airliners the cabin pressure is controlled by regulating Airflow RPM of the Bleed air
the: entering the engine. valve.
689 21 cabin.
The pressurization of tanks is maintained by the fuel: vent system. tank drains. top off unit.
690 21
 In a bootstrap system, the purpose of the heat exchangers is to: allow a cool bleed allow a
steady air and homogeneo
compressor compressor us
outlet air from the temperature
temperature. turbo by mixing air
refrigerator. flows from
various air
conditioning
groups in
operation.

691 21
If one of the 12 cells of a lead-acid battery is dead, the battery: is has 1/12 has 1/12
unserviceabl less voltage, less
e. but can still capacity, but
be used. can still be
used.

692 21
When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads frequency. voltage. torque of the
are balanced by means of the: Constant
Speed Drive
(CSD).

693 21
In a compressor stage of a jet engine, the sequence is: stator - rotor - stator stator - rotor
stator - rotor
694 21
The feathering pump of a hydraulic variable-pitch propeller: is an is intended controls the
electrically to control propeller, if
driven oil the pitch the speed
pump, which setting of the governor
supplies the propeller fails.
propeller during flight
with in order to
pressure oil, obtain a
when the constant
engine is speed.
inoperative.

695 21
The most common extinguishing agent used in gas turbine engine fire Water. CO2. Powder.
696 21 protection system is:
 Fuel dump systems are required: on aircraft on all on all
with a transport transport
Maximum category category
Take-Off aircraft aircraft.
Weight where the
(MTOW) Maximum
higher than Take-Off
5.7 tons. Weight
(MTOW) is
significant
higher than
the
Maximum
Landing
Weight
(MLW).

697 21
In a generator, the Constant Speed Drive (CSD): 1, 2, 5 2, 3, 4 1, 4, 5

1- may be disconnected from the engine shaft.

2- may be disconnected from the generator.
3- is a hydro-mechanical system.
4- is an electronic system.
5- may not be disconnected in flight.
6- may be disconnected in flight.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

698 21
The purpose of baffle check valves fitted in aircraft fuel tanks is to : close the prevent prevent fuel
vent lines in positive movement
case of pressure to the wing
turbulence. build up tip.
inside the
tank.
699 21
The main purpose of a Constant Speed Drive unit is to: take part in mechanicall take part in
the y protect the the voltage
balancing of alternator regulation.
reactive drive shaft
loads. during
coupling.

700 21
When a continuous element of a fire detection system is heated: 2, 3 1, 4 2, 4

1. its resistance decreases.

2. its resistance increases.
3. the leakage current increases.
4. the leakage current decreases.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

701 21
 The chemical oxygen generator is a system: 1, 3, 4 2, 3, 6 1, 4, 6

1. which is inexpensive
2. requiring no external input
3. which is lightweight
4. requiring no maintenance
5. with adjustable flow rate
6. which is unsafe

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

702 21
The compressor surge effect during acceleration is prevented by the : inlet guide surge bleed variable
vanes. valves. setting type
nozzle guide
vanes.

703 21
In aeronautics, the most commonly used batteries are NiCd because... their they are they weigh
electrolyte is cheaper less than
neither than lead- lead-acid
corrosive acid batteries.
nor batteries.
dangerous.

704 21
The reason for using inverters in an electrical system is .. To avoid a To change To change
short circuit. DC into AC. the DC
705 21 voltage.
The essential difference between aircraft AC alternators and DC induced induced alternators
generators (dynamos) is that the: (output) windings of supply all of
windings of the the output
the alternators current
alternators are rotating through the
are fixed (rotor), and commutator
(stator), and the dynamos s and brush
the dynamos have a assemblies.
have a fixed rotary
inductor inductor coil.
(field) coil.

706 21
In an alternator rotor coil you can find : AC. Three-phase Only
AC. induced
707 21 current.

The hydraulic device similar to an electronic diode is a : distribution shutoff check valve.
valve. valve.
708 21
In order to produce an alternating voltage of 400 Hz, the number of 4 24 12
709 21 poles required in an AC generator running at 6000 rpm is:
Usually, electric heating for ice protection is used on: Pitot tubes. Elevator Slat leading
leading edges.
710 21 edges.
When the door operation of a transport airplane equipped with is disarmed unfolds and unfolds but
evacuation slides is controlled from the outside, the slide: automaticall becomes does not
y. inflated. become
inflated.

711 21
 The "cabin differential pressure" is: the pressure cabin approximatel
differential pressure y 5 psi at
between the minus maximum.
air entering ambient
and leaving pressure.
the cabin.

712 21
The cabin rate of descent is: a cabin always the a cabin
pressure same as the pressure
increase. airplane's decrease.
rate of
descent.

713 21
The maximum differential pressure of a transonic transport category 15.5 psi 9.0 psi 3.5 psi
714 21 airplane is approximately:
The pneumatic ice protection system is mainly used for: engine wings. pitot tubes.
715 21 intakes.
What is the purpose of the pack cooling fans in the air conditioning Supplying Supplying Cooling of
system? the heat the the APU
exchangers Passenger compartmen
with cooling Service Unit t.
air during (PSU) with
cruise flight. fresh air.

716 21
The cabin air for modern airplanes is usually supplied by: roots type single radial main engine
compressors compressors compressors
717 21 . . .
Cabin air for modern aircraft is usually taken from: the second the low the high
fan stage. pressure pressure
compressor. compressor.

718 21
On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system Diaphragm Centrifugal Gear type
719 21 are: pumps. pumps. pumps.
On modern transport aircraft, cockpit windows are protected against Vinyl Anti-icing Rain
icing by : coating. fluid. repellent
720 21 system.
The capacitance type fuel gauging system indicates the fuel quantity by density resistivity electrical
measuring the: variation of variation of resistance
the fuel. the fuel. change.
721 21
On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system electro- mechanicall removable
are: mechanical y driven by only after
wobble the engine's the
pumps, with accessory associated
self- gearbox. tank has
regulated been
pressure. emptied.
722 21
 The fuel supply system on a jet engine includes a fuel heating device, prevent, at maintain and ease low
upstream of the main fuel filter so as to: low fuel improve fuel pressure
temperature, heating pumps work
the risk of power. by
ice formation increasing
from water fuel fluidity.
contained in
the fuel.

723 21
On most transport jet aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system 28 V DC 115 V DC 115 V AC
are supplied with electric power of the following type:
724 21
The pressure usually produced by the Boost Pumps (BP) of the fuel 5 to 10 psi 3000 to 300 to 500
725 21 supply system is within the following range: 5000 psi psi
In a fuel system, the oil to fuel heat exchanger allows: fuel cooling fuel heating automatic
so as to as required fuel heating
prevent whenever by the
vapour fuel filter engine oil so
creation clogging is as to
likely to detected. prevent icing
unprime in fuel filter.
nozzles.
726 21
The fuel crossfeed system: allows is only used is only used
feeding of to feed an on the
any engine engine from ground for
from any the tank of fuel transfer
fuel tank. the opposite from one
wing. tank to
another.

727 21
The purpose of the baffles in an aircraft's integral fuel tank is to: Prevent Restrict the Prevent
mixture of fuel from overpressur
the fuel and flowing to e in the tank.
hydraulic the wing tips
fluid. during
abnormal
manoeuvre
(side
slipping...).

728 21
On a transport type aircraft the fuel tank system is vented through: Bleed air The return Ram air
from the lines of the scoops on
engines. fuel pumps. the
underside of
the wing.

729 21
The types of fuel tanks used on most modern transport aircraft are: Integral Cell tanks. Combined
730 21 tanks. fuel tanks.
In an aircraft air conditioning system the air cannot be treated for: pressure. temperature. humidity.
731 21
The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines located under the compression tension, then tension.
wing, is subjected to a bending moment which causes its leading edge, , then in in
from the wing root to the wing tip, to operate in: tension. compression
.
732 21
For take-off, the correct combination of propeller pitch (1), and propeller (1) high (2) (1) low (2) (1) low (2)
733 21 lever position (2) at brake release is : forward. forward. aft.
 For piston engines, mixture ratio is the ratio between the : volume of mass of fuel mass of fuel
fuel and and volume and mass of
volume of air of air air entering
entering the entering the the cylinder.
carburettor. carburettor.

734 21
On modern carburettors, the variations of mixture ratios are obtained by air flow. fuel flow and fuel flow, air
the adjustment of : air flow. flow and
temperature.

735 21
To adjust the mixture ratio of a piston engine when altitude increases, decrease increase the increase the
means to: the amount amount of mixture
of fuel in the fuel in the ratio.
mixture in mixture to
order to compensate
compensate for the
for the decreasing
increasing air pressure
air density. and density.

736 21
When applying carburettor heating : the mixture a decrease the mixture
becomes in RPM becomes
richer. results from leaner.
the lean
mixture.

737 21
When the pilot moves the mixture lever of a piston engine towards a volume of air amount of volume of air
lean position the : entering the fuel entering entering the
carburettor the carburettor
is reduced. combustion is increased.
chamber is
increased.
738 21
When altitude increases without adjustment of the mixture ratio, the increase of decrease of decrease of
piston engine performance is affected because of a : air density air density air density
for smaller for a smaller for a
quantity of quantity of constant
fuel. fuel. quantity of
fuel.
739 21
A rich mixture setting has to be used during climb segments. This lower higher slight loss of
results in a cylinder efficiency. power.
head
temperature.

740 21
The cross-feed fuel system is used to : automaticall feed every allow the
y fill every engine from fuel to be
tank up to any fuel quickly
the desired tank. thrown away
level. in case of
emergency

741 21
For a given type of oil, the oil viscosity depends on the: oil outside oil pressure.
temperature. pressure.
742 21
 The main advantage of a constant speed propeller as compared to a higher constant lower
fixed pitch propeller is a : efficiency in efficiency in propeller
all operating all operating blade stress.
ranges. ranges.

743 21
In an aircraft electrical system where AC generators are not paralleled power connection connection
mounted, the changover relay allows : supply to the of the AC of the
faulty AC generator to ground
generators its power truck
busbar. distribution to its
busbar. distribution
busbar.
744 21
Pulling the fire shutoff handle causes a number of devices to exciter exciter exciter
disconnect. In respect of the AC generator it can be said that the: control relay, control relay control relay
the and the opens.
generator generator
breaker and breaker
the tie open.
breaker
open.
745 21
The advantages of grounding the negative pole of the aircraft structure 1, 2, 3 2, 3, 5 1, 3, 5
are:

1. Weight saving
2. Easy fault detection
3. Increase of short-circuit risk
4. Reduction of short-circuit risk
5. Circuits are not single-wired lines

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

746 21
The speed of an asynchronous four-pole motor fed at a frequency of 12000 6000 800
400 Hertz is: revolutions revolutions revolutions
747 21 per minute. per minute. per minute.
As regards three-phase AC generators, the following conditions must be 1, 3, 5 1, 4, 5 1, 3, 4, 5
met for paralleling AC generators:

1. Equal voltage
2. Equal current
3. Equal frequencies
4. Same phase rotation
5. Voltages of same phase

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

748 21
In the axial flow compressor of a turbo-jet engine, the flow duct is reduce the reduce the maintain a
tapered. Its shape is calculated so as to: axial speed axial speed, constant
in cruising whatever the axial speed
flight. engine in cruising
rating. flight.

749 21
In the stator of a turbine, the speed V and static pressure Ps vary as V V increases, V
follows: decreases, Ps decreases,
Ps decreases. Ps
decreases. increases.
750 21
Ion detectors are devices used in aircraft for systems protection. They fire. overtempera smoke.
detect : ture and fire.
751 21
 Electrical bonding of an aircraft is used to: 1, 3, 4 1, 2, 3 3, 4

1. protect the aircraft against lightning effects.

2. reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value
approximating 0 volt
3. reduce radio interference on radiocommunication systems
4. set the aircraft to a single potential

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

752 21
Max. Exhaust Gas Temperature is theoretically associated with : Cruising Full rich Mixture ratio
mixture setting. very close to
setting. idle cut-out.
753 21
The accessory units driven by the accessory gearbox of a turbo-jet 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 2, 4, 5, 6. 4, 5, 6, 7.
engine are the : 7.

1. tacho-generator N1
2. tacho-generator N2
3. thrust reverser pneumatic motors
4. AC generator and its Constant Speed Unit (CSD)
5. oil pumps
6. hydraulic pumps
7. high pressure fuel pumps

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

754 21
On a modern large pressurized transport aircraft, the maximum cabin 7 - 9 psi 3 - 5 psi 13 - 15 psi
755 21 differential pressure is approximately:
The refueling in a transport jet aircraft is made ... Through the By means of By means of
refueling cap the aircraft the aircraft
of every tank suction suction
pumps. pumps
through a
unique point
(an
underwing
refueling
center).

756 21
The vapor lock is : A stoppage The exhaust The effect of
in a fuel gases the water
feeding line obstructions vapor
caused by a caused by bubbles in
fuel vapor an engine the induction
bubble. overheating. manifold
caused by
the
condensatio
n

757 21
 The fuel system boost pumps are used to : avoid the feed the feed the fuel
bubbles lines with control units,
accumulatio fuel for which inject
n. directing it to the
the engine pressurized
at a positive fuel into the
pressure. engine.

758 21
The pneumatic system accumulator is useful : in to eliminate to eliminate
emergency the fluid the fluid flow
cases. pressure variations.
variations.

759 21
The oxygen masks have dropped down from the passengers service After the after pulling immediately
units. The oxygen flow starts : system has the oxygen
been mask
switched on downwards
by a crew
member

760 21
If inflammable gaseous materials, like propane for example, are set on Water type Dry and CO2 and
fire; the following extinguisher types should be used for fire fighting: extinguisher water type water type
s extinguisher extinguisher
s s
761 21
A public transport jet aeroplane may be operated up to FL 450. The 198 (110% 270 (150% 240 (one
cabin includes 180 passenger seats, made up of 30 rows (3 seats from of the of the additional
each side of central aisle). The minimum number of cabin oxygen seating seating mask per
masks for this aeroplane must be: capacity). capacity). seat block).
762 21
An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certicated to JAR25, across 30 minutes 120 minutes 90 minutes
an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without at cruising at cruising at cruising
survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an speed. speed. speed.
emergency landing at a distance greater than :

763 21
In case of engine failure during flight the blades of the constant speed move in a move in the move in the
propeller in a single engine aeroplane, not fitted with feathering system certain pitch highest pitch lowest pitch
position position by position by
depending the the
on aerodynamic centrifugal
windmilling al force. force.
RPM.

764 21
The safety precautions to be taken whenever using oxygen are: 2, 3, 4. 1, 2, 4. 1, 3, 4.

1. refrain from smoking, avoid sparkes.

2. Avoid operation of radio communication equipment.
3. Slowly operate oxygen system valves.
4. Avoid greasy matter.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

765 21
 To unfeather a propeller during flight you have to : gain speed gain speed use the
for so as to use electric
aerodynamic the engine unfeathering
unfeathering unfeathering pump.
. pump.

766 21
The correct formula to calculate the multi-cylinder engine displacement cylinder piston area * piston area *
is : length * piston stroke piston stroke
cylinder * number of
diameter cylinders

767 21
In most cases aeroplane piston engines are short stroke engines. This lighter lower fuel better piston
permits a : construction. consumption cooling.
768 21 .
When changing power on engines equipped with constant-speed reducing the increasing increasing
propeller, engine overload is avoided by : RPM before the manifold the RPM
reducing the pressure before
manifold before increasing
pressure. increasing the manifold
the RPM. pressure.

769 21
The pitch angle of a constant-speed propeller increases only varies decreases
with with engine with
increasing RPM. increasing
true air true air
speed. speed.
770 21
A propeller blade is twisted, so as to avoid the decrease allow a
appearance the blade higher
of sonic tangential mechanical
phenomena. velocity from stress.
the blade
root to the
tip.
771 21
A pilot normally uses the propeller autofeather system during : Cruise. Take-off. Landing.

772 21
When increasing true airspeed with a constant engine RPM, the angle reduces. increases. stays
of attack of a fixed pitch propeller : constant.

773 21
When TAS increases, the pitch angle of a constant speed propeller stays increases. reduces.
(RPM and MAP levers are not moved) : constant.

774 21
The fuel system boost pumps are submerged in the fuel .. To cool the To prime the Because
pumps. pumps. their
efficiency is
greater.

775 21
 A turboprop aeroplane is performing an overwater flight, which takes it The Life jackets Life rafts
further than 340 NM away from an aerodrome where an emergency regulation and rafts must be
landing could be performed. Normal cruising speed is 180 kt. One does not must be available for
engine out airspeed is 155 kt. require life available for all
jackets or all occupants.
rafts to be occupants.
taken on
board in this
particular
case.

776 21
When a wire type fire system is tested: the wire is the wiring Only the
totally and the warning
heated. warning are function is
tested. tested.
777 21
If the maximum operating altitude of an airplane is limited by the Negative Positive Negative
pressurized cabin, this limitation is due to the maximum: cabin cabin differential
differential differential pressure at
pressure at pressure at maximum
maximum maximum cabin
operating cabin altitude.
ceiling. altitude.
778 21
In flight, the most commonly used anti-icing method for the wings of Mechanical Thermal Physical/che
modern commercial aircraft fitted with turbo-jet units is: (pneumatic (use of hot mical
source air). (glycol-
which acts based
by liquid).
deforming
the profiles
of the
leading
edge).

779 21
With regard to the pneumatic mechanical devices which afford The The The
protection against the formation of ice, the only correct statement is: pneumatic pneumatic pneumatic
mechanical mechanical mechanical
device can device is device can
only be used used a lot on only be used
as a de-icing modern as an anti-
device. aircraft as it icing device.
is
inexpensive
and easy to
maintain.

780 21
 Concerning electrically powered ice protection devices, the only true on modern on modern on modern
statement is: aeroplanes, aeroplanes, aeroplanes,
electrically electrical electrically
powered power powered
thermal supply being thermal
devices are available in devices are
used to excess, this very
prevent icing system is efficient,
on small very often therefore
surfaces used for they only
(pitot-static, large need little
windshield... surfaces de- energy.
). icing.

781 21
The elements specifically protected against icing on transport aircraft 1, 2, 4, 5 1, 4, 5, 7 1, 2, 5, 6
are:

1) engine air intake and pod.

2) front glass shield.
3) radome.
4) pitot tubes and waste water exhaust masts.
5) leading edge of wing.
6) cabin windows.
7) trailing edge of wings.
8) electronic equipment compartment.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

782 21
In a pressurized transport aircraft, the protective breathing equipment: gives protects all protects the
medical the members of
assistance occupants the crew
to certain against the against the
passengers effects of effects of
with accidental accidental
respiratory depressuriza depressuriza
disorders. tion. tion.

783 21
When quick donning masks are in use, the pilot is: only able to not able to able to
transmit. do any radio radiotelepho
communicati ne.
on.

784 21
Some emergency exits must be equipped with devices so as to help the 8 ft, 8 ft, 6 ft,
occupants to get out and reach the ground if their threshold is at a aeroplane aeroplane aeroplane
height above the ground greater than: on the on the on the
ground, one ground, ground,
main gear or landing gear landing gear
nose gear extended. extended.
collapse.

785 21
The cabin heating supply in a heavy jet transport aircraft is obtained hot air hot air a fuel heater
from : coming from coming from system.
the engine's the engine's
compressors turbines.
.

786 21
 In a fire detection system with single-loop continuous components (with there will be the engine the fire
no fault protection), if the line is accidently grounded: no effect on fire alarm is
the system extinguisher triggered.
striker is
automaticall
y activated.
787 21
A turbo-fan cold air unit will: not affect the increase decrease
charge air charge air charge air
pressure. pressure pressure
whilst whilst
causing hte causing hte
temperature temperature
to drop in to rise in the
the heat heat
exchanger. exchanger.

788 21
In a pressurized aircraft, the first-aid (therapeutic) oxygen is designed protect the protect all protect
to: flight crew the certain
and cabin occupants passengers,
attendants against the and is only
against effects of carried on
fumes and accidental board for
noxious depressurisa these
gases. tion. people.

789 21
An aircraft is scheduled to fly from PARIS to MARSEILLE at FL 390 and 220. 230. 200.
has the following characteristics:
Maximum permissible number of passenger specified by the certificate
of airworthiness= 230
Number of seats on board= 200
Scheduled number of passengers on board= 180
The minimum number of inhaler systems provided in the aircraft cabin
should be:
790 21
From which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type FL 300. FL 390. FL 100.
791 21 oxygen mask for the flight crew in a pressurized aircraft ?
What is breathed in when using a passenger oxygen mask? Cabin air A mixture of Cabin air
and oxygen oxygen and and oxygen.
or 100% freon gas.
oxygen.
792 21
In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used in HF VHF UHF
793 21 the following frequencies:
The wavelength of a radio transmitted on frequency 121.95 MHz is: 24.60 cm 2.46 cm 24.60 m
794 21
For weather radar, the frequency 9375 MHz in X Band is preferable to C Its It is not It allows
Band because: penetration absorbed by greater
power is heavy scanning
higher. precipitation rates.
s.

795 21
 DURALUMIN alloys : 1,4,5 2,4,5 1,3,6

1 have an aluminium-copper base.

2 have an aluminium-magnesium base.
3 are easy to weld.
4 are difficult to weld.
5 have a good thermal conductivity.
6 have a poor air corrosion resistance

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

796 21
For FAIL-SAFE designed structural parts : 2,5,6 1,5,6 2,3,4

1 The mounting principle is parallel mounting.

2 No routine check is necessary.
3 The member is removed at the end of the calculated life cycle.
4 Certain components may not be accessible.
5 The principle is the redundancy of components
6 The failure of a member causes the loads to be shared between the
other system components.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

797 21
A fault protection circuit in a fire detection system will: inhibit the activate the automaticall
fire detector fire detection y initiate
when the system APU
detection when the shutdown
line is detection and fire
connected to line is extinguisher
ground. connected to striker
ground. activation in
the event of
fire.

798 21
"Conditioned" air is air that has: oxygen oxygen been
content content controled in
increased. reduced. respect of
temperature
and
pressure.
799 21
The heating facility for the windshield of an aircraft is: Used on a Harmful to Only used
continual the integrity when hot-air
basis as it of the demisting is
reduces the windows in insufficient.
thermal the event of
gradients a bird strike.
which
adversely
affect the
useful life of
the
components.

800 21
On a jet aircraft fuel heaters are : Installed not Located on
only in the necessary at the engines.
801 21 center tank. all.
 The automatic fuelling shut off valve: stops stops cuts off the
fuelling as fuelling as fuel in case
soon as a soon as a of engine
certain certain fuel fire.
pressure is level is
reached. reached
inside the
tank.
802 21
During fuelling the automatic fuelling shut off valves will switch off the the surge there is fire. the fuel has
fuel supply system when: vent tank is reached a
filled. predetermin
ed volume
or mass.
803 21
(For this question use annex 021-980A) after high after low after high
The diagram shown in annex represents a jet fuel system. The fuel-flow pressure pressure pressure
measurement is carried out : pump first valve (item valve (item
stage (item 1). 4).
2).
804 21
The purpose of the barometric correction in a fuel controller is to: maintain the reduce the increase the
correct fuel-to-air fuel-to-air
weight fuel ratio when ratio when
to air ratio altitude altitude
when the increases. increases.
altitude
increases.
805 21
The maximum quantity of fuel that can be dumped with the jettisoning All fuel until All up to a 15 tons.
system is: the defined
maximum reserve
landing quantity.
weight is
reached.
806 21
A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. 14000 ft 8000 ft 12000 ft
This warning must be triggered on reaching the following altitude: (approx. (approx. (approx.
807 21 4200 m) 2400 m) 3600 m)
The pack cooling fan provides: cooling air to cooling air to cooling air to
the primary the primary the pre-
and and cooler.
secondary secondary
heat heat
exchanger exchanger
during during slow
cruise. flight and
ground
operation.

808 21
 The air-conditioning pack of a present-day aircraft consists of several P: pre-cools P: precools P: warms up
components: these include two heat exchangers; the primary the engine the engine engine
exchanger (P) and the secondary exchanger (S). bleed air bleed air bleed air
The functions of these heat exchangers are as follows: S: increases S: reduces S:
the the recirculates
temperature temperature the cabin air,
of the air of the air reducing its
used for air- from the temperature.
conditioning primary
of cargo exchanger
compartmen or from the
t (animals). pack's
compressor.

809 21
The trim tab : reduces increases increases
hinge hinge hinge
moment and moment and moment and
increases control reduces
control surface control
surface efficiency. surface
efficiency. efficiency.

810 21
The term "cabin pressure" applies when an aeroplane: has the has the has the
ability to ability to means to
maintain maintain a maintain the
constant any constant cabin
cabin cabin pressure at
differential altitude at all a higher
pressure. flight level than
altitudes. the ambient
pressure.

811 21
When air is compressed for pressurization purposes, the percentage increased. dependent unaffected.
oxygen content is: on the
degree of
pressurisatio
n.
812 21
The term "bootstrap", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and source of means by charge air
pressurisation system, refers to the: the charge which across the
air. pressurisatio inter-cooler
n is heat
controlled. exchanger.
813 21
In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first: compressed, passed passed
then goes across an across an
through a expansion expansion
heat turbine, then turbine, then
exchanger, compressed directly to
and across and passed the heat
an through a exchanger.
expansion heat
turbine. exchanger.

814 21
 In a cabin air conditioning system, equipped with a bootstrap, the mass secondary secondary turbine
air flow is routed via the: heat heat outlet of the
exchanger exchanger cold air unit
outlet to the outlet to the to the
turbine inlet compressor primary heat
of the cold inlet of the exchanger
air unit. cold air unit. inlet.

815 21
Engine bleed air used for air conditioning and pressurization in turbo-jet compressor fan section. turbine
816 21 aeroplanes is usually taken from the: section. section.
The turbine in a cold air unit (air cycle machine): drives the increases drives the
compressor the pressure compressor
which of the air in the unit
provides supply to the and causes
pressurisatio cabin. a pressure
n. increase in
the
conditioning
air.

817 21
In large modern aircraft, in the air conditioning system, reduction of air an a a condenser.
temperature and pressure is achieved by: expansion compressor.
818 21 turbine.
In a "bootstrap" cooling system, the charge air is first compressed in the ensure an increase the ensure an
cold air unit to: adequate cabin air adequate
pressure supply charge air
and pressure flow across
temperature when the the inter-
drop across charge cooler heat
the cooling pressure is exchanger.
turbine. too low.

819 21
Environmental system: in the air refrigeration unit, the water separation before the just after the after the
unit is placed: cooling heat cooling
turbine. exchangers. turbine.
820 21
The purpose of cabin air flow control valves in a pressurization system regulate Maintain a regulate
is to : cabin constant and cabin
pressure at sufficient pressure to
the mass air the selected
maximum flow to altitude.
cabin ventilate the
pressure cabin and
differential. minimise
cabin
pressure
surges.

821 21
In a hydraulic system, the reservoir is pressurized in order to: prevent seal the keep the
pump system hydraulic
cavitation fluid at
optimum
temperature

822 21
 The purpose of a shuttle valve is to: Protect a Relieve Prevent
hydraulic excess overloading
system from pressure in of the
overpressur hydraulic hydraulic
e. systems. pump.

823 21
Shuttle valves will automatically: Switch Shut down Guard
hydraulically systems systems
operated which are against
units to the overloaded. overpressur
most e.
appropriate
pressure
supply.
824 21
In addition to energy storage the accumulator of the hydraulic system is as a for damping for fluid
used : pressure pressure storage.
relief valve. surges in the
system.
825 21
In the air cycle system the air is cooled down by expansion: of Freon in a of Freon in in the
heat the turbine. turbine.
826 21 exchanger.
If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure: increases remains may exceed
constant the
maximum
permitted
differential
unless
immediate
preventative
action is
taken.

827 21
The purpose of the cabin pressure controller, in the automatic mode, is 2, 6, 4 5, 6, 1 4, 5, 3
to perform the following functions:

1. control of cabin altitude,

2. control of cabin altitude rate-of-change,
3. limitation of differential pressure
4. balancing aircraft altitude with cabin altitude
5. cabin ventilation
6. keeping a constant differential pressure throughout all the flight
phases.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

828 21
During a normal pressurised climb after take-off: the the cabin absolute
pressurisatio differential cabin
n system is pressure is pressure
inoperative maintained increases to
until an constant compensate
altitude of 10 for the fall in
000 feet is pressure
reached outside the
aircraft

829 21
 In flight the wing of an aircraft containing fuel is subjected to vertical equal to the equal to half lowest at the
loads that produce a bending moment which is: zero -fuel the weight of wing root
weight the aircraft
multiplied by multiplied by
the span the semi
span

830 21
Main cabin temperature is: controlled controlled by not
automaticall individual controllable
y, or by flight passenger. at the
crew maximum
selection. cabin
differential
pressure.
831 21
In hydraulic systems of large modern transport category aircraft the Water and Synthetic oil. Mineral oil.
832 21 fluids used are: glycol.
Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in a constant the outflow the
normal flight conditions, if flight altitude is maintained: mass air valves will pressurisatio
flow is move to the n system
permitted fully open ceases to
through the position. function until
cabin. leakage
reduces the
pressure.

833 21
Cabin pressure is controlled by : the cabin air delivering a controlling
mass flow substantially the flow of
control inlet constant air into the
valve(s). flow of air cabin with a
into the constant
cabin and outflow.
controlling
the outflow.

834 21
During level flight at a constant cabin pressure altitude (which could be Fully closed Partially fully closed
decreased, even at this flight level), the cabin outflow valves are: until the open. until the
cabin cabin climbs
descends to to a selected
a selected altitude.
altitude.

835 21
The purpose of a ditching control is to: achieve open the direct
rapid outflow pressurisatio
depressurisa valve(s). n air to the
tion. flotation
bags.
836 21
The cabin pressure is regulated by the: Air cycle Air Cabin inlet
machine. conditioning airflow
837 21 pack. valve.

The pressurization of the cabin is controlled by : The engine's The cabin The cabin
bleed outflow inlet airflow.
valves. valve.
838 21
 Cabin differential pressure means the pressure difference between: actual cabin cabin cockpit and
pressure pressure passenger
and selected and ambient cabin.
pressure. air pressure.

839 21
Under normal conditions (JAR 25) the cabin pressure altitude is not 8000 ft 4000 ft 6000 ft
840 21 allowed to exceed:
Cabin altitude means the: difference in flight level flight level
height the aircraft is altitude at
between the flying at. maximum
cabin floor differential
and ceiling. pressure.

841 21
(For this question use annex 021-786A) FL 230 FL 340 FL 280
In a pressurized aircraft whose cabin altitude is 8000 ft, a crack in a
cabin window makes it necessary to reduce the differential pressure to
5 psi.
The flight level to be maintained in order to keep the same cabin
altitude is:
842 21
An artificial feel unit is necessary in the pitch channel when: the elevators the elevators there is a
are actuated are fitted trimmable
by with servo- stabilizer.
irreversible tabs or trim
servo- tabs.
control units.

843 21
On the ground, the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) can be substituted for ground ground ground
the: power unit, power unit, power unit,
the starting the air the starting
system, the conditioning system.
air unit.
conditioning
unit.
844 21
The purpose of a trim tab (device) is to: lower reduce or to trim the
manoeuvrin cancel aeroplane
g control control during
forces. forces. normal flight.

845 21
A torsion link assembly is installed on the landing gear to : avoid absorb the control the
rotation of spring wheels.
the piston tension.
rod relative
to the gear
oleo strut.
846 21
In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is Mechanicall Pneumaticall Electrically
847 21 usually: y driven. y driven. driven.
Generally, on modern jet transport aircraft, how can the landing gear be Mechanicall Electrically. Pneumaticall
extended if there is a complete hydraulic system failure. y y.

848 21
If the profile grooves or the tread of a new aircraft tyre are worn, the tyre Used on the Repaired repaired
can be: nose wheel several once.
849 21 only. times.
 The operating principle of an anti skid system is as follows : the brake Increased Decreased Increased
pressure will be : on the faster on the faster on the
turning turning slower
wheels. wheels. turning
wheels.
850 21
The type of brake unit found on most transport aeroplanes is a: Belt brake. Multiple disk Drum type
851 21 brake. brake.
The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aircraft wheels is that they : release air release air prevent the
from the tyre from the tyre brakes from
in case of in case of overheating.
overpressur overheating.
e.

852 21
In a modern hydraulic system, "hydraulic fuses" can be found. Their To switch to To isolate a To allow by-
function is : the part of the passing of a
secondary system and hydraulic
system in protect it pump in
case of a against case it is
leak in the accidental subject to
primary pollution. excessive
brake pressure,
system. without
further
damage to
the system.

853 21
The advantages of fly-by-wire control are: 3 and 5 1 and 2 1 and 5

1. reduction of the electric and hydraulic power required to operate the

control surfaces
2. lesser sensitivity to lightning strike
3. direct and indirect weight saving through simplification of systems
4. immunity to different interfering signals
5. improvement of piloting quality throughout the flight envelope

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

854 21
The type of hydraulic oil used in modern hydraulic systems is: mixture of mineral oil synthetic oil
mineral oil
855 21 and alcohol
An artificial feel unit system: is mounted must be must be
in parallel on mounted in mounted in
a spring tab. parallel on series on an
an irreversible
irreversible servo-
servo- control unit.
control unit.
856 21
 Hydraulic fluids must have the following characteristics: 1, 3, 4, 6 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 5, 7

1. thermal stability
2. low emulsifying characteristics
3. corrosion resistance
4. good resistance to combustion
5. high compressibility
6. high volatility
7. high viscosity

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

857 21
In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is precharged to 1200 1200 psi 4200 psi 1800 psi
psi.
An electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and provides a system
pressure of 3000 psi.
The hydraulic pressure gauge which is connected to the gas section of
the accumulator, reads:
858 21
Where in a hydraulic system might overheat indicators be installed? At the In the At actuators.
859 21 pumps. reservoirs.
Hydraulic fluids : Cause high Do not Are irritating
fire risk. require to eyes and
special care. skin and
cause high
fire risk.

860 21
Hydraulic fluids used in systems of large modern airliners are: Water base Vegetable Mineral base
fluids. base fluids. fluids.
861 21
Hydraulic power is a function of : Pump size System Pump RPM
and volume pressure only.
flow. and volume
flow.
862 21
Large transport aeroplane hydraulic systems usually operate with a 3000 psi 4000 psi 2000 psi
863 21 system pressure of approximately:
The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 2,4 1,3,5 1,2,3
1 Is a limitation set by regulation.
2 Is designed for a maximum load factor.
3 Is due to the maximum bending moment at wing root.
4 Requires to empty external tanks first.
5 Requires to empty internal tanks first.
The correct combination of true statements is :
864 21
Thermal plugs are installed in: cabin cargo wheel rims.
windows. compartmen
865 21 ts.

What can be the consequence during a descent with a fully open The turbine The turbine The
throttle if the waste gate is seized ? shaft will blades will manifold air
break. separate. pressure
(MAP) value
may exceed
the
maximum
allowed
value.

866 21
 The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is the ratio of: the total the total the total
turbine turbine turbine inlet
outlet outlet pressure to
pressure to pressure to the total
the total the total compressor
compressor compressor inlet
inlet outlet pressure.
pressure. pressure.
867 21
The ignition occurs in each cylinder of an four-stroke engine (TDC = Top before TDC behind TDC behind TDC
Dead Center) at each at each at each
crankshaft crankshaft second
revolution. revolution. crankshaft
revolution.
868 21
The power output of a piston engine can be calculated by : Torque times Work times Force times
869 21 RPM. velocity. distance.
The power of a piston engine which will be measured by using a friction Heat loss Indicated Brake horse
brake is : power. horse power. power.
870 21
The torque of an aeroplane engine can be measured at the: propeller accessory camshaft.
blades. gear box.

871 21
The power of a piston engine decreases during climb with a constant temperature. air density. engine
power lever setting, because of the decreasing : temperature.
872 21
The conditions under which you obtain the highest engine power are : cold and dry warm and cold and
air at high humid air at humid air at
pressure. low high
pressure. pressure.
873 21
The power output of a normally aspirated piston engine increases with lower losses lower friction leaner
increasing altitude at constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM during the losses. mixture at
because of the : gas change. higher
altitudes.

874 21
The passenger oxygen mask will supply : a mixture of a mixture of 100 %
oxygen and cabin air and oxygen.
freon gas. oxygen.

875 21
The kind of compressor normally used as a supercharger is : a hybrid a piston a radial
compressor. compressor. compressor.
876 21
The built-in passenger oxygen system be activated by : switching switching switching
the diluter the the diluter
demand passenger demand
regulator oxygen ON. regulator
and the ON.
passenger
oxygen ON.
877 21
 One of the advantages of a turbosupercharger is that : there is no it uses the it has a
danger of exhaust gas better
knocking. energy propulsive
which efficiency.
normally is
lost.
878 21
With which instrument(s) do you monitor the power output of an RPM and RPM and RPM and
aeroplane fitted with a fixed pitch propeller? Fuel Flow MAP EGT
879 21 indicator. indicator. indicator.
An EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicator for a piston engine is control the assist the control the
used to : fuel pilot to settle cylinder
temperature. correct head
mixture. temperature.

880 21
During climb with constant throttle and RPM lever setting (mixture being Manifold Air RPM Manifold Air
constant) the : Pressure decreases. Pressure
(MAP) (MAP)
decreases. increases.
881 21
The conditions which can cause knocking are : High Low Low
manifold manifold manifold
pressure pressure pressure
and high and high and high fuel
revolutions revolutions flow.
per minute. per minute.
882 21
Which of the following qualitative statements about a fixed propeller blades blade is blade is
optimized for cruise condition, is true for the take-off case? The angle of reduces to relatively relatively
883 21 attack of the propeller : zero. high. small.

The 'constant speed propeller' has its best only above in general a
efficiency and below worse
during climb. the design efficiency
point a than the
better fixed
efficiency propeller.
than the
fixed
propeller
with the
same design
speed.

884 21
What will happen to the geometrical pitch angle of a "constant speed It will It will It will
propeller" if the manifold pressure is increased ? increase increase and decrease so
after a short that the
time it will be engine can
the same increase
again
885 21
The 'slipstream effect' of a propeller is most prominent at: low low high
airspeeds airspeeds airspeeds
with low with high with low
power power power
setting. setting. setting.
886 21
 During climb with constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM stays increases. decreases.
indication and constant mixture setting, the power output of a piston constant.
engine :

887 21
The ice protection for propellers of modern turboprop aeroplanes works pneumaticall with hot air. with anti-
888 21 y. icing fluid.
If the pressure in the cabin tends to become lower than the outside negative outflow air cycle
ambient air pressure the : pressure valve open machine will
relief valve completely. stop.
will close
889 21
Static dischargers : 2,4,5. 1,2,5. 1,3,4.

1. are used to set all the parts of the airframe to the same electrical
potential
2. are placed on wing and tail tips to facilitate electrical discharge
3. are used to reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value
approximating 0 volts
4. are located on wing and tail tips to reduce intererence with the on-
board radiocommunication systems to a minimum
5. limit the risks of transfer of electrical charges between the aircraft and
the electrified clouds

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

890 21
The octane rating of a fuel characterises the : fuel volatility quantity of fuel
heat electrical
generated conductivity
by its
combustion
891 21
The fuel temperature, at which, under standard conditions, the vapour fire point self ignition flash point
ignites in contact with a flame and extinguishs immediately, is the: point
892 21
'Fail safe construction' is : A simple and A type of A
cheap type construction construction
of for small which is
construction. aircraft only. suitable for
aerobatic
flight.

893 21
The type of hydraulic fluid which has the highest resistance against Synthetic Mineral oil Vegetable oil
cavitation is : fluid. based fluid. based fluid
(caster oil).
894 21
The ice protection system currently used for the most modern jet Electrical Hot air Pneumatic
aeroplanes is the de-icing system. system with
system. expandable
boots.

895 21
 During flight, the wing anti-ice system has to protect leading leading the whole
edges only. edges, slats upper wing
and the surface and
leading the flaps.
edge flaps.
896 21
The useful work area in an ideal Otto engine indicator diagram is 2 adiabatic 2 adiabatic 2 adiabatic,
enclosed by the following gas state change lines and 1 and 2 1 isochoric
isothermic isobaric and 1
lines. lines. isobaric
lines.
897 21
The anti-ice or de-icing system which is mostly used for the wings of Thermal Fluid de- Pneumatic
898 21 modern turboprop aeroplanes is : anti-icing. icing. boots.
In general, in twin-engine aeroplanes with 'constant speed propeller' the spring the oil the oil
force turns pressure pressure
the propeller turns the turns the
blades propeller propeller
towards blades blades
smaller pitch towards towards
angle. higher pitch smaller pitch
angle. angle.

899 21
A pneumatic de-ice system should be operated .. When there Only at take- When there
are off and is
approximatel during approximatel
y 5 cm of ice approach. y 1,5 cm of
on leading ice on
edges leading
edges.
900 21
A gaseous sensor/responder tube fire sensor is tested by checking the checking the heating up
wiring sensor with the sensor
harness for pressurized with test
faults but not gas. power
the sensor. connection.

901 21
Smoke detector systems are installed in the engine fuel tanks. upper cargo
nacelles. compartmen
ts (class E).

902 21
The most suitable means for extinguishing a magnesium fire on the water. carbon freon.
903 21 ground is : dioxide.
The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the seat rows in passengers emergency
passenger cabin according to JAR-OPS depends on the number of : the cabin. in the cabin. exits in the
904 21 cabin.
In transport aeroplanes overheat detection systems are installed in the: tyres. landing gear cabin.
bays / wheel
wells.
905 21
 The number of emergency exits in transport aeroplanes must be must be depends on
arranged to arranged to the decision
allow all allow at of the
passengers least 50 % manufacture
and all crew of all r in
members to passengers agreement
leave the to leave the with the
aeroplane aeroplane operator.
within 90 within 2
sec. through minutes.
50 % of the
available
emergency
exits.

906 21
If the maximum operating pressure of the oxygen passenger oxygen oxygen is
system is exceeded the: oxygen bottles will discharged
masks will explode. overboard
drop down. via a safety
plug.

907 21
The purpose of a diluter demand regulator in an oxygen deliver is only mix air and
system is to : oxygen flow recommend oxygen in a
only above ed with passenger
FL 100. smoke in the oxygen
cockpit. mask.
908 21
In jet aeroplanes the 'thermal anti-ice system' is primary supplied by turbo ram air, the APU.
compressors heated via a
. heat
exchanger.
909 21
Overheating of a piston engine is likely to result from an excessively : low high weak
barometric barometric mixture.
910 21 pressure. pressure.
Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the: mass of fuel volume of volume of
and mass of fuel and fuel and
air entering volume of air volume of air
the cylinder. entering the entering the
carburettor. cylinder.

911 21
Which statement is true concerning the effect of the application of it reduces it reduces it reduces
carburettor heat? the volume the density the volume
of air of air of air
entering the entering the entering the
carburettor,t carburettor, carburettor,t
hus leaning thus leaning hus
the fuel/air the fuel/air enriching the
mixture mixture fuel/air
mixture

912 21
The octane rating of a fuel and compression ratio of a piston engine the higher the lower the the higher
have which of the following relations? the octane octane the octane
rating is, the rating is, the rating is, the
higher the higher the lower the
possible possible possible
compression compression compression
ratio is ratio is ratio is.

913 21
 Vapour lock is : vaporizing of the inability vaporizing of
fuel in the of a fuel to fuel prior to
carburettor vaporize in reaching the
the carburettor
carburettor
914 21
Fuel stored in aircraft tanks will accumulate moisture. The most practical use only keep tank keep tanks
way to minimize this when an aircraft is used every day or so is to : high octane vents topped off
gasoline plugged and when the
filler cap aircraft is not
tight in use
915 21
In addition to the fire hazard introduced, excessive priming should be it drains the the gasoline it washes
avoided because : carburettor dilutes the the lubricant
float oil and of cylinder
chamber necessitates walls
changing oil

916 21
The primary purpose of a supercharger is to : provide provide a maintain
leaner richer power at
mixtures at mixture at altitude
altitudes high
below 5000 altitudes
ft
917 21
An excessively rich mixture can be detected by : black smoke high cylinder white smoke
from head from
exhaust. temperature exhaust.
s

918 21
An asymmetric loading (p-factor) on the propeller exists .. Only for Only if the If the
counterrotati 'constant aeroplane
ng propeller speed has a large
propeller' angle of
mechanism attack.
is broken.
919 21
Pre-ignition refers to the condition that may arise when : the mixture a rich the sparking
is ignited mixture is plug ignites
before the ignited by the mixture
piston has the sparking too early.
reached top plugs.
dead centre.

920 21
In which sections of the carburettor would icing most likely occur? main air venturi and float
bleed and the throttle chamber
main valve and fuel inlet
discharge filter
nozzle
921 21
The maximum horsepower output which can be obtained from an maximum take-off critical
engine when it is operated at specified rpm and manifold pressure power. power. power.
conditons established as safe for continuous operation is termed :
922 21
 A fuel strainer when fitted to a carburettor will be positioned : upstream of between the between the
the needle needle valve metering jet
valve. and the and the
metering jet. discharge
nozzle.

923 21
The working cycle of a four-stroke engine is : compression induction, induction,
induction, compression compression
power, , expansion, , power,
exhaust. power. exhaust.

924 21
Specific fuel consumption is defined as the : maximum mass of fuel designed
fuel required to fuel
consumption produce unit consumption
of the power for for a given
aircraft. unit time. rpm.

925 21
In a piston engine, the purpose of an altitude mixture control is to : prevent a weaken the enrich the
weak cut mixture mixture
when the strength strength due
throttle is because of to
opened reduced decreased
rapidly at exhaust air density at
altitude. back altitude.
pressure at
altitude.

926 21
The purpose of an ignition switch is to : control the connect the connect the
primary secondary battery to
circuit of the coil to the the magneto
magneto distributor

927 21
Under normal running conditions a magneto draws primary current : from the directly from from the
booster coil. the aircraft aircraft
batteries. batteries via
an inverter.

928 21
On a normally aspirated aero-engine fitted with a fixed pitch propeller : in a descent manifold the propeller
at a fixed pressure setting is
throttle decreases constant at
setting as the all indicated
manifold aircraft airspeeds.
pressure will climbs at a
always fixed throttle
remain setting.
constant.

929 21
 The air in a piston engine turbo-supercharger centrifugal compressor : enters at the enters at a enters the
periphery tangent to eye of the
and leaves the rotor and impeller and
via the eye leaves via leaves at a
of the the stator. tangent to
impeller. the
periphery.

930 21
A piston engine compression ratio is the ratio of the : swept total volume clearance
volume to to the volume to
the clearance the swept
clearance volume. volume.
volume.
931 21
In computer technology, a storage peripheral is a: key board screen unit hard disk
932 21 drive
The advantages of a gaseous oxygen source for the passenger cabin 1, 3, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 4, 5
are :

1. a greater autonomy,
2. no risk of explosion,
3. reversible functioning,
4. easy storage and maintenance,
5. possibility to regulate flow.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

933 21
In modern aircraft, a pilot can actuate the feather system by : pulling the pushing the pushing the
RPM lever RPM lever power lever
backwards. forward. forward.

934 21
The crank assembly consists of propeller, Crankcase, crankshaft,
crankshaft, crankshaft, camshaft,
pistons and connecting valves, valve
connecting rods and springs and
rods. pistons. push rods.

935 21
Ignition systems of piston engines are : dependant dependant independant
on the DC- on the AC- from the
Generator. Generator. electrical
system of
the aircraft.
936 21
The purpose of the blow-in-doors at the air inlets is to: serve to provide the provide the
increase the engine with engine with
relative additional air additional air
velocity at at high at high
the first power power
compressor settings and settings at
stage. low air cruising
speeds. speed.
937 21
Skip distance is the: highest wavelength thickness of
critical distance of a the
frequency certain ionosphere
distance frequency

938 21
A radio signal looses strength as range from the transmitter increases, attenuation refraction propagation
939 21 this is called :
 On four-stroke piston engines, the theoretical valve and ignition settings compression piston engine
are readjusted in order to increase the: ratio displacemen r.p.m.
940 21 t
In a four-stroke piston engine, the only "driving" stroke is : intake compression exhaust
941 21
In an engine equipped with a float-type carburettor, the low temperature compression low volatility vaporization
that causes carburettor ice is normally the result of: of air at the of aviation of fuel and
carburettor fuel expansion of
venturi the air in the
carburettor

942 21
In computer technology, an input peripheral is a: keyboard screen unit hard disk
943 21 drive
The operating principle of float-type carburettors is based on the: automatic increase in measureme
metering of air velocity nt of the fuel
air at the in the throat flow into the
venturi as of a venturi induction
the aircraft causing an system
gains increase in
altitude air pressure

944 21
In computer technology, an EPROM is: 1,4 1,3 2,3

1. a read-only memory
2. a write memory
3. erases its content when power supply is cut off
4. keeps its content when power supply is cut off

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

945 21
On an aircraft, the Krueger flap is a: leading leading leading
edge flap edge flap edge flap
close to the close to the
wing root wing tip
946 21
The skip zone of HF-transmission will increase when the following Lower Higher Lower
change in circumstance occurs : frequency frequency frequency
ang higher and lower and lower
position of position of position of
the reflecting the reflecting the reflecting
ionospheric ionospheric ionospheric
layer layer layer

947 21
Fixed-pitch propellers are usually designed for maximum efficiency at : cruising idling full throttle
948 21 speed
If the ground wire between the magnetos and the ignition switch the engine a still the engine
becomes disconnected the most noticeable result will be that: cannot be operating cannot be
shut down engine will started with
by turning run down the ignition
the ignition switch in the
switch to the "ON"
"OFF" position
position
949 21
For internal cooling,reciprocating engines are especially dependent on: a properly a lean the
functioning fuel/air circulation of
thermostat mixture lubricating
oil

950 21
 The positions of the intake and exhaust valve at the end of the power exhaust intake valve both valves
stroke are : valve closed closed and open.
and intake exhaust
valve open. valve open.

951 21
The main purpose of the mixture control is to: adjust the decrease increase the
fuel flow to the air oxygen
obtain the supplied to supplied to
proper the engine the engine
fuel/air ratio
952 21
In twin-engine aeroplanes with right turning propellers the the right the left
'minimum engine is the engine is the
control critical critical
speed' is motor. motor.
determined
by the failure
of the right
engine.

953 21
In computer technology, an output peripheral is a: hard disk diskette screen unit
954 21 drive drive
The detection of a feeder fault on a direct current circuit results in: 1, 3, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 3, 4, 5
1. automatic disconnection of the generator from the aircraft AC busbar
2. opening of generator field current relay
3. opening of the main relay of the generator breaker
4. opening of balancing circuit connecting two generators
5. lighting of an indicator lamp
The combination of correct statements is:

955 21
A public transport aircraft has a cruising altitude of FL 390. It is fitted 12000 ft. 14000 ft. 15000 ft.
with individual oxygen masks for the passengers. In the event of
depressurisation, the masks must be automatically released before the
cabin pressure altitude exceeds:
956 21
Above what flight level must one pilot wear an oxygen mask at all times 490. 410. 300.
957 21 during commercial flight.
A diluter demand oxygen regulator : mixes air delivers delivers
and oxygen oxygen flow oxygen flow
in a when only above
passenger inhaling. FL 100.
oxygen
mask.
958 21
A jet aircraft is certified for the carriage of 120 passengers. 42 3 1 passenger no first aid
passenger are on board and the expected Flight Level on route Paris- passengers for the entire required.
Alger is FL 330. The first aid oxygen to be on board at departure shall for the entire flight after
provide breathing supply for at least: flight after cabin
cabin depressuriza
depressuriza tion at cabin
tion at cabin altitude of
altitude more than
between 8000 ft.
10000 and
14000 ft.

959 21
 As regards passengers oxygen in public transport aircraft, information the aircraft take-off. the aircraft
must be given to passengers through a demonstration. If a flight is to be reaches FL reaches FL
carried out at Flight Level FL 290, this demonstration must be 250. 100.
completed before :
960 21
In jet transport aircraft, breathing oxygen for the cockpit is stored in the gaseous. liquid. chemical.
961 21 following state:
The advantages of alternating current on board an aircraft are: 1, 2, 3, 5, 6 1, 4, 6 3, 4, 5, 6
1. simple connection
2. high starting torque
3. flexibility in use
4. lighter weight of equipment
5. easy to convert into direct current
6. easy maintenance of machines
The combination of correct statements is:
962 21
On board present aircraft, the batteries used are mainly Cadmium- 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 3, 4, 6, 7 3, 4, 5, 6
Nickel. Their advantages are:
1. low risk of thermal runaway
2. high internal resistance, hence higher power
3. good charging and discharging capability at high rating
4. wider permissible temperature range
5. good storage capability
6. sturdiness owing to its metal casing
7. the electrolyte density remains unchanged during charging.
The combination of correct statement is:

963 21
Shimmy occurs on the nosewheel landing gear during taxiing when: 2, 4. 2, 3. 1, 3.

1. the wheels tend to describe a sinusoidal motion on the ground

2. the wheels no longer respond to the pilot's actions

This effect is overcome by means of:

3. the torque link

4. an accumulator associated with the steering cylinder

The combination of correct statements is:

964 21
A feeder fault on a direct current circuit results from a flux unbalance voltage coil voltage coil generator
between the: and the and the and the
series series series
winding turn. winding. winding turn.

965 21
The fuselage of an aircraft consists, among others, of stringers whose assist the withstand provide
purpose is to: skin in the shear sound and
absorbing stresses. thermal
the isolation.
longitudinal
traction-
compression
stresses.

966 21
 When a persistent top excitation limit fault on an AC generator the exciter the tie the exciter
connected to the mains with another AC generator, the overexcitation breaker, the breaker. breaker and
protection device opens: generator the
breaker and generator
the tie breaker.
breaker.

967 21
When a persistent overexcitation fault is detected on only one AC tie breaker. generator exciter
generator, the protection device opens the : breaker and breaker and
tie breaker. generator
breaker.

968 21
When an underspeed fault is detected on an AC generator connected to exciter exciter exciter
the aircraft AC busbar, the protection device opens the: breaker. breaker and breaker,
generator generator
breaker. breaker and
tie breaker.

969 21
A DC generator fitted to a aircraft is cooled by : air tapped air via a ram water at 8
from the low air intake. degrees
pressure centrigade
compressor. from the air-
conditioning
system.
970 21
The voltage regulator of a DC generator is connected in : series with series with parallel with
the shunt the the shunt
field coil. armature. field coil.
971 21
On starting, in a brushless AC generator with no commutator rings, the the stabilizer the auxiliary a set of
generator is activated by: winding winding. permanent
jointly with magnets.
the voltage
regulator.

972 21
An impulse turbine is a turbine in which the expansion takes place: fully in the in the stator in order to
rotor. and in the produce a
rotor. degree of jet
propulsion <
1/2.

973 21
Landing gear torque links are used to: maintain the prevent take up the
compass rotation of lateral
heading the landing stresses to
throughout gear piston which the
taxiing and in the oleo gear is
take-off. strut. subjected.
974 21
The function of a fusible plug is to protect protect the protect the
against tyre against brake
excessive explosion against
pressure in due to brake disk
the excessive fusion due to
pneumatic temperature. excessive
system. temperature.

975 21
 On detection of a persistent overvoltage fault on an AC generator the exciter the exciter The
connected to the aircraft AC busbars, the on-board protection device breaker and breaker, the generator
opens: the generator breaker and
generator breaker and tie breaker.
breaker. tie breaker.

976 21
The high Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths: metric. hectometric. myriametric.
977 21
In a piston engine, turbocharger boost pressure may be monitored by : both a CHT both engine a manifold
gauge and rpm pressure
manifold readings gauge only.
pressure and a
gauge. manifold
pressure
gauge.

978 21
When a landing gear wheel is hydroplaning, its friction factor is equal to: 0.5 0 1
979 21
The minimum airborne equipment required for operation of a the VHF cathode-ray VHF VHF
direction finder is a: tube. transmitter- compass
receiver operating in
operating in the 200 kHz
the 118 MHz to 1750 kHz
to 136 MHz range.
range.
980 21
The secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) uses the following decimetric. centimetric. hectometric.
981 21 wavelengths:
The airborne weather radar uses the following wavelengths: centimetric. metric. hectometric.
982 21
The VHF Omnirange (VOR) uses the following wavelengths: metric. hectometric. decimetric.
983 21
The Instrument Landing System (ILS) uses the following wavelengths: metric. hectometric. decimetric.
984 21
The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) uses the following hectometric. metric. centimetric.
985 21 wavelengths:
The Fan Markers uses the following wavelengths: hectometric. myriametric. metric.
986 21
A public transport aircraft is operated at FL 390. The total number of seats seats. passengers.
oxygen dispensing units and outlets in the cabin must be at least the exceeded by
987 21 same as the total number of : 10%.
The Microwave Landing System (MLS) uses the following wavelengths: myriametric. centimetric. metric.
988 21
 Consider the flight deck oxygen supply system. The purpose of the 2, 3, 4, 5 3, 4, 5, 6 1, 2, 3, 4
oxygen regulator (as a function of demand and altitude) is to:

1. decrease oxygen pressure from 1800 PSI (in the bottles) down to
about 50-75 PSI (low pressure system)
2. supply pure oxygen
3. supply diluted oxygen
4. supply oxygen at normal pressure
5. supply oxygen at emergency/positive pressure
6. trigger the continuous cabin altitude warning at 10000 ft cabin altitude

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

989 21
The Low Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths: decimetric. metric. centimetric.
990 21
The Automatic Direction Finder uses the following wavelengths: decimetric. centimetric. hectometric
or kilometric.
991 21
A thermal circuit breaker: forbids any can be reset protects the
overcurrent. without any system in
danger even the event of
if the fault overheating,
remains. even without
exceeding
the
maximum
permissible
current.

992 21
The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) has its own AC generator which: must have supplies the is driven at
the same aircraft with constant
characteristi three-phase speed
cs as the 115-200 V, throught a
main AC 400 Hz AC. Constant
generator so Speed Drive
that it can be (CSD), in
easily the same
coupled with way as the
the latter. main AC
generator.

993 21
As regards the Generator Contol Unit (GCU) of an AC generator, it can 2, 3 3, 4 2, 4
be said that:

1. The GCU controls the AC generator voltage

2. Modern GCUs are provided with a permanent indication to record the
failure
3. All the commands originating from the control panel are applied via
the GCU, except dog clutch release
4. The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) provides the excitation of the AC
generator as soon as the APU starts up

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

994 21
995 21 Hydraulic fluids of synthetic origin are: purple. pink. blue.
 A magnetic circuit-breaker is: a protection permits an can be reset
system that overcurrent without any
has a quick limited in danger even
tripping time. when fault
response. remains.

996 21
A tubeless tyre is a tyre: 1, 5, 6. 3, 4, 5. 1, 2, 5.

1. which requires solid or branched wheels

2. whose valve can be sheared in sudden accelerations
3. whose mounting rim must be flawless
4. which requires no rim protection between rim flange and tire
removing device
5. which does not burst in the event of a tire puncture
6. which eliminates internal friction between the tube and the tire

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

997 21
The illumination of the green landing gear light indicates that the landing locked- in the locked-down
gear is : down. required and its door
position. is locked.
998 21
The VHF direction finder uses the following wavelengths: centimetric. metric. hectometric.
999 21
Oxygen systems are systems used on pressurized airplanes in : 1,4 1, 2, 4 3

1. an emergency in the case of depressurization.

2. an emergency in the case of the indisposition of a passenger.
3. normal use in order to supply oxygen to the cabin.
5. an emergency in the case of smoke or toxic gases.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1000 21
Which is (are) the damping element(s) in a landing gear shock absorber Springs. Nitrogen and Nitrogen.
used on larger aircraft ? a viscous
liquid.
1001 21
In some aircraft, there is a protection device to avoid the landing gear A bolt. A latch An aural
being inadvertently retracted on the ground. It consists of : located in warning
the landing horn.
gear lever.

1002 21
The function of the selector valve is to: select the automaticall discharge
system to y activate some
which the the hydraulic hydraulic
hydraulic system. fluid if the
pump should system
supply pressure is
pressure. too high.

1003 21
 The component that transforms the hydraulic pressure into a linear A hydraulic An A Pressure
motion is called ... pump. accumulator. regulator.
1004 21
The aircraft hydraulic system is designed to produce: small small high
pressure pressure pressure
and large and small and large
flow. flow. flow.
1005 21
A relay is : A switch An electrical An
specially energy electromagn
designed for conversion etically
AC circuits. unit. operated
switch.
1006 21
1007 21 The most widely used electrical frequency in aircraft is : 50 Hz. 60 Hz. 400 Hz.
Assume a constant speed DC generator providing a constant output maintain the decrease increase the
voltage. If the electrical load increases, the voltage regulator will : intensity of the intensity intensity of
the of the the
excitation excitation excitation
current current. current.
constant.
1008 21
A main landing gear is said to be "locked down" when: the actuating the the strut is
cylinder is at correspondi locked by an
the end of ng indicator overcentre
it's travel. lamp is mechanism.
amber.

1009 21
In flight, if the constant speed drive (CSD) temperature indicator is in pilot must pilot must pilot can
the red arc the: disconnect it disconnect disconnect it
and it, and the to allow it to
manually generator is cool and use
control the not available it again.
alternator. for the rest
of flight.

1010 21
Which of these signals are inputs, at least, in the stall warning Angle of Angle of Angle of
computers? attack and attack, flaps attack, flaps
flaps and deflection deflection,
spoilers and EPR. EPR and
deflection. N1.

1011 21
Modern pressurized transport airplanes are equipped with : two oxygen only portable two
systems oxygen independent
both bottles. oxygen
supplying systems,
the cockpit one
and the supplying
cabin. the cockpit,
the other the
cabin.

1012 21
When selected to normal, the oxygen proportion of the air/oxygen is constant is 100 %. increases
mixture supplied by the cockpit oxygen system regulator: whatever the when the
altitude. altitude
increases.
1013 21
In the cabin, when the oxygen mask is pulled downwards, the a mixture of pure oxygen pure oxygen
passenger breathes : oxygen and under at the
cabin air. pressure. ambient
pressure.
1014 21
 Chemical oxygen generators are used to furnish oxygen to the : cockpit only. toilets only. cabin only.
1015 21
1016 21 The chemical oxygen generator supplies oxygen for about : 30 minutes. 2 hours. 5 minutes.
The advantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin 2, 3, 5 1, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 4, 6
are :

1. reduced weight and volume,

2. easy storage and maintenance,
3. greater autonomy,
4. no risk of explosion,
5. reversible functioning,
6. no maintenance.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1017 21
The disadvantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger 2, 4 1, 2, 3, 5 1, 3, 5
cabin are :

1. a flow which cannot be modulated,

2. a heavy and bulky system,
3. non reversible functioning,
4. risks of explosion,
5. poor autonomy.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1018 21
The state in which the breathing oxygen for the cockpit of jet transport Gaseous or Gaseous. Chemical
aeroplanes is stored is : chemical compound.
1019 21 compound..
The wavelength of a non-directional beacon (NDB) at a frequency of 10 metres. 1 metre. 1000
1020 21 300 kHz is: metres.
The so-called "hot buses" or "direct buses" are: directly kept in automaticall
connected to operating y connected
the battery. conditions to the
by an battery if
electrical generators
resistance in have failed.
the case of
energy
failure.

1021 21
The purpose of static wick dischargers is to : be able to fly dissipate dissipate
higher static charge static charge
because of of the from the
less aircraft aircraft skin
electrical inflight thus after
friction. avoiding landing.
radio
interference
as a result of
static
electricity.

1022 21
 A tubeless tyre has : 2, 3. 1,3. 2, 4.

1- a built-in-air tube.
2- no built-in-air tube.
3- a crossed side casing.
4- a radial side casing.

The combination of correct statements is:

1023 21
(For this question use annex 021-4008A) impossible possible with impossible
Reference should be made to the fuel sypply system shown in annex. without "CROSSFE because
In flight, with center tank empty and APU operating, a fuel unbalance is causing the ED" open there is no
detected (quantity in tank 1 < quantity in tank 2). APU stop. and tank 2 fuel in center
Rebalancing of the two tanks is: pumps tank.
"OFF".

1024 21
An aircraft with a pressurized cabin is settled at its cruise level. A descent The aircraft The crew
During the flight, a malfunction of the pressure controller is detected by must be has to climb has to
the crew and the cabin rate of climb indicator reads -200ft/min. initiated to to a higher intermittently
Given that : prevent the flight level in cut off the
DELTA P: Differential pressure oxygen order to incoming air
Zc: Cabin altitude masks reduce Zc to flow in order
dropping its initial to maintain a
when Zc value. zero Zc.
reaches
14000ft.

1025 21
In a hydraulic braking system, the accumulator is: an a damping designed to
accumulator type take up the
designed to accumulator hydraulic
restore designed to energy
brake take up the filtered by
energy in pressure the anti-skid
the event of fluctuations system in
a hydraulic of the order to
failure. automatic prevent
braking wheel
system. blocking.

1026 21
An aircraft with a pressurized cabin flies at level 310. VZc VZc VZc
Following a malfunction of the pressure controller, the outflow valve increase decrease increase
runs to the open position. Given : Zc increase Zc increase Zc increase
DELTA P DELTA P DELTA P
VZc: Cabin rate of climb indication decrease decrease increase
Zc: Cabin pressure altitude
DELTA P: Differential pressure

This will result in a:

1027 21
 Consider a jet engine whose control is based on the Engine Pressure 2, 3, 4. 3, 4, 5. 1, 5.
Ratio (EPR):

1. with a constant EPR, the thrust decreases when the altitude

increases
2. with a constant EPR, the thrust is independent of the Mach number
3. At same environmental conditions, a given EPR setting maintains the
thrust irrespective of engine wear due to ageing.
4. the EPR is determined by the impact pressure difference between the
turbine outlet and the compressor inlet
5. on take-off, in the event of icing not detected by the crew, the
indicated EPR is lower than the real EPR

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1028 21
Consider the variable-pitch propeller of a turbo-prop. when at zero when
During deceleration : braking, the power, the feathered,
propeller propeller the propeller
supplies thrust is zero produces
negative and the thrust and
thrust and engine absorbs no
absorbs power engine
engine absorbed is power.
power. nil.

1029 21
The water separator of an air-conditioning unit is located at the cooling outlet and inlet and outlet and
unit : uses a uses a uses an
centrifugal centrifugal evaporation
process. process. process.
1030 21
Among the different types of aircraft structures, the shell structures 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 4 1, 3, 4
efficiently transmit the:

1. normal bending stresses

2. tangent bending stresses
3. torsional moment
4. shear stresses

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1031 21
In a steep turn to the left, when using spoilers ... The right The right The right
aileron will aileron will aileron will
ascend, the descend, the descend, the
left one will left one will left one will
descend, the ascend, the ascend, the
right spoiler right spoiler right spoiler
will retract will retract will extend
and the left and the left and the left
one will one will one will
extend. extend. retract.

1032 21
 The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer 1, 3. 1, 2, 4. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
whose input data is:

1. idle wheel speed (measured)

2. braked wheel speed (measured)
3. brake temperature (measured)
4. desired idle wheel train slipping rate
5. tire pressure

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1033 21
A Yaw Damper is : A rudder An elevator An elevator
damper augmentor. augmentor
designed to to avoid the
avoid the nose-down
"Dutch roll". effect at
speeds
greater than
M=0.8.
1034 21
The type of windings commonly used in DC starter motors are : series shunt series shunt
wound. wound. wound.
1035 21
The output of a generator is controlled by : varying the the reverse varying the
length of current relay field
wire in the circuit strength.
armature breaker.
windings.
1036 21
Fuses are rated to a value by : their their the number
wattage. resistance of amperes
measured in they will
ohms. carry.
1037 21
A relay is : a unit which a device a
is used to which is magnetically
convert used to operated
electrical increase switch.
energy to electrical
heat energy. power.

1038 21
1039 21 The voltage of a fully charged lead-acid battery cell is : 1,8 volts. 1,2 volts. 2,2 volts.
Batteries are rated in : Amperes.ho Amperes/vol Watts.
1040 21 urs. ts.
It may be determined that an aircraft is not properly bonded if : there is static noises a circuit
heavy can be breaker
corrosion on heard on the pops out.
the fuselage radio.
skin
mountings.

1041 21
 In the response curve of an amplifier, the bandwidth is: The The The
frequency frequency frequency
band band band
correspondi correspondi correspondi
ng to ng to ng to
maximum maximum maximum
gain less 20 gain, gain less 3
decibels. increased by decibels.
10 kHz at
each end.

1042 21
A smoke mask is a : continuous mask with continuous
flow mask flow on flow mask
and covers request and and covers
the whole covers only only the
face. the nose nose and
and the the mouth.
mouth.
1043 21
On a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure elements which the ribs. the webs. the skin.
1044 21 take up the vertical bending moments Mx are:
On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre: will have an will be more will wear at
increased subject to the
critical viscosity shoulders
hydroplanni aquaplaning
ng speed on dry
runway

1045 21
When the magneto selector switch is set to "OFF" position, the piston A wire from There are On a
engine continues to run normally. the magneto local hot magneto, a
The most probable cause of this failure is that: is in contact points in the grounding
with a engine wire is
metallic part (probably broken.
of the due to
engine. overheating
of the
cylinder
heads).

1046 21
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration 6 hand fire- 5 hand fire- 7 hand fire-
is 501 to 600 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher
s s s
conveniently conveniently conveniently
located in located in located in
the the the
passenger passenger passenger
compartmen compartmen compartmen
t. t. t.

1047 21
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration 7 hand fire- 6 hand fire- 8 hand fire-
is greater than 600 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher
s s s
conveniently conveniently conveniently
located in located in located in
the the the
passenger passenger passenger
compartmen compartmen compartmen
t. t. t.

1048 21
 An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration 3 HALON 2 HALON 4 HALON
is greater than 60 seats must be equipped with at least: 1211 fire- 1211 fire- 1211 fire-
extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher
s. s. s.
1049 21
Evacuation slide inflation is ensured by : a the aircraft's a manual
pressurized general pump, used
gas canister pneumatic when
combined circuit. needed by
with the the cabin
slide itself. crew.

1050 21
Airliners are equipped with oxygen systems. It can be said that : the same the seals the
circuit is must be passenger
used by the carefully circuit never
crew and the greased to uses
passengers. avoid chemically
sparks. generated
oxygen.

1051 21
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration 3 hand fire- 2 hand fire- 4 hand fire-
is 61 to 200 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher
s s s
conveniently conveniently conveniently
located in located in located in
the the the
passenger passenger passenger
compartmen compartmen compartmen
t. t. t.

1052 21
An oxygen regulator has 3 controls : the "O2" with the the power
lever on ON EMERGENC lever on ON,
- a power lever : ON/OFF enables Y lever on and, the
- an "O2" lever : NORMAL/100% breathing of OFF, in an "O2" lever
- an emergency lever : ON/OFF the over- emergency on NORMAL
pressure situation, allows the
Among the following statements, the correct proposition is : oxygen at a one cannot oxygen to
constant use the enter the
flow rate. oxygen regulator
mask to and enables
breathe. breathing of
a mixture of
air/oxygen
according to
altitude.

1053 21
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration 3 hand fire- 4 hand fire- 5 hand fire-
is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher
s s s
conveniently conveniently conveniently
located in located in located in
the the the
passenger passenger passenger
compartmen compartmen compartmen
t. t. t.

1054 21
 In a turbo-jet, the purpose of the turbine is to ... compress drive drive the
the air in devices like compressor
order to pumps, by using part
provide a regulator, of the
better generator. energy from
charge of the exhaust
the gases
combustion
chamber

1055 21
The pitch angle of a propeller is the angle between the : reference propeller propeller
chord line reference reference
and the chord line chord line
propeller and the and the
plane of relative extremity of
rotation. airflow. the
propeller.
1056 21
A scissor is a component found on landing gears. Its function is to : make the prevent any create the
body gears rotation of wheel pitch
pivot when the oleo on bogie
the strut in the gears.
nosewheel undercarriag
is turned e shock
through absorber.
more than
20°.

1057 21
For an aeroplane hydraulic supply circuit, the correct statement is : the the reservoir the security
regulation constitutes a components
system reserve of comprise the
deals only hydraulic filters, the
with fluid pressure
emergency maintained relief valves,
operation under the by-
and is not pressure by passes, and
applied to all a pneumatic the fire shut-
hydraulic back off valve.
services but pressure (air
only those or nitrogen)
considered and destined
as essential. to serve as a
fluid or
pressure
reserve.

1058 21
When in flight, a piston engine is stopped and the propeller blade pitch feathered. windmilling. transparent.
1059 21 angle is near 90°, the propeller is said to be...
A public transport passengers aircraft, with a seating configuration of 1 halon fire- 3 halon fire- no halon
more than 61 seats, must have in its passenger compartment(s), at extinguisher. extinguisher fire-
least 3 portable fire-extinguishers including: s. extinguisher.
1060 21
 In very cold weather, the pilot notices during startup, a slightly higher is normal, if is abnormal is abnormal
than normal oil pressure. it decreases and requires but does not
This higher pressure : after startup. the engine require the
to be shut engine to be
down. shut down.

1061 21
On a modern aeroplane, to avoid the risk of tyre burst from overheating, a hollow bolt a pressure the
due for example to prolonged braking during an aborted take-off, there screwed into relief valve "Emergency
is: the wheel situated in Burst"
which melts the filler function of
at a given valve. the anti-skid
temperature system
(thermal which
fuse) and adapts
deflates the braking to
tyre. the tyre
temperature.

1062 21
The indication of the fire detection systems is performed by a: warning light warning bell. warning
and a light.
warning bell
(or aural
alert).
1063 21
The purpose of a battery protection unit is generally to isolate the 1 - 2 -3 1-2 1 - 2 - 3 -4
battery:

1 - from the bus when the battery charge is deemed satisfactory

2 - when there is a battery overheat condition
3 - in case of an internal short circuit
4 - in case of a fault on the ground power unit

The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :

1064 21
On an aeroplane, spoilers are : upper wing lower wing upper wing
surface surface surface
devices, devices, devices,
their their their
deflection is deflection is deflection is
always always symmetrical
asymmetrica asymmetrica or
l. l. asymmetrica
l.

1065 21
The disadvantages of axial flow compressors compared to centrifugal 2-3 2-4 1-3
flow compressors are :

1 - expensive to manufacture
2 - limited airflow
3 - greater vulnerability to foreign object damage
4 - limited compression ratio

The combination of correct answers is :

1066 21
On an airplane, the Krueger flaps are: leading leading trailing edge
edge flaps edge flaps flaps close
close to the close to the to the wing
wing tip wing root root
1067 21
 When a bimetallic strip is used as a switch in a fire detection loop, a fire delay the wait for the avoid false
alarm is triggered after a delay. The purpose of this delay is to: triggering of triggering of alarms in
the fire the second case of
extinguinshe fire detection vibrations
rs and loop in order
increase to confirm
their the fire
efficiency

1068 21
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration 6 hand fire- 3 hand fire- 5 hand fire-
is 301 to 400 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher
s s s
conveniently conveniently conveniently
located in located in located in
the the the
passenger passenger passenger
compartmen compartmen compartmen
t. t. t.

1069 21
Compared to a tyre fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless tyre presents 2-3 2-4 1-2-3-4
the following characteristics :

1 - high heating
2 - valve fragility
3 - lower risk of bursting
4 - better adjustment to wheels

The combination containing all the correct statements is:

1070 21
On a a normally aspirated engine (non turbo-charged), the manifold a value a lower a greater
pressure gauge always indicates... equal to the value than value than
QFE when atmospheric atmospheric
the engine is pressure pressure
at full power when the when the
on the engine is engine is
ground. running. running.
1071 21
A stage in an axial compressor: is made of has a is made of a
row of stator compression rotor disc
blades ration in the followed by
followed by order of 0.8 a row of
a rotor disc stator blades

1072 21
For a fan jet engine, the by-pass ratio is the: external internal internal
airflow mass airflow mass airflow mass
divided by divided by divided by
the internal the external the fuelflow
airflow mass airflow mass mass

1073 21
The low pressure switch of a hydraulic circuit sets off an alarm if : the pump the reservoir there is a
output level is at leak in the
pressure is the normal reservoir
insufficient. operation return line.
limit.

1074 21
 (For this question use annex 021-10164A) the C2 and the C1 and the C1 and
The smoke detection in the aircraft cargo compartments is carried out C4 sensors C2 sensors C3 sensors
by four sensors: C1, C2, C3 and C4. detect detect detect
They are associated with the logic circuit as described in the annex. smoke. smoke. smoke.
The repeating bell is activated when:

1075 21
Concerning the sequential pneumatic impulses used in certain leading 2-4 1-3 1-4
edge de-icing devices, one can affirm that :

1 - They prevent ice formation.

2 - They are triggered from the flight deck after icing has become
visible.
3 - A cycle lasts more than ten seconds.
4 - There are more than ten cycles per second.

The combination which regroups all the correct statements is :

1076 21
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration 2 hand fire- 3 hand fire- 4 hand fire-
is 7 to 30 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher
s s s
conveniently conveniently conveniently
located in located in located in
the the the
passenger passenger passenger
compartmen compartmen compartmen
t. t. t.

1077 21
In the pneumatic supply system of a modern transport aircraft, the air low high
pressure is regulated. This pressure regulation occurs just before the intermediate pressure pressure
manifold by the : pressure bleed air bleed air
check-valve valve valve

1078 21
Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a multi-engine aircraft are: centrifugal high centrifugal
high pressure low pressure
pressure variable type pumps.
pumps. swash plate
pumps.

1079 21
During a power change on an engine equipped with a constant speed high low manifold high
propeller, a wrong combination of manifold pressure and RPM values manifold pressure manifold
results in excessive pressures in the cylinders. This is the case when pressure and low pressure
one simultaneously selects a ... and high RPM. and low
RPM. RPM.
1080 21
The thrust of a turbo-jet, at the selection of full power : 4 1-3 1-2

1 - equals the product of the exhaust gas mass flow and the exhaust
gas velocity
2 - is obtained by pressure of the exhaust gas on the ambient air
3 - is equivalent to zero mechanical power since the aeroplane is not
moving
4 - is independant of the outside air temperature

The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :

1081 21
 The use of igniters is necessary on a turbo-jet: 3-4-5-6 3 2-3-4

1 - throughout the operating range of the engine

2 - for accelerations
3 - for ground starts
4 - for in-flight relights
5 - during turbulence in flight
6 - under heavy precipitation or in icing conditions

The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :

1082 21
Spark plug fouling is more likely to happen if : the aircraft power is the engine
descends increased runs at the
without a too abruptly. authorized
mixture maximum
adjustment. continuous
power for
too long.
1083 21
"Vapor lock" is the phenomenon by which: abrupt and burnt gas heat
abnormal plugs produces
enrichment forming and vapour plugs
of the remaining in in the fuel
fuel/air the exhaust line.
mixture manifold
following an following an
inappropriat overheat
e use of and thereby
carburettor disturbing
heat. the exhaust.

1084 21
The tanks of a hydraulic system are pressurized: in flight only. by the air by an
conditioning auxiliary
system. system.

1085 21
The installation and use of on-board oxygen generators is such that: 2-3 2-4 1-3

1 - the smoking ban is imperative when used

2 - in case of accidental drop of the "continuous flow" passenger masks,
no crew action is required
3 - no trace of grease must be found in the system assembly
4 - the system's filling adaptors must be greased with non freezable or
graphite grease

The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :

1086 21
 The cross-feed fuel system enables: the supply of the supply of the supply of
any jet the jet the outboard
engine from engines jet engines
any fuel mounted on from any
tank. a wing from outboard
any fuel tank fuel tank.
within that
wing.

1087 21
In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be set emergency. on demand. 100%
1088 21 to:
(For this question use appendix ) 1- cantilever 1- half-fork 1- cantilever
2- dual 2- single 2- fork 3-
Associate the correct legend to each of the numbered diagrams : wheels 3- trace 3- half fork 4-
half fork 4- cantilever dual wheels
fork 4- dual
wheels
1089 21
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, during and following an emergency 1,4. 1, 2, 3 et 4. 1, 2.
descent, each occupant of the cockpit seats on duty must have access
to a minimum amount of oxygen in:

1. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the
cabin altitude pressure is greater than 13000 ft.
2. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the
cabin altitude pressure is greater than 10000 ft and smaller than 13000
ft minus 30 minutes.
3. no case less than 30 minutes for airplanes certified to fly up to 25000
ft.
4. no case less than 2 hours for airplanes certified to fly at over 25000
ft.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1090 21
The connection in parallel of two 12 volt/ 40 amphours batteries, will 12 volt / 40 24 volt / 80 24 volt / 40
1091 21 create a unit with the following characteristics; amp hours amp hours amp hours
The global output of a piston engine is of: 0.50 0.75 0.90
(global output = Thermal energy corresponding to the available
1092 21 shaft/power over the total thermal energy produced).
For a piston engine, the ideal fuel/air mixture corresponding to a 1/9 th 1/10th 1/12th
richness of 1 is obtained for a weight ratio of:
1093 21
(For this question use appendix ) 1 2 3

On the attached diagram showing the power output of a piston engine

as a function of mixture richness, best economy is at the point marked:

1094 21
 In a piston engine, magnetos are used to produce the spark which accumulatin creating a breaking the
ignites the fuel/air mixture. The operating principle of magnetos consists g in a brief high primary
in : condenser a intensity current in
low volt magnetic order to
current from field which induce a low
the battery, will be sent amp high
reconstitute through the volt current
it as high distributor at which is
voltage the distributed to
current at appropriate the spark
the moment time. plugs.
the spark is
generated.

1095 21
From the cruise, with all the parameters correctly set, if the altitude is remain the increase or increase
reduced, to maintain the same mixture the fuel flow should: same decrease,
depending
on the
engine type
1096 21
The richness of a fuel/air mixture ratio is the : mass of fuel volume of volume of
relative to fuel relative fuel relative
the volume to the to the mass
of air. volume of of the
air. volume of
air.
1097 21
The frequency of the current provided by an alternator depends on... its phase its rotation the strength
balance speed of the
excitation
current

1098 21
The advantage of mounting the tailplane on top of the vertical stabilizer to decrease to withdraw to a have
is : fuel it from the greater
consumption influence of effectivenes
by creating a wing s at high
tail heavy turbulence speed
situation

1099 21
The resistors R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The value of the Req = R1 + Req = R1 x 1/Req = 1/
equivalent resistance (Req) so obtained is given by the following R2 R2 (R1 + R2)
1100 21 formula:
The function of the Generator Breaker is to close when the voltage of battery is generator is battery is
the : greater than greater than greater than
the battery the
alternator voltage and generator
voltage and to open voltage and
to open when the to open
when the opposite is when the
opposite is true opposite is
true true

1101 21
Using compressor bleed air to power systems: has no increases is limited to
influence on aircraft the phases
aircraft performance of take-off
performance and landing

1102 21
 The control of free turbine engines on turboprops, is accomplished by: 3-4-6 2-4-5 1-5-6

- a propeller control lever used to select:

1 - propeller RPM
2 - turbine temperature
3 - turbine RPM

- a fuel control lever used to select:

4 - propeller RPM
5 - torque
6 - turbine temperature

The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :

1103 21
With a piston engine, when detonation is recognised, you: Reduce Reduce Increase
manifold manifold manifold
pressure pressure pressure
and enrich and lean the and enrich
the mixture mixture the mixture
1104 21
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration 3 hand fire- 5 hand fire- 6 hand fire-
is 201 to 300 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher
s s s
conveniently conveniently conveniently
located in located in located in
the the the
passenger passenger passenger
compartmen compartmen compartmen
t. t. t.

1105 21
With engine fire alarm activated, the extinguisher discharge: is automatic is automatic does not
and after a delay need the
immediate to allow the engine to be
pilot to stop stopped
the engine

1106 21
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an airplane whose maximum take-off crash axe in crow-bar in crash axe or
mass exceeds 5 700 kg or whose maximum approved passenger the cockpit the cockpit a crow-bar
seating configuration is greater than 9 seats and smaller than 200 and a crow- and a crash in the pilot
seats must be equipped with a: bar in the axe in the compartmen
passenger passenger t.
compartmen compartmen
t. t.

1107 21
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an airplane must be equipped with 1,86 m. 1,89 m. 1,83 m.
equipment or systems at each emergency exit that allow to reach the
ground safely in the case of an emergency when the sill height of the
passenger emergency exit is higher than:
1108 21
The main feature of BCF fire extinguishers is that they : are highly act as flame use the
corrosive inhibitors by cooling
particularly absorbing effect
for the air's created by
aluminium oxygen. the venturi
alloys. during
discharge.
1109 21
 In the propagation of MF waves, the phenomenon of FADING is at night, due by day, due at night and
particularly found : to the to the when
combination combination raining.
of the sky of sky and
and ground ground
waves. waves.
1110 21
(Use the appendix to answer this question) free turbine free turbine single shaft
and and axial turbine and
The gas turbine illustrated is of the following type: centrifugal compressor centrifugal
compressor compressor

1111 21
A piston engine may use a fuel of a different grade than the provided never provided
recommended: that the that it is an
grade is aeronautical
lower petrol
1112 21
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration 5 hand fire- 7 hand fire- 8 hand fire-
is 401 to 500 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher
s s s
conveniently conveniently conveniently
located in located in located in
the the the
passenger passenger passenger
compartmen compartmen compartmen
t. t. t.

1113 21
The portable emergency beacons which are used after an emergency 12 h 72 h 48 h
1114 21 landing or ditching have a duration of :
The pyrotechnic means used in case of an emergency to indicate your and a smoke which is and a smoke
position to the emergency teams are a flare: device which used at device which
are only daytime and are only
used at a smoke used in the
night. device which daytime.
is used at
night.

1115 21
The correct statement about rain protection for cockpit windshields is the alcohol rain wipers are
that : de-icing repellent sufficient
system for should never under heavy
cockpit be sprayed rain
windows is onto the conditions to
also suitable windshield provide
for rain unless the adequate
protection rainfall is view through
very heavy the cockpit
windows.

1116 21
ICS, POWERPLANT, EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT- AEROPLANES

0 0 0 1
90 seconds

0 0 1 0
2

0 1 0 0
directly
maintain a
constant
proportion
between the
rpm of an
engine and
a generator.

0 1 0 0
one fire-
extinguisher
in the
cockpit and
three fire-
extinguisher
s in the
passenger
cabin.

0 0 0 1
3
0 1 0 0
2, 3

0 0 0 1
immediately
on ditching.

0 1 0 0
2
megaphone
s if there are
more than
31
passengers
on board.
0 1 0 0
provide the
flight crew
with
respiratory
assistance
after
depressuriza
tion.

1 0 0 0
the oxygen
supplied to
the airplane
occupants in
case of
accidental
depressuriza
tion.
0 0 0 1
to be used
only at night.

1 0 0 0
at the entry
to the
exhaust unit.

1 0 0 0
the
discharge of
fire
extinguisher
bottle n°1
and
illumination
of the
DISCH
indicator
lamp of
agent n°1 on
engine no.
and DISCH
indicator
lamp of
agent n°2 on
engine n°1

0 1 0 0
1,3,4,5

0 0 0 1
continuous
flow mask
and cannot
be used if
there is
smoke in the
cabin.

0 0 0 1
water.
0 1 0 0
5 manual-
fire
extinguisher
s in the
passenger
cabin.
0 0 1 0
these
substances
catch fire
spontaneous
ly in the
presence of
oxygen
under
pressure.

0 0 0 1
2, 3, 4, 6

0 1 0 0
1, 2

0 0 0 1
2,5

0 1 0 0
magnetic
1 0 0 0
at any
isolated
point of the
loops or else
generally on
all the loops

0 0 0 1
an increase
in resistance

0 0 1 0
the jack will
move to the
right due to
equal
pressure
acting on
differential
areas.

1 0 0 0
allows two
units to be
operated by
one
pressure
source.
0 1 0 0
an
accumulator.
0 1 0 0
nose wheel
steering
after the
aeroplane
has landed.

0 0 1 0
decrease by
5 %.

0 1 0 0
gradual
circumferenti
al increase
of tyre wear.

1 0 0 0
ensure the
input signal
is DC only.

0 1 0 0
overspeed
and high oil
temperature
only.

0 1 0 0
initially
increase
with system
pressurisatio
n.

0 1 0 0
camshaft
0 1 0 0
using an
engine with
a low
compression
ratio

0 1 0 0
normal

1 0 0 0
a mixture
control

1 0 0 0
in the return
line to the oil
tank after
the oil has
passed
through the
scavenge
pump

0 0 0 1
high engine
rpm

0 0 1 0
a single
warning light
but a
separate
alarm bell
for each
engine

0 0 1 0
may form at
OAT's higher
than +10°C.

0 0 0 1
air
conditioning
and
electrical
services (on
the ground)
electrical
and
hydraulic
back-up
services (in
the air).

1 0 0 0
rotor. 0 0 0 1
position of
the outflow
valve(s).
0 0 0 1
the
difference
between the
altitude
selected on
the cabin
pressure
controller
and the
aeroplane
altitude.

0 0 1 0
1 N.

1 0 0 0
2500 psi.

0 0 1 0
an increased
fluid
pressure.

1 0 0 0
the brake
actuators.

1 0 0 0
2000 psi.

0 0 1 0
the amount
of free
movement
of the nose
wheel before
steering
takes effect.

0 1 0 0
increase
pressure
surges
within the
system.
0 0 1 0
means by
which
pressurisatio
n is
controlled.
0 1 0 0
passed
across an
expansion
turbine, then
directly to
the heat
exchanger.

0 1 0 0
has the
ability to
maintain a
constant
cabin
differential
pressure at
all flight
altitudes.

0 1 0 0
pressurisatio
n duct relief
valve(s).

0 0 1 0
a constant
mass air
flow is
permitted
through the
cabin.

0 0 0 1
a rate of
descent
dependent
upon the
cabin
differential
pressure.
1 0 0 0
faster the
engine
functions,
the more
retarded the
spark is.

1 0 0 0
Aircraft must
be more
than 10
metres from
radar or HF
radio
equipment
under test.

1 0 0 0
60 life
jackets, two
30-seat life
boats

1 0 0 0
electro-
magnetic
action of
operating
magneto.
1 0 0 0
 Because
there are
two trim
motors.

0 1 0 0
the cabin
pressure
would
become
equal to the
ambient
outside air
pressure
0 0 1 0
pump the
conditioned
air into the
cabin.

1 0 0 0
prevent
cavitation in
the pump
0 0 0 1
is generally
not applied
on slides.

1 0 0 0
2,4

1 0 0 0
free exits in
case of
evacuation
via the
sides.

0 0 1 0
 (1) not
suitable for
high
currents, (2)
suitable for
high
currents.fus
e circuit
breaker

0 1 0 0
Gear down
selection

0 1 0 0
30 minutes.

0 0 1 0
plus 10 %.

0 0 1 0
10000 ft.

0 0 0 1
15000 ft.

1 0 0 0
10000 ft but
not
exceeding
13000 ft.

1 0 0 0
passengers
by 10 %.
0 0 1 0
a continuous
flow system

0 0 0 1
1,2,4,5

0 0 0 1
combustion
chamber
pressure to
compressor
inlet
pressure.
0 1 0 0
"inhibited" or
"negated"
gate.
1 0 0 0
intensify
current in
secondary
winding

0 0 0 1
reduces
magneto
speed
during
engine
warm-up

0 0 1 0
switch wire
grounded

0 0 1 0
will not
operate at
the right
magneto

0 1 0 0
providing a
retarded
spark for
engine
starting.
0 0 0 1
too small
scavenger
pump. 1 0 0 0
 firmly
pulling the
cover behind
which the
oxygen
mask is
stowed.

0 1 0 0
equal AC
voltage from
all
generators.

1 0 0 0
opening the
secondary
circuit
0 1 0 0
in that case
some fuel
tanks remain
empty
during the
whole flight,
which
stresses the
aeroplane's
structure in
an
unacceptabl
e way

1 0 0 0
the system
is always
armed 1 0 0 0
the oil
supplies the
damping
function and
the nitrogen
supplies the
spring
function

0 0 0 1
the oxygen
masks are
automaticall
y presented
to cabin
crew
members
and
passengers

0 0 0 1
Temporarily
or
permanent
switching off
of certain
electric
users to
avoid
overload of
electric
generators

0 0 0 1
Nitrogen
1 0 0 0
ventilate the
tank during
refuelling
under high
pressure

1 0 0 0
an inverter.

0 0 0 1
the pressure
drops across
the nozzle
guide vanes
and remains
constant
across the
rotor
blades .

0 0 0 1
compressor
and turbine
mounted on
a common
shaft.

0 0 0 1
less than
turbine rpm.
1 0 0 0
temperature
increases.
1 0 0 0
will enable
the
generators
to supply
bus-bar
voltage.
1 0 0 0
ensure that
the
maximum
acceptable
temperature
at the
turbine
blades is not
exceeded.

0 0 0 1
the resultant
of
aerodynamic
and
centrifugal
forces.
0 0 0 1
had any
moisture
removed
from it.

0 0 1 0
reduce the
likelihood of
compressor
stall.

0 0 0 1
distributor
arm aligning
with one of
the high
tension
segments.
0 0 1 0
single pole
circuit.
0 0 0 1
internal
resistance. 1 0 0 0
checking the
level of the
electrolyte.

0 0 1 0
component
will operate
normally, but
will not
switch off.

0 1 0 0
the
synchronous
bus-bar.

1 0 0 0
parallel, so
that isolation
of loads
decreases
the bus-bar
voltage.

0 1 0 0
one
generator
comes "on-
line" before
the other.

1 0 0 0
EPR
remains
constant and
EGT
increases.
1 0 0 0
the reverser
doors are
unlocked.

0 0 0 1
user
requires 100
percent
oxygen

0 1 0 0
velocity,
pressure
and
temperature
rise.
0 1 0 0
the low
pressure
turbine.

0 0 0 1
air leaving
the
compressor
by the
opening or
closing of
bleed
valves.
0 1 0 0
the air
enters the
compressor
via the input
turbine.

0 1 0 0
the lesser
part of the
thrust. 0 1 0 0
will be
unchanged.

0 0 1 0
an hydraulic
motor.

0 1 0 0
failure of the
fuel to ignite
in the
starting
sequence
after the
engine has
been
accelerated
to the
required rpm
by the
starter.

1 0 0 0
difference
between the
pressure
pump
pressure
and the
scavenge
pump
pressure.

0 0 1 0
Fire fighting
system

1 0 0 0
diameter of
the bore to
the piston
stroke.

0 0 1 0
carburettor.
0 0 1 0
prevent
enrichment
of the
mixture due
to high air
velocity
through the
carburettor.

0 0 1 0
varying the
fuel supply
to the main
discharge
tube.

0 0 0 1
secondary
current to
the
condenser.

0 1 0 0
field strength
and the
speed of the
rotor.

0 1 0 0
cool both the
oil and the
fuel. 0 1 0 0
power in the
circuit is
inversely
proportional
to the
square of
the current.

0 1 0 0
a contactor.
0 1 0 0
must be in
opposition.

0 1 0 0
frequency
and
amperage. 1 0 0 0
volts and
kilowatts.
0 1 0 0
output
frequency is
too high.

0 0 1 0
be zero.
0 0 1 0
monitoring
the kVAR of
each
generator/alt
ernator.

1 0 0 0
does not
need a
voltage
controller
since the
CSD will
ensure
constant
voltage.

0 0 1 0
the AC bus
via current
limiters.
1 0 0 0
low oil
temperature
and low oil
quantity.

1 0 0 0
electrolyte to
"boil".

1 0 0 0
indicates a
generator
failure, thus
requiring the
engine to be
shut down
immediately.

0 1 0 0
used in AC
and DC
circuits. 0 0 0 1
is free from
the normal
CB tripping
characteristi
c.

0 0 1 0
vary the
engine rpm
(within
limits) to
compensate
for various
AC loads.

0 0 1 0
number of
individual
poles and
the field
strength.

0 0 1 0
controlling
the
generator
field current.

0 1 0 0
static
inverter.

0 0 1 0
12 volts, 40
ampere-
hours. 0 0 1 0
reduce
pressure in
the oxygen
reservoir to
a suitable
manifold
pressure for
the regulator

0 0 1 0
must be
120° out of
phase. 0 1 0 0
the matching
of loads is
unimportant.

0 0 1 0
a device
permitting
operation of
two or more
switches
together.

0 0 1 0
illumination
of the CSD
disconnect
warning
light.

0 1 0 0
may be
reset in flight
using the
reset
mechanism.

0 0 1 0
an INVERT
or NOT gate.
0 0 0 1
on the
ground only.

1 0 0 0
the load
condition is
unimportant.

1 0 0 0
the current
will increase.

0 0 1 0
an
electromotiv
e force
(EMF) is
induced in
the
conductor.
0 0 0 1
adequate
voltage
differences
exists.

1 0 0 0
generator at
varying
loads and
speeds.

0 0 0 1
can be reset
on the
ground only.

1 0 0 0
limit the
current in
the
armature.

1 0 0 0
provide safe
distribution
of electrical
charges and
currents.

0 0 0 1
45°.
0 1 0 0
"state
indicator"
gate.
0 1 0 0
filter against
radio
interference.

1 0 0 0
Airflow
leaving the
cabin. 0 0 0 1
dump
system. 1 0 0 0
cool bleed
air.

0 1 0 0
has 1/12
less voltage
and less
capacity, but
can still be
used.

1 0 0 0
energizing
current.

0 0 0 1
rotor - rotor -
stator
0 1 0 0
is driven by
the engine
and supplies
pressure oil
to the
propeller in
case of
engine
problems.

1 0 0 0
Freon.
0 0 0 1
on all
transport
category
aircraft with
more than
150 seats.

0 1 0 0
1, 3, 6

0 0 0 1
damp out
movement
of the fuel in
the tank.

0 0 1 0
maintain a
constant
frequency.

0 0 0 1
1, 3

0 0 0 1
2, 4, 5

1 0 0 0
Fuel Control
Unit
(F.C.U.).

0 0 0 1
their output
voltage is
more
constant
than lead-
acid
batteries.
0 0 1 0
To change
AC into DC.
0 1 0 0
The
alternators
generate
much less
power than
DC
generators.

1 0 0 0
DC.

1 0 0 0
flow control
valve.
0 0 1 0
8
1 0 0 0
Fin leading
edges.
1 0 0 0
becomes
inflated in its
packboard
thus
preventing
its unfolding.

1 0 0 0
approximatel
y 15 psi at
maximum.

0 1 0 0
is not
possible at
constant
airplane
altitudes.

1 0 0 0
13.5 psi
0 1 0 0
propellers.
0 1 0 0
Supplying
the heat
exchangers
with cooling
air during
slow flights
and ground
operation.

0 0 0 1
piston
compressors
. 0 0 1 0
the low
pressure
compressor
and from the
high
pressure
compressor
if necessary.

0 0 0 1
Piston
pumps. 0 1 0 0
Electric
heating.
0 0 0 1
dielectric
change
between fuel
and air.
0 0 0 1
centrifugal
pumps,
driven by an
electric
motor.

0 0 0 1
prevent fuel
from
freezing in
fuel pipes
due to low
temperature
s at high
altitude.

1 0 0 0
28 V AC

0 0 1 0
20 to 50 psi
0 0 0 1
jet engine oil
cooling
through
thermal
exchange
with fuel
flowing from
tanks.
0 0 0 1
is only used
in flight for
fuel transfer
from one
tank to
another.

1 0 0 0
Prevent the
fuel from
flowing in
the vent
lines.

0 1 0 0
A pressure
regulator in
the wing tip.

0 0 1 0
Fixed built-in
tanks. 1 0 0 0
purity.
0 0 1 0
compression
.

1 0 0 0
(1) high (2)
aft. 0 1 0 0
volume of
fuel and
volume of air
entering the
cylinder.

0 0 1 0
fuel flow.

0 0 0 1
decrease
the fuel flow
in order to
compensate
for the
decreasing
air density.

0 0 0 1
no change
occurs in the
mixture
ratio.

1 0 0 0
amount of
fuel entering
the
combustion
chamber is
reduced.
0 0 0 1
constant air
density for a
bigger
quantity of
fuel.

0 0 1 0
higher
torque.

1 0 0 0
allow the
unusable
fuel
elimination.

0 1 0 0
quantity of
oil.
1 0 0 0
higher
efficiency in
cruising
range.

1 0 0 0
connection
of the
Auxiliary
Power Unit
(APU) to its
main busbar.

1 0 0 0
generator
breaker
opens.

0 1 0 0
1, 2, 4

0 0 0 1
1600
revolutions
per minute. 1 0 0 0
1, 2, 3, 4

0 0 1 0
maintain a
constant
axial speed
whatever the
engine
rating.
0 0 1 0
V increases,
Ps
increases.
0 1 0 0
overtempera
ture.
0 0 1 0
2, 4

1 0 0 0
Mass ratio of
1/15.

0 0 0 1
1, 4, 5, 6, 7.

0 0 0 1
22 psi
1 0 0 0
Through a
unique point
(an
underwing
refueling
center).

0 0 0 1
The
abnormal
mixture
enrichment
caused by a
greater
gasoline
vaporisation
in the
carburettor.

1 0 0 0
avoid the
bubbles
accumulatio
n and feed
the lines
with fuel for
directing it to
the engine
at a positive
pressure.

0 0 0 1
to offset for
the starting
of some
devices.

0 1 0 0
only above
FL200

0 1 0 0
BCF and
CO2 type
extinguisher
s
0 0 0 1
210 (one
additional
mask per
seat row).
1 0 0 0
60 minutes
at cruising
speed.

0 0 1 0
move in low
pitch
position by
oil pressure
created by
the
windmilling
propeller.
0 0 1 0
1, 2, 3.

0 0 1 0
manually
release the
blade latch.

0 0 1 0
cylinder
volume *
number of
cylinders

0 1 0 0
cheaper
construction
1 0 0 0
adjusting
Fuel Flow
before the
manifold
pressure.

0 0 1 0
is
independent
of the true
air speed.

1 0 0 0
keep the
local Angle
of Attack
constant
along the
blade.

0 0 0 1
Take-off and
landing.
0 0 0 1
stays
constant
because it
only varies
with engine
RPM.
1 0 0 0
first reduces
and after a
short time
increases to
its previous
value.

0 1 0 0
To shorten
the fuel
lines, so
minimising
the pressure
losses.

0 1 0 0
Life jackets
must be
available for
all
occupants.

0 0 0 1
a part of the
wire is totally
heated.
0 1 0 0
Positive
cabin
differential
pressure at
maximum
operating
ceiling.
0 1 0 0
Electrical
(electrical
resistances).

0 1 0 0
The
inflatable de-
ice boots of
the
pneumatic
mechanical
device are
arranged
perpendicul
ar to the
leading
edges.

1 0 0 0
on modern
aeroplanes,
electrically
powered
thermal
devices are
used as de-
icing devices
for pitot-
tubes, static
ports,
windshield...

1 0 0 0
1, 2, 3, 8

1 0 0 0
protects the
members of
the crew
against
fumes and
noxious
gases.

0 0 0 1
only able to
receive.

0 0 1 0
6 ft,
aeroplane
on the
ground, one
main gear or
nose gear
collapse.

0 0 1 0
an electrical
heater
system.

1 0 0 0
the power
supply is cut
off
automaticall
y.

0 0 1 0
cause a
pressure
drop as well
as an
associated
temperature
drop in the
charge air.

0 0 0 1
give medical
assistance
to
passengers
with
pathological
respiratory
disorders.

0 0 0 1
180.

1 0 0 0
FL 250.
0 0 0 1
100%
oxygen.

0 0 1 0
VLF
1 0 0 0
2.46 m
0 0 0 1
It better
detects
clouds
contour and
range is
greater with
the same
transmission
power.

0 0 0 1
2,3,6

1 0 0 0
1,3,4

0 1 0 0
activate an
alarm in the
cockpit and
in the
landing gear
bay for
ground crew.

1 0 0 0
oxygen
content
regulated to
a preset
value.

0 0 1 0
Used only at
low altitudes
where there
is a risk of
ice
formation.

1 0 0 0
Installed in
each tank.
0 0 1 0
stops
fuelling as
soon as the
fuel spills
into the
ventline.

0 1 0 0
fuelling
system has
reached a
certain
pressure.
0 0 1 0
in the fuel
control unit
(item 3).

0 0 1 0
maintain a
constant fuel
metering
whatever the
altitude.

1 0 0 0
All fuel.

0 1 0 0
10000 ft
(approx.
3000 m) 0 0 0 1
air to the
eyeball
outlets at the
Passenger
Service Unit
(PSU).

0 1 0 0
P: warms up
engine
bleed air
S: increases
the
temperature
of air
originating
from the
compressor
of the pack.

0 1 0 0
reduces
hinge
moment and
control
surface
efficiency.

0 0 0 1
is only
pressurized
in the area
of the
control
cabin.

0 0 1 0
decreased.

0 0 1 0
cold air unit
(air cycle
machine)
arrangement
.
0 0 0 1
compressed,
then passed
across an
expansion
turbine
through a
heat
exchanger.

1 0 0 0
compressor
outlet of the
cold air unit
to the
primary heat
exchanger
inlet.

1 0 0 0
by-pass
ducting. 1 0 0 0
drives the
compressor
in the unit,
creating a
temperature
drop in the
conditioning
air.

0 0 0 1
an
evaporator.
1 0 0 0
maintain a
constant
cabin mass
air flow.

1 0 0 0
before the
heat
exchangers.
0 0 1 0
discharge
cabin air to
atmosphere
if cabin
pressure
rises above
the selected
altitude.

0 1 0 0
reduce fluid
combustibilit
y

1 0 0 0
Supply an
operating
unit with the
most
appropriate
system
pressure.
0 0 0 1
Reduce
pump loads.

1 0 0 0
for pressure
storage.

0 1 0 0
in a
pressure
relief valve. 0 0 1 0
decreases

0 0 0 1
1, 2, 3

0 0 0 1
cabin
pressure
decreases
more slowly
than
atmospheric
pressure

0 0 0 1
highest at
the wing root

0 0 0 1
Only
controllable
at maximum
cabin
differential
pressure.

1 0 0 0
Vegetable
oil. 0 1 0 0
the outflow
valves will
move to the
fully closed
position.

1 0 0 0
the cabin air
re-circulation
system.

0 1 0 0
At the pre-
set position
for take-off.

0 1 0 0
close the
outflow
valve(s).

0 0 0 1
Outflow
valve.
0 0 0 1
The engine's
RPM.

0 1 0 0
cabin
pressure
and ambient
air pressure
at MSL.

0 1 0 0
10000 ft
1 0 0 0
cabin
pressure
expressed
as altitude.

0 0 0 1
FL 180

1 0 0 0
the elevators
are actuated
by reversible
servo-
control units.

1 0 0 0
ground
power unit.

1 0 0 0
trim the
aeroplane at
low
airspeed.

0 1 0 0
lock the
landing gear.

1 0 0 0
Hydraulically
driven. 0 0 0 1
By hydraulic
accumulator
s.
1 0 0 0
Never
repaired.
0 1 0 0
Decreased
on the
slower
turning
wheels.
0 0 0 1
Single disk
brake. 0 1 0 0
prevent heat
transfer from
the brake
disks to the
tyres.

0 1 0 0
To prevent
total system
loss in case
of a leaking
hydraulic
line.

0 0 0 1
2 and 3

1 0 0 0
vegetable oil

0 0 1 0
is necessary
on a
reversible
servodyne
unit.

0 1 0 0
2, 3, 4, 5

0 1 0 0
3000 psi

0 0 0 1
At the
coolers. 1 0 0 0
Are irritating
to eyes and
skin.

0 0 0 1
Phosphate
ester base
fluids. 0 0 0 1
System
pressure
and tank
capacity.
0 1 0 0
1000 psi
1 0 0 0
2,5

0 0 1 0
fire warning
systems.
0 0 1 0
The power
of the motor
will
decrease.

0 0 1 0
the total
turbine inlet
pressure to
the total
compressor
outlet
pressure.

1 0 0 0
before TDC
at each
second
crankshaft
revolution.
0 0 0 1
Pressure
times arm. 1 0 0 0
Friction
horse power.
0 0 1 0
gear box
which is
located
between the
engine and
the
propeller.
0 0 0 1
humidity.

0 1 0 0
warm and
dry air at
high
pressure.
1 0 0 0
lower back
pressure.

0 0 0 1
a mixture of
compressed
air and
oxygen or
100 %
oxygen.
0 1 0 0
an axial
compressor.
0 0 1 0
opening the
oxygen-
bottle
valves.

0 1 0 0
there is no
torsion at
the
crankshaft.

0 1 0 0
RPM
indicator.
0 0 0 1
control the
carburator
inlet air flow.

0 1 0 0
RPM
increases.

1 0 0 0
High
manifold
pressure
and low
revolutions
per minute.
0 0 0 1
airfoil
section is
negative. 0 1 0 0
only at the
design
speed a
better
efficiency
than the
fixed
propeller.

0 1 0 0
It will remain
the same

1 0 0 0
high
airspeeds
with high
power
setting.
0 1 0 0
only stays
constant if
the speed
control lever
is pushed
forward.

0 1 0 0
electrically.
0 0 0 1
negative
pressure
relief valve
will open.
0 0 0 1
3,4,5.

1 0 0 0
the anti-
knock
capability

0 0 0 1
combustion
point
0 0 1 0
A type of
construction
in which the
load is
carried by
other
components
if a part of
the structure
fails.

0 0 0 1
Water and
glycol based
fluid.
1 0 0 0
Liquid de-
icing
system.

0 1 0 0
slats and the
leading
edge flaps
only.

0 1 0 0
2 adiabatic
and 2
isochoric
lines.

0 0 0 1
Electrical
heating. 0 0 1 0
the
aerodynamic
force turns
the propeller
blades
towards
higher pitch
angle.

0 0 1 0
When
entering
areas with
icing
conditions.

0 0 1 0
checking the
continuity of
the system
with a test
switch.

0 0 1 0
wheel wells.

0 0 1 0
sand.
0 0 0 1
seats in the
cabin.
0 0 0 1
fuel tanks.

0 1 0 0
must be in
accordance
with the
number of
passengers
on board.

1 0 0 0
oxygen
becomes
unusable for
the
passengers.

0 0 1 0
deliver
oxygen flow
when
inhaling.

0 0 0 1
bleed air
from the
engines.
0 0 0 1
rich mixture.

0 0 1 0
mass of fuel
and mass of
air entering
the
carburettor

1 0 0 0
it reduces
the density
of air
entering the
carburettor,
thus
enriching the
fuel/air
mixture

0 0 0 1
compression
ratio is
independent
of the
octane
rating.

1 0 0 0
the
formation of
water
vapour in a
fuel system
0 0 1 0
drain tanks
at end of
each day's
flight

0 0 1 0
it fouls the
spark plugs

0 0 1 0
increase
quantity of
fuel at
metering jet

0 0 1 0
a long
purple flame
from
exhaust.

1 0 0 0
If there is an
unbalanced
propeller.

0 0 1 0
the mixture
is ignited by
abnormal
conditions
within the
cylinder
before the
spark occurs
at the plug

0 0 0 1
accelerator
pump and
main
metering jet

0 1 0 0
rated power.

0 0 0 1
downstream
of th
discharge
nozzle.

1 0 0 0
induction,
power,
compression
, exhaust.

0 0 1 0
quantity of
fuel required
to run the
engine for
one minute
at maximum
operating
conditions.

0 1 0 0
correct for
variations in
the fuel/air
ratio due to
decreased
air density at
altitude.

0 0 0 1
connect the
contact
breaker and
condenser in
series with
the primary
coil

1 0 0 0
from a self-
contained
electro-
magnetic
induction
system.
0 0 0 1
in level
flight,
manifold
pressure will
remain
constant
when the
rpm is
increased by
opening the
throttle.

0 1 0 0
enters via
the diffuser
and is fed to
the impeller
at the
optimum
angle of
attack.
0 0 1 0
total volume
to the swept
volume.

0 1 0 0
printer
0 0 1 0
2, 3, 4

1 0 0 0
pulling the
power levers
backwards.

1 0 0 0
crankshaft,
connecting
rods and
pistons.

0 0 0 1
dependant
on the
battery.

0 0 1 0
feed cooling
air to the
engine
cowling.

0 1 0 0
range from
the
transmitter
to the first
sky wave
0 0 0 1
ducting
1 0 0 0
overall
efficiency
0 0 0 1
firing-
expansion 0 0 0 1
freezing
temperature
of the air
entering the
carburettor

0 0 1 0
diskette
drive 1 0 0 0
difference in
air pressure
at the
venturi
throat and
the air inlet

0 0 0 1
2,4

1 0 0 0
trailing edge
flap

0 0 1 0
Higher
frequency
and higher
position of
the reflecting
ionospheric
layer

0 0 0 1
take-off
1 0 0 0
the power
developed
by the
engine will
be strongly
reduced

1 0 0 0
a rich fuel/air
mixture

0 0 1 0
both valves
closed.

0 1 0 0
decrease
oxygen
supplied to
the engine

1 0 0 0
the left
engine
produces a
higher yaw
moment if
the right
engine fails
than vice
versa.

0 0 1 0
keyboard
0 0 1 0
2, 4, 5

0 1 0 0
13000 ft.

0 0 1 0
250.
0 1 0 0
is only
recommend
ed for use
with smoke
in the
cockpit.
0 1 0 0
1 passenger
for the entire
flight after
cabin
depressuriza
tion at cabin
altitude
between
10000 and
14000 ft.

0 1 0 0
the aircraft
reaches FL
140.
0 1 0 0
chemical or
gaseous. 1 0 0 0
1, 2, 3, 4, 5,
6

0 0 1 0
1, 2, 5, 6, 7

0 0 1 0
1, 4.

0 0 1 0
shunt exciter
and the
series
winding turn.

1 0 0 0
integrate the
strains due
to
pressurizatio
n to which
the skin is
subjected
and convert
them into a
tensile
stress.

1 0 0 0
the
generator
breaker.

1 0 0 0
exciter
breaker,
generator
breaker and
tie breaker.

0 0 1 0
generator
breaker.

0 0 0 1
a fan located
before the
generator.

0 1 0 0
parallel with
the
armature.
1 0 0 0
the main
field
winding.

0 0 1 0
fully in the
stator.

0 0 0 1
prevent the
extension of
the landing
gear oleo
strut rod.

0 1 0 0
function as a
special
circuit
breaker in
the electric
system

0 1 0 0
The
generator
breaker.

1 0 0 0
decimetric.
0 0 0 1
a cylinder
head
temperature
gauge
(CHT), a
manifold
pressure
gauge, and
engine rpm
readings.

0 0 1 0
0.1
0 1 0 0
VHF
receiver
operating in
the 118 MHz
to 136 MHz
range.

0 1 0 0
myriametric.
1 0 0 0
myriametric.
1 0 0 0
centimetric.
1 0 0 0
centimetric.
1 0 0 0
decimetric.
0 0 0 1
centimetric.
0 0 1 0
passengers
exceeded by
10%. 1 0 0 0
hectometric.
0 1 0 0
1, 3, 4, 6

1 0 0 0
myriametric.
0 0 1 0
metric.

0 0 1 0
is a
protection
system with
a quick
break
capacity of
about one
hundredth of
a second.

0 0 1 0
is excited by
its
Generator
Control Unit
(GCU) as
soon as the
APU starts
up.

0 1 0 0
1, 3

1 0 0 0
red. 1 0 0 0
is a system
with a slow
response
time.

1 0 0 0
2, 3, 6.

1 0 0 0
not in the
required
position.
1 0 0 0
decimetric.
0 1 0 0
2, 3

1 0 0 0
Oxygen.

0 1 0 0
A warning
light which is
activated by
the WOW
(Weight On
Wheels)
sensor
system.

0 1 0 0
communicat
e system
pressure to
either side of
an actuator.

0 0 0 1
An actuator
or jack.
0 0 0 1
high
pressure
and small
flow.
0 0 1 0
An electrical
security
switch.

0 0 1 0
200 Hz. 0 0 1 0
change the
direction of
the
excitation
current.

0 0 1 0
it is in the
down
position.

0 0 1 0
pilot has to
throttle back.

0 1 0 0
Angle of
attack and
flaps and
slats
deflection.

0 0 0 1
only one
oxygen
system
supplying
the whole
aircraft.

0 0 1 0
decreases
when the
altitude
increases.
0 0 1 0
cabin air
under
pressure.
1 0 0 0
cockpit and
the cabin. 0 0 1 0
15 minutes. 0 0 0 1
1, 2, 3, 4, 5,
6

0 0 1 0
1, 2, 3, 4, 5

0 0 1 0
Liquid.

0 1 0 0
100 metres.
0 0 1 0
providing an
alternative
current.

1 0 0 0
provide a
path to
ground for
static
charges
when
refuelling.

0 1 0 0
1, 4.

0 0 1 0
possible with
"CROSSFE
ED" open
and tank 1
pumps
"OFF" and
tank 2
pumps "ON".

0 0 0 1
DELTA P will
rise up to its
maximum
value, thus
causing the
safety relief
valves to
open.

0 0 0 1
a buffer
accumulator
whose
function is to
assist the
hydraulic
system
during high
intensity
braking.

1 0 0 0
VZc
decrease
Zc decrease
DELTA P
increase

1 0 0 0
1, 3.

0 0 0 1
with
propeller
windmilling,
the thrust is
zero and the
propeller
supplies
engine
power.

1 0 0 0
inlet and
uses an
evaporation
process.
1 0 0 0
1, 2, 3

0 0 0 1
The right
aileron will
ascend, the
left one will
descend, the
right spoiler
will extend
and the left
one will
retract.

0 1 0 0
2, 4.

0 1 0 0
A roll trim
tab.

1 0 0 0
compound
wound.
1 0 0 0
varying the
speed of the
engine.

0 0 1 0
the number
of volts they
will pass.
0 0 1 0
another
name for a
solenoid
valve.

0 0 1 0
1,4 volts. 0 0 1 0
Ohms.
1 0 0 0
there is
interference
on the VOR
receiver.

0 1 0 0
The
frequency
band
correspondi
ng to
maximum
gain.

0 0 1 0
mask with
flow on
request and
covers the
whole face.

0 0 0 1
the spars.
0 0 0 1
it's tread will
deteriorate
faster

0 0 1 0
There is a
carbon
deposit on
the spark
plugs
electrodes.

0 0 1 0
8 hand fire-
extinguisher
s
conveniently
located in
the
passenger
compartmen
t.

0 0 1 0
9 hand fire-
extinguisher
s
conveniently
located in
the
passenger
compartmen
t.

0 0 1 0
1 HALON
1211 fire-
extinguisher.
1 0 0 0
pressurized
air from the
air
conditioning
system.

1 0 0 0
with setting
on
"NORMAL",
the crew
breathes a
mixture of
oxygen /
cabin air.
0 0 0 1
5 hand fire-
extinguisher
s
conveniently
located in
the
passenger
compartmen
t.

1 0 0 0
the
EMERGENC
Y lever on
ON enables
breathing of
pure oxygen
at ambient
pressure.

0 0 1 0
2 hand fire-
extinguisher
s
conveniently
located in
the
passenger
compartmen
t.

0 0 0 1
 clear the
burnt gases,
the
expansion of
which
provide the
thrust

0 0 1 0
propeller
plane of
rotation and
the relative
airflow.

1 0 0 0
transform
the
translational
movement
of the rudder
pedals into
the
rotational
movement
of the
nosewheel.

0 1 0 0
the pumps
are always
electric due
to the high
pressures
which they
must deliver
(140 to 210
kg/cm²).

0 0 1 0
at zero drag.
1 0 0 0
2 halon fire-
extinguisher
s.
0 0 0 1
requires an
oil change.

1 0 0 0
water
injection
triggered at
a fixed
temperature
in order to
lower tyre
temperature.

1 0 0 0
gear
warning.

1 0 0 0
1

1 0 0 0
lower wing
surface
devices,
their
deflection is
symmetrical
or
asymmetrica
l.

0 0 1 0
1-2

0 0 1 0
trailing edge
flaps close
to the wing
tip
0 1 0 0
allow
temperature
s to equalise

0 0 1 0
4 hand fire-
extinguisher
s
conveniently
located in
the
passenger
compartmen
t.

0 0 1 0
3-4

0 0 0 1
zero on the
ground
when the
engine is
stopped.

0 1 0 0
has a
compression
ratio in the
order of 2.1

0 0 1 0
fuelflow
mass
divided by
the internal
airflow mass

1 0 0 0
the pump
power
accumulator
is deflated.

1 0 0 0
only one
sensor
detects
smoke.

0 1 0 0
2-3

0 0 0 1
1 hand fire-
extinguisher
conveniently
located in
the
passenger
compartmen
t.

0 0 0 1
fan bleed
air valve

0 1 0 0
low pressure
variable
swash plate
pumps.

0 0 1 0
low manifold
pressure
and high
RPM.

0 0 1 0
2-3

0 1 0 0
1

1 0 0 0
the aircraft
climbs
without
mixture
adjustment.

0 0 0 1
water
vapour plugs
are formed
in the intake
fuel line
following the
condensatio
n of water in
fuel tanks
which have
not been
drained for
sometime.

0 0 1 0
by bleed air
coming from
the turbine-
engine.

0 0 0 1
1-4

0 0 1 0
only the
transfer of
fuel from the
centre tank
to the wing
tanks.

1 0 0 0
normal.
0 0 1 0
1- half fork
2- fork 3-
cantilever
4- tandem

0 0 1 0
1, 2, 4.

0 1 0 0
12 volt / 80
amp hours 0 0 0 1
0.30

0 0 0 1
1/15 th

0 0 0 1
4

1 0 0 0
obtaining a
high amp
low volt
current in
order to
generate the
spark.

0 0 1 0
decrease

0 0 1 0
real mixture
ratio relative
to the
theoretical
ratio.

0 0 0 1
its load

0 1 0 0
that it does
not require a
de-icing
system

0 1 0 0
1/Req =
1/R1 + 1/R2
0 0 0 1
alternator is
greater than
the battery
voltage and
to open
when the
opposite is
true

0 1 0 0
decreases
aircraft
performance

0 0 0 1
1-3-5

0 0 1 0
Increase
manifold
pressure
and lean the
mixture
1 0 0 0
4 hand fire-
extinguisher
s
conveniently
located in
the
passenger
compartmen
t.

0 0 0 1
is the pilot's
task

0 0 0 1
crash axe
and a crow-
bar in the
passenger
compartmen
t.

0 0 1 0
1,80 m.

0 0 1 0
are electrical
conductors.

0 1 0 0
by day and
when
raining.

1 0 0 0
single shaft
turbine and
axial
compressor

1 0 0 0
provided
that the
grade is
higher
0 0 0 1
6 hand fire-
extinguisher
s
conveniently
located in
the
passenger
compartmen
t.

0 0 0 1
24 h
0 0 1 0
which is
used at night
and a smoke
device which
is used in
the daytime.

0 0 0 1
the electric
de-icing
system for
cockpit
windows is
also suitable
for rain
protection

0 1 0 0
ROPLANES
 MASS AND BALANCE - AE

In cruise, an extreme aft longitudinal center of gravity: moves away brings the moves away
the cyclic cyclic stick the cyclic
stick from its closer to its stick from its
forward stop forward stop forward stop
and and and
increases decreases decreases
the stress in the stress in the stresses
the rotor the rotor in the head
head head rotors

1489 31
The Dry Operating Mass of an aircraft is 2 000 kg. 1 450 kg 1 000 kg 950 kg
The maximum take-off mass, landing and zero fuel mass are identical at 3500 kg.
The block fuel mass is 550kg, and the taxi fuel mass is 50 kg. The available mass
of payload is:
1490 31
An additional baggage container is loaded into the aft cargo compartment but is will not be will be are
not entered into the load and trim sheet. The aeroplane will be heavier than achieved. greater than unaffected
expected and calculated take-off safety speeds required. but V1 will
be
increased.
1491 31
(For this question use appendix 031-11590A ) 6 270 kg 6 270 kg 6 270 kg
and 4.796 m and 5.012 m and 4.61 m
Without the crew, the mass and longitudinal CG position of the aircraft are 6 000
kg and 4,70m.

- the mass of the pilot is 90 kg

- the mass of the copilot is 100 kg
- the mass of the flight engineer is 80 kg

With the crew, the mass and longitudinal CG position of the aircraft are :

1492 31
The Basic Mass of a helicopter is the mass of the helicopter without crew, : without without without
specific specific payload,
equipments equipment with specific
for the for the equipment
mission, mission, for the
without without mission,
payload, payload, without the
with fuel on with the unusable
board. unusable fuel.
fuel and
standard
equipment.

1493 31
 (For this question use annex 031-11250A, 031-11250B and 031-11250C) 30.5 % 27.4 % 29.3 %
Knowing that:
. Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg
. Basic index: 119.1
. Number of passengers: 335 distributed as shown in the annex (75 kg per PAX)
. Cargo load + luggage: 9 500 kg distributed as shown in the annex.
. Fuel: 40 000 kg
Stages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated, the centre of gravity in
% MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) for zero fuel mass is located at:

1494 31
(For this question use annex 031-11222A and 031-11222B ) 25 % 27 % 31 %
The planned take-off mass of an aeroplane is 190 000 kg, with its centre of gravity
located at 29 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). Shortly prior to engine start, the
local staff informs the flight crew that an additional load of 4 000 kg must be
loaded in cargo 4. After loading this cargo, the new centre of gravity location will
be:
1495 31
The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: 40 400 kg 32 100 kg 32 900 kg
- Block fuel: 40 000 kg
- Trip fuel: 29 000 kg
- Taxi fuel: 800 kg
- Maximum take-off mass: 170 000 kg
- Maximum landing mass: 148 500 kg
- Maximum zero fuel mass: 112 500 kg
- Dry operating mass: 80 400 kg

The maximum traffic load for this flight is:

1496 31
(For this question use annex 031-11227A) front cargo: front cargo: front cargo:
An aeroplane, whose specific data is shown in the annex, has a planned take-off 9 260 kg; 3 740 kg; 6 760 kg;
mass of 200 000 kg, with its centre of gravity (C.G.) located at 15.38 m rearward of rear cargo: 1 rear cargo: 6 rear cargo:
the reference point, representing a C.G. location at 30 % MAC (Mean 240 kg 760 kg 3 740 kg
Aerodynamic Cord). The current cargo load distribution is: front cargo: 6 500 kg;
rear cargo: 4 000 kg. For performance purposes, the captain decides to reset the
value of the centre of gravity location to 33 % MAC. The front and rear cargo
compartments are located at a distance of 15 m and 25 m from the reference point
respectively. After the transfer operation, the new cargo load distribution is:

1497 31
The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is at 25% of the Mean Aerodynamic Chord. the the mean the mean
This means that the centre of gravity of the aeroplane is situated at 25% of the aeroplane in aerodynamic aerodynamic
length of: relation to chord in chord in
the leading relation to relation to
edge the leading the trailing
edge edge
1498 31
The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: 55 000 kg 55 800 kg 25 800 kg
- Dry operating mass: 90 000 kg
- Block fuel: 30 000 kg
- Taxi fuel: 800 kg
- Maximum take-off mass: 145 000 kg
The traffic load available for this flight is:

1499 31
 (For this question use annex 031-11251A , 031-11251B and 031-11251C) 29.3 % 28.3 % 30.5 %
Knowing that:
. Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg
. Basic index: 119.1
. Number of passengers: 185 distributed as shown in the annex (75 kg per PAX)
. Cargo load + luggage: 14 000 kg distributed as shown in the annex.
. Fuel: 42 000 kg
Stages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated, the centre of gravity in
% MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) for zero fuel mass is located at:

1500 31
(For this question use annex 031-11219A) 5 600 kg 3 600 kg It is not
An aeroplane, whose specific data is shown in the annex, has a planned take-off possible to
mass of 200 000 kg, with its centre of gravity (C.G.) is located at 15.38 m rearward establish the
of the reference point, representing a C.G. location at 30 % MAC (Mean required
Aerodynamic Cord). For performance purposes, the captain decides to reset the centre of
value of the centre of gravity location to 35 % MAC. The front and rear cargo gravity
compartments are located at a distance of 15 m and 25 m from the reference location.
point respectively, the cargo load mass which needs to be transferred from the
front to the rear cargo compartment is:

1501 31
The flight preparation of a turbojet aeroplane provides the following data: 61 500 kg 54 000 kg 55 000 kg
Take-off runway limitation: 185 000 kg
Landing runway limitation: 180 000 kg
Planned fuel consumption: 11 500 kg
Fuel already loaded on board the aircraft: 20 000 kg
Knowing that:
Maximum take-off mass (MTOM): 212 000 kg
Maximum landing mass (MLM): 174 000 kg
Maximum zero fuel mass (MZFM): 164 000 kg
Dry operating mass (DOM): 110 000 kg
The maximum cargo load that the captain may decide to load on board is:

1502 31
(For this question use appendix 031-11589A) beyond the 6 180 kg 6 180 kg
limit and 0.059m and 0.075m
Without the man on the winch, the mass and the lateral CG position of the to the right to the right
helicopter are 6 000 kg and 0.055 m to the right.

- the mass of the wet man on the winch is 180 kg

With the man on the winch, the mass and lateral CG-position of the helicopter
are :

1503 31
Determine the Zero Fuel Mass for the following single engine aeroplane. 2449 lbs 2589 lbs 2659 lbs

Given :
Standard Empty Mass : 1764 lbs
Optional Equipment : 35 lbs
Pilot + Front seat passenger : 300 lbs
Cargo Mass : 350 lbs
Ramp Fuel = Block Fuel : 60 Gal.
Trip Fuel : 35 Gal.
Fuel density : 6 lbs/Gal.

1504 31
An aeroplane has a mean aerodynamic chord (MAC) of 134.5 inches. The leading 18,14% 75,6% 85,5%
edge of this chord is at a distance of 625.6 inches aft of the datum. Give the
location of the centre of gravity of the aeroplane in terms of percentage MAC if the
mass of the aeroplane is acting vertically through a balance arm located 650
inches aft of the datum.
1505 31
 Determine the Take-off Mass for the following single engine aeroplane. 2764 lbs 2809 lbs 2659 lbs

Given :
Standard Empty Mass : 1764 lbs
Optional Equipment : 35 lbs
Pilot + Front seat passenger : 300 lbs
Cargo Mass : 350 lbs
Ramp Fuel = Block Fuel : 60 Gal.
Trip Fuel : 35 Gal.
Fuel density : 6 lbs/Gal.

1506 31
With respect to aeroplane loading in the planning phase, which of the following Reserve LM = TOM - MTOM =
statements is always correct ? Fuel = TOM Trip Fuel ZFM +
LM = Landing Mass - Trip Fuel maximum
TOM = Take-off Mass possible fuel
MTOM = Maximum Take-off Mass mass
ZFM = Zero Fuel Mass
MZFM = Maximum Zero Fuel Mass
DOM = Dry Operating Mass
1507 31
(For this question use annexes 031- 11205A and 031-11205B) 1 000 kg 500 kg from 1 000 kg
A turbojet aeroplane is parked with the following data: from cargo 1 cargo 1 to from cargo 3
Corrected dry operating mass: 110 100 kg to cargo 4 cargo 3 to cargo 1
Basic corrected index: 118.6
Initial cargo distribution: cargo 1: 4 000 kg ; cargo 2: 2 000 kg ; cargo 3: 2 000 kg;
other cargo compartments are empty
Take-off mass: 200 000 kg; centre of gravity (C.G.) location: 32 %
For perfomance reasons, the captain decides to redistribute part of the cargo
loading between cargo compartments, in order to take off with a new C.G. location
of 34 %. He asks for a transfer of:

1508 31
With reference to mass and balance calculations (on an aeroplane) a datum point a point from a fixed point the point
is used. This datum point is : which all from which through
balance all balance which the
arms are arms are sum of the
measured. measured. It mass values
The location may be (of the
of this point located aeroplane
varies with anywhere on and its
the the contents) is
distribution aeroplane's assumed to
of loads on longitudinal act vertically.
the axis or on
aeroplane. the
extensions
to that axis.

1509 31
If 390 Ibs of cargo are moved from compartment B (aft) to compartment A 463.7 506.3 436.7
(forward), what is the station number of the new centre of gravity (cg).
Given : Gross mass 116.500 Ibs
Present cg station 435.0
Compartment A station 285.5
Compartment B station 792.5
1510 31
An aeroplane with a two wheel nose gear and four main wheels rests on the 4 meter. 41.6 cm. 40 cm.
ground with a single nose wheel load of 500 kg and a single main wheel load of
6000 kg. The distance between the nose wheels and the main wheels is 10 meter.
How far is the centre of gravity in front of the main wheels?

1511 31
 Moment (balance) arms are measured from a specific point to the body station at the focal the axis. the centre of
which the mass is located. That point is known as point. gravity of the
aeroplane.
1512 31
The operator of an aircraft equipped with 50 seats uses standard masses for the operator the operator the operator
passengers and baggage. During the preparation of a scheduled flight a group of should use may use the may use the
passengers present themselves at the check-in desk, it is apparent that even the the standard standard
lightest of these exceeds the value of the declared standard mass. individual masses for masses for
masses of the load and the balance
the balance but must
passengers calculation correct
or alter the without these for the
standard correction load
masss calculation

1513 31
The datum used for balance calculations is: chosen on chosen on chosen on
the the the
longitudinal longitudinal longitudinal
axis of the axis of the axis of the
aircraft, and aeroplane, aeroplane,
always at but not and
the fire-wall necessarily necessarily
level between the situated
nose and between the
the tail of the nose and
aircraft the tail of the
aircraft

1514 31
The datum is a reference from which all moment (balance) arms are measured. at or near at or near at or near
Its precise position is given in the control and loading manual and it is located the forward the focal the natural
limit of the point of the balance
centre of aeroplane point of the
gravity. axis system. empty
aeroplane.

1515 31
In calculations with respect to the position of the centre of gravity a reference is an arbitrary calculated a reference
made to a datum. The datum is reference from the plane which
chosen by data derived is chosen by
the pilot from the the
which can weighing aeroplane
be located procedure manufacture
anywhere on carried out r. Its position
the on the is given in
aeroplane. aeroplane the
after any aeroplane
major Flight or
modification. Loading
Manual.

1516 31
 (For this question use annexes 031-6564A and 031-6564B or Loading Manual 2548,8 6675 2496,3
SEP1 Figure 2.4)
With respect to a single-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the zero fuel
moment (lbs.In./100) in the following conditions:
Basic Empty Mass: 2415 lbs.
Arm at Basic Empty Mass: 77,9 In.
Cargo Zone A: 350 lbs.
Baggage Zone B: 35 lbs.
Pilot and front seat passenger : 300 lbs (total)

1517 31
Considering only structural limitations, on long distance flights (at the aeroplane's The The The
maximum range), the traffic load is normally limited by: maximum maximum maximum
zero fuel zero fuel landing
mass. mass plus mass.
the take-off
mass.
1518 31
Prior to departure an aeroplane is loaded with 16500 litres of fuel at a fuel density heavier than lighter than lighter than
of 780 kg/m³. This is entered into the load sheet as 16500 kg and calculations are anticipated anticipated anticipated
carried out accordingly. As a result of this error, the aeroplane is and the and the and the
calculated calculated calculated
safety safety safety
speeds will speeds will speeds will
be too low. be too high be too low

1519 31
Fuel loaded onto an aeroplane is 15400 kg but is erroneously entered into the the speed at un- V1 will be
load and trim sheet as 14500 kg. This error is not detected by the flight crew but aeroplane stick will be reached
they will notice that will rotate higher than sooner than
much earlier expected expected
than
expected.
1520 31
(For this question use annex 031-9596 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11) Forward limit Forward limit Forward limit
At the maximum landing mass the range of safe CG positions, as determined from 8.0% MAC 8.6% MAC 8.0% MAC
the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is: aft limit aft limit aft limit
27.2% MAC 27.0% MAC 26.8% MAC

1521 31
At a given mass the CG position is at 15% MAC. If the leading edge of MAC is at a 228.34 645.78 20.18 inches
position 625.6 inches aft of the datum and the MAC is given as 134.5 inches inches aft of inches aft of aft of datum
1522 31 determine the position of the CG in relation to to the datum. datum datum

The loaded centre of gravity (cg) of an aeroplane is 713 mm aft of datum. The 60 % 10 % 16 %
mean aerodynamic chord lies between station 524 mm aft and 1706 mm aft. The
1523 31 cg expressed as % MAC (mean aerodynamic chord) is:
Given: It moves aft It moves aft It moves
Aeroplane mass = 36 000 kg by 0.157 m. by 0.31 m. forward by
Centre of gravity (cg) is located at station 17 m 0.157 m.
What is the effect on cg location if you move 20 passengers (total mass = 1 600
kg) from station 16 to station 23?
1 31
(For this question use annex 031-12274A) 7000 kg 8268 kg 655 kg
An aeroplane is carrying a traffic load of 10320 kg
Complete the necessary sections of the attached appendix and determine which
of the answers given below represents the maximum increase in the traffic load

1525 31
The zero fuel mass of an aeroplane is always: The take-off The take-off The take-off
mass minus mass minus mass minus
the take-off the wing fuel the fuselage
fuel mass. mass. fuel mass.

1526 31
 In relation to an aeroplane, the term ' Basic Empty Mass' includes the mass of the printed in found in the inclusive of
aeroplane structure complete with its powerplants, systems, furnishings and other the loading latest an
items of equipment considered to be an integral part of the particular aeroplane manual and version of allowance
configuration. Its value is includes the weighing for crew,
unusable schedule as crew
fuel. corrected to baggage
allow for and other
modification operating
s. items. It is
entered in
the loading
manifest.

1527 31
Considering only structural limitations, on very short legs with minimum take-off Maximum Actual Maximum
fuel, the traffic load is normally limited by: take-off landing zero fuel
1528 31 mass. mass. mass.
(For this question use annex 031-11247A and 031-11247B) 2 000 kg in 1 000 kg in 2 500 kg in
A turbojet aeroplane is parked with the following data: cargo 1; 2 cargo 1; 3 cargo 1; 1
Corrected Dry Operating Mass: 110 100 kg 000 kg in 000 kg in 500 kg in
Basic corrected index: 118.6 cargo 4 cargo 4 cargo 4
Initial cargo distribution: cargo 1 = 4 000 kg; cargo 2 = 2 000 kg; cargo 3 = 2 000
kg;
The other cargo compartments are empty.
Take-off mass: 200 000 kg
Centre of gravity location: 32 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord)
To maximize performance, the captain decides to redistribute part of the cargo
load between cargo 1 and cargo 4, in order to take off with a new centre of gravity
location at 35 % MAC. After loading, the new load distribution between cargo 1
and cargo 4 is:

1529 31
(For this question use annex 031-11246A and 031-11246B) 34 % 25 % 28 %
The planned take-off mass of an aeroplane is 180 000 kg, with its centre of gravity
located at 31 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). Shortly prior to engine start, the
local staff informs the crew that an additional load of 4 000 kg must be loaded in
cargo 1. After loading this cargo, the new centre of gravity location will be:

1530 31
Given: 12 900 kg 13 300 kg 9 300 kg
Dry Operating Mass= 29 800 kg
Maximum Take-Off Mass= 52 400 kg
Maximum Zero-Fuel Mass= 43 100 kg
Maximum Landing Mass= 46 700 kg
Trip fuel= 4 000 kg
Fuel quantity at brakes release= 8 000 kg
The maximum traffic load is:
1531 31
(For this question use annex 031-1581A) Take-off cg Landing cg Landing cg
The loading for a flight is shown in the attached loadsheet, with the following data is out of is out of is out of
applying to the aeroplane: limits at limits at limits at
Maximum take-off mass: 150 000 kg 12.34 m aft 11.97 m aft 10.17 m aft
Maximum landing mass: 140 000 kg of datum. of datum. of datum.
Centre of gravity (cg) limit forward: 10.5 m aft of datum
aft: 13.0 m aft of datum
Estimated trip fuel: 55 000 kg
1532 31
 (For this question use annex 031-1580A) 30.4 %. 35.5 %. 27.5 %.
A jet aeroplane, with the geometrical characteristics shown in the appendix, has a
take-off weight (W) of 460 000 N and a centre of gravity (point G on annex)
located at 15.40 m from the zero reference point.
At the last moment the station manager has 12 000 N of freight added in the
forward compartment at 10 m from the zero reference point.
The final location of the centre of gravity, calculated in percentage of mean
aerodynamic chord AB (from point A), is equal to:
1533 31
Given: 68.9 kg. 73.5 kg. 62.5 kg.
Total mass: 7500 kg
Centre of gravity (cg) location station: 80.5
Aft cg limit station: 79.5
How much cargo must be shifted from the aft cargo compartment at station 150 to
the forward cargo compartment at station 30 in order to move the cg location to
the aft limit?
1534 31
Given: 121 300 kg 113 900 kg 120 300 kg
Maximum structural take-off mass= 146 900 kg
Maximum structural landing mass= 93 800 kg
Maximum zero fuel mass= 86 400 kg
Trip fuel= 27 500 kg
Block fuel= 35 500 kg
Engine starting and taxi fuel = 1 000 kg
The maximum take-off mass is equal to:
1535 31
Given that the total mass of an aeroplane is 112 000 kg with a centre of gravity 16 529 kg 8 680 kg 43 120 kg
position at 22.62m aft of the datum. The centre of gravity limits are between 18m
and 22m. How much mass must be removed from the rear hold (30 m aft of the
datum) to move the centre of gravity to the middle of the limits:

1536 31
A location in the aeroplane which is identified by a number designating its distance Station. Moment. MAC.
1537 31 from the datum is known as:
The mass of an aeroplane is 1950 kg. If 450 kg is added to a cargo hold 1.75 30 cm. 34 cm. 33 cm.
metres from the loaded centre of gravity (cg). The loaded cg will move:
1538 31
The Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane includes : Crew and Unusable Fuel and
crew fuel and passengers
baggage, reserve fuel. baggage
catering, and cargo.
removable
passenger
service
equipment,
potable
water and
lavatory
chemicals.

1539 31
Which is true of the aeroplane empty mass? It is dry It is the It is a
operating actual take- component
mass minus off mass, of dry
traffic load. less traffic operating
load. mass.
1540 31
 In mass and balance calculations the "index" is: the moment a location in an imaginary
divided by a the vertical
constant. aeroplane plane or line
identified by from which
a number. all
measureme
nts are
taken.

1541 31
Loads must be adequately secured in order to: allow steep avoid avoid any
turns. unplanned centre of
centre of gravity (cg)
gravity (cg) movement
movement during flight.
and aircraft
damage.
1542 31
Traffic load is the: Dry Dry Take-off
Operating Operating Mass minus
Mass minus Mass minus Zero Fuel
the the variable Mass.
disposable load.
load.
1543 31
If individual masses are used, the mass of an aeroplane must be determined prior at intervals at intervals at regular
to initial entry into service and thereafter of 9 years. of 4 years if annual
no intervals.
modification
s have taken
place.

1544 31
Given are the following information at take-off 61.29 cm aft 61.28 cm aft 61.26 cm aft
_________________________________________________________________ of datum. of datum. of datum.
__
STATION MASS (kg) ARM (cm) MOMENT (kgcm)
_________________________________________________________________
__
Basic Empty Condition 12045 +30 +361350
Crew 145 -160 -23200
Freight 1 5455 +200 +1091000
Freight 2 410 -40 -16400
Fuel 6045 -8 - 48360
Oil 124 +40 +4960
Given that the flight time is 2 hours and the estimated fuel flow will be 1050 litres
per hour and the average oil consumption will be 2.25 litres per hour. The specific
density of fuel is 0.79 and the specific density of oil is 0.96.
Calculate the landing centre of gravity

1545 31
An aeroplane is weighed and the following recordings are made: 32505 kg 30180 kg 28400 kg
nose wheel assembly scale 5330 kg
left main wheel assembly scale 12370 kg
right main wheel assembly scale 12480 kg
If the 'operational items' amount to a mass of 1780 kg with a crew mass of 545 kg,
the empty mass, as entered in the weight schedule, is
1546 31
 (For this question use annex 031-2946A) 3 500 kg 35 000 kg 62 500 kg
The total mass of an aeroplane is 145000 kg and the centre of gravity limits are
between 4.7 m and 6.9 m aft of the datum. The loaded centre of gravity position is
4.4 m aft. How much mass must be transferred from the front to the rear hold in
order to bring the out of limit centre of gravity position to the foremost limit:

1547 31
(For this question use annex 033-9583A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 page 20) on the nose at the 540 inches
For the medium range twin jet the datum point is located of the leading forward of
aeroplane. edge of the the front
Mean spar.
Aerodynami
c Chord
(MAC).
1548 31
The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is that point through which the total mass of at right governed by parallel to
the aeroplane is said to act. The weight acts in a direction angles to the the the gravity
flight path. distribution vector.
of the mass
within the
aeroplane.
1549 31
When an aeroplane is stationary on the ground, its total weight will act vertically through its through its through the
centre of centre of main wheels
gravity. pressure. of its
undercarriag
e assembly.

1550 31
The weight of an aeroplane, which is in level non accelerated flight, is said to act vertically vertically always
through the through the along the
centre of datum point. vertical axis
pressure. of the
aeroplane.
1551 31
The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is in a fixed must be can be
position and maintained allowed to
is unaffected in a fixed move
by position by between
aeroplane careful defined
loading. distribution limits.
of the load.

1552 31
An aeroplane has its centre of gravity located 7 metres from the datum line and it 7000 Nm. 34 300 Nm. 343 000 Nm.
1553 31 has a mass of 49000 N. The moment about the datum is:
 Given the following information, calculate the loaded centre of gravity (cg). 60.16 cm aft 53.35 cm aft 56.53 cm aft
datum. datum. datum.
_________________________________________________________________
__
STATION MASS (kg) ARM (cm) MOMENT (kgcm)
_________________________________________________________________
__
Basic Empty Condition 12045 +30 +361350
Crew 145 -160 -23200
Freight 1 5455 +200 +1091000
Freight 2 410 -40 -16400
Fuel 6045 -8 -48360
Oil 124 +40 +4960

1554 31
(For this question use annex 031-11248A , 031-11248B and 031-11248C) 30.5 % 32.5 % 28.0 %
Knowing that:
. Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg
. Basic index: 119.1
. Number of passengers: 185 distributed as shown in the annex (75 kg per PAX)
. Cargo load + luggage: 14 000 kg distributed as shown in the annex.
. Fuel: 42 000 kg
Stages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated, the centre of gravity in
% MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) at take-off is located at:

1555 31
Given: 140 kg. 14 kg. 207 kg.
Total mass 2900 kg
Centre of gravity (cg) location station: 115.0
Aft cg limit station: 116.0
The maximum mass that can be added at station 130.0 is:
1556 31
(For this question use annex 031-11273A and 031-11273B) It is not 3 000 kg 2 000 kg
A turbojet aeroplane has a planned take-off mass of 190 000 kg. Following cargo possible to from cargo 4 from cargo 4
loading, the crew is informed that the centre of gravity at take-off is located at 38 obtain the to cargo 1. to cargo 1.
% MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) which is beyond limits. The captain decides required
then to redistribute part of the cargo load between cargo 1 and cargo 4 in order to centre of
obtain a new centre of gravity location at 31 % MAC. He asks for a transfer of: gravity.

1557 31
Which of the following statements is correct? The The The Basic
Maximum Maximum Empty Mass
Zero Fuel Take-off is equal to
Mass Mass is the mass of
ensures that equal to the the
the centre of maximum aeroplane
gravity mass when excluding
remains leaving the traffic load
within limits ramp. and useable
after the fuel but
uplift of fuel. including the
crew.

1558 31
 Which of the following statements is correct? If the actual If the actual The lowest
centre of centre of stalling
gravity is gravity is speed is
located close to the obtained if
behind the forward limit the actual
aft limit of of the centre centre of
centre of of gravity the gravity is
gravity it is aeroplane located in
possible that may be the middle
the unstable, between the
aeroplane making it aft and
will be necessary to forward limit
unstable, increase of centre of
making it elevator gravity
necessary to forces
increase
elevator
forces

1559 31
Which of the following statements is correct? The station The centre If the actual
(STA) is of gravity is centre of
always the given in gravity is
location of percent of located
the centre of MAC behind the
gravity in calculated aft limit the
relation to a from the aeroplane
reference leading longitudinal
point, edge of the stability
normally the wing, where increases.
leading MAC always
edge of the = the wing
wing at MAC chord
halfway
between the
centre line of
the fuselage
and the wing
tip

1560 31
(For this question use annex 031-12268A) 20.1 % 20.3 % 22.6 %
Using the data given in the Load & Trim sheet, determine from the following the
correct values for the take off mass and the position of the centre of gravity at that
mass if the fuel index correction to be applied is given as - 0.9

1561 31
(For this question use annex 031-12269A) 52900kg 52900 kg 49130 kg
Using the data given at the appendix to this question, if the fuel index corrections and 19 % and 21.6 % and 21.8 %
(from ZFM index) are as follows
9500 kg - 0.9
6500 kg - 6.1
3500 kg - 4.7
3000 kg - 4.3
Which of the following represent the correct values for landing mass of the
aeroplane and the position of the centre of gravity for this condition ?

1562 31
 Given an aeroplane with: 75000 kg 77200 kg 77200 kg
Maximum Structural Landing Mass: 68000 kg and 20000 and 19400 and 22200
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 70200 kg kg kg kg
Maximum Structural Take-off Mass: 78200 kg
Dry Operating Mass : 48000 kg
Scheduled trip fuel is 7000 kg and the reserve fuel is 2800 kg,

Assuming performance limitations are not restricting, the maximum permitted take-
off mass and maximum traffic load are respectively:

1563 31
(For this question use annex 031-11275A and 031-11275B) cargo 1: 5 cargo 1: 4 cargo 1: 6
A turbojet aeroplane has a planned take-off mass of 190 000 kg; the cargo load is 000 kg; 000 kg; 000 kg;
distributed as follows: cargo 1: 3 000 kg; cargo 4: 7 000 kg. Once the cargo cargo 4: 4 cargo 4: 5 cargo 4: 4
loading is completed, the crew is informed that the centre of gravity at take-off is 000 kg 000 kg 000 kg
located at 38 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) which is beyond the limits. The
captain decides then to redistribute part of the cargo load between cargo 1 and
cargo 4 in order to obtain a new centre of gravity location at 31 % MAC. Following
the transfer operation, the new load distribution is:

1564 31
Given an aeroplane with: 125500 kg 125500 kg 130500 kg
Maximum Structural Landing Mass: 125000 kg and 21500 and 26500 and 26500
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 108500 kg kg kg kg
Maximum Structural Take-off Mass: 155000 kg
Dry Operating Mass: 82000 kg
Scheduled trip fuel is 17000 kg and the reserve fuel is 5000 kg.

Assuming performance limitations are not restricting, the maximum permitted take-
off mass and maximum traffic load are respectively:

1565 31
(For this question use annex 031-11249A , 031-11249B and 031-11249C) 30.5 % 28.0 % 29.3 %
Knowing that:
. Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg
. Basic index: 119.1
. Number of passengers: 335 distributed as shown in the annex (75 kg per PAX)
. Cargo load + luggage: 9 500 kg distributed as shown in the annex.
. Fuel: 40 000 kg
Stages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated, the centre of gravity in
% MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) at take-off is located at:

1566 31
(For this question use annex 031-12271A) 18 % 19 % 15 %
From the data given at the appendix and assuming a fuel index shift of - 5.7 from
the ZFM loaded index, determine which of the following is the correct value
(percentage MAC) for the position of the centre of gravity at Take Off Mass.

1567 31
 (For this question use annex 031-12272A) 210 kg 280 kg no cargo
For the purpose of calculating traffic loads, an operator's loading manual gives the can be
following standard mass values for passengers. (These values include an loaded in
allowance for hand baggage) hold number
Male 88 kg 1
Female 70 kg
Child 35 kg
Infant 6 kg
The standard mass value to be used for hold baggage is 14 kg per piece
The loading manifest shows the following details :
Passengers loaded
Males 40
Females 65
Children 8
Infants 5
Baggage in hold number 4: 120 pieces

Using the standard mass values given and the data in the appendix, select from
the following the correct value for the mass of freight (all loaded in hold No1)
which constitutes the remainder of the traffic load

1568 31
The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 117 000 kg, comprising a traffic load of 18 71 000 kg 99 000 kg 53 000 kg
1569 31 000 kg and fuel of 46 000 kg. What is the dry operating mass?
(For this question use annex 031-12273A) 66770 kg 60425 kg 61600 kg
From the data contained in the attached appendix, the maximum allowable take - and 17320 and 10975 and 12150
1570 31 off mass and traffic load is respectively : kg kg kg
(For this question use annex 031-11258A and 031-11258B) 23.0 % 21.8 % 20.0 %
The planned take-off mass of a turbojet aeroplane is 180 000 kg, with its centre of
gravity located at 26 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). Shortly prior to engine
start, the local staff informs the flight crew that 4 000 kg must be unloaded from
cargo 4. After the handling operation, the new centre of gravity location in % MAC
will be:
1571 31
(For this question use annex 031-11257A and 031-11257B ) 31 % 25 % 33 %
The planned take-off mass of a turbojet aeroplane is 190 000 kg, with its centre of
gravity located at 29 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) . Shortly prior to engine
start, the local staff informs the flight crew that 4 000 kg must be unloaded from
cargo 4. After the handling operation, the new centre of gravity location in % MAC
will be:
1572 31
(For this question use annex 031-12270A) 35100 kg 48600 kg 51300 kg
Using the data given at the appendix, determine which of the following correctly and 20.5 and 57.0 and 57.0
gives the values of the Zero Fuel Mass (ZFM) of the aeroplane and the load index
at ZFM
1573 31
If nose wheel moves aft during gear retraction, how will this movement affect the It will cause The cg It will cause
location of the centre of gravity (cg) on the aeroplane? the cg to location will the cg to
move change, but move aft.
forward. the direction
cannot be
told the
information
given.

1574 31
 Determine the Landing Mass for the following single engine aeroplane. 2799 lbs 2659 lbs 2449 lbs

Given:
Standard Empty Mass :1764 lbs
Optional Equipment : 35 lbs
Pilot + Front seat passenger : 300 lbs
Cargo Mass : 350 lbs
Ramp Fuel = Block Fuel : 60 Gal.
Trip Fuel : 35 Gal.
Fuel density: 6 lbs/Gal.

1575 31
In mass and balance calculations which of the following describes the datum? It is the most It is the It is the point
aft position distance on the
of the centre from the aeroplane
of gravity. centre of designated
gravity to the by the
point manufacture
through rs from
which the which all
weight of the centre of
component gravity
acts. measureme
nts and
calculations
are made.

1576 31
The centre of gravity location of the aeroplane is normally computed along the: longitudinal lateral axis. vertical axis.
1577 31 axis.
(For this question use annex 031-1569A) 26.57 cm aft 32.29 cm aft 26.57 cm
Where is the centre of gravity of the aeroplane in the diagram? of datum. of datum. forward of
1578 31 datum.

Given are: 69 600 kg 74 000 kg 72 000 kg

- Maximum structural take-off mass: 72 000 kg

- Maximum structural landing mass: 56 000 kg
- Maximum zero fuel mass: 48 000 kg
- Taxi fuel: 800 kg
- Trip fuel: 18 000 kg
- Contingency fuel: 900 kg
- Alternate fuel: 700 kg
- Final reserve fuel: 2 000 kg
Determine the actual take-off mass:

1579 31
On an aeroplane without central fuel tank, the maximum Zero Fuel Mass is related The bending Maximum Wing loaded
to: moment at Structural trip fuel.
the wing Take-Off
root. Mass.

1580 31
Given that: 146 000 kg. 120 900 kg. 121 300 kg.
- Maximum structural take-off mass: 146 000 kg
- Maximum structural landing mass: 93 900 kg
- Maximum zero fuel mass: 86 300 kg
- Trip fuel: 27 000 kg
- Taxi fuel: 1 000 kg
- Contingency fuel: 1350 kg
- Alternate fuel: 2650 kg
- Final reserve fuel: 3000 kg
Determine the actual take-off mass:

1581 31
 (For this question use annex 031-12267A ) 51300 Kg 46130 Kg 46130 Kg
Using the data given in the Load & Trim sheet, determine which of the following and 20,8% and 20,8% and 17,8%
gives the correct values for the Zero Fuel Mass and position of the centre of
gravity (% MAC) at that mass.
1582 31
At the flight preparation stage, the following parameters in particular are available The dry The The dry
for determining the mass of the aircraft: operating operating operating
1- Dry operating mass mass mass is the mass
2- Operating mass includes mass of the includes
Which statement is correct: fixed aeroplane take-off fuel.
equipment without take-
needed to off fuel.
carry out a
specific
flight.

1583 31
Which one of the following is correct? Moment = Arm = Force Arm =
Force / Arm X Moment Moment /
1584 31 Force
The maximum zero-fuel mass: 2, 5, 6 4, 2, 6 1, 2, 3
1- is a regulatory limitation
2- is calculated for a maximum load factor of +3.5 g
3- is due to the maximum permissible bending moment at the wing root
4- imposes fuel dumping from the outer wings tank first
5- imposes fuel dumping from the inner wings tank first
6- can be increased by stiffening the wing
The combination of correct statements is:
1585 31
The maximum zero fuel mass is a mass limitation for the: total load of strength of strength of
the fuel the wing root the fuselage
imposed
upon the
wing

1586 31
(For this question use annex 031-12266A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14) 40.0 35.5 41.5
Using the load and trim sheet for the JAR FCL twin jet, which of the following is the
correct value for the index at a Dry Operating Mass (DOM) of 35000 kg with a CG
at 14% MAC ?

1587 31
For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Dry The total The total The total
Operating Mass is defined as: mass of the mass of the mass of the
aeroplane aeroplane aeroplane
ready for a ready for a ready for a
specific type specific type specific type
of operation of operation of operation
excluding all excluding excluding all
traffic load. crew and usable fuel
crew and traffic
baggage. load.

1588 31
 When establishing the mass breakdown of an aeroplane, the empty mass is basic mass basic mass standard
defined as the sum of the: plus variable plus special empty mass
equipment equipment plus specific
mass mass equipment
mass plus
trapped
fluids plus
unusable
fuel mass

1589 31
For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Take-off Ramp Fuel Trip Fuel
Operating Mass is considered to be Dry Operating Mass plus Fuel Mass. Mass. Mass.

1590 31
For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Traffic less the plus the plus the Trip
Load is considered to be equal to the Take-off Mass Operating Operating Fuel Mass.
1591 31 Mass. Mass.
Which of the following alternatives corresponds to zero fuel mass? Take-off The mass of Operating
mass minus an mass plus
fuel to aeroplane load of
destination with no passengers
and usable fuel. and cargo.
alternate.
1592 31
An aeroplane, which is scheduled to fly an oceanic sector, is due to depart from a maximum maximum en route
high altitude airport in the tropics at 1400 local time. The airport has an zero fuel certificated obstacle
exceptionally long runway. Which of the following is most likely to be the limiting mass. take - off clearance
factor(s) in determining the take - off mass ? mass. requirement
s.
1593 31
The maximum mass to which an aeroplane may be loaded, prior to engine start, is maximum maximum maximum
: regulated certificated regulated
take - off taxi (ramp) taxi (ramp)
mass. mass. mass.
1594 31
The maximum taxi (ramp) mass is governed by : bearing taxi distance structural
strength of to take - off consideratio
the taxiway point. ns.
pavement.

1595 31
The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is the mass of the aeroplane with no usable fuel on governed by listed in the governed by
board. It is a limitation which is: the traffic Flight the
load to be Manual as a requirement
carried. It fixed value. s of the
also It is a centre of
provides structural gravity limits
protection limit. and the
from structural
excessive limits of the
'wing aeroplane.
bending'.

1596 31
The Zero Fuel Mass and the Dry Operating Mass differ by the are the differ by the
value of the same value. sum of the
traffic load mass of
mass. usable fuel
plus traffic
load mass.
1597 31
 Mass for individual passengers (to be carried on an aeroplane) may be passengers passenger passengers
determined from a verbal statement by or on behalf of the passengers if the carried is seats carried is
number of less than 6. available is less than 20.
less than 20.

1598 31
(For this question use annex 031-9640 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14) 5400 kg 6350 kg. 3185 kg.
A revenue flight is planned for the transport aeroplane. Take-off mass is not airfield
limited. The following data applies:
Dry Operating Mass 34930 kg
Performance limited landing mass 55000 kg
Fuel on board at ramp-
Taxi fuel 350 kg
Trip fuel 9730 kg
Contingency and final reserve fuel 1200 kg
Alternate fuel 1600 kg
Passengers on board 130
Standard mass for each passenger 84 kg
Baggage per passenger 14 kg
Traffic load Maximum possible
Use the loading manual provided and the above data. Determine the maximum
cargo load that may be carried without exceeding the limiting aeroplane landing
mass.

1599 31
The empty mass of an aeroplane is given as 44800 kg. Operational items 18400 kg 20700 kg 23000 kg
(including crew standard mass of 1060 kg) are 2300 kg. If the maximum zero fuel
mass is given as 65500 kg, the maximum traffic load which could be carried is:
1600 31
(For this question use annex 031-9643 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14) 7730 kg 11730 kg 15730 kg
The following data relates to a planned flight of an aeroplane -
Dry Operational mass 60520 kg
Performance limited take-off mass 92750 kg
Performance limited landing mass 72250 kg
Maximum Zero Fuel mass 67530 kg
Fuel on board at take-off -
Trip fuel 12500 kg
Contingency and final reserve fuel 2300 kg
Alternate fuel 1700 kg
Using this data, as appropriate, calculate the maximum traffic load that can be
carried.

1601 31
(For this question use annex 031-9644 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14) 6300 kg 12700 kg 4800 kg
Aeroplane Dry Operating mass 85000 kg
Performance limited take-off mass 127000 kg
Performance limited landing mass 98500 kg
Maximum zero fuel mass 89800 kg
Fuel requirements for flight -
Trip fuel 29300 kg
Contingency and final reserve fuel 3600 kg
Alternate fuel 2800 kg.
The maximum traffic load that can be carried on this flight is:

1602 31
The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is a structural limiting mass. It is made up of the unuseable traffic load traffic load
aeroplane Dry Operational mass plus and crew and crew and
standard standard unuseable
mass. mass. fuel.

1603 31
 The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 141000 kg. Total fuel on board is 63000 kg 65200 kg. 79000 kg 78000 kg
including 14000 kg reserve fuel and 1000 kg of unusable fuel. The traffic load is
1604 31 12800 kg. The zero fuel mass is:
'Standard Mass' as used in the computation of passenger load establish the mass 35 kg for 35 kg 35 kg only if
of a child as children over irrespective they are
2 years of age over 2 years
occupying a provided old and
seat and 10 they occupy occupy a
kg for infants a seat. seat.
(less than 2
years)
occupying a
seat.

1605 31
(For this question use annex 031-9598 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11) Forward limit Forward limit Forward limit
The aeroplane has a Take Off Mass of 58 000 kg. At this mass the range of safe 8.5% MAC 8.0% MAC 8.2% MAC
CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is: aft limit aft limit aft limit
26.1% MAC 26.5% MAC 26.2% MAC

1606 31
For a particular aeroplane, the structural maximum mass without any fuel on a variable a fixed value a fixed value
board, other than unusable quantities, is : value which which will which is
may limit the limit the stated in the
payload amount of Aeroplane
carried. fuel carried. Operating
Manual.

1607 31
(For this question use annexes 031-9631A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9) 421.5 inches 421.5 inches 835.5 inches
From the Loading Manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum load that can is 4541 kg. is 2059 Lbs. is 3062 kg.
be carried in that section of the aft cargo compartment which has a balance arm
centroid at :

1608 31
On an aeroplane with a seating capacity of more than 30, it is decided to use 76 kg 84 kg (male) 88 kg (male)
standard mass values for computing the total mass of passengers. If the flight is 76 kg 74 kg
not a holiday charter, the mass value which may be used for an adult is (female). (female).
1609 31
The standard mass for a child is 38 kg for all 30 kg for 35 kg for all
flights. holiday flights.
charters and
35 kg for all
other flights.

1610 31
On an aeroplane with 20 or more seats engaged on an inter-continental flight, the 11 kg per 15 kg per 13 kg per
1611 31 'standard mass' which may be used for passenger baggage is passenger. passenger. passenger.
 The following data applies to a planned flight. 15200 kg 10730 kg 12700 kg
Dry Operating Mass 34900 kg
Performance limited Take-Off Mass 66300 kg
Performance limited Landing Mass 55200 kg
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass 53070 kg
Fuel required at ramp:-
Taxy fuel 400 kg
trip fuel 8600 kg
contingency fuel 430 kg
alternate fuel 970 kg
holding fuel 900 kg
Traffic load 16600 kg
Fuel costs at the departure airfield are such that it is decided to load the maximum
fuel quantity possible. The total fuel which may be safely loaded prior to departure
is :

1612 31
In determining the Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane it is common practice to flight crew flight crew flight crew
use 'standard mass' values for crew. These values are (male) 88 (male) 88 85 kg., cabin
kg. (female) kg. (female) crew 75 kg.
75 kg., cabin 75 kg., cabin each. These
crew 75 kg. crew 75 kg. are inclusive
each. each. of a hand
These These do baggage
include an not include allowance.
allowance an
for hand allowance
baggage. for hand
baggage.

1613 31
Prior to departure the medium range twin jet aeroplane is loaded with maximum 12840 kg 13090 kg. 16470 kg
fuel of 20100 litres at a fuel density (specific gravity) of 0.78.
Using the following data -
Performance limited take-off mass 67200 kg
Performance limited landing mass 54200 kg
Dry Operating Mass 34930 kg
Taxi fuel 250 kg
Trip fuel 9250 kg
Contingency and holding fuel 850 kg
Alternate fuel 700 kg
The maximum permissible traffic load is

1614 31
(For this question use annex 031-9660 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 15 815 kg 13 655 kg 16 080 kg
3.1)
The medium range jet transport aeroplane is to operate a flight carrying the
maximum possible fuel load.
Using the following data as appropriate, determine the mass of fuel on board at
start of take off.
Departure airfield performance limited take-off mass: 60 400 kg
Landing airfield -not performance limited.

Dry Operating Mass: 34930 kg

Fuel required for flight -
Taxi fuel: 715 kg
Trip fuel: 8600 kg
Contingency and final reserve fuel: 1700 kg
Alternate fuel 1500 kg
Additional reserve 400 kg
Traffic load for flight 11000 kg

1615 31
 An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield at a take-off mass of 302550 kg. Fuel on 19650 kg 121450 kg 39105 kg
board at take-off (including contingency and alternate of 19450 kg) is 121450 kg.
The Dry Operating Mass is 161450 kg. The useful load will be
1616 31
When considering the effects of increased mass on an aeroplane, which of the Flight Stalling Stalling
following is true? endurance speeds will speeds will
will be be higher. be lower.
increased.

1617 31
If an aeroplane is at a higher mass than anticipated, for a given airspeed the angle be greater, be remain
of attack will drag will decreased, constant,
increase and drag will drag will
endurance decrease decrease
will and and
decrease. endurance endurance
will increase. will
decrease.
1618 31
In order to provide an adequate "buffet boundary" at the commencement of the unaffected increased to increased to
cruise a speed of 1.3Vs is used. At a mass of 120000 kg this is a CAS of 180 as Vs 191 knots, 202 knots
knots. If the mass of the aeroplane is increased to 135000 kg the value of 1.3Vs always drag will but, since
will be occurs at the decrease the same
same angle and air angle of
of attack. distance per attack is
kg of fuel will used, drag
increase. and range
will remain
the same.

1619 31
The maximum quantity of fuel that can be loaded into an aeroplane's tanks is 11364 kg. 14383 kg. 18206 kg.
given as 3800 US Gallons. If the fuel density (specific gravity) is given as 0.79 the
1620 31 mass of fuel which may be loaded is
Conversion of fuel volume to mass may be may be must be
done by done by done by
using using using actual
standard standard measured
fuel density fuel density fuel density
values as values as values.
specified in specified in
the JAR - OPS
Operations 1.
Manual, if
the actual
fuel density
is not
known.

1621 31
The maximum certificated take - off mass is : a structural a take - off a take - off
limit which limiting limiting
may not be mass which mass which
exceeded is affected is governed
for any take by the by the
- off. aerodrome gradient of
altitude and climb after
temperature. reaching
V2 .

1622 31
 The total mass of the aeroplane including crew, crew baggage; plus catering and Maximum Dry Zero Fuel
removable passenger equipment; plus potable water and lavatory chemicals but Zero Fuel Operating Mass.
excluding usable fuel and traffic load, is referred to as: Mass Mass.

1623 31
When preparing to carry out the weighing procedure on an aeroplane, which of the drain all removable drain all
following is not required? chemical passenger engine tank
toilet fluid services oil.
tanks. equipment
to be off-
loaded.
1624 31
An aeroplane is weighed prior to entry into service. Who is responsible for The The The
deriving the Dry Operational Mass from the weighed mass by the addition of the commander Operator. appropriate
'operational items' ? of the Aviation
aeroplane. Authority.

1625 31
An aeroplane may be weighed in an area of at a in an
the airfield specified enclosed,
set aside for 'weighing non-air
maintenance location' on conditioned,
. the airfield. hangar.

1626 31
(For this question use annex 031-9603 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11) Forward limit Forward limit Forward limit
A aeroplane has a landing mass of 53 000kg. The range of safe CG positions, as 8.2% MAC 7.3% MAC 8.7% MAC
determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is : aft limit aft limit aft limit
27.0% MAC 26.8% MAC 26.8% MAC

1627 31
(For this question use annex 031-9604 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11) forward limit forward limit forward limit
The aeroplane has a mass of 61 000 kg in the cruise. The range of safe CG 7.6% aft limit 7.7% aft limit 8.3% aft limit
positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is: 26.9% MAC. 25.2% MAC 26.3% MAC

1628 31
(For this question use annex 031-9605 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9) 314.5 421.5 367.9
For the transport aeroplane the moment (balance) arm (B.A.) for the forward hold inches. inches. inches.
centroid is:
1629 31
Which of the following is unlikely to have any effect on the position of the centre of Movement Normal Changing
gravity on an aeroplane in flight ? of cabin consumption the tailplane
attendants of fuel for a (horizontal
going about swept wing stabiliser)
their normal aeroplane. incidence
duties. angle.
1630 31
(For this question use annex 031-9608 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9) 7.18 kg per 13.12 kg per 13.15 kg per
Referring to the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum running inch. inch. inch.
load for the aft section of the forward lower deck cargo compartment is:

1631 31
(For this question use annex 031-9609 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9) 7288 kg in 68 kg per 3305 kg in
Referring to the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum load forward square foot. forward
intensity for the lower forward cargo compartment is: compartmen compartmen
t and 9232 t and 4187
kg in aft kg in aft
compartmen compartmen
t. t.
1632 31
 The maximum floor loading for a cargo compartment in an aeroplane is given as 40 cm by 30 cm by 30 cm by
750 kg per square metre. A package with a mass of 600 kg. is to be loaded. 200 cm 300 cm 200 cm
Assuming the pallet base is entirely in contact with the floor, which of the following
is the minimum size pallet that can be used ?
1633 31
The maximum intensity floor loading for an aeroplane is given in the Flight Manual 416.0 kg 1015.6 kg 41.6 kg
as 650 kg per square metre. What is the maximum mass of a package which can
be safely supported on a pallet with dimensions of 80 cm by 80 cm?
1634 31
The distance from the datum to the Centre of Gravity of a mass is known as the moment the lever. the moment.
arm or
balance
arm.
1635 31
(For this question use annex 031-9613 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9) 158.3 kg 285.5 kg 28.5 kg must
A pallet having a freight platform which measures 200 cm x 250 cm has a total must be off may be be off
mass of 300 kg. The pallet is carried on two ground supports each measuring 20 loaded. added. loaded.
cm x 200 cm.
Using the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, calculate how much mass
may be added to, or must be off loaded from, the pallet in order for the load
intensity to match the maximum permitted distribution load intensity for lower deck
forward cargo compartement.

1636 31
The maximum certificated taxi (or ramp) mass is that mass to which an aeroplane a fixed value a value a value
may be loaded prior to engine start. It is : which is which varies which varies
listed in the with airfield only with
Flight temperature airfield
Manual. and altitude. altitude.
Corrections Standard
are listed in corrections
the Flight are listed in
Manual. the Flight
Manual.

1637 31
When the centre of gravity is at the forward limit, an aeroplane will be : extremely extremely extremely
stable and unstable and unstable and
require small require require small
elevator excessive elevator
control to elevator control to
change control to change
pitch. change pitch.
pitch.
1638 31
 A jet transport has the following structural limits: 16 430 kg 17 070 kg 16 570 kg
-Maximum Ramp Mass: 63 060 kg
-Maximum Take Off Mass: 62 800 kg
-Maximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kg
-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 51 300 kg
The aeroplane's fuel is loaded accordance with the following requirements:
-Taxi fuel: 400 kg
-Trip fuel: 8400 kg
-Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1800 kg
-Alternate fuel: 1100 kg
If the Dry Operating Mass is 34930 kg, determine the maximum traffic load that
can be carried on the flight if departure and landing airfields are not performance
limited.

1639 31
(For this question use annex 031-9630 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9) 9232 kg 1568 kg 3062 kg
From the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the aft cargo compartment
has a maximum total load of :
1640 31
(For this question use annex 031-9629 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9) 68 kg per 150 kg per 68 Lbs per
From the loading manual for the jet transport aeroplane, the maximum floor square foot. square foot. square foot.
loading intensity for the aft cargo compartment is :
1641 31
A flight benefits from a strong tail wind which was not forecast. On arrival at the the landing the landing
destination a straight in approach and immediate landing clearance is given. The approach distance distance will
landing mass will be higher than planned and path will be required will be
steeper and be longer. unaffected.
threshold
speed
higher.

1642 31
An aeroplane must be re-weighed at certain intervals. Where an operator uses whenever whenever a 9 years for
'fleet masses' and provided that changes have been correctly documented, this the major each
interval is Certificate of modification aeroplane.
Airworthines is carried
s is out.
renewed.

1643 31
During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator input, the aeroplane rotates the centre of the centre of the centre of
much more rapidly than expected. This is an indication that : gravity is too pressure is gravity may
far forward. aft of the be towards
centre of the aft limit.
gravity.
1644 31
If the centre of gravity of an aeroplane moves forward during flight the elevator become become become
control will : heavier lighter heavier
making the making the making the
aeroplane aeroplane aeroplane
more easy more easy more difficult
to to to
manouevre manouevre manouevre
in pitch. in pitch. in pitch
1645 31
Dry Operating Mass is the mass of the aeroplane less usable fuel. traffic load, usable fuel,
potable potable
water and water and
lavatory lavatory
chemicals. chemicals.
1646 31
 The Take-off Mass of an aeroplane is 66700 kg which includes a traffic load of 41455 kg 42545 kg 42000 kg
14200 kg and a usable fuel load of 10500 kg. If the standard mass for the crew is
1647 31 545 kg the Dry Operating Mass is
In relation to an aeroplane the Dry Operating Mass is the total mass of the usable fuel usable fuel potable
aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation but excluding and traffic and crew. water and
load. lavatory
chemicals.

1648 31
An aeroplane is said to be 'neutrally stable'. This is likely to: be totally cause the be caused
unrelated to centre of by a centre
the position gravity to of gravity
of the centre move which is
of gravity. forwards. towards the
rearward
limit.

1649 31
If the centre of gravity is near the forward limit the aeroplane will: tend to over require benefit from
rotate during elevator trim reduced
take-off. which will drag due to
result in an the
increase in decrease in
fuel angle of
consumption attack.
.
1650 31
The responsibility for determination of the mass of 'operating items' and 'crew the the authority the person
members' included within the Dry Operating Mass lies with commander. of the state compiling
of the weighing
registration. schedule.

1651 31
A mass of 500 kg is loaded at a station which is located 10 metres behind the 30000 Nm 130000 Nm 80000 Nm
present Centre of Gravity and 16 metres behind the datum.
(Assume: g=10 m/s^2)
The moment for that mass used in the loading manifest is :
1652 31
An aeroplane is loaded with its centre of gravity towards the rear limit. This will a reduced an increase a reduction
result in : fuel in in power
consumption longitudinal required for
as a result of stability. a given
reduced speed.
drag.

1653 31
The empty mass of an aeroplane is recorded in the loading the loading the weighing
manifest. It manifest. It schedule
differs from differs from and is
Dry the zero fuel amended to
Operating mass by the take account
Mass by the value of the of changes
value of the 'traffic load'. due to
'useful load'. modification
s of the
aeroplane.

1654 31
Standard masses may be used for the computation of mass values for baggage if has 20 or has 6 or has 30 or
the aeroplane more seats. more seats. more seats.

1655 31
 The following results were obtained after weighing a helicopter : 11 cm left 4 cm right 4 cm left

- mass at front point: 300 kg

- mass at right rear point : 1 100 kg
- mass at left rear point : 950 kg

It is given that the front point is located 0.30 m left of the longitudinal axis and the
rear points are symmetricaly located 1.20 m from this axis.
The helicopter's lateral CG-position relative to the longitudinal axis is:

1656 31
To calculate a usable take-off mass, the factors to be taken into account include: Maximum Maximum Maximum
landing zero fuel take-off
mass mass mass
augmented augmented decreased
by fuel on by the fuel by the fuel
board at burn. burn.
take-off.
1657 31
Allowed traffic load is the difference between : allowed take operating allowed take
off mass and mass and off mass and
basic mass basic mass operating
mass

1658 31
In cruise flight, an aft centre of gravity location will: decrease increase does not
longitudinal longitudinal influence
static static longitudinal
stability stability static
stability
1659 31
Given: 73 000 kg 73 000 kg 71 300 kg
Dry operating mass = 38 000 kg and 24 700 and 27 000 and 23 000
maximum structural take-off mass = 72 000 kg kg kg kg
maximum landing mass = 65 000 kg
maximum zero fuel mass = 61 000 kg
Fuel burn = 8 000 kg
Take-off Fuel = 10 300 kg

The maximum allowed take-off mass and payload are respectively :

1660 31
After weighing a helicopter the following values are noted: 4.52 m 4.09 m 4.21 m

forward point: 350 kg

aft right point: 995 kg
aft left point: 1 205 kg

What is the longitudinal CG-position in relation to the datum situated 4 m in front of

the rotor axis, knowing that the forward point is at 2.5 m forward of the rotor axis
and the aft points are 1 m aft of the rotor axis?

1661 31
(For this question use annex 031-11632A ) 450 kg 350 kg 250 kg

The empty mass of your helicopter is 1 100 kg with a CG-position at 3.05m. The
load is as follows:

-total mass of pilot and co-pilot: 150 kg

-total mass of passengers at rear: 200 kg

In order not to exeed the limitations the minimum remaining fuel on board should
be:

1662 31
 (For this question use annex 031 11634A) 1 098 kg 1 105 kg 585 kg
Maximum allowed take-off mass limit: 37 200kg
Dry operating mass: 21 600 kg
Take-off fuel: 8 500 kg
Passengers on board: male 33, female 32, children 5
Baggages: 880 kg

The company uses the standard passenger mass systems (see annex) allowed by
regulations. The flight is not a holiday charter.
In these conditions, the maximum cargo that may be loaded is

1663 31
Length of the mean aerodynamic chord = 1 m 183 kg 165 kg 104 kg
Moment arm of the forward cargo: -0,50 m
Moment arm of the aft cargo: + 2,50 m
The aircraft mass is 2 200 kg and its centre of gravity is at 25% MAC
To move the centre of gravity to 40%, which mass has to be transferred from the
forward to the aft cargo hold?
1664 31
Given the following : 48 400 kg 53 000 kg 47 800 kg
- Maximum structural take-off mass 48 000 kg
- Maximum structural landing mass: 44 000 kg
- Maximum zero fuel mass: 36 000 kg
-Taxi fuel: 600 kg
-Contingency fuel: 900 kg
-Alternate fuel: 800 kg
-Final reserve fuel: 1 100 kg
-Trip fuel: 9 000 kg
Determine the actual take-off mass:

1665 31
The maximum load per running metre of an aeroplane is 350 kg/m. The width of A load of A load of A load of
the floor area is 2 metres. The floor strength limitation is 300 kg per square metre. 400 kg in a 500 kg in a 400 kg in a
Which one of the following crates (length x width x height) can be loaded directly crate with crate with crate with
on the floor? dimensions dimensions dimensions
1.2 m x 1.2 1.5 m x 1 m 1.4 m x 0.8
m x 1.2 m. x 1 m. m x 0.8 m.
1666 31
With the centre of gravity on the forward limit which of the following is to be A tendency A decrease A decrease
expected? to yaw to the in range. in the
right on landing
take-off. speed.
1667 31
(For this question use annex 031-11619A ) 2.97 m 2.82 m 2.91 m

A helicopter's basic mass is 1 100 kg and the longitudinal CG-position is at 3.10 m.

Determine the longitudinal CG position in the following conditions :

- pilot and front passenger : 150 kg

- rear passengers : 150 kg
- fuel : 500 kg

1668 31
The actual 'Take-off Mass' is equivalent to: Actual Dry Actual Zero
Landing Operating Fuel Mass
Mass plus Mass plus plus the
the take-off take-off fuel traffic load
fuel and the
traffic load
1669 31
 The term 'Maximum Zero Fuel Mass' consist of : The The The
maximum maximum maximum
mass for permissible mass
some mass of an authorized
aeroplanes aeroplane for a certain
including the with no aeroplane
fuel load and usable fuel. not including
the traffic traffic load
load and fuel
load.

1670 31
While making mass and balance calculation for a particular aeroplane, the term all the oil unusable all the oil,
'Empty Mass' applies to the sum of airframe, engine(s), fixed ballast plus and fuel. fuel and full fuel, and
operating hydraulic
fluids. fluid but not
including
crew and
traffic load.

1671 31
Assuming gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged, movement of the higher stall lower reduced
centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit will cause speed. optimum maximum
cruising cruise
speed. range.
1672 31
What determines the longitudinal stability of an aeroplane ? The The The
effectivenes relationship dihedral,
s of the of thrust and angle of
horizontal lift to weight sweepback
stabilizer, and drag. and the keel
rudder and effect.
rudder trim
tab.
1673 31
The total mass of an aeroplane is 9000 kg. The centre of gravity (cg) position is at 900 kg 30.0 kg 196 kg
2.0 m from the datum line. The aft limit for cg is at 2.1 m from the datum line.
What mass of cargo must be shifted from the front cargo hold (at 0.8 m from the
datum) to the aft hold (at 3.8 m), to move the cg to the aft limit?

1674 31
The stalling speed of an aeroplane will be highest when it is loaded with a: low gross low gross high gross
mass and mass and aft mass and aft
forward centre of centre of
centre of gravity. gravity.
gravity.
1675 31
The actual 'Zero Fuel Mass' is equal to the: Operating Basic Empty Actual
Mass plus Mass plus Landing
all the traffic the fuel Mass plus
load. loaded. trip fuel.

1676 31
 The centre of gravity of a body is that point where the where the which is
sum of the sum of the always used
moments external as datum
from the forces is when
external equal to computing
forces acting zero. moments.
on the body
is equal to
zero.

1677 31
Calculate the centre of gravity in % MAC (mean aerodynamic chord) with following 63.4 % MAC 47.0 % MAC 23.1 % MAC
data:
Distance datum - centre of gravity: 12.53 m
Distance datum - leading edge: 9.63 m
Length of MAC: 8 m
1678 31
(For this question use annexes 031-11069A and 031-11069B) 32.5 % 36 % 25 %
Contrary to the forecast given in the LOAD and TRIM sheet, cargo compartment 1
is empty. The take-off centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord) will
be located at:
1679 31
(For this question use annexes 031-11070A and 031-11070B) 35.5 % 31.5 % 24.5 %
Contrary to the loading sheet forecasts you have :

Cargo compartment 1: empty passengers in compartment OA: 20

Cargo compartment 2: 1 000 kg passengers in compartment OB: 20
Cargo compartment 3: 3 000 kg passengers in compartment OC: 30
Cargo compartment 4: 2 000 kg
Cargo compartment 5: 1 000 kg

The take-off centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord), will be

located at:

1680 31
(For this question use annexes 031-11071A and 031-11071B) 27.8 % 30.5 % 28.5 %
Just prior to departure, you accept 10 passengers additional on board who will be
seated in "compartment OC" and you have 750 kg unloaded from cargo
compartment 5.
The take-off centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord) will be located
at:
1681 31
(For this question use annexes 031-11072A and 031-11072B) 31.5 % 26 % 35.5 %
The weight and balance sheet is available and contrary to the forecast, cargo
compartment 1 is empty.
The zero fuel weight centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord) is
located at:
1682 31
The floor of the main cargo hold is limited to 4 000 N/m2. 500 kg 5 000 kg 100 kg
It is planned to load a cubic container each side of which measures 0.5m.
Its maximum gross mass must not exceed:
(assume g=10m/s2)

1683 31
Assume: Station Station Station
Aeroplane gross mass: 4750 kg 117.69 118.33 120.22
Centre of gravity at station: 115.8

What will be the new position of the centre of gravity if 100 kg is moved from the
station 30 to station 120?
1684 31
 (For this question use annex 031-4739A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4) 4 390 4 372 4 720
With respect to multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the ramp mass
(lbs) in the following conditions:
Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs
Basic arm: 88.5 Inches
One pilot: 160 lbs
Front seat passenger : 200 lbs
Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs
One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs
Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs
Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs
Block fuel: 100 US Gal.
Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.
Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal.
Fuel density: 6 lbs/US Gal.

1685 31
By adding to the basic empty mass the following fixed necessary equipment for a zero fuel landing Dry
specific flight (catering, safety and rescue equipment, fly away kit, crew), we get: mass mass operating
1686 31 mass
A flight has been made from London to Valencia carrying minimum fuel and 14 331 kg 13 240 kg 16 770 kg
maximum traffic load. On the return flight the fuel tanks in the aeroplane are to be
filled to capacity with a total fuel load of 20100 litres at a fuel density of 0.79 kg/l.
The following are the aeroplane's structural limits:
-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg
-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg
-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg
-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg
The performance limited take off mass at Valencia is 67 330 kg.
The landing mass at London is not performance limited.
Dry Operating Mass: 34 930 kg
Trip Fuel (Valencia to London): 5 990 kg
Taxi fuel: 250 kg
The maximum traffic load that can be carried from Valencia will be:

1687 31
The term 'useful load' as applied to an aeroplane includes traffic load traffic load the revenue-
plus useable only. earning
fuel. portion of
traffic load
only.

1688 31
An aeroplane is performance limited to a landing mass of 54230 kg. The Dry 17080 kg 12200 kg. 10080 kg.
Operating Mass is 35000 kg and the zero fuel mass is 52080 kg. If the take-off
1689 31 mass is 64280 kg the useful load is
(For this question use annex 031-9676 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 4) 11349 litres 8850 litres 11646 litres
For the medium range transport aeroplane, from the loading manual, determine
the maximum total volume of fuel which can be loaded into the main wing tanks.
(Fuel density value 0.78)

1690 31
 An aeroplane's weighing schedule indicates that the empty mass is 57320 kg. operational operational operational
The nominal Dry Operating Mass is 60120 kg and the Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is items have a items have a items have a
given as 72100 kg. Which of the following is a correct statement in relation to this mass of mass of mass of
aeroplane? 2800 kg and 2800 kg and 2800 kg and
the the the
maximum maximum maximum
useful load traffic load traffic load
is 14780 kg. for this for this
aeroplane is aeroplane is
11980 kg. 14780 kg.

1691 31
An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield where the performance limited take-off 21500 kg 21220 kg 20870 kg
mass is 89200 kg.
Certificated maximum masses are as follows:
Ramp (taxi) mass 89930 kg
Maximum Take-off mass 89430 kg
MaximumLanding mass 71520 kg
Actual Zero fuel mass 62050 kg
Fuel on board at ramp:
Taxi fuel 600 kg
Trip fuel 17830 kg
Contingency, final reserve and alternate 9030 kg
If the Dry Operating Mass is 40970 kg the traffic load that can be carried on this
flight is

1692 31
The empty mass of an aeroplane, as given in the weighing schedule, is 61300 kg. 29600 kg 26900 kg. 68400 kg
The operational items (including crew) is given as a mass of 2300 kg. If the take-
off mass is 132000 kg (including a useable fuel quantity of 43800 kg) the useful
load is
1693 31
The following data applies to an aeroplane which is about to take off: 18200 kg 17450 kg 78900 kg
Certified maximum take-off mass 141500 kg
Performance limited take-off mass 137300 kg
Dry Operating Mass 58400 kg
Crew and crew hand baggage mass 640 kg
Crew baggage in hold 110 kg
Fuel on board 60700 kg

From this data calculate the mass of the useful load.

1694 31
A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's 18 170 kg 13 950 kg 25 800 kg
structural limits:
-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg
-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg
-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg
-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg
The performance limited take off mass is 67 450kg and the performance limited
landing mass is 55 470 kg.
Dry Operating Mass: 34 900 kg
Trip Fuel: 6 200 kg
Taxi Fuel: 250 kg
Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 300 kg
Alternate Fuel: 1 100 kg
The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:

1695 31
 A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's 20 420 kg 17 810 kg 21 170 kg
structural limits:
-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg
-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg
-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg
-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg
Take Off and Landing mass are not performance limited.
Dry Operating Mass: 34 930 kg
Trip Fuel: 11 500 kg
Taxi Fuel: 250 kg
Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 450 kg
Alternate Fuel: 1 350 kg
The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:

1696 31
A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's 19 500 kg 17 840 kg 19 100 kg
structural limits:
-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg
-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg
-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg
-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg
Take Off and Landing mass are not performance limited.
Dry Operating Mass: 34 900 kg
Trip Fuel: 11 800 kg
Taxi Fuel: 500 kg
Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 600 kg
Alternate Fuel: 1 900 kg
The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:

1697 31
(For this question use annex 031-9685 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14) The flight The flight The flight is
The medium range twin jet transport is scheduled to operate from a departure may be may be 'landing
airfield where conditions limit the take-off mass to 65050 kg. The destination safely safely mass' limited
airfield has a performance limited landing mass of 54500 kg. The Dry Operating operated operated and the
Mass is 34900 kg. Loading data is as follows - with the with an traffic load
Taxi fuel 350 kg stated traffic additional must be
Trip fuel 9250 kg and fuel 200 kg of reduced to
Contingency and final reserve fuel 1100 kg load. traffic load. 17500 kg.
Alternate fuel 1000 kg
Traffic load 18600 kg
Check the load and ensure that the flight may be operated without exceeding any
of the aeroplane limits. Choose, from those given below, the most appropriate
answer.

1698 31
The following results were obtained after weighing a helicopter : 3,36 m 0,04 m 3,44 m

- front point : 220 kg

- right rear point : 500 kg
- left rear point : 480 kg

The helicopter's datum is 3.40 m forward of the rotor axis. The front point is
located 2.00 m forward of the rotor axis and the rear points are located 0.50 m aft
of the rotor axis.
The longitudinal CG-position in relation to the datum is:

1699 31
To measure the mass and CG-position of an aircraft, it should be weighed with a 3 points of 2 points of 1 point of
1700 31 minimum of: support support support
 The determination of the centre of gravity in relation to the mean aerodynamic consists of consists of consists of
chord: defining the defining the defining the
centre of centre of centre of
gravity gravity gravity
longitudinall longitudinall longitudinall
y in relation y in relation y in relation
to the to the length to the length
position of of the mean of the mean
the aerodynamic aerodynamic
aerodynamic chord and chord and
centre of the leading the trailing
pressure edge edge

1701 31
The centre of gravity is the centre of focus along neutral point
thrust along the along the
the longitudinal longitudinal
longitudinal axis, in axis, in
axis, in relation to a relation to a
relation to a datum line datum line
datum line

1702 31
During a violent avoidance manoeuvre, a light twin aircraft, certified to FAR 23 rupture of a permanent a elastic
requirements was subjected to an instantaneous load factor of 4.2. The Flight one or more deformation deformation
Manual specifies that the aircraft is certified in the normal category for a load structural of the whilst the
factor of -1.9 to +3.8. components structure load was
Considering the certification requirements and taking into account that the applied, but
manufacturer of the twin did not include, during its conception, a supplementary no
margin in the flight envelope, it might be possible to observe; permanent
distortion
1703 31
At a mass of 1 800 kg, a helicopter equipped with a winch has a lateral CG- 10.5 cm to 10,5 cm to 1.5 cm to
position of 5 cm to the left. The CG of the load suspended from the winch is at a the right the right the right
distance of 60 cm to the right. With a winch load of 200 kg the lateral CG-position
of the helicopter will be:
1704 31
The Dry Operating Mass of a helicopter is the total mass of a helicopter : including the including the ready for a
crew,the fuel crew, the specific
and the usable fuel operation
specific and the including the
equipments specific crew and
for the equipments traffic load,
mission but for the not including
excluding mission and the usable
payload payload fuel

1705 31
 The following data is extracted from an aeroplane's loading manifest: must be is 87300 kg is 87300 kg
Performance limited take-off mass 93500 kg reduced to which is and excess
Expected landing mass at destination 81700 kg 81700 kg in acceptable structural
Maximum certificated landing mass 86300 kg order to in this case stress could
Fuel on board 16500 kg avoid a high because this result
During the flight a diversion is made to an en-route alternate which is not speed is a
'performance limited' for landing. Fuel remaining at landing is 10300 kg. The approach. diversion
landing mass and not a
normal
scheduled
landing.

1706 31
(For this question use appendix 031-11605A) 4,455 m 4,615 m 0,217 m

Without the crew, the weight and the CG-position of the aircraft are 7 000 kg and
4,70m.

- the mass of the pilot is 90 kg

- the mass of the copilot is 75 kg
- the mass of the flight engineer is 90 kg

With this crew on board, the CG-position of the aircraft will be:

1707 31
At maximum certificated take-off mass an aeroplane departs from an airfield which a landing a high a high
is not limiting for either take-off or landing masses. During initial climb the number short threshold threshold
one engine suffers a contained disintegration. An emergency is declared and the resultant speed and speed and a
aeroplane returns to departure airfield for an immediate landing. The most likely from the possible shorter stop
result of this action will be increased undercarriag distance.
angle of e or other
approach structural
due to the failure.
very high
aeroplane
mass.

1708 31
The floor limit of an aircraft cargo hold is 5 000 N/m2. 32 kg 320 kg 80 kg
It is planned to load-up a cubic container measuring 0,4 m of side.
It's maximum gross mass must not exceed:
(assume g=10m/s2)
1709 31
The basic empty mass of an aircraft is 30 000 kg. The masses of the following 30 300 kg 38 300 kg 30 665 kg
items are :
- catering: 300 kg
- safety and rescue material: nil
- fly away kit: nil
- crew (inclusive crew baggage): 365kg
- fuel at take-off: 3 000 kg
- unusable fuel: 120 kg
- passengers, baggage, cargo: 8 000 kg

The Dry Operating Mass is :

1710 31
 Based on actual conditions, an aeroplane has the following performance take-off 4 100 kg 4 200 kg 4 700 kg
mass limitations:

Flaps : 0° 10° 15°

Runway: 4100 4400 4600
Climb: 4700 4500 4200

Masses are in kg
Structural limits: take-off/landing/zero fuel: 4 300 kg

The maximum take-off mass is :

1711 31
The mass and balance information gives : 34 % 17 % 22 %
Basic mass : 1 200 kg ; Basic balance arm : 3.00 m

Under these conditions the Basic centre of gravity is at 25% of the mean
aerodynamic chord (MAC). The length of MAC is 2m.

In the mass and balance section of the flight manual the following information is
given :
Position Arm
front seats : 2.5 m
rear seats : 3.5 m
rear hold : 4.5 m
fuel tanks : 3.0 m
The pilot and one passenger embark; each weighs 80 kg. Fuel tanks contain 140
litres of petrol with a density of 0.714. The rear seats are not occupied.Taxi fuel is
negligable.
The position of the centre of gravity at take-off (as % MAC) is :

1712 31
The mass displacement caused by landing gear extension: does not creates a creates a
create a pitch-down longitudinal
longitudinal longitudinal moment in
moment moment the direction
(pitch-up or
pitch-down)
determined
by the type
of landing
gear

1713 31
Which of the following is most likely to affect the range of centre of gravity Elevator and Location of The need to
positions on an aeroplane? tailplane the maintain a
(horizontal undercarriag low value of
stabiliser) e. stalling
effectivenes speed.
s in all flight
conditions.

1714 31
(For this question use annex 031-11606A) 0,062m to 0,016m to beyond the
the right the left limits
Without the man on the winch, the mass and the lateral CG-position of the aircraft
are 6 000 kg and 0,04 m to the right.

- the mass of the man on the winch is 100 kg

With the man on the winch , the lateral CG-position of the aircraft will be:
1715 31
 (For this question use annex 031-4741A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4) 433 906 377 746 401 338
With respect to a multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the total
moment (lbs.In) at landing in the following conditions:
Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs.
One pilot: 160 lbs.
Front seat passenger : 200 lbs.
Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total)
One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs.
Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs.
Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs.
Block fuel: 100 US Gal.
Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.
Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal.
Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal.
Total moment at take-off: 432226 lbs.In

1716 31
An aircraft basic empty mass is 3000 kg. 2 150 kg 1 600 kg 1 550 kg
The maximum take-off, landing, and zero-fuel mass are identical, at 5200 kg.
Ramp fuel is 650 kg, the taxi fuel is 50 kg.
The payload available is :
1717 31
(For this question use annex 031-4742A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4) 91.84 inches 91.92 inches 91.69 inches
With respect to a multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the CG aft of datum aft of datum aft of datum
location at take off in the following conditions:
Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs.
One pilot: 160 lbs.
Front seat passenger : 200 lbs.
Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total)
One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs.
Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs.
Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs.
Zero Fuel Mass: 4210 lbs.
Moment at Zero Fuel Mass: 377751 lbs.In
Block fuel: 100 US Gal.
Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.
Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal.
Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal.

1718 31
(For this question use annex 031-4740A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4) 9 360 56 160 433 906
With respect to multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the block fuel
moment (lbs.In.) in the following conditions:
Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs.
One pilot: 160 lbs.
Front seat passenger : 200 lbs.
Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total)
One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs.
Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs.
Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs.
Block fuel: 100 US Gal.
Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.
Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal.
Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal.

1719 31
ALANCE - AEROPLANES

brings the
cyclic stick
closer to its
forward stop
and
increases
the stress in
the rotor
head

0
1 500 kg

0
will give
reduced
safety
margins.

0
6 270 kg
and 4.594 m

0
without
specific
equipment
for the
mission,
without
payload,
wthout
unusable
fuel.

0
28.0 %

0
33 %

0
18 900 kg

0
front cargo:
4 550 kg;
rear cargo: 5
950 kg

0
the mean
aerodynamic
chord in
relation to
the datum

0
25 000 kg

0
32.3 %

0
4 600 kg

0
55 500 kg

0
6 180 kg
and 0.041m
to the right

1
2414 lbs

1
10,5%

1
2799 lbs

0
MZFM =
Traffic load +
DOM

0
1 500 kg
from cargo 3
to cargo 1

1
a point near
the centre of
the
aeroplane. It
moves
longitudinall
y as masses
are added
forward and
aft of its
location.

0
433.3

0
25 cm.

0
the datum.

0
the operator
is obliged to
use the
actual
masses of
each
passenger

1
chosen on
the
longitudinal
axis of the
aircraft and
necessarily
situated
between the
leading
edge and
trailing edge
of the wing

0
at a
convenient
point which
may not
physically be
on the
aeroplane.
0
calculated
from the
loading
manifest.

0
2311,8

1
The
maximum
take-off
mass.

0
heavier than
anticipated
and the
calculated
safety
speeds will
be too high

0
V1 will be
increased.

0
Forward limit
7.4% MAC
aft limit
27.0% MAC

0
605.43
inches aft of
datum 0
41 %

0
It moves aft
by 3.22 m.

0
1830 kg

0
The
maximum
take-off
mass minus
the take-off
fuel mass.
1
found in the
flight manual
and is
inclusive of
unusable
fuel plus
fluids
contained in
closed
systems.

0
Maximum
landing
mass. 0
3 000 kg in
cargo 1; 1
000 kg in
cargo 4

0
37 %

0
14 600 kg

1
Take-off cg
is out of
limits at
10.17 m aft
of datum.

0
16.9 %.

0
65.8 kg.

0
120 900 kg

0
29 344 kg

0
Index.
1
40 cm.

0
Passengers
baggage
and cargo.

1
It is dry
operating
mass minus
fuel load.

0
the range of
moments
the centre of
gravity (cg)
can have
without
making the
aeroplane
unsafe to fly.

1
prevent
excessive
'g'-loading
during the
landing flare.

0
Zero Fuel
Mass minus
Dry
Operating
Mass.

0
only if major
modification
s have taken
place.

0
61.27 cm aft
of datum.

0
31960 kg

0
7 500 kg

0
540 cm
forward of
the front
spar.

0
always
parallel to
the
aeroplane's
vertical axis.

0
through a
point defined
as the
datum point.

1
vertically
through the
centre of
gravity.

0
may only be
moved if
permitted by
the
regulating
authority
and
endorsed in
the
aeroplane's
certificate of
airworthines
s.

0
1.43 Nm.
0
56.35 cm aft
datum.

0
31.5 %

0
317 kg.

0
1 000 kg
from cargo 4
to cargo 1.

0
The
Maximum
Landing
Mass of an
aeroplane is
restricted by
structural
limitations,
performance
limitations
and the
strength of
the runway.

0
A tail heavy
aeroplane is
less stable
and stalls at
a lower
speed than
a nose
heavy
aeroplane

0
A tail heavy
aeroplane is
less stable
and stalls at
a lower
speed than
a nose
heavy
aeroplane

0
17.5 %

0
49130 kg
and 19 %

0
75000 kg
and 17200
kg

0
cargo 1: 4
000 kg;
cargo 4: 6
000 kg

0
130500 kg
and 31500
kg

0
27.4 %

0
14 %

1
260 kg

0
64 000 kg
0
68038 kg
and 18588
kg 0
30.2 %

0
27 %

0
46300 kg
and 20.5

0
It will not
affect the cg
location.

0
2589 lbs

0
It is the most
forward
position of
the centre of
gravity.

0
horizontal
axis. 1
32.29 cm
forward of
datum. 0
70 400 kg

1
Variable
equipment
for the flight.

1
120 300 kg.

0
41300 Kg
and 17,8%

0
The
operating
mass
includes the
traffic load.

1
Arm = Force
/ Moment
0
1, 3, 5

0
allowable
load exerted
upon the
wing
considering
a margin for
fuel tanking

0
33..0

1
The total
mass of the
aeroplane
ready for a
specific type
of operation
excluding all
usable fuel.

0
empty mass
dry plus
variable
equipment
mass

0
Ramp Fuel
Mass less
the fuel for
APU and
run-up.
1
less the Trip
Fuel Mass.
1
Operating
mass plus
passengers
and cargo.

0
altitude and
temperature
of the
departure
airfield.
0
maximum
certificated
take - off
mass.
0
tyre speed
and
temperature
limitations.

0
tabulated in
the Flight
Manual
against
arguments
of airfield
elevation
and
temperature.

0
differ by the
mass of
usable fuel.

1
passenger
seats
available is
less than 6.

0
4530 kg.

0
19460 kg.

1
7010 kg

0
7100 kg

0
traffic load,
unuseable
fuel and
crew
standard
mass.
0
93000 kg

0
35 kg for
children over
2 years
occupying a
seat and 10
kg for infants
(less than 2
years) not
occupying a
seat.

0
Forward limit
9.5% MAC
aft limit
26.1% MAC

0
a variable
value which
is governed
by the
payload
carried.

0
835.5 inches
is 6752 kg.

0
84 kg

0
35 kg for
holiday
charters and
38 kg for all
other flights.

0
14 kg per
passenger. 0
13230 kg

0
flight crew
85 kg., cabin
crew 75 kg.
each.
These do
not include a
hand
baggage
allowance.

0
18040 kg

0
14 470 kg

0
141100 kg

0
Gradient of
climb for a
given power
setting will
be higher.

0
remain
constant,
drag will
increase and
endurance
will increase.

1
increased to
191 knots,
drag will
increase and
air distance
per kg of
fuel will
decrease.

0
13647 kg.

1
must be
done using
fuel density
values of
0.79 for JP 1
and 0.76 for
JP 4 as
specified in
JAR - OPS,
IEM - OPS
1.605E.

1
limited by
the runway
take off
distance
available. It
is tabulated
in the Flight
Manual.

1
Aeroplane
Prepared for
Service
( APS)
Mass.
0
drain all
useable fuel.

0
The
aeroplane
manufacture
r or supplier.

0
in a quiet
parking area
clear of the
normal
manoeuvrin
g area.

0
Forward limit
7.8% MAC
aft limit
27.0% MAC

0
forward limit
8.0% aft limit
27.2% MAC.

0
257 inches.

0
Lowering the
landing gear.

0
14.65 kg per
inch.

0
150 kg per
square foot.

0
40 cm by
300 cm

1
101.6 kg

1
the index.

1
28.5 kg may
be added.

0
a value
which is only
affected by
the outside
air
temperature.
Corrections
are
calculated
from data
given in the
Flight
Manual.

1
extremely
stable and
will require
excessive
elevator
control to
change
pitch.
0
16 370 kg

0
4187 kg

0
68 kg per
square
metre.
1
the
approach
path will be
steeper.

0
4 years for
each
aeroplane.

0
the
aeroplane is
overloaded.

0
become
lighter
making the
aeroplane
more difficult
to
manouevre
in pitch.
0
usable fuel
and traffic
load.

0
56200 kg

0
usable fuel,
potable
water and
lavatory
chemicals.
1
be caused
by a centre
of gravity
which is
towards the
forward limit.

0
require less
power for a
given
airspeed.

0
the operator.

0
50000 Nm

0
an increased
risk of
stalling due
to a
decrease in
tailplane
moment

0
the weighing
schedule. If
changes
occur, due to
modification
s, the
aeroplane
must be re-
weighed
always.

0
is carrying
30 or more
passengers.
1
11 cm right

0
Maximum
landing
mass
augmented
by the fuel
burn.

0
allowed take
off mass and
basic mass
plus trip fuel

0
not change
the static
curve of
stability into
longitudinal
1
71 300 kg
and 25 300
kg

0
4.15 m

1
125 kg

0
901 kg

0
110 kg

0
48 000 kg

0
A load of
700 kg in a
crate with
dimensions
1.8 m x 1.4
m x 0.8 m.
1
A decrease
of the
stalling
speed.
0
2.85 m

0
Dry
Operating
Mass plus
the take-off
fuel

0
The
maximum
mass
authorized
for a certain
aeroplane
not including
the fuel load
and
operational
items

0
all the
consumable
fuel and oil,
but not
including
any radio or
navigation
equipment
installed by
manufacture
r.

0
increased
cruise
range.
0
The location
of the centre
of gravity
with respect
to the
neutral
point.

0
300 kg

0
high gross
mass and
forward
centre of
gravity.
0
Dry
Operating
Mass plus
the traffic
load.
0
through
which the
sum of the
forces of all
masses of
the body is
considered
to act.

0
36.3 % MAC

0
31 %

0
32.5 %

0
27.2 %

1
32 %

0
1 000 kg

0
Station
118.25

1
4 120

0
take-off
mass
0
9 830 kg

1
the revenue-
earning
portion of
traffic load
plus useable
fuel.

1
29280 kg.

0
5674 litres

1
operational
items have a
mass of
2800 kg and
the
maximum
useful load
is 11980 kg.

0
21080 kg

0
70700 kg

0
78150 kg

0
17 840 kg

0
21 070 kg

0
19 200 kg

0
The flight is
'zero fuel
mass' limited
and the
traffic load
must be
reduced to
14170 kg.

0
1,18 m

0
4 point of
support 1
consists of
defining the
centre of
gravity
longitudinall
y in relation
to the
position of
the
aerodynamic
convergence
point

0
point where
all the
aircraft mass
is
considered
to be
concentrate
d
0
no distortion,
permanent
or temporary
of the
structure

0
1.5 cm to
the left

0
excluding
the crew but
including
specific
equipments
for the
mission and
not including
the usable
fuel

0
is 83200 kg
which is in
excess of
the
regulated
landing
mass and
could result
in
overrunning
the runway

0
4,783 m

0
a landing
further along
the runway
than normal.

0
800 kg

0
30 785 kg

0
4 300 kg

0
29 %

0
creates a
pitch-up
longitudinal
moment

0
The need to
minimise
drag forces
and so
improve
efficiency.

1
0,0633m to
the right

1
432 221

0
2 200 kg

0
93.60 inches
aft of datum

0
30 888

0
0 0 1

1 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 1

1 0 0
0 0 1

0 0 1

1 0 0

1 0 0

1 0 0

0 1 0
0 1 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 0
0 0 1

1 0 0

0 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 1

0 1 0
0 0 1

0 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 1

0 1 0
0 0 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 0
1 0 0

0 1 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 1 0
0 1 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

0 0 1

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 0

0 1 0
0 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

1 0 0

1 0 0
0 0 1

0 1 0

0 1 0

0 0 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

0 1 0
0 1 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 0 1
0 0 1

0 0 1

0 0 1

0 0 1
0 0 1

0 1 0

0 1 0

0 1 0

0 0 0
0 0 1

0 1 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

1 0 0

1 0 0

0 1 0
0 0 1

0 1 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 1
0 1 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 1 0
0 1 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 0 0
0 0 1

0 0 1

0 0 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

0 1 0
1 0 0

1 0 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

1 0 0
0 1 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 0 1
0 0 1

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 0
1 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

0 1 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

1 0 0
0 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 1
0 0 1

0 0 1

0 0 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 1 0

0 1 0

0 0 1
0 1 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

0 0 0
1 0 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 0

0 0 1
0 1 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

0 0 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0
1 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 1

0 0 1

0 0 1

0 0 1
0 0 1

0 0 1

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 1 0

0 0 0
0 1 0

0 1 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 0
1 0 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

0 1 0

0 0 1
1 0 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 1 0

0 0 0
1 0 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 1 0
0 1 0

1 0 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 1
0 0 1

0 1 0

0 1 0

0 0 0

0 0 0
0 1 0

1 0 0

1 0 0

1 0 0
 HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS

The ability of detecting relevant information which is not perception sensation appreciation attention
presented in an actively monitored input channel is
2520 40 known as 0
The so-called Coriolis effect (a conflict in information on on when no on stimulating several
processing in the brain) in spatial disorientation occurs: stimulating stimulating semicircular semicircular canals
the saccule the cochlea canal is simultaneously
and the intensely stimulated
utricle of the
inner ear

2521 40 0
To prevent vertigo in flight we should look towards breath keep not move the head
the sides deeply but breathing suddenly while we are
when we control the normally turning
make a turn respiratory
frequency
2522 40 0
A copilot has passed an upgrading course to become a His/her self The An His/her self-concept is
captain. Which psychological consequence is most -concept is increased upgrading going to change
likely? going to be command does not because of new roles
stabilized authority have any of and tasks which have to
because of leads to a the be incorporated.
the higher higher mentioned
status as a professionali psychologic
captain. sm. al
consequenc
es.

2523 40 0
Different non-technical related opinions between pilots 1, 2 and 4 only 1 is 2 and 3 are 2,3 and 4 are correct
from different cultural backgrounds might be seen in are correct correct correct
connection with:
-1 : the variations of technical training and skills.
-2 : communication problems.
-3 : conflicting ways of management.
-4 : interpersonal problems.

The combination of correct statements is:

2524 40 0
When flying at night the first sense to be affected by a proprioceptiv vision cochlea sense of balance
slight degree of hypoxia is the e sensitivity
2525 40 0
 In a glass-cockpit aircraft, communication between the will be are does not will increase as a result
members of the crew: hampered facilitated loose its of the increase of
by the from the importance technical dissemination
decrease in non-verbal of information
actions point of view
brought owing to the
about by increased
technical availability
improvemen wich results
ts from
technical
lightening of
the workload

2526 40 0
Angular accelerations are picked up in the inner ear by the cochlea the the the saccule and the
semicircular tympanum utricle
2527 40 canals 0
Which of the following behaviours is most disruptive to Mentally Sensitive. Disciplined. Jovial.
teamwork under high workload conditions in the absent.
2528 40 cockpit? 1
The 'cocktail party effect' is the tendency the tendency the ability to the ability to drink too
to believe not to pick up much at social
information perceive relevant gathering
that relevant information
reinforces information unintentional
our mental ly
model of the
world

2529 40 0
Which of the following personality characteristics Friendliness. Assertivenes Competitive General intelligence.
2530 40 makes crew decision making most effective? s. ness. 0
The semicircular canals form part of the middle ear ear drum external ear inner ear
2531 40 0
It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The swollen swollen pain and gentle descents at high
reason for this is: tissue in the tissue in the damage to altitude can result in
inner ear will Eustachian the eardrum damage to the ear drum
prevent the tube will can result,
air from cause particularly
ventilating permanent during fast
through the hearing loss descents
tympanic
membrane

2532 40 0
Which of the following tasks are possible to do Read and Maintain Listen Talk and rehearse a
simultaneously without mutual interference? listen manual attentively frequency in working
attentively. straight and and solve a memory.
level flight problem.
and solve a
problem.
2533 40 0
The rate of absorption of alcohol depends on many 0,02 - 0,05 0,2 - 0,25 0,3 - 0,35 0,01 - 0,015 mg % per
factors. However, the rate of metabolism or digestion of mg % per mg % per mg % per hour
alcohol in the body is relatively constant. It is about hour hour hour
2534 40 0
 Our mental model of the world is based entirely on entirely on on both our on both our past
the sensory past past experiences and the
information experiences experiences sensory information we
we receive and our receive
motor
programmes

2535 40 0
"The Bends" as a symptom of decompression sickness pain in the CNS- loss of pain in the joints
consists of: thorax and a disturbances peripheral
backing vision
cough
2536 40 0
Very high ambition and need for achievement disturbe the fulfil the always improves the coping
climate of requirement promote process with personal
cooperation s of stress teamwork failures
resistance
2537 40 1
Once we have constructed a mental model we tend to give to give equal to alter that to give undue weight to
undue weight to model information that
weight to contradicting unnecessaril confirms the model
information and y frequently
that confirming
contradicts information
the model
2538 40 0
The use of modern technology applied to glass-cockpit facilitated considerably reduced the improved man-machine
aircraft has: feedback improved all scope for communication as a
from the the non-verbal result of flight
machine via communicati communicati sensations
more on facilities on in
concise data of the crew interpersona
for l relations
communicati
on on the
flight deck

2539 40 1
One of the substances present in the smoke of Carbonic Tar Carbon Carbon monoxide
cigarettes can make it significantly more difficult for the anhydride dioxide
red blood cells to transport oxygen and as a
consequence contributes to hypoxia. Which substance
are we referring to?
2540 40 0
When stopping the rotation of a spin we have the of the that we are of turning in of the sharp dipping of
sensation immediate starting a the same the nose of the aircraft
stabilization spin into the direction
of the opposite
aircraft direction

2541 40 0
When accelerating in level flight we could experience climb descent turn spin
2542 40 the sensation of a 1
Any prolonged exposure to noise in excess of 90 db conductive presbycusis a ruptured noise induced hearing
can end up in hearing loss (eefects of ear drum loss
2543 40 aging) 0
All pilots are going to suffer some hearing deterioration are to cut will not affect are to cut are to cut out the low
as part of the process of growing old. out all tones a pilot's out the high tones first
The effects of aging equally hearing if he tones first
is wearing
ear-plugs all
the time

2544 40 0
 The human ear is capable of perceiving vibrations 30 - 15000 16 - 20,000 0 - 16 Hz 20,000 - 40,000 Hz
2545 40 between the frequencies dB Hz 0
The intensity of a sound is measured in cycles per curies decibels hertz
2546 40 second 0
Information stays in the short-term memory less than 1 from 5 to 10 around 24 about 20 seconds
2547 40 second minutes hours 0
The ozone-layer is situated in the thermospher ionosphere stratosphere troposphere
2548 40 e 0
The group of tiny bones (the hammer, anvil and stirrup) the maxillary the middle the inner ear the outer ear
are situated in sinus ear
2549 40 0
An individually given feedback improves The receiver The The The feedback should
communication. Which of the following rules should a of the feedback feedback only be given if
feedback comply with? feedback should not should requested by the
should be referred always captain.
immediately to a relate to a
justify his concrete specific
behaviour. situation. situation.

2550 40 0
The chemical composition of the earth´s atmosphere (I 78 % 78 % 78 % 71 % nitrogen, 28 %
C A O standard atmosphere) is nitrogen, 21 nitrogen, 21 nitrogen, 28 oxygen, 0,9 % argon,
% oxygen, % oxygen, % oxygen, 0,03 % carbon dioxide
0,9 % argon, 0,9 % 0,9 %
0,03 % carbon carbon
carbon dioxide, 0,03 dioxide, 0,03
dioxide % argon % argon

2551 40 1
A fatigued pilot considerably will show is acting will get precordial pain
increases signs of similar as
the ability to increased when
concentrate irritability encounterin
g a state of
depression
2552 40 0
The barometric pressure has dropped to 1/2 of the 18 000 feet 10 000 feet 25 000 feet 30 000 feet
2553 40 pressure at sea level at 1
A slight lack of coordination which can make it difficult 0.2 % blood 0.05 % 0.1 % blood 0.15 % blood alcohol
to carry out delicate and precise movements occurs alcohol blood alcohol
when the level of alcohol in the blood is exceeding alcohol
2554 40 0
The carcinogen (a substance with the ability to produce nicotine carbon lead tar
modifications in cells which develop a cancer) in the monoxide
2555 40 bronchi of the lungs is 0
Decompression sickness occurs in association with Gay Lussac Henry´s law Boyle Dalton´s law
exposure to reduced atmospheric pressure. ´s law Mariotte´s
The evolution of bubbles of nitrogen coming out of law
solution in body tissues can be derived from:

2556 40 0
The normal rate of breathing is 32 to 40 60 to 100 20 to 30 12 to 16 cycles a minute
cycles a cycles a cycles a
2557 40 minute minute minute 0
The main function of the red blood cells is to participate the cellular to contribute to transport oxygen
in the defense of to the
process of the immune
coagulation organism response of
of the blood the
organism

2558 40 0
 Altitude-hypoxia, when breathing ambient air, should between 3 between 5 below 3 000 up to 5 000 m
not occur (indifferent phase) 000 m and 5 000 m and 7 m
2559 40 000 m 000 m 0
During paradoxical sleep the tone of respiration is the rhythm rapid eye movements
the muscles very regular of the heart can be observed
is similar to is very
that in the regular
waking state

2560 40 0
The human information processing system is highly independan flexibility speed working memory
efficient compared to computers because of its cy from capacity
2561 40 attention 0
Motor programmes are: stored stored rules that rules that enable us to
routines that routines that enable us to deal with preconceived
enable enable deal with situations
patterns of patterns of novel
behaviour to behaviour to situations
be executed be executed
only under without
continuous continuous
conscious conscious
control control

2562 40 0
Working memory enables us, for example, to remember to remember to store a to ignore messages for
our own a clearance large other aircraft
name long enough amount of
to write it visual
down information
for about 0.5
seconds

2563 40 0
The relationship between arousal and flying approximatel approximatel approximatel approximately
performance is y the form of y linear y sinusoidal
an inverted increasing exponential
U
2564 40 1
In a complex task high levels of arousal reduce narrow the improve lead to better decision-
failures span of performance making
2565 40 attention 0
In the short-term-memory, information is stored for 5 minutes 1 hour a couple of 20 seconds
2566 40 approximately days 0
According to the I.C.A.O. standard atmosphere, the 2 °C every constant in - 2 °C every 10 °C every 100 feet
temperature lapse rate of the troposphere is 1000 metres the 1000 feet
approximately troposphere
2567 40 0
Which of the following operations are performed more 2,3,4 1,2,3 2,4 3,4
effectively by automatic systems than by people ?
1. Waiting for an infrequent phenomenon
2. Long term controlling of a set value (e.g holding of
trajectory)
3. Monitoring to ensure that certain values are not
exceeded (e.g holding of flight path)
4. Qualitative decision-making

2568 40 0
 What are the main factors which bring about reduced 1,3 3,4 1,2,3 2,4
or low vigilance (hypovigilance) ?
1. The monotony of the task
2. Tiredness,the need for sleep
3. A lack of stimulation
4. Excessive stress
2569 40 0
Which of the following statements concerning tends to only affects may occur at essentially occurs
hypovigilance is correct ? occur at the certain any moment several minutes after
Hypovigilance : end of the personality of the flight the intense take-off
mission as a types phase
result of a
relaxation in
the
operators'
attention

2570 40 0
What is "divided attention"? Ease of Difficulty of The adverse Alternative
concentratin concentratin effect of management of several
g on a g on a motivation matters of interest
particular particular which leads
objective objective to one's
attention
being
dispersed

2571 40 0
What are main signs indicating the loss of vigilance ? 1,3 1,4 2,3 2,4
1. Decrease in sensory perception
2. Increase in selective attention
3. Sensation of muscular heaviness
4. Decrease in complacency

2572 40 1
Which of the following are the most favourable 1,4 1,2 1,3 3,4
solutions to manage phases of reduced or low vigilance
(hypovigilance)?
1. Healthy living
2. Use of amphetamines
3. Reducing the intensity of the light
4. Organising periods of rest during the flight
2573 40 1
Which of the following drawbacks are associated with 2,3,4 1,3 1,2 1,4
automation ?
1. Reduced competence in manually controlling the
aircraft
2. Increased likelihood of slips while programming
automatic
systems
3. Difficulties in adapting to the use of a sidestick
4. General decrease in technical reliability

2574 40 0
Discussing private matters in the cockpit decreases can improve should be is appropriate in any
the captains team spirit avoided by phase of flight
role of all means in
leadership the cockpit

2575 40 0
 As a result of automation in cockpits, man-man coordination communicati communication and
communicati between the on and coordination call for an
on has been members is coordination even greater effort on
significantly facilitated by have clearly the part of the crew
improved the provision improved in members
of more man-man
precise and and man-
more machine
important relations
information

2576 40 0
Which of the following statements summarises the It only Motivation It stimulates It increases the
impact that motivation may have on attention ? facilitates has only a attention but mobilisation of energy
attention in small effect may lead to and thus facilitates the
extreme on attention, phases of quality of alertness and
cases (risk but it low arousal attention
of death) facilitates
alertness

2577 40 0
Which of the following operations are performed more 3,4 2,3,4 1,4 1,2
effectively by people than by automatic systems ?
1. Qualitative decision-making
2. Waiting for an infrequent phenomenon
3. Monitoring to ensure that certain values are not
exceeded
4. Detections of unusual conditions (smell, noise, etc.)

2578 40 0
What is the sender's frequent reason to communicate The receiver He/she has Afterwards There is no need to
implicitly ('between the lines')? grasps not to adjust he/she make up one's mind
quickly what to the always can before starting to
the sender communicati claim to communicate.
means. on style of have been
the misundersto
communicati od.
on partner.

2579 40 0
Mark the two most important attributes for a positive 2 and 3 1 and 4 1 and 3 2 and 4
leadership style:
(1) dominant behaviour
(2) examplary role-behaviour
(3) mastery of communication skills
(4) "Laissez-faire" behaviour
2580 40 1
Nonverbal communication should be supports is of no is always used
avoided by verbal meaning in intentionally
all means in communicati the cockpit
the cockpit on
2581 40 0
 How do you understand the statement 'one cannot not You cannot The Beeing silent Each situation requires
communicate'? influence statement as well as communication.
your own above is a inactive are
communicati missprint. nonverbal
on. behaviour
patterns
which
express a
meaning.

2582 40 0
Metacommunication is defined as balancing having an active communicating about
the own assessment listening the communication
ideas and conversation
interests
with those of
the
interlocutor
2583 40 0
The performance of the man machine system is above a a balanced a a combination in which
all : combination combination combination the pilot must keep the
which is between which must main repetitive tasks
based on someone make the and automated systems
decreasing actively pilot under his control in line
the pilot's engaged in available for with rule-based
workload his work and the sphere behaviour
and automated in which he
increasing systems is most
his time for which serve qualified,
supervision to control namely
the pilot's checking
workload departures
from the
normal
operating
range

2584 40 1
In order to minimize the effects of crossing more than 2,3 1,3 2,4 1,4
3-4 time zones with a layover more than 24 hrs, it is
advisable to :
1. Adapt as quickly as possible to the rhythm of the
arrival country
2. Keep in swing with the rhythm of the departure
country for as long as possible
3. Maintain regular living patterns (waking ,sleeping
alternation and regular meal pattern )
4. Try to sleep as much as possible to overcome
negative arousal effects

2585 40 1
Which of the following statements best characterise a 1,3,4 2,3 2,4 1,4
synergetic cockpit?
1. Decisions are taken by the captain, but prepared by
the crew
2. There is little delegating of tasks
3. Communications are few in number but precise and
geared purely to the flight
4. Fluid, consensual boundaries exist in regard to
leadership-style, which fluctuate between authority and
laissez-faire

2586 40 0
 What elements establish synergy within the crew ? Synergy is It is only the Synergy Synergy establishes
independent captain's must be built itself automatically
of the status which up from the within the crew, right
natural allows the start of the through from briefing to
individual establishme mission debriefing
characteristi nt of synergy (briefing)
cs of the within the and be
group crew maintained
members until it
(communicat comes to an
ion, mutual end
confidence, (debriefing)
sharing of
tasks, etc.)

2587 40 0
Which of the following solutions represent antidotes to 2,3,4 2,4 1,2,4 1,2,3
conflicts ?
1. Seeking arbitration
2. Actively listening to other people
3. Abandoning facts so as to move the conversation to
a more emotional level
4. Becoming aware of cultural influences
2588 40 0
Which of the following statements concerning tiredness Tiredness is Tiredness is Tiredness is Tiredness is a
is correct ? always the the an objective subjective sensation
result of an consequenc psychophysi which is reflected in
intellectual e of a ological hypovigilance or in poor
overload diminution of symptom of management of
performance a reduction intellectual capabilities
in attention
capabilities

2589 40 0
What is the effect of tiredness on attention ? It increases It leads to It has no It reduces the ability to
the ability to one's specific manage multiple
manage attention effects on matters
multiple being attention
matters dispersed
between
different
centres of
interest

2590 40 0
What are the main effects of a lack of sleep loss on It reduces It increases It increases It causes muscular
performance ? concentratio fatigue, fatigue and spasms
n and concentratio concentratio
fatigue only n and n difficulties,
with sleep attention but
loss greater difficulties, facilitates
than 48 the risk of stress
hours sensory managemen
illusions and t by
mood muscular
disorders relaxation,

2591 40 0
 Which of the following statements in regard to Low Extremely Too much Motivation will reduce
motivation is correct? motivation high motivation the task automation
will motivation in may result in process
guarantee combination hypovigilanc
adequate with e and thus in
attention excessive a decrease
managemen stress will in attention
t capabilities limit
attention
managemen
t capabilities

2592 40 0
Concerning circadian rhythm disruption (jet lag), the 1,3 1,4 2,3 2,4
effects of adjustment to destination time :
1. are longer for western rather than eastern flights
2. are longer for eastern rather than western flights
3. vary little between individuals
4. may vary greatly between individuals

2593 40 0
Which of the following are primary sources of 2,4 1,2,3,4 1,2,3 3,4
motivation in day-to-day professional life ?
1. Beeing in control of one's own situation
2. Fear of punishment
3. Success (achievement of goals)
4. Social promotion, money
2594 40 0
Of the following statements concerning the effects of Sensorimoto Sensorimoto Sensorimoto Sensorimotor
circadian rhythms on performance, we know that : r r and r and performance is better in
performance intellectual intellectual the evening whereas
is better in performance performance intellectual performance
the morning are better in are better in is better in the morning
whereas the morning the evening
intellectual and are and very
performance sensitive to sensitive to
is better in the duration the duration
the evening of the sleep of the
state waking
period

2595 40 0
What are the various factors which guide attention ? 1,2 2,3,4 1,3,4 1,4
1. The level of automation of behaviour
2. Response time
3. The salience of the information
4. Expectations

2596 40 0
With regard to the level of automation of behaviours in the more the more the less the more behaviour is
the attention mechanism, we know that : behaviour is behaviour is behaviour is automated, the less it
automated, automated, automated, requires conscious
the more it the more it the less it attention and thus the
requires requires requires more it frees mental
attention attention attention resources
and the and the less and the
more it frees it frees more it frees
resources resources resources

2597 40 0
 What is the main adverse effect of expectations in the The The Expectations They always lead to
perception mechanism ? unconscious attention often guide routine errors
mechanism area is the focus of
of attention enlarged, attention
leads to thus it will towards a
focus on all lead to an particular
relevant uncertainty aspect,
information in regard to while
necessary possible
decisions alternates
are
neglected

2598 40 0
The level of automation of behaviour-patterns facilitates errors in routine mistakes decision-making errors
the saving of resources and therefore of attention. On selecting an errors (slips)
the other hand, it may result in : appropriate
plan of
action

2599 40 0
What are the effects of distress (overstress) ? It reduces It activates It has very It increases vigilance for
vigilance resources little a longer period than
and stored in immediate stress itself, but may
focusses memory effect on focus attention
attention vigilance
and
attention
2600 40 0
Noise induced hearing loss is influenced by the duration the the intensity the duration and
of a noise suddenness of the noise intensity of a noise
but not its of onset of a but not its
intensity noise duration

2601 40 0
What seem to be the main roles of deep sleep ? It is confined Its main role Via physical It essentially allows for
to physical is recovery, it physical recovery and
recuperation associated is the reconstitution of
associated with characterise neuron energy reserves
with fatigue activities of d by an
memory alternation
activities of dream
and phases and
restoration paradoxical
of attention phases
capabilities

2602 40 0
The heart muscle is supplied with blood from: the coronary the auricles ventricles the pulmonary veins
arteries
2603 40 1
Young pilots or pilots with little experience of airplanes task for task, flight unexperienc experienced pilots are
differ from experienced pilots in the following way : an expert's planning ed pilots less routine-minded
workload is performance refer to than young pilots
greater than decreases information because they know that
a novice's with age, more than routine causes mistakes
one and experts
experience when
is unable to carrying out
mask this the same
deficiency task

2604 40 0
 Analysis of accidents involving the human factor in only front- only pilot failure of the there is hardly ever a
aviation shows that : line training will human single cause
operators make it factor is responsible
are involved possible to always
improve the connected
situation with
technical
breakdowns

2605 40 0
Thinking on human reliability is changing. Human Human The It is thought that it will
errors are errors can individual be possible to eliminate
now be avoided. view of errors in the near future
considered All it takes is safety has
as being to be vigilant gradually
inherent to and to replaced the
the cognitive extend one's systemic
function of knowledge view of
human and safety
are
generally
inescapable

2606 40 1
Which of the following statements concerning Communicat Professional Professional The syntax of
communication is valid? ion must communicati communicati communication is of
take priority on means: on means to little importance to its
over any using a exchange success. Only the words
other flight restricted information uttered are important.
activity and specific as little as
under all language, possible.
circumstanc tailored to
es minimize
misundersta
ndings.

2607 40 0
Which of the following statements is true? Stress People are Stressors Stressors are
should capable of accumulate independent from each
always be living without thus other.
avoided stress. increasing
under any the
circumstanc likelihood to
es. exhaustion.
2608 40 0
How should a pilot react, when suffering from chronic Attempt to Use Ignore the Always consult a
stress? reduce the moderate particular psychotherapist before
stress by administratio stressors the next flight.
using a n of and increase
concept tranquillizers your
which before flight. physical
approaches exercises.
the entire
body and
improves
wellness.

2609 40 1
 Which elements of communication are prone to The receiver The sender Coding and The sender
malfunctioning? and the decoding
receiver as
well as
coding and
decoding
2610 40 0
The normal arterial blood-pressure of a healthy adult is 80/20 mm 180/120 mm 220/180 mm 120/80 mm Hg
2611 40 (systolic/diastolic): Hg Hg Hg 0
What are the characteristics of the alarm phase of the 1,2 2,4,5 1,3,5 1,2,3
stress reactions?
-1 : increased arousal level as a result of adrenaline
secretion.
-2 : an increase in heart rate, respiration and release of
glucose.
-3 : a decrease in stress resistance.
-4 : activation of the digestive system.
-5 : secretion of cortisol to mobilize attention.

The combination of correct statements is:

2612 40 0
At rest the cardial output (the quantity of blood the 45 liters/min 75 liters/min 5 liters/min 450 ml/min
heart pumps in one minute) of an adult is
2613 40 approximately: 0
With a heart rate of 72 beats per minute and a stroke 6 liters/min 7 liters/min 8 liters/min 5 liters/min
volume of 70 ml the cardial output is about:
2614 40 0
Pulse rate is influenced by the following factors: 1,2,3 and 4 2,3 and 4 1,2 and 4 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2
1. Adrenalin are correct are correct, are correct, is false
2. Cortisol 1 is false 3 is false
3. Physical exercise.
4. Glucose concentration in the blood
2615 40 0
The average pulse of a healthy adult in rest is about: 60 to 80 30 to 50 90 to 100 110 to 150 beats/min
2616 40 beats/min beats/min beats/min 1
Someone who has anaemia has: not enough not enough not enough not enough plasma
white blood functional platelets
2617 40 cells hemoglobin 0
The behavioural effects of stress may include : 1,4 and 5 1 and 4 are 1,2 and 3 2,4 and 5 are correct
-1 : manifestation of aggressiveness. are correct correct are correct
-2 : a willingness to improve communication.
-3 : a willingness for group cohesion.
-4 : a tendency to withdrawl.
-5 : inappropriate gestural agitation.

The combination of correct statements is :

2618 40 1
In case of in-flight stress, one should : use all only trust in demonstrate always carry out a
available oneself; aggressiven breathing exercise
resources of beeing sure ess to
the crew to know the stimulate the
own limits crew

2619 40 1
 Which of the following statements concerning stress is Stress is a Stress will Stress Stress is evaluated as a
correct? necessary be evaluated always positiv mechanism only
way of differently creates a in connection with
demonstrati depending state of high precise tasks of the kind
ng one's on whether it tension encountered in
own work. improves or which aeronautics
reduces decreases
performance cognitive
. and
behavioural
performance
.

2620 40 0
To reduce the risk of coronary artery disease, exercise avoided double the triple the double the resting heart
should be since raising resting heart resting heart rate for at least 20
the heart rate for at rate for 20 minutes, three times a
rate least an minutes, week
shortens the hour, five once a week
life of the times a
heart week
2621 40 0
Which of the following is most true? Regular Regular Regular Regular exercise is
exercise and exercise is exercise is beneficial to general
reduction in beneficial to an health, and is the only
caloric general impediment effective way to lose
consumption health, but to losing weight
are both the most weight since
essential in efficient way it increases
order to lose to lose the
weight weight is by metabolic
reducing rate
caloric
consumption

2622 40 0
The physiological rhythms of a pilot in a new time zone 1 - 1.5 hours 2 - 2.5 hours 3 - 3.5 hours 4 - 4.5 hours a day
will resynchronise to this new time zone at a rate of a day a day a day
2623 40 about 1
The duration of a period of sleep is governed primarily the amount the number the point the duration of your
by of time you of points you within your previous sleep
have been have in your circadian
awake 'credit/deficit' rhythm at
system which you
try to sleep
2624 40 0
A selective attentional mechanism is required because of because of because of because the capacity of
the limitations in the limited the long term memory is
limitations of our store of capacity of limited
the sense motor the central
organs programmes decision
maker and
working
memory
2625 40 0
The capacity of the short-term memory is about 30 unlimited about 7 very limited - only one
2626 40 items items item 0
 The cognitive effects of stress may include : 3,4,5 1,3,4,6 1,2,5 2,3,5,6
-1 : excessive haste.
-2 : an improvement in memory.
-3 : a complete block: action is impossible.
-4 : a risk of focusing on a particular aspect.
-5 : ease of decision-making.
-6 : an increase in the rate of mistakes.

The combination which brings together all correct

statements is :

2627 40 0
Acute stress quickly leads to a state of the a decrease a permanent state of
overactivatio mobilization in the incapacitation
n beyond of resources amount of
the control required to resources
of willpower cope with mobilized to
the stressor face the
situation

2628 40 0
What is the effect of stress on performance ? 1,2,3 1,3,4 1,2,4 2,3,4
-1 : It always reduces performance.
-2 : Optimum performance is obtained with optimum
arousal.
-3 : Excessive stress weakens performance.
-4 : Insufficient stress weakens performance.

The combination of correct statements is:

2629 40 0
Which of the following physical stimuli may cause 2,3,5 1,3,5 1,3,4 3,4,5
stress reactions?
-1 : noise.
-2 : interpersonnal conflict.
-3 : temperature.
-4 : administrative problem.
-5 : hunger.

The combination of correct statements is:

2630 40 0
Cognitive evaluation which leads to stress is based on: the the the the capabilities of the
evaluation of evaluation of evaluation of individual and the
the situation the situation the solutions provided by
and the and the the capabilities the environment
evaluation of state of of the
capabilities fatigue of individual
to cope with the and the time
it individual available

2631 40 1
Stress appears: 1,2,4 3,4 1,2 2, 3
-1 : only in a situation of imminent danger.
-2 : only when faced with real, existing and palpable
phenomenon.
-3 : sometimes via imagination, the anticipation of a
situation or its
outcome.
-4 : because of the similarity with a formerly
experienced stressful
situation

The correct statement(s) is (are):

2632 40 0
 What is the most decisive factor in regard to a very The The The time The objective threat of
demanding stress situation? unexpected subjective available to the situation.
outcome of evaluation of cope with
the situation. the situation the situation.
by the
individual.

2633 40 0
The organism is mobilized by a process known as: NAS : GMS : GAF : GAS : General
Natural General General Adaptation Syndrome
Adaptation Mobilization Adaptation
Syndrome Syndrome. Function.
2634 40 0
What are the three phases of General Adaptation alarm, alert, Alarm, Alert, resistance,
Syndrome ? resistance, resistance, resistance, performance.
performance exhaustion exhaustion.
,
2635 40 0
What is characterized by a "laissez-faire" cockpit ? The The high A passive Each member carries
captain's level of approach by out actions and makes
authority independen the captain choices without explicity
rules all the ce granted allows informing the other
actions or to each decisions, members about them
decisions member by choices and
associated the captain actions by
with the quickly leads other crew
situation to tension members
between the
various crew
members

2636 40 0
The relationship which exists between crew error and is has been is dependent is a linear relationship
flight safety : independent evolving for on the social which introduces crew
of the 40 years and training as the main
operational and has now technical factor
context, with become system and
the latter independent also on the
being of the social operational
identical for and context
any flight technical created by
operation system the system

2637 40 0
Informal roles within a crew do not characterize evolve as a are explicitely set out by
impair the inefficient result of the the crew
captain's crews interactions
influence that take
place among
crew
members

2638 40 0
Which of the following abilities will not improve efficient Ability to Ability to Ability to Communicational skills
decision making on the cockpit? search for think ahead persuade and social competence.
and examine and specify others to
all available alternative follow the
information courses of own point of
regarding a action. view.
situation.

2639 40 0
 The assessment of risk in a particular situation will be subjective external the situational factors only
based on perception factors only emergency
and checklist
evalutation only
of situational
factors

2640 40 1
Once a pilot has developed a certain way of thinking find it difficult find it easy find it find it difficult to get out
about a problem he will probably to stick to to interpret impossible of that way of thinking
his/her the data in to get out of and difficult to try a
interpretatio different that way of different interpretation of
n of the data ways thinking, the data
whatever
happens
2641 40 0
To maintain good situational awareness you should: 2, 3 and 4 all answers 1 and 4 are 1 and 3 are correct
(1) believe only in your own interpretation of the data are correct are correct correct
(2) gather as much datas as possible from every
possible
source before making inferences
(3) question whether your hypothesis still fits the
situation as
events progress and try to make time to review the
situation
(4) consider ways of testing your situational hypothesis
to see
whether it is correct

2642 40 1
Doing a general briefing in the preflight phase the to avoid particular complete to depart on schedule
captain should emphasize inadequate requirement delegation of
handling of s in the field all duties
flight of crew
controls coordination
due to
specific
circumstanc
es

2643 40 0
During the preparational work in the cockpit the captain The captain The captain The captain The captain lets the
notices that his copilot on the one hand is rather lets the flies the first lets the copilot fly and
unexperienced and insecure but on the other hand copilot fly leg by copilot fly encourages him frankly
highly motivated. Which kind of leadership behaviour and himself and and gives to ask for any support
most likely is inappropriate? observes his explains him detailled that needed
behaviour each action instructions
without any to the copilot what to do
comments in order to
keep him
informed
about his
decisions

2644 40 1
 Which of the following statements best characterise a While Without The The communication
self-centered cockpit ? decreasing taking note egocentric between crew members
communicati of what the personality always increases when
on, the other of the the captain takes
independen members captain often charge of a situation
ce of each are doing, leads to a
member each one synergetic
bolsters the does his cockpit
crew's own thing
synergy while at the
same time
assuming
that
everyone is
aware of
what is
being done
or what is
going on

2645 40 0
Which of the following sentences concerning crew- Mistakes The quality The quality To be a member of a
performance is correct? can always of crew- of crew- team can not increase
be detected performance performance one's own motivation to
and is not depends on succeed in coping with
corrected dependent the social- task demands
faster by the on social- competence
individual competence of individual
of individual team
team members
members

2646 40 0
It is desirable to standardize as many patterns of this reduces it makes the such this lowers the ability
behaviour (operating procedures) as possible in the amount flight deck behaviour requirement in pilot
commercial aviation mainly because of training easier to reduces selection
required design errors even
under
adverse
circumstanc
es
2647 40 0
Which statement is correct? Crew decision making is always ask adapt their are always are always relationship
generally most efficient, if all crew members concerned the captain managemen task oriented oriented
what to do t style to
meet the
situational
demands
2648 40 0
Which behaviour does most likely promote a Active Responding Staying to Giving up the own point
constructive solution of interpersonal conflicts? listening. with counter- the own of view.
arguments. point of
view.
2649 40 1
The team spirit of a cockpit-crew most likely depends both pilots both pilots both pilots both pilots flying
on having the respecting wearing the together very often for a
same each other same long period
political and and striving uniform
ideological for the same
attitude goals
2650 40 0
 During the cruising phase of a short-haul flight the He should He should He should He should not further
captain starts to smoke a cigarette in the cockpit. The learn to repeat his report the discuss this issue but
flying copilot asks him to stop smoking because he is a accept the worries chief pilot should come back to
non-smoker. The captain tells him: 'This is your captain about about this this conflict during the
problem', and continues smoking. What should the smoking smoking in behaviour of debriefing
copilot do? cigarettes in the cockpit the captain
the cockpit and should
argue with
the captain
about this
problem until
the conflict
is solved

2651 40 0
How would you call the leadership style of a captain High task- Low task- Low task- High task-orientation
who primarily is interested in a friendly atmosphere orientation orientation orientation and low relationship-
within his crew, who is always constructive and and high and low and high orientation
encouraging, who usually compromises in relationship- relationship- relationship-
interpersonal conflicts, who trusts in the capabilities of orientation orientation orientation
his crew-members, and who leaves the crew freedom
for own decisions, even if this makes the process more
difficult?

2652 40 0
If the copilot continuosly feels unfairly treated by the internally duly point freeze the speak up and point at
captain in an unjustified way, then he should retire and out the communicati consequencies if unfair
think problem, on and thus behaviour persists
positive reconcentrat avoid
e on his immediate
duties and confrontatio
clear the n
matter in a
more
appropriate
occasion

2653 40 0
Which one of the following statements characterizes a tries to mainly tries keeps a decides what to do and
democratic and cooperative leadership style? clarify the to reconcile neutral pushes his own opinion
If conflicts evolve, the leader reasons and all persons position and through
causes of involved in does not
the conflict the conflict participate in
with all and tries to arguing
persons reestablish a
involved nice and
friendly
atmosphere
within the
team

2654 40 1
Learning is called each lasting change of behaviour maturation drug practice and innate mechanisms
due to influence experience
2655 40 0
The quality of learning : is is is promoted depends on long-term
independent independent by feedback memory capacity
of the level of age on the value
of motivation of one's own
performance

2656 40 0
 The rate of accidents in commercial aviation (excluding is a long represents is has improved
sabotage and acts of terrorism) : way short of about fifty approximativ considerably over the
the safety accidents ely 1 last fifteen years
level of road around the accident per
transport world every million
year airport
movements
2657 40 0
Long-term memory is an essential component of the Long-term The It is The capacity of long-
pilot's knowledge and expertise. memory recovery of desirable to term memory is limited
stores information pre-activate
knowledge from long- knowledge
on a term stored in
temporary memory is long-term
basis immediate memory to
and easy have it
available
when
required

2658 40 0
As a cause of accidents, the human factor is cited in has which is plays a negligible role in
approximatel increased cited in commercial aviation
y 70 - 80 % considerably current accidents. It is much
of aviation since 1980 - statistics, more important in
accidents the applies to general aviation
percentage the flight
of accident crew and
in which this ATC only
factor has
been
involved has
more than
tripled since
this date

2659 40 1
An excessive need for safety guarantees hampers is absolute is the most important
the right severly the necessary attribute of a line pilot
decision way of pilot for a safe
making in decision flight
critical making operation
situations
2660 40 0
Mental training, mental rehearsal of cognitive It is most It is most It is most It is more effective than
pretraining is called the inner, ideomotor simulation of important for important for effective, if it training by doing
actions. the selfcontrol is practiced
acquisition on an
of complex abstract
perceptual level if
motor skills imagination

2661 40 1
The decision making in emergency situations requires the whole distribution speed of informing ATC
firstly: crew to of tasks and reaction thoroughly about the
focus on the crew situation
problem coordination

2662 40 0
 How can the process of learning be facilitated? By By punishing By By reinforcing
increasing the learner reinforcing successful trials
the for errors
psychologic unsuccessfu
al pressure l trials
on the
student

2663 40 0
When a pilot is facing a problem during flight he should make up his take as always avoid making up his
mind before much time make up his mind until the very last
consulting as he needs mind quickly minute
other crew and is to give
members available to himself as
make up his much spare
mind time as
possible
2664 40 0
Mental training is helpful to improve flying skills only at a at all levels only for only for instructor pilots
certain level of flying student
of flying proficiency pilots
experience

2665 40 0
A high level of motivation is related to monotony to high to high to complacency
states levels of levels of
2666 40 arousal intelligence 0
What is meant by the term 'complacency'? To question An Physiologica Careless negligence or
possible agreement l unjustified self-
solutions between consequenc confidence
captain and es on pilots
co-pilot due because of
to Crew fear of flying
Resources
Managemen
t

2667 40 0
What does the 'End Deterioration Effect'('Home-itis') The The The result of The potential risk of
mean? breakdown tendency to a poor loosing orientation after
of crew sudden, preflight flying in clouds
coordination imperceptibl planning
due to e errors
interpersona shortly
l tensions before the
between end of a
captain and flight
co-pilot

2668 40 0
 'Environmental capture' is a term used to describe 2 and 3 are 4 is correct 1 and 2 are 1, 2 and 3 are correct
which of the following statements? correct correct
1.The tendency for a skill to be executed in an
environment in
which it is frequently exercised, even if it is
inappropriate to do
so
2.The tendency for a skill acquired in one aircraft type
to be
executed in a new aircraft type, even if it is
inappropriate to do
so
3. The tendency for people bo behave in different ways
in different
social situations
4. The gaining of environmental skills

2669 40 0
A high degree of cockpit automation may alter the it is Crew the crew can the attention of the
traditional tasks of the pilots in a way, that guaranteed Coordination pay more cockpit crew will
that the crew can be attention to become reduced with
maqintains neglected on solve the the consequence of
always long haul problem in 'being out of the loop'
situational flights an abnormal
awareness without situation
compromizin without
g safety monitoring
the
automatic
systems

2670 40 0
The maintenance of man's internal equilibrium is Poikilotherm Homeostasi Heterostasis Homeothermy
2671 40 called : y s 0
How can a pilot avoid automation complacency? Always fly Nothing, Regard the Always try to enhance
the whole because it is automatic your aviation related
flight system- system as knowledge during low
manually to inherent additional workload periods
remain in crew
man- members
machine that needs
loop to be
crosschecke
d as well

2672 40 0
The needs of an individual lead to : preservation no change in prolonged a change in the
from his suppression individuals motivation
dangers only motivation of all basic and consequently to an
if social and needs in adaptation of the
needs are conrequently favour of behaviour
beeing to the high self-
satisfied persistence actualization
of the
individuals
behaviour in
regard to the
desired
outcome

2673 40 0
 What does not apply to a constructive and helpful It should be It should be It should be Feedback should
feedback? individually formulated actual and always state bluntly the
tailored to subjectively specify in personal failings of the
the and regard to the receiver
receiver's personally concerned
background ('I' instead of situation
'one')
2674 40 0
What strategy should be put in place when faced with A strategy of A non- A Laissez- A strategy of no
an anticipated period of time pressure ? preparing sequential faire commitment
decisions strategy strategy
2675 40 1
In terms of decision-making, the intention to become the the the attempt an authoritarian
integrated into the team, to be recognised as the leader improvemen suggestion to agree on approach thus
or to avoid conflicts may lead to : t of internal of a decisions demonstrating ones
risk sequential made by own ability to lead
assessment solution in other crew
capabilities which members
everyone
can
contribute
what he/she
knows

2676 40 0
Which problem may be overlooked in the process of The Owing to Preparing Preparing decisions
making a decision? captain's great haste, decisions promotes the
superior bypassing often leads appearance of
knowledge, analysis of to strategies inflexibilities
justified by the current of minimum
his/her actual commitment
status situation in
order to
apply the
decision
prepared
beforehand

2677 40 0
Which of the following statements concerning conflicts The Conflict Whatever Conflicts are negative in
is correct ? emergence managemen the cause of themselves and can
of a conflict t involves the conflict, only lead to a general
always the its resolution detachment of involved
results from participation must parties
calling into of all necessarily
question the involved involve an
general parties in additional
abilities of finding an party if it is
one of the acceptable to be
involved collective effective
parties solution

2678 40 0
 What is synergy in a crew ? The The A The coordinated action
uncoordinat coordinated behavioural of unrelated individual
ed action of action of all expedient performances in
the members associated achieving a non-
crewmembe towards a with the standard task
rs towards a common desynchroni
common objective, in sation of the
objective which coordinated
collective actions
performance
is proving to
be more
than the
sum of the
individual
performance
s

2679 40 0
Habits and routine can influence decision-making in a professional one always a tendency one always wants to
way that: pilots will selects a to select the see previous
never choice in most familiar experience confirmed
question accordance solution first by new decisions
established with the and
procedures company's foremost,
usual sometimes
practices to the
detriment of
achieving
the best
possible
result

2680 40 0
Contrary to a person's personality, attitudes: are non- are Are the form part of personality
evolutive essentially product of and that, as a result,
adaptation driving personal they cannot be changed
procedures forces disposition in an adult
regardless behind and past
of the result changes in experience
of the personality with
actions reference to
associated an object or
with them a situation

2681 40 0
Decision-making can be influenced by the following 1,4 2,4 1,3 2,3
factors:
1. people tend to conform to opinions expressed by a
majority
within the group they belong to
2. people always tend to keep the future decisions in
line with
those their superiors have made in the past
3. people more easily tend to select data which meet
the
expectations
4. people hardly base decisions on their personal
preferences but
rather on rational information

2682 40 0
 What characterises the notion of role ? The The The function Only the functions
characteristi hierarchical and associated with role
c behaviour position of behaviour
associated the function associated
with the and the with the
description associated particular
of the behaviour role
various roles
of a
particular
status

2683 40 0
What distinguishes status from role ? While role While role Unlike Unlike status, role is
defines- via defines the status, role fixed and is modified
behaviour- enjoyment of is fixed and either by the situation in
the functions a is not flight or by the
that must be hierarchical modified interactions of a new
performed position and either by the crew
by its situation in
individuals, recognition flight or by
status by the the
defines the group, interactions
enjoyment of status of a new
a defines - via crew
hierarchical behaviour-
position and the functions
its that must be
recognition performed
by the group by
individuals

2684 40 1
What optimises crew co-operation ? 1,2,3 1 1,2 2,3
1. Sharing and common task
2. Confidence in each others capability
3. Precise definition of functions associated with each
crew
members role
2685 40 1
An autocratic cockpit is described by : The Despite the Each of the The atmosphere is
captain's overly strong members relaxed thanks to a
excessive authority of chooses captain who leaves
authority the captain, what job to complete freedom to the
cosiderably everything do without various members of the
reduces functions telling the crew
communicati correctly others and
ons and owing to his in the belief
consequentl natural that
y the leadership everyone is
synergy and aware of
cohesion of what he is
the crew doing

2686 40 1
 What are the most frequent results of an self-centred A major risk Performance In a two-pilot High group performance
captain on the flight deck ? of authority is very poor flight deck, despite the strained
inversion if as self- the co-pilot relations
the co-pilot centred is ignored
is behaviour and may
inassertive leads to an react by
increase of disengaging,
cooperation showing
and delayed
efficiency responses
or
demonstrate
the
scapegoat
effect

2687 40 0
What are the most frequent and the least appropriate 2,3,4 1,2 3,4 1,3,4
reactions on the part of a co-pilot when faced with a
highly authoritarian captain ?
1. Self-assertion
2. A scapegoat feeling
3. Delayed reactions to observed discrepancies
4. Disengagement
2688 40 1
What are typical consequences of conflicts between 2, 3 and 4 1,3 and 4 1,2 and 3 1, 2 and 4 are correct
crew members? are correct are correct are correct
-1 The quality of work performance decreases as a
result of the
impoverishment of communications
-2 A decrease in the quality of communications
-3 In the case of a crew made up of experts, conflicts
only result in
a deterioration in relations between the individuals
-4 A decrease in the usage of available resources on
the flight
deck

The correct statement(s) is (are):

2689 40 0
Which of the following elements make up the 1,2,3,4 1,2,4 2,3 2,3,4
personality of an individual ?
1. Heredity
2. Childhood environment
3. Upbringing
4. Past experience
2690 40 1
What may be the origins of representation errors ? 1,2 3,4 2,3 1,3,4
1. Perception errors
2. The catering for all available information
3. Incorrect information from the observed world
4. The receipt of a bad piece of information

2691 40 0
What may become the main risk of a "laissez-faire" Disengagem Inversion of Lack of Appearance of
cockpit ? ent of the authority communicati agressiveness
2692 40 co-pilot on 0
 What are the main characteristics of active errors ? 2,3 1,2 3,4 1,4
They :
1. are detectable only with difficulty by first-line
operators
2. have rapid and direct consequences on the action in
progress
3. are down to first-line operators
4. have an impact on the overall action whose timing
may be
affected significantly

2693 40 1
The descriptive aspect of errors according to 1,2,4 1,3 2,4 1,2,3
Hollnagel's model describes various directly observable
types of erroneous actions which are :
1. Repetition and omission
2. The forward leap and the backward leap
3. Intrusion and anticipation
4. Intrusion

2694 40 1
Errors which occur during highly automated actions 1,4 1,2 3,4 2,3,4
may result from :
1. the capture of a poor action subprogram
2. a mistake in the decision making process
3. the application of a poor rule
4. an action mode error
2695 40 1
Which of the following errors occur at rules-based 3,4 1,3 2,4 1,2
level ?
1.Omission
2.The application of a poor rule
3. Attentional capture
4. The poor application of a good rule
2696 40 0
Under what circumstances will a pilot change from When Failure of all The An automated cognitive
automated level to rule-based level ? detecting, the known appearance check procedure
that an rules of a situation
automated or problem
behaviour which is
will no unknown
longer lead and
to the completely
intended new
outcome

2697 40 1
Which biases relate to human decision making? 1,2 3,4 1,2,4 1,2,3
1. Personal experience tends to alter the perception of
the risk of an event occurring
2. There is a natural tendency to want to confirm our
decision even in the face of facts which contradict it
3. The group to which an individual belongs tends to
influence the particular decision
4. There is natural tending to select only objective facts
for decision-making purposes

2698 40 0
 What happens in problem-solving when the application A switch is A second Actions A switch is made to
of a rule allows for the situation to be resolved ? made to monitoring return to an knowledge mode in
knowledge- rule must be automatic order to refine the
based mode applied mode results
in order to
continue
monitoring
of the
problem

2699 40 0
Which statement is correct? Problems in There is no Inconsistent Problems in the
the personal relation communicati personal relation
relation between on between crew members
between inadequate behaviour hardly hamper their
crew communicati improves communication process.
members on and flight safety.
very likely incidents or
hamper their accidents.
communicati
on process.

2700 40 1
What are the main strategies for adapting to time The The The The preparation of
constraints ? preparation prioritisation preparation action and the
of action and of tasks and of action and prioritisation of tasks
time the the
managemen application application
t of of
procedures procedures
2701 40 0
What would be the priority aim in the design of man- To eliminate To cater To put in To reduce the risks of
machine interfaces and in the creation of their the risk of systematicall place the appearance or non-
application procedures for combatting problems latent errors y for the redundant detection of errors
associated with human error ? occuring consequenc alarm entailing serious
es of errors systems consequences
in order to
analyse their
nature and
modify
ergonomic
parameters

2702 40 0
Decision-making results in: a subjective a choice a choice an objective choice
choice between always concerning applicable
concerning different based on solutions for a given
applicable solutions for the end
solutions achieving a experience
goal of the PIC

2703 40 0
In decision-making, the selection of a solution 1,3 4 1,2,3,4 1,2,4
depends :
1. on objective and subjective criteria
2. on the objective to be achieved
3. on the risks associated with each solution
4. above all on the personality of the decision-maker

2704 40 0
 Which of the following characteristics form part of A good A decision is A good A group decision must
decision-making on the flight deck ? decision only valid in decision can always be established
depends on a defined always be prior to action
analysis of and reversed if
the situation delimited its result
time does not
come up to
expectations

2705 40 1
Decision-making is a concept which represents : a voluntary an an automatic a spontaneous act of
and automated process of seeking the most
conscious or selection effective solution in a
process of automation- from among given situation when
selection, like act of the various faced with a defined
from among applying solutions to problem
possible defined a given
solutions, for procedures problem
a given
problem

2706 40 1
The DECIDE model is based on : a a a normative a statistical model
prescriptive prescriptive generic based on observation of
generic generic model based human decision-making
model, model which on
taking into is subject to mathematica
account the mathematica l logic
method l logic
which
seems most
likely to
come up
with the
solution

2707 40 1
In problem-solving, what determines the transition from The Attentional Knowledge The unsuitability of the
rules-based activities to a knowledge-based activity ? unsuitability capture of rules automated actions
of the known which apply
rules for the to the
problem problem
posed posed

2708 40 1
Starting a coordinated level turn can make the pilot descent turn into the increase the climb
believe to opposite rate of turn
direction into the
same
direction
2709 40 0
 Using a checklist prior start is a contribution to frustration safety, stress, workload, because
because the because using checklists will
concentratio time increase the pilot´s
n on the pressure workload prior take-off
check list prior take-off
items will is always
draw the present
pilot´s
attention to
flight related
tasks,
reducing
distraction
from
personal
stress

2710 40 0
The "ideal professional pilot" is, in his behaviour, "person" and rather neither rather "goal" than
"goal" "person" "person" nor "person" oriented
oriented than "goal" "goal"
oriented oriented
2711 40 1
Changes in ambient pressure and accelerations during are of no change will have an will not stimulate any of
flight are important physiological factors limiting the interest blood effect on the vestibular organs
pilots performance if not taken into consideration. when presssure blood
Linear accelerations along the long axis of the body performing and blood pressure
aerobatics volume and blood
distribution flow if the
in the body accelerative
force acts
across the
body at right
angles to the
body axis

2712 40 0
Hypoxia effects visual performance. get colour get blurred have a be unable to maintain
A pilot may: blindness and/or reduction of piercing vision below
accompanie tunnel vision 25% in 5000 FT AGL
d by severe visual acuity
headache at 8000 FT
AGL

2713 40 0
The semicircular canals monitor relative horizontal gravity angular accelerations
speed and vertical
acceleration
s
2714 40 0
The cupula in the semicircular canal will be bent, when the fluid the cupula the fluid the cupula will bend on
a rotation begins. This is because (endolymph) will stay in (endolymph) constant angular
within the place and will preceed speeds
semicircular give the the
canal lags correct accelerated
behind the impression canal walls
accelerated
canal walls

2715 40 1
 The kinesthetic sense does not orient an individual to the relative a touch on our the condition in the
his surroundings, but informs him of motion and the skin surrounding body itself
relative s
position of
his body
parts
2716 40 1
When accelerating forward the otoliths in the give the give the give the give the illusion of
utriculus/sacculus will illusion of illusion of illusion of climbing (body tilting
banking straight and descending backwards, nose of the
level flight (body tilting a/c going up)
downwards,
or forwards,
nose of the
airplane
going down)

2717 40 0
When drugs against sleep disorders and/or nervosity the fact that schedule the effect the effect they have on
have been taken and the pilot intends to fly, attention there is no only those they have on hearing
has to be payed to difference in pilots, who reaction time
the quality of show no and
sleep reactions to perceptional
produced these awareness
under the medications
influence of
those drugs
compared to
normal drug-
free sleep

2718 40 0
Without visual reference, what illusion could the pilot spinning into spinning into straight and climbing and turning
get, when he is stopping the rotation to recover from a the opposite the same level flight into the original
spin? He will get the illusion of direction direction direction of the spin
2719 40 1
What is the name for the sensation of rotation occuring "Seat-of-the- Graveyard "Pilot's" Sudden incapacitation.
during flight and which is caused by multiple irritation of Pants" spin. Vertigo.
several semicircular canals at the same time? illusions.
2720 40 0
"Pilot's vertigo": the is a the a sudden loss of visual
impression sensation of impression perception during flight
of climbing rotation of flying due to multiple irritation
when during flight straight and of the utriculus and
banking due to level while sacculus at the same
multiple the aircraft is time
irritation of spinning
several
semicircular
canals at the
same time

2721 40 0
 With "vertigo" the instrument-panel seems to tumble . conflicting oxygen the coriolis tuned resonance
This is due to information deficiency effect in the caused by vibration
between the semicircular
semicircular canals
canals and
the tympanic
membrane

2722 40 0
Which flight-maneouvre will most likely induce vertigo? banking climbing descending flying straight and level
2723 40 Turning the head while 1
Vertigo is the result of "Oculogyral "Autokinetic- "Elevator "Coriolis-effect"
2724 40 illusion" illusion" illusion" 0
A pilot, accelerating or decelerating in level flight may the feeling of the illusion the the illusion of climbing
get: rotation to turn impression or descending
of stationary
objects
moving to
the right or
left

2725 40 0
Which of the following applies when alcohol has been Even after Drinking Small Acute effects of alcohol
consumed? the coffee at the amounts of cease immediately
consumption same time alcohol when 100% oxygen is
of small will increase increase taken
amounts of the visual
alcohol, elimination performance
normal rate of
cautionary alcohol
attitudes
may be lost

2726 40 1
The biological reaction to stress is identical regardless alarm phase alarm phase exhaustion resistance phase -
of the cause of stress. This mechanism occurs in three - resistance - denial phase - exhaustion phase -
phases and is referred to, by Selye, as the "General phase - phase - resistance recovery phase
Adaptation Syndrome". exhaustion exhaustion phase -
The sequence is: phase phase adaptation
phase
2727 40 1
According to the different phases of the "General 2 and 3 are 1,2 and 3 1 and 2 are only 1 is correct
Adaptation Syndrom" check the following statements: correct, 1 is are correct correct, 3 is
1. During the alarm phase stress hormones (i.e. false false
adrenalin) will cause a massiv release of glucose into
the blood, an acceleration of pulse and blood pressure
as well as an increase in the rate and depth of
breathing
2. During the resistance phase the parasympathetic
system uses a different type of hormone (cortisol)
assisting to convert fat into sugar thus providing
sufficient energy supply to the brain and body cells for
sustained operation.
3. During the exhaustion phase the body has to be
given time to eliminate the waste products which have
been generated excessively during the two preceeding
phases,

2728 40 0
If coping with a stress situation is impossible, one will eustress distress adaptation hypoxia
2729 40 remain in the state of: 0
 1. Adaptation is a new state of equilibrium after having 1 and 2 are 1 is correct, 1 is false, 2 1 and 2 are both false
coped with both correct 2 is false is correct
a stressful situation.
2. An individual's prospect of the situation and his/her
abilities to
cope with it will determine the type and strength of
stress.
2730 40 1
Learning to fly naturally induces stress in a student pilot 1, 2 and 4 1 and 2 are 1 and 2 are 1, 2 and 3 are correct,
because he is lacking experience. Manifestations of are correct, correct, 3 false, 3 and 4 is false
this type of stress are: 3 is false and 4 are 4 are
1. nervousness and chanellized attention false correct,
2. being rough at the controls
3. smoke and drink much more alcohol than usual
4. airsickness, lack of sleep

2731 40 0
The level at which a pilot will experience a situation as depends on does not depends on depends on self-
stressful the depend on the level of confidence alone
individual's his capacity demand but
perception to absorb not on
of available information individual
abilities in interpretatio
comparison n of the
to the situational
situational demands
demands

2732 40 1
The human performance is generally constant better when better very always better in the
throughout relaxed, early in the evening than in the
the day independent morning morning
of the period
of day

2733 40 0
Alcohol, when taken simultaneously with drugs, may increase the intensify the compensate show undesired effects
rate of effects of the for side only during night flights
alcohol drugs effects of
elimination drugs
from the
blood
2734 40 0
Which of the following symptoms could a pilot get, 1, 2, 3 and 4 Only 5 is 1, 2 and 3 4 and 5 are correct
when he is subjected to hypoxia? are correct false are correct
1. Fatigue.
2. Euphoria.
3. Lack of concentration.
4. Pain in the joints.
5. Sensation of suffocation.
2735 40 0
Flying at pressure altitude of 10 000 ft, a pilot, being a of 15000 FT above 10 of 10 000 FT lower than 10 000 FT
moderate to heavy smoker, has an oxygen content in when 000 FT
the blood equal to an altitude breathing
100%
oxygen
2736 40 0
A pilot who smokes will loose some of his capacity to 5 - 8% 0.5 - 2% 12 - 18% 20 - 25%
transport oxygen combined with hemoglobin.
Which percentage of his total oxygen transportation
capacity would he give away when he smokes one
pack of cigarettes a day?

2737 40 1
 Cigarette smoking has particular significance to the a mild a a mild a mild carbon dioxide
flyer, because there are long-term and short-term carbon suppressed carbon poisoning increasing the
harmful effects. From cigarette smoking the pilot can monoxide desire to eat monoxide pilot's tolerance to
get: poisoning and drink poisoning hypoxia
increasing decreasing
the pilot´s the pilot´s
tolerance to tolerance to
hypoxia hypoxia
2738 40 0
Vitamin A and possibly vitamins B and C are chemical 1 and 3 are 1 and 3 are 1, 2, 3 and 4 Only 4 is false
factors and essential to good night vision: false, 2 and correct, 2 are correct
1. Vitamin deficiencies may decrease night vision 4 are correct and 4 are
performance false
2. An excess intake of vitamin A will improve night
vision
performance significantly
3. Pilots should be carefully concerned to take a
balaced diet
containing sufficient vitamin A
4. Vitamin deficiencies may decrease visual acuity in
photopic
vision but not in scotopic vision

2739 40 0
The consumption of medicines or other substances 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 3 and 4 are Only 2 is false.
may have consequences on qualification to fly for the are correct are correct, false, 1 and
following reasons: 4 is false 2 are
1. The desease requiring a treatment may be cause for correct.
disqualification.
2. Flight conditions may modify the reactions of the
body to a
treatment.
3. Drugs may cause adverse side effects impairing
flight safety.
4. The effects of medicine do not necessarily
immediately
disappear when the treatment is stopped.

2740 40 1
Drugs against allergies (antihistamines), when taken by only 3, 4 and 2, 3 and 4 only 1 is 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are
an aviator can cause the following undesirable effects: 5 are correct are correct correct correct
1. Drowsiness, dizziness
2. Dry mouth
3. Headaches
4. Impaired depth perception
5. Nausea

2741 40 0
What do you do, when you are affected by "pilot`s 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 are Only 4 is false
vertigo"? are correct are correct, correct, 3
1. Establish and maintain an effective instrument cross- 4 is false and 4 are
check. false
2. Believe the instruments.
3. Ignore illusions.
4. Minimize head movements.
2742 40 1
Alcohol metabolism (elimination rate) is approx. is approx. depends on definitely depends on
0.015% per 0.3% per wether you the amount and
hour and hour get some composition of food
cannot be sleep in which has been eaten
expedited between
drinks
2743 40 1
 The metabolisation of alcohol can be can be is a question is quicker when used to
accelerated influenced of time it
even more by easy to
by coffee get
medication
2744 40 0
The risk of getting a spatial disorientation is growing, there is the pilot is the pilot is informations from the
when contradictory buckled too performing vestibular organ in the
information tight to his an effective inner ear are ignored
between the seat and instrument
instruments cannot cross-check
and the sense the and is
vestibular attitude ignoring
organs changes of illusions
the aircraft
by his Seat-
of-the-
Pants-Sense

2745 40 1
Which of the following components belong to the Ossicles Otoliths Endolymph Semicircular canals
2746 40 middle ear? 1
Which is the audible range to human hearing? Between 16 Between 16 Between 16 Between 16 Hz and 20
MHz and 20 KHz and 20 Hz and 20 KHz
2747 40 000MHz KHz MHz 0
The vestibular organ reacts to gives the reacts to reacts to vibrations of
linear/angul impression pressure the cochlea
ar of hearing changes in
acceleration the middle
and gravity ear

2748 40 1
Which part of the vestibular apparatus is responsible The The cochlea The The eustachian tube
for the impression of angular acceleration? semicircular sacculus
canals and utriculus
2749 40 1
Which part of the vestibular apparatus is affected by The The The The cochlea
changes in gravity and linear acceleration? eustachian sacculus semicircular
tube and utriculus canals
2750 40 0
The most probable reason for spatial disorientation is to believe a poor the lack of to rely on instruments
the attitude instrument attention to when flying in and out of
indicator cross-check the vertical clouds
and speed
permanently indicator
transitioning
back and
forth
between
instruments
and visual
references

2751 40 0
What does not impair the function of the photosensitive Fast speed Oxygen Acceleration Toxic influence (alcohol,
cells? deficiency nicotine, medication)
2752 40 1
 Concerning the effects of drugs and pilot´s the primary the side medication only the primary effect
performance and the side effects only has no has to be considered;
effects have have to be influence on side effects are
to be considered pilot´s negligable
considered performance

2753 40 1
Stress management programmes usually involve: only the only the the use of the prevention and/or
removal of prevention psychoactiv the removal of stress
2754 40 stress of stress e drugs 0
The effect of hypoxia to vision does not is stronger is usual can only be detected
depend on with the rods stronger with when smoking tobacco
the level of the cones
illumination
2755 40 0
Hypoxia will effect night vision and causes at 5000 FT less than and causes the
hyperventilat day vision autokinetic phenomena
2756 40 ion 0
What impression do you have when outside references Objects Objects There is no It is difficult to determine
are fading away (e.g. fog, darkness, snow and vapor)? seem to be seem to be difference the size and speed of
closer than much bigger compared objects
in reality than in with flying
reality on a clear
and sunny
day
2757 40 0
Concerning flying and blood alcohol content the flying with no flying flying with flying with up to 0.15 %
following statement is correct: up to 0.08 % under the up to 0.05 % blood alcohol
blood influence of blood
alcohol is alcohol alcohol
safe, since
driving is
safe up to
this limit
2758 40 0
Tuned resonance of body parts, distressing the acceleration angular vibrations vibrations from 16 Hz to
individual, can be caused by along the velocity from 1 to 18 kHz
longitudonal 100 Hz
body axis
2759 40 0
When assessing an individuals risk in developing Only 3 is 1, 2 and 3 1, 2, 3 and 4 2 and 3 are correct, 1
coronary artery disease, the following factors may correct, 1, 2 are correct, are correct and 4 are false
contribute: and 4 are 4 is false
1.obesity false
2.distress
3.smoking
4.family history
2760 40 0
The fovea centralis is where the the area of the area of the area of the blind
optic nerves best day best day spot (optic disc)
come vision and vision and
together with best night no night
the pupil vision vision at all

2761 40 0
 Flying a coordinated level turn will make the make the first give the make the blood being
seat-of-the- body`s impression pooled in the head
pants sense pressure of climb ,
feel a receptors then the
decreased feel an impression
pressure increased of descent
along the pressure
body`s along the
vertical axis body`s
vertical axis

2762 40 0
A stress reaction is: the non- the specific the non- the specific stimuli
specific response of specific causing a human body
response of the body to stimuli to respond
the body to every causing a
every demand human body
demand placed on a to respond
placed on a person
person
2763 40 1
What can a pilot do to avoid "Flicker vertigo" when Fly straight Switch Dim the Engage the autopilot
flying in the clouds? and level strobe-lights cockpit lights until breaking the clouds
and avoid off to avoid
head reflections
movements
2764 40 0
"Pilot's vertigo" is the is the is the announces the
condition of sensation to sensation of beginning of airsickness
dizziness keep a climbing
and/or rotation caused by a
tumbling after strong linear
sensation completing a acceleration
caused by turn
contradictory
impulses to
the central
nervous
system
(CNS)

2765 40 1
Dizziness and tumbling sensations, when making head "Flicker- "Oculogravic "Pilot`s "Nystagmus"
2766 40 movements in a tight turn, are symptoms of vertigo" illusion" vertigo" 0
How can a pilot overcome a vertigo, encountered Only 4 is 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 1and 2 are correct, 3
during a real or simulated instrument flight? correct are correct are correct and 4 are false
1. Establish and maintain an effective instrument cross-
check.
2. Always believe the instruments; never trust your
sense of feeling.
3. Ignore arising illusions.
4. Move the head sidewards and back and forth to
"shake-off"
illusions.

2767 40 0
 How can a pilot prevent "pilots-vertigo"? Avoid steep Practise an Use the Maintain orientation on
turns and extremely autopilot and outside visual
abrupt flight fast disregard references as long as
maneouvers scanning monitoring possible and rely upon
and maintain technique the the senses of balance..
an effective using off- instruments.
instrument center
cross check. vision.

2768 40 1
Through which part of the ear does the equalization of External Eustachian Cochlea Tympanic membrane
pressure take place, when altitude is changed? auditory tube
2769 40 canal 0
Being pressed into the seat can cause illusions and/or will not corresponds corresponds makes the pilot to pull
false reactions in a pilot lacking visual contact to the stimulate the with the with the up the nose to
ground, because this sensation "seat-of-the- sensation a sensation a compensate for level
pants" sense pilot gets pilots gets, flight
when when flying
starting a straight and
climb or level or
performing a starting a
level turn descent

2770 40 0
A pilot is prone to get vertigo, as visibility is impaired Concentrate Depend on Depend on Reduce rate of
(dust, smoke, snow). What is the correct action to on the information the breathing until all
prevent vertigo? vertical from the instruments symptoms disappear,
speedomete semicircular then breathe normal
r canals of the again
inner ear,
because
those are
the only
ones giving
correct
information

2771 40 0
When spinning an aircraft, the predominating type of radial linear vertical angular acceleration
acceleration will be acceleration acceleration acceleration
2772 40 0
What is understood by air-sickness? A sensory An illness An illness An illness caused by an
conflict caused by caused by infection of the middle
within the evaporation reduced air ear
vestibular of gases in pressure
system the blood
accompanie
d by nausea,
vomiting and
fear

2773 40 1
Vibrations can cause blurred vision. photosensiti eyeballs optic nerve cristalline lens
2774 40 This is due to tuned resonance oscillations of the: ve cells 0
 Vibrations within the frequency band of 1/10 to 2 Hertz interfere with make the upset the interfere with those of
are a factor contributing to air-sickness, because they the stomach and vestibular the own blood thus
frequencies its contents apparatus causing circulation
of the vibrating at problems
central the same
nervous frequency
system
2775 40 0
What should a pilot do if he has no information about be aware make a be aware make an instrument
the dimensions of the runway and the condition of the that visual that approach and be aware
terrain underneath the approach? He should approaches approach approaches of the illusory effects
over and call the over water that can be induced
downsloping tower for always
terrain will assistance make the
make him pilot feel that
believe that he is lower
he is higher than actual
than actual height

2776 40 0
The probability to suffer from air-sickness is higher, the the student the student the passenger or
when passenger ist motivated has good student is afraid and/or
has taken and adapted outside demotivated to fly
anti-motion to the visual
sickness specific reference
remedies stimuli of
prior flight flying

2777 40 0
What could the crew do in order to avoid air-sickness 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 3 and 4 are Only 4 is correct
with passengers? are correct are correct, correct, 1
1. Avoid turbulences. 4 is false and 2 are
2. Avoid flying through rough weather. false
3. Seat passenger close to the center of gravity.
4. Give pertinent information.
2778 40 1
Which sensations does a pilot get, when he is rolling Flying Climbing Turning into Descending and turning
out of a coordinated level turn? straight and the original into the opposite
2779 40 level direction direction 0
You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 27 m), high low low high approach with
to an international airport (runway width 45 m). On approach approach approach overshoot
reaching your destination there is a risk of performing with with with
a: undershoot overshoot undershoot
2780 40 0
A passenger complains about a painful inflated belly at 2, 3 and 4 1 and 3 not only 4 is 1, 2 and 3 are correct
8.000 feet. You advise him to: are correct advisable correct
1. unbuckle and massage the belly
2. stand up and let go the gases out of the intestines
3. eat less gas forming food and avoid carbonhydrated
beverages
before flight in the future
4. drink a lot of water throughout the flight

2781 40 0
Excessive exposure to noise damages: the ossicles the eardrum the sensitive the semi circular canals
membrane
in the
cochlea

2782 40 0
A pilot, trying to pick up a fallen object from the cockpit barotrauma pressure coriolis autokinetic illusion
2783 40 floor during a tight turn, experiences: vertigo illusion 0
 Empty field myopia is caused by: ozone at flying over lack of atmospheric
altitude mountainous distant focal perspective
2784 40 terrain points 0
When a pilot is starring at an isolated stationary light for the colour of the light is the size of the intensity of the light
several seconds in the dark he might get the illusion the light is moving the lightis is varying
2785 40 that: varying varying 0
When you stare at a single light against the dark (f.e. autokinetic black hole coriolis leans
an isolated star) you will find the light appears to move phenomeno illusion illusion
after some time. This phenomenon is called: n
2786 40 1
Conductive hearing loss can be caused by: 1,2 and 3 1,3 and 4 1,2,3 and 4 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1
1. damage to the ossicles in the middle ear caused by are correct, are correct, are correct is false
infection or trauma 4 is false 2 is false
2. a damage of the auditory nerve
3. an obstruction in the auditory duct
4. a ruptured tympanic membrane
2787 40 0
The 'Black hole' phenomenon occurs during being too being too being too climbing
approaches at night and over water, jungle or desert. low, flying a high and too close,
When the pilot is lacking of visual cues other than those steeper far away, landing long
of the aerodrome there is an illusion of approach dropping low
than normal and landing
short

2788 40 0
The Eustachian tube connects: the middle the middle the auditory the semi circular canals
ear and the ear and the duct and the
inner ear pharynx inner ear
2789 40 0
You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 45 m) high low low high approach with
to a small airfield (runway width 27 m). On reaching approach approach approach overshoot
your destination there is a risk of performing a: with with with
undershoot overshoot undershoot
2790 40 0
1. In case of conflicting information you can always 1 is correct, 1 and 2 are 1 is false, 2 1 and 2 are correct
trust your 2 is false false is correct
Seat- of-the-Pants-Sense.
2. In case of conflicting information between the
sensory organs
and the instruments you must believe the
instruments.
2791 40 0
How can spatial disorientation in IMC be avoided? By moving the looking maintaining believing your body
head into outside a good senses only.
the direction whenever instrument
of the possible cross check.
resultant ignoring the
vertical. attitude
indicator.
2792 40 0
Which procedure is recommended to prevent or Tilt your Rely on the Get adapted Rely entirely on the
overcome spatial disorientation? head to the Seat-of-the- to low levels indications of the flight
side to get Pants- of instruments.
better Sense. illumination
informations before flying
from the and use off-
semicircular center vision
canals. all the time.

2793 40 0
 How can a pilot prevent spatial disorientation in flight? Establish Always try to Rely on Rely on the kinaesthetic
and maintain catch good sense.
a good outside situational
instrument visual cues. awareness
cross check. believing
your natural
senses.

2794 40 1
If you are subjected to an illusion during night flying you dim the scan the use your continue on instruments
should: cockpit surrounding oxygen
2795 40 lighting s mask 0
Getting uneasy will effect: 1, 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 are 1 and 3 are 2, 3 and 4 are correct
1. attention are correct correct correct
2. concentration
3. memory
4. prudence
2796 40 1
How is haze effecting your perception? Objects Objects will Haze makes Objects seem to be
seem to be give better the eyes to closer than in reality.
further away contrast. focus at
than in infinity
reality.
2797 40 1
Glaucoma is: disturbed disturbed high intra- disturbed colour vision
adaptation night vision ocular
2798 40 pressure 0
A stereotype and involuntary reaction of the organism change of reflex data control system
on stimulation of receptors is called: stimulation processing
2799 40 level 0
The amount of light which strikes the retina is controlled the lens the pupil the ciliary the cornea
2800 40 by: body 0
When focussing on near objects: the shape of the cornea the pupil the shape of lens gets
lens gets gets smaller gets larger more spherical
2801 40 flatter 0
The ability of the lens to change its shape is called: binocular depth adaptation accomodation
2802 40 vision perception 0
The first stage in the information process is perception selective the sensory stimulation
attention recognition
of
information
2803 40 0
Presbyopia is: far short myopia high intraocular
sightedness sightedness pressure
linked with
age
2804 40 1
Noise induced hearing loss (NIHL) is caused by: reduced damage of a blocked pressure differences on
mobility of the sensitive Eustachian both sides of the
the ossicles membrane tube eardrum
in the
cochlea due
to
overexposur
e to noise

2805 40 0
Glaucoma 1 and 3 are 2 and 3 are 1 is correct, 1, 2 and 3 are correct
1. can lead to total blindness correct, 2 is correct, 1 is 2 and 3 are
2. can lead to undetected reduction of the visual field false false false
3. reduces visual acuity in its final stage

2806 40 0
 On ascent the gases in the digestive tract will be absorbed expand stay the shrink
by tissues same
and blood
2807 40 0
Glaucoma is characterised by: 2, 3 and 4 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 1, 3 and 4 are correct, 2
1. disturbed light adaptation are correct , are correct are correct, is false
2. progressive narrowing of the visual field 1 is false 4 is false
3. insidious onset and concealed progression
4. an increase in intra-ocular pressure
2808 40 1
The peripheral vision is important for: binocular colour vision detecting visual acuity
vision moving
2809 40 objects 0
Although we have a field of vision of more than 180° it only in the it is tiring to only in the the reduction in the field
is important during flight to use the scan ning foveal area look peripheral of vision with
technique, because resolution is continually area of the decreasing altitude is
good in the same retina due to a lack of vitamin
enough to direction resolution is A
see an good
object enough to
clearly see an
object
clearly

2810 40 1
The time an eye needs to adapt fully to the dark is 5 minutes 10 minutes 10 seconds 25 - 30 minutes
2811 40 about: 0
The photosensitive cells beeing responsible for night the rods the fovea the cones the cones and the rods
2812 40 vision are called: 1
When flying through a thunderstorm with lightning you a), b), c) and a), b) and c) a) and b) are c) and d) are correct, a)
can protect yourself from flashblindness by: d) are are correct, correct, c) and b) are false
a) turning up the intensity of cockpit lights correct d) is false and d) are
b) looking inside the cockpit false
c) wearing sunglasses
d) using face blinds or face curtains when installed

2813 40 1
Which scanning technique should be used when flying Blink your Look with Look to the Look directly at the
at night? eyes. one eye. side (15 - 20 object.
deg) of the
object.
2814 40 0
Which of the following statements about long-term 2, 3 and 4 2 and 4 are 1 and 4 are 1 and 2 are correct
memory are correct? are correct correct correct
-1: Information is stored there in the form of descriptive,
rule-based
and schematic knowledge.
-2: The period of time for which information is retained
is limited by
the frequency with which this same information is
used.
-3: It processes information quickly and has an effective
mode of
access in real time.
-4: Pre-activation of necessary knowledge will allow for
a reduction
in access time.

2815 40 0
The human circadian rhythm is based on a cycle of 12 hours 48 hours 24 hours 1.5 hours
2816 40 about: 0
 If you are disorientated during night flying you must: look outside descend check your relay on instruments
rate of
breathing -
do not
breathe too
fast
2817 40 0
Flying immediately after SCUBA diving involves the risk stress decompressi hyperventilat hypoxia
of getting: on sickness ion
without
having a
decompressi
on

2818 40 0
Which statement is correct regarding alcohol in the Judgement A small An increase When drinking coffee,
human body? and decision amount of of altitude the human body
making can alcohol decreases metabolizes alcohol at a
be affected increases the adverse faster rate than normal.
even by a visual acuity. effect of
small alcohol.
amount of
alcohol.

2819 40 1
Which statement is correct? 1,2 and 3 1 and 2 are 1 and 3 are 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is
1. Smokers have a greater chance of suffering from are correct correct, 3 is correct, 2 is false
coronary heart disease false false
2. Smoking tobacco will raise the individuals
pysiological altitude
during flight
3. Smokers have a greater chance of decreasing ung
cancer
2820 40 1
Smoking cigarettes reduces the capability of the blood hemoglobin carbon carbon the smoke of one
to carry oxygen. This is because: has a monoxide in monoxide cigarette can cause an
greater the smoke of increases obstruction in the
affinity for cigarettes the partial respiratory tract
carbon assists pressure of
monoxide diffusion of oxygen in
than it has oxygen in the alveoli
for oxygen the alveoli

2821 40 1
CO (carbon monoxide) present in the smoke of 1 and 2 are 1 and 2 are 1 is correct, 1 is false, 2 is correct
cigarettes can lead to: both false both correct 2 is false
1. reduction of time of usefull consciousness
2. hypoxia at a much lower altitude than normal
2822 40 0
After a rapid decompression at 35 000 feet, the time of 5 minutes. 10 minutes. 30 to 60 15 seconds or less
2823 40 useful consciousness is about: seconds 0
Adverse effects of carbon monoxide increase as: relative altitude altitude air pressure increases
humidity increases decreases
2824 40 decreases 0
Following a rapid decompression at 30.000 feet, the 1 to 2 3 to 5 5 to 10 10 to 12 minutes
2825 40 time of useful consciousness would be about: minutes minutes minutes 1
Disturbance of the biological clock appears after a: 1 and 3 are 1,2,3 and 4 2 and 4 are 1,2 and 3 are correct
1. bad night's sleep correct are correct correct
2. day flight Amsterdam - New York
3. day flight Amsterdam - Johannesburg
4. night flight New York - Amsterdam

2826 40 0
 The effects of sleep deprivation on performance: 1 and 3 are 1,2 and 3 1, 3 and 4 2, 3 and 4 are correct
1. increase with altitude correct are correct are correct
2. decrease with altitude
3. increase with higher workload
4. decrease with higher workload

2827 40 1
Sleeplessness or the disruption of sleeping patterns 1 and 2 are 1 is not 1 is correct, 1 and 2 are both not
1. can lead to symptoms of drowsiness, irritability and both correct correct, 2 is 2 is not correct
lack of correct correct
concentration
2. will make an individual more prone to make errors

2828 40 1
Check the following statements: 1 is false, 2 1 and 2 are 1 and 2 are 1 is correct 2 is false
1. A person experiencing sleep loss is unlikely to be is correct both false both correct
aware of
personal performance degradation
2. Performance loss may be present up to 20 minutes
after
awaking from a short sleep (nap)
2829 40 0
The sleep cycles repeat during the course of a night's 1 is correct 2 1 is not 1 and 2 are 1 and 2 are both correct
sleep. is not correct correct 2 is both not
1. Each succeeding cycle contains a greater amount of correct correct
REM-
sleep.
2. Frequent interruption of the REM-sleep can harm a
human being
in the long run.
2830 40 0
1. REM-sleep becomes shorter with any repeated 1 is correct 2 1 and 2 are 1 is not 1 and 2 are both correct
sleep cycle is not correct false correct 2 is
during the night. correct
2. REM-sleep is more important for the regeneration of
mental and
physical functions than all the other sleep stages are.

2831 40 0
Alcohol, even when taken in minor quantities can make will stimulate will have no may improve the mental
the brain the brain, effect at all functions, so that the
cells to be making the symptoms of hypoxia
more pilot are much better to be
susceptible resistant to identified
to hypoxia hypoxia

2832 40 1
Carbon monoxide in the human body can lead to: 1, 2, 3, 4 are 1, 2 , 3 and 1, 2 and 4 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is
1. loss of muscular power correct 5 are correct are correct false
2. headache
3. impaired judgement
4. pain in the joints
5. loss of consciousness

2833 40 0
 Some hours after a rapid decompression at FL 300 you You should This This This phenomenon is
experience pain in the joints. Which of following ask for symptom phenomeno treated by breathing
answers is correct? medical indicates n is treated 100% nitrogen.
advice (flight decompressi by
surgeon) on sickness physiotherap
since this is and will y.
a symptom disappear
of when you
decompressi take some
on sickness. exercise.

2834 40 1
Having a serious cold it is better not to fly, due to the 1,2 and 4 2,3 and 4 1 and 2 are 1,3 and 4 are correct
extra risk of: are correct are correct correct
1. flatulence
2. pain in the ear during descent
3. pressure vertigo
4. pain in the nasal sinuses
2835 40 0
Having a serious cold, you are going to fly. What can hypoxia pain in the bends chokes
2836 40 you expect: sinuses 0
Pain in the middle ear during descent may be eased increasing using an leveling off blocking the effected
by: the rate of oxygen and possibly ear with the palm of
descent mask climbing your hand
2837 40 0
The occurrence of pain in the joints (bends) during a volume of the total the the quantity of a gas
decompression can be explained by the principle that: gas is pressure of molecules of dissolved in a fluid is
inversely a mixture of a gas will proportional to the
proportional gases is move from pressure of that gas
to the equal to the an area of above the fluid (Henry's
pressure of sum of the higher Law)
this gas at partial concentratio
constant pressures of n or partial
temperature the separate pressure to
(Boyle's law) gases an area of
(Dalton's lower
Law) concentratio
n or partial
pressure
(law of
diffusion)

2838 40 0
Pain in the joints caused by gas bubbles following a chokes creeps leans bends
2839 40 decompression is called: 0
Which symptom does not belong to the following list: bends chokes creeps leans
2840 40 0
After SCUBA diving (more than 30 feet of depth) you 6 hours 12 hours 48 hours 24 hours
have to wait a period of time before flying again. This
2841 40 period is at least: 0
Symptoms caused by gas bubbles in the lungs, chokes bends creeps leans
2842 40 following a decompression are called: 1
A person being exposed to extreme or prolonged stress coping eustress stressors distress (stress
2843 40 factors can perceive: stress reactions) 0
 Tolerance to decompression sickness is decreased by: only 4 is 1, 2 and 3 2 and 4 are 1, 3 and 4 are correct
1. SCUBA-Diving correct are correct correct
2. Obesity
3. Age
4. Body height

2844 40 0
Decompression symptoms are caused by: low oxygen release of dissolved low carbon dioxide
pressure of locked gases from pressure of inhaled air
inhaled air gases from tissues and
joints fluids of the
body
2845 40 0
In the event of rapid decompression the first action for descent to transmit carry out don oxygen masks and
the flight deck crew is: the higher of mayday call check for ensure oxygen flow
10000 ft or structural
MSA damage
2846 40 0
After a rapid decompression at an altitude of 30.000 FT informing informing preventing maintaining aircraft
the first action of the pilot shall be: ATC the cabin panic of the control and preventing
crew passengers hypoxia (use of oxygen
mask)
2847 40 0
The following actions are appropriate when faced with 1, 2 and 3 1 and 4 are 1 and 3 are 2, 3 and 4 are correct
symptoms of decompression sickness: are correct correct correct
1. climb to higher level
2. descent to the higher of 10000 ft or MSA and land as
soon as
possible
3. breathe 100 % oxygen
4. get medical advice about recompression after
landing

2848 40 0
Decompression sickness can be prevented by: 1, 2 and 4 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 are only 3 is correct
1. avoiding cabin altitudes above 18 000 FT are correct are correct correct, 4 is
2. maintaining cabin pressure below 8 000FT when false
flying at high
altitudes
3. performing physical exercises before and during the
flight
4. breathing 100 % oxygen for 30 min prior and during
the flight

2849 40 1
What is the TUC at 20 000 FT? 1to 2 hours 5 to 10 about 30 1 to 2 minutes
2850 40 minutes minutes 0
The symptoms caused by gas bubbles under the skin bends chokes leans creeps
2851 40 following a decompression are called: 0
Hypoxia can be caused by: 1 is false, 2, 1, 2, 3 are 1, 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 are correct, 3
1. low partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere 3 and 4 are correct, 4 is are correct and 4 are false
when flying at correct false
high altitudes without pressurisation and
supplemental oxygen
2. a decreased saturation of oxygen in the blood due to
carbon
monoxide attached to the hemoglobin
3. blood pooling in the lower extremities due to inertia
(+ Gz)
4. malfunction of the body cells to metabolize oxygen
(i.e. after
a hangover)

2852 40 0
 Which of the following factors may have an influence High blood Blood Low blood High and low blood
on medical disqualification? pressure pressure pressure pressure as well as a
only. problems only. poor condition of the
cannot occur circulatory system.
in aircrew
because
they always
can be
treated by
in-flight
medication.

2853 40 0
Hypoxia can also be caused by a lack of too much increasing a lack of red blood cells
nitrogen in carbon oxygen in the blood or
ambient air dioxide in partial decreased ability of the
the blood pressure hemoglobin to transport
used for the oxygen
exchange of
gases

2854 40 0
Which statement applies to hypoxia? it is possible sensitivity carbon you may become
to prognose and reaction monoxide immune to hypoxia
when, how to hypoxia increases when exposed
and where varies from the repeatedly to hypoxia
hypoxia person to tolerance of
reaction person the brain to
starts to set oxygen
in deficiency

2855 40 0
A symptom comparison for hypoxia and altitude symptoms cyanosis there are great
hyperventilation is: hypoxia is caused by (blue color differences between the
very unlikely hyperventilat of finger-nail two
at cabin ion will and lips)
pressure immediately exists only in
altitudes vanish when hypoxia
above 10 100%
000 ft oxygen is
given

2856 40 0
Which of the following is a/are symptom(s) of hypoxia ? Pain in the Low blood Excessive Lack of concentration,
joints pressure rate and fatigue, euphoria
depth of
breathing
combined
with pains in
the chest
area
2857 40 0
In the following list you find some symptoms for Visual Nausea and Dull Dizziness, hypothermia.
hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning. disturbances barotitis. headache
Please mark those indicating hypoxia: , lack of and bends.
concentratio
n, euphoria.

2858 40 1
A pilot, climbing in a non-pressurised aircraft and 16 000 ft 18 000 ft 38 000 ft 22 000 ft
without using supplemental oxygen will pass the
2859 40 "critical threshold" at approximately: 0
 A pilot will get hypoxia if he is flying after after if his rate of climb
an decompressi decompressi exceeds 5 000 ft/min
unpressurize on at high on to 30 000
d airplane at altitude and feet and
an altitude of not taking taking 100
15 000 feet additional % oxygen
and oxygen in via an
breathing time oxygen
100 % mask
oxygen

2860 40 0
Breathing 100% will lift the pilot's physiological safe 10 000 22 000 ft 45 000 ft 38 000 ft
2861 40 altitude to approximately: 0
Hypoxia is caused by a higher reduced reduced an increased number of
affinity of the partial partial red blood cells
red blood oxygen pressure of
cells pressure in nitrogen in
(hemoglobin the lung the lung
) to oxygen

2862 40 0
Large amounts of carbon dioxide are eliminated from to become to turn more to accelerate not to change at all
the body when hyperventilating. This causes the blood more acid thus the oxygen
alkaline eliminating supply to the
increasing more brain
the amount oxygen from
of oxygen to the
be attached hemoglobin
to the
hemoglobin
at lung area

2863 40 1
Oxygen in the blood is primarily transported by the blood attaching attaching the hemoglobin in the
plasma itself to the itself to the red blood cells
hemoglobin hemoglobin
in the red in the white
blood blood cells
plasma
2864 40 0
How can a pilot increase his tolerance to +Gz ? Tighten Take an Relax the Tightening of muscles,
shoulder upright seat muscles, ducking the head and
harness. position. ducking the perform a kind of
head and pressure breathing.
lean upper
body
forward.
2865 40 0
The negative (radial) acceleration of an airplane affects the vertical the the the vertical body axis
the sitting pilot with inertia along : body axis transverse transverse upwards
downwards body axis to body axis to
the right the left
2866 40 0
"Grey out" can be observed if a pilot is subjected to - 3 Gz + 3 Gx + 3 Gy + 3 Gz
2867 40 more than: 0
The part(s) of the eye responsible for night vision are the rods are the are rods and is the cornea
2868 40 cones cones 1
 Why is hypoxia especially dangerous for pilots flying Since the Hypoxia Hypoxia The pilot may loose
solo? first signs of does not improves control when he is using
hypoxia are cause a loss vision at the oxygen mask.
generally of control in night, so the
hard to steering the pilot will
detect plane. have no
(hypoxia of indication of
the brain), danger.
the solo pilot
may not be
able to react
in time (i.e.
activate his
emergency
oxygen
system)

2869 40 1
The impression of an apparent movement of light "autokinesis" "white out" "oculogyral "oculografic illusion"
when stared at for a relatively long period of time in the illusion"
2870 40 dark is called 1
The proprioceptive senses ("Seat of-the-Pants-Sense") give wrong is a natural can be used, can neither be used for
information, human if trained, to motor coordination in
when instinct, avoid spatial IMC and VMC
outside always disorientatio
visual indicating n in IMC
reference is the correct
lost attitude
2871 40 1
Pilot stress reactions : seem to be are related do not differ from pilot to pilot,
always the to an change with depending on how a
same for internationall the person manages the
most pilots y recognized environment particular stressors
list of or different
stressors situations
where the but mainly
top-ten with the
items should characters
be avoided themselves
by all means

2872 40 0
Which of the following is NOT an hazardous attitude? Anti- Impulsivity Domination Macho
2873 40 authority 0
The trend in airplane hull-loss rate over the last three the year of the crew the the number of engines
decades seems to be related to : manufacture manufacture
2874 40 r 0
The area in front of a threshold descends towards the approach is to misjudge approach is to drop far below the
threshold. lower than the length of higher than glide path
Possible danger is: normal and the runway normal and
may result in may result in
a short a long
landing landing
2875 40 0
 A pilot approaching an upslope runway is establishes establishes may feel that he is
performing a a higher a slower higher than actual. This
steeper than than normal than normal illusion may cause him
normal approach approach to land short.
approach, speed speed with
landing long the risk of
stalling out
2876 40 0
Which symptom of hypoxia is the most dangerous for Lack of The Dizziness. Lack of adaptation.
conducting safe flight ? accomodatio interference
n. of reasoning
and
perceptive
functions.

2877 40 0
2878 40 The time for dark adaptation is 1/10 sec 10 min 30 min 10 sec 0
Which statement is correct ? Oxygen The blood The gradient Oxygen diffusion from
diffusion plasma is of diffusion the lungs into the blood
from the transporting is higher at does not depend on
blood into the oxygen. altitude than partial oxygen pressure.
the cells it is at sea-
depends on level.
their partial
oxygen
pressure
gradient.

2879 40 1
A pilot is used to land on small and narrow runways a flatter than the risk to an early or a steeper than normal
only. Approaching a larger and wider runway can lead normal land short of high "round approach dropping low
to : approach the overrun out"
with the risk
of "ducking
under"

2880 40 0
Autokinesis is the the change the the apparent movement
phenomeno in diameter automatical of a static single light
n of spinning of the pupil, adjustment when stared at for a
lights after when of the relatively long period of
the abuse of looking in crystalline time in the dark
alcohol the dark lens to
objects
situated at
different
distances

2881 40 0
To prevent the "autokinetic phenomena", the following turn down look out for fixate the look sideways to the
can be done: cabin light additional source of source of light for better
and shake references light, first fixation
head inside and/or with one
simultaneou outside the eye, then
sly cockpit with the
using other
peripheral
vision also

2882 40 0
 A shining light is fading out (i. e. when flying into fog, The light The source The source The source of light is
dust or haze). What kind of sensation could the pilot source will of light of light approaching him with
get? make the moves away stands still increasing speed
pilot believe, from him
that he is
climbing

2883 40 0
With hyperventilation, caused by high levels of arousal finger nails more peripherical an increased amount of
or overstress: and lips will oxygen will and scotopic carbon dioxide is
turn blue reach the vision will be exhaled causing
("cyanosis") brain improved muscular spasms and
even unconsciousness

2884 40 0
When consciously breathing fast or hyperventilating a delay in the less oxygen a poor saturation of
due to high arousal or overstress, the carbon dioxide the onset of activation of to be oxygen in the blood
level in the blood is lowered, resulting in: hypoxia the diffused into
when flying respiratory the cells
at high centre,
altitudes which in turn
causes
hypoxia

2885 40 0
The most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia at altitude breathlessne euphoria hyperventilat sensation of heat and
are ss and and ion blurred vision
reduced impairment
night vision of
judgement
2886 40 0
Which problem may occur, when flying in an improbable difficult to impossible no problem to estimate
environment of low contrast (fog, snow, darkness, to get visual estimate the to detect the correct speed and
haze)? illusions correct objects size of approaching
Under these conditions it is: speed and objects
size of
approaching
objects
2887 40 0
Which part of the inner ear is responsible for the The The cochlea The The sacculus and
perception of noise? eustachian semicircular utriculus
2888 40 tube canals 0
"Tunnel vision" (loss of peripherical vision) can be - 3.5 Gz + 3.5 Gx - 3.5 Gy + 3.5 Gz
2889 40 observed if a pilot is subjected to more than: 0
When the pilot suffers from hypothermia (loss of cabin his need for his oxygen his oxygen his oxygen need will be
heating): oxygen will need will not need will be raised and his tolerance
be increased be affected reduced to hypoxia will be
as long as giving him a increased
he stays better
conscious tolerance to
hypoxia at
higher
altitudes

2890 40 1
To safely supply the crew with oxygen, at which altitude Approximate Approximate Approximate Approximately 38 000 ft.
is it necessary to breathe 100% oxygen plus pressure ly 14 000 ft. ly 20 000 ft. ly 45 000 ft.
2891 40 after a rapid decompression ? 0
 You can survive at any altitude, provided that 21% oxygen pressure the enough oxygen,
is available respiration is temperature pressure and heat is
in the air you guaranteed in the cabin available
breath in for that does not
altitude drop below
10" C

2892 40 0
At what altitude (breathing 100% oxygen without Approximate 22 000 ft Approximate Approximately 38 - 40
pressure) could symptoms of hypoxia be expected? ly 10 - 12 ly 35 000 ft. 000 ft.
2893 40 000 ft. 0
Breathing 100% oxygen at 38000 ft is equivalent to 18 000 ft 10 000 ft 8 000 ft 14 000 ft
2894 40 breathe ambient air at : 0
The atmosphere contains the following gases: 78% 78% 78% helium, 78% helium, 21%
nitrogen, nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon
21% 21% oxygen, 1% dioxide, rest: rare gases
oxygen, oxygen, 1% carbon
0,03% carbon monoxide,
carbon monoxide, rest: rare
dioxide, rest: rest: rare gases
rare gases gases

2895 40 1
The atmospheric gas pressure rises with decreases decreases drops faster at lower
altitude linear with slower at altitudes in comparison
altitude lower to the same altitude
altitudes changes at higher
compared altitudes
with higher
levels and
equivalent
altitude
changes

2896 40 0
The earth's atmosphere consists of different gases in 1D, 2C, 3B, 1D, 2C, 3A, 1B, 2A, 3D, 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
various concentration. Match the following: 4A 4B 4C

1 nitrogen A 0,03%
2 oxygen B 0,92%
3 carbon dioxide C 20.95%
4 rare gas D 78,10%

2897 40 0
Which part of the ear could be affected due to air The The The cochlea The sacculus and
pressure changes during climb and/or descent? eustachian semicircular utriculus
tube and the canals
tympanic
membrane
(ear drum)

2898 40 1
The semicircular canals of the inner ear monitor movements relative gravity angular accelerations
with speed and
constant linear
speeds acceleration
s
2899 40 0
Which force(s) affect(s) the otoliths in the utriculus and Gravity Linear Angular Gravity and linear
sacculus? alone acceleration acceleration acceleration
and angular
acceleration

2900 40 0
 The eustachian tube is the passage way between the nose, sinuses and nasopharynx nose, pharynx and inner
pharynx and the pharynx and the ear
the external middle ear
auditory
canal

2901 40 0
The retina of the eye is the light- filters the is the only regulates the light
sensitive UV-light muscle, that falls into the eye
inner lining changing the
of the eye size of the
containing crystalline
the lens
photorecept
ors essential
for vision

2902 40 1
In order to completely resynchronise with local time less time more time about one about one week per 2.5
after zone crossing, circadian rhythms require when flying when flying day per 2.5 hours of time shift
from east to from east to hours of
west west time shift
2903 40 1
When oxygen is beeing transferred from the blood into external ventilation hyperventilat internal respiration
the tissues and carbon dioxide from the body cells into respiration ion
2904 40 the blood, it is called: 0
A certain amount of water vapor saturated air (i.e. larger smaller constant first larger, then smaller
intestinal gases) is transported from sea-level up to 34
000 ft. In the same amount of dry air, the volume of
this gas is :
2905 40 1
In the following list you will find several symptoms listed Headache, High levels Euphoria, Muscular spasms,
for hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning. increasing of arousal, accomodatio mental confusion,
Please mark those referring to carbon monoxide nausea, increased n problems, impairment of hearing.
poisoning. dizziness. error blurred
proneness, vision.
lack of
accuracy.
2906 40 1
In the alveoli gas exchange takes place (external Carbon Carbon Ambient air. Oxygen.
respiration). Which gas will diffuse from the blood into monoxide. dioxide.
2907 40 the lungs? 0
The rate and depth of breathing is primarily controlled the amount the amount the total the amount of carbon
by: of carbon of nitrogen atmospheric dioxide in the blood
monoxide in in the blood pressure
the blood
2908 40 0
An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the a reduction an improving shortness of a decrease of acidity in
blood leads to: of red blood resistance to breath the blood
cells hypoxia
2909 40 0
Which of the following is true concerning carbon It has no It is always It is to be It combines 5 times
monoxide? physiological present in found in the faster to the hemoglobin
effect when the lungs. smoke of than oxygen.
mixed with cigarettes
oxygen. lifting up a
smoker's
"physiologic
al altitude".

2910 40 0
Affinity to hemoglobin is best with: nitrogen oxygen carbon carbon monoxide
2911 40 dioxide 0
 Which component(s) is/are transporting the oxygen in Blood fat. Hemoglobin White blood Plasma.
the blood? in the red cells.
2912 40 blood cells. 0
Fatigue and permanent concentration lower the increase the do not affect will increase the
tolerance to tolerance to hypoxia at tolerance to hypoxia
hypoxia hypoxia all when flying below 15
000 feet
2913 40 1
Which of the following applies to carbon monoxide The human Inhaling Several A very early symptom
poisoning? body shows carbon days are for realising carbon
no sign of monoxide needed to monoxide poisoning is
carbon leads to recuperate euphoria.
monoxide hyperventilat from a
poisoning. ion. carbon
monoxide
poisoning.
2914 40 0
The fovea is an area in is sensitive is an area in is the area responsible
which cones to very low which rods for night vision
predominate intensities of predominate
light

2915 40 1
Carbon monoxide poisoning only occurs occurs only is more is more likely to occur in
in jet-driven above 15 likely to aeroplanes with twin-
aeroplanes degrees occur in engines because of
OAT aeroplanes high engine efficiency
where the
cabin heat is
technically
supplied by
coating the
exhaust

2916 40 0
Inhaling carbon monoxide can be extremely dangerous Small Carbon Carbon With increasing altitude
during flying. amounts of monoxide is monoxide the negative effects of
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? carbon odourless increases carbon monoxide
monoxide and cannot the oxygen poisoning will be
are be smelled. saturation in compensated.
harmless. the blood.

2917 40 0
The respiratory process consists mainly of the diffusion the the the transportation of
of oxygen transportatio transportatio carbon dioxide to the
through the n of oxygen n of oxygen cell and elimination of
respiratory to the cell to the cell oxygen
membranes and the and the
into the elimination elimination
blood, of carbon of nitrogen
transportatio monoxide
n to the
cells,
diffusion into
the cells and
elimination
of carbon
dioxide from
the body

2918 40 1
 The percentage of oxygen in the air at an altitude of 21% 5% 10,5% 42%
approximately
2919 40 34 000 ft is : 1
The following applies for the physical properties of at an altitute at sea-level at an altitude a water vapor saturated
gases: of 63 000 ft a gas has of 18 000 ft gas at 34 000 ft has 6
water will 1/3 of the a gas times its volume as it
boil at volume it volume is would have at sea-level
temperature would have three times
of 65°C at 27000 ft as large as it
would be at
sea-level

2920 40 0
The volume percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere increases is dependent is constant decreases with
is 21% which with on the for all increasing altitude
increasing present air altitudes
altitude pressure conventional
airplanes
can reach
2921 40 0
Gases of physiological importance to man are: oxygen and nitrogen and oxygen and oxygen, nitrogen and
carbon carbon carbon water vapor
2922 40 dioxide dioxide monoxide 1
The momentum of gas exchange in respiration is independent depending dependent the excess pressure
from the on the active on the caused by inhaling
partial transportatio pressure
pressures of n of nitrogen gradient
the into the between the
participating alveoli participating
gases gases during
respiration

2923 40 0
The risk of a barotrauma of the middle ear is more with colds after a with colds with colds and fast
likely to occur and slow decompressi and rapid climbs
2924 40 ascents on descents 0
Barotrauma of the sinuses of the nose (aerosinusitis) is only is an is only is caused by a
caused by irritation of caused by difference in pressure
the flying sinuses by colds and existing between the
sport, not by abuse of their effects sinus cavity and the
the diving nose sprays ambient air
sport
2925 40 0
Sensory input to the "Seat-of-the-Pants" sense is given pressure of subcutaneou blood acceleration of the
by the heart on s pressure rushing into stomach (nausea)
the receptors legs
diaphragm and
kinesthetic
muscle
activity
sensors

2926 40 0
The so-called "Seat-of-the-Pants" sense is useful for the only not suitable only to be used by
instrument sense a pilot for spatial experienced pilots with
and contact can rely on, orientation the permission to fly in
flight when flying when IMC
in IMC outside
visual
references
are lost
2927 40 0
 The proprioceptive senses (seat-of-the-pants sense) allow the are are indicate the difference
are important for motor coordination. pilot to important completely between gravity and G-
They determine senses for unreliable forces
the absolute flight training for
vertical at in IMC orientation
flight when flying
condition in IMC

2928 40 0
The maximum number of unrelated items that can be about 30 unlimited about 7 very limited - only 3
2929 40 stored in working memory is: items items items 0
A barotrauma of the middle ear is a dilatation an infection an acute or a bacterial infection of
of the of the middle chronic the middle ear
eustachian ear caused trauma of
tube by rapid the middle
decompressi ear caused
on by a
difference of
pressure on
either side of
the eardrum

2930 40 0
Orientation in flight is accomplished by 2, 3 and 4 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 are correct ,
1. eyes are false, are correct are correct 1 is false
2. utriculus and sacculus only 1 is
3. semicircular canals correct
4. Seat-of-the-pants-Sense
2931 40 0
The Seat-of-the-Pants Sense is including receptors in muscles, semicircular utriculus and skin of the breech only
the tendons and canals sacculus
joints
sensitive to
the position
and
movement
of body
parts

2932 40 1
What should a pilot do to keep his night vision (scotopic Not smoke Avoid food Wait at least Select meals with high
vision)? before start containing 60 minutes contents of vitamin B
and during high to night- and C
flight and amounts of adapt before
avoid flash- vitamin A he takes off
blindness
2933 40 1
Barotrauma of the middle ear is usually accompanied pain in the a reduction dizziness noises in the ear
by joints in hearing
ability and
the feeling of
increasing
pressure

2934 40 0
Barotrauma of the middle ear most likely will occur when in sudden when during a long high
climbing steep turns descending altitude flight
2935 40 rapidly 0
 Please mark the counter-measure a pilot can use Stop Increase the Stop Use drugs against a
against a barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis). descending, rate of chewing and cold
climb again descent swallowing
and then movements
descend ("Valsalva")
with reduced
sink rate

2936 40 1
Trapped intestinal gases can cause severe pain. More At lower Only in During descent as well
When is this the case? frequent altitudes. pressurized as during climb, when
when flying aircraft when the cabin pressure
above 18 flying at altitude is exceeding 2
000 FT in a higher flight 000 FT
non- levels.
pressurized
aircraft.
2937 40 1
A barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis) is more is only causes is to be expected during
likely, when caused by severe pain rapid decompressions,
the pilot is large in the but an emergency
flying with a pressure sinuses descent immediately
respiratory changes following the
infection and during climb decompression will
during eliminate the problem
descent

2938 40 1
At a high altitude flight (no cabin pressure system climb to a perform use descend to lower
available), a pilot gets severe flatulence due to trapped higher "valsalva supplementa altitude
gases. The correct counter-measure is: altitude maneouvre" l oxygen
2939 40 0
One of the most frequent symptom(s) of are the are the is a shock are neurological
decompression sickness emerging after a bends chokes damages to the CNS
2940 40 decompression in airline operation 1
Equalization of pressure is limited between the middle you breath barotrauma the the nose is pinched
ear and the ambient, when: through the exists in the eustachian
mouth sinuses tube is
blocked
2941 40 0
Adaptation is the reflection the the the change of the
of the light at adjustment adjustment diameter of the pupil
the cornea of the of the eyes
crystalline to high or
lens to focus low levels of
light on the illumination
retina

2942 40 0
The mechanism of accomodation is caused by: the the diameter the the elasticity of the optic
functioning of the pupil functioning nerves
of the of the ciliary
muscles of muscle
the eye aroud the
lens

2943 40 0
 Flickering light when reflected from spinning rotor can be can be should be can cause spatial
blades neglected avoided avoided, disorientation and/or
when the because it nausea, when looked at
strobe-lights may destroy for a longer period of
are switched the optical time
on nerve

2944 40 0
A pilot is used to land on wide runways only. When greater lower height greater lower than actual height
approaching a smaller and/or narrower runway, the height and and the height than with the tendency to
pilot may feel he is at a the impression he actually overshoot
impression of landing is with the
of landing slow tendency to
short land short
2945 40 0
Approaches at night without visual references on the lower than lower than higher than higher than actual
ground and no landing aids (e.g. VASIS) can make the actual actual actual altitude with the risk of
pilot believe of beeing altitude with altitude with altitude with overshooting
the risk of the risk of the risk of
overshooting ducking landing short
under ("ducking
under")

2946 40 0
Scanning at night should be performed by: scanning concentrate avoiding slight eye movements to
with one eye d fixation on food the side of the object
open an object containing
(image must Vitamin A
fall on the
fovea
centralis)

2947 40 0
Why does a deficiency in vitamin A cause night- Vitamin A is Accomodati Vitamin A The transfer of light
blindness? essential to on is deficiency stimulus from the rods
the destroyed interrupts to a nerve impulse
regeneration the oxygen depends on vitamin A
of visual supply to the
purple photosensiti
ve cells

2948 40 1
Flying from Frankfurt to Moscow you will have a lay- LT (local MEZ (middle ZT (zonal UTC (universal time
over of 4 days. What time measure is relevant for your time). european time). coordinated).
circadian rhythm on the 3. day? time).
2949 40 1
The time required for complete adaptation is for high for day and for night 10 for high levels of
levels of night: 30 min sec and for illumination 10 sec and
illumination day 30 min for full dark adaptation
10 minutes 30 min
and for low
levels of
illumination
30 minutes
2950 40 0
How can you determine if a person is suffering from a Barotrauma There is no Hearing Aerosinusitis will never
barotrauma of the sinuses of the nose (aerosinusitis) or of the middle difference difficulties develop during descent
the middle ear (aerotitis) ? ear will not will normally
effect accompany
hearing aerotitis

2951 40 0
 Depth perception when objects are close (< 1 m) is seeing with good visual the "blind spot" at the
achieved through two eyes visibility only memory only retina
(binocular
vision)
2952 40 1
What misjudgement may occur if an airplane is flying Objects will Objects Objects Objects will appear
into fog, snow or haze? appear seem to seem to be closer than they really
bigger in move slower farther away are
size than in than in than in
reality reality reality

2953 40 0
Sunglasses with variable filtration (phototrope glasses) are ideal, as are can have are generally forbidden
long as advantageo disadvantag for pilots
there are no us for pilots es when
polarisation used in the
effects cockpit due
to their
dependence
on ultraviolet
light which is
screened by
the cockpit
glass

2954 40 0
Illuminated anti-collision lights in IMC can cause will improve will effect the can cause disorientation
colour- the pilots pilots
illusions depth binocular
perception vision
2955 40 0
The "Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense" can be used, can be used can give is a natural human
if trained, to as a false inputs instinct which will
avoid reference for to body always indicate the
disorientatio determining orientation correct body position in
n in space attitude when visual space
when reference is
operating in lost
visual and
instrument
meteorologic
al conditions

2956 40 0
What are easily observable indications of stress? Lowering of Faster, deep Rising of the Perspiration, flushed
the blood inhalation, blood skin, dilated pupils, fast
pressure. stabbing pressure, breathing.
pain around pupils
the heart. narrowing,
stabbing
pain around
the heart.
2957 40 0
Why should a pilot turn his attention to the instruments pressure perception his attention the danger of a "greying
when approaching on a snowed up, foggy or cloudy differences of distance will be out" will make it
winterday? Because can cause and speed is distracted impossible to determine
the altimeter difficult in an automaticall the height above the
to give environment y under terrain
wrong of low these
information contrast conditions

2958 40 0
 The requirement of good sunglasses is to absorb fit to the eliminate increase the time for
enough pilots distortion in dark adaptation
visible light individual aircraft
to eliminate taste windshields
glare without
decreasing
visual acuity,
absorb UV
and IR
radiation
and absorb
all colors
equally

2959 40 1
What event can cause a hyperventilation (not required 1,2,3,4 and 1and 5 are 1,2,3 and 4 Only 2 and 3 are correct
by physical need)? 5 are correct both false are correct,
1. Pressure breathing. 5 is false
2. Anxiety or fear.
3. Overstress.
4. Strong pain.
5. Jogging.
2960 40 0
Barodontalgia arises only even arises arises in arises especially with
at higher with healthy combination irritations of the
altitudes and teeth with a cold sensitive tissues close
after and very to the root of a tooth
decompressi high rates of
on descent
2961 40 0
Where is the "critical threshold" at which a pilot not It38000 FT 22000 FT. 18000 FT It25000 FT
using oxygen reaches the critical or lethal zone?
It starts at:
2962 40 0
At what altitude ("threshold for compensatory 8000-9000 9000-10000 10000- 6000-7000 FT
reactions") does the human organism start with FT FT 12000 FT
remarkable measures to compensate for the drop in
pO2 when climbing?
At about:
2963 40 0
Hyperventilation can cause unconsciousness, because: not enough oxygen blood oxygen saturation of the
time is left to saturation of circulation to blood is decreased
exchange the blood is the brain is
oxygen in increased slowed
the lungs and the down
brain will be
supplied
with more
blood than
normal

2964 40 0
A pilot who is hyperventilating for a prolonged period of there is a he is flying a there is an the pilot is emotionally
time may even get unconscious. low CO- tight turn increased aroused
Hyperventilation is likely to occur, when: pressure in blood flow to
the blood the brain
2965 40 0
What could cause hyperventilation ? Abuse of Extreme low Fatigue Fear, anxiety and
alcohol rate of distress
2966 40 breathing 0
Breathing pure oxygen (without pressure) will be 38000 FT 45000 FT 60000 FT 80000 FT
2967 40 sufficient up to an altitude of: 1
 Which of the following could a pilot experience when he 1,2 and 3 1,2 and 4 1 is false, all 2 and 4 are false
is hyperventilating? are correct, are correct, others are
1. Dizziness 4 is false 3 is false correct
2. Muscular spasms
3. Visual disturbances
4. Cyanosis
2968 40 1
TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) is: the time the length of the time the time after pressure
between the time during before loss until
start of which an becoming decompression
hypoxia and individual unconscious sickness sets in
death can act with at a sudden
both mental pressure
and physical loss
efficiency
and
alertness;
measured
from the
moment at
which he is
exposed to
hypoxia

2969 40 0
Out of the list of possible measures to counteract avoid speak breathe into hold breath
hyperventilation, the most effective measure against strenuous soothingly a plastic or
hyperventilation tetany is: flight and get the paper bag
manoeuvres person to
breathe
slowly
2970 40 0
Which of the following symptoms can mark a beginning Slow heart Slow rate of Cyanosis Dizzy feeling
hyperventilation? beat breathing (blueing of
lips and
finger nails)
2971 40 0
The readjustment of the biological rhythms after a time with flights with flights with flights with flights towards the
shift is normally more difficult towards the towards the towards the West
2972 40 North South East 0
The process of responding to a sender by confirming feedback redundancy synchronizat transference
2973 40 the reception of a message is called ion 1
Which combination of elements guarantee the Coding. Synchroniza Encoding. Feedback.
understanding of a message without adding new tion.
2974 40 information to it? 0
Attitudes are defined as: the the genetic a synonym tendencies to respond
conditions predispositio for to people, institutions or
necessary ns for behaviour events either positively
for carrying thinking and or negatively
out an acting
activity
2975 40 0
When the optical image forms in front of the retina; we myopia hypermetrop presbyopia astigmatism
2976 40 are talking about ia 1
 A good method to treat hyperventilation is to: excecute the close the talk oneself don an oxygen mask
valsalva eyes and through the
manoeuvre relax relevant
procedure
aloud to
emotionally
calm down
and reduce
the rate of
breathing
simultaneou
sly

2977 40 0
Flying immediately following a dive with SCUBA diving is forbidden can cause prevents any has no influence on
equipment (> 10 m depth) for the flight decompressi dangers altitude flights
crew, on sicknesss caused by
because it even when aeroembolis
leads to flying at m
hypoxia pressure (decompres
altitudes sion
below 18 sickness)
000 FT when
climbing to
altitudes not
exceeding
30 000 FT

2978 40 0
What counter-measure can be used against a Close the Increase Stop Pilots should apply anti-
barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis)? mouth, pinch rate of climbing, cold remedies prior
the nose descent start descent every flight to prevent
tight and barotrauma in the
blow out middle ear
thereby
increasing
the pressure
in the mouth
and throat.
At the same
time try to
swallow or
move lower
jaw
(Valsalva)

2979 40 1
Barotrauma caused by gas accumulation in the decompresio barosinusitis pressure barotitis
stomach and intestinals can lead to: n sickness pain or
2980 40 flatulence 0
Disturbances of pressure equalization in air-filled ebulism hypoxia hyperventilat barotrauma
2981 40 cavities of the head (nose, ear etc.) are called: ion 0
The eustachian tube serves for the pressure nose and frontal, nose middle ear sinuses of the nose and
equalization between pharyngeal and and external external atmosphere
cavity and maxillary atmosphere
external sinuses
atmosphere
2982 40 0
 Decompression sickness symptoms may develop due cabin sudden emergency fast flights from a high-
to pressure pressure descents pressure zone into a
loss when surges in the after a cabin low pressure area when
flying at cabin at pressure flying an unpressurized
higher altitudes loss aeroplane
altitudes below 18000
(above FT
18000 FT)
2983 40 1
Symptoms of decompression sickness are bends, are only can only are flatulence and pain
chokes, skin relevant develop at in the middle ear
manifestatio when diving altitudes of
ns, more than
neurological 40000 FT
symptoms
and
circulatory
shock

2984 40 1
Short term memory can already be affected when flying 15000 FT 20000 FT 8000 FT 12000 FT
2985 40 as low as: 0
After a decompression at high altitude temperature pressure nitrogen gas automatically oxygen is
in the differentials bubbles can deployed into the cabin
cockpit will will suck air be released
increase into the in the body
cabin fluids
causing gas
embolism,
bends and
chokes

2986 40 0
A pilot approaching a runway which is narrower than higher than flatter than compensato compensatory glide
normal may feel he is at a greater height than he normal normal ry glide path path and stall out
actually is. To compensate he may fly a approach approach and land
with the with the long
tendency to tendency to
overshoot undershoot
2987 40 0
You suffered a rapid decompression without the 48 hours 12 hours 24 hours 36 hours
appearance of any decompression sickness symptoms.
How long should you wait until your next flight?
2988 40 0
After a cabin pressure loss in approximately 35 000 FT 30 -90 10-15 3-4 minutes 5 minutes or more
the TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) will be seconds seconds
2989 40 approximately: 1
Pain in the Joints ("bends"), which suddenly appear hypoxia decompressi barotrauma air-sickness
during a flight , are symptoms of on sickness
2990 40 0
Flights immediately after SCUBA-diving (compressed can be are allowed, should be are forbidden
gas mixtures, bottles) (>10 m depth) performed if 38000 FT avoided
without any are not because
danger exceeded hypoxia may
develop

2991 40 0
After a decompression to 43 000 FT the TUC (Time of 45-60 60-90 5-15 30-45 seconds
Useful Consciousness) will be approximately: seconds seconds seconds
2992 40 0
 The time between inadequate oxygen supply and varies is the same is not varies individually and
incapacitation is called TUC (Time of Useful individually amount of dependent does not depend on
Consciousness). It and time for on physical altitude
depends on every or
cabin person psychologic
pressure al pressure
altitude
2993 40 1
The "Effective Performance Time" or "Time of Useful approximatel approximatel less than 20 between 30 and 60
Consciousness" after a decompression at 35 000 ft is: y 3 minutes y 5 minutes seconds seconds
2994 40 0
In airline operations decompression sickness may develop may develop appear only may affect people with
symptoms after a when being in air crew, defect tympanic
decompressi decompress previously membrane
on from ed from MSL engaged in
7000 FT to 15 000 FT diving
cabin activities
pressure
altitude to
30000 FT
flight altitude

2995 40 1
In civil air transport, linear accelerations (Gx): 2,4 1 3,4 3
- 1 : do not exist
- 2 : have slight physiological consequences
- 3 : may, in the case of pull-out, lead to loss of
consciousness
- 4 : cause sensory illusions on the pitch axis
2996 40 1
Concerning the relation between performance and A moderate A student Domestic A well trained pilot is
stress, which of the following statement(s) is (are) level of will learn stress will able to eleminate any
correct? stress may faster and not affect the kind of stress
improve better under pilot's completely when he is
performance severe performance scheduled to fly.
. stress. because he
is able to
leave this
type of
stress on the
ground.

2997 40 1
Stress is a frequent aspect of the pilot's job. Under 1, 2 and 3 Only 1 is 1 and 2 are 1 is correct, 2 and 3 are
which of the following circumstances does it occur? are correct false correct, 3 is false
1. Stress occurs whenever the pilot must revise his false
plan of action
and does not immediately have a solution
2. Stress occurs with unexperienced pilots when the
situational
demands exceed their individual capabilities
3. Stress occurs if a pilot is convinced that he will not
be able to
find a solution for the problem he just is confronted
with

2998 40 1
 The main limit(s) of long-term memory is (are): the the data Data the quantity of data
instantaneou storage time retrieval as a which may be stored
s inputting in result from a
memory of loss of
all access to
information the stored
collected information
during the
day, which
comes to
saturate it

2999 40 0
What are the main limits of short-term memory ? 1,3 ,4 1,2 ,3 2 ,3 2,4
It is :
-1 : very sensitive to interruptions and interference
-2 : difficult to access
-3 : limited in size
-4 : subject to a biochemical burn-in of information

3000 40 1
If a pilot has to perform two tasks requiring the the only way the sharing a person the only way of not
allocation of cognitive resources : of not seeing of resources reaches his seeing performance tail
performance causes limits as off is to switch to
tail off is to performance from knowledge-based mode
switch to on each task simultaneou for the two tasks
rules-based to be s tasks, and
mode for the reduced performance
two tasks will then tail
off

3001 40 0
Action plans (SOP's) in a cockpit must : only be only follow be shared be tailored to the
tailored to the by the individual pilot's needs
the type of manufacture members of in order to facilitate the
aircraft, rs proposals the crew and normal operation of the
regardless and not updated at aircraft
of current reflect each
MCC individual modification
procedures operators in order to
cockpit maintain
philosophies maximum
synergy

3002 40 0
With regard to illusions due to perceptive conflicts, it originate are caused are caused are mainly due to a
may be said that they: from a by the by a sensory conflict
conflict absence of conflictual concerning perception
between internal disagreeme of the vertical and the
instrument visual cues nt horizontal between the
readings exclusively concerning vestibular and the visual
and external attitudinal system
visual perception
perceptions between the
various
members of
a crew

3003 40 0
 A pilot is skilled when he : 1,2,4 1,2,3,4 1,2 2, 3,4
-1 : trains or practises regularly
-2 : knows how to manage himself/herself
-3 : possesses all the knowledge associated with his
aircraft
-4 : knows how to keep resources in reserve for coping
with the
unexpected
3004 40 1
How can man cope with low error tolerant situations? By By randomly By generally By constantly complying
increasing applying a avoiding with cross-over
error combination situations in verification procedures
detection in of optimum which (cross monitoring)
all detection, tolerance to
circumstanc warning and error is low
es monitoring
systems

3005 40 0
With regard to the humidity of air in current in a 2,3,4 1,4 2,3 1,3
pressurized cabin, we know that it :
-1 : varies between 40 and 60%
-2 : varies between 5 and 15%
-3 : may cause dehydration effecting the performance
of the crew
-4 : has no special effects on crew members
3006 40 0
The following occurs in man if the internal body impairment apathy considerable nothing signifiant
temperature increases to 38°C : of physical dehydration happens at this
and mental temperature. The first
performance clinical signs only start
to appear at 39°C

3007 40 1
Which of the following mechanisms regulate body 2,3 1 3,4 1,3,4
temperature when expored to extreme high
environmental temperatures?
-1 : Shivering
-2 : Vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels
-3 : Sweating
-4 : Vasodilation of peripheral blood vessels

3008 40 0
The following can be observed when the internal body profuse shivering, the mental disorders, and
temperature falls below 35°C : sweating will tend to appearance even coma
cease, and of intense
be followed shivering
by the onset
of apathy

3009 40 0
We can observe the following in relation to a state of a rapid fall in greater reasoning a substantial increase in
hypothermia : ambient capacity for problems as internal body
temperature adaptation soon as temperature whereas
than in a hot body peripheral temperature
atmosphere temperature at the skin is stable
falls below
37°C
3010 40 0
 Which of the folllowing statements concerning more likely mainly due to caused by an increase
barotrauma are correct? They are: to occur associated pressure in the partial pressure of
during with a sink differentials oxygen associated with
ascent then rate which between a decrease in altitude
during a exceeds the gases in
rapid ability of the hollow
descent body to cavities of
balance its the body
internal and the
pressures ambient
pressure

3011 40 0
Workload essentially depends on: the current the pilot's the pilot's the task and the day's
situation, the experience knowledge parameters (weather
pilot's and the report, aircraft load,
expertise ergonomics type of flight, etc)
and the of the
ergonomics system
of the
system
3012 40 1
Which of the following statements fits best the concept are mainly rapidly may have been are rarely made by
of latent error? associated be detected present in front-line operators, and
Latent errors: with the via their the system are consequently
behaviour of immediate for a certain readily identified and
front-line consequenc lenght of detected by the
operators es on the time and are monitoring, detection
and are only action in difficult to and warning links
detected progress understand
after as a result of
advanced the time lag
problem- between the
solving generation
and the
occurence of
the error

3013 40 0
Which of the following statements is correct regarding Deciding Deciding Deciding Deciding means
decision making? means means means being imposing one's point of
applying an choosing able to come view.
automatic between up with
procedure. alternatives. original
solutions.

3014 40 0
Motivation is a quality wich is often considered vital in A high However, Motivation A high degree of
the pilot's work to maintain safety. degree of excessive reduces the motivation makes it
motivation motivation intensity of possible to make up for
lowers the leads to sensory insufficient knowledge in
level of stress wich illusions complete safety
vigilance adversly
affects
performance

3015 40 0
 Working memory : is unlimited is unlimited varies is sensitive to
in size in duration considerably interruptions which may
in size erase all or some of its
between an content
expert pilot
and a novice
pilot
3016 40 0
The acquisition of expertise comprises three stages automatic, cognitive, cognitive, associative,
( Anderson model): cognitive associative associative autonomous and expert
and and and
knowledge autonomous knowledge

3017 40 0
A pilot can be described as being proficient, when is able to knows how is capable of has automated a large
he/she: reduce to invest the maintaining part of the necessary
his/her maximum a high level flight deck routine
arousal to a resources in of arousal operations in order to
low level the during a free his/her cognitive
during the automation great bulk of resources
entire flight of tasks in the flight
real time

3018 40 0
With regard to the practice of English, which of the All pilots Be familiar It is The composition of
following statements is correct? should with normal necessary every crew should be
master it procedures and geared to a command
because the in English sufficient to of the official
aeronautical since only have a aeronautical language
world needs this allows command of of the destination
one for effective any of the country.
common managemen official
language. t of any languages of
flight's the ICAO.
communicati
on.

3019 40 1
What means can be used to combat human error? 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 2
-1 : Reducing error-prone mechanisms.
-2 : Improving the way in which error is taken into
account in training.
-3 : Sanctions against the initiators of error.
-4 : Improving recovery from errors and its
consequences.

The combination of correct statements is:

3020 40 0
What are the main consequences of latent errors? 1 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1,2 and 4 1 and 2
They:
-1 : remain undetected in the system for a certain
lenght of time.
-2 : may only manifest themselves under certainl
conditions.
-3 : are quickly detectable by the front-line operator
whose mental
schemas on the instantaneous situation filter out
formal errors.
-4 : lull the pilots into security.

The correct statement(s) is (are):

3021 40 0
 What are the various means which allow for better error 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 1and 3 2, 3 and 4
detection?
-1 : Improvement of the man-machine interface.
-2 : Development of systems for checking the
consistency of
situations.
-3 : Compliance with cross-over redundant procedures
by the
crew.
-4 : Adaptation of visual alarms to all systems.

The correct statement(s) is (are):

3022 40 0
A system is all the more reliable if it offers good 3 and 4 2 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1 and 3
detectability. The latter is the result of:
-1 : tolerance of the various systems to errors.
-2 : the sum of the automatic monitoring, detection and
warning facilities.
-3 : the reliability of the Man-Man and Man-Machine
links.
-4 : the alerting capability of the Man-Machine
interface.

The combination of correct statements is:

3023 40 0
To avoid wrong decisions by the pilot, an aircraft correct the tolerate the report its report the deviation
3024 40 system should at least be able to deviation deviation malfunction 0
When can a system be said to be tolerant to error? the its safety its safety latent errors do not
When: consequenc system is system has entail serious
es of an too taken consequences for
error will not permeable account of safety
seriously to error all
jeopardise statistically
safety probable
errors
3025 40 1
Once detected, an error will result in cognitive have make it destabilize are prompted by
consequences which: virtually no possible to cognitive inductive factors
interaction modify progress
with behaviour and maintain
behaviour with a view the error
to
adaptation
3026 40 0
 Why must flight safety considerations consider the 2 and 4 1 and 4 2 and 3 3 and 4
human error mechanism?
-1 : It is analysis of an incident or accident which will
make it
possible to identify what error has been committed
and by
whom. It is the process whereby the perpetrator is
made
responsible which may lead to elimination of the
error.
-2 : If we have a better understanding of the cognitive
error
mechanism, it will be possible to adapt procedures,
aircraft
interfaces, etc.
-3 : It is error management procedure which enables us
to
continuously adjust our actions. The better we
understand the
underlying mechanism of an error, the better will
be our means
for detecting and adapting future errors.
-4 : Since error is essentially human, once it has been
identified by
the use of procedures, a person will be able to
anticipate and
deal with it automatically in the future.

The correct statement(s) is (are):

3027 40 0
Improvement of human reliability should entail: in aviation, the the analysis an effort to understand
the elimination of modes of the causes and find
elimination of latent human means of recovery for
of errors on errors before failures errors committed
the part of they can
front-line effect
operators performance

3028 40 0
The procedure to be followed in the event of allow for the allow for a make it make it possible to
decompression when flying above 10,000 ft must : rapid supply rapid possible to eliminate the risk of
of oxygen in descent prevent fogging due to the
order to independent hyperventilat sudden pressure
prevent the from ion owing to changes
pilot sufficient the
becoming supply of inhalation of
hypoxic oxygen in 100 %
order to oxygen
prevent
disorders
due to
hypoxia

3029 40 1
 Which of the following statements best fits the definition produced essentially rare in front- produced by the
of an active error? either by a results from line actions operator and can be
Active error is: front-line the and difficult rapidly detected via the
operator or application to detect effects and
by a remote of a bad rule owing to the consequences which it
operator and or the poor fact that it induces on the overall
results in a application usually action
hidden or of a good occurs in a
latent rule by complex
consequenc airplane system of
e at a designers uncontrolled
specific and
moment of involuntary
the action deviations

3030 40 0
To optimise one's night-vision performance, it is 2,3,4 2 1,3,4 1,2,4
necessary :
- 1 : to spend some time getting adapted to low levels
of
illumination
- 2 : to increase the instrument panel lighting by
reducing the
cockpit lighting
- 3 : not to focus on the point to be observed
- 4 : to avoid blinding

3031 40 0
Decompression sickness may occur as from : 2,3 1,3,4 2,4 1,3
- 1: an altitude of more than 18,000 ft
- 2 : an altitude of more than 5,500 ft
- 3 : a rate of climb of more than 500 ft/min exceeding
18,000 ft
- 4 : a temperature of more than 24°C
3032 40 0
What is the main problem caused by positive (+Gz) A pooling of An An increase Hyperoxygenation of
accelerations? blood in the improvemen in blood the blood which may
lower t of pressure in lead to sensory
portions of peripheral the upper disorders
the body, vision part of the
and hence body (above
less blood heart-level)
available

3033 40 1
What type of acceleration has the most significant Radial Linear Transverse Combined linear and
physiological effect upon the pilot? acceleration acceleration acceleration transverse acceleration
3034 40 (+ Gz) (+ Gx) (+ Gy) 1
Which of the following statements are correct ? 2,4 2,3,4 1,3,4 1,2,3
1 Hypothermia affects physical and mental abilities.
2 Man has effective natural protection against intense
cold.
3 Shivering makes it possible to combat the cold to a
certain
extent, but uses up a lot of energy
4 Disorders associated with hypothermia appear at a
body
temperature of less than 35°C

3035 40 0
 Incapacitation caused by barotrauma from gaseous 1 1,2,3 2,3,4 2,4
expansion after decompression at high altitude may be
associated with the following part(s) of the body:
1 the digestive tract
2 the ears
3 the eyes
4 the sinuses

3036 40 1
Rods (scotopic visual cells) allow for : good night- good, precise red vision, both during
vision after virtually vision of the day and at night
adaptation instantaneou contours
to darkness s night- and colours
(30 min) vision
(scotopic
vision)
3037 40 1
CRM (Crew Resource Management) training is: is mainly of intended to not intended intended solely to alter
relevance to develop to change an individual's
pilots with effectivenes the personality;
personality s of crew individual's
disorders or performance attitude at all
inappropriat by improving
e attitudes attitudes
towards
flight safety
and human
relationship
managemen
t

3038 40 0
What is hypoxia ? A state Any The total The respiratory
charcterised condition absence of symptom associated
by an where the oxygen in with altitude
excessive oxygen the air decompression
supply of concentratio sickness
oxygen n of the
which may body is
be due to below
maladjustme normal limits
nt of the or where the
mask oxygen
available to
the body
cannot be
used due to
some
pathological
condition

3039 40 0
The effectiveness of the individual depends on: the ability to the total the ability to the ability to repress the
go beyond independen balance the dictates of needs
one's own ce with dictates of
capabilities respect to the
the individual's
environment needs and
the
demands of
reality

3040 40 0
 Visual perception of depth at close to medium distance the high binocular interactions peripheral vision
is primarily due to sensitivity of vision between
the retina cones and
rods
3041 40 0
Visual acuity during flight at high altitudes can be 1,2 and 3 2,3 and 4 1,3 and 4 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
affected by: are correct are correct are correct
1. anaemia
2. smoking in the cockpit
3. carbon monoxide poisoning
4. hypoxia
3042 40 0
Which of the following characteristics apply to short- 3,4 2,3 1 1,3
term memory ?
- 1 : It is limited in time and size
- 2 : It is unlimited in time and limited in size
- 3 : It is stable and insensitive to disturbances
- 4 : It is limited in time and unlimited in size
3043 40 0
Subcutaneous pressure receptors are stimulated by: environment the condition the pressure a touch on the skin
al stressors of the body created on indicating the true
itself the vertical
correspondi
ng body
parts when
sitting,
standing or
lying down

3044 40 0
Autokinetic illusion is: the a conflict poor an illusion in which a
sensation between the interpretatio stationary point of light,
during a visual n of the if stared at for several
radial system and surrounding seconds in the dark,
acceleration bodily world may - without a frame of
of seeing a sensations reference - appear to
fixed move
reference
point moving
into the
opposite
direction of
the
acceleration

3045 40 0
Illusions of interpretation (cognitive illusions) are : due mainly due mainly solely associated with the task
to a conflict to a poor induced in of mental construction
between the interpretatio the absence of the environment
various n of of external
sensory instrumental reference
systems data points

3046 40 0
 Which of the following statements are correct ? 1,4 2,3 2,3,4 1,2,4
-1: Modern aircraft allow for 50 - 60% relative humidity
in the cabin
air under any conditions of flight, which is
satisfactory for the
body
-2: Thirst is a belated symptom of dehydration
-3: Dehydration may lead to clinical manifestations
such as
dizziness and fatigue
-4: Drinking excessive quantities of water must be
avoided since
resistance to periods of low hydration will otherwise
be lost

3047 40 0
Of the following alternatives, which objective effects are 1,3,4 2,3,4 1,2,3 1
due to positive acceleration (+ Gz)?
- 1: Decrease in heart rate
- 2: Pooling of blood into lower parts of the body
- 3: Drop in blood pressure above heart-level
- 4: Downward displacement or deformation of soft or
mobile organs
3048 40 0
1. Euphoria can be a symptom of hypoxia. 1 is correct, 1 is not 1 and 2 are 1 and 2 are both correct
2. Someone in an euphoric condition is more prone to 2 is not correct, 2 is both not
error. correct correct correct
3049 40 0
The resistance phase of stress reaction is 1,2 and 3 2 , 3 and 4 3 and 4 are 1 and 4 are correct
characterized by: are correct are correct correct
-1 : activation of the autonomic nervous system (ANS).
-2 : testosterone secretion which enables fats to be
converted into
sugar.
-3 : a sudden fall in stress resistance.
-4 : the appearance of psychosomatic disorders when
lasting over
a prolonged time.
The combination of correct statements is:

3050 40 0
What is the "Time of Useful Consciousness" for a rapid About 30 Between 3 About 18 Between 25 seconds
decompression at 25,000 ft ? seconds and 5 seconds and 1 minute 30
minutes seconds
depending
on the
physical
activities of
the
subjected
pilot

3051 40 0
1. Lively information is easier to take into consideration 1 is correct, 1 is not 1 and 2 are 1 and 2 are both correct
for creating 2 is not correct, 2 is both not
a mental picture than boring information. correct correct correct
2.The sequence in which information is offered is also
important for
the use the pilot makes of it.
3052 40 0
 Many pilots think up systems to deal with affairs so they this has to this has to this is this has to be rejected
don't have to think up every time what they have to do. be advised be dangerous for the company draws
against for it posetively for every the rules and the
reduces appreciated situation is procedures they have to
flexibility at a for it different comply with
moment a increases
problem has consistency
to be solved in action
by
improvisatio
n.

3053 40 0
The development of procedures makes pilots more knowledge- procedural procedural mental model
effective and more reliable in their actions. This is based confusion consistency
3054 40 called: behaviour 0
You are transporting a passenger who has to be at a divert in any see what decide to continue and think
certain destination for a meeting. The weather forcast case to you can do divert if you about the nice things
at destination tends to be much worse than expected, demonstrate and ask the think it is you can buy from the
so you consider to divert. The businessman offers you who' s the copilot to necessary. money
money if you manage to land there at any case. man in tolerate any
What is your appropriate way of action? You will charge decision
aboard
3055 40 0
The confirmation bias of decision making is a tendency a tendency a tendency a tendency to look for
to ignore not to seek not to look facts that confirm
that for for expectations before
information information information implementing one's
which which which would decision
indicates confirms a reassure
that a judgement oneself
decision is about a
poor; decision

3056 40 1
Which phenomenon is common to hypoxia and Euphoria. Tingling Cyanosis Severe headache.
hyperventilation? sensations (blueing of
in arms or lips and
legs. finger-nails).

3057 40 0
With regard to decompression sickness associated with scuba diving sex is the physical age, obesity and scuba
flight, we know that : does not prime risk activity after diving are risk factors
pose any factor, with decompressi
problem for two out of on reduces
a every three the risks of
subsequent women decompressi
flight being on sickness
sensitive to symptoms to
it appear

3058 40 0
Please check the following statements: 1 and 2 are 1 and 2 are 1 is correct, 1 is not correct, 2 is
1. A stressor causes activation both not both correct 2 is not correct
2. Activation stimulates a person to cope with it correct correct
3059 40 0
 The Time of Useful Consciousness may vary according 4 1,3 1,2 3,4
to :
1 : physical activity of the subjected crew
2 : the experience of the pilot on the type of aircraft in
question
3 : the strength and time of decompression
4 : the cabin temperature
3060 40 0
During a climb, we can observe the following with an increase an increase an identical a decrease which is
regard to the partial oxygen pressure : up to 10,000 which is decrease to three times faster than
ft followed inversely that for the decrease in
by a sudden proportional atmospheric atmospheric pressure
pressure to the pressure
drop above decrease in
that altitude atmospheric
pressure
3061 40 0
The following may occur during gradual sudden a rapid a loss of a rapid decrease in
depressurisation between 12,000 and 18,000 ft : visual decrease in coordination blood pressure which
hyperacuity blood associated will lead to headache
associated pressure with fatigue and also to a loss of
with leading to and coordination
headache considerable headache
somnolence

3062 40 0
Safety is often improved by applying the principles of expression unquestione abstention the avoidance of any
CRM, e.g.: of one's d obedience from any conflict in order to
doubts or to all the suggestion preserve the crew's
different Captain's which might synergy
opinion for decisions be untimely
as long as
this doubt
can not be
rejected on
the base of
evidence

3063 40 1
An efficient flight deck (synergetic cockpit) will be the plan of the Captain decisions do decisions are taken by
observed when: action is delegates not need to the Captain with the
defined by the decision be help and participation of
the Captain making discussed the other crew members
because of process to because of a
his other crew common
experience members synergy
level between the
crew
members

3064 40 0
An non-synergetic cockpit : is always is not very is characterised by
characterise results from dangerous withdrawn
d by a highly an over- as each crewmembers and
efficient relaxed person unclear communication
crew, atmosphere checks
communicati everything
ng personally
appropriatel
y with the
outside

3065 40 0
 If someone hyperventilates due to stress his blood will more acid more less satured more satured with
get: alkaline with oxygen carbon dioxide

3066 40 0
The purpose of action plans which are implemented initiate define allow activate a collective
during briefings is to: procedures general everyone to mental schema with
and planning of prepare their respect to non-
reactions for the flight own procedural actions to be
situations plan reactions in carried out
that are a difficult
most likely, situation
risky or
difficult
during the
flight

3067 40 1
Stress is a response which is prompted by the Noise, Noise, Heat, Temperature, hunger,
occurence of various stressors. Of these, which can be temperature hunger, humidity, thirst, divorce
called physiological ? (low or conflicts, a fatique,
high), death administrativ
humidity, e problems
sleep
deprivation
3068 40 1
Whilst flying a coordinated turn, most of your activity is skill based coping knowledge rule based behaviour
behaviour behaviour based
3069 40 behaviour 1
1. Psychosomatic means that a physiological problem 1 and 2 are 1 and 2 are 1 is correct 2 1 is not correct 2 is
is followed both not both correct is not correct correct
by psychological stress. correct
2. Psychosomatic complaints hardly occur in
professional
aviation because of the strict selection for this
particular
profession .
3070 40 1
Please check the following statements: 1 and 2 are 1 is correct, 1 and 2 are 1 is false, 2 is correct
1. Psychosomatic means that mental and/or emotional both false 2 is false both correct
stressors
can be manifested in organic stress reactions.
2. Psychosomatic means that a physical problem is
always
followed by psychological stress.

3071 40 0
An identical situation can be experienced by one pilot the arousal both pilots both pilots the pilot feeling
as exciting in a positive sense and by another pilot as level of both will loose will threatened, will be
threatening. In both cases: pilots will be their motor- experience much more relaxed,
raised coordination the same than the pilot looking
amount of forward to what may
stress happen
3072 40 1
According to Rasmussen's model, errors are of the creative routine knowledge handling errors
3073 40 following type(s) in skill-based control mode: errors errors errors 0
The choice of the moment you select flaps depending rule based skill based knowledge pressure based
on situation and conditions of the landing is: behaviour behaviour based behaviour
3074 40 behaviour 0
 The planning and anticipation of future actions and 1, 2 and 4 1 and 2 are 2 and 4 are 3 and 4 are correct
situations makes it possible to: are correct correct correct
-1 : create a precise reference framework.
-2 : avoid saturation of the cognitive system.
-3 : automate planned actions.
-4 : activate knowledge which is considered necessary
for the
period to come.

The correct statement(s) is (are):

3075 40 1
The readiness for tracing information which could is necessary is makes no is responsible for the
indicate the development of a critical situation to maintain dangerous, sense development of
good because it because the inadequate mental
situational distracts human models
awareness attention information of the real world
from flying processing
the aircraft system is
limited
anyway

3076 40 1
Pre-thought action plans may be said to: 1, 2 and 3 2 and 4 are 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 are correct
-1 : ease access to information which may be are correct correct are correct
necessary.
-2 : sensitize and prepare for a possible situation to
come.
-3 : be readily interchangeable and can therefore be
reformulated
at any time during the flight.
-4 : define a framework and a probable strategy for the
encountered situation.

The combination of correct statements is:

3077 40 0
In order to overcome an overload of work during the 1 and 3 are 1, 2 and 3 3 and 4 are 1, 2 and 4 are correct
flight, it is necessary to: correct are correct correct
-1 : know how to use one's own reserve of resources in
order to
ease the burden on the crew.
-2 : divide up tasks among the crew.
-3 : abandon automatic mode and instead process as
much
information as possible consciously.
-4 : drop certain tasks and stick to high-level priorities.

The correct statement(s) is (are):

3078 40 0
Man possesses a system for maintaining his internal Homeostasi Heterostasis Isothermy Metastasis
equilibrium in the face of variations brought about by s
external stimulations.
This internal equilibrium is called :
3079 40 1
 Stress is above all : a the best a a response by man to
phenomeno adaptation psychosoma his problems, which
n which is phenomeno tic disease automatically leads to a
specific to n that man that one can reduction in his
modern man possesses learn to performance
for control
responding
to the
various
situation
which he
may have to
face

3080 40 0
Experiencing stress depends on: the fragility the the the individual
of individual's environment interpretation of the
individuals state of of the situation
to certain tiredness situation
types of which the
stimulation individual
will live
through or is
in the
process of
living
through

3081 40 0
Stress is a reaction to adapt a specific situation. can only be is purely may include is always linked to
This reaction controlled by physiological various excessive fear
medical and psychologic
treatment automatic al and
physiological
elements
which one
can learn to
manage

3082 40 0
Human errors are frequent and may take several forms an error can an error of an violation representational errors
: be described intention is is an error in which the pilot has
as the an error of which is properly identified the
mismatch routine always situation and is familiar
between the involuntary with the procedure
pilots
intention and
the result of
his/her
actions

3083 40 1
In order to provide optimum human performance it is establish plan a avoid plan future actions and
advisable to strategies maximum of powerful decisions at least a
for planning, objectives behaviour couple of days in
automating and non- expedient of advance
and automated automating
managing actions tasks
resources
(in real time)

3084 40 1
 What are the communication qualities of a good 2,3 and 4 1 and 2 are 1, 2 and 4 1 and 4 are correct
briefing? are correct correct are correct
A good briefing must:
-1 : contain as much information and be as
comprehensive as
possible.
-2 : be of a standard type so that it can be reused for
another flight
of the same type.
-3 : be short and precise.
-4 : be understandable to the other crew member(s).

The correct statement(s) is (are):

3085 40 1
The semicircular canals detect sound linear changes in angular accelerations
waves acceleration arterial
3086 40 s pressure 0
The first effect to be noticed on gradual exposure to grey-out loss of black-out red-vision
high positive radial accelerations is consciousne
3087 40 ss 1
Symptoms of decompression sickness always normally disappear sometimes can appear
begin take 2 or 3 on landing with a delay after the
immediately days to and never airplane is on the
after the appear after appear ground
decompressi exposure to again
on during a hypobaric
the flight atmosphere

3088 40 0
Anxiety and fear can cause spatial hypoglycemi hyperventilat hypoxia
disorientatio a ion
3089 40 n 0
Hyperventilation causes an excess of acidosis hypochondri a lack of carbon dioxide
carbon a in the blood
dioxide in
the blood
3090 40 0
Carbon monoxide, a product of incomplete combustion, it disturbs it competes it prevents it prevents the excretion
is toxic because gaseous with oxygen the of catabolites in the
diffusion at in its union absorption kidneys
the alveoli with of food from
capillary haemoglobi the digestive
membrane n tract

3091 40 0
If you approach an airfield VFR at a prescribed altitude, rule based rule and skill skill based knowledge based
exactly following the approach procedure, and you behaviour based behaviour behaviour
encounter no inexpected or new problems you show: behaviour
3092 40 0
The type of hypoxia, which occurs at altitude is a Boyle Henry´s law Graham´s Dalton´s law
explained by: Mariotte´s law
3093 40 law 0
General Adaptation Syndrome is characterised by the 2,3,4 1,2,4,5 2,3,4,5 1,3,4
following phases :
-1 : alarm
-2 : alert phase
-3 : resistance phase
-4 : exhaustion phase
-5 : vigilance phase
3094 40 0
 Which of the following statements concerning check list The most The most The most All the items of a check
is correct? important important important list are equally
items should items must items must important; their
be placed at be placed at be placed in sequence is of no
the the end of the middle of importance
beginning of check list, check list so
a check list allowing that they
since them to be come to be
attention is kept near at examined
usually hand so that once
focused they are attention is
here quickly focused but
available for before
any concentratio
supplementa n starts to
ry check wane

3095 40 1
Which of the following statements are correct with 1, 4 and 5 1, 2 and 3 1, 2 and 5 1, 3 and 5 are correct
regard to the design of a check list? are correct are correct are correct
-1 : The longer a check list, the more it must be
subdivided into
logical parts.
-2 : The trickiest points must be placed in the middle of
the check
list.
-3 : Check lists must be designed in such a way that
they can be
lumped together with other tasks.
-4 : Whenever possible, a panel scan sequence should
be
applied
-5 : Critical points should have redundancies.
The combination of correct statements is:

3096 40 1
The use of check lists must be carried out in such a their it may be their their execution may be
way that: execution is rejected execution done simultaneously
not lumped since must not be with other actions
together with redundancy done
important in the simultaneou
tasks following sly with
check list other actions
will serve as
verification

3097 40 0
In the initial phase of flight training the relationship the pilot is during this the pilot has the pilot is competent
between confidence and expertise can be described sufficiently learning a sphere of enough to fly the aircraft
as: competent stage, the expertise at this stage, but does
to fly and pilot is very wich is neither have a great
knows at near to reduced to deal of confidence in
this stage achieving daily use of his/her abilities nor in
what he can full potential his skills the whole system
and cannot knowledge
do of the
machine

3098 40 0
According to Rasmussen's model, errors in rule-based creative errors of routine handling errors
control mode are of the following type(s) : errors technical errors
3099 40 knowledge 0
 In an abnormal situation the pilot has an apparently not decreasing increasing the same, no matter if
correct explanation for the problem. The chance that applicable he/she has already
he/she now ignores or devalues other relevant with old and made up his/her mind
information, not fitting into his/her mental picture is: experienced
pilots

3100 40 0
Check the following statements: 1, 2 and 3 1and 3 are 1 and 2 are 2 and 3 are correct
1. The first information received determines how are correct correct correct
subsequent
information will be evaluated.
2. If one has made up one's mind, contradictory
information may
not get the attention it really needs.
3. With increasing stress, channelizing attention is
limiting the flow
of information to the central decision maker (CNS).

3101 40 1
Gaseous exchange in the human body depends on: only 1 is 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 are false
1. diffusion gradients between the participating gases correct are correct are correct,
2. permeable membranes 4 is false
3. partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolus air
4. acid-base balance in the blood

3102 40 0
Of the following statements, select those which apply to 2,3 and 4 only 1 is 2 and 3 are 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
"information". are correct correct correct
-1 : It is said to be random when it is not intended for
receivers.
-2 : It is intended to reduce uncertainty for the receiver.
-3 : It is measured in bits.
-4 : Each bit of information reduces uncertainty by a
quarter.

The correct statement(s) is (are):

3103 40 0
The individual's perception of stress depends on: the objectiv the pilot's the the subjectiv evaluation
evaluation of increasing conditions of of the situation and
the situation level of the current one's abilities to cope
and one's arousal situation with it
abilities to only
cope with it

3104 40 0
An increase in workload usually leads to: a shorter a longer and a shorter a longer and less
and more more and less frequent exchange of
frequent frequent frequent information
exchange of exchange of exchange of
information information information

3105 40 0
A study by NASA has examined the relationships Radio Mother Listening Errors in understanding
between incidents linked with ground-to-crew failure. tongue errors. clearance values.
communication. Which of the following factors is the differing
main reason for disturbances in the correct reception of from working
a message? language.

3106 40 0
 Professional languages have certain characteristics, for 2 and 3 are only 4 is 1 and 4 are 1 and 3 are correct
example: correct correct correct
-1 : They use a limited vocabulary .
-2 : They are rich and adapted to the context, which
sometimes
lead to ambiguities.
-3 : Their grammar is rather complicated and complex.
-4 : Context provides meaning, therefor reduces the
risk of
ambiguities.

The correct statement(s) is (are):

3107 40 0
Which of the following statements regarding 3 and 4 are 1 and 3 are 1 and 2 are 2 and 3 are correct
interpersonal interactions are correct? correct correct correct
-1 If the sender finds the receiver competent, he/she
tends to
reduce verbal redundancy content of his sentences
-2 If the interlocuter is of non-native tongue, the sender
will reinforce
what he is saying by using more complicated words
so as to
optimize understanding
-3 If he/she finds him incompetent, he tends to simplify
the content
of sentences
-4 Simplification of check list in a crew who know each
other
essentially takes place in the case of interpersonal
conflict

The correct statement(s) is (are):

3108 40 0
In order to make communication effective, it is 1,2 and 3 3 and 4 are 2 and 4 are only 2 is correct
necessary to: are correct correct correct
-1 : avoid the synchronization of verbal and non-verbal
channels.
-2 : send information in line with the receiver's decoding
abilities.
-3 : always concentrate on the informational aspects of
the
message only.
-4 : avoid increasing the number of communication
channels, in
order to simplify communication.

The correct statement(s) is (are):

3109 40 0
 The intended recipient of a message must: 1 and 2 are 2 and 3 are 3 and 4 are 1,2 and 4 are correct
-1 : give priority and adapt to the sender's situation. correct correct correct
-2 : acknowledge the receipt only in case of doubt.
-3 : be able to reject or postpone a communication
attempt if
the pilot is too busy.
-4 : stabilize or finish a challenging manoeuvre before
starting a
discussion.

The combination of correct statements is:

3110 40 0
Coaction is a mode of coordination which recommends: sustained the working working parallel to
cooperation application parallel to achieve individual
on actions of achieve one objectives
and the procedural common
formulation knowledge objective
of in the
commitment conduct of
s concerning specific
flight actions
situations

3111 40 0
Mental schemes correspond to: daily memorised the memorised procedures
planning of representati memorisatio which develop and
probable ons of the n of change rapidly during
dangerous various regulatory change-over to a new
situations procedures procedures machine
and associated
situations with a
which can particular
be situation
reactivated
by the pilot
at will

3112 40 0
What are the advantages of coordination? Interaction, Redundancy Redundancy Cooperation, cognition,
cognition, , exploration, , synergy, redundancy.
redundancy. risky shift. clarification
of
responsibility
.
3113 40 0
 Of the following statements, which apply to coordinated 1,2 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 4 1 and 3
cooperation?
-1 : It allows for synergy in the actions between the
captain and the
pilot.
-2 : It represents the simultaneous execution of a single
action by
the various members of the crew.
-3 : Communication in this mode has the function of
synchronizing
actions and distributing responsibilities.
-4 : Communication must be essentially focussed on
temporal and
cognitive synchronisation.

The correct statement(s) is (are):

3114 40 0
With regard to the average influence of age on pilot has little sharply has a major increases in impact as
performance, it may be said that age: impact when reduces impact speed of thought and
the pilot is performance owing to the memory deteriorate
able to without, impairment
compensate however, of memory
for it by affecting
his/her flight cognitive
experience capabilities

3115 40 1
What triggers stress in humans? Always the The Objective Only strong excitations
awareness subjective stimulation of the sensory organs: a
of an interpretatio from the flash of light, noise, the
emotion and n an environment smell of smoke
a individual regards of
physiological gives to a subjective
activation (e. situation perceptions
g. rapide experienced
heart rate)

3116 40 0
What is a stressor? A The An external All external stimulation
psychologic adaptation or internal are stressors since they
al problem response of stimulus modify the internal
developed in the which is equilibrium
a situation of individual to interpreted
danger his by an
environment individual as
beeing
stressful

3117 40 0
Stress may be defined as: a a human a normal a poorly controlled
psychologic reaction phenomeno emotion which leads to
al which one n which a reduction in
phenomeno must enables an capabilities
n which only manage to individual to
affects eliminate adapt to
fragile encountered
personalities situations

3118 40 0
 With regard to short-term memory, we can say that : it is made up it is made up it is a stable it mainly contains
of everyday of everyday form of procedural knowledge
information information working
for for memory,
immediate immediate and thus not
use, and is use, and is very
limited in its limited in sensitive to
capacity for terms of the any
storing and time for disturbance
retaining which it
data retains data
but not in its
storage
capacity

3119 40 1
Success in achieving the objectives of a message a form of the different the matching differences in contexts
requires: message, codes of verbal, for the sender and the
which between non-verbal receiver
should not form and and
match the meaning contextual
expectation meanings
of the
receiver

3120 40 0
In order to get colour vision, it is necessary : 1 1,2,3 2,4 3
-1 : for there to be considerable amount of light
(ambient luminosity)
-2 : at night to look at the point to be observed at an
angle of 15°
-3 : to allow the eye a period of time to get used to the
light
-4 : to avoid white light
3121 40 1
If man is compared with a computer, it can be said that has more has less has less is relatively limited
man : effective effective effective compared with a
means of means of means of computer, that means of
action action data data collection or
(output) and (output) than collection means of action are
is above all the than the referred to
capable of computer computer
considerable
synergy

3122 40 1
The following course of action must be taken if 1,4 1,2,4 2,3 1,3
gastrointestinal or cardiopulmonary complaints or pain
arise before take-off :
-1 : take the standard medicines and advise the doctor
on
returning from the flight
-2 : assess your own ability to fly, if necessary with the
help of a
doctor
-3 : if in doubt about fitness to fly - do not fly!
-4 : reduce the cabin temperature, and drink before you
are thirsty
so as to avoid dehydration

3123 40 0
 Which of the following systems are involved in the 2,3,4,5 1,2,5 2,3,4 1,2,3
appearance of motion sickness ?
-1 : Hearing
-2 : The vestibular system
-3 : Vision
-4 The proprioceptive senses "Seat-of-the-Pants-
Sense")
-5 : The gastrointestinal system
3124 40 0
In the absence of external reference points, the somato- illusion of autokinetic cognitive illusion
sensation that the vehicle in which you sitting is moving gravic relative illusion
when it is in fact the vehicle directly alongside which is illusion movement
moving is called :
3125 40 0
Perceptual conflicts between the vestibular and visual 2,3,4 1,3 3,4 1,2,3,4
systems are :
1 - classic and resistant when flying in IMC
2 - sensed via impressions of rotation
3 - sensed via distorted impressions of the attitude of
the aircraft
4 - considerable during prolonged shallow turns under
IMC
3126 40 0
Which of the following illusions are brought about by 1,4 2,3,4 2 3,4
conflicts between the visual system and the vestibular
system ?
-1: Illusions concerning the attitude of the aircraft
-2: Autokinetic illusion (fixed point viewed as moving)
-3: Illusions when estimating the size and distance of
objects
-4 : Illusions of rotation

3127 40 1
With regard to communication in a cockpit, we can say communicati communicati all the communication uses up
that: on is always on is only characteristi resources, thus limiting
sufficiently effective if cs of the resources allocated
automated messages communicati to work in progress
to enable an are kept on, namely
activity with short and output,
a high sufficiently duration,
workload precise to precision,
element to limit their clarity, etc.
be carried number are stable
out at the and are not
same time much
affected by
changes in
workload

3128 40 0
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ? 4 1,3 1 2,3
- 1: The retina has rods on its peripheral zone and
cones on its
central zone
- 2: The retina has cones and the crystalline lens has
rods
- 3: The rods allow for night-vision
- 4: The cones are located on the peripheral zone of the
retina

3129 40 0
 Concentration is essential for pilots. It only takes Vigilance is All However, capacity of
a little all that is intellectual concentration is limited
willpower to required to processes,
increase be attentive including
one's very
capacity of routined
concentratio ones, make
n without demands on
limits resources
and
therefore on
one's
concentratio
n

3130 40 0
The retina allows for the acquisition of colours as a rods located crystalline rods located cones located in its
result of the: in its central lens in its central part
part peripheral
zone

3131 40 0
The phenomenon of accommodation, which enables a The retina The The rods The cones
clear image to be obtained, is accomplished by which crystalline
3132 40 of the following ? lens 0
We know that, in the mechanism of sight, the retina the the binocular the analysis of visual
allows for : acquisition acquisition vision signals
of the visual of the visual
signal and signal and
its coding the
into accommodat
physiological ion process
data

3133 40 1
We know that transverse accelerations (Gy) 3 1,4 2,3 1,2,3
- 1 : are above all active in turns and pull-outs
- 2 : are present during take-off and landing
- 3 : are rare during routine flights
- 4 : often lead to loss of consciousness
3134 40 1
The workload may be said to: 2, 3 and 4 1, 3 and 4 1 and 3 are 2 and 4 are correct
-1 : be acceptable if it requires more than 90 % of the are correct are correct correct
crew
resources.
-2 : be acceptable if it requires about 60 % of the crew
resources.
-3 : depend on the pilot's expertise.
-4 : correspond to the amount of resources available

The combination of correct statements is:

3135 40 1
 According to Wicken's theory, the human brain has: processing different unlimited cognitive resources
capabilities reservoirs of information- which are centered on
which resources processing action
function at depending resources
peak level on whether
when one is in the
different information-
tasks call for gathering,
the same information-
resources processing
or action
phase

3136 40 0
The available cognitive resources of the human brain: are limited are virtually allow for are limited and make it
but make it unlimited twin-tasks impossible to perform
possible to operation two attentional tasks at
easily without any the same time
perform loss of
several effectivenes
tasks at the s
same time
3137 40 0
The vestibular system is composed of 1,3,4 2,3,4 1,4 2,3
-1: two ventricles
-2 : a saccule
-3 : an utricle
-4 : three semicircular channels
3138 40 0
The volume of air beeing exchanged during a normal 350 ml of air 150 ml of air 75 ml of air 500 ml of air
3139 40 breathing cycle (tidal volume) is about: 0
Changes in blood-pressure are measured by: arteriols adrenal pacemakers pressoreceptors
3140 40 glands 0
The pressoreceptors are located in the carotid the the heart the lungs
and aortic intestines
arterial
vessels
3141 40 1
When the pressoreceptors signal a lowering of the 2,3 and 4 1,3 and 4 1,2 and 4 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4
blood-pressure there are adaptation mechanisms are correct, are correct, are correct, is false
which result in: 1 is false 2 is false 3 is false
1. an increase of respiratory activity
2. the arteriols to constrict
3. an increase of cardiac output
4. the heart rate to rise
3142 40 1
The physiological effects of accelerations to the human 2,3 and 4 1and 4 are 1,2,3 and 4 1,2,3 are correct, 4 is
body depend on: are correct, correct, 3 is are correct false
1. the duration of the G-forces 1 is false false
2. the onset rate of the G-forces
3. the magnitude of the G-forces
4. the direction of the G-forces.
3143 40 0
Inertia in the direction head => feet will cause the remain increase first decrease
blood-pressure in the brain to: constant increase,
then
decrease
3144 40 0
 During sustained positive G-forces the order of grey-out, grey-out, unconscious black-out, grey-out,
symptoms you can expect is: unconscious tunnel ness, black- tunnel vision and
ness, black- vision, out, tunnel unconsciousness.
out and black-out vision and
tunnel vision and grey out.
unconscious
ness.
3145 40 0
The otoliths in the inner ear are sensitive to: constant linear angular angular speed
speed only acceleration acceleration
and gravity
3146 40 0
The normal rate of breathing of an adult at rest is 72 cycles 16 cycles 4 cycles per 32 cycles per minute
3147 40 about: per minute per minute minute 0
Which of the following statements is correct? in all the in the in the veins in the artery of the
The blood-pressure which is measured during flight blood- mussles of of the upper upper arm (representing
medical checks is the pressure vessels of the upper arm the pressure at heart
the body arm level)
(representin
g the
pressure in
the whole
body)

3148 40 0
When exhaling, the expired air contains: more less water more more carbon dioxide
nitrogen vapour than oxygen than than the inspired air
than the the inhaled the inhaled
inhaled air air air
3149 40 0
The primary factor to control the rate and depth of partial partial total air pressure of carbon
breathing is the: pressure of pressure of pressure in dioxide in the blood
nitrogen oxygen in the blood
the blood
3150 40 0
The transfer of oxygen from the alveoli to the blood can Dalton's Law Henry's Law the law of Boyle's Law
3151 40 be discribed by: diffusion 0
The transfer of carbon dioxide from the blood to the Dalton's Law Henry's Law the law of Boyles Law
3152 40 alveoli can be described by: diffusion 0
The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is: almost the higher than lower than lower than in the blood
same as in the pressure the pressure
the of carbon of carbon
atmospheric dioxide in dioxide in
air the blood the
atmospheric
air.

3153 40 0
The rate and depth of breathing is primary regulated by water oxygen in carbon nitrogen in the air
the concentration of: vapour in the cells dioxide in
3154 40 the alveoli the blood 0
Which of the following measures can reduce the Hyperventila A tilt back Breathing Sit in upright position
chance of a black-out during positive G-manoeuvres? tion. seat. oxygen. and keep relaxed.
3155 40 0
Fixation or tunnel vision is primarily to be expected stress and stress and stress is stress is medium
when : motivation motivation high
3156 40 are medium are low 0
Visual disturbances can be caused by: 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
1. hyperventilation are correct are correct are correct
2. hypoxia
3. hypertension
4. fatigue
3157 40 0
 Desorientation is more likely to occur when the pilot is: 2, 3 and 4 1, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1, 2 and 3 are correct
1. flying in IMC are correct are correct are correct
2. frequently changing between inside and outside
references
3. flying from IMC into VMC
4. having a cold

3158 40 0
Positive linear accelleration when flying in IMC may pitching apparent vertigo pitching up
cause a false sensation of: down sideward
movement
of objects in
the field of
vision
3159 40 0
Linear accelleration when flying straight and level in descending yawing spinning climbing
3160 40 IMC may give the illusion of: 0
With regard to central vision, which of the following 1,2,4 2,3,4 1,3 2,4
statements are correct ?
-1: It is due to the functioning of rods
-2: It enables details, colours and movement to be seen
-3: Its very active both during the day and at night
-4: It represents a zone where about 150.000 cones
per mm are
located to give high resolution capacity

3161 40 0
When turning in IMC , head movements should be autokinesis oculogyral pressure coriolis illusion
avoided as much as possible. This is a prevention illusion vertigo
3162 40 against: 0
The blood-pressure depends on: 1,3 and 4 2,3 and 4 1,2,3 and 4 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4
1. the work of the heart are correct, are correct, are correct is false
2. the peripheral resistance 2 is false 1 is false
3. the elasticity of the arterial walls
4. the bloode volume and viscosity
3163 40 0
Murphy's law states : Expectation Performance If equipment Response to a
has an is dependent is designed particular stressful
influence on on in such a influence varies from
perception motivation way that it one person to another
can be
operated
wrongly,
then sooner
or later, it
will be

3164 40 0
Blood-pressure depends on: 1 is false 2 1 and 2 are 1 and 2 are 1 is correct 2 is false
1. the cardiac output is correct both false correct
2. the resistance of the capillaries (peripheral
resistance)
3165 40 0
The most dangerous characteristic of the false mental will only can easily is frequently will mainly occur under
model is, that it occur under be changed extremely conditions of relaxation
conditions of resistant to
stress correction

3166 40 0
 Situations particularly vulnerable to "reversion to an 3. 2. and 3. 1. and 3. 1. and 2.
earlier behaviour pattern" are :
1. when concentration on a particular task is relaxed
2. when situations are characterised by medium
workload
3. when situations are characterised by stress

3167 40 0
The effect of experience and habit on performance can both be is always is never is always beneficial
beneficial negative negative
and negative
3168 40 1
The "gestalt laws "formulates : basic basic basic basic principles
principles principles principles regarding to the
governing governing governing relationship between
how objects the the effects of motivation and
are mentally relationship habit and performance
organized between experience
and stress and
perceived performance

3169 40 1
Which of the following provides the basis of all The The intensity The aural or The aural or visual
perceptions? seperation of the visual significance attributed in
of figure and stimuli. significance long term memory.
background. attributed in
short term
memory.

3170 40 0
The errors resulting from an irrational indexing system Liveware - Liveware - Liveware - Liveware - Liveware
in an operations manual are related to an interface Software Hardware Environment
3171 40 mismatch between 1
Healthy people are usually capable to compensate for 15.000 feet 20.000 feet 25.000 feet 10.000 - 12.000feet
3172 40 a lack of oxygen up to 0
What could be symptoms of hypoxia (when flying Euphoria, Trembling, Headache, Headache, thirst,
without oxygen) above 12,000 ft? headache, increase in fatigue, somnolence, collapse
improvemen body dizziness,
t in temperature, lack of
judgement, convulsions, coordination
loss of slowing of
consciousne the rate of
ss breathing

3173 40 0
Hyperventilation is: an an a reduction a normal compensatory
accellerated accellerated of partial physiological reaction to
heart heart oxygen a drop in partial oxygen
frequency frequency pressure in pressure (i.e. when
caused by caused by a the brain climbing a high
an decreasing mountain)
increasing blood-
blood pressure
pressure

3174 40 0
The symptoms of hyperventilation are caused by a: surplus of shortage of shortage of surplus of CO2 in the
O2 in the CO in the CO2 in the blood
3175 40 blood blood blood 0
 During a night flight at 10,000 feet you notice that your closing one scanning dim the breathing extra oxygen
acuity of vision has decreased. In this case you can eye sectors of instrument through the oxygen
increase your acuity by: the field of lights mask.
vision
3176 40 0
During flight all crewmembers have one or more of the Glaucoma. Hypothermia Hypoglycae Hypoxia.
following symptoms: . mia.
1. blue lips
2. mental disturbances
3. tingling sensations in arms and/or legs
4. reduction of peripheral vision
Which is the possible cause?
3177 40 0
Which measure(s) will help to compensate hypoxia? 1, 2 and 3 only 1 is 1 and 2 are 1, 2 and 4 are correct
1. Descend below 10 000 FT. are correct correct correct, 3
2. Breathe 100 % oxygen. and 4 are
3. Climb to or above 10 000 FT. false
4. Reduce physical activities.

3178 40 0
Hypoxia can be prevented when the pilot will not is using is relying on is swallowing, yawing
exceed 20 additional the body's and applying the
000 FT oxygen built in Valsalva method
cabin when flying warning
pressure above system
altitude 10.000 feet recognizing
any stage of
hypoxia
3179 40 0
Hypoxia can occur because: you inhale the you are you are getting toomuch
too much percentage hyperventilat solar radiation
nitrogen of oxygen is ing
lower at
altitude
3180 40 0
Among the functions below, which is the most sensitive Night vision. Motor Hearing. Speech.
to hypoxia? coordination.
3181 40 1
Hyperventilation is: a too high an increased a too high a decreased lung
percentage lung percentage ventilation
of oxygen in ventilation of nitrogen
the blood. in the blood

3182 40 0
What airplane equipment marked a subtantial decrease TCAS GPWS DME SSR
3183 40 in hull loss rates in the eighties? 0
If somebody starts breathing faster and deeper without the blood the blood the blood the acid-base balance
physiological need pressure in turns less turns more of the blood will not
the brain will more acid change
rise alkaline
significantly
3184 40 0
During running your muscles are producing more CO2, hyperventilat cyanosis hypoxia vertigo
raising the CO2 level in the blood. The consequence is: ion (the rate
and depth of
breathing
will
increase)

3185 40 1
During a final approach under bad weather conditions, hypoxia carbon hyperventilat disorientation
you feel dizzy, get tingling sensations in your hands monoxide ion
and a rapid heart rate. poisoning
These symptoms could indicate:
3186 40 0
 During final approach under bad weather conditions descend apply the use the control your rate and
you are getting uneasy, feel dizzy and get tingling Valsalva oxygen depth of breathing
sensations in your hands. method mask
When hyperventilating you should
3187 40 0
A pilot can overcome hyperventilation by: controlling depending increasing the use of drugs
the rate and on the rate and stabilizing blood
depth of instruments depth of pressure
breathing, breathing to
breathing eliminate
into a bag or harmful
speaking carbon
with a loud dioxide
voice

3188 40 1
You can overcome hyperventilation by breathing into a to prevent to increase to reduce to raise the level of CO2
plastic or paper bag. The intention is: you from the amount blood in the blood as fast as
exhaling too of nitrogen pressure possible
much in the lung
oxygen
3189 40 0
Rising the perceptual threshold of a sensory organ a lesser a greater a greater a lesser selectivity
3190 40 means: sensitivity sensitivity selectivity 1
You should not despense blood without prior you are the chance your blood- your heart frequency is
information from your flight surgeon. The most more you get the pressure is too low after blood-
important reason for this advise is: susceptible bends is too low after donation
to hypoxia higher after blood-
after a blood- donation
blood- donation
donation.
3191 40 1
Which of the following symptoms can indicate the 1, 2 and 4 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
beginning of hypoxia? are correct. are correct. are correct.
1. Blue lips and finger nails.
2. Euphoria.
3. Flatulence.
4 .Unconsciousness..
3192 40 1
Coriolis illusion, causing spatial disorientation is the normal simultaneou undergoing gazing in the direction
result of: deterioration s head positive G of a flashing light
of the movements
semicircular during
canals with aircraft
age manoeuvres

3193 40 0
When flying above 10.000 feet hypoxia arises because: the the the the partial oxygen
composition composition percentage pressure is lower than
of the blood of the air is of oxygen is at sea level.
changes different lower than at
from sea sea level
level
3194 40 0
Saturation of oxygen in the blood at sea level is 98%. 2, 3 and 4 1, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 1, 2 and 4 are correct, 3
This saturation decreases with: are correct, are correct, are correct, is false
1. decreasing air pressure 1 is false 2 is false 4 is false
2. carbon monoxide poisoning
3. increasing altitude
4. increasing air pressure
3195 40 0
Hypoxia is a situation in which the cells are have a have a are saturated with
saturated shortage of shortage of nitrogen
with oxygen carbon oxygen
dioxide
3196 40 0
 The severity of hypoxia depends on the: 2,3 and 4 1 and 3 are 1,2,3 and 4 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4
1. rate of decompression are correct, correct, 2 are correct is false
2. physical fitness 1 is false and 4 are
3. flight level false
4. individual tolerance
3197 40 0
Which of the following statements concerning hypoxia It activates It has little It is a It is never a problem at
is correct? the senses effect on the potential altitudes below 25.000
and makes body, threat to ft.
them because the safety.
function body can
better. always
compensate
for it.
3198 40 0
You are crossing the Alps in a non-pressurised aircraft the blood- you will get your the blood-pressure can
at an altitude of 15.000 feet. You do not use the oxygen pressure the bends judgement get too high
mask because you feel fine. This is unsafe, because: can get too could be
low impaired
3199 40 0
One of the most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia hyperventilat impaired reduced cyanosis, reducing then
concerning flight safety is: ion, causing judgement, coordination pilots ability to hear
emotional disabling the of limb
stress pilot to movements,
recognize causing the
the pilot to spin
symptoms
3200 40 0
A pressurized cabin helps to prevent: 1, 2 and 4 2, 3 and 4 1, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
1. decompression sickness are correct. are correct. are correct.
2 .the problem of expansion of gases in the intestines
3. hypoxia
4. coronary desease

3201 40 0
Between which components is an interface mismatch Liveware - Liveware - Liveware - Liveware - Hardware
causing disturbance of the biological rhythm, thus Software Liveware Environment
leading to reduced human peformance?
3202 40 0
Between which components is an interface mismatch Liveware - Liveware - Liveware - Liveware - Software
responsible for deficiencies in conceptual aspects of Hardware Environment Liveware
3203 40 warning systems? 0
Between which components is an interface mismatch Liveware - Liveware - Liveware - Liveware - Software
causing an error of interpretation by using an old three- Environment Liveware Hardware
3204 40 point altimeter? 0
Which of the following human error rates can be 1 in 100000 1 in 100 1 in 1000 1 in 10000 times
described as both realistic and pretty good, after times times times
3205 40 methodical training 0
Studies of human error rates during the performance of 1 in 100 1 in 250 1 in 10 times 1 in 50 times
simple repetitive task have shown, that errors can times times
normally be expected to occur about
3206 40 0
One negative aspect of the highly automated cockpit less complacenc pilots constantly high crew
results in : experienced y among the disregarding overload with regard to
crews crewmembe the the monitoring tasks
because of rs automatic
more equipment
transparent
system
details
3207 40 0
3208 40 Incapacitation is most dangerous when it is : intense insinuating obvious sudden 0
 Early symptoms of hypoxia could be: 1,2,3 and 4 1,2 and 3 1,2 and 4 1,3 and 4 are correct
1. euphoria are correct are correct are correct
2. decreased rate and depth of breathing
3. lack of concentration
4. visual disturbances
3209 40 0
The circulatory system, among other things, allows for : both are 1 and 2 are 1 is correct 1 is false and 2 is
1. transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide false correct and 2 is correct
2. transportation of information by chemical substances false

3210 40 0
Henry's Law explains the occurence of: hyperventilat hypoxia decompressi diffusion
ion on sickness
3211 40 0
Exchange of gasses between the body and the central lungs heart muscles
environment takes place at the: nervous
3212 40 system 0
Our body takes its energy from : 1,3 2,3 1,2,3,4 1,4
1: minerals
2: protein
3: carbonhydrates
4: vitamines
3213 40 0
What is meant by metabolism ? Transfer of Exchange of The Information exchange
chemical substances transformati
messages between the on by which
lung and the energy is
blood made
available for
the uses of
the
organism

3214 40 0
One of the waste products of the metabolic process in protein sugar fat water
3215 40 the cell is : 0
The body loses water via: 1 is correct 1 is not both are 1 and 2 are correct
1. the skin and the lungs and 2 is not correct and false
3216 40 2. the kidneys correct 2 is correct 0
Under normal circumstances, which gas will diffuse nitrogen oxygen carbon carbon monoxide
3217 40 from the blood to the alveoli: dioxide 0
During flight in IMC, the most reliable sense which visual "Seat-of-the- vestibular visual sense by looking
should be used to overcome illusions is the: sense, pants- sense outside
interpreting Sense"
the attitude
indicator
3218 40 1
The thin walls of capillaries are permeable for : red blood gases platelets protein
3219 40 cells 0
Which data compose the ICAO standard atmosphere ? 1,2 ,3 1, 2 ,4 2,3 ,4 3,4
1. Density
2. Pressure
3. Temperature
4. Humidity

3220 40 1
3221 40 The part of blood without cell is called : serum water plasm lymph 0
Oxygen, combined with hemoglobin in blood is white blood red blood platelets blood plasma
3222 40 transported by cells cells 0
Haemoglobin is: in the white in the red in the dissolved in the plasma
3223 40 blood cells blood cells platelets 0
 Divided attention is the ability : Only 3 is 1 and 2 are 1,2 and 3 1 and 3 are correct, 2
1. to execute several mental activities at almost the false correct, 3 are correct, and 4 are false
same time (i.e. when switching attention from outside and 4 are 4 is false
the aircraft false
to the airspeed indicator on the instrument panel)
2. to monitor the progress of a motor programme (i.e.
flying or taxiing the airplane) on a relatively
subconscious level,
while making a radio call at the same time (requiring
a rather
conscious level)
3 .to select information and check if it is relevant to the
task in hand. At the same time no other operation
can be
performed.
4. to delegate tasks to the copilot while concentrating
on
the procedures

3224 40 0
The physiology of stress is now well known: the only stress stress slows stress promotes an
stress develops in down the increase in physical
hormone is 2 stages: production strength rather than
adrenaline sublimation of sugar by promoting mental
of the oerformance
performance organism
and then and thereby
acceleration slows down
of heart rate the heart
and increase rate
in vision

3225 40 0
An overstressed pilot may show the following 1and 3 are 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 are correct, 3
symptoms: correct, 2 are correct are correct, and 4 are false
1. mental blocks, confusion and channelized attention and 4 are 4 is false
2. resignation, frustration, rage false
3. deterioration in motor coordination
4. high pitch voice and fast speaking

3226 40 0
 In relation to hypoxia, which of the following This is a This is a Hypoxia is This is a physical
paraphrase(s) is (are) correct? physical condition of often condition caused by a
condition lacking produced lack of oxygen
caused by a oxygen in during steep saturation in the blood
lack of the brain turns when while hyperventilating.
oxygen to causing the pilots turn
meet the circulatory their heads
needs of the system to in a direction
body compensate opposite to
tissues, by the direction
leading to decreasing in which the
mental and the heart aircraft is
muscular rate. turning
disturbances
, causing
impaired
thinking,
poor
judgement
and slow
reactions

3227 40 1
Hyperventilation is due to an excessive rate of blue finger- dizziness, reduced a state of
breathing and can produce the following symptoms: nails and tingling heart rate overconfidence and
lips sensation in and increase reduced heart rate
the fingers in visual
and toes, acuity
nausea and
blurred
vision

3228 40 0
In the pulmonary artery there is : oxygen poor oxygen rich oxygen rich oxygen poor and carbon
and carbon and carbon and carbon dioxide rich blood
dioxide poor dioxide poor dioxide rich
blood blond blood

3229 40 0
The ability of the human eye to read alphanumeric is governed is limited to is limited to is almost equally shared
information (piercing vision): by the foveal daytime by the entire retina
peripheral area of the using the
vision over retina rod cells
an area of
approximatel
y 20
degrees of
angle

3230 40 0
Which of the following statements is correct ? 70% of Hearing is 40% of The kinesthetic channel
information the sense information provides the most
processed which processed important information
by man collects by man for flying
enters via most enters via
the visual information the visual
channel in man channel
3231 40 1
 What is the procedure above 10.000 ft altitude when Descend to Check the Don an First inform ATC
faced with explosive decompression? below cabin oxygen
10,000 ft altitude, don mask and
and signal an oxygen descend to
an mask and below
emergency maintain 10,000 ft
level flight

3232 40 0
What is the average Time of Useful Consciousness About 40 More than 1 About 12 Between 20 seconds
after a rapid decompression at 40,000 ft ? secods minute seconds and 1 minute
3233 40 0
What is the Time of Useful Consciouness ? The length The time The pilot's The period of time
of time taken to reaction time between the start of
during which become when faced hypoxia and the
an aware of with hypoxia moment that the pilot
individualca hypoxia due becomes aware of it
n act with to gradual
both mental decompressi
and physical on
efficiency
and
alertness,
measured
from the
moment at
which he
loses his
available
oxygen
supply

3234 40 1
What are the main clinical signs of hypoxia during Headaches, Increase in Headaches, Increase in heart rate,
explosive decompression ? articular heart and fatigue, decrease in body
pain, respiratory somnolence, temperature impairment
speeding-up rates, palpitations of judgement
of the euphoria,
respiratory impairment
rate, of
memory judgement,
disorders memory
disorders

3235 40 0
Which is the procedure to be followed when symptoms Descend to Only Only the Descend to the lowest
of decompression sickness occur? the lowest medical prompt possible level and land
possible treatment is supply of as soon as possible
level and of use oxygen is
wait for the necessary
symptoms to
disappear
before
climbing
again

3236 40 0
 What is decompression sickness ? A frequent A disorder The An sickness resulting
disorder in which is formation of from the formation of
commercial solely air bubbles nitrogen bubbles in
aviation due encountered in bodily bodily tissues and fluids
to the below tissues, with after a cabin pressure
pressurisatio 18,000 ft no loss at high altitude
n curve of consequenc
modern es for
aircraft people's
capabilities

3237 40 0
Which of the following statements are correct: 1, 3 and 4 2 and 3 are 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 are correct
-1: Scuba diving may be practiced without restriction are correct correct are correct
-2: Many medicines have effects which are
incompatible with flight
safety
-3: An adequate amount of fluid should be drunk when
flying
-4: Diet has no repercussion on health

3238 40 0
Dalton's law explains the occurance of : altitude bends decompressi creeps
hypoxia on sickness
3239 40 1
Concerning the capacity of the human long-term its mode of its storage it is it is structurally limited in
memory storing capacity is structurally terms of storage time
information unlimited limited in but not in terms of
is passive, terms of capacity
making storage
memory capacity, but
searches unlimted in
effective terms of
storage time

3240 40 0
Boyle's law is directly applicable in case of: hyperventilat the the the occurance of
ion with expansion of occurance of hypoxia with increasing
increasing trapped decompressi altitude
altitude gasses in on sickness
the human at high
body with altitude
increasing
altitude
3241 40 0
Which of the following statements about hyperthermia Vasodilation Evaporation Performance Complete adaption to
is correct ? is the only is more is not the heat in a hot country
regulant effective impaired by takes about a fortnight.
which is when an increase
capable of ambient in body
reducing humidity is temperature
body high. to 40°C or
temperature. more.

3242 40 0
 The atmospheric pressure at 18,000 feet altitude is half the partial the partial the oxygen the oxygen percentage
the atmospheric pressure at sea level. oxygen oxygen saturation of of the air at that altitude
In accordance with this statement, pressure at pressure at the blood at will drop by one half
that altitude that altitude that altitude also
will be will also will drop by
doubled drop to 1/2 50 % too
of the
pressure of
oxygen at
sea level

3243 40 0
You climb from 0 to 50.000 ft and measure the 10.000 and 45.000 and 0 and 5.000 5.000 and 10.000 feet
decrease of the pressure per 5.000 ft. The absolute 15.000 feet 50.000 feet feet
difference in barometric pressure is greatest between :
3244 40 0
Physiological problems due to increasing altitude are disorientatio acceleration increased decreased
caused by : n s atmospheric atmospherical pressure
al pressure
3245 40 0
The volume percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere increases by decreases decreases remains constant,
at 30.000 feet remains at 21 %; but the partial pressure expansion significantly with independent from
of oxygen : with lower decreasing altitude
temperature barometric
s pressure
3246 40 0
Air at an altitude of 18.000 feet contains, approximately 15% oxygen 10% oxygen 21% oxygen 5% oxygen
3247 40 : 0
Dry air is a mixture of gases. Their volume percentage 18% 19% 25% 21% oxygen,78%
is about: oxygen, oxygen, oxygen, nitrogen, 1% other
80% 80% 74% gases
nitrogen, 2% nitrogen, 1% nitrogen, 1%
other gases other gases other gases

3248 40 0
Spatial disorientation will be most likely to occur during if the brain when flying when flying when flying in bright
flight: receives in and out of in light rain sunlight above a cloud
conflicting clouds and below the layer
informations the pilot ceiling
and the pilot maintains
does not good
believe the instrument
instruments cross check

3249 40 1
To facilitate and reduce the time taken to access structure avoid to mentally learn and store data in a
information in long-term memory, it is helpful to: irrelevant rehearse rehearse logical and structured
information information information way
as much as which we before it is
possible know we will needed
before need soon
committing it
to memory

3250 40 0
 Pilots are more easily inclined to take greater risks making a they are part making they are not constrained
when: flight over of a group of decisions by time
unfamiliar pilots and independent
territory they feel that ly of others
they are
beeing
observed
and admired
(e.g. air
shows)

3251 40 0
Angular accelerations are perceived by: the otholits the the semi the cochlea
receptors in circular
the skin and canals
the joints

3252 40 0
In order to get rid of excess nitrogen following scuba 3 hours after 36 hours 48 hours 24 hours
diving, subsequent flights should be delayed non after any after a
decompressi scuba diving continuous
on diving ascent in the
water has
been made

3253 40 0
Which of the following responses is an example of Turning and Incorrect habitually A pilot who has flown
"habit reversion" (negative habit transfer): aircraft to anticipation missing an many hours in an
the left when of an air item on the aircraft in which the fuel
intending to traffic checklist or lever points forward for
turn it to the controller´s missing the the ON position, may
right instructions second item unintentionally turn the
when two fuel lever into the false
items are on position, when flying a
the same different aircraft, where
line the fuel lever has to
point aft to be in the ON
position

3254 40 0
Although the anticipation of possible events is a good anticipating anticipating anticipating mishearing the
attitude for pilots to acquire, it can sometimes lead to that the that the flight the contents of a reply from
hazardous situations. With this statement in mind, weather may will take sequence of an air traffic controller
select the response below which could lead to such a deteriorate longer time items on a when a non-standard
hazard: than check list. procedure was given
planned but a standard
procedure was
anticipated
3255 40 0
In relation to the word ´stress´as it affects human ´Stress´is a All forms of Reactive Self imposed
beings, which of the following responses is correct? term used to stress stressors obligations will not
describe should be relate purely create stress.
how a avoided. to a pilot´s
person physical
reacts to condition.
demands
placed upon
him/her.

3256 40 1
 If during flight a pilot is in a mental condition of in a prepared unprepared approaching a condition
"optimum arousal" he/she will be: confused best to cope to handle a of complacency or
mental state with a difficult fatigue
difficult task situation

3257 40 0
The relevance of check procedures during flight conducting a flying an flying an flying an aircraft which
becomes even more important when: longer flight aircraft unfamiliar you have flown recently
than you which you type of
would have flown aircraft and
normally many times experiencing
perform before mental
pressure
3258 40 0
Which of the following responses lists most of the Resignation, Anti- Invulnerabilit Machismo complex,
common hazardous thought patterns (attitudes) for confidence, authority, y, resignation, confidence,
pilots to develop? inattention impulsivene underconfid self critcism
ss, ence,
invulnerabilt avoidance of
y, making
resignation, decisions,
machismo lack of
complex situational
awareness

3259 40 0
Carbon monoxide is always present in the exhaust A short Carbon Carbon When exposed to
gases of engines. If a pilot is exposed to carbon exposure to monoxide is monoxide carbon monoxide for a
monoxide, which of the following responses is correct? relatively easily can only long period of time, the
high recognised affect pilots body will adapt to it and
concentratio by odour if they are no adverse physical
ns of carbon and taste. exposed to effects are experienced
monoxide them for a
can long period
seriously of time.
affect a pilot
´s ability to
operate an
aircraft.

3260 40 1
Judgement is based upon: the the ability to a process a decision making
development interpret the involving a process involving
of skills from flight pilot´s physical sensations and
constant instruments attitude to their transfer to
practice of take and to manually operate the
flight evaluate aircraft controls
manoeuvres risks by
assessing
the situation
and making
decisions
based upon
knowledge,
skill and
experience

3261 40 0
Most accidents are mainly caused by lack of: good good physical interpersonal relations
maintenance judgement skills
3262 40 of aircraft 0
 Conscious perception relates to is a mental relies upon involves the transfer of
the correct process the information from the
recognition involving development receptor to the brain
of colours experience of intuition only
and
expectations

3263 40 0
Human behaviour is determined by: the social cultural biological biological
environment influences characteristi characteristics
cs, social
environment
and cultural
influences

3264 40 0
The cabin pressure in airline operation is always normally not normally not normally not exceeding
equivalent to exceeding 6 exceeding 2 4 000 to 5 000 feet
sea level 000 to 8 000 000 to 3 000
feet feet

3265 40 0
The total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the Dalton´s law Graham´s Henry`s law Boyle Mariotte´s law
sum of the partial pressures of the gases which law
3266 40 compose the mixture corresponds to: 1
A large number of medical preparations can be bought The side They will A pilot using They have no side
without a doctor´s prescription. In relation to using effects of cause a any of these effects which would give
these preparations, which of the following is correct: these types condition of preparations problems to a pilot
of over-arousal should get during flight
preparations professional
are advice from
sufficiently a flight
negligible as surgeon if
to be he intends to
ignored by fly and self-
pilots medicate at
the same
time

3267 40 0
 It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The the tissue although the swollen because it will seriously
reason for this is: around the change in air tissue in the affect peripheral vision
nasal end of pressure inner ear will
the during a increase the
Eustachian climb at rate of
tube is likely lower metabolic
to be altitudes is production
swollen thus very small, it resulting in
causing increases hyperventilat
difficulty in rapidly at ion
equalising high
the pressure altitudes. If
within the the tissue in
middle ear the
and the Eustachian
nasal/throat tube of the
area. Pain ear is
and damage swollen,
to the gentle
eardrum can descents at
result, high alltitude
particularly would result
during fast in damage
descents to the ear
drum

3268 40 1
The inner ear is able to perceive: 1 and 2 are 2 is correct, 1 and 2 and 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is
1. angular acceleration correct, 3 is 1 and 3 are 3 are correct false
2. linear acceleration false both false
3. noise
3269 40 0
The chemical substance responsible for addiction to carbon tar the nicotine
tobacco is monoxide combination
of nicotine,
tar and
carbon
monoxide
3270 40 0
The person with overall responsibility for the flight is the 1 1 and 2 2 and 3 4
-1 Pilot in Command
-2 Co-pilot
-3 Navigator
-4 Air traffic controller

The correct statement(s) is (are):

3271 40 1
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FLIGHT PLANNING AND FLIGHT MONITORING - AEROPLAN

(For this question use annex 033- 11066A or Route 800m 1500m 720m 600m
Manual chart ZURICH ILS Rwy 16 (11-2))
The lowest published authorised RVR for an ILS
approach glide slope out, all other aids serviceable,
aeroplane category A is:
2086 33
(For this question use annex 033-11215A) 105 86 NM/1000 71 NM/1000 105
A turbojet aeroplane is flying using the following data: NM/1000 kg; kg; 6515 kg; 5330 NM/1000 kg;
. optimum flight level, Mach 0.80, mass of 190 000 kg 6515 kg/h kg/h kg/h 5330 kg/h
. temperature: ISA
. tailwind component: 100 kt
The fuel mileage and the fuel consumption per hour are:

2087 33
A descent is planned from 7500 ft MSL so as to arrive at 15,0 NM 11,7 NM 30,2 NM 27,1 NM
1000 ft MSL 6 NM from a VORTAC.
With a GS of 156 kts and a rate of descent of 800 ft/min.
The distance from the VORTAC when descent is started
is :
2088 33
(For this question use annexes 033-3308A or Flight 62 NAM; 59 59 NAM;62 67 NAM; 71 71 NAM;67
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1) NM NM NM NM
Given : brake release mass 57 500 kg
temperature ISA -10°C; head wind component 16 kt
initial FL 280
Find: still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (NM)
for the climb

2089 33
Given : true track 017; W/V 340/30; TAS 420 kt WCA -2° ; WCA +2° ; WCA -2° ; WCA +2° ;
Find : wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed GS 396 kt GS 396 kt GS 426 kt GS 416 kt
2090 33 (GS)
(For this question use annex 033-11183A) FL350 FL380 FL400 FL340
In the vicinity of PARIS (49°N 003°E) the tropopause is
2091 33 at about
(For this question use annex 033- 11067A or Route 112.3 MUN 400 MSW 338 MNW 108.6 DMS
Manual chart MUNICH NDB DME Rwy 26L approach
(16-3))
The frequency and identifier of the NDB for the
published approachs are:
2092 33
(For this question use annex 033-3309A or Flight 1040 kg 1138 kg 1238 kg 1387 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)
Given : mass at brake release 57 500 kg;
temperature ISA -10°C; average head wind component
16 kt
initial cruise FL 280
Find: climb fuel
2093 33
 (For this question use annex 033-3307A or Flight 14 min 13 min 11 min 15 min
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)
Given: estimated take-off mass 57 500 kg;
initial cruise FL 280;
average temperature during climb ISA -10°C;
average head wind component 18 kt
Find: climb time
2094 33
(For this question use annex 033-11216A) 445 NM 612 NM 841 NM 2031 NM
A turbojet aeroplane is flying using the following data:
. flight level FL 250, Long Range (LR) cruise, mass of
150 000 kg
. temperature: ISA
. head wind component: 100 kt
. remaining flight time: 1 h 40 min
The ground distance that can be covered during the
cruise flight is:

2095 33
(For this question use annex 033-3311A or Flight 420 kt 433 kt 431 kt 418 kt
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)
Given :FL 330; long range cruise; OAT -63°C; gross
mass 50 500 kg.
Find: true airspeed (TAS)
2096 33
(For this question use annexes 033-11224A, 033- 359 minutes 304 minutes 288 minutes 298 minutes
11224B and 033-11224C)
Given:
. Take-off mass: 150 000 kg
. Planned cruise at FL 350
. Long range MACH
. Standard Atmosphere (ISA)
. CG: 37 %
You have to cover an air distance of 2 000 NM.
Your flight time will be:

2097 33
(For this question use annex 033-3306A or Flight 437 NAM; 345 NAM; 350 NAM; 345 NAM;
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1) 2100 kg 2000 kg 2000 kg 2100 kg
Given: flight time from top of climb to the enroute point
in FL280 is 48 min. Cruise procedure is long range
cruise (LRC).
Temp. ISA -5° C
Take-off mass 56 000 kg
Climb fuel 1 100 kg
Find: distance in nautical air miles (NAM) for this leg
and fuel consumption:

2098 33
(For this question use annex 033-11228A) 5 040 NM 4 900 NM 5 120 NM 4 630 NM
For a long distance flight at FL 390, "Long Range"
regime, divided into four flight legs with the following
characteristics:
- segment AB - Ground distance: 2 000 NM. head wind
component: 50 kt
- segment BC - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. head wind
component: 30 kt
- segment CD - Ground distance: 500 NM. tail wind
component: 100 kt
- segment DE - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. head wind
component: 70 kt
The air distance of the entire flight is approximately:

2099 33
 (For this question use annex 031-11229A ) 37400 ft 37800 ft 34600 ft 38600 ft
For a turbojet aeroplane flying with a mass of 190 000
kg, at Mach 0.82, and knowing that the temperature at
flight level FL 370 is - 35° C, the optimum flight altitude
calculated using the annex is:

2100 33
(For this question use annex 031-11231A) 4 580 NM 4 820 NM 4 800 NM 4 940 NM
For a long distance flight at FL 370, "Long Range"
regime, divided into four flight legs with the following
specifications:
- segment AB - Ground distance: 2 000 NM. headwind
component: 50 kt
- segment BC - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. headwind
component: 30 kt
- segment CD - Ground distance: 500 NM. tailwind
component: 70 kt
- segment DE - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. headwind
component: 20 kt
The total air distance is approximately:

2101 33
(For this question use annex 033-12281A) the ICAO the number the the number
Item 9 of the ATS flight plan includes "NUMBER AND type of aircraft registration of aircraft
TYPE OF AIRCRAFT". In this case "NUMBER" means : designator flying in a number of which will
number as group the aircraft separately
set out in be using a
ICAO Doc repetitive
8643 flight plan
(RPL)
2102 33
When completing an ATS flight plan, an elapsed time 1H55 115M 0115 0155
(Item 16) of 1 hour 55 minutes should be entered as :
2103 33
When completing an ATS flight plan for a European Central UTC Local mean local
destination, clock times are to be expressed in : European time standard
2104 33 Time time
(For this question use annex 033- 11064A or Route 108.7 IMSW 108.3 IMNW 108.3 IMSW 108.7 IMNW
Manual chart MUNICH ILS Rwy 26R (11-4))
2105 33 The ILS frequency and identifier are:
(For this question use annexes 033-11226A and 033- 0.82 0.84 0.80 the same as
11226B) for LRC
In standard atmosphere, assuming a mass of 197 000 (Long
kg, in order to fly at FL 370 and to be at the optimum Range
altitude, your Mach number should be: Cruise)
2106 33
(For this question use annex 033-3312A or Route FL 320 FL 300 FL 310 FL 330
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
An aeroplane has to fly from Abbeville (50°08.1'N
001°51.3'E) to Biggin (51°19.8'N 00°00.2'E). What is the
first FL above FL295 that can be flown on an IFR
flightplan ?
2107 33
(For this question use annex 033-12280A) "NONE" "ZZZZ" "XXXX" the most
When completing Item 9 of the ATS flight plan, if there is followed by followed by descriptive
no appropriate aircraft designator, the following should an entry in an entry in abbreviation
be entered : Item 18 Item 18
2108 33
 (For this question use annexes 033-11223A, 033- 20 260 kg 22 360 kg 19 660 kg 21 760 kg
11223B and 033-11223C)
Given:
. Take-off mass: 150 000 kg
. Planned cruise at FL 350
. Long range MACH
. Standard Atmosphere (ISA)
. CG: 37 %
Covering an air distance of 2 000 NM, your trip fuel from
take-off to landing will be:

2109 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11063A or Route Cross at Cross at Cross at Cross at
Manual chart PARIS CHARLES DE GAULLE ILS Rwy FL80 FL60 and FL60 FL70
27 (21-2)) descend to maintain descend to descend to
The crossing altitude and descent instruction for a FL70 4000 ft 4000 ft
propeller aircraft at COULOMMIERS (CLM) are :
2110 33
"Integrated range" curves or tables are presented in the to determine to determine to determine to determine
Aeroplane Operations Manuals. Their purpose is the flight the still air the optimum the fuel
time for a distance for speed consumption
certain leg a wind considering for a certain
under components the fuel cost still air
consideratio varying with as well as distance
n of altitude. the time considering
temperature related cost the
deviations. of the decreasing
aeroplane. fuel flow with
decreasing
mass.

2111 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11065A or Route 268° 088° 100° 118°
Manual chart PARIS CHARLES DE GAULLE ILS Rwy
10 (21-8))
The ILS localizer course is :
2112 33
(For this question use annex 033-3315A or Route The airway The airway The airway The airway
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) UB5 is UB5 can be UB5 cannot UB5 is
An aeroplane has to fly from Salzburg (48°00.2'N closed in used for be used, closed for
012°53.6'E) to Klagenfurt (46°37.5'N 014°33.8'E). this direction flights there is one southbound
Which statement is correct ? except to/from way traffic to traffic above
during the Klagenfurt the north. FL 200.
weekends. and
Salzburg.
2113 33
(For this question use annex 033-3314A or Route The radial, The The The average
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) referenced magnetic magnetic true course
An aeroplane has to fly from Abbeville (50°08.1'N to true north, great circle course to fly of the great
001°51.3'E) to Biggin (51°19.8'N 00°00.2'E). At Biggin of Biggin to course from inbound to circle from
you can find : 141°. This is : fly inbound. Biggin to Biggin. Biggin to
Abbeville. Abbeville.

2114 33
(For this question use annex 033-3313A or Route 64NM 62NM 100 NM 38 NM
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
An aeroplane has to fly from Abbeville (50°08.1'N
001°51.3'E) to Biggin (51°19.8'N 000°00.2'E). What is
the distance of this leg ?
2115 33
 Which of the following statements is (are) correct with Neither Statement 2 Both Statement 1
regard to computer flight plans statement only statements only
1. The computer takes account of bad weather on the
route and adds extra fuel.
2. The computer calculates alternate fuel sufficient for a
missed approach, climb, cruise, descent and approach
and landing at the destination alternate.
2116 33
(For this question use annex 033-11195A) 5 to 7 at 500 3 to 4 at 500 5 to 7 at 5 to 7 at
What lowest cloud conditions (oktas/ft) are forecast for 1200 2000
2117 33 1900 UTC at HAMBURG (EDDH) ?
(For this question use annex 033-11181A) Engine Severe Reduced There is no
Which describes the worst hazard, if any, that could be flame out attenuation visibility hazard
associated with the type of feature at 38°N 015°E ? and in the HF
windscreen R/T band
damage
2118 33
An executive pilot is to carry out a flight to a French in the FAL in the AGA in the GEN by
aerodrome, spend the night there and return the next section of chapter of chapter of telephoning
day. Where will he find the information concerning the French the French the French the
parking and landing fees ? Aeronautical Aeronautical Aeronautical aerodrome's
Information Information Information local
Publication Publication Publication chamber of
(AIP) (AIP) (AIP) commerce,
this type of
information
not being
published

2119 33
An aircraft is in cruising flight at FL 095, IAS 155kt. The 42 NM 40 NM 45 NM 48 NM
pilot intends to descend at 500 ft/min to arrive overhead
the MAN VOR at 2 000 FT (QNH 1 030hPa). The TAS
remains constant in the descent, wind is negligeable,
temperature standard. At which distance from MAN
should the pilot commence the descent?

2120 33
The quantity of fuel which is calculated to be necessary 14500 kg. 13370 kg. 13220 kg. 13000 kg.
for a jet aeroplane to fly IFR from departure aerodrome
to the destination aerodrome is 5352 kg. Fuel
consumption in holding mode is 6 000 kg/h. Alternate
fuel is 4380 kg. Contingency should be 5% of trip fuel.
What is the minimum required quantity of fuel which
should be on board at take-off?

2121 33
The following fuel consumption figures are given for a 74 800 kg 79 800 kg 77 200 kg 77 800 kg
jet aeroplane:
-standard taxi fuel: 600 kg.
-average cruise consumption: 10 000 kg/h.
-holding fuel consumption at 1500 ft above alternate
airfield elevation: 8000 kg/h.
-flight time from departure to destination: 6 hours
-fuel for diversion to alternate: 10 200 kg.
The minimum ramp fuel load is:

2122 33
A jet aeroplane has a cruising fuel consumption of 4060 3500 kg. 8120 kg. 7380 kg. 1845 kg.
kg/h, and 3690 kg/h during holding. If the destination is
an isolated airfield, the aeroplane must carry, in addition
to contingency reserves, additionnal fuel of :

2123 33
 In the ATS flight plan Item 15 (Cruising speed), when TAS IAS CAS Groundspee
not expressed as a Mach number, cruising speed is d
2124 33 expressed as :
Unless otherwise shown on charts for standard magnetic magnetic true course true
2125 33 instrument departure the routes are given with: course headings headings
For a repetitive flight plan (RPL) to be used, flights must 50 10 20 30
2126 33 take place on a regular basis on at least : occasions occasions occasions occasions
(For this question use annex 033-11196A) 2200 5000 10,000 1500
What minimum visibility (m) is forecast for 0600 UTC at
2127 33 LONDON LHR (EGLL) ?
(For this question use annex 033-11197A) Haze Mist Smoke Dust
Which affects the visibility forecast for 0000 UTC at
2128 33 LAHORE (OPLA) ?
(For this question use annex 033-11198A) 0800 0600 Nil forecast 1000
What is the earliest time (UTC), if any, that
2129 33 thunderstorms are forecast for DOHA (OTBD) ?
A METAR reads : SA1430 35002KY 7000 SKC 21/03 day/month period of temperature/ runway in
QI024 = validity dewpoint use
Which of the following information is contained in this
METAR ?
2130 33
(For this question use annex 033-11201A) -49 -50 -47 -46
What mean temperature (°C) is likely on a course of
2131 33 360° (T) from 40°N to 50°N at 040°E ?
(For this question use annex 033-11202A) FL290 None FL250 FL 210
Which of the following flight levels, if any, is forecast to
be clear of significant cloud, icing and CAT along the
marked route from SHANNON (53°N 10°W) to BERLIN
(53°N 13°E) ?
2132 33
A jet aeroplane is to fly from A to B. The minimum final 30 minutes 20 minutes 30 minutes 15 minutes
reserve fuel must allow for : hold at 1500 hold over hold at 1500 hold at 1500
ft above alternate ft above ft above
destination airfield. mean sea destination
aerodrome level. aerodrome
elevation, elevation.
when no
alternate is
required.

2133 33
An IFR flight is planned outside airways on a course of 85 80 100 90
235° magnetic. The minimum safe altitude is 7800 ft.
Knowing the QNH is 995 hPa, the minimum flight level
you must fly is:
2134 33
If your destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in the //// ZZZZ AAAA XXXX
2135 33 appropriate box of your flight plan, you write:
A helicopter is on a 150 NM leg to an off-shore oil rig. Its 224.5 NM 158.6 NM 222.1 NM 160.3 NM
TAS is 130 kt with a 20 kt tailwind, its endurance is
3h30min without reserve. Upon reaching destination, it
is asked to proceed outbound to locate a ship in
distress, on a track which gives a 15 kt tailwind.
Maintaining zero reserve on return to the oil rig, the
helicopter can fly outbound for distance of:

2136 33
 On a VFR flight plan, the total estimated time is: the the the the
estimated estimated estimated estimated
time from time from time from time from
engine start take-off to take-off to take-off to
to landing at overhead overhead landing at
the the the the alternate
destination destination destination airport
airport airport airport, plus
15 minutes

2137 33
(For this question use annexes 033-12302A and 033- 17 800 kg 17 500 kg 14 500 kg 14 200 kg
12302B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2
and 4.5.3.1)
Given : Distance C - D : 3200 NM
Long Range Cruise at FL 340
Temperature Deviation from ISA : +12°C
Tailwind component : 50 kt
Gross mass at C : 55 000
kg
The fuel required from C - D is :

2138 33
For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows: 27 kg trip 39 kg trip 30 kg trip 39 kg trip
fuel and 12 fuel and no fuel and 9 kg fuel and 12
Flight time: 3h06min kg reserve reserve fuel. reserve fuel. kg reserve
The reserve fuel, at any time, should not be less than fuel. fuel.
30% of the remaining trip fuel.
Taxi fuel: 8 kg
Block fuel: 118 kg
How much fuel should remain after 2 hours flight time?

2139 33
The navigation plan reads: 2h49min 3h38min 3h34min 2h45min
Trip fuel: 136 kg
Flight time: 2h45min
Calculated reserve fuel: 30% of trip fuel
Fuel in tank is minimum (no extra fuel on board)
Taxi fuel: 3 kg
The endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read:

2140 33
You are to determine the maximum fuel load which can 500 kg 800 kg 1000 kg 700 kg
be carried in the following conditions :

- dry operating mass : 2800 kg

- trip fuel : 300 kg
- payload : 400 kg
- maximum take-off mass : 4200 kg
- maximum landing mass : 3700 kg
2141 33
(For this question use annex 033-4616A or Flight Still air Flight time, Distance Distance
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6) distance, wind (NM), wind (NM), wind
In order to get alternate fuel and time, the twin -jet wind component, component, component,
aeroplane operations manual graph shall be entered component, landing zero fuel landing
with: zero fuel mass at mass. mass at
mass. alternate. alternate.
2142 33
 A multi engine piston aeroplane is on an IFR flight. The At the At departure At The
fuel plan gives a trip fuel of 65 US gallons. The alternate destination the reserve destination remaining
fuel, final reserve included, is 17 US gallons. there will still fuel was 28 the required fuel is not
Contingency fuel is 5% of the trip fuel. The usable fuel be 30 US US gallons reserves sufficient to
at departure is 93 US gallons. At a certain moment the gallons in remain reach the
fuel consumed according to the fuel gauges is 40 US the tanks intact. destination
gallons and the distance flown is half of the total with
distance. Assume that fuel consumption doesn't change. reserves
Which statement is right ? intact

2143 33
On an instrument approach chart, a minimum sector 15 NM 10 NM 25 NM 20 NM
altitude (MSA) is defined in relation to a radio navigation
facility. Without any particular specification on distance,
this altitude is valid to:
2144 33
In the appropriate box of a flight plan form, start-up pass the go off blocks take-off
corresponding to the estimated time of departure, the departure
time indicated is that at which the aircraft intends to : beacon
2145 33
The planned departure time from the parking area is 1755 UTC 1715 UTC 1725 UTC 1745 UTC
1815 UTC
The estimated take-off time is 1825 UTC
The IFR flight plan must be filed with ATC at the latest
at:
2146 33
When a pilot fills in a flight plan, he must indicate the estimated maximum actual take- maximum
wake turbulence category. This category is a function of take-off certified off mass certified
which mass? mass landing take-off
mass mass
2147 33
After flying for 16 min at 100 kt TAS with a 20 kt tail wind 24 min 20 min 10 min 40 16 min
component, you have to return to the airfield of sec
2148 33 departure. You will arrive after:
In the ATS flight plan Item 10 (equipment), the letter to P C B A
indicate the carriage of a serviceable transponder -
mode A (4 digits-4096 codes) and mode C, is :
2149 33
The navigation plan reads: 2h 04min 2h 52min 2h 49min 1h 35min
Trip fuel: 100 kg
Flight time: 1h35min
Taxi fuel: 3 kg
Block fuel: 181 kg
The endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read:

2150 33
(For this question use annex 033-3908A or Route 142°. 330°. 343°. 322°.
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
Planning a IFR flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49
00.9 E002 36.9) to London Heathrow
(N51 29.2 W000 27.9).
Find the average true course from Paris to London.

2151 33
(For this question use annex 033-9578A or Flight TAS 423 kt, TAS 433 kt, TAS 423 kt, TAS 433 kt,
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1) 936 NAM 227 NAM 227 NAM 1163 NAM
Given: Long range cruise, OAT -45°C at FL 350, Gross
mass at the beginning of the leg 40000 kg, Gross mass
at the end of the leg 39000 kg
Find: True air speed (TAS) and cruise distance (NAM)
for a twin jet aeroplane
2152 33
 Given: True course (TC) 017°, W/V 340°/30 kt, True air WCA -2°, WCA +2°, WCA -2°, WCA +2°,
speed (TAS) 420 kt GS 426 kt GS 416 kt GS 396 kt GS 396 kt
Find: Wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed
(GS)
2153 33
In the ATS flight plan item 15, when entering a route for neither SID both should SIDs should STARS
which standard departure (SID) and standard arrival nor STAR be entered be entered should be
(STAR) procedures exist : should be in the ATS but not entered but
entered plan where STARs not SIDs
appropriate
2154 33
Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64 400 kg; 4 000 kg 7 000 kg 5 600 kg 3 000 kg
maximum landing mass 56200 kg; maximum zero fuel
mass 53 000 kg; dry operating mass 35 500 kg;
estimated load 14 500 kg; estimated trip fuel 4 900 kg;
minimum take-off fuel 7 400 kg.
Find: maximum additional load
2155 33
An aircraft plans to depart London at 1000 UTC and EDDM 2H15 EDDM 0215 EDDM 1415 EDDM 1215
arrive at Munich (EDDM) at 1215 UTC. In the ATS flight
plan Item 16 (destination/EET) should be entered with :
2156 33
In an ATS flight plan Item 15, in order to define a VOR ident, VOR ident, VOR ident, full name of
position as a bearing and distance from a VOR, the magnetic true bearing magnetic VOR, true
group of figures should consist of : bearing and and distance bearing and bearing and
distance in in kilometres distance in distance in
nautical kilometres kilometres
miles
2157 33
(For this question use annexes 033-11204A, 033- 41 950 kg 51 860 kg 52 060 kg 46 340 kg
11204B and 033-11204C)
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight
using the following data:
Flight leg ground distance: 4 000 NM
Flight level FL 370; "Long range" flight regime
Effective wind at this level: head wind of 50 kt
Temperature: ISA
Centre of gravity (CG): 37 %
Pack flow : LOW (LO)
Anti ice: OFF
Reference landing mass: 140 000 kg
Taxi fuel: 500 kg
Final reserve fuel: 2 400 kg
The fuel quantity which must be loaded on board the
aircraft is:

2158 33
(For this question use annex 033-3907A or Route 77 ft. 177 ft. 100 ft. 80 ft.
Manual chart STAR LONDON Heathrow (10-2))
Planning a IFR flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to
London (Heathrow).
Find the elevation of the destination aerodrome.
2159 33
(For this question use annex 033-3321A or Flight 4 800 kg; 4 400 kg; 4 750 kg; 4 600 kg;
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1.B) 01 : 45 02 : 05 02 : 00 02 : 05
Given : estimated zero fuel mass 50 t; estimated landing
mass at alternate 52 t; final reserve fuel 2 t; alternate
fuel 1 t; flight to destination, distance 720 NM, true
course (TC) 030, W/V 340/30; cruise: long range FL
330, outside air temperature -30 ° C.
Find : estimated trip fuel and time
2160 33
 (For this question use annex 033-3909A or Route 207 NM. 188 NM. 308 NM. 218 NM.
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
Planning a IFR flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49
00.9 E002 36.9) to London Heathrow
(N51 29.2 W000 27.9).
Determine the preplanning distance by calculating the
direct distance plus 10%.
The preplanning distance is:
2161 33
(For this question use annex 033-3910A or Flight 49 250 kg. 2 250 kg. 48 675 kg. 48 125 kg.
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)
Planning a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle to
London Heathrow for a twin - jet aeroplane.
Preplanning:
Dry Operating Mass (DOM): 34 000 kg
Traffic Load: 13 000 kg
The holding is planned at 1 500 ft above alternate
elevation. The alternate elevation is 256 ft. The holding
is planned for 30 minutes with no reductions.
Determine the Estimated Landing Mass at alternate
Manchester.

2162 33
In the ATS flight plan Item 19, if the number of "TBN" (to be the plan an estimate the plan may
passengers to be carried is not known when the plan is notified) may should be may be not be filed
ready for filing : be entered filed with the entered but until the
in the relevant box that number information
relevant box blank may not is available
subsequentl
y be
exceeded
2163 33
(For this question use annex 033-11213A and 033- 27 800 kg 27 000 kg 28 300 kg 29 200 kg
11213B)
Assuming the following data:
. Ground distance to be covered: 2 500 NM
. Cruise flight level: FL 350
. Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt)
. Tailwind component: 40 kt
. Planned destination landing mass: 150 000 kg
. Temperature: ISA
. CG: 37%
. Total anti-ice: OFF
. Air conditioning: normal
Fuel consumption for such a flight is:

2164 33
When completing an ATS flight plan for a flight X Y N/S G
commencing under IFR but possibly changing to VFR,
the letters entered in Item 8 (FLIGHT RULES) would
be :
2165 33
(For this question use annex 033-12289A) placing a listing the crossing out circling the
In the ATS flight plan Item 19, emergency and survival tick in the items carried the box relevant box
equipment carried on the flight should be indicated by : relevant box on the relevant to
"REMARKS" any
line equipment
not carried
2166 33
 (For this question use annex 033-3906A or Route 217 ft. 2 ft. 387 ft. 268 ft.
Manual chart SID PARIS Charles-De-Gaulle (20-3))
Planning a IFR flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to
London (Heathrow).
Find the elevation of the departure aerodrome.

2167 33
In the ATS flight plan Item 15, a cruising speed of 470 0470K N470 N0470 KN470
2168 33 knots will be entered as :
(For this question use annex 033-11193A) +2 +9 +13 -2
What is the mean temperature deviation (°C) from the
2169 33 ISA over 50°N 010°W ?
(For this question use annex 033-11207A and 033- 12 000 kg 14 000 kg 30 000 kg 42 000 kg
11207B)
A turbojet aeroplane is prepared for a 1300 NM flight at
FL 350, with a true airspeed of 460 kt and a head wind
of 160 kt. The take-off runway limitation is 174 000 kg,
the planned departure mass is 160 000 kg. The
departure fuel price is equal to 0.92 times the arrival fuel
price (fuel price ratio = 0.92). In order for the airline to
optimize its savings, the additional fuel quantity that
must be loaded on board is:

2170 33
(For this question use annex 033-11208A) 193 800 kg 192 500 kg 193 000 kg 193 400 kg
A turbojet aeroplane, weighing 200 000 kg, initiates its
cruise at the optimum level at M 0.84 (ISA, CG=37%,
Total Anti Ice ON). A head wind of 30 kt is experienced
and, after a distance of 500 NM, severe icing is
encountered and this requires an immediate descent.
The aeroplane mass at start of descent is:

2171 33
(For this question use annex 033-11209A and 033- 0 kg 3 000 kg 2 000 kg 4 000 kg
11209B)
Assuming a departure/destination fuel price ratio of
0.91, the commander decides to optimize fuel tankering
by using the following data:
. Cruise flight level: FL 350
. Air distance to be covered: 2 500 NM
. Planned take-off mass: 200 000 kg (with the minimum
prescribed fuel quantity of 38 000 kg that includes a trip
fuel of 29 000 kg)
. Maximum landing mass: 180 000 kg
. Maximum take-off mass: 205 000 kg
. Maximum tank capacity: 40 000 kg
The additional fuel quantity will be:

2172 33
 (For this question use annex 033-11210A and 033- 10 000 kg 20 000 kg 12 000 kg 15 000 kg
11210B)
Assuming a departure/destination fuel price ratio of
0.92, the commander decides to optimize fuel tankering
by using the following data:
. Cruise flight level: FL 350
. Air distance to be covered: 1 830 NM
. Planned take-off mass: 190 000 kg (with a minimum
prescribed fuel quantity of 30 000 kg that includes a trip
fuel of 22 000 kg)
. Maximum landing mass: 180 000 kg
. Maximum take-off mass: 205 000 kg
. Maximum tank capacity: 40 000 kg
The additional fuel quantity will be:

2173 33
(For this question use annex 033-11211A and 033- 4 h 26 min 5 h 02 min 4 h 10 min 4 h 43 min
11211B )
Assuming the following data:
. Ground distance to be covered: 2 000 NM
. Cruise flight level: FL 330
. Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt)
. Head wind component: 30 kt
. Planned destination landing mass: 160 000 kg
. Temperature: ISA
. CG: 37%
. Total anti-ice: ON
. Pack flow: HI
Time needed to carry out such a flight is:

2174 33
(For this question use annex 033-9579A, B,C,D or Flight 24000 ft, 33500 ft, 33900 ft, 25000 ft,
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.2 and Figure 445 kt 430 kt 420 kt 435 kt
4.5.3.2)
Given: Estimated take-off mass 57000 kg, Ground
distance 150 NM, Temperature ISA -10°C, Cruise at .74
Mach
Find: Cruise altitude and expected true air speed
2175 33
In the ATS flight plan Item 13, in a flight plan submitted estimated allocated estimated estimated
before departure, the departure time entered is the : take-off time slot time off-block time over
time the first point
en route

2176 33
(For this question use annexes 033-3320A, 033-3320B 22 000 ft; 22 000 ft; 25 000 ft; 25 000 ft;
and 033-3320C or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 441 kt 451 kt 435 kt 445 kt
Figures 4.2.1, 4.2.2 and 4.5.3.2)
Given: estimated take-off mass 57 000 kg; still air
distance 150 NAM; outside air temperature (OAT) ISA
-10K; cruise at 0.74 Mach.
Find : cruise altitude and expected true airspeed
2177 33
When an ATS flight plan is submitted for a flight outside 1 hour flying 30 minutes 20 minutes 15 minutes
designated ATS routes, points included in Item 15 time or 500 flying time or flying time or flying time or
(route) should not normally be at intervals of more than : km 370 km 150 km 100 km
2178 33
In an ATS flight plan, Item 15 (route), a cruising FL320 S3200 32000 F320
pressure altitude of 32000 feet would be entered as :
2179 33
In an ATS flight plan Item 15 (route), in terms of latitude N04135E04 N4135 4135N0041 41°35' N 04°
and longitude, a significant point at 41°35' north 4°15' 15 E00415 5E 15'E
2180 33 east should be entered as :
 (For this question use annex 033-3324A or Flight 1 180 kg; 2 360 kg; 1 180 2 360
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4) alternate alternate kg;destinatio kg;destinatio
Given: dry operating mass 35 500 kg; estimated load 12 elevation elevation n elevation n elevation
000 kg, contingency approach and landing fuel 2 500
kg; elevation at departure aerodrome 500 ft; elevation at
alternate aerodrome 30 ft.
Find: final reserve fuel for a jet aeroplane (holding) and
give the elevation which is relevant.
2181 33
(For this question use annex 033-3323A or Flight 11 400 kg. 12 400 kg. 11 400 kg. 12 400 kg.
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.3C) 04h 12 min 04h 12 min 03h 55 min 03h 55 min
Given: ground distance to destination aerodrome 1 600
NM; headwind component 50 kt; FL 330; cruise 0.78
Mach; ISA + 20 ° C; estimated landing weight 55000
kg .
Find: simplified flight planning to determine estimated
trip fuel and trip time.
2182 33
(For this question use annex 033-3322A or Flight 800 kg; 1 100 kg; 1 100 kg; 800 kg;
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6) 40 min 25 min 44 min 24 min
Given: estimated dry operation mass 35 500 kg;
estimated load 14 500 kg; final reserve fuel 1200 kg;
distance to alternate 95 NM; average true track 219°;
head wind component 10 kt
Find : fuel and time to alternate.
2183 33
(For this question use annex 033-3327A or Flight 752 NM 852 NM 610 NM 602 NM
Planning Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2)
A flight is to be made in a multi engine piston aeroplane
(MEP1). The cruising level will be 11000ft. The outside
air temperature at FL is -15 ° C. The usable fuel is 123
US gallons. The power is set to economic cruise. Find
the range in NM with 45 min reserve fuel at 45 % power.

2184 33
(For this question use annex 033-11212A and 033- 23 500 kg 21 500 kg 21 700 kg 19 900 kg
11212B)
Assuming the following data:
. Ground distance to be covered: 1 500 NM
. Cruise flight level: FL 310
. Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt)
. Head wind component: 40 kt
. Planned destination landing mass: 140 000 kg
. Temperature: ISA + 15° C
. CG: 37 %
. Total anti-ice: ON
. Pack flow: HI
Fuel consumption for such a flight is:

2185 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11014A or Route NOT frequency NOT frequency
Manual chart E(LO)5) frequency paired, and frequency paired, and
The VOR and TACAN on airway G9 at OSNABRUCK paired, and have the paired, and have
(52°12'N 008°17'E) are: have the same have different
same identifier different identifiers
identifier identifiers
2186 33
(For this question use annex 033- 10997A or Route 349°/42 NM 169°/42 NM 349°/26 NM 169°/68 NM
Manual chart E(LO)2)
The magnetic course/distance from CAMBRAI CMB
112.6 (50°14'N 003°09'E) to TALUN (49°33'N 003°25'E)
on airway B3 is:
2187 33
 (For this question use annex 033- 10998A or Route 311°/85 NM 279°/85 NM 279°/114 311°/114 NM
Manual chart E(LO)1) NM
The magnetic course/distance from WALLASEY WAL
114.1 (53°23N 003°28'W° to LIFFY (53°29'N 005°30'W)
on airway B1 is:
2188 33
(For this question use annex 033- 10999A or Route 297°/70 NM 117°/71 NM 297°/57 NM 117°/57 NM
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
The magnetic course/distance from TRENT TNT 115.7
(53°03'N 001°40'W) to WALLASEY WAL 114.1 (53°23'N
003°08W) on airway VR3 is:
2189 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11000A or Route 052°/50 NM 007°/60 NM 105°/105 132°/43 NM
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) NM
The magnetic course/distance from TANGO TGO 112.5
(48°37'N 009°16'E) to DINKELSBUHL DKB 117.8
(49°09'N 010°14E) on airway UR11 is:
2190 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11001A or Route 061°/28 NM 041°/78 NM 061°/37 NM 048°/46 NM
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
The magnetic course/distance from ST PREX SPR
113.9 (46°28'N 006°27'E) to FRIBOURG FRI 115.1
(46°47'N 007°14'E) on airway UG60 is:
2191 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11002A or Route 346°/64 NM 166°/64 NM 346°/43 NM 346°/45 NM
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
The magnetic course/distance from SALZBURG SBG
113.8 (48°00'N 012°54'E) to STAUB (48°44'N 012°38'E)
on airway UB5 is:
2192 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11021A or Route FL140 FL160 FL200 FL250
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
Aeroplanes intending to use airway UR14 should cross
GIBSO intersection (50°45'N 002°30'W) at or above:

2193 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11013A or Route an NDB, a TACAN, a VOR only, a VOR/DME,
Manual chart E(LO)1) frequency frequency frequency frequency
The radio navigation aid at SHANNON (52°43'N 352 kHz 113.3 kHz 113.3 MHz 113.3 MHz
008°53'W) is :
2194 33
(For this question use annex 033- 10994A or Route 337°/31 NM 337°/58 NM 337°/46 NM 157°/58 NM
Manual chart E(LO)6 )
The magnetic course/distance from GROSTENQUIN
GTQ 111.25 (49°00'N 006°43'E) to LINNA (49°41'N
006°15'E) on airway R7 is:
2195 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11015A or Route Channel Channel Frequency Frequency
Manual chart E(LO)5) 440, BFO on 440, BFO off 440 kHz, 440 kHz,
The NDB at DENKO (52°49'N 015°50'E) can be BFO off BFO on
identified on:
2196 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11016A or Route an NDB a TACAN a fan marker an NDB
Manual chart E(LO)5) callisign N callsign callsign LP callsign LF
The airway intersection at RONNEBY (56°18'N RON
015°16'E) is marked by:
2197 33
From which of the following would you expect to find AIP (Air SIGMET ATCC NOTAM
information regarding known short unserviceability of Information broadcasts
2198 33 VOR, TACAN, and NDB ? Publication)
From which of the following would you expect to find the NOTAM and Only AIP (Air SIGMET RAD/NAV
dates and times when temporary danger areas are AIP (Air Information charts
active Information Publication)
Publication)

2199 33
 From which of the following would you expect to find NOTAM SIGMET AIP (Air ATCC
details of the Search and Rescue organisation and Information broadcasts
2200 33 procedures (SAR) ? Publication)
On an ATC flight plan, an aircraft indicated as "H" for requires a is of the has a has a
"Heavy" runway highest certified certified
length of at wake landing take-off
least 2 000m turbulence mass mass
at maximum category greater than greater than
certified or equal to or equal to
take-off 136 000 kg 140 000 kg
mass

2201 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11003A or Route 332°/76 NM 152°/42 NM 322°/60 NM 332°/118
Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition) NM
The magnetic course/distance from ELBA ELB 114.7
(42°44'N 010°24'E) to SPEZI (43°49'N 009°34'E) on
airway UA35 is:
2202 33
(For this question use annex 033-12285A) be the RTF include the include the include an
In the ATS flight plan item 7, for a radio equipped callsign to aircraft operating indication of
aircraft, the identifier must always : be used registration agency the aircraft
marking designator type

2203 33
(For this question use annexes 033-3912A and 033- 1 550 kg. 1 900 kg. 1 450 kg. 1 740 kg.
3912B or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition and
Flight planning manual Figure 4.3.2A)
Planning a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9
E002 36.9) to London Heathrow
(N51 29.2 W000 27.9) for a twin - jet aeroplane.
Preplanning:
Powersetting: Mach= 0.74
Planned flight level FL 280
The Landing Mass in the fuel graph is 50 000 kg
The trip distance used for calculation is 200 NM
The wind from Paris to London is 280°/40 kt
Find the estimated trip fuel.

2204 33
(For this question use annexes 033-3911A and 033- 1 300 kg 1 600 kg 1 200 kg 1 450 kg
3911B) or (Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition and and 28 and 36 and 26 and 32
Flight planning manual Figure 4.3.6) minutes. minutes. minutes. minutes.
Planning a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49
00.9 E002 36.9) to London Heathrow (N51 29.2 W000
27.9) for a twin - jet aeroplane. The alternate airport is
Manchester (N53 21.4 W002 15.7)
Preplanning:
The wind from London to Manchester is 250°/30 kt
The distance from London to Manchester is 160 NM.
Assume the Estimated Landing Mass at alternate is
about 50 000 kg.
Find the alternate fuel and the according time.

2205 33
The fuel burn off is 200 kg/h with a relative fuel density 213 kg/h 188 kg/h 267 kg/h 200 kg/h
of 0,8. If the relative density is 0,75, the fuel burn will be:
2206 33
 (For this question use annex 033-4737A or Flight 9 min. 10 min. 7 min. 9 min.
Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1) 3,3 USG 3,6 USG 2,6 USG 2,7 USG
Given:
FL 75
OAT: +5°C
During climb: average head wind component 20 kt
Take-off from MSL with the initial mass of 3 650 lbs.
Find:
Time and fuel to climb.

2207 33
(For this question use annex 033-4736A or Flight 11.6 GPH 71.1 GPH 68.5 GPH 11.6 GPH
Planning Manual SEP 1 Table 2.2.3) TAS: 143 kt TAS: 143 kt TAS: 160 kt TAS: 160 kt
Given:
FL 75
OAT +10°C
Lean mixture
2300 RPM
Find:
Fuel flow in gallons per hour (GPH) and TAS.

2208 33
(For this question use annex 033-4735A or Flight 05:20 04:42 05:23 05:12
Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.5)
Given:
FL 75
Lean mixture
Full throttle
2300 RPM
Take-off fuel: 444 lbs
Take-off from MSL
Find:
Endurance in hours.

2209 33
(For this question use annex 033- 10996A or Route 024°/ 20 NM 024°/ 47 NM 024°/ 73 NM 023°/ 73 NM
Manual chart E(LO)5)
The initial magnetic course/distance from EELDE EEL
112.4 (53°10'N 006°40'E) to WELGO (54°18'N
007°25'E) on airway A7 is:
2210 33
In the ATS flight plan, for a non-scheduled flight which of X N N/S G
the following letters schould be entered in Item 8 (Type
2211 33 of Flight) :
(For this question use annex 033- 10995A or Route 352°/72 NM 352°/96 NM 339°/80 NM 339°/125
Manual chart E(LO)5) NM
The magnetic course/distance from ELBE LBE 115.1
(53°39'N 009°36'E) to LUNUD (54°50'N 009°19'E) on
airway H12 is:
2212 33
In the ATS flight plan item 15, it is necessary to enter 10 % TAS or 20 km per 20 knots or 5% TAS or
any point at which a change of cruising speed takes 0.05 Mach hour or 0.1 0.05 Mach 0.01 Mach
place. For this purpose a "change of speed" is defined or more Mach or or more or more
as : more
2213 33
(For this question use annex 033-10989A or Route UG108 SPI UR10 NTM UG1 UB69 DINKI
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) UG1 UB6 BUB UB6 BUB
Of the following, the preferred airways routing from ATS ATS
FRANKFURT FFM 114.2 (50°03' N008°38'E) to KOKSY
(51°06'N 002°39'E) above FL245, on a Wednesday is :

2214 33
 (For this question use annex 033- 10990A or Route UA6 LSA UB282 DGN UB284 UB28
Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition) UG52 UB46 VILAR UB28
Of the following, the preferred airways routing from
MARTIGUES MTG 117.3 (43°23'N 005°05'E) to ST
PREX SPR 113.9 (46°28'N 006°27'E) above FL245 is :

2215 33
(For this question use annex 033-10991A or Route UA34 UB19 POI UH40 UB19 CGC
Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition) UB195 FOUCO UA25
Of the following, the preferred airways routing from UH20
AMBOISE AMB 113.7 (47°26'N 001°04'E) to AGEN PERIC
AGN (43°53°'N 000°52'E) above FL200 is: UA34
2216 33
(For this question use annex 033- 10992A or Route UR12 MID UB29 LAM UB29 LAM UR12 MID
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) UR8 SAM UR1 MID UR1 ORTAC UA47 DPE
Of the following, the preferred airways routing from UB11 UA34 LILAN UR14 UA475
CLACTON CLN 114.55 (51°51'N 001°09'E) to DINARD BARLU UR9 SOKMU
DIN 114.3 (48°35'N 002°05'W) above FL245 is: UW115 UH111

2217 33
(For this question use annex 033- 10993A or Route 050°/47 NM 230°/97NM 133°/85 NM 052°/97 NM
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
The magnetic course/distance from DINKELSBUHL
DKB 117.8 (49°09'N010°14'E) to ERLANGEN ERL
114.9 (49°39'N011°09'E) on airway UR11 is;
2218 33
An airway is marked 3500T 2100 a. This indicates that: the airway the airway is the minimum the minimum
base is 3500 a low level obstruction enroute
ft MSL link route clearance altitude
2100 ft - altitude (MEA) is
3500 ft MSL (MOCA) is 3500 ft
3500 ft

2219 33
(For this question use annex 033-11214A) 29 400kg 27 400 kg 31 500 kg 29 100 kg
Assuming the following data:
. Ground distance to be covered: 2 600 NM
. Cruise flight level: FL 370
. Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt)
. Wind: zero wind during flight
. Planned destination landing mass: 140 000 kg
. Temperature: ISA + 15° C
. CG: 37 %
. Total anti-ice: ON
. Air conditioning: normal
Fuel consumption for such a flight is:

2220 33
(For this question use annex 033-11187A) Light Moderate Severe Nil
Which best describes the maximum intensity of CAT, if
any, forecast for FL330 over BENGHAZI (32°N 020°E) ?
2221 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11062A or Route 405 ft 275 ft 200 ft 480 ft
Manual chart LONDON HEATHROW ILS DME Rwy 09R
(11-1))
The Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) for an ILS glide
slope out, is:
2222 33
 (For this question use annexes 033-11073A, 033- 26 950 kg 22 860 kg 24 900 kg 30 117 kg
11073B, 033-11073C and 033-11073D)
Planning a MACH 0,82 cruise at FL 390, the estimated
landing mass is 160 000 kg; the ground distance is
2 800 NM and the mean tailwind is 100 kt; ISA
conditions.
Fuel consumption will be:

2223 33
(For this question use annexes 033-11074A, 033- 30 371 kg 32 657 kg 30 117 kg 27 577 kg
11074B, 033-11074C and 033-11074D)
Planning a MACH 0,82 cruise at FL 390, the estimated
landing mass is 160 000 kg.
The ground distance is 2 800 NM and the mean wind is
equal to zero. ISA conditions.
Fuel consumption will be:
2224 33
(For this question use annex 033-11182A) a warm front a cold front an occluded a depression
The surface weather system over England (53°N moving moving east front moving moving
002°W) is southeast east north

2225 33
In a flight plan when the destination aerodrome is A and 30 minutes 15 minutes 30 minutes 30 minutes
the alternate aerodrome is B, the final reserve fuel for a holding holding holding holding
turbojet engine aeroplane corresponds to: 2,000 feet 2,000 feet 1,500 feeI 1,500 feet
above above above above
aerodrome aerodrome A aerodrome A aerodrome
B B
2226 33
(For this question use annex 033-11184A) Nil Severe Moderate Light
Which describes the maximum intensity of icing, if any,
at FL180 in the vicinity of CASABLANCA (33°N
008°W) ?
2227 33
From which of the following would you expect to find AIP (Air NAV/RAD ATCC NOTAM
facilitation information (FAL) regarding customs and Information charts
2228 33 health formalities ? Publication)
(For this question use annex 033-11186A) Severe Nil Moderate Light
Which best describes be maximum intensity of icing, if
any, at FL150 in the vicinity of BUCHAREST (45°N
026°E) ?
2229 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11059A or Route (i) 2000 ft (i) 200 ft (ii) (i) 3000 ft (i) 3000 ft (ii)
Manual chart AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL ILS DME Rwy (ii) 160° 223° (ii) 160° 223°
22 (11-6))
The Missed Approach procedure is to climb to an alitude
of (i)------------ on a track of (ii) ----------
2230 33
(For this question use annex 033-11188A) 290/110 300/140 300/100 300/160
The maximum wind velocity (°/kt) shown in the vicinity
2231 33 of MUNICH (48°N 012°E) is :
(For this question use annex 033-11189A) a maximum 130 kt at a maximum 110 kt at
The wind velocity over ITALY is of 110 kt at FL380 of 160 kt at FL380
FL380 maximum FL 380 maximum
velocity not velocity not
shown on shown on
chart chart
2232 33
(For this question use annex 033-11190A) 200/70 020/80 020/70 350/70
The wind direction and velocity (°/kt) at 50°N 040°E is:
2233 33
(For this question use annex 033-11191A) 290/155 320/155 110/155 290/185
The wind direction and velocity (°/kt) at 60°N 015°W is
2234 33
 (For this question use annex 033-11192A) 55 kt 35 kt 25 kt 40 kt
The approximate mean wind component (kt) at Mach headwind tailwind tailwind headwind
0.78 along true course 270° at 50°N from 000° to component component component component
010°W is
2235 33
Planning a flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to 55 765 kg. 51 425 kg. 52 265 kg. 51 515 kg.
London (Heathrow) for a twin - jet aeroplane.
Preplanning:
Maximum Take-off Mass: 62 800 kg
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 51 250 kg
Maximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kg
Maximum Taxi Mass: 63 050 kg
Assume the following preplanning results:
Trip fuel: 1 800 kg
Alternate fuel: 1 400 kg
Holding fuel (final reserve): 1 225 kg
Dry Operating Mass: 34 000 kg
Traffic Load: 13 000 kg
Catering: 750 kg
Baggage: 3 500 kg
Find the Take-off Mass (TOM):

2236 33
(For this question use annex 033-11185A) 5 to 7 oktas 5 to 7 oktas 3 to 7 oktas Nil
Which best describes the significant cloud, if any, CU and CB CU and CB CU and CB
forecast for the area southwest of BODO (67°N 014°E) base below base base below
FL100, tops FL100, tops FL100, tops
FL180 FL180 FL180
2237 33
Given : 1 hour 42 1 hour 54 1 hour 39 2 hours 02
Course A to B 088° (T) minutes minutes minutes minutes
distance 1250 NM
Mean TAS 330 kt
Mean W/V 340°/60 kt
The time from A to the PET between A and B is :
2238 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11043A or Route 96 NM 83 NM 88 NM 73 NM
Manual STAR charts for PARIS CHARLES DE GAULLE
(20-2))
The route distance from CHIEVRES (CIV) to
BOURSONNE (BSN) is :
2239 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11044A or Route West sector West sector East sector East sector
Manual SID chart for LONDON HEATHROW (10-3)) 2100 ft 2300 ft 2100 ft 2300 ft
Which of the following is a correct Minimum Safe within 25 within 25 within 50 within 50
Altitude (MSA) for the Airport? NM NM NM NM

2240 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11045A or Route CENTA MOTIL VTB CJN
Manual STAR chart for MADRID BARAJAS (10-2A,B))
For runway 33 arrivals from the east and south, the
Initial Approach Fix (IAF) inbound from airway UR10 is :

2241 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11046A or Route ALBIX 7S ALBIX 7A ALBIX 6H ALBIX 6E
Manual SID charts for ZURICH (10-3))
Which is the correct ALBIX departure via AARAU for
runway 16?
2242 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11047A or Route 67 NM 35 NM 59 NM 52 NM
Manual SID chart for AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL (10-
3B))
The route distance from runway 27 to ARNEM is:
2243 33
 (For this question use annex 033- 11048A or Route Cross The distance Maximum Contact
Manual SID chart for AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL (10-3)) ANDIK to ANDIK is IAS 250kt SCHIPOL
Which of the following statements is correct for ANDIK below FL60 25 NM turning left DEPARTUR
departures from runway 19L? at SPL 3.1 E 119.05
DME passing
2000 ft and
report
altitude
2244 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11061A or Route 100 ft 88 ft 300 ft 188 ft
Manual chart AMSTERDAM JAA MINIMUMS (10-9X)
The Radio Altimeter minimum altitude for a CAT 2 ILS
DME approach to Rwy 01L is :

2245 33
Given : DxOx DxH DxO ExOx
X = Distance A to point of equal time (PET) between A H X = _____ X = _____ H
and B X= O+H O+H X=
E = Endurance ________ ________
D = Distance A to B O+H O+H
O = Groundspeed 'on'
H = Groundspeed 'back'
The formula for calculating the distance X to point of
equal time (PET) is:

2246 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11060A or Route 3500 ft 2067 ft 1567 ft 4000 ft
Manual chart MADRID BARAJAS ILS DME Rwy 33 (11-
1))
The minimum glide slope interception altitude for a full
ILS is:
2247 33
Given : 1350 NM 1313 NM 1425 NM 1386 NM
Distance X to Y 2700 NM
Mach Number 0.75
Temperature -45°C
Mean wind component 'on' 10 kt tailwind
Mean wind compontent 'back' 35 kt tailwind
The distance from X to the point of equal time (PET)
between X and Y is :
2248 33
Given : 1130 NM 1025 NM 920 NM 1153 NM
Distance A to B 2050 NM
Mean groundspeed 'on' 440 kt
Mean groundspeed 'back' 540 kt
The distance to the point of equal time (PET) between A
and B is :
2249 33
Given : 5 hours 45 3 hours 55 5 hours 20 5 hours 30
Distance A to B 3060 NM minutes minutes minutes minutes
Mean groundspeed 'out' 440 kt
Mean groundspeed 'back' 540 kt
Safe Endurance 10 hours
The time to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) is:
2250 33
Which of the following statements is (are) correct with Both Neither Statement 1 Statement 2
regard to the advantages of computer flight plans ? statements statement only only
1. The computer can file the ATC flight plan.
2. Wind data used by the computer is always more up-
to-date than that available to the pilot.

2251 33
 Which of the following statements is (are) correct with Statement 2 Both Neither Statement 1
regard to the operation of flight planning computers ? only statements statement only
1. The computer can file the ATC flight plan.
2. In the event of inflight re-routing the computer
produces a new plan.

2252 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11058A or Route 280 ft 200 ft 400 ft 480 ft
Manual chart LONDON HEATHROW ILS DME Rwy 09L
(11-2))
The Decision Altitude (DA) for a ILS straight-in landing
is :
2253 33
(For this question use annex 033-11194A) 150/75 300/75 330/75 330/85
The wind direction and velocity (°/kt) at 40°N 040°E is
2254 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11049A or Route NDG 1T, IAF DKB 1T, IAF AALEN 1T, AALEN 1T,
Manual STAR charts for MUNICH (10-2A,B)) ROKIL ROKIL IAF ROKIL IAF MBG
The correct arrival route and Initial Approach Fix (IAF)
for an arrival from the west via TANGO for runway 08
L/R is:

2255 33
(For this question use annex 033-3305A or Flight 1 680 kg 1 020 kg 1 200 kg 1 100 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)
Given: long range cruise: temp. -63° C at FL 330
initial gross mass enroute 54 100 kg; leg flight
time 29 min
Find: fuel consumption for this leg
2256 33
The final reserve fuel for aeroplanes with turbine fuel to fly for fuel to fly for fuel to fly for fuel to fly for
engines is 45 minutes 45 minutes 60 minutes 30 minutes
at holding at holding at holding at holding
speed at speed at speed at speed at
1500 ft (450 1000 ft (300 1500 ft (450 1500 ft (450
m) above m) above m) above m) above
aerodrome aerodrome aerodrome aerodrome
elevation in elevation in elevation in elevation in
standard standard standard standard
conditions. conditions. conditions. conditions.

2257 33
(For this question use annex 033-9546A or Flight distance in distance in distance in distance in
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6) nautical nautical nautical nautical air
In order to find ALTERNATE FUEL and TIME TO miles (NM), miles (NM), miles (NM), miles
ALTERNATE, the AEROPLANE OPERATING MANUAL wind wind wind (NAM), wind
shall be entered with: component, component, component, component,
zero fuel dry landing landing
mass operating mass at mass at
mass plus alternate alternate
holding fuel

2258 33
For flight planning purposes the landing mass at Zero Fuel Zero Fuel Landing Zero Fuel
alternate is taken as: Mass plus Mass plus Mass at Mass plus
Final Final destination Final
Reserve Reserve plus Reserve
Fuel and Fuel. Alternate Fuel and
Contingency Fuel. Alternate
Fuel. Fuel.
2259 33
 (For this question use annex 033-9543A or Flight pressure pressure pressure pressure
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4) altitude, altitude, altitude, altitude,
The final reserve fuel taken from the HOLDING aeroplane aeroplane aeroplane aeroplane
PLANNING table for the twin jet aeroplane is based on mass and mass and mass and mass and
the following parameters: flaps down flaps up with flaps down flaps up with
with minimum with maximum
minimum drag maximum range speed
drag airspeed range speed
airspeed

2260 33
(For this question use annex 033-3301A or Flight 6 US gallon 9 US gallon 12 US gallon 3 US gallon
Planning Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1)
A flight is to be made from one airport (elevation 3000 ft)
to another in a multi engine piston aireroplane (MEP1).
The cruising level will be FL 110. The temperature at FL
110 is ISA - 10° C. The temperature at the departure
aerodrome is -1° C. Calculate the fuel to climb with
mixture rich.
2261 33
(For this question use annex 033-3302A or Flight 20 NM 29 NM 36 NM 25 NM
Planning Manual MEP1 Figure 3.6)
A flight is to be made to an airport, pressure altitude
3000 ft, in a multi engine piston aireroplane (MEP1).
The forecast OAT for the airport is -1° C. The cruising
level will be FL 110, where OAT is -10° C.
Calculate the still air descent distance for:
145 KIAS
Rate of descent 1000 ft/min
Gears and flaps up

2262 33
(For this question use annex 033-11245A and 033- 8 000 kg The fuel 22 000 kg 15 000 kg
11245B) transport
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight operation is
using the following data: not
- Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM recommend
- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt ed in this
- Headwind component at this level: 5 kt case.
- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on
board): 180 000 kg
- Fuel price: 0.35 $/l at departure; 0.315 $/l at
destination
To maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry
extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary.
Using the appended annex, the optimum quantity of fuel
which should be carried in addition to the prescribed
quantity is:

2263 33
Given:maximum allowable take-off mass 64 400 kg 11 100 kg 11 400 kg 14 400 kg 8 600 kg
maximum landing mass 56 200 kg
maximum zero fuel mass 53 000 kg
dry operating mass 35 500 kg
estimated load 14 500 kg
estimated trip fuel 4 900kg
minimum take-off fuel 7 400 kg
Find the maximum allowable take-off fuel:

2264 33
 (For this question use annex 033-9551A or Flight 30000 ft 25000 ft 21000 ft 27500 ft
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.2)
Find the SHORT DISTANCE CRUISE ALTITUDE for the
twin jet aeroplane.
Given: Brake release mass=40000 kg,
Temperature=ISA + 20°C, Trip distance=150 Nautical Air
Miles (NAM)
2265 33
Given: 16 300 kg 17 300 kg 15 900 kg 17 100 kg
Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33500 kg
Load= 7600 kg
Maximum allowable take-off mass= 66200 kg
Standard taxi fuel= 200 kg
Tank capacity= 16 100 kg
The maximum possible take-off fuel is:
2266 33
Given: Estimated Estimated Estimated Estimated
Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kg take-off landing take-off landing
Load= 7600 kg mass= mass at mass= mass at
Trip fuel (TF)= 2040 kg 43295 kg. destination= 45233 kg. destination=
Final reserve fuel= 983 kg 43295 kg. 43193 kg.
Alternate fuel= 1100 kg
Contingency fuel= 5% of trip fuel
Which of the listed estimated masses is correct?
2267 33
Given: 42312 kg. 42195 kg. 41110 kg. 42210 kg.
Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33000 kg
Load= 8110 kg
Final reserve fuel= 983 kg
Alternate fuel= 1100 kg
Contingency fuel 102 kg
The estimated landing mass at alternate should be :

2268 33
Given: 42195 kg. 42093 kg. 42210 kg. 42312 kg.
Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kg
Load= 7600 kg
Final reserve fuel= 983 kg
Alternate fuel= 1100 kg
Contingency fuel 102 kg
The estimated landing mass at alternate should be :

2269 33
The required time for final reserve fuel for turbojet 60 min. Variable with 30 min. 45 min.
aeroplane is: wind
2270 33 velocity.
How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75? 7800 ft. 6300 ft. 6000 ft. 6600 ft.
Given: FL 75; departure aerodrome elevation 1500 ft;
QNH = 1023 hPa; temperature = ISA; 1 hPa = 30 ft

2271 33
((For this question use annex 033-9727A, 127.20 MHz 127.20 kHz 128.525 118.10 MHz
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 MHz
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS
chart ED-6)
Give the frequency of ZÜRICH VOLMET.
2272 33
 A VFR flight planned for a Piper Seneca III. At a 21.3 US 30.3 US 33.0 US 37.9 US
navigational checkpoint the remaining usable fuel in gallons/hour gallons/hour gallons/hour gallons/hour
tanks is 60 US gallons. The alternate fuel is 12 US
gallons. According to the flight plan the remaining flight
time is 1h35min. Calculate the highest rate of
consumption possible for the rest of the trip.

2273 33
(For this question use annex 033-9558A) ATC ATC ATC ATC
Finish the ENDURANCE/FUEL CALCULATION and ENDURANC ENDURANC ENDURANC ENDURANC
determine ATC ENDURANCE for a twin jet aeroplane, E: 03:37 E: 04:12 E: 04:07 E: 03:52
with the help of the table provided. Contingency is 5% of
the planned trip fuel and fuel flow for extra fuel is 2400
kg/h.
2274 33
A twin-jet aeroplane carries out the WASHINGTON- BERMUDAS SANTA BERMUDAS Either
PARIS flight. When it reaches point K (35°N - 048°W) a or GANDER, MARIA GANDER or
non-mechanical event makes the Captain consider or SANTA BERMUDAS
rerouting to one of the three following fields. The flight MARIA
conditions are:
- from K to BERMUDAS (distance 847NM, headwind
component=18 kt)
- from K to SANTA MARIA (distance 1112 NM, tailwind
component=120 kt)
- from K to GANDER (distance 883 NM, wind
component=0).

With an aeroplane true airspeed of 460 kt, the field

selected will be that more rapidly reached:

2275 33
(For this question use annex 033-12275A) VHF RTF, VHF RTF, VHF RTF, VHF RTF,
In the ATS flight plan Item 10, "standard equipment" is ADF, VOR ADF, VOR VOR, ILS VOR, ILS
considered to be : and ILS and and and
transponder transponder transponder

2276 33
(For this question use annex 033-12276A) the letters it is the words it is not
In the ATS flight plan Item 15, for a flight along a "DCT" necessary "as cleared" necessary to
designated route, where the departure aerodrome is not should be only to give should be indicate the
on or connected to that route : entered, the first entered point of
followed by reporting joining that
the point of point on that route as it
joining the route will be
ATS route obvious to
the ATS unit.

2277 33
An operator (turbojet engine) shall ensure that 30 minutes 30 minutes 2 hours at 45 minutes
calculation up of usable fuel for a flight for which no at holding at holding normal plus 15% of
destination alternate is required includes, taxi fuel, trip speed at speed at cruise the flight
fuel, contingency fuel and fuel to fly for: 450 m 450 m consumption time planned
above MSL above to be spent
in standard aerodrome at cruising
conditions elevation in level or two
standard hours
conditions whichever is
less

2278 33
(For this question use annex 033-12277A) EQUIPMEN ROUTE AIRCRAFT OTHER
In the event that SELCAL, is prescribed by an T IDENTIFICA INFORMATI
appropriate authority, in which section of the ATS flight TION ON
plan will the SELCAL code be entered ?
2279 33
 An aircraft has a maximum certificated take-off mass of medium plus heavy "H" heavy/mediu medium "M"
137000 kg but is operating at take-off mass 135000 kg. "M+" m "H/M"
In Item 9 of the ATS flight plan its wake turbulence
category is :
2280 33
For the purposes of Item 9 (Wake turbulence category) unclassified medium "M" heavy "H" light "L"
of the ATS flight plan, an aircraft with a maximum "U"
certificated take-off mass of 62000 kg is :
2281 33
Which of the following statements is relevant for forming No segment Each A small The distance
route portions in integrated range flight planning? shall be reporting change of from take-off
more than point temperature up to the top
30 minutes requires a (2 °C) can of climb has
of flight time. new divide a to be known.
segment. segment.

2282 33
A sector distance is 450 NM long. The TAS is 460 kt. 511 Nautical 406 Nautical 499 Nautical 414 Nautical
The wind component is 50 kt tailwind. What is the still Air Miles Air Miles Air Miles Air Miles
air distance? (NAM) (NAM) (NAM) (NAM)
2283 33
(For this question use annex 033-9550A or Flight 11000 ft 10000 ft 7500 ft 12500 ft
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.2)
Find the SHORT DISTANCE CRUISE ALTITUDE for the
twin jet aeroplane.
Given: Brake release mass=45000 kg,
Temperature=ISA + 20°C, Trip distance=50 Nautical Air
Miles (NAM)
2284 33
On a flight plan you are required to indicate in the box The The true The The
marked "speed" the planned speed for the first part of estimated airspeed equivalent indicated
the cruise or for the entire cruise. ground airspeed airspeed
This speed is: speed
2285 33
(For this question use annex 033-9557A or Flight 2300 kg/h 1150 kg/h 2994 kg/h 1497 kg/h
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.2)
Find the FUEL FLOW for the twin jet aeroplane with
regard to the following data.
Given: MACH .74 cruise, Flight level 310, Gross mass
50000 kg, ISA conditions
2286 33
(For this question use annex 033-9556A or Flight 2807 176 187 2994
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14) NAM/1000 NAM/1000 NAM/1000 NAM/1000
Find the SPECIFIC RANGE for the twin jet aeroplane kg kg kg kg
flying below the optimum altitude (range loss = 6%) and
using the following data.
Given: MACH .74 CRUISE, Flight level = 310, Gross
mass = 50000 kg, ISA conditions
2287 33
(For this question use annexes 033-9554A and 033- 0% 4% 1% 10 %
9554B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 2.1
and Figure 4.2.1)
Find the FUEL MILEAGE PENALTY for the twin jet
aeroplane with regard to the given FLIGHT LEVEL .
Given: Long range cruise, Cruise mass=53000 kg, FL
310

2288 33
(For this question use annex 033-9553A or Flight 36700 ft maximum 35500 ft 36200 ft
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.1) operating
Find the OPTIMUM ALTITUDE for the twin jet altitude
aeroplane.
Given: Cruise mass=50000 kg, .78 MACH
2289 33
 (For this question use annex 033-9552A or Flight 33800 ft 35300 ft maximum 34500 ft
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.1) operating
Find the OPTIMUM ALTITUDE for the twin jet altitude
aeroplane.
Given: Cruise mass=54000 kg, Long range cruise or .74
MACH
2290 33
(For this question use annex 033-11244A and 033- The fuel 18 000 kg 32 000 kg 8 000 kg
11244B) transport
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight operation is
using the following data: not
- Flight leg distance: 4 000 NM recommend
- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt ed in this
- Headwind component at this level: 50 kt case.
- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on
board): 170 000 kg
- Fuel price: 0.27 Euro/l at departure; 0.30 Euro/l at
destination
To maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry
extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary.
Using the appended annex, the optimum quantity of fuel
which should be carried in addition to the prescribed
quantity is:

2291 33
Find the distance to the POINT OF SAFE RETURN 1125 NM 1143 NM 1463 NM 1491 NM
(PSR).
Given: maximum useable fuel 15000 kg, minimum
reserve fuel 3500 kg, Outbound: TAS 425 kt, head wind
component 30 kt, fuel flow 2150 kg/h, Return: TAS 430
kt, tailwind component 20 kt, fuel flow 2150 kg/h

2292 33
(For this question use annex 033-9712A and 033-9712 OCK 115.3 BIG 115.1 BIG 115.1 EPM 316
B or Route Manual STAR 10-2 and Instrument approach MHz kHz MHz kHz
chart 11-4 ILS/DME Rwy 27R for London (Heathrow))
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London (Heathrow).
Name the identifier and frequency of the initial approach
fix (IAF) of the BIG 2A arrival route.

2293 33
An airway is marked 5000 2900a. The notation 5000 is maximum minimum base of the minimum
the : authorised holding airway enroute
altitude altitude (AGL) altitude
(MAA) (MHA) (MEA)
2294 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11027A or Route 1000 ft MSL FL140 FL60 2800 ft MSL
Manual chart E(LO)2)
The minimum enroute altitude (MEA) that can be
maintained continuously on airway G4 from JERSEY
JSY 112.2 (49°13'N 002°03'W) to LIZAD (49°35'N
004°20'W) is :
2295 33
An airway is marked FL 80 1500 a. This indicates that: the minimum the airway the airways 1500 ft MSL
enroute base is 1500 extends is the
altitude ft MSL. from 1500 ft minimum
(MEA) is FL MSL to FL radio
80. 80. reception
altitude
(MRA).
2296 33
 (For this question use annex 033- 11025A or Route 2900 ft MSL FL110 FL80 4100ft MSL
Manual chart E(LO)1)
The minimum enroute altitude that can be maintained
continuously on airway G1 from STRUMBLE STU 113.1
(52°00'N 005°02'W) to BRECON BCN 117.45 (51°43'N
003°16'W) is :
2297 33
((For this question use annex 033- 11024A or Route FL245 FL250 FL330 FL290
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
The minimum enroute altitude that can be maintained
continuously on airway UA34 from WALLASEY WAL
114.1 (53°23'N 003°08'W) to MIDHURST MID 114.0
(51°03'N 000°37'W) is :
2298 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11023A or Route FL250 FL200 FL210 FL260
Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)
The minimum enroute altitude available on airway
UR160 from NICE NIZ 112.4 (43°46'N 007°15'E) to
BASTIA BTA 116.2 (42°32'N 009°29'E) is:
2299 33
(For this question use annex 033-3316A or Route The The The The
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) minimum minimum minimum minimum
An aeroplane has to fly from Salzburg (48°00.2'N sector obstacle grid safe enroute
012°53.6'E) to Klagenfurt (46°37.5'N 014°33.8'E). altitude clearance altitude on altitude
Which statement is correct ? (MSA) is altitude this route is (MEA) is
13400 ft. (MOCA) on 13400 ft 13400 ft.
this route is above MSL.
10800 ft
above MSL.

2300 33
(For this question use annex 033-3317A or Route VOR/DME Only the VOR/DME ILS/DME
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) with DME with SBG will be 113.8 MHz
An aeroplane has to fly from Salzburg (48°00.2'N identification identification deleted in of Salzburg
012°53.6'E) to Klagenfurt (46°37.5'N 014°33.8'E). At SBG SBG can be the future airport can
Salzburg there is stated on the chart D 113.8 SBG. That frequency used, for and cannot be used for
means : 113.8 MHz which be used for navigation.
can be used. frequency navigation.
113.8 MHz
should be
tuned, VOR
is not
available.

2301 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11031A or Route FL320 FL310 FL290 FL300
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UG1 from
ERLANGEN ERL 114.9 (49°39°'N 011°09'E) to
FRANKFURT FFM 114.2 (50°03'N 008°38'E) is :
2302 33
(For this question use annex 033-9715A or Flight 23 min, 7.7 22 min, 6.7 24 min, 7.7 16.5 min,
Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1) GAL, 50 GAL, 45 GAL, 47 4.9 GAL,
NAM NAM NAM 34.5 NAM
Given: Take-off mass 3500 lbs, departure aerodrome
pressure altitude 2500 ft,
OAT +10°C,
First cruising level: FL 140, OAT -5°C
Find the time, fuel and still air distance to climb.
2303 33
During a flight at night a position has to be reported to 17286 kHz. 123.9 MHz. 5649 kHz. 11336 kHz.
ATC. The aeroplane is at a distance of 750 NM from the
groundstation and at flight level 350. The frequency to
be used is:
2304 33
 (For this question use annex 033-9719A, 422 kHz 118.80 MHz 112.50 MHz 118.60 MHz
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS
chart ED-6)
An aeroplane is flying VFR and approaching position
TANGO VORTAC (48°37'N, 009°16'E) at FL 055 and
magnetic course 090°, distance from VORTAC TANGO
20 NM.
Name the frequency of the TANGO VORTAC.

2305 33
(For this question use annex 033-9722A, Magnetic Magnetic Magnetic Magnetic
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 course 282°, course 102°, course 078°, course 102°,
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS distance 56 distance 82 distance 82 distance 56
chart ED-6) NM NM NM NM
Flying from SAULGAU airport (48°02'N, 009°31'E) to
ALTENSTADT airport (47°50'N, 010°53'E). Find
magnetic course and the distance.
2306 33
(For this question use annex 033-9723A, Magnetic Magnetic Magnetic Magnetic
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 course 287°, course 287°, course 252°, course 108°,
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS distance 60 distance 41 distance 41 distance 60
chart ED-6) NM NM NM NM
Flying from ERBACH airport (48°21'N, 009°55'E) to
POLTRINGEN airport (48°33'N, 008°57'E). Find
magnetic course and the distance.
2307 33
(For this question use annex 033-9724A, Magnetic Magnetic Magnetic Magnetic
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 course 093°, course 267°, course 086°, course 086°,
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS distance 41 distance 22 distance 32 distance 22
chart ED-6) NM NM NM NM
Flying from Position SIGMARINGEN (48°05'N,
009°13'E) to BIBERACH airport (48°07'N, 009°46'E).
Find magnetic course and the distance.
2308 33
(For this question use annex 033-9726A, 112.250 126.125 kHz 126.125 135.775
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 MHZ MHz MHz
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS
chart ED-6)
Give the frequency of STUTTGART ATIS.
2309 33
VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas 1000 ft 2000 ft 500 ft above the heighest
of cities at a height less than above the above the the heighest obstacle.
heighest heighest obstacle.
obstacle obstacle
within a within a
radius of radius of
600 m from 600 ft from
the aircraft. the aircraft.
2310 33
An appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance FL90 FL95 FL105 FL100
with semi-circular height rules on a course of 180° (M)
2311 33 is:
 (For this question use annex 033-11243A and 033- 22 000 kg 15 000 kg 8 000 kg The fuel
11243B) transport
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight operation is
using the following data: not
- Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM recommend
- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt ed in this
- Headwind component at this level: - 55 kt case.
- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on
board): 180 000 kg
- Fuel price: 0.30 Euro/l at departure; 0.27 Euro/l at
destination
To maximize savings, the commander decides to carry
extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary.
Using the appended annex, the optimum quantity of fuel
which should be carried in addition to the prescribed
quantity is:

2312 33
(For this question use annex 033-11241A) 30 440 kg 34 430 kg 32 480 kg 28 720 kg
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight
using the following data:
- Flight level FL 370 at "Long Range" (LR) cruise regime
- Mass at brake release: 212 800 kg
- Flight leg ground distance: 2 500 NM
- Temperatures: ISA
- CG: 37%
- Headwind component: 30 kt
- "Total anti-ice" set on "ON" for the entire flight
- No requested climb and descent correction of the fuel
consumption
The fuel consumption (from take-off to landing) is:

2313 33
(For this question use annex 033-11240A and 033- 0.29 $/l 0.30 $/l 0.24 $/l 0.28 $/l
11240B)
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight
using the following data:
- Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM
- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt
- Headwind component at this level: 55 kt
- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on
board): 180 000 kg
- Fuel price: 0.27 $/l at destination
The commander may carry on board 8 000 kg more fuel
than that which is necessary.
For this fuel transport operation to be cost effective, the
maximum fuel price at departure must be:

2314 33
 (For this question use annex 033-11239A and 031- 0.27 $/l 0.26 $/l 0.28 $/l 0.33 $/l
11239B)
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight
using the following data:
- Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM
- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt
- Headwind component at this level: 55 kt
- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on
board): 180 000 kg
- Fuel price: 0.30 $/l at departure
The commander may carry a fuel quantity of 8 000 kg
in addition to that which is necessary.
For this fuel transport operation to be cost effective, the
maximum fuel price at arrival must be:

2315 33
(For this question use annex 033-11238A) 27 770 kg 20 900 kg 22 160 kg 29 440 kg
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight
using the following data:
- Flight level FL 370 at "Long Range" (LR) cruise regime
- (Prescribed) mass at brake release: 204 500 kg
- Flight leg ground distance: 2 000 NM
- Temperatures: ISA
- Headwind component: 70 kt
- "Total anti-ice" set on "ON" for the entire flight
- no requested climb and descent correction of the fuel
consumption
The fuel required from take-off to landing is:

2316 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11042A or Route 7000ft and 9000ft and 7000 ft and 9000ft and
Manual STAR chart for LONDON HEATHROW (10-2D)) 250kt 250kt 220kt 220kt
The minimum holding altitude (MHA) and maximum
holding speed (IAS) at MHA at OCKHAM OCK 115.3
are:

2317 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11041A or Route KEMPTEN KEMPTEN KEMPTEN KEMPTEN
Manual SID chart for MUNICH(10-3C,10-3D)) FIVE THREE THREE THREE
Which is the correct departure via KEMPTEN from SIERRA ECHO QUEBEC NOVEMBER
runway 26L ?

2318 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11029A or Route FL100 FL60 1000ft 2500 ft
Manual chart E(LO)5)
The minimum enroute altitude that can be maintained
continuously on airway B65/H65 from DOXON (55°27'N
018°10'E) to RONNE ROE 112.0 (55°04'N 014°46'E) is :

2319 33
An appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance FL300 FL310 FL320 FL290
with semi-circular height rules on a magnetic course of
2320 33 200° is:
(For this question use annex 033- 11030A or Route FL230 FL250 FL260 FL240
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UR1 from
ORTAC (50°00'N 002°00'W) to MIDHURST MID 114.0
(51°03'N 000°37'W) is:
2321 33
 (For this question use annex 033- 11037A or Route FL40 FL60 FL70 FL50
Manual chart E(LO)6)
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway R10 from
MONTMEDY MMD 109.4 (49°24'N 005°08'E) to
CHATILLON CTL 117.6 (49°08'N 003°35'E) is :
2322 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11036A or Route FL80 FL40 FL50 FL70
Manual chart E(LO)6)
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway W37 from
CHEB OKG 115.7 (50°04'N 012°24'E) to RODING RDG
114.7 (49°02'N 012°32'E) is :
2323 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11035A or Route FL50 FL170 FL80 FL60
Manual chart E(LO)2)
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway B3 from
CHATILLON CTL 117.6 (49°08'N 003°35'E) to
CAMBRAI CMB 112.6 (50°14'N 003°09'E) is :
2324 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11034A or Route FL270 FL310 FL290 FL300
Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UR24 from
NANTES NTS 117.2 (47°09'N 001°37'W) to CAEN CAN
115.4 (49°10'N 000°27'W) is:
2325 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11033A or Route FL300 FL310 FL290 FL280
Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UG5 from
MENDE-NASBINALS MEN 115.3 (44°36'N 003°10'E) to
GAILLAC GAI 115.8 (43°57'N 001°50'E) is :

2326 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11032A or Route FL60 FL80 FL70 FL50
Manual chart E(LO)5)
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway G9 from
SUBI SUI 116.7 (52°23'N 014°35'E) to CZEMPIN CZE
114.5 (52°08'N 016°44'E) is:
2327 33
(For this question use annex 033-12313A or Flight 2900 kg 2650 kg 2800 kg 2550 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6)
Given : Distance to Alternate : 400 NM
Landing mass at Alternate : 50 000kg
Headwind component : 25 kt
The alternate fuel required is :
2328 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11040A or Route TRA R247 WIL R018 HOC R067 BLM R111 to
Manual STAR charts for ZURICH (10-2,10-2A,10-2B)) outbound to outbound to via GOLKE GOLKE int
Aeroplane arriving via route BLM 2Z only, should follow EKRON int EKRON int to EKRON then TRA R-
the following route to EKRON int: int 247 inbound
to EKRON
int
2329 33
(For this question use annex 033-12359A or Flight 14500ft 20000ft 26000ft 16000ft
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.3)
Given:
Diversion distance 720NM
Tail wind component 25kt
Mass at point of diversion 55000kg
Temperature ISA
Diversion fuel available 4250kg
What is the minimum pressure altitude at which the
above conditions may be met ?

2330 33
 Find the time to the Point of Safe Return (PSR). 2 h 43 min 2 h 51 min 3 h 43 min 2 h 59 min
Given: Maximum useable fuel 15000 kg, Minimum
reserve fuel 3500 kg, TAS out 425 kt, Head wind
component out 30 kt, TAS return 430 kt, Tailwind
component return 20 kt, Average fuel flow 2150 kg/h

2331 33
(For this question use annex 033-9571A or Flight 1100 kg 1000 kg 1093 kg 1107 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)
Find: Final fuel consumption for this leg
Given: Long range cruise, Temperature -63°C, FL 330,
Initial gross mass enroute 54100 kg, Leg flight time 29
min
2332 33
(For this question use annex 033-9572A or Flight 345 NAM; 345 NAM; 345 NAM; 349 NAM;
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1) 2000 kg 2006 kg 1994 kg 2000 kg
Find: Air distance in Nautical Air Miles (NAM) for this leg
and fuel consumption
Given: Flight time from top of climb at FL 280 to the
enroute point is 48 minutes. Cruise procedure is long
range cruise. Temperature is ISA -5°C. The take-off
mass is 56000 kg and climb fuel 1100 kg.
2333 33
(For this question use annex 033-9573A or Flight 11 min 15 min 14 min 13 min
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)
Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg, Initial FL 280,
average temperature during climb ISA -10°C, average
head wind component 18 kt
Find: Climb time for enroute climb 280/.74
2334 33
(For this question use annex 033-9574A or Flight 71 NAM, 67 62 NAM, 59 59 NAM, 62 62 NAM, 71
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1) NM NM NM NM
Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg, Temperature ISA
-10°C, Headwind component 16 kt, Initial FL 280
Find: Still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (NM)
for the enroute climb 280/.74

2335 33
(For this question use annex 033-9575A or Flight 1040 kg 1138 kg 1238 kg 1387 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)
Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg, Temperature ISA
-10°C, Average headwind component 16 kt, Initial FL
280
Find: Climb fuel for enroute climb 280/.74
2336 33
On a given path, it is possible to chose between four FL270 FL290 FL330 FL370
flight levels (FL), each associated with a mandatory
flight Mach Number (M). The flight conditions, static air
temperature (SAT) and headwind component (HWC)
are given below:

FL 370 - M = 0.80 Ts = -60°C HWC = -15 kt

FL 330 - M = 0.78 Ts = -60°C HWC= - 5 kt
FL 290 - M = 0.80 Ts = -55°C HWC = -15 kt
FL 270 - M = 0.76 Ts = -43°C HWC = 0

The flight level allowing the highest ground speed is:

2337 33
 (For this question use annex 033-12360A or Flight (a) 4800kg (a) 3900kg (a) 6200kg (a) 4400kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.3) (b) 2h 03min (b) 1h 45min (b) 2h 10min (b) 1h 35min
Given:
Diversion distance 650 NM
Diversion pressure altitude 16 000 ft
Mass at point of diversion 57 000 kg
Head wind component 20 kt
Temperature ISA + 15°C
The diversion (a) fuel required and (b) time, are
approximately :

2338 33
(For this question use annex 033-9562A or Flight 2350 kg 2050 kg 2150 kg 2250 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)

The aeroplane gross mass at top of climb is 61500 kg.

The distance to be flown is 385 NM at FL 350 and OAT
-54.3 °C. The wind component is 40 kt tailwind.Using
long range cruise procedure what fuel is required?

2339 33
(For this question use annex 033-12358A or Flight (a) 760 NM (a) 1130 NM (a) 860 NM (a) 1000 NM
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.3) (b) 4h 30 (b) 3h 30 (b) 3h 20 (b) 3h 40
Given: min min min min
Diversion fuel available 8500kg
Diversion cruise altitude 10000ft
Mass at point of diversion 62500kg
Head wind component 50kt
Temperature ISA -5°C
The (a) maximum diversion distance, and
(b) elapsed time alternate, are approximately :

2340 33
(For this question use annex 033-12356A or Route 353° (G) 177° (G) 194° (G) 172° (G)
Manual chart 5 AT(HI))
The initial great circle course from position A (80°00'N
170°00'E) to position B (75°00'N 011°E) is 177° (G). The
final grid course at position B will be :

2341 33
(For this question use annex 033-12355A or Route 080° 096° 066° 106°
Manual chart 5 AT(HI))
The initial great circle true course from Keflavik
(64°00'N 022°36' W) to Vigra (62°33'N 006°02'E)
measures 084°. On a polar enroute chart where the grid
is aligned with the 000° meridian the initial grid course
will be :
2342 33
(For this question use annex 033-12354A or Route a) 281° (a) 262° a) 281° a) 244°
Manual chart NAP) (b) 1877 NM (b) 1720 NM (b) 2730 NM (b) 1520 NM
On a direct great circle course from Shannon (52°43' N
008°53'W) to Gander (48°54'N054°32'W), the
(a) average true course, and
(b) distance, are :

2343 33
(For this question use annex 033-12353A or Route 350 344 353 347
Manual chart 5 AT(HI))
On airway PTS P from Vigra (62°334N 006°02'E), the
initial great circle grid course is :
2344 33
 (For this question use annex 033-12352A or Flight (a) 13600kg (a) 12000kg (a) 14200kg (a) 16200kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) (b) 6 hr 30 (b) 5 hr 15 (b) 5 hr 30 (b) 5 hr 45
For a flight of 2400 ground nautical miles the following min min min min
apply :
Tail wind component 25 kt
Temperature ISA -10°C
Cruise altitude 31000ft
Landing mass 52000kg
The (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are :

2345 33
(For this question use annex 033-12351A or Flight (a) 14600kg (a) 15000kg (a) 14000kg (a) 15800kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) (b) 5hr 45 (b) 6hr 00 (b) 5hr 35 (b)6hr 20
For a flight of 2400 ground nautical miles the following min min min min
apply :
Tail wind 25kt
Temperature ISA - 10°C
Brake release mass 66000kg
The (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are :
2346 33
(For this question use annex 033-9576A or Route Direct route, D, 44 NM UG 21, 69 UG 21, 26
Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition) 69 NM NM NM
Given: Leg Moulins(N46 24.4 E003 38.0)/Dijon(N47
16.3 E005 05.9).
Find: Route designator and total distance
2347 33
(For this question use annex 033-12368A or Route 099° 118° 119° 109°
Manual chart NAP)
The average magnetic course from C (62°N020°W) to B
(58°N004°E) is
2348 33
(For this question use annex 033-12377A or Route 775 760 725 700
Manual chart NAP)
The distance (NM) from C (62°N020°W) to B
(58°N004°E) is
2349 33
(For this question use annex 033-12376A or Route 271° 275° 267° 246°
Manual chart NAP)
The initial true course from A (64°N006°E) to C
(62°N020°W) is
2350 33
(For this question use annex 033-12375A or Route 271° 262° 275° 267°
Manual chart NAP)
The initial magnetic course from A (64°N006°E) to C
(62°N020°W) is
2351 33
(For this question use annex 033-12374A or Route 259° 247° 271° 079°
Manual chart NAP)
The average true course from A (64°N006°E) to C
(62°N020°W) is
2352 33
(For this question use annex 033-12373A or Route 259° 247° 279° 271°
Manual chart NAP)
The average magnetic course from A (64°N006°E) to C
(62°N020°W) is
2353 33
(For this question use annex 033-12372A or Route 1440 720 690 1590
Manual chart NAP)
The distance (NM) from A (64°N006°E) to C
(62°N020°W) is
2354 33
(For this question use annex 033-12371A or Route 116° 080° 278° 098°
Manual chart NAP)
The initial true course from C (62°N020°W) to B
(58°N004°E) is
2355 33
 (For this question use annex 033-9564A or Flight 26 min, 26 min, 20 min, 25 min,
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1) 1975 kg, 2050 kg, 1750 kg, 117 1875 kg,
Find: Time, Fuel, Still Air Distance and TAS for an 157 Nautical 157 Nautical Nautical Air 148 Nautical
enroute climb 280/.74 to FL 350. Air Miles Air Miles Miles Air Miles
Given: Brake release mass 64000 kg, ISA +10°C, (NAM), 399 (NAM), 399 (NAM), 288 (NAM), 391
airport elevation 3000 ft kt kt kt kt

2356 33
(For this question use annex 033-12369A or Route 119° 099° 120° 109°
Manual chart NAP)
The average true course from C (62°N020°W) to B
(58°N004°E) is
2357 33
Find the distance from waypoint 3 (WP 3) to the critical 342 NM 375 NM 408 NM 403 NM
point.
Given: distance from WP 3 to WP 4 = 750 NM, TAS out
430 kt, TAS return 425 kt, Tailwind component out 30 kt,
head wind component return 40 kt
2358 33
(For this question use annex 033-12367A or Flight 140kg 150kg 290kg 278kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4)
A descent is planned at .74/250KIAS from 35000ft to
5000ft. How much fuel will be consumed during this
descent?
2359 33
(For this question use annex 033-12366A or Flight 735 NM 794 NM 810 NM 875 NM
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.2)
An aircraft on an extended range operation is required
never to be more than 120 minutes from an alternate,
based on 1 engine inoperative LRC conditions in ISA.
Using the above table and a given mass of 40000 kg at
the most critical point, the maximum air distance to the
relevant alternate is :

2360 33
(For this question use annex 033-12365A or Flight 584 NM 563 NM 603 NM 608 NM
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.2)
Using the above table, in ISA conditions and at a speed
of M.70/280KIAS, in an elapsed time of 90 minutes an
aircraft with mass at point of diversion 48000 kg could
divert a distance of :
2361 33
(For this question use annex 033-12364A or Flight LRC M/KIAS . M/KIAS . M/KIAS .
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.2) 74/330 74/290 70/280
For the purpose of planning an extended range flight it
is required that with a start of diversion mass of
55000kg a diversion of 600 nautical miles should be
achieved in 90 minutes. Using the above table, the only
listed cruise technique to meet that requirement is :

2362 33
(For this question use annex 033-12361A or Flight 18000ft 22000ft 20000ft 26000ft
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.3)
Given:
Distance to alternate 950 NM
Head wind component 20 kt
Mass at point of diversion 50000kg
Diversion fuel available 5800kg
The minimum pressure altitude at which the above
conditions may be met is :

2363 33
The still air distance in the climb is 189 Nautical Air 174 NM 203 NM 188 NM 193 NM
Miles (NAM) and time 30 minutes. What ground
2364 33 distance would be covered in a 30 kt head wind?
 (For this question use annex 033-12348A or Flight 13800kg 13500kg 13000kg 13200kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5)
The following apply:
Temperature ISA +15°C
Brake release mass 62000kg
Trip time 5hr 20 min
What is the trip fuel ?
2365 33
(For this question use annex 033-12370A or Route 098° 113° 116° 080°
Manual chart NAP)
The initial magnetic course from C (62°N020°W) to B
(58°N004°E) is
2366 33
(For this question use annex 033-12320A ) 5 to 7 oktas 3 to 4 oktas 5 to 7 oktas 3 to 4 oktas
Which best describes the significant cloud forecast for CU and AC CU and AC CU and AC CU and AC
the area east of Tunis (36°N010°E) ? base below base below base FL100 base FL100
FL100 tops FL100 tops tops FL180 tops FL160
FL180 FL180
2367 33
(For this question use annex 033-12350A or Flight 3500 NM 3250 NM 3740 NM 3640 NM
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5)
The following apply :
Tail wind component 10kt
Temperature ISA +10°C
Brake release mass 63000kg
Trip fuel available 20000kg
What is the maximum possible trip distance ?
2368 33
(For this question use annex 033-12328A ) 270 310 360 230
Over LONDON (51°N000°E/W), the lowest FL listed
2369 33 which is unaffected by CAT is:
(For this question use annex 033-12327A ) 250/85 180/105 190/95 280/110
The maximum wind velocity (°/kt) immediately north of
2370 33 TUNIS (36°N010°E) is
(For this question use annex 033-12326A ) light nil severe moderate
Which describes the maximum intensity of turbulence, if
any, forecast for FL260 over TOULOUSE (44°N001°E) ?
2371 33
(For this question use annex 033-12325A ) broken well isolated CB 5 to 7 oktas
Which best describes the significant cloud forecast over AC/CU base separated embedded CU and AC
TOULOUSE (44°N001°E) ? below FL100 CB base in layer base below
tops FL150, FL100 tops cloud, FL100 tops
embedded to FL 270 surface to to FL270
isolated CB FL270
base below
FL100 tops
FL270

2372 33
(For this question use annex 033-12324A ) 360 350 300 270
In the vicinity of SHANNON (52° N009°W) the
2373 33 tropopause is at about FL
(For this question use annex 033-12323A ) cold front warm front stationary cold front
The surface system over VIENNA (48°N016°E) is a moving east moving occlued front moving west
2374 33 north
(For this question use annex 033-12330A ) 27 9 18 20
The forecast period covered by the PARIS/CHARLES-
2375 33 DE-GAULLE TAFs totals (hours)
(For this question use annex.033-12321A ) moderate severe light nil
Which best describes the maximum intensity of icing, if
any, at FL160 in the vicinity of BERLIN (53° N013°E) ?
2376 33
 (For this question use annex 033-12331A ) 3 to 4 at 3 to 4 at 800 1 to 2 at 1 to 4 at
The lowest cloud conditions (oktas/ft) at 2000 3000 3000
2377 33 BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1330 UTC were
(For this question use annex 033-12319A) tail wind 55 tail wind 40 tail wind 70 headwind 55
The approximate mean wind component (kt) along true kt kt kt kt
2378 33 course 180° from 50°N to 40°N at 005° W is
(For this question use annex 033-12318A) 320/60 115/60 300/60 300/70
2379 33 The W/V (°/kt) at 60° N015° W is
(For this question use annex 033-12317A ) +10 -10 -55 +2
What is the temperature deviation (°C) from ISA over
2380 33 50° N 010°E ?
(For this question use annex 033-12316A ) 155/40 310/40 334/40 135/40
2381 33 The W/V (°/kt) at 40°N 020°W is
(For this question use annex 033-12315A) -48 -52 -54 -50
What mean temperature (°C) is likely on a true course
2382 33 of 270° from 025° E to 010°E at 45°N ?
(For this question use annex 033-12314A ) 100/75 290/75 310/85 310/75
2383 33 The W/V (°/kt) at 50°N015°W is:
(For this question use annex 033-9721A, MEMMINGE MÜNCHEN MÜNCHEN FRANKFUR
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 N INFORMATI INFORMATI T
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS INFORMATI ON 126.95 ON 120.65 INFORMATI
chart ED-6) ON 122.1 MHz MHz ON 128.95
Give the name and frequency of the Flight Information MHz MHz
Service for an aeroplane in position (47°59'N,
010°14'E).
2384 33
(For this question use annex 033-12322A ) moderate or moderate light nil
Which describes the intensity of icing, if any, at FL 150 severe
2385 33 in the vicinity of TOULOUSE (44° N 01°E) ?
(For this question use annex 033-12339A or Flight (a) 17600 kg (a) 16200 kg (a) 17000 kg (a) 20000 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C)
For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following (b) 6 hr 50 (b) 6 hr 20 (b) 6 hr 10 (b) 7hr 00
apply : min min min min
Head wind component 15 kt
Temperature ISA + 15°C
Cruise altitude 35000 ft
Landing mass 50000 kg
The (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are :

2386 33
An aircraft is flying at MACH 0.84 at FL 330. The static 0.80 0.78 0.76 0.72
air temperature is -48°C and the headwind component
52 Kt. At 1338 UTC the controller requests the pilot to
cross the meridian of 030W at 1500 UTC. Given the
distance to go is 570 NM, the reduced MACH No.
should be:
2387 33
(For this question use annex 033-12347A or Flight (a) 21800 kg (a) 19000 kg (a) 18100 kg (a) 15800 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) (b) 9hr 25 (b) 7hr (b) 7hr 20 (b) 6hr 00
For a flight of 3500 ground nautical miles, the following min 45min min min
apply :
Tail wind component 50 kt
Temperature ISA +10°C
Brake release mass 65000kg
The (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are :
2388 33
 (For the question use annex 033-12346A or Flight (a) 16000kg (a) 17100kg (a) 18000kg (a) 20000kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) (b) 6hr 25 (b) 6hr 07 (b)5hr 50 (b) 6hr 40
For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following min min min min
apply :
Tail wind component 45kt
Temperature ISA - 10°C
Cruise altitude 29000ft
Landing mass 55000kg
The (a) trip fuel (b) trip time respectively are :

2389 33
(For this question use annex 033-12345A or Flight -10% + 7% +3% -4%
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5)
Given a trip time of about 9 hours, within the limits of the
data given, a temperature decrease of 30°C will affect
the trip time by approximately :
2390 33
(For this question use annex 033-12344A or Flight +5.3% +2.3% -3.6% +7.6%
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C)
For a flight of 2000 ground nautical miles, cruising at
30000 ft, within the limits of the data given, a headwind
component of 25 kt will affect the trip time by
approximately :
2391 33
(For this question use annex 033-12343A or Flight -7% -5% +5% +8%
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C)
Within the limits of the data given, a mean temperature
increase of 30°C will affect the trip time by
approximately :
2392 33
(For this question use annex.033-12342A or Flight 2540 NM 2740 NM 3100 NM 3480 NM
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5)
Given the following :
Head wind component 50 kt
Temperature ISA + 10°C
Brake release mass 65000kg
Trip fuel available 18000kg
What is the maximum possible trip distance ?
2393 33
(For this question use annex 033-12329A ) 5 to 7 at 800 3 to 4 at 400 5 to 7 at 400 3 to 4 at 800
What lowest cloud conditions (oktas/ft) are forecast for
JOHANNESBURG/JAN SMUTS at 0300 UTC?
2394 33
(For this question use annex 033-12340A or Flight (a) 17000 kg (a) 15800 kg (a) 16200 kg (a) 18400 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) (b) 6hr 45 (b) 6hr 15 (b) 6hr 20 (b) 7hr 00
For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following min min min min
apply :
Head wind component 20 kt
Temperature ISA + 15°C
Brake release mass 64700 kg
The (a) trip fuel, and (b) trip time respectively are :
2395 33
(For this question use annex 033-12349A or Flight 35 kt 15kt 70kt 0
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C)
For a flight of 2400 ground nautical miles the following
apply :
Temperature ISA -10°C
Cruise altitude 29000ft
Landing mass 45000kg
Trip fuel available 16000kg
What is the maximum headwind component which may
be accepted ?

2396 33
 (For this question use annex 033-12338A ) CAVOK mist and/or patches of rain
Which best describes the weather, if any, forecast for fog fog associated
JOHANNESBURG/JAN SMUTS at 0400 UTC? with
thunderstor
ms
2397 33
(For this question use annex 033-12337A ) 2000m 6000m 10km 8000m
What minimum visibility is forecast for
2398 33 PARIS/CHARLES-DE-GAULLE at 2100 UTC ?
(For this question use annex 033-12336A ) 10 5 30 25
What maximum surface windspeed (kt) is forecast for
2399 33 BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1600 UTC ?
(For this question use annex 033-12335A ) nil light rain rain showers heavy rain
Which is the heaviest type of precipitation, if any, associated
forecast for BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1000 UTC ? with
thunderstor
ms
2400 33
(For this question use annex 033-12334A ) 1800 1300 0800 nil
What is the earliest time (UTC), if any, that
thunderstorms are forecast for TUNIS/CARTHAGE ?
2401 33
(For this question use annex 033-12333A ) fog nil light rain frequent rain
Which best describes the weather, if any, at associated showers
LYON/SATOLAS at 1330 UTC ? with
thunderstor
ms
2402 33
(For this question use annex 033-12332A) 270/04 300/05 270/08 180/12
The surface wind velocity (°/kt) at PARIS/CHARLES-DE-
2403 33 GAULLE at 1330 UTC was
(For this question use annex 033-12341A or Flight 22000 ft 14000 ft 10000 ft 17000 ft
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C)
For a flight of 1900 ground nautical miles the following
apply :
Head wind component 10 kt
Temperature ISA -5°C
Trip fuel available 15000 kg
Landing mass 50000kg
What is the minimum cruise level (pressure altitude)
which may be planned ?

2404 33
The purpose of the decision point procedure is ? To reduce To increase To increase To reduce
the landing the safety of the amount the minimum
weight and the flight. of extra fuel. required fuel
thus reduce and
the therefore be
structural able to
stress on the increase the
aircraft. traffic load.

2405 33
(For this question use annex 033-12310A or Flight 1090 kg 1010 kg 1310 kg 2180 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)
- HOLDING PLANNING
The fuel required for 30 minutes holding, in a racetrack
pattern, at PA 1500 ft, mean gross mass 45 000 kg, is :

2406 33
 (For this question use annex 033-11270A) 471 NM 518 NM 539 NM 493 NM
A turbojet aeroplane flies using the following data:
. flight level: FL 330, flight regime: "Long Range" (LR),
mass: 156 500 kg
. tailwind component at this level: 40 kt
With a remaining flight time of 1 h 10 min the ground
distance that can be covered by the aeroplane at
cruising speed is:

2407 33
(For this question use annex 033-11271A) 31 840 kg 31 340 kg 30 200 kg 39 750 kg
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight
using the following data:
. Take-off mass: 210 500 kg
. Flight leg ground distance: 2 500 NM
. Flight level FL 330; "Long Range" flight regime
. Tailwind component at this level: 70 kt
. Total anti-ice set on "ON"
. Fixed taxi fuel: 500 kg; final reserve: 2 400 kg
. Ignore alternate fuel.
The effects of climb and descent are not corrected for
consumption.
The quantity of fuel that must be loaded at the parking
area is:

2408 33
(For this question use annex 033-11272A) 23 300 kg 20 500 kg 23 000 kg 22 500 kg
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight
using the following data:
. Take-off mass: 168 500 kg
. Flight leg ground distance: 2 000 NM
. Flight level FL 370; "Long Range" flight regime
. Tailwind component at this level: 30 kt
. Total anti-ice set on "ON"
. Fixed taxi fuel: 500 kg; final reserve: 2 000 kg
. Ignore alternate fuel.
The effects of climb and descent are not corrected for
consumption.
The prescribed quantity of trip fuel for the flight leg is:

2409 33
According to the chart the minimum obstruction 8200 ft. 8800 ft. 8500 ft. 12800 ft.
clearance altitude (MOCA) is 8500 ft. The
meteorological data gives an outside air temperature of
-20°C at FL 85. The QNH, given by a met. station at an
elevation of 4000ft, is 1003 hPa.
What is the minimum pressure altitude which should be
flown according to the given MOCA?

2410 33
An aeroplane has the following masses: 6 400 kg. 4 300 kg. 6 185 kg. 9 000 kg.
ESTLWT= 50 000 kg
Trip fuel= 4 300 kg
Contingency fuel= 215 kg
Alternate fuel (final reserve included)= 2 100kg
Taxi= 500 kg
Block fuel= 7 115 kg
Before departure the captain orders to make the block
fuel 9 000 kg.
The trip fuel in the operational flight plan should read:

2411 33
 The Trip Fuel for a jet aeroplane to fly from the 12 700 kg 10 000 kg 13 000 kg 13 050 kg
departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome is 5
350 kg. Fuel consumption in holding mode is 6 000
kg/h. The quantity of fuel which is needed to carry out
one go-around and land on the alternate airfield is 4 380
kg. The destination aerodrome has a single runway.

What is the minimum quantity of fuel which should be

on board at take-off?

2412 33
A public transport aeroplane with reciprocating 30 minutes 45 minutes 2 hours at 1 hour at
engines,is flying from PARlS to LYON. The final reserve at holding at holding cruise holding
corresponds to: speed speed consumption speed
2413 33
On an IFR navigation chart, in a 1° quadrant of the floor of the minimum the minimum the altitude
longitude and latitude, appears the following information the airway is safe altitude flight level is of the
"80". This means that within this quadrant: at 8 000 ft is 8 000 ft FL 80 highest
obstacle is 8
000 ft

2414 33
(For this question use annex 033-4623A or Flight 86 US 76 US 118 US 91 US
Planning Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.3) gallons. gallons. gallons. gallons.
A flight has to be made with a multi engine piston
aeroplane (MEP 1). For the fuel calculations take 5 US
gallons for the taxi, and an additional 13 minutes at
cruise condition to account for climb and descent.
Calculated time overhead to overhead is 2h37min.
Powersetting is 65%, 2500 RPM. Calculated reserve
fuel is 30% of the trip fuel. FL 120. Temperature 1°C.
Find the minimum block fuel.

2415 33
(For this question use annex 033-4622A or Flight 47 US 37 US 60 US 470 US
Planning Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.3) gallons. gallons. gallons. gallons.
A flight has to be made with a multi engine piston
aeroplane (MEP 1). For the fuel calculations take 5 US
gallons for the taxi, and an additional 13 minutes at
cruise condition to account for climb and descent.
Calculated time from overhead to overhead is 1h47min.
Powersetting is 45%, 2600 RPM. Calculated reserve
fuel is 30% of the trip fuel. FL 100. Temperature -5°C.
Find the minimum block fuel.

2416 33
Minimum planned take-off fuel is 160 kg (30% total Diversion to Diversion to Diversion to Diversion to
reserve fuel is included). Assume the groundspeed on a nearby a nearby a nearby a nearby
this trip is constant. When the aeroplane has done half alternate is alternate is alternate is alternate is
the distance the remaining fuel is 70 kg. Is diversion to a not necessary, necessary, not
nearby alternate necessary? necessary, unless the because the necessary,
because it is captain remaining because the
allowed to decides to fuel is not reserve fuel
calculate continue on sufficient. has not
without his own been used
reserve fuel. responsabilit completely.
y.

2417 33
 For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows: 33 kg trip 25 kg trip 33 kg trip 23 kg trip
fuel and no fuel and 8 kg fuel and 10 fuel and 10
Flight time: 2h42min reserve fuel. reserve fuel. kg reserve kg reserve
The reserve fuel, at any time, should not be less than fuel. fuel.
30% of the remaining trip fuel.
Taxi fuel: 9 kg
Block fuel: 136 kg
How much fuel should remain after 2 hours flight time?

2418 33
(For this question use annex 033-11262A) taxiing until take-off until taxi-out prior take-off until
Prior to an IFR flight, when filling in the ICAO flight plan, the IAF reaching the to take-off landing.
the time information which should be entered in box 16: (Initial IAF (Initial until taxiing
"Total estimated time" is the time elapsed from: Approach Approach completion
Fix) of the Fix) of the after
destination destination landing.
aerodrome. aerodrome.

2419 33
Following in-flight depressurisation, a turbine powered at least at least laid down by at least
aeroplane is forced to divert to an en-route alternate equivalent to equivalent to the operator, equivalent to
airfield. If actual flight conditions are as forecast, the 30 minutes the quantity with the 45 minutes
minimum quantity of fuel remaining on arrival at the flying time required to quantity flying time
airfield will be: fly to being
another specified in
aerodrome the
in the event operating
that weather manual
conditions
so require

2420 33
(For this question use annexes 033-12309A and 033- 1810 kg 1940 kg 2800 kg 2670 kg
12309B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2
and 4.5.3.4)

Given : Distance B - C : 350 NM

Cruise 300 KIAS at FL 210
Temperature : - 40°C
Tailwind component : 70 kt
Gross mass at B : 53 200 kg
The fuel required from B - C is :

2421 33
(For this question use annexes 033-12308A and 033- 4200 kg 3350 kg 3680 kg 4620 kg
12308B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2
and 4.5.3.4)
Given : Distance C - D : 540 NM
Cruise 300 KIAS at FL 210
Temperature Deviation from ISA : +20°C
Headwind component : 50 kt
Gross mass at C : 60 000 kg
The fuel required from C to D is :

2422 33
 (For this question use annexes 033-12307A and 033- 7050 kg 6150 kg 5850 kg 7300 kg
12307B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2
and 4.5.3.3)
Given : Distance B - C : 1200 NM
Cruise Mach 0.78 at FL300
Temperature Deviation from ISA : -14°C
Tailwind component : 40 kt
Gross mass at B : 50 200 kg
The fuel required from B - C is :

2423 33
(For this question use annexes 033-12306A and 033- 20 500 kg 20 800 kg 17 100 kg 16 800 kg
12306B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2
and 4.5.3.3)
Given : Distance B - C :
Cruise Mach 0.78 at FL300
Temperature : - 52°C
Headwind component : 50 kt
Gross mass at B : 64 500 kg
The fuel required from B - C is :

2424 33
(For this question use annex 033-12305A or Flight 1750 kg 1800 kg 1700 kg 1650 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)
Given : Brake release mass : 62 000 kg
Temperature : ISA + 15°C
The fuel required for a climb from Sea Level to FL330 is
:
2425 33
Flight planning chart for an aeroplane states, that the 128 NM 157 NM 228 NM 193 NM
time to reach the cruising level at a given gross mass is
36 minutes and the distance travelled is 157 NM (zero-
wind). What will be the distance travelled with an
average tailwind component of 60kt ?

2426 33
(For this question use annexes 033-12303A and 033- 3100 kg 4000 kg 3700 kg 3400 kg
12303B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2
and 4.5.3.1))
Given : Distance C - D : 680NM
Long Range Cruise at FL340
Temperature Deviation from ISA : 0° C
Headwind component : 60 kt
Gross mass at C : 44 700 kg
The fuel required from C - D is :

2427 33
(For this question use annex 033-9716A or Flight 547.5 NM 633 NM 844 NM 730 NM
Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)

Given: Aeroplane mass at start-up 3663 lbs, Aviation

gasoline (density 6 lbs/gal)-fuel load 74 gal, Take-off
altitude sea level, Headwind 40 kt, Cruising altitude
8000 ft, Power setting full throttle 2300 RPM 20°C lean
of peak EGT
Calculate the range.

2428 33
 (For this question use annex 033-11717A) FL 050 Either FL FL 180 FL 100
050 or FL
The planned flight is over a distance of 440 NM 100
Based on the wind charts at altitude the following
components are found;
FL50: -30kt; FL100: -50kt; FL180: -70kt
The Operations Manual in appendix details the aircraft's
performances

Which of the following flight levels (FL) gives the best

range performance:

2429 33
When an ATS flight plan has been submitted for a 45 minutes 60 minutes 90 minutes 30 minutes
controlled flight, the flight plan should be amended or or more or more or more or more
cancelled in the event of the off-block time being
delayed by :
2430 33
If CAS is 190 kts, Altitude 9000 ft. Temp. ISA - 10°C, 183 NM 167 NM 203 NM 147 NM
True Course (TC) 350°, W/V 320/40, distance from
departure to destination is 350 NM, endurance 3 hours
and actual time of departure is 1105 UTC. The distance
from departure to Point of Equal Time (PET) is :

2431 33
If CAS is 190 kts, Altitude 9000 ft. Temp. ISA - 10°C, 1213 UTC 1221 UTC 1233 UTC 1203 UTC
True Course (TC) 350°, W/V 320/40, distance from
departure to destination is 350 NM, endurance 3 hours,
and actual time of departure is 1105 UTC. The Point of
Equal Time (PET) is reached at :

2432 33
(For this question use annex 033-9728A, NDB TACAN VOR VOR/DME
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS
chart ED-6)
Which navigation aid is located in position 48°55'N,
009°20'E ?
2433 33
(For this question use annex 033-11261A) the time of estimated planned planned
Prior to an IFR flight, when filling in the ICAO flight plan, flight plan off-block take-off time. engine start
the time information which should be entered in box 13: filing. time. time.
"Time" is:
2434 33
(For this question use annex 033-12304A or Flight 1400 kg 1450 kg 1350 kg 1250 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)
Given : Brake release mass : 58 000 kg
Temperature : ISA + 15
The fuel required to climb from an aerodrome at
elevation 4000 ft to FL300 is :
2435 33
During an IFR flight TAS and time appear to deviate TAS 5 kt and TAS 10 kt TAS 5% and TAS 3% and
from the data in the flight plan. The minimum deviations, time 5 and time 2 time 3 time 3
that should be reported to ATC in order to conform to minutes. minutes. minutes. minutes.
PANS-RAC, are:
2436 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11004A or Route 046°/ 70 NM 094°/ 90 NM 067°/ 122 113°/ 142
Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition) NM NM
The magnetic course/distance from LIMOGES LMG
114.5 (45°49'N 001°02'E) to CLERMONT FERRAND
CMF 117.5 (45°47'N 003°11'E) on airway UG22 is:
2437 33
 (For this question use annex 033- 11005A or Route TACAN only, TACAN, TACAN, VORTAC,
Manual chart E(LO)1 ) channel 84, channel 84, channel 84, frequency
The radio navigation aid at TOPCLIFFE (54°12'N (frequency and a VOR and an NDB 113.7 MHz,
001°22'W) is a: 113.7 MHz) frequency frequency and an NDB
113.7 MHz 92 kHz only frequency
only 92 kHz
2438 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11006A or Route VOR only, DME only, TACAN only, VOR/TACAN
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) frequency channel frequency , frequency
The radio navigation aid serving STRASBOURG 115.6 MHz 115.6 115.6 MHz 115.6 MHz
(48°30'N 007°34'E) is a:
2439 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11007A or Route VOR, TACAN, TACAN, TACAN,
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) frequency channel channel 87, channel 87,
The radio navigation aid at ST DIZIER (48°38N 114.0 MHz, 114.0 and NDB frequency
004°53'E) is a: and TACAN frequency 114.0 MHz
channel 87 114.0 kHz
2440 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11008A or Route a VOR only, a VOR/DME, an NDB a TACAN,
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) frequency frequency only, frequency
The radio navigation aid at ZURICH (47°36'N 008°49'E) 115.0 MHz 115.0MHz frequency 115.0 MHz
is : 115.0 kHz
2441 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11009A or Route a TACAN, an NDB, a VOR, a VOR/DME,
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) on channel frequency frequency on channel
The radio navigation aid STAD (51°45'N 004°15'E) is: 386 386 kHz 386 MHz 386
2442 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11010A or Route VOR/DME VOR/DME, VOR, VOR,
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) only, frequency frequency frequency
The radio navigation aid at CHIOGGIA (45°04'N frequency 114.1 MHz, 114.1 MHz, 114.1 MHz,
012°17'E) is a: 114.1 MHz and NDB and TACAN and TACAN
frequency channel 408 frequency
408 kHz 408 MHz
2443 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11011A or Route VOR/DME VOR/DME VOR only, VOR,
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) and NDB, only, identifier identifier
The radio navigation aid on airway UG4 at LUXEUIL identifier LXI identifier LUL LUL,
(47°41'N 006°18'E) is a: LUL frequency
paired with
TACAN
identifier LXI

2444 33
(For this question use annex 033- 11012A or Route an NDB, an NDB, a TACAN, a fan
Manual chart E(LO)1) frequency frequency channel 420 marker,
The radio navigation aid at BELFAST CITY (54°37'N 420 kHz, 420 kHz, frequency
005°53'W) is : continuous NOT 420 kHz
operation continuous
operation
2445 33
Mark the correct statement: a destination the fuel the trip fuel the trip fuel
If a decision point procedure is applied for flight alternate is calculation is to the to the
planning, not required. based on a destination destination
contingency aerodrome aerodrome
fuel from is to be is to be
departure calculated calculated
aerodrome via the via the
to the decision suitable
decision point. enroute
point. alternate.

2446 33
 You have a flight plan IFR from Amsterdam to London. You will get It is not The route The filed
In the flight plan it is noted that you will deviate from the a separate allowed to according to deviation is
ATS route passing the FIR boundary clearance file such a the flight not
Amsterdam/London. The airway clearance reads: for the flight plan. plan is accepted.
Cleared to London via flight planned route. deviation. accepted.
Which of the following statements is correct?

2447 33
An aeroplane is on an IFR flight. The flight is to be Yes, the pilot No, you No, only Yes, but only
changed from IFR to VFR. Is it possible? in command have to ATC can with
must inform remain IFR order you to permission
ATC using in do this. from ATC.
the phrase accordance
"cancelling to the filed
my IFR flight plan.
flight".

2448 33
Which of the following statements regarding filing a A flying In case of Any flight A flight plan
flight plan is correct? college can flow control plan should should be
file repetitive the flight be filed at filed when a
flight plan for plan should least 10 national FIR
VFR flights. be filed at minutes boundary
least three before will be
hours in departure. crossed.
advance of
the time of
departure.

2449 33
For turbojet engine driven aeroplane, given: 80 500 kg 79 200 kg 77 800 kg 76 100 kg
Taxi fuel 600 kg
Fuel flow for cruise 10 000 kg/h
Fuel flow for holding 8 000 kg/h
Alternate fuel 10 200 kg
Planned flight time to destination 6h
Forecast visibility at destination 2000 m
The minimum ramp fuel required is:
2450 33
An aeroplane is flying from an airport to another. K0180 K0150 N0180 K0210

In cruise, the calibrated airspeed is I50 kt, true airspeed

180 kt, average groundspeed 210 kt, the speed box on
the filed flight plan shall be filled as follows:

2451 33
(For this question use annex 033-11260A and 033- 10 000 kg The fuel 5 000 kg 8 000 kg
11260B) transport
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight operation is
using the following data: not
- Flight leg air distance: 2 700 NM recommend
- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 470 kt ed in this
- Tailwind component at this level: 35 kt case
- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on
board): 195 000 kg
- Fuel price: 0.28 Euro/l at departure; 0.26 Euro/l at
destination
To maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry
extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary.
The optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in
addition to the prescribed quantity is:

2452 33
 (For this question use annex 033-11259A and 033- 4 000 kg 6 000 kg 10 000 kg The fuel
11259B) transport
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight operation is
using the following data: not
- Flight leg air distance: 2 700 NM recommend
- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 470 kt ed in this
- Tailwind component at this level: 35 kt case
- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on
board): 180 000 kg
- Fuel price: 0.28 Euro/l at departure; 0.26 Euro/l at
destination
To maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry
extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary.
The optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in
addition to the prescribed quantity is:

2453 33
If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the 10 45 30 15
destination aerodrome specified in the flight plan, he
must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination
aerodrome is informed within a certain number of
minutes of his planned ETA at destination. This number
of minutes is:
2454 33
(For this question use annex 033-11253A, 033-11253B, 172 300 kg 170 400 kg 171 300 kg 176 100 kg
and 033-11253C)
Knowing that:
. Mass at brake release: 210 000 kg
. Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach
. Flight leg distance: 3 000 NM
. Cruise level: optimum
. Air conditioning: standard
. Anti-icing: OFF
. Temperature: ISA
. CG: 37
Assuming zero wind, the planned landing mass at
destination will be:

2455 33
(For this question use annex 033-11254A, 033-11254B, 169 200 kg 170 200 kg 174 800 kg 171 200 kg
033-11254C and 033-11254D)
Knowing that:
. Mass at brake release: 190 000 kg
. Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach
. Flight leg distance: 1 500 NM
. Cruise level: optimum
. Air conditioning: standard
. Anti-icing: OFF
. Temperature: ISA
. CG: 37%
Assuming zero wind, the planned landing mass at
destination will be:

2456 33
 A "current flight plan" is a : flight plan flight plan in filed flight filed flight
with the the course plan with plan.
correct time of which amendment
of departure. radio s and
communicati clearance
on should be included.
practised
between
aeroplane
and ATC.

2457 33
(For this question use annex 033-11252A,033-11252B 394 minutes 389 minutes 400 minutes 383 minutes
and 033-11252C)
Knowing that:
. Mass at brake release: 210 000 kg
. Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach
. Air distance: 3 000 NM
. Cruise level: optimum
. Air conditioning: standard
. Anti-icing: OFF
. Temperature: ISA
. CG: 37%
Assuming zero wind, the planned flight time from take-
off to landing needed to complete this flight will be:

2458 33
How many hours in advance of departure time should a 0:30 hours. 0:10 hours. 3:00 hours. 1:00 hour.
flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas
subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)?
2459 33
(For this question use annex 033-3318A or Flight TAS 423 kt; TAS 431 kt; TAS 423 kt; TAS 431 kt;
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1) 936 NAM 227 NAM 227 NAM 1163 NAM
Given: long range cruise; outside air temperature (OAT)
-45 ° C in FL 350; mass at the beginning of the leg 40
000 kg; mass at the end of the leg 39 000 kg.
Find: true airspeed (TAS) at the end of the leg and the
distance (NAM).

2460 33
A repetitive flight plan (RPL) is filed for a scheduled The pilot-in- The RPL The airline's It is not
flight: Paris-Orly to Angouleme, Paris Orly as alternate. command must be "Operations possible to
Following heavy snow falls, Angouleme airport will be must advise cancelled for " plan another
closed at the expected time of arrival. The airline ATC of his that day and Department destination
decides before departure to plan a re-routing of that intention to a specific has to and the
flight to Limoges. divert to flight plan tansmit a fIight has to
Limoges at has to be change in be simply
least 15 filed. the RPL at cancelled
minutes the ATC that day
before the office, at (scheduled
planned time least half an flight and not
of arrival. hour before chartered).
the planned
time of
departure.

2461 33
 From the options given below select those flights which 3+4+5 2+4 1+5 1+2+3
require flight plan notification:

I - Any Public Transport flight.

2 - Any IFR flight
3 - Any flight which is to be carried out in regions which
are designated to ease the provision of the Alerting
Service or the operations of Search and Rescue.
4 - Any cross-border flights
5 - Any flight which involves overflying water

2462 33
An aeroplane flies at an airspeed of 380 kt. lt flies from A 2h 35min 3h 00min 2h 10min 2h 32min
to B and back to A. Distance AB = 480 NM. When going
from A to B, it experiences a headwind component = 60
kt. The wind remains constant.
The duration of the flight will be:

2463 33
During an IFR flight in a Beech Bonanza the fuel 44 minutes. 4 minutes. 12 minutes. 63 minutes.
indicators show that the remaining amount of fuel is 100
lbs after 38 minutes. The total amount of fuel at
departure was 160 lbs. For the alternate fuel, 30 lbs is
necessary. The planned fuel for taxi is 13 lbs. Final
reserve fuel is estimated at 50 lbs. If the fuel flow
remains the same, how many minutes can be flown to
the destination with the remaining fuel?

2464 33
When using decision point procedure, you reduce the reserve fuel holding fuel contingency contingency
from 10% by 30%. fuel by fuel by
down to 5%. adding adding
contingency contingency
only from only from
the burnoff the burnoff
between between the
decision decision
point and airport and
destination. destination.

2465 33
(For this question use annex 033-11253A, 033-11253B, 209 minutes 192 minutes 198 minutes 203 minutes
033-11253C and 033-11253D)
Knowing that:
. Mass at brake release: 190 000 kg
. Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach
. Flight leg distance: 1 500 NM
. Cruise level: optimum
. Air conditioning: standard
. Anti-icing: OFF
. Temperature: ISA
. CG: 37%
Assuming zero wind, the planned flight time from take-
off to landing needed to complete this flight will be:

2466 33
You are flying a constant compass heading of 252°. 242° 262° 280° 224°
Variation is 22°E, deviation is 3°W and your INS is
2467 33 showing a drift of 9° right. True track is ?
 (For this question use annex 033-9705A or Flight 10 min 17 min 8 min 19 min
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4 )
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin
jet aeroplane.
Given: Estimated Landing Mass 49700 kg, FL 280, W/V
280°/40 kt, Average True Course 320°, Procedure for
descent .74 M/250 KIAS
Determine the time from the top of descent to London
(elevation 80 ft).

2468 33
(For this question use annex 033-9706A or Flight 210 kg 320 kg 273 kg 263 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4 )
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin
jet aeroplane.
Given: Estimated Landing Mass 49700 kg, FL 280, W/V
280°/40 kt, Average True Course 320°, Procedure for
descent .74 M/250 KIAS
Determine the fuel consumption from the top of descent
to London (elevation 80 ft).

2469 33
(For this question use annexes 033-9707A, 033-9707B 60 NM 100 NM 55 NM 49 NM
or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition, Instrument
approach chart ILS DME Rwy 27R)
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London (Heathrow)
via initial approach fix (IAF) Biggin VOR .
Given: distance from top of descent (TOD) to Rwy 27R
is 76 NM
Determine the distance from ABB 116.6 to TOD.

2470 33
(For this question use annex 033-9708A or Flight 440 kt 427 kt 417 kt 430 kt
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.2)
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin
jet aeroplane.
Given: Gross mass 50000 kg, FL 280, ISA Deviation
-10°C, Cruise procedure Mach 0.74
Determine the TAS
2471 33
(For this question use annex 033-9709A or SID chart MC 349°, MC 169°, MC 349°, MC 169°,
Paris Charles de Gaulle 20-3 ) GS 414 kt, GS 414 kt, GS 414 kt, GS 450 kt,
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle to WCA -5° WCA +5° WCA +5° WCA +4°
London. SID is ABB 8A.
Assume Variation 3° W, TAS 430kts, W/V 280/40 and
distance to top of climb 50NM
Determine the magnetic course, ground speed and wind
correction angle from top of climb to ABB 116.6.

2472 33
(For this question use annexes 033-9710A, 033-9710B MC 319°, MC 141°, MC 321°, MC 141°,
and 033-9710C or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA- GS 396 kt, GS 396 kt, GS 396 kt, GS 396 kt,
Edition, STAR 10-2 and Instrument approach chart 11-4 WCA -3° WCA -3° WCA -3° WCA +3°
ILS DME Rwy 27R for London Heathrow )
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London (Heathrow).
Assume: STAR is BIG 2A, Variation 5° W, en-route TAS
430 kts, W/V 280/40, descent distance 76NM.
Determine the magnetic course, ground speed and wind
correction angle from ABB 116.6(N50 08.1 E001 51.3)
to top of descent.

2473 33
 The fuel burn of an aircraft turbine engine is 220 l/h with 176 l/h 235 l/h 206 l/h 220 l/h
a fuel density of 0,80. If the density is 0,75, the fuel burn
2474 33 will be:
In the appropriate box of a flight plan, for endurance, the required the total the total the required
one must indicate the time corresponding to: fuel for the usable fuel usable fuel fuel for the
flight plus on board on board flight
the alternate minus
and 45 reserve fuel
minutes

2475 33
The cruising speed to write in the appropriate box of a indicated air ground calibrated air true air
2476 33 flight plan is: speed speed speed speed
For a flight plan filed before the flight, the indicated time the the time at the time of the time
of departure is: estimated which the take-off. overhead
off-block flight plan is the first
time filed. reporting
point after
take-off.
2477 33
When calculating the fuel required to carry out a given 2-4 1-2-3 1-2-3-4 1-3
flight, one must take into account :

1 - the wind
2 - foreseeable airborne delays
3 - other weather forecasts
4 - any foreseeable conditions which may delay landing

The combination which provides the correct statement

is :

2478 33
For a flight to an off-shore platform, an alternate 1-2-3 1-2 1-3 2-3
aerodrome is compulsory, except if :

1 - flight duration does not exceed two hours

2 - during the period from two hours before to two hours
after the estimated landing time, the forecast conditions
of ceiling and visibility are not less than one and a half
times the applicable minima
3 - the platform is available and no other flight either
from or to the platform is expected between the
estimated time of departure and one half hour after the
estimated landing time

The combination which regroups all of the correct

statements is :

2479 33
(For this question use annex 033-9704A or Flight 87 NM 97 NM 65 NM 76 NM
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4 )
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin
jet aeroplane.
Given: Estimated Landing Mass 49700 kg, FL 280, W/V
280°/40 kt, Average True Course 320°, Procedure for
descent .74 M/250 KIAS
Determine the distance from the top of descent to
London (elevation 80 ft).

2480 33
 Given the following: X = D x GSo X = (D/2) x X = (D/2) + X=Dx
/ (GSo + GSo / (GSo GSr / (GSo GSr / (GSo
D = flight distance GSr) + GSr) + GSr) + GSr)
X = distance to Point of Equal Time
GSo = groundspeed out
GSr = groundspeed return

The correct formula to find distance to Point of Equal

Time is :

2481 33
To carry out a VFR flight to an off-shore platform, the that defined identical to at least that defined
minimum fuel quantity on board is: for VFR that defined equal to that for VFR
flights over for VFR defined for flights over
land flights over IFR flights land
increased by land increased by
10 % 5%
2482 33
On an ATC flight plan, the letter "Y" is used to indicate VFR IFR VFR IFR followed
that the flight is carried out under the following flight followed by by VFR
2483 33 rules. IFR
(For this question use annex 033-4738A or Flight 14 NAM. 18 NAM. 16 NAM. 18 NAM.
Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1) 18 NM. 15 NM. 18 NM. 13 NM.
Given:
FL 75
OAT: +5°C
During climb: average head wind component 20 kt
Take-off from MSL with the initial mass of 3 650 lbs.
Find:
Still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (NM) using
the graph "time, fuel, distance to climb".

2484 33
(For this question use annex 033-9739A, 5500 ft 6600 ft 5300 ft 6900 ft
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS
chart ED-6)
Flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to
IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E).Determine the
minimum altitude within a corridor 5NM left and 5 NM
right of the courseline in order to stay 1000 ft clear of
obstacles.

2485 33
(For this question use annex 033-9738A, 32 NM 46 NM 58 NM 36 NM
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS
chart ED-6)
Flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to
IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E) determine the
distance.
2486 33
(For this question use annex 033-9737A, 063° 257° 077° 243°
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS
chart ED-6)
Flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to
IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E) determine the
magnetic course.
2487 33
 (For this question use annex 033-9736A, 4200 ft 1500 ft 3900 ft 2900 ft
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS
chart ED-6)
Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to
FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N, 008°24.0'E).Determine
the minimum altitude within a corridor 5NM left and 5
NM right of the courseline in order to stay 1000 ft clear
of obstacles.

2488 33
(For this question use annex 033-9735A, 24 NM 46 NM 28 NM 24 km
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS
chart ED-6)
Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to
FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N, 008°24.0'E) determine
the distance.
2489 33
(For this question use annex 033-9734A, 356° 176° 004° 185°
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS
chart ED-6)
Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to
FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N, 008°24.0'E) determine
the magnetic course.
2490 33
(For this question use annex 033-9733A or Flight 208 lbs 270 lbs 250 lbs 265 lbs
Planning Manual SEP1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3)
A flight has to be made with the single engine sample
aeroplane. For the fuel calculation allow 10 lbs fuel for
start up and taxi, 3 minutes and 1 gallon of additional
fuel to allow for the climb, 10 minutes and no fuel
correction for the descent.
Planned flight time (overhead to overhead) is 02 hours
and 37 minutes.
Reserve fuel 30% of the trip fuel.
Power setting is 23 in.HG (or full throttle), 2300 RPM,
20°C lean.
Flight level is 50 and the OAT -5°C.
The minimum block fuel is:

2491 33
(For this question use annex 033-9732A or Flight 283 lbs 268 lbs 252 lbs 215 lbs
Planning Manual SEP1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.2)
A flight has to be made with the single engine sample
aeroplane. For the fuel calculation allow 10 lbs fuel for
start up and taxi, 3 minutes and 1 gallon of additional
fuel to allow for the climb, 10 minutes and no fuel
correction for the descent.
Planned flight time (overhead to overhead) is 03 hours
and 12 minutes.
Reserve fuel 30% of the trip fuel.
Power setting is 25 in.HG (or full throttle), 2100 RPM,
20°C lean.
Flight level is 70 and the OAT 11°C.
The minimum block fuel is:

2492 33
(For this question use annex 033-9730A, NDB VOR TACAN VOR/DME
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS
chart ED-6)
Which navigation aid is located in position 48°30'N,
007°34'E?
2493 33
 (For this question use annex 033-9729A, VOR NDB VOR/DME VORTAC
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS
chart ED-6)
Which navigation aid is located in position 48°23'N,
008°39'E?
2494 33
(For this question use annex 033-12311A or Flight 1125 kg 1635 kg 1090 kg 1690 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)
- HOLDING PLANNING)
The fuel required for 45 minutes holding, in a racetrack
pattern,
at PA 5000 ft, mean gross mass 47 000 kg, is :
2495 33
An aircraft, following a 215° true track, must fly over a 120 130 150 140
10 600 ft obstacle with a minimum obstacle clearance of
1 500 ft. Knowing the QNH received from an airport
close by, which is almost at sea-level, is 1035 and the
temperature is ISA -15°C, the minimum flight level will
be:
2496 33
Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64400 kg, 7000 kg 5600 kg 3000 kg 4000 kg
Maximum landing mass 56200 kg, Maximum zero fuel
mass 53000 kg, Dry operating mass 35500 kg, Traffic
load 14500 kg, Trip fuel 4900 kg, Take-off fuel 7400 kg
Find: Maximum additional load

2497 33
Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64400 kg, 11100 kg 11400 kg 14400 kg 8600 kg
Maximum landing mass 56200 kg, Maximum zero fuel
mass 53000 kg, Dry operating mass 35500 kg, Traffic
load 14500 kg, Trip fuel 4900 kg, Minimum Take-off Fuel
7400 kg
Find: Maximum allowable take-off fuel
2498 33
On a ATC flight plan, to indicate that you will overfly the ROMEO / ROMEO / ROMEO / ROMEO /
way-point ROMEO at 120 kt at flight level 085, you will FL085 F085 N0120 N0120 F085 K0120
write : N0120 FL085
2499 33
The maximum permissible take-off mass of an aircraft 2 700 kg 5 700 kg 10 000 kg 7 000 kg
for the L wake turbulence category on a flight plan is:
2500 33
In the appropriate box of a flight plan form, concerning P S A C
equipment, the letter to be used to indicate that the
aircraft is equipped with a mode A 4096 codes
transponder with altitude reporting capability is :

2501 33
(For this question use annexes 033-9494A and 033- 4750 kg, 02 4600 kg, 02 4800 kg, 01 4400 kg, 02
9694B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1 h 00 min h 05 min h 51 min h 05 min
and Figure 4.3.1B)
Given: twin jet aeroplane, Zero fuel mass 50000 kg,
Landing mass at alternate 52000 kg, Final reserve fuel
2000 kg, Alternate fuel 1000 kg, Flight to destination:
Distance 720 NM, True course 030°, W/V 340°/30 kt,
Long range cruise, FL 330, Outside air temperature
-30°C
Find: Estimated trip fuel and time with simplified flight
planning

2502 33
 It is possible, in flight, to: 1-2-3-4 1-2-4 1-2-3 2-3-4

1 - file an IFR flight plan

2 - modify an active IFR or VFR flight plan
3 - cancel an active VFR flight plan
4 - close an active VFR flight plan

Which of the following combinations contains all of the

correct statements?

2503 33
(For this question use annex 033-9691A or Flight 418 kt 420 kt 433 kt 431 kt
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)
Given: twin jet aeroplane, FL 330, Long range cruise,
Outside air temperature -63°C, Gross mass 50500 kg
Find: True air speed (TAS)

2504 33
You must fly IFR on an airway orientated 135° magnetic 80 75 70 90
with a MSA at 7 800 ft. Knowing the QNH is 1 025 hPa
and the temperature is ISA + 10°, the minimum flight
level you must fly at is:
2505 33
In the cruise at FL 155 at 260 kt TAS, the pilot plans for 130 NM 120 NM 140 NM 110 NM
a 500 feet/min descent in order to fly overhead MAN
VOR at 2 000 feet (QNH 1030). TAS will remain
constant during descent, wind is negligible, temperature
is standard.
The pilot must start the descent at a distance from MAN
of:
2506 33
(For this question use annex 033-11704A) 1 545 litres 1 182 litres 1 326 litres 1 600 litres

True Air speed: 170 kt

Wind in the area: 270°/40 kt

According to the attached the navigation log, an aircraft

performs a turn overhead BULEN to re-route to ARD via
TGJ.
The given wind conditions remaining constant.
The fuel consumption during the turn is 20 litres.
The total fuel consumption at position overhead ARD
will be:

2507 33
(For this question use annex 033-9703A or Route 36.5 NM 31 NM 24.5 NM 33 NM
Manual SID chart 20-3 for PARIS Charles-de-Gaulle)
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle)
RWY 27 to London.
Given: Distance from PARIS Charles-de-Gaulle to top of
climb 50 NM
Determine the distance from the top of climb (TOC) to
ABB 116.6.

2508 33
(For this question use annex 033 11702 A) 040° 044° 052° 058°
The measured course 042° T.
The variation in the area is 6° W and the wind is calm.
The deviation card is reproduced in the annex.

In order to follow this course, the pilot must fly a

compass heading of:

2509 33
 On an ATC flight plan, to indicate that you will overfly the TANGO / TANGO / TANGO / TANGO /
way-point TANGO at 350 kts at flight level 280, you KT350 F280 N0350 F280 K0350 FL280
write: FL280 N0350
2510 33
(For this question use annex 033-12312A or Flight 2750 kg 3050 kg 2900 kg 2500 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6)
Given: Distance to Alternate 450 NM
Landing mass at Alternate : 45 000 kg
Tailwind component : 50 kt
The Alternate fuel required is :
2511 33
(For this question use annex 033-9702A or Route 72.5 NM 56 NM 83 NM 74.5 NM
Manual SID chart 20-3 for PARIS Carles-de-Gaulle)
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London.

Determine the distance of the departure route ABB 8A.

2512 33
(For this question use annex 033-9695A or Flight 11600 kg, 04 12000 kg, 12400 kg, 11400 kg, 04
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.3C) h 15 min 03 h 51 min 04 h 00 min h 12 min
Given: Twin jet aeroplane, Ground distance to
destination aerodrome is 1600 NM, Headwind
component 50 kt, FL 330, Cruise .78 Mach, ISA
Deviation +20°C and Landing mass 55000 kg
Find: Fuel required and trip time with simplified flight
planning
2513 33
(For this question use annex 033-9701A or Flight 1100 kg 1500 lbs 1000 kg 1000 lbs
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin
jet aeroplane.
Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg,
Airport elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, ISA
Deviation -10°C, Average True Course 340°
Find: Fuel to the top of climb (TOC)
2514 33
(For this question use annex 033-9699A and 033- 53 NM 47 NM 50 NM 56 NM
9699B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph
5.1 and Figure 4.5.1)
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for a twin jet
aeroplane.
Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg,
Airport elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, ISA-
Deviation -10°C, Average True Course 340°
Find: Ground distance to the top of climb (TOC)

2515 33
(For this question use annex 033-9698A or Flight 1180 kg 2360 kg 1150 kg 2300 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)
Given: twin jet aeroplane, Estimated mass on arrival at
the alternate 50000 kg, Elevation at destination
aerodrome 3500 ft, Elevation at alternate aerodrome 30
ft
Find: Final reserve fuel
2516 33
 (For this question use annex 033-9700A or Flight 15 min 11 min 3 min 12 min
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to
London (Heathrow) for the twin jet aeroplane.
Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg,
Airport elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, ISA
Deviation -10°C, Average True Course 340°
Find: Time to the top of climb (TOC)

2517 33
(For this question use annex 033-9697A or Flight 1180 kg, 30 2360 kg, 30 2360 kg, 01 1180 kg, 45
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4) min min h 00 min min
Given: twin jet aeroplane, Estimated mass on arrival at
the alternate 50000 kg, Estimated mass on arrival at the
destination 52525 kg, Alternate elevation MSL,
Destination elevation 1500 ft
Find: Final reserve fuel and corresponding time
2518 33
(For this question use annex 033-9696A or Flight 800 kg, 24 800 kg, 0.4 1000 kg, 24 1000 kg, 40
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6) min hr min min
Given: twin jet aeroplane, Dry operating mass 35500 kg,
Traffic load 14500 kg, Final reserve fuel 1200 kg,
Distance to alternate 95 NM, Tailwind component 10 kt
Find: Fuel required and trip time to alternate with
simplified flight planning (ALTERNATE PLANNING)

2519 33
- AEROPLANES

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0 0 1 0
 RADIO NAVIGATION

In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted UHF SHF EHF VHF

Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS) provide position
4604 62 information that is available to civil aircraft?
The Doppler Navigation System is based on: doppler phase radar radio waves
VOR comparison principles refraction in
(DVOR) from ground using the
Navigation station frequency ionosphere
System transmission shift
s

4605 62
What is the maximum number of usable Secondary 760 4096 3600 1000
Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder codes?
4606 62
Which of the following is a complete list of airborne roll and yaw roll and pitch roll, pitch pitch and
weather radar antenna stabilisation axes? and yaw yaw
4607 62
In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour green to yellow to green to red yellow to
cathode ray tube (CRT) increasing severity of rain and yellow to red amber to to black orange to
turbulence is generally shown by a change of colour blue red
from:
4608 62
The azimuth transmitter of a Microwave Landing + or - 30° of + or - 40° of + or - 50° of + or - 60° of
System (MLS) provides a fan-shaped horizontal the runway the runway the runway the runway
approach zone which is usually: centre-line centre-line centre-line centre-line
4609 62
The two main design functions of Secondary air to ground collision continuous the
Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are: and ground avoidance automatic elimination
to air data using TCAS position of ground to
link II and reporting air
communicati improved using Global communicati
ons and long range Positioning ons and the
improved (HF) System introduction
ATC aircraft communicati (GPS) of automatic
surveillance on satellites separation
capability capability. and collision between
avoidance aircraft using
using TCAS TCAS II
II

4610 62
In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, offsetting dithering the shutting off using a less
'Selective Availability' (SA) gives the option to artificially satellite satellite selected accurate
degrade the accuracy by : atomic clock satellites atomic clock
clocks by a in a satellite
predetermin for signal
ed constant processing
amount

4611 62
 In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) the aircraft's timing the the aircraft's timing the
a position line is obtained by: receiver period that is receiver period that is
measuring taken for a measuring taken for a
the phase transmission the time satellite's
angle of the from the difference transmission
signal aircraft's between to reach the
received transmitter/r signals aircraft's
from a eceiver to received receiver
satellite in a reach and from a
known return from a minimum
position satellite in a number of
known satellites
position

4612 62
On which of the following radar displays is it possible to Aerodrome Airborne Aerodrome Secondary
get an indication of the shape, and to some extent the Surveillance Weather Surface Surveillance
type, of the aircraft generating the return? (approach) Radar Movement Radar (SSR)
Radar (AWR) Radar
(ASMR)
4613 62
Which of the following statements concerning LORAN- It is a It is a It is a It is a
C is correct? navigation hyperbolic navigation hyperbolic
system navigation system navigation
based on system that based on system that
secondary works on the simultaneou works on the
radar principle of s ranges principle of
principles; range being differential
position measureme received range by
lines are nt by phase from a pulse
obtained in comparison minimum of technique
sequence four ground
from up to stations
eight ground
stations

4614 62
What is the colour sequence when passing over an amber - white - blue - blue -
Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon? white - amber - green - amber -
4615 62 green blue white white
Which of the following statements concerning the The receiver The rotation The The
variable, or directional, signal of a conventional VOR is adds 30 Hz of the transmitter transmitter
correct? to the variable varies the changes the
variable signal at a amplitude of frequency of
signal before rate of 30 the variable the variable
combining it times per signal by 30 signal by 30
with the second Hz each Hz either
reference gives it the time it side of the
signal characteristi rotates allocated
cs of a 30 frequency
Hz each time it
amplitude rotates
modulation

4616 62
What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS 5 24 3 4
satellites required to produce an accurate independent
4617 62 3-D position fix?
 The receiver aerial for a NAVSTAR/GPS system should on the upper inside the in the vicinity under the
be mounted: side of the tail fin to of the fuselage in
fuselage in minimise the receiver to order to
the vicinity influence of avoid long receive
of the centre reflections transmission correction
of gravity from the lines data
wing and transmitted
fuselage by D-GPS
stations

4618 62
When an aircraft is operating its Secondary + or - 50 FT + or - 75 FT + or - 100 + or - 25 FT
Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air traffic controller's FT
presentation gives information regarding the aircraft's
indicated flight level that is accurate to within:

4619 62
Which of the following correctly gives the principle of Differential Phase Differential Frequency
operation of the Loran C navigation system? range by comparison range by shift
phase between pulse between
comparison synchronise technique synchronise
d d
transmission transmission
s s
4620 62
Which of the following lists phenomena that CANNOT snow; clear dry hail; clear air snow;
be detected by weather radar? air clear air turbulence; turbulence in
turbulence turbulence turbulence in clouds with
cloud with precipitation
precipitation

4621 62
Given: ahead of the ahead of the behind the behind the
Aircraft heading 160°(M), aeroplane aeroplane aeroplane aeroplane
Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR, symbol with symbol with symbol with symbol with
Selected course on HSI is 250°. the FROM the TO flag the FROM the TO flag
The HSI indications are deviation bar: flag showing showing flag showing showing

4622 62
A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum less power the larger greater static
for use in an airborne weather radar system because: output is water detail can be interference
required in droplets will obtained at is minimised
the mapping give good the more
mode echoes and distant
the antenna ranges of
can be kept the smaller
relatively water
small droplets

4623 62
When switching on the weather radar, after start-up, a receiver is scanning of transmitter is scanner is
single very bright line appears on the screen. faulty the cathode faulty not rotating
This means that the: ray tube is
faulty
4624 62
In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, delay after the number ratio of pulse number of
the term 'Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)' signifies the: which the of cycles per period to pulses per
process re- second pulse width second
starts
4625 62
The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°. right of centred with centred left of centre
Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle centre the 'fail' flag
will be: showing
4626 62
 Which of the following gives the best information about ATA Elapsed ETO ETD
the progress of a flight between 2 en-route waypoints time on
4627 62 from a RNAV equipment? route.
What is the minimum number of satellites required for a 5 2 3 4
Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to
carry out two dimensional operation?
4628 62
The frequency range of a VOR receiver is : 108 to 108 to 108 to 118 to
4629 62 135.95 MHz 117.95 MHz 111.95 MHz 135.95 MHz
The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at 190 NM 230 NM 170 NM 151 NM
FL230 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at
4630 62 mean sea level is:
A radar facility transmitting at a Pulse Recurrence 27 NM 69 NM 135 NM 270 NM
Frequency (PRF) of 1200 pulses/second will have a
4631 62 maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
Which of the following combinations is likely to result in NDB/VOR VOR/VOR DME/DME VOR/DME
the most accurate Area Navigation (RNAV) fixes?
4632 62
Which one of the following is an advantage of a It does not The There is no It is
Microwave Landing System (MLS) compared with an require a installation restriction on insensitive
Instrument Landing System (ILS)? separate does not the number to
azimuth require to of ground geographica
(localiser) have a installations l site and
and separate that can be can be
elevation method operated installed at
(azimuth) (marker because sites where
transmitter beacons or there is an it is not
DME) to unlimited possible to
determine number of use an ILS
range frequency
channels
available

4633 62
In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour large areas iso-echo colour zones blank iso-
cathode ray tube (CRT) the areas of greatest of flashing areas which being echo areas
turbulence are indicated on the screen by: red colour are coloured closest where there
black together is no colour

4634 62
The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is: 1120 +/- 0.6 1030 +/- 0.2 1050 +/- 0.5 1090 +/- 0.3
4635 62 Mhz Mhz Mhz Mhz
A VOR and DME are co-located. DME DME DME VOR and
You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. callsign is callsign was callsign is DME
Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the one with not the one with callsigns
the: the higher transmitted, the lower were the
pitch that the distance pitch that same and
was information was broadcast
broadcast is sufficient broadcast with the
only once proof of several same pitch
correct times
operation

4636 62
 How does a receiver of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite The data is It calculates The data is The data is
navigation system determine the elevation and azimuth determined it by using stored in the based on
data of a satellite relative to the location of the by the Almanac receiver the direction
antenna? satellite and data together with to the
transmitted transmitted the Pseudo satellite
together with by the Random determined
the satellites Noise (PRN) at the
navigation code location of
message the antenna

4637 62
A Cat III ILS glidepath transmitter provides reliable the surface a maximum a maximum a maximum
guidance information down to: of the height of height of height of 50
runway 200 ft above 100 ft above ft above the
the runway the runway runway

4638 62
Which of the following equipments works on the Secondary Global Airborne Aerodrome
interrogator/transponder principle? Surveillance Positioning Weather Surface
Radar (SSR) System Radar Movement
(GPS) (AWR) Radar
4639 62
Which of the following equipments uses primary radar Distance Global Airborne Secondary
principles? Measuring Positioning weather Surveillance
Equipment System radar (AWR) Radar (SSR)
(DME) (GPS)
4640 62
What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of FL50 FL80 FL100 FL60
113 NM, must fly in order to contact the tower on R/T
for a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above
MSL?
4641 62
An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR 130 NM 142 NM 135 NM 123 NM
groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate
4642 62 maximum range of :
In relation to Area Navigation Systems (RNAV), which Doppler drift True Inertial VOR/DME
of the following is an Air Data input? airspeed Navigation radial/distan
System ce
(INS)
position
4643 62
In which frequency band do most airborne weather, and EHF VHF SHF UHF
ground based ATC, radar systems operate?
4644 62
Which one of the following correctly lists the major Separate Combined Combined Separate
ground based components of a Microwave Landing azimuth and azimuth and azimuth and azimuth and
System (MLS)? elevation elevation elevation elevation
transmitters, transmitter, transmitter, transmitters,
outer and DME facility outer and DME facility
middle inner marker
marker beacons
beacons

4645 62
An aircraft at 6400 FT will be able to receive a VOR 100 NM 120 NM 110 NM 90 NM
groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate
4646 62 maximum range of :
If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a: line of constant great circle rhumbline
constant magnetic track track
4647 62 bearing track
 Which one of the following methods is used by a A DME co- Timing the Measureme Timing the
Microwave Landing System (MLS) to indicate distance located with interval nt of the interval
from the runway threshold? the MLS between the frequency between the
transmitters transmission shift reception of
and between the sequential
reception of MLS secondary
primary azimuth and radar pulses
radar pulses elevation from the
from the transmission MLS station
aircraft to s to the
MLS station aircraft

4648 62
Which of the following geometric satellite constellations 3 satellites 4 satellites 4 satellites 3 satellites
provides the most accurate NAVSTAR/GPS position with an with an with an with a low
fix? azimuth of azimuth of azimuth of elevation
120° from 90° from 90° from above the
each other each other each other horizon and
and an and a low and an an azimuth
elevation of elevation elevation of of 120° from
45° above above the 45° above each other
the horizon horizon the horizon together with
a fourth
directly
overhead

4649 62
The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne pulse transmission size of the transmission
Weather Radar is determined by the: recurrence power aerial frequency
4650 62 frequency
Which of the following statements about the accuracy Only D-GPS The nearer a The A D-GPS
that can be obtained with the differential technique (D- allows receiver is increase in receiver can
GPS) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS position situated to a accuracy of detect and
is correct? fixes D-GPS position correct for
accurate ground fixes is SA providing
enough for station, the independent a more
'Non more of the accurate
Precision accurate the receiver position fix
Approaches' position fix position in
relation to a
D-GPS
ground
station

4651 62
An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of left with left with 'TO' right with right with
300°, the track selector (OBS) reads : 330. The 'FROM' showing 'TO' showing 'FROM'
indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are showing showing
'fly':
4652 62
 In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation continuous procedure continuous procedure
system, 'Search the Sky' is a: procedure that starts process by performed
performed after the ground by the
by the switching on segment to receiver to
receiver that a receiver if monitor the recognise
searches the there is no GPS new
sky for stored satellites satellites
satellites satellite data becoming
rising above available operational
the horizon

4653 62
Which one of the following sensors/systems is self- VOR/DME Inertial Pressure Magnetic
contained and obtains no external information? radial/distan Navigation altitude heading
ce System
(INS)
position
4654 62
What is the procedure to be followed if, on a flight The flight The flight The flight A constant
under IFR conditions using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite may be may be has to be heading and
navigation system, the number of satellites required to continued as continued continued speed must
maintain the RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity planned if at using other under VFR be flown
Monitoring) function are not available? least 4 certificated conditions until the
satellites are navigation required
available systems number of
and the pilot satellites are
monitors the again
GPS-System available
manually

4655 62
An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has Radial 315°, Radial 135°, Radial Radial
gone unserviceable and is locked on to a reading of relative relative unknown, unknown,
090°. The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135°. The bearing bearing relative relative
available information from the VOR is: unknown unknown bearing 225° bearing 045°

4656 62
In general the operation of airborne weather radar unrestrictedl only permitted totally
equipment on the ground is: y permitted permitted anywhere prohibited
in with certain
aerodrome precautions,
maintenance to safeguard
areas health of
personnel
and to
protect
equipment

4657 62
Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation Magnetic Inertial Pressure VOR/DME
System (R-NAV) comes from an external, not on-board, heading Navigation altitude radial/distan
system? System ce
(INS)
position
4658 62
The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer 1300 Hz, 400 Hz, 400 Hz, blue 3000 Hz,
4659 62 marker (OM) is: blue amber blue
 An RMI indicates aircraft heading. To convert the RMI NDB: aircraft NDB: NDB: NDB: aircraft
bearings of NDBs and VORs to true bearings the position beacon beacon position
correct combination for the application of magnetic VOR: position position VOR:
variation is: beacon VOR: VOR: aircraft
position beacon aircraft position
position position
4660 62
An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a 262° 285° 255° 278°
VOR station located near the equator where the
magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft
position is 8°E.
The aircraft is on VOR radial:
4661 62
Given: 100° 090° 270° 280°
Magnetic heading 280°
VOR radial 090°
What bearing should be selected on the omni-bearing
selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle
with a "TO" indication?
4662 62
A VOR is sited at position 58°00'N 073°00'W where the 208 360 180 212
magnetic variation equals 32°W.
An aircraft is located at position 56°00'N 073°00'W
where the magnetic variation equals 28°W.
The aircraft is on VOR radial:
4663 62
In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot at the half- at both the at the VOR at the
needs to know the magnetic variation: way point VOR and aircraft
between the aircraft location
aircraft and
the station

4664 62
In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation The Receivers Signals from Fixed
system, what is involved in the differential technique (D- difference from various satellites are ground
GPS)? between manufacture received by stations
signals rs are 2 different compute
transmitted operated in antennas position
on the L1 parallel to which are errors and
and L2 reduce the located a transmit
frequencies characteristi fixed correction
are cal receiver distance data to a
processed noise error apart. This suitable
by the enables a receiver on
receiver to suitable the aircraft
determine receiver on
an error the aircraft
correction to recognise
and correct
for multipath
errors

4665 62
4666 62 A frequency of airborne weather radar is : 9375 GHz 9375 kHz 93.75 MHz 9375 MHz
 In the event of the use of Selective Availability, how It degrades It degrades It increases It has no
does this affect, if at all, the navigation accuracy of the accuracy by position because influence
NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system ? reducing the accuracy by only signals because, by
number of manipulating from selecting of
available satellite satellites in the most
satellites signals the most suitable
suitable signals, the
geometric computing
constellation process in
are selected the receiver
by the is quicker
receiver

4667 62
Given: 160° 193° 167° 347°
VOR station position N61° E025°, variation 13°E;
Estimated position of an aircraft N59° E025°, variation
20°E.
What VOR radial is the aircraft on?
4668 62
DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately: 600 MHz 1000 MHz 300 MHz 110 MHz
4669 62
An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal a cardioid a beam omnidirectio bi-lobal
plane which is : balanced at rotating at nal circular
4670 62 30 Hz 30 Hz

The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to: hear the find the loop hear the stop loop
IDENT and 'null' position IDENT of rotation
must always some NDB
be switched stations
ON radiating a
continuous
wave signal

4671 62
The captain of an aircraft flying at FL100 wishes to 1230 km 123 NM 123 km 12.3 NM
obtain weather information at the destination airfield
from the airfield's VOR. At what maximum theoretical
range will it be possible to obtain this information?

4672 62
Which of the following is the datum for altitude The average GPS altitude GPS altitude Barometric
information when conducting flights under IFR of GPS if 4 or more altitude
conditions on airways using the NAVSTAR/GPS altitude and satellites are
satellite navigation system? barometric received
altitude otherwise
barometric
altitude

4673 62
What datum is used for the Minimum Descent Altitude If using Radar GPS altitude Barometric
(MDA) on a non-precision approach when using the Differential- altitude altitude
NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system? GPS (D-
GPS) the
altitude
obtained
from the D-
GPS,
otherwise
barometric
altitude

4674 62
 Which of the following procedures must be adopted if, The pilot It may be It may be It must be
on a flight under IFR conditions using a NAVSTAR/GPS must continued continued continued
satellite navigation system receiver, the position fix determine using using under VFR
obtained from the GPS receiver differs from the position the reason conventional NAVSTAR/G conditions
of conventional navigation systems by an unacceptable for the navigation PS; prior to
amount? deviation systems the next
and correct flight all
the error or systems
switch off must be
the faulty checked
system

4675 62
Which of the following, if any, is a prerequisite if a Multi-sensor The The The RAIM-
receiver of a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system systems are prescribed prescribed function of
is to be used in combination with a multi sensor not IFR- IFR- the GPS
system? certificated equipment equipment receiver
for flights must be must be in must be able
under IFR installed and working to monitor all
conditions operational correctly and prescribed
the navigation
navigation systems
information
continuously
displayed

4676 62
The selection of code 2000 on an aircraft SSR unlawful an transponder entry into
transponder indicates: interference emergency malfunction airspace
with the from an area
planned where SSR
operation of operation
the flight has not
been
required

4677 62
In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate? VHF UHF SHF EHF
4678 62
In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft 7600 7500 7000 7700
Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder
4679 62 should be set to:
The ATC transponder system,excluding Mode S, four modes, two modes, two modes, four modes,
contains : each 4096 each 1024 each of each 1024
codes codes 4096 codes codes
4680 62
Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the Satellite Satellite Satellite Satellite to
accuracy and reliability of the Satellite-Assisted mutual clock; mutual ground time
Navigation system (GNSS/GPS)? interference; satellite interference; lag;
frequency ephemeris; satellite atmospheric
drift; satellite atmospheric ephemeris; propagation;
to ground propagation atmospheric satellite
time lag propagation clock

4681 62
The maximum range of primary radar depends on : pulse length pulse wave length frequency
recurrence
4682 62 frequency
Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency? 112.10 MHz 109.15 MHz 108.25 MHz 110.20 MHz
4683 62
 If the reference phase differs 30° with the variable 030° 330° 210° 150°
phase the radial from the VOR station will be :
4684 62
A DME that has difficulty obtaining a "lock-on": stays in stays in stays in alternates
(NOTE: PRF = pulse recurrence frequency, search search search search
PPS = pulses per second) mode but mode mode but mode with
reduces without a reduces periods of
PRF to max. reduction in PRF to max. memory
60 PPS after PRF 60 PPS after mode lasting
15000 pulse 100 seconds 10 seconds
pairs have
been
transmitted

4685 62
Of what use, if any, is a military TACAN station to civil It is of no It can It can It can
aviation ? use to civil provide a provide a provide
aviation DME magnetic DME
distance and bearing distance
magnetic
bearing

4686 62
Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is 265 095 275 085
selected to 090°.
From/To indicator indicates "TO".
CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right.
On what radial is the aircraft?
4687 62
Which one of the following disturbances is most likely Quadrantal Precipitation Local Coastal
to cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF bearings? error interference thunderstor effect
m activity
4688 62
In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, can be is negligible is corrected is the
receiver clock error: minimised small by using biggest part
by because of signals from of the total
synchronisat the great four error; it
ion of the accuracy the satellites cannot be
receiver atomic corrected
clock with clocks
the satellite installed in
clocks the satellites

4689 62
The influence of the ionosphere on the accuracy of the negligible minimised minimised only
satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is: by the by significant if
receiver computing the satellites
using a the average are located
model of the of all signals at a small
atmosphere elevation
and angle above
comparing the horizon
signals
transmitted
by the
satellites

4690 62
 Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi- The GNSS The The average The only
sensor system using inputs from a global navigation can be used activation of position advantage
satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial navigational to update a 'Selective calculated of coupling
system (INS)? drifting INS Availability' from data both
can be provided by systems is
recognised both double
by the INS systems redundancy
increases
overall
accuracy

4691 62
What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of The signals It has no It may It causes
the aircraft (e.g. wing) on the reception of signals from will be influence prevent the multipath
NAVSTAR/GPS satellites? distorted, because reception of propagation
however the high signals
error can be frequency
corrected for signals are
using an unaffected
algorithm
and
information
from
unaffected
signals

4692 62
A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a search standby signal memory
reduction in signal strength will switch the equipment in mode mode controlled mode
4693 62 the first instance to: search
Which one of the following switch positions should be NORMAL OFF STBY IDENT
used when selecting a code on the Transponder? (Standby) (Identificatio
4694 62 n)
The reason why pre take-off holding areas are heavy to increase to increase aircraft
sometimes further from the active runway when ILS precipitation distance aircraft manoeuvrin
Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress may disturb from the separation in g near the
than during good weather operations is: guidance runway very runway may
signals during offset reduced disturb
approach visibility guidance
operations conditions signals

4695 62
An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° 284° with 284° with 104° with 104° with
radial. Which of the following settings should be made the TO flag the FROM the TO flag the FROM
on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator? showing flag showing showing flag showing
4696 62
An aircraft on a heading of 280°(M) is on a bearing of 280° 270° 090° 100°
090°(M) from a VOR.
The bearing you should select on the OMNI bearing
selector to centralise the VOR/ILS left/right deviation
needle with a 'TO' indication is:
4697 62
An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via 244° with 244° with 064° with 064° with
the 244° radial. In order to obtain correct sense the FROM the TO flag the TO flag the FROM
indications the deviation indicator should be set to: flag showing showing showing flag showing
4698 62
What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft 147 NM 156 NM 184 NM 220 NM
at FL150 can receive signals from a VOR situated 609
4699 62 feet above MSL?
 A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring 100 MHz 100 GHz 1000 MHz 10 MHz
4700 62 Equipment (DME) is:
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the: UHF band VHF band UHF band SHF band
and is a and uses the and is a and uses
secondary principle of primary frequency
radar phase radar modulation
system comparison system techniques

4701 62
For a conventional DME facility 'Beacon Saturation' 80 100 200 60
will occur whenever the number of simultaneous
4702 62 interrogations exceeds:
On a DME, display counters rotating throughout their the airborne airborne ground the airborne
range indicates: receiver is equipment equipment equipment is
conducting a failure failure conducting a
range frequency
search search

4703 62
The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its pulse pairs aircraft transmission pulse pairs
own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft are interrogation frequencies are discreet
interrogations because: amplitude signals and are 63 MHz to a
modulated transponder different for particular
with the responses each aircraft aircraft
aircraft are 63 MHz
registration removed
from each
other

4704 62
The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to DME pulse aircraft reflections DME
interrogation signals reflected from the ground recurrence transmitter are subject transmits
because: rates are and DME to doppler twin pulses
varied ground frequency
station are shift
transmitting
on different
frequencies

4705 62
The design requirements for DME stipulate that, at a + or - 1.5 + or - 3 NM + or - 0.25 + or - 1.25
range of 100 NM, the maximum systematic error NM NM NM
4706 62 should not exceed:
In which situation will speed indications on an airborne When When When When
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) most closely tracking passing overhead tracking
represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at directly abeam the the station, directly
FL400? towards the station and with no away from
station at a within 5 NM change of the station at
range of 100 of it heading at a range of
NM or more transit 10 NM

4707 62
Which one of the following lists information given by a Aircraft Wind True Crosstrack
basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System? position in velocity airspeed; distance;
latitude and drift angle alongtrack
longitude distance;
angular
course
deviation
4708 62
 A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground runway 200 feet 200 feet 50 feet
installation provides accurate guidance from coverage surface above the above the above ILS
limit down to: inner marker runway reference
threshold point
4709 62
If VOR bearing information is used beyond the sky wave interference noise from sky wave
published protection range, errors could be caused by: interference from other precipitation interference
from distant transmitters static from the
transmitters exceeding same
on the same the signal transmitter
frequency strength of
the
transmitter
4710 62
An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing may receive will not will receive can expect
System (ILS) localiser inbound on the approach side, false course normally signals signals to
outside the published ILS coverage angle: indications receive without give correct
signals identification indications
coding
4711 62
The MIDDLE MARKER of an Instrument Landing two dashes dots and a dashes and alternate
System (ILS) facility is identified audibly and visually by per second white light an amber dots and
a series of: and a blue flashing light flashing dashes and
light flashing an amber
light flashing

4712 62
The OUTER MARKER of an Instrument Landing 75 MHz and 200 MHz 75 MHz and 300 MHz
System (ILS) facility transmits on a frequency of: is modulated and is is modulated and is
by morse at modulated by alternate modulated
two dashes by alternate dot/dash in by morse at
per second dot/dash in morse two dashes
morse per second

4713 62
What approximate rate of descent is required in order 950 FT/MIN 600 FT/MIN 550 FT/MIN 800 FT/MIN
to maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt?
4714 62
The outer marker of an ILS with a 3° glide slope is 1400 FT 1350 FT 1300 FT 1450 FT
located 4.6 NM from the threshold. Assuming a glide
slope height of 50 FT above the threshold, the
approximate height of an aircraft passing the outer
marker is:
4715 62
Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of transmit at a obtain detect the detect the
approximately 3 cm in order to: higher pulse optimum use smaller larger water
repetition of the cloud droplets
frequency Cosecant formations
for extended squared as well as
range beam large

4716 62
The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is give an inhibit extend the detect areas
provided in order to: indication of unwanted mapping of possible
cloud tops ground range severe
returns turbulence in
cloud

4717 62
 In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar fan shaped pencil beam pencil beam fan shaped
utilises a: beam to a effective beam
effective up maximum from zero to effective up
to a range of range of 60 150 NM to a
150 NM NM maximum of
50 NM to 60
NM range
4718 62
Which of the following cloud types is most readily altostratus cumulus cirrocumulus stratus
detected by airborne weather radar when using the
4719 62 'weather beam'?
Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm A moving The The principle The
clutter? target frequencies of 'echo' frequencies
indicator employed return is not employed
facility are too low used in are too high
suppresses to give secondary to give
the display returns from radar returns from
of static or moisture moisture
near static sources sources
returns

4720 62
In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR 7600 7700 7000 7500
4721 62 transponder should be selected to code:
In order to indicate unlawful interference with the 7700 7000 7500 7600
planned operation of the flight, the aircraft Secondary
Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be
selected to:
4722 62
At what approximate height above the WGS-84 36000 km 19500 km 20200 km 10900 km
ellipsoid are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites circling the
4723 62 earth?
The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation 186 NM 296 NM 330 NM 165 NM
pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to
travel to the ground transponder and return to the
airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second.
The slant range from the ground transponder was:

4724 62
An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to 10° or more less than 1.5° or more 2.5 or more
the left when within range of a serviceable VOR. 10°
What angular deviation are you from the selected
radial?

4725 62
Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3° ILS decrease in increase in decrease in increase in
glidepath, will require an approximate: the aircraft's the aircraft's the aircraft's the aircraft's
rate of rate of rate of rate of
descent of descent of descent of descent of
100 FT/MIN 100 FT/MIN 50 FT/MIN 50 FT/MIN

4726 62
In which frequency bands are the L1 and L2 UHF VHF EHF SHF
frequencies used by the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS for transmission of the navigation
message?
4727 62
 In relation to the satellite navigation system PRN is a PRN is the PRN PRN occurs
NAVSTAR/GPS, which of the following statements code used atmospheric describes in the
correctly describes the term 'Pseudo Random Noise for the jamming that the receiver. It is
(PRN)' signal? identification affects the continuous caused by
of the signals electro- the signal
satellites transmitted magnetical from one
and the by the background satellite
measureme satellites noise that being
nt of the exists in received
time taken space from
by the signal different
to reach the directions
receiver (multipath
effect)

4728 62
Which of the following NAVSTAR/GPS satellite C/A- and P P and Y C/A P
navigation system codes can be processed by
4729 62 'unauthorised' civil aviation receivers?
Almanac data stored in the receiver of the satellite assignment correction of fast recognition
navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is used for the: of received receiver identification wether
PRN-codes clock error of received Selective
(Pseudo signals Availability
Random coming from (SA) is
Noise) to the visible operative
appropriate satellites
satellite

4730 62
How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system The receiver Each Each The Doppler
receiver recognise which of the received signals detects the satellite satellite shift is
belongs to which satellite? direction transmits its transmits its unique to
from which signal on a signal, on each
the signals separate common satellite
are received frequency frequencies,
and with an
compares individual
this Pseudo
information Random
with the Noise code
calculated
positions of
the satellites

4731 62
Which of the following data, in addition to the Pseudo data to time; almanac time; data to
Random Noise (PRN) code, forms part of the so called correct positions of data; impair the
'Navigation Message' transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS receiver the satellites satellite accuracy of
satellites? clock error; status the position
almanac information fix
data
4732 62
In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what 12 hours (= 25 seconds 24 seconds 12.5 minutes
is the maximum time taken to receive the complete set period of the (= 1 second (= 1 second (= 30
of almanac data from all satellites? satellites per data per data seconds per
orbit) frame) frame) data frame)

4733 62
 Which of the following statements concerning the L1 C/A and P The higher The lower The higher
and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS transmission frequencies and codes are frequency is frequency is frequency is
codes is correct? transmitted only used to used to used to
at different transmit the transmit transmit
times on P code both the C/A both the C/A
both and P codes and P codes
frequencies

4734 62
In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data Inertial Navigation Inertial Flight
relating primarily to navigation is provided by: Reference radios Reference Managemen
Systems Flight Systems t Computer
Navigation Managemen Aircraft Aircraft
radios t Computer Mapping Mapping
True Inertial Radar Radar
airspeed Reference Navigation Navigation
and drift Systems radios radios
inputs

4735 62
How does the Electronic Flight Instrument System The pointer The The pointer It removes
display of a B737-400 respond to the failure of a VHF rotates deviation bar flashes and the
navigation (VOR) receiver? around the and/or a VOR 1 or associated
display and pointer 2 failure magenta
a VOR 1 or change warning bar deviation bar
2 failure colour to red appears and/or
warning bar and flash pointer from
appears intermittently the display

4736 62
Which component of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Flight Navigation Symbol Flight
Instrument System generates the visual displays on the Control database Generator Managemen
EADI and EHSI? Computer t Computer
4737 62
In which navigation system does the master station Doppler Loran C GPS Decca
transmit a continuous string of pulses on a frequency
4738 62 close to 100 kHz?
An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs 165 NM 210 NM 105 NM 50 NM
each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or
minus 5.5°.
In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the
airway limits the maximum distance apart for the
transmitter is approximately:
4739 62
A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By Six Eight Two Four
what factor should the transmitter power be increased
in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?
4740 62
Which of the following lists information required to input Magnetic Magnetic Radials from Radial and
a waypoint or 'Phantom Station' into a basic VOR/DME- track and track and a minimum distance
based Area Navigation System? distance distance to a of two VORs from a
from the VOR/DME to the VOR/DME to
aircraft to from the waypoint or the waypoint
the waypoint waypoint or 'Phantom or 'Phantom
or 'Phantom 'Phantom Station' Station'
Station' Station'

4741 62
 Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely quadrantal uneven static night effect
affected by: error propagation interference
over
irregular
ground
surfaces
4742 62
Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions? VHF UHF SHF HF
4743 62
The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is: envelope beat difference in phase
matching frequency depth of comparison
discriminatio modulation
n
4744 62
Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on inland and near the inland and near the
bearings at lower altitudes are maximum when the NDB the bearing coast and the bearing coast and
is: crosses the the bearing crosses the the bearing
coast at right crosses the coast at an crosses the
angles coast at an acute angle coast at right
acute angle angles

4745 62
What is the minimum number of satellites required by a 6 4 3 5
GPS in order to obtain a three dimensional fix?
4746 62
'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, static activity the effect of skywave interference
resulting in bearing errors from NDB transmissions, is increasing at the Aurora distortion of from other
due to: night Borealis the null transmission
particularly position and s and is
in the lower is maximum maximum at
frequency at dawn and dusk when
band dusk east of the
NDB

4747 62
ADF bearings by an aeroplane by day within the +/-10° +/-2.5° +/-2° +/-5°
published protection range should be accurate to within
4748 62 a maximum error of:
The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at 107 NM 114 NM 134 NM 158 NM
FL80 can obtain bearings from a ground VDF facility
4749 62 sited 325 FT above MSL is:
What is the approximate maximum theoretical range at 150 NM 180 NM 220 NM 120 NM
which an aircraft at FL130 could receive information
from a VDF facility which is sited 1024 FT above MSL?
4750 62
Which of the following types of radar systems are most primary centimetric millimetric secondary
suited for short range operation? continuous pulse pulse continuous
4751 62 wave wave
The prime factor in determining the maximum pulse power size of height of the
unambiguous range of a primary radar is the: recurrence output parabolic transmitter
rate receiver above the
aerial ground

4752 62
For any given circumstances, in order to double the 16 2 4 8
effective range of a primary radar the power output
4753 62 must be increased by a factor of:
 An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no 1.5 3.0 4.5 6.0
error when using a deviation indicator where 1 dot = 2°
deviation, how many dots deviation from the centre line
of the instrument will represent the limits of the airway
boundary? (Assume that the airway is 10 NM wide)

4754 62
Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic misalignmen skywave/gro signal signal
Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are caused by: t of the loop undwave bending by bending
aerial contaminatio the aircraft caused by
n metallic electrical
surfaces interference
from aircraft
wiring

4755 62
The selection of code 7600 on an aircraft SSR an unlawful transponder radio
transponder indicates: emergency interference malfunction communicati
with the on failure
planned
operation of
the flight
4756 62
Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide (i) 8 (ii) (i) 25 (i) 35 (i) 5
azimuth coverage (i) ..........° each side of the localiser 10 (ii) 17 (ii) 25 (ii) 8
centre-line to a distance of (ii) .......... NM from the
threshold.
4757 62
The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25° glide 670 FT/MIN 700 FT/MIN 800 FT/MIN 850 FT/MIN
slope at a groundspeed of 140 kt is approximately:
4758 62
The pencil shaped beam of an airborne weather radar beyond 100 beyond 150 when beyond 50
is used in preference to the mapping mode for the NM because NM because approaching to 60 NM
determination of ground features: insufficient the wider coast-lines because
antenna tilt beam gives in polar more power
angle is better regions can be
available definition concentrate
with the d in the
mapping narrower
mode beam

4759 62
Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system static height error - coastal static
performance and reliability include: interference station refraction - interference
- station interference lane slip - - night effect
interference - mountain mountain - absence of
- latitude effect effect failure
error warning
system

4760 62
An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR NE NW SW SE
OBS is also set to 270° with the full left deflection and
FROM flag displayed.
In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground
station?
4761 62
 In order to enter a waypoint that is designated by a does not must be in has to be does not
VOR into an RNAV, the VOR: have to be in range positively have to be in
range when identified by range when
entered or one of the entered but
used pilots must be
when used

4762 62
The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR south west north east
ground station are 90° out of phase on magnetic:
4763 62
Outer marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural 400 Hz 1300 Hz 2000 Hz 3000 Hz
4764 62 frequency of:
Assuming a five dot display, what does each of the dots 2.0 degrees 0.5 degrees 1.5 degrees 2.5 degrees
on either side of the ILS localizer cockpit display
4765 62 represent :
Which of the following is likely to have the greatest Interference Frequency Interference Mutual
effect on ADF accuracy? from other drift at the from other interference
NDBs, ground NDBs, between
particularly station particularly aircraft
at night during the aerials
day

4766 62
In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope SHF EHF UHF VHF
4767 62 transmit?
What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 80 m 800 m 8000 m 8m
4768 62 kHZ?
An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency both the the the receiver
which is proportional to the transmitter velocity will transmitter transmitter transmitter moves
occur when: and receiver moves moves away towards the
move towards the from the transmitter
towards receiver receiver
each other

4769 62
The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR unlawful an transponder radio
transponder indicates: interference emergency malfunction communicati
with the on failure
planned
operation of
the flight
4770 62
Which of the following will give the most accurate A VOR A DME A DME An ADF
calculation of aircraft ground speed? station sited station sited station sited sited on the
on the flight across the on the flight flight route
route flight route route

4771 62
The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR an radio transponder unlawful
transponder indicates: emergency communicati malfunction interference
on failure with the
planned
operation of
the flight
4772 62
In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse length target maximum beam width minimum
determines: discriminatio measurable measurable
4773 62 n range range
In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse minimum beam width maximum target
recurrence frequency (PRF)/pulse recurrence rate range theoretical discriminatio
4774 62 (PRR) determines: range n
 In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to pulse length beam width aerial Pulse
discriminate between targets in azimuth is a factor of: rotation rate Recurrence
4775 62 Rate (PRR)
The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that 713 pps 1620 pps 3240 pps 610 pps
can be
used by a primary radar facility in order to detect
targets
unambiguously at a range of 50 NM is:
(pps = pulses per second)
4776 62
A VOR is sited at position A (45°00'N, 010°00'E). An 185° 180° 190° 195°
aircraft is located at position B (44°00'N, 010°00'E).
Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 10°W and
at B is 15°W, the aircraft is on VOR radial:

4777 62
A DME station is located 1000 feet above MSL. 17 NM 16 NM 14 NM 15 NM
An aircraft flying at FL 370, 15 NM away from the DME
4778 62 station, will have a DME reading of:
What is the maximum distance between VOR and 600 m 2000 m 60 m 300 m
DME/TACAN ground installations if they are to have the
4779 62 same morse code identifier?
Ignoring pulse length and fly-back, a radar facility 330 3000 6000 167
designed to have a maximum unambiguous range of 50
4780 62 km will have a PRF (pulses per second) of:
Which combination of characteristics gives best screen long pulse short pulse short pulse long pulse
picture in a primary search radar? length and length and length and length and
narrow wide beam narrow wide beam
beam beam
4781 62
An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving Fly left and Fly right and Fly left and Fly right and
more 90 Hz than 150 Hz modulation notes from both fly up fly down fly down fly up
the localiser and glidepath transmitters. The ILS
indication will show:
4782 62
The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at 204 NM 245 NM 163 NM 183 NM
FL210 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited
340 feet above mean sea level is approximately:
4783 62
Which of the following radar equipments operate by 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 2, 3 and 4 2 and 4 only
means of the pulse technique? only only
1. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar
2. Airborne Weather Radar
3. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
4. Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar
4784 62
A Primary radar operates on the principle of: continuous pulse transponder phase
wave technique interrogation comparison
transmission
4785 62
The geometric shape of the reference system for the a geoid an ellipsoid a a sphere
satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as mathematica
WGS 84, is: l model that
describes
the exact
shape of the
earth

4786 62
(For this question use annex 062-12409A) 11 NM 12 NM 21 NM 10 NM
Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a
basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation Equipment
when using a 'Phantom Station'?
4787 62
 (For this question use annex 062-12410A) 11 NM 14 NM 8 NM 9 NM
Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a
basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation Equipment
when using a 'Phantom Station' at position 'X'?

4788 62
Erratic indications may be experienced when flying because, when in the when the when
towards a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation under cone of Phantom operating at
System 'Phantom Station': adverse silence Station is low altitudes
conditions overhead out of range close to the
(relative the Phantom limit of
bearing to Station reception
the Phantom range from
Station other the
than reference
180°/360°) it station
takes the
computer
more time to
calculate the
necessary
information

4789 62
What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using a 5 NM 1 NM 2 NM 10 NM
2-dot basic RNAV system in the en-route mode?
4790 62
What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using an 10 NM 0.5° 10° 0.5 NM
2-dot RNAV system in the approach mode?
4791 62
Which of the following is one of the functions of the It checks the It It calculates It transfers
Course-Line-Computer in a basic Area Navigation ground automaticall cross track the
(RNAV) system? station y selects the information information
accuracy two for NDB given by a
using a built- strongest approaches VOR/DME
in test transmitters station into
programme for the Area- tracking and
Nav-Mode distance
and indications
continues to any
working by chosen
memory in Phantom
case one of Station/wayp
the two oint
necessary
station goes
off the air

4792 62
Which of the following combinations of satellite NAVSTAR/G NAVSTAR/G NNSS- GLONASS
navigation systems provide the most accurate position PS and PS and Transit and and
fixes in air navigation? GLONASS NNSS- GLONASS COSPAS-
Transit SARSAT
4793 62
 The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites 4 orbital 6 orbital 6 orbital 3 orbital
are located on: planes with planes with planes with planes with
6 satellites 3 satellites 4 satellites 8 satellites
in each in each in each in each
plane plane plus 6 plane plane
reserve
satellites
positioned in
a
geostationar
y orbital
plane

4794 62
Which of the following statements about the 'visibility' of It is greatest It is greatest It varies, It is the
NAVSTAR/GPS satellites is correct? at the at the poles depending same
equator on the time throughout
and the globe
observer's
location
4795 62
How many operational satellites are required for Full 18 12 30 24
Operational Capability (FOC) of the satellite navigation
4796 62 system NAVSTAR/GPS?
Which of the following satellite navigation systems has NAVSTAR/G NNSS- COSPAS- GLONASS
Full Operational Capability (FOC) and is approved for PS Transit SARSAT
specified flights under IFR conditions in Europe?
4797 62
The basic elements of the satellite navigation system control, main control antenna, the atomic
NAVSTAR/GPS are the: space and station, the receiver and clock, power
user monitoring the central supply and
segments station and control unit transponder
the ground (CDU)
antennas

4798 62
One of the tasks of the control segment of the satellite manipulate grant and monitor the manufacture
navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to: the signals monitor user status of the and launch
of selected authorisation satellites the satellites
satellites to s
reduce the
precision of
the position
fix
4799 62
An aircraft carrying out a 3° glidepath ILS approach 250 FT/MIN 50 FT/MIN 100 FT/MIN 150 FT/MIN
experiences a reduction in groundspeed from 150 kt at
the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect
of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of
descent will be a decrease of approximately:

4800 62
Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser At the non- At the On the non- At the
transmitting aerial normally situated? approach approach approach approach
end about end about end of the end of the
150 m to 150 m to runway runway
one side of one side of about 300 m about 300 m
the runway the runway from the from
and 300 m and 300 m runway on touchdown
along the from the on the
extended touchdown extended centreline
centreline centreline

4801 62
 The database of an FMS (Flight Management System) only read can modify read and insert
is organised in such a way that the pilot can: the the write at any navigation
database database time in data
every 28 database between two
days updates

4802 62
Which one of the following statements is correct It is less The It eliminates A smaller
concerning the use in primary radar of continuous wave effective in equipment the minimum common
transmissions as compared with pulse transmissions? short range required is target transmitter
radars but more reception and receiver
more complex in range aerial can be
effective in continuous used
long range wave radar
radars but this is
offset by
greater
reliability
and
accuracy

4803 62
Due to 'Doppler' effect an apparent decrease in the both the the the
transmitted frequency, which is proportional to the transmitter transmitter transmitter transmitter
transmitter's velocity, will occur when: and receiver moves away and receiver moves
move away from the move toward the
from each reciever towards reciever
other each other

4804 62
Signal reception is required from a minimum number of 4 5 6 7
satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable
geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation
System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out independent three
dimensional operation, Receiver Autonomous Integrity
Monitoring (RAIM) and to isolate any faulty satellite and
remove it from contributing to the navigation solution.
The number of satellites is:

4805 62
A ground radar transmitting at a PRF of 1200 27 NM 67 NM 135 NM 270 NM
pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous
4806 62 range of approximately:
The main task of the user segment (receiver) of the monitor the select transmit to monitor
satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to: orbital appropriate signals the status of
planes of the satellites which, from the
satellites automaticall the time satellites,
y, to track taken, are determine
the signals used to their
and to determine positions
measure the the distance and to
time taken to the measure the
by signals satellite time
from the
satellites to
reach the
receiver

4807 62
 Signal reception is required from a minimum number of 3 4 5 6
satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable
geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation
System (GPS) to carry out independent three
dimensional operation without the Receiver
Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) function. The
number of satellites is:
4808 62
One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite transmit transmit compute the monitor the
navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to: signals signals to user position satellites'
which can suitable from the orbits and
be used, by receivers received status
suitable and to user
receivers, to monitor the messages
determine orbital and to
time, planes transmit the
position and autonomousl computed
velocity y position
back to the
user
segment

4809 62
In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather MAPPING CONTOUR WEATHER MANUAL
4810 62 radar use a cosecant radiation pattern.
There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other the same greater from the same greater from
50 NM inland from the coast. from both the beacon from both the beacon
Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is beacons that is 20 beacons that is 50
the same for both propagations, the extent of the error when the NM inland when the NM inland
in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water aircraft is on aircraft is on
will be: a relative a relative
bearing of bearing of
180° and 090° and
360° 270°

4811 62
How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit 365 days Approximate Approximate 12 days
the earth? because the ly 12 hours ly 24 hours
satellites are (1/2 of a (one
located in a sidereal day) sidereal day)
geostationar
y orbit

4812 62
In relation to the satellite navigation system horizontal orbital plane horizontal orbital plane
NAVSTAR/GPS, plane at the and the plane at the and the
the term 'inclination' denotes the angle between the: location of earth's axis location of equatorial
the receiver the receiver plane
and the and the
direct line to orbital plane
a satellite of a satellite

4813 62
In civil aviation, the height value computed by the geometric height above flight level height above
receiver of the satellite navigation system height above Mean Sea the WGS-84
NAVSTAR/GPS is the: ground Level (MSL) ellipsoid

4814 62
 The minimum range of a primary radar, using the pulse (i) pulse (i) (i) pulse (i)
technique, is determined by the (i)........ ; the maximum length (ii) transmission length (ii) transmission
unambiguous range by the (ii)......... length of the frequency pulse frequency
timebase (ii) pulse recurrence (ii)
recurrence frequency transmitter
frequency power
output

4815 62
The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter (i) the same (i) the same (i) different (i) different
is based on two overlapping lobes that are transmitted (ii) (ii) (ii) (ii)
on (i).......... frequencies and carry different (ii).......... modulation phases modulation phases
frequencies frequencies

4816 62
Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in engaged cautions, flight warnings
amber/yellow on an Electronic Flight Instrument System modes abnormal envelope
(EFIS), indicate: sources and system
limits
4817 62
ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from: spurious back- ground multiple
signals scattering of returns lobes of
reflected by antennas ahead of the radiation
nearby antennas patterns in
obstacles the vertical
plane
4818 62
What approximate rate of descent is required in order 450 FT/MIN 400 FT/MIN 600 FT/MIN 700 FT/MIN
to maintain a 3° glidepath at a groundspeed of 90 kt?
4819 62
Which one of the following Secondary Surveillance 5000 7000 0000 2000
Radar (SSR) codes should be used by aircraft entering
airspace from an area where SSR operation has not
been required?
4820 62
ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a within the outside the within the outside the
method of navigation which permits aircraft operation coverage of coverage of coverage of coverage of
on any desired flight path: station- station- station- station-
referenced referenced referenced referenced
navigation navigation navigation navigation
aids or aids aids aids
within the provided provided provided
limits of the that it is that it is that it is
capability of equipped equipped equipped
self- with a with a with a
contained minimum of minimum of minimum of
aids, or a one one two
combination serviceable serviceable serviceable
of these self- self- self-
contained contained contained
navigation navigation navigation
aid aid aids

4821 62
Precision RNAV (P-RNAV) requires a track-keeping 1.0 NM 1.5 NM 0.5 NM 0.25 NM
accuracy of: standard standard standard standard
deviation or deviation or deviation or deviation or
better better better better
4822 62
Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of: +/- 5NM or +/- 5NM or +/- 3NM or +/- 2NM or
better better for better for better for
throughout 95% of the 90% of the 75% of the
the flight flight time flight time flight time
4823 62
 The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is: the same as another the the actual
that given on source of computed position of
the No. 1 aircaft position the aircraft
IRS position; it is based on a at any point
independent number of in time
of other sources
position (IRS, Radio,
sources ILS, GPS
(IRS, Radio, etc)
ILS etc)

4824 62
The track-line on the Electronic Horizontal Situation indicates indicates to represents corresponds
Indicator (EHSI) or Navigation Display of an Electronic that the pilot the pilot that the track of to the
Flight Instrument System: has made a a manually the aircraft calculated
manual track selected over the IRS TH and
selection heading is ground. is correct
being flown When it co- during turns
incides with
the desired
track, wind
influence is
compensate
d for

4825 62
In which of the following cases would ETOs and ETA at When the When the When the When the
destination calculated by the Flight Management FMC ETOs and actual winds FMC
Computer (FMC) be correct? positions ETA are match the computes
and GS are based on forecast each ETO
accurate the forecast winds, and and ETA
winds the actual using the
calculated cruising correct GS
from the Mach
actual take- number is
off time equal to the
FMC
calculated
Mach
number

4826 62
Which of the following coordinate systems is used by EUREF 92 WGS 84 ED 87 ED 50
the GPS receiver to determine position (Latitude,
4827 62 longitude and altitude)?
The orbital planes of the satellite navigation system inclined 55° inclined 55° inclined 90° parallel to
NAVSTAR/GPS are: to the to the earth to the the
equatorial axis equatorial equatorial
plane plane plane
4828 62
GPS satellites transmit on two L-band frequencies with L1-precise L2-for L1-coarse L2-coarse
different types of signals. (P) communicati acquisition acquisition
Which of these are generally available for use by civil ons purpose (C/A) with (C/A)
aviation? selected
availability
(S/A)
4829 62
Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in cautions, the earth the ILS engaged
green on an Electronic Flight Instrument System abnormal deviation modes
4830 62 (EFIS), indicate: sources pointer
 Under JAR-25 colour code rules features displayed in the sky engaged the flight flight
cyan/blue, on an Electronic Flight Instrument Systems modes director envelope
(EFIS), indicate: bar(s) and system
limits
4831 62
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight white cyan red magenta
Instrument Systems (EFIS), current data and values are
4832 62 coloured:
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight green magenta amber/yello white
Instrument Systems (EFIS), armed modes are w
4833 62 coloured:
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight white yellow magenta green
Instrument Systems (EFIS), a selected heading is
4834 62 coloured:
Loran C coverage is: unrestricted unrestricted confined to global
between over the certain
latitudes oceans and limited areas
70°N and adjacent of the world
70°S coastlines
but limited
over the
major
continental
land masses

4835 62
Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum 666 km 1333 km 150 km 333 km
range of a ground radar with a pulse repetition
frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity
of light is 300 000 km/second)
4836 62
The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) 1090 MHz 1090 MHz 1030 MHz 1030 MHz
equipment incorporates a transmitter and receiver 1030 MHz 1090 MHz 1030 MHz 1090 MHz
respectively operating in the following frequencies:

Transmitter Receiver

4837 62
When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR flight level altitude aircraft height based
transponder the additional information transmitted is: based on based on height based on QFE
1013.25 hPa regional on sub-scale
QNH setting

4838 62
Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in warnings; cautions and warnings; flight
red on an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS), cautions and abnormal flight envelope
indicate: abnormal sources; envelope and system
sources engaged and system limits;
modes limits engaged
modes
4839 62
In order to obtain an ADF bearing the: sense aerial mode BFO switch signal must
must be selector must be be received
tuned should be selected to by both the
separately switched to 'ON' sense and
'loop' loop aerials
4840 62
What type of satellite navigation system Sequential Multiplex Any hand Multichannel
NAVSTAR/GPS receiver is most suitable for use on held type
4841 62 board an aircraft?
 The reason why the measured distance between a calculated calculated measured movement
NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system satellite and range is range distance is of satellite
a receiver is called a 'Pseudo-Range' is because the: based on an includes based on and receiver
idealised receiver the Pseudo during the
Keplerian clock error Random distance
orbit Noise code calculation is
not taken
into account

4842 62
In relation to the satellite navigation system is receiving is receiving requires the is tracking
NAVSTAR/GPS, 'All in View' is a term used when a the signals and tracking signals of all more than
receiver: of all visible the signals visible the required
satellites but of all 24 satellites for 4 satellites
tracking operational navigation and can
only those of satellites purposes instantly
the 4 with simultaneou replace any
the best sly lost signal
geometric with another
coverage already
being
monitored

4843 62
The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and calculated, determined determined calculated
receiver is: using the by the phase by the time from the
WGS-84 shift of the taken for the Doppler shift
reference Pseudo signal to of the known
system, from Random arrive from frequencies
the known Noise code the satellite
positions of multiplied by multiplied by
the satellite the speed of the speed of
and the light light
receiver

4844 62
Concerning the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation It is a It is a It is a It is the
system, what is the meaning of the term 'Receiver method technique technique by ability of the
Autonomous Integrity Monitoring' (RAIM)? whereby a whereby the which a GPS
receiver receivers of receiver satellites to
ensures the the world- ensures the check the
integrity of wide integrity of integrity of
the Pseudo distributed the the data
Random monitor navigation transmitted
Noise (PRN) stations information by the
code (ground monitoring
transmitted segment) stations of
by the automaticall the ground
satellites y determines segment
the integrity
of the
navigation
message

4845 62
 Which of the following statements is correct concerning The effect of The effect of The The path
the principle behind the correction of one of the receiver signal influence of delay of the
NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system errors by noise can be reflections shadowing signals in
the transmission of the signals on two frequencies (L1 reduced due (multipath on the GPS the earth
and L2)? to the effect) can signals is atmosphere
interference be reduced proportional is
of both due to the to the proportional
frequencies interference inverse of to the
of both the carrier inverse of
frequencies frequency the carrier
squared frequency
squared

4846 62
Which one of the following errors can be compensated Multipath Tropospheri Receiver Ionospheric
for by a NAVSTAR/GPS receiver comparing L1 and L2 c noise
4847 62 frequencies?
The main factor which determines the minimum range repetition frequency length amplitude
that can be measured by a pulsed radar is pulse: rate
4848 62
Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition 405 pps 782 pps 308 pps 375 pps
frequency
(PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility to
detect targets
unambiguously to a range of 200 NM is:
(pps = pulses per second)
4849 62
Which of the following lists all the parameters that can Latitude, Latitude, Latitude, Latitude and
be determined by a GPS receiver tracking signals from longitude longitude longitude, longitude
4 different satellites? and time and altitude altitude and
time
4850 62
ICAO specifications are that range errors indicated by + or - 0.5 + or - 1.25 + or - 0.25 + or - 0.25
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) should not NM or 3% of NM plus NM plus 3% NM plus
exceed: the distance 0.25% of the of the 1.25% of the
measured distance distance distance
whichever is measured measured measured
the greater up to a
maximum of
5 NM
4851 62
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight cyan magenta green yellow
Instrument Systems (EFIS), the active route/flight plan
4852 62 is coloured:
The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in simultaneou have a wide eliminate the virtually
modern radar technology is to: sly transmit beam and need for eliminate
weather and as a azimuth lateral lobes
mapping consequenc slaving and as a
beams e better consequenc
target e
detection concentrate
more energy
in the main
beam

4853 62
 MLS installations notified for operation, unless + or - 40° + or - 20° + or - 40° + or - 20°
otherwise stated, provide azimuth coverage of: about the about the about the about the
nominal nominal nominal nominal
courseline courseline courseline courseline
out to a out to a out to a out to a
range of 20 range of 20 range of 30 range of 10
NM NM NM NM
4854 62
Complete the following statement. Aircraft Surface (i) SHF (ii) (i) EHF (ii) (i) SHF (ii) (i) EHF (ii)
movement Radar operates on frequencies in the 60 (iii) 30 (iii) 10 (iii) 100 (iii)
(i) .......... band employing an antenna that rotates at sometimes never always never
approximately (ii) .......... revolutions per minute; it is
(iii) ......... possible to determine the type of aircraft from
the return on the radar screen.

4855 62
The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long 200 NM 100 NM 400 NM 300 NM
4856 62 Range Surveillance Radar is approximately:
In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors rotational size of the range from size of the
which determine whether a cloud will be detected are: speed of water drops; cloud; water drops;
radar wavelength/f wavelength/f diameter of
scanner; requency requency radar
range from used used scanner
cloud
4857 62
In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an 2.5° up 0° 2.5° down 5° up
Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR) is at or above the height
of the aircaft, the tilt control should be set to:
(Assume a beam width of 5°)

4858 62
Which of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar 7600 4096 9999 0000
(SSR) codes is used to indicate transponder
4859 62 malfunction?
In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS), the aircraft's measuring measuring measuring
a fix is obtained by: receiver the time the pulse the time
measuring taken for an lengths of taken for a
the phase aircraft's signals minimum
angle of transmission received number of
signals s to travel to from a satellites'
received a number of minimum transmission
from a satellites, in number of s, in known
number of known satellites positions, to
satellites in positions, received in a reach the
known and return to specific aircraft's
positions the aircraft's sequential receiver
receiver order

4860 62
Which of the following frequency-bands is used by the 90 - 110 kHz 1750 - 1950 10.2 - 13.6 978 - 1213
4861 62 Loran C navigation system? kHz kHz MHz
Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency 200 - 2000 200 - 1750 255 - 455 300 - 3000
4862 62 band for ADF receivers? kHz kHz kHz kHz
 Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF It does not It only It is pilot It does not
(VDF) let-down? require any requires a interpreted require any
special VHF radio to and does special
equipment, be fitted to not require equipment
apart from a the aircraft the to be fitted
VHF radio, assistance to the
to be of ATC aircraft
installed in
the aircraft
or on the
ground

4863 62
(For this question use annex 062-9915A) 20° Right 20° Left 12° Right 8° Left
4864 62 What drift is being experienced?
What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable 3° above 1.35° above 0.45° above 0.7° above
navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a and below the the and below
distance of 10 NM? the glide horizontal to horizontal to the glide
path and 10° 5.25° above 1.75° above path and
each side of the the glide 2.5° each
the localiser horizontal path and 8° side of the
centreline and 8° each each side of localiser
side of the the localiser centreline
localiser centreline
centreline

4865 62
(For this question use annex 062-9917A) 030°(M)/20K 255°(M)/20K 285°(M)/20K 105°(M)/20K
4866 62 What wind velocity is indicated? T T T T
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight green white magenta yellow
Instrument Systems (EFIS), selected data and values
4867 62 are coloured:
(For this question use annex 062-9919A) 280°(M) 272°(M) 300°(M) 260°(M)
4868 62 What is the instantaneous aircraft track?
(For this question use annex 062-9920A) VOR/DME TACAN VOR Airport
4869 62 The letters QTX and adjacent symbol indicate a:
(For this question use annex 062-9921A) the an off-route a designated an off-route
The 'O' followed by the letters 'KABC' indicate: destination airport alternate VOR/DME
airport airport
4870 62
(For this question use annex 062-9922A) 272°(M) 280°(M) 300°(M) 260°(M)
4871 62 What is the manually selected heading?
(For this question use annex 062-9923A) right of the left of the left of the right of the
The diagram indicates that the aircraft is to the: localizer and localizer and localizer and localizer and
above the below the above the below the
glidepath glidepath glidepath glidepath

4872 62
(For this question use annex 062-9914A) Figure 2 Figure 3 Figure 5 Figure 6
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS) display in FULL VOR/ILS
mode with an ILS frequency selected?
4873 62
What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted VHF radio VOR none VOR/DME
4874 62 in order that a VDF let-down may be flown?
(For this question use annex 062-9916A) 097°(T) 170°(M) 140°(M) 280°(T)
4875 62 What is the value of the track from TBX to YTB?
 In which one of the following circumstances is ground When When When using On first
direction finding (VDF) likely to be used to fix an contacting declaring an the contact with
aircraft's position? ATC to join emergency emergency ATC on
controlled on any VHF crossing an
airapace frequency frequency international
from the 121.5 MHz FIR
open FIR boundary

4876 62
In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing VHF UHF SHF EHF
4877 62 System (MLS) operate?
GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two only the 1 only the 1 the two only the 1
carrier waves 1575 MHz and 1227 MHz and supply two 575 MHz 227 MHz carrier 575 MHz
possible codes accessible acording to user (civil or carrier wave carrier wave waves and carrier wave
military). and two and one one public and one
Commercial aviation uses: codes code code code
4878 62
A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a decrease in increase in increase in decrease in
squall at 50NM. By changing the scale to 50 NM, the area and area and area and area but not
return on the radar screen should: move to the move to the appear change in
top of the top of the nearer to the position on
screen screen bottom of the screen
the screen

4879 62
A secondary radar can provide up to 4096 different mode S all modes mode A only mode C only
codes.
4880 62 These 4096 codes can be used in:
In weather radar the use of a cosecant beam in higher scanning of better a greater
'Mapping' mode enables: definition a large reception of radar range
echoes to be ground zone echos on to be
produced producing contrasting achieved
giving a echos terrain such
clearer whose as ground to
picture signals are sea
practically
independent
of distance

4881 62
The code transmitted by a SSR transponder consists phase frequency amplitude pulses
4882 62 of: differences differences differences
The VOR system is limited to about 1° of accuracy. One 3.0 NM 3.5 NM 2.0 NM 2.5 NM
degree at 200 NM represents a width of:
4883 62
An aircraft is "homing" to a radio beacon whilst left drift zero drift a wind from right drift
maintaining a relative bearing of zero. the west
If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is
experiencing :
4884 62
Given : 226° 046° 224° 044°
Compass heading 270°
Deviation 2°W
Variation 30°E
Relative bearing 316°
What is the QDR?
4885 62
Radar returns, on a B737-400, can be displayed on all FULL FULL NAV, EXP VOR/ FULL NAV,
Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) screen VOR/ILS, FULL ILS, PLAN PLAN and
modes of an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) EXP VOR/ILS and MAP MAP
WITH THE EXCEPTION OF: VOR/ILS and PLAN
and PLAN
4886 62
 (For this question use annex 062-9906A) Figure 3 Figure 4 Figure 1 Figure 2
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
4887 62 Instrument System (EFIS) display in PLAN mode?
During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any altitude is range of a aeroplane is aeroplane is
DME distance indication from a DME station located too high DME system below the circling
approximately 220 NM away. is always 'line of sight' around the
The reason for this is that the: less than altitude station
200 NM

4888 62
A DME is located at MSL. 8 NM 6 NM 7 NM 11 NM
An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight
level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:
4889 62
The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates 329 to 335 962 to 1213 962 to 1213 108 to 118
4890 62 within the following frequencies: MHz kHz. MHz MHz
An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own the pulse DME uses they are not DME
transmissions reflected from the ground because: recurrence the UHF on the transmits
rates are band receiver twin pulses
varied frequency
4891 62
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight green, green, red, black, amber/yello
Instrument Systems (EFIS), increasing intensity of amber/yello magenta, amber/yello w, magenta,
precipititation are coloured in the order: w, red, black w, magenta, black
magenta red

4892 62
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight black cyan white or red
Instrument Systems (EFIS), turbulence is coloured: magenta
4893 62
(For this question use annex 062-9918A) 280°(M) 299°(M) 272°(M) 260°(M)
4894 62 What is the value of the selected course?
(For this question use annex 062-9905A) Figure 4 Figure 1 Figure 2 Figure 3
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
4895 62 Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode?
(For this question use annex 062-9913A) Figure 2 Figure 3 Figure 5 Figure 6
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP)
VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected?

4896 62
(For this question use annex 062-9907A) Figure 4 Figure 1 Figure 2 Figure 3
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP)
VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected?

4897 62
(For this question use annex 062-9910A) Figure 2 Figure 3 Figure 4 Figure 6
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
4898 62 Instrument System (EFIS) display in PLAN mode?
(For this question use annex 062-9912A) Figure 4 Figure 5 Figure 6 Figure 1
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP)
VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected?

4899 62
(For this question use annex 062-9911A) Figure 2 Figure 3 Figure 4 Figure 5
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
4900 62 Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode?
(For this question use annex 062-9909A) Figure 4 Figure 5 Figure 6 Figure 1
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS) display in FULL VOR/ILS
mode with an VOR frequency selected?
4901 62
 (For this question use annex 062-9908A) Figure 1 Figure 2 Figure 3 Figure 4
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP)
VOR/ILS mode with a VOR frequency selected?

4902 62
1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0
0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1
1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0
0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0
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1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0
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0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0
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0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0
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0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1
0 0 0 1
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0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1
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0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0
1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0
1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0
0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1
0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1
0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1
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0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1
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1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0
0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0
0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0
0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0
0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0
0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0
0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1
0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0
0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1
1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1
0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0
0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1
1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0
0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0
0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0
0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1
0 0 0 1
 OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES - AEROPLANES

On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all 12 000 ft 11 000 ft 10 000 ft 13 000 ft
the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the
flight period during which the pressure altitude is
greater than :
4903 71 0 0 0
The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is: 60 NM 60 NM 90 NM 90 NM
between between between between all
aircraft flying aircraft aircraft flying aircraft flying
above operating above in the NAT
FL285. below FL285. region.
MNPS
airspace.
4904 71 1 0 0
Which errors in "estimates" minutes shall be reported 3 or more. 5 or more. 10 or more. 2 or more.
4905 71 by aircraft overflying the North Atlantic? 1 0 0
An air traffic units may request the aircraft to report 10° of 15° of 5° of 20° of
position when flying east-west north of 70°N between longitude. longitude. longitude. longitude.
4906 71 10°W and 50°W, every: 0 0 0
An air traffic unit may request the aircraft to report 15° of 10° of 5° of 20° of
position when flying east-west south of 70°N between longitude. longitude. longitude. longitude.
4907 71 5°W and 65°W, every: 0 1 0
In the event of a contingency which required an en- Start its Start its Descend Start its
route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the descent descent below descent
direction of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior while turning while turning FL275. while turning
ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft not able to acquire a to acquire a to acquire a
to maintain its assigned flight level should: track track track
separated separated separated
by 60 NM by 90 NM by 30 NM
from its from its from its
assigned assigned assigned
route or route or route or
track. track. track.

4908 71 0 0 0
On board a non-pressurized aircraft, 10% of the 10 000 ft 11 000 ft 11 000 ft 10 000 ft
passengers must be supplied with oxygen throughout and 12 000 and 13 000 and 12 000 and 13 000
the period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during ft ft ft ft
which the pressure altitude is between :

4909 71 0 0 0
On board a pressurized aircraft, a flight shall be 10 000 ft. 11 000 ft. 12 000 ft. 13 000 ft.
undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an
oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part
of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the
event of a cabin depressurization, throughout the flight
period, during which the pressure altitude is greater
than :
4910 71 1 0 0
 The determination of the aerodrome minimum 2,4,5 2,3,5 1,2,3,4,5 1,2,4,5
operating conditions must take the following into
account :

1. equipment available for navigation

2. dimensions and characteristics of the runways
3. composition of the flight crew
4. obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed
approach areas
5. facilities for determining and communicating the
weather conditions

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is :

4911 71 0 0 1
For aircraft certified before the 1 april 1998, cockpit flight. 48 hours of 30 minutes 25 hours of
voice recorder must keep the conversations and sound operation. of operation. operation.
alarms recorded during the last :
4912 71 0 0 1
For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygen 13 000 ft 29 000 ft 10 000 ft 25 000 ft
masks are compulsory on board any pressurized
4913 71 aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than : 0 0 0
A recent aircraft must be provided with a flight data 14 000 kg 20 000 kg 27 000 kg 5 700 kg
recorder when its certified take-off gross weight is
4914 71 greater than : 0 0 0
The frequency designated for VHF air to air 121.5 MHz. 243 MHz. 118.5 MHz. 131.8 MHz.
communications when out of range of VHF ground
4915 71 stations in NAT region is : 0 0 0
In the event of a contingency which required an en- If below If above If below If above
route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the FL410, climb FL410, climb FL410, climb FL410, climb
direction of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior or descend or descend 500 ft or 1000 ft or
ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able to 1000 ft, 1000 ft, descend descend 500
maintain its assigned flight level should : while turning while turning 1000 ft, ft, while
towards the towards the while turning turning
alternate alternate towards the towards the
aerodrome. aerodrome. alternate alternate
aerodrome. aerodrome.

4916 71 0 1 0
A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment Prior As soon as When At or prior
during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised entering the possible crossing the entering the
Track System) must be done : NAT region. after oceanic NAT region.
entering the airspace
NAT region. boundary.
4917 71 0 0 0
If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length using the inserting the inserting
of one of the organised tracks, the intended organised abbreviation coordinates abbreviation coordinates
track should be defined in items of the FPL by : "OTS" defining "NAT" as detailed
followed by significant followed by in the NAT
the code points with the code track
letter intervals of letter message.
assigned to 10° of assigned to
the track. longitude. the track.
4918 71 0 0 1
 In the event of a contingency which required an en- If at FL410, If at FL410, If at FL410, If at FL410,
route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the climb or descend climb 1000 ft climb 500 ft,
direction of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior descend 500 1000 ft, or descend while turning
ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able to ft, while while turning 500 ft, while towards the
maintain its assigned flight level should: turning towards the turning alternate
towards the alternate towards the aerodrome.
alternate aerodrome. alternate
aerodrome. aerodrome.

4919 71 0 0 1
For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be Does not Does not Does not Does not
located at a distance that : (Annex 6, Part I) exceed the exceed the exceed the exceed the
equivalent of equivalent of equivalent of equivalent of
one hour of two hours of one hour of two hour of
flight time, at flight time, at flight time at flight time at
cruising cruising cruising cruising
speed with speed with speed all speed all
only one only one engines engines
engine engine operating. operating.
operative. operative.

4920 71 1 0 0
Who makes sure that the air transportation of an item of The captain, The It is not The shipper
dangerous goods is not prohibited? always using operator. specified. when
the list of completing
prohibited the shipper's
aircraft declaration
items. for
dangerous
goods.

4921 71 0 0 0
We would know that the automatic pressurization 2,3. 1,2,3. 1,2. 1,3.
system has malfunctioned if :

1. threre is a change in environnemental sounds.

2. the cabin barometer indicates a sharp rise.
3. the differential pressure between the exterior and the
interior becomes equal.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is :

4922 71 0 1 0
If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action Determine Cut off all air Put on the Begin an
to take is to : which conditioning mask and emergency
system is units. goggles. descent.
causing the
smoke.
4923 71 0 0 1
 Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in 2,3. 1,2,3. 1,2. 1,3.
the designation of a runway, under the following
circumstances :

1. when cross wind component, including gust, exceeds

15 knots.
2. when the tail wind component, including gust,
exceeds 5 knots.
3. when the runway is not clear or dry.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is :

4924 71 0 1 0
About procedures for noise attenuation during landing: They Such They are Such
prohibit the procedures applied in procedures
use of do not exist. the case of will not
reverse an involve the
thrust . instrument prohibition of
approach using
only. reverse
thrust .
4925 71 0 0 0
If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR Dependent Greater than Less than Equal to the
indications will be: on the the actual. the actual. actual.
temperature.
4926 71 0 1 0
Aircraft using a VFR flight plan in controlled airspace Only as is With more As is As is
shall be equipped: (Annex 6, Part I) necessary anti-icing necessary necessary
for aircraft and/or de- for aircraft for aircraft
that make icing devices that make that operate
VFR flights. (if one VFR flights, in
expects icy and such accordance
conditions). aircraft must with
also instrument
possess flight rules.
indicators of
attitude and
course,
along with a
precise
barometric
altimeter.

4927 71 0 0 0
Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is The The The The captain.
such that flight can be safely made, and that any operator. mechanic on company's
transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? board, or in cargo
(Annex 6, Part I) his absence technicians.
the co-pilot.

4928 71 0 0 0
Which separation will be provided if Reduced Vertical 90 NM 60 NM 90 NM 60 NM
Separation Minimum (RVSM) is used when operating in lateral and lateral and lateral and lateral and
MNPS airspace? 1000 ft 500 ft 500 ft 1000 ft
vertical. vertical. vertical. vertical.
4929 71 0 0 0
The abbreviation MNPS means : Minimum Main Maximum Magnetic
Navigation Navigation Navigation Navigation
Performance Performance Performance Performance
Specification Specification Specification Specification

4930 71 1 0 0
 During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS in random in a day in a night out of the
(Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace. flight route flight route organised
airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at system. system. route
1000 UTC ; you will normally be : system.
4931 71 1 0 0
During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS in random in a day in a night out of the
(Minimum Navigation Performance Spécification) airspace flight route flight route organized
airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at system system route system
2330 UTC ; you will normally be :
4932 71 1 0 0
The regulatory green navigation light is located on the 70°. 220°. 110°. 140°.
4933 71 starboard wing tip, with a coverage angle of : 0 0 1
Flight data recorders must keep the data and 48 hours of 25 hours of 30 hours of flight.
4934 71 parameters recorded during at least the last : operation. operation. operation. 0 1 0
The holdover time following an anti-icing procedure frost freezing fog rain on a steady snow
being carried out will vary considerbly depending on the cold soaked
ambient temperature and the weather conditions. For a wing
given ambient temperature, the longest protection will
be in weather conditions of :

4935 71 1 0 0
Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in Operating at Flying above Operating Operating
accordance with IFR when: or above FL 3000 ft. more than more than
60 or 2000 ft 100 NM 100 NM
whichever is seaward seaward
higher. from the from the
shoreline shoreline
within within
controlled uncontrolled
airspace. airspace.

4936 71 1 0 0
At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Between Between Between Below
Minimum (RVSM) be used within NAT region? FL290 and FL275 and FL245 and FL290.
4937 71 FL410. FL400. FL410. 1 0 0
When refueling is being performed while passengers The aircraft's Refueling is All the flight Communicat
are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is stairs be prohibited crew be on ions be
necessary that: (Annex 6, Part I) completely while board. maintained
extended. passengers between
are boarding ground
and/or personnel
disembarkin and qualified
g. personnel
on board.

4938 71 0 0 0
If a pilot has connected the automatic pilot to the gyro rhumb line. curve of spherical great circle.
compass (which is assumed to be operating correctly) some type flight
and the latter is fitted with a rate correction device or other. segment.
which is properly corrected by astronomical precession,
the course followed by the aircraft (in still air conditions)
is a:
4939 71 0 0 0
The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance 285 and 280 and 280 and 275 and
Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight 420. 400. 390. 400.
4940 71 levels: 1 0 0
In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in 128.800 131.800 118.800 121.800
an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance MHz. MHz. MHz. MHz.
Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency
for air-air communications is :

4941 71 0 1 0
 In the event of communication failure in an MNPS change the continue his return to his join one of
(Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) flight level in flight flight plan the so-called
airspace, the pilot must: accordance compliance route if its "special"
with the with the last different routes.
predetermin oceanic from the last
ed clearance oceanic
instructions. received and clearance
acknowledg received and
e by him. acknowledg
e by him.

4942 71 0 1 0
A fast decompression is recognizable by the following 1, 2, 3, 4 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 3 1, 4
elements:

1. mist in the cabin

2. blast towards the exterior of the aircraft
3. expansion of body gases
4. blast of air released violently from the lungs

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

4943 71 1 0 0
(For this question use appendix ) a toxic a corpse an infectious an explosive
material or material material
If a packet is marked with the label shown in the gas
appendix it is :
4944 71 1 0 0
Carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that: national government no the airline
aviation permission passenger is complies
administratio has been carried on with the
n permission granted the same Technical
has been flight Instructions
granted

4945 71 0 0 0
4946 71 In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is : 7600 7700 2000 7500 0 0 0
A dry-chemical type fire extinguisher is fit to fight: 3-4 1-2-3 1-2-3-4 2-4

1- class A fires
2- class B fires
3- electrical source fires
4- special fires: metals, gas, chemicals

Which of the following combinations contains all of the

correct statements?

4947 71 0 0 1
An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure leaving the it is rotating releasing the it is
must be anti-icing fluid free at the latest when : icing zone. (before brakes in implementin
taking-off). order to g its own
take-off. anti-icing
devices.
4948 71 0 1 0
 The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class 3 - 4 2-3-4 1-2-3-4 2
B fires are:
1 - H2O
2 - CO2
3 - dry-chemical
4 - halogen

Which of the following combinations contains all of the

correct statements?

4949 71 0 1 0
What is the transponder code to be used by an aircraft 7500 7600 7700 7800
that is subject to unlawful interference (hijacked) is :
4950 71 1 0 0
An airline operator shall make sure that if the aircraft 500 ft/min 300ft/min 300 ft/min 500 ft/min
planned for the flight is a performance class B with one with all with one with all
aeroplane, it will be able, throughout its flight route or engine engines engine engines
its alternate route scheduled from this initial route, to inoperative operating at inoperative operating at
reach a climb rate of at least : and all the maximum and all the maximum
others continuous others cruise
operating at power. operating at power.
maximum maximum
continuous continuous
power. power.

4951 71 0 1 0
You will use a water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) on a 2 3 3 and 4 1
fire of :

1 - solids (fabric, carpet, ...)

2 - liquids (ether, gasoline, ...)
3 - gas
4 - metals (sodium, ...)

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

4952 71 0 0 0
The braking efficiency is a piece of information combination percentage zero letter falling
presenting itself in the form of a : of the terms: varying from followed by between A
poor, 10 % to 100 two and E.
medium, %. decimals.
good.

4953 71 1 0 0
You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of: 1,2,3,4 2,3,4 1,2,4 1,2,3

1 - solids (fabric, plastic, ...)

2 - liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...)
3 - gas
4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium, ...)

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

4954 71 0 0 0
An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire fire is no the fire shut- the fire- all the fire-
shut off-handle. longer off handle extinguisher extinguisher
The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when: detected. has been has been s connected
pulled. triggered. to this
engine have
been
triggered.

4955 71 1 0 0
 The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by: the the the Civil the airline
manufacture aeronautical Aviation operator.
r. authority the Authority of
airline the
operator european
depends on. states.

4956 71 0 0 0
A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be: flooded. damp. contaminate wet.
4957 71 d. 0 0 1
At a high ambient temperature (+ 30° C) and with a is possible can occur, cannot occur can occur,
relative humidity as low as 40 %, in air free of cloud, fog at any but only at a but only at
and precipitation, serious carburettor icing : setting low power full power or
setting cruise
settings
4958 71 0 1 0
The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class 1 3-4 1-2-3-4 2-3-4
A fires are:
1 - H2O
2 - CO2
3 - dry-chemical
4 - halogen

Which of the following combinations contains all of the

correct statements?

4959 71 0 0 1
According with the "noise abatement take-off and climb 500 ft 1 500 ft 3 000 ft 1 000 ft
procedure B", as established in DOC 8168 - Ops
Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kt,
until reaching :
4960 71 0 0 0
The captain is asked by the authority to present the can refuse can only do must do so, can request
documents of the aircraft. He to present so after within a a delay of 48
them. having reasonable hours.
consulted period of
the operator. time.

4961 71 0 0 1
During a flight, the chief steward informs the crew that a authorizes authorizes may must not
passenger is using a portable device suspected to its use its use authorize authorize
disburb the aircraft electronic systems. The captain: except during the the use of any person
during take- whole flight this device, to use such
off and phase. as an a device on
landing exception. board.
phases.
4962 71 0 0 0
After an accident, the operator of an airplane equipped 90 days. 45 days. 60 days. 30 days.
with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings
4963 71 for a minimum period of: 0 0 1
An operator must ensure that for the duration of each the the aircraft a copy of the a copy of the
flight, be kept on the ground, if required: calculation equipment weight and calculated
of the report balance take-off
airborne fuel (logbook). sheet. performance
quantity. s.

4964 71 0 0 1
An operator must ensure that, for the duration of each operation ATC (Air flight plan flight route
flight, be kept on the ground a copy of the : flight plan. Traffic processing. sheet.
Control)
flight plan.
4965 71 1 0 0
In the hazardous materials transportation act, the sender. captain. station aerodrome
freight compliance with the regulatory arrangements is manager. manager.
4966 71 the responsibility of the : 1 0 0
 The first part of the JAR-OPS applies to: the aircraft the aircraft the the
proceeding used by operation by operation by
from police, a state a state
European customs and member of member of
states or defense the JAA of the JAA of
flying over departments any civil any civil
them. . aircraft. commercial
transport
aircraft.

4967 71 0 0 0
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome MDH=400 ft MDH=600 ft MDH=700 ft MDH=500 ft
Operating Minima), the lowest minima to be used by an and and and and
operator in a category B aeroplane for circling are : visibility=150 visibility=240 visibility=260 visibility=160
0m 0m 0m 0m
4968 71 0 0 0
The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance 30° North to 27° North to 30° North to 27° North to
4969 71 Specification) airspace extends from : 70° North. 90° North. 90° North. 70° North. 0 1 0
In accordance with JAR OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome 250 m 230 m 300 m 200 m
Operating Minima), the Category III A Operation, is a
precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or
MLS with a decision height lower than 100 feet an RVR
(runway visual range) no less than :
4970 71 0 0 0
The wake turbulence is the most severe when the 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 3 1, 4 1, 2, 3, 4
aircraft is :

1. slow
2. heavy
3. in a clean configuration
4. flying with a high thrust

The combination of correct statement is:

4971 71 0 1 0
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome NDB facility, ILS facility VOR facility, VOR/DME
Operationg Minima), an operator must ensure that lowest without lowest facility,
system minima for "non-precision approach MDH=300 ft glidepath MDH=250 ft lowest
procedures", which are based upon the use of ILS (localizer) MDH=300 ft
without glidepath (LLZ only), VOR NDB, SRA, and VDF lowest
are no lower than MDH following value with: MDH=200 ft

4972 71 1 0 0
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall 24 months 3 months 12 months 15 months
ensure that all relevant operational and technical
information for a individual flight is preserved on ground
for a predetermined period of time. Consequently, if
practicable, a copy of the operational flight plan shall be
retained, during at least :

4973 71 0 1 0
According to the recommended noise abatement is procedure is procedure is either depends on
procedures contained in the ICAO, DOC 8268 Volume I B A procedure A the wind
part V, data available indicates that the procedure or B, component
which results in noise relief during the part of the because
procedure close to the airport : there is not
difference in
noise
distribution
4974 71 1 0 0
According to the recommended "noise abatement take- 1 000 ft 1 500 ft 3 000 ft 2 000 ft
off and climb procedure A" established in ICAO, DOC
8168 Volume I part V, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to
climb power, has to be done as soon as the aircraft
reaches :
4975 71 0 1 0
 In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall he has he has he has he has
ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as carried out carried out carried out carried out
pilot-in-command unless : at least at least at least at least
three flights three take- three take- three take-
as pilot-in- off and three off and three off and three
command in landings as landings as landings as
an pilot flying in pilot flying in pilot flying in
aeroplane or any type of an an
an approved aeroplane or aeroplane or aeroplane or
flight an approved an approved an approved
simulator of simulator, flight flight
the type to under the simulator of simulator of
be used, in supervision the type to the type to
the of an be used, in be used, in
preceding examiner, in the the
90 days the preceding preceding
preceding 30 days 90 days
60 days

4976 71 0 0 0
JAR-OPS 1 establishes that, a co-pilot is not assigned he has he has he has he has
to operate at the flight controls during take-off and carried out operated as carried out carried out
landing unless : at least pilot-in- as pilot-in- as-pilot-in-
three flights command or command or command or
as pilot-in- as co-pilot at as co-pilot at as co-pilot at
command or the controls least three lest three
as a co-pilot during take- take-off and take-off and
at the off and three three
controls of landing of landings in landings in
the type to the type to an an
be used, in be used in aeroplane or aeroplane or
the the an approved an approved
preceding preceding flight flight
90 days. 90 days. simulator of simulator of
the type the type
used, in the used, in the
preceding preceding
90 days. 30 days

4977 71 0 1 0
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum required 5 IFR flights, 5 IFR flights, 5 IFR flights, 3 IFR flights,
recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot including 3 including 3 including 3 including 3
operation under IFR or at night shall be : take-off and take-off and instrument instrument
3 landings 3 landings approaches, approaches,
carried out carried out carried out carried out
during the during the during the during the
preceding preceding preceding preceding
90 days on 30 days on 90 days on 90 days on
the type or the type or the type the type
class of class of class of class of
aeroplane in aeroplane in aeroplane in aeroplane in
the single- the single- the single- the single-
pilot role. pilot role. pilot role. pilot role.

4978 71 0 0 1
 In accordance with JAR-OPS1, a Category III B 75 m 150 m 100 m 50 m
operations, is a precision instrument approach and
landing using ILS or MLS with, a decision height lower
than 50 ft, or no decision height and a runway visual
range lower than 200 m but no less than :

4979 71 1 0 0
An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure need not to must only must must only
and having exceeded the protection time of the anti- undergo a undergo a undergo a undergo a
icing fluid: new anti- de-icing de-icing new anti-
icing procedure procedure icing
procedure for take-off. before a procedure
for take-off. new for take-off.
application
of anti-icing
fluid for
take-off.

4980 71 0 0 1
JAR OPS 1.465 (VFR Operating minima), establishes for special VFR for for
that, the operator shall ensure about VFR flights, that : conducted flights are conducted conducted
VFR flights not VFR flights VFR flights
in airspace commenced in airspace in airspace
E, flight when B, horizontal F, vertical
visibility at visibility is distance distance
and above 3 less than 3 from clouds from clouds
050 m. (10 km is 1 000 m at is 250 m at
000 ft) is 5 least least
km at least
(clear of
cloud)

4981 71 0 1 0
In icing conditions and after the application of an anti- 3, 4 2, 3 1, 4 1, 2
icing fluid on your airplane, you are waiting to take-off
by:

1. avoiding positioning yourself in the engine jet wash

of the preceding aircraft
2. avoiding positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash
of the preceding aircraft
3. positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the
preceding aircraft
4. positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the
preceding aircraft

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

4982 71 0 0 0
The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on: 2, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 4, 6 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 1, 3, 5, 6
6
1. the type and intensity of the showers
2. the ambient temperature
3. the relative humidity
4. the direction and speed of the wind
5. the temperature of the airplane skin
6. the type of fluid, its concentration and temperature

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

4983 71 0 0 1
 The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and when the when the during when the
reduce considerably the protection time: temperature airplane is strong winds outside
of the into the or as a temperature
airplane skin wind. result of the is close to 0
is close to 0 other aircraft °C.
°C. engines jet
wash.

4984 71 0 0 1
After landing, in case of high temperature of the brakes apply the apply the release the release the
you: parking parking parking parking
brake and brake and brake and brake and
you approach you you
approach the wheels approach approach
the wheels sidewards. the wheels the wheels
either from either from sidewards.
fore or aft. aft or fore.
4985 71 0 0 1
In case of a fire due to the heating of the brakes, you 1, 2 2, 3, 4 3, 4 1, 4
fight the fire using:

1. a dry powder fire extinguisher

2. a water spray atomizer
3. a water fire-extinguisher
4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher to the maximum

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

4986 71 1 0 0
In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you : carry out a pull the fire fight the carry out a
damp shut off nozzle fire dry cranking.
cranking. handle and with a water
trigger the fire-
engines fire- extinguisher.
extinguisher
s.
4987 71 0 0 0
When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind different distinct from distinct from identical to
coming from the right side, you adopt a path, whenever from the the the the one of
possible : preceding preceding preceding the
airplane, by airplane, by airplane, by preceding
remaining remaining remaining airplane.
behind it and on the right on the left of
under its of and and under
path. above its its path.
path.

4988 71 0 1 0
When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind distinct from distinct from identical to distinct form
coming from the left side, you adopt a path, whenever the the the one of the
possible : preceding preceding the preceding
airplane, by airplane, by preceding airplane, by
remaining at remaining at airplane. remaining
the left of the right of behind it and
and above and under under its
its path. its path. path.

4989 71 1 0 0
The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake 30 seconds. 1 minute. 10 minutes. 3 minutes.
created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about:
4990 71 0 0 0
 The wake turbulence caused by an aircraft is mainly the 2 and 3. 1, 2 and 3. 1. 3.
result of:

1. An aerodynamical effect (wing tip vortices).

2. The engines action (propellers rotation or engine gas
exhausts).
3. The importance of the drag devices (size of the
landing gear, of the flaps, etc.).

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

4991 71 0 0 1
A passenger is allowed to carry match-boxes: 1, 2 2, 3 1 1, 2, 3

1. on himself/herself
2. in his/her hand luggage
3. in his/her checked luggage

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:
4992 71 0 0 1
A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for: 2, 3, 4 2, 4, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 1, 3, 5

1. a paper fire
2. a hydrocarbon fire
3. a fabric fire
4. an electrical fire
5. a wood fire

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

4993 71 0 0 1
Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane at separate to separate to separate on stagnate on
take-off: the right the left side. each side of the runway.
side. the runway.
4994 71 0 0 1
When an aircraft, having already undergone an anti- You must you must First, you You can
icing procedure, must be protected again: operate the wait until the must de-ice apply
aircraft de- protection again the directly the
icing/anti- time of the surface of new layer of
icing devices anti-icing the airplane, anti-icing
before fluid is over then apply fluid without
applying the before the new previous de-
new layer of applying the layer of anti- icing.
anti-icing new layer of icing fluid.
fluid. anti-icing
fluid.

4995 71 0 0 1
 The wake turbulence: starts when starts during starts as starts when
pulling out the rotation soon as the the airplane
the drag and stops as aeroplane is reaches a
devices and soon as the running for height of
stops when airplane's take-off and 300 ft above
rectracting wheels stops as the ground
the drag touch the soon as it and stops
devices. ground. has come to when it
a stop at crosses this
landing. height
before
landing.

4996 71 0 1 0
In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds high altitude low altitude low altitude low altitude
at : converge on converge on diverge from diverge from
the center of the center of the center of the center of
the the the the
phenomeno phenomeno phenomeno phenomeno
n and the n and the n and the n and the
atmospheric atmospheric atmospheric atmospheric
pressure pressure pressure pressure
increases by decreases increases by decreases
a few by a few a few by a few
hectopascal hectopascal hectopascal hectopascal
s. s. s. s.

4997 71 0 0 1
You will use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for : 1,2,3,4 3,4 1,2,3 2,3

1. a paper fire
2. a plastic fire
3. a hydrocarbon fire
4. an electrical fire

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

4998 71 1 0 0
You will use a powder fire-extinguisher for: 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 3 2, 3 1, 4

1. a paper fire
2. a plastic fire
3. a hydrocarbon fire
4. an electrical fire

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

4999 71 1 0 0
In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, 3, 5 1, 2, 4 1, 3, 5 2, 3
you will:

1. set the maximum take-off thrust

2. increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating
the stick shaker
3. pull in the drag devices (gear and flaps)
4. keep the airplane's current configuration
5. try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratio

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

5000 71 0 1 0
 A slow decompression may be caused by: 1, 2, 3 1, 2 1, 2, 3, 4 3, 4

1. a slight airtightness defect

2. a bad functioning of the pressurization
3. the loss of a window
4. the loss of a door

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

5001 71 0 1 0
To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you use: 3, 4 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 2 2, 3, 4

1. a water fire-extinguisher
2. a powder or chemical fire-extinguisher
3. a halon fire-extinguisher
4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

5002 71 1 0 0
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence LIGHT LIGHT MEDIUM LIGHT
non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be aircraft aircraft aircraft aircraft
applied to : taking-off taking -off landing landing
behind a behind a behind a behind a
MEDIUM MEDIUM HEAVY MEDIUM
aircraft from aircraft when aircraft aircraft
a parallel aircraft are
runway using the
separated same
by less than runway
760 m.
(using whole
runway)

5003 71 0 0 0
The time of useful consciousness in case of an 5 minutes. 12 seconds. 30 seconds. 1 minute.
explosive decompression at an altitude of
5004 71 40 000 ft is: 0 1 0
In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy 3, 5 2, 3, 4 1, 4, 5, 6 1, 2, 4
rain :

1. you increase your approach speed,

2. you land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the
wheels with the runway and immediately land your
nose gear,
3. you decrease your approach speed,
4. you use systematically all the lift dumper devices,
5. you land as smoothly as possible,
6. you brake energically.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is :

5005 71 0 0 0
 In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a you dexcend you carry you climb to you go down
bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding to the flight out an the to the level
any fuel considerations: level emergency maximum correspondi
correspondi descent to flight level ng to the
ng to the reach the which does indicated
indicated safety not need the cabin
cabin altitude. use of altitude and
altitude or pressurizatio keep the
the safety n. airplane in a
altitude if clean
higher and configuration
take until the final
preventive approach.
steps by
putting
yourself in a
landing
approach
configuration
.

5006 71 1 0 0
The attitudes to be adopted by the passengers, sitting 2, 3, 4 2, 4, 5 1, 4, 5 1, 2, 3, 4
in the travelling direction, in case of an emergency
landing are:

1. legs together and feet flat on the floor,

2. head resting against the back of the front seat,
3. forearms on the armrests,
4. seat belt very tightly fastened,
5. head resting on the forearms.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

5007 71 0 0 1
Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop a plastic fire. a fast a slow an electrical
characterize: depressuriza depressuriza fire.
5008 71 tion. tion. 0 1 0
In case of a ditching, the cabin attendants will : 2, 3, 4 2, 3 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 4

1. evacuate women and children first.

2. have the passengers embark directly in the liferafts.
3. prevent passenger movements which may impede
the airplane's flotation ability.
4. ensure the complete evacuation of the airplane.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

5009 71 1 0 0
When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM 4 MIN 3 MIN 1 MIN 2 MIN
aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum time
approach separation, according with DOC 4444
(ICAO), shall be :
5010 71 0 1 0
 According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence to an Between a to LIGHT to a
non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be arriving LIGHT aircraft departing
applied : LIGHT aircraft and taking-off MEDIUM
aircraft a MEDIUM behind a aircraft
following a aircraft MEDIUM following a
MEDIUM making a aircraft from HEAVY
aircraft missed an aircraft
departure approach intermediate arrival when
when and the part of operating on
operating on LIGHT parallel a runway
a runway aircraft runway with a
with a utilizing an separated desplaced
desplaced opposite- by less 760 landing
landing direction m threshold
threshold, if runway for
the take-off
projected
flight paths
are
expected to
cross

5011 71 0 0 1
The information concerning dangerous products that aircraft's IATA JAR-OPS ICAO
passengers may carry, are listed in the : flight document documentati document
manual. "Dangerous on. named
products "Technical
transportatio safety
n". instructions
for the air
transportatio
n of
dangerous
products"

5012 71 0 0 0
In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM 5 NM 4 NM 3 NM 2 NM
and a LIGHT aircraft are using the same runway, or
parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in
approach or departure phases of flight), shall be
applied a wake turbulence radar separation minima of :

5013 71 1 0 0
A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction 2, 3, 4 2, 4, 5 1, 3, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
for:

1. a paper fire
2. a hydrocarbon fire
3. a fabric fire
4. an electrical fire
5. a wood fire

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

5014 71 0 0 1
 According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence MEDIUM LIGHT LIGHT HEAVY
radar separation minima of 9,3 Km (5,0 NM) shall be aircraft is aircraft is aircraft is aircraft is
applied when a : crossing crossing crossing crossing
behind a behind a behind a behind a
MEDIUM MEDIUM HEAVY HEAVY
aircraft, at aircraft, at aircraft, at aircraft, at
the same the same the same the same
altitude or altitude or altitude or altitude or
less than less than less than less than
300 n (1 000 300 m (1 300 m (1 300 m (1
ft) 000.ft) 000 ft) 000 ft)

5015 71 0 1 0
In accordance with OPS 1 430 (Aerodrome Operating E D B C
Minima - General), it is established, among other
considerations, that an Operator must take full account
of Aeroplane Categories.
The criteria taken into consideration for classification of
Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at
threshold (Vat), which is equal to the stalling speed at
the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by 1,3.
Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from
141 kt to 165 kt is :

5016 71 0 1 0
In the Area where the MNPS is applicable, the vertical 500 ft 2000ft 1 500 ft 1 000 ft
separation that can be applied between FL 290 and
5017 71 FL410 inclusive is : 0 0 0
An aircraft flying at flight level 370 (FL 370) on MNPS climb or climb or climb or climb 500 ft
Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with descend 500 descent 1 descent 1 or descend
its air traffic control clearance (degradation of ft 000 ft 000 ft or 1 000 ft
navigational performance requirements, mechanics descend 500
troubles .... etc), but is able to maintain its assigned ft
level (FL 370), and due to a total loss of
communications capability, could not obtain a revised
clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its
assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to
the right or left whenever this is possible, and the
subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain
in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM
from its assigned route and :

5018 71 1 0 0
An aircraft flying above flight level 410 on MNPS climb or climb 1 000 climb 500 ft climb or
Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with descent 500 ft or descent or descend descend 1
its air traffic control clearance (degradation of ft 500 ft 1 000 ft 000 ft
navigational performance requirements, mechanics
troubles... etc), bus is able to maintain its assigned
level, and due to a total loss of communications
capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from
ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or
track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right of left
whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action
will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction
track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned
route and :

5019 71 0 0 0
 During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two at the at the end of a the end of at the
stages, the waiting time starts: beginning of the second the first beginning of
the first stage (anti- stage (de- the second
stage (de- icing stage). icing stage). stage (anti-
icing stage). icing stage).

5020 71 0 0 0
During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure: the de-icing the anti-icing the anti-icing the anti-icing
fluid is fluid is and de-icing and de-icing
applied applied fluids are fluids are
without without applied hot. applied cold.
heating and heating and
the anti-icing the de-icing
fluid is fluid is
applied hot. applied hot.
5021 71 0 1 0
A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for: 1, 3, 5 2, 3, 4 2, 4, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

1. a paper fire
2. a fabric fire
3. an electric fire
4. a wood fire
5. a hydrocarbon fire

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

5022 71 0 0 0
If you encounter a "microburst" just after taking-off, at 2,4 1,4 4,5 1,3
the beginning you will have:

1 - a head wind
2 - a strong rear wind
3 - better climb performances
4 - a diminution of climb gradient
5 - an important thrust drop

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is :

5023 71 0 0 0
According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non- LIGHT MEDIUM MEDIUM LIGHT
radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied aircraft aircraft aircraft aircraft
to : landing landing taking-off taking-off
behind a behind a behind a behind a
MEDIUM HEAVY HEAVY MEDIUM
aircraft aircraft aircraft from aircraft from
an an
intermediate intermediate
part of a part of the
parallel same
separated runway
by less than
760 m

5024 71 0 1 0
 (For this question use annex 071-9199A) Hold 1 : EAT Hold 1 : EAT Hold 1 : Hold 1 :
Considering the two holds of an aircraft : - BAG - RRY - BAG - AVI - BAG - BAG - BAG - RHF -
Each one consists of 4 compartments to accommodate - RHF AVI RRY - HUM HUM - RRY
freight pallets or luggage containers. Hold 2 : Hold 2 : Hold 2 : AVI Hold 2 : AVI
You are asked to load : BAG - AVI - BAG - HUM - AVI - XXX - - AVI - BAG -
2 pallets of live animals marked "AVI" AVI - HUM - RRY - RHF EAT (RHF EAT
2 luggage containers marked "BAG" disembarked
1 mortal remains marked "HUM" )
1 pallet of food product marked "EAT"
1 pallet of radioactive materials marked "RRY"
1 pallet of toxic materials marked "RHF"
The locations still vacant shall be marked "XXX"
According to the table of compatibility of special freight
and hazardous materials given in the appendix, the
most operational distribution in the holds shall be :

5025 71 0 0 0
If both precision navigation systems of an aircraft are land at the take an descend return to
unserviceable during a flight in MNPS airspace, and if nearest intermediate below the departure
you cannot establish communication with the air traffic airport flight level MNPS airport
control, you : space
5026 71 0 1 0
During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a 20 minutes 5 minutes 10 minutes 15 minutes
leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the longitudinal
5027 71 spacing must be at least : 0 1 0
The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between 90 NM. 120 NM. 60 NM. 30 NM.
5028 71 aircraft flying in MNPS airspace is : 0 0 1
The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying 15 minutes. 20 minutes. 10 minutes. 5 minutes.
in MNPS airspace at the same Mach number is :
5029 71 0 0 1
The minimum navigation equipment required for an Three One inertial Two inertial Two inertial
aircraft flying without restriction in MNPS airspace can inertial navigation navigation navigation
be at the very least : navigation unit. units. units and a
units. DECCA.
5030 71 0 0 1
During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum within the within the in a random out of the
Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you organized organized space organized
expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 00H30 UTC ; you daytime night-time flight track
will then normally be ; flight track flight track system
system system
5031 71 0 0 0
During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum within the in a random out of the within the
Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you organized space. organized organized
expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 11H00 UTC ; you night-time flight track daytime
will then normally be : flight track system. flight track
system. system.
5032 71 0 0 1
The validity period of a flight track system organized in 00H00 UTC 11H30 UTC 10H30 UTC 01H00 UTC
MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance to 08H00 to 19H00 to 19H00 to 08H00
Specification) airspace during a Westbound flight UTC UTC UTC UTC
normally is :
5033 71 0 1 0
The application of a type II de-icing fluid on an aircraft 24 hours certain time 3 hours certain time
on ground will provide a : protection of protection protection of protection
time. independent time. depending
of the on its
outside concentratio
temperature. n.

5034 71 0 0 0
 A polar track is a track part of which is included in an 10 micro- 6 micro-tesla 17 micro- 38 micro
area where the horizontal component of the earth tesla tesla tesla
5035 71 magnetic field is less than : 0 1 0
The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned 3 take-offs 6 take-offs 6 take-offs 3 take-offs
to a flight on an aircraft by an operator must not be less and 3 and 6 and 6 and 3
than : landings as landings as landings as landings as
pilot in pilot in pilot in pilot in
command command command command
on this type on this type on this type on this type
of aircraft of aircraft of aircraft of aircraft
during the during the during the during the
last 90 days last 90 days last 6 last 6
months months

5036 71 1 0 0
Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first Pitch angle. Vertical Groundspee Indicated
to change its value when penetrating a windshear ? speed. d. airspeed.
5037 71 0 0 0
Wake turbulence risk is highest : following a when a when a if, just before
preceding preceeding heavy landing a
aircraft at aircraft has aircraft has much lighter
high speed. briefly just aircraft has
applied take- performed a landed at
off thrust just take-off at a the same
prior to take closely runway with
off. situated heavy
parallel crosswind.
runway with
a light
crosswind.

5038 71 0 0 1
Following an explosive decompression, if you are using 32000 ft 25000 ft 14000 ft 8000 ft
an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator
controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure
oxygen when the supply selector is at the "normal"
position. At what approximate altitude will the regulator
supply to the mask become pure oxygen only ?

5039 71 1 0 0
Following an explosive decompression, the maximum 14000 ft 2500 ft 8000 ft 25000 ft
altitude without oxygen at which flying efficiency is not
5040 71 impaired is : 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 071-10645A) 8600 ft 2900 ft 20750 ft 12000 ft
Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum
differential pressure is limited to 2 psi. Assuming the
oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the
maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately :

5041 71 0 0 1
Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum 27000 ft 29000 ft 24500 ft 22500 ft
differential pressure is limited to 3 psi. Assuming the
oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the
maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately :

5042 71 0 0 1
If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the attains its decreases increases remains
differential pressure : maximum constant
permitted
operating
limit
5043 71 0 1 0
 When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for a rate of a rate of a rate of zero
some considerable time a small leak develops in the descent climb descent of
cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can dependent approximatel
be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will upon the y 300 fpm
indicate : cabin
differential
pressure
5044 71 0 1 0
One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it : can occur at occurs only occurs only can occur at
any altitude at a low at a low any altitude
in both the altitude altitude and only in
vertical and ( 2000 ft) ( 2000 ft) the
horizontal and never in and never in horizontal
planes the vertical the plane
plane horizontal
plane
5045 71 1 0 0
When the weather conditions require an alternate 2 hours of 2 hours of 1 hour of 1 hour of
aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall flight at flight at flight at flight at
be located, for a twin-engined aircraft, at an equivalent cruising cruising cruising cruising
distance not exceeding : speed with speed with speed with a speed with
single two engines single two engines
engine engine
5046 71 0 0 1
An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to above FL below FL at FL 430 at FL410
continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control 410 410
clearance (due to degradation of navigational
performance requirements), but is able to maintain its
assigned level,and due to a total loss of
communications capability, could not obtain a revised
clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its
assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to
the right or left whenever this is possible, and the
subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain
in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM
from its assigned route and climb 1 000 ft or descend
500 ft, if :

5047 71 0 0 0
An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to above FL at FL 430 below FL at FL 410
continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control 410 410
clearance (due to degradation of navigational
performance requirements), but is able to maintain its
assigned level, and due to a total loss of
communications capability, could not obtain a revised
clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its
assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to
the right or left whenever this is possible, and the
subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain
in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM
from its assigned route and climb or descend 500 ft, if :

5048 71 0 0 1
DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence 135 000 Kg less than 146 000 Kg 136 000 Kg
separation minima shall be based on a grouping of or more 136 000 Kg or more or more
aircraft types into three categories according to the but more
maximum certificated take-off mass. than 126
Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of : 000 Kg

5049 71 0 0 0
 To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a Above and Below and Below and Above and
larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuver : downwind downwind upwind from upwind from
from the from the the larger the larger
larger larger aircraft aircraft
aircraft aircraft
5050 71 0 0 0
The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the Large, Large, Small, light, Small, light,
generating aircraft is : heavy, at heavy, at at low speed at maximum
low speed in maximum in clean speed in full
clean speed in full configuration flaps
configuration flaps configuration
configuration

5051 71 1 0 0
With the Control Display Unit (CDU) of an Inertial Aircraft is Track Error Track Error Aircraft is
Navigation System (INS), you can read the following diverging Angle (TKE) Angle (TKE) converging
information : from its ideal is right (R) is left (L) towards its
course ideal course
- Desired track (DTK) = 100°
- Track (TK) = 120°

You can conclude that the :

5052 71 0 1 0
A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an 150 m 250 m 200 m 75 m
approach which may be carried out with a runway
5053 71 visual range of at least : 0 0 0
A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an 200 m 100 m 250 m 50 m
approach which may be carried out with a runway
5054 71 visual range of at least : 1 0 0
The minimum time track is a track defined for : a period of a period of aircraft flying a given
12 hours 24 hours in MNPS travel
airspace
5055 71 0 0 0
When the weather conditions require an alternate 2 hours of 2 hours of 1 hour of 1 hour of
aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall flight at flight at flight at flight at
be located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an cruising cruising cruising cruising
equivalent distance not exceeding : speed with 1 speed with speed with speed with
engine all engines all engine all
inoperative operating inoperative enginesoper
ating
5056 71 1 0 0
The term decision height (DH) is used for : an indirect a a precision a
approach. conventional approach. conventional
approach approach.
followed by
a visual
maneuver.
5057 71 0 0 1
A category III C precision approach (CAT III C) is an a runway no runway a runway a runway
approach with : visual range visual range visual range visual range
of at least limits of at least 50 of at least
350 m m 200 m
5058 71 0 1 0
A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an a decision a decision no decision a decision
approach with : height of at height of at height height of at
5059 71 least 200 ft least 50 ft least 100 ft 0 0 0
On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet 30 minutes 2 hours with 2 hours at 30 minutes
engined aircraft must mandatorily have a minimum with normal normal holding flight at holding
quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during : cruising cruising speed and flight speed
consumption consumption 1500 ft and 1500 ft

5060 71 0 1 0
 On an alternate field, the captain of turbojet engined 30 minutes 45 minutes 30 minutes 45 minutes
aircraft must mandatorily have a quantity of fuel and at cruising at cruising at holding at holding
lubricant sufficient for flying during : speed speed flight speed flight speed
and 1500 ft and 1500 ft
5061 71 0 0 1
A minimum time track is a : rhumb line spherical track great circle
capable determined track
flight according to
segment weather
conditions
5062 71 0 0 1
On overwater flights, an operator shall not operate an 300 NM or 200 NM or 100 NM or 400 NM or
aeroplane at a distance away from land, which is 90 minutes 45 minutes 30 minutes 120 minutes
suitable for making a emergency landing greater than at cruising at cruising at cruising at cruising
that corresponding to : speed. speed. speed. speed.

5063 71 0 0 0
A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board 400 NM 50 NM 100 NM 200 NM
an aircraft flying away from the shore by more than :
5064 71 0 1 0
The standby power supply powering the standby 30 minutes. 60 minutes. 15 minutes. 2 hours.
artificial horizon must be operable on board any aircraft
of more than 5700 kg or more than 9 passengers
during at least :
5065 71 1 0 0
Which one of the following factors should prevent a It has a tail It has a tail It has no ILS Cross-wind
runway being chosen as the preferential landing wind wind or visual component,
runway for noise abatement purposes in visual component component approach including
meteorological condition (VMC) ? of any value of 3 kts and slope gusts, is 10
a cross guidance kt
wind,
including
gusts, of 12
kt

5066 71 0 0 1
A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach 800 m 500 m 550 m 350 m
which may be carried out with a runway visual range of
5067 71 at least : 0 0 1
During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 to put on the to set the to warn the to comfort
(FL 370), your first action will be : oxygen transponder ATC your
mask to 7700 passengers
5068 71 1 0 0
An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an to put on disconnect transmit a place the
altitude of 31000 ft . What is the initial action by the oxygen the autopilot MAYDAY seat belts
5069 71 operating crew ? masks message sign to ON 1 0 0
The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip : from the clockwise. counterclock from the
underwing wise. upper side
toward the of the wing
upper side toward the
of the wing. underwing.

5070 71 1 0 0
An airplane creates a wake turbulence when : generating flying at high using a high flying with its
lift. speed. engine gear and
R.P.M. flaps
extended.
5071 71 1 0 0
 For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is 2 and 3. 3 and 4. 1 and 2. 1 and 4.
a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as :

1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre

grooves.
2- speed is greater than 132 kt.
3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the
tyre grooves.
4- speed is greater than 117 kt.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

5072 71 0 0 1
For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is 2 and 3. 3 and 4. 1 and 2. 1 and 4.
a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the :

1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre

grooves.
2- speed is greater than 96 kt.
3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the
tyre grooves.
4- speed is greater than 127 kt.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

5073 71 0 0 1
For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 10 bars, there is 1 and 4. 2 and 3. 3 and 4. 1 and 2.
a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the :

1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre

grooves.
2- speed is greater than 104 kt.
3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the
tyre grooves.
4- speed is greater than 96 kt.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

i:

5074 71 0 0 0
For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is 2 and 3. 3 and 4. 1 and 2. 1 and 4.
a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the :

1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre

grooves.
2- speed is greater than 114 kt.
3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the
tyre grooves.
4- speed is greater than 83 kt.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is :

5075 71 0 0 1
 For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is 3 and 4. 2 and 3. 1 and 2. 1 and 4.
a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the :

1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre

grooves.
2- speed is greater than 123 kt.
3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the
tyre grooves.
4- speed is greater than 95 kt.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

5076 71 0 0 1
When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just in front of at the point at the point beyond the
landed, you should take-off : the point where the where the point where
where the aircraft's aircraft's the aircraft's
aircraft's wheels have wheels have wheels have
wheels have touched touched the touched
touched down and on ground and down.
down. the wind on the
side of the underwind
runway . side of the
runway .

5077 71 0 0 0
The observations and studies conducted on the about two about ten as soon as from the
behavior of birds on the ground, ahead of an aircraft seconds seconds they hear beginning of
taking off and having reached an average speed of 135 beforehand beforehand the engines the takeoff
kt, show that birds fly away : noise roll
5078 71 1 0 0
An aircraft which experiencies a headwind of 40 kt 20 kt. 80 kt. 40 kt. 60 kt.
while making its way towards the centre of a microburst
may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a
windshear of :
5079 71 0 1 0
As regards the detection of bird strike hazard, the pilot's 2,5 1,2,5 1,2,3,4,5 1,3,4
means of information and prevention are:

1 - ATIS.
2 - NOTAMs.
3 - BIRDTAMs.
4 - Weather radar.
5 - The report by another crew.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is :

5080 71 0 1 0
 Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a 1,3,5 2,4 2,3,4,5 1,2,3,4,5,6
certain amount of information. The operator will see that
this file is kept on ground. It contains more particularly:

1 - the weather conditions for the day including the

weather forecast at destination,
2 - one copy of the operational flight plan and, if
required, the weight and balance sheet,
3 - copies of the relevant parts of the aircraft's materiel
report,
4 - the en-route NOTAM documentation when
specifically issued by the operator,
5 - notification for special loadings,
6 - for each flight, details of the day's performances and
limitations with completed charts.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

5081 71 0 0 1
Following an emergency landing which will need an 2,3. 2,4. 1,4. 1,3.
escape from the aircraft, you will:

1 - remain on the runway,

2 - clear the runway using the first available taxiway,
3 - keep one engine or the APU running in order to
maintain the electrical power supply on,
4 - turn off all systems.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:

5082 71 0 0 1
While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain take a level reduce maintain the reduce
of a transport aircraft notices a fast and high increase in flight attitude rapidly the aircraft on rapidly the
the indicated airspeed without any change in the to reduce selected the glide selected
preselected engine and attitude parameters. The speed, then thrust in path, accept thrust,
preceding crews had reported the occurrence of come back order to a positive maintain on
windshears in final phase. you must : to glide path reach 1.2 Vs speed the glide
from above. and try a deviation, path.
precision monitor the
landing. speed
evolution.

5083 71 0 0 1
A analysis of the bird strikes shows that the highest risk from 200 to from 0 to from 500 to from 100 to
5084 71 is encountered in a layer from : 500 m. 150 m. 1200 m. 800 m. 0 1 0
90 % of bird strikes occur : above 1 000 between 500 between 500 under 500 m
m and 1 000 m and 1 500 m
5085 71 0 0 0
While approaching the outer-marker, the tower informs supercooled convection windshears wake
you about the presence of a "microburst". You will water. motion of air (vertical and turbulence .
expect to encounter: mass. horizontal).
5086 71 0 0 1
If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be during final in a straight in a holding under flight
better to do so: phase of line and at a stack, after level 50
approach. relatively control (FL50).
high flight clearance.
level.
5087 71 0 1 0
 In accordance with (ICAO) DOC 8168 - OPS, noise no turns turns during turns during turns during
preferential routes are established to ensure that should be take-off and take-off and take-off and
departing and arriving aeroplanes avoid overflying required climb should climb should climb should
noise-sensitive areas in the vicinity of the aerodrome as coincident not be not be not be
far as practicable. In establishing noise preferential with a required required required
routes : reduction of unless the unless the unless the
power aeroplane bank angle bank angle
associated has reached for turns is for turns is
with a noise and can limited to limited to
abatement maintain 20° 28°
procedure. throughout (climbing at (climbing at
the turn a V2 + 10 to V2 + 10 to
height of no 20 Kt) 20 Kt)
less than
100 m
above
terrain and
the highest
obstacle.

5088 71 1 0 0
The JAR-OPS is based on : ICAO The air The Federal A JAA
Appendix 6 transport Aviation guideline
rules Requirement
s (FAR)
5089 71 1 0 0
An aircraft is flying in heavy rain. To carry out a safe reduce the maintain the carry out an increase its
approach, it is necessary to : approach normal approach approach
speed, approach with flaps speed,
because the speed up to up, in order because the
runway may landing to avoid rain affects
be very exposing too the lift by
slippery on much lifting deteriorating
landing surface to the
the rain boundary
layer

5090 71 0 0 0
When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing 1, 3, 5 2, 4, 5 1, 2, 3 2, 3, 5
contamination by ice or frost will cause the following
effects:

1 - an increase in the take-off distance

2 - a diminution of the take-off run
3 - an increase in the stalling speed
4 - a diminution of the stalling speed
5 - a diminution of the climb gradient

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is :

5091 71 1 0 0
Who has the responsibility for establishing operating operator state of the state in commander
procedures for noise abatement purposes during operator which the
instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS aeroplane is
the : operating
5092 71 1 0 0
The most efficient bird scaring technique generally the use of broadcasting firing various
available is : model of recorded shellcracker visual
predators, distress calls s methods
scarecrows,
etc
5093 71 0 1 0
 Which one of the following sets of conditions is most a refuse tip mowing and a modern the
likely to attract birds to an aerodrome ? in close maintaining sewage tip extraction of
proximity the grass in close minerals
long proximity such as
sand and
gravel
5094 71 1 0 0
Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least short gang- long grass edible an area
likely to attract flocks of birds ? mown grass rubbish liable to
5095 71 flooding 0 1 0
For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing Steady snow Freezing fog Frost Freezing
fluid used, in which one of the following types of rain
weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be
shortest ?
5096 71 0 0 0
If after anti-icing has been completed a pre-departure switch on all complete carry out a complete
inspection reveals evidence of freezing, the correct the departure further de- departure as
action is to : aeroplane provided icing soon as
anti-icing that the process possible to
and de-icing recommend reduce the
systems and ed anti-icing possibility of
leave on holdover further
until clear of (protection) freezing
icing time for the
conditions prevailing
when conditons
airborne and type of
fluid used
has not
been
exceeded

5097 71 0 0 1
One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with At the At the At the At the
instrument flight rules unless the available information predicted predicted predicted predicted
indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of time of time of take- time of time of
predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of alternative arrival equal off equal to arrival, and arrival better
destination, are: (Annex 6, Part I) to or better or better for a than the
than the than the reasonable minimum
minimum minimum period conditions
conditions conditions before and required for
required for required for after such a aerodrome
aerodrome aerodrome predicted use.
use. use. time, equal
to or better
than the
minimum
conditions
required for
aerodrome
use.

5098 71 1 0 0
 Which of the following requirements should be met The aircraft A The aircraft The flight
when planning a flight with icing conditions: shall before meterologist shall be should be
flight be shall decide equipped planned so
sprayed with whether the with that a
anti-icing flight may be approved change of
fluid performed ice- cruising
without ice- protection level can be
protection systems initiated
systems rapidly

5099 71 0 0 1
The minimum flight crew for night transport of 1 pilot for 2 pilots for 2 pilots for 2 pilots for
passengers or according to the Instrument flight rules is any aircraft any turbo- turbo-jet any aircraft
: weighing prop aircraft aircraft and weighing
less than 5.7 weighing turbo-prop more than
tons, more than aircraft with 5.7 tons or
provided 5.7 tons or more than 9 having more
that the for any passenger than 9
maximum turbo-jet seats passenger
certified aircraft seats
number of
passenger
seats is less
than 9

5100 71 0 0 1
A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is CO2 (carbon foam dry powder water
required to extinguish it. The safest extinguishant to use dioxide)
5101 71 is : 0 0 1
In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are State of the State of State of State of
known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the operator, the Registry of Registry of Registry of
country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of J.A.A. and the aircraft the aircraft, the aircraft
unlawful interference must immediately notify the : ICAO and the the State of and the
State of the the operator J.A.A.
operator and ICAO
only
5102 71 0 0 1
The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flight tuck under roll rate stalling value of the
induces an increase in the: speed stall angle of
5103 71 attack 0 0 1
The reference document dealing with air transport of the Instruction ICAO ICAO
hazardous materials is : Washington No. 300 of Appendix 18 Appendix 8
Convention June 3,
1957
5104 71 0 0 1
ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) the noise the technical the safety of the air
Appendix 18 is a document dealing with : pollution of operational the air transport of
aircraft use of transport of live animals
aircraft hazardous
materials
5105 71 0 0 1
Arriving at the point of entry into MNPS (Minimum keeps flying carries out a returns to keeps flying
Navigation Performance Specification) airspace over deviating its holding base in
the North Atlantic and not having yet received the course by 30 pattern immediately accordance
oceanic clearance, the crew : nautical with the air-
miles from filed flight
that of the plan
air-filed flight
plan

5106 71 0 1 0
 Minimum Navigation Performance Specification flight levels sea level flight levels flight levels
(MNPS) airspace of the North Atlantic is comprised 270 and 400 and FL660 280 and 475 285 and 420
within : from the from North from North from the
equator to parallel 27 to parallel 27 to North
the pole the pole the pole parallel 27 to
the pole
5107 71 0 0 0
Penetration into the North Atlantic ocean airspace is : subject to an not subject subject to a subject to a
optional to a clearance mandatory
clearance clearance, only if the clearance
depending since the flight route is
on the type flight is changed
of flight already
(scheduled controlled
or not)
5108 71 0 0 0
In final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind 1,4 2,3 2,4 1,3
gust or strong down wind which forces you to go
around. You

1- maintain the same aircraft configuration (gear and

flaps)
2- reduce the drags (gear and flaps)
3- gradually increase the attitude up to triggering of
stick shaker
4- avoid excessive attitude change

The combination of correct statements is :

5109 71 0 0 0
The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a : low weight low weight high weight high weight
and low and high and low and high
5110 71 speed speed speed speed 0 0 1
The validity period of a flight track system organized in 00H00 UTC 01H00 UTC 10H30 UTC 11H30 UTC
MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance to 08H00 to 08H00 to 19H00 to 19H00
Specification) airspace during an Eastbound flight UTC UTC UTC UTC
normally is :
5111 71 0 1 0
Posit : 15°/h.sin Lm g.sin Lm g.(sin Lm-sin g/2.sin Lm
Lo)
g, the longitude difference
Lm, the average latitude
Lo, the latitude of the tangent

The correct formula expressing the travel precession

applied during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is
equal to :

5112 71 1 0 0
You plan to fly from point A (60°N 010°E) to point B 080°. 066°. 085°. 076°.
(60°N 020°E).
The gyro North of the gyro compass, assumed to be
operating perfectly, with no rate correction device, is
aligned with the true North of point A.
The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting
from A given that the flight time scheduled is 1h30 min
with a zero wind, is equal to :
5113 71 0 0 0
During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent 4 m (14 ft) 2 m (7 ft) 2 m (7 ft) 4 m (14 ft)
Height (MDH) is referred to the runway threshold above the below the above the below the
altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway airdrome airdrome airdrome airdrome
threshold is at more than : altitude altitude altitude altitude
5114 71 0 1 0
A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach 1600 m 3600 m 1500 m 2400 m
followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the horizontal
5115 71 visibility is higher than or equal to : 0 0 1
 A category B aircraft can carry out an indirect approach 3600 m 2400 m 1600 m 1500 m
followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal
5116 71 visibility is higher than or equal to: 0 0 1
A category C aircraft can carry out an indirect approach 1600 m 1500 m 2400 m 3600 m
followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal
5117 71 visibility is higher than or equal to : 0 0 1
A category D aircraft can carry out an indirect approach 1600 m 1500 m 3600 m 2400 m
followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal
5118 71 visibility is higher than or equal to : 0 0 1
According to the JAR-OPS regulations, an IFR flight 1 hour 2 hours 3 hours 3 hours
with no alternate airfield can be undertaken only if the before to at before to at before to at before to at
minimum weather conditions stipulated in the least 1 hour least 2 hours least 1 hour least 3 hours
regulations are effective for at least : after the after the after the after the
expected expected expected expected
time of time of time of time of
arrival arrival arrival arrival

5119 71 1 0 0
Astronomic precession : causes the causes the is zero at the is zero at the
gyro axis to gyro axis to North pole South pole
spin to the spin to the
left in the right in the
southern Southern
hemisphere hemisphere
5120 71 1 0 0
What transponder code should be used to provide code 7700 code 2000 code 7500 code 7600
recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to
5121 71 unlawful interference : 0 0 1
Astronomic precession is : depending zero when existing independent
on the chart the aircraft is whether the of the
used on the aircraft is on latitude
ground the ground
or flying

5122 71 0 0 1
During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart grid North grid North true North true North
precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving for a given for any chart for a given for any chart
5123 71 aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the : chart chart 1 0 0
During a transoceanic and polar flight, the transport true North grid North magnetic compass
precession is the rotation in degrees of the gyro North North North
5124 71 with respect to the: 1 0 0
Posit : 15°/h.sin Lm g.sin Lm g.(sin Lm-sin g/2.sin Lm
Lo)
g, the longitude difference
Lm, the average latitude
Lo, the latitude of the tangent

The correct formula of the conversion angle applied,

during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is equal to :

5125 71 0 0 0
Posit : 15°/h.sin Lm g.(sin Lm-sin g/2.sin Lm g.sin Lm
Lo)
g, the longitude difference
Lm, the average latitude
Lo, the latitude of the tangent

The transport precession is equal to :

5126 71 0 0 0
In the absence of wind and without the astronomic spherical straight map great circle rhumb line
precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro flight line line
5127 71 heading, follow a : segment 0 0 1
 Astronomic precession : causes the is zero at the is zero at the causes the
gyro axis to North pole South pole gyro axis to
spin to the spin to the
left in the right in the
Northern Northern
hemisphere hemisphere
5128 71 0 0 0
The correct statement about extinguishing agents on Halon is an Water may A powder Burning
board aeroplanes is : effective only be used extinguisher cargo in a
extinguishin for minor is suitable cargo-
g agent for fires. for aeroplane is
use in extinguishin usually
aeroplanes. g a cockpit extinguished
fire. by using
carbon
dioxide.

5129 71 1 0 0
H2O extinguishers are fit to fight: Class A fires Class B fires electrical special fires:
source fires metals, gas,
chemical
products

5130 71 1 0 0
A pilot is using a polar stereographic chart whose grid is -5°. +5°. -15°. +15°.
parallel to the zero meridian, with Grid North in the
direction of the North geographic pole.
In polar regions, the pilot stops navigation in free-gyro
mode after leaving the 6 microteslas zone, and the grid
heading controlled by information from the inertial
navigation system (INS) is 045°. After switching to
"magnetic mode", the compass heading is 220°. The
INS position at this moment is 76°N 180°W. The
magnetic variation on the chart is 10°E.
The compass shift on this heading at this point in time
is:

5131 71 1 0 0
An aircraft leaves point P (60°N 030°W) on a true 345°. 003°. 334°. 328°.
heading equal to 090° while the gyro compass, which is
assumed to be operating perfecly and without an hourly
rate corrector unit, indicates 000°.
The aircraft arrives at point Q (62°N 010°W) on a true
heading equal to 095°. On the journey from P to Q the
gyro compass remains in free gyro mode.
If the flight lasted 1 hour 30 minutes, the gyro heading
at Q will be :

5132 71 0 0 0
A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a good poor unreliable medium
5133 71 SNOWTAM is : 0 1 0
Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a it is not by a four as a in plain
runway in metres. If this is less than the published reported figure group percentage language at
length, how is this reported : added to of the total item T (the
item D, lenght of the final
which gives runway paragraph)
the lenght in available as of a
metres the final item SNOWTAM
of a
SNOWTAM

5134 71 0 0 0
 The operator will include in the operations manual a list The country The country The country It is not
of minimum required equipment approved by : (Annex of the where the where the mandatory
6, Part I) operator. aircraft was aircraft is that such a
manufacture operated. book be
d. approved by
aviation
authorities.
5135 71 1 0 0
When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum 600 m (2000 300 m (1000 450 m (1500 150 m (500
height at which a power reduction shall be allowed is : ft) ft) ft) ft)
5136 71 0 1 0
After take-off, an aircraft is subjected to windshear with 1,3. 1,4. 2,4. 2,3.
a decreasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot
action, the aircraft :

1- flies above the climb-out path

2- flies below the climb-out path
3- has an increasing true airspeed
4- has a decreasing true airspeed

The combination of correct statements is :

5137 71 0 0 1
Who has the responsibility to take adequate measures J.A.A. Commander aeroplane's contracting
for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft of the operator State in
which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference aircraft which the
until their journey can be continued ? The : unlawful
interference
occurs
5138 71 0 0 0
In addition to the languages required by the State of English French Spanish English,
Origin, what language should be set for the markings French or
5139 71 related to dangerous goods : Spanish 1 0 0
From the following list : 1 and 4 2 and 3 1,2,3 and 4 1,3 and 4
1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free
from fire hazard
2. The fuel discharges clear of any part of the
aeroplane
3. Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the aeroplane
4. The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect
the controllability of the aeroplane.
Which of the above are requirements that must be
shown to exist during fuel jettisoning tests :

5140 71 0 0 1
In what period of time must a fuel jettisoning system be 60 minutes 90 minutes 15 minutes 30 minutes
capable of jettisoning sufficient fuel to meet the precise
climb and discontinued approach requirements :
5141 71 0 0 1
For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 132 seconds 120 seconds 60 seconds 90 seconds
44 passengers, it must be shown by actual
demonstration that the maximum seating capacity,
including the required number of crew members, can
be evacuated from the aeroplane to the ground in :

5142 71 0 0 0
 The flight deck door should be capable of being : remotely locked from directly remotely
locked from within the locked from locked by
either inside compartmen outside the cabin crew
or outside t compartmen operation
the t from outside
compartmen the
t compartmen
t
5143 71 0 1 0
The system which must be switched off in case of a ventilation of pressurizatio total trim air
belly compartment fire is generally the : the cargo n airconditioni
compartmen ng
t

5144 71 1 0 0
5145 71 The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is : 24 hours 12 hours 6 hours 3 hours 1 0 0
For stable clouds: 2-3-5 1-4-6 1-3-5 2-4-6

1- the most favourable temperatures for icing are

between 0°C and -10°C
2- the most favourable temperatures for icing are
between 0°C and -15°C
3- icing becomes rare at t < -18°C
4- icing becomes rare at t < -30°C
5- the diameter of water droplets is between 0.002 and
0.03mm
6- the diameter of water droplets is between 0.004 and
0.2mm

Which of the following combinations contains all the

correct statements?

5146 71 0 0 1
The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with a No, visibility Yes, visibility Yes, if there No, the
cruising speed of 150 knots. The aircraft is flown by a being below being higher is an ceiling being
single pilot. 1 200 than the accessible below the
The usable runway has edge lights, high intensity metres. horizontal airport within DH for the
runway centre lights and RVR readings for threshold visibility for 75 NM. runway's
mid and end of runway. the approach
The approach minimums for runway 06 are : approach procedure.
DH = 300 feet, procedure.
Horizontal visibility (HV) = 800 metres.
The weather conditions are : horizontal visibility (HV)
900 metres and ceiling 200 feet.

Is take-off possible?

5147 71 0 0 1
The file kept by an employer on its flight crews records: 3 - 4 1-2-3-4 1-2-3 2-3

1 - the training
2 - the test results
3 - a log of flying hours
4 - a summary of the training by reference period

Which of the following combinations contains all of the

correct answers?

5148 71 0 1 0
 The validity period of a "certificate of airworthiness" three years. three years three years three years
varies with the conditions under which the aircraft is for public for public if the aircraft
maintained. transport transport has not
If the maintenance is carried out according to an aircraft and aircraft and undergone
approved programme and done in a maintenance shop one year for five years for major
approved by the Minister of Civil Aviation, the validity the others. the others. modification
period is: s.

5149 71 1 0 0
In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight if the flight never. if the aircraft if part or all
manual inidicates a minimum crew of one pilot, when lasts more is a twin- the flight is
do the regulations require the presence of a second than 3 engine. done at
pilot ? hours. night.
5150 71 0 1 0
An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum authorized, forbidden. authorized, authorized,
of eight occupants (including pilot). providing providing providing
The pilot has a passenger load of six adults and two both children both children both children
children (5 and 6 years old). are of a are sitting on are sitting on
The boarding of all passengers is: similar the same the same
stature, seat and seat, using
sitting on the using the the same
same seat same seat seat belt
and using belt. No with an adult
the same other sitting on the
seat belt particular seat next to
with an adult precautions them, in
sitting on the are order to
seat next to necessary. release their
them in seat belt if
order to necessary.
relase thir
seat bel

5151 71 0 1 0
Supplemental oxygen is used to : assist a provide protect a provide with
passenger people on crew who oxygen
with board with fights a fire passengers
breathing oxygen who might
disorders during a require it,
cabin following a
depressurisa cabin
tion depressurisa
tion

5152 71 0 1 0
When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 1.15 1.3 1.45 1.5
5 aircraft categories according to their speed at the
threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to
the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the
maximum certified landing weight multiplied by a factor
of:
5153 71 0 1 0
 Wind shear is: a vertical a vertical or a vertical or a horizontal
wind velocity horizontal horizontal wind velocity
variation wind velocity wind velocity variation
over a short and / or wind and / or wind over a short
distance direction direction distance
over a large over a short
distance distance

5154 71 0 0 1
Products or materials are considered to be dangerous The UNO The The IATA The ICAO
goods if the products or materials in question are document directives of document document
defined as such by: entitled the entitled entitled
"Dangerous Community "Regulations "Technical
Goods Union. governing Instructions
Regulations" the for the safe
. transportatio transport of
n of dangerous
dangerous goods by
goods by air".
air".

5155 71 0 0 0
The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the the operator, the the operator, the
equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking and it is manufacture and it is manufacture
a flight and the additonnal procedures to be observed inserted in r, and it is appended to r, and it is
accordingly. This list is prepared by: the inserted in the flight appended to
operations the manual the flight
manual operations manual
manual
5156 71 1 0 0
The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is the the operator the the operator
established by: manufacture of the manufacture of the
r of the aircraft, and r of the aircraft, and
aircraft, but accepted by aircraft, and accepted by
need not to the accepted by the authority
be accepted manufacture the authority
by the r
authority

5157 71 0 0 1
The correct definition of a safe forced landing is: a voluntary an inevitable an inevitable a landing on
landing on landing on landing on land or sea
land or sea land or sea land or sea from which it
carried out from which from which is
by the crew one may one may guaranteed
in order to reasonably reasonably no injuries
protect the expect no expect no will result to
aircraft and injuries on injuries on the
its board board or on occupants
occupants the surface

5158 71 0 0 1
A class B fire is a fire of: solid electrical special fire: liquid or
material source fire metal, gas, liquefiable
usually of chemical solid
organic product
nature
5159 71 0 0 0
 A class A fire is a fire of: metal or gas solid liquid or electrical
or chemical material, liquefiable origin
(special generally of solid
fires) organic
nature
5160 71 0 1 0
CO2 type extinguishers are fit to fight: 1-2-4 2-3-4 1-3-4 1-2-3
1 - class A fires
2 - class B fires
3 - electrical source fires
4 - special fires: metals, gas, chemical product

Which of the following combinations contains all the

correct statements:
5161 71 0 0 0
(For this question use appendix ) corrosive corrosive infectious toxic
material, material, material, material,
For the two labels represented in the appendix, the toxic infectious corrosive corrosive
principal and secondary risks are respectively:

5162 71 0 0 0
For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the 9.3 km (5 9.3 km (5 11.1 km (6 7.4 km (4
ICAO minimum radar separation distance and minimum NM) and 3 NM) and 2 NM) and 3 NM) and 2
time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg and minutes minutes minutes minutes
more than 7000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy
aeroplane on the approach to the same runway ?

5163 71 0 1 0
When a course is plotted at minimum time route, one wind at K. mean wind mean wind wind at K'.
passes from the air isochrone to the corresponding up to the from the
ground isochrone by applying to point K (original spot) next ground preceding
a vector KK' which is equal to: isochrone. ground
isochrone.
5164 71 0 0 1
Following an act of unlawful interference on board an the Autority the Authority both the the local
aeroplane, to whom the commander should submit a of the State of the State local authority
report of the act to : of the within which authority only
operator the and the
only aeroplane is Authority of
operating at the State of
the time of the operator
the unlawful
interference

5165 71 0 0 1
When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the not to to climb or to descend to climb
aircraft tends : change its descend,
trajectory depending
on the gust
strength
5166 71 0 0 1
Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence lift drag spin up lift
appear as soon as the following is established : destruction
5167 71 1 0 0
For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is 4 minutes 5 minutes 2 minutes 3 minutes
the minimum separation time that is permitted when a
light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an
intermediate part of the same runway ?

5168 71 0 0 0
 The North Atlantic airspace is regulated according to : rules Canadian the ICAO rules issued
common to rules, document by the
the because this 7030 bordering
bordering country has (additional States
States, the greatest regional (document
grouped in surface area procedures) 6530)
document of territorial
7050 (North waters in
Atlantic this airspace
Ocean
Airspace)

5169 71 0 0 1
The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends amount of depth of the aircraft's strength of
primarily on the : the lift off standing weight. the
speed. water on the headwind.
runway.

5170 71 0 1 0
For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the 3 minutes 4 minutes 5 minutess 2 minutes
ICAO minimum radar separation time if a light
aeroplance (7000 kg or less) is following a medium
aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg)
on the approach to landing ?
5171 71 1 0 0
The greatest possibility of ice buildup, while flying under Only the The aircraft The upper The upper
icing conditions, occurs on : pitot and front areas. and lower and lower
static wingsurface rudder
probes. s. surfaces.
5172 71 0 1 0
For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is 11.1 km (6 3.7 km (2 7.4 km (4 9.3 km (5
the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy NM) NM) NM) NM)
aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy
aeroplance on the approach to the same runway ?

5173 71 0 0 1
In the "worst case" scenario of recovery from the effects slowly increase the climb away reduce
of a microburst, having increased to full go-around increase pitch angle at Vat + 20 speed to V2
power, in co-ordinating power and pitch it may be speed whilst until the kt and hold
necessary to : maintaining stick shaker
a positive is felt and
rate of climb hold at
slightly
below this
angle

5174 71 0 1 0
Windshear may be described as a change in wind medium null substantial small
direction and/or speed in space, including updraughts
and downdraughts. To counter the effects of windshear
the amount of control action that is required is :

5175 71 0 0 1
The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen 15000 ft 25000 ft 13000 ft 14000 ft
to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and
following an emergency descent are that for pilots it
shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin
pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That
minimum of X feet is :
5176 71 0 0 1
 To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold: Fire-fighting you turn off Extinguish Extinguish
is not the cargo fire and fire only.
necessary, hold reduce air
since the ventilation conditioning.
transport of and
combustible extinguish
goods in an fire.
air-
conditioned
cargo hold is
forbidden.

5177 71 0 1 0
If airworthiness documents do not shown any 15%. 20%. 10%. 5%.
additionnal correction factor for landing performance
determination on a wet runway, the landing distance
shall be increased by:
5178 71 1 0 0
Wake turbulence should be taken into account when : when just during cruise a preceding a much
before the the vertical aeroplane heavier
landing a separation is has aeroplane
much lighter reduced to performed has landed
aeroplane 1000 ft. low altitude just
has landed high roll rate previously
with a strong rolling on the same
crosswind manoeuvres runway, a
on a long over the light
runway. runway. crosswind
condition
exist and all
high-lift
devices are
being used.

5179 71 0 0 0
In accordance with ICAO and PANS RAC procedures, M H L S
which letter should be entered into a flight plan to
denote an aeroplane which has a weight of less than
136000 kg but greater than 7000 kg :

5180 71 1 0 0
A list of dangerous goods, which may not be Annex 6 to the shipper's the technical Annex 18 to
transported by air, can be found in : the Chicago declaration instructions the Chicago
Convention. for for the safe convention.
dangerous transport of
goods. dangerous
goods by air.

5181 71 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 071-2070A) 4 1 2 3

On the diagram where :

Nt = True North
Nm = Magnetic North
Ng = Grid North

If the magnetic variation is equal to 65°W and if the grid

variation is equal to 4°E, the correct arrangement of the
different north is :

5182 71 0 0 0
 During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, white steady green red steady green
seeing an aircraft coming from the front right right, will light flashing light light steady light
5183 71 first see the : 0 0 1
During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, white steady green green red steady
seeing an aircraft coming from the front left, will first see light flashing light steady light light
5184 71 the : 0 0 1
The ascent or descent through MNPS (Minimum forbidden in authorized authorized authorized
Navigation Performance Specification) airspace of a all cases when the only if the under radar
non MNPS certified aircraft is : aircraft has aircraft is in control if the
two radio contact aircraft is in
precision with the VHF contact
navigation aircraft with the
systems present in MNPS
this space controller

5185 71 0 0 0
The coverage angle of the regulatory white position 110° 70° 220° 140°
lights, continuously lit in flight and located at the rear of
5186 71 the aircraft, is : 0 0 0
For a long-range four-jet aircraft in cruising flight, the about the about the between the just below
optimum altitude and the lock-on altitude increase. The optimum lock-on lock-on the optimum
most cost-effective flight plan will consist of chosing altitude altitude altitude and altitude
cruising levels which increase during the flight in order the optimum
to fly : altitude
5187 71 1 0 0
For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the 0.6 0.7 0.5 0.8
landing distance at the scheduled destination
aerodrome shall be less than the available landing
distance multiplied by a factor of :

5188 71 1 0 0
A jet-powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude reduced increased increased increased
will have : range manoeuvrin flight Mach
g limits envelope number
stability
5189 71 1 0 0
For turbo-propeller aircraft, in the flight preparation 0.6 0.5 0.8 0.7
stage, the landing distance on at alternate aerodrome
shall be less than the available landing distance
multiplied by a factor of :

5190 71 0 0 0
The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the operator the operator the operator the
the equipment on which certain in-flight failures can be and is and from a main manufacture
allowed and the conditions under which this allowance specified in approved by list drawn up r and
can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by : the the by the approved by
operation certification manufacture the
manual authority r certification
authority
5191 71 0 0 0
The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the the the operator the the operator
equipment on which certain in-flight failures can be manufacture and may be manufacture and may be
allowed and the conditions under which this allowance r and may less r and may more
can be accepted . The Mel is drawn up by : be less restrictive be more restrictive
restrictive than the restrictive than the
than the Master than the Master
Master Minimum Master Minimum
Minimum equipment Minimum Equipment
equipment List (MMEL) Equipment List (MMEL)
List (MMEL) List (MMEL)

5192 71 0 0 0
Information concerning evacuation procedures can be operational operation flight journey
5193 71 found in the : flight plan. manual. manual. logbook. 0 1 0
 According to the JAR-OPS rules, the route of a twin- 120 minutes 60 minutes 30 minutes 90 minutes
engined aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off at the cruise at the cruise at the cruise at the cruise
mass exceeding 8618 kg or a maximum approved speed, one speed, one speed, one speed, one
seating configuration of more than 19 passagers must engine engine engine engine
be planned in such a way that on one engine an inoperative. inoperative. inoperative. inoperative.
appropriate aerodrome can be reached within :

5194 71 0 1 0
The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edge 300 m. 150 m if a 150 m. 200 m.
lights and high intensity centre line lights. There is an threshold
accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot crew RVR is
is IFR qualified on type. The minimum horizontal available.
visibility required for take-off is:

5195 71 0 0 1
The information to consider for a standard straight-in 1-3 1-4 1-2-3 1-2-4
approach is :

1 - the horizontal visibility

2 - the ceiling
3 - the minimum descending altitude (MDA)
4 - the decision altitude (DA)

Which of the following combinations contains all of the

correct statements?

5196 71 1 0 0
A four-jet aircraft must be equipped with an in-flight fuel until the in order to in order to unless it is
jettisoning system in order to reduce the aircraft weight central tank reach the reduce the capable of
in an emergency : is empty in maximum landing meeting the
order to structural distance to climb
cope with landing 60% of the requirement
the wing and weight in effective s : 2.7% in
landing gear less than 15 runway approach
constraints minutes length configuration
at landing after with 1
touchdown activation of engine
the inoperative
jettisoning and 3.2% in
system landing
configuration
with all
engines
operative

5197 71 0 0 0
You are the captain of a commercial airplane and you draft a bird immediately inform the inform the
notice, after take-off, a flock of birds which may present strike hazard inform the other aircraft appropriate
a bird strike hazard, you must: report upon appropriate by radio. ground
arrival and ground station
within at station. within a
most 48 reasonable
hours. period of
time.
5198 71 0 1 0
 In compliance with the JAR OPS, in order to carry system to transport representati specialized
hazardous materials on board a public transport warn the document ve of the handling
airplane, they must be accompanied with a : crew in case for company employee.
of a leak or hazardous owning the
of an materials. materials.
abnormal
increase in
temperature.

5199 71 0 1 0
The general information, instructions and air carrier operation flight AIP
recommendations on the transport of hazardous certificate. manual. manual. (Aeronautica
materials are specified in the : l Information
Publication).

5200 71 0 1 0
Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you temperature pressure of pressure of temperature
should check the : of the the hydraulic the of the
hydraulic fluid. pneumatic brakes.
fluid. tyres.
5201 71 0 0 0
Following take-off, the noise abatement climb for the same for all different for different
procedures specified by the operator is : airplane airplane a same according to
type, the types, the airplane airports and
same for all same for a type, airplane
airports. specific according to types.
airport. airports.
5202 71 1 0 0
In public transport, prior to take-off in icing conditions, external possible ice external external
the captain must check that: surfaces are accretions surfaces are surfaces are
still covered do not cause free from free from
with anti- to exceed any ice any ice
icing fluid. weight and accretion accretion
balance which may greater than
limits. impede the 5 mm.
airplane
performance
and
manoeuvrab
ility, except
within the
limits
specified by
the flight
manual.

5203 71 0 0 1
 In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered wet when: 1, 2 4 1, 3 1, 2, 3
1. it is covered with a quantity of water or loose or
slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent of 3
mm of water.
2. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify
its colour but does not give it a shiny appearance.
3. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to make it
reflective, but does not create large stagnant sheets of
water.
4. it bears stagnant sheets of water.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

5204 71 0 0 1
The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, 110° 140° 70° 220°
continuously lit in flight and located at the tip of the left
5205 71 wing is : 1 0 0
According to the JAR OPS, when a commercial a device distinctive a sealing a locking
transport passenger airplane is equipped with a door in preventing red or yellow system system to
the flight crew compartment area, this door must the flight colored allowing the prevent any
include: crew from markings maintenance unauthorize
being locked indicating for as long d access.
in the the access as possible
cockpit. area (in of the
case of a pressure in
blocked the cockpit
door). in case of a
depressuriza
tion in the
compartmen
t area.

5206 71 0 0 0
The pilot of a category A aircraft is flying a non- flying a non- the pilot may the pilot may the pilot may
precision direct IFR approach with the following precision start the final start the final start the final
operational minimums: MDH 250 feet and visibility 750 approach, approach if approach if approach if
metres. RVR for threshold, mid and end of the runway the pilot may the the the three
are given by the controller... start the final threshold threshold RVR are
approach RVR is and mid- higher than
only if he higher than runway RVR 750 metres.
has a 750 metres. are higher
meteorologic than 750
al visibility metres.
higher than
750 metres.
RVR are to
be taken into
account only
for precision
approaches.

5207 71 0 1 0
 Your flight manual does not include specific 18 % 20 % 17,6 % 15 %
supplementary information on landing distances on wet
runways and the service bulletins or weather reports
indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated
time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry
runway must be increased by:

5208 71 0 0 0
In the JAR OPS, a runway is refered to as 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 3, 4 1, 3, 4, 5
contaminated when more than 25 % of the required
runway surface is covered with the one of the following
elements:

1. a water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny

appearance to the runway.
2. a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to
more than 3 mm of water.
3. compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be
compacted further).
4. ice, including wet ice.
5. moist grass.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

5209 71 1 0 0
A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane the JAR the flight the the minimum
fails while taxiing to the holding point. The reference OPS. record. operation equipment
document you use in the first place to decide on the manual's list.
procedure to follow is: chapter
"Abnormal
and
Emergency
Procedures".

5210 71 0 0 1
A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane the flight the minimum the the JAR
fails while you are still parked. The reference document manual. equipment operation OPS.
you use to decide on the procedure to follow is: list. manual's
chapter
"Abnormal
and
Emergency
procedures".

5211 71 0 1 0
The authorization for the transport of hazardous insurance air carrier registration airworthines
materials is specified on the: certificate. certificate. certificate. s certificate.
5212 71 0 1 0
The minimum equipment list of a public transport flight flight record. operation JAR OPS.
5213 71 airplane is to be found in the : manual. manual. 0 0 1
In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when: it is covered its surface is surface it is covered
with a film of not dry, and moisture with a film of
water of less when gives it a water of less
than 1 mm. surface shiny than 3 mm.
moisture appearance.
does not
give it a
shiny
appearance.

5214 71 0 1 0
In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is the: indicated Mach ground true
5215 71 airspeed. number. speed. airspeed. 0 1 0
 In a polar Antarctic regions, the pilot uses a South polar 340°. 240°. 060°. 110°.
stereographic chart whose printed over grid is parallel
with the zero meridian and Grid North in the direction of
geographic North along this meridian.
The aircraft position is 80°S 130°E, its true route is
110°, the grid route at this moment is :

5216 71 0 1 0
On a polar stereographic chart where the earth 4.0 NM. 30 NM. 4.0 NM. 9.2 NM.
convergence between 2 points located on the parallel
60°N is 20°, the great circle maximum cross-track
difference with the straight line joining the 2 points is :

5217 71 0 1 0
The chart in question is of the polar stereographic type +32.5°. +13°. +73.5°. -32.5°.
with its grid parallel to the zero meridian, and Grid
North in the direction of the North geographic pole. The
gyro does not comprise a rate correction device.
The gyro-magnetic compass of an aircraft standing at
an aerodrome located at 59°57'N 010°30'E is switched
to free gyro mode at 14.00 UTC, with gyro North being
aligned with Grid North and the gyro heading reading
120°. A technical problem delays take off until 16.30
UTC. The gyro, whose mechanical precession is zero,
was not reset prior to take off.
The error (E) at the time of alignment on this runway
will be :

5218 71 1 0 0
The touch down areas located at both ends of the dynamic rubber rubber viscous
runways are typical for the appearance of: hydroplanin reversion steaming hydroplanin
g. hydroplanin hydroplanin g.
g. g.
5219 71 0 0 0
Viscous hydroplaning occurs primary if the runway is is very is rough the tyre is very
covered with a thin film of water and: smooth and textured. treads are smooth and
clean. not in a dirty.
good state.
5220 71 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 071-2084A) 2 3 4 1

The inertial navigation system (INS) indicates:

Position: 71° 55.1'N 094°55.3'W
Drift: 6°L (left)
The route followed in order to return to the VOR station
is the meridian of the VOR station used:
RESOLUTE BAY (74°43.6'N 094°55.3W), this VOR has
North set on the local geographic meridian.
The gyro compass has just been reset to Grid North
(chart used: polar stereographic chart, grid parallel to
zero meridian, Grid North in the direction of geographic
North Pole).
The correct representation of the RMI VOR/DME is at
this moment:
(the distance DME is in the box)

5221 71 1 0 0
For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational 60 minutes 60 minutes 30 minutes 30 minutes
take-off minimums may be used provided an alternate at cruising at cruising at cruising at cruising
aerodrome is accessible at less than: speed all speed with speed with speed all
engines one engine one engine engines
running. unserviceabl unserviceabl running.
e. e.
5222 71 0 1 0
 The terminal VOR transmittes the following weather Outside Air Outside Air Outside Air Outside Air
data. When do you expect carburettor icing? Temperature Temperature Temperature Temperature
(OAT) : (OAT) : (OAT) : (OAT) :
-10°C +10°C +15°C +25°C
Dew point Dew Point Dew Point Dew Point
(DEWP) : (DEWP) : (DEWP) : (DEWP) :
-15°C +7°C -5°C +5°C
5223 71 0 1 0
Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with: all available all available all available only the
extinguisher liquids. extinguisher extinguisher
s s in correspondi
simultaneou sequence. ng to the
sly. toilets.

5224 71 1 0 0
MNPS is the abbreviation for: Minimum Maximum Military Minimum
Navigation North- Network Navigation
Performance atlantic Performance Positioning
Specification Precision Structure. System.
. System.

5225 71 1 0 0
The chart is a South polar stereographic projection of 000°. 260°. 080°. 100°.
the Antarctic regions. A grid, printed over it, its aligned
with meridian 180°, the grid North in the direction of the
geographic North (non standard grid).
The grid course followed by the aircraft is Rg=280°, the
position is 80°S 100°E.
The true course followed at this moment is :

5226 71 1 0 0
On a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel 295°. 298°. 301°. 292°.
with the Greenwich meridian in the direction of the true
North pole, the "true" orientation of the great circle
linking point 62°N 010°E to point 66°N 050°W is 305°.
The grid route at the starting point of this great circle is :

5227 71 1 0 0
A polar stereographic chart has a grid printed over it 316°. 164°. 136°. 276°.
which is parallel to the meridian 054°W, with Grid North
in the direction of the North geographic pole.
An aircraft is following a true course of 330°.
At position 80°N 140°E, its grid heading (GH) with this
system will be :

5228 71 0 0 1
When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a take the maintain the take the take any
domestic controlled area, the pilot has to: Mach Mach Mach Mach
number number number number.
provided for previously specified in
this type of assigned up this initial
flight by his to the last flight plan.
airline. position
shown in the
oceanic
clearance.

5229 71 0 1 0
For a given aircraft and runway contamination, maintains maintains or increases decreases
increased pressure altitude will: the increases the the
hydroplanin the hydroplanin hydroplanin
g speed. hydroplanin g speed. g speed.
g speed.

5230 71 0 0 1
 (For this question use annex 071-2083A) Track C , Track A , Track D , Track B ,
In order to meet the "twin-engine" flight standards time 8 hours time 8 hours time 8 hours time 8 hours
authorised by the official departments of his company 15 minutes. 3 minutes. 20 minutes. 10 minutes.
(1hour 45 minutes flight on 1 engine at an air speed of
420 kt to reach the alternate aerodromes in still air
conditions), a pilot has to choose an ATC route, in
Minimum Navigation Performance Specification area,
while at the same time taking the shortest possible
time.
Given that the three alternate aerodromes taken into
account are SHANNON, SANTA MARIA, ST JOHN
TORBAY, the track to be chosen between PARIS and
WASHINGTON will be:

5231 71 1 0 0
Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their while at their only during only during from take off
safety belt fastened: station. take off and take off and to landing.
landing. landing and
whenever
necessary
by the
commander
in the
interest of
safety.

5232 71 1 0 0
From the following list : 3,4 and 5 2,3 and 4 1,2 and 3 1,2 and 5
1. Fire extinguishers only only only only
2. Portable oxygen supplies
3. First-aid kits
4. Passenger meals
5. Alcoholic beverages
Which are classed as Dangerous Goods that are
required to be on the aeroplane in accordance with
relevant JAR's for operating reasons :

5233 71 0 0 1
An aircraft flies a VOR/DME direct approach for which if the ceiling whatever the if the ceiling if the ceiling
the operational minima are : MDH = 360 feet, horizontal transmitted ceiling given transmitted transmitted
visibility = 1 500 metres : by ATC and by ATC. by ATC and by ATC and
Visibility given by ATC and received by the crew is 2 received by received by received by
500 metres : the crew is the crew is the crew is
higher than higher than higher than
The pilot may start the final approach... 240 feet 360 feet. 240 feet.
during the
day and 360
feet at night.

5234 71 0 1 0
During take-off an aircraft hits a bird. Due to control is not must file a must file an must file a
vibrations a landing must be made immediately. obliged to Bird Strike AIR PROX airworthines
Following this incident the pilot : report this report report: the s report
incident Control
Tower
having given
no warning

5235 71 0 1 0
The tire pressure of an aircraft main landing gear is 87 kt 145 kt 112 kt 56 kt
10,8 bars. The speed at which the hydroplaning
5236 71 phenomenon will appear is approximately: 0 0 1
 The safety position for adults looks like: seat belts head down head down cross the head placed
fastened, as far as as far as arm in front on a knee
possible, possible, of the face. cushion,
grasp the grasp the arms around
passenger in legs with the thigh.
front of you. your arms.

5237 71 0 0 0
In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking off The runway The right The left The right
aircraft: will be clear wake wake and left
of any turbulence turbulence wake
hazard stays stays turbulence
turbulence. approximatel approximatel stays
y on the y on the approximatel
runway. runway. y on the
runway.
5238 71 0 1 0
At 18h40min UTC, a complete failure of the inertial 035°. 180°. 000°. 325°.
systems of an aircraft flying on the LONDON-
ANCHORAGE line occurs in the geographic North pole
region. The wind is nil, the grid heading at this moment
is 315°. The crew then uses the Sun to continue the
flight. The bearing of the Sun on occurence of the
failure is :

NOTE: The time equation is nil. The chart used is a

polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the
zero meridian, the Grid North is in direction of the
geographic North pole.

5239 71 0 0 0
Who shall provide the flight operations personal with a Owner of the ATS Aircraft Aircraft
operations manual and also issue the amendments to aircraft. authority of operator. producer.
keep it up to date? the state of
registry.
5240 71 0 0 1
To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin useless useless useless possible and
smoke is: because the because the because recommend
toxical cabin oxygen units breathing ed.
smoke is do not oxygen
mixed with operate would
the under explode
breathing smoke under
oxygen. conditions. smoke
conditions.

5241 71 1 0 0
Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this 80% of the 50% of the 60% of the 70% of the
facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full stop landing landing landing landing
landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, distance distance distance distance
dry runway) within: available. available. available. available.
5242 71 0 0 1
Beneath fire extinguishers the following equipment for a big bunch crash axes water and all a hydraulic
fire fighting is on board: of fire or crowbars. type of winch and a
extinguishin beverage. big box of
g blankets. tools.
5243 71 0 1 0
After a landing, with overweight and overspeed only from left from any under no only from
conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. The or right side. side. circumstanc front or rear
fireguards should approach the landing gear tyres: es. side.
5244 71 0 0 0
A pilot whose aircraft does not have MNPS certification at a constant at flight level outside at a Mach
has to fly via the SHANNON-GANDER great circle. The airspeed of FL 280 or scheduled number of
flight must be planned to take place : 480 kt. less. flight times. 0.70 or less.
5245 71 0 1 0
 In the MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance notify request set a immediately
Specification) area, a pilot should first of all take the Control and authorization different climb or
following action in the event of a failure of the last wait for a from Control heading descent 1
inertial navigation system: reply within to track approximatel 000 ft.
a another y 45° from
reasonable aircraft. the previous
time. one.

5246 71 1 0 0
The "NO SMOKING" sign must be illuminated : when during climb in each during take
oxygen is and descent. cabin off and
being section if landing.
supplied in oxygen is
the cabin. being
carried.
5247 71 1 0 0
During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted the start final the outer the FAF. the middle
by the appropriate services and received by the crew descent marker marker.
contains parameters below the crew's operational point (glide (OM).
minimums, the point beyond which the approach must slope
not be continued is: intersection).

5248 71 0 1 0
For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified One Inertial Two Inertial Two One Long
special routes unless otherwise specified, an aircraft Navigation Navigation independant Range
must be equipped with at least: System Systems Long Range Navigation
(INS). (INS). Navigation System
Systems (LNRS).
(LRNS).

5249 71 0 0 0
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to 2,3. 2,4. 1,3. 1,4.
windshear with an increasing head wind.In the absence
of a pilot action, the aircraft :

1- flies above the glide path

2- flies below theglide path
3- has an increasing true airspeed
4- has a decreasing true airspeed

The combination of correct statements is :

5250 71 0 0 1
A category I precision approach (CAT I) has : a decision a decision no decision a decision
height equal height equal height. height equal
to at least to at least 50 to at least
100 ft. ft. 200 ft.
5251 71 0 0 0
The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by : the aircraft the aircraft the operator the
manufacture state of manufacture
5252 71 r's list registry r 0 0 1
The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is the aircraft the the operator. the aircraft
drawn up by : state of manufacture manufacture
5253 71 registry. r. 'rs list. 0 1 0
The dangerous goods transport document, if required, the captain. the handling the shipper. the operator.
shall be drawn up by : agent.
5254 71 0 0 1
 During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to 2,3 1,3 1,4 2,4
windshear with a decreasing head wind. In the absence
of a pilot action, the aircraft :

1. flies above the glide path

2. flies below the glide path
3. has an increasing true airspeed
4. has a decreasing true airspeed

The combination of correct statements is :

5255 71 0 0 0
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to 2,4. 2,3. 1,3. 1,4.
windshear with an increasing tail wind. In the absence
of a pilot action, the aircraft :

1- flies above the glide path

2- flies below the gilde path
3- has an increasing true airspeed
4- has a decreasing true airspeed

The combination of correct statements is :

5256 71 1 0 0
Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an 129 kt 114 kt 100 kt 80 kt
aeroplane's mainwheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., the
approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning
may occur in the event of applying brakes is :

5257 71 1 0 0
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to 1,3. 1,4. 2,3. 2,4.
windshear with a decreasing tail wind. In the absence
of a pilot action, the aircraft :

1- flies above the glide path

2- flies below the glide path
3- has an increasing true airspeed
4- has a decreasing true airspeed

the combination of correct statements is :

5258 71 1 0 0
1

0
0

0
0

0
0

0
0

0
0

1
1

0
0

0
1

0
1

0
1

0
0

0
0

1
0

0
0

0
0

1
0

0
0

0
0

1
1

0
1

1
0

0
0

1
1

0
0

0
0

0
0

0
0

0
0

0
0

0
0

0
1

0
0

0
1

1
0

1
0

0
0

0
0

0
0

1
0

1
0

0
0

1
0

0
0

0
0

0
0

0
1

0
0

0
0

0
0

0
1

0
0

0
1

0
Domande banca dati europea esame ATPL

subje wording
10 AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES
21 AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS, ELECTRICS, POWERPLANT, EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT- AEROPLANES
22 INSTRUMENTATION - AEROPLANES
31 MASS AND BALANCE - AEROPLANES
32 PERFORMANCE OF AEROPLANES
33 FLIGHT PLANNING AND FLIGHT MONITORING - AEROPLANES
40 HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS
50 METEOROLOGY
61 GENERAL NAVIGATION
62 RADIO NAVIGATION
71 OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES - AEROPLANES
81 PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT (AERODYNAMICS) - AEROPLANES
90 COMMUNICATION
 Domanda rispostaA rispostaB rispostaC rispostaD
AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES
The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an Two consecutive A single period of three Two consecutive A single period of six
area distant from designated medical examination facilities may be periods each of three month in the case of a periods each of six month in the case of a
deferred at the discretion of the licence authority, provided that such month in the case a flight crew member of month in the case of a flight crew member of
deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed: flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in
an aircraft engaged in commercial operations. an aircraft engaged in non-commercial
non-commercial non-commercial operations.
operations. operations.

1 10
Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a +/- 20 kt. +/- 10 kt. +/- 15 kt. +/- 8 kt.
radar controller may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their
speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This
speed adjustment should not be more than:

2 10
The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed 4 NM from the 2 NM from the 3 NM from the 5 NM from the
where the aircraft has passed: threshold on final threshold on final threshold on final threshold on final
3 10 approach. approach. approach. approach.
Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not need to file a flight plan may file a flight plan Shall nevertheless Shall nevertheless
electing to use the air traffic advisory service: under pilot's discretion. submit a flight plan and submit a flight plan but
notify changes made changes made thereto
thereto to the ATS unit are not necessary to be
providing that service. notified.

4 10
The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and Red for medical Blue for blankets and Black for food and Yellow for
packages containing survival equipment should take the form of supplies and first aid protective clothing. water. miscellaneous
coloured streamers according to the following code: equipment. equipment.
5 10
The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and Black for food and Yellow for blankets and Red for food and water. Blue for medical
packages containing survival equipment should take the form of water. protective clothing. supplies and first aid
coloured streamers according to the following code: equipment.
6 10
The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, 20 NM. 10 NM. 5 NM. 20 NM when the
and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is: leading aircraft
maintains a true
airspeed of 20 kt or
more faster than the
succeding aircraft.
7 10
 The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and Red for food and water. Yellow for medical Black for miscellaneous Blue for blankets and
packages containing survival equipment should take the form of supplies and first aid equipment. protective clothing.
coloured streamers according to the following code: equipment.
8 10
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the 5 NM. 6 NM. 8 NM. 10 NM.
radar controller should notify the non-radar controller when an
aircraft making a radar approach is approximately:
9 10
When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another Shall not extend Is only considered for Shall not extend Depends on the
contracting state, the validity of the authorization: beyond one year for PPL. beyond the period of regulations of the
ATPL and PCL. validity of the licence. contracting sate which
renders valid the
licence.
10 10
The transition level: Is published on the Is calculated by the Will be distributed via Is calculated by ATS
approach and landing commander NOTAM
chart for each
aerodrome
11 10
The transition level: is calculated and shall be the lowest shall be the highest for the aerodrome is
decided by the available flight level available flight level published in the AGA
commander above the transition below the transition section of the AIP
altitude that has been altitude that has been
established established
12 10
Which information is not included in Instrument Appraoch Charts OCA or OCH DME-frequencies Any addition to minima Obstacles penetrating
(IAC) in the AIP when the aerodrome is the obstacle free area
used as alternate in the final approach
sector

13 10
According to international agreements wind direction shall be When the local In upper wind forecast When an aircraft on the Before landing and
adjusted to the local variation and given in degrees magnetic : variation exceeds 10° for areas north of lat request by a take-off
East or 10° West. 60° north or 60° south. meteorological watch
office (MWO) or at
specified points
transmits a PIREP
14 10
An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference As soon as possible Continue at an altitude Fly the emergency Declare an emergency
('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising commence emergency that differs from the triangle
level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to: descent in order semicircular rule with
minimize the difference 1000 feet when above
between cabin FL 290 and 500 feet
pressure and outside when lower than FL
pressure 290
15 10
 The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and Red for miscellaneous Blue for food and water. Yellow for medical Black for food and
packages containing survival equipment should take the form of equipment. supplies and first aid water.
coloured streamers according to the following code: equipment.
16 10
The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level +/- 250 ft. +/- 500 ft. +/- 300 ft. +/- 200 ft.
information displayed to the controller is accurate shall be:
17 10
The Air Traffic control Services : do not prevent collisions with terrain. Except when an aircraft Correct, expect when Prevent collisions with Do not prevent
is flying IFR in IMC. an IFR flight is vectored terrain collisions with terrain
18 10 by radar.
A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be used at the 60 NM. 50 NM. 20 NM. 80 NM.
time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its
distance to or from the same "on track" way-point. This minimum is:
19 10
A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when B, C, D and E. B. B and C. B, C and D.
20 10 operating in controlled airspaced classified as:
One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if 45° immediately after 30° immediately after 15° immediately after 25° immediately after
21 10 they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least: take-off. take-off. take-off. take-off.
Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if The preceeding aircraft The preceeding aircraft The preceeding aircraft The preceeding aircraft
they are to fly on the same track, when: is 20 kt or more faster is 10 kt or more faster is 40 kt or more faster is 30 kt or more faster
than the following than the following than the following than the following
aircraft. aircraft. aircraft. aircraft.
22 10
When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final 20 degrees. 30 degrees. 25 degrees. 15 degrees.
vector furnished shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept
the localizer course at an angle not greater than:
23 10
When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller 2 NM from touchdown. 3 NM from touchdown. 2.5 NM from 1 NM from touchdown.
shall terminate the surveillance radar approach, except as touchdown.
determined by the appropriate ATS authority, at a distance of:
24 10
The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established 2.0 NM between aircraft 5.0 NM between aircraft 3.0 NM between aircraft 3.0 NM between aircraft
on the localizer course shall be: on the same localizer on the same localizer on the same localizer on adjacent localizer
25 10 course. course. course. course.

An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider 3 NM. 1 NM. 4 NM. 2 NM.
executing a missed approach, if the position or identification of the
aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach or if the
aircraft is not visible on the radar display for significant interval
during the last:
26 10
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the 5.0 NM. 3.0 NM. 10.0 NM. 3.5 NM.
27 10 horizontal radar separation minimum shall be:
 The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is +/- 200 ft. +/- 150 ft. +/- 250 ft. +/- 300 ft.
occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ATS
28 10 authorities may specify a smaller criterion):
An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long +/- 500 ft of the +/- 300 ft of the +/- 200 ft of the +/- 250 ft of the
as the SSR mode C derived level information indicated that it is assigned level. assigned level. assigned level. assigned level.
29 10 within:
An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level +/- 300 ft. More than 200 ft. More than 300 ft. 300 ft.
when the SSR mode C derived level information indicates that it has
passed this level in the required direction by:
30 10
31 10 The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below: 1.5 NM. 3.0 NM. 5.0 NM. 2.0 NM.
Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions 900 metres 420 metres 1000 metres 1200 metres
of aerodromes is a specific dimension given for the approach light
system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the length of this approach
light system?
32 10
The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between 2 NM. 5 NM. 2.5 NM. 3 NM.
aircraft on the same localizer with additional longitudinal separation
33 10 as required for wake turbulence:

Except in special circumstances determined by the public authorities the passenger is to the passenger is to the passenger is to the passenger is to
concerned, when a passenger is passing through the territory of a leave that state within leave that state within leave that state within leave that state within
contracting state and has to stay in that contracting state until the one (1) day from the 72 (seventy two) hours two (2) days from the two (2) weeks from the
next flight for lack of facilities or any other circumstances, the day of his (her) arrival from the time of arrival day of his (her) arrival day of his (her) arrival
contracting state where the international airport is located shall of that passenger
permit such a passenger to remain within its territory without
requiring visas prior to the arrival when

34 10
What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E? 250 kt only for IFR up 250 kt for IFR and VFR 250 kt only for VFR up 250 kt VFR and IFR, all
35 10 to FL 100 UP TO FL 100 to FL 195 levels
In case of aircraft registered in other Contracting States, which are at least 12 hours in at least 2 hours in at least 4 hours in at least 1 hour in
not engaged in schedule international services, and which are advance of the advance of arrival advance of arrival advance of arrival
making flights across the territory of a Contracting State or stopping expected ETA
for non traffic purposes, such Contracting State shall accept the
information contained in a flight plan as adequate advance
notification. This information is to be received :

36 10
An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air for a period of 12 hours For a period to be for a period of 24 hours for a period of 48 hours
services and which is making a flight to or through any designated established by that
airport of a Contracting State and is admitted temporarily free of duty State
shall be allowed to remain within that State without security for
customs duty.
37 10
 Which one of the statements is correct : contracting states shall contracting states shall contracting states shall contracting states may
accept an oral accept an oral accept an oral not accept oral
declaration of baggage declaration of baggage declaration of baggage declaration of
from passengers and only from crew only from passengers baggages
crew

38 10
In cases where a visitor travelling by air holds a valid passport and may require him to in certain cases any none of the answers shall not require him to
no visa is required of him, contracting states obtain any other identity other identity may be are applicable obtain any other identity
document prior to the required document from their
commencement of his consultates or
flight operators prior to
initiate the flight
39 10
When cargo, unaccompanied baggage or stores are not unladen at shall not impose shall not impose shall not impose shall not impose
their intended destination but are unladen at another international penalties, fines and penalties, fines and penalties, fines, penalties and fines but
airport, the contracting state where the unlading takes place; if custom duties but taxes taxes but custom duties customs duties and customs duties and
satisfied that there has been no gross negligence or careless by the on the operator on the operator taxes on the operator taes on thexes on the
operator operator
40 10
A contracting state which continues to require the presentation of a The air waybill number The air waybill number The air waybill number; The air waybill number
cargo manifest shall, apart from the information indicated in the and the number of the number of and the nature of the
heading of the format of the cargo manifest, not require more than packages related to the packages related to goods
the following item(s) : air way bill number each air waybill number
and the nature of the
goods
41 10
Contracting states shall carry out the handling, forwarding and in the Acts in force of by IATA and accepted by IATA and accepted by the Regional Postal
clearance of airmail and shall comply with the documentary the Universal Postal by the contracting by ICAO Office
42 10 procedures as prescribed : Union states
The informations on holding, approach and departure procedures, GEN AD MAP ENR
43 10 are found in the following part of the AIP
The documents for entry and departure of aircraft : has to be typewritten or are accepted at the are accepted in has to be typewritten
produced by electronic contracting state handwritten block
data processing discretion lettering in ink
techniques

44 10
When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator is not responsible for and the state of the shall not be preclude shall not recover from
for transport away from the territory of the state, the operator : the person inadmissible operator are both from recovering from such person any
for entry in the responsible for the such person any transportation costs
receiving state person inadmissible transportation costs arising from his (her)
arising from his (her) inadmissibility
inadmissibility
45 10
The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons annex 6 annex 15 annex 9 annex 8
46 10 and their baggage in international flights is :
 The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and annex 9 annex 8 annex 15 annex 16
47 10 other articles on international flights is :
Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by 2 months following the 4 months following the 6 months following the 3 months following the
written notification to the depositary governments. The denounciation date ICAO is informed date on which date on which date on which
shall take effect : notification is received notification is received notification is received
by the Depositary by the Depositary by the Depositary
Governements Governments Governments

48 10
The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe may require the may not require or may deliver such may request such
that a person has commited or is about to commit, on board the assistance of authorise the person to the person to disembark
aircraft, an offense against penal law passengers to restrain assistance of other competent authorities
such person crew members
49 10
Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the cargo but is free from cargo but clearence accompanied baggage cargo and is covered by
procedure applicable to : any kind of declaration documents provided by or under another a traffic document
forms airlines shall be simplified customs
completed by the procedure distinct from
passenger prior to that normally applicable
shipment to other cargo

50 10
Operationaly significant changes to the AIP shall be published in AIP supplements and AIC procedures and AIRAC procedures and NOTAM procedures
accordance with : shall be clearly identified by the identified by the and identified by
identifical acronym AIC followed acronym AIRAC acronym NOTAM
by a number followed by a number
51 10
When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the 20 minutes at the time 15 minutes at the time 10 minutes at the time 5 minutes at the time
same track, the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be the level is crossed. the level is crossed. the level is crossed. the level is crossed.
52 10 provided:
One of the main objectives of ICAO is to : approve the ticket approve new approve new develop principles and
prices set by internationel airlines international airlines techniqe for
international airline with jet aircraft international aviation
companies
53 10
The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention binding for all air line binding for the member advice and guidance binding for all member
are to be considered: companies with states that have not for the aviation states
international traffic notified ICAO about a legislation within the
national difference member states

54 10
The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with: the regulation of operator¹s licence for the security system at limitation of the
transportation of international scheduled airports operator¹s
dangerous goods aviation responsibility vis-á-vis
passenger and goods
transported
55 10
 An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the AIP, including AIP, including AIP, supplements to AIP including
following elements amendment service; amendment service; AIP; NOTAM and PIB; amendment service;
supplements to AIP; supplements to AIP, AIC and checklist supplements to AIP;
NOTAM and pre-flight NOTAM, AIC and summaries NOTAM, AIC; AIRAC
information bulletin checklist summaries
(PIB); AIC; checklists
and summuries
56 10
The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall The nationality letters The letters P The nationality letters The letters P
be composed by : for the location (Prohibited), R for location indicators (Prohibited), R
indicators assigned to (Restricted) and D assigned to the state or (Restricted) and D
the state, followed by P, (Dangerous) followed territory, followed the (Dangerous) for the
R and D by figures letters P. R and D and area concerned and
figures figures
57 10
Contracting states shall not require the authorized agent or pilot-in- 2 copies of General 2 copies of General 2 of each 3 of each
command to deliver to the public authorities concerned, before Declarations and Cargo Declaration and of
departure of the aircraft, more than some copies of General Manifest and one copie Cargo Manifest and of
Declaration, Cargo Manifest and stores list. The numbers of the of a simple stores list. a stores list
copies are :
58 10
Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long Three months or longer Six months or longer One year or longer Two months or longer
duration and information of short duration which contains extensive
text and/or graphics shall be published as AIP supplements. It is
considered a long duration.
59 10
Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions 50 metres 45 metres 35 metres 40 metres
of aerodromes are codes for different runways. Which is the
minimum width of a runway with runway code 4?
60 10
A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at Not more than 2 Not more than one Not more than three Not more than 28 days
61 10 intervals of : months month months
A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN No more than 15 days Not more than 28 days Not more than 10 days Not more than one
62 10 at intervals of : month
The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a YELLOW GREEN ORANGE RED
volcano when a change in its activity is, or is expected to be of
operational significance. This information is provided using the
volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or
volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported
above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert
colour code is
63 10
The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) are : GEN, ENR (en-route) GEN, AGA, COM, RAC, GEN, ENR, RAC, AD GEN, AGA, COM, ENR,
and AD (aerodromes) FAL, SAR, MET, MAP. FAL
64 10
65 10 The SIGMET service, is in the AIP, in the following part : ENR AGA MET GEN
 The informations concerning charges for aerodromes/heliports and FAL RAC AD GEN
Air Navigation Services are on the following part of the AIP
66 10
In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each At least 6 months after At least 3 months after At least 2 months after At least one year after
prohibited area, restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used cancellation of the area cancellation of the area cancellation of the area cancellation of the area
for a period of to which they refer to which they refer to which they refer to which they refer
67 10
In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an The terrain surrounding ATC requirements. Navigation aids. Airspace restrictions.
instrument departure procedure? the airport.
68 10
Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are Service provided : Service provided : Air Service provided : Service provided : Air
CORRECT? Traffic Information as Traffic Control Service; Traffic Information as Traffic Control Service;
far as practical; ATC ATC Clearance : not far as practical; ATC ATC Clearance :
Clearance : required ; required Clearance : not required ;
required ;
69 10
VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m No minima, VFR flights 8 km visibility, and clear 5 km visibility, 1500 m 8 km visibility, 1500 m
(10000 ft) AMSL, are : are not permitted of clouds ; horizontal and 1000 ft horizontal and 1000 ft
vertical distance from vertical distance from
clouds ; clouds ;
70 10
During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a Select A7600 and Descend to the flight Land at the nearest Land at the nearest
two-way radio communication failure. You will : continue according level submitted for that suitable aerodrome and suitable aerodrome
currenct flight plan to portion of flight ; inform ATC maintaining VMC and
destination ; inform ATC ;
71 10
The profeciency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The 31th of December the 15th of October the 30th of October the 30th of April the
validity of the previous profeciency check was the 30th of June. The same year same year same year following year
period of the new profeciency check can be and can't exceed:
72 10
What does the abbreviation OIS mean? Obstacle identification Obstacle in surface. Obstacle identification Obstruction in surface.
73 10 surface. slope.
The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft 10 NM provided that 10 NM provided that 20 NM provided that 10 NM provided that
"on track" uses DME stations, is: the leading aircraft the leading aircraft the leading aircraft the leading aircraft
maintains a true maintains a true maintains a true maintains a true
airspeed of 20 kt or airspeed of 40 kt or airspeed of 10 kt or airspeed of 10 kt or
more faster than the more faster than the more faster than the more faster than the
succeding aircraft. succeding aircraft. succeding aircraft. succeding aircraft.
74 10
If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by To ignore the wind and To request clearance To correct for known To request from ATC
the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected: proceed on an heading from ATC for applying a wind to remain within different heading for
equal to the track. wind correction. the protected airspace. wind correction.
75 10
In which chapter of the AIP can you find a list with "location AGA ENR AD GEN
76 10 indicators"?
 In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle 35 ft. 0.8 % gradient. 0 ft. 3.3 % gradient.
77 10 clearance at the departure end of runway equals:
In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the aligment of 15°. 30°. 45°. 12.5°.
78 10 the runway centre line within:
In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the 1 minute. 2 minutes. 3 minutes. 1 minute 30 seconds.
79 10 time on the 30° offset track is limited to:
How many separate segments has an instrument approach 4. Up to 4. Up to 5. 3.
80 10 procedure.
Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach At the FAF. At the final en-route fix. At the IAF. At the IF.
81 10 procedure commence?
Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial At least 300m (984 ft). 150m (492 ft). 300m (984 ft). At least 150m (492 ft).
approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?
82 10
What does the abbreviation DER mean? Depature end of Distance end of route. Departure end of route. Distance end of
83 10 runway. runway.
Which code shall be used on Mode "A" to provide recognition of an Code 2000. Code 7500. Code 7700. Code 7600.
84 10 aircraft subjected to unlawful interference?
Which code shall be used on mode "A" to provide recognition of an Code 7000. Code 7700. Code 7500. Code 7600.
85 10 emergency aircraft?
One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision To conduct surveillance To apply a reduced To apply a horizontal To provide instructions
of approach control service is: radar approaches. vertical separation of separation less than 5 in order to reduce
500 feet between IFR NM. separations minima, if
flights and VFR flights. accepted by the pilots.

86 10
The primary duty provided by a radar unit is: To provide radar To assist aircraft due to To assist aircraft on the To assist aircraft where
separation. failure of airborne location storms. navigation appears
equipment. unsatisfactory.
87 10
When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit not advise the aircraft Inform the aircraft only Inform the aircraft prior Inform the aircraft only
shall: before issuing if radar identification to issue any if communication's load
instructions. has been achieved instructions or advice permits it.
without availability of based on the use of
SSR. radar.

88 10
One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision To apply a reduced To provide instructions To conduct precision To apply a horizontal
of approach control service is: vertical separation of to reduce the radar approach (PAR). separation less than 5
500 feet between IFR separation minima. NM.
and VFR flights.
89 10
 Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a 3 NM. 2 NM. 4 NM. 5 NM.
Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be terminated at a
90 10 distance from the touchdown of:
An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the 70 degrees with the 50 degrees with the 60 degrees with the 80 degrees with the
other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than : plane of symmetry of plane of symmetry of plane of symmetry of plane of symmetry of
91 10 the latter the latter the latter the latter
Where a "Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not available, To instruct the pilot to To instruct the pilot to To instruct the pilot to To instruct the pilot to
radar identification may be achieved by one of the following execute one or more execute one or more execute one or more execute one or more
procedures: changes of 10°. changes of 45°. changes of 30° or changes of 20° or
more. more.
92 10
93 10 The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is : 17 years 16 years 18 years 21 years
Which does ATC Term "Radar contact" signify? Your aircraft has been You will be given traffic ATC is receiving your Your aircraft has been
identified and you will advisories until advised transponder and will identified on the radar
receive separation from that the service has furnish vectors and display and radar flight
all aircraft while in been terminated or that traffic advisories until instructions will be
contact with this radar radar contact has been you are advised that provided until radar
facility. lost. contact has been lost. identification is
terminated.

94 10
What is meant when departure control instruct you to "resume own Advisories will no You are still in radar You should maintain Radar Service is
navigation" after you have been vectored to an airway? longer be issued by contact, but must make that airway by use of terminated.
ATC. position reports. your navigation
equipment.
95 10
Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended the Regional Air the Air Navigation the Assembly the Council
Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption ? Navigation meeting Commission
96 10
You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the With a PPL plus flight With a CPL With a theorical CPL With an ATPL
issue of a PPL instructor rating examination plus flight
97 10 instructor rating
98 10 The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is : 2 years 1 year 6 months 5 years
In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding Based turn. Racetrack pattern. Procedure turn. Shuttle.
99 10 pattern is called:
When "Secondary Radar" is used, an aircraft may be identified by To request pilot to set To request pilot to Observation of To request pilot to set
one of the following procedures: transponder on position switch from "ON" to compliance with an transponder on position
"OFF". "STDBY". instruction to operate "ON".
transponder from "ON"
to "STBY" and back to
"ON".
100 10
Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) Requested by ATC. They operate within They operate a They operate within
feature unless: controlled airspace. transponder with Mode non controlled
101 10 C. airspace.
 In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound 1 minute. 1 minute 15 seconds. 1minute 30 seconds. 2 minutes.
track is performed from the start of turn for categories A and B
102 10 aircraft for:
103 10 The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below: 1500 ft. 1000 ft. 3000 ft. 2500 ft.
The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude as hlight level. according pilot's choice. as altitude. as height.
104 10 will be reported:
The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level will as altitude. According to pilot's as flight level. as height.
105 10 be reported : choice.
When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall At all times during flight, Only when the aircraft Only when the aircraft Only when directed by
operate the transponder: regardless of whether is flying within airspace is flying within ATC.
the aircraft is within or where SSR is used for controlled airspace.
outside airspace where ATS purposes.
SSR is used for ATS
purposes.

106 10
When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot: Shall continuously Shall continuously Shall continuously Shall continuously
operate this mode only operate this mode operate this mode only operate this mode
when the aircraft is unless otherwise when directed by ATC. regardless of ATC
within controlled directed by ATC. instructions.
airspace.
107 10
Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a 15°. 20°. 5°. 10°.
zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of:
108 10
When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in- 7700. 7600. 7000. 7500.
command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:
109 10
In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding Track. Heading. Course. Bearing.
110 10 pattern shall be according to:
When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions, pilots shall: Read back only the Read back the mode Use only the word Use only the word
111 10 code to be set. and code to be set. ROGER. WILCO.
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft 10 minutes. 5 minutes. 15 minutes. 3 minutes.
at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent
112 10 determination of position and speed, is:
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft 10 minutes. 15 minutes. 5 minutes. 3 minutes.
at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent
determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is
maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the
succeeding aircraft, is:
113 10
 The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft 5 minutes. 6 minutes. 10 minutes. 3 minutes.
at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent
determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is
maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the
succeeding aircraft, is:
114 10
The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from 10 minutes. 2 minutes. 5 minutes. 3 minutes.
the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the
preceeding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more
faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
115 10
The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from 8 minutes. 3 minutes. 5 minutes. 10 minutes.
the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the
preceeding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more
faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
116 10
The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the 7500. 7700. 7600. 2000.
117 10 transponder to Mode A Code:
Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure? Arrival, initial, Arrival, intermediate Initial and final. Initial, intermediate and
118 10 intermediate and final. and final. final.
The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to the Rome Convention the Warsaw Convention the Paris Convention the Tokyo Convention
endure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage
119 10 caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is :
Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure Intersect the localizer at Intersect the localizer at Intersect the localizer at Intersect the localizer at
may include a dead reckoning segment from a fix to the localizer. 30° and will not be 45° and will not be 30° and will not be 45° and will not be
120 10 The DR track will: more 10 NM in length. more 10 NM in length. more 5 NM in length. more 5 NM in length.
Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the 150m (492 ft). 300m (984 ft). 450m (1476 ft). 600m (1968 ft).
intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach
121 10 procedure?
In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which Final approach Initial approach Intermediate approach Arrival segment.
122 10 alignment and descent for landing are made is called: segment. segment. segment.
In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at IF. FAP. FAF. MAP.
123 10 the:
In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection 300m (984 ft) to 600m 150m (492 ft) to 300m 150m (492 ft) to 900m 300m (984 ft) to 900m
124 10 occurs at heights above runway elevation from: (1968 ft). (984 ft). (2955 ft). (2955 ft).
How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer 5 NM. 3 NM. 5 km. 3 km.
125 10 area?
In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based 6m. 3m. 9m. 12m.
among other standard conditions, on a vertical distance between the
flight paths of the wheels and glide path antenna, not greater than:
126 10
In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound 1 minute 30 seconds. 2 minutes. 1 minute 15 seconds. 1 minute.
track is performed from the start of the turn for categories C, D, E
127 10 aircraft for:
 Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal 3.3%. 5%. 2.5%. 0.8%.
128 10 missed approach climb gradient of:
Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end? At the point where the At the missed approach At the first point where At the point where a
climb is established. point. 50m (164 ft) obstacle new approach, holding
clearance is obtained or return to en-route
and can be maintained. flight is initiated.

129 10
The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing Aerodrome traffic Visual manoeuvring Visual approach. Contact approach.
an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing pattern. (circling).
on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:
130 10
It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector Prohibits circling within Permits circling only in Recommends not to Prohibits the circling
where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring the total sector in which VMC. perform circling within approach to the
(circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. the obstacle exists. the total sector in which affected runway.
When this option is exercised, the published procedure: the obstacle exists.

131 10
Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption half scale deflection of full scale deflection of half scale deflection of full scale deflection of
that the pilot does not deviate from the centre line more than : the glidepath indicator the localizer indicator the localizer indicator. the localizer indicator.
and horizontal 35 ° off and half scale
the centerline. deflection of the
glidepath indicator.

132 10
A circling approach is: A flight manoeuvre to A contact flight A visual flight A visual manoeuvre to
be performed only manoeuvre. manoeuvre keeping the be conducted only in
under radar vectoring. runway in sight. IMC.
133 10
In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume Half a scale deflection. One scale deflection. A quarter of scale One and a half of scale
that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline, after deflection. deflection.
134 10 being established on track, more than:
An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light: outside the daylight- while taxiing, but not outside the daylight- on the ground when the
period in flight, but not when it is being towed; period at engine-start. engines are running
on the ground when it is During the daylight-
being towed; period this is not
applicable;
135 10
Which statement is correct? The lower limit of an The lower limit of a The lower limit of a CTA The upper limit of a
UIR may coincide with TMA shall be shall be established at CTR shall be
an IFR cruising level established at a height a height of at least established at a height
of at least 700ft AGL; 1500ft AGL; of at least 3000ft AMSL;

136 10
 The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal Essential separation Composite separation Combined separation Reduced separation
separation may be reduced till a maximum of half the standard
137 10 criteria is called :
The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be only in AIP NOTAM, AIP and MAL in NOTAM and AIP, only in NOTAM
138 10 published : inclusive Supplement.
Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration : information signs; mandatory instruction information signs; mandatory instruction
orange background signs; black yellow or black signs ; red background
with black inscriptions. background with red background with black with black inscriptions.
inscriptions. or yellow inscriptions.

139 10
When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current the TAS varies by plus of an emergency. the estimated time is in it is a deviation from the
flightplan, ATC has to be informed in case : or minus 5% of the TAS error by more than 10 track.
notified in the flightplan. minutes.
140 10
Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by International Civile the other Contracting United Nations to all States Members
141 10 notification addressed Aviation Organisation States of United Nations
Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the at least 2000 feet within at least 2000 feet within at least 1000 feet within at least 1000 feet within
minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high 5KM of the estimated 8 KM of the estimated 5KM of the estimated 8 KM of the estimated
142 10 terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight : position position position position
Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final 7%. 8%. 6,5%. 5%.
approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle
143 10 clearance, is :

The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that : landing, take-off and this aerodrome is using taxiing need not be gliderflying is
taxiing is allowed on parallel runways confined to the performed outside the
runway and/or taxiway taxiways ; landing area;
only;
144 10
Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft follow ATC instructions. request ATC for other select code A7500 on follow the instructions
The signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC instructions instructions. your transponder. of the intercepting
You should : aircraft.
145 10
The primary area of an instrument approach segment is : the outside part of the A defined are the most critical part of the first part of the
segment where the symmetrically disposed the segment where the segment ;
obstacle clearance about the nominal flight minimum altitude
increases from o ft to track in which full should be kept very
the appropriate obstacle clearance is carefully;
minimum provided.

146 10
In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial approach decreasing from 984 to 984 ft 1476 ft 492 ft
147 10 segment provides at least : 492 ft
 A so called "Visual Approach" can be performed : during IFR flights, if during IFR and VFR during IFR flights, if the as in above, but in
there is permanent flights in VMC; cloudbase is 1000 ft addition there should
sight on the movement more than the be a visibility of 5,5 km
area and the underlying appropriate DA or MDA or more
ground; for that procedure;

148 10
An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if : the pilot has the field the aircraft gets radar the pilot is following the all mentioned answers
and the underlying vectors ; published approach are correct
terrain in sight and will procedure
keep it in sight;
149 10
When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to the flight can only you are not allowed to departure to the you must indicate the
departure and restorage is impossible, than : continue in the most commence the flight nearest suitable airport failure in the fightplan,
direct manner; where repair can be after which the ATC will
effected is allowed endeavour to provide
for continuation of the
flight;

150 10
To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E / a clearance and/or two- two way a clearance is required. a clearance and two-
way radiocommunication is way
radiocommunication is not required. radiocommunication is
required. required.
151 10
What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision- 900m 150m 300m 600m
152 10 approach runway CAT II :
What is a "barrette"? a frangible structure on three or more a highted obstacle near a CAT II or III holding
which approach lights groundlights closely the runway and/or position.
are fixed. spaced together to taxiway.
appear as a bar of
lights.
153 10
A precision approach runway CAT. II is an instrument runway served a RVR of 550 meters a RVR of 200 meters a RVR of 300-450 a RVR of 250 meters
by ILS and visual aids intended for operations down to: and a DH of not less and a DH of not less meters and a DH of not and a DH of not less
154 10 than 200 ft. than 100 ft. less than 100 ft. than 200 ft.
155 10 Turning departures provide track guidance within : 10 Km 5 Km 15 Km 20 Km
When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall 150 m from threshold 450 m from threshold 600 m from threshold 300 m from threshold
156 10 commence at :
In a standard holding pattern turns are made : in a direction to the right to the left in a direction
depending on the wind depending on the
157 10 direction entry ;
 Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control Suspension of VFR ATC permission is An aircraft entering the The aerodrome control
service is correct? operations can not be required for entering traffic circuit without service is a service
initiated by the the apron with a permission of ATC, will provided for the
aerodrome controller; vehicule be cleared to land if this purpose of preventing
is desirable ; collisions between
aircraft on the
movement area;
158 10
On a non-precision approach a so-called "straight-in-approach" is 40 degrees or less 20 degrees or less 10 degrees or less 30 degrees or less
considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track
159 10 and the runway centreline is :

Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is The Alert phase is The distress phase is Aircraft in the vicinity of Alerting Service and
correct? established when no established when an an aircraft known or Flight Information
communication has aircraft is known or believed to be the Service are often
been received from an believed th be the subject of unlawful provided by the same
aircraft within a period subject of unlawful interference, shall be ATS unit
of thirty minutes after interference informed about this;
the time a
communication should
have been received;

160 10
Which statement regarding approach control service is correct ? During a visual If it is anticipated that Approach control have An approach sequence
approach an aircraft is an aircraft has to hold to advise the aircraft shall be established
maintaining its own for 30 minutes or more, operators about according to the
separation ; an Expected Approach substantial delays in sequence of initial radio
Time will be transmitted departure in any event contact between aircraft
by the most expeditious when they are expected and approach control ;
means to the aircraft to exceed 45 minutes ;

161 10
Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar 3NM 5NM 1NM 2NM
blip is observed within a certain distance from the end of the runway.
Identification has to be achieved within :
162 10
Runway-lead-in lighting should consist : of group of at least always of a straight row of flashing lights only; of an arbitrary amount
three white lights of lights towards the of green lights;
flashing in sequence runway
towards the runway ;

163 10
The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is 30 NM 25 NM 10 NM 15 NM
164 10 in general valid within a sector of :
 We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight 5° of the alignment of 10° of the alignment of 25° of the alignment of 15° of the alignment of
departure the initial departure track is within : the runway centre-line the runway centre-line the runway centre-line the runway centre-line
165 10
Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by 2,5 NM 1,5 NM 3 NM 5 NM
agreements, aircraft under radar-control shall not be vectored closer
166 10 to the boundary of controlled airspace than :
Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for the operator the pilot-in-command ; the "flight-operations" of the state
167 10 an approavh procedure? the company
When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be RCC LLL DDD PAN
used which might be confused with urgent signals for example
168 10
To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and 16 and 60 years 17 and 59 years 18 and 60 years 21 and 59 years
169 10 maximum age (with ATPL) is :
Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed by regional air by states on the basis by states but not on the by ICAO on the basis of
navigation agreements of regional air basis of regional air regional air navigation
navigation agreements agreements agreements
170 10
Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to C, D, E, F, and G F and G only A, B, C, D, E, F and G F only
avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace classes :
171 10
The assigment of the common mark to a common mark registering the International Civil the state of registry and the International the state of registry
authority will be made by : Aviation Organisation accepted by the Telecommunication
International Union
Telecommunication
Union
172 10
The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols to state of the operator to the International Civil to the state of registry to the State of registry
included in the radio call signs allocated : Aviation Organisation by the International by the International
by the International Civil Aviation Telecommunication
Telecommunication Organisation Union
Union

173 10
The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of the state of registry or the state of registry only the International Civil the Internationnal
letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by : common mark Aviation Organisation Telecommunication
174 10 registering authority Union
An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning An AIRMET information A SIGMET information A NOTAM An En-Route Meteo
the occurence or expected occurence of specified en-route weather Report
phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft
operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued
for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-
area thereof is
175 10
 When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be LLL TTT FFF RCC
used which might be confused with urgent signals for example
176 10
Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall 30 seconds of UTC at 15 seconds of UTC at 10 seconds of UTC at 1 minute of UTC at all
be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or all times all times all times times
177 10 minus
When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall RCC LLL XXX DDD
not be used which might be confused with urgent or distress signals
178 10 for example
The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft at least between 40 at least 60 centimetres at least 75 centimetres at least 50 centimetres
shall be centimetres and 50
179 10 centimetres
The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and at least 30 centimetres at least 40 centimetres at least 20 centimetres at least between 20
on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be centimetres and 40
180 10 centimetres
The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a continuing over 5.700 kg up to 5.700 kg up to 5.700 kg over 5.700 kg
structural integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of the maximum certificate maximum certificate maximum certificate maximum certificate
aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning corrosion take-off and landing take-off mass take-off and landing take-off mass
prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes : mass mass
181 10
When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed the state of registry, the the state of the state of design and the state of registry
to resume its flight, if state of design and the manufacture informs the state of considers that the
state of manufacture the state of registry that manufacture inform the damage sustained is of
consider that the the damage sustained state of registry that the a nature such that the
aircraft is still airworthy is of a nature such that aircraft is still airworthy aircraft is still airworthy
the aircraft is still
airworthy

182 10
The loading limitations shall include : all limiting mass and all limiting mass, mass all limiting mass, all limiting mass,
centres of gravity distributions and centres of gravity centres of gravity
centres of gravity position and floor position, mass
loadings distributions and floor
loadings
183 10
When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall four letter combinations three letters letters used for ICAO five letter combinations
not be used which might be confused with the beginning with Q combinations used in identification used in the
the international code documents international code of
of signals signals
184 10
When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns 25 NM on the route 15 NM on the route 15 NM on the route 22.5 NM on the route
shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between 30° and 90° at between 30° and 90° at between 30° and 90° at between 30° and 90° at
between the straight leg segments with a radius of : and below FL190 and below FL 190 and above FL 200 and above FL 250
185 10
 Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with only to passengers and to all international civil only to all international only to passengers and
its administration to be responsible for the development aircrew in international air transport including civil transport including aircrew in international
implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security civil transport flights aircraft engaged solely aircraft engaged solely civil transport flights
programme. This programme should apply : and domestic flights in the carriage of cargo in the carriage of cargo
and yet to domestic
flights at the discretion
of each member state

186 10
During radar-control, a "radar-controller" shall issue a missed- 1NM from touch-down; 3 NM from touch-down; 4 NM from touch-down; 2 NM from touch-down;
approach instruction, in case the "tower-controller" has not issued a
187 10 "landing-clearance" at the moment the aircraft is :
Which statement is correct ? ATC will apply ATC will apply ATC will apply the pilot to apply
During a "Visual Approach" in Controlled Airspace (Classe C): separation only with separation with other separation with other separation with other
188 10 other IFR-traffic arriving traffic traffic traffic;
"Cabotage" refers to: crop spraying domestic air services ; a national air carrier; a flight above territorial
189 10 waters;
A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections. flight identification and urgent messages a position report, weather noted ;
In section I the pilot fills in : weather noted ; including aircraft
identification, height,
position and time ;
190 10
When a member state allows police officers, security staff, Prior notification by the Notification of the pilot Agreement between the Agreement between the
bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to carry weapons in state of embarcation to in command of a state of embarcation state of embarcation
their territory for the protection of aircraft in flight, permission for the the foreign state in decision to permit a and the state of and the airport of arrival
carriage of weapons should be conditional upon : which the weapons will weapon to be carried destination
be carried on the on board his aircraft
airport of arrival and only
notification of the pilot
in command of a
decision to permit a
weapon to be carried
on board his aircraft

191 10
Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over 100 NM or more 60 NM or more 75 NM or more 50 NM or more
192 10 points should be limited to route segments of
For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some boarding after to all the boarding will be at the boarding has to be boarding prior to all
supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as : other passengers the pilot in command done at the state passengers
193 10 discretion discretion
The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in 5 minutes or more. 15 minutes or more 10 minutes 20 minutes
194 10 case the expected delay is :
 Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the plus or minus 4 NM on plus or minus 4 NM on plus or minus 4 miles plus or minus 4 NM on
indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy of a 90 per cent a 98 per cent on a 90 per cent a 95 per cent
195 10 containment basis containment basis containment basis containment basis
When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns 22.5 NM between 30° 20 NM on the route 22.5 NM between 30° 25.0 NM on the route
shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc and 90° at and above between 30° and 90° at and 90° at and above between 30° and 90° at
between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of : FL260 and above FL200 FL200 and above FL 250
196 10
The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not 1 minute 2 minutes 3 minutes 30 seconds
197 10 exceed
Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be immediately a at least every half an as prescribed by the as prescribed by the
updated significant change hour independently of meteorological office state
occurs any significant change
198 10
Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the both air traffic services the unit as prescribed the air traffic services the meteorological
ATIS message shall be the responsability of and the meteorological the states office serving the
199 10 office aerodrome (s)
ATIS broadcast shall not be transmitted Shall be transmitted on Shall not be transmitted Shall only be
on the voice channel of the voice channel of an on the voice of a VOR transmitted on a
an ILS ILS, on a discrete VHF discrete VHF frequency
frequency or on the
voice channel of a VOR

200 10
Member states should introduce specific security measures for the None of the answers is Deportees, Deportees and persons Deportees and
air transport of the following groups of potentially disruptive correct inadmissible persons in lawful custody only inadmissible persons
passengers defined below : and persons in lawful only
custody
201 10
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in 20 hours of instrument 15 hours of instrument 10 hours of instrument 20 hours of instrument
aeroplanes not less than : instruction time of time of which not more instruction time of instruction time of
which not more than 10 than 5 hours as pilot in which not more than 5 which not more than 5
hours may be command hours may be hours may be
instrument ground time instrument ground time instrument ground time.

202 10
In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below: the OCH 200 ft 350 ft 400 ft

203 10
The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall the licence is issued or the licence is issued or the licence is delivered the medical
204 10 begin on the date : validated renewed to the pilot assessment is issued
 When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another shall not extend more the Contracting state shall not extend beyond shall not extend beyond
contracting state the validity of the authorization than 15 days from the rendering a licence the period of validity of the period of validity of
date of the licence valid may extend the the licence other than the licence
date of the validity at its for use in private flights
own discretion
205 10
When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences aeroplane and 12 months to 6 months 12 months to 3 months 24 months to 12 none of the answers
helicopter have passed their 40th birthday the medical examination months are correct
206 10 shall be reduced from :

Type ratings shall be established all the answers are for any type of aircraft
correct whenever considered
necessary by the
authority
only aircraft certificated
for operation with a
minimum crew of at
least two pilots
only for aircraft
certificated for
operation with a
minimum crew of at
least two pilots and
each type of helicopter

207 10
The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing the flight time towards 50% of his flight time in full with his flight time in full with his flight but
under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and the total time required towards the total time towards the total time not more than 300
duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit : for higher grade of pilot required for higher required for higher hours towards the total
licence in accordance grade of pilot licence grade of pilot licence time required for a
with the requirements higher grade of pilot
of the licensing licence
authority
208 10
An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane 50 hours and 10 hours 40 hours and 10 hours 40 hours and 15 hours 50 hours and 15 hours
for the issue of an instrument rating, shall have completed ..... hours
of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in
categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less
than ..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours, are
respectively
209 10
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have 200 hours of flight time 150 hours of flight time 200 hours of flight time 200 hours of flight time
completed in aeroplanes not less than : and 70 hours as pilot in and 100 hours as pilot or 150 hours if and 80 hours as pilot in
command in command completed during a command
course of approved
training as a pilot of
aeroplanes
210 10
 The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot 100 hours of which not 75 hours of which not 100 hours, of which not 100 hours of which not
under instruction in a synthetic flight trainer which it has approved, is more than 15 hours more than 20 hours more than 25 hours more than 20 hours
acceptable as part of the total flight time of 1 500 hours. Credit for shall have been shall have been shall have been shall have been
such experience shall be limited to a maximum of : acquired in a flight acquired in a flight acquired in a flight acquired in a basic
procedure trainer or procedure trainer or procedure trainer or instrument flight trainer
basic instrument flight basic instrument flight basic instrument flight
trainer trainer trainer

211 10
The national civil aviation security programme shall be established ECAC ICAO and other Each contracting state ICAO
by : organisations including
the contracting state
concerned

212 10
Each contracting state shall designate an appropriate authority within Shall be specified to Shall be specified to Should be specified to Shall be specified to
its administration to be responsible for the development, ICAO and to ECAC ICAO, ECAC and to ICAO and to ECAC ICAO
implementation and maintenance of the national civil aviation other contracting states
security programme. The said appropriate authority :

213 10
Each contracting state shall establish measures to ensure that the The state above Correct. The aircraft operator These measures are of
aircraft operator is informed when passengers are obliged to travel question in incomplete. and the pilot in the discretion of the
because they have been the subject of judicial or administrative The pilot in command command are only to contracting state.
proceedings in order that appropriate security measures can be and the aircraft be informed when any
taken operator are to be passenger is the
informed. subject of judicial
proceedings.
214 10
During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC the airport controller. the pilot in command. the approach controller. the radar controller.
215 10 conditions, traffic avoidance is the responsibility of:
When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert air traffic control and search and rescue air traffic coordination control centres only.
phase is the responsibility of: flight information coordination centres. centres.
centers.
216 10
Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be 25 knots at any stage 20 knots and not within 10 knots and not within 15 knots at any stage
requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These 4 NM of threshold 5 NM of threshold
217 10 adjustments shall never be more than :
For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have 5 hours of night flight 5 hours of night flight 5 hours of night flight 5 hours of night flight
completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the licence time including 3 take time including 5 take time including 5 take time including 3 take-
are to be exercised at night offs and 5 landings as offs and 5 landings as offs and 5 landings offs and 3 landings as
pilot in command pilot in command either as pilot in pilot in command
command or as co-pilot

218 10
 The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane to act as pilot-in to act as pilot in to act as pilot in none of the answers
shall be : command in any command in any command in any are correct
aeroplane engaged in aeroplane engaged in aeroplane certificate for
operations other than commercial air single pilot operation
commercial air transportation other than in
transportation commercial air
transportation
219 10
When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established Only for categories C, For all categories of For each category of Only for categories A
the obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined: D and E aircraft. aircraft, and it is the aircraft, and it may be and B aircraft.
same for all of them. different for each one of
them.
220 10
Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof the Chicago the Warsaw Convention the Montreal the Rome Convention
only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person Convention Convention
or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided
by :
221 10
The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board the convention of the convention of Tokyo the convention of Paris the convention of Rome
222 10 aircraft, is : Chicago
The convention which deals with offences againts penal law, is the convention of the convention of Tokyo the convention of the convention of Rome
223 10 Madrid Warsaw
The convention of Tokyo applies to damage : caused in the territory the above convention caused in the territory only caused in the
of a contrating state by does not deal with this of a contracting state or territory of a contracting
any aircraft regardless item in a ship or aircraft state by an aircraft
the registration registered there in , by registered in the
an aircraft registered in territory of another
the territory of another contracting state
contraction state

224 10
The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft 50 % of the co-pilot 40 % of the co-pilot 100 hours of flying time 60 % of the co-pilot
required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit flight time towards the flight time towards, the required for a higher flight time towards, the
with not more than : total flight time required total flight time required grade of a pilot licence total flight time required
for a higher grade of for a higher grade of a for a higher grade of a
pilot licence pilot licence pilot licence

225 10
 In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at A single period of six Two consecutive A single period of six in the case of a private
the discretion of the licensing authority, provided that such deferment months in the case of a periods each of three months in the case of a pilot, a single period of
shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed : flight crew member of months in the case of a flight crew member of 12 months
an aircraft engaged in flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in
non commercial an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.
operations. non commercial
operations

226 10
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold a current class I a current class II a current class III a current class medical
medical assessment medical assessment medical assessment assessment as
prescribed by the state
issuing the licence

227 10
The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is : ± 12.5 NM ± 2.5 NM ± 5 NM ± 10 NM
228 10
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have 15 hours and 540 km 20 hours and 270 km 20 hours and 540 km 10 hours and 270 km
completed not less than ........ hours of cross country flight time as (300NM) (150NM) (300NM) (150 NM)
pilot in command including a cross country flight totalling not less
than ........ km (-NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two
different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance referred
are :
229 10
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have 10 hours of cross 25 hours of cross 15 hours of cross 20 hours of cross
completed in aeroplanes not less than : country flight time as country flight time as country flight time as country flight time as
pilot-in-command pilot-in-command pilot-in-command pilot-in-command
including a cross including a cross including a cross including a cross
country flight not less country flight not less country flight not less country flight not less
than 540 km (300NM) than 540 km (300NM) than 540 km (300NM) than 540 km (300NM)
230 10
An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall 150 hours and 75 hours 250 hours and 100 200 hours and 75 hours 200 hours and 100
have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours, either as pilot hours hours
in command or made up by not less than ...... hours as pilot-in-
command and the additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under
the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and functions of a
pilot in command provided that the method of supervision employed
is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above hours are
respectively :
231 10
 The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have 250 hours and 10 hours 150 hours and 75 hours 200 hours and 75 hours 200 hours and 100
completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours of cross-country hours
flight time, of which not less than ...... hours shall be as pilot-in
command or co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot in
command, the duties and functions of a pilot in command, provided
that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the
licensing authority. The state above hours are respectively :

232 10
An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have 75 hours of instrument 100 hours of instrument 150 hours of instrument 75 hours of instrument
completed in aeroplanes not less than : time, of which not more time, of which not more time, of which not more time, of which not more
than 30 hours may be than 30 hours of than 75 hours of than 20 hours of
instrument ground time. instrument ground time instrument ground time. instrument ground time.

233 10
An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have 100 hours of night flight 100 hours of night flight 75 hours of night flight 75 hours of night time
completed in aeroplanes not less than : as pilot in command or only as pilot in as pilot in command or only as pilot in
as co-pilot command as co-pilot command
234 10
The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be 17 years of age 16 years of age 18 years of age 21 years of age
235 10 less than :
The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing Annex 12 Annex 1 Annex 2 Annex 11
standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is :
236 10
For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be 200 ft 250 ft 150 ft 100 ft
lower than :
237 10
The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising true air speed at 65% true air speed (TAS). estimated ground indicated air speed
portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan power. speed (G/S). (IAS).
238 10 form. This speed is the:
Three aircraft, (1), (2) and (3), arrive successively at ten minute (1) until the completion (1), then by mutual (1), then by mutual (1), and then by mutual
intervals, overhead the scene of a recent aircraft accident. of operations. consent (2) and then consent (2) until the consent to (3).
(3). completion of
-aircraft (1) is unable to establish contact with the Search and operations.
Rescue Centre
-aircraft (2) is able to contact the Search and Rescue Centre
-aircraft (3) is a Search and Rescue helicopter

The command of the situation is the responsibility of;

239 10
 At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To make at least one transmit, by luminous fly over the group of switch his landing lights
indicate that he has received these ground signals, the pilot must : complete turn over the Morse signal, a series people in difficulty as on and off twice or, if he
group of people in of the letter "R" using low as possible. is not so equipped, his
difficulty. his navigation lights twice.
navigational lights.

240 10
The international convention defining rules relative to the Tokyo Convention. Hague Convention. Montreal Convention. Warsaw Convention.
responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of
241 10 passengers, baggage and freight is the :
The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes; standards and aeronautical standards proposals for standards and
recommended adopted by all states. aeronautical recommended
international practices regulations in the form practices applied
for contracting member of 18 annexes. without exception by all
states. states, signatory to the
Chicago convention.

242 10
Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done: only at transition level. at transition altitude at transition level during only at transition
during climb and climb and transition altitude.
transition level during altitude during descent.
descent.
243 10
The first freedom of the air is: The opportunity to The right to board The right to overfly The right to land for a
operate a commercial passengers from the without landing. technical stop.
flight with passengers state where the aircraft
on board is registered and to fly
between two states. to an other state.

244 10
An air traffic control unit : may not ask an aircraft may ask an aircraft to may require to change must not ask an aircraft
to change its call sign temporarily change its the call sign for safety to change its call sign.
after accepting the flight call sign for safety reasons when there is a
plan. reasons when there is a risk of confusion
risk of confusion between two or more
between two or more similar call signs
similar call signs. providing the aircraft is
on a repetitive flight
plan.

245 10
 The second freedom of the air is the : right to operate a right to land for a right to overfly without right to "cabotage"
commercial passenger technical stop landing traffic, (trans-border
flight with passengers traffic).
on board between two
states.
246 10
The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was Montreal Chicago The Hague Warsaw
247 10 established by the international convention of :
An aircraft is flying over a mountainous region in which a search is "Need mechanical "Need medical "Landing impossible". "All occupants alive".
being carried out to find the survivors of an aircraft accident. The assistance". assistance".
pilot sees a ground signal in the form of an "X".
This indicates :

248 10
An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives a series of give way to another return to land and that not land for the moment not land because the
red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must aircraft. clearance to land will regardless of previous airport is not available
: be communicated in instructions. for landing.
due
course.
249 10
When mixing or contact does take place between passengers the persons not the passengers only the passengers only the passengers
subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to such subjected to security concerned and their are to be re screened cabin baggage are to
control after the security screening points at airports serving control shall be cabin baggage shall be be re screened
international civil aviation have been passed identified re screened before
boarding an aircraft

250 10
The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with : Damage caused by Regulation of Damage caused by any offences and certain
foreign aircraft to third transportation of aircraft to third parties other acts committed
parties on the surface dangerous goods on the surface on board aircraft
251 10
 An AIRAC is : An Acronym for a A publication issued by A notice distributed by A package which
system aimed at or with the authority of means of consists of the following
advance notification a state containing telecommunication elements : AIP,
based on common aeronautical containing information supplements to the AIP,
effective dates, of information of a lasting concerning the NOTAM, AIC, checklists
circumstances character essential to establishment, and summaries.
necessitating significant air navigation. condition or change in
changes in operating any aeronautical
procedures. facility service,
procedure or hazard,
the timely knowledge of
which
is essential to
personnel concerned
with flight operations.

252 10
The letter "L" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan 5 700 kg for airplanes 7 000 kg. 14 000 kg. 20 000 kg.
form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less and 2 700 kg for
253 10 than or equal to: helicopters.
Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in 10 NM 5 NM 25 NM 20 NM
relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from
254 10 the IAF of:
Given: FL 30 or 1 500 ft AGL. 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 500 FL 30 or 100 ft AGL.
000ft AGL. ft AGL.
AGL = above ground level
AMSL = above mean sea level
FL = flight level

within uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must

provide a 500 ft margin above the following two levels:
255 10
For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated will stop on the parking will leave the initial will arrive overhead the will land.
time of arrival is the estimated time at which the aircraft: area. approach fix to start the initial approach fix.
256 10 final approach.
Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures 2.5% 2% 5% 3.3%
published on the IAC charts are based on a minimum climb gradient
257 10 of:
 A "precision approach" is a direct instrument approach... using at least one using bearing, elevation carried out by a crew of using bearing, elevation
source of bearing and distance at least two pilots and distance
information and one information, providing trained with a specific information.
source of elevation or the pilot uses a flight working method.
distance information. director or an autopilot
certified to a height
below 200 ft.

258 10
While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the is cleared for take-off. may continue to taxy must stop. must return to its point
following light signal : a series of green flashes. This signal means towards the take-off of departure.
259 10 that the aircraft : area.
The "estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the of endurance at required by the aircraft required by the aircraft required by the aircraft
estimated time : cruising power taking from take-off to arrive from the moment it from brake release at
into account pressure overhead the moves by its own take-off until landing.
and temperature on destination airport. power until it stops at
that day. the end of the flight
(block time).
260 10
If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box write XXXX in box 16 write XXXX in box 16 write ZZZZ in box 16 write ZZZZ in box 16
16) of a flight plan form... and indicate in box 18 and indicate in box 18 and indicate in box 18 and indicate in box 18
(additional information) (additional information) (additional information) (additional information)
ALTN/followed by the DEGT/followed by the DEGT/followed by the ALTN/followed by the
name of the name of the airport name of the name of the
airport airport. airport.
261 10
An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a 1st freedom 3rd freedom 4th freedom 2nd freedom
neighboring state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised ?
262 10
When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: "fly 030° magnetic in still air 030° true 030° true, in still air 030° magnetic
heading 030", the pilot must fly heading: conditions (thereby conditions (thereby
flying the magnetic flying the true track)
track)
263 10
Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320. A 7620 Mode C A 0020 Mode C A 7600 Mode C A 5300 Mode C
In flight, in case of radio communications failure, you will squawk
code :
264 10
Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Sercice (AFIS) : it can only supply its purpose is to supply it has the same its only purpose is to
limited services to the ATC services but it is privileges and relay ATC information
users and under no not a state prerogatives as an ATC to the aircraft in flight or
circumstances may it organisation. organisation but its on the ground.
supply ATC services. activity is neither
continuous nor regular.

265 10
 The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done : automatically at the with the pilot's consent. through a central by agreement with the
control zone boundary. control unit. receiving unit.
266 10
Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a must give way to must come back to land is cleared to land. must land immediately
series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft : another aircraft. and the landing and clear the landing
clearance will be sent in area.
due time.
267 10
The pilot in command of an aircraft: 3-4-5 1-4 2-3-5 3-5

1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received from ATC.

2 - is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying".
3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons.
4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC
instruction.
5 - may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance.

Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct

statements?

268 10
While taxying an aircraft receives the following light signal from the may continue to taxi to must vacate the landing must stop. must return to its point
control tower : series of red flashes. This signal means that the the take-off area. area in use. of departure.
269 10 aircraft :

According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL Instructional flight time Instructional flight time Cross country flight Cross country flight
(A)including a night qualification or CPL(A) and shall have completed as studen-pilot-in- as student-pilot-in- time as pilot-in- time as pilot of
at least 50 hours : command of command of command in aeroplanes or
aeroplanes. aeroplanes or aeroplanes or helicopters of which at
helicopters of which at helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be
least 10 hours shall be least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.
in aeroplanes. in aeroplanes.

270 10
When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and 20 degrees 15 degrees 30 degrees 25 degrees
vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach
track,the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to
intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an
angle not greater than :
271 10
 Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel the missed approach the missed approach the missed approach the missed approach
runways provided that : track for one approach track for one approach track for one approach track for one approach
diverges by at least 20° diverges by at least 25° diverges by at least 45° diverges by at least 30°
(degrees) from the (degrees) from the (degrees) from the (degrees) from the
missed approach track missed approach track missed approach track missed approach track
of the adjacent of the adjacent of the adjacent of the adjacent
approach approach approach approach

272 10
During circling-to-land ( with or without prescribed flight tracks), the 120 kt 125 kt 150 kt 135 kt
maximum allowed airspeed for a Cat B aeroplane, in order to remain
273 10 within the protection envelope, is:
A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport where ceiling greater or equal VH (visibility horizontal) ceiling greater or equal VH (visibility horizontal)
poor weather conditions are prevailing. The closest accessible to DH or MDH, and VH greater or equal to VH to DH/MDH, and VH greater or equal to VH
aerodrome is three flying hours away. (horizontal visibility) required for landing, (horizontal visibility) required for landing on
The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield are: greater or equal to VH and ceiling greater or greater or equal to VH the runway to be used
required for landing, equal to ceiling required for landing,
with an available required for landing, with an available
instrument approach with an available instrument approach
procedure to be instrument approach procedure
envisaged with one procedure
engine out

274 10
A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are 3.0 NM 5.0 NM 1.0 NM 2.0 NM
etablished inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final
approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel
approaches are being conducted :
275 10
A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM 5 minutes 3 minutes 1 minute 2 minutes
aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a
MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed
approach and the lighter aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction
runway for take off, this minimum is :

276 10
A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM 760 m Less than 730 m 730 m Less than 760 m
aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a
MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed
approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in
the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway
separated by :
277 10
A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are 200 m (660 ft) 150 m (500 ft) 100 m (330 ft) 300 m (1000 ft)
etablished inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final
approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel
approaches are being conducted :
278 10
 In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and medium aircraft behind medium aircraft other light aircraft behind medium aircraft behind
using timed approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft heavy aircraft - 2 medium aircraft - 2 medium aircraft -4 heavy aircraft - 3
279 10 landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft ? minutes minutes minutes minutes
Special VFR flights may the authorized to operate locally within a C, D and E airspaces E airspace D and E airspaces D airspace
control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres,
even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio
receiver within class :
280 10
What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a 2 minutes 3 minutes 1 minute 5 minutes
light aircraft is taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using
281 10 the same runway ?
According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are Two years One year Two years up to age 40 Five years after licence
valid for : years then one year issuie.
282 10 thereafter.

According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine Of the skill test The application is Of the last medical Of issue
class ratings will be one year from the date : received by the certificate
283 10 Authority.
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses 4 KT 5 KT 3 KT 2 KT
wind information in the form of components, significant changes in
the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to
aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant change is :

284 10
Repetitive flight plans (RPL's) shall not be used for flights operated On at least 20 days On at least 20 On at least ten On at least ten
regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive weeks and : consecutively occasions occasions or every day occasions or every day
over a period of at least over a period of at least
ten consecutive days 20 consecutive days

285 10
A radio communications, "Distress" differs from "Urgency" because in The aeroplane will not The aeroplane or a There is a serious and The aeroplane has
the first case: be able to reach a passenger's safety imminent danger suffered damages
suitable aerodrome. require the flight requiring immediate which impair its fitness
immediately assistance. to fly.
interrupted.
286 10
Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and Setting the SSR Setting the SSR Setting the SSR Setting the SSR
where automatic distinct display of SSR Mode A code 7500 and code decoder to mode A decoder to mode A decoder to mode A decoder to mode A
7700 is not provided, the radar controller shall attempt to verify this code 7000 and 7500 then to standby 7700 then to standby code 7500 and
suspicion by : thereafter to code 7500 and thereafter to code and thereafter to code thereafter to code 7700
7700 7500
287 10
 When the Mach number tecnique (MNT) is being applied, and the 80 NM 100 NM 70 NM 60 NM
preceding aircraft shall maintain a mach number equal to or greater
than the following aircraft a RNAV distance based separation
minimum may be used on the same direction tracks in lieu of 10
minutes longitudinal separation minimum. The distance is :

288 10
Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for 40 NM 20 NM 10 NM 25 NM
aircraft at the same cruising level and track, provided that each
aircraft utilizes "on Track" DME stations and separation is checked
by obtaining simultaneous DME readings, is :
289 10
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the 2 minutes 3 minutes 5 minutes 10 minutes
same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent
determination of position and speed provided that the preceding
aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than
the succeeding aircraft will be
290 10
According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for A certificate of A certificate of Handling characteristics Handling characteristics
aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of airworthiness issued by airworthiness issued by that require additional that require the use of
these three criteria is that the aeroplane has : a non-member state. the manufacturer. flying or simulator more than one crew
training member

291 10
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the 3 minutes 10 minutes 15 minutes 5 minutes
same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent
292 10 determination of position and speed will be

According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single Microlights having fixed Any other type of All self.-sustaining All types of single-pilot,
pilots aeroplanes not requiring a type rating, including : wings and moveable aeroplane if considered gliders. single-engine
aerodynamic control necessary. aeroplanes fitted with a
surfaces acting in all turbojet engine.
three dimensions.

293 10
According to JAR-FCL, a professionnal flight crew licence license At the diiscretion of the At the discretion of the At the discretion of the At the discretion of the
issued by a non JAA State may be rendered valid for use on aircraft Authority of the Authority of that Authority of that Authority of that
registered in a JAA Member State Member State Member State Member State Member State
concerned for a period concerned for a period concerned for a period concerned for a period
not exceeding the not exceeding one year not exceeding one year, not exceeding one year,
period validity of basic provided that the basic provided that the basic
licence licence remains valid. licence remains valid.

294 10
 According to JAR-FCL, licence holders do not exercise the privileges Any period More than 12 hours More than 12 days More than one week
of their licences, related ratings or authorisations at any time when
they are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness which might
render them unable to safely exercise those privileges. They shall
without undue delay seek the advice of the authority or AME when
becoming aware of hospital or clinic admissions for:

295 10
According to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots 24 months until age of 24 months until age of 60 months until age of 60 months until age of
will be valid for 40, 12 months 40, 12 months until age 30, 24 months until age 30, 24 months until age
thereafter of 60 and 6 months of 50, 12 months until of 40, 12 months
thereafter age of 65 and 6 months thereafter
thereafter
296 10
According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has 150 hours of flight time 200 hours of flight time 150 hours of flight time 200 hours of flight time
satisfactorily followed an completed an integrated flying training plus 10 hours of plus 10 hours of
course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a instrument ground time instrument ground time
certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA Member
State at least:
297 10
According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for : two years The period of validity of Indefinitely one year
298 10 the licence.
An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where continue flight onto descend to En-route land on the closest adopt a VFR flight level
the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it destination, complying Minimum Safe Altitude appropriate aerodrome, and continue flight onto
totally loses radiocommunications. The procedure to be followed is: with last received and join closest airfield then advise Air Traffic destination
clearances then with open to IFR operations Services of landing
filed flight plan.

299 10
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the 3 minutes 10 minutes 2 minutes 5 minutes
same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent
determination of position and speed provided that the preceding
aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 Kt or more faster than
the succeeding aircraft will be
300 10
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all Airspace D Airspace B Airspace E Airspace A
flights are subject to air traffic control service. IFR flights are
separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in
respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in
respect of all other flights, is classified as :

301 10
Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel 610 m is established 500 m is established 710 m is established 600 m is established
runways provided that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least : between extended between extended between extended between extended
runway centre lines and runway centre lines and runway centre lines and runway centre lines and
as is depicted on the as is depicted on the as is depicted on the as is depicted on the
radar display radar display radar display radar display
302 10
 Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the have to be as indicated have to be as agreed at need not to be identical has to be the same as
procedures applicable there in : by ICAO council the regional air with those applicable in the underlying flight
navigation meetings the underlying flight information region
information region

303 10
The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified 8 km visibility when at 8 km visibility when at 5 NM visibility below 5 NM visibility when
as B, is : or above 3050 m or above 3050 m 3050 m (10.000 ft) below 3050 m (10.000
(10.000 ft) AMSL and (10.000 ft) AMSL, and AMSL, clear of clouds ft) AMSL, 1500 m
clear of clouds 1500 m horizontal and horizontal and 300 m
300 m vertical from vertical from cloud
clouds
304 10
A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has 5 km visibility, 1500 m 5 km below 3050 m 5 km below 3050 m 8 km below 3050 m
to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from horizontal and 300 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and (10.000 ft) AMS 1.500 (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1 500
clouds vertical from clouds clear of clouds m horizontal and 300 m m horizontal and 300 m
vertical from clouds vertical from clouds

305 10
A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has 5km at or above 3050 5 NM at or above 3050 8 km at or above 3050 8 km at or above 3050
to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from m (10.000 ft) AMSL m (10.000 ft) AMSL, m (10.000 ft) AMSL, m (10.000 ft) AMSL
clouds 1500 m horizontal and 1500 m horizontal and and clear of clouds 1500 m horizontal and
300 m vertical from 300 m vertical from 300 m vertical from
clouds clouds clouds
306 10
Flight information service provided to flights shall include the C to G (inclusive) A to G (inclusive) A to E (inclusive) F and G
provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft
307 10 operating in airspace classes:
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights Airspace E Airspace B Airspace C Airspace D
are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each
308 10 other is classified as

A strayed aircraft is : only that aircraft which only that aircraft which an aircraft in a given An aircraft which has
has deviated reports that it is lost area but whose identity deviated significantly
significantly its intended has not been from its intended track
track established or which reports that it
is lost

309 10
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are Airspace B Airspace A Airspace E Airspace D
subject to Air Trafic Control Service and are separated from other
IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical,
is classified as
310 10
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all Airspace D Airspace F Airspace G Airspace E
participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all
flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified
311 10
 An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight Airspace F Airspace C Airspace E Airspace G
312 10 information service if requested, is classified as
Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains Annex 14 Annex 6 Annex 17 Annex 11
international standards and recommended practices for air traffic
313 10 services (ATS)?
What will be your action if you can not comply with a standard a non-standard holding it is permitted to deviate Follow the radio inform the ATC
holding pattern? pattern is permitted. from the prescribed communication failure immediately and
holding pattern at pilots procedure. request a revised
discretion. clearance.

314 10
Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be 230 kt TAS. 240 kt IAS. 240 kt TAS. 230 kt IAS.
315 10 the maximum speed ?
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights Airspace C Airspace D Airspace E Airspace B
are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated
from other IFR flights and from VFR flights VFR flights are separated
from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other
VFR flights, is classified as :
316 10
Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel at least 30° (degrees) at least 45° (degrees) at least 25° (degrees) at least 15° (degrees)
runways provided that : the missed approach track for one approach from the missed from the missed from the missed from the missed
diverges by : approach track of the approach track of the approach track of the approach track of the
adjacent approach adjacent approach adjacent approach adjacent approach
317 10
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses 5 KT 3 KT 10 KT 8 KT
wind information in the form of components, significant changes in
the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to
aircraft. The mean cross-wind component significant change is :

318 10
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following Horizontally moving his Raise arm and hand, Arms down , palms Crossing arms
signals: hands, fingers with fingers extended, facing inwards, moving extended above his
extended, palms toward horizontally in front of arms from extended head
ground body , then clench fist position inwards.

319 10
While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a The appropriate ATC Request an amended Submit a detailed report Squawk 7700
deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken? unit shall be notified of clearance or cancel the to ATC within 24 hours
the action taken as IFR flight plan
soon as circumstances
permit
320 10
 Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled Adjust the heading of Inform the ATC unit If VMC, maintain this Notify ATC of the new
flight deviates from the track? aircraft to regain track immediately condition, waiting for track immediately and
as soon as practicable the ATC instructions comply with instructions

321 10
Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within Aircraft "A" regardless Aircraft "B" regardless Aircraft "B" if "A" is on Aircraft "A" if "B" is on
a control area. Aircraft "B" with no ATC clearance is approaching at of the direction which of the direction "A" is its left its right
approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which "B" is approaching approaching
has the right of way?
322 10
ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival cumulonimbus below 1 500 m (5.000 below 900 m (3.000 ft) below 2 000 m (600 ft)
information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are : ft) or below the highest or below the highest or below the highest
minimum sector minimum sector minimum sector
altitude, whichever is altitude, whichever is altitude, whichever is
the greater the greater the greater

323 10
When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to at least 2.0 NM prior to at least 3.0 NM prior to at least 1.5 NM prior to at least 2.5 NM prior to
parallel runways and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course intercepting the ILS intercepting the ILS intercepting the ILS intercepting the ILS
or MLS final approach track, the vector shall be such as to enable glide path or specified glide path or specified glide path or specified glide path or specified
the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer course or MLS final MLS elevation angle MLS elevation angle MLS elevation angle MLS elevation angle
approach track in level flight for :
324 10
A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means : Come back and land. Give way to another Dangerous airfield. Do Not with standing any
aircraft and hold the not land. previous instructions,
circuit. do not land for the time
being.
325 10
In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum 1 minute 2 minutes 3 minutes 4 minutes
separation should be applied when a medium aircraft is taking off
behind a heavy aircraft and both are using the same runway ?
326 10
The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as 240 KT IAS Not applicable 250 KT IAS 250 KT TAS
C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is :
327 10
The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as 250 KT TAS Not applicable 240 KT IAS 250 KT IAS
C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is :
328 10
The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as 250 KT IAS 250 KT TAS Not applicable 260 KT IAS
E, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is :
329 10
The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS 250 KT TAS 260 KT IAS Not applicable 250 KT IAS
airspace classified as B, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft)
330 10 AMLS, is :
 Upon receipt of the modification and a request by the state of Has a maximum mass Has a maximum mass Has a maximum mass Has a maximum mass
occurrence for participation, the state of design and the state of over 5 700 kg over 2 250 kg over 100.000 kg over 27.000 kg
manufacture shall in the case of an accident or serious incident
inform the state of occurence of the name of its representative to be
present at the investigation when the aircraft :

331 10
Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be 2 000 feet above the 1 000 feet above the 2 000 feet above the 1 000 feet above the
maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace? highest obstacle within highest obstacle within highest obstacle within highest obstacle within
8 nautical miles of 8 kilometres of the 8 kilometres of course 8 nautical miles of
course estimated position of course
the aircraft
332 10
333 10 A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is : Medium Poor Good Medium/poor
Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition: an GVATAM NAVTAM VULTAM ASHTAM
special NOTAM series notifying, by means of a specific format, an
important change for the aircraft operations, due to a volcano
activity, a volcano eruption or a volcanic ash cloud.
334 10
What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 10 km 6 NM 3 NM 2 km
335 10 'Heavy' aircraft preceding a 'Light' aircraft
A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track Reversal track. Procedure turn. Base turn. Race track.
followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to
intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is
called a :
336 10
In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to: Aerodrome elevation. Mean sea level. Aeredrome reference Relevant runway
337 10 point. threshold.
If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a pass the fix at the rate leave the intermediate pass the fix not below follow approximately 50
descend shall be made so as to : of descent of 500 approach altitude, step the specified crossing feet above the nominal
feet/min, which is by step until reaching altitude. glide path.
obligatory. the MAPt.
338 10
A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between Race track Base turn Procedure turn Reversal procedure
the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate
339 10 or final approach track is a:
Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR When seems possible When the aircraft is in When the aircraft has When the aircraft is in
approach continue its descend below the OCA? to land visual contact with the the control tower in contact with the ground
ground and with the sight but not with the runway
runway lights in sight in sight yet

340 10
 The protection areas associated with instrument approach 25° or the bank angle 25° or the bank angle The bank angle giving 25° or the bank angle
procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are giving a 3°/s turn rate, giving a 3°/s turn rate, a 3°/s turn rate for all giving a 3°/s turn rate,
performed at a bank angle of: whichever is lower, for whichever is lower, for procedures with whichever is lower, for
departure, approach or departure and airspeed limitation departure and
missed approach approach instrument related to aeroplane approach instrument
instrument procedures, procedures, as well as categories. procedures, 25° for
as well as circling-to- circle-to-land, and 15° circling-to-land with
land (with or without for missed approach prescribed flight tracks
prescribed flight tracks). procedures. and 15° for missed
approach procedures.

341 10
If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled The meteorological The air traffic controller Continued approach The approach must be
aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a clearance for 'visual approach' visibility must not be will provide separation will be according to passing the FAF
may be given under certain conditions less than 8 km to other controlled VFR
traffic
342 10
For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an When the commander At the discretion of the If the commander of the Only if the air traffic
airport, separation minima may be reduced: in the following aircraft air traffic controller involved aircraft so controller has the
has the preceding requests involved aircraft in sight
aircraft in sight and is
able to maintain own
separation

343 10
Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible If the commander so If instructed by ATC so If instructed by ATCso Only when leaving
requests long as VMC is long as VMC is controlled airspace
forecasted during the forecasted during the
next 30 minutes next 60 minutes
344 10
Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be When QNH is higher only in airspace class A if the obstacle Above the transition
given as flight level (FL) than the standard clearance is more than altitude when
345 10 pressure 1013 hPa 2000 feet applicable
At what moment during the approach should the reported airfield When passing the Within the transition When passing 3000 FT When passing the
altimeter setting be set? transition altitude layer AMSL or 1000 FT AGL transition level
346 10
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses 8 KT 4 KT 10 KT 5 KT
wind information in the form of components, significant changes in
the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to
aircraft. The mean head-wind component significant change is :

347 10
What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR 1000 feet 500 feet 1500 feet 2000 feet
348 10 below flight level 290?
 Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains Annex 14 Annex 6 Annex 11 Annex 10
minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes?
349 10
Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains Annex 1 Annex 2 Annex 3 Annex 4
minimum specifications for a crew licence to have international
350 10 validity?
An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference As soon as possible Continue at an altitude Fly the emergency Declare an emergency
('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising commence emergency that differs from the triangle
level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to: descent in order semicircular rule with
minimize the difference 1000 feet when above
between cabin FL 290 and 500 feet
pressure and outside when lower than FL
pressure 290
351 10
Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO ? ICAO must be informed ICAO must be informed ICAO must be informed ICAO shall approve the
about changes in the about new flight crew about differences from pricing of tickets on
national regulations licenses and any the standards in any of international airline
suspended validity of the Annexes to the connections
such licenses convention

352 10
What action should be taken if contact is los with the aerodrome on Maintain your circling Request an amended Initiate a missed Descend to OCL/ACH
the down wind leg ? altitude and turn clearance approach and in the hope that the
towards the aerodrome visibility is better at a
lower altitude
353 10
Which of the following is information that is not given in AIP Visibility minima Obstacles penetrating OCH or OCA DME-frequencies
approach and landing charts the obstacle free area
in the final approach
sector

354 10
Change from IFR to VFR will always take place : when the aircraft is on the initiative of the at the clearance limit, as instructed by an air
leaving controlled aircraft commander irrespective of the traffic control unit
355 10 airspace during VMC weather conditions
Who is responsible, under Annex 13 of the Chicago convention for The law enforcement The government of the Operators of the same The aircraft
the initation of an accident investigation? authorities of the state state in which the aircraft type manufacturer
in which the aircraft is accident took place
registered
356 10
The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that The pilot does not have The aircraft is subject to Position reports may be The radar identity of the
mean to the pilot? to follow up the position positive control omitted aircraft has been
of the aircraft established
357 10
 Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT 1 3 crossbars, centre line 5 crossbars, centre line 4 crossbars, centre line 3 crossbars, centre line
('Calvert') type of approach light system? with 3 or 2 lamps per with 3, 2 and 1 lamp with 3 or 2 lamps per with 3, 2 or 1 lamp per
358 10 light unit per light unit light unit light unit
During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the flight level during either altitude above altitude above mean altitude above mean
aircraft should be expressed as descent mean sea level or flight sea level during sea level during climb
level during climb descent
359 10
In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft flight level on or below flight level on or below altitude above sea level altitude above sea level
the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in: the transition level the transition altitude on or below the on or above the
360 10 transition altitude transition altitude
An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another When the other aircraft When the other aircraft When the other aircraft When the other aircraft
aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70. has reported that it has has reported that it has has reported that it has has reported that it has
It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the earliest that a descended through FL left FL 140 reached FL 70 left FL 120
clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected ? 130

361 10
The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrumental Flight Amphibious/inactive or Single-engine/inactive. Multi-engine / Land/inactive.
Rating in_____ aeroplanes shall prove, according to Annex I, simulated inactive. inoperative or
PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her capability to pilot such aircraft simulated inoperative.
only by instrumental rules and an engine _________.

362 10
If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling Turn 90 degrees If you have other visual Turn towards the inner Initiate a missed
manoeuvre, what actions should be taken ? towards the runway and cues, continue with marker for the runway approach
wait for visual conctact ground contact in use, maintaining
circling alitude

363 10
When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the 4 NM from the 2 NM from the 3 NM from the 1.5 NM from the
threshold of the runway transmission should not be interrupted for touchdown touchdown touchdown touchdown
intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is within a
distance of :
364 10
The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring IFPS NOTAM EATCHIP AIRAC
important changes in the methods of operation, based on common
365 10 effective dates, is identified by the acronym:

Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency ? 121.5 MHz 243.0 MHz 2.182 KHz 2430 KHz
366 10
The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any 30 60 90 21
illness which they are suffering which involves incapacity to
undertake those functions to which the licence relates throughout a
period of a certain number of days or more. The number of days is :

367 10
 If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument MAP. FAF. Final missed approach Landing runway.
approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing track.
368 10 turn towards the:
If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions if still not fit to fly when After 21 days of as soon as possible if after one calendar
appropriate to that licence due to illness, the authority must be his/her current medical consecutive "illness" the illness is expected month of consecutive
informed : certificate expires to last more than illness
21days
369 10
(For this question use annex 010-9805A) 4 1 2 3
Using the ground - air visual signal code, the letter similar to the
370 10 symbol meanning "REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE" is :
If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing until two minutes before until ten minutes before until five minutes before until three minutes
aircraft may take off in any direction the arriving aircraft is the arriving aircraft is the arriving aircraft is before the arriving
estimated to be over estimated to be over estimated to be over aircraft is estimated to
the instrument runway the instrument runway the instrument runway be over the instrument
runway
371 10
(For this question use annex 010-9804A) Proceding in the Require medical Require assistance Please indicate
372 10 The ground - air visual code illustrated means : direction shown assistance direction
The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of half NM 1 NM 1.5 NM half mile
2 NM from the touchdown except when as determined by the
appropriate ATS authority, the accuracy of the radar equipment
permits to be continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from
the touchdown. In this case distance and level information shall be
given at each
373 10
Clearence to land or any alternative clearence received from the 4 NM from touchdown 5 NM from touchdown 2 NM from touchdown 3 NM from touchdown
non-radar controller should normally be passed to the aircraft before
374 10 it reaches a distance of :

An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a 2 NM from the 4 NM from the 5 NM from the 1.5 NM from the
missed approach if no clearance to land has been received from the touchdown touchdown touchdown touchdown
non-radar controller by the time the aircraft reaches a distance of :
375 10
An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider Last 5 NM of the Last 2 NM of the Last 4 NM of the Last 3 NM of the
executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar approach approach approach approach
display for any significant interval during the :
376 10
What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be ± 10KT ± 25 KT ± 20KT ± 15 KT
requested to make when under radar control and established on
377 10 intermediate and final approach ?
Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, At least 15 minutes At least 5 minutes At least one hour At least 30 minutes
provided that they can be again brought into operation : before the expected before the expected before the expected before the expected
378 10 arrival of an aircraft arrival of an aircraft arrival of an aircraft arrival of an aircraft
 Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that You are still in radar Radar services are You are to contact the You are to assume
you are on the airway and to "resume own navigation". This phrase contact, but must make terminated and you will centre at the next responsability for your
means that: position reports. be responsable for reporting point. own navigation.
position reports.
379 10
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the 120 m (384 ft) 30 m (98 ft) 50 m (164 ft) 90 m (295 ft)
minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this
380 10 missed approach is :
In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a : maximum bank angle of rate of 3°per second or rate of 3°per second or rate of 3°per second.
25°. at a bank angle of 20°, at a bank angle of 25°,
which ever requires the which ever requires the
lesser bank. lesser bank.

381 10
The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and buildings Security program. Manoeuvring area. Terminal. Aeronautical part
382 10 or the parts of them with controlled access is called:
Referring to the operational aspects in the unlawful seizure acts, it The contracting States The Annex 17 does not The contracting States The contracting States
can be said: will not assist with recognise the will make provisions to will make provisions to
navigation aids, air importance of ensure that an aircraft ensure that an aircraft
transit services, etc, to consusltations between affected by an unlawful affected by an unlawful
an aircraft affected by the State where an seizure act, which has seizure act, which has
an unlawful seizure act. aircraft affected by an landed in their territory, landed in their territory,
unlawful interference world be retained, would be detained in all
act has landed and the unless its departure is cases.
aircraft operator's State. justified to protect
lives.

383 10
Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME- 12 NM 15 NM 20 NM 10 NM
distances from the same DME and it is confirmed that the aircraft
have passed each other. Specify the shortest difference in DME-
distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend

384 10
The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the : Geneva convention Chicago convention Warzaw convention Geneva convention
385 10 1936 1944 1929 1948
(For this question use annex 010-9806A) operation completed we have found all we have found only we are returning to
What is the meanning of the showed symbol in the ground-air visual personnel some personnel base
386 10 signal code for use by rescue units ?

During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the 30 m (98 ft) 50 m (164 ft) 90 m (295 ft) 120 m (384 ft)
minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this
387 10 missed approach is :
 The temporary, long-term modification ( 3 months or more) and the AIP Supplements AIP Amendments NOTAM Trigger NOTAM
short-term extensive or graphical information are published as
388 10 follows:
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the 90 m (295 ft) 120 m (384 ft) 50 m (164 ft) 30 m (98 ft)
minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the final phase of this missed
389 10 approach is :
Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are Distress 7700. Distress 7500. Distress 7600. Distress 7700.
to be used in conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)? Hijacking 7600. Hijacking 7700. Hijacking 7500. Hijacking 7500.
Communicaton failure Communication failure Communication failure Communication failure
7500. 7600. 7700. 7600.
390 10
Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft ? Right hand turns / 1 Right hand turns / 1.5 Left hand turns / 1 Left hand turns / 1.5
391 10 minute outbound minutes outbound minute outbound minutes outbound
(For this question use annex 010-9801A) 3 4 1 2
Using the ground - air visual code the letter(s) similar to the symbol
392 10 meaning "REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is (are) :
(For this question use annex 010-9802A) 2 3 4 1
Using the ground - air visual code the symbol meaning "we have
393 10 found all personnel" is :

(For this question use annex 010-9803A) Require assistance Landing here Drop emergency Require medical
What is the meaning of the showed symbol in the ground air visual impossible supplies at this point assistance
394 10 signal code for use by survivors ?
During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance 150 m (492 ft) 300 m (984 ft) 210 m (690 ft) 120 m (394 ft)
(MOC) of the initial approach segment primary area is equal to :
395 10
The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on: The longuest aeroplane The over-all length of The over-all length of The over-all length of
maximum width only the longest aeroplane the longest aeroplane the longest aeroplane.
normally using the normally using the
aerodrome and its aerodrome and its
maximum fuselage maximum fuselage
width. weight.
396 10
If radio communication is established during an interception but Descend for landing Descend Let down You land
communications in a common language is not possible, which
phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request
the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing ?

397 10
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following Raising arm and hand Arms down, palms Crossing arms Horizontally moving
signals: horizontally in front of facing inwards, moving extended above his hands, fingers
body, fingers extended arms from extended head. extended, palms toward
then clenching fist. position inwards. ground.

398 10
 In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan 60 minutes in excess of 60 minutes in excess of 30 minutes in excess of 30 minutes in excess of
should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted the estimated time off the estimated time of the estimated time off the estimated time of
399 10 when the delay is: blocks. departure. blocks. departure.
Which is the content of section 2 of Air-Report (AIREP)? Estimated time over Estimated time of Estimated elapse time Present position,
FIR boundary, arrival (ETA), (EET), endurance. estimated time of arrival
400 10 endurance. endurance. (ETA).
The position reports shall contain the following elements of Aircraft identification, Aircraft identification, Aircraft identification, Aircraft identification,
information in the order listed: position, time, flight position, flight level or position, time, true air position, time, flight
level or altitude, next altitude,time, next speed, flight level or level or altitude, next
position and time over position and time over altitude, next position position and time over.
and ensuing significant and ensuing significant and time over.
point. point.
401 10
If radio communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, Land on the nearest Try to get contact on Transmit blind Try to get contact on
generally the pilot shall: suitable aerodrome and other frequencies either indicating details other frequencies either
report the termination of ground or aircraft required at least 2 ground or aircraft
the flight to ATC. stations. times. stations - Transmit
being indicating
important details
required 2 times.

402 10
Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight Y Z I V
commences in accordance with VFR and subsequently changes to
403 10 IFR?

A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled 50 minutes prior to 60 minutes prior to 10 minutes prior to 30 minutes prior to
404 10 flight at least: leave the blocks. departure. departure. leave the blocks.
Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight I V Z Y
commences in accordance with IFR and subsequently changes to
405 10 VFR?
A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means: Need special The aerodrome is being An area unit for the Special precautions
precautions while used by gliders and that movement of aircraft. must be observed due
approaching for glider flights are being to bad state of the
landing. performed. taxiways.
406 10
407 10 The runway edge lights shall be : red white blue green
On aerodromes aircraft taxying on the manoeuvring area of an all vehicles moving on aircraft taking off or other vehicles and other converging
aerodrome shall give way to: the apron except the about to take off pedestrians aircraft
408 10 "follow me" vehicle
A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land The airport is unsafe, The airport is Give way to other Continue circling and
means: do not land temporarily closed, aircraft in emergency wait for further
409 10 continue circling instructions
 Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows: A controlled airspace A controlled airspace A controlled airspace A controlled airspace
extending upwards extending upwards extending upwards extending upwards
from the surface of the from a height of 1000 from a specified limit from a height of 900
earth to a specified feet above the earth. above the earth. feet above the earth.
limit.
410 10
Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to The air traffic service The pilot in command. The aircraft operator. The ATC.
terrain clearance? reporting office when
accepting the flight
plan.
411 10
You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend 1, 2. 2, 3. 1, 3. 1, 2, 3.
below the MDA should not be made until :

1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight

2. visual reference has been established and can be maintained
3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing
can be made

The combination regrouping all the correct answers is :

412 10
A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least: 15 miles from the 20 miles from the 5 nautical miles from 10 miles from the
centre of the centre of the the centre of the centre of the
aerodrome or aerodrome or aerodrome or aerodrome or
aerodromes concerned aerodromes concerned aerodromes concerned aerodromes concerned
in the direction from in the direction from in the direction from in the direction from
which approaches may which approaches may which approaches may which approaches may
be made. be made. be made. be made.

413 10
A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above 200 metres. 300 metres. 150 metres. 500 metres.
414 10 the ground level or water of not less than:
The units providing Air Traffic Services are: Area Control Centre - Area Control Centre - Area Control Centre - Area Control Centre -
Approach Control Advisory Centre - Flight Flight Information Flight Information
Office and Aerodrome Information Centre - Region - Approach Centre - Approach
Control Tower. Approach Control Control Office and Control Office -
Office and Tower. Tower. Aerodrome Control
Tower and Air Traffic
Services reporting
office.
415 10
 The Approach Control Service is an air traffic control service An air traffic control An air traffic control An air traffic control An air traffic control
service for IFR flights service provided for IFR service provided for IFR service provided for the
arriving and departing. and VFR flights within a traffic within a Control arriving and departing
Control Zone. Zone. controlled flights.

416 10
Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of: Preventing collisions Applying separation Preventing collisions Avoiding colisions
between aircraft, between aircraft and between controlled air between all aircraft and
between aircraft and expediting and traffic and expediting maintaining an orderly
obstacles on the maintaining an orderly and maintaining an flow of air traffic
manoeuvring area and flow of air traffic orderly flow of air traffic
expediting and
maintaining an orderly
flow of air traffic
417 10
When, in air space where VFR are permitted, the pilot in command 1 and 4 2 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 3
of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in accordance with visual
flight rules, until the destination is reached:
1 He must inform the control unit ("cancel IFR")
2 He must request and obtain clearance.
3 He may request his IFR flight plan to be changed to a VFR flight
plan.
4 The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight plan.
The correct combination of statements is:

418 10
Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of: Providing advisory Providing alerting Achieving separation Providing flight
services services between controlled Information Service
419 10 flights
Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an Switching on and off Switching on and off Switching on and off The repeated switching
aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which three times the landing four times the landing four times the on and off of the
compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? lights lights navigation lights landing lights
420 10
When are ATIS broadcasts updated ? Every 30 minutes if Only when weather Only when the ceiling Upon receipt of any
weather conditions are conditions change and/or visibility changes official weather,
below those for VFR ; enough to require a by a reportable value regardless of content
otherwise hourly change in the active change or reported
runway or instrument values
approach in use
421 10
When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision operational air traffic flight information or air traffic co-ordination search and rescue co-
422 10 to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the: control centres control organisations services ordination centres
 Alert phase is defined as follows: A situation related to an A situation related to an A situation where an An emergency event in
aircraft and its aircraft which reports apprehension exists as which an aircraft and its
occupants are that the fuel on board is to the safety of an occupants are
considered to be in a exhausted. aircraft and its considered to be
state of emergency. occupants. threatened by a danger.

423 10
The rule governing flight over water for a single engined aeroplane limits flight to up to 10 limits flight to up to 8 limits such flight to a does not permit such
engaged in the public transport of passengers: minutes flying time from NM from the nearest height sufficient to land flight in any
the nearest shore. shore. safely if the engine circumstances.
fails.
424 10
The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by CEU (flow control is 5 minutes. is 15 minutes. depends on the type of is 10 minutes.
centre): flight (10 minutes for
international flights, 5
minutes for domestic
flights).
425 10
"ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC" is that controlled flight to which the provision Controlled VFR flights All IFR flights. Only controlled IFR All IFR flight in
of separation by ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a and VFR flights. flights. controlled airspaces
particular controlled flight is not separated therefore by the and controlled VFR.
appropriate separation minima. Whenever separation minima is not
applied. The following flights are considered essential traffic one to
each other.
426 10
The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in uncertainty phase, uncertainty phase, uncertainty phase, alert uncertainty phase, alert
emergency are: urgency phase, distress distress phase, urgency phase, distress phase phase, distress phase.
phase. phase. and urgency phase.
427 10
Above flight level FL 290 the vertical flight separation between 3 000 feet. 1 500 feet. 4 000 feet. 2 000 feet.
428 10 aircraft on the same direction is:
If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but UNABLE TO COMPLY NOT POSSIBLE CAN NOT CAN NOT COMPLY
communication on a common language is not possible, which
phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to
communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions
received ?
429 10
The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft The airliner operator The commander The ATC controller if The aircraft owner
during flight time is: the aircraft is flying in a
430 10 controlled airspace
Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight 1 500 feet or visibility is 1 000 feet or visibility is 2 000 feet or visibility is 1 000 feet or visibility is
can not enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than : less than 5 km less than 5 km less than 5 km less than 8 km
431 10
The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a 2000 feet (600 m). 500 feet (150 m). 2500 feet (750 m). 1000 feet (300 m).
432 10 controlled airspace below FL 290 is:
 The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a 2000 feet (600 m). 1000 feet (300 m). 500 feet (150 m). 4000 feet (1200 m).
433 10 controlled airspace above FL 290 is:
An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL and 9 000 Clear of clouds and in 2 000 feet horizontally, 1 500 m horizontally, 1500 m horizontally,
feet MSL outside controlled airspace under VFR, must remain on sight of the surface; 8 1000 feet vertically from 1000 feet vertically from 1000 feet vertically from
principle at least: km visibility. clouds; 5 km visibility. clouds; 5 km visibility. clouds; 8 km visibility.
434 10
Flying exactly on your current flight plan route, you receive and With an intercept of 20° With an intercept of at With an intercept of at On the nearest way.
acknowledge the following instruction from the radar controller: or more. least 45°. least 30°.
"Turn immediately, continue heading 050° until further advised".
Time now is 18:36 UTC. At 18:37 UTC you find out that radio
communication cannot be stablished again and you have to return to
your current flight plan route:

435 10
The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "B" above 10 000 feet 1 mile horizontaly and 1 2 000 metres 1 nautical mile clear of clouds; 8 km
MSL are : 000 feet verticaly from horizontaly, 1 000 feet horizontaly and 1 000 visibility
clouds; 5 km visibility verticaly from clouds; 8 feet verticaly from
km visibility clouds; 8 km visibility
436 10
The minimum sector altitude provides 300 metres obstacle clearance 15 NM (28 km). 20 NM (37 km). 30 NM (55 km). 25 NM (46 km).
within how many miles radius from the navigation facility upon which
the instrument approach procedure is predicated:
437 10
"Time Approach Procedure" is used as necessary to expedite the To pass the specified To pass a specified To apply a step down To maintain a specified
approach of a number of arriving aircraft. This will be obtained point inbound at the point. descent between speed during the
requesting aircraft: previously notified time. aircraft in the approach approach procedure.
sequence.
438 10
During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling the pilot should When advised by Before penetrating the When clear of the After take-off.
contact departure control: Tower. clouds. airport and established
on the first heading
given in the clearance.

439 10
When a runway is 2 000 metres in length, and taxi holding positions 45 metres. 60 metres. 50 metres. 30 metres.
have not been established, aircraft shall not be held closer to the
440 10 runway in use more than:

Flight information service shall be provided to all aircraft which are Known to the relevant Known to the relevant Provided with the air Provided with air traffic
likely to be affected by the information and which are: air traffic services units. air traffic services units traffic control services control services, only.
by a filed flight plan. and otherwise known to
the relevant air traffic
service units.

441 10
 Alerting service shall be provided: In so far as practicable For all controlled flight, For all aircraft provided To any aircraft known or
to all aircraft having to any aircraft known or with air traffic control believed to be subject
filed a flight plan or believed to be subject services, only. of unlawful interference,
otherwise known by the of unlawful interference, only.
ATS. and in so far as
practicable to all aircraft
having filed a flight plan
or otherwise known to
the ATS.

442 10
Track separation between aircraft using the same VOR shall be At least 15° separated At least 30° separated At least 45° separated At least 15° separated
applied requiring the aircraft to fly: at a distance of 15 NM at a distance of 15 NM at a distance of 15 NM at a distance of 15
or more from the or more from the or more from the miles or more from the
facility. facility. facility. facility.

443 10
If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an The pilot should He may request and, if He may request The pilot has to accept
aircraft: propose another practicable, obtain an another clearance and the ATC clearance
clearance to the ATC amended clearance. the ATC concerned has because it has been
concerned. to accept the pilot based on the flight plan
request. filed with ATC.

444 10
Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the Executing a climbing Rocking wings twice Circling the intercepted Rocking the wings and
pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft "YOU MAY turn of 90 degrees or and crossing in front of aircraft in a clock-wise flashing the
PROCEED" ? more without crossing the aircraft. pattern. navigational lights.
the line of flight of the
intercepted aircraft.

445 10
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz
to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the
446 10 following frequencies:

In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan The delay is more than The delay is more than The delay is more than The delay is more than
has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new 60 minutes of the 30 minutes of the 60 minutes of the 30 minutes of the
flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when: estimated time of estimated time off estimated time off- estimated time off-
departure. departure. blocks. blocks.
447 10
A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should: Read back those parts Read back the initial Read back should be Read back the entire
containing level route clearance, level unsolicited. clearance as required
assignments, vectors or assignments and by regulation.
any part requiring transponder codes.
verification.
448 10
 Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have Continue the flight Continue the flight at Maintain your assigned Return to the
two way communication failure? maintaining VMC and the assigned level and level and route and aerodrome of
land as soon as route; start approach at land at the nearest departure.
practicable. your ETA. aerodrome that has
VMC conditions.

449 10
Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land ? Emergency aircraft Military aircraft VIP (Head of state) Hospital aircraft
aircraft carrying a very sick
person needing
immediate medical
attention
450 10
Track separation between aircraft using the same FIX shall be At least 45° separated At least 30° separated At least 30° separated At least 45° separated
applied requiring the aircraft to fly: at a distance of 15 at a distance of 15 NM at a distance of 15 at a distance of 15 NM
miles or more from the or more from the FIX. miles or more from the or more from the fix.
FIX. FIX.
451 10
Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of: Achieving separation Providing flight Providing advisory Achieving separation
between IFR flights Information Service service between controlled
452 10 flights
The "VMC and own separation" ATC clearance is used for a This procedure is not Requested by the pilot, Requested by the pilot Requested by the pilot
controlled flight to cross the level of another controlled flight when: allowed. during the day light and and during the day and authorized by the
authorized by the state light. state overflown.
overflown.

453 10
Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to the weather permits. Standard rate turns if Decided on pilot's Prescribed by the
be executed as: not otherwise instructed discretion. aircraft operations.
454 10 by ATC.
What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied by ATC? Vertical, horizontal and Vertical, horizontal and Time separation and Composite separation.
composite separation. longitudinal separation. track separation.
455 10
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR 7 600 7 000 7 700 7 500
transponder shall, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate
ATS unit, select one of the following code on mode "A"
456 10
A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit 5% 3% 2% 10 %
whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is
expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus:
457 10
 The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "G" above 10 000 feet 1 nautical mile 1 nautical mile 1500 m horizontally 1500 m horizontally
MSL are : horizontally and 1 000 horizontally and 1000 and 1 000 feet vertically and 1 000 feet verticaly
feet vertically from feet vertically from from clouds; 8 km from clouds; 5 km
clouds; 5 km visibility clouds; 8 km visibility visibility. visibility

458 10
Track separation between aircraft using the same NDB shall be At least 45° separated At least 30° separated At least 30° separated At least 15° separated
applied requiring the aircraft to fly: at a distance of 15 NM at a distance of 15 at a distance of 15 NM at a distance of 15 NM
or more from the miles or more from the or more from the or more from the
facility. facility. facility. facility.

459 10
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating AGA. ENR. MAP. GEN.
460 10 to prohibited, restricted and dangerous areas?
The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the A landing aircraft can A landing aircraft can An aircraft taking-off or An aircraft can be
end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where: be stopped if be stopped only in landing can be stopped in the case of
overcoming the end of emergency. stopped. an abandoned take-off.
runway.
461 10
Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the Flight Information Flight Information Flight Information Flight Information
following services are provided: Service, Alerting Service only. Service and Advisory Service and Alerting
Service and Advisory Service. Service.
Service.
462 10
The "Aerodrome Reference Code" is a code composed of two 2B. 6D. 5E. 4F.
elements which are related to the aeroplane performance
characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination
of a number and a letter as in the example under listed:

463 10
You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearence expires at If not airborne until Do not take off before The take off clearence After 0920 return to the
0920. What does it mean ? 0920, a new clearence 0920 is expected at 0920 ramp and file a new
has to be issued flight plan
464 10
According to the "Aerodrome Reference Code", the "Code Letter E" 36 m up to but not 24 m up to but not 15 m up to but not 52 m up to but not
465 10 shall identify an aircraft wing span of: including 52 m. including 36 m. including 24 m. including 65 m.
Which "code letter" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used Code letter "D". Code letter "E". Code letter "C". Code letter "B".
466 10 by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m?
"Clearway" is defined rectangular area established to: Permit aircraft to make Reduce the risk of Protect aircraft during Permit the aircraft to
a portion of its initial damage to aircraft take-off or landing stop if it fails the take-
climb to a specific running off a runway. operations. off.
height.
467 10
 "TODA" take-off distance available is: The length of the The length of the take- The length of the take- The length of the take-
runway available plus off run available plus off run available plus off run available plus
the length of clearway the length of the the length of the the length of clearway
available (if provided). stopway and clearway stopway. available (if provided).
(if provided).

468 10
"Code letter D" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft 15 m. 23 m. 25 m. 18 m.
having an outer main gear wheel span of less than 9 m. The taxiway
469 10 width shall be:
"Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the Non precision approach Precision approach Instrument approach Precision approach
operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures. runways, precision runways category I, II runways, precision runways in general.
approach runways and III. approach runways
category I, II and III. category I, II and III.

470 10
Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Only AIP and NOTAM's. AIP, NOTAM's, Circular Only NOTAM's and Integrated Aeronautical
Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is and AIRAC. Circulars. Information Package.
responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this
shall include the preparation and origination of:

471 10
"ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is: The length of the take- The length of the take- The length of the take- The length of the
off run available plus off run available plus off run available plus runway plus the length
the length of stopway the length of the the length of stopway (if of stopway available (if
and clearway (if clearway. stopway provided) . stopway provided).
provided) .

472 10
A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air Aeronautical NOTAM. AIRAC. Aeronautical
navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters and Information Publication Information Circular
473 10 originated at the AIS of a state is called: (AIP). (AIC).
According with the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the "Code number 1 500 m. 1 200 m. 1 800 m and over. 1 600 m.
474 10 4" shall identify an aircraft reference field length of:
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating AD. FAL. GEN. SAR.
to refuelling facilities and limitations on refuelling services?
475 10
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating RAC. COM. MET. GEN.
to areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided?
476 10
What will be the transponder mode and code for radio Mode B code 7600. Mode A code 7700. Mode A code 7600. Mode A code 7500.
477 10 communication failure?
The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the Transition altitude. Transition layer. Transition level. The level specified by
altimeter setting from QNH to standard setting 1013.25 hPa when ATC.
478 10 passing:
 What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140? 1 minute. 2 minutes. 2 minutes 30 seconds. 1 minute 30 seconds.
479 10
You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published Direct. Either "off set" or Off set. Parallel.
holding procedure is: all turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, "parallel".
inbound MC 052°. You are approaching the fix on an inbound
Magnetic Track 232°. Select the available entry procedure.

480 10
481 10 What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140? 2 minutes 1,5 minutes 30 secondes 1 minute
Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial First right and then to Teardrop to the left and To the right. To the left.
entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction? the left. then to the right.
482 10
The units responsable for promoting efficient organization of search Area control centre, Rescue coordination Alerting centre and Flight information
and rescue service are: flight information centre centre and rescue sub- rescue coordination centre and rescue
and rescue centres. centre. coordination centre.
coordination centre.
483 10
Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently on the grass, Since no physical injury This is an irregularity in This is an incident and This is an accident and
a wheel falls into a hole, which seriously damages the aircraft and has been noticed and the operation, the crew the pilot-in-command the crew must follow
obliges the crew to delay the departure. the flight is over, the must inform the must report it to the the procedure relevant
actions to be taken are operator of the delay airport authority within to this case.
related only to caused by necessary the next 48 hours.
insurance, to the repair repair.
man, the operator and
the persons in charge
of the runway and
taxiways.

484 10
The Alerting Service is provided by: The ATS unit The ATC unit Only by ATC units. The Area Control
responsible for the responsible for the Centres.
aircraft at that moment. aircraft at that moment,
when it is provided with
121.5 MHz.

485 10
A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services An ATS NOTAM. An Advisory NOTAM. An AIRAC. A NOTAM RAC.
and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its
486 10 effective date is:
487 10 Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be: Flashing yellow. Fixed orange. Fixed red. Flashing red.
The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the The stated above is The operator has no The obligation is for the The obligation of the
territory of a Contracting State shall terminate from the moment such correct. obligation. Contracting State of the operator terminates as
person has been definitely admitted in other Contracting State of operator. soon as the person
destination. leaves the aeroplane.

488 10
 Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold Fixed lights showing Fixed lights, white or Fixed lights showing Flashing white.
shall be: variable white. yellow colour. variable white or yellow.
489 10
Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be: Flashing green. Fixed white. Flashing white. Fixed green.
490 10
The light shown by an "Aerodrome Identification Beacon" at a land Blue colour White and green colour White colour Green colour
aerodrome shall be: identification given by identification given by identification given by identification given by
491 10 Morse Code. Morse Code. Morse Code. Morse Code.
492 10 In the "VASIS" , how many light units are in each wing bar? 2. 4. 5. 3.
How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final None. 1. 2. 3.
493 10 approach, is following a normal glide path defined by a PAPI?
Runway threshold lights shall be: Fixed lights showing Fixed unidirectional Fixed unidirectional Fixed lights green
green or white colours. lights showing green in lights showing white in colours.
the direction of the direction of
approach to the approach to the
runway. runway.
494 10
In the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2 shall Only the aircraft wing The width of the aircraft The lenght of the The aircraft wing span
identify: span. wing. aircraft fuselage. and the outer main
gear wheel span.
495 10
In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two 150 m. 200 m. 250 m. 300 m.
and three light sources on the centre line have a length of:
496 10
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above Control area. Control zone. Advisory airspace. Flight Information
497 10 the earth is: Region.
A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the Control zone. Control area. Air traffic zone. Advisory airspace.
498 10 earth to a specified upper limit is:
ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights Class A. Class D. Class E. Class B.
are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each
499 10 other is classified as:
Aerodrome traffic is: All traffic on the All traffic on the All traffic on the All traffic in the
manoeuvring area and manoeuvring area. movement area and aerodrome circuit.
flying in the vicinity of flying in the vicinity of
an aerodrome. an aerodrome.

500 10
When desinsecting is required by a Contracting State as a public At least 30 minute prior At least one hour prior At least when the At least immediately
health measure, the desinsecting is made when the aircraft is to land. to land. aircraft enter that state before landing.
suitably equipped by means of an automatic dispersal or vapour airspace.
while the aircraft is flying, but as far in advance as possible and:

501 10
 Air Traffic Service unit means: Air Traffic Control units, Air Traffic Control units Air Traffic Control units Flight Information
Flight Information and Flight Information and Air Services Centers and Air
Centers or Air Services Centers. reporting offices. Services reporting
reporting offices. offices.

502 10
Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be The aerodrome shall be The aerodrome shall be The aerodrome shall be The aerodrome shall be
considered controlled? provided with a Control located within a Control located within a located within a Control
Tower. Zone. controlled airspace. Zone (CTR) and
provided with a Control
Tower.
503 10
504 10 High intensity obstacle lights should be: Flashing white. Flashing red. Fixed red. Fixed orange.
Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be: Fixed lights showing Fixed lights showing Fixed lights showing Fixed lights showing
505 10 green. blue. yellow. white.
Taxiway edge lights shall be: Fixed showing blue. Fixed showing green. Fixed showing yellow. Flashing showing blue.
506 10
In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number By a letter - for example By a letter - for example By a number like "0" By a letter for 2 parallel
shall be supplemented: 3 parallel runways "L" 2 parallel runways "L" and "01" for 2 parallel runways.
and "R" and the central and "R" - for 3 "L", "C" runways.
has no letter. and "R".

507 10
In the "PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will see the two Only on the approach On or close to the Above the approach Below the approach
units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the slope. approach slope. slope. slope.
508 10 runway as white when:
The "PAPI" shall consist of: Two wing bars of 4 Two wing bars of 6 A wing bar of 2 sharp A wing bar of 4 sharp
sharp transition multi- sharp transition multi- transition multi-lamp transition multi-lamp or
lamp or paired units lamp or paired units equally spaced. paired units equally
equally spaced. equally spaced. spaced.
509 10
The abbreviation PAPI stands for: Precision Approach Precision Approach Precision Approach Precision Approach
510 10 Path Indicator. Path Index. Power Indicator. Power Index.
In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line Fixed lights showing Flashing lights showing Fixed lights showing Flashing lights showing
and crossbar lights shall be: variable white. variable white. variable green. variable green.
511 10
Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be: Fixed red or preferably Fixed red or preferably Flashing blue. Flashing red or
512 10 orange. blue. preferably yellow.
Runway end lights shall be: Fixed lights showing Fixed unidirectional Fixed unidirectional Fixed lights showing
variable white. lights showing red in lights showing white in variable red.
the direction of the the direction of the
runway. runway.
513 10
AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS, ELECTRICS, POWERPLANT, EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT- AEROPLANES
 The number of manual fire-extinguishers, on board the passenger 1 3 0 2
cabin of an airplane, whose maximum approved configuration for
514 21 passenger seats is 31, is:
The emergency lighting system must be able to function and supply 5 minutes 30 minutes 10 minutes 90 seconds
a certain level of lighting after the main electric power system has
515 21 been cut off for at least:
The operations of an airline plan the operation of a pressurized 3,4 2,3 1,2,3,4 2
aircraft at a 240 flight level on its whole route with 150 passengers
on board.
As concerns the regulatory requirements about oxygen:

1. each crew member will have available a quick fitting inhaler

device.
2. the aircraft will be equipped with a warning system indicating that
the cabin altitude is higher than 3 000 m.
3 . the quantity of oxygen on board will be sufficient for the supply of
100 % of the occupants during the whole flight time above the flight
level 150 after an eventual depressurization.
4. the first aid quantity of oxygen will be sufficient for the supply of
two passengers during the whole flight time when the cabin altitude
is greater than 8 000 feet.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

516 21
The function of a constant speed drive (CSD) in an AC generating vary the engine rpm drive the generator at a vary generator rpm in directly maintain a
system is to : (within limits) to constant speed. order to compensate for constant proportion
compensate for various various AC loads. between the rpm of an
AC loads. engine and a generator.

517 21
An aircraft whose maximum approved configuration for passenger one fire-extinguisher in three fire-extinguishers two fire-extinguishers in one fire-extinguisher in
seats is 10 seats must be equipped with: the cockpit and two fire- in the passenger cabin the cockpit and two fire- the cockpit and three
extinguishers in the only. extinguishers in the fire-extinguishers in the
passenger cabin. passenger cabin. passenger cabin.

518 21
The number of crash axes on board an airplane, whose maximum 4 2 1 3
approved configuration of passenger seats is 201, is :
519 21
 In accordance with the JAR-OPS and with the exception of 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 2 3, 4 2, 3
amphibians and hydroplanes, the carriage of a life jacket per person
on board is compulsory when the airplane is :

1. cruising at such a distance from the shore that it would not be able
to return in the case of an engine failure.
2. is flying over a water surface at more than 50 NM off shore.
3. is using departure and arrival paths above the water and when a
ditching probability exists in the case of a problem.
4. is flying over a stretch of water at more than 100 NM off shore.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

520 21
In a ditching situation, the passenger life jackets will be inflated : once the passengers when leaving the immediately on the immediately on
521 21 are in the water. airplane. opening of the exits. ditching.
In accordance with the JAR-OPS, an airplane constituted of only one no megaphone. 1 megaphone. 2 megaphones. 2 megaphones if there
passenger deck, equipped with 61 seats and effectively carrying are more than 31
passengers, must be equipped with : passengers on board.
522 21
The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to: provide some provide the cabin supply all the provide the flight crew
passengers with attendants with passengers in case of with respiratory
additional respiratory respiratory protection. depressurization. assistance after
assistance after an depressurization.
emergency descent
following a
depressurization.
523 21
The survival oxygen is: the oxygen supplied to the oxygen used for a therapeutical oxygen the oxygen supplied to
a passenger who protection against specifically carried for the airplane occupants
needs oxygen for smoke and carbon certain passengers. in case of accidental
pathological reasons. dioxide. depressurization.

524 21
The purpose of the proximity of the emergency evacuation path replace the overhead replace the overhead mark only the exits at to be used only at night.
marking system is to : emergency lighting emergency lighting in the floor level.
during an emergency case of failure.
evacuation with a thick
smoke.
525 21
In a gas turbine engine, the maximum gas temperature is attained: within the combustion across the turbine. in the cooling airflow at the entry to the
chamber. around the flame tube. exhaust unit.
526 21
 (For this question use annex 021-9377A) the discharge of fire the discharge of fire the discharge of fire the discharge of fire
When fire is detected on engine n°2, the fire shutoff handle n°2 is extinguisher bottle n°2 extinguisher bottle n°1 extinguisher bottle n°1 extinguisher bottle n°1
pulled and the extinguishing agent n°1 is discharged. This results in : and illumination of the and illumination of the and illumination of the and illumination of the
DISCH indicator lamp DISCH (discharge) DISCH indicator lamp DISCH indicator lamp
of agent n°1 on engine indicator lamp of agent n°1 on both of agent n°1 on engine
n°1 and agent n°2 on engines no. and DISCH
engine n°2 indicator lamp of agent
n°2 on engine n°1

527 21
Generally, when the fire handle of the fire-extinguishing system on 1,2,5,6 2,3,4,5 1,3,4 1,3,4,5
an aircraft is pulled, the effects are :

1. closing of the LP valve of the fuel system

2. opening of the air bleed valves and HP valves on the engine
concerned
3. setting of extinguishing systems
4. closing of the isolation and de-icing valves
5. isolation of the associated electric current generators
6. immediate discharge of extinguishing agent

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

528 21
A passenger emergency mask is a : mask with flow on continuous flow mask mask with flow on continuous flow mask
request and cannot be and can be used if request and can be and cannot be used if
used if there is smoke there is smoke in the used if there is smoke. there is smoke in the
in the cabin. cabin. cabin.
529 21
In the cockpit of a transport airplane, at least one manual fire- special fluids. halon. powder. water.
530 21 extinguisher must be conveniently located containing :
An aircraft whose maximum approved configuration for passenger 7 manual-fire 4 manual fire- 3 manual fire- 5 manual-fire
seats is 200 seats must be equipped with: extinguishers in the extinguishers in the extinguishers in the extinguishers in the
531 21 passenger cabin. passenger cabin. passenger cabin. passenger cabin.
The equipment of an oxygen supply installation must be kept the oxygen system these substances these substances could these substances catch
absolutely free of oil or grease traces as: would be contaminated. mixed with oxygen plug the oxygen masks fire spontaneously in
could catch fire in the filters. the presence of oxygen
presence of a spark. under pressure.

532 21
 An exit is considered to be out of service when the following 1, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 1, 2, 5, 6 2, 3, 4, 6
elements are inoperative the:

1. external door opening mechanism

2. internal door opening mechanism
3. door opening aid device
4. open door locking system
5. auxiliary means of evacuation
6. emergency lighting

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

533 21
The opening of the doors giving access to the oxygen masks for the 1, 3 2, 3 2, 4 1, 2
passengers is :

1. pneumatic for the gaseous oxygen system,

2. electrical for the chemical oxygen system,
3. pneumatic for the chemical oxygen system,
4. electrical for the gaseous oxygen system.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

534 21
In order to enable a fire to be controlled as quickly as possible, the 1,2,3,4,5 1,4,5 2,3 2,5
fire detectors are located in the highest risk compartments. Theses
compartments are :

1. the main landing gear wheel wells

2. the fuel tanks
3. the oil tanks
4. the auxiliary power unit
5. around the engines

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

535 21
Smoke detectors fitted on transport aircraft are of the following type : optical or ionization chemical electrical magnetic
536 21
On an aircraft provided with resistance and capacitance variation only at an isolated point only in a uniform way on at least one loop at any isolated point of
type fire detection loops, a fire alarm is initiated by a temperature of the loops along the loops the loops or else
increase detected: generally on all the
loops
537 21
Continuous loop fire detector systems operate on the principle that a decrease in the a decrease in pressure a decrease in an increase in
538 21 an increase in temperature produces : reference current resistance resistance
 (For this question use annex 021-6736A) a condition of hydraulic since pressures are the jack will move to the the jack will move to the
The schematic diagram annexed illustates a jack and selector valve lock exists and no equal, the jack is free to left due to pressure right due to equal
in a typical hydraulic system. Assuming hydraulic pressure movement of the jack move in response to acting on differential pressure acting on
throughout : will take place. external forces. areas. differential areas.

539 21
In hydraulic system, a shuttle valve : regulates pump allows two possible is a self-lapping non- allows two units to be
delivery pressure. sources of pressure to return valve. operated by one
540 21 operate one unit. pressure source.

To allow for failure of the normal method of system pressure limiting auxiliary hydraulic a high pressure relief a stand-by hydraulic an accumulator.
541 21 control, a hydraulic system often incorporates motors. valve. pump.
The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides emergency hydraulic power undercarriage selection flap extension only. flight controls in the nose wheel steering
for : and automatic brake event of loss of engine after the aeroplane has
system. driven hydraulic power. landed.
542 21
In a compensated capacitance type quantity indicating system, the increase by 10 %. remain the same. increase by 5 %. decrease by 5 %.
contents gauge of a half-full fuel tank indicates a fuel mass of 8000
lb. If a temperature rise increased the volume of fuel by 5 %, the
indicated fuel weight would :
543 21
Tyre "creep" may be described as the : circumferential the increase in inflation the decrease in inflation gradual circumferential
movement of the tyre in pressure due to drease pressure due to increase of tyre wear.
relation to the wheel in ambient temperature. increase in ambient
flange. temperature.
544 21
The function of a NOT logic gate within a circuit is to : ensure the output invert the input signal ensure the input signal ensure the input signal
signal is of the same such that the output is is AC only. is DC only.
state as the input always of the opposite
signal. state.
545 21
In addition to fire detention/protection, most auxiliary power units high TGT only. high turbine gas high TGT and loss of oil overspeed and high oil
(APUs) have automatic controls for stating, stopping and maintaining temperature (TGT), pressure only. temperature only.
operation within safe limits. These controls provide correct overspeed, loss of oil
sequencing of the starting cycle as well as protection against : pressure and high oil
temperature.
546 21
Discounting the possibility of leak, the level in a hydraulic reservoir increase as ambient fluctuate with jack always remain the initially increase with
will : temperature decreases. displacement and same. system pressurisation.
accumulator pressure.
547 21
The part of a piston engine that transforms reciprocating movement reduction gear crankshaft piston camshaft
548 21 into rotary motion is termed the :
 Which of the following factors would be likely to increase the slightly retarding the using too lean a fuel/air the use of a fuel with a using an engine with a
possibility of detonation occurring within a piston engine ? ignition timing mixture ratio high octane rating as low compression ratio
compared to the use of
one with a low octane
rating
549 21
In a piston engine if the ratio of air to fuel, by weight, is rich weak too weak to support normal
550 21 approximately 9:1, the mixture is said to be : combustion
To ensure that the fuel flow is kept directly proportional to the volume a diffuser a power jet an accelerator pump a mixture control
of air flowing through the choke, thus preventing the main jet
supplying excessive fuel as engine speed is increased, a carburettor
is fitted with :
551 21
The oil system for a piston engine incorporates an oil cooler that is between the oil tank after the pressure pump after the oil has passed in the return line to the
fitted : and the pressure pump but before the oil through the engine and oil tank after the oil has
passes through the before it enters the passed through the
engine sump scavenge pump

552 21
When leaning the mixture for the most economic cruise fuel flow, low cylinder head and high manifold pressure high cylinder head and high engine rpm
excessive leaning will cause : exhaust gas exhaust gas
553 21 temperature temperature

On a multi-engined aircraft a fire detection system includes : a single warning light both a warning light a warning light for each a single warning light
and a single alarm bell and an alarm bell engine and a single but a separate alarm
unique to each engine alarm bell common to bell for each engine
all engines

554 21
With respect to a piston engined aircraft, ice in the carburettor : will only form at OAT's will only form at outside will only form at OAT's may form at OAT's
below +10°C. air temperatures below the freezing point higher than +10°C.
(OAT's) below the of fuel.
freezing point of water.

555 21
A modern Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) is designed to provide power air conditioning and air conditioning and either air conditioning air conditioning and
for ground starting of an engine. It also supplies both in the air electrical services. thrust in the event of or electrical services, electrical services (on
(subject to certification limitations) and on the ground : engine failure. but never both at the the ground) electrical
same time. and hydraulic back-up
services (in the air).

556 21
The moving part in an AC generator is usually referred to as the : stator. oscillator. slip ring. rotor.
557 21
A cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by mass air flow into the position of the inward position of the duct position of the outflow
558 21 regulating the : cabin. relief valve. relief valve(s). valve(s).
 In a manually operated system, the cabin altitude rate of change is the difference between the duct relief valve a rate of change the difference between
normally controlled by : the barometric pressure when operating at the selector. the altitude selected on
selected on the cabin maximum cabin the cabin pressure
pressure controller and differential pressure. controller and the
ambient barometric aeroplane altitude.
pressure.

559 21
(For this question use annex 021-6716A) 100 N. 1000 N. 20 N. 1 N.
In the hydraulic press schematically shown, what balancing Force
would be acting on the right hand side ? (The diagram is not to
scale)
560 21
Assuming an accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi and the 1000 psi. 500 psi. 1500 psi. 2500 psi.
hydraulic system is pressurised to 1500 psi, the accumulator gauge
561 21 will read :
Internal leakage in a hydraulic system will cause : an increased fluid fluid loss. a decreased fluid an increased fluid
562 21 temperature. temperature. pressure.
On large aeroplanes equipped with power brakes, the main source the aeroplane's the master cylinders. pressure to the rudder the brake actuators.
563 21 of power is derived from : hydraulic system. pedals.
Assuming a hydraulic accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 1000 psi. 4000 psi. 3000 psi. 2000 psi.
psi. If the hydraulic system is then pressurised to its operating
pressure of 3000 psi, the indicated pressure on the air side of the
accumulator should be :
564 21
"Nose wheel shimmy" may be described as : aircraft vibration caused a possibly damaging the oscillatory the amount of free
by the nose wheel upon vibration of the nose movement of the nose movement of the nose
extension of the gear. wheel when moving on wheel when extended wheel before steering
the ground. prior to landing. takes effect.

565 21
An accumulator in a hydraulic system will : reduce fluid reduce fluid store fluid under increase pressure
temperature and temperature only. pressure. surges within the
566 21 pressure. system.

The term "Bootstrap", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning charge air across the cold air unit (air cycle source of the charge means by which
and pressurisation system, refers to the : inter-cooler heat machine) arrangement. air. pressurisation is
567 21 exchanger. controlled.
In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first : used to increase the compressed, passed passed across an passed across an
cabin air supply through a secondary expansion turbine, then expansion turbine, then
pressure when the heat exchanger, and compressed and directly to the heat
charge pressure is too then across an passed through a exchanger.
low. expansion turbine. secondary heat
exchanger.
568 21
 The term "pressure cabin" applies when an aeroplane : has the ability to has the means to is only pressurised in has the ability to
maintain a constant maintain cabin the area of the control maintain a constant
cabin altitude at all pressure higher than cabin. cabin differential
flight altitudes. ambient pressure. pressure at all flight
altitudes.
569 21
Under normal flight conditions, cabin pressure is controlled by : engine rpm. inward relief valve(s). regulating the pressurisation duct
discharge of air through relief valve(s).
the outflow valve(s).
570 21
Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value the pressurisation the outflow valves will the pressurisation a constant mass air
in normal flight conditions, if flight altitude is maintained : system ceases to move to the fully open system must be flow is permitted
function until leakage position. controlled manually. through the cabin.
reduces the pressure.

571 21
Assuming cabin pressure decreases, the cabin rate of climb indicator a rate of climb. a rate of descent of zero. a rate of descent
should indicate : approximately 300 feet dependent upon the
per minutes. cabin differential
pressure.
572 21
Spark timing is related to engine speed in the way that the: faster the engine slower the engine faster the engine faster the engine
functions, the more the functions, the more the functions, the further functions, the more
spark is advanced spark is advanced past TDC the spark retarded the spark is.
occurs
573 21
Fire precautions to be observed before refuelling are : All bonding and Ground Power Units Passengers may be Aircraft must be more
earthing connections (GPU) are not to be boarded (traversing the than 10 metres from
between ground operated. refuelling zone) radar or HF radio
equipment and the providing suitable fire equipment under test.
aircraft should be made extinguishers are
before filler caps are readily available.
removed.
574 21
There are 60 passengers and crew members on board a turbo-prop 60 life jackets and three 60 life jackets One 30-seat life boat 60 life jackets, two 30-
aircraft. Its speed is 240 kt. At a point along the course steered, 30-seat life boats and two 20-seat life seat life boats
above the sea, the aircraft is at 1h45 min from an airdrome suitable boats
for emergency landing. The minimum equipment complying with
regulations is :
575 21
An impulse coupling does not function at such speeds above those centrifugal force engine oil pressure a coil spring electro-magnetic action
encountered in starting. Its engaging pawls are prevented from of operating magneto.
576 21 operating at higher speeds by
 The reason for the trim switch on a control column to consist of two To be able to use two To reduce the To prevent that both Because there are two
separate switches is different trim speeds, probability of a trim- pilots perform opposite trim motors.
slow trim rate at high runaway trim inputs.
speed and high trim
rate at low speed

577 21
Assume that during cruise flight with airconditioning packs ON, the the air supply would the skin of the cabin the pressure the cabin pressure
outflow valve(s) would close. The result would be that: automatically be would be overstressed differential would go to would become equal to
stopped the maximum value the ambient outside air
pressure
578 21
The function of an air cycle machine is to : cool the bleed air. decrease the pressure remove the water from pump the conditioned
of the bleed air. the bleed air. air into the cabin.
579 21
The hydraulic oil, entering the hydraulic pump, is slightly pressurised ensure sufficient pump prevent overheating of prevent vapour locking. prevent cavitation in the
580 21 to : output the pump. pump
A manual inflation handle: serves to actuate serves to inflate a life operates a hand pump is generally not applied
inflation of a slide when jacket when the normal for manual inflation of a on slides.
automatic inflation fails inflation function fails slide
581 21
The advantages of thermal anti-icing are : 1,2 3,4 1,3 2,4
1. Simple and reliable system
2. Profiles maintained
3. Greater efficiency than that of an electrical resistor
4. Direct use of the hot air from the jet engine without substantial
reduction in engine thrust
The combination of correct statements is:
582 21
The crash/fire axe is part of the safety equipment fitted to passenger activate a radio settle an escalating obtain forced access to free exits in case of
aircraft. Its function is to : survival beacon by conflict with a fire behind a panel evacuation via the
cutting off the red unreasonable and a general purpose sides.
coloured top passengers, who tool during evacuation.
threaten flight safety.
583 21
The difference between (1) a fuse and (2) a circuit breaker is: (1)not resettable, (2) (1)not resettable, (1) suitable for high (1) not suitable for high
not resettable. (2)resettable. currents, (2) not currents, (2) suitable for
suitable for high high currents.fuse
currents.fuse circuit circuit breaker
breaker
584 21
The part of the flight that will cause the highest loads on the torsion Braking with an Taxiing with a small Touch down with Gear down selection
link in a bogie gear is inoperative anti skid turning radius. crosswind
585 21 system.
 In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum requirement for the the entire flight time the entire flight time 10 minutes or the entire 30 minutes.
survival oxygen needed to supply 100 % of the passengers during where the cabin where the cabin flight time where the
and following an emergency descend is: pressure altitude is pressure altitude is cabin pressure altitude
above 13000 ft. above 10000 ft minus is above 15000 ft,
30 minutes. whichever is the
greater.

586 21
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1 and if necessary, the number of plus 30 %. in the case of a loss of in the case of a loss of plus 10 %.
liferafts to be found on board an aircraft must allow the transportation two rafts. one raft of the largest
of the entire aircraft occupants: rated capacity.
587 21
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, each occupant of the cockpit seats 12500 ft. 13000 ft. 14000 ft. 10000 ft.
on duty in a non-pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply
reserve for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes greater than:
588 21
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, 100 % of the passengers in a non- 13000 ft. 10000 ft. 14000 ft. 15000 ft.
pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the
entire flight time at pressure altitudes greater than:
589 21
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, 10 % of the passengers in a non- 10000 ft but not 13000 ft. 10000 ft. 10000 ft but not
pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the exceeding 13000 ft exceeding 13000 ft.
entire flight time when the cabin altitude pressure is greater than: minus 30 minutes.
590 21
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, when an airplane flies at over 25000 seats by 30 %. passengers by 30%. seats by 10 %. passengers by 10 %.
ft, the total number of oxygen dispensing units and supply terminals
591 21 must be at least greater than the number of:
The type of a aircraft oxygen system intended for use by a pressure demand portable equipment an air recycle system a continuous flow
592 21 passengers, is mostly : system only system
On-board electrical systems are protected against faults of the 1,2,4,6 1,3,5,6 2,3,4,5,6 1,2,4,5
following type:
1. AC generator over-voltage
2. AC generator under-voltage
3. over-current
4. over-speed
5. under-frequency
6. undue vibration of AC generators
The combination of correct statements is :

593 21
An engine pressure ratio (EPR) gauge reading normally shows the compressor outlet jet pipe pressure to jet pipe pressure to combustion chamber
ratio of: pressure to compressor compressor inlet combustion chamber pressure to compressor
inlet pressure. pressure. pressure. inlet pressure.
594 21
 Because of the input/output relationship of an AND gate, it is often "all or nothing" gate. "any or all" gate. "state indicator" gate. "inhibited" or "negated"
595 21 referred to as the : gate.
A condenser in parallel with breaker points will permit arcing across assist in negative assist in collapse of intensify current in
points feedback to secondary secondary winding. secondary winding
596 21 coil
An impulse magneto coupling advances ignition gives an automatic gives a retarded spark reduces magneto
timing and gives a spark increase during at starting speed during engine
hotter spark at starting high speed operation. warm-up
597 21
If an engine fails to stop with the magneto switch in OFF position, the defective condenser fouled spark plugs excessive carbon switch wire grounded
cause may be : formation in cylinder
598 21 head.
If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch cannot be started with cannot be shut down by will not operate at the will not operate at the
becomes disconnected, the most noticeable result will be that the the switch in the ON turning the switch to the left magneto right magneto
599 21 engine position OFF position.
An impulse coupling used on a magneto for a piston engine is for advancing ignition quick removal and absorbing starting providing a retarded
timing installation loads spark for engine
600 21 starting.

Low oil pressure is sometimes the result of a worn oil pump too large oil pump restricted oil passage too small scavenger
601 21 pump.
Generally speaking when the oxygen flows to the masks in the pushing the mask firmly pulling the mask activating the relevant firmly pulling the cover
passenger cabin, the system is activated by against the face and towards the face, after switch in the cockpit. behind which the
breath normally. the cover has opened. oxygen mask is stowed.
602 21
A Constant Speed Drive aims at ensuring that the electric that the starter-motor that the CSD remains equal AC voltage from
generator produces a maintains a constant at a constant RPM not all generators.
constant frequency. RPM not withstanding withstanding the
the acceleration of the generator RPM
engine.
603 21
An aircraft magneto is switched off by grounding the grounding the primary opening the primary opening the secondary
604 21 secondary circuit. circuit circuit circuit
The reason for the fact that an aeroplane designed for long the lifetime of the the procedures and these aeroplanes often in that case some fuel
distances cannot simply be used for short haul flights at higher fatigue sensitive parts checklists for this kind consume too much fuel tanks remain empty
frequencies is that has been based on a of aeroplanes will take on short haul flights. during the whole flight,
determined load too much time which stresses the
spectrum aeroplane's structure in
an unacceptable way

605 21
The ABS (Auto Brake System) is being diconnected after landing .. by pilot action automatically at a certain low speed the system is always
606 21 armed
 The purposes of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic strut the oil supplies the the oil supplies the the oil supplies the the oil supplies the
are : spring function and the sealing and lubrication damping and damping function and
nitrogen supplies the function, the nitrogen lubrication function, the the nitrogen supplies
damping function. supplies the damping nitrogen supplies the the spring function
function. heat-dissipation
function.
607 21
A pressurized aeroplane is operated at FL 300. It undergoes a rapid the oxygen masks are if the automatic mask manual override of the the oxygen masks are
decompression so that the pressure in the cabin goes quickly down automatically presented presentation has been automatic presentation automatically presented
to the outside pressure value. What happens concerning the oxygen to flight crew members activated, the oxygen of passenger oxygen to cabin crew members
system ? will flow within the first masks is, generally and passengers
3 minutes speaking, not possible

608 21
Load shedding means .. To leave behind extra Reduction of airloads A procedure used in Temporarily or
cargo if the centre of on the flaps by means control systems to permanent switching off
gravity moves outside of the flap load relief reduce the stick forces of certain electric users
limits value to avoid overload of
electric generators

609 21
A substance which may never be used in the vicinity or on parts of Grease Water Halon Nitrogen
610 21 an oxygen installation is :
The function of a feed box in the fuel tank is to increase the fuel level trap fuel sediments or distribute the fuel to the ventilate the tank during
at the boost pump sludge in the lower part various tanks during refuelling under high
611 21 location of the tank refuelling pressure
A unit that converts electrical DC into AC is : an AC generator. a transformer rectifier a thermistor. an inverter.
612 21 unit.
Turbine blade stages may be classed as either "impulse" or the pressure rises the pressure remains the pressure remains the pressure drops
"reaction". In an impulse blade section : across the nozzle guide constant across the constant across the across the nozzle guide
vanes and remains nozzle guide vanes and nozzle guide vanes and vanes and remains
constant across the drops across the rotor rises constant across constant across the
rotor blades . blades . the rotor blades . rotor blades .

613 21
A turbocharger consists of a : compressor and turbine compressor driving a turbine driving a compressor and turbine
on individual shafts. turbine via a reduction compressor via a mounted on a common
614 21 gear. reduction gear. shaft.
In a single spool gas turbine engine, the compressor rpm is : the same as turbine independent of turbine greater than turbine less than turbine rpm.
615 21 rpm. rpm. rpm.
When the combustion gases pass through a turbine the : pressure drops. pressure rises. velocity decreases. temperature increases.
616 21
 For a turbine engine, the term self-sustaining speed relates to the will run without any is designed to idle after operates most will enable the
speed at which the engine : external assistance. starting. efficiently in the cruise.. generators to supply
617 21 bus-bar voltage.
The primary reason for a limitation being imposed on the prevent damage to the prevent overheating ensure that the ensure that the
temperature of gas flow is to : jet pipe from and subsequent creep maximum acceptable maximum acceptable
overheating. of the nozzle guide temperature within the temperature at the
vanes. combustion chamber is turbine blades is not
not exceeded. exceeded.

618 21
In a gas turbine engine, compressor blades, which are not rigidly oil pressure. thermal expansion. blade creep. the resultant of
fixed in position when the engine is stationary, take up a rigid aerodynamic and
619 21 position when the engine is running due to : centrifugal forces.
"Conditioned" air is air that has : had the oxygen content had the oxygen content been controlled in had any moisture
increased. reduced. respect of temperature removed from it.
and pressure.
620 21
The primary purpose of the bleed valves fitted to axial flow control the acceleration spill compressor air enable an external air reduce the likelihood of
compressors is to : time of the engine. should the engine supply to spin up the compressor stall.
overspeed thus compressor for engine
controlling the speed. starting.
621 21
The very rapid magnetic field changes (flux) around the primary coil contact breaker points rotor turning past the contact breaker points distributor arm aligning
in a magneto are accomplished by the: closing. position of maximum opening. with one of the high
flux in the armature. tension segments.
622 21
An aircraft electrical circuit which uses the aircraft structure as a complete negative double pole circuit. semi-negative system. single pole circuit.
623 21 return path to earth, may be defined as a system.
624 21 The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of : ampere-hours. volts. watts. internal resistance.
A test to assess the state of charge of a lead-acid battery would checking the discharge checking the battery comparing the "on- checking the level of
involve : current of the battery voltage "off-load". load" and "off-load" the electrolyte.
625 21 "on-load". battery voltages.
When an "open circuit" occurs in an electrical supply system, the : load as indicated by the loss of continuity will fuse or CB should component will operate
ammeter will increase. prevent its working isolate the circuit due to normally, but will not
components from excess current drawn. switch off.
functioning.
626 21
When two DC generators are operating in parallel, control of load an equalising circuit an equalising circuit carrying out systematic the synchronous bus-
sharing is achieved by : which, in conjunction which, in turn, controls load-shedding bar.
with the voltage the speed of the procedures.
regulators, varies the generators.
field excitation current
of the generators.

627 21
 The services connected to a supply bus-bar are normally in: series, so that isolation parallel, so that series, so that isolating parallel, so that
of loads increases the isolating individual one load increases the isolation of loads
bus-bar voltage. loads decreases the bus-bar current decreases the bus-bar
bus-bar current consumption. voltage.
consumption.
628 21
In a two generator system, a differential relay will ensure that : generator voltages are only one generator can generator voltages are one generator comes
almost equal before the supply the bus-bar at a not equal, dependent "on-line" before the
generators are time. on load. other.
paralleled.

629 21
If air is tapped from a gas turbine HP compressor, the effect on the EPR decreases and both EPR and EGT EPR decreases and EPR remains constant
engine pressure ratio (EPR) and the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) EGT increases. decrease. EGT remains constant. and EGT increases.
630 21 is that :
A reverse thrust door warning light on the flight deck instrument the reverser doors are reverse has been the reverser doors have the reverser doors are
panel illuminates when: locked. selected but the doors moved to the reverse unlocked.
have remained locked. thrust position.
631 21
The demand valve of a diluter-demand type oxygen regulator in pressure in the oxygen user breathes in diluter control is in user requires 100
normal mode, operates when the : reservoir is more than normal position percent oxygen
632 21 500 psi
Concerning the centrifugal compressor, the compressor diffuser is a velocity rises and pressure rises and pressure rises at a velocity, pressure and
633 21 device in which the: pressure falls. velocity falls. constant velocity. temperature rise.
A "fan" stage of a ducted-fan turbine engine is driven by: the high pressure the high pressure airflow drawn across it the low pressure
compressor through turbine. by the high pressure turbine.
reduction gearing. compressor.
634 21
In a gas turbine engine, the power changes are normally made by air entering the fuel supplied. air entering the air leaving the
controlling the amount of: compressor and fuel compressor. compressor by the
entering the opening or closing of
combustion chambers. bleed valves.

635 21
In a free turbine engine: the compressor and there is no mechanical its shaft may be the air enters the
power output shaft are connection between the connected to either a compressor via the
mechanically compressor and the compressor or another input turbine.
connected. power output shaft. turbine.

636 21
The fan in a high by-pass ratio turbo-jet engine produces: none of the thrust. the greater part of the half the thrust. the lesser part of the
637 21 thrust. thrust.
 At constant fuel flow, if engine compressor air is bled off for engine may rise or fall will fall. will rise. will be unchanged.
anti-icing or a similar system, the turbine temperature: depending on which
stage of the
compressor is used for
the bleed and the rpm
of the engine at the
moment of selection.

638 21
A turbocharger system is normally driven by: an electrically activated the exhaust system. an electric motor. an hydraulic motor.
hydraulically powered
clutch.
639 21
A "hung start" is the failure of an engine to accelerate to its normal an attempt to ignite the compressor surging. the starter cutting out failure of the fuel to
idle speed. It may be caused by: fuel before the engine early in the starting ignite in the starting
has been accelerated sequence before the sequence after the
sufficiently by the engine has accelerated engine has been
starter. to the required rpm for accelerated to the
ignition. required rpm by the
starter.
640 21
The reading on the oil pressure gauge is the: pressure in the oil tank pressure of the oil on pressure of the oil on difference between the
reservoir. the inlet side of the the outlet side of the pressure pump
pressure pump. pressure pump. pressure and the
scavenge pump
pressure.
641 21
A Continuous-Loop-Detector-System is a: Fire detection system Smoke detection Carbon dioxide warning Fire fighting system
642 21 system system
The compression ratio of a piston engine is the ratio of the: area of the piston to the weight of the air volume of the cylinder diameter of the bore to
cylinder volume. induced to its weight with the piston at the piston stroke.
after compression. bottom dead centre to
that with the piston at
top dead centre.

643 21
Prolonged running at low rpm may have an adverse effect on the oil pump. fuel filter. sparking plugs. carburettor.
644 21 efficiency of the:
The purpose of the venturi in a carburettor is to: ensure complete create a rise in create the depression prevent enrichment of
atomisation of the fuel pressure at the throat necessary to cause fuel the mixture due to high
before entering the before the mixture to flow through the air velocity through the
induction system. enters the induction carburettor jets. carburettor.
system.
645 21
 The mixture control for a carburettor achieves its control by: moving the butterfly altering the depression varying the air supply to varying the fuel supply
valve through a on the main discharge the main discharge to the main discharge
separate linkage to the tube. tube. tube.
main throttle control.

646 21
The purpose of a distributor in an ignition system is to distribute: primary current to the secondary current to primary current to the secondary current to
647 21 sparking plugs. the sparking plugs. condenser. the condenser.
The frequency of an AC generator is dependent upon the : number of individual number of pairs of number of individual field strength and the
poles only. poles and the speed of poles and the field speed of the rotor.
648 21 the rotor. strength.
The reason for having a low pressure fuel-cooled oil cooler in a heat the fuel only. cool the oil and heat the cool the oil only. cool both the oil and the
649 21 recirculatory type oil system is to: fuel. fuel.
The true statement among the following in relation to the application current in a circuit is Current in a circuit is The current in a circuit power in the circuit is
of Ohm's law is : inversely proportional directly proportional to is directly proportional inversely proportional
to the electromotive the applied to the resistance of the to the square of the
force. electromotive force. circuit. current.

650 21
In an aircraft equipped with a DC main power system, AC for a TRU. an inverter. a rectifier. a contactor.
651 21 instrument operation may be obtained from :
When operating two AC generators unparalleled, the phase must be 90° out of is unimportant. must be synchronous. must be in opposition.
652 21 relationship of each generator: synchronisation.
When AC generators are operated in paralllel, they must be of the voltage and frequency. amperage and kVAR. voltage and amperage. frequency and
653 21 same: amperage.
The measured output power components of a constant frequency AC amperes and kilowatts. kVA and kVAR. volts and amperes. volts and kilowatts.
654 21 system are :
"Frequency wild" in relation to a AC generation system means the voltage regulator is out output frequency is too output frequency varies output frequency is too
generator : of adjustment. low. with engine speed. high.
655 21
If the frequency of the supply in a series capacitive circuit is decrease. remain the same. increase. be zero.
656 21 increased, the current flowing in the circuit will :
Real load sharing in a parallel AC system is achieved by : automatic adjustment of controlling the carefully selecting the monitoring the kVAR of
the torque on each generator field current. number of loads on the each
generator rotor via the bus-bars at any one generator/alternator.
CSD unit. time.
657 21
An AC generator driven by a CSD unit : does not need a requires a voltage requires a voltage does not need a
voltage controller since controller to maintain controller to maintain voltage controller since
an AC generator constant frequency. constant voltage under the CSD will ensure
voltage cannot alter load. constant voltage.
under load.

658 21
 On an aeroplane utilising AC as primary power supplies, the a Transformer Rectifier a static inverter. a DC transformer and the AC bus via current
659 21 batteries are charged in flight from : Unit. rectifier. limiters.
On the flight deck, an oil operated CSD unit is normally provided with oil over-temperature oil temperature and output speed and oil low oil temperature and
660 21 means of monitoring the: and low oil pressure. synchronous speed. pressure. low oil quantity.
When a battery is almost fully discharged there is a tendency for voltage to decrease voltage to increase due current produced to electrolyte to "boil".
the : under load. to the current available. increase due to the
661 21 reduced voltage.

Immediately after starting engine(s) with no other electrical services indicates a faulty would be normal and is indicates a battery indicates a generator
switched on, an ammeter showing a high charge rate to the battery : reverse current relay. only cause for concern failure since there failure, thus requiring
if the high charge rate should be no the engine to be shut
persists. immediate charge. down immediately.
662 21
Circuit breakers protecting circuits may be : used only in AC circuits. used only in DC reset at any time. used in AC and DC
663 21 circuits. circuits.
A "trip-free" type circuit breaker is a circuit protection device which : can be reset at any will allow the contacts will not allow the is free from the normal
time. to be held closed in contacts to be held CB tripping
order to clear a fault in closed while a current characteristic.
the circuit. fault exists in the circuit.

664 21
The function of a CSD in an AC generating system is to: vary generator rpm in directly maintain a drive the generator at a vary the engine rpm
order to compensate for constant proportion constant speed. (within limits) to
various AC loads. between the rpm of compensate for various
engine and generator. AC loads.

665 21
The frequency of an AC generator is dependent on the : field strength and the number of individual number of pairs of number of individual
speed of the moving poles only. poles and the speed of poles and the field
666 21 part. the moving part. strength.
Real load sharing in a parallel AC system is achieved by : monitoring the kVAR of adjusting the torque on carefully secting the controlling the
each each generator rotor number of loads on the generator field current.
generator/alternator. via the CSD unit. bus-bars at any one
time.
667 21
In an aeroplane utilising a constant frequency AC power supply, DC 3 phase current rotary converter. Transformer Rectifier static inverter.
668 21 power is obtained from a : transformer unit. Unit.
Connecting two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour capacity batteries in series 24 volts, 80 ampere- 12 volts, 80 ampere- 24 volts, 40 ampere- 12 volts, 40 ampere-
will result in a total voltage and capacity respectively of : hours. hours. hours. hours.
669 21
The purpose of the "Pressure Relief Valve" in a high pressure act as a manual shut- maximize the charging relieve overpressure if reduce pressure in the
oxygen system is to : off valve pressure of the system the pressure reducing oxygen reservoir to a
valve malfunctions suitable manifold
pressure for the
regulator
670 21
 If two constant frequency AC generators are operating must be 240° out of is unimportant. must be synchronised. must be 120° out of
671 21 independently, then the phase relationship of each generator: phase. phase.
To ensure correct load sharing between AC generators operating in only reactive loads only real loads need to both real an reactive the matching of loads is
parallel : need to be matched. be matched. loads must be matched. unimportant.
672 21
A bus-bar is : the stator of a moving a device which may a distribution point for a device permitting
coil instrument. only be used in DC electrical power. operation of two or
circuits. more switches together.
673 21
A CSD of an AC generator may be disconnected in flight. The slight variation about low oil pressure and/or excessive variation of illumination of the CSD
primary reason(s) for disconnection are : the normal operating high oil temperature of voltage and kVAR. disconnect warning
frequency. the generator drive. light.
674 21
A CSD unit which has been disconnected in flight : automatically resets in automatically resets at may be reset on the may be reset in flight
flight providing engine engine shut-down. ground only, after using the reset
rpm is below a given engine shut-down. mechanism.
value.
675 21
(For this question use annex 021- 6660A) a NAND gate. a NOR gate. an EXCLUSIVE gate. an INVERT or NOT
The logic symbol shown represents (assuming positive logic) : gate.
676 21
Assuming a CSD fault is indicated, the CSD should be during engine operation at flight idle engine rpm. in accordance with the on the ground only.
disconnected : only. regulated voltage level
of the AC generator.
677 21
When carrying out battery condition check using the aircraft's a load should be no load should be the battery should be the load condition is
voltmeter : applied to the battery in applied to the battery isolated. unimportant.
order to give a better because it would
indication of condition. depress the voltage.

678 21
If a current is passed through a conductor which is positioned in a there will be no effect the intensity of the a force will be exerted the current will
magnetic field : unless the conductor is magnetic field will on the conductor. increase.
679 21 moved. decrease.
When a conductor cuts the flux of a magnetic field : there will be no effect the field will collapse. current will flow in an electromotive force
on the conductor. accordance with (EMF) is induced in the
Flemings left hand rule. conductor.
680 21
In order that DC generators will achieve equal load sharing when their voltages are the synchronising bus- equal loads are adequate voltage
operating in parallel, it is necessary to ensure that : almost equal. bar is disconnected connected to each differences exists.
from the busbar generator busbar
system. before paralleling.
681 21
 The purpose of a voltage regulator is to control the output voltage of batteries at varying generators at varying output of the TRU. generator at varying
the : loads. speeds and the loads and speeds.
batteries at varying
loads.
682 21
A circuit breaker : may be reset manually is self resetting after the can only be reset after can be reset on the
after the fault has been fault has been rectified. major maintenance. ground only.
rectified.
683 21
A current limiter fuse in a DC generation system is used to : allow a short term limit the current in the instantaneously rupture limit the current in the
overload before field circuit. to limit the current in armature.
684 21 rupturing. the load.
The primary purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an aircraft is to : provide a single earth prevent electrolytic isolate all components provide safe distribution
for electrical devices. corrosion between electrically and thus of electrical charges
mating surfaces of make the static and currents.
similar metals. potential constant.

685 21
A 3 phase AC generator has 3 separate stator windings spaced at : 90°. 120°. 60°. 45°.
686 21
Because of the input/output relationship of an OR gate, it is often "all or nothing" gate. "any or all" gate. "inhibited" or "negated" "state indicator" gate.
687 21 referred to as the : gate.
A static inverter is a: transistorized unit used device for reversing the static discharger. filter against radio
to convert DC into AC. polarity of the static interference.
688 21 charge.
On most modern airliners the cabin pressure is controlled by Airflow entering the RPM of the engine. Bleed air valve. Airflow leaving the
689 21 regulating the: cabin. cabin.
690 21 The pressurization of tanks is maintained by the fuel: vent system. tank drains. top off unit. dump system.
In a bootstrap system, the purpose of the heat exchangers is to: allow a steady cool bleed air and allow a homogeneous cool bleed air.
compressor outlet compressor air from the temperature by mixing
temperature. turbo refrigerator. air flows from various
air conditioning groups
in operation.

691 21
If one of the 12 cells of a lead-acid battery is dead, the battery: is unserviceable. has 1/12 less voltage, has 1/12 less capacity, has 1/12 less voltage
but can still be used. but can still be used. and less capacity, but
692 21 can still be used.
When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads frequency. voltage. torque of the Constant energizing current.
are balanced by means of the: Speed Drive (CSD).
693 21
694 21 In a compressor stage of a jet engine, the sequence is: stator - stator - rotor rotor - stator stator - rotor rotor - rotor - stator
 The feathering pump of a hydraulic variable-pitch propeller: is an electrically driven is intended to control controls the propeller, if is driven by the engine
oil pump, which the pitch setting of the the speed governor and supplies pressure
supplies the propeller propeller during flight in fails. oil to the propeller in
with pressure oil, when order to obtain a case of engine
the engine is constant speed. problems.
inoperative.

695 21
The most common extinguishing agent used in gas turbine engine Water. CO2. Powder. Freon.
696 21 fire protection system is:
Fuel dump systems are required: on aircraft with a on all transport on all transport on all transport
Maximum Take-Off category aircraft where category aircraft. category aircraft with
Weight (MTOW) higher the Maximum Take-Off more than 150 seats.
than 5.7 tons. Weight (MTOW) is
significant higher than
the Maximum Landing
Weight (MLW).

697 21
In a generator, the Constant Speed Drive (CSD): 1, 2, 5 2, 3, 4 1, 4, 5 1, 3, 6

1- may be disconnected from the engine shaft.

2- may be disconnected from the generator.
3- is a hydro-mechanical system.
4- is an electronic system.
5- may not be disconnected in flight.
6- may be disconnected in flight.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

698 21
The purpose of baffle check valves fitted in aircraft fuel tanks is to : close the vent lines in prevent positive prevent fuel movement damp out movement of
case of turbulence. pressure build up inside to the wing tip. the fuel in the tank.
699 21 the tank.
The main purpose of a Constant Speed Drive unit is to: take part in the mechanically protect take part in the voltage maintain a constant
balancing of reactive the alternator drive regulation. frequency.
700 21 loads. shaft during coupling.
 When a continuous element of a fire detection system is heated: 2, 3 1, 4 2, 4 1, 3

1. its resistance decreases.

2. its resistance increases.
3. the leakage current increases.
4. the leakage current decreases.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

701 21
The chemical oxygen generator is a system: 1, 3, 4 2, 3, 6 1, 4, 6 2, 4, 5

1. which is inexpensive
2. requiring no external input
3. which is lightweight
4. requiring no maintenance
5. with adjustable flow rate
6. which is unsafe

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

702 21
The compressor surge effect during acceleration is prevented by inlet guide vanes. surge bleed valves. variable setting type Fuel Control Unit
703 21 the : nozzle guide vanes. (F.C.U.).
In aeronautics, the most commonly used batteries are NiCd their electrolyte is they are cheaper than they weigh less than their output voltage is
because... neither corrosive nor lead-acid batteries. lead-acid batteries. more constant than
704 21 dangerous. lead-acid batteries.
The reason for using inverters in an electrical system is .. To avoid a short circuit. To change DC into AC. To change the DC To change AC into DC.
705 21 voltage.
The essential difference between aircraft AC alternators and DC induced (output) induced windings of the alternators supply all of The alternators
generators (dynamos) is that the: windings of the alternators are rotating the output current generate much less
alternators are fixed (rotor), and the through the power than DC
(stator), and the dynamos have a rotary commutators and brush generators.
dynamos have a fixed inductor coil. assemblies.
inductor (field) coil.

706 21
707 21 In an alternator rotor coil you can find : AC. Three-phase AC. Only induced current. DC.
708 21 The hydraulic device similar to an electronic diode is a : distribution valve. shutoff valve. check valve. flow control valve.
In order to produce an alternating voltage of 400 Hz, the number of 4 24 12 8
poles required in an AC generator running at 6000 rpm is:
709 21
Usually, electric heating for ice protection is used on: Pitot tubes. Elevator leading edges. Slat leading edges. Fin leading edges.
710 21
 When the door operation of a transport airplane equipped with is disarmed unfolds and becomes unfolds but does not becomes inflated in its
evacuation slides is controlled from the outside, the slide: automatically. inflated. become inflated. packboard thus
preventing its unfolding.
711 21
The "cabin differential pressure" is: the pressure differential cabin pressure minus approximately 5 psi at approximately 15 psi at
between the air ambient pressure. maximum. maximum.
entering and leaving
the cabin.
712 21
The cabin rate of descent is: a cabin pressure always the same as the a cabin pressure is not possible at
increase. airplane's rate of decrease. constant airplane
713 21 descent. altitudes.
The maximum differential pressure of a transonic transport category 15.5 psi 9.0 psi 3.5 psi 13.5 psi
714 21 airplane is approximately:
715 21 The pneumatic ice protection system is mainly used for: engine intakes. wings. pitot tubes. propellers.
What is the purpose of the pack cooling fans in the air conditioning Supplying the heat Supplying the Cooling of the APU Supplying the heat
system? exchangers with Passenger Service Unit compartment. exchangers with
cooling air during cruise (PSU) with fresh air. cooling air during slow
flight. flights and ground
operation.
716 21
The cabin air for modern airplanes is usually supplied by: roots type single radial main engine piston compressors.
717 21 compressors. compressors. compressors.
Cabin air for modern aircraft is usually taken from: the second fan stage. the low pressure the high pressure the low pressure
compressor. compressor. compressor and from
the high pressure
compressor if
necessary.
718 21
On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel Diaphragm pumps. Centrifugal pumps. Gear type pumps. Piston pumps.
719 21 system are:
On modern transport aircraft, cockpit windows are protected against Vinyl coating. Anti-icing fluid. Rain repellent system. Electric heating.
720 21 icing by :
The capacitance type fuel gauging system indicates the fuel quantity density variation of the resistivity variation of electrical resistance dielectric change
721 21 by measuring the: fuel. the fuel. change. between fuel and air.
On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel electro-mechanical mechanically driven by removable only after centrifugal pumps,
system are: wobble pumps, with the engine's accessory the associated tank has driven by an electric
self-regulated pressure. gearbox. been emptied. motor.
722 21
The fuel supply system on a jet engine includes a fuel heating prevent, at low fuel maintain and improve ease low pressure prevent fuel from
device, upstream of the main fuel filter so as to: temperature, the risk of fuel heating power. pumps work by freezing in fuel pipes
ice formation from increasing fuel fluidity. due to low
water contained in the temperatures at high
fuel. altitude.
723 21
 On most transport jet aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel 28 V DC 115 V DC 115 V AC 28 V AC
system are supplied with electric power of the following type:
724 21
The pressure usually produced by the Boost Pumps (BP) of the fuel 5 to 10 psi 3000 to 5000 psi 300 to 500 psi 20 to 50 psi
725 21 supply system is within the following range:
In a fuel system, the oil to fuel heat exchanger allows: fuel cooling so as to fuel heating as required automatic fuel heating jet engine oil cooling
prevent vapour creation whenever fuel filter by the engine oil so as through thermal
likely to unprime clogging is detected. to prevent icing in fuel exchange with fuel
nozzles. filter. flowing from tanks.
726 21
The fuel crossfeed system: allows feeding of any is only used to feed an is only used on the is only used in flight for
engine from any fuel engine from the tank of ground for fuel transfer fuel transfer from one
tank. the opposite wing. from one tank to tank to another.
another.
727 21
The purpose of the baffles in an aircraft's integral fuel tank is to: Prevent mixture of the Restrict the fuel from Prevent overpressure in Prevent the fuel from
fuel and hydraulic fluid. flowing to the wing tips the tank. flowing in the vent lines.
during abnormal
manoeuvre (side
slipping...).
728 21
On a transport type aircraft the fuel tank system is vented through: Bleed air from the The return lines of the Ram air scoops on the A pressure regulator in
engines. fuel pumps. underside of the wing. the wing tip.
729 21
The types of fuel tanks used on most modern transport aircraft are: Integral tanks. Cell tanks. Combined fuel tanks. Fixed built-in tanks.
730 21
In an aircraft air conditioning system the air cannot be treated for: pressure. temperature. humidity. purity.
731 21
The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines located under compression, then in tension, then in tension. compression.
the wing, is subjected to a bending moment which causes its leading tension. compression.
edge, from the wing root to the wing tip, to operate in:
732 21
For take-off, the correct combination of propeller pitch (1), and (1) high (2) forward. (1) low (2) forward. (1) low (2) aft. (1) high (2) aft.
733 21 propeller lever position (2) at brake release is :
For piston engines, mixture ratio is the ratio between the : volume of fuel and mass of fuel and mass of fuel and mass volume of fuel and
volume of air entering volume of air entering of air entering the volume of air entering
734 21 the carburettor. the carburettor. cylinder. the cylinder.
On modern carburettors, the variations of mixture ratios are obtained air flow. fuel flow and air flow. fuel flow, air flow and fuel flow.
735 21 by the adjustment of : temperature.
 To adjust the mixture ratio of a piston engine when altitude decrease the amount of increase the amount of increase the mixture decrease the fuel flow
increases, means to: fuel in the mixture in fuel in the mixture to ratio. in order to compensate
order to compensate for compensate for the for the decreasing air
the increasing air decreasing air pressure density.
density. and density.

736 21
When applying carburettor heating : the mixture becomes a decrease in RPM the mixture becomes no change occurs in the
richer. results from the lean leaner. mixture ratio.
737 21 mixture.
When the pilot moves the mixture lever of a piston engine towards a volume of air entering amount of fuel entering volume of air entering amount of fuel entering
lean position the : the carburettor is the combustion the carburettor is the combustion
reduced. chamber is increased. increased. chamber is reduced.
738 21
When altitude increases without adjustment of the mixture ratio, the increase of air density decrease of air density decrease of air density constant air density for
piston engine performance is affected because of a : for smaller quantity of for a smaller quantity of for a constant quantity a bigger quantity of
fuel. fuel. of fuel. fuel.
739 21
A rich mixture setting has to be used during climb segments. This lower cylinder head higher efficiency. slight loss of power. higher torque.
740 21 results in a temperature.
The cross-feed fuel system is used to : automatically fill every feed every engine from allow the fuel to be allow the unusable fuel
tank up to the desired any fuel tank. quickly thrown away in elimination.
741 21 level. case of emergency
742 21 For a given type of oil, the oil viscosity depends on the: oil temperature. outside pressure. oil pressure. quantity of oil.
The main advantage of a constant speed propeller as compared to a higher efficiency in all constant efficiency in all lower propeller blade higher efficiency in
743 21 fixed pitch propeller is a : operating ranges. operating ranges. stress. cruising range.
In an aircraft electrical system where AC generators are not power supply to the connection of the AC connection of the connection of the
paralleled mounted, the changover relay allows : faulty AC generators generator to its ground power truck to Auxiliary Power Unit
busbar. distribution busbar. its distribution busbar. (APU) to its main
busbar.
744 21
Pulling the fire shutoff handle causes a number of devices to exciter control relay, the exciter control relay and exciter control relay generator breaker
disconnect. In respect of the AC generator it can be said that the: generator breaker and the generator breaker opens. opens.
the tie breaker open. open.
745 21
 The advantages of grounding the negative pole of the aircraft 1, 2, 3 2, 3, 5 1, 3, 5 1, 2, 4
structure are:

1. Weight saving
2. Easy fault detection
3. Increase of short-circuit risk
4. Reduction of short-circuit risk
5. Circuits are not single-wired lines

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

746 21
The speed of an asynchronous four-pole motor fed at a frequency of 12000 revolutions per 6000 revolutions per 800 revolutions per 1600 revolutions per
747 21 400 Hertz is: minute. minute. minute. minute.
As regards three-phase AC generators, the following conditions must 1, 3, 5 1, 4, 5 1, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 3, 4
be met for paralleling AC generators:

1. Equal voltage
2. Equal current
3. Equal frequencies
4. Same phase rotation
5. Voltages of same phase

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

748 21
In the axial flow compressor of a turbo-jet engine, the flow duct is reduce the axial speed reduce the axial speed, maintain a constant maintain a constant
tapered. Its shape is calculated so as to: in cruising flight. whatever the engine axial speed in cruising axial speed whatever
749 21 rating. flight. the engine rating.

In the stator of a turbine, the speed V and static pressure Ps vary as V decreases, Ps V increases, Ps V decreases, Ps V increases, Ps
750 21 follows: decreases. decreases. increases. increases.
Ion detectors are devices used in aircraft for systems protection. fire. overtemperature and smoke. overtemperature.
751 21 They detect : fire.
Electrical bonding of an aircraft is used to: 1, 3, 4 1, 2, 3 3, 4 2, 4

1. protect the aircraft against lightning effects.

2. reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value
approximating 0 volt
3. reduce radio interference on radiocommunication systems
4. set the aircraft to a single potential

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

752 21
Max. Exhaust Gas Temperature is theoretically associated with : Cruising mixture Full rich setting. Mixture ratio very close Mass ratio of 1/15.
753 21 setting. to idle cut-out.
 The accessory units driven by the accessory gearbox of a turbo-jet 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7. 2, 4, 5, 6. 4, 5, 6, 7. 1, 4, 5, 6, 7.
engine are the :

1. tacho-generator N1
2. tacho-generator N2
3. thrust reverser pneumatic motors
4. AC generator and its Constant Speed Unit (CSD)
5. oil pumps
6. hydraulic pumps
7. high pressure fuel pumps

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

754 21
On a modern large pressurized transport aircraft, the maximum 7 - 9 psi 3 - 5 psi 13 - 15 psi 22 psi
755 21 cabin differential pressure is approximately:
The refueling in a transport jet aircraft is made ... Through the refueling By means of the aircraft By means of the aircraft Through a unique point
cap of every tank suction pumps. suction pumps through (an underwing refueling
a unique point (an center).
underwing refueling
center).

756 21
The vapor lock is : A stoppage in a fuel The exhaust gases The effect of the water The abnormal mixture
feeding line caused by obstructions caused by vapor bubbles in the enrichment caused by a
a fuel vapor bubble. an engine overheating. induction manifold greater gasoline
caused by the vaporisation in the
condensation carburettor.
757 21
The fuel system boost pumps are used to : avoid the bubbles feed the lines with fuel feed the fuel control avoid the bubbles
accumulation. for directing it to the units, which inject the accumulation and feed
engine at a positive pressurized fuel into the the lines with fuel for
pressure. engine. directing it to the engine
at a positive pressure.

758 21
The pneumatic system accumulator is useful : in emergency cases. to eliminate the fluid to eliminate the fluid to offset for the starting
pressure variations. flow variations. of some devices.
759 21
The oxygen masks have dropped down from the passengers service After the system has after pulling the oxygen immediately only above FL200
units. The oxygen flow starts : been switched on by a mask downwards
760 21 crew member
If inflammable gaseous materials, like propane for example, are set Water type Dry and water type CO2 and water type BCF and CO2 type
on fire; the following extinguisher types should be used for fire extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers
761 21 fighting:
 A public transport jet aeroplane may be operated up to FL 450. The 198 (110% of the 270 (150% of the 240 (one additional 210 (one additional
cabin includes 180 passenger seats, made up of 30 rows (3 seats seating capacity). seating capacity). mask per seat block). mask per seat row).
from each side of central aisle). The minimum number of cabin
oxygen masks for this aeroplane must be:
762 21
An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certicated to JAR25, 30 minutes at cruising 120 minutes at cruising 90 minutes at cruising 60 minutes at cruising
across an area in which search and rescue would be especially speed. speed. speed. speed.
difficult, without survival equipment if it flies away from an area
suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance greater
than :
763 21
In case of engine failure during flight the blades of the constant move in a certain pitch move in the highest move in the lowest move in low pitch
speed propeller in a single engine aeroplane, not fitted with position depending on pitch position by the pitch position by the position by oil pressure
feathering system windmilling RPM. aerodynamical force. centrifugal force. created by the
windmilling propeller.

764 21
The safety precautions to be taken whenever using oxygen are: 2, 3, 4. 1, 2, 4. 1, 3, 4. 1, 2, 3.

1. refrain from smoking, avoid sparkes.

2. Avoid operation of radio communication equipment.
3. Slowly operate oxygen system valves.
4. Avoid greasy matter.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

765 21
To unfeather a propeller during flight you have to : gain speed for gain speed so as to use use the electric manually release the
aerodynamic the engine unfeathering unfeathering pump. blade latch.
766 21 unfeathering. pump.
The correct formula to calculate the multi-cylinder engine cylinder length * piston area * piston piston area * piston cylinder volume *
displacement is : cylinder diameter stroke * number of stroke number of cylinders
767 21 cylinders
In most cases aeroplane piston engines are short stroke engines. lighter construction. lower fuel consumption. better piston cooling. cheaper construction
768 21 This permits a :
When changing power on engines equipped with constant-speed reducing the RPM increasing the manifold increasing the RPM adjusting Fuel Flow
propeller, engine overload is avoided by : before reducing the pressure before before increasing the before the manifold
manifold pressure. increasing the RPM. manifold pressure. pressure.
769 21
The pitch angle of a constant-speed propeller increases with only varies with engine decreases with is independent of the
increasing true air RPM. increasing true air true air speed.
770 21 speed. speed.
 A propeller blade is twisted, so as to avoid the appearance decrease the blade allow a higher keep the local Angle of
of sonic phenomena. tangential velocity from mechanical stress. Attack constant along
the blade root to the tip. the blade.
771 21
772 21 A pilot normally uses the propeller autofeather system during : Cruise. Take-off. Landing. Take-off and landing.
When increasing true airspeed with a constant engine RPM, the reduces. increases. stays constant. stays constant because
angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller : it only varies with
engine RPM.
773 21
When TAS increases, the pitch angle of a constant speed propeller stays constant. increases. reduces. first reduces and after a
(RPM and MAP levers are not moved) : short time increases to
its previous value.
774 21
The fuel system boost pumps are submerged in the fuel .. To cool the pumps. To prime the pumps. Because their efficiency To shorten the fuel
is greater. lines, so minimising the
775 21 pressure losses.
A turboprop aeroplane is performing an overwater flight, which takes The regulation does not Life jackets and rafts Life rafts must be Life jackets must be
it further than 340 NM away from an aerodrome where an require life jackets or must be available for all available for all available for all
emergency landing could be performed. Normal cruising speed is rafts to be taken on occupants. occupants. occupants.
180 kt. One engine out airspeed is 155 kt. board in this particular
case.
776 21
When a wire type fire system is tested: the wire is totally the wiring and the Only the warning a part of the wire is
777 21 heated. warning are tested. function is tested. totally heated.
If the maximum operating altitude of an airplane is limited by the Negative cabin Positive cabin Negative differential Positive cabin
pressurized cabin, this limitation is due to the maximum: differential pressure at differential pressure at pressure at maximum differential pressure at
maximum operating maximum cabin cabin altitude. maximum operating
ceiling. altitude. ceiling.
778 21
In flight, the most commonly used anti-icing method for the wings of Mechanical (pneumatic Thermal (use of hot Physical/chemical Electrical (electrical
modern commercial aircraft fitted with turbo-jet units is: source which acts by air). (glycol-based liquid). resistances).
deforming the profiles
of the leading edge).

779 21
With regard to the pneumatic mechanical devices which afford The pneumatic The pneumatic The pneumatic The inflatable de-ice
protection against the formation of ice, the only correct statement is: mechanical device can mechanical device is mechanical device can boots of the pneumatic
only be used as a de- used a lot on modern only be used as an anti- mechanical device are
icing device. aircraft as it is icing device. arranged perpendicular
inexpensive and easy to the leading edges.
to maintain.

780 21
 Concerning electrically powered ice protection devices, the only true on modern aeroplanes, on modern aeroplanes, on modern aeroplanes, on modern aeroplanes,
statement is: electrically powered electrical power supply electrically powered electrically powered
thermal devices are being available in thermal devices are thermal devices are
used to prevent icing on excess, this system is very efficient, therefore used as de-icing
small surfaces (pitot- very often used for they only need little devices for pitot-tubes,
static, windshield...). large surfaces de-icing. energy. static ports,
windshield...

781 21
The elements specifically protected against icing on transport aircraft 1, 2, 4, 5 1, 4, 5, 7 1, 2, 5, 6 1, 2, 3, 8
are:

1) engine air intake and pod.

2) front glass shield.
3) radome.
4) pitot tubes and waste water exhaust masts.
5) leading edge of wing.
6) cabin windows.
7) trailing edge of wings.
8) electronic equipment compartment.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

782 21
In a pressurized transport aircraft, the protective breathing gives medical protects all the protects the members protects the members
equipment: assistance to certain occupants against the of the crew against the of the crew against
passengers with effects of accidental effects of accidental fumes and noxious
respiratory disorders. depressurization. depressurization. gases.

783 21
When quick donning masks are in use, the pilot is: only able to transmit. not able to do any radio able to radiotelephone. only able to receive.
784 21 communication.
Some emergency exits must be equipped with devices so as to help 8 ft, aeroplane on the 8 ft, aeroplane on the 6 ft, aeroplane on the 6 ft, aeroplane on the
the occupants to get out and reach the ground if their threshold is at ground, one main gear ground, landing gear ground, landing gear ground, one main gear
a height above the ground greater than: or nose gear collapse. extended. extended. or nose gear collapse.
785 21
The cabin heating supply in a heavy jet transport aircraft is obtained hot air coming from the hot air coming from the a fuel heater system. an electrical heater
from : engine's compressors. engine's turbines. system.
786 21
In a fire detection system with single-loop continuous components there will be no effect the engine fire the fire alarm is the power supply is cut
(with no fault protection), if the line is accidently grounded: on the system extinguisher striker is triggered. off automatically.
automatically activated.
787 21
 A turbo-fan cold air unit will: not affect the charge air increase charge air decrease charge air cause a pressure drop
pressure. pressure whilst causing pressure whilst causing as well as an
hte temperature to drop hte temperature to rise associated temperature
in the heat exchanger. in the heat exchanger. drop in the charge air.

788 21
In a pressurized aircraft, the first-aid (therapeutic) oxygen is protect the flight crew protect all the protect certain give medical assistance
designed to: and cabin attendants occupants against the passengers, and is only to passengers with
against fumes and effects of accidental carried on board for pathological respiratory
noxious gases. depressurisation. these people. disorders.

789 21
An aircraft is scheduled to fly from PARIS to MARSEILLE at FL 390 220. 230. 200. 180.
and has the following characteristics:
Maximum permissible number of passenger specified by the
certificate of airworthiness= 230
Number of seats on board= 200
Scheduled number of passengers on board= 180
The minimum number of inhaler systems provided in the aircraft
cabin should be:
790 21
From which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning FL 300. FL 390. FL 100. FL 250.
type oxygen mask for the flight crew in a pressurized aircraft ?
791 21
What is breathed in when using a passenger oxygen mask? Cabin air and oxygen A mixture of oxygen Cabin air and oxygen. 100% oxygen.
792 21 or 100% oxygen. and freon gas.
In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used HF VHF UHF VLF
793 21 in the following frequencies:
The wavelength of a radio transmitted on frequency 121.95 MHz is: 24.60 cm 2.46 cm 24.60 m 2.46 m
794 21
For weather radar, the frequency 9375 MHz in X Band is preferable Its penetration power is It is not absorbed by It allows greater It better detects clouds
to C Band because: higher. heavy precipitations. scanning rates. contour and range is
greater with the same
transmission power.

795 21
 DURALUMIN alloys : 1,4,5 2,4,5 1,3,6 2,3,6

1 have an aluminium-copper base.

2 have an aluminium-magnesium base.
3 are easy to weld.
4 are difficult to weld.
5 have a good thermal conductivity.
6 have a poor air corrosion resistance

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

796 21
For FAIL-SAFE designed structural parts : 2,5,6 1,5,6 2,3,4 1,3,4

1 The mounting principle is parallel mounting.

2 No routine check is necessary.
3 The member is removed at the end of the calculated life cycle.
4 Certain components may not be accessible.
5 The principle is the redundancy of components
6 The failure of a member causes the loads to be shared between
the other system components.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

797 21
A fault protection circuit in a fire detection system will: inhibit the fire detector activate the fire automatically initiate activate an alarm in the
when the detection line detection system when APU shutdown and fire cockpit and in the
is connected to ground. the detection line is extinguisher striker landing gear bay for
connected to ground. activation in the event ground crew.
of fire.
798 21
"Conditioned" air is air that has: oxygen content oxygen content been controled in oxygen content
increased. reduced. respect of temperature regulated to a preset
and pressure. value.
799 21
The heating facility for the windshield of an aircraft is: Used on a continual Harmful to the integrity Only used when hot-air Used only at low
basis as it reduces the of the windows in the demisting is insufficient. altitudes where there is
thermal gradients which event of a bird strike. a risk of ice formation.
adversely affect the
useful life of the
components.
800 21
On a jet aircraft fuel heaters are : Installed only in the not necessary at all. Located on the Installed in each tank.
801 21 center tank. engines.
 The automatic fuelling shut off valve: stops fuelling as soon stops fuelling as soon cuts off the fuel in case stops fuelling as soon
as a certain pressure is as a certain fuel level is of engine fire. as the fuel spills into
reached. reached inside the tank. the ventline.
802 21
During fuelling the automatic fuelling shut off valves will switch off the the surge vent tank is there is fire. the fuel has reached a fuelling system has
fuel supply system when: filled. predetermined volume reached a certain
803 21 or mass. pressure.
(For this question use annex 021-980A) after high pressure after low pressure valve after high pressure in the fuel control unit
The diagram shown in annex represents a jet fuel system. The fuel- pump first stage (item (item 1). valve (item 4). (item 3).
804 21 flow measurement is carried out : 2).
The purpose of the barometric correction in a fuel controller is to: maintain the correct reduce the fuel-to-air increase the fuel-to-air maintain a constant fuel
weight fuel to air ratio ratio when altitude ratio when altitude metering whatever the
when the altitude increases. increases. altitude.
increases.
805 21
The maximum quantity of fuel that can be dumped with the All fuel until the All up to a defined 15 tons. All fuel.
jettisoning system is: maximum landing reserve quantity.
806 21 weight is reached.

A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin 14000 ft (approx. 4200 8000 ft (approx. 2400 12000 ft (approx. 3600 10000 ft (approx. 3000
altitude. This warning must be triggered on reaching the following m) m) m) m)
807 21 altitude:
The pack cooling fan provides: cooling air to the cooling air to the cooling air to the pre- air to the eyeball outlets
primary and secondary primary and secondary cooler. at the Passenger
heat exchanger during heat exchanger during Service Unit (PSU).
cruise. slow flight and ground
operation.

808 21
The air-conditioning pack of a present-day aircraft consists of several P: pre-cools the engine P: precools the engine P: warms up engine P: warms up engine
components: these include two heat exchangers; the primary bleed air bleed air bleed air bleed air
exchanger (P) and the secondary exchanger (S). S: increases the S: reduces the S: recirculates the S: increases the
The functions of these heat exchangers are as follows: temperature of the air temperature of the air cabin air, reducing its temperature of air
used for air- from the primary temperature. originating from the
conditioning of cargo exchanger or from the compressor of the
compartment (animals). pack's compressor. pack.

809 21
The trim tab : reduces hinge moment increases hinge increases hinge reduces hinge moment
and increases control moment and control moment and reduces and control surface
surface efficiency. surface efficiency. control surface efficiency.
efficiency.
810 21
 The term "cabin pressure" applies when an aeroplane: has the ability to has the ability to has the means to is only pressurized in
maintain constant any maintain a constant maintain the cabin the area of the control
cabin differential cabin altitude at all pressure at a higher cabin.
pressure. flight altitudes. level than the ambient
pressure.
811 21
When air is compressed for pressurization purposes, the percentage increased. dependent on the unaffected. decreased.
oxygen content is: degree of
812 21 pressurisation.

The term "bootstrap", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning source of the charge means by which charge air across the cold air unit (air cycle
and pressurisation system, refers to the: air. pressurisation is inter-cooler heat machine) arrangement.
813 21 controlled. exchanger.
In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first: compressed, then goes passed across an passed across an compressed, then
through a heat expansion turbine, then expansion turbine, then passed across an
exchanger, and across compressed and directly to the heat expansion turbine
an expansion turbine. passed through a heat exchanger. through a heat
exchanger. exchanger.
814 21
In a cabin air conditioning system, equipped with a bootstrap, the secondary heat secondary heat turbine outlet of the compressor outlet of
mass air flow is routed via the: exchanger outlet to the exchanger outlet to the cold air unit to the the cold air unit to the
turbine inlet of the cold compressor inlet of the primary heat exchanger primary heat exchanger
air unit. cold air unit. inlet. inlet.
815 21
Engine bleed air used for air conditioning and pressurization in compressor section. fan section. turbine section. by-pass ducting.
816 21 turbo-jet aeroplanes is usually taken from the:
The turbine in a cold air unit (air cycle machine): drives the compressor increases the pressure drives the compressor drives the compressor
which provides of the air supply to the in the unit and causes a in the unit, creating a
pressurisation. cabin. pressure increase in temperature drop in the
the conditioning air. conditioning air.

817 21
In large modern aircraft, in the air conditioning system, reduction of an expansion turbine. a compressor. a condenser. an evaporator.
818 21 air temperature and pressure is achieved by:
In a "bootstrap" cooling system, the charge air is first compressed in ensure an adequate increase the cabin air ensure an adequate maintain a constant
the cold air unit to: pressure and supply pressure when charge air flow across cabin mass air flow.
temperature drop the charge pressure is the inter-cooler heat
across the cooling too low. exchanger.
turbine.
819 21
Environmental system: in the air refrigeration unit, the water before the cooling just after the heat after the cooling before the heat
820 21 separation unit is placed: turbine. exchangers. turbine. exchangers.
 The purpose of cabin air flow control valves in a pressurization regulate cabin pressure Maintain a constant and regulate cabin pressure discharge cabin air to
system is to : at the maximum cabin sufficient mass air flow to the selected altitude. atmosphere if cabin
pressure differential. to ventilate the cabin pressure rises above
and minimise cabin the selected altitude.
pressure surges.

821 21
In a hydraulic system, the reservoir is pressurized in order to: prevent pump cavitation seal the system keep the hydraulic fluid reduce fluid
at optimum temperature combustibility
822 21
The purpose of a shuttle valve is to: Protect a hydraulic Relieve excess Prevent overloading of Supply an operating
system from pressure in hydraulic the hydraulic pump. unit with the most
overpressure. systems. appropriate system
pressure.
823 21
Shuttle valves will automatically: Switch hydraulically Shut down systems Guard systems against Reduce pump loads.
operated units to the which are overloaded. overpressure.
most appropriate
pressure supply.
824 21
In addition to energy storage the accumulator of the hydraulic as a pressure relief for damping pressure for fluid storage. for pressure storage.
825 21 system is used : valve. surges in the system.
In the air cycle system the air is cooled down by expansion: of Freon in a heat of Freon in the turbine. in the turbine. in a pressure relief
826 21 exchanger. valve.
If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential increases remains constant may exceed the decreases
pressure: maximum permitted
differential unless
immediate preventative
action is taken.

827 21
The purpose of the cabin pressure controller, in the automatic mode, 2, 6, 4 5, 6, 1 4, 5, 3 1, 2, 3
is to perform the following functions:

1. control of cabin altitude,

2. control of cabin altitude rate-of-change,
3. limitation of differential pressure
4. balancing aircraft altitude with cabin altitude
5. cabin ventilation
6. keeping a constant differential pressure throughout all the flight
phases.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

828 21
 During a normal pressurised climb after take-off: the pressurisation the cabin differential absolute cabin cabin pressure
system is inoperative pressure is maintained pressure increases to decreases more slowly
until an altitude of 10 constant compensate for the fall than atmospheric
000 feet is reached in pressure outside the pressure
aircraft
829 21
In flight the wing of an aircraft containing fuel is subjected to vertical equal to the zero -fuel equal to half the weight lowest at the wing root highest at the wing root
loads that produce a bending moment which is: weight multiplied by the of the aircraft multiplied
span by the semi span
830 21
Main cabin temperature is: controlled controlled by individual not controllable at the Only controllable at
automatically, or by passenger. maximum cabin maximum cabin
831 21 flight crew selection. differential pressure. differential pressure.
In hydraulic systems of large modern transport category aircraft the Water and glycol. Synthetic oil. Mineral oil. Vegetable oil.
832 21 fluids used are:
Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value a constant mass air the outflow valves will the pressurisation the outflow valves will
in normal flight conditions, if flight altitude is maintained: flow is permitted move to the fully open system ceases to move to the fully closed
through the cabin. position. function until leakage position.
reduces the pressure.

833 21
Cabin pressure is controlled by : the cabin air mass flow delivering a controlling the flow of the cabin air re-
control inlet valve(s). substantially constant air into the cabin with a circulation system.
flow of air into the cabin constant outflow.
and controlling the
outflow.
834 21
During level flight at a constant cabin pressure altitude (which could Fully closed until the Partially open. fully closed until the At the pre-set position
be decreased, even at this flight level), the cabin outflow valves are: cabin descends to a cabin climbs to a for take-off.
835 21 selected altitude. selected altitude.
The purpose of a ditching control is to: achieve rapid open the outflow direct pressurisation air close the outflow
depressurisation. valve(s). to the flotation bags. valve(s).
836 21
The cabin pressure is regulated by the: Air cycle machine. Air conditioning pack. Cabin inlet airflow Outflow valve.
837 21 valve.
The pressurization of the cabin is controlled by : The engine's bleed The cabin outflow The cabin inlet airflow. The engine's RPM.
838 21 valves. valve.
Cabin differential pressure means the pressure difference between: actual cabin pressure cabin pressure and cockpit and passenger cabin pressure and
and selected pressure. ambient air pressure. cabin. ambient air pressure at
839 21 MSL.

Under normal conditions (JAR 25) the cabin pressure altitude is not 8000 ft 4000 ft 6000 ft 10000 ft
840 21 allowed to exceed:
 Cabin altitude means the: difference in height flight level the aircraft is flight level altitude at cabin pressure
between the cabin floor flying at. maximum differential expressed as altitude.
841 21 and ceiling. pressure.
(For this question use annex 021-786A) FL 230 FL 340 FL 280 FL 180
In a pressurized aircraft whose cabin altitude is 8000 ft, a crack in a
cabin window makes it necessary to reduce the differential pressure
to 5 psi.
The flight level to be maintained in order to keep the same cabin
altitude is:
842 21
An artificial feel unit is necessary in the pitch channel when: the elevators are the elevators are fitted there is a trimmable the elevators are
actuated by irreversible with servo-tabs or trim stabilizer. actuated by reversible
servo-control units. tabs. servo-control units.
843 21
On the ground, the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) can be substituted for ground power unit, the ground power unit, the ground power unit, the ground power unit.
the: starting system, the air air conditioning unit. starting system.
conditioning unit.
844 21
The purpose of a trim tab (device) is to: lower manoeuvring reduce or to cancel trim the aeroplane trim the aeroplane at
845 21 control forces. control forces. during normal flight. low airspeed.
A torsion link assembly is installed on the landing gear to : avoid rotation of the absorb the spring control the wheels. lock the landing gear.
piston rod relative to tension.
846 21 the gear oleo strut.
In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system Mechanically driven. Pneumatically driven. Electrically driven. Hydraulically driven.
847 21 is usually:
Generally, on modern jet transport aircraft, how can the landing gear Mechanically Electrically. Pneumatically. By hydraulic
be extended if there is a complete hydraulic system failure. accumulators.
848 21
If the profile grooves or the tread of a new aircraft tyre are worn, the Used on the nose Repaired several times. repaired once. Never repaired.
849 21 tyre can be: wheel only.
The operating principle of an anti skid system is as follows : the Increased on the faster Decreased on the Increased on the slower Decreased on the
brake pressure will be : turning wheels. faster turning wheels. turning wheels. slower turning wheels.
850 21
The type of brake unit found on most transport aeroplanes is a: Belt brake. Multiple disk brake. Drum type brake. Single disk brake.
851 21
The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aircraft wheels is that they : release air from the tyre release air from the tyre prevent the brakes from prevent heat transfer
in case of in case of overheating. overheating. from the brake disks to
852 21 overpressure. the tyres.
 In a modern hydraulic system, "hydraulic fuses" can be found. Their To switch to the To isolate a part of the To allow by-passing of To prevent total system
function is : secondary system in system and protect it a hydraulic pump in loss in case of a leaking
case of a leak in the against accidental case it is subject to hydraulic line.
primary brake system. pollution. excessive pressure,
without further damage
to the system.

853 21
The advantages of fly-by-wire control are: 3 and 5 1 and 2 1 and 5 2 and 3

1. reduction of the electric and hydraulic power required to operate

the control surfaces
2. lesser sensitivity to lightning strike
3. direct and indirect weight saving through simplification of systems
4. immunity to different interfering signals
5. improvement of piloting quality throughout the flight envelope

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

854 21
The type of hydraulic oil used in modern hydraulic systems is: mixture of mineral oil mineral oil synthetic oil vegetable oil
855 21 and alcohol
An artificial feel unit system: is mounted in parallel must be mounted in must be mounted in is necessary on a
on a spring tab. parallel on an series on an reversible servodyne
irreversible servo- irreversible servo- unit.
control unit. control unit.
856 21
Hydraulic fluids must have the following characteristics: 1, 3, 4, 6 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 5, 7 2, 3, 4, 5

1. thermal stability
2. low emulsifying characteristics
3. corrosion resistance
4. good resistance to combustion
5. high compressibility
6. high volatility
7. high viscosity

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

857 21
 In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is precharged to 1200 1200 psi 4200 psi 1800 psi 3000 psi
psi.
An electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and provides a
system pressure of 3000 psi.
The hydraulic pressure gauge which is connected to the gas section
of the accumulator, reads:
858 21
Where in a hydraulic system might overheat indicators be installed? At the pumps. In the reservoirs. At actuators. At the coolers.
859 21
Hydraulic fluids : Cause high fire risk. Do not require special Are irritating to eyes Are irritating to eyes
care. and skin and cause and skin.
860 21 high fire risk.
Hydraulic fluids used in systems of large modern airliners are: Water base fluids. Vegetable base fluids. Mineral base fluids. Phosphate ester base
861 21 fluids.
Hydraulic power is a function of : Pump size and volume System pressure and Pump RPM only. System pressure and
862 21 flow. volume flow. tank capacity.
Large transport aeroplane hydraulic systems usually operate with a 3000 psi 4000 psi 2000 psi 1000 psi
863 21 system pressure of approximately:
The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 2,4 1,3,5 1,2,3 2,5
1 Is a limitation set by regulation.
2 Is designed for a maximum load factor.
3 Is due to the maximum bending moment at wing root.
4 Requires to empty external tanks first.
5 Requires to empty internal tanks first.
The correct combination of true statements is :
864 21
Thermal plugs are installed in: cabin windows. cargo compartments. wheel rims. fire warning systems.
865 21
What can be the consequence during a descent with a fully open The turbine shaft will The turbine blades will The manifold air The power of the motor
throttle if the waste gate is seized ? break. separate. pressure (MAP) value will decrease.
may exceed the
maximum allowed
value.
866 21
The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is the ratio of: the total turbine outlet the total turbine outlet the total turbine inlet the total turbine inlet
pressure to the total pressure to the total pressure to the total pressure to the total
compressor inlet compressor outlet compressor inlet compressor outlet
pressure. pressure. pressure. pressure.
867 21
The ignition occurs in each cylinder of an four-stroke engine (TDC = before TDC at each behind TDC at each behind TDC at each before TDC at each
Top Dead Center) crankshaft revolution. crankshaft revolution. second crankshaft second crankshaft
868 21 revolution. revolution.
869 21 The power output of a piston engine can be calculated by : Torque times RPM. Work times velocity. Force times distance. Pressure times arm.
The power of a piston engine which will be measured by using a Heat loss power. Indicated horse power. Brake horse power. Friction horse power.
870 21 friction brake is :
 The torque of an aeroplane engine can be measured at the: propeller blades. accessory gear box. camshaft. gear box which is
located between the
engine and the
propeller.
871 21
The power of a piston engine decreases during climb with a constant temperature. air density. engine temperature. humidity.
872 21 power lever setting, because of the decreasing :
The conditions under which you obtain the highest engine power are cold and dry air at high warm and humid air at cold and humid air at warm and dry air at
873 21 : pressure. low pressure. high pressure. high pressure.
The power output of a normally aspirated piston engine increases lower losses during the lower friction losses. leaner mixture at higher lower back pressure.
with increasing altitude at constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and gas change. altitudes.
874 21 RPM because of the :

The passenger oxygen mask will supply : a mixture of oxygen a mixture of cabin air 100 % oxygen. a mixture of
and freon gas. and oxygen. compressed air and
oxygen or 100 %
oxygen.
875 21
876 21 The kind of compressor normally used as a supercharger is : a hybrid compressor. a piston compressor. a radial compressor. an axial compressor.
The built-in passenger oxygen system be activated by : switching the diluter switching the switching the diluter opening the oxygen-
demand regulator and passenger oxygen ON. demand regulator ON. bottle valves.
the passenger oxygen
ON.
877 21
One of the advantages of a turbosupercharger is that : there is no danger of it uses the exhaust gas it has a better there is no torsion at
knocking. energy which normally propulsive efficiency. the crankshaft.
878 21 is lost.
With which instrument(s) do you monitor the power output of an RPM and Fuel Flow RPM and MAP RPM and EGT RPM indicator.
879 21 aeroplane fitted with a fixed pitch propeller? indicator. indicator. indicator.
An EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicator for a piston engine is control the fuel assist the pilot to settle control the cylinder control the carburator
880 21 used to : temperature. correct mixture. head temperature. inlet air flow.
During climb with constant throttle and RPM lever setting (mixture Manifold Air Pressure RPM decreases. Manifold Air Pressure RPM increases.
881 21 being constant) the : (MAP) decreases. (MAP) increases.
The conditions which can cause knocking are : High manifold pressure Low manifold pressure Low manifold pressure High manifold pressure
and high revolutions and high revolutions and high fuel flow. and low revolutions per
per minute. per minute. minute.
882 21
Which of the following qualitative statements about a fixed propeller blades reduces to zero. blade is relatively high. blade is relatively small. airfoil section is
optimized for cruise condition, is true for the take-off case? The negative.
883 21 angle of attack of the propeller :
 The 'constant speed propeller' has its best efficiency only above and below in general a worse only at the design
during climb. the design point a efficiency than the fixed speed a better
better efficiency than propeller. efficiency than the fixed
the fixed propeller with propeller.
the same design speed.

884 21
What will happen to the geometrical pitch angle of a "constant speed It will increase It will increase and after It will decrease so that It will remain the same
propeller" if the manifold pressure is increased ? a short time it will be the engine can
the same again increase
885 21
The 'slipstream effect' of a propeller is most prominent at: low airspeeds with low low airspeeds with high high airspeeds with low high airspeeds with
886 21 power setting. power setting. power setting. high power setting.
During climb with constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM stays constant. increases. decreases. only stays constant if
indication and constant mixture setting, the power output of a piston the speed control lever
engine : is pushed forward.
887 21
The ice protection for propellers of modern turboprop aeroplanes pneumatically. with hot air. with anti-icing fluid. electrically.
888 21 works
If the pressure in the cabin tends to become lower than the outside negative pressure relief outflow valve open air cycle machine will negative pressure relief
889 21 ambient air pressure the : valve will close completely. stop. valve will open.
Static dischargers : 2,4,5. 1,2,5. 1,3,4. 3,4,5.

1. are used to set all the parts of the airframe to the same electrical
potential
2. are placed on wing and tail tips to facilitate electrical discharge
3. are used to reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a
value approximating 0 volts
4. are located on wing and tail tips to reduce intererence with the on-
board radiocommunication systems to a minimum
5. limit the risks of transfer of electrical charges between the aircraft
and the electrified clouds

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

890 21
The octane rating of a fuel characterises the : fuel volatility quantity of heat fuel electrical the anti-knock
generated by its conductivity capability
891 21 combustion

The fuel temperature, at which, under standard conditions, the fire point self ignition point flash point combustion point
vapour ignites in contact with a flame and extinguishs immediately, is
892 21 the:
 'Fail safe construction' is : A simple and cheap A type of construction A construction which is A type of construction in
type of construction. for small aircraft only. suitable for aerobatic which the load is
flight. carried by other
components if a part of
the structure fails.

893 21
The type of hydraulic fluid which has the highest resistance against Synthetic fluid. Mineral oil based fluid. Vegetable oil based Water and glycol based
894 21 cavitation is : fluid (caster oil). fluid.
The ice protection system currently used for the most modern jet Electrical de-icing Hot air system. Pneumatic system with Liquid de-icing system.
aeroplanes is the system. expandable boots.
895 21
During flight, the wing anti-ice system has to protect leading edges only. leading edges, slats the whole upper wing slats and the leading
and the leading edge surface and the flaps. edge flaps only.
896 21 flaps.
The useful work area in an ideal Otto engine indicator diagram is 2 adiabatic and 1 2 adiabatic and 2 2 adiabatic, 1 isochoric 2 adiabatic and 2
enclosed by the following gas state change lines isothermic lines. isobaric lines. and 1 isobaric lines. isochoric lines.
897 21
The anti-ice or de-icing system which is mostly used for the wings of Thermal anti-icing. Fluid de-icing. Pneumatic boots. Electrical heating.
898 21 modern turboprop aeroplanes is :
In general, in twin-engine aeroplanes with 'constant speed propeller' the spring force turns the oil pressure turns the oil pressure turns the aerodynamic force
the propeller blades the propeller blades the propeller blades turns the propeller
towards smaller pitch towards higher pitch towards smaller pitch blades towards higher
angle. angle. angle. pitch angle.

899 21
A pneumatic de-ice system should be operated .. When there are Only at take-off and When there is When entering areas
approximately 5 cm of during approach. approximately 1,5 cm of with icing conditions.
ice on leading edges ice on leading edges.
900 21
A gaseous sensor/responder tube fire sensor is tested by checking the wiring checking the sensor heating up the sensor checking the continuity
harness for faults but with pressurized gas. with test power of the system with a
not the sensor. connection. test switch.
901 21
Smoke detector systems are installed in the engine nacelles. fuel tanks. upper cargo wheel wells.
compartments (class
902 21 E).

The most suitable means for extinguishing a magnesium fire on the water. carbon dioxide. freon. sand.
903 21 ground is :
The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in seat rows in the cabin. passengers in the emergency exits in the seats in the cabin.
the passenger cabin according to JAR-OPS depends on the number cabin. cabin.
904 21 of :
 In transport aeroplanes overheat detection systems are installed in tyres. landing gear bays / cabin. fuel tanks.
905 21 the: wheel wells.
The number of emergency exits in transport aeroplanes must be arranged to must be arranged to depends on the must be in accordance
allow all passengers allow at least 50 % of decision of the with the number of
and all crew members all passengers to leave manufacturer in passengers on board.
to leave the aeroplane the aeroplane within 2 agreement with the
within 90 sec. through minutes. operator.
50 % of the available
emergency exits.

906 21
If the maximum operating pressure of the oxygen passenger oxygen oxygen bottles will oxygen is discharged oxygen becomes
system is exceeded the: masks will drop down. explode. overboard via a safety unusable for the
907 21 plug. passengers.
The purpose of a diluter demand regulator in an oxygen deliver oxygen flow only is only recommended mix air and oxygen in a deliver oxygen flow
system is to : above FL 100. with smoke in the passenger oxygen when inhaling.
908 21 cockpit. mask.
In jet aeroplanes the 'thermal anti-ice system' is primary supplied by turbo compressors. ram air, heated via a the APU. bleed air from the
909 21 heat exchanger. engines.
Overheating of a piston engine is likely to result from an low barometric high barometric weak mixture. rich mixture.
910 21 excessively : pressure. pressure.
Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the: mass of fuel and mass volume of fuel and volume of fuel and mass of fuel and mass
of air entering the volume of air entering volume of air entering of air entering the
911 21 cylinder. the carburettor. the cylinder. carburettor
Which statement is true concerning the effect of the application of it reduces the volume of it reduces the density of it reduces the volume of it reduces the density of
carburettor heat? air entering the air entering the air entering the air entering the
carburettor,thus leaning carburettor, thus carburettor,thus carburettor, thus
the fuel/air mixture leaning the fuel/air enriching the fuel/air enriching the fuel/air
mixture mixture mixture
912 21
The octane rating of a fuel and compression ratio of a piston engine the higher the octane the lower the octane the higher the octane compression ratio is
have which of the following relations? rating is, the higher the rating is, the higher the rating is, the lower the independent of the
possible compression possible compression possible compression octane rating.
ratio is ratio is ratio is.
913 21
Vapour lock is : vaporizing of fuel in the the inability of a fuel to vaporizing of fuel prior the formation of water
carburettor vaporize in the to reaching the vapour in a fuel system
914 21 carburettor carburettor

Fuel stored in aircraft tanks will accumulate moisture. The most use only high octane keep tank vents keep tanks topped off drain tanks at end of
practical way to minimize this when an aircraft is used every day or gasoline plugged and filler cap when the aircraft is not each day's flight
915 21 so is to : tight in use
 In addition to the fire hazard introduced, excessive priming should be it drains the carburettor the gasoline dilutes the it washes the lubricant it fouls the spark plugs
avoided because : float chamber oil and necessitates of cylinder walls
changing oil
916 21
The primary purpose of a supercharger is to : provide leaner mixtures provide a richer mixture maintain power at increase quantity of fuel
at altitudes below 5000 at high altitudes altitude at metering jet
917 21 ft
An excessively rich mixture can be detected by : black smoke from high cylinder head white smoke from a long purple flame
918 21 exhaust. temperatures exhaust. from exhaust.
An asymmetric loading (p-factor) on the propeller exists .. Only for counterrotating Only if the 'constant If the aeroplane has a If there is an
propeller speed propeller' large angle of attack. unbalanced propeller.
919 21 mechanism is broken.
Pre-ignition refers to the condition that may arise when : the mixture is ignited a rich mixture is ignited the sparking plug the mixture is ignited by
before the piston has by the sparking plugs. ignites the mixture too abnormal conditions
reached top dead early. within the cylinder
centre. before the spark occurs
at the plug

920 21
In which sections of the carburettor would icing most likely occur? main air bleed and venturi and the throttle float chamber and fuel accelerator pump and
main discharge nozzle valve inlet filter main metering jet
921 21
The maximum horsepower output which can be obtained from an maximum power. take-off power. critical power. rated power.
engine when it is operated at specified rpm and manifold pressure
conditons established as safe for continuous operation is termed :
922 21
A fuel strainer when fitted to a carburettor will be positioned : upstream of the needle between the needle between the metering downstream of th
valve. valve and the metering jet and the discharge discharge nozzle.
923 21 jet. nozzle.

The working cycle of a four-stroke engine is : compression induction, induction, compression, induction, compression, induction, power,
power, exhaust. expansion, power. power, exhaust. compression, exhaust.
924 21
Specific fuel consumption is defined as the : maximum fuel mass of fuel required to designed fuel quantity of fuel required
consumption of the produce unit power for consumption for a given to run the engine for
aircraft. unit time. rpm. one minute at
maximum operating
conditions.
925 21
In a piston engine, the purpose of an altitude mixture control is to : prevent a weak cut weaken the mixture enrich the mixture correct for variations in
when the throttle is strength because of strength due to the fuel/air ratio due to
opened rapidly at reduced exhaust back decreased air density at decreased air density at
altitude. pressure at altitude. altitude. altitude.

926 21
 The purpose of an ignition switch is to : control the primary connect the secondary connect the battery to connect the contact
circuit of the magneto coil to the distributor the magneto breaker and condenser
in series with the
primary coil
927 21
Under normal running conditions a magneto draws primary current : from the booster coil. directly from the aircraft from the aircraft from a self-contained
batteries. batteries via an inverter. electro-magnetic
928 21 induction system.
On a normally aspirated aero-engine fitted with a fixed pitch in a descent at a fixed manifold pressure the propeller setting is in level flight, manifold
propeller : throttle setting manifold decreases as the constant at all indicated pressure will remain
pressure will always aircraft climbs at a fixed airspeeds. constant when the rpm
remain constant. throttle setting. is increased by opening
the throttle.
929 21
The air in a piston engine turbo-supercharger centrifugal compressor enters at the periphery enters at a tangent to enters the eye of the enters via the diffuser
: and leaves via the eye the rotor and leaves via impeller and leaves at a and is fed to the
of the impeller. the stator. tangent to the impeller at the optimum
periphery. angle of attack.

930 21
A piston engine compression ratio is the ratio of the : swept volume to the total volume to the clearance volume to the total volume to the
931 21 clearance volume. clearance volume. swept volume. swept volume.
932 21 In computer technology, a storage peripheral is a: key board screen unit hard disk drive printer
The advantages of a gaseous oxygen source for the passenger 1, 3, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 4, 5 2, 3, 4
cabin are :

1. a greater autonomy,
2. no risk of explosion,
3. reversible functioning,
4. easy storage and maintenance,
5. possibility to regulate flow.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

933 21
In modern aircraft, a pilot can actuate the feather system by : pulling the RPM lever pushing the RPM lever pushing the power pulling the power levers
934 21 backwards. forward. lever forward. backwards.
The crank assembly consists of propeller, crankshaft, Crankcase, crankshaft, crankshaft, camshaft, crankshaft, connecting
pistons and connecting connecting rods and valves, valve springs rods and pistons.
rods. pistons. and push rods.
935 21
Ignition systems of piston engines are : dependant on the DC- dependant on the AC- independant from the dependant on the
Generator. Generator. electrical system of the battery.
936 21 aircraft.
 The purpose of the blow-in-doors at the air inlets is to: serve to increase the provide the engine with provide the engine with feed cooling air to the
relative velocity at the additional air at high additional air at high engine cowling.
first compressor stage. power settings and low power settings at
air speeds. cruising speed.
937 21
Skip distance is the: highest critical wavelength distance of thickness of the range from the
frequency distance a certain frequency ionosphere transmitter to the first
938 21 sky wave
A radio signal looses strength as range from the transmitter attenuation refraction propagation ducting
939 21 increases, this is called :
On four-stroke piston engines, the theoretical valve and ignition compression ratio piston displacement engine r.p.m. overall efficiency
940 21 settings are readjusted in order to increase the:
941 21 In a four-stroke piston engine, the only "driving" stroke is : intake compression exhaust firing-expansion
In an engine equipped with a float-type carburettor, the low compression of air at low volatility of aviation vaporization of fuel and freezing temperature of
temperature that causes carburettor ice is normally the result of: the carburettor venturi fuel expansion of the air in the air entering the
942 21 the carburettor carburettor
943 21 In computer technology, an input peripheral is a: keyboard screen unit hard disk drive diskette drive
The operating principle of float-type carburettors is based on the: automatic metering of increase in air velocity measurement of the difference in air
air at the venturi as the in the throat of a venturi fuel flow into the pressure at the venturi
aircraft gains altitude causing an increase in induction system throat and the air inlet
air pressure

944 21
In computer technology, an EPROM is: 1,4 1,3 2,3 2,4

1. a read-only memory
2. a write memory
3. erases its content when power supply is cut off
4. keeps its content when power supply is cut off

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

945 21
On an aircraft, the Krueger flap is a: leading edge flap close leading edge flap close leading edge flap trailing edge flap
946 21 to the wing root to the wing tip
The skip zone of HF-transmission will increase when the following Lower frequency ang Higher frequency and Lower frequency and Higher frequency and
change in circumstance occurs : higher position of the lower position of the lower position of the higher position of the
reflecting ionospheric reflecting ionospheric reflecting ionospheric reflecting ionospheric
layer layer layer layer
947 21
Fixed-pitch propellers are usually designed for maximum efficiency cruising speed idling full throttle take-off
948 21 at :
If the ground wire between the magnetos and the ignition switch the engine cannot be a still operating engine the engine cannot be the power developed
becomes disconnected the most noticeable result will be that: shut down by turning will run down started with the ignition by the engine will be
the ignition switch to switch in the "ON" strongly reduced
the "OFF" position position
949 21
 For internal cooling,reciprocating engines are especially dependent a properly functioning a lean fuel/air mixture the circulation of a rich fuel/air mixture
950 21 on: thermostat lubricating oil
The positions of the intake and exhaust valve at the end of the power exhaust valve closed intake valve closed and both valves open. both valves closed.
stroke are : and intake valve open. exhaust valve open.
951 21
The main purpose of the mixture control is to: adjust the fuel flow to decrease the air increase the oxygen decrease oxygen
obtain the proper supplied to the engine supplied to the engine supplied to the engine
952 21 fuel/air ratio
In twin-engine aeroplanes with right turning propellers the 'minimum control the right engine is the the left engine is the the left engine
speed' is determined by critical motor. critical motor. produces a higher yaw
the failure of the right moment if the right
engine. engine fails than vice
versa.
953 21
954 21 In computer technology, an output peripheral is a: hard disk drive diskette drive screen unit keyboard
The detection of a feeder fault on a direct current circuit results in: 1, 3, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 4, 5
1. automatic disconnection of the generator from the aircraft AC
busbar
2. opening of generator field current relay
3. opening of the main relay of the generator breaker
4. opening of balancing circuit connecting two generators
5. lighting of an indicator lamp
The combination of correct statements is:

955 21
A public transport aircraft has a cruising altitude of FL 390. It is fitted 12000 ft. 14000 ft. 15000 ft. 13000 ft.
with individual oxygen masks for the passengers. In the event of
depressurisation, the masks must be automatically released before
the cabin pressure altitude exceeds:

956 21
Above what flight level must one pilot wear an oxygen mask at all 490. 410. 300. 250.
957 21 times during commercial flight.
A diluter demand oxygen regulator : mixes air and oxygen in delivers oxygen flow delivers oxygen flow is only recommended
a passenger oxygen when inhaling. only above FL 100. for use with smoke in
958 21 mask. the cockpit.

A jet aircraft is certified for the carriage of 120 passengers. 42 3 passengers for the 1 passenger for the no first aid required. 1 passenger for the
passenger are on board and the expected Flight Level on route entire flight after cabin entire flight after cabin entire flight after cabin
Paris-Alger is FL 330. The first aid oxygen to be on board at depressurization at depressurization at depressurization at
departure shall provide breathing supply for at least: cabin altitude between cabin altitude of more cabin altitude between
10000 and 14000 ft. than 8000 ft. 10000 and 14000 ft.

959 21
 As regards passengers oxygen in public transport aircraft, the aircraft reaches FL take-off. the aircraft reaches FL the aircraft reaches FL
information must be given to passengers through a demonstration. If 250. 100. 140.
a flight is to be carried out at Flight Level FL 290, this demonstration
must be completed before :
960 21
In jet transport aircraft, breathing oxygen for the cockpit is stored in gaseous. liquid. chemical. chemical or gaseous.
961 21 the following state:
The advantages of alternating current on board an aircraft are: 1, 2, 3, 5, 6 1, 4, 6 3, 4, 5, 6 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
1. simple connection
2. high starting torque
3. flexibility in use
4. lighter weight of equipment
5. easy to convert into direct current
6. easy maintenance of machines
The combination of correct statements is:

962 21
On board present aircraft, the batteries used are mainly Cadmium- 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 3, 4, 6, 7 3, 4, 5, 6 1, 2, 5, 6, 7
Nickel. Their advantages are:
1. low risk of thermal runaway
2. high internal resistance, hence higher power
3. good charging and discharging capability at high rating
4. wider permissible temperature range
5. good storage capability
6. sturdiness owing to its metal casing
7. the electrolyte density remains unchanged during charging.
The combination of correct statement is:

963 21
Shimmy occurs on the nosewheel landing gear during taxiing when: 2, 4. 2, 3. 1, 3. 1, 4.

1. the wheels tend to describe a sinusoidal motion on the ground

2. the wheels no longer respond to the pilot's actions

This effect is overcome by means of:

3. the torque link

4. an accumulator associated with the steering cylinder

The combination of correct statements is:

964 21
A feeder fault on a direct current circuit results from a flux unbalance voltage coil and the voltage coil and the generator and the shunt exciter and the
965 21 between the: series winding turn. series winding. series winding turn. series winding turn.
 The fuselage of an aircraft consists, among others, of stringers assist the skin in withstand the shear provide sound and integrate the strains
whose purpose is to: absorbing the stresses. thermal isolation. due to pressurization to
longitudinal traction- which the skin is
compression stresses. subjected and convert
them into a tensile
stress.
966 21
When a persistent top excitation limit fault on an AC generator the exciter breaker, the the tie breaker. the exciter breaker and the generator breaker.
connected to the mains with another AC generator, the generator breaker and the generator breaker.
967 21 overexcitation protection device opens: the tie breaker.
When a persistent overexcitation fault is detected on only one AC tie breaker. generator breaker and exciter breaker and exciter breaker,
generator, the protection device opens the : tie breaker. generator breaker. generator breaker and
968 21 tie breaker.
When an underspeed fault is detected on an AC generator exciter breaker. exciter breaker and exciter breaker, generator breaker.
connected to the aircraft AC busbar, the protection device opens the: generator breaker. generator breaker and
969 21 tie breaker.

A DC generator fitted to a aircraft is cooled by : air tapped from the low air via a ram air intake. water at 8 degrees a fan located before the
pressure compressor. centrigade from the air- generator.
conditioning system.
970 21
The voltage regulator of a DC generator is connected in : series with the shunt series with the parallel with the shunt parallel with the
971 21 field coil. armature. field coil. armature.
On starting, in a brushless AC generator with no commutator rings, the stabilizer winding the auxiliary winding. a set of permanent the main field winding.
the generator is activated by: jointly with the voltage magnets.
972 21 regulator.

An impulse turbine is a turbine in which the expansion takes place: fully in the rotor. in the stator and in the in order to produce a fully in the stator.
rotor. degree of jet propulsion
973 21 < 1/2.
Landing gear torque links are used to: maintain the compass prevent rotation of the take up the lateral prevent the extension
heading throughout landing gear piston in stresses to which the of the landing gear oleo
taxiing and take-off. the oleo strut. gear is subjected. strut rod.
974 21
The function of a fusible plug is to protect against protect the tyre against protect the brake function as a special
excessive pressure in explosion due to against brake disk circuit breaker in the
the pneumatic system. excessive temperature. fusion due to excessive electric system
temperature.

975 21
On detection of a persistent overvoltage fault on an AC generator the exciter breaker and the exciter breaker, the The generator breaker The generator breaker.
connected to the aircraft AC busbars, the on-board protection device the generator breaker. generator breaker and and tie breaker.
976 21 opens: tie breaker.
The high Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths: metric. hectometric. myriametric. decimetric.
977 21
 In a piston engine, turbocharger boost pressure may be monitored both a CHT gauge and both engine rpm a manifold pressure a cylinder head
by : manifold pressure readings and a gauge only. temperature gauge
gauge. manifold pressure (CHT), a manifold
gauge. pressure gauge, and
engine rpm readings.
978 21
When a landing gear wheel is hydroplaning, its friction factor is equal 0.5 0 1 0.1
979 21 to:
The minimum airborne equipment required for operation of a the cathode-ray tube. VHF transmitter- VHF compass VHF receiver operating
VHF direction finder is a: receiver operating in operating in the 200 in the 118 MHz to 136
the 118 MHz to 136 kHz to 1750 kHz range. MHz range.
MHz range.
980 21
The secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) uses the following decimetric. centimetric. hectometric. myriametric.
981 21 wavelengths:
982 21 The airborne weather radar uses the following wavelengths: centimetric. metric. hectometric. myriametric.
983 21 The VHF Omnirange (VOR) uses the following wavelengths: metric. hectometric. decimetric. centimetric.
The Instrument Landing System (ILS) uses the following metric. hectometric. decimetric. centimetric.
984 21 wavelengths:
The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) uses the following hectometric. metric. centimetric. decimetric.
985 21 wavelengths:
986 21 The Fan Markers uses the following wavelengths: hectometric. myriametric. metric. centimetric.
A public transport aircraft is operated at FL 390. The total number of seats exceeded by seats. passengers. passengers exceeded
oxygen dispensing units and outlets in the cabin must be at least the 10%. by 10%.
987 21 same as the total number of :
The Microwave Landing System (MLS) uses the following myriametric. centimetric. metric. hectometric.
988 21 wavelengths:
Consider the flight deck oxygen supply system. The purpose of the 2, 3, 4, 5 3, 4, 5, 6 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 3, 4, 6
oxygen regulator (as a function of demand and altitude) is to:

1. decrease oxygen pressure from 1800 PSI (in the bottles) down to
about 50-75 PSI (low pressure system)
2. supply pure oxygen
3. supply diluted oxygen
4. supply oxygen at normal pressure
5. supply oxygen at emergency/positive pressure
6. trigger the continuous cabin altitude warning at 10000 ft cabin
altitude

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

989 21
The Low Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths: decimetric. metric. centimetric. myriametric.
990 21
 The Automatic Direction Finder uses the following wavelengths: decimetric. centimetric. hectometric or metric.
991 21 kilometric.
A thermal circuit breaker: forbids any overcurrent. can be reset without protects the system in is a protection system
any danger even if the the event of with a quick break
fault remains. overheating, even capacity of about one
without exceeding the hundredth of a second.
maximum permissible
current.
992 21
The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) has its own AC generator which: must have the same supplies the aircraft is driven at constant is excited by its
characteristics as the with three-phase 115- speed throught a Generator Control Unit
main AC generator so 200 V, 400 Hz AC. Constant Speed Drive (GCU) as soon as the
that it can be easily (CSD), in the same way APU starts up.
coupled with the latter. as the main AC
generator.
993 21
As regards the Generator Contol Unit (GCU) of an AC generator, it 2, 3 3, 4 2, 4 1, 3
can be said that:

1. The GCU controls the AC generator voltage

2. Modern GCUs are provided with a permanent indication to record
the failure
3. All the commands originating from the control panel are applied
via the GCU, except dog clutch release
4. The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) provides the excitation of the AC
generator as soon as the APU starts up

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

994 21
995 21 Hydraulic fluids of synthetic origin are: purple. pink. blue. red.
A magnetic circuit-breaker is: a protection system that permits an overcurrent can be reset without is a system with a slow
has a quick tripping limited in time. any danger even when response time.
996 21 response. fault remains.
 A tubeless tyre is a tyre: 1, 5, 6. 3, 4, 5. 1, 2, 5. 2, 3, 6.

1. which requires solid or branched wheels

2. whose valve can be sheared in sudden accelerations
3. whose mounting rim must be flawless
4. which requires no rim protection between rim flange and tire
removing device
5. which does not burst in the event of a tire puncture
6. which eliminates internal friction between the tube and the tire

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

997 21
The illumination of the green landing gear light indicates that the locked-down. in the required position. locked-down and its not in the required
998 21 landing gear is : door is locked. position.
999 21 The VHF direction finder uses the following wavelengths: centimetric. metric. hectometric. decimetric.
Oxygen systems are systems used on pressurized airplanes in : 1,4 1, 2, 4 3 2, 3

1. an emergency in the case of depressurization.

2. an emergency in the case of the indisposition of a passenger.
3. normal use in order to supply oxygen to the cabin.
5. an emergency in the case of smoke or toxic gases.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1000 21
Which is (are) the damping element(s) in a landing gear shock Springs. Nitrogen and a viscous Nitrogen. Oxygen.
1001 21 absorber used on larger aircraft ? liquid.
In some aircraft, there is a protection device to avoid the landing A bolt. A latch located in the An aural warning horn. A warning light which is
gear being inadvertently retracted on the ground. It consists of : landing gear lever. activated by the WOW
(Weight On Wheels)
sensor system.

1002 21
The function of the selector valve is to: select the system to automatically activate discharge some communicate system
which the hydraulic the hydraulic system. hydraulic fluid if the pressure to either side
pump should supply system pressure is too of an actuator.
pressure. high.
1003 21
The component that transforms the hydraulic pressure into a linear A hydraulic pump. An accumulator. A Pressure regulator. An actuator or jack.
1004 21 motion is called ...
The aircraft hydraulic system is designed to produce: small pressure and small pressure and high pressure and large high pressure and
1005 21 large flow. small flow. flow. small flow.
 A relay is : A switch specially An electrical energy An electromagnetically An electrical security
designed for AC conversion unit. operated switch. switch.
1006 21 circuits.
1007 21 The most widely used electrical frequency in aircraft is : 50 Hz. 60 Hz. 400 Hz. 200 Hz.
Assume a constant speed DC generator providing a constant output maintain the intensity of decrease the intensity increase the intensity of change the direction of
voltage. If the electrical load increases, the voltage regulator will : the excitation current of the excitation the excitation current. the excitation current.
1008 21 constant. current.

A main landing gear is said to be "locked down" when: the actuating cylinder is the corresponding the strut is locked by an it is in the down
at the end of it's travel. indicator lamp is amber. overcentre mechanism. position.
1009 21
In flight, if the constant speed drive (CSD) temperature indicator is in pilot must disconnect it pilot must disconnect it, pilot can disconnect it pilot has to throttle
the red arc the: and manually control and the generator is not to allow it to cool and back.
the alternator. available for the rest of use it again.
flight.
1010 21
Which of these signals are inputs, at least, in the stall warning Angle of attack and Angle of attack, flaps Angle of attack, flaps Angle of attack and
computers? flaps and spoilers deflection and EPR. deflection, EPR and flaps and slats
1011 21 deflection. N1. deflection.
Modern pressurized transport airplanes are equipped with : two oxygen systems only portable oxygen two independent only one oxygen
both supplying the bottles. oxygen systems, one system supplying the
cockpit and the cabin. supplying the cockpit, whole aircraft.
the other the cabin.
1012 21
When selected to normal, the oxygen proportion of the air/oxygen is constant whatever is 100 %. increases when the decreases when the
mixture supplied by the cockpit oxygen system regulator: the altitude. altitude increases. altitude increases.
1013 21
In the cabin, when the oxygen mask is pulled downwards, the a mixture of oxygen pure oxygen under pure oxygen at the cabin air under
1014 21 passenger breathes : and cabin air. pressure. ambient pressure. pressure.
Chemical oxygen generators are used to furnish oxygen to the : cockpit only. toilets only. cabin only. cockpit and the cabin.
1015 21
1016 21 The chemical oxygen generator supplies oxygen for about : 30 minutes. 2 hours. 5 minutes. 15 minutes.
The advantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger 2, 3, 5 1, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 4, 6 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
cabin are :

1. reduced weight and volume,

2. easy storage and maintenance,
3. greater autonomy,
4. no risk of explosion,
5. reversible functioning,
6. no maintenance.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1017 21
 The disadvantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger 2, 4 1, 2, 3, 5 1, 3, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
cabin are :

1. a flow which cannot be modulated,

2. a heavy and bulky system,
3. non reversible functioning,
4. risks of explosion,
5. poor autonomy.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1018 21
The state in which the breathing oxygen for the cockpit of jet Gaseous or chemical Gaseous. Chemical compound. Liquid.
1019 21 transport aeroplanes is stored is : compound..
The wavelength of a non-directional beacon (NDB) at a frequency of 10 metres. 1 metre. 1000 metres. 100 metres.
1020 21 300 kHz is:
The so-called "hot buses" or "direct buses" are: directly connected to kept in operating automatically providing an alternative
the battery. conditions by an connected to the current.
electrical resistance in battery if generators
the case of energy have failed.
failure.
1021 21
The purpose of static wick dischargers is to : be able to fly higher dissipate static charge dissipate static charge provide a path to
because of less of the aircraft inflight from the aircraft skin ground for static
electrical friction. thus avoiding radio after landing. charges when
interference as a result refuelling.
of static electricity.

1022 21
A tubeless tyre has : 2, 3. 1,3. 2, 4. 1, 4.

1- a built-in-air tube.
2- no built-in-air tube.
3- a crossed side casing.
4- a radial side casing.

The combination of correct statements is:

1023 21
(For this question use annex 021-4008A) impossible without possible with impossible because possible with
Reference should be made to the fuel sypply system shown in causing the APU stop. "CROSSFEED" open there is no fuel in "CROSSFEED" open
annex. and tank 2 pumps center tank. and tank 1 pumps
In flight, with center tank empty and APU operating, a fuel unbalance "OFF". "OFF" and tank 2
is detected (quantity in tank 1 < quantity in tank 2). pumps "ON".
Rebalancing of the two tanks is:

1024 21
 An aircraft with a pressurized cabin is settled at its cruise level. A descent must be The aircraft has to The crew has to DELTA P will rise up to
During the flight, a malfunction of the pressure controller is detected initiated to prevent the climb to a higher flight intermittently cut off the its maximum value,
by the crew and the cabin rate of climb indicator reads -200ft/min. oxygen masks dropping level in order to reduce incoming air flow in thus causing the safety
Given that : when Zc reaches Zc to its initial value. order to maintain a zero relief valves to open.
DELTA P: Differential pressure 14000ft. Zc.
Zc: Cabin altitude

1025 21
In a hydraulic braking system, the accumulator is: an accumulator a damping type designed to take up the a buffer accumulator
designed to restore accumulator designed hydraulic energy whose function is to
brake energy in the to take up the pressure filtered by the anti-skid assist the hydraulic
event of a hydraulic fluctuations of the system in order to system during high
failure. automatic braking prevent wheel blocking. intensity braking.
system.

1026 21
An aircraft with a pressurized cabin flies at level 310. VZc increase VZc decrease VZc increase VZc decrease
Following a malfunction of the pressure controller, the outflow valve Zc increase Zc increase Zc increase Zc decrease
runs to the open position. Given : DELTA P decrease DELTA P decrease DELTA P increase DELTA P increase

VZc: Cabin rate of climb indication

Zc: Cabin pressure altitude
DELTA P: Differential pressure

This will result in a:

1027 21
Consider a jet engine whose control is based on the Engine 2, 3, 4. 3, 4, 5. 1, 5. 1, 3.
Pressure Ratio (EPR):

1. with a constant EPR, the thrust decreases when the altitude

increases
2. with a constant EPR, the thrust is independent of the Mach
number
3. At same environmental conditions, a given EPR setting maintains
the thrust irrespective of engine wear due to ageing.
4. the EPR is determined by the impact pressure difference between
the turbine outlet and the compressor inlet
5. on take-off, in the event of icing not detected by the crew, the
indicated EPR is lower than the real EPR

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1028 21
 Consider the variable-pitch propeller of a turbo-prop. when braking, the at zero power, the when feathered, the with propeller
During deceleration : propeller supplies propeller thrust is zero propeller produces windmilling, the thrust is
negative thrust and and the engine power thrust and absorbs no zero and the propeller
absorbs engine power. absorbed is nil. engine power. supplies engine power.

1029 21
The water separator of an air-conditioning unit is located at the outlet and uses a inlet and uses a outlet and uses an inlet and uses an
1030 21 cooling unit : centrifugal process. centrifugal process. evaporation process. evaporation process.
Among the different types of aircraft structures, the shell structures 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 4 1, 3, 4 1, 2, 3
efficiently transmit the:

1. normal bending stresses

2. tangent bending stresses
3. torsional moment
4. shear stresses

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1031 21
In a steep turn to the left, when using spoilers ... The right aileron will The right aileron will The right aileron will The right aileron will
ascend, the left one will descend, the left one descend, the left one ascend, the left one will
descend, the right will ascend, the right will ascend, the right descend, the right
spoiler will retract and spoiler will retract and spoiler will extend and spoiler will extend and
the left one will extend. the left one will extend. the left one will retract. the left one will retract.

1032 21
The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer 1, 3. 1, 2, 4. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. 2, 4.
whose input data is:

1. idle wheel speed (measured)

2. braked wheel speed (measured)
3. brake temperature (measured)
4. desired idle wheel train slipping rate
5. tire pressure

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1033 21
A Yaw Damper is : A rudder damper An elevator augmentor. An elevator augmentor A roll trim tab.
designed to avoid the to avoid the nose-down
"Dutch roll". effect at speeds greater
than M=0.8.

1034 21
The type of windings commonly used in DC starter motors are : series wound. shunt wound. series shunt wound. compound wound.
1035 21
 The output of a generator is controlled by : varying the length of the reverse current varying the field varying the speed of
wire in the armature relay circuit breaker. strength. the engine.
1036 21 windings.
Fuses are rated to a value by : their wattage. their resistance the number of amperes the number of volts
measured in ohms. they will carry. they will pass.
1037 21
A relay is : a unit which is used to a device which is used a magnetically another name for a
convert electrical to increase electrical operated switch. solenoid valve.
energy to heat energy. power.
1038 21
1039 21 The voltage of a fully charged lead-acid battery cell is : 1,8 volts. 1,2 volts. 2,2 volts. 1,4 volts.
1040 21 Batteries are rated in : Amperes.hours. Amperes/volts. Watts. Ohms.
It may be determined that an aircraft is not properly bonded if : there is heavy corrosion static noises can be a circuit breaker pops there is interference on
on the fuselage skin heard on the radio. out. the VOR receiver.
mountings.
1041 21
In the response curve of an amplifier, the bandwidth is: The frequency band The frequency band The frequency band The frequency band
corresponding to corresponding to corresponding to corresponding to
maximum gain less 20 maximum gain, maximum gain less 3 maximum gain.
decibels. increased by 10 kHz at decibels.
each end.
1042 21
A smoke mask is a : continuous flow mask mask with flow on continuous flow mask mask with flow on
and covers the whole request and covers only and covers only the request and covers the
face. the nose and the nose and the mouth. whole face.
mouth.
1043 21
On a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure elements which the ribs. the webs. the skin. the spars.
1044 21 take up the vertical bending moments Mx are:
On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre: will have an increased will be more subject to will wear at the it's tread will deteriorate
critical hydroplanning viscosity aquaplaning shoulders faster
speed on dry runway
1045 21
When the magneto selector switch is set to "OFF" position, the A wire from the There are local hot On a magneto, a There is a carbon
piston engine continues to run normally. magneto is in contact points in the engine grounding wire is deposit on the spark
The most probable cause of this failure is that: with a metallic part of (probably due to broken. plugs electrodes.
the engine. overheating of the
cylinder heads).
1046 21
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating 6 hand fire- 5 hand fire- 7 hand fire- 8 hand fire-
configuration is 501 to 600 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers
conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in
the passenger the passenger the passenger the passenger
compartment. compartment. compartment. compartment.
1047 21
 An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating 7 hand fire- 6 hand fire- 8 hand fire- 9 hand fire-
configuration is greater than 600 seats must be equipped with at extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers
least: conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in
the passenger the passenger the passenger the passenger
compartment. compartment. compartment. compartment.
1048 21
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating 3 HALON 1211 fire- 2 HALON 1211 fire- 4 HALON 1211 fire- 1 HALON 1211 fire-
configuration is greater than 60 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguishers. extinguishers. extinguishers. extinguisher.
1049 21
Evacuation slide inflation is ensured by : a pressurized gas the aircraft's general a manual pump, used pressurized air from the
canister combined with pneumatic circuit. when needed by the air conditioning system.
1050 21 the slide itself. cabin crew.
Airliners are equipped with oxygen systems. It can be said that : the same circuit is used the seals must be the passenger circuit with setting on
by the crew and the carefully greased to never uses chemically "NORMAL", the crew
passengers. avoid sparks. generated oxygen. breathes a mixture of
oxygen / cabin air.
1051 21
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating 3 hand fire- 2 hand fire- 4 hand fire- 5 hand fire-
configuration is 61 to 200 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers
conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in
the passenger the passenger the passenger the passenger
compartment. compartment. compartment. compartment.
1052 21
An oxygen regulator has 3 controls : the "O2" lever on ON with the EMERGENCY the power lever on ON, the EMERGENCY lever
enables breathing of lever on OFF, in an and, the "O2" lever on on ON enables
- a power lever : ON/OFF the over-pressure emergency situation, NORMAL allows the breathing of pure
- an "O2" lever : NORMAL/100% oxygen at a constant one cannot use the oxygen to enter the oxygen at ambient
- an emergency lever : ON/OFF flow rate. oxygen mask to regulator and enables pressure.
breathe. breathing of a mixture
Among the following statements, the correct proposition is : of air/oxygen according
to altitude.

1053 21
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating 3 hand fire- 4 hand fire- 5 hand fire- 2 hand fire-
configuration is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers
conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in
the passenger the passenger the passenger the passenger
compartment. compartment. compartment. compartment.
1054 21
In a turbo-jet, the purpose of the turbine is to ... compress the air in drive devices like drive the compressor clear the burnt gases,
order to provide a pumps, regulator, by using part of the the expansion of which
better charge of the generator. energy from the provide the thrust
combustion chamber exhaust gases

1055 21
 The pitch angle of a propeller is the angle between the : reference chord line propeller reference propeller reference propeller plane of
and the propeller plane chord line and the chord line and the rotation and the relative
of rotation. relative airflow. extremity of the airflow.
propeller.
1056 21
A scissor is a component found on landing gears. Its function is to : make the body gears prevent any rotation of create the wheel pitch transform the
pivot when the the oleo strut in the on bogie gears. translational movement
nosewheel is turned undercarriage shock of the rudder pedals
through more than 20°. absorber. into the rotational
movement of the
nosewheel.
1057 21
For an aeroplane hydraulic supply circuit, the correct statement is : the regulation system the reservoir constitutes the security the pumps are always
deals only with a reserve of hydraulic components comprise electric due to the high
emergency operation fluid maintained under the filters, the pressure pressures which they
and is not applied to all pressure by a relief valves, the by- must deliver (140 to
hydraulic services but pneumatic back passes, and the fire 210 kg/cm²).
only those considered pressure (air or shut-off valve.
as essential. nitrogen) and destined
to serve as a fluid or
pressure reserve.

1058 21
When in flight, a piston engine is stopped and the propeller blade feathered. windmilling. transparent. at zero drag.
1059 21 pitch angle is near 90°, the propeller is said to be...
A public transport passengers aircraft, with a seating configuration of 1 halon fire- 3 halon fire- no halon fire- 2 halon fire-
more than 61 seats, must have in its passenger compartment(s), at extinguisher. extinguishers. extinguisher. extinguishers.
least 3 portable fire-extinguishers including:
1060 21
In very cold weather, the pilot notices during startup, a slightly higher is normal, if it is abnormal and is abnormal but does requires an oil change.
than normal oil pressure. decreases after startup. requires the engine to not require the engine
This higher pressure : be shut down. to be shut down.
1061 21
On a modern aeroplane, to avoid the risk of tyre burst from a hollow bolt screwed a pressure relief valve the "Emergency Burst" water injection
overheating, due for example to prolonged braking during an aborted into the wheel which situated in the filler function of the anti-skid triggered at a fixed
take-off, there is: melts at a given valve. system which adapts temperature in order to
temperature (thermal braking to the tyre lower tyre temperature.
fuse) and deflates the temperature.
tyre.
1062 21
The indication of the fire detection systems is performed by a: warning light and a warning bell. warning light. gear warning.
warning bell (or aural
1063 21 alert).
 The purpose of a battery protection unit is generally to isolate the 1 - 2 -3 1-2 1 - 2 - 3 -4 1
battery:

1 - from the bus when the battery charge is deemed satisfactory

2 - when there is a battery overheat condition
3 - in case of an internal short circuit
4 - in case of a fault on the ground power unit

The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :

1064 21
On an aeroplane, spoilers are : upper wing surface lower wing surface upper wing surface lower wing surface
devices, their deflection devices, their deflection devices, their deflection devices, their deflection
is always asymmetrical. is always asymmetrical. is symmetrical or is symmetrical or
asymmetrical. asymmetrical.

1065 21
The disadvantages of axial flow compressors compared to 2-3 2-4 1-3 1-2
centrifugal flow compressors are :

1 - expensive to manufacture
2 - limited airflow
3 - greater vulnerability to foreign object damage
4 - limited compression ratio

The combination of correct answers is :

1066 21
On an airplane, the Krueger flaps are: leading edge flaps leading edge flaps trailing edge flaps close trailing edge flaps close
1067 21 close to the wing tip close to the wing root to the wing root to the wing tip
When a bimetallic strip is used as a switch in a fire detection loop, a delay the triggering of wait for the triggering of avoid false alarms in allow temperatures to
fire alarm is triggered after a delay. The purpose of this delay is to: the fire extinguinshers the second fire case of vibrations equalise
and increase their detection loop in order
efficiency to confirm the fire

1068 21
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating 6 hand fire- 3 hand fire- 5 hand fire- 4 hand fire-
configuration is 301 to 400 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers
conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in
the passenger the passenger the passenger the passenger
compartment. compartment. compartment. compartment.
1069 21
 Compared to a tyre fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless tyre presents 2 - 3 2-4 1-2-3-4 3-4
the following characteristics :

1 - high heating
2 - valve fragility
3 - lower risk of bursting
4 - better adjustment to wheels

The combination containing all the correct statements is:

1070 21
On a a normally aspirated engine (non turbo-charged), the manifold a value equal to the a lower value than a greater value than zero on the ground
pressure gauge always indicates... QFE when the engine atmospheric pressure atmospheric pressure when the engine is
is at full power on the when the engine is when the engine is stopped.
ground. running. running.
1071 21
A stage in an axial compressor: is made of row of stator has a compression is made of a rotor disc has a compression ratio
blades followed by a ration in the order of 0.8 followed by a row of in the order of 2.1
rotor disc stator blades
1072 21
For a fan jet engine, the by-pass ratio is the: external airflow mass internal airflow mass internal airflow mass fuelflow mass divided
divided by the internal divided by the external divided by the fuelflow by the internal airflow
1073 21 airflow mass airflow mass mass mass
The low pressure switch of a hydraulic circuit sets off an alarm if : the pump output the reservoir level is at there is a leak in the the pump power
pressure is insufficient. the normal operation reservoir return line. accumulator is deflated.
1074 21 limit.
(For this question use annex 021-10164A) the C2 and C4 sensors the C1 and C2 sensors the C1 and C3 sensors only one sensor detects
The smoke detection in the aircraft cargo compartments is carried detect smoke. detect smoke. detect smoke. smoke.
out by four sensors: C1, C2, C3 and C4.
They are associated with the logic circuit as described in the annex.
The repeating bell is activated when:

1075 21
Concerning the sequential pneumatic impulses used in certain 2-4 1-3 1-4 2-3
leading edge de-icing devices, one can affirm that :

1 - They prevent ice formation.

2 - They are triggered from the flight deck after icing has become
visible.
3 - A cycle lasts more than ten seconds.
4 - There are more than ten cycles per second.

The combination which regroups all the correct statements is :

1076 21
 An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating 2 hand fire- 3 hand fire- 4 hand fire- 1 hand fire-extinguisher
configuration is 7 to 30 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers conveniently located in
conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in the passenger
the passenger the passenger the passenger compartment.
compartment. compartment. compartment.
1077 21
In the pneumatic supply system of a modern transport aircraft, the air intermediate pressure low pressure bleed air high pressure bleed air fan bleed air valve
pressure is regulated. This pressure regulation occurs just before the check-valve valve valve
1078 21 manifold by the :

Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a multi-engine aircraft centrifugal high high pressure variable centrifugal low pressure low pressure variable
are: pressure pumps. swash plate pumps. type pumps. swash plate pumps.
1079 21
During a power change on an engine equipped with a constant high manifold pressure low manifold pressure high manifold pressure low manifold pressure
speed propeller, a wrong combination of manifold pressure and RPM and high RPM. and low RPM. and low RPM. and high RPM.
values results in excessive pressures in the cylinders. This is the
case when one simultaneously selects a ...

1080 21
The thrust of a turbo-jet, at the selection of full power : 4 1-3 1-2 2-3

1 - equals the product of the exhaust gas mass flow and the exhaust
gas velocity
2 - is obtained by pressure of the exhaust gas on the ambient air
3 - is equivalent to zero mechanical power since the aeroplane is not
moving
4 - is independant of the outside air temperature

The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :

1081 21
The use of igniters is necessary on a turbo-jet: 3-4-5-6 3 2-3-4 1

1 - throughout the operating range of the engine

2 - for accelerations
3 - for ground starts
4 - for in-flight relights
5 - during turbulence in flight
6 - under heavy precipitation or in icing conditions

The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :

1082 21
 Spark plug fouling is more likely to happen if : the aircraft descends power is increased too the engine runs at the the aircraft climbs
without a mixture abruptly. authorized maximum without mixture
adjustment. continuous power for adjustment.
too long.
1083 21
"Vapor lock" is the phenomenon by which: abrupt and abnormal burnt gas plugs forming heat produces vapour water vapour plugs are
enrichment of the and remaining in the plugs in the fuel line. formed in the intake
fuel/air mixture exhaust manifold fuel line following the
following an following an overheat condensation of water
inappropriate use of and thereby disturbing in fuel tanks which have
carburettor heat. the exhaust. not been drained for
sometime.

1084 21
The tanks of a hydraulic system are pressurized: in flight only. by the air conditioning by an auxiliary system. by bleed air coming
system. from the turbine-
1085 21 engine.
The installation and use of on-board oxygen generators is such that: 2 - 3 2-4 1-3 1-4

1 - the smoking ban is imperative when used

2 - in case of accidental drop of the "continuous flow" passenger
masks, no crew action is required
3 - no trace of grease must be found in the system assembly
4 - the system's filling adaptors must be greased with non freezable
or graphite grease

The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :

1086 21
The cross-feed fuel system enables: the supply of any jet the supply of the jet the supply of the only the transfer of fuel
engine from any fuel engines mounted on a outboard jet engines from the centre tank to
tank. wing from any fuel tank from any outboard fuel the wing tanks.
within that wing. tank.
1087 21
In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be emergency. on demand. 100% normal.
1088 21 set to:
(For this question use appendix ) 1- cantilever 2- dual 1- half-fork 2- single 1- cantilever 2- fork 1- half fork 2- fork 3-
wheels 3- half fork trace 3- cantilever 4- 3- half fork 4- dual cantilever 4- tandem
Associate the correct legend to each of the numbered diagrams : 4- fork dual wheels wheels

1089 21
 In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, during and following an emergency 1,4. 1, 2, 3 et 4. 1, 2. 1, 2, 4.
descent, each occupant of the cockpit seats on duty must have
access to a minimum amount of oxygen in:

1. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where

the cabin altitude pressure is greater than 13000 ft.
2. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where
the cabin altitude pressure is greater than 10000 ft and smaller than
13000 ft minus 30 minutes.
3. no case less than 30 minutes for airplanes certified to fly up to
25000 ft.
4. no case less than 2 hours for airplanes certified to fly at over
25000 ft.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1090 21
The connection in parallel of two 12 volt/ 40 amphours batteries, will 12 volt / 40 amp hours 24 volt / 80 amp hours 24 volt / 40 amp hours 12 volt / 80 amp hours
1091 21 create a unit with the following characteristics;
The global output of a piston engine is of: 0.50 0.75 0.90 0.30
(global output = Thermal energy corresponding to the available
1092 21 shaft/power over the total thermal energy produced).
For a piston engine, the ideal fuel/air mixture corresponding to a 1/9 th 1/10th 1/12th 1/15 th
richness of 1 is obtained for a weight ratio of:
1093 21
(For this question use appendix ) 1 2 3 4

On the attached diagram showing the power output of a piston

engine as a function of mixture richness, best economy is at the
point marked:
1094 21
In a piston engine, magnetos are used to produce the spark which accumulating in a creating a brief high breaking the primary obtaining a high amp
ignites the fuel/air mixture. The operating principle of magnetos condenser a low volt intensity magnetic field current in order to low volt current in order
consists in : current from the battery, which will be sent induce a low amp high to generate the spark.
reconstitute it as high through the distributor volt current which is
voltage current at the at the appropriate time. distributed to the spark
moment the spark is plugs.
generated.

1095 21
From the cruise, with all the parameters correctly set, if the altitude is remain the same increase or decrease, increase decrease
reduced, to maintain the same mixture the fuel flow should: depending on the
1096 21 engine type
 The richness of a fuel/air mixture ratio is the : mass of fuel relative to volume of fuel relative volume of fuel relative real mixture ratio
the volume of air. to the volume of air. to the mass of the relative to the
1097 21 volume of air. theoretical ratio.
The frequency of the current provided by an alternator depends on... its phase balance its rotation speed the strength of the its load
1098 21 excitation current
The advantage of mounting the tailplane on top of the vertical to decrease fuel to withdraw it from the to a have greater that it does not require
stabilizer is : consumption by influence of wing effectiveness at high a de-icing system
creating a tail heavy turbulence speed
situation
1099 21
The resistors R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The value of the Req = R1 + R2 Req = R1 x R2 1/Req = 1/(R1 + R2) 1/Req = 1/R1 + 1/R2
equivalent resistance (Req) so obtained is given by the following
1100 21 formula:
The function of the Generator Breaker is to close when the voltage of battery is greater than generator is greater battery is greater than alternator is greater
the : the alternator voltage than battery voltage the generator voltage than the battery voltage
and to open when the and to open when the and to open when the and to open when the
opposite is true opposite is true opposite is true opposite is true

1101 21
Using compressor bleed air to power systems: has no influence on increases aircraft is limited to the phases decreases aircraft
aircraft performance performance of take-off and landing performance
1102 21
The control of free turbine engines on turboprops, is accomplished 3-4-6 2-4-5 1-5-6 1-3-5
by:

- a propeller control lever used to select:

1 - propeller RPM
2 - turbine temperature
3 - turbine RPM

- a fuel control lever used to select:

4 - propeller RPM
5 - torque
6 - turbine temperature

The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :

1103 21
With a piston engine, when detonation is recognised, you: Reduce manifold Reduce manifold Increase manifold Increase manifold
pressure and enrich the pressure and lean the pressure and enrich the pressure and lean the
1104 21 mixture mixture mixture mixture
 An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating 3 hand fire- 5 hand fire- 6 hand fire- 4 hand fire-
configuration is 201 to 300 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers
conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in
the passenger the passenger the passenger the passenger
compartment. compartment. compartment. compartment.
1105 21
With engine fire alarm activated, the extinguisher discharge: is automatic and is automatic after a does not need the is the pilot's task
immediate delay to allow the pilot engine to be stopped
to stop the engine
1106 21
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an airplane whose maximum take- crash axe in the cockpit crow-bar in the cockpit crash axe or a crow-bar crash axe and a crow-
off mass exceeds 5 700 kg or whose maximum approved passenger and a crow-bar in the and a crash axe in the in the pilot bar in the passenger
seating configuration is greater than 9 seats and smaller than 200 passenger passenger compartment. compartment.
seats must be equipped with a: compartment. compartment.
1107 21
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an airplane must be equipped with 1,86 m. 1,89 m. 1,83 m. 1,80 m.
equipment or systems at each emergency exit that allow to reach the
ground safely in the case of an emergency when the sill height of the
passenger emergency exit is higher than:
1108 21
The main feature of BCF fire extinguishers is that they : are highly corrosive act as flame inhibitors use the cooling effect are electrical
particularly for by absorbing the air's created by the venturi conductors.
aluminium alloys. oxygen. during discharge.
1109 21
In the propagation of MF waves, the phenomenon of FADING is at night, due to the by day, due to the at night and when by day and when
particularly found : combination of the sky combination of sky and raining. raining.
and ground waves. ground waves.
1110 21
(Use the appendix to answer this question) free turbine and free turbine and axial single shaft turbine and single shaft turbine and
centrifugal compressor compressor centrifugal compressor axial compressor
The gas turbine illustrated is of the following type:
1111 21
A piston engine may use a fuel of a different grade than the provided that the grade never provided that it is an provided that the grade
1112 21 recommended: is lower aeronautical petrol is higher
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating 5 hand fire- 7 hand fire- 8 hand fire- 6 hand fire-
configuration is 401 to 500 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers
conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in
the passenger the passenger the passenger the passenger
compartment. compartment. compartment. compartment.
1113 21
The portable emergency beacons which are used after an 12 h 72 h 48 h 24 h
1114 21 emergency landing or ditching have a duration of :
 The pyrotechnic means used in case of an emergency to indicate and a smoke device which is used at and a smoke device which is used at night
your position to the emergency teams are a flare: which are only used at daytime and a smoke which are only used in and a smoke device
night. device which is used at the daytime. which is used in the
night. daytime.
1115 21
The correct statement about rain protection for cockpit windshields is the alcohol de-icing rain repellent should wipers are sufficient the electric de-icing
that : system for cockpit never be sprayed onto under heavy rain system for cockpit
windows is also the windshield unless conditions to provide windows is also
suitable for rain the rainfall is very adequate view through suitable for rain
protection heavy the cockpit windows. protection

1116 21
INSTRUMENTATION - AEROPLANES
The red pointer which is normally on the red line on the EGT allows the display of the shows the vibration moves when the shows the limit value
(Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicators: parameter value to be level of the engine corresponding value is not to be exceeded.
adopted during take-off. under consideration. exceeded and remains
positioned at the
maximum value that
has been reached.

1117 22
A landing will be considered to be performed in the SEMI- 3, 4 and 5. 1 and 4. 2, 3 and 5. 1 and 2.
AUTOMATIC mode when:
1- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the
decision height is reached then is disengaged automatically.
2- the autothrottle maintains a constant speed until the decision
height is reached then is disengaged automatically.
3- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the
flare.
4- the autothrottle decreases the thrust when the height is
approximately 30 ft.
5- the flare and the ground roll are performed automatically.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1118 22
When using the autopilot, the function of the pitch channel automatic 1 and 2. 1, 2 and 3. 3. 1 and 3.
trim is to:

1- cancel the hinge moment of the elevator

2- ease as much as possible the load of the servo-actuator
3- restore to the pilot a correctly trimmed airplane during the
autopilot disengagement

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1119 22
 Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the 1, 3, 4 and 5. 3, 4 and 5. 1, 2, and 6. 1, 2, 3 and 6.
airplane guidance are:

1- pitch attitude holding

2- horizontal wing holding
3- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding
4- altitude holding
5- VOR axis holding
6- yaw damping

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1120 22
Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the 2, 4, and 5. 1, 2 and 5. 1, 2, 3 and 6. 3, 4, 5 and 6.
airplane stabilization are:

1- pitch attitude holding

2- horizontal wing holding
3- displayed heading or inertial track holding
4- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding
5- yaw damping
6- VOR axis holding

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1121 22
A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the read a little high. read a little low. freeze at zero. react like an altimeter.
1122 22 static port open causes the airspeed indicator to :
A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect airspeed indicator, airspeed indicator only. altimeter only. vertical speed indicator
the following instrument (s) : altimeter and vertical only.
1123 22 speed indicator.
1124 22 The altimeter is fed by : differential pressure static pressure dynamic pressure total pressure
1125 22 The vertical speed indicator (VSI) is fed by : differential pressure static pressure dynamic pressure total pressure
The float type fuel gauges provide information on: mass whose indication mass whose indication volume whose volume whose
varies with the is independent of the indication varies with indication is
temperature of the fuel. temperature of the fuel. the temperature of the independent of the
fuel. temperature of the fuel.

1126 22
Torque can be determined by measuring the : oil pressure at the fixed phase difference frequency of an impulse quantity of light passing
crown of an epicycloidal between 2 impulse tachometer attached to through a rack-wheel
reducer of the main tachometers attached a transmission shaft. attached to a
engine gearbox. to a transmission shaft. transmission shaft.

1127 22
A "close traffic advisory" is displayed on the display device of the a blue or white full a red full square. a blue or white empty an orange full circle.
1128 22 TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by : lozenge. lozenge.
 A "resolution advisory" (RA) is represented on the display system of blue or white empty red full circle. red full square. blue or white full
the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by a : lozenge. lozenge.
1129 22
An "intruding traffic advisory" is represented on the display system of a red full square. a yellow full circle. a blue or white empty a blue or white full
the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by displaying : lozenge. lozenge.
1130 22
On a TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) the preventive that advises the pilot to asking the pilot to asking the pilot to asking the pilot to
"resolution advisory" (RA) is a "resolution advisory": avoid certain deviations modify effectively the modify the heading of modify the speed of his
from the current vertical vertical speed of his his aircraft. aircraft.
rate but does not aircraft.
require any change to
be made to that rate.

1131 22
On a TCAS2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System), a corrective asking the pilot to which does not require asking the pilot to asking the pilot to
"resolution advisory" (RA) is a "resolution advisory": modify effectively the any action from the pilot modify the heading of modify the speed of his
vertical speed of his but on the contrary his aircraft. aircraft.
aircraft. asks him not to modify
his current vertical
speed rate.

1132 22
When only one autopilot is used for climbing, cruising and approach, "fail survival" or without "fail safe" with failure "fail soft" or with "fail passive" or without
the system is considered: failure effect with effect without minimized failure effect. failure effect but with
function always disconnection. disconnection.
ensured.
1133 22
The Altitude Select System: Disengages autopilot Is annunciated by light Illuminates a light when Engages autopilot Auto
Auto Trim at selected and/or sound when selected altitude is Trim at selected altitude
altitude airplane is approaching attained
selected altitude

1134 22
The purpose of Auto Trim function in autopilot is to : tell the pilot when trim throttles to obtain control elevator trim tab help Auto Pilot
elevator trimming is smooth engine power in order to relieve compensate for
1135 22 required variation elevator load crosswind influence
The purpose of Auto Throttle is: automatic shut down of to deactivate manual to synchronize engines to maintain constant
one engine at too high throttles and transfer to avoid "yawing" engine power or
temperature engine control to Auto airplane speed
Pilot
1136 22
The capacity fuel gauges provide information: on mass whose on mass whose which is independent of which varies with the
indication is indication varies with the temperature of the temperature of the fuel.
independent of the the temperature of the fuel.
temperature of the fuel. fuel.

1137 22
 The diagram on annex 022-648A shows three gyro assemblies: A, B 1C, 2B, 3A 1B, 2A, 3C 1A, 2B, 3C 1B, 2C, 3A
and C. Among these gyros,
-one is a roll gyro (noted 1)
-one is a pitch gyro (noted 2)
-one is a yaw gyro (noted 3)
The correct matching of gyros and assemblies is:
1138 22
An autopilot capable of holding at least altitude and heading mode is for IFR or night flights on multipilot airplanes. for VFR and IFR flights on airplanes over 5.7 t.
compulsory: with only one pilot. with only one pilot.
1139 22
If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent gradually indicate zero under-read indicate a height continue to display the
the instrument will: equivalent to the setting reading at which the
on the millibar subscale blockage occured
1140 22
The primary factor which makes the servo-assisted altimeter more a sub-scale logarithmic an induction pick-off more effective combination of
accurate than the simple pressure altimeter is the use of: function device temperature counters/pointers
compensating leaf
springs
1141 22
If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb, continue to indicate the under-read by an over-read gradually return to zero
the instrument will: reading at which the amount equivalent to
blockage occured the reading at the time
that the instrument
became blocked

1142 22
If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked read zero continue to indicate the under-read over-read
during a descent the instrument will: speed applicable to that
at the time of the
blockage
1143 22
When climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause, in decrease increase at a linear rate remain constant increase at an
ISA conditions, the Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) will: exponential rate
1144 22
For a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) and a level flight, a fall in lower True Airspeed lower True Airspeed higher True Airspeed higher True Airspeed
ambient temperature will result in a: (TAS) due to a (TAS) due to an (TAS) due to a (TAS) due to an
decrease in air density increase in air density decrease in air density increase in air density
1145 22
When descending through an isothermal layer at a constant decrease increase at a linear rate remain constant increase at an
1146 22 Calibrated Airspeed (CAS), the True Airspeed (TAS) will: exponential rate
A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurized aircraft to under-read. over-read. over-read in a climb under-read in a climb
an airspeed indicator would cause it to: and under-read in a and over-read in a
1147 22 descent. descent.
 The airspeed indicator circuit consists of pressure sensors. The pitot the total pressure the static pressure the total pressure and the dynamic pressure
tube directly supplies: the static pressure
1148 22
An aeroplane is in steady climb. The autothrottle maintains a decreases. remains constant. decreases if the static increases.
constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature remains temperature is lower
constant, the Mach number : than the standard
temperature.

1149 22
The indications on a directional gyroscope or gyrocompass are 2,3,5. 1,2,3,5. 3,4,5. 1,2,4,5.
subject to errors, due to:

1- rotation of Earth.
2- aeroplane motion on Earth.
3- lateral and transversal aeroplane bank angles.
4- north change.
5- mechanical defects.

Chose the combination with true statements only:

1150 22
For an aircraft flying a true track of 360° between the 005°S and depends only on the 0°/hour +5°/hour -5°/hour
005°N parallels, the precession error of the directional gyro due to aircraft's ground speed
1151 22 apparent drift is equal to:

While inertial platform system is operating on board an aircraft, it is without damping and a with damping and a with damping and a without damping and a
necessary to use a device with the following characteristics, in order period of about 84 period of 84 seconds period of about 84 period of about 84
to keep the vertical line with a pendulous system: seconds minutes. minutes
1152 22
In order to align a strapdown inertial unit, it is required to insert the Position the computing Check operation of Determine magnetic or Re-erect laser gyros.
local geographical coordinates. This is necessary to: trihedron with reference laser gyros. true heading.
to earth.
1153 22
An automatic pilot is a system which can ensure the functions of: piloting from take-off to piloting and guidance of piloting only. navigation.
landing without any an aircraft in both the
action from the human horizontal and vertical
pilot. planes.
1154 22
An aeroplane is equipped with a Flight Director (with crosshair trend deviates to its right stop deviates to the right deviates to the right disappears, the new
bars), heading 270°, in HDG mode (heading hold). A new heading, of as long as the and will be centred as and remains in that heading selection has
360°, is selected the vertical trend bar : aeroplane is more than soon as you roll the position until the aircraft deactivated the HDG
10° off the new aircraft to the bank has reached heading mode.
selected heading. angle calculated by the 360°.
flight director.
1155 22
 Alarms are standardised and follow a code of colours. Those flashing red amber red green
requiring action but not immediately, are signalled by the colour:
1156 22
Among the errors of a magnetic compass, are errors: in North seeking, due due to cross-wind due to Schüler type of parallax, due to
to bank angle and gusts particularly on oscillations oscillations of the
magnetic heading westerly or easterly compass rose
headings
1157 22
On an aeroplane equipped with a constant speed propeller, the RPM control of power. selection of engine on a twin-engine control of the propeller
indicator enables : RPM. aeroplane, automatic regulator and the
engine synchronisation. display of propeller
RPM.
1158 22
A stall warning system is based on a measure of : groundspeed. aerodynamic incidence. airspeed. attitude.
1159 22
When the auto-pilot is engaged; the role of the automatic trim is to: relieve the pressure on react to altitude synchronize the relieve the A.P. servo
the control column and changes in Altitude longitudinal loop motor and return the
return, the aircraft in- Hold mode aircraft in-trim at A.P.
trim at A.P. disconnect disconnect

1160 22
The command functions of an autopilot include, among others, the 2-3-4 1-2-5 1-2-3-5 3-5
holding of :

1- vertical speed
2- altitude
3- attitude
4- bank
5- heading

The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :

1161 22
Machmeter readings are subject to: temperature error. setting error. position pressure error density error.
1162 22
Sound propagates through the air at a speed which only depends on temperature and the pressure. density. temperature.
1163 22 : pressure.
 The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) releases a warning 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 4, 5, 6 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 3, 4, 5, 6
in the following cases :

1- excessive rate of descent

2- excessive ground proximity rate
3- loss of altitude after take-off or go-around
4- abnormal gear/flaps configuration
5- excessive deviation under the glidepath
6- abnormal airbrakes configuration

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1164 22
In order to know in which mode the autothrottles are engaged, the ND (Navigation TCC (Thrust Control throttles position. PFD (Primary Flight
1165 22 crew will check the : Display). Computer). Display)
According to the JAR-OPS regulations, the Cockpit Voice Recorder 1,2,3,4,5,6 1 1,3,4,5 1,2,4,5,6
of a 50 seat multi-engined aircraft having been granted the
airworthiness certificate after 1st April 1998 will record:

1- the radiotelephonic communications transmitted or received by

the cockpit crew
2- the audio environment of the cockpit
3- the cabin attendants communications in the cabin via the
interphone
4- the flight crew members communications in the cockpit via the
interphone
5- the flight crew members communications in the cockpit via the
public address system
6- the audio signals identifiying the navigation or approach aids

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

1166 22
According to the JAR-OPS regulations, the Cockpit Voice Recorder Automatically when the From the first radio When the pilot selects Automatically prior to
of a 50 seat multi-engined aircraft, having been granted an wheels leave the contact with Air Traffic the "CVR: ON" during the aircraft moving
airworthiness certificate after 1st April 1998, shall start recording : ground until the Control until radio engine start until the under its own power
moment when the shutdown after the pilot selects the "CVR: until flight completion
wheels touch the flight. OFF" during the engine when the aircraft is no
ground again. shut down. longer able to move
under its own power.

1167 22
 The TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides : 1, 2, 3 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 3 1, 2

1- traffic information (TA: Traffic Advisory)

2- horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)
3- vertical resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)
4- ground proximity warning

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1168 22
The aim of the flight director is to provide information to the pilot: allowing him to return to allowing him to return to allowing him to return to about his position with
a desired path a desired path a desired path in an regard to a radioelectric
according to a 45° according to a 30° optimal way. axis.
intercept angle. intercept angle.
1169 22
(For this question use annex 022-9768A) located to the leftside of located to the rightside experiencing rightside experiencing a leftside
An aircraft is under guidance mode following a VOR radial. From the the selected radial. of the selected radial. wind. wind.
ADI and HSI information represented in the enclosed annex, it is
possible to deduce that the aircraft is :
1170 22
The correction of the control surface deflection made by the 1,2. 1, 2, 3, 4. 1, 2, 3. 2, 3, 4.
automatic pilot calculator in order to stabilize the longitudinal attitude
will be all the more significant as the :

1- difference between the reference attitude and the instantaneous

attitude is high.
2- rate of change of the difference between the reference attitude
and the instantaneous attitude is high.
3- temperature is low.
4- pressure altitude is high.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1171 22
 The correction of the control surface deflection made by the auto- 1, 2, 3 and 4. 1 and 2. 3 and 4. 1, 2 and 3.
pilot calculator in order to keep a given altitude will be all the more
significant when the :

1- difference between the attitude necessary to keep the given or

reference altitude and the instantaneous attitude is high.
2 - variation speed of the difference between the attitude necessary
to maintain the altitude and the instantaneous attitude is high.
3 - difference between the altitude of reference and the
instantaneous altitude is high.
4 - variation speed of the difference between the reference altitude
and the instantaneous altitude is high.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

1172 22
(For this question use annex 022-9771A) 781.85 hPa. 942.13 hPa. 1 013.25 hPa. 644.41 hPa.
The atmospheric pressure at FL 70 in a "standard + 10" atmosphere
1173 22 is:
The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a system working 30 ft to 5 000 ft the ground to 500 ft 50 ft to 2 500 ft the ground to 1 000 ft
1174 22 according to a height span ranging from :
All the anemometers are calibrated according to: Bernouilli's limited St-Venant's formula Bernouilli's limited St-Venant' formula
formula which takes which considers the air formula which which takes into
into account the air as an uncompressible considers the air as an account the air
compressibility. fluid. uncompressible fluid. compressibility.

1175 22
In the building principle of a gyroscope, the best efficiency is close to the axis and on the periphery and close to the axis and on the periphery and
obtained through the concentration of the mass : with a low rotation with a high rotation with a high rotation with a low rotation
1176 22 speed. speed. speed. speed.

The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is: 644 kt. 332 kt. 661 kt. 1059 kt.
1177 22
In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated lower than the true equal to the true independent of the true higher than the true
1178 22 airspeed (CAS) is : airspeed (TAS). airspeed (TAS). airspeed (TAS). airspeed (TAS).
 The GPWS calculator receives the following signals : 2,3,4,6 1,2,4,5 1,3,4,5,6 1,2,5,6

1 - vertical speed
2 - radio altimeter height
3 - pressure altitude
4 - glidepath deviation
5 - gear and flaps position
6 - angle of attack

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1179 22
The GPWS calculator is able to operate in the following modes : 1,2,4,6,7 3,4,5,6 2,3,5,7 1,2,5,6,7

1- excessive descent rate

2- excessive rate of terrain closure
3- excessive angle of attack
4- too high descent attitude
5- loss of altitude after take-off
6- abnormal gear/flaps configuration
7- excessive glidepath deviation

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1180 22
The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is active for a height 50 ft to 5 000 ft 50 ft to 2 500 ft 0 ft to 2 500 ft 0 ft to 5 000 ft
range from: measured by the radio measured by the radio measured by the radio measured by the radio
1181 22 altimeter. altimeter. altimeter. altimeter.
For capturing and keeping a preselected magnetic heading, the flight 1,2,4 2,3,4 1,3,4 1,2,3
director computer takes into account:

1- track deviation
2- rate of track closure
3- rate of change of track closure
4- wind velocity given by the inertial reference unit

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1182 22
 The TCAS 1 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides : 1, 2, 3 1, 2, 3, 4 1 1, 2

1- traffic information
2- horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)
3- vertical resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)
4- ground proximity warning

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1183 22
The angle of attack transmitter provides an electric signal varying 1, 2 and 3. 1. 2 and 3. 1 and 3.
with:

1- the angular position of a wind vane

2- the deviation between the airplane flight attitude and the path
calculated by the inertial unit
3- a probe differential pressure depending on the variation of the
angle of attack

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1184 22
In a selected axis capture mode, the autopilot gives a bank attitude proportional to the of a fixed value equal to of a fixed value equal to proportional to the
input : deviation between the 27°. 20°. aircraft true airspeed
selected heading and but not exceeding a
the current heading but given value.
not exceeding a given
value.

1185 22
In transport airplanes, the temperatures are generally measured with 1, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 5 2, 3 1, 2
:

1- resistance thermometers
2- thermocouple thermometers
3- reactance thermometers
4- capacitance thermometers
5- mercury thermometers

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1186 22
 The QNH is by definition the value of the: altimeter setting so that atmospheric pressure altimeter setting so that atmospheric pressure
the needles indicate at the level of the the needles of the at the sea level of the
zero when the aircraft is ground overflown by altimeter indicate the location for which it is
on ground at the the aircraft. altitude of the location given.
location for which it is for which it is given.
provided.

1187 22
A synchroscope is used on aircraft to: reduce the vibration of reduce the rpm of each achieve optimum set several engines to
each engine. engine. control of on-board the same speed.
1188 22 voltages.

A landing will be considered to be performed in the AUTOMATIC 1 and 2. 2, 3 and 5. 1 and 4. 3, 4 and 5.
mode when:
1- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the
decision height is reached then is disengaged automatically.
2- the autothrottle maintains a constant speed until the decision
height is reached then is disengaged automatically.
3- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the
flare.
4- the autothrottle decreases the thrust when the height is
approximately 30 ft.
5- the flare and the ground roll are performed automatically.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1189 22
When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a transponder without "traffic advisory" and "traffic advisory", "traffic advisory" only. "traffic advisory" and
altitude reporting capability, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance horizontal "resolution vertical and horizontal vertical "resolution
System) issues a : advisory". "resolution advisory". advisory".
1190 22
In automatic landing mode, when the 2 autopilots are used, the "fail survival" or without "fail soft" or with "fail passive" or without "fail hard" or with failure
system is considered: failure effect with minimized failure effect. failure effect but with effect and
function always disconnection. disconnection.
ensured.
1191 22
In automatic landing mode, in case of failure of one of the two "fail soft" with "fail passive" or without "fail survival" or without "fail hard" or without
autopilots, the system is considered: minimized failure effect. failure effect but with failure effect with failure effect and
disconnection. function always disconnection.
ensured.
1192 22
The flight director indicates the : optimum path at the path permitting path permitting optimum instantaneous
moment it is entered to reaching a selected reaching a selected path to reach selected
reach a selected radial. radial in minimum time. radial over a minimum radial.
distance.
1193 22
 The stall warning system receives information about the : 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 3, 4, 5 1, 3, 5 1, 4

1- airplane angle of attack

2- airplane speed
3- airplane bank angle
4- airplane configuration
5- load factor on the airplane

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1194 22
During an automatic landing, from a height of about 50 ft the: autopilot maintains a glideslope mode is autopilot maintains an Loc and Glideslope
vertical speed disconnected and the angle of attack modes are
depending on the radio airplane continues its depending on the radio disconnected and the
altimeter height. descent until landing. altimeter height. airplane carries on its
descent until landing.
1195 22
The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) computer receives 1, 2, 4 1, 2 1, 2, 3 1, 2, 3, 4
information :

1- about the pressure altitude through the mode S transponder

2- from the radio-altimeter
3- specific to the airplane configuration
4- from the inertial units

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1196 22
An autopilot is selected "ON" in mode "altitude hold," the pilot alters aircraft will remain at aircraft will climb or mode altitude hold will aircraft will remain at
the barometric pressure set on the sub-scale of his altimeter the: the same altitude, the descend in the sense of disengage the same altitude, the
autopilot takes its the change, the autopilot takes its
pressure information autopilot takes its pressure information
from the altimeter pressure information from the static source
corrected to standard from the altimeter
pressure, 1013.25 hPa

1197 22
The white sector of the arc of a temperature gauge corresponds to: an exceptional a forbidden operating a special operating a normal operating
1198 22 operating range. range. range. range.
On a modern aircraft, the flight director modes are displayed on the: control panel of the upper strip of the PFD upper strip of the ND upper strip of the
flight director only. (Primary Flight (Navigation Display). ECAM (Electronic
Display). Centralized A/C
Management).
1199 22
All the last generation aircraft use flight control systems. The Flight management system global 2-D Flight global 3-D Flight management system
Management System (FMS) is the most advanced system ; it can be optimized in the Management System Management System optimized in the vertical
1200 22 defined as a: horizontal plane plane
 When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a serviceable mode C "traffic advisory", "traffic advisory" and "traffic advisory" and "traffic advisory" only.
transponder, the TCAS II (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) vertical and horizontal vertical "resolution horizontal "resolution
generates a : "resolution advisory". advisory". advisory".
1201 22
The airspeed indicator of an aircraft is provided with a moving red speed indicated on the speed indicated on the maximum speed in maximum speed in
and white hatched pointer. This pointer indicates the: autothrottle control box, autothrottle control box VMO operation versus VMO operation, versus
versus temperature versus altitude altitude temperature
1202 22
An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The autothrottle decreases. increases if the outside remains constant. increases.
maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature temperature is higher
decreases, the Mach number : than the standard
temperature, decreases
if lower.

1203 22
At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in feet from +/-60 feet +/-75 feet +/-30 feet +/-70 feet
1204 22 indicated must not exceed :
The temperature measured by the CHT (Cylinder Head temperature) temperature within the average temperature temperature of the temperature of the
probe is the : hottest cylinder, within the whole set of exhaust gases. carburator to be
depending on its cylinders. monitored when the
position in the engine outside air temperature
block. is between -5°C and
10°C.

1205 22
A transport airplane has to be equipped with an altitude warning 2 1,3,4 1,5 3,4
device. This system will warn the crew about :

1 - getting close to the preselected altitude, during both climb and

descent.
2 - getting close to the preselected altitude, during climb only.
3 - the loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach.
4 - a wrong landing configuration.
5 - a variation higher or lower than a preselected altitude.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

1206 22
During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of height of the aircraft altitude of the aircraft. height of the lowest height of the aircraft
650 ft. This is an indication of the true: with regard to the wheels with regard to with regard to the
runway. the ground at any time. ground at any time.
1207 22
 A transport airplane is compelled to carry on board a Ground 2,5 2,3,4,5 2 1,3,4
Proximity Warning System (GPWS). This system will warn the crew
in case of :

1 - keeping the altitude at a lower level than the one shown in the
flight plan entered in the FMS.
2 - dangerous ground proximity.
3 - loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach.
4 - wrong landing configuration.
5 - descent below glidepath, within limits.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1208 22
The turn rate indicator uses a gyroscope: 1-3-4 2-5 1-6 1-3

1 - with one degree of freedom.

2 - with two degrees of freedom
3 - the frame of which is supported by two return springs.
4 - the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the pitch axis.
5 - the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the yawing axis.
6 - the spinning wheel axis of which is horizontal.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1209 22
In case of accidental closing of an aircraft's left static pressure port underreads the altitude. overreads the altitude overreads the altitude keeps on providing
(rain, birds), the altimeter: in case of a sideslip to in case of a side-slip to reliable reading in all
the left and displays the the right and displays situations
correct information the correct information
during symmetric flight. during symmetric flight.

1210 22
An aircraft is flying at a 120 kt true airspeed (VV), in order to achieve 18°. 12°. 36°. 30°.
a rate 1 turn, the pilot will have to bank the aircraft at an angle of:
1211 22
The yellow sector of the temperature gauge corresponds to: a frequent operating a forbidden operating an exceptional a normal operating
1212 22 range. range. operating range. range.
The pendulum type detector system of the directional gyro feeds : a torque motor on the 2 torque motors a levelling erection a nozzle integral with
1213 22 sensitive axis arranged horizontally torque motor the outer gimbal ring
The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere equal to the standard higher than the real the same as the real lower than the real
where all atmosphere layers below the aircraft are warm is: altitude. altitude. altitude. altitude.
1214 22
 Mach Trim is a device to compensate for : weight reduction backing of the the effects of fuel the effects of
resulting from fuel aerodynamic center at transfer between the temperature variation
consumption during the high Mach numbers by main tanks and the tank during a climb or
cruise moving the elevator to located in the horizontal descent at constant
nose-up tail Mach

1215 22
In some configurations, modern aircraft do not respect the regulatory 10% 3% 7% 5%
margins between stall and natural buffet.
The warning system supplies the corresponding alarm. The required
margin related to the stall speed is:
1216 22
The Mach number is : the ratio of the aircraft a direct function of the ratio of the the ratio of the aircraft
true airspeed to the temperature ; it varies indicated airspeed to conventionnal airspeed
sonic velocity at the in proportion to the the sonic velocity at the to the sonic velocity at
altitude considered square root of the altitude considered the altitude considered
absolute temperature
1217 22
The use of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) for both the replies from the replies from the the echos from the the echos of collision
avoiding an aircraft in flight is now general. TCAS uses for its the transponders of transponders of other ground air traffic control avoidance radar system
operation : other aircraft and the aircraft radar system especially installed on
ground-based radar board
echoes
1218 22
Different pressure sensors are used according to the intensity of the 2,1,3 3,1,2 1,2,3 3,2,1
pressure measured (low, medium or high)
Classify the following sensors by order of increasing pressure for
which they are suitable :
1- bellows type
2- Bourdon tube type
3- aneroid capsule type
1219 22
The measurement of the turbine temperature or of the EGT (Exhaust combustion chamber combustion chamber high pressure chamber high pressure turbine
1220 22 Gas Temperature) is carried out at the : outlet. intake. intake. outlet.
The sensors used to measure the exhaust gas temperature on an thermocouples. based on metallic parts based on metallic capacitors whose
aircraft equipped with turbojets are: whose conductors whose capacity varies
expansion/contraction resistance increases proportionnally with
is measured. linearly with temperature.
temperature.
1221 22
The aircraft radio equipment which emits on a frequency of 4400 weather radar. primary radar. radio altimeter. high altitude radio
1222 22 MHz is the : altimeter.
 A rate integrating gyro is a detecting element used in 1,4. 1,2,3,4,5. 2,3,5. 2,3,4.
1. An inertial attitude unit
2. An automatic pilot
3. A stabilizing servo system
4. An inertial navigation system
5. A rate-of-turn indicator
The combination of correct statements is :
1223 22
In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is calculated The difference between Measurement of Measurement of Measurement of
from: absolute and dynamic outside air temperature elapsed time for a radio absolute barometric
pressure at the (OAT) signal transmitted to the pressure from a static
fuselage ground surface and source on the fuselage
back

1224 22
The gimbal error of the directional gyro is due to the effect of : a bank or pitch attitude an apparent weight and too slow precession on the aircraft's track over
of the aircraft an apparent vertical the horizontal gimbal the earth
1225 22 ring

An Air Data Computer (ADC) : Measures position error Transforms air data Is an auxiliary system Converts air data
in the static system and measurements into that provides altitude measurements given by
transmits this electric impulses driving information in the event ATC from the ground in
information to ATC to servo motors in that the static source is order to provide correct
provide correct altitude instruments blocked altitude and speed
reporting information

1226 22
The directional gyro axis spins about the local vertical by 15°/hour : in the latitude 30° in the latitude 45° on the equator on the North pole
1227 22
The directional gyro axis no longer spins about the local vertical on the equator in the latitude 30° in the latitude 45° on the North pole
1228 22 when it is located :
A gravity type erector is used in a vertical gyro device to correct an artificial horizon a directional gyro unit a turn indicator a gyromagnetic
1229 22 errors on : indicator
When an aircraft has turned 90 degrees with a constant attitude and too much nose-up and too much nose-up and too much nose-up and attitude and bank
bank, the pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon : bank correct bank too high bank too low correct
1230 22
When an aircraft has turned 360 degrees with a constant attitude too much nose-up and too much nose-up and attitude and bank too much nose-up and
and bank, the pilot observes the following on a classic artificial bank correct bank too high correct bank too low
1231 22 horizon :
When an aircraft has turned 270 degrees with a constant attitude too much nose-up and too much nose-up and attitude and bank too much nose-up and
and bank, the pilot observes the following on a classic artificial bank too high. bank too low. correct. bank correct.
1232 22 horizon :
 The pressure altitude is the altitude corresponding : in standard in ambiant atmosphere, in standard in ambiant atmosphere,
atmosphere, to the to the pressure Ps atmosphere, to the to the reference
reference pressure Ps prevailing at this point pressure Ps prevailing pressure Ps
at this point
1233 22
The response time of a vertical speed detector may be increased by correction based on an bimettalic strip return spring second calibrated port
adding a: accelerometer sensor.
1234 22
The density altitude is : the altitude of the the temperature altitude the pressure altitude the pressure altitude
standard atmosphere corrected for the corrected for the corrected for the
on which the density is difference between the relative density density of air at this
equal to the actual real temperature and prevailing at this point point
density of the the standard
atmosphere temperature
1235 22
The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static position pressure error. barometric error. instrument error. hysteresis effect.
1236 22 pressure near the source is known as:
Under normal operating conditions, when an aircraft is in a banked 3,4. 2,4. 1,3. 1,2.
turn, the rate-of-turn indicator is a valuable gyroscopic flight control
instrument ; when it is associated with an attitude indicator it
indicates :

1. the angular velocity of the aircraft about the yaw axis

2. The bank of the aircraft
3. The direction of the aircraft turn
4. The angular velocity of the aircraft about the real vertical

The combination of correct statements is :

1237 22
The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a magnetic sensor, a three-phase voltage a DC voltage varying an AC voltage varying an AC voltage, the
connected to an RPM indicator is : frequency varies with with the RPM ; the with the RPM ; the frequency of which
the RPM; the indicator indicator is a simple indicator rectifies the varies with the RPM;
is provided with a motor voltmeter with a signal via a diode the indicator converts
which drives a rev/min. scale bridge and is provided the signal into square
magnetic tachometer with a voltmeter pulses which are then
counted
1238 22
 The TCAS II data display devices can be in the form of: 1, 2 and 3. 3 and 4. 1 and 3. 1, 2, 3 and 4.

1- a specific dedicated screen

2- a screen combined with the weather radar
3- a variometer represented on a liquid crystal screen which allows
the display of Traffic Advisory (TA) and Resolution Advisory (RA)
4- an EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System) screen

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1239 22
In a non-pressurized aircraft, if one or several static pressure ports breaking the rate-of- slightly opening a descending as much as calculating the ambient
are damaged, there is an ultimate emergency means for restoring a climb indicator glass window to restore the possible in order to fly static pressure,
practically correct static pressure intake : window ambient pressure in the at a pressure as close allowing for the altitude
cabin to 1013.25 hPa as and QNH and adjusting
possible the instruments

1240 22
Today's airspeed indicators (calibrated to the Saint-Venant formula), The airspeed, whatever The equivalent The conventional The true airspeed
indicate, in the absence of static (and instrumental) error : the altitude airspeed, in all cases airspeed (CAS) in all
1241 22 cases
The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems) is F.M.S. (Flight air traffic control radar transponders fitted in airborne weather radar
1242 22 based on the use of : Management System) systems the aircraft system
In the event of a conflict, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance turn left/turn right too low terrain glide slope climb/descent
1243 22 System) will give information such as :
The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives avoidance in horizontal and based on speed control only in the vertical only in the horizontal
1244 22 resolutions : vertical planes plane plane
Concerning the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) : Resolution Advisory No protection is In one of the system In one of the system
(RA) must not be available against modes, the warning : modes, the warning :
followed without aircraft not equipped "TOO LOW TERRAIN" "PULL UP" is generated
obtaining clearance with a serviceable SSR is generated
from ATC transponder
1245 22
The operation of the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is 2,3 1,3 1,2,4 2,4
governed by laws taking the aircraft height into account as well as :
1- the descent rate
2- the climb rate
3- the aircraft configuration
4- the selected engine rpm
The combination of correct statements is :

1246 22
 The indication of a fuel float gauge varies with : 4 1,2 1,2,4 1,2,3,4
1- aircraft attitude
2- accelerations
3- atmospheric pressure
4- temperature
The combination of correct statements is :
1247 22
The transmitter of RPM indicator may consist of : 1,2,3 1,2,3,4 2,3,4 1,4
1- a magnetic sensor supplying an induced AC voltage
2- a DC generator supplying a DC voltage
3- a single-phase AC generator supplying an AC voltage
4- a three-phase AC generator supplying a three-phase voltage
The combination of correct statements is :

1248 22
The yaw damper indicator supplies the pilot with information yaw damper action on rudder displacement by yaw damper action only rudder position
1249 22 regarding the: the rudder the rudder pedals on the ground
A vibration indicator receives a signal from different sensors vibration period vibration amplitude at a acceleration measured vibration frequency
(accelerometers). It indicates the : expressed in seconds given frequency by the sensors, expressed in Hz
expressed in g
1250 22
The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere equal to the standard lower than the real the same as the real higher than the real
where all the atmosphere layers below the aircraft are cold is : altitude. altitude. altitude. altitude.
1251 22
The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a 3-phase AC a DC voltage varying an AC voltage, the an AC voltage varying a three-phase voltage,
generator, connected to RPM indicator, is : with the RPM; the frequency of which with the RPM; the the frequency of which
indicator is a plain varies with the RPM; indicator rectifies the varies with the RPM;
voltmeter with a the indicator converts signal via a diode the indicator is provided
rev/min. scale the signal into square bridge and is provided with a motor which
pulses which are then with a voltmeter drives a magnetic
counted tachometer

1252 22
Given : Tt = Ts(1-0.2 M²) Tt = Ts(1+0.2 Kr.M²) Tt = Ts/(1+0.2 Kr.M²) Tt = Ts(1+0.2 M²)
- Ts the static temperature (SAT)
- Tt the total temperature (TAT)
- Kr the recovery coefficient
- M the Mach number
The total temperature can be expressed approximately by the
formula :
1253 22
The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) is a proximity alarm serviceable SSR serviceable weather SELCAL system DME system
system which detects a "traffic" when the conflicting traffic is transponder radar
1254 22 equipped with a :
 When being engaged, and without selecting a particular mode, an a constant speed on all aeroplane piloting aeroplane stabilisation aeroplane piloting and
automatic pilot enables : track, wings horizontal. and guidance functions with attitude hold or guidance functions.
except maintaining maintaining vertical
radio-navigation course speed and possibly
lines. automatic trim.

1255 22
On an autopilot coupled approach, GO AROUND mode is engaged: by the pilot pushing a by the pilot selecting automatically in case of if the aircraft reaches
button located on the G.A. mode on the thrust an autopilot or flight the decision height
throttles. computer control panel. director alarm. selected on the radio
altimeter at a higher
speed than the one
selected.
1256 22
Mode "Localizer ARM" active on Flight Director means: Localizer ALARM, Coupling has occurred Localizer is armed and System is armed for
making localizer and system provides coupling will occur localizer approach and
approach not control data to capture when flag warning coupling will occur
authorized the centerline disappears upon capturing center
line
1257 22
A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator: Is automatically Is fully independent of Only works of there is a Contains its own
connected to the external energy complete electrical separate gyro
primary vertical gyro if resources in an failure
the alternator fails emergency situation
1258 22
If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is compensated for At high speed the non- There will be no ATC will get an At high speed, the non-
position error and another altimeter which is not ; and all other compensated altimeter difference between erroneous altitude compensated altimeter
factors being equal... will indicate a lower them if the air data report SSR will indicate a higher
altitude computer (ADC) is altitude
functioning normally
1259 22
For most radio altimeters, when a system error occurs during Height indication is DH lamp flashes red DH lamp flashes red Audio warning signal
approach the .. removed and the audio signal sounds
1260 22 sounds

Indication of Mach number is obtained from: Indicated speed and An ordinary airspeed A kind of echo sound Indicated speed (IAS)
altitude using a speed indicator scaled for comparing velocity of compared with true air
indicator equipped with Mach numbers instead sound with indicated speed (TAS) from the
an altimeter type of knots speed air data computer
aneroid
1261 22
The altimeter consists of one or several aneroid capsules located in (i) static pressure (ii) (i) vacuum (or a very (i) static pressure at (i) total pressure (ii)
a sealed casing. total pressure low pressure) (ii) static time t (ii) static pressure static pressure
The pressures in the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii) are pressure at time t - t
respectively :
1262 22
 In low altitude radio altimeters, the height measurement (above the a triangular amplitude a frequency modulation a pulse transmission, a wave transmission,
ground) is based upon: modulation wave, for wave, for which the for which time between for which the frequency
which modulation frequency variation transmission and shift by DOPPLER
phase shift between between the reception is measured effect after ground
transmitted and transmitted wave and on a circular scanning reflection is measured.
received waves after the received wave after screen.
ground reflection is ground reflection is
measured. measured.

1263 22
1264 22 On board an aircraft the altitude is measured from the: standard altitude pressure altitude density altitude temperature altitude
The limits of the yellow scale of an airspeed indicator are : VLO for the lower limit VLE for the lower limit VFE for the lower limit VNO for the lower limit
and VNE for the upper and VNE for the upper and VNE for the upper and VNE for the upper
1265 22 limit limit limit limit

During a straight and uniform climb, the pilot maintains a constant The Mach number The Mach number The Mach number is The Mach number is
calibrated airspeed (CAS) : increases and the true increases and the true constant and the true constant and the true
airspeed (TAS) airspeed (TAS) is airspeed (TAS) is airspeed (TAS)
increases. constant. constant. decreases.
1266 22
The RPM indicator (or tachometer) of a piston engine can include a rating is the minimum propeller efficency is propoller generates rating is the maximum
small red arc within the arc normally used (green arc) usable in cruise minimum at this rating vibration, continuous possible in continuous
In the RPM range corresponding to this small red arc the : rating is forbidden mode
1267 22
The airspeed indicator of a twin-engined aircraft comprises different maximum speed in optimum climbing speed not to be minimum control speed,
sectors and color marks. The blue line corresponds to the : operations, or VMO speed with one engine exceeded, or VNE or VMC
inoperative, or Vy
1268 22
The interception of a localizer beam by the autopilot takes place : according to an according to an at a constant heading at a constant magnetic
interception versus interception versus course
1269 22 radio deviation law range and angular

The "heading hold" mode is selected on the flight director (FD) with a cannot be centered is centered if the is centered if the is centered if the
course to steer of 180°. Your aircraft holds a heading of 160°. The aircraft is on optimum aircraft has a starboard aircraft has a port drift
vertical bar of the FD: path to join heading drift of 20° of 20°
180°
1270 22
 The calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach holding mode is carried out 2 and 4. 1 and 3. 2 and 3. 1 and 4.
by:

1- the autopilot pitch channel in the climb mode at a constant

calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach number
2- the autothrottles in the climb mode at a constant calibrated
airspeed (CAS) or Mach number
3- the autopilot pitch channel in the altitude or glide path holding
mode
4- the autothrottles in the altitude or glide path holding mode

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1271 22
A gyromagnetic compass or heading reference unit is an assembly 2,5 1,3,5 2,3,5 1,4
which always consists of :
1- a directional gyro
2- a vertical axis gyro
3- an earth's magnetic field detector
4- an azimuth control
5- a synchronising control
The combination of correct statements is :
1272 22
A radio altimeter can be defined as a : ground radio aid used ground radio aid used self-contained on-board self-contained on-board
to measure the true to measure the true aid used to measure aid used to measure
height of the aircraft altitude of the aircraft the true height of the the true altitude of the
aircraft aircraft
1273 22
The limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator are : VSI for the lower limit VSO for the lower limit VSI for the lower limit VSO for the lower limit
and VFE for the upper and VLE for the upper and VLE for the upper and VFE for the upper
1274 22 limit limit limit limit
When an automatic landing is interrupted by a go-around : 1, 3 and 4. 1, 2 and 3. 1, 2 and 5. 1, 4 and 5.

1- the autothrottle reacts immediately upon the pilot action on the

TO/GA (Take-off/Go-around) switch in order to recover the maximum
thrust
2- the autopilot monitors the climb and the rotation of the airplane
3- the autopilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the flap
deflection in order to reduce the drag
4- the pilot performs the climb and the rotation of the airplane
5- the pilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the flap deflection
in order to reduce the drag

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1275 22
 The velocity maximum operating (V.M.O.) is a speed expressed in : true airspeed (TAS). computed airspeed calibrated airspeed equivalent airspeed
1276 22 (COAS). (CAS). (EAS).
A failed RMI rose is locked on 090° and the ADF pointer indicates 225°. 135°. Impossible to read, due 315°.
1277 22 225°. The relative bearing to the station is : to failure RMI.
An airplane is in steady descent. The autothrottle maintains a remains constant. decreases if the static increases. decreases.
constant Mach number. If the total temperature remains constant, temperature is lower
the calibrated airspeed: than the standard
temperature, increases
if above.

1278 22
A ground proximity warning system (GPWS), when mandatorily a sound alarm or a a sound and visual a visual alarm to which at least one sound
installed on board an aircraft, must in all cases generate : visual alarm alarm a sound alarm can be alarm to which a visual
alarm can be added
1279 22
The essential components of a flight director are : 2,4 2,3 1,4 1,2
1- a computer
2- an automatic pilot
3- an autothrottle
4- command bars
The combination of correct statements is :
1280 22
A pilot has to carry out a single-pilot IFR flight on a light twin-engined heading altitude heading, to hold the heading and to hold the
aircraft for cargo transport. The purpose of the automatic pilot is at altitude and to have a altitude
least to hold the: radio axis tracking
function
1281 22
An automatic landing is carried out when the automatic pilot : and the autothrottle ensures a correct final and the autothrottle and the autothrottle
ensure a correct final approach, at least up to ensure a correct final ensure a correct final
approach, at least up to ground roll while the approach, at least up to approach, at least up to
ground roll human pilot controls the flare-out flare-out while the
power human pilot controls the
power
1282 22
Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMO) and the initially by theVMO, by the MMO by the VMO in still air initially by the MMO,
maximum operational speed (VMO), the captain of a pressurized then by the MMO below then by the VMO below
aircraft begins his descent from a high flight level. In order to meet a certain flight level a certain flight level
his scheduled time of arrival, he decides to use the maximum ground
speed at any time of the descent. He will be limited :

1283 22
The pressure measured at the forward facing orifice of a pitot tube is total pressure plus dynamic pressure. total pressure. static pressure.
1284 22 the : static pressure.
 An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The autothrottle increases. decreases. decreases if the outside remains constant.
maintains a constant Mach number. If the total temperature temperature is lower
decreases, the calibrated airspeed: than the standard
temperature, increases
if higher.

1285 22
An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The autothrottle decreases. increases if the static remains constant. increases.
maintains a constant Mach number. If the total temperature temperature is higher
increases, the calibrated airspeed: than the standard
temperature, decreases
if lower.
1286 22
The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates the WHOOP WHOOP DON'T SINK always DON'T SINK followed DON'T SINK repetitive
following sound signal or signals when the aircraft is sinking after a PULL UP repetitive only followed by WHOOP by WHOOP WHOOP only
take-off or a go-around : WHOOP PULL UP PULL UP if the sink rate
overshoots a second
level
1287 22
The basis properties of a gyroscope are : 3,4 2,5 2,3,5 1,3,5
1. The gyro's weight.
2. The rigidity in space.
3. The inertia.
4. The high RPM.
5. The precession
The combination of correct statements is :
1288 22
The static pressure error of the static vent on which the altimeter is static temperature Mach number of the deformation of the aircraft altitude
1289 22 connected varies substantially with the: aircraft aneroid capsule
The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to: allow damping of the reduce the hysteresis reduce the effect of inform the crew of a
measurement in the effect friction in the linkages failure of the instrument
1290 22 unit
The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the: time passed at a given mach number of the aircraft altitude. static temperature.
1291 22 altitude. aircraft.
VLE is the maximum : speed authorized in flight speed with speed at which the speed with flaps
flight landing gear down landing gear can be extended in a given
operated with full safety position
1292 22
VLO is the maximum : speed at which the flight speed with speed with flaps cruising speed not to be
landing gear can be landing gear down. extended in a given exceeded except in still
operated with full position. air with caution.
safety.
1293 22
VNE is the maximum speed : at which the flight with flaps extended in which must never be not to be exceeded
controls can be fully landing position exceeded except in still air and
1294 22 deflected with caution
 VNO is the maximum speed : which must never be at which the flight with flaps extended in not to be exceeded
exceeded. controls can be fully landing position. except in still air and
1295 22 deflected. with caution.
The vertical speed indicator of an aircraft flying at a true airspeed of - 300 ft/min - 150 ft/min - 250 ft/min - 500 ft/min.
100 kt, in a descent with a slope of 3 degrees, indicates :
1296 22
The advantages provided by an air data computer to indicate the 1,2,3,4 2,3,4 1,2,3 1,3,4
altitude are :

1. Position/pressure error correction

2. Hysteresis error correction
3. Remote data transmission capability
4. Capability of operating as a conventional altimeter in the event of
a failure

The combination of correct statements is :

1297 22
The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the a compressibility and an instrument and an antenna and and instrument and
indicated airspeed (IAS) : density correction. position/pressure error compressibility density correction.
1298 22 correction. correction.

The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator are : VS1 for the lower limit VS1 for the lower limit VS1 for the lower limit VS0 for the lower limit
and VNE for the upper and VLO for the upper and VNO for the upper and VNO for the upper
1299 22 limit limit limit limit
Among the flight control instruments, the artificial horizon plays an two degrees of two degrees of one degree of freedom, one degree of freedom,
essential part. It uses a gyroscope with : freedom, whose axis is freedom, whose whose horizontal axis is whose vertical axis
Note : in this question, the degrees of freedom of a gyro are oriented and horizontal axis maintained in a oriented in the direction
determined by the number of gimbal rings it comprises. continously maintained corresponding to a horizontal plane by an of the real vertical to
to local vertical by an reference direction is automatic erecting the location is
automatic erecting maintained in a system maintained in this
system. horizontal plane by an direction by an
automatic erecting automatic erecting
system system

1300 22
With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the aircraft airspeed increasing speed. fluctuating speed. decreasing speed. constant speed.
1301 22 indicator will indicate in descent a :
 The indication of the directional gyro as an on-board instrument are 1,3,4 1,2,3,4,5,6 2,5,6 1,3,4,6
valid only for a short period of time. The causes of this inaccuracy
are :
1. The earth's rotation
2. The longitudinal acceleration
3. The aircraft's motion over the surface of the earth.
4. The mechanical defects of the gyro
5. The gyro's weight
6. The gimbal mount of the gyro rings
The combination of correct statements is :

1302 22
With a constant weight, irrespective of the airfield altitude, an aircraft calibrated airspeed. ground speed. true airspeed. equivalent airspeed.
1303 22 always takes off at the same :
During a climb after take-off from a contaminated runway, if the total decreases abruptly increases steadily increases abruptly decreases stadily
pressure probe of the airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot finds towards zero towards VNE
1304 22 that indicated airspeed :

The mach number is the: indicated airspeed equivalent airspeed true airspeed (TAS) corrected airspeed
(IAS) divided by the (EAS) divided by the divided by the local (CAS) divided by the
1305 22 local speed of sound local speed of sound speed of sound local speed of sound
The principle of the Mach indicator is based on the computation of (Pt + Ps) to Ps (Pt - Ps) to Ps Pt to Ps (Pt - Ps) to Pt
1306 22 the ratio :
After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has increases steadily decreases abruptly decreases steadily increases abruptly
blocked the total pressure probe inlet of the airspeed indicator, the towards zero towards VNE
pilot begins a stabilized descent and finds that the indicated airspeed
:
1307 22
The reading of a Mach indicator is independent of : the outside temperature the static pressure the total pressure the differential pressure
measurement
1308 22
The calculator combined with the stick shaker system of a modern 1, 2, 3 and 4. 1 and 3. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. 1 and 5.
transport airplane receives information about the:

1- angle of attack
2- engine R.P.M.
3- configuration
4- pitch and bank attitude
5- sideslip

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1309 22
 A Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. 1,2 and 4. 3, 4, 5 and 6.
automatically a distinct warning to the flight crew with aural and/or
light warning signals in the case of:

1- an excessive rate of descent with respect to terrain

2- a dangerous proximity to the ground
3- a loss of altitude following take-off or go-around
4- an abnormal flight attitude
5- an abnormal landing configuration
6- an abnormal deviation below ILS glide slope

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1310 22
A VMO-MMO warning device consists of an alarm connected to : a barometric aneroid a barometric aneroid a barometric aneroid a barometic aneroid
capsule and an capsule and an capsule subjected to a capsule subjected to a
airspeed sensor airspeed sensor static pressure and an dynamic pressure and
subjected to dynamic subjected to a static airspeed sensor an airspeed sensor
pressure. pressure. subjected to a dynamic subjected to a static
pressure. pressure.
1311 22
The characteristics of the directional gyro (DG) used in a gyro one degree of freedom, two degrees of two degrees of one degree of freedom,
stabilised compass system are : whose vertical axis, freedom, whose freedom, whose axis whose horizontal axis is
aligned with the real horizontal axis aligned with the vertical maintained in the
vertical to the location corresponding to the to the location is horizontal plane by an
is maintained in this reference direction is maintained in this automatic erecting
direction by an maintained in the direction by an erecting system.
automatic erecting horizontal plane by an system.
system. automatic erecting
system.

1312 22
The electromotive force of a thermocouple is not modified if one or these metals are these metals are contact points are these metals are not
several intermediate metals are inserted in the circuit provided that: maintained at a maintained at a maintained at equal the same as those
temperature higher temperature lower than temperature between constituting the
than that of the cold that of the cold source. these different metals. thermocouple.
source.
1313 22
An aeroplane is in a steady climb. The autothrottle maintains a decreases if the static decreases. increases. remains constant.
constant Mach number. If the total temperature remains constant, temperature is lower
the calibrated airspeed : than the standard
temperature, increases
if higher.

1314 22
 A "TCAS II" (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides: the intruder relative the intruder relative the intruder relative a simple intruding
position and possibly position and possibly position and possibly airplane proximity
an indication of a an indication of a an indication of a warning.
collision avoidance collision avoidance collision avoidance
manoeuvre within both manoeuvre within the manoeuvre within the
the vertical and horizontal plane only. vertical plane only.
horizontal planes.
1315 22
A "Bourdon Tube" is used in: pressure sensors vibration detectors smoke detectors turbine temperature
1316 22 probes
The heading read on the dial of a directional gyro is subject to errors, is at its greatest value shows itself by an is dependent on the is, in spite of this,
one of which is due to the movement of the aircraft. when the aircraft apparent rotation of the ground speed of the insignificant and may
This error... follows a meridional horizontal axis of the aircraft, its true track be neglected
track gyroscope which and the average
seems to turn at 15° latitude of the flight
per hour to the right in
the northern
hemisphere
1317 22
A closed loop control system in which a small power input controls a an amplifier. a feedback control an autopilot. a servomechanism.
much larger power output in a strictly proportionate manner is known circuit.
1318 22 as :
(Use the appendix to answer this question) 1 2 3 4

The diagram which shows a 40° left bank and 15° nose down
attitude is n°
1319 22
The operating principle of the vertical speed indicator (VSI) is based Kinetic pressure Static pressure Dynamic pressure Total pressure
1320 22 on the measurement of the rate of change of:
When turning onto a northerly heading the rose of a magnetic 2, 3, and 4. 1 and 3. 2 and 3. 1, 2, and 4.
compass tends to "undershoot;" when turning onto a southerly
heading it tends to "overshoot":

1)these compass indications are less reliable in the northern

hemisphere than in the southern hemisphere.
2)these compass oscillations following a lateral gust are not identical
if the aircraft is heading north or south.
3) this behaviour is due to the mechanical construction of the
compass.
4) this behaviour is a symptom of a badly swung compass.

The correct statements are :

1321 22
 A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of turn. 1, 2, and 3. 1 and 2. 1 and 3. 2 and 3.
Rate of turn depends upon :

1 : bank angle
2 : aeroplane speed
3 : aeroplane weight

The combination regrouping the correct statements is :

1322 22
The pressure probe used to measure the pressure of a low pressure an aneroid capsule. a bellows sensor. a Bourdon tube. a differential capsule.
1323 22 fuel pump is:
The probe used to measure the air intake pressure of a gas turbine a differential capsule. a Bourdon tube. a bellows sensor. an aneroid capsule.
1324 22 engined powerplant is:
The advantages of an electrical induction tachometer are: 1, 3, 4. 1, 2, 3, 4. 2, 3, 4. 1, 2, 4.

1- the display is not sensitive to line resistance

2- the measurement is independent of aircraft power supply
3- the measurement is independent of temperature variations
4- the option to use without restriction several indicators connected
in parallel to a single transmitter

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1325 22
A millivoltmeter measuring the electromotive force between the "hot cold junction is hot junction is cold junction is hot junction is
junction" and the "cold junction" of a thermocouple can be directly maintained constant. maintained constant. maintained at 15 °C. maintained at 15 °C.
graduated in temperature values provided that the temperature of
the:
1326 22
Compared with a conventional gyro, a laser gyro : consumes a lot of has a longer life cycle is influenced by has a fairly long starting
1327 22 power temperature cycle
Among the following engine instruments, the one operating with an oil pressure gauge. fuel pressure gauge. oil thermometer. manifold pressure
1328 22 aneroid pressure diaphragm is the : gauge.
Heading information from the gyromagnetic compass flux gate is amplifier. error detector. erecting system. heading indicator.
1329 22 transmitted to the :
The principle of capacitor gauges is based on: the variation of capacity the variation of flow and the variation in capacity the current variation in
by volumetric torque exercised in a of a condensor with the a Wheastone bridge
measurement supply line nature of the dielectric
exercised on the sensor

1330 22
 A paddle-wheel placed in a the fuel circuit of a gas turbine engine volumetric flow by a mass flow by a tally of volumetric flow by mass flow by measure
initially measures: tally of the impulses the impulses measure of a voltage of a voltage
proportional to the proportional to the
rotational speed rotational speed
1331 22
The purpose of a compass swing is to attempt to coincide the compass north and the compass north and compass north and true true north and magnetic
indications of: lubber line. magnetic north. north. north.
1332 22
The position of a Flight Director command bars: indicates the repeats the ADI and enables the only displays
manoeuvers to HSI information measurement of information relating to
execute, to achieve or deviation from a given radio-electric deviation.
maintain a flight position.
situation.
1333 22
In a steep turn, the northerly turning error on a magnetic compass on equal to 180° on a 090° none on a 270° none on a 090° equal to 180° on a 270°
the northern hemisphere is: heading in a right turn. heading in a left turn. heading in a right turn. heading in a right turn.
1334 22
(For this question use appendix ) 2 3 4 1

The diagram representing a left turn with insufficient rudder is:

1335 22
The advantages of an electric float gauge are: 1, 2, 4 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 3, 4 2, 3, 4

1- ease of manufacture
2- independence of the indication relative to the variations of the
aircraft power system if the measurement is made by a ratiometer
3- independence of the indication relative to the variations of the
aircraft power system if the measurement is made by a
galvanometer
4- independence of the indication relative to temperature variations

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1336 22
The gauge indicating the quantity of fuel measured by a capacity twice that of air and the same as that of air twice that of air and the same as that of air
gauging system can be graduated directly in weight units because varies directly with and varies directly with varies inversely with and varies inversely
the dielectric constant of fuel is: density. density. density. with density.
1337 22
Flight Director Information supplied by an FD computer is presented ADI Attitude Display BDHI Bearing Distance RMI Radio Magnetic HSI Horizontal Situation
in the form of command bars on the following instrument: Indicator. Heading Indicator. Indicator. Indicator.
1338 22
 The main advantage of a ratiometer-type temperature indicator is is simple. can operate without an is very accurate. carries out an
that it: electrical power supply. independent
measurement of the
supply voltage.
1339 22
Given : Ts = Tt.(1+0.2. M²) Ts = Tt.(0.2. M²) Ts = Tt/( 0.2 M²) Ts = Tt /(1+0.2. M²)
M is the Mach number
Ts is the static temperature
Tt is the total temperature
1340 22
Regarding Electronic Instrument System (EFIS) : 1, 2. 2, 3. 3, 4. 1, 4.

1- the Navigation Display (ND) displays Flight Director Bars.

2- the altimeter setting is displayed on the PFD (Primary Flight
Display).
3- the PFD is the main flying instrument.
4- the FMA (Flight Mode Annunciator) is part of the ND.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1341 22
The data supplied by a radio altimeter: indicates the distance concerns only the is used only by the is used by the
between the ground decision height. radio altimeter indicator. automatic pilot in the
1342 22 and the aircraft. altitude hold mode.
The low-altitude radio altimeters used in precision approaches: 3, 5 3, 4 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 5

1 operate in the 1540-1660 MHz range.

2 are of the pulsed type.
3 are of the frequency modulation type.
4 have an operating range of 0 to 5000 ft.
5 have a precision of +/- 2 feet between 0 and 500 ft.

The combination of the correct statements is :

1343 22
In low altitude radio altimeters, the reading is zero when main change the display compensate residual account for signal place the antennas on
landing gear wheels are on the ground. For this, it is necessary to: scale in short final, in altitude due to processing time in the the bottom of the
order to have a precise antennas height above unit and apply a aeroplane.
readout. the ground and coaxial correction factor to the
cables length. reading.

1344 22
 (For this question use annex 022-10217A) increase the flight decrease the flight increase the flight decrease the flight
After having programmed your flight director, you see that the attitude until the attitude until the attitude until the attitude until the
indications of your ADI (Attitude Director Indicator) are as command bars recentre command bars recentre command bars recentre command bars recentre
represented in diagram N°1 of the appended annex. On this on the symbolic on the symbolic on the horizon. on the horizon.
instrument, the command bars indicate that you must bank your airplane. airplane.
airplane to the left and :
1345 22
During deceleration following a landing in a Southerly direction, the an apparent turn to the an apparent turn to the a heading fluctuating no apparent turn.
1346 22 magnetic compass will indicate : East. West. about 180°.
The principle of detection of a vibration monitoring system is based 2 accelerometers. 2 high and low 2 high and low a frequency converter.
1347 22 on the use of: frequency amplifiers. frequency filters.
In the Northern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing an apparent turn to the an apparent turn to the no apparent turn. a heading fluctuating
in a Westerly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate : South. North. about 270°.
1348 22
In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing no apparent turn. a heading fluctuating an apparent turn to the an apparent turn to the
in an Easterly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate : about 090°. North. South.
1349 22
The quadrantal deviation of a magnetic compass is corrected by magnetized needles soft iron pieces hard iron pieces pairs of permanent
1350 22 using : magnets
The quadrantal deviation of the magnetic compass is due to the the hard iron pieces the hard iron pieces the soft iron pieces the hard iron ices and
action of : influenced by the influenced by the mild influenced by the the soft iron pieces
geomagnetic field iron pieces geomagnetic field influenced by the hard
iron pieces
1351 22
In order to measure temperature the cylinder head temperature thermocouple wheatstone bridge ratiometer circuit. bourdon tube.
(CHT) gauge utilises a : consisting of two circuit.
1352 22 dissimilar metals.
The yaw damper, which suppresses Dutch roll: controls the ailerons, controls the rudder, controls the ailerons, controls the rudder,
with the angular rate with the angular rate with Mach Number as with Mach Number as
about the vertical axis about the vertical axis the input signal. the input signal.
as the input signal. as the input signal.

1353 22
A laser gyro consists of : two moving cavities a laser generating two 2 electrodes a gyro with 2 degrees
1354 22 provided with mirrors light waves (anodes+cathodes) of freedom
A gravity erector system is used to correct the errors on : an artificial horizon. a directional gyro. a turn indicator. a gyromagnetic
1355 22 compass.
A pilot wishes to turn right on to a southerly heading with 20° bank at 150° 170° 190° 210°
a latitude of 20° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to
achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of :
1356 22
 A pilot wishes to turn left on to a southerly heading with 20° bank at a 190° 160° 200° 170°
latitude of 20° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to
achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of :
1357 22
A pilot wishes to turn left on to a northerly heading with 10° bank at a 355° 330° 015° 030°
latitude of 50° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to
achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of :
1358 22
A pilot wishes to turn right on to a northerly heading with 20° bank at 010° 330° 350° 030°
a latitude of 40° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to
achieve this he must stop the turn on to an approximate heading of :
1359 22
An aeroplane is in steady descent. The autothrottle maintains a increases if the static decreases. increases. remains constant.
constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature remains temperature is lower
constant, the Mach number : than the standard
temperature, decreases
if higher.
1360 22
The purpose of compass swinging is to determine the deviation of a on any heading on a given heading at any latitude at a given latitude
1361 22 magnetic compass :
The compass heading can be derived from the magnetic heading by deviation correction map showing the compass swinging map showing the
1362 22 reference to a: curve isogonic lines curve isoclinic lines
The magnetic heading can be derived from the true heading by compass swinging map showing the map showing the deviation correction
1363 22 means of a : curve isogonal lines isoclinic lines curve
The total air temperature (TAT) is always : higher than Static Air higher lower than Static higher than Static Air lower than Static Air
Temperature (SAT) Air Temperature (SAT) Temperature (SAT) Temperature (SAT)
depending on the depending on the depending on the depending on the
Calibrated Air Speed Calibrated Air Speed altitude. altitude.
(CAS). (CAS).

1364 22
The static air temperature (SAT) is : an absolute a differential a relative temperature a relative temperature
temperature expressed temperature expressed expressed in degrees expressed in degrees
in degrees Celsius in degrees Kelvin Celsius Kelvin
1365 22
The electronic tachometer sensor is composed of: the rotor of a single the rotor of a three- a notched wheel a circular magnet with
phase A.C. generator. phase A.C. generator. rotating in front of an four poles.
1366 22 electro-magnet.
1367 22 The "Bourdon tube" is used to measure : a flow rate. pressure. temperature. quantity.
An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of an artificial horizon a turn indicator a fluxgate compass a directional gyro
1368 22 freedom and a horizontal spin axis is:
When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball indicator are turning right with too turning right with not turning left with too turning left with not
1369 22 on the left, the aircraft is: much bank enough bank much bank enough bank
 On the ground, during a left turn, the turn indicator indicates : needle to the left, ball to needle in the middle, needle in the middle, needle to the left, ball to
1370 22 the left ball to the right ball to the left the right
On the ground, during a right turn, the turn indicator indicates : needle in the middle, needle to the right, ball needle to the right, ball needle in the middle,
1371 22 ball to left to left to right ball to right
The rate-of-turn is the: pitch rate in a turn change-of-heading rate yaw rate in a turn aircraft speed in a turn
1372 22 of the aircraft
At a low bank angle, the measurement of rate-of-turn actually angular velocity of the yaw rate of the aircraft pitch rate of the aircraft roll rate of the aircraft
1373 22 consists in measuring the : aircraft
In a Turn-indicator, the measurement of rate-of-turn consists for : high bank angles,in high bank angles, in low bank angles, in low bank angles , in
measuring the yaw rate measuring the roll rate measuring the yaw rate measuring the roll rate
1374 22
In a turn at constant rate, the turn indicator reading is: proportional to the independent to the proportional to the inversely proportional
aircraft true airspeed aircraft true airspeed aircraft weight to the aircraft true
1375 22 airspeed

An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of a directional gyro an artificial horizon a turn indicator a flux gate compass
1376 22 freedom and a horizontal spin axis is :
An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 1 degree of fluxgate compass directional gyro turn indicator gyromagnetic compass
1377 22 freedom and a horizontal spin axis is a :
At a constant Mach number, the calibrated air speed (CAS) : remains unchanged remains unchanged decreases when the increases when the
when the outside when the outside altitude increases altitude increases
temperature increases temperature decreases
1378 22
At a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS), the Mach number : increases when the decreases when the remains unchanged remains unchanged
altitude increases altitude increases when the outside when the outside
temperature increases temperature decreases
1379 22
When compared with the volumetric fuel flowmeter, the mass fuel temperature. pressure. dielectrical constant. density.
1380 22 flowmeter takes into account the fuel :
The heading reference unit of a three-axis data generator is 2 degrees of freedom 2 degrees of freedom 1 degree of freedom 1 degree of freedom
equipped with a gyro with: and horizontal spin axis and vertical spin axis and horizontal spin axis and vertical spin axis
1381 22
When, in flight, the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator is on the left turning left with too turning right with not turning right with too turning left with not
1382 22 and the ball on the right, the aircraft is: much bank enough bank much bank enough bank
The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft is based on: pulse modulation of the a combination of frequency modulation amplitude modulation
carrier wave. frequency modulation of the carrier wave. of the carrier wave.
1383 22 and pulse modulation.
A manifold pressure gauge of a piston engine measures : fuel pressure leaving vacuum in the absolute pressure in absolute airpressure
the carburettor. carburettor. intake system near the entering the carburettor.
1384 22 inlet valve.
 The stick shaker calculator receives the following informations : 2, 3 2, 3, 5 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

1- mass of the airplane

2- angle of attack
3- wing flap deflection
4- position of the landing gear
5- total air temperature
6- pressure altitude

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1385 22
If a manifold pressure gauge consistently registers atmospheric leak in pressure gauge too high float level. fuel of too low volatility. ice in induction system.
1386 22 pressure, the cause is probably; line.
A directional gyro is: 1-4 2-4 2-3 1-3

1- a gyroscope free around two axis

2- a gyroscope free around one axis
3- capable of self- orientation around an earth-tied direction
4- incapable of self-orientation around an earth-tied direction

The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:

1387 22
Modern low altitude radioaltimeters emit waves in the following HF (High Frequency). UHF (Ultra High SHF (Super High VLF (Very Low
1388 22 frequency band: Frequency). Frequency). Frequency).
The Primary Flight Display (PFD) displays information dedicated to: engines and alarms. systems. piloting. weather situation.
1389 22
(For this question use annex 022-3880A) real deflection of the offset EPSILON at the pilot command E. aircraft response S.
The block diagram of an auto-pilot is shown in the annex. control surface (BETA computer input.
For each control channel (pitch, roll and yaw) the piloting law is the control surface
relationship between the deflection of the control surface feedback).
commanded by the computer (BETA c) and the:
1390 22
The Decision Height (DH) warning light comes on when an aircraft: passes over the outer descends below a pre- passes over the ILS descends below a pre-
marker. set barometric altitude. inner marker. set radio altitude.
1391 22
 (For this question use annex 022-11232A) increase the flight increase the flight decrease the flight decrease the flight
After having programmed your flight director, you see that the attitude and bank your attitude and bank your attitude and bank your attitude and bank your
indications of your ADI (Attitude Director indicator) are as airplane to the left until aeroplane to the right airplane to the left until airplane to the right
represented in diagram N°1 of the appended annex. On this the command bars until the command bars the command bars until the command bars
instrument, the command bars indicate that you must : recentre on the recentre on the recentre on the recentre on the
symbolic aeroplane. symbolic aeroplane. symbolic aeroplane. symbolic aeroplane.

1392 22
An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The autothrottle decreases. decreases if the outside remains constant. increases.
maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature temperature is higher
increases, the Mach number : than the standard
temperature, increases
if lower.

1393 22
The vertical reference unit of a three-axis data generator is equipped 1 degree of freedom 1 degree of freedom 2 degrees of freedom 2 degrees of freedom
with a gyro with : and horizontal spin axis and vertical spin axis and vertical spin axis and horizontal spin axis
1394 22
The fields affecting a magnetic compass originate from: 1, 2, 4 1, 2, 3 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 3, 4
1. magnetic masses
2. ferrous metal masses
3. non ferrous metal masses
4. electrical currents
The combination of correct statements is:
1395 22
The purpose of the automatic trim is to: 1, 3. 2, 3. 1, 2, 3. 1, 2.

1- reduce to zero the hinge moment of the entire control surface in

order to relieve the load on the servo-actuator
2- ensure the aeroplane is properly trimmed when the autopilot is
disengaged
3- maintain the same stability/manoeuverablity trade-off within the
whole flight envelope

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1396 22
 The angle of attack transmitters placed laterally on the forward part 1, 3. 1, 2. 1, 2, 3. 2, 3.
of the fuselage supply an electrical signal indicating:

1- the angular position of a wind vane

2- a differential pressure in a probe, depending on the variation of
the angle of attack
3- a differential pressure in a probe, depending on the variation of
the speed

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1397 22
The purpose of the altitude alert system is to generate a visual and airplane altitude is proximity to the ground altimeter setting differs airplane altitude differs
aural warning to the pilot when the: equal to the decision becomes dangerous. from the standard from a selected altitude.
altitude. setting above the
transition altitude.

1398 22
The advantages of a D.C. generator tachometer are: 2, 3. 1, 3. 1, 2. 1, 2, 3.

1- easy transmission of the information.

2- independence of the information relative to the airborne electrical
power supply.
3- freedom from any spurious current due to the commutator.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1399 22
The advantages of single-phase A.C. generator tachometer are: 1, 3. 1, 2, 3, 4. 2, 3, 4. 2, 4.

1- the suppression of spurious signals due to a D.C. generator

commutator
2- the importance of line resistance on the information value
3- the independence of the information in relation to the airborne
electrical power supply
4- the ease of transmission of the information

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1400 22
 The disadvantages of a single-phase A.C. generator tachometer are: 2. 1, 2, 3. 1, 2. 1, 3.

1- the presence of spurious signals due to a D.C. generator

commutator
2- the importance of line resistance on the information value
3- the influence of temperature on the tachometer information

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1401 22
In a modern airplane equipped with an ECAM (Electronic centralized 1, 2. 1, 2, 3. 1, 3, 4. 3, 4.
aircraft monitor), when a failure occurs in a circuit, the centralized
flight management system:

1- releases an aural warning

2- lights up the appropriate push-buttons on the overhead panel
3- displays the relevant circuit on the system display
4- processes the failure automatically

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1402 22
The engagement of an autopilot is not possible when: 1, 2, 4. 2, 3, 4. 1, 3, 4. 1, 2, 3, 4.

1- there is a fault in the electrical power supply

2- the controlled-turn knob is not set to centre-off
3- there is a synchronization fault in the pitch channel
4- there is a fault in the attitude reference unit

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1403 22
The oncoming stall of a large transport airplane appears in the form control stick vibrations an orange light on the a natural buffeting a bell type warning.
of: simulating natural warning display. which occurs prior to
buffeting. the simulated buffeting.
1404 22
 The voice recorder records on four different channels the following 1, 2, 3, 4. 1, 3. 1, 4. 1, 2, 3.
information:

1- aural warnings
2- radio communications
3- conversations between the crew members through the cockpit
interphone
4- announcements to the passengers

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1405 22
The stall warning system of a large transport airplane includes: 1, 4. 1, 2, 4, 5. 1, 2, 5. 1, 2, 4.

1- an angle of attack sensor

2- a computer
3- a transmitter originating from the anemometer
4- an independent pitot probe
5- a transmitter of the flap/slat position indicating system

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1406 22
When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball indicator are turning left with too turning left with not turning right with too turning right with not
1407 22 on the right, the aircraft is : much bank enough bank much bank enough bank
If an aircraft is flying (with flaps and landing gear retracted) in "DON'T SINK, DON'T "TERRAIN, TERRAIN" "TOO LOW, TERRAIN" "SINK RATE, SINK
proximity to terrain and its GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning SINK" followed by "WHOOP (twice) followed by RATE" followed by
System) get activated, because it is detecting that the aeroplane has WHOOP PULL UP" "TOO LOW GEAR" "WHOOP WHOOP
an excessive rate of descent, the system provides the following aural (twice) (twice) PULL UP" (twice)
warning signals :
1408 22
When, in flight, the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator is on the turning left with too turning right with not turning right with too turning left with not
1409 22 right and the ball on the left, the aircraft is : much bank enough bank much bank enough bank
A turn indicator is built around a gyroscope with: 1 degree of freedom. 3 degrees of freedom. 2 degrees of freedom. 0 degree of freedom.
1410 22
If the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) activates, and the aircraft experiences during take-off or the aircraft experiences at too low altitude, the
alerts the pilot with an aural warning "DON'T SINK" (twice times), it an unexpected missed approach an unexpected aircraft has an
is because : proximity to terrain, manoeuvre, the aircraft proximity to the terrain, excessive rate of
without landing-flap has started to loose with landing gear descent.
selected. altitude. retracted.

1411 22
In the automatic trim control system of an autopilot, automatic pitch axis only. roll and yaw axes only. pitch roll and yaw axes. pitch and roll axes only.
1412 22 trimming is normally effected about the :
 Which one of the following statements is true with regard to the It only operates above It operates to It only operates when It operates over the full
operation of a Mach trim system : a pre-determined Mach counteract the larger the autopilot is aircraft speed range.
number. than normal forward engaged.
movements of the wing
centre of pressure at
high subsonic
airspeeds.
1413 22
In an engine vibration monitoring system for a turbojet any vibration directly proportional to fed directly to the amplified and filtered inversely proportional
produced by the engine is : engine speed. cockpit indicator without before being fed to the to engine speed.
amplification or filtering. cockpit indicator.
1414 22
Among the systematic errors of the "directional gyro", the error due 15°/hour to the right. 7.5°/hour to the right. 7.5°/hour to the left. 10.5°/hour to the right.
to the earth rotation make the north reference turn in the horizontal
plane. At a mean latitude of 45°N, this reference turns by...
1415 22
The operating principle of Flowmeters, or "unit flow meters," the most quantity of fuel pressure and volumetric mass and di- volume and viscosity of
commonly used at the present time, is to measure across their movement temperature of the fuel electric resistance of the fuel
1416 22 system the : the fuel
The quantity of fuel in the tanks is measured by capacitor type di-electric resistivity of height of the fuel volume of the fuel charge of condensors
contents gauges. The working principle of these sensors is to the fuel
1417 22 measure the :

To permit turbine exit temperatures to be measured, gas turbines are gas pressure thermocouple bi-metallic strip liquid expansion
equipped with thermometers which work on the following principle:
1418 22
During an acceleration phase at constant attitude, the resetting nose-down attitude constant attitude nose-down followed by nose-up attitude
principle of the artificial horizon results in the horizon bar indicating a a nose-up attitude
1419 22 :
An aircraft takes-off on a runway with an alignment of 045°. The will be nul is such that the is such that the will be nul if the wings
isogonic line on the area chart indicates 0°. The compass deviation compass will indicate a compass will indicate a are kept level.
is O°. value noticeably below value noticeably above
On a take-off with zero wind, the northerly turning error: 045°. 045°.
1420 22
During deceleration following a landing in Northerly direction, the an apparent turn to the an apparent turn to the a heading fluctuating no apparent turn.
1421 22 magnetic compass will indicate : East. West. about 360°.
 The inputs to the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System), are: 1,2,5,6,7 1,2,3,5,7 2,3,4,5,7 1,2,5,6,7

1- Air Data Computer - (Mach number and Vertical Speed)

2- Radio Altimeter
3- NAV/ILS (Glide Slope)
4- NAV/VOR
5- Flap (position)
6- Angle of Attack
7- Landing Gear (position)

The combination of correct statement is:

1422 22
Following 180° stabilized turn with a constant attitude and bank, the too high pitch-up and too high pitch-up and attitude and banking too high pitch up and
1423 22 artificial horizon indicates : too low banking correct banking correct too high banking
The disavantages of an "electric" fuel (float) gauge are : 1 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 3, 4 2, 3, 4, 5

1- the design is complex

2- the indications are influenced by the airplane attitude variations
3- the indications are influenced by the accelerations
4- the indications are influenced by temperature variations
5- that an alternative current supply is necessary

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1424 22
In an average or heavy weight transport airplane, generally, the fuel 1, 3 1, 2 1, 2, 3 2
quantity is measured by "capacitor" gauges because these give :

1- indications partly independent of fuel temperature variations

2- indications almost independent of the airplane's attitude and
accelerations
3- indications expressed in density

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1425 22
The operating principle of an "electronic" tachometer is to measure rotation speed of an magnetic field frequency of the electromotive force
the: asynchronous motor produced by a dynamo electric impulse created (EMF) produced by a
energized by an or an alternator. by a notched wheel dynamo or an
alternator. rotating in a magnetic alternator.
field.
1426 22
 The operating principle of the "induction" type of tachometer is to electromotive force frequency of the electric magnetic field rotation speed of an
measure the: (EMF) produced by a impulse created by a produced by a dynamo asynchronous motor
dynamo or an notched wheel rotating or an alternator. energized by an
alternator. in a magnetic field. alternator.

1427 22
An automatic landing system which can keep on operating without "REDUNDANT" "OPERATIONAL" "PASSIVE" "SAFE"
deterioration of its performances following the failure of one of the
1428 22 autopilots is called "FAIL...:

An automatic landing system necessitating that the landing be "OPERATIONAL" "SAFE" "REDUNDANT" "PASSIVE"
continued manually in the case of a system failure during an
1429 22 automatic approach is called "FAIL...."
The input signal of the amplifier of the gyromagnetic compass directional gyro error detector. flux valve. directional gyro unit.
1430 22 resetting device originates from the: erection device.
The heading information originating from the gyromagnetic compass error detector. erector system. heading indicator. amplifier.
1431 22 flux valve is sent to the:
The flight data recorder must start data recording automatically: when lining up. before the airplane is when taking-off. when the landing gear
able to move by under is retracted.
1432 22 its own power.

VFE is the maximum speed : at which the flaps can with the flaps extended with the flaps extended with the flaps extended
be operated. in take-off position. in a given position. in landing position.
1433 22
The operating frequency range of a low altitude radio altimeter is: 2700 MHz to 2900 5 GHz. 4200 MHz to 4400 5400 MHz or 9400
1434 22 MHz. MHz. MHz.
In the northern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing a heading fluctuating an apparent turn to the an apparent turn to the a constant heading.
in an Easterly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate : about 090°. South. North.
1435 22
If the outside temperature at 35 000 feet is -40°C, the local speed of 686 kt. 596 kt. 247 kt. 307 kt.
1436 22 sound is :
A semi-automatic landing system disconnects itself automatically: on ground. when going around. at approximately 100 ft. at the decision height.
1437 22
The airplane outside air temperature "probe" measures the : "static" air temperature "total" air temperature "static" air temperature "total" air temperature
minus compressibility minus kinetic heating minus kinetic heating minus compressibility
effects in order to effects in order to effects in order to effects in order to
obtain the total obtain the static obtain the total obtain the static
temperature. temperature. temperature. temperature.

1438 22
When an aircraft, operating in the VOR coupled mode, approaches remains always is temporarily temporarily switches is damped by a trim
the "cone of confusion" over a VOR station, the roll channel of the coupled to the selected disconnected. over to the heading input signal from the
1439 22 autopilot : VOR radial. mode. lateral trim system.
 Heading information given by a gyro platform, is given by a gyro at : 2 degrees-of-freedom 1 degree-of-freedom in l degree-of-freedom in 2 degrees-of-freedom
in the vertical axis the horizontal axis the vertical axis in the horizontal axis
1440 22
For this question use annex (022-10179A) 3 2 1 4

Four scenarios of VOR axis interception are represented in the

appended annex. The one corresponding to the optimal interception
path calculated by a flight director is number :
1441 22
The requirement to carry a GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning 1, 3 1 1, 2, 3 3
System) concerns aeroplanes which are, depending on their age,
weight and passenger capacity :

1- turboprop-powered
2- piston-powered
3- jet-powered

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1442 22
The gyromagnetic compass torque motor : causes the directional causes the heading feeds the error detector is fed by the flux valve
gyro unit to precess indicator to precess system
1443 22
A flux valve senses the changes in orientation of the horizontal 2-3-5 1-3-4-5 3-5 1-4-5
component of the earth's magnetic field.

1- the flux valve is made of a pair of soft iron bars

2- the primary coils are fed A.C. voltage (usually 487.5 Hz)
3- the information can be used by a "flux gate" compass or a
directional gyro
4- the flux gate valve casing is dependent on the aircraft three
inertial axis
5- the accuracy on the value of the magnetic field indication is less
than 0,5%

Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct

statements?

1444 22
The flight data recorders must preserve the conversation and aural 48 hours of operation 30 minutes of operation 25 hours of operation flight
1445 22 warnings of the last :
A thermocouple can be made of: a three wire coil. a single wire coil. two metal conductors of two metal conductors of
different nature fixed the same nature fixed
together at two points. together at two points.
1446 22
 The main input data to the Stall Warning Annunciator System are : 1,4 1,2 2,4 2,3

1- Mach Meter indication

2- Angle of Attack
3- Indicate Airspeed (IAS)
4- Aircraft configuration (Flaps/Slats)

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1447 22
In accordance with (ICAO) Annex 6 part I, the flight data recorder is at the right or left wing as far to the rear as as far forward as as near to the landing
1448 22 to be located in the aircraft : tip practicable practicable gear as practicable
Magnetic compass swinging is carried out to reduce as much as acceleration. deviation. variation. regulation.
possible :
1449 22
In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing no apparent turn. a heading fluctuating an apparent turn to the an apparent turn to the
in a Westerly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate : about 270°. North. South.
1450 22
The automatic trim is a component of the autopilot pitch channel. Its reset the attitude, after set the attitude to an automatically transfer a stabilized
function is to: engaging (the instantaneous value disengage the autopilot aeroplane to the pilot
autopilot). before engaging the in the case of an during autopilot
autopilot. excessive pitch up. disengagement.

1451 22
The autothrottle : 1 and 3 2 and 3 1 and 4 1, 3 and 4

1- enable to catch and to maintain the N1 RPM

2- enable to catch and to maintain the N2 RPM
3- enable to catch and to maintain an airplane indicated airspeed
(IAS)
4- is always engaged automatically at the same time as the autopilot

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1452 22
 The advantages of an "electric" fuel (float) gauge are : 1 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 3, 4

1- easy construction
2- independence of indications with regard to airplane attitude
3- independence of indications with regard to the accelerations
4- independence of indications with regard to temperature variations
5- independence of indications with regard to vibrations

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1453 22
The maximum directional gyro error due to the earth rotation is: 180°/hour 5°/hour 15°/hour 90°/hour
1454 22
Landing shall be considered as having been carried out at the outer marker. during ground roll. during the flare. at the decision height.
automatically when the autopilot and the auto-throttle of an aircraft
1455 22 are disengaged by flight crew :
When the altitude acquisition mode is engaged on a jet transport true airspeed (TAS) is indicated airspeed indicated airspeed true airspeed (TAS) is
airplane equipped with autopilot (AP) and auto-throttle (ATS) maintained constant by (IAS) is maintained (IAS) is maintained maintained constant by
systems the: the auto-throttle constant by the auto- constant by the the autopilot by means
system. throttle system. autopilot by means of of elevator.
elevator.
1456 22
The CVR (Cockpit Voice Recorder) includes: 1, 2, 3, 4 2, 4 1, 2 1, 4
1. a microphone
2. a recorder in compliance with the shock and fire resistance
standards
3. an independent battery
4. a flight data recorder
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1457 22
The computers of the electrical flight controls system comply with 1, 3, 4 1, 2, 3 2, 3 1, 2, 3, 4
programs defined by attitude control laws such as :

1- on the longitudinal axis, the law may combine the load factor and
the changes in the pitch rate as control data sources
2- the trimming is automatic and ensures neutral stability
3- the protections apply to pitch and bank attitudes depending on the
speed
4- these laws do not apply to the whole flight envelope

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1458 22
 The synchronization of the autopilot control channel system : 3, 4 2, 4 1, 4 2, 3

1- enables the prevention of jerks during disengagement

2- enables the cancellation of rudder control signals
3- enables the prevention of jerks during engagement
4- functions in the heading, navigation, approach modes

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1459 22
A Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) has the following 1, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 4, 5 1, 3, 5
functions :

1- flow regulation (fuel, decelerations and accelerations monitoring)

2- automatic starting sequence
3- transmissions of engine data to the pilot's instruments
4- thrust management and protection of operation limits
5- monitoring of the thrust reversers

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1460 22
In a 3-phase synchronous motor type tachometer indicator : 3, 5 1, 2 2, 5 1, 4

1- the transmitter is a direct current generator

2- the voltage is proportional to the transmitter drive speed
3- the frequency is proportional to the transmitter drive speed
4- the speed indicating element is a galvanometer
5. the speed indicating element is an asynchronous motor driving a
magnetic tachometer

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1461 22
The two main sources of information used to calculate turbojet thrust fan rotation speed (or fan rotation speed (or high pressure turbine fan rotation speed (or
are the: N1) or the total N1) or the EPR (Engine rotation speed or the N1) or the total
pressure at the low Pressure Ratio). EPR (Engine Pressure pressure at the high
pressure turbine outlet. Ratio). pressure compressor
outlet.
1462 22
 A cockpit voice recorder (CVR) will record : 1, 5 2, 4 3, 4 1, 2

1. the information exchanged by the cabin crew

2. the conversations between the crew members and voice
communications transmitted from or received on the flight deck by
radio
3. the announcements made via the public address even if it has not
been selected
4. the conversations and alarms audible in the cockpit
5. the captain conversations only

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1463 22
An "altitude warning system" must at least warn the crew : 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 4, 5 1, 3, 4 1, 3

1- when approaching the pre-selected altitude

2- when the airplane is approaching the ground too fast
3- in case of a given deviation above or below the pre-selected
altitude (at least by an aural warning)
4- in case of excessive vertical speed
5- when approaching the ground with the gear retracted

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1464 22
In an auto-pilot slaved powered control circuit, the system which prevents is inhibited when the can itself, when it fails, intervenes only when
ensures synchronisation : uncommanded surface automatic pilot is prevent the automatic the automatic pilot has
deflection when the engaged. pilot from being been engaged.
automatic pilot is engaged.
disengaged.
1465 22
The purpose of an airplane automatic trim system is to trim out the rudder(s) elevator(s) and elevator(s), rudder(s) elevator(s)
1466 22 hinge moment of the : rudder(s) and ailerons.
The automatic power control system (autothrottle) of a transport 1, 2, 4 1, 2, 3, 5 2, 4 1, 4, 5
airplane has the following mode(s) :

1- capture and holding of speeds

2- capture and holding of Mach number
3- capture and holding of flight angle of attack
4- capture and holding of N1 or EPR (Engine Power Ratio)
5- capture and holding of flight paths

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1467 22
 A landing is performed automatically when the autopilot and auto- until the flare. until reaching decision during the landing roll until reaching 100 ft,
throttle ensure good performance from the final approach : height. and sometimes until the height at which point
aircraft comes to a the autopilot is
complete stop. automatically
disconnected.
1468 22
The flight data recorder must automatically stop data recording when landing gear is airplane clears the airplane cannot any main gear shock strut
the: extended and locked. runway. longer move by its own compresses when
power. touching the runway.
1469 22
The functions of an autopilot (basic modes) consist of : guiding the airplane stabilizing and stabilizing and monitoring the
path. monitoring the monitoring the movement of the
movement around the movement around the airplane centre of
airplane aerodynamic airplane centre of gravity.
centre. gravity.
1470 22
A pilot engages the control wheel steering (CWS) of a conventional restore the flight maintain the flight roll wings level and maintain the track and
autopilot and carries out a manoeuvre in roll. When the control wheel attitude and the rate of attitude obtained at that maintain the heading the flight attitude
is released, the autopilot will : turn selected on the moment. obtained at that obtained at that
autopilot control display moment. moment.
unit.
1471 22
A slaved directional gyro derives it's directional signal from : a direct reading the flight director. the flux valve. the air-data-computer.
1472 22 magnetic compass.
If the tanks of your airplane only contain water, the capacitor gauges a mass equal to the a mass of water the exact mass of water a mass equal to zero.
indicate: mass of a same volume different from zero, but contained in the tanks.
1473 22 of fuel. inaccurate.
From a flight mechanics point of view, the "guidance" functions of a stabilizing and monitoring the stabilizing and monitoring the
transport airplane autopilot consist in: monitoring the movements of the monitoring the movements of the
movements around the centre of gravity in the movements around the aerodynamic centre in
aerodynamic centre. three dimensions of centre of gravity. the three dimensions of
space (path). space (path).

1474 22
During a Category II automatic approach, the height information is altimeter. radio altimeter. GPS (Global encoding altimeter.
1475 22 supplied by the : Positioning System).
Except for airplanes under 5,7 t airworthiness certificate of which is 10 hours. 30 minutes. 60 minutes. 25 hours.
subsequent to 31 march 1998, a flight data recording system must
be able to store the recorded data for a minimum of the last :
1476 22
 The autopilot basic modes include, among other things, the following 1, 4 1, 3 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 3
functions :

1- pitch attitude hold

2- pressure altitude hold
3- horizontal wing hold
4- heading hold

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1477 22
The basic principle used for measuring a quantity of fuel in a internal resistance of a capacity of a capacitor electromotive force of a capacity of a capacitor
transport airplane equipped with "capacitor" gauges is that the: capacity depends on depends on the capacity depends on depends on the nature
the nature of the distance between its the nature of the of the dielectric in which
dielectric in which it is plates. dielectric in which it is it is immersed.
immersed. immersed.

1478 22
The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is computed by : dividing turbine dividing compressor multiplying compressor multiplying compressor
discharge pressure by discharge pressure by inlet pressure by discharge pressure by
compressor inlet turbine discharge turbine discharge turbine inlet pressure.
pressure. pressure. pressure.

1479 22
The command bars of a flight director are generally represented on HSI (Horizontal RMI (Radio Magnetic ILS (Instrument ADI (Attitude Director
1480 22 an: Situation Indicator) Indicator) Landing System) Indicator)
A thermocouple type thermometer consists of: a single-wire metal two metal conductors of two metal conductors of a Wheatstone bridge
winding. different type the same type connected to a voltage
connected at one point. connected at two indicator.
points.
1481 22
The disadvantage of an electronic rpm indicator is the : necessity of providing a generation of spurious influence of high influence of line
power supply source. signals at the temperature on the resistance on the
1482 22 commutator. indication. indication.
In a transport airplane, an autopilot comprises, in addition to the 1, 3, 4, 6 1, 2, 6 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 2, 3, 4, 5
mode display devices, the following fundamental elements :

1- Airflow valve
2- Sensors
3- Comparators
4- Computers
5- Amplifiers
6- Servo-actuators

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1483 22
 The principle of capacity gauges is based on the: capacitance variation
by the volume
measurement carried
out on the sensor.
1484 22
The Head Up Display (HUD) is a device allowing the pilot, while still a monitoring only
looking outside, to have: during Cat III precision
1485 22 approaches.
The control law of a transport airplane autopilot control channel may computer input
be defined as the relationship between the : deviation data and the
signals received by the
servoactuators.
flow rate and torque capacitance variation of current variation in the
variation occurring in a a given capacitor with Wheatstone bridge.
supply line. the type of dielectric.
a synthetic view of the a flying and flight path a monitoring of engine
instrument procedure. control aid. data.
input and output signals crew inputs to the computer input
at the amplifier level computer and the deviation data and the
respectively control detector responses output control deflection
deviation data and (returned to the signals.
control deflection airplane).
signals.

1486 22
Flight recorder duration must be such that flight data, cockpit voice 20 hours for flight data, 48 hours for flight data, 25 hours for flight data, 24 hours for flight data,
and sound warnings may respectively be recorded during at least: 15 minutes for cockpit 60 minutes for cockpit 30 minutes for cockpit 60 minutes for cockpit
voices and warnings voices and warnings voices and warnings voices and warnings
horns. horns horns. horns.
1487 22
When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the underread. be just as correct as show the actual height overread.
1488 22 altimeter will : before. above ground.
MASS AND BALANCE - AEROPLANES
In cruise, an extreme aft longitudinal center of gravity: moves away the cyclic brings the cyclic stick moves away the cyclic brings the cyclic stick
stick from its forward closer to its forward stick from its forward closer to its forward
stop and increases the stop and decreases the stop and decreases the stop and increases the
stress in the rotor head stress in the rotor head stresses in the head stress in the rotor head
rotors

1489 31
The Dry Operating Mass of an aircraft is 2 000 kg. 1 450 kg 1 000 kg 950 kg 1 500 kg
The maximum take-off mass, landing and zero fuel mass are
identical at 3500 kg. The block fuel mass is 550kg, and the taxi fuel
mass is 50 kg. The available mass of payload is:
1490 31
An additional baggage container is loaded into the aft cargo will not be achieved. will be greater than are unaffected but V1 will give reduced safety
compartment but is not entered into the load and trim sheet. The required. will be increased. margins.
aeroplane will be heavier than expected and calculated take-off
safety speeds
1491 31
 (For this question use appendix 031-11590A ) 6 270 kg and 4.796 m 6 270 kg and 5.012 m 6 270 kg and 4.61 m 6 270 kg and 4.594 m

Without the crew, the mass and longitudinal CG position of the

aircraft are 6 000 kg and 4,70m.

- the mass of the pilot is 90 kg

- the mass of the copilot is 100 kg
- the mass of the flight engineer is 80 kg

With the crew, the mass and longitudinal CG position of the aircraft
are :

1492 31
The Basic Mass of a helicopter is the mass of the helicopter without without specific without specific without payload, with without specific
crew, : equipments for the equipment for the specific equipment for equipment for the
mission, without mission, without the mission, without the mission, without
payload, with fuel on payload, with the unusable fuel. payload, wthout
board. unusable fuel and unusable fuel.
standard equipment.
1493 31
(For this question use annex 031-11250A, 031-11250B and 031- 30.5 % 27.4 % 29.3 % 28.0 %
11250C)
Knowing that:
. Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg
. Basic index: 119.1
. Number of passengers: 335 distributed as shown in the annex (75
kg per PAX)
. Cargo load + luggage: 9 500 kg distributed as shown in the annex.
. Fuel: 40 000 kg
Stages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated, the centre
of gravity in % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) for zero fuel mass is
located at:

1494 31
(For this question use annex 031-11222A and 031-11222B ) 25 % 27 % 31 % 33 %
The planned take-off mass of an aeroplane is 190 000 kg, with its
centre of gravity located at 29 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord).
Shortly prior to engine start, the local staff informs the flight crew that
an additional load of 4 000 kg must be loaded in cargo 4. After
loading this cargo, the new centre of gravity location will be:

1495 31
 The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the 40 400 kg 32 100 kg 32 900 kg 18 900 kg
following data:
- Block fuel: 40 000 kg
- Trip fuel: 29 000 kg
- Taxi fuel: 800 kg
- Maximum take-off mass: 170 000 kg
- Maximum landing mass: 148 500 kg
- Maximum zero fuel mass: 112 500 kg
- Dry operating mass: 80 400 kg

The maximum traffic load for this flight is:

1496 31
(For this question use annex 031-11227A) front cargo: 9 260 kg; front cargo: 3 740 kg; front cargo: 6 760 kg; front cargo: 4 550 kg;
An aeroplane, whose specific data is shown in the annex, has a rear cargo: 1 240 kg rear cargo: 6 760 kg rear cargo: 3 740 kg rear cargo: 5 950 kg
planned take-off mass of 200 000 kg, with its centre of gravity (C.G.)
located at 15.38 m rearward of the reference point, representing a
C.G. location at 30 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). The current
cargo load distribution is: front cargo: 6 500 kg; rear cargo: 4 000 kg.
For performance purposes, the captain decides to reset the value of
the centre of gravity location to 33 % MAC. The front and rear cargo
compartments are located at a distance of 15 m and 25 m from the
reference point respectively. After the transfer operation, the new
cargo load distribution is:

1497 31
The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is at 25% of the Mean the aeroplane in the mean aerodynamic the mean aerodynamic the mean aerodynamic
Aerodynamic Chord. relation to the leading chord in relation to the chord in relation to the chord in relation to the
This means that the centre of gravity of the aeroplane is situated at edge leading edge trailing edge datum
25% of the length of:
1498 31
The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the 55 000 kg 55 800 kg 25 800 kg 25 000 kg
following data:
- Dry operating mass: 90 000 kg
- Block fuel: 30 000 kg
- Taxi fuel: 800 kg
- Maximum take-off mass: 145 000 kg
The traffic load available for this flight is:
1499 31
 (For this question use annex 031-11251A , 031-11251B and 031- 29.3 % 28.3 % 30.5 % 32.3 %
11251C)
Knowing that:
. Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg
. Basic index: 119.1
. Number of passengers: 185 distributed as shown in the annex (75
kg per PAX)
. Cargo load + luggage: 14 000 kg distributed as shown in the annex.
. Fuel: 42 000 kg
Stages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated, the centre
of gravity in % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) for zero fuel mass is
located at:

1500 31
(For this question use annex 031-11219A) 5 600 kg 3 600 kg It is not possible to 4 600 kg
An aeroplane, whose specific data is shown in the annex, has a establish the required
planned take-off mass of 200 000 kg, with its centre of gravity (C.G.) centre of gravity
is located at 15.38 m rearward of the reference point, representing a location.
C.G. location at 30 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). For
performance purposes, the captain decides to reset the value of the
centre of gravity location to 35 % MAC. The front and rear cargo
compartments are located at a distance of 15 m and 25 m from the
reference point respectively, the cargo load mass which needs to be
transferred from the front to the rear cargo compartment is:

1501 31
The flight preparation of a turbojet aeroplane provides the following 61 500 kg 54 000 kg 55 000 kg 55 500 kg
data:
Take-off runway limitation: 185 000 kg
Landing runway limitation: 180 000 kg
Planned fuel consumption: 11 500 kg
Fuel already loaded on board the aircraft: 20 000 kg
Knowing that:
Maximum take-off mass (MTOM): 212 000 kg
Maximum landing mass (MLM): 174 000 kg
Maximum zero fuel mass (MZFM): 164 000 kg
Dry operating mass (DOM): 110 000 kg
The maximum cargo load that the captain may decide to load on
board is:

1502 31
 (For this question use appendix 031-11589A) beyond the limit 6 180 kg and 0.059m to 6 180 kg and 0.075m to 6 180 kg and 0.041m to
the right the right the right
Without the man on the winch, the mass and the lateral CG position
of the helicopter are 6 000 kg and 0.055 m to the right.

- the mass of the wet man on the winch is 180 kg

With the man on the winch, the mass and lateral CG-position of the
helicopter are :

1503 31
Determine the Zero Fuel Mass for the following single engine 2449 lbs 2589 lbs 2659 lbs 2414 lbs
aeroplane.

Given :
Standard Empty Mass : 1764 lbs
Optional Equipment : 35 lbs
Pilot + Front seat passenger : 300 lbs
Cargo Mass : 350 lbs
Ramp Fuel = Block Fuel : 60 Gal.
Trip Fuel : 35 Gal.
Fuel density : 6 lbs/Gal.

1504 31
An aeroplane has a mean aerodynamic chord (MAC) of 134.5 18,14% 75,6% 85,5% 10,5%
inches. The leading edge of this chord is at a distance of 625.6
inches aft of the datum. Give the location of the centre of gravity of
the aeroplane in terms of percentage MAC if the mass of the
aeroplane is acting vertically through a balance arm located 650
inches aft of the datum.
1505 31
Determine the Take-off Mass for the following single engine 2764 lbs 2809 lbs 2659 lbs 2799 lbs
aeroplane.

Given :
Standard Empty Mass : 1764 lbs
Optional Equipment : 35 lbs
Pilot + Front seat passenger : 300 lbs
Cargo Mass : 350 lbs
Ramp Fuel = Block Fuel : 60 Gal.
Trip Fuel : 35 Gal.
Fuel density : 6 lbs/Gal.

1506 31
 With respect to aeroplane loading in the planning phase, which of Reserve Fuel = TOM - LM = TOM - Trip Fuel MTOM = ZFM + MZFM = Traffic load +
the following statements is always correct ? Trip Fuel maximum possible fuel DOM
LM = Landing Mass mass
TOM = Take-off Mass
MTOM = Maximum Take-off Mass
ZFM = Zero Fuel Mass
MZFM = Maximum Zero Fuel Mass
DOM = Dry Operating Mass
1507 31
(For this question use annexes 031- 11205A and 031-11205B) 1 000 kg from cargo 1 500 kg from cargo 1 to 1 000 kg from cargo 3 1 500 kg from cargo 3
A turbojet aeroplane is parked with the following data: to cargo 4 cargo 3 to cargo 1 to cargo 1
Corrected dry operating mass: 110 100 kg
Basic corrected index: 118.6
Initial cargo distribution: cargo 1: 4 000 kg ; cargo 2: 2 000 kg ; cargo
3: 2 000 kg;
other cargo compartments are empty
Take-off mass: 200 000 kg; centre of gravity (C.G.) location: 32 %
For perfomance reasons, the captain decides to redistribute part of
the cargo loading between cargo compartments, in order to take off
with a new C.G. location of 34 %. He asks for a transfer of:

1508 31
With reference to mass and balance calculations (on an aeroplane) a point from which all a fixed point from which the point through which a point near the centre
a datum point is used. This datum point is : balance arms are all balance arms are the sum of the mass of the aeroplane. It
measured. The location measured. It may be values (of the moves longitudinally as
of this point varies with located anywhere on aeroplane and its masses are added
the distribution of loads the aeroplane's contents) is assumed to forward and aft of its
on the aeroplane. longitudinal axis or on act vertically. location.
the extensions to that
axis.

1509 31
If 390 Ibs of cargo are moved from compartment B (aft) to 463.7 506.3 436.7 433.3
compartment A (forward), what is the station number of the new
centre of gravity (cg).
Given : Gross mass 116.500 Ibs
Present cg station 435.0
Compartment A station 285.5
Compartment B station 792.5
1510 31
 An aeroplane with a two wheel nose gear and four main wheels rests 4 meter. 41.6 cm. 40 cm. 25 cm.
on the ground with a single nose wheel load of 500 kg and a single
main wheel load of 6000 kg. The distance between the nose wheels
and the main wheels is 10 meter.
How far is the centre of gravity in front of the main wheels?
1511 31
Moment (balance) arms are measured from a specific point to the the focal point. the axis. the centre of gravity of the datum.
body station at which the mass is located. That point is known as the aeroplane.
1512 31
The operator of an aircraft equipped with 50 seats uses standard the operator should use the operator may use the operator may use the operator is obliged
masses for passengers and baggage. During the preparation of a the individual masses the standard masses the standard masses to use the actual
scheduled flight a group of passengers present themselves at the of the passengers or for the load and for the balance but masses of each
check-in desk, it is apparent that even the lightest of these exceeds alter the standard balance calculation must correct these for passenger
the value of the declared standard mass. masss without correction the load calculation

1513 31
The datum used for balance calculations is: chosen on the chosen on the chosen on the chosen on the
longitudinal axis of the longitudinal axis of the longitudinal axis of the longitudinal axis of the
aircraft, and always at aeroplane, but not aeroplane, and aircraft and necessarily
the fire-wall level necessarily between necessarily situated situated between the
the nose and the tail of between the nose and leading edge and
the aircraft the tail of the aircraft trailing edge of the wing

1514 31
The datum is a reference from which all moment (balance) arms are at or near the forward at or near the focal at or near the natural at a convenient point
measured. Its precise position is given in the control and loading limit of the centre of point of the aeroplane balance point of the which may not
manual and it is located gravity. axis system. empty aeroplane. physically be on the
aeroplane.
1515 31
In calculations with respect to the position of the centre of gravity a an arbitrary reference calculated from the a reference plane calculated from the
reference is made to a datum. The datum is chosen by the pilot data derived from the which is chosen by the loading manifest.
which can be located weighing procedure aeroplane
anywhere on the carried out on the manufacturer. Its
aeroplane. aeroplane after any position is given in the
major modification. aeroplane Flight or
Loading Manual.
1516 31
 (For this question use annexes 031-6564A and 031-6564B or 2548,8 6675 2496,3 2311,8
Loading Manual SEP1 Figure 2.4)
With respect to a single-engine piston powered aeroplane,
determine the zero fuel moment (lbs.In./100) in the following
conditions:
Basic Empty Mass: 2415 lbs.
Arm at Basic Empty Mass: 77,9 In.
Cargo Zone A: 350 lbs.
Baggage Zone B: 35 lbs.
Pilot and front seat passenger : 300 lbs (total)

1517 31
Considering only structural limitations, on long distance flights (at the The maximum zero fuel The maximum zero fuel The maximum landing The maximum take-off
aeroplane's maximum range), the traffic load is normally limited by: mass. mass plus the take-off mass. mass.
1518 31 mass.
Prior to departure an aeroplane is loaded with 16500 litres of fuel at heavier than lighter than anticipated lighter than anticipated heavier than
a fuel density of 780 kg/m³. This is entered into the load sheet as anticipated and the and the calculated and the calculated anticipated and the
16500 kg and calculations are carried out accordingly. As a result of calculated safety safety speeds will be safety speeds will be calculated safety
this error, the aeroplane is speeds will be too low. too high too low speeds will be too high

1519 31
Fuel loaded onto an aeroplane is 15400 kg but is erroneously the aeroplane will speed at un-stick will be V1 will be reached V1 will be increased.
entered into the load and trim sheet as 14500 kg. This error is not rotate much earlier than higher than expected sooner than expected
1520 31 detected by the flight crew but they will notice that expected.

(For this question use annex 031-9596 A or Loading Manual MRJT Forward limit 8.0% Forward limit 8.6% Forward limit 8.0% Forward limit 7.4%
1 Figure 4.11) MAC aft limit 27.2% MAC aft limit 27.0% MAC aft limit 26.8% MAC aft limit 27.0%
At the maximum landing mass the range of safe CG positions, as MAC MAC MAC MAC
determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:

1521 31
At a given mass the CG position is at 15% MAC. If the leading edge 228.34 inches aft of 645.78 inches aft of 20.18 inches aft of 605.43 inches aft of
of MAC is at a position 625.6 inches aft of the datum and the MAC is datum datum datum datum
given as 134.5 inches determine the position of the CG in relation to
to the datum.
1522 31
The loaded centre of gravity (cg) of an aeroplane is 713 mm aft of 60 % 10 % 16 % 41 %
datum. The mean aerodynamic chord lies between station 524 mm
aft and 1706 mm aft. The cg expressed as % MAC (mean
aerodynamic chord) is:
1523 31
Given: It moves aft by 0.157 It moves aft by 0.31 m. It moves forward by It moves aft by 3.22 m.
Aeroplane mass = 36 000 kg m. 0.157 m.
Centre of gravity (cg) is located at station 17 m
What is the effect on cg location if you move 20 passengers (total
mass = 1 600 kg) from station 16 to station 23?
1524 31
 (For this question use annex 031-12274A) 7000 kg 8268 kg 655 kg 1830 kg
An aeroplane is carrying a traffic load of 10320 kg
Complete the necessary sections of the attached appendix and
determine which of the answers given below represents the
maximum increase in the traffic load
1525 31
The zero fuel mass of an aeroplane is always: The take-off mass The take-off mass The take-off mass The maximum take-off
minus the take-off fuel minus the wing fuel minus the fuselage fuel mass minus the take-off
1526 31 mass. mass. mass. fuel mass.

In relation to an aeroplane, the term ' Basic Empty Mass' includes printed in the loading found in the latest inclusive of an found in the flight
the mass of the aeroplane structure complete with its powerplants, manual and includes version of the weighing allowance for crew, manual and is inclusive
systems, furnishings and other items of equipment considered to be unusable fuel. schedule as corrected crew baggage and of unusable fuel plus
an integral part of the particular aeroplane configuration. Its value is to allow for other operating items. It fluids contained in
modifications. is entered in the closed systems.
loading manifest.
1527 31
Considering only structural limitations, on very short legs with Maximum take-off Actual landing mass. Maximum zero fuel Maximum landing
1528 31 minimum take-off fuel, the traffic load is normally limited by: mass. mass. mass.
(For this question use annex 031-11247A and 031-11247B) 2 000 kg in cargo 1; 2 1 000 kg in cargo 1; 3 2 500 kg in cargo 1; 1 3 000 kg in cargo 1; 1
A turbojet aeroplane is parked with the following data: 000 kg in cargo 4 000 kg in cargo 4 500 kg in cargo 4 000 kg in cargo 4
Corrected Dry Operating Mass: 110 100 kg
Basic corrected index: 118.6
Initial cargo distribution: cargo 1 = 4 000 kg; cargo 2 = 2 000 kg;
cargo 3 = 2 000 kg;
The other cargo compartments are empty.
Take-off mass: 200 000 kg
Centre of gravity location: 32 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord)
To maximize performance, the captain decides to redistribute part of
the cargo load between cargo 1 and cargo 4, in order to take off with
a new centre of gravity location at 35 % MAC. After loading, the new
load distribution between cargo 1 and cargo 4 is:

1529 31
(For this question use annex 031-11246A and 031-11246B) 34 % 25 % 28 % 37 %
The planned take-off mass of an aeroplane is 180 000 kg, with its
centre of gravity located at 31 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord).
Shortly prior to engine start, the local staff informs the crew that an
additional load of 4 000 kg must be loaded in cargo 1. After loading
this cargo, the new centre of gravity location will be:

1530 31
 Given: 12 900 kg 13 300 kg 9 300 kg 14 600 kg
Dry Operating Mass= 29 800 kg
Maximum Take-Off Mass= 52 400 kg
Maximum Zero-Fuel Mass= 43 100 kg
Maximum Landing Mass= 46 700 kg
Trip fuel= 4 000 kg
Fuel quantity at brakes release= 8 000 kg
The maximum traffic load is:
1531 31
(For this question use annex 031-1581A) Take-off cg is out of Landing cg is out of Landing cg is out of Take-off cg is out of
The loading for a flight is shown in the attached loadsheet, with the limits at 12.34 m aft of limits at 11.97 m aft of limits at 10.17 m aft of limits at 10.17 m aft of
following data applying to the aeroplane: datum. datum. datum. datum.
Maximum take-off mass: 150 000 kg
Maximum landing mass: 140 000 kg
Centre of gravity (cg) limit forward: 10.5 m aft of datum
aft: 13.0 m aft of datum
Estimated trip fuel: 55 000 kg
1532 31
(For this question use annex 031-1580A) 30.4 %. 35.5 %. 27.5 %. 16.9 %.
A jet aeroplane, with the geometrical characteristics shown in the
appendix, has a take-off weight (W) of 460 000 N and a centre of
gravity (point G on annex) located at 15.40 m from the zero
reference point.
At the last moment the station manager has 12 000 N of freight
added in the forward compartment at 10 m from the zero reference
point.
The final location of the centre of gravity, calculated in percentage of
mean aerodynamic chord AB (from point A), is equal to:

1533 31
Given: 68.9 kg. 73.5 kg. 62.5 kg. 65.8 kg.
Total mass: 7500 kg
Centre of gravity (cg) location station: 80.5
Aft cg limit station: 79.5
How much cargo must be shifted from the aft cargo compartment at
station 150 to the forward cargo compartment at station 30 in order
to move the cg location to the aft limit?
1534 31
 Given: 121 300 kg 113 900 kg 120 300 kg 120 900 kg
Maximum structural take-off mass= 146 900 kg
Maximum structural landing mass= 93 800 kg
Maximum zero fuel mass= 86 400 kg
Trip fuel= 27 500 kg
Block fuel= 35 500 kg
Engine starting and taxi fuel = 1 000 kg
The maximum take-off mass is equal to:
1535 31
Given that the total mass of an aeroplane is 112 000 kg with a centre 16 529 kg 8 680 kg 43 120 kg 29 344 kg
of gravity position at 22.62m aft of the datum. The centre of gravity
limits are between 18m and 22m. How much mass must be removed
from the rear hold (30 m aft of the datum) to move the centre of
gravity to the middle of the limits:
1536 31
A location in the aeroplane which is identified by a number Station. Moment. MAC. Index.
1537 31 designating its distance from the datum is known as:
The mass of an aeroplane is 1950 kg. If 450 kg is added to a cargo 30 cm. 34 cm. 33 cm. 40 cm.
hold 1.75 metres from the loaded centre of gravity (cg). The loaded
1538 31 cg will move:
The Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane includes : Crew and crew Unusable fuel and Fuel and passengers Passengers baggage
baggage, catering, reserve fuel. baggage and cargo. and cargo.
removable passenger
service equipment,
potable water and
lavatory chemicals.
1539 31
Which is true of the aeroplane empty mass? It is dry operating mass It is the actual take-off It is a component of dry It is dry operating mass
minus traffic load. mass, less traffic load. operating mass. minus fuel load.
1540 31
In mass and balance calculations the "index" is: the moment divided by a location in the an imaginary vertical the range of moments
a constant. aeroplane identified by plane or line from which the centre of gravity
a number. all measurements are (cg) can have without
taken. making the aeroplane
unsafe to fly.

1541 31
Loads must be adequately secured in order to: allow steep turns. avoid unplanned centre avoid any centre of prevent excessive 'g'-
of gravity (cg) gravity (cg) movement loading during the
movement and aircraft during flight. landing flare.
damage.
1542 31
Traffic load is the: Dry Operating Mass Dry Operating Mass Take-off Mass minus Zero Fuel Mass minus
minus the disposable minus the variable load. Zero Fuel Mass. Dry Operating Mass.
1543 31 load.
 If individual masses are used, the mass of an aeroplane must be at intervals of 9 years. at intervals of 4 years if at regular annual only if major
determined prior to initial entry into service and thereafter no modifications have intervals. modifications have
taken place. taken place.
1544 31
Given are the following information at take-off 61.29 cm aft of datum. 61.28 cm aft of datum. 61.26 cm aft of datum. 61.27 cm aft of datum.
______________________________________________________
_____________
STATION MASS (kg) ARM (cm) MOMENT
(kgcm)
______________________________________________________
_____________
Basic Empty Condition 12045 +30 +361350
Crew 145 -160 -23200
Freight 1 5455 +200 +1091000
Freight 2 410 -40 -16400
Fuel 6045 -8 - 48360
Oil 124 +40 +4960
Given that the flight time is 2 hours and the estimated fuel flow will
be 1050 litres per hour and the average oil consumption will be 2.25
litres per hour. The specific density of fuel is 0.79 and the specific
density of oil is 0.96.
Calculate the landing centre of gravity

1545 31
An aeroplane is weighed and the following recordings are made: 32505 kg 30180 kg 28400 kg 31960 kg
nose wheel assembly scale 5330 kg
left main wheel assembly scale 12370 kg
right main wheel assembly scale 12480 kg
If the 'operational items' amount to a mass of 1780 kg with a crew
mass of 545 kg, the empty mass, as entered in the weight schedule,
is

1546 31
 (For this question use annex 031-2946A) 3 500 kg 35 000 kg 62 500 kg 7 500 kg
The total mass of an aeroplane is 145000 kg and the centre of
gravity limits are between 4.7 m and 6.9 m aft of the datum. The
loaded centre of gravity position is 4.4 m aft. How much mass must
be transferred from the front to the rear hold in order to bring the out
of limit centre of gravity position to the foremost limit:

1547 31
(For this question use annex 033-9583A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 on the nose of the at the leading edge of 540 inches forward of 540 cm forward of the
page 20) aeroplane. the Mean Aerodynamic the front spar. front spar.
For the medium range twin jet the datum point is located Chord (MAC).
1548 31
The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is that point through which the at right angles to the governed by the parallel to the gravity always parallel to the
total mass of the aeroplane is said to act. The weight acts in a flight path. distribution of the mass vector. aeroplane's vertical
direction within the aeroplane. axis.
1549 31
When an aeroplane is stationary on the ground, its total weight will through its centre of through its centre of through the main through a point defined
act vertically gravity. pressure. wheels of its as the datum point.
undercarriage
assembly.
1550 31
The weight of an aeroplane, which is in level non accelerated flight, vertically through the vertically through the always along the vertically through the
is said to act centre of pressure. datum point. vertical axis of the centre of gravity.
1551 31 aeroplane.
The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is in a fixed position must be maintained in a can be allowed to move may only be moved if
and is unaffected by fixed position by careful between defined limits. permitted by the
aeroplane loading. distribution of the load. regulating authority and
endorsed in the
aeroplane's certificate
of airworthiness.

1552 31
An aeroplane has its centre of gravity located 7 metres from the 7000 Nm. 34 300 Nm. 343 000 Nm. 1.43 Nm.
datum line and it has a mass of 49000 N. The moment about the
1553 31 datum is:
 Given the following information, calculate the loaded centre of gravity 60.16 cm aft datum. 53.35 cm aft datum. 56.53 cm aft datum. 56.35 cm aft datum.
(cg).

______________________________________________________
_____________
STATION MASS (kg) ARM (cm) MOMENT
(kgcm)
______________________________________________________
_____________
Basic Empty Condition 12045 +30 +361350
Crew 145 -160 -23200
Freight 1 5455 +200 +1091000
Freight 2 410 -40 -16400
Fuel 6045 -8 -48360
Oil 124 +40 +4960

1554 31
(For this question use annex 031-11248A , 031-11248B and 031- 30.5 % 32.5 % 28.0 % 31.5 %
11248C)
Knowing that:
. Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg
. Basic index: 119.1
. Number of passengers: 185 distributed as shown in the annex (75
kg per PAX)
. Cargo load + luggage: 14 000 kg distributed as shown in the annex.
. Fuel: 42 000 kg
Stages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated, the centre
of gravity in % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) at take-off is located
at:

1555 31
Given: 140 kg. 14 kg. 207 kg. 317 kg.
Total mass 2900 kg
Centre of gravity (cg) location station: 115.0
Aft cg limit station: 116.0
The maximum mass that can be added at station 130.0 is:
1556 31
 (For this question use annex 031-11273A and 031-11273B) It is not possible to 3 000 kg from cargo 4 2 000 kg from cargo 4 1 000 kg from cargo 4
A turbojet aeroplane has a planned take-off mass of 190 000 kg. obtain the required to cargo 1. to cargo 1. to cargo 1.
Following cargo loading, the crew is informed that the centre of centre of gravity.
gravity at take-off is located at 38 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord)
which is beyond limits. The captain decides then to redistribute part
of the cargo load between cargo 1 and cargo 4 in order to obtain a
new centre of gravity location at 31 % MAC. He asks for a transfer
of:
1557 31
Which of the following statements is correct? The Maximum Zero The Maximum Take-off The Basic Empty Mass The Maximum Landing
Fuel Mass ensures that Mass is equal to the is equal to the mass of Mass of an aeroplane is
the centre of gravity maximum mass when the aeroplane restricted by structural
remains within limits leaving the ramp. excluding traffic load limitations, performance
after the uplift of fuel. and useable fuel but limitations and the
including the crew. strength of the runway.

1558 31
Which of the following statements is correct? If the actual centre of If the actual centre of The lowest stalling A tail heavy aeroplane
gravity is located gravity is close to the speed is obtained if the is less stable and stalls
behind the aft limit of forward limit of the actual centre of gravity at a lower speed than a
centre of gravity it is centre of gravity the is located in the middle nose heavy aeroplane
possible that the aeroplane may be between the aft and
aeroplane will be unstable, making it forward limit of centre
unstable, making it necessary to increase of gravity
necessary to increase elevator forces
elevator forces

1559 31
Which of the following statements is correct? The station (STA) is The centre of gravity is If the actual centre of A tail heavy aeroplane
always the location of given in percent of gravity is located is less stable and stalls
the centre of gravity in MAC calculated from behind the aft limit the at a lower speed than a
relation to a reference the leading edge of the aeroplane longitudinal nose heavy aeroplane
point, normally the wing, where MAC stability increases.
leading edge of the always = the wing
wing at MAC chord halfway between
the centre line of the
fuselage and the wing
tip

1560 31
 (For this question use annex 031-12268A) 20.1 % 20.3 % 22.6 % 17.5 %
Using the data given in the Load & Trim sheet, determine from the
following the correct values for the take off mass and the position of
the centre of gravity at that mass if the fuel index correction to be
applied is given as - 0.9
1561 31
(For this question use annex 031-12269A) 52900kg and 19 % 52900 kg and 21.6 % 49130 kg and 21.8 % 49130 kg and 19 %
Using the data given at the appendix to this question, if the fuel index
corrections (from ZFM index) are as follows
9500 kg - 0.9
6500 kg - 6.1
3500 kg - 4.7
3000 kg - 4.3
Which of the following represent the correct values for landing mass
of the aeroplane and the position of the centre of gravity for this
condition ?

1562 31
Given an aeroplane with: 75000 kg and 20000 kg 77200 kg and 19400 kg 77200 kg and 22200 kg 75000 kg and 17200 kg
Maximum Structural Landing Mass: 68000 kg
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 70200 kg
Maximum Structural Take-off Mass: 78200 kg
Dry Operating Mass : 48000 kg
Scheduled trip fuel is 7000 kg and the reserve fuel is 2800 kg,

Assuming performance limitations are not restricting, the maximum

permitted take-off mass and maximum traffic load are respectively:

1563 31
(For this question use annex 031-11275A and 031-11275B) cargo 1: 5 000 kg; cargo 1: 4 000 kg; cargo 1: 6 000 kg; cargo 1: 4 000 kg;
A turbojet aeroplane has a planned take-off mass of 190 000 kg; the cargo 4: 4 000 kg cargo 4: 5 000 kg cargo 4: 4 000 kg cargo 4: 6 000 kg
cargo load is distributed as follows: cargo 1: 3 000 kg; cargo 4: 7 000
kg. Once the cargo loading is completed, the crew is informed that
the centre of gravity at take-off is located at 38 % MAC (Mean
Aerodynamic Cord) which is beyond the limits. The captain decides
then to redistribute part of the cargo load between cargo 1 and cargo
4 in order to obtain a new centre of gravity location at 31 % MAC.
Following the transfer operation, the new load distribution is:

1564 31
 Given an aeroplane with: 125500 kg and 21500 125500 kg and 26500 130500 kg and 26500 130500 kg and 31500
Maximum Structural Landing Mass: 125000 kg kg kg kg kg
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 108500 kg
Maximum Structural Take-off Mass: 155000 kg
Dry Operating Mass: 82000 kg
Scheduled trip fuel is 17000 kg and the reserve fuel is 5000 kg.

Assuming performance limitations are not restricting, the maximum

permitted take-off mass and maximum traffic load are respectively:

1565 31
(For this question use annex 031-11249A , 031-11249B and 031- 30.5 % 28.0 % 29.3 % 27.4 %
11249C)
Knowing that:
. Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg
. Basic index: 119.1
. Number of passengers: 335 distributed as shown in the annex (75
kg per PAX)
. Cargo load + luggage: 9 500 kg distributed as shown in the annex.
. Fuel: 40 000 kg
Stages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated, the centre
of gravity in % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) at take-off is located
at:

1566 31
(For this question use annex 031-12271A) 18 % 19 % 15 % 14 %
From the data given at the appendix and assuming a fuel index shift
of - 5.7 from the ZFM loaded index, determine which of the following
is the correct value (percentage MAC) for the position of the centre
of gravity at Take Off Mass.
1567 31
 (For this question use annex 031-12272A) 210 kg 280 kg no cargo can be loaded 260 kg
For the purpose of calculating traffic loads, an operator's loading in hold number 1
manual gives the following standard mass values for passengers.
(These values include an allowance for hand baggage)
Male 88 kg
Female 70 kg
Child 35 kg
Infant 6 kg
The standard mass value to be used for hold baggage is 14 kg per
piece
The loading manifest shows the following details :
Passengers loaded
Males 40
Females 65
Children 8
Infants 5
Baggage in hold number 4: 120 pieces

Using the standard mass values given and the data in the appendix,
select from the following the correct value for the mass of freight (all
loaded in hold No1) which constitutes the remainder of the traffic
load

1568 31
The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 117 000 kg, comprising a traffic 71 000 kg 99 000 kg 53 000 kg 64 000 kg
load of 18 000 kg and fuel of 46 000 kg. What is the dry operating
1569 31 mass?

(For this question use annex 031-12273A) 66770 kg and 17320 kg 60425 kg and 10975 kg 61600 kg and 12150 kg 68038 kg and 18588 kg
From the data contained in the attached appendix, the maximum
allowable take - off mass and traffic load is respectively :
1570 31
(For this question use annex 031-11258A and 031-11258B) 23.0 % 21.8 % 20.0 % 30.2 %
The planned take-off mass of a turbojet aeroplane is 180 000 kg,
with its centre of gravity located at 26 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic
Cord). Shortly prior to engine start, the local staff informs the flight
crew that 4 000 kg must be unloaded from cargo 4. After the
handling operation, the new centre of gravity location in % MAC will
be:
1571 31
 (For this question use annex 031-11257A and 031-11257B ) 31 % 25 % 33 % 27 %
The planned take-off mass of a turbojet aeroplane is 190 000 kg,
with its centre of gravity located at 29 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic
Cord) . Shortly prior to engine start, the local staff informs the flight
crew that 4 000 kg must be unloaded from cargo 4. After the
handling operation, the new centre of gravity location in % MAC will
be:
1572 31
(For this question use annex 031-12270A) 35100 kg and 20.5 48600 kg and 57.0 51300 kg and 57.0 46300 kg and 20.5
Using the data given at the appendix, determine which of the
following correctly gives the values of the Zero Fuel Mass (ZFM) of
the aeroplane and the load index at ZFM
1573 31
If nose wheel moves aft during gear retraction, how will this It will cause the cg to The cg location will It will cause the cg to It will not affect the cg
movement affect the location of the centre of gravity (cg) on the move forward. change, but the move aft. location.
aeroplane? direction cannot be told
the information given.

1574 31
Determine the Landing Mass for the following single engine 2799 lbs 2659 lbs 2449 lbs 2589 lbs
aeroplane.

Given:
Standard Empty Mass :1764 lbs
Optional Equipment : 35 lbs
Pilot + Front seat passenger : 300 lbs
Cargo Mass : 350 lbs
Ramp Fuel = Block Fuel : 60 Gal.
Trip Fuel : 35 Gal.
Fuel density: 6 lbs/Gal.

1575 31
In mass and balance calculations which of the following describes It is the most aft It is the distance from It is the point on the It is the most forward
the datum? position of the centre of the centre of gravity to aeroplane designated position of the centre of
gravity. the point through which by the manufacturers gravity.
the weight of the from which all centre of
component acts. gravity measurements
and calculations are
made.

1576 31
The centre of gravity location of the aeroplane is normally computed longitudinal axis. lateral axis. vertical axis. horizontal axis.
1577 31 along the:
(For this question use annex 031-1569A) 26.57 cm aft of datum. 32.29 cm aft of datum. 26.57 cm forward of 32.29 cm forward of
Where is the centre of gravity of the aeroplane in the diagram? datum. datum.
1578 31
 Given are: 69 600 kg 74 000 kg 72 000 kg 70 400 kg

- Maximum structural take-off mass: 72 000 kg

- Maximum structural landing mass: 56 000 kg
- Maximum zero fuel mass: 48 000 kg
- Taxi fuel: 800 kg
- Trip fuel: 18 000 kg
- Contingency fuel: 900 kg
- Alternate fuel: 700 kg
- Final reserve fuel: 2 000 kg
Determine the actual take-off mass:

1579 31
On an aeroplane without central fuel tank, the maximum Zero Fuel The bending moment at Maximum Structural Wing loaded trip fuel. Variable equipment for
1580 31 Mass is related to: the wing root. Take-Off Mass. the flight.
Given that: 146 000 kg. 120 900 kg. 121 300 kg. 120 300 kg.
- Maximum structural take-off mass: 146 000 kg
- Maximum structural landing mass: 93 900 kg
- Maximum zero fuel mass: 86 300 kg
- Trip fuel: 27 000 kg
- Taxi fuel: 1 000 kg
- Contingency fuel: 1350 kg
- Alternate fuel: 2650 kg
- Final reserve fuel: 3000 kg
Determine the actual take-off mass:

1581 31
(For this question use annex 031-12267A ) 51300 Kg and 20,8% 46130 Kg and 20,8% 46130 Kg and 17,8% 41300 Kg and 17,8%
Using the data given in the Load & Trim sheet, determine which of
the following gives the correct values for the Zero Fuel Mass and
position of the centre of gravity (% MAC) at that mass.

1582 31
At the flight preparation stage, the following parameters in particular The dry operating mass The operating mass is The dry operating mass The operating mass
are available for determining the mass of the aircraft: includes fixed the mass of the includes take-off fuel. includes the traffic load.
1- Dry operating mass equipment needed to aeroplane without take-
2- Operating mass carry out a specific off fuel.
Which statement is correct: flight.

1583 31
Which one of the following is correct? Moment = Force / Arm Arm = Force X Moment Arm = Moment / Force Arm = Force / Moment
1584 31
 The maximum zero-fuel mass: 2, 5, 6 4, 2, 6 1, 2, 3 1, 3, 5
1- is a regulatory limitation
2- is calculated for a maximum load factor of +3.5 g
3- is due to the maximum permissible bending moment at the wing
root
4- imposes fuel dumping from the outer wings tank first
5- imposes fuel dumping from the inner wings tank first
6- can be increased by stiffening the wing
The combination of correct statements is:

1585 31
The maximum zero fuel mass is a mass limitation for the: total load of the fuel strength of the wing strength of the fuselage allowable load exerted
imposed upon the wing root upon the wing
considering a margin
for fuel tanking

1586 31
(For this question use annex 031-12266A or Loading Manual MRJT 40.0 35.5 41.5 33..0
1 Figure 4.14)
Using the load and trim sheet for the JAR FCL twin jet, which of the
following is the correct value for the index at a Dry Operating Mass
(DOM) of 35000 kg with a CG at 14% MAC ?
1587 31
For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance The total mass of the The total mass of the The total mass of the The total mass of the
documentation, the Dry Operating Mass is defined as: aeroplane ready for a aeroplane ready for a aeroplane ready for a aeroplane ready for a
specific type of specific type of specific type of specific type of
operation excluding all operation excluding operation excluding all operation excluding all
traffic load. crew and crew usable fuel and traffic usable fuel.
baggage. load.
1588 31
When establishing the mass breakdown of an aeroplane, the empty basic mass plus basic mass plus special standard empty mass empty mass dry plus
mass is defined as the sum of the: variable equipment equipment mass plus specific equipment variable equipment
mass mass plus trapped mass
fluids plus unusable
fuel mass
1589 31
For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance Take-off Fuel Mass. Ramp Fuel Mass. Trip Fuel Mass. Ramp Fuel Mass less
documentation, the Operating Mass is considered to be Dry the fuel for APU and
1590 31 Operating Mass plus run-up.

For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance less the Operating plus the Operating plus the Trip Fuel Mass. less the Trip Fuel Mass.
documentation, the Traffic Load is considered to be equal to the Mass. Mass.
1591 31 Take-off Mass
Which of the following alternatives corresponds to zero fuel mass? Take-off mass minus The mass of an Operating mass plus Operating mass plus
fuel to destination and aeroplane with no load of passengers and passengers and cargo.
1592 31 alternate. usable fuel. cargo.
 An aeroplane, which is scheduled to fly an oceanic sector, is due to maximum zero fuel maximum certificated en route obstacle altitude and
depart from a high altitude airport in the tropics at 1400 local time. mass. take - off mass. clearance temperature of the
The airport has an exceptionally long runway. Which of the following requirements. departure airfield.
is most likely to be the limiting factor(s) in determining the take - off
mass ?
1593 31
The maximum mass to which an aeroplane may be loaded, prior to maximum regulated maximum certificated maximum regulated taxi maximum certificated
1594 31 engine start, is : take - off mass. taxi (ramp) mass. (ramp) mass. take - off mass.
The maximum taxi (ramp) mass is governed by : bearing strength of the taxi distance to take - structural tyre speed and
taxiway pavement. off point. considerations. temperature limitations.
1595 31
The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is the mass of the aeroplane with no governed by the traffic listed in the Flight governed by the tabulated in the Flight
usable fuel on board. It is a limitation which is: load to be carried. It Manual as a fixed requirements of the Manual against
also provides protection value. It is a structural centre of gravity limits arguments of airfield
from excessive 'wing limit. and the structural limits elevation and
bending'. of the aeroplane. temperature.

1596 31
The Zero Fuel Mass and the Dry Operating Mass differ by the value of are the same value. differ by the sum of the differ by the mass of
the traffic load mass. mass of usable fuel usable fuel.
plus traffic load mass.
1597 31
Mass for individual passengers (to be carried on an aeroplane) may passengers carried is passenger seats passengers carried is passenger seats
be determined from a verbal statement by or on behalf of the less than 6. available is less than less than 20. available is less than 6.
1598 31 passengers if the number of 20.
(For this question use annex 031-9640 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 5400 kg 6350 kg. 3185 kg. 4530 kg.
Figure 4.14)
A revenue flight is planned for the transport aeroplane. Take-off mass
is not airfield limited. The following data applies:
Dry Operating Mass 34930 kg
Performance limited landing mass 55000 kg
Fuel on board at ramp-
Taxi fuel 350 kg
Trip fuel 9730 kg
Contingency and final reserve fuel 1200 kg
Alternate fuel 1600 kg
Passengers on board 130
Standard mass for each passenger 84 kg
Baggage per passenger 14 kg
Traffic load Maximum possible
Use the loading manual provided and the above data. Determine the
maximum cargo load that may be carried without exceeding the
limiting aeroplane landing mass.

1599 31
 The empty mass of an aeroplane is given as 44800 kg. Operational 18400 kg 20700 kg 23000 kg 19460 kg.
items (including crew standard mass of 1060 kg) are 2300 kg. If the
maximum zero fuel mass is given as 65500 kg, the maximum traffic
load which could be carried is:
1600 31
(For this question use annex 031-9643 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 7730 kg 11730 kg 15730 kg 7010 kg
Figure 4.14)
The following data relates to a planned flight of an aeroplane -
Dry Operational mass 60520 kg
Performance limited take-off mass 92750 kg
Performance limited landing mass 72250 kg
Maximum Zero Fuel mass 67530 kg
Fuel on board at take-off -
Trip fuel 12500 kg
Contingency and final reserve fuel 2300 kg
Alternate fuel 1700 kg
Using this data, as appropriate, calculate the maximum traffic load
that can be carried.

1601 31
(For this question use annex 031-9644 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 6300 kg 12700 kg 4800 kg 7100 kg
Figure 4.14)
Aeroplane Dry Operating mass 85000 kg
Performance limited take-off mass 127000 kg
Performance limited landing mass 98500 kg
Maximum zero fuel mass 89800 kg
Fuel requirements for flight -
Trip fuel 29300 kg
Contingency and final reserve fuel 3600 kg
Alternate fuel 2800 kg.
The maximum traffic load that can be carried on this flight is:

1602 31
The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is a structural limiting mass. It is unuseable and crew traffic load and crew traffic load and traffic load, unuseable
made up of the aeroplane Dry Operational mass plus standard mass. standard mass. unuseable fuel. fuel and crew standard
1603 31 mass.
The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 141000 kg. Total fuel on board 65200 kg. 79000 kg 78000 kg 93000 kg
is 63000 kg including 14000 kg reserve fuel and 1000 kg of unusable
fuel. The traffic load is 12800 kg. The zero fuel mass is:
1604 31
 'Standard Mass' as used in the computation of passenger load 35 kg for children over 35 kg irrespective of 35 kg only if they are 35 kg for children over
establish the mass of a child as 2 years occupying a age provided they over 2 years old and 2 years occupying a
seat and 10 kg for occupy a seat. occupy a seat. seat and 10 kg for
infants (less than 2 infants (less than 2
years) occupying a years) not occupying a
seat. seat.
1605 31
(For this question use annex 031-9598 A or Loading Manual MRJT Forward limit 8.5% Forward limit 8.0% Forward limit 8.2% Forward limit 9.5%
1 Figure 4.11) MAC aft limit 26.1% MAC aft limit 26.5% MAC aft limit 26.2% MAC aft limit 26.1%
The aeroplane has a Take Off Mass of 58 000 kg. At this mass the MAC MAC MAC MAC
range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate
graph in the loading manual, is:
1606 31
For a particular aeroplane, the structural maximum mass without any a variable value which a fixed value which will a fixed value which is a variable value which
fuel on board, other than unusable quantities, is : may limit the payload limit the amount of fuel stated in the Aeroplane is governed by the
carried. carried. Operating Manual. payload carried.
1607 31
(For this question use annexes 031-9631A or Loading Manual MRJT 421.5 inches is 4541 421.5 inches is 2059 835.5 inches is 3062 835.5 inches is 6752
1 Figure 4.9) kg. Lbs. kg. kg.
From the Loading Manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum
load that can be carried in that section of the aft cargo compartment
which has a balance arm centroid at :
1608 31
On an aeroplane with a seating capacity of more than 30, it is 76 kg 84 kg (male) 76 kg 88 kg (male) 74 kg 84 kg
decided to use standard mass values for computing the total mass of (female). (female).
passengers. If the flight is not a holiday charter, the mass value
which may be used for an adult is
1609 31
The standard mass for a child is 38 kg for all flights. 30 kg for holiday 35 kg for all flights. 35 kg for holiday
charters and 35 kg for charters and 38 kg for
1610 31 all other flights. all other flights.

On an aeroplane with 20 or more seats engaged on an inter- 11 kg per passenger. 15 kg per passenger. 13 kg per passenger. 14 kg per passenger.
continental flight, the 'standard mass' which may be used for
1611 31 passenger baggage is
 The following data applies to a planned flight. 15200 kg 10730 kg 12700 kg 13230 kg
Dry Operating Mass 34900 kg
Performance limited Take-Off Mass 66300 kg
Performance limited Landing Mass 55200 kg
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass 53070 kg
Fuel required at ramp:-
Taxy fuel 400 kg
trip fuel 8600 kg
contingency fuel 430 kg
alternate fuel 970 kg
holding fuel 900 kg
Traffic load 16600 kg
Fuel costs at the departure airfield are such that it is decided to load
the maximum fuel quantity possible. The total fuel which may be
safely loaded prior to departure is :

1612 31
In determining the Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane it is common flight crew (male) 88 kg. flight crew (male) 88 kg. flight crew 85 kg., cabin flight crew 85 kg., cabin
practice to use 'standard mass' values for crew. These values are (female) 75 kg., cabin (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. crew 75 kg. each.
crew 75 kg. each. crew 75 kg. each. These are inclusive of a These do not include a
These include an These do not include hand baggage hand baggage
allowance for hand an allowance for hand allowance. allowance.
baggage. baggage.
1613 31
Prior to departure the medium range twin jet aeroplane is loaded 12840 kg 13090 kg. 16470 kg 18040 kg
with maximum fuel of 20100 litres at a fuel density (specific gravity)
of 0.78.
Using the following data -
Performance limited take-off mass 67200 kg
Performance limited landing mass 54200 kg
Dry Operating Mass 34930 kg
Taxi fuel 250 kg
Trip fuel 9250 kg
Contingency and holding fuel 850 kg
Alternate fuel 700 kg
The maximum permissible traffic load is

1614 31
 (For this question use annex 031-9660 A or Loading Manual MRJT 15 815 kg 13 655 kg 16 080 kg 14 470 kg
1 Paragraph 3.1)
The medium range jet transport aeroplane is to operate a flight
carrying the maximum possible fuel load.
Using the following data as appropriate, determine the mass of fuel
on board at start of take off.
Departure airfield performance limited take-off mass: 60 400 kg
Landing airfield -not performance limited.

Dry Operating Mass: 34930 kg

Fuel required for flight -
Taxi fuel: 715 kg
Trip fuel: 8600 kg
Contingency and final reserve fuel: 1700 kg
Alternate fuel 1500 kg
Additional reserve 400 kg
Traffic load for flight 11000 kg

1615 31
An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield at a take-off mass of 19650 kg 121450 kg 39105 kg 141100 kg
302550 kg. Fuel on board at take-off (including contingency and
alternate of 19450 kg) is 121450 kg. The Dry Operating Mass is
161450 kg. The useful load will be
1616 31
When considering the effects of increased mass on an aeroplane, Flight endurance will be Stalling speeds will be Stalling speeds will be Gradient of climb for a
which of the following is true? increased. higher. lower. given power setting will
1617 31 be higher.
If an aeroplane is at a higher mass than anticipated, for a given be greater, drag will be decreased, drag will remain constant, drag remain constant, drag
airspeed the angle of attack will increase and decrease and will decrease and will increase and
endurance will endurance will endurance will endurance will
decrease. increase. decrease. increase.
1618 31
In order to provide an adequate "buffet boundary" at the unaffected as Vs increased to 191 knots, increased to 202 knots increased to 191 knots,
commencement of the cruise a speed of 1.3Vs is used. At a mass of always occurs at the drag will decrease and but, since the same drag will increase and
120000 kg this is a CAS of 180 knots. If the mass of the aeroplane same angle of attack. air distance per kg of angle of attack is used, air distance per kg of
is increased to 135000 kg the value of 1.3Vs will be fuel will increase. drag and range will fuel will decrease.
remain the same.

1619 31
The maximum quantity of fuel that can be loaded into an aeroplane's 11364 kg. 14383 kg. 18206 kg. 13647 kg.
tanks is given as 3800 US Gallons. If the fuel density (specific
gravity) is given as 0.79 the mass of fuel which may be loaded is
1620 31
 Conversion of fuel volume to mass may be done by using may be done by using must be done by using must be done using fuel
standard fuel density standard fuel density actual measured fuel density values of 0.79
values as specified in values as specified in density values. for JP 1 and 0.76 for JP
the Operations Manual, JAR - OPS 1. 4 as specified in JAR -
if the actual fuel density OPS, IEM - OPS
is not known. 1.605E.

1621 31
The maximum certificated take - off mass is : a structural limit which a take - off limiting a take - off limiting limited by the runway
may not be exceeded mass which is affected mass which is take off distance
for any take - off. by the aerodrome governed by the available. It is tabulated
altitude and gradient of climb after in the Flight Manual.
temperature. reaching V2 .
1622 31
The total mass of the aeroplane including crew, crew baggage; plus Maximum Zero Fuel Dry Operating Mass. Zero Fuel Mass. Aeroplane Prepared for
catering and removable passenger equipment; plus potable water Mass Service ( APS) Mass.
and lavatory chemicals but excluding usable fuel and traffic load, is
referred to as:
1623 31
When preparing to carry out the weighing procedure on an drain all chemical toilet removable passenger drain all engine tank oil. drain all useable fuel.
aeroplane, which of the following is not required? fluid tanks. services equipment to
1624 31 be off-loaded.
An aeroplane is weighed prior to entry into service. Who is The commander of the The Operator. The appropriate The aeroplane
responsible for deriving the Dry Operational Mass from the weighed aeroplane. Aviation Authority. manufacturer or
1625 31 mass by the addition of the 'operational items' ? supplier.
An aeroplane may be weighed in an area of the airfield at a specified 'weighing in an enclosed, non-air in a quiet parking area
set aside for location' on the airfield. conditioned, hangar. clear of the normal
maintenance. manoeuvring area.
1626 31
(For this question use annex 031-9603 A or Loading Manual MRJT Forward limit 8.2% Forward limit 7.3% Forward limit 8.7% Forward limit 7.8%
1 Figure 4.11) MAC aft limit 27.0% MAC aft limit 26.8% MAC aft limit 26.8% MAC aft limit 27.0%
A aeroplane has a landing mass of 53 000kg. The range of safe CG MAC MAC MAC MAC
positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading
manual, is :
1627 31
(For this question use annex 031-9604 A or Loading Manual MRJT forward limit 7.6% aft forward limit 7.7% aft forward limit 8.3% aft forward limit 8.0% aft
1 Figure 4.11) limit 26.9% MAC. limit 25.2% MAC limit 26.3% MAC limit 27.2% MAC.
The aeroplane has a mass of 61 000 kg in the cruise. The range of
safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the
loading manual, is:
1628 31
(For this question use annex 031-9605 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 314.5 inches. 421.5 inches. 367.9 inches. 257 inches.
Figure 4.9)
For the transport aeroplane the moment (balance) arm (B.A.) for the
forward hold centroid is:
1629 31
 Which of the following is unlikely to have any effect on the position of Movement of cabin Normal consumption of Changing the tailplane Lowering the landing
the centre of gravity on an aeroplane in flight ? attendants going about fuel for a swept wing (horizontal stabiliser) gear.
their normal duties. aeroplane. incidence angle.
1630 31
(For this question use annex 031-9608 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 7.18 kg per inch. 13.12 kg per inch. 13.15 kg per inch. 14.65 kg per inch.
Figure 4.9)
Referring to the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the
maximum running load for the aft section of the forward lower deck
cargo compartment is:
1631 31
(For this question use annex 031-9609 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 7288 kg in forward 68 kg per square foot. 3305 kg in forward 150 kg per square foot.
Figure 4.9) compartment and 9232 compartment and 4187
Referring to the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the kg in aft compartment. kg in aft compartment.
maximum load intensity for the lower forward cargo compartment is:

1632 31
The maximum floor loading for a cargo compartment in an aeroplane 40 cm by 200 cm 30 cm by 300 cm 30 cm by 200 cm 40 cm by 300 cm
is given as 750 kg per square metre. A package with a mass of 600
kg. is to be loaded. Assuming the pallet base is entirely in contact
with the floor, which of the following is the minimum size pallet that
can be used ?
1633 31
The maximum intensity floor loading for an aeroplane is given in the 416.0 kg 1015.6 kg 41.6 kg 101.6 kg
Flight Manual as 650 kg per square metre. What is the maximum
mass of a package which can be safely supported on a pallet with
dimensions of 80 cm by 80 cm?
1634 31
The distance from the datum to the Centre of Gravity of a mass is the moment arm or the lever. the moment. the index.
1635 31 known as balance arm.
(For this question use annex 031-9613 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 158.3 kg must be off 285.5 kg may be 28.5 kg must be off 28.5 kg may be added.
Figure 4.9) loaded. added. loaded.
A pallet having a freight platform which measures 200 cm x 250 cm
has a total mass of 300 kg. The pallet is carried on two ground
supports each measuring 20 cm x 200 cm.
Using the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, calculate how
much mass may be added to, or must be off loaded from, the pallet
in order for the load intensity to match the maximum permitted
distribution load intensity for lower deck forward cargo
compartement.

1636 31
 The maximum certificated taxi (or ramp) mass is that mass to which a fixed value which is a value which varies a value which varies a value which is only
an aeroplane may be loaded prior to engine start. It is : listed in the Flight with airfield only with airfield affected by the outside
Manual. temperature and altitude. Standard air temperature.
altitude. Corrections are corrections are listed in Corrections are
listed in the Flight the Flight Manual. calculated from data
Manual. given in the Flight
Manual.

1637 31
When the centre of gravity is at the forward limit, an aeroplane will extremely stable and extremely unstable and extremely unstable and extremely stable and
be : require small elevator require excessive require small elevator will require excessive
control to change pitch. elevator control to control to change pitch. elevator control to
change pitch. change pitch.

1638 31
A jet transport has the following structural limits: 16 430 kg 17 070 kg 16 570 kg 16 370 kg
-Maximum Ramp Mass: 63 060 kg
-Maximum Take Off Mass: 62 800 kg
-Maximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kg
-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 51 300 kg
The aeroplane's fuel is loaded accordance with the following
requirements:
-Taxi fuel: 400 kg
-Trip fuel: 8400 kg
-Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1800 kg
-Alternate fuel: 1100 kg
If the Dry Operating Mass is 34930 kg, determine the maximum
traffic load that can be carried on the flight if departure and landing
airfields are not performance limited.

1639 31
(For this question use annex 031-9630 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 9232 kg 1568 kg 3062 kg 4187 kg
Figure 4.9)
From the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the aft cargo
compartment has a maximum total load of :
1640 31
(For this question use annex 031-9629 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 68 kg per square foot. 150 kg per square foot. 68 Lbs per square foot. 68 kg per square metre.
Figure 4.9)
From the loading manual for the jet transport aeroplane, the
maximum floor loading intensity for the aft cargo compartment is :

1641 31
A flight benefits from a strong tail wind which was not forecast. On the approach path will the landing distance the landing distance will the approach path will
arrival at destination a straight in approach and immediate landing be steeper and required will be longer. be unaffected. be steeper.
clearance is given. The landing mass will be higher than planned threshold speed higher.
and
1642 31
 An aeroplane must be re-weighed at certain intervals. Where an whenever the whenever a major 9 years for each 4 years for each
operator uses 'fleet masses' and provided that changes have been Certificate of modification is carried aeroplane. aeroplane.
correctly documented, this interval is Airworthiness is out.
renewed.
1643 31
During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator input, the the centre of gravity is the centre of pressure the centre of gravity the aeroplane is
aeroplane rotates much more rapidly than expected. This is an too far forward. is aft of the centre of may be towards the aft overloaded.
1644 31 indication that : gravity. limit.
If the centre of gravity of an aeroplane moves forward during flight become heavier become lighter making become heavier become lighter making
the elevator control will : making the aeroplane the aeroplane more making the aeroplane the aeroplane more
more easy to easy to manouevre in more difficult to difficult to manouevre in
manouevre in pitch. pitch. manouevre in pitch pitch.
1645 31
Dry Operating Mass is the mass of the aeroplane less usable fuel. traffic load, potable usable fuel, potable usable fuel and traffic
water and lavatory water and lavatory load.
1646 31 chemicals. chemicals.
The Take-off Mass of an aeroplane is 66700 kg which includes a 41455 kg 42545 kg 42000 kg 56200 kg
traffic load of 14200 kg and a usable fuel load of 10500 kg. If the
standard mass for the crew is 545 kg the Dry Operating Mass is
1647 31
In relation to an aeroplane the Dry Operating Mass is the total mass usable fuel and traffic usable fuel and crew. potable water and usable fuel, potable
of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation but excluding load. lavatory chemicals. water and lavatory
1648 31 chemicals.
An aeroplane is said to be 'neutrally stable'. This is likely to: be totally unrelated to cause the centre of be caused by a centre be caused by a centre
the position of the gravity to move of gravity which is of gravity which is
centre of gravity. forwards. towards the rearward towards the forward
limit. limit.
1649 31
If the centre of gravity is near the forward limit the aeroplane will: tend to over rotate require elevator trim benefit from reduced require less power for a
during take-off. which will result in an drag due to the given airspeed.
increase in fuel decrease in angle of
consumption. attack.
1650 31
The responsibility for determination of the mass of 'operating items' the commander. the authority of the the person compiling the operator.
and 'crew members' included within the Dry Operating Mass lies with state of registration. the weighing schedule.
1651 31
A mass of 500 kg is loaded at a station which is located 10 metres 30000 Nm 130000 Nm 80000 Nm 50000 Nm
behind the present Centre of Gravity and 16 metres behind the
datum.
(Assume: g=10 m/s^2)
The moment for that mass used in the loading manifest is :
1652 31
An aeroplane is loaded with its centre of gravity towards the rear a reduced fuel an increase in a reduction in power an increased risk of
limit. This will result in : consumption as a result longitudinal stability. required for a given stalling due to a
of reduced drag. speed. decrease in tailplane
moment
1653 31
 The empty mass of an aeroplane is recorded in the loading manifest. It the loading manifest. It the weighing schedule the weighing schedule.
differs from Dry differs from the zero and is amended to take If changes occur, due to
Operating Mass by the fuel mass by the value account of changes due modifications, the
value of the 'useful of the 'traffic load'. to modifications of the aeroplane must be re-
load'. aeroplane. weighed always.

1654 31
Standard masses may be used for the computation of mass values has 20 or more seats. has 6 or more seats. has 30 or more seats. is carrying 30 or more
1655 31 for baggage if the aeroplane passengers.
The following results were obtained after weighing a helicopter : 11 cm left 4 cm right 4 cm left 11 cm right

- mass at front point: 300 kg

- mass at right rear point : 1 100 kg
- mass at left rear point : 950 kg

It is given that the front point is located 0.30 m left of the longitudinal
axis and the rear points are symmetricaly located 1.20 m from this
axis.
The helicopter's lateral CG-position relative to the longitudinal axis
is:

1656 31
To calculate a usable take-off mass, the factors to be taken into Maximum landing mass Maximum zero fuel Maximum take-off mass Maximum landing mass
account include: augmented by fuel on mass augmented by decreased by the fuel augmented by the fuel
board at take-off. the fuel burn. burn. burn.
1657 31
Allowed traffic load is the difference between : allowed take off mass operating mass and allowed take off mass allowed take off mass
and basic mass basic mass and operating mass and basic mass plus
1658 31 trip fuel

In cruise flight, an aft centre of gravity location will: decrease longitudinal increase longitudinal does not influence not change the static
static stability static stability longitudinal static curve of stability into
1659 31 stability longitudinal
Given: 73 000 kg and 24 700 73 000 kg and 27 000 71 300 kg and 23 000 71 300 kg and 25 300
Dry operating mass = 38 000 kg kg kg kg kg
maximum structural take-off mass = 72 000 kg
maximum landing mass = 65 000 kg
maximum zero fuel mass = 61 000 kg
Fuel burn = 8 000 kg
Take-off Fuel = 10 300 kg

The maximum allowed take-off mass and payload are respectively :

1660 31
 After weighing a helicopter the following values are noted: 4.52 m 4.09 m 4.21 m 4.15 m

forward point: 350 kg

aft right point: 995 kg
aft left point: 1 205 kg

What is the longitudinal CG-position in relation to the datum situated

4 m in front of the rotor axis, knowing that the forward point is at 2.5
m forward of the rotor axis and the aft points are 1 m aft of the rotor
axis?

1661 31
(For this question use annex 031-11632A ) 450 kg 350 kg 250 kg 125 kg

The empty mass of your helicopter is 1 100 kg with a CG-position at

3.05m. The load is as follows:

-total mass of pilot and co-pilot: 150 kg

-total mass of passengers at rear: 200 kg

In order not to exeed the limitations the minimum remaining fuel on

board should be:

1662 31
(For this question use annex 031 11634A) 1 098 kg 1 105 kg 585 kg 901 kg
Maximum allowed take-off mass limit: 37 200kg
Dry operating mass: 21 600 kg
Take-off fuel: 8 500 kg
Passengers on board: male 33, female 32, children 5
Baggages: 880 kg

The company uses the standard passenger mass systems (see

annex) allowed by regulations. The flight is not a holiday charter.
In these conditions, the maximum cargo that may be loaded is

1663 31
Length of the mean aerodynamic chord = 1 m 183 kg 165 kg 104 kg 110 kg
Moment arm of the forward cargo: -0,50 m
Moment arm of the aft cargo: + 2,50 m
The aircraft mass is 2 200 kg and its centre of gravity is at 25%
MAC
To move the centre of gravity to 40%, which mass has to be
transferred from the forward to the aft cargo hold?
1664 31
 Given the following : 48 400 kg 53 000 kg 47 800 kg 48 000 kg
- Maximum structural take-off mass 48 000 kg
- Maximum structural landing mass: 44 000 kg
- Maximum zero fuel mass: 36 000 kg
-Taxi fuel: 600 kg
-Contingency fuel: 900 kg
-Alternate fuel: 800 kg
-Final reserve fuel: 1 100 kg
-Trip fuel: 9 000 kg
Determine the actual take-off mass:

1665 31
The maximum load per running metre of an aeroplane is 350 kg/m. A load of 400 kg in a A load of 500 kg in a A load of 400 kg in a A load of 700 kg in a
The width of the floor area is 2 metres. The floor strength limitation is crate with dimensions crate with dimensions crate with dimensions crate with dimensions
300 kg per square metre. Which one of the following crates (length x 1.2 m x 1.2 m x 1.2 m. 1.5 m x 1 m x 1 m. 1.4 m x 0.8 m x 0.8 m. 1.8 m x 1.4 m x 0.8 m.
width x height) can be loaded directly on the floor?

1666 31
With the centre of gravity on the forward limit which of the following A tendency to yaw to A decrease in range. A decrease in the A decrease of the
1667 31 is to be expected? the right on take-off. landing speed. stalling speed.
(For this question use annex 031-11619A ) 2.97 m 2.82 m 2.91 m 2.85 m

A helicopter's basic mass is 1 100 kg and the longitudinal CG-

position is at 3.10 m.
Determine the longitudinal CG position in the following conditions :

- pilot and front passenger : 150 kg

- rear passengers : 150 kg
- fuel : 500 kg

1668 31
The actual 'Take-off Mass' is equivalent to: Actual Landing Mass Dry Operating Mass Actual Zero Fuel Mass Dry Operating Mass
plus the take-off fuel plus take-off fuel and plus the traffic load plus the take-off fuel
1669 31 the traffic load
The term 'Maximum Zero Fuel Mass' consist of : The maximum mass for The maximum The maximum mass The maximum mass
some aeroplanes permissible mass of an authorized for a certain authorized for a certain
including the fuel load aeroplane with no aeroplane not including aeroplane not including
and the traffic load usable fuel. traffic load and fuel the fuel load and
load. operational items
1670 31
While making mass and balance calculation for a particular all the oil and fuel. unusable fuel and full all the oil, fuel, and all the consumable fuel
aeroplane, the term 'Empty Mass' applies to the sum of airframe, operating fluids. hydraulic fluid but not and oil, but not
engine(s), fixed ballast plus including crew and including any radio or
traffic load. navigation equipment
installed by
manufacturer.
1671 31
 Assuming gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged, higher stall speed. lower optimum cruising reduced maximum increased cruise range.
movement of the centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit will speed. cruise range.
1672 31 cause
What determines the longitudinal stability of an aeroplane ? The effectiveness of the The relationship of The dihedral, angle of The location of the
horizontal stabilizer, thrust and lift to weight sweepback and the centre of gravity with
rudder and rudder trim and drag. keel effect. respect to the neutral
tab. point.
1673 31
The total mass of an aeroplane is 9000 kg. The centre of gravity (cg) 900 kg 30.0 kg 196 kg 300 kg
position is at 2.0 m from the datum line. The aft limit for cg is at 2.1 m
from the datum line.
What mass of cargo must be shifted from the front cargo hold (at 0.8
m from the datum) to the aft hold (at 3.8 m), to move the cg to the aft
limit?
1674 31
The stalling speed of an aeroplane will be highest when it is loaded low gross mass and low gross mass and aft high gross mass and aft high gross mass and
with a: forward centre of centre of gravity. centre of gravity. forward centre of
1675 31 gravity. gravity.
The actual 'Zero Fuel Mass' is equal to the: Operating Mass plus all Basic Empty Mass plus Actual Landing Mass Dry Operating Mass
1676 31 the traffic load. the fuel loaded. plus trip fuel. plus the traffic load.
The centre of gravity of a body is that point where the sum of the where the sum of the which is always used through which the sum
moments from the external forces is equal as datum when of the forces of all
external forces acting to zero. computing moments. masses of the body is
on the body is equal to considered to act.
zero.
1677 31
Calculate the centre of gravity in % MAC (mean aerodynamic chord) 63.4 % MAC 47.0 % MAC 23.1 % MAC 36.3 % MAC
with following data:
Distance datum - centre of gravity: 12.53 m
Distance datum - leading edge: 9.63 m
Length of MAC: 8 m
1678 31
(For this question use annexes 031-11069A and 031-11069B) 32.5 % 36 % 25 % 31 %
Contrary to the forecast given in the LOAD and TRIM sheet, cargo
compartment 1 is empty. The take-off centre of gravity in MAC %
(Mean Aerodynamic Chord) will be located at:

1679 31
 (For this question use annexes 031-11070A and 031-11070B) 35.5 % 31.5 % 24.5 % 32.5 %
Contrary to the loading sheet forecasts you have :

Cargo compartment 1: empty passengers in compartment OA:

20
Cargo compartment 2: 1 000 kg passengers in compartment OB:
20
Cargo compartment 3: 3 000 kg passengers in compartment OC:
30
Cargo compartment 4: 2 000 kg
Cargo compartment 5: 1 000 kg

The take-off centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord),

will be located at:

1680 31
(For this question use annexes 031-11071A and 031-11071B) 27.8 % 30.5 % 28.5 % 27.2 %
Just prior to departure, you accept 10 passengers additional on
board who will be seated in "compartment OC" and you have 750 kg
unloaded from cargo compartment 5.
The take-off centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord)
will be located at:

1681 31
(For this question use annexes 031-11072A and 031-11072B) 31.5 % 26 % 35.5 % 32 %
The weight and balance sheet is available and contrary to the
forecast, cargo compartment 1 is empty.
The zero fuel weight centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic
Chord) is located at:

1682 31
The floor of the main cargo hold is limited to 4 000 N/m2. 500 kg 5 000 kg 100 kg 1 000 kg
It is planned to load a cubic container each side of which measures
0.5m.
Its maximum gross mass must not exceed:
(assume g=10m/s2)
1683 31
Assume: Station 117.69 Station 118.33 Station 120.22 Station 118.25
Aeroplane gross mass: 4750 kg
Centre of gravity at station: 115.8

What will be the new position of the centre of gravity if 100 kg is

moved from the station 30 to station 120?
1684 31
 (For this question use annex 031-4739A or Loading Manual MEP1 4 390 4 372 4 720 4 120
Figure 3.4)
With respect to multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine
the ramp mass (lbs) in the following conditions:
Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs
Basic arm: 88.5 Inches
One pilot: 160 lbs
Front seat passenger : 200 lbs
Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs
One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs
Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs
Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs
Block fuel: 100 US Gal.
Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.
Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal.
Fuel density: 6 lbs/US Gal.

1685 31
By adding to the basic empty mass the following fixed necessary zero fuel mass landing mass Dry operating mass take-off mass
equipment for a specific flight (catering, safety and rescue
1686 31 equipment, fly away kit, crew), we get:
A flight has been made from London to Valencia carrying minimum 14 331 kg 13 240 kg 16 770 kg 9 830 kg
fuel and maximum traffic load. On the return flight the fuel tanks in
the aeroplane are to be filled to capacity with a total fuel load of
20100 litres at a fuel density of 0.79 kg/l.
The following are the aeroplane's structural limits:
-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg
-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg
-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg
-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg
The performance limited take off mass at Valencia is 67 330 kg.
The landing mass at London is not performance limited.
Dry Operating Mass: 34 930 kg
Trip Fuel (Valencia to London): 5 990 kg
Taxi fuel: 250 kg
The maximum traffic load that can be carried from Valencia will be:

1687 31
The term 'useful load' as applied to an aeroplane includes traffic load plus useable traffic load only. the revenue-earning the revenue-earning
fuel. portion of traffic load portion of traffic load
1688 31 only. plus useable fuel.
 An aeroplane is performance limited to a landing mass of 54230 kg. 17080 kg 12200 kg. 10080 kg. 29280 kg.
The Dry Operating Mass is 35000 kg and the zero fuel mass is
52080 kg. If the take-off mass is 64280 kg the useful load is
1689 31
(For this question use annex 031-9676 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 11349 litres 8850 litres 11646 litres 5674 litres
Paragraph 4)
For the medium range transport aeroplane, from the loading manual,
determine the maximum total volume of fuel which can be loaded
into the main wing tanks. (Fuel density value 0.78)
1690 31
An aeroplane's weighing schedule indicates that the empty mass is operational items have operational items have operational items have operational items have
57320 kg. The nominal Dry Operating Mass is 60120 kg and the a mass of 2800 kg and a mass of 2800 kg and a mass of 2800 kg and a mass of 2800 kg and
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is given as 72100 kg. Which of the the maximum useful the maximum traffic the maximum traffic the maximum useful
following is a correct statement in relation to this aeroplane? load is 14780 kg. load for this aeroplane load for this aeroplane load is 11980 kg.
is 11980 kg. is 14780 kg.

1691 31
An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield where the performance 21500 kg 21220 kg 20870 kg 21080 kg
limited take-off mass is 89200 kg.
Certificated maximum masses are as follows:
Ramp (taxi) mass 89930 kg
Maximum Take-off mass 89430 kg
MaximumLanding mass 71520 kg
Actual Zero fuel mass 62050 kg
Fuel on board at ramp:
Taxi fuel 600 kg
Trip fuel 17830 kg
Contingency, final reserve and alternate 9030 kg
If the Dry Operating Mass is 40970 kg the traffic load that can be
carried on this flight is

1692 31
The empty mass of an aeroplane, as given in the weighing schedule, 29600 kg 26900 kg. 68400 kg 70700 kg
is 61300 kg. The operational items (including crew) is given as a
mass of 2300 kg. If the take-off mass is 132000 kg (including a
useable fuel quantity of 43800 kg) the useful load is

1693 31
 The following data applies to an aeroplane which is about to take off: 18200 kg 17450 kg 78900 kg 78150 kg

Certified maximum take-off mass 141500 kg

Performance limited take-off mass 137300 kg
Dry Operating Mass 58400 kg
Crew and crew hand baggage mass 640 kg
Crew baggage in hold 110 kg
Fuel on board 60700 kg

From this data calculate the mass of the useful load.

1694 31
A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are 18 170 kg 13 950 kg 25 800 kg 17 840 kg
the aeroplane's structural limits:
-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg
-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg
-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg
-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg
The performance limited take off mass is 67 450kg and the
performance limited landing mass is 55 470 kg.
Dry Operating Mass: 34 900 kg
Trip Fuel: 6 200 kg
Taxi Fuel: 250 kg
Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 300 kg
Alternate Fuel: 1 100 kg
The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:

1695 31
A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are 20 420 kg 17 810 kg 21 170 kg 21 070 kg
the aeroplane's structural limits:
-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg
-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg
-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg
-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg
Take Off and Landing mass are not performance limited.
Dry Operating Mass: 34 930 kg
Trip Fuel: 11 500 kg
Taxi Fuel: 250 kg
Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 450 kg
Alternate Fuel: 1 350 kg
The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:

1696 31
 A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are 19 500 kg 17 840 kg 19 100 kg 19 200 kg
the aeroplane's structural limits:
-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg
-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg
-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg
-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg
Take Off and Landing mass are not performance limited.
Dry Operating Mass: 34 900 kg
Trip Fuel: 11 800 kg
Taxi Fuel: 500 kg
Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 600 kg
Alternate Fuel: 1 900 kg
The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:

1697 31
(For this question use annex 031-9685 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 The flight may be safely The flight may be safely The flight is 'landing The flight is 'zero fuel
Figure 4.14) operated with the operated with an mass' limited and the mass' limited and the
The medium range twin jet transport is scheduled to operate from a stated traffic and fuel additional 200 kg of traffic load must be traffic load must be
departure airfield where conditions limit the take-off mass to 65050 load. traffic load. reduced to 17500 kg. reduced to 14170 kg.
kg. The destination airfield has a performance limited landing mass
of 54500 kg. The Dry Operating Mass is 34900 kg. Loading data is
as follows -
Taxi fuel 350 kg
Trip fuel 9250 kg
Contingency and final reserve fuel 1100 kg
Alternate fuel 1000 kg
Traffic load 18600 kg
Check the load and ensure that the flight may be operated without
exceeding any of the aeroplane limits. Choose, from those given
below, the most appropriate answer.

1698 31
The following results were obtained after weighing a helicopter : 3,36 m 0,04 m 3,44 m 1,18 m

- front point : 220 kg

- right rear point : 500 kg
- left rear point : 480 kg

The helicopter's datum is 3.40 m forward of the rotor axis. The front
point is located 2.00 m forward of the rotor axis and the rear points
are located 0.50 m aft of the rotor axis.
The longitudinal CG-position in relation to the datum is:

1699 31
To measure the mass and CG-position of an aircraft, it should be 3 points of support 2 points of support 1 point of support 4 point of support
1700 31 weighed with a minimum of:
 The determination of the centre of gravity in relation to the mean consists of defining the consists of defining the consists of defining the consists of defining the
aerodynamic chord: centre of gravity centre of gravity centre of gravity centre of gravity
longitudinally in relation longitudinally in relation longitudinally in relation longitudinally in relation
to the position of the to the length of the to the length of the to the position of the
aerodynamic centre of mean aerodynamic mean aerodynamic aerodynamic
pressure chord and the leading chord and the trailing convergence point
edge edge
1701 31
The centre of gravity is the centre of thrust along focus along the neutral point along the point where all the
the longitudinal axis, in longitudinal axis, in longitudinal axis, in aircraft mass is
relation to a datum line relation to a datum line relation to a datum line considered to be
concentrated
1702 31
During a violent avoidance manoeuvre, a light twin aircraft, certified rupture of one or more a permanent a elastic deformation no distortion,
to FAR 23 requirements was subjected to an instantaneous load structural components deformation of the whilst the load was permanent or
factor of 4.2. The Flight Manual specifies that the aircraft is certified structure applied, but no temporary of the
in the normal category for a load factor of -1.9 to +3.8. permanent distortion structure
Considering the certification requirements and taking into account
that the manufacturer of the twin did not include, during its
conception, a supplementary margin in the flight envelope, it might
be possible to observe;

1703 31
At a mass of 1 800 kg, a helicopter equipped with a winch has a 10.5 cm to the right 10,5 cm to the right 1.5 cm to the right 1.5 cm to the left
lateral CG-position of 5 cm to the left. The CG of the load
suspended from the winch is at a distance of 60 cm to the right. With
a winch load of 200 kg the lateral CG-position of the helicopter will
be:
1704 31
The Dry Operating Mass of a helicopter is the total mass of a including the crew,the including the crew, the ready for a specific excluding the crew but
helicopter : fuel and the specific usable fuel and the operation including the including specific
equipments for the specific equipments for crew and traffic load, equipments for the
mission but excluding the mission and not including the usable mission and not
payload payload fuel including the usable
fuel
1705 31
The following data is extracted from an aeroplane's loading manifest: must be reduced to is 87300 kg which is is 87300 kg and excess is 83200 kg which is in
Performance limited take-off mass 93500 kg 81700 kg in order to acceptable in this case structural stress could excess of the regulated
Expected landing mass at destination 81700 kg avoid a high speed because this is a result landing mass and could
Maximum certificated landing mass 86300 kg approach. diversion and not a result in overrunning
Fuel on board 16500 kg normal scheduled the runway
During the flight a diversion is made to an en-route alternate which is landing.
not 'performance limited' for landing. Fuel remaining at landing is
10300 kg. The landing mass

1706 31
 (For this question use appendix 031-11605A) 4,455 m 4,615 m 0,217 m 4,783 m

Without the crew, the weight and the CG-position of the aircraft are 7
000 kg and 4,70m.

- the mass of the pilot is 90 kg

- the mass of the copilot is 75 kg
- the mass of the flight engineer is 90 kg

With this crew on board, the CG-position of the aircraft will be:

1707 31
At maximum certificated take-off mass an aeroplane departs from an a landing short a high threshold speed a high threshold speed a landing further along
airfield which is not limiting for either take-off or landing masses. resultant from the and possible and a shorter stop the runway than
During initial climb the number one engine suffers a contained increased angle of undercarriage or other distance. normal.
disintegration. An emergency is declared and the aeroplane returns approach due to the structural failure.
to departure airfield for an immediate landing. The most likely result very high aeroplane
of this action will be mass.
1708 31
The floor limit of an aircraft cargo hold is 5 000 N/m2. 32 kg 320 kg 80 kg 800 kg
It is planned to load-up a cubic container measuring 0,4 m of side.
It's maximum gross mass must not exceed:
(assume g=10m/s2)

1709 31
The basic empty mass of an aircraft is 30 000 kg. The masses of the 30 300 kg 38 300 kg 30 665 kg 30 785 kg
following items are :
- catering: 300 kg
- safety and rescue material: nil
- fly away kit: nil
- crew (inclusive crew baggage): 365kg
- fuel at take-off: 3 000 kg
- unusable fuel: 120 kg
- passengers, baggage, cargo: 8 000 kg

The Dry Operating Mass is :

1710 31
 Based on actual conditions, an aeroplane has the following 4 100 kg 4 200 kg 4 700 kg 4 300 kg
performance take-off mass limitations:

Flaps : 0° 10° 15°

Runway: 4100 4400 4600
Climb: 4700 4500 4200

Masses are in kg
Structural limits: take-off/landing/zero fuel: 4 300 kg

The maximum take-off mass is :

1711 31
The mass and balance information gives : 34 % 17 % 22 % 29 %
Basic mass : 1 200 kg ; Basic balance arm : 3.00 m

Under these conditions the Basic centre of gravity is at 25% of the

mean aerodynamic chord (MAC). The length of MAC is 2m.

In the mass and balance section of the flight manual the following
information is given :
Position Arm
front seats : 2.5 m
rear seats : 3.5 m
rear hold : 4.5 m
fuel tanks : 3.0 m
The pilot and one passenger embark; each weighs 80 kg. Fuel tanks
contain 140 litres of petrol with a density of 0.714. The rear seats are
not occupied.Taxi fuel is negligable.
The position of the centre of gravity at take-off (as % MAC) is :

1712 31
The mass displacement caused by landing gear extension: does not create a creates a pitch-down creates a longitudinal creates a pitch-up
longitudinal moment longitudinal moment moment in the direction longitudinal moment
(pitch-up or pitch-down)
determined by the type
of landing gear

1713 31
Which of the following is most likely to affect the range of centre of Elevator and tailplane Location of the The need to maintain a The need to minimise
gravity positions on an aeroplane? (horizontal stabiliser) undercarriage. low value of stalling drag forces and so
effectiveness in all flight speed. improve efficiency.
conditions.
1714 31
 (For this question use annex 031-11606A) 0,062m to the right 0,016m to the left beyond the limits 0,0633m to the right

Without the man on the winch, the mass and the lateral CG-position
of the aircraft are 6 000 kg and 0,04 m to the right.

- the mass of the man on the winch is 100 kg

With the man on the winch , the lateral CG-position of the aircraft will
be:

1715 31
(For this question use annex 031-4741A or Loading Manual MEP1 433 906 377 746 401 338 432 221
Figure 3.4)
With respect to a multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine
the total moment (lbs.In) at landing in the following conditions:
Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs.
One pilot: 160 lbs.
Front seat passenger : 200 lbs.
Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total)
One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs.
Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs.
Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs.
Block fuel: 100 US Gal.
Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.
Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal.
Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal.
Total moment at take-off: 432226 lbs.In

1716 31
An aircraft basic empty mass is 3000 kg. 2 150 kg 1 600 kg 1 550 kg 2 200 kg
The maximum take-off, landing, and zero-fuel mass are identical, at
5200 kg. Ramp fuel is 650 kg, the taxi fuel is 50 kg.
The payload available is :

1717 31
 (For this question use annex 031-4742A or Loading Manual MEP1 91.84 inches aft of 91.92 inches aft of 91.69 inches aft of 93.60 inches aft of
Figure 3.4) datum datum datum datum
With respect to a multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine
the CG location at take off in the following conditions:
Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs.
One pilot: 160 lbs.
Front seat passenger : 200 lbs.
Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total)
One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs.
Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs.
Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs.
Zero Fuel Mass: 4210 lbs.
Moment at Zero Fuel Mass: 377751 lbs.In
Block fuel: 100 US Gal.
Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.
Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal.
Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal.

1718 31
(For this question use annex 031-4740A or Loading Manual MEP1 9 360 56 160 433 906 30 888
Figure 3.4)
With respect to multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine
the block fuel moment (lbs.In.) in the following conditions:
Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs.
One pilot: 160 lbs.
Front seat passenger : 200 lbs.
Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total)
One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs.
Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs.
Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs.
Block fuel: 100 US Gal.
Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.
Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal.
Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal.

1719 31
Which of the following statements with regard to the actual The minimum value There is no legal The minimum value A lower height than 400
acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is according to minimum value, according to ft is allowed in special
correct? regulations is 1000 ft. because this will be regulations is 400 ft. circumstances e.g.
determined from case noise abatement.
to case during the
calculation of the net
flight path.
1720 32
 What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) The ROC is affected by The ROC and the ROC The ROC speed The ROC speed
speed if all other parameters remain constant ? the mass, but not the speed are independant increases with decreases with
ROC speed. of the mass. increasing mass. increasing mass.
1721 32
Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of VMCA V1 V2 VMCG
1722 32 stopway and/or clearway ?
Uphill slope increases the allowed increases the take-off decreases the decreases the take-off
take-off mass. distance more than the accelerate stop distance only.
accelerate stop distance only.
distance.
1723 32
Balanced V1 is selected if it is equal to V2. if the accelerate stop for a runway length for a runway length
distance is equal to the limited take-off with a limited take-off with a
one engine out take-off stopway to give the clearway to give the
distance. highest mass. highest mass.
1724 32
A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where: The accelerate stop The clearway does not The accelerate stop The one engine out
distance is equal to the equal the stopway. distance is equal to the take-off distance is
take-off distance all engine take-off equal to the all engine
available. distance. take-off distance.
1725 32
1726 32 V2 has to be equal to or higher than 1.15 VMCG. 1.1 VSO. 1.15 VR. 1.1 VMCA.
Which one of the following statements concerning drift-down is The drift-down The drift-down An engine failure at When determining the
correct? procedure requires a procedure requires a high cruising altitude obstacle clearance
minimum descent angle minimum obstacle will always result in a during drift-down, fuel
after an engine failure clearance of 35 ft. drift-down, because it is dumping may be taken
at cruising altitude. not permitted to fly the into account.
same altitude with one
engine inoperative as
with all engines
operating.

1727 32
The take-off safety speed V2min for turbo-propeller powered 1.2 Vs 1.2 Vs1 1.15 Vs 1.3 Vs
aeroplanes with more than three engines may not be less than:
1728 32
The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum Depending on density Higher Lower Depending on the OAT
1729 32 range cruise. altitude and mass. and net mass.
According to JAR-OPS 1, which one of the following statements Malfunctioning of an The landing distance is When determining the Reverse thrust is one of
concerning the landing distance for a turbojet aeroplane is correct? anti-skid system has no the distance from 35 ft maximum allowable the factors always
effect on the required above the surface of landing mass at taken into account
runway length. the runway to the full destination, 60% of the when determining the
stop. available landing landing distance
runway length should required.
be taken into account.

1730 32
 The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the climb limit. The climb limited take- The climb limited take- None. The effect would vary
What would be the effect on this limit of an increase in the headwind off mass would off mass would depending upon the
component? increase. decrease. height of any obstacle
within the net take-off
flight path.

1731 32
If the field length limited take off mass has been calculated using a a greater field length a greater field length the obstacle clearance the obstacle clearance
Balanced Field Length technique, the use of any additional clearway limited take off mass limited take off mass limit to be increased limit to be increased
in take off performance calculations may allow but with a lower V1 but with a higher V1 with no effect on V1 with an higher V1
1732 32
The speed V2 is the lowest safety the take-off safety that speed at which the the lowest airspeed
airspeed at which the speed. PIC should decide to required to retract flaps
aeroplane is under continue or not the without stall problems.
control with take-off in the case of
aerodynamic surfaces an engine failure.
in the case of an engine
failure.
1733 32
Which statement regarding the influence of a runway down-slope is increases V1 and reduces V1 and increases V1 and reduces V1 and
correct for a balanced take-off? Down-slope... increases the take-off reduces take-off reduces the accelerate increases the
distance required distance required stop distance required accelerate stop
(TODR). (TODR). (ASDR). distance required
(ASDR).
1734 32
Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration The maximum The minimum legally There is no The minimum one
height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment ? acceleration height allowed acceleration requirement for engine out acceleration
depends on the height is at 1500 ft. minimum climb height must be
maximum time take-off performance when maintained in case of
thrust may be applied. flying at the all engines operating.
acceleration height.
1735 32
Which of the following statements with regard to the optimum cruise An aeroplane usually An aeroplane An aeroplane always An aeroplane always
altitude (best fuel mileage) is correct? flies above the optimum sometimes flies above flies below the optimum flies on the optimum
cruise altitude, as this the optimum cruise cruise altitude, as cruise altitude, because
provides the largest altitude, because ATC otherwise Mach buffet this is most attractive
specific range. normally does not allow can occur. from an economy point
to fly continuously at of view.
the optimum cruise
altitude.

1736 32
 Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb? The speed for which V2 + 10 kt. The speed for V2.
the ratio between rate maximum rate of climb.
of climb and forward
speed is maximum.

1737 32
In a given configuration the endurance of a piston engined aeroplane speed, mass and fuel altitude, speed, mass altitude, speed and speed and mass.
1738 32 only depends on: on board. and fuel on board. mass.
A multi engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed Straight flight Straight flight and Heading, altitude and a Altitude
(VMCA). Which parameter(s) must be maintainable after engine altitude positive rate of climb of
1739 32 failure? 100 ft/min
Which statement regarding the relationship between traffic load and The maximum zero fuel The maximum landing The maximum traffic The traffic load can be
range is correct? mass limits the mass is basically equal load is not limited by limited by the desired
maximum quantity of to the maximum zero the reserve fuel range.
fuel. fuel mass. quantity.
1740 32
The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engined or three-engined turbo 1.3 Vs 1.15 Vs 1.15 Vs1 1.2 Vs
propeller powered aeroplanes may not be less than:
1741 32
Which of the jet engine ratings below is not a certified rating? Maximum Cruise Thrust Maximum Continuous Go-Around Thrust Maximum Take-off
1742 32 Thrust Thrust
Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct ? Performing a step climb In principle a step climb A step climb may not be A step climb provides
based on economy can is performed performed unless it is better economy than a
be limited by the 1.3-g immediately after the indicated in the filed cruise climb.
altitude. aircraft has exceeded flight plan.
the optimum altitude.

1743 32
The speed VLO is defined as long distance operating lift off speed. landing gear operating design low operating
1744 32 speed. speed. speed.
The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as take-off climb speed or lift off speed. take-off decision speed. critical engine failure
1745 32 speed at 35 ft. speed.
The speed VS is defined as speed for best specific stalling speed or safety speed for take- design stress speed.
range. minimum steady flight off in case of a
speed at which the contaminated runway.
aeroplane is
controllable.
1746 32
The speed V1 is defined as take-off decision speed. take-off climb speed. speed for best angle of engine failure speed.
1747 32 climb.
With all other things remaining unchanged and with T the outside independent from T proportional to T proportional to 1/T² proportional to 1/T
static air temperature expressed in degrees K, the hourly fuel
consumption of a turbojet powered aeroplane in a cruise flight with a
constant Mach Number and zero headwind,is as follows:

1748 32
 Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption 3787 kg/h 3426 kg/h 3259 kg/h 3602 kg/h
is assumed to be constant) are in a holding pattern at the same
altitude. The mass of the first one is 95 000 kg and its hourly fuel
consumption is equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the second
one is 105 000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is:

1749 32
A constant headwind component increases the best rate decreases the angle of increases the maximum increases the angle of
of climb. climb. endurance. flight path during climb.
1750 32
On a twin engined piston aircraft with variable pitch propellers, for a inferior to 95 kts is between 95 and 125 equal to 125 kt equal to 95 kt
given mass and altitude, the minimum drag speed is 125 kt and the kt
holding speed (minimum fuel burn per hour) is 95 kt.

The best rate of climb speed will be obtained for a speed:

1751 32
Density altitude is the height above the pressure altitude altitude reference to the altitude read directly
surface corrected for 'non standard datum plane from the altimeter
standard' temperature
1752 32
If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per independent from the lower with an aft centre higher with a forward lower with a forward
kg) is centre of gravity of gravity position. centre of gravity centre of gravity
1753 32 position. position. position.
V1 has to be higher than than VR. equal to or higher than equal to or higher than equal to or higher than
1754 32 V2. VMCG. VMCA.
The take-off distance of an aircraft is 600m in standard atmosphere, 685 m 755 m 715 m 555 m
no wind at 0 ft pressure-altitude.
Using the following corrections:
"± 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation"
"- 5 m / kt headwind"
"+ 10 m / kt tail wind"
"± 15 m / % runway slope"
"± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature"
The take-off distance from an airport at 1 000 ft elevation,
temperature 17°C, QNH 1013,25 hPa, 1% up-slope, 10 kt tail wind
is:

1755 32
On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of an increase in airspeed requires an increase in an increase in airspeed a higher coefficient of
attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass is required but power power and decrease in and power is required. drag is required.
setting does not the airspeed.
change.
1756 32
 On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of the lift/drag ratio must the airspeed will be the airspeed and the the airspeed will be
attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass be increased. increased but the drag drag will be increased. decreased and the drag
does not change. increased.
1757 32
The take-off distance required increases due to downhill slope due to head wind due to lower gross due to slush on the
because of the smaller because of the drag mass at take-off. runway.
angle of attack. augmentation.
1758 32
Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off higher. unaffected. only higher for three lower.
mass will be and four engine
1759 32 aeroplanes.
On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased by uphill slope. by headwind. by low outside air by a lower take-off
temperature. mass because the
aeroplane accelerates
faster to V1.

1760 32
Which statement regarding V1 is correct ? When determining V1, The correction for up- VR may not be lower V1 may not be higher
reverse thrust may only slope on the balanced than V1 than Vmcg
be used on the V1 is negative
remaining symmetric
engines
1761 32
How does the thrust of fixed propeller vary during take-off run ? The has no change during decreases slightly while increases slightly while varies with mass
thrust take-off and climb. the aeroplane speed the aeroplane speed changes only.
1762 32 builds up. builds up.
During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component increases the amount increases the climb decreases the climb decreases the ground
of fuel for the climb. time. time. distance flown during
that climb.
1763 32
A constant headwind increases the angle of increases the angle of increases the rate of increases the descent
the descent flight path. descent. descent. distance over ground.
1764 32
VR cannot be lower than: 105% of V1 and VMCA. 1.2 Vs for twin and 1.15 Vs for turbo-prop V1 and 105% of VMCA.
three engine jet with three or more
1765 32 aeroplane. engines.
By what factor must the landing distance available (dry runway) for a 60/115 0.60 115/100 1.67
turbojet powered aeroplane be multiplied to find the landing distance
required? (planning phase for destination).
1766 32
 (For this question use annex 032-6570A or Performance Manual approximately : 1300 approximately : 950 approximately : 1400 approximately : 750
SEP 1 Figure 2.4) feet feet feet feet
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft .

Given :
O.A.T : ISA +15°C
Pressure Altitude: 0 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 2940 lbs
Tailwind component: 10 kt
Flaps: Landing position (down)
Runway: Tarred and Dry

1767 32
(For this question use annex 032-6571A or Performance Manual approximately : 1700 approximately :1150 approximately : 1500 approximately : 920
SEP 1 Figure 2.4) feet feet feet feet
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft .

Given :
O.A.T : ISA
Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 3500 lbs
Tailwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: Landing position (down)
Runway: Tarred and Dry

1768 32
(For this question use annex 032-6572A or Performance Manual approximately : 1480 approximately : 940 approximately : 1650 approximately : 1150
SEP 1 Figure 2.4) feet feet feet feet
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft .

Given :
O.A.T : 0°C
Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 3500 lbs
Tailwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: Landing position (down)
Runway: Tarred and Dry

1769 32
 (For this question use annex 032-6573A or Performance Manual approximately : 1450 approximately :1794 approximately : 1300 approximately : 2000
SEP 1 Figure 2.4) feet feet feet feet
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft .

Given :
O.A.T : ISA +15°C
Pressure Altitude: 0 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 2940 lbs
Headwind component: 10 kt
Flaps: Landing position (down)
Runway: short and wet grass- firm soil
Correction factor (wet grass): 1.38

1770 32
(For this question use annex 032-6574A or Performance Manual approximately : 2800 approximately : 2200 approximately : 2470 approximately : 1440
SEP 1 Figure 2.1) feet feet feet feet
With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine
aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft .

Given :
O.A.T : 30°C
Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 3450 lbs
Tailwind component: 2.5 kt
Flaps: up
Runway: Tarred and Dry

1771 32
(For this question use annex 032-6575A or Performance Manual 2900 lbs > 3650 lbs 3240 lbs 3000 lbs
SEP 1 Figure 2.1)
With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine
aeroplane determine the maximum allowable take off mass .

Given :
O.A.T : ISA
Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft
Headwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: up
Runway: Tarred and Dry
Factored runway length: 2000 ft
Obstacle height: 50 ft

1772 32
 (For this question use annex 032-6576A or Performance Manual approximately : 2050 ft approximately : 1150 ft approximately : 2450 ft approximately : 1260 ft
SEP 1 Figure 2.2)
With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine
aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft.

Given :
O.A.T : -7°C
Pressure Altitude: 7000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 2950 lbs
Headwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: Approach setting
Runway: Tarred and Dry

1773 32
On a segment of the take-off flight path an obstacle requires a 106425 kg 118455 kg 102150 kg 121310 kg
minimum gradient of climb of 2.6% in order to provide an adequate
margin of safe clearance. At a mass of 110000 kg the gradient of
climb is 2.8%. For the same power and assuming that the sine of
the angle of climb varies inversely with mass, at what maximum
mass will the aeroplane be able to achieve the minimum gradient?

1774 32
(For this question use annex 032-6569A or Performance Manual approximately : 1120 approximately : 1700 approximately : 1370 approximately : 1850
SEP 1 Figure 2.4) feet feet feet feet
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft .

Given :
O.A.T : 27 °C
Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 2900 lbs
Tailwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: Landing position (down)
Runway: Tarred and Dry

1775 32
Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane 286 781 kg 74 064 kg 209 064 kg 101 596 kg
are as follows:
Thrust = 50 000 Newton / Engine
g = 10 m/s²
Drag = 72 569 N
Minimum gross gradient (2nd segment) = 2.7%
SIN(Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag) / Weight
The maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions is:
1776 32
 What affect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed? No affect Tailwind only effects The IAS will be The IAS will be
1777 32 holding speed. increased. decreased.
When the outside air temperature increases, then the field length limited the field length limited the field length limited the field length limited
take-off mass and the take-off mass and the take-off mass take-off mass increases
climb limited take-off climb limited take-off decreases but the climb but the climb limited
mass decreases. mass increases. limited take-off mass take-off mass
increases. decreases.
1778 32
With regard to a take-off from a wet runway, which of the following The screen height can When the runway is In case of a reverser Screen height cannot
statements is correct? be lowered to reduce wet, the V1 reduction is inoperative the wet be reduced.
the mass penalties. sufficient to maintain runway performance
the same margins on information can still be
the runway length. used.

1779 32
The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake the middle of the the lift-off point. the point where V2 is the point half way
release point and: segment between reached. between V1 and V2.
VLOF point and 35 ft
point.
1780 32
The decision speed at take-off (V1) is the calibrated airspeed: below which the take- at which the failure of below which take-off at which the take-off
off must be continued. the critical engine is must be rejected if an must be rejected.
expected to occur. engine failure is
recognized, above
which take-off must be
continued.
1781 32
With regard to a unaccelerated horizontal flight, which of the The minimum drag is is The minimum drag is The minimum drag is The minimum drag is a
following statement is correct? a function of the density independant of the proportional to the function of the pressure
1782 32 altitude. aircraft mass. aircraft mass. altitude.
Which of the following statements is correct? Induced drag is Induced drag Induced drag Induced drag increases
independant of the decreases with decreases with with increasing speed.
speed. increasing angle of increasing speed.
attack.
1783 32
Which of the following statements is correct? the minimum drag the minimum drag the minimum drag the minimum drag
If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases decreases and the IAS increases and the IAS increases and the IAS decreases and the IAS
for minimum drag for minimum drag for minimum drag for minimum drag
decreases. decreases. increases. increases.
1784 32
Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus maximum endurance. minimum power. maximum specific critical angle of attack.
true air speed (TAS), for a jet aeroplane with a given mass. When range.
drawing the tangent out of the origin, the point of contact determines
the speed of:
1785 32
 A jet aeroplane is performing a maximum range flight. the point of contact of the minimum drag. the minimum required the point of contact of
The speed corresponds to: the tangent from the power. the tangent from the
origin to the Drag origin to the power
versus TAS curve. required (Pr) versus
TAS curve.
1786 32
If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, The ASDR will become The take-off is not The one engine out The VMCG will be
which of the following is correct ? greater than the one permitted. take-off distance will lowered to V1.
engine out take-off become greater than
distance. the ASDR.
1787 32
(For this question use annex 032-6581A or Performance Manual 18 832 ft 18 347 ft 21 505 ft 24 637 ft
SEP 1 Figure 2.3)

Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane,
determine the ground distance to reach a height of 2000 ft above the
reference zero inthe following conditions:
Given :
O.A.T. at take-off: 25°C
Airport pressure altitude: 1000 ft
Aeroplane mass: 3600 lbs
Speed: 100 KIAS
Wind component: 15 kts Headwind

1788 32
The speed VR is the speed at which must be higher than V2. must be higher than must be equal to or
rotation to the lift-off VLOF. lower than V1.
angle of attack is
initiated.
1789 32
The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the VS. VMC. VSO. VS1.
aeroplane is controllable in landing configuration is abbreviated as
1790 32
(For this question use annex 032-6590A or Performance Manual 880 ft 1550 ft 1020 ft 1400 ft
SEP 1 Figure 2.4)
Using the Landing Diagramm, for single engine aeroplane,
determine the landing distance (from a screen height of 50 ft)
required, in the following conditions:
Given :
Pressure altitude: 4000 ft
O.A.T.: 5°C
Aeroplane mass: 3530 lbs
Headwind component: 15 kt
Flaps: Approach setting
Runway: tarred and dry
Landing gear: down

1791 32
 If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing 20 % 15 % 5% 10 %
on a wet runway; the landing distance must be increased by:
1792 32
(For this question use annex 032-6588A or Flight planning Manual 908 NM 902 NM 875 NM 860 NM
SEP 1 Figure 2.4)
Using the Range Profile Diagramm, for the single engine aeroplane,
determine the range, with 45 minutes reserve, in the following
conditions:
Given :
O.A.T.: ISA -15°C
Pressure altitude: 12000 ft
Power: Full throttle / 23,0 in/Hg./ 2300 RPM

1793 32
(For this question use annex 032-6587A or Flight planning Manual 851 NM 911 NM 865 NM 739 NM
SEP 1 Figure 2.4)
Using the Range Profile Diagramm, for the single engine aeroplane,
determine the range, with 45 minutes reserve, in the following
conditions:

Given :
O.A.T.: ISA +16°C
Pressure altitude: 4000 ft
Power: Full throttle / 25,0 in/Hg./ 2100 RPM

1794 32
(For this question use annex 032-6586A or Flight planning Manual 136 kt and 56,9 lbs/hr 131 kt and 56,9 lbs/hr 125 kt and 55,7 lbs/hr 134 kt and 55,7 lbs/hr
SEP 1 Figure 2.3 Table 2.3.1)
Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane,
determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and
cruise lean mixture in the following conditions:
Given :
OAT: 3°C
Pressure altitude: 6000 ft
Power: Full throttle / 21,0 in/Hg./ 2100 RPM

1795 32
 (For this question use annex 032-6585A or Flight planning Manual 160 kt and 69,3 lbs/hr 158 kt and 74,4 lbs/hr 160 kt and 71,1 lbs/hr 159 kt and 71,7 lbs/hr
SEP 1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3)
Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane,
determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and
cruise lean mixture in the following conditions:

Given:
OAT: 13°C
Pressure altitude: 8000 ft
RPM: 2300

1796 32
(For this question use annex 032-6584A or Flight Planning Manual 22,4 in.Hg and 69,3 23,0 in.Hg and 69,0 22,4 in.Hg and 71,1 22,4 in.Hg and 73,8
SEP 1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3) lbs/hr lbs/hr lbs/hr lbs/hr
Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane,
determine the manifold pressure and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full
throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following conditions:

Given:
OAT: 13°C
Pressure altitude: 8000 ft
RPM: 2300

1797 32
If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher have no effect on the decrease the required increase the maximum decrease the maximum
uphill slope would maximum mass for take-off distance. mass for take-off. mass for take-off.
1798 32 take-off.
(For this question use annex 032-6582A or Performance Manual 16 665 ft 18 909 ft 18 073 ft 20 109 ft
SEP 1 Figure 2.3)
Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane,
determine the ground distance to reach a height of 1500 ft above the
reference zero inthe following conditions:
Given :
O.A.T at Take-off: ISA
Airport pressure altitude: 5000 ft
Aeroplane mass: 3300 lbs
Speed: 100 KIAS
Wind component: 5 kts Tailwind

1799 32
In the drag versus TAS curve for a jet aeroplane, the speed for the point of intersection the point of contact of the point of contact of the point of contact of
maximum range corresponds with: of the parasite drag the tangent from the the tangent from the the tangent from the
curve and the induced origin to the parasite origin to the induced origin to the drag curve.
drag curve. drag curve. drag curve.

1800 32
 (For this question use annex 032-6580A or Performance Manual 2375 ft 1900 ft 1600 ft 2000 ft
SEP 1 Figure 2.2)
With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine
aeroplane determine the take off distance over a 50 ft obstacle
height.

Given :
O.A.T : 30°C
Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 2950 lbs
Tailwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: Approach setting
Runway: Short, wet grass, firm subsoil
Correction factor: 1.25 (for runway conditions)

1801 32
(For this question use annex 032-6579A or Performance Manual 1290 ft/min 1370 ft/min 1210 ft/min 1150 ft/min
SEP 1 Figure 2.3)
With regard to the climb performance chart for the single engine
aeroplane determine the climb speed (ft/min).

Given :
O.A.T : ISA + 15°C
Pressure Altitude: 0 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 3400 lbs
Flaps: up
Speed: 100 KIAS

1802 32
(For this question use annex 032-6578A or Performance Manual approximately : 4200 ft approximately : 5040 ft approximately : 3960 ft approximately : 3680 ft
SEP 1 Figure 2.2)
With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine
aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft.

Given :
O.A.T : 38°C
Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 3400 lbs
Tailwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: Approach setting
Runway: Dry Grass
Correction factor: 1.2

1803 32
 (For this question use annex 032-6577A or Performance Manual 65 and 75 KIAS 71 and 82 KIAS 73 and 84 KIAS 68 and 78 KIAS
SEP 1 Figure 2.1)
With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine
aeroplane determine the take off speed for (1) rotation and (2) at a
height of 50 ft.

Given :
O.A.T : ISA+10°C
Pressure Altitude: 5000 ft
Aeroplane mass: 3400 lbs
Headwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: up
Runway: Tarred and Dry

1804 32
At a given mass, the stalling speed of a twin engine aircraft is 100 kt 120 kt 130 kt 115 kt 125 kt
in the landing configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must
1805 32 maintain in short final is:

(For this question use annex 032-11661A or Performance Manual 440 m 615 m 525 m 415 m
SEP 1 Figure 2.1)

An extract of the flight manual of a single engine propeller aircraft is

reproduced in annex.
Airport characteristics: hard, dry and zero slope runway
Actual conditions are:
pressure altitude: 1 500 ft
outside tempereature: +18°C
wind component: 4 knots tailwind

For a take-off mass of 1 270 kg, the take-off distance will be:

1806 32
Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus forward Yes, the difference is No difference. Yes, the difference is Yes, the difference is
speed curves for two identical aeroplanes having different masses ? that for a given angle of that the heavier that the lighter
(assume zero thrust and wind) attack both the vertical aeroplane will always aeroplane will always
and forward speeds of glide a greater glide a greater
the heavier aeroplane distance. distance.
will be larger.

1807 32
The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute 500 ft/min 100 ft/min 0 ft/min 125 ft/min
1808 32 ceiling is:
During climb with all engines, the altitude where the rate of climb Maximum transfer Service ceiling Absolute ceiling Thrust ceiling
1809 32 reduces to 100 ft/min is called: ceiling
 (For this question use annex 032-6583A or Performance Manual 1030 ft/min and 8,4% 1170 ft/min and 9,9% 1310 ft/min and 11,3% 1120 ft/min and 9,3%
SEP 1 Figure 2.3)
Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane,
determine the rate of climb and the gradient of climb in the following
conditions:
Given :
O.A.T at Take-off: ISA
Airport pressure altitude: 3000 ft
Aeroplane mass: 3450 lbs
Speed: 100 KIAS

1810 32
Which of the equations below defines specific range (SR)? SR = SR = True SR = Indicated SR = Mach
Groundspeed/Total Airspeed/Total Fuel Airspeed/Total Fuel Number/Total Fuel Flow
1811 32 Fuel Flow Flow Flow
At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet increase with are independent of increase in proportion decrease in proportion
engine increasing altitude. outside air temperature to the ambient pressure to the ambient pressure
(OAT). at constant at constant
temperature. temperature.

1812 32
The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM is inversely proportional increases in proportion does not change with is independent of the
to the airspeed. to the airspeed. changing altitude. airspeed.
1813 32
The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the in descent with in accelerated level in unaccelerated climb. in unaccelerated level
1814 32 operating points of the aeroplane constant IAS. flight. flight.
At speeds below minimum drag the aeroplane can be a lower speed requires a higher speed requires the aeroplane can not
controlled only in level a higher thrust. a higher thrust. be controlled manually.
1815 32 flight.

A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires a higher coefficient of less thrust and a lower more thrust and a lower more thrust and a lower
lift. coefficient of lift. coefficient of lift. coefficient of drag.
1816 32
A higher altitude at constant mass and Mach number requires a higher angle of a lower coefficient of lift. a lower coefficient of a lower angle of attack.
1817 32 attack. drag.
The coefficient of lift can be increased either by flap extension or by increasing the angle of increasing the TAS. decreasing the 'nose- increasing the CAS.
attack. up' elevator trim setting.
1818 32
When flying the "Backside of Thrustcurve" means a lower airspeed a lower airspeed the thrust required is a thrust reduction
requires less thrust requires more thrust. independent of the results in an
because drag is airspeed. acceleration of the
decreased. aeroplane.
1819 32
 "Maximum endurance" is the same as can be flown in a can be reached with the is achieved in
maximum specific steady climb only. 'best rate of climb' unaccelerated level
range with wind speed in level flight. flight with minimum fuel
correction. consumption.
1820 32
What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the event of a climb The safety margin with The take-off distance The accelerate stop The climb limited take-
limited take-off? respect to the runway required with one distance required is the off mass is the highest.
length is greatest. engine out at V1 is the shortest.
shortest.
1821 32
Which of the following statements is correct? The accelerate stop The take-off distance The climb limited take- The performance
distance required is with one engine out is off mass is independant limited take-off mass is
independant of the independant of the of the wind component. independant of the
runway condition. wind component. wind component.
1822 32
The drift down requirements are based on: the landing mass limit the obstacle clearance the actual engine thrust the maximum flight path
at the alternate. during a descent to the output at the altitude of gradient during the
new cruising altitude if engine failure. descent.
an engine has failed.

1823 32
The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on the radius of the turn the bank angle only. the radius of the turn the true airspeed and
and the weight of the and the bank angle. the bank angle.
1824 32 aeroplane.
Long range cruise is selected as the speed for best the climbing cruise with specific range with the higher speed to
economy. one or two engines tailwind. achieve 99% of
inoperative. maximum specific
range in zero wind.
1825 32
The optimum altitude is the altitude at which is the altitude up to increases as mass decreases as mass
the specific range which cabin pressure of decreases and is the decreases.
reaches its minimum. 8 000 ft can be altitude at which the
maintained. specific range reaches
its maximum.
1826 32
To achieve the maximum range over ground with headwind the reduced to the gust higher compared to the equal to the speed for lower compared to the
airspeed should be penetration speed. speed for maximum maximum range cruise speed for maximum
range cruise with no with no wind. range cruise with no
wind. wind.
1827 32
 The take-off run is the distance of the point the horizontal distance 1.5 times the distance 1.15 times the distance
of brake release to a along the take-off path from the point of brake from the point of brake
point equidistant from the start of the release to a point release to the point at
between the point at take-off to a point equidistant between the which VLOF is reached
which VLOF is reached equidistant between the point at which VLOF is assuming a failure of
and the point at which point at which VLOF is reached and the point the critical engine at
the aeroplane attains a reached and the point at which the aeroplane V1.
height of 50 ft above at which the aeroplane attains a height of 35 ft
the runway assuming a is 35 ft above the take- above the runway with
failure of the critical off surface. all engines operative.
engine at V1.

1828 32
During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a The one engine out V2 may be too high so It may lead to over- The stop distance
V1 greater than that required. Which problem will occur when the take-off distance that climb performance rotation. required will exceed the
engine fails at a speed immediatly above the correct value of V1? required may exceed decreases. stop distance available.
the take-off distance
available.
1829 32
Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely A high runway elevation A low runway elevation A high runway elevation A low runway elevation
lead to a tyre speed limited take-off? and tail wind. and a cross wind. and a head wind. and a head wind.
1830 32
During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is By selecting a higher By selecting a higher By selecting a lower By selecting a lower
found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap setting. V2. V2. flap setting.
flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased?
There are no limiting obstacles.
1831 32
VX is the speed for best the speed for best the speed for best rate the speed for best
1832 32 angle of flight path. angle of climb. of climb. specific range.
The speed for maximum endurance is the lower speed to can either be higher or is always higher than is always lower than the
achieve 99% of lower than the speed the speed for maximum speed for maximum
maximum specific for maximum specific specific range. specific range.
range. range.
1833 32
A runway is contaminated by a 0,5 cm layer of wet snow. The take- increased unchanged decreased very significantly
off is nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's flight manual. decreased
The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be:
1834 32
 The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment 1, 5, 8, 10 1, 4, 6, 9 2, 3, 6, 9 1, 4, 5, 10
after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following
parameters:
1 Gear up
2 Gear down
3 Wing flaps retracted
4 Wing flaps in take-off position
5 N engines at the take-off thrust
6 (N-1) engines at the take-off thrust
7 Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt
8 Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS
9 Speed over the path equal to V2
10 At a height of 35 ft above the runway

The correct statements are:

1835 32
Minimum control speed on ground, VMCG, is based on directional nosewheel steering primary aerodynamic primary aerodynamic primary aerodynamic
control being maintained by: only. control only. control and nosewheel. control, nosewheel
steering and differential
braking.
1836 32
The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the: engine power at the climb gradient during weight during landing at obstacle clearance
altitude at which engine the descent to the net the alternate during descent to the
1837 32 failure occurs level-off altitude net level-off altitude
The take-off performance requirements for transport category all engines operating. only one engine failure of critical engine. failure of critical engine
aeroplanes are based upon: operating. or all engines operating
which ever gives the
largest take off
distance.
1838 32
Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1? Take-off run Accelerate Stop Take-off distance All Engine Take-off
1839 32 Distance distance
1840 32 Which of the following answers is true? V1 <= VR V1 > Vlof V1 > VR V1 < VMCG
The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure: minimum climb gradient obstacle clearance in manoeuvrability in case manoeuvrability during
in case of a go-around the approach area. of landing with one approach with full flaps
with one engine engine inoperative. and gear down, all
inoperative. engines operating.

1841 32
Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct? A reduction of screen The use of a reduced In case of a reverser Screenheight reduction
height is allowed in Vr is sufficient to inoperative the wet can not be applied
order to reduce weight maitain the same safety runway performance because of reduction in
penalties margins as for a dry information can still be obstacle clearance.
runway used
1842 32
 The length of a clearway may be included in: the distance to reach the take-off distance the accelerate-stop the take-off run
1843 32 V1. available. distance available. available.
At constant thrust and constant altitude the fuel flow of a jet engine increases with increases slightly with is independent of the decreases slightly with
decreasing OAT. increasing airspeed. airspeed. increasing airspeed.
1844 32
A climb gradient required is 3,3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 kt 33,0 m/s 330 ft/min 3 300 ft/min 3,30 m/s
true airspeed , no wind, this climb gradient corresponds to a rate of
1845 32 climb of approximately:
Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the 5°, the obstacle limit is 5°, both limitations are 20°, the obstacle limit is 20°, both limitations are
following limitations with flap 10° selected: increased but the increased increased but the increased
- runway limit: 5 270 kg runway limit decreases runway limit decreases
- obstacle limit: 4 630 kg
Estimated take-off mass is 5 000kg.
Considering a take-off with flaps at:
1846 32
Following a take-off, limited by the 50 ft screen height, a light twin it will not clear the 105 m 90 m 75 m
climbs on a gradient of 5%. obstacle
It will clear a 160 m obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally),
situated at 5 000 m from the 50 ft point with an obstacle clearance
margin of:
1847 32
Why are 'step climbs' used on long distance flights ? Step climbs do not To respect ATC flight To fly as close as Step climbs are only
have any special level constraints. possible to the optimum justified if at the higher
purpose for jet altitude as aeroplane altitude less headwind
aeroplanes; they are mass reduces. or more tailwind can be
used for piston engine expected.
aeroplanes only.

1848 32
Which force compensates the weight in unaccelerated straight and the lift the thrust the drag the resultant from lift
1849 32 level flight ? and drag
An aeroplane operating under the 180 minutes ETOPS rule may be 90 minutes flying time 180 minutes flying time 180 minutes flying time 180 minutes flying time
up to : from the first enroute to a suitable airport in to a suitable airport from suitable airport in
airport and another 90 still air with one engine under the prevailing still air at a normal
minutes from the inoperative. weather condition with cruising speed
second enroute airport one engine inoperative.
in still air with one
engine inoperative.

1850 32
ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a 75 minutes flying time 60 minutes flying time 60 minutes flying time 30 minutes flying time
route, where no suitable airport is within an area of at the approved one in still air at the in still air at the normal at the normal cruising
engine out cruise approved one engine cruising speed. speed.
speed. out cruise speed.
1851 32
 (For this question use annex 032-3589A or Performance Manual All the curves start at Because at this mass it Because at this mass Due to higher TAS at
MRJT 1 Figure 4.24) the same point, which takes about 3 minutes the engines slow down this mass it takes more
With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, is situated outside the to decelerate to the at a slower rate after time to develop the
why does the curve representing 35 000 kg gross mass in the chart chart. optimum speed for drift failure, there is still optimal rate of descent,
for drift down net profiles start at approximately 3 minutes at FL370? down at the original some thrust left during because of the inertia
cruising level. four minutes. involved.

1852 32
(For this question use annex 032-3590A or Performance Manual At higher temperatures At higher temperatures At lower temperatures The engines are
MRJT 1 Figure 4.5) the flat rated engines the VMBE determines one has to take the pressure limited at
With regard to the take-off performance of a twin jet aeroplane, why determines the climb the climb limit mass. danger of icing into lower temperature, at
does the take-off performance climb limit graph show a kink at 30°C, limit mass. account. higher temperatures
pressure altitude 0? they are temperature
limited.
1853 32
(For this question use annex 032-3591A or Performance Manual There is a built-in safety The climb limit The effect of the wind There is no effect of the
MRJT 1 Figure 4.5) measure. performances are taken must be taken from wind on the climb angle
Consider the take-off performance for the twin jet aeroplane climb relative to the air. another chart. relative to the ground.
limit chart. Why has the wind been omitted from the chart?

1854 32
In which of the flight conditions listed below is the thrust required (Tr) In level flight with In accelerated level In a climb with constant In a descent with
1855 32 equal to the drag (D)? constant IAS flight IAS constant TAS
How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20° is chosen instead of T/O flaps V2 has the same value V2 increases in V2 has no connection V2 decreases if not
10°? in both cases. proportion to the angle with T/O flap setting, as restricted by VMCA.
at which the flaps are it is a function of
set. runway length only.

1856 32
Following a take-off determined by the 50ft (15m) screen height, a 115 m 100 m 85 m It will not clear the
light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient. obstacle

It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway

(horizontally), situated at 10 000 m from the 50 ft clearing point with
an obstacle clearance of:

1857 32
 The take-off distance of an aircraft is 800m in standard atmosphere, 810 m 970 m 890 m 870 m
no wind at 0 ft pressure-altitude.
Using the following corrections :

"± 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation "

"- 5 m / kt headwind "
"+ 10 m / kt tail wind "
"± 15 m / % runway slope "
"± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature "

The take-off distance from an airport at 2 000 ft elevation,

temperature 21°C, QNH 1013.25 hPa, 2% up-slope, 5 kt tail wind is :

1858 32
The take-off decision speed V1 is: not less than V2min, a chosen limit. If an sometimes greater than a chosen limit. If an
the minimum take-off engine failure is the rotation speed VR. engine failure is
safety speed. recognized after recognized before
reaching V1 the take-off reaching V1 the take-off
must be aborted. must be aborted.
1859 32
The flight manual of a light twin engine recommends two cruise same speed and fuel- an increase in speed, same speed and an an increase in speed
power settings, 65 and 75 %. The 75% power setting in relation to burn/distance, but an fuel consumption and increase of the fuel- and fuel-burn/distance,
the 65 % results in: increase in the fuel- fuel-burn/distance. burn per hour and fuel- but an unchanged fuel-
burn per hour. burn/distance. burn per hour.

1860 32
With an true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1 000 ft/min, 3° 3% 5° 8%
1861 32 the climb gradient is about :
At a given altitude, when a turbojet aeroplane mass is increased by 7.5% 10% 2.5% 5%
5% - assuming the engines specific consumption remains
unchanged -, its hourly consumption is approximately increased by:
1862 32
For a turboprop powered aeroplane, a 2200 m long runway at the 1339 m. 1771 m. 1540 m. 1147 m.
destination aerodrome is expected to be "wet". The "dry runway"
1863 32 landing distance, should not exceed:
During the certification flight testing of a twin engine turbojet 1547 m. 1720 m. 1779 m. 1978 m.
aeroplane, the real take-off distances are equal to:
- 1547 m with all engines running
- 1720 m with failure of critical engine at V1, with all other things
remaining unchanged.
The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:
1864 32
 In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical based on pressure the height by which the height at which the minimum vertical
distance to clear all obstacles is altitudes. acceleration and flap power is reduced to distance between the
retraction should be maximum climb thrust. lowest part of the
completed. aeroplane and all
obstacles within the
obstacle corridor.
1865 32
(For this question use annex 032-915A) -1267 ft / min. 0 ft / min. +3293 ft / min. +1267 ft / min.
What is the maximum vertical speed of a three engine turbojet
aeroplane with one engine inoperative (N-1) and a mass of 75 000
kg?
Using the following: g = 10 m/s²
1 kt = 100 ft/min
SIN( Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag)/ Weight
1866 32
A runway is contaminated with 0.5 cm of wet snow. increased unchanged reduced substantially decreased
The flight manual of a light twin nevertheless authorises a landing in
these conditions.
The landing distance will be, in relation to that for a dry runway:

1867 32
The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet can be reduced by exists only above has to be considered at limits the maneuvering
increasing the load MMO. take-off and landing. load factor at high
factor. altitudes.
1868 32
An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. an increased landing a reduced landing an increased landing a reduced landing
If a pilot chooses 25° instead of 35°, the aircraft will have: distance and degraded distance and degraded distance and better go- distance and better go-
go-around performance go-around performance around performance around performance
1869 32
What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if It will increase the It will increase the take- It will decrease the It will increase the take-
aerodrome pressure altitude is increased? accelerate stop off distance. take-off distance. off distance available.
1870 32 distance available.

Which statement is correct? VR must not be less VR must not be less VR must not be less VR must not be less
than 1.1 VMCA and not than 1.05 VMCA and than 1.05 VMCA and than VMCA and not
1871 32 less than V1. not less than 1.1 V1. not less than V1. less than 1.05 V1.
The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb Improved Unchanged Unchanged, if a short Degraded
performance. field take-off is adopted
The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb
performance to be:
1872 32
How is wind considered in the take-off performance data of the Since take-offs with Not more than 50% of a Unfactored headwind Not more than 80%
Aeroplane Operations Manuals ? tailwind are not headwind and not less and tailwind headwind and not less
permitted, only than 150% of the components are used. than 125% tailwind.
headwinds are tailwind.
considered.
1873 32
 A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature decreases the field decreases the take-off increases the climb has no influence on the
length limited take-off distance. limited take-off mass. allowed take-off mass.
1874 32 mass.
An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. an increased landing a reduced landing a reduced landing an increased landing
If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have: distance and better go- distance and degraded distance and better go- distance and degraded
around performance go-around performance around performance go-around performance
1875 32
The critical engine inoperative does not affect the decreases the power increases the power increases the power
aeroplane performance required because of the required and decreases required because of the
since it is independent lower drag caused by the total drag due to the greater drag caused by
of the power plant. the windmilling engine. windmilling engine. the windmilling engine
and the compensation
for the yaw effect.

1876 32
The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant gross weight and VS1 (stalling speed in VMO (maximum VA (design VSO (stalling speed in
altitude is highest at clean configuration) operating limit speed) manoeuvring speed) landing configuration)
1877 32
A higher outside air temperature (OAT) increases the field increases the climb decreases the take-off decreases the brake
length limited take-off limited take-off mass. distance. energy limited take-off
1878 32 mass. mass.

The effect of a higher take-off flap setting up to the optimum is: a decrease of both the an increase of both the an increase of the field a decrease of the field
field length limited take- field length limited take- length limited take-off length limited take-off
off mass and the climb off mass and the climb mass but a decrease of mass but an increase of
limited take-off mass. limited take-off mass. the climb limited take- the climb limited take-
off mass. off mass.
1879 32
The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in standard 4,9 % 3,9 % 4,3 % 4,7 %
atmosphere, no wind, at 0 ft pressure altitude.
Using the following corrections:
"± 0,2 % / 1 000 ft field elevation"
"± 0,1 % / °C from standard temperature"
" - 1 % with wing anti-ice"
" - 0,5% with engine anti-ice"
The climb gradient after take-off from an airport situated at 1 000 ft,
17° C; QNH 1013,25 hPa, with wing and engine anti-ice operating for
a functional check is :

1880 32
 (For this question use annex 032-4732A or Performance Manual This gross weight The increment The equivalent gross The increment
MRJT 1 Figure 4.24) accounts for the lower accounts for the higher weight at engine failure represents fuel used
With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, Mach number at higher fuel flow at higher is the actual gross before engine failure.
what is meant by "equivalent gross weight at engine failure" ? temperatures. temperatures. weight corrected for
OAT higher than ISA
+10°C.

1881 32
The approach climb requirement has been established so that the minimum climb gradient obstacle clearance in manoeuverability in the manoeuverability
aeroplane will achieve: in the event of a go- the approach area. event of landing with during approach with
around with one engine one engine inoperative. full flaps and gear
inoperative. down, all engines
operating.
1882 32
On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, with increasing altitude at remains unchanged but increases at constant decreases and the CAS remains unchanged but
constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuraton the drag the the CAS increases. TAS. decreases too because the TAS increases.
of the lower air density.
1883 32
Which of the following factors favours the selection of a low flap High field elevation, Low field elevation, High field elevation, no Low field elevation, no
setting for the take-off? distant obstacles in the close-in obstacles in obstacles in the climb- obstacles in the climb-
climb-out path, long the climb-out path, long out path, low ambient out path, short runway
runway and a high runway and a high temperature and short and a low ambient
ambient temperature. ambient temperature. runway. temperature.

1884 32
Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited Low flap setting, high Low flap setting, high Low flap setting, low High flap setting, low
1885 32 TOM? PA, high OAT. PA, low OAT. PA, low OAT. PA, low OAT.
If there is a tail wind, the climb limited TOM will: increase. decrease. increase in the flaps not be affected.
1886 32 extended case.
Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does There is no effect on Allowable take-off mass Allowable take-off mass Allowable take-off mass
increasing pressure altitude affect allowable take-off mass? allowable take-off remains uninfluenced decreases. increases.
mass. up to 5000 ft PA.
1887 32
In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be In the one-engine In the all-engine take- In the take-off run In the accelerate stop
included? failure case, take-off off distance. available. distance available.
1888 32 distance.
If the antiskid system is inoperative, which of the following The accelerate stop The accelerate stop It has no effect on the Take-off with antiskid
statements is true? distance increases. distance decreases. accelerate stop inoperative is not
1889 32 distance. permitted.

The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a is only certified for four- is the highest pressure is dependent on is dependent on the
pressurised cabin engine aeroplanes. altitude certified for aerodynamic ceiling. OAT.
normal operation.
1890 32
 The pilot of a light twin engine aircraft has calculated a 4 000 m less than 4 000 m. unchanged, equal to 4 only a new higher than 4 000 m.
service ceiling, based on the forecast general conditions for the flight 000 m. performance analysis
and a take-off mass of 3 250 kg. will determine if the
service ceiling is higher
If the take-off mass is 3 000 kg, the service ceiling will be: or lower than 4 000 m.

1891 32
(For this question use annex 032-4733A or Performance Manual 2600 m. 2700 m. 2900 m. 3100 m.
MRJT 1 Figure 4.28)
What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind
situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative?
Elevation: 2000 ft
QNH: 1013 hPa
Landing mass: 50 000 kg
Flaps: as required for minimum landing distance
Runway condition: dry
Wind:
Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt
Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt

1892 32
What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome It will increase the take- It will increase the take- It will increase the It will decrease the
pressure altitude is decreased? off distance required. off ground run. accelerate stop take-off distance
1893 32 distance. required.
The absolute ceiling is the altitude at which is the altitude at which is the altitude at which can be reached only
the best climb gradient the aeroplane reaches the rate of climb with minimim steady
attainable is 5% a maximum rate of theoretically is zero. flight speed
climb of 100 ft/min.

1894 32
The induced drag of an aeroplane is independent of the increases with decreases with decreases with
airspeed. increasing airspeed. increasing airspeed. increasing gross
1895 32 weight.
Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to Yes, but the stopway No. No, unless its centerline Yes, but the stopway
determine the take-off distance available ? must have the same is on the extended must be able to carry
width as the runway. centerline of the the weight of the
runway. aeroplane.
1896 32
May anti-skid be considered to determine the take-off and landing Only for landing. Yes. No. Only for take-off.
1897 32 data ?
In case of an engine failure recognized below V1 the take-off must be the take-off may be the take-off should only the take-off is to be
rejected. continued if a clearway be rejected if a stopway continued unless V1 is
is available. is available. less than the balanced
V1.
1898 32
 In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1 the take-off must be a height of 50 ft must the take-off should be the take-off must be
rejected if the speed is be reached within the rejected if the speed is continued.
still below VLOF. take-off distance. still below VR.
1899 32
The take-off distance available is the total runway length, the length of the take- the runway length the runway length plus
without clearway even if off run available plus minus stopway. half of the clearway.
this one exists. the length of the
clearway available.
1900 32
The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is a higher V1. a longer take-off run. a shorter ground roll. an increased
1901 32 acceleration.
Reduced take-off thrust has the benefit of can be used if the is not recommended at can be used if the
improving engine life. actual take-off mass is very low temperatures headwind component
higher than the (OAT). during take-off is at
performance limited least 10 kt.
take-off mass.
1902 32
1903 32 The speed for best rate of climb is called VY. VX. V2. VO.
The aerodynamic ceiling is the altitude at which is the altitude at which depends upon thrust is the altitude at which
the aeroplane reaches the speeds for low setting and increase the best rate of climb
50 ft/min. speed buffet and for with increasing thrust. theoretically is zero.
high speed buffet are
the same.
1904 32
Which statement is correct? VR is the speed at VR is the lowest climb In case of engine failure VR is the lowest speed
which rotation should speed after engine below VR the take-off for directional control in
be initiated. failure. should be aborted. case of engine failure.
1905 32
Given: VS< VMCA< V2 min VR< VMCA< VLOF VMU<= VMCA< V1 V2min< VMCA> VMU
VS= Stalling speed
VMCA= Air minimum control speed
VMU= Minimum unstick speed (disregarding engine failure)
V1= take-off decision speed
VR= Rotation speed
V2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speed
VLOF: Lift-off speed
The correct formula is:

1906 32
Required runway length at destination airport for turboprop is less then at an is more than at an is 60% longer than at is the same as at an
1907 32 aeroplanes alternate airport. alternate airport. an alternate airport. alternate airport.
 Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in Airport elevation, Airport elevation, Airport elevation, Airport elevation,
use for take-off ? runway slope, outside runway slope, standard runway slope, standard runway slope, outside
air temperature, temperature, standard temperature, pressure air temperature,
pressure altitude and pressure and wind altitude and wind standard pressure and
wind components. components. components. wind components.

1908 32
Which of the following will decrease V1? Increased take-off Inoperative flight Increased outside air Inoperative anti-skid.
1909 32 mass. management system. temperature.
Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum The aeroplane will not VMCA only applies to Straight flight can not The aeroplane is
control speed)? gather the minimum four-engine aeroplanes be maintained below uncontrollable below
required climb gradient VMCA, when the critical VMCA
engine has failed.

1910 32
During take-off the third segment begins: when acceleration when flap retraction is when acceleration to when landing gear is
starts from VLOF to V2. completed. flap retraction speed is fully retracted.
1911 32 started.
What margin above the stall speed is provided by the landing 1,10 VSO VMCA x 1,2 1,30 VSO 1,05 VSO
1912 32 reference speed VREF?
How does runway slope affect allowable take-off mass, assuming Allowable take-off mass A downhill slope A downhill slope An uphill slope
other factors remain constant and not limiting? is not affected by decreases allowable increases allowable increases take-off
1913 32 runway slope. take-off mass. take-off mass. mass.
Provided all other parameters stay constant. Which of the following Increased pressure Increased outside air Decreased take-off Decreased take-off
alternatives will decrease the take-off ground run? altitude, increased temperature, mass, increased mass, increased
outside air temperature, decreased pressure pressure altitude, density, increased flap
increased take-off altitude, decreased flap increased temperature. setting.
mass. setting.

1914 32
The required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Decreased TOD Decreased TOD Increased TOD Increased TOD
Take-off Mass (TOM) are different for the zero flap case and take-off required and decreased required and increased required and decreased required and increased
position flap case. What is the result of flap setting in take-off field length limited field length limited field length limited field length limited
position compared to zero flap position? TOM. TOM. TOM. TOM.
1915 32
The second segment begins when flaps are selected when acceleration when landing gear is when flap retraction
up. starts from V2 to the fully retracted. begins.
speed for flap
retraction.
1916 32
Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind? the field limited take-off the obstacle limited the take-off run. the climb limited take-
1917 32 mass. take-off mass. off mass.
 Field length is balanced when take-off distance equals calculated V2 is less all engine acceleration one engine
accelerate-stop than 110% VMCA and to V1 and braking acceleration from V1 to
distance. V1, VR, VMCG. distance for rejected VLOF plus flare
take-off are equal. distance between
VLOF and 35 feet are
equal.
1918 32
A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb Reduce / decrease. Reduce / remain Remain constant / Remain constant /
1919 32 thrust, how will the climb angle / the pitch angle change? constant. decrease. become larger.
Which of the following statements is correct ? If a clearway or a A stopway means an An underrun is an area A clearway is an area
stopway is used, the area beyond the take- beyond the runway end beyond the runway
liftoff point must be off runway, able to which can be used for which can be used for
attainable at least at the support the aeroplane an aborted take-off. an aborted take-off.
end of the permanent during an aborted take-
runway surface. off.

1920 32
For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles in the first by banking not more by banking as much as only by using standard by standard turns - but
segment may be avoided than 15° between 50 ft needed if aeroplane is turns. only after passing 1500
and 400 ft above the more than 50 ft above ft.
runway elevation. runway elevation.

1921 32
Which of the following is true according to JAA regulations for Maximum Take-off Run Maximum use of Maximum Landing Maximum Landing
turbopropeller powered aeroplanes not performing a steep is 0,5 x runway. clearway is 1,5 x Distance at the Distance at destination
approach? runway. destination aerodrome is 0,95 x LDA (Landing
and at any alternate Distance Available).
aerodrome is 0,7 x LDA
(Landing Distance
Available).

1922 32
The net flight path climb gradient after take-off compared to the smaller. larger. equal. depends on type of
1923 32 gross climb gradient is: aircraft.
The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is: 1.20 Vs for all 1.15 Vs for four-engine 1.20 Vs for all turbojet 1.15 Vs for all turbojet
turboprop powered turboprop aeroplanes aeroplanes. aeroplanes.
aeroplanes. and 1.20 Vs for two or
three-engine turboprop
aeroplanes.

1924 32
 (For this question use annex 032-1562A or Performance Manual 52 000 kg 56 000 kg 55 000 kg 70 000 kg
MRJT 1 Figure 4.4 )
For a twin engine turbojet aeroplane two take-off flap settings (5°
and 15°) are certified.
Given:
Field length avalaible= 2400 m
Outside air temperature= -10°C
Airport pressure altitude= 7000 ft
The maximum allowed take-off mass is:

1925 32
An airport has a 3000 metres long runway, and a 2000 metres 4500 metres. 6000 metres. 4000 metres. 5000 metres.
clearway at each end of that runway. For the calculation of the
maximum allowed take-off mass, the take-off distance available
cannot be greater than:
1926 32
During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual 2096 m. 1950 m. 2009 m. 2243 m.
measured take-off runs from brake release to a point equidistant
between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which
the aeroplane is 35 feet above the take-off surface are:
- 1747 m, all engines operating
- 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at V1, the other
factors remaining unchanged.
Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR).
What is the correct distance?

1927 32
Which of the following statements is correct? When determining the The drift down The drift down An engine failure at
obstacle clearance regulations require a procedure requires a high cruising altitude
during drift down, fuel minimum descent angle minimum obstacle will always result in a
dumping may be taken after an engine failure clearance of 35 ft. drift down, because it is
into account. at cruising altitude. not permitted to fly the
same altitude as with all
engines operating.

1928 32
How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure altitude? VMCA increases with VMCA is not affected by VMCA decreases with VMCA increases with
increasing pressure pressure altitude. increasing pressure pressure altitude higher
1929 32 altitude. altitude. than 4000 ft.
Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following The obstacle limited The maximum bank A take-off in the Wind speed plays no
statements is correct? mass can never be angle which can be direction of an obstacle role when calculating
lower than the climb used is 10°. is also permitted in tail this particular mass.
limited take-off mass. wind condition.

1930 32
 For jet aeroplanes which of the following statements is correct? The required landing When determining the In any case runway An anti-skid system
field length is the maximum allowable slope is one of the malfunction has no
distance from 35 ft to landing mass at factors taken into effect on the required
the full stop point. destination, 60% of the account when landing field length.
available distance is determining the
taken into account, if required landing field
the runway is expected length.
to be dry.
1931 32
Which statement is correct? The performance The climb limited take- The climb limited take- The climb limited take-
limited take-off mass is off mass will increase if off mass increases off mass depends on
the highest of: the headwind when a larger take-off pressure altitude and
field length limited take- component increases. flap setting is used. outer air temperature
off mass
climb limited take-off
mass
obstacle limited take-off
mass.

1932 32
Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude Aerodynamics. Theoretical ceiling. Service ceiling. Economy.
1933 32 in the "Buffet Onset Boundary" graph?
Maximum endurance for a piston engined aeroplane is achieved at: The speed for The speed for minimum The speed that The speed that
maximum lift coefficient. drag. corresponds to the approximately
speed for maximum corresponds to the
climb angle. maximum rate of climb
speed.
1934 32
The pilot of a jet aeroplane wants to use a minimum amount of fuel Maximum endurance. Holding. Long range. Maximum range.
between two airfields. Which flight procedure should the pilot fly?
1935 32
Before take-off the temperature of the wheel brakes should be To ensure that the To ensure that the To ensure that the Because overheated
checked. For what reason? brake wear is not wheels have warmed thermal blow-out plugs brakes will not perform
excessive. up evenly. are not melted. adequately in the event
of a rejected take-off.

1936 32
The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in : the take-off run the take-off distance the landing distance the accelerate-stop
1937 32 available. available. available. distance available.
1938 32 Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off? V1, VMCG, VR, V2. V1, VR, VMCG, V2. V1, VR, V2, VMCA. VMCG, V1, VR, V2.
A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational The Minimum control The Mach limit for the The Maximum The Stalling speed.
speed limit is most likely to be reached? speed air. Mach trim system. operating Mach
1939 32 number.
A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. Which of the Never Exceed Speed High Speed Buffet Limit Maximum Operational Maximum Operating
following speed limits is most likely to be exceeded first? Mach Number Speed
1940 32
1941 32 Maximum and minimum values of V1 are limited by : VR and VMCG V2 and VMCA VR and VMCA V2 and VMCG
Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet The climb limited take- The climb limited take- 50% of a head wind is On high elevation
aeroplane, is correct? off mass decreases off mass is determined taken into account airports equipped with
with increasing OAT. at the speed for best when determining the long runways the
rate of climb. climb limited take-off aeroplane will always
mass. be climb limited.

1942 32
The minimum value of V2 must exceed "air minimum control speed" 15% 20% 30% 10%
1943 32 by:
Which statement regarding V1 is correct? When determining the The V1 correction for V1 is not allowed to be V1 is not allowed to be
V1, reverse thrust is up-slope is negative. greater than VR. greater than VMCG.
only allowed to be
taken into account on
the remaining
symmetric engines.
1944 32
When an aircraft takes off with the mass limited by the TODA: the actual take-off mass the distance from brake the "balanced take-off the end of the runway
equals the field length release to V1 will be distance" equals 115% will be cleared by 35
limited take-off mass. equal to the distance of the "all engine take- feet following an engine
from V1 to the 35 feet off distance". failure at V1.
point.
1945 32
For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the following The greater the depth Dry snow is not A slush covered runway The performance data
statements is correct? of contamination at considered to affect the must be cleared before for take-off must be
constant take-off mass, take-off performance. take-off, even if the determined in general
the more V1 has to be performance data for by means of
decreased to contaminated runway is calculation, only a few
compensate for available. values are verified by
decreasing friction. flight tests.

1946 32
To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should: use maximum reverse use normal landing-, postpone the landing make a "positive"
thrust, and should start braking- and reverse until the risk of landing and apply
braking below the technique. hydroplaning no longer maximum reverse
hydroplaning speed. exists. thrust and brakes as
quickly as possible.
1947 32
What is the advantage of a balanced field length condition ? For a balanced field A balanced field length A balanced field length A balanced take-off
length the required provides the greatest gives the minimum provides the lowest
take-off runway length margin between "net" required field length in elevator input force
always equals the and "gross" take-off the event of an engine requirement for
available runway flight paths. failure. rotation.
length.
1948 32
The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engined aeroplane, in at the lowest possible at the optimum cruise at the service ceiling. at the practical ceiling.
1949 32 level flight, is reached: altitude. altitude.
 During a descent at constant Mach Number, the margin to low speed increase, because the decrease, because the increase, because the remain constant,
buffet will: lift coefficient increases. lift coefficient lift coefficient because the Mach
decreases. decreases. number remains
constant.
1950 32
(For this question use annex 032-2219A or Performance Manual 10 kt. No wind. 5 kt. 15 kt.
SEP1 1 Figure 2.4 )
With regard to the graph for landing performance, what is the
minimum headwind component required in order to land at
Helgoland airport?
Given:
Runway length: 1300 ft
Runway elevation: MSL
Weather: assume ISA conditions
Mass: 3200 lbs
Obstacle height: 50 ft

1951 32
The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with 15% 20% 10% 30%
international requirements, the following margins above stall speed
1952 32 in landing configuration:
Changing the take-off flap setting from flap 15° to flap 5° will a better climb and an a shorter take-off a longer take-off a shorter take-off
normally result in : equal take-off distance. distance and a better distance and a better distance and an equal
1953 32 climb. climb. climb.

Which statement about reduced thrust is correct? In case of reduced Reduced thrust can be Reduced thrust is Reduced thrust is used
thrust V1 should be used when the actual primarily a noise in order to save fuel.
decreased. take-off mass is less abatement procedure.
than the field length
limited take-off mass.

1954 32
What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a given altitude? The time to climb does The time to climb The time to climb The effect on time to
not change. increases. decreases. climb will depend on
1955 32 the aeroplane type.
Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1: is an airspeed at which is the airspeed of the is the airspeed on the is always equal to VEF
the aeroplane is aeroplane upon ground at which the (Engine Failure speed).
airborne but below 35 ft reaching 35 feet above pilot is assumed to
and the pilot is the take-off surface. have made a decision
assumed to have made to continue or
a decision to continue discontinue the take-off.
or discontinue the take-
off .

1956 32
 A flight is planned with a turbojet aeroplane to an aerodrome with a 1 250 m. 1 090 m. 1 655 m. 1 440 m.
landing distance available of 2400 m. Which of the following is the
1957 32 maximum landing distance for a dry runway?
A twin engined aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine inoperative the long range speed. the speed the speed at the the speed
has to fly over high ground. In order to maintain the highest possible corresponding to the maximum lift. corresponding to the
altitude the pilot should choose: minimum value of (lift / maximum value of the
drag)^3/2. lift / drag ratio.
1958 32
Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives: a specific range which a 1% higher TAS for an IAS which is 1% a specific range which
is about 99% of maximum specific higher than the IAS for is 99% of maximum
maximum specific range. maximum specific specific range and a
range and higher cruise range. lower cruise speed.
speed.
1959 32
(For this question use annex 032-1014A) d c a b
Assuming constant L/D ratio, which of the diagrams provided
correctly shows the movement of the "Thrust Required Curve .
(M1>M2).
1960 32
For jet-engined aeroplanes, what is the effect of increased altitude Decreases. Does not change. Increases only if there Increases.
1961 32 on specific range? is no wind.
Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, TAS for maximum both will increase with both will decrease with both will stay constant
other factors remaining constant, range will increase with increasing altitude. increasing altitude. regardless of altitude.
increased altitude while
TAS for maximum
endurance will
decrease with
increased altitude.
1962 32
The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane: is always equal to the is independent of the is only dependent on increases when the
powerplant ceiling. aeroplane mass. the outside air aeroplane mass
1963 32 temperature. decreases.
How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere? TAS decreases. TAS increases. TAS is constant. TAS is not related to
1964 32 Mach Number.
Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Both will increase. Both will remain the Both will decrease. Vx will decrease and Vy
1965 32 Vx and Vy: same. will increase.
With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an equal to that maximum equal to that lower than that of equal to that of
aeroplane with turbojet engines is: endurance. corresponding to zero maximum lift to drag maximum lift to drag
1966 32 induced drag. ratio. ratio.

The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps Increase at moderate Smaller. Larger. Not change.
retracted, will normally be: flap setting, decrease at
1967 32 large flap setting.
 Two identical turbojet aeroplane (whose specific fuel consumptions 3365 kg/h. 3578 kg/h. 3804 kg/h. 4044 kg/h.
are considered to be equal) are at holding speed at the same
altitude.
The mass of the first aircraft is 130 000 kg and its hourly fuel
consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the second aircraft is 115
000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is:
1968 32
An operator shall ensure that the net take-off flight path clears all -90m + 1.125D 90m + D/0.125 90m + 0.125D 0.125D
obstacles. The half-width of the obstacle-corridor at the distance D
1969 32 from the end of the TODA is at least:
How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with Best angle of climb Best angle of climb Both decrease. Both increase.
increasing altitude? increases while best decreases while best
rate of climb decreases. rate of climb increases.
1970 32
Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an Weight and drag only. Thrust and drag only. Weight and thrust only. Weight, drag and
1971 32 aeroplane's angle of climb? thrust.
A head wind will: increase the climb flight increase the angle of increase the rate of shorten the time of
1972 32 path angle. climb. climb. climb.
At which minimum height will the second climb segment end? When gear retraction is 1500 ft above field 400 ft above field 35 ft above ground.
1973 32 completed. elevation. elevation.
The requirements with regard to take-off flight path and the climb 2 engined aeroplane. the failure of two the failure of the critical the failure of any
segments are only specified for: engines on a multi- engine on a multi- engine on a multi-
engined aeroplane. engines aeroplane. engined aeroplane.
1974 32
In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by deploy airbrakes or reduce the engine reverse engine thrust. apply wheel brakes.
1975 32 the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to: spoilers. thrust.
During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane 2938 m 3050 m 3513 m 2555 m
the actual take-off distances measured are:
- 3050 m with failure of the critical engine recognised at V1
- 2555 m with all engines operating and all other things being equal

The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:

1976 32
Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 VREF VR VMCA V2
assuming max tyre speed and max brake energy speed are not
1977 32 limiting?
1978 32 Which of the following represents the minimum for V1? VMCG VLOF VMU VR
Vx and Vy with take-off flaps will be: higher than that for same as that for clean changed so that Vx lower than that for
clean configuration. configuration. increases and Vy clean configuration.
decreases compared to
clean configuration.

1979 32
 Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are descending at idle At a given angle of At a given angle of At a given angle of There is no difference
thrust. Which of the following statements correctly describes their attack the heavier attack the lighter attack, both the vertical between the descent
descent characteristics ? aeroplane will always aeroplane will always and the forward speed characteristics of the
glide further than the glide further than the are greater for the two aeroplanes.
lighter aeroplane. heavier aeroplane. heavier aeroplane.

1980 32
Take-off run is defined as the horizontal distance distance to V1 and distance to 35 feet with Distance from brake
along the take-off path stop, assuming an an engine failure at V1 release to V2.
from the start of the engine failure at V1. or 115% all engine
take-off to a point distance to 35 feet.
equidistant between the
point at which VLOF is
reached and the point
at which the aeroplane
is 35 ft above the take-
off surface.

1981 32
A jet aeroplane is flying long range cruise. How does the specific Decrease / decrease. Increase / decrease. Increase / increase. Decrease / increase.
1982 32 range / fuel flow change?
During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the remain constant. decrease. increase. increase at first and
1983 32 aeroplane will: decrease later on.
During a cruise flight of a jet aeroplane at constant flight level and at decrease / decrease. increase / decrease. increase / increase. decrease / increase.
1984 32 the maximum range speed, the IAS / the drag will:
An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Is constant in the first Decreases in the first Increases in the first Increases in the first
Mach number, and from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS reached at FL part; decreases in the part; increases in the part; is constant in the part; decreases in the
270. second. second. second. second.
How does the angle of descent change in the first and in the second
part of the descent?
Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore
compressibility effects.
1985 32
Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct? Executing a desired A step climb must be A step climb is A step climb is
step climb at high executed immediately executed because ATC executed in principle
altitude can be limited after the aeroplane has desires a higher when, just after leveling
by buffet onset at g- exceeded the optimum altitude. off, the 1.3g altitude is
loads larger than 1. altitude. reached.
1986 32
 Given that: V2min<= VEF<= VMU VMCG<=VEF < V1 1.05 VMCA<= VEF<= 1.05 VMCG< VEF<=
VEF= Critical engine failure speed V1 VR
VMCG= Ground minimum control speed
VMCA= Air minimum control speed
VMU= Minimum unstick speed
V1= Take-off decision speed
VR= Rotation speed
V2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speed
The correct formula is:

1987 32
The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a 67 700 kg / 15 deg 69 000 kg / 15 deg 72 200 kg / 5 deg 69 700 kg / 25 deg
certified turbojet aeroplane with 5°, 15° and 25° flaps angles on take-
off, leads to the following values, with wind:
Flap angle: 5° 15° 25°
Runway limitation (kg): 66 000 69 500 71 500
2nd segment slope limitation: 72 200 69 000 61 800
Wind correction:
Head wind:+120kg / kt
Tail wind: -360kg / kt
Given that the tail wind component is equal to 5 kt, the maximum
mass on brake release and corresponding flap angle will be:

1988 32
On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, with increasing altitude at increases and the TAS increases but TAS decreases slightly remains unchanged but
constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuraton the power increases by the same remains constant. because of the lower air the TAS increases.
1989 32 required percentage. density.
The speed range between low speed buffet and high speed buffet narrows with increasing decreases with is only limiting at low increases with
mass and increasing increasing mass and is altitudes. increasing mass.
altitude. independent of altitude.
1990 32
For a turbojet aeroplane, what is the maximum landing distance for 2 070 m. 1565 m. 1800 m. 2609 m.
wet runways when the landing distance available at an aerodrome is
1991 32 3000 m?
Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the Configuration and Mass and altitude. Altitude and Configuration and
angle of descent in a glide? angle of attack. configuration. mass.
1992 32 (Ignore compressibility effects.)

Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart? The value of the critical
Mach number at
various masses and
altitudes.
The value of the Mach The values of the Mach The value of maximum
number at which low number at which low operating Mach number
speed and shockstall speed and Mach buffet (MMO) at various
occur at various occur at various masses and power
weights and altitudes. masses and altitudes. settings.

1993 32
 What is the effect of a head wind component, compared to still air, on Maximum range speed Maximum range speed Maximum range speed Maximum range speed
the maximum range speed (IAS) and the speed for maximum climb decreases and increases and increases and decreases and
angle respectively? maximum climb angle maximum climb angle maximum climb angle maximum climb angle
speed decreases. speed increases. speed stays constant. speed increases.

1994 32
The airspeed for jet aeroplanes at which power required is a is lower than the is the same as the is always lower than the is always higher than
minimum minimum drag speed in minimum drag speed. minimum drag speed. the minimum drag
the climb and higher speed.
than the minimum drag
speed in the descent.

1995 32
Given a jet aircraft. Which order of increasing speeds in the Vs, Maximum range Maximum endurance Vs, Vx, Maximum range Maximum endurance
performance diagram is correct? speed, Vx speed, Maximum range speed speed, Long range
speed, Vx speed, Maximum range
speed
1996 32
The point where Drag coefficient/Lift coefficient is a minimum is the point where a the lowest point of the at stalling speed (VS). on the "back side" of
tangent from the origin drag curve. the drag curve.
touches the drag curve.
1997 32
The lowest point of the drag or thrust required curve of a jet minimum specific minimum drag. maximum specific maximum endurance.
1998 32 aeroplane, respectively, is the point for range. range.
The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit improves the maximum increases the stalling improves the decreases the
1999 32 range. speed. longitudinal stabiity. maximum range.
The Density Altitude is used to calculate the is used to determine is equal to the pressure is used to establish
FL above the Transition the aeroplane altitude. minimum clearance of
Altitude. performance. 2.000 feet over
mountains.
2000 32
Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and High temperature and Low temperature and High temperature and Low temperature and
2001 32 initial climb performance ? high relative humidity high relative humidity low relative humidity low relative humidity
What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds? The slope has no effect on the decreases the take-off decreases the TAS for increases the IAS for
2002 32 take-off speed V1. speed V1. take-off. take-off.
A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel 14 kg/NM. 11.7 kg/NM. 10.7 kg/NM. 8.17 kg/NM.
consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour and, in a
given flying condition, a fuel mileage of 14 kg per Nautical Mile. In
the same flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with
modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0.035 kg per
Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel mileage of:

2003 32
 Moving the center of gravity from the forward to the aft limit (gross decreases the induced increases the power affects neither drag nor increases the induced
mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged) drag and reduces the required. power required. drag.
power required.
2004 32
With a jet aeroplane the maximum climb angle can be flown at 1.1 Vs The highest CL/CD The highest CL/CD² 1.2 Vs
2005 32 approximately: ratio. ratio.
A higher outside air temperature increases the angle of does not have any reduces the angle of reduces the angle and
climb but decreases the noticeable effect on climb but increases the the rate of climb.
rate of climb. climb performance. rate of climb.
2006 32
Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during 1.2Vs. The speed for The speed, at which the The speed for
climb? maximum rate of climb. flaps may be selected maximum climb angle
one position further UP. Vx.
2007 32
What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant Mach The "1.3G" altitude is The lift coefficient The TAS continues to IAS stays constant so
number? exceeded, so Mach increases. increase, which may there will be no
buffet will start lead to structural problems.
immediately. problems.
2008 32
The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in : The maximum The maximum angle of The maximum range for The maximum range for
endurance for a climb for a propeller a propeller driven a jet aeroplane.
propeller driven driven aeroplane. aeroplane.
aeroplane.
2009 32
For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for Longest flight duration. Minimum drag. Minimum specific fuel Minimum fuel flow.
2010 32 the use of 'maximum range speed' ? consumption.
If a flight is performed with a higher "Cost Index" at a given mass A better maximum A better long range. A higher cruise mach A lower cruise mach
2011 32 which of the following will occur? range. number. number.
Which of the following sequences of speed for a jet aeroplane is Maximum endurance Maximum endurance Vs, maximum angle Vs, maximum range
correct ? (from low to high speeds) speed, maximum range speed, long range climb speed, maximum speed, maximum angle
speed, maximum angle speed, maximum range range speed. climb speed.
of climb speed. speed.

2012 32
What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb The drag remains The drag increases The drag decreases. The drag increases
after take off, constant IAS is maintained? almost constant. considerably. initially and decreases
(Assume a constant mass.) thereafter.
2013 32
How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude? The lift coefficient Only at low speeds the The lift coefficient is The lift coefficient
(No compressibility effects.) increases with lift coefficient independant of altitude. decreases with
increasing altitude. decreases with increasing altitude.
increasing altitude.
2014 32
 A four jet-engined aeroplane (mass = 150 000 kg) is established on 7.86%. 12.86%. 1.286%. 27%.
climb with all engines operating. The lift-to-drag ratio is 14.
Each engine has a thrust of 75 000 Newtons. The gradient of climb
is:
(given: g= 10 m/s²)

2015 32
The maximum horizontal speed occurs when: The thrust is equal to The thrust does not The maximum thrust is The thrust is equal to
minimum drag. increase further with equal to the total drag. the maximum drag.
2016 32 increasing speed.
A twin jet aeroplane is in cruise, with one engine inoperative, and giving the lowest Cl/Cd giving the highest Cd/Cl for long-range cruise. of greatest lift-to-drag
has to overfly a high terrain area. In order to allow the greatest ratio. ratio. ratio.
clearance height, the appropriate airspeed must be the airspeed
2017 32
The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power is the maximum drag is the point where the is the point where Drag is the point where the
required curve speed. Lift to Drag ratio is a coefficient is a Lift to Drag ratio is a
2018 32 maximum. minimum. minimum.
An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the an increased landing an increased landing a reduced landing a reduced landing
following consequences on landing performance: distance and degraded distance and improved distance and degraded distance and improved
go-around performance go-around performance go around performance go-around performance
2019 32
A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the a reduced take-off an increased take-off a reduced take-off an increased take-off
following consequences on take-off performance: distance and improved distance and improved distance and degraded distance and degraded
initial climb initial climb initial climb initial climb
performance performance performance performance
2020 32
An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the an increases take-off an increased take-off a reduced take-off a reduced take-off
following consequences on take-off performance: distance and degraded distance and improved distance and degraded distance and improved
initial climb initial climb initial climb initial climb
performance performance performance performance
2021 32
The 'maximum tyre speed' limits: V1 in kt ground speed. VLOF in terms of V1 in kt TAS. VR, or VMU if this is
2022 32 ground speed. lower than VR.
The lift coefficient decreases during a glide with constant Mach aircraft mass TAS decreases. glide angle increases. IAS increases.
2023 32 number, mainly because the : decreases.
(For this question use annex 032-2211A) Figure b Figure c Figure a Figure d
Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the movement of
the power required curve with increasing altitude .(H1 < H2)
2024 32
In a steady descending flight (descent angle GAMMA) equilibrium of T + W sin GAMMA = D T - W sin GAMMA = D T - D = W sin GAMMA T + D = - W sin
forces acting on the aeroplane is given by: GAMMA
2025 32 (T = Thrust, D = Drag, W = Weight)
 Approaching in turbulent wind conditions requires a change in the Increasing VREF and Increasing VREF Lowering VREF Keeping same VREF
landing reference speed (VREF): making a steeper glide because wind has no
path to avoid the use of influence on IAS.
spoilers.
2026 32
A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero has no effect on rate of does not have any improves angle and decreases angle and
wind condition, (assuming IAS is constant) climb. effect on the angle of rate of climb. rate of climb.
flight path during climb.
2027 32
With respect to the optimum altitude, which of the following An aeroplane always An aeroplane flies An aeroplane An aeroplane always
statements is correct ? flies at the optimum most of the time above sometimes flies above flies below the optimum
altitude because this is the optimum altitude or below the optimum altitude, because Mach
economically seen as because this yields the altitude because buffet might occur.
the most attractive most economic result. optimum altitude
altitude. increases continuously
during flight.

2028 32
(For this question use annex 032-4744A) b c d a
Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an
aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the correct curves for "flaps
down" compared to "clean" configuration?
2029 32
A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the IAS decreases and TAS IAS increases and TAS IAS decreases and TAS IAS increases and TAS
2030 32 tropopause. Which of the following statements is correct? increases. decreases. decreases. increases.
With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore the maximum lift. the minimum drag. the critical Mach the minimum angle of
2031 32 he has to fly the speed corresponding to: number. descent.
(For this question use annex 032-2929A) maximum thrust. critical angle of attack. maximum specific maximum endurance.
Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus range.
true air speed (TAS), for a piston engined aeroplane with a given
mass. When drawing the tangent from the origin, the point of contact
(A) determines the speed of:
2032 32
For a piston engined aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is : that which givesthe that which givesthe 1.4 times the stall that which gives the
minimum value of drag. maximun value of lift speed in clean maximum lift to drag
2033 32 configuration. ratio.

Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance (i) V2 (ii) 3 seconds (i) V1 (ii) 1 second (iii) (i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds
of an aeroplane in performance class A. Following an engine failure (iii) Take-off distance Accelerate - stop (iii) Take-off distance (iii) Accelerate - stop
at (i) ........... and allowing for a reaction time of (ii) ........... a correctly available. distance available. available. distance available.
loaded aircraft must be capable of decelerating to a halt within the
(iii) .........
2034 32
What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding There is no effect. The gliding angle The lift/drag ratio The speed for best
aeroplane? decreases. decreases. angle of descent
2035 32 increases.
 If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill increase the required have no effect on the decrease the maximum increase the maximum
slope would take-off distance. maximum mass for mass for take-off. mass for take-off.
2036 32 take-off.
The first segment of the take-off flight path ends at 35 ft above the at completion of gear at completion of flap at reaching V2.
2037 32 runway.