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1. ______________, Anthelmintics having Immunosuppressant activity.
A. Piperazine
B. Levamisole
C. Ivermectin
D. Niclosamide
2. Choose correct statement for PEGylation:
A. Used to enhance In-vivo half-life of smaller Peptides and proteins
B. Avoidance of Reticulo-endothelial (RES) clearance
C. Reduce clearance rate through kidney
D. All
3. ______________, system does not have orifice to release the drug.
A. Elementary Osmotic Pump
B. L-OROS
C. Sandwich Osmotic Pump Tablet
D. Controlled Porosity Osmotic Pump Tablet
4. In which rearrangement reaction, Isocyanate is formed?
A. Curtious
B. Lossen
C. Both A & B
D. None
5. Chitin gets converted in to Chitosan upon:
A. Acetylation
B. Deacetylation
C. Oxidation
D. Reduction
6. o, m, p- isomers can be differentiated on the basis of:
A. Chemical shift
B. Coupling constant
C. Extinction coefficient
D. Dipole moment
7. Monitoring of plasma drug concentration is required while using:
A. Antihypertensive drugs
B. Levodopa
C. Lithium carbonate
D. MAO inhibitors
8. Sanguiamarine belongs to the subgroup of:
A. Morphinans
B. Benzyl isoquinolines
C. Phthalide isoquinolines
D. Benzophenanthrenes
9. Morphine does not cause:
A. Constriction of pupil
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B. CNS depression
C. Respiratory depression
D. Diarrhoea
10. In mammals, The major fat in adipose tissue is:
A. Triglyceride
B. Cholesterol
C. Sphingophospholipids
D. Phospholipids
11. Dovers powder used as a diaphoretic contains:
A. Ipecac & Opium
B. Ipecac, Senna & Cinchona
C. Opium, Ipecac & Cinchona
D. All
12. Biological active form of Vit. D in man is:
A. Cholecalciferol
B. Calcifediol
C. Calciferol
D. Calcitriol
13. The Franz diffusion cell which is used for the evaluation of
transdermal drug delivery systems consists of:
A. 1 chamber
B. 2 chamber
C. 3 chamber
D. None
14. Homatropine is
A. Tropine ester of amino acetic acid
B. Tropine ester of mendelic acid
C. Tropine methyl bromide ester of mendelic acid
D. Tropine ester of amino formic acid
15. List of drugs whose import, manufacture and sale, labeling and
packaging are governed by special provisions are included in schedule:
A. X
B. K
C. H
D. G
16. Ferritin is:
A. Coenzyme
B. The stored form of Iron
C. Non-protein moiety
D. Isoenzyme
17. Mechanism of action of Ketoconazole is:
A. Inhibits Ergosterol synthesis
B. Inhibits DNA gyrase
C. Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase

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D. Induces translation misreading

18. Dose dumping may be a general problem in the formulation of:
A. Soft gelatin capsules
B. Suppositories
C. Modified release drug products
D. None
19. Codeine differ in structure from morphine by:
A. N-methyl group
B. Acetyl group at C1 and C6
C. –OC2H5 group
D. –OCH3 group
20. Isotopes differ in:
A. The number of protons
B. The valency number
C. The chemical activity
D. The number of neutrons
21. E1cb (Elimination reaction via conjugate base) which reaction
intermediate will form?
A. Carbocation
B. Carbanion
C. Free radical
D. All
22. Capping in tablets mainly due to:
A. Less upper punch pressure
B. Poor flowability of granules
C. Proper formulation design
D. Entrapment of air in tablet during compression
23. How can we detect the rhizome from the root of the Rauwolfia?
A. By the presence of small central pith
B. By the absence of small central pith
C. By the presence of vascular bundle
D. None
24. Quick breaking aerosols are applicable:
A. Orally
B. Parenterally
C. Topically
D. Ophthalmically
25. The IUPAC name of the compound-(CH3)2CHCH2Cl:
A. 2-methyl-3-chloropropane
B. 1-chloro-3-mehtyl butane
C. 1-chloropentane
D. 2-mehtyl-4-chlorobutane
26. Parenteral product must be:
A. Packed in bottle

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B. Sterilized
C. Free from viable/living organism
D. Pyrogenic
27. Quinine present in highest amount in:
A. C. calisaya
B. C. officinalis
C. C. ledgeriana
D. C. succirubra
28. The phosphate of a metal has the formula MHPO4. The formula of its
Bromide would be:
A. MBr
B. MBr2
C. MBr3
D. MBr4
29. Silicone based adhesive used in TDDS possess following properties:
A. Chemical and biological inertness
B. Low toxicity
C. Low sensitization and irritation
D. All
30. Schleuniger tester is used for the tablets to measure:
A. Roughness
B. Hardness
C. Dissolution
D. Friability
31. Creatinine clearance is used as a measurement of:
A. Passive renal absorption
B. Glomerular filtration rate
C. Renal excretion rate
D. All
32. 1-[2-[(2-chloro thienly)methoxy]-2-(2,4-dichlorophenyl)ethyl]-1H-
imidazole is:
A. Oxiconazole
B. Sulconazole
C. Tioconazole
D. Miconazole
33. The drug of choice in prolonged febrile convulsions is:
A. Carbamazepine
B. Diazepam
C. Phenytoin
D. Paracetamol
34. Geometrical isomerism is possible in case of:
A. 2-Pentene
B. Pentane
C. Propene

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D. Ethene
35. Which antihistaminics is least likely to cause sedation?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Loratadine
C. Chlorpheniramine
D. Alimemazine (trimeprazine)
36. The EMR/EPR is which type of spectroscopy?
A. Absorption
B. Emission
C. Scattering
D. All
37. Purity of water of injection is checked by:
A. Potential testing
B. Pyrogen testing
C. Conductivity testing
D. pH testing
38. Select incorrect statement:
A. Half-life of atropine is 4 hours
B. Acetylcholine and atropine show irreversible antagonism
C. Atropine is a CNS stimulant
D. Atropine produces cycloplegia
39. ________is specific D2 Receptor antagonist.
A. Pimozide
B. Remoxipride
C. Sulphiride
D. All
40. Which hybridized orbital is having greater electron withdrawing
power?
A. SP
B. SP2
C. SP3
D. All is having equal energy
41. Anaferine and Anahygrine alkaloids are present in:
A. Hyoscyamus
B. Ashwagandha
C. Vinca
D. Vasaka
42. _____ Isomer of Doxepin is active?
A. Z
B. S
C. R
D. All
43. Diosgenine is:
A. Alkaloid obtained from dioscorea

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B. Carbohydrate from dioscorea

C. Glycoside obtained from dioscorea
D. None
44. Momordica charantia having blood sugar lowering activity due to:
A. Momordicin
B. Charantin
C. Momortin
D. Charantiamarin
45. The drug which is bactericidal to all three pools extracellular,
intracellular and necrotic caseum of tubercle bacilli is:
A. Isoniazid
B. Ethambutol
C. Pyrizinamide
D. Rifampin
46. Ma-huang is synonym of:
A. Belladonna
B. Opium
C. Ephedra
D. Ipecac
47. The most useful class of drugs in the long term treatment of
hypertension is:
A. Thiazide diuretics
B. Mercurials diuretics
C. Osmotic diuretics
D. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
48. _________is not acting as agonist on opioid K (kappa) receptor.
A. Buprenorphine
B. Butorphanol
C. Nalbuphine
D. Pentazocine
49. Most of the drugs absorbed in the body by:
A. Active transport
B. Passive transport
C. Ion-Pair transport
D. Facilitated diffusion
50. Insulin stimulates glucose transport by promoting the translocation
of:
A. GLUT 4
B. GLUT 2 & GLUT 4
C. GLUT 1 & GLUT 4
D. GLUT 2
51. Ptylin secreted by:
A. Pancreas
B. Lachrymeal gland

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C. Parotid gland
D. None
52. Which diuretic used for Barbiturate poisoning?
A. Mercurial diuretic
B. Osmotic diuretic
C. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
D. All
53. Choose correct statement for Transferosomes:
A. They are modified Niosomes
B. They are used to increase transdermal permeation of drug
C. They are proliposomes
D. All
54. _________is 3rd generation fluoroquinolones.
A. Lomefloxacin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Gemifloxacin
D. Gatifloxacin
55. QSAR stands for:
A. Qualitative structure activity relationship
B. Quantitative structure action relationship
C. Quantitative structure activity relationship
D. Quantitative structure activity relativity
56. ________is a Cholesterol Absorption Inhibitor.
A. Atorvastatin
B. Ezetimibe
C. Fenofibrate
D. Nicotinic acid
57. Which of the following possess the highest carbonyl stretching
frequency?
A. RCOCl
B. RCOR‟
C. RCOOR‟
D. RCONH2
58. Deficiency of which of the following biochemical cause night
blindness?
A. Calciferol
B. Menadiol
C. Retinal
D. Tocoferol
59. The conversion of an amino acid to a sugar is:
A. Glucogenesis
B. Amination
C. Glycogenesis
D. Gluconeogenesis

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60. _________is HIV NNRT inhibitor.

A. Lopinavir
B. Efavirenz
C. Zidovudine
D. Acyclovir
61. Starting material for Isoniazide synthesis is:
A. α-picoline
B. β-picoline
C. γ-picoline
D. Pyrimidine
62. Which beta blocker produces nitric oxide?
A. Atenolol
B. Pindolol
C. Metoprolol
D. Betaxolol
63. Iontophoresis is application of _________to enhance transdermal
permeation of drug.
A. High voltage current
B. Low voltage current (less than 0.5 mA/cm2)
C. Ultrasound with a frequency above 20 KHz
D. Magnetic field
64. L-threose and L-erythrose are_________________.
A. Anomer
B. Epimer
C. Enantiomer
D. None
65. RP-HPLC involves:
A. Less polar mobile phase than stationary phase
B. Less polar stationary phase than mobile phase
C. Reverse osmosis
D. Forward osmosis
66. The statement “ store in cool place” as per IP means:
A. Store at room temp.
B. Store between 2 to 8 °C
C. Store at any temp between 8 to 25 °C
D. Store at 0 °C
67. A retardant material that forms a hydrophilic matrix in the
formulation of matrix tablet is:
A. HPMC
B. CAP
C. Polyethylene
D. Carnauba wax
68. Phosphorescence and fluorescence are ________________spectroscopy.
A. Emission

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B. Absorption
C. Photoacoustic
D. All
69. Which of the following drug can be used in Wolff Parkinson White
(WPW) syndrome?
A. Lidocaine
B. Propranolol
C. Flecainide
D. All
70. Differential Scanning Calorimetry (DSC) study is useful for:
A. Identification of Polymorphs
B. Drug-Excipient compatibility studies
C. Characterization of polymers
D. All
71. _______order of reaction is followed by drug in Suspension.
A. First
B. Pseudo first
C. Pseudo zero
D. Zero
72. TDDS is applicable for drug candidate that having following
property:
A. Non-ionic
B. Low molecular weight (less than 500 Da)
C. Adequate solubility in oil and water (Log P: 1-3)
D. All
73. __________is potassium sparing Diuretic.
A. Furosemide
B. Eplerenone
C. Ethacrynic acid
D. Hydrochlorthiazide
74. Electronegativity information can be obtained from?
A. IR spectro.
B. NMR spectro.
C. Mass spectro.
D. All
75. Phase-I Clinical trials are performed on
A. Healthy Animals
B. Healthy Human beings
C. Both A & B
D. None
76. The loading dose (DL) of a drug is usually based on the:
A. Total body clearance of the drug
B. Percentage of drug bound to plasma proteins
C. Fraction of drug excreted unchanged in the urine

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D. Apparent volume of distribution & desired drug concentration in

plasma
77. _______crosses BBB.
A. GABA
B. Propranolol
C. Suxamethonium
D. Dopamine
78. License for wholesale of drugs specified in schedule C and C1 are
issued in the forms:
A. 20 A
B. 20 B
C. 21 B
D. 22 A
79. Quadrupole mass spectrometer is made up of:
A. 4 parallel Silicon carbide rod
B. 4 parallel tungsten rod
C. 4 parallel zirconium rod
D. None
80. _________is a sulpha drug.
A. Captopril
B. Enalapril
C. Fosinopril
D. Losartan
81. ______________is a color pigment present in tomato.
A. Carotene
B. Lycopene
C. Betaine
D. Curcumine
82. Drug retail sale licenses are issued by:
A. Drug controller of India
B. Union health minister
C. Drug controller authority of the states
D. Director of Health services
83. In Polarography, ________current must be blocked.
A. Residual
B. Migration
C. Diffusion
D. None
84. Supercritical Fluid exhibit properties intermediate between:5 years
A. Gas & Solid
B. Gas & Liquid
C. Solid & Liquid
D. All
85. Which type of trichomes is present in Ashwagandha?

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A. Branched
B. Lignified
C. Glandular
D. None
86. Chotta chand is synonym of:
A. Rauwolfia serpentina
B. Rauwolfia densiflora
C. Rauwolfia perakensis
D. Rauwolfia tetraphylla
87. Serological reactions are useful for:
A. Detection of antigens
B. Detection of antibodies
C. Both A & B
D. None
88. Ergotoxine group of alkaloid are mixture of:
(1) Ergocystine (2) Ergocornine (3) Ergocryptine (4) Ergometrine
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. None
89. To check the stray light in UV, which solution is used?
A. 1.2%KCl
B. 1.2%NaCl
C. 1.2%KBr
D. 1.2%NaBr
90. A disease called “Stripe canker” is connected with:
A. Nuxvomica
B. Rauwolfia
C. Ashwagandha
D. Cinchona
91. If Cyanocobalamine is imported under the name of tetracycline, it
will be called:
A. Adulterated drug
B. Spurious drug
C. Misbranded drug
D. Substituted drug
92. Ergot powder gives blue color with:
A. p-dimethyl amino benzaldehyde
B. o-dimethyl amino benzaldehyde
C. All
D. None
93. Neomycin is obtained from:
A. E. coli
B. B. subtilis

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C. S. aeruginosa
D. S. fradiae
94. Biological & Biotechnological products are listed in schedule:
A. A
B. B
C. C & C1
D. X
95. Carbopols are polymerized from:
A. Methacrylate ester
B. Acrylic acid
C. Ethylene glycol
D. Bis-phenol + phosgene
96. A mixture of HCl & Acetic acid can be satisfactorily titrated by:
A. Potentiometry
B. Conductometry
C. Amperometry
D. Spectrophotometry
97. Active form of Enantiomer for Amlodipine is:
A. S-isomer
B. D-isomer
C. L-isomer
D. None
98. Hard gelatin capsule of size 3 will accommodate approx. volume in
ml:
A. 0.1
B. 0.2
C. 0.3
D. 0.75
99. The international name for small pox vaccine is:
A. BCG
B. DTP
C. Variola
D. Vibrio
100. Vitamin P is_________:
A. Silymarine
B. Ginkogetin
C. Hersperidin
D. Visnagin
101. Compact size, low weight mass instrument is:
A. EI-TOF
B. MALDI-Quadrapole
C. MALDI-TOF
D. Ion-Trap
102. Buck wheat contains Rutin which is obtained from:

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A. Fagopyrum esculentum
B. Dipteryx odorat
C. Silybum marianum
D. Gingko
103. IP 2007 & USP 2006 use nitrite titration for those drugs having:
A. Phenolic structure
B. 1° Aromatic amine
C. Unsaturation
D. 3° nitrogen
104. A Nonhazardous substitute for RIA is:
A. Flame photometry
B. HPLC
C. Fluorometry
D. GCMS
105. LCMS is used in:
A. Bioanalysis study
B. Drug metabolite study
C. Complex mixture assay
D. All
106. Pantothenic acid is a part of:
A. Renin
B. Carboxypeptidase
C. Coenzyme A
D. NAD
107. Efficiency of HEPA filter can be checked by:
A. Leak test
B. DOP test
C. Pyrogen test
D. LAL test
108. β-cells are involved in:
A. Humoral immunity
B. Cell mediated immunity
C. Active immunity
D. Passive immunity
109. Correct structure of Penicillin given by:
A. Fleming
B. Ronald hare
C. Robert robinson
D. Marc
110. WIPO is:
A. World Intellectual Property Organization
B. World Intellectual Patent Organization
C. World Intellectual Patent Office
D. World Intellectual Property Office

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111. Strychnine & Brucine are absent in:

A. Strychnos potatorum
B. Strychnos nuxblanda
C. Strychnos nuxvomica
D. Both A & B
112. _____________is safe during pregnancy.
A. Amodiaquine
B. Proguanil
C. Primaquine
D. Chloroquine
113. Select solvent used in NMR:
A. Trifluro acetic acid
B. Carbon tetra chloride
C. DMSO
D. All
114. Plasmodesmata is:
A. Lignified element
B. Vascular element
C. Very fine protoplasmic thread
D. None
115. Which of the following salt is used as an Antineoplastic agent?
A. Vinblastine chloride
B. Vinblastine bromide
C. Vinblastine sulphate
D. Vincristine bromide
116. Which indicator is used in Complexometric titration?
A. Crystal violet
B. Murexide
C. Phenophthelin
D. Methyl orange
117. Papaverine is a:
A. Expectorant
B. Smooth muscle relaxant
C. Antitussive
D. All
118. __________stereoisomer of the Omeprazole is more potent.
A. R-isomer
B. S-isomer
C. d-isomer
D. l-isomer
119. _______ Drug is given to L-DOPA resistant patient.
A. Amantidine
B. Bromocriptine
C. Both A & B

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D. None
120. Nicotine has a pyridine ring attached with:
A. Pyrrolidine ring
B. Piperidine ring
C. Indole ring
D. None
121. Bubble point is used to determine:
A. The surface tension of liquid in capillary tubes
B. The viscosity of liquid in ampoules
C. The pH of 1% solution
D. The volume of solution stored in a specified container
122. Chairman of DTAB is:
A. Health minister of India
B. Director general of Health services
C. Drug controller of India
D. President of AICTE
123. In 13C NMR spectroscopy which of the phenomenon occurs:
A. Coupling
B. Decoupling
C. Both A & B
D. None
124. The most common site of alkylation by Alkylating agents is:
A. 5- N position of guanine
B. 4- NH2 position of guanine
C. 2- N position of guanine
D. 7- N position of guanine
125. Triamcinolone is a
A. Ultrashort acting adrenocorticoid
B. Short acting adrenocorticoid
C. Intermediate acting adrenocorticoid
D. Long acting adrenocorticoid
126. –SO2NH2 group is present in one of the following H2 receptor
antihistaminics?
A. Cimetidine
B. Ranitidine
C. Famotidine
D. Nizatidine
127. Helminthiasis is caused by organism:
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Trichuris trichiura
C. Necator americanus
D. All
128. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a measure of:
A. Industrial wastes poured into water bodies

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B. Extent to which water is polluted with organic compounds

C. Amt of carbon monoxide inseparably combined with hemoglobin
D. Amt of O2 needed by green plants during night
129. Nucleic acid of polio viruses is:
A. DNA
B. RNA-(+) type
C. t-RNA
D. m-RNA
130. ___________is orally ineffective because of first pass metabolism.
A. Morphine
B. Heroin
C. Buprenorphine
D. Codeine
131. Anticholinergic side effects are common with:
A. Haloperidol
B. Thioridazine
C. Fluphenzine
D. Trifluperazine
132. _______, physicochemical parameter is represented by Parachor [P].
A. Lipophilic
B. Electronic
C. Stearic
D. All
133. The detector used in flame spectroscopy:
A. Phototubes
B. Photomultipliers
C. Photoconductivity Cell
D. Pyrroelectric detectors
134. _________is HMGCo A Reductase inhibitor is a prodrug.
A. Atorvastatin
B. Pravastatin
C. Simvastatin
D. Fluvastatin
135. Khellin is mainly used as::
A. Anticancer
B. Antiasthamatic
C. Cough suppressants
D. Muscle relaxant
136. Phospholipid vesicles were first discovered by:
A. Crowell
B. Peppas
C. Bangham
D. None
137. Glucose shows UV absorbance at:

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A. 250 nm
B. 270 nm
C. 290 nm
D. None
138. Morphine when reacts with HCl gives
A. Hydromorphine
B. Apomorphine
C. Codeine
D. Pholcodeine
139. In Tissue Culture, surface sterilization of explants is done by:
A. Distilled Water
B. Methanol
C. Na Hypochlorite
D. Propiolactone
140. One of the Phospholipid possess Antigenic properties:
A. Lecithin
B. Cephaline
C. Cardiolipin
D. Plasmalogens
141. Drugs withdrawn from market is:
A. Rofecoxib
B. Cerivastatin
C. Rosiglitazone
D. All
142. Gouche confirmation having coupling constant value:
A. 5-12
B. 10-20
C. 2-4
D. 20-40
143. Friability test is also known as:
A. Brittle fracture index test
B. LAL test
C. Swelling index
D. SHAM test
144. _________is called as hyphenated techniques.
A. GC-MS
B. MS-MS
C. LC-MS
D. All
145. Anastrozole is
A. Estrogen
B. Antiestrogen
C. Aromatase inhibitor
D. Androgen

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146. Vapour pressure of aerosols is detected by:

A. Water bath test
B. Naptha test
C. Container puncturing method
D. Both a and c
147. Synonym of Aconite root:
A. Bachnag
B. Monkshood
C. Both A & B
D. None
148. Ideal suppository base is:
A. PEG
B. Theobroma oil
C. Tween
D. Span
149. _______________ is used in both Influenza Type-A & Type-B.
A. Amantadine
B. Tribavirin
C. Zanamavir
D. All
150. O-H stretching vibrations in Alcohol ranges from:
A. 3550 – 3450 cm-1
B. 3400 – 3200 cm-1
C. 3650 – 3590 cm-1
D. 3570 - 3450 cm-1

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 ANSWER KEY FOR 2ND GPAT PAPER

1 B 21 B 41 B 61 C 81 B 101 B 121 A 141 D

2 D 22 D 42 A 62 D 82 C 102 A 122 B 142 C
3 D 23 A 43 C 63 B 83 B 103 B 123 C 143 A
4 C 24 C 44 B 64 B 84 B 104 B 124 D 144 D
5 B 25 A 45 A 65 B 85 A 105 D 125 B 145 C
6 B 26 B 46 C 66 C 86 A 106 C 126 C 146 D
7 C 27 C 47 A 67 A 87 C 107 B 127 D 147 C
8 B 28 B 48 A 68 A 88 A 108 A 128 B 148 B
9 D 29 D 49 B 69 B 89 A 109 C 129 B 149 C
10 A 30 B 50 A 70 D 90 D 110 C 130 C 150 C
11 A 31 B 51 C 71 C 91 B 111 D 131 B
12 D 32 C 52 B 72 D 92 A 112 D 132 A
13 A 33 B 53 B 73 B 93 D 113 D 133 A
14 B 34 A 54 D 74 B 94 C 114 C 134 C
15 A 35 B 55 C 75 B 95 B 115 C 135 B
16 B 36 A 56 B 76 D 96 A 116 B 136 C
17 A 37 C 57 C 77 B 97 A 117 B 137 D
18 C 38 A 58 A 78 C 98 C 118 B 138 B
19 D 39 D 59 D 79 B 99 C 119 C 139 C
20 D 40 A 60 B 80 A 100 C 120 A 140 C