REVIEW MATERIAL SET C

PREPARED BY: MYRA ANGELA VICTORIA L. CASTRO RN, RM, MN

TEST I: MULTIPLE CHOICE; ENCIRCLE YOUR ANSWER. ERASURES ARE NOT ALLOWED.

Situation: Mrs. Rio gave birth to a healthy baby boy; weight 2780 lbs., AS of 8’9’. Mr. Rio was there to visit and noticed
that there is scalp edema.
1. He asked you if this is normal, the best response to the father is;
a. Explain that it is just normal due to prolonged pressure at birth and will disappear 2-3 days
b. It is a condition needed to be treated asap
c. Ignore the father
d. Do nothing at all.
2. The collection of fluid in the scalp due to pressure at birth is;
a. Cephalhematoma c. Encephalitis
b. Caput succedaneum d. Cancer
3. You know well that in caput succedaneum fluids accumulates the scalp. What accumulates the scalp in
Cephalhematoma?
a. Protein c. Pus
b. Blood d. Spinal fluids
4. Mrs. Rio noticed a small, round, glistening cysts seen in the palate of her baby during breastfeeding; She asked
you what are these cyst, your response to her is;
a. An infection and is called oral thrush.
b. Is normal to NB and is called Epstein pearls
c. An emergency case and needs referral
d. It is an ulceration due to breast feeding
5. Since this is Mrs. Rio’s first baby, she noticed that her child’s head bones are soft and was nervous that there is
something wrong with her baby’s head; what would be your response to her;
a. Ignore the mother
b. Explain to her that it is normal to first born due to early lightening
c. A disease condition that needs immediate attention
d. Explain to the mother that it is a congenital defect
6. This softening of the cranial bones is known as;
a. Caput succedaneum c. Cephalhematoma
b. Craniotabes d. Molding
7. She then noticed that her baby’s skin is peeling particularly in the palms and sole; You know that this is;
a. Acrocyanosis c. Cutis marmorata
b. Desquamation d. Edema
8. The transitory mottling of the skin when exposed to cold is;
a. Acrocyanosis c. Desquamation
b. Edema d. Cutis marmorata
Situation: Mrs. Reyes asked you about her 2 years old daughter’s condition having severe dyspnea and is only relieved by
squatting; she was new in your barangay. You took the history of her daughter from her health record. Mrs. Reyes
claimed that her daughter was with acute cyanosis at birth.
9. What would be your best response to Mrs. Reyes?
a. Tell her that it is normal for a child to have severe dyspnea when crying
b. Advise her that her baby needs immediate medical attention
c. Ignore the mother and continue with the assessment
d. Tell the mother her baby just have temper tantrums
10. You know well that her daughter’s condition would be manifested by Tet spells; these spells are characterized by;
a. Acute episodes of cyanosis and hypoxia
b. Episodes when O2 demand is greater than supply
c. Chronic apneic episodes
d. Episodes of convulsions
11. Signs and symptoms of this condition includes severe dyspnea relieved by squatting, clubbing of fingers and
nails, Tet and anoxic spells, chest x-ray shows: boot-shaped heart;
a. Patent ductus arteriosus
b. Tetralogy of Fallot
c. Pulmonary stenosis
d. Coarctation of the aorta
12. Christine a 3 year old girl came with her mother to the RHU due to fever unresponsive to antibiotics. She showed
her “strawberry tongue”. Which among the following is her diagnosis?
a. Typhoid fever
b. Malaria
c. Kawasaki fever
d. Hay fever
 13. Among all of URTI, this disease condition is considered as an emergency case in children?
a. Bronchitis
b. Asthma
c. Pneumonia
d. Epiglottitis
14. It is a bacterial form of croup(S. pneumoniea or H. influenza type B), wherein the classic sign is the tripod
position: leaning forward with tongue protrusion;
a. Bronchitis
b. Epiglottitis
c. Asthma
d. Pneumonia
15. Signs and symptoms of this bacterial croup includes; except:
a. Drooling
b. Polyphagia
c. Muffled voice
d. Fever
Situation: You are having a lecture about the care of skin to the mothers in your RHU. You have included burns,
seborrheic dermatitis, atopic dermatitis, impetigo, pediculosis capitis, scabies and acne vulgaris in your topics. The
succeeding questions are based on the focus topic which is the integumentary system of their children/
16. The depth of burns involve the entire epidermis and a portion of dermis characterized by erythema, blisters with
moist exudates which are extremely painful;
a. 1st degree burns
b. 2nd degree burns
c. 3rd degree burns
d. 4th degree burns
17. Depth of burns involves only superficial epidermis characterized by erythema, dryness and pain;
a. 1st degree burns
b. 2nd degree burns
c. 3rd degree burns
d. 4th degree burns
18. Blisters are present in infant’s arm, what would be your advice to the mother if she tells you that she wanted to
prick all of it;
a. Leave the blisters and apply anti-inflammatory ointment as prescribed
b. Prick all and apply penicillin
c. Peel all and apply ice
d. Cover tight gauze
19. A skin condition characterized by scaling, greasy- appearing and salmon colored patches usually seen in the
scalp, behind the ears and umbilicus; this is also called cradle cap;
a. Seborrheic dermatitis
b. Atopic dermatitis
c. Impetigo
d. Pediculosis capitis
20. The best intervention that you can give to the mother’s about scaling of their scalps are; except;
a. Apply alcohol and scrape scales every night
b. Apply betadine to affected site
c. Apply coconut or baby oil the night before shampoo
d. Apply lotion and comb hair/scalp twice a day
21. Is a skin condition caused by food allergens, characterized by papulovesicular erythematous lesions with
weeping and crusting;
a. Atopic dermatitis
b. Pediculosis capitis
c. Mottling
d. Scabies
22. In the intervention of the abovementioned skin condition, what food should be avoided ;Except;
a. Eggs
b. Milk
c. Citrus fruits
d. Green leafy vegetables
23. A highly infectious skin condition of which it predisposed from heavy infestation of pediculosis capitis;
characterized by purulent, oozing honey colored crust and papulovesicular lesions mainly in the face, mouth,
hand s and neck;
a. Seborrheic dermatitis
b. Impetigo
c. Scabies
 d. Atopic dermatitis
24. Characterized by intense pruritus, an infestation of the hair and scalp with lice;
a. Pediculosis capitis
b. Scabies
c. Atopic dermatitis
d. Impetigo
25. Characterized by intense pruritus especially at night, positive burrows fine grayish red lines on the skin;
a. Impetigo
b. Scabies
c. Seborrheic dermatitis
d. Pediculosis capitis
26. The above mentioned infestation is caused by a;
a. Virus
b. Mouse
c. Mites
d. Cockroach
27. This infestation of the skin is contagious during its course via;
a. Droplet spray
b. Direct contact
c. Oral-fecal contamination
d. Indirect contact
28. A hematologic condition wherein the NB has jaundice on the 2 nd day of life, you are asked by the mother if this
normal, what would be your best response as a health care provider;
a. Explain to the mother that this is a condition called pathologic jaundice and it is not normal.
b. Explain to the mother that this condition is called physiologic jaundice and need not to be worried
c. Explain to the mother that this needs immediate care from a tertiary hospital
d. Ignore the mother
29. In connection to the query of the mother, what would you advice;
a. Since it is pathologic in nature, exposure to early morning sunlight for the baby would help.
b. Since it is physiologic in nature, exposure to early morning sunlight for the baby would help.
c. The baby needs intensive care
d. The baby must be placed under phototherapy
30. What causes jaundice in breastfeeding infants?
a. Progesterone
b. Pregnanediol
c. Protein
d. Prostaglandin
31. Jaundice that starts on the 2nd-7th day of life but disappears for 48-72 hours;
a. Pathologic
b. Physiologic
c. Biologic
d. Pathophysiologic
32. Onset of jaundice is within 24 hours and stays for more than 1-2 weeks
a. Physiologic
b. Pathophysiologic
c. Biologic
d. Pathologic
33. Normal indirect bilirubin for infants;
a. 0-3 mg/dl
b. 5-13 mg/dl
c. 15-19mg/dl
d. 20-25mg/dl
34. Baby boy Julio is for phototherapy, you expect that the florescent lights should be how far from the baby;
a. 10-12 cm away
b. 18-20 inches away
c. 3-5 inches away
d. 1.5 m away
35. All are interventions for phototherapy; except;
a. Cover genitals to prevent priapism
b. Change position every 2 hours for even exposure
c. Apply lotion or oil to skin to prevent burns
d. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration
36. A decrease in iron stores needed for hemoglobin production, this hemolytic disorder is;
a. Hemophilia
 b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. Leukemia
d. Rh incompatibility
37. You are asked by the mother on what foods to give to her 2 years old son that increases iron. All are iron rich
food except;
a. Liver
b. Cereals
c. Dark green leafy vegetables
d. Margarine/butter
38. Iron supplements are best taken with what vitamin to increase absorption;
a. Vitamin D
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin A
39. What decrease iron absorption in the body;
a. Vitamin A
b. Milk and antacids
c. Citrus juice or vitamin C
d. Antibiotics
40. Mrs. Cruz is worried about her 6 year old son and into sports .she was asking you about hemophilia, her son was
a hemophiliac type A, deficient in clotting factor VIII, as a midwife what would you advice in order to ease Mrs.
Cruz worries; Except;
a. Bleeding precautions should be closely watched
b. Avoidance of contact sports
c. If anticipated wear protective devices
d. He can do all sports except swimming
41. Hemolytic malignant disease wherein there is rapid increase of immature WBC, competes nutrition with mature
WBC and production of RBC and platelets;
a. Leukemia
b. Hemophilia
c. Anemia
d. Rh incompatibility
42. Hematologic condition affecting the baby wherein intrauterine growth retardation is due to hemolysis; this
condition is called;
a. Leukemia
b. Hemophilia
c. Anemia
d. Erythroblastosis Fetalis
43. The mother is Rh negative, father and baby Rh positive. You know very well that this hematologic condition is
called;
a. Leukemia
b. Hemophilia
c. Anemia
d. Rh incompatibility
44. Diagnostic test is given to the mother with Rh negative, you know well that this test is called;
a. Direct Coomb’s test
b. Indirect Coomb’s test
c. Bilirubin test
d. Glucose test
45. And the diagnostic test given to babies who are Rh negative is;
a. Direct Coomb’s test
b. Indirect Coomb’s test
c. Bilirubin test
d. Glucose test
46. This preventive vaccine is given to the mother with Rh negative result and not given to the baby; given at 28
weeks AOG and within 72 hours post-delivery to destroy fetal Rh positive RBC and prevent sensitization;
a. Rhogam
b. Coomb’s
c. Tetanus toxoid
d. Oxytocin
47. Incompatibility of mother’s blood type and her baby; is called;
a. Leukemia
b. Hemophilia
c. ABO incompatibility
 d. Rh incompatibility
48. Having a blood type incompatibility may affect the 1 st baby of which it is characterized by edematous, lethal state
with pathologic jaundice, this condition is called;
a. Hydrops Fetalis
b. Erythroblastosis Fetalis
c. Macrosomic
d. Dwarfism
49. No Breastfeeding to this incompatibility because of this substance that delays action of Glucoronyl transferase
(liver enzyme that converts indirect to direct bilirubin) otherwise Kernicterus develops;
a. Prolactin
b. Pregnanediol
c. Progesterone
d. Probiotics
50. You know very well what kernicterus means;
a. Brain coagulation
b. Irreversible brain damage
c. Brain tumor
d. Psychosis
51. Normal blood glucose of a day old infant is;
a. 40-60 mg/dl
b. 60-75 mg/dl
c. 15 -25 mg/dl
d. 0-15 mg/dl
52. The infant’s blood glucose is lower than 30mg/dl in his 1 st 72 hours of life; this is indicative that the baby is in a
condition called;
a. Hyperbilirubinemia
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Hyperproteinemia
d. Polycythemia
53. Which blood type incompatibility can severely affect the baby;
a. Type O and A
b. Type B and B
c. Type O and AB
d. Type O and B
54. Mrs. Liza came in to the RHU bringing her 8 month old son, you have noticed that head of the baby is too large
compared to his body structure; the mother reported that her baby’s level of consciousness is decreased,
diplopia and scalp veins are dilated; you know very much that the baby is suffering from;
a. Spina bifida
b. Hydrocephalus
c. Hydrops Fetalis
d. Erythroblastosis Fetalis
55. A CNS defect as a result of neural tube defect during the embryonic development;
a. Spina bifida
b. Hydrocephalus
c. Hydrops Fetalis
d. Erythroblastosis Fetalis
56. A type of neural defect wherein there is no herniation of meninges is;
a. Occulta
b. Cystica
c. Fetalis
d. None of the above
57. There is herniation in this type of neural defect;
a. Occulta
b. Cystica
c. Fetalis
d. None of the above
58. Herniation of the meninges that contains CSF but no CNS tissues; is known as;
a. Myelination
b. Meningocele
c. Myelomeningocele
d. Cerebellum
59. Herniation of meninges containing both CSF and CNS tissue;
a. Myelination
b. Meningocele
 c. Myelomeningocele
d. Cerebellum
60. Best position for a baby with Spina bifida in sleeping;
a. Supine
b. High fowlers
c. Trendelenburg
d. Prone
61. Milwaukee brace is worn by children with humps and lateral curvature of the spine; you know well that the child
is suffering from what musculoskeletal disorder;
a. Scoliosis
b. Talipes
c. Brachial palsy
d. Fracture
62. Absence or asymmetric moro reflex is noticed by you during the assessment of the baby born in breech
presentation; injury is due to excessive lateral traction of the arm; you know that this brachial palsy; the other
term of this disorder is called;
a. Erb Duchenne’s paralysis
b. Scoliosis
c. Talipes
d. Fracture
63. Condition in which the head of the femur is improperly seated at the acetabulum or sockets of the pelvis is
known as;
a. Scoliosis
b. Talipes
c. Congenital Hip Dysplasia
d. Fracture
64. You notified Mrs. Jung about her baby’s condition wherein the left foot of her child turns in while the right foot
turns out; this is a condition called;
a. Scoliosis
b. Talipes
c. Brachial palsy
d. Fracture
65. Foot turning inside is called;
a. Calcaneous
b. Varus
c. Valgus
d. Equinox
66. Foot turning outward is understood as;
a. Calcaneous
b. Varus
c. Valgus
d. Equinox
67. Plantar flexion or horse-foot is indicative that the baby has;
a. Calcaneous
b. Varus
c. Valgus
d. Equinox
68. While a baby having a plantar dorsiflexion is known as;
a. Calcaneous
b. Varus
c. Valgus
d. Equinox
69. Mrs. Olvido rushed her 7 year old son to the RHU; she reported that her son was pushed to the ground by a
classmate and there is severe pain of the left arm, wherein the bones are obviously protruding out of the arm;
you suspect that the child has;
a. Scoliosis
b. Talipes
c. Brachial palsy
d. Fracture
70. Your priority for neurovascular check are; except;
a. Circulation
b. Respiration
c. Motion
d. Sensation
71. Which signs and symptoms of circulatory impairment that must be referred immediately;
a. Coldness
b. Tingling sensation
c. Edema
d. Pain on casted extremity
72. A mechanism to reduce dislocation and immobilize fracture;
a. Crutches
b. Traction
c. Wheelchair
d. Braces
73. All are crutch gaits; except;
a. Swing through and swing to
b. 3 point gait
c. 3 point gait and 4 point gait
d. Swing side to left and right gait
74. A traction that exerts straight pull on the affected extremity and has a horizontal weight is a;
a. Bucks extension
b. Russell traction
c. Bryant’s traction
d. Skin traction
75. A traction wherein the knee is suspended in a sling attached to a rope and pulley on a Balkan frame is a;
a. Bucks extension
b. Russell traction
c. Bryant’s traction
d. Skin traction
76. Both legs are raised 90 degrees angle to the bed, what traction is being used;
a. Bucks extension
b. Russell traction
c. Bryant’s traction
d. Skin traction
77. What test is given for blindness of infants and children;
a. Doll’s test
b. Glabellars
c. Myerson’s
d. All of the above
78. Low set ears may indicate that the infant has;
a. Kidney malformation
b. Chromosomal aberration
c. Both
d. None of the above
79. Most children are prone to otitis media, an infection of the;
a. Mouth
b. Middle ear
c. Epiglottis
d. Tongue
80. The mother of a 2 year old baby boy asked you what are the predisposing factors of otitis media; all are best
answers; except;
a. Short, wide , straight and narrow Eustachian tube
b. Bottle propping
c. Cleft lip and palate
d. Cleaning of the ears thoroughly
81. In assessing the newborn you distinctly noticed that the baby has low set ears, protruding tongue, simean
creases and puppy neck. You suspect that the child has a developmental defect known as;
a. Down’s syndrome
b. Polydactyl
c. Edward’s syndrome
d. Anencephaly
82. All are true about supplemental feeding except;
a. Solid foods are offered In the following sequence; cereal, fruits, vegetable, meat
b. Begins with small amounts
c. Offer food one at a time with the interval of 4- 7 days before introducing another food
d. Offer foods like half cooked eggs and honey by 6 months
83. Giving honey to babies before a year of age can cause;
a. Botulism
 b. Allergy
c. Salmonellosis
d. Shingles
84. Half cooked eggs given to babies at any age can cause;
a. Botulism
b. Allergy
c. Salmonellosis
d. Shingles
85. Absence in the connection between esophagus and stomach is condition called;
a. Tracheoesophageal fistula
b. Tonsillitis
c. Adenoiditis
d. Hydrops
86. The 4 C’s as signs and symptoms of the abovementioned gastrointestinal disorder;
1. Coughing
2. Choking
3. Cyanosis
4. Continuous drooling
5. Crusting

a. 1, 2, 3, 5
b. 2, 3, 4, 5
c. Except 4
d. Except 5
87. Causative agent of the infant’s oral thrush or moniliasis;
a. Herpes simplex
b. Candida Albicans
c. Shingles
d. Herpes zoster
88. The drug of choice for oral thrush is;
a. Penicillin
b. Nystatin
c. Cotrimoxazole
d. amoxicillin
89. A condition which is characterized by failure of passage of meconium within 24 hours, distended abdomen and
fecal-odor breath vomitus;
a. Hirschsprung’s disease
b. Tracheoesophageal fistula
c. Tonsillitis
d. Adenoiditis
90. Hypertrophy of the circular muscles of the pylorus causing narrowing and obstruction, characterized by projectile
vomiting after feeding
a. Appendicitis
b. Intussusception
c. GERD
d. Imperforate anus
91. Telescoping and invagination of one part of the bowel to another portion, and is characterized by currant-jelly
stools due to inflammation and bleeding, a sausage shaped mass at RUQ can be palpable; This condition is
called;
a. Appendicitis
b. Intussusception
c. GERD
d. Imperforate anus
92. Congenital disorder of which there is an incomplete or absence of the opening in the perineum is called;
a. Appendicitis
b. Intussusception
c. GERD
d. Imperforate anus
93. The most dangerous of this type of the above mentioned congenital disorder is;
a. Atresia
b. Agenesis
c. Stenosis
d. Membranous
94. A procedure done to NBs to detect 5 metabolic disorders that can cause mental retardation and even death if
detected late;
a. Apgar
b. Snellen
c. Bishop
d. NB screening
95. A result of absence of thyroid hormone that is essential for growth and development;
a. Congenital hypothyroidism
b. Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
c. G6PD
d. Phenylketonuria
96. Endocrine disorder that causes fluid and electrolyte imbalance and dehydration to infants of which death occurs
7-14 days after birth;
a. Congenital hypothyroidism
b. Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
c. G6PD
d. Phenylketonuria
97. The absence of these enzymes will lead to hemolytic anemia resulting from exposure to certain drugs, foods and
chemicals;
a. Congenital hypothyroidism
b. Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
c. G6PD
d. Phenylketonuria
98. All foods that are avoided for the child having the absence of the abovementioned condition; except;
a. Milk
b. Meat
c. Legumes
d. Banana
99. An inborn error of carbohydrate metabolism of which it damages the ,liver, spleen, brain and eyes (cataract) is
known as;
a. Galactosemia
b. Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
c. G6PD
d. Phenylketonuria
100. Inborn error of protein metabolism an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by fair skin, blue eyes,
hyperactivity, seizure and mental retardation;
a. Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
b. G6PD
c. Phenylketonuria
d. Galactosemia