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Fiitjee: Jee Main Test Series (2018-19)
Fiitjee: Jee Main Test Series (2018-19)
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
BATCHES – 1819 (MAINS)
You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point
Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test
Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4
(four) marks for correct response.
6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No.5 for correct response of
each question. ¼ (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each
question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item
in the answer sheet.
7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any
question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted
accordingly as per instruction 6 above.
8. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on Side-1 and
Side-2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
9. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager,
mobile phone, any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall /
room.
10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on
duty in the Room / Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test
Booklet with them.
11. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
FIITJEE Ltd., Plot No. 47, Sector – 12B, Opposite Bal Bhawan International School, Dwarka, New Delhi – 110 075,
Ph. : 011-28035963/64/65 website : www.fiitjee.com
JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_2
PART – I : PHYSICS
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. If radius of the sphere is (5.3 0.1) cm. Then percentage error in its volume will be
100 1 100
(a) 3 6.01 (b) 0.01
5.3 3 5.3
3 0.1 0.1
(c) 100 (d) 100
5.3 5.3
2. While measuring the acceleration due to gravity by a simple pendulum, a student makes a
positive error of 1% in the length of the pendulum and a negative error of 3% in the value of time
period. His percentage error in the measurement of g by the relation g 4 2 l / T 2 will be
(a) 2% (b) 4%
(c) 7% (d) 10%
3. Consider an initially pure M gm sample of AX, an isotope that has a half life of T hour, what is it’s
initial decay rate (NA= Avogrado No.)
M NA 0.693M N A
(a) (b)
T T
0.693M N A 2.303M N A
(c) (d)
AT AT
Rough work
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JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_3
7. The time period of rotation of the sun is 25 days and its radius is 7 108 m . The Doppler shift for
the light of wavelength 6000 Å emitted from the surface of the sun will be
(a) 0.04 Å (b) 0.40 Å
(c) 4.00 Å (d) 40.0 Å
10. Two coherent sources separated by distance d are radiating in phase having
wavelength l. A detector moves in a big circle around the two sources in the
plane of the two sources. The angular position of n = 4 interference maxima
d
is given as
1 nl 1 4l
S1 S2
(a) sin (b) cos
d d
1 d 1 l
(c) tan (d) cos
4l 4d
Rough work
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JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_4
11. Among the two interfering monochromatic sources A and B; A is ahead of B in phase by 66°. If
the observation be taken from point P, such that PB – PA = l/4. Then the phase difference
between the waves from A and B reaching P is
(a) 156° (b) 140°
(c) 136° (d) 126°
12. In a YDSE bi-chromatic light of wavelengths 400 nm and 560 nm are used. The distance between
the slits is 0.1 mm and the distance between the plane of the slits and the screen is 1m. The
minimum distance between two successive regions of complete darkness is
(a) 4 mm (b) 5.6 mm
(c) 14 mm (d) 28 mm
13. Two plane mirrors. A and B are aligned parallel to each other, as
2 3m
shown in the figure. A light ray is incident at an angle of 30 at a
B
point just inside one end of A. The plane of incidence coincides
with the plane of the figure. The maximum number of times the ray 0.2m
30o
undergoes reflections (including the first one) before it emerges
out is A
(a) 28 (b) 30
(c) 32 (d) 34
14. A glass hemisphere of radius 0.04 m and R.I. of the material 1.6 is placed centrally over a cross
mark on a paper (i) with the flat face; (ii) with the curved face in contact with the paper. In each
case the cross mark is viewed directly from above. The position of the images will be
(a) (i) 0.04 m from the flat face; (ii) 0.025 m from the flat face
(b) (i) At the same position of the cross mark; (ii) 0.025 m below the flat face
(c) (i) 0.025 m from the flat face; (ii) 0.04 m from the flat face
(d) For both (i) and (ii) 0.025 m from the highest point of the hemisphere
15. A rectangular glass slab ABCD, of refractive index n1, is immersed in water of refractive index n2
(n1>n2). A ray of light in incident at the surface AB of the slab as shown. The maximum value of
the angle of incidence amax, such that the ray comes out only from the other surface CD is given
by
A D
amax n1 n2
B C
1
n1 n 1
(a) sin cos sin1 2 (b) sin1 n1 cos sin1
n2 n1 n2
1 n 1 n
(c) sin
1
(d) sin
2
n n
2 1
Rough work
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JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_5
16. An achromatic prism is made by crown glass prism (Ac 19o ) and flint glass prism (AF 6o )
. If C mv 1.5 and F
mv 1.66 , then resultant deviation for red coloured ray will be
(a) 1.04° (b) 5°
(c) 0.96° (d) 13.5°
17. A light source is located at P1 as shown in the figure. All sides of the polygon P1
18. A plane mirror is placed at the bottom of the tank containing a liquid of O
refractive index m . P is a small object at a height h above the mirror. An
observer O-vertically above P outside the liquid see P and its image in the
mirror. The apparent distance between these two will be P
h
2h
(a) 2mh (b)
m
2h 1
(c) (d) h 1
m 1 m
19. A beaker containing liquid is placed on a table, underneath a microscope which can be moved
along a vertical scale. The microscope is focussed, through the liquid onto a mark on the table
when the reading on the scale is a. It is next focussed on the upper surface of the liquid and the
reading is b. More liquid is added and the observations are repeated, the corresponding readings
are c and d. The refractive index of the liquid is
db b d
(a) (b)
d c b a d c b a
d c b a db
(c) (d)
db a b c d
Rough work
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h
M
JEE MAIN TEST
P SERIES_2018-2019_6
A
21. If n1, n2, n3......... are the frequencies of segments of a stretched string, the frequency n of
the string is given by
(a) n n1 n2 n3 ....... (b) n n1 n2 n3 .......
1 1 1 1
(c) ..... (d) None of these
n n1 n2 n3
3
23. A pipe open at both ends produces a note of frequency f1. When the pipe is kept with th of its
4
f1
length it water, it produced a note of frequency f2. The ratio is
f2
3 4
(a) (b)
4 3
1
(c) (d) 2
2
Mh MA
(a) T 2 (b) T 2 P A
PA Ph
M
(c) T 2 (d) T 2 MPhA
PAh
25. A particle is performing simple harmonic motion along x-axis with amplitude 4 cm and time period
1.2 sec. The minimum time taken by the particle to move from x =2 cm to x = + 4 cm and back
again is given by
(a) 0.6 sec (b) 0.4 sec
(c) 0.3 sec (d) 0.2 sec
Rough work
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JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_7
26. One end of a long metallic wire of length L is tied to the ceiling. The other end is tied to massless
spring of spring constant K. A mass m hangs freely from the free end of the spring. The area of
cross-section and Young's modulus of the wire are A and Y respectively. If the mass is slightly
pulled down and released, it will oscillate with a time period T equal to
1/ 2
m (YA KL )m
(a) 2 (b) 2
K YAK
mYA mL
(c) 2 (d) 2
KL YA
27. Two identical balls A and B each of mass 0.1 kg are attached to two
identical massless springs. The spring mass system is constrained to
move inside a rigid smooth pipe bent in the form of a circle as shown
in the figure. The pipe is fixed in a horizontal plane. The centres of the /6 /6
balls can move in a circle of radius 0.06 m. Each spring has a natural
length of 0.06 m and force constant 0.1N/m. Initially both the balls are
displaced by an angle q / 6 radian with respect to the diameter
PQ of the circle and released from rest. The frequency of oscillation
of the ball B is
1
(a) Hz (b) Hz
1
(c) 2 Hz (d) Hz
2
28. On all the six surfaces of a unit cube, equal tensile force of F is applied. The increase in length of
each side will be (Y = Young's modulus, = Poission's ratio)
F F
(a) (b)
Y (1 ) Y (1 )
F (1 2 ) F
(c) (d)
Y Y (1 2 )
29. One end of a uniform wire of length L and of weight W is attached rigidly to a point in the roof and
a weight W1 is suspended from its lower end. If S is the area of cross-section of the wire, the
stress in the wire at a height 3L/4 from its lower end is
W1 W1 (W / 4)
(a) (b)
S S
W1 (3W / 4) W1 W
(c) (d)
S S
30. A particle of mass m is under the influence of a force F which varies with the displacement x
according to the relation F kx F0 in which k and F0 are constants. The particle when
disturbed will oscillate
(a) about x 0, withw k / m (b) about x 0, withw k / m
(c) about x F0 / k withw k/m (d) about x F0/k withw k/m
Rough work
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JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_8
PART – II : CHEMISTRY
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. If equivalent conductance at infinite dilution for Barium oxalate, Barium chloride and HCl are
1 1
80.75, 136.1 and 212.25 W cm equiv then �m for oxalic acid must be
2 �
2. The quantity of electricity that will be required to liberate 355 g of Cl 2 by the electrolysis of a
concentrated solution of NaCl is
5 6
(A) 4.83 �10 coulombs (B) 9.65 �10 coulombs
4 5
(C) 9.65 �10 coulombs (D) 9.65 �10 coulombs
3. In a solid AB2 co-ordination number of atom A is 8. It has a cubic close packed lattice. Half of the
B atoms are however ejected from the solid. Now, the number of tetrahedral holes (voids) that
remain filled are equal to
(A) 2A atoms (B) 4A atoms
(C) 9A atoms (D) A atoms
6. Iodex is
(A) Methyl salicylate (B) Salicylic Acid
(C) Phenyl salicylate (D) P-ethoxy acetanilide
Rough work
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JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_9
r r
(A) (B)
c
Dec in conc. c
(C) (D)
r
r
2
9. Cu NH3 4 �
Hybridisation state of Cu in �
� � ion
3 2
(A) sp (B) sp d
2 3 3
(C) d sp (D) sp d
10. Suppose the gasoline behaves like a mixture of 70% iso-octane and 30% n-heptane. Its octane
number would be
(A) 70 (B) 30
(C) 40 (D) 100
11. Which of the following electrolyte will be most effective in the coagulation of gold solution?
(A) NaNO3 (B) K 4Fe CN 6
(C) Na3PO 4 (D) MgCl2
Rough work
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JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_10
14. A metal has simple cubic structure. At a certain temperature, metal arranges to give body
centered structure. In this change, density of metal
(A) Decreases (B) Increases
(C) Remains unchanged (D) Changes without any definite pattern
X
silver chromate VI Cr 3 aq
Zn s H aq
Cr 2 aq
Which of the following is incorrect? [Atomic Mass of Zinc = 65.4]
(A) Silver chromate (VI) has the formula Ag2CrO 4
(B) the minimum mass of zinc required to reduce 0.100 mole of Cr 3 to Cr 2 is 6.54 gm
2 2
(C) the conversion of CrO 4 into Cr2 O7 is not a redox reaction
2 2
(D) the equation Cr2O7 14H 6Fe �� � 6Fe3 2Cr 3 7H2O correctly describes the
2
reduction of Cr2 O7 by acidified FeSO4
Rough work
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JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_11
17. If p0 and p are the vapour pressure of a solvent and its solution respectively and N1 and N2 are
the mole fractions of the solvent and non volatile solute respectively, then correct relation is
(A) p p0N2 (B) p p0N1
(C) p0 pN1 (D) p p0 N1 N2
18. FeSO4 on reaction with KCN excess it form complex that complex is
(A) K 4 �
�Fe CN 6 �
� (B) K 3 �
�Fe CN 6 �
�
4 � 6� 3 � 6�
(C) Fe �
Fe CN � (D) Fe �
Fe CN �
3 2
19. Compound PdCl4 �6H2O is hydrated complex, 1 molal aqueous solution of it has
freezing point 269.28 K. Assuming 100% ionization of the complex, the correct formula
of complex is (given k f of water = 1.86 K kg/mol)
Pd H2O 3 Cl3 �
(A) �
� Cl.3H2O
� Pd H2O 3 Cl�
(B) �
� �Cl3 .3H2O
Pd H2O 6 �
(C) �
� �Cl4 Pd H2O 3 Cl2 �
(D) �
� Cl2 .3H2O
�
20. Salt A on reaction with alkali gives gas (B) which on reaction with nesslers reagents in alkaline
medium gives brown ppt the brown ppt is
Fe OH 3 K [ HgI4 ]
(A) (B) 2
NH2
Hg
O
Hg
(C) I (D) HgI2
Consider equimolal aqueous solutions of NaHSO 4 and NaCl and DTb and DTb as their
'
21.
DTb
respective boiling point elevations. The value of mlim
�0 D '
will be
b
2
(A) 1 (B) 1.5 (C) 3.5 (D)
3
Rough work
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JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_12
22. Salt A give nitrate test. On reaction with hypo, it gives white ppt (B) which on exposure converts
Black (D). The (B) white precepetate on addition of excess of hypo gives soluble complex (C)
which on decomposition gives Black ppt (D). What are A, B, C, D
(A) AgNO3 , Ag2S 2O3 ,Na3 ��Ag S 2O3 2 �
, Ag2S
�
(B) Hg NO3 2 , Hg2S2O3 ,Na3 �
Hg S2O3 2 �
� ,HgS
�
(C) Cu NO3 2 , Cu2S2O3 ,Na 4 �
Cu6 S2O3 5 �
� ,CuS
�
(D) All the above
23. For 1 M solution of HA, the dissociation constant K a in terms of vant Hoff factor (i) can be written
as
i 1
2
i
(A)
i 1
(B)
i 1
2 2
(C) (D)
i 1 2 i
2
i i
DH DH 2187kJmol
IE1 IE2
1
Rough work
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JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_13
27. Which of the following is true about the complex � � ; [ Atomic no. of Pt 78 ]
PtCl2 NH3 OH2 �
�
(A) It will have two geometrical isomeric forms, cis and trans
(B) It is a square planar complex
(C) It can show hydrate isomerism
(D) It is a diamagnetic complex
28. Fe CN 6 �
Fe 3M reaction with excess K 4 �
� �gives__________colour ppt.
(A) White (B) Blue
(C) Brown (D) Bluish white
30. Given the following data about the absorption maxima of several complex, ions, what is the order
of D 0 for these ions?
Compound lmax
[ CrCl6 ]
3
758
3
�
� Cr NH3 6 �
� 465
3
Cr H2O 6 �
�
� � 694
3 3
(A) D 0 [ CrCl6 ] Cr NH3 6 � Cr H2O 6 �
3
< D0 �
� � < D0 �
� �
3 3
Cr NH3 6 � � < D0 [ CrCl6 ]
Cr H2O 6 �
3
(B) D 0 �
� � < D0 �
�
3 3
(C) D 0 [ CrCl6 ] Cr H2O 6 � Cr NH3 6 �
3
< D0 �
� � < D0 �
� �
3 3
Cr H2O 6 � � < D 0 [ CrCl6 ]
Cr NH3 6 �
3
(D) D 0 �
� � < D0 �
�
Rough work
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JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_14
a �2
(A) 10 (B) 12
(C) 14 (D) 20
2. Number of solutions of the equation tan x sec x 2cos x lying in the interval [0, 2] is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3
3. If the standard deviation of x1,x 2 ,........x n is 3.5, then the standard deviation of 2x1 3, 2x 2
3,....., 2x n 3 is
(A) -7 (B) -4
(C) 7 (D) 1.75
4. Using all of 0, 0, 0, 1, 1, 1, -1, -1, -1 if set of all 3 �3 matrices formed is S, and if number of
symmetric matrices in S is K and if number of matrices having trace zero in S is P then
(A) 9P 140K (B) P 8K
(C) P 12K (D) P 140K
5. The plane 2x y 3z 5 0 is rotated through 90o about its lines of intersection with the plane
5x 4y 2z 1 0. The equation of the plane in the new position is
(A) 6x 9y 29z 31 0 (B) 27x 24y 26z 13 0
(C) 43x 32y 2z 27 0 (D) 46x 43y 151z 165 0
The value of ‘a’ for which x ax sin x 4x 5 cos x 4x 5 0 has at least one
2 1 2 1 2
6.
solution is
(A) -2 (B) 2
(C) (D) 2
4 4
Rough work
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JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_15
10
�r �
9. The value of �cos
r 0
3
�3 �is equal to
� �
1 3
(A) (B)
8 8
1 3
(C) (D)
8 8
11. In triangle ABC, �A 30o , H is the orthocentre and D is the midpoint of BC. Segment HD is
AT
produced to T such that HD = DT then the value of is
BC
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
r r rr r r r r r r r rr rr
12. Let u i j,v i j and w i 2 j 3k . If n is a unit vector such that u.n 0 and v.n 0, then
r r r2 r2
2 w.n u v ?
(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 10 (D) 8
Rough work
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JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_16
13. Let L1 and L2 are two lines whose vector equations are
r r r r
L1 : r t1 ��cos q 3 �
�i 2 sin q j cos q 3 k
r r r r
L 2 : r t 2 a i b j ck , where t1 and t2 are scalars and a is the acute angle between L1 and L2. If
the angle ‘a’ is independent of q then the value of 2cos 2a is:
(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 0
14. The value of k for which straight line 3x 2y z 3 0 4x 3y 4z 1 is parallel to the plane
2x y kz 2 0 is
(A) 2 (B) 8
(C) -2 (D) -18
3 5 7 9 11 13
15. sin sin sin sin sin sin sin equals
14 14 14 14 14 14 14
1 1
(A) (B)
16 32
1 1
(C) (D)
64 128
BA BA
16. cos A mcosB then tan tan equals
2 2
m 1 m 1
(A) (B)
m 1 m 1
1 m
(C) (D) None of these
1 m
17. Smallest positive number ‘p’ for which cos(p sin x) sin(pcosx) has a solution for x �[2,2] and
corresponding smallest positive value of x is
(A) , (B) ,
2 4 2 4
7
(C) , (D) ,
2 2 4 2 2 4
3
18. If cos A cosB cosC in a triangle ABC then the triangle will be
2
(A) isosceles right angled (B) right angled
(C) Scalene (D) equilateral
Rough work
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JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_17
19. The number of integral values of a for which the equation cos2X a sin X 2a 7 possesses
solutions is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
20. If a and b are the solutions of sin2 X a sin X b 0 as well as that of cos2 X c cos x d 0,
then sin(a b is equal to
2bd a2 c 2
(A) (B)
b d2
2
2ac
b2 d2 2ac
(C) (D) 2
2bd a c2
21. If u a2 cos2 q b2 sin2 q a2 sin2 q b 2 cos2 q then which of the following is/are true
a b
2
(I) umax a b
2 2 2 2
(II) umin
(III) umax umin 2 a b
2 2 2 2
23. exp � �
�sin x sin x ........to inf inity ln 2 �Satisfy the equation y 9y 8 0 then the value of
2 4 2
cos x � �
for x ��0, �is
cos x sin x � 2�
3 1
(A) 1 only (B)
2
3 1
(C) 1 or (D) none of these
2
Rough work
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JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_18
1
24. The number of solutions of the equation cos X cot X (0 �X �2) is
sin X
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3
25. The number of solutions of the sin3 Xcos X sin2 Xcos2 X sin Xcos3 X 1 in the interval [0, 2]
is
(A) 0 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) infinite
26. Let A, B, C, D be (not necessarily square) real matrices such that A T BCD; BT CDA;
CT DAB and DT = ABC for the matrix S = ABCD, consider the two statements.
I. S3 S
II. S2 S 4
(A) II is true but not I (B) I is true but not II
(C) both I and II and true (D) both I and II are false
27. Number of triplets of a, b & c for which the system of equations, ax by 2a b and
(c 1)x cy 10 a 3b has infinitely many solutions and x = 1, y = 3 is one of the solutions, is:
(A) exactly one (B) exactly two
(C) exactly three (D) infinitely many
1 x2 y2 z2
� 2(xy z) 2(zx y) �
� �
Let A � 2(xy z) 1 y z x 2(yz x) �then det. A is equal to
2 2 2
28.
� 2(zx y) 2(yz x) 1 z2 x 2 y 2 �
� �
(A) (1 xy yz zx) (B) (1 x y z )
3 2 2 2 3
29. The sum of 100 observations and the sum of their squares are 400 and 5475, respectively. Later
on, three observations, 3, 4 and 5, were found to be incorrect. If the incorrect observations
omitted, then the variance of the remaining observation is:
(A) 8.25 (B) 8.50
(C) 8.00 (D) 9.00
Rough work
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JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_19
ANSWERS KEY
PART – I
PHYSICS
1. C 9. D 17. A 25. B
2. C 10. B 18. B 26. B
3. C 11. A 19. A 27. B
4. C 12. D 20. B 28. C
5. D 13. B 21. C 29. C
6. D 14. B 22. B 30. C
7. A 15. A 23. C
8. A 16. D 24. A
PART – II
CHEMISTRY
1. D 9. B 17. B 24. B
2. D 10. A 18. A 25. C
3. D 11. D 19. A 26. B
4. B 12. B 20. C 27. C
5. D 13. A 21. B 28. C
6. A 14. B 22. A 29. D
7. A 15. C 23. D 30. C
8. A 16. B
PART – III
MATHEMATICS
1. B 9. C 17. C 25. A
2. C 10. D 18. D 26. C
3. C 11. B 19. D 27. B
4. D 12. C 20. D 28. B
5. B 13. A 21. A 29. D
6. D 14. C 22. C 30. A
7. D 15. C 23. B
8. B 16. A 24. B
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A A¢ 3I /64
3I /4 3I /16
I2
1 9 1
I max I1 16 49
By using 1
I min I2 9
1 1
I1 16
6. (d)
Since P is ahead of Q by 90o and path difference between P and Q is l / 4. Therefore at A,
phase difference is zero, so intensity is 4I. At C it is zero and at B, the phase difference is 90 o, so
intensity is 2I.
7. (a)
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v
Dl l and v rw
c
2
v 7 108 , c 3 108 m/ s
25 24 3600
\ Dl 0.04Å
8. (a)
These waves are of same frequencies and they are coherent
9. (d)
If d sinq (m 1)t, central fringe is obtained at O
If d sinq (m 1)t, central fringe is obtained above O and
If d sinq < (m 1)t, central fringe is obtained below O.
10. (b)
Here path difference at a point P on the circle is given by P
Dx d cosq ….. (i)
For maxima at P q
Dx nl ….. (ii) S1 d S2
From equation (i) and (ii)
nl 1 4l
nl d cosq q cos1 cos
d d
11. (a)
Total phase difference
= Initial phase difference + Phase difference due to path
360 360 l
66 Dx 66 66 90 156
l l 4
12. (d)
Let nth minima of 400 nm coincides with mth minima of 560 nm then
2n 1 7 14 21
(2n 1)400 (2m 1)560
2m 1 5 10 15
i.e. 4th minima of 400 nm coincides with 3rd minima of 560 nm.
The location of this minima is
7(1000)(400 106 )
14mm
2 0.1
Next, 11th minima of 400 nm will coincide with 8th minima of 560 nm
Location of this minima is
21(1000)(400 106 )
42mm
2 0.1
\ Required distance = 28 mm
13. (b)
From the following ray diagram
l 2 3m
d
B
A
0.2 l 2 3
d 0.2 tan30 30
3 d 0.2 / 3
Therefore maximum number of reflections are 30.
14. (b)
Case (i) When flat face is in contact with paper.
0.04 m
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m 2 m1 m 2 m1
where
v u R
m 2 = R. I. of medium in which light rays are going = 1
m 1 = R. I. of medium from which light rays are coming = 1.6
u = distance of object from curved surface = – 0.04 m
R = – 0.04 m.
1 1.6 1 1.6
\ v 0.04m
v (0.04) (0.04)
i.e. the image will be formed at the same position of cross.
Case (ii) When curved face is in contact with paper
0.04 m
Real depth(h)
m
Apparentdepth(h¢)
0.04
1.6 h¢ 0.025m (Below the flat face)
h¢
15. (a)
Ray comes out from CD, means rays after refraction from AB get, total internally reflected at AD
A D
r1 r2
amax n1 n2
B C
n1 sina max n
a max sin1 1 sinr1 …(i)
n2 sinr1 n2
Also r1 r2 90o r1 90 r2 90 C
1 n
r1 90 sin1 r1 90 sin1 2 ...(ii)
n
2 m1 1
Hence from equation (i) and (ii)
n n
a max sin1 1 sin90 sin1 2
n2 n1
1
n1 n
= sin cos sin1 2
n2 n1
16. (d)
For achromatic combination w C w F
[(mv mr )A]C [(mv mr )A]F
[m r A]C [m r A]F [m v A]C [m v A]F
1.5 19 6 1.66 38.5
Resultant [(m r 1)Al]C [(m r 1)A]F
[mr A]C [mr A]F (AC AF ) = 38.5 (19 6) 13.5o
17. (a) P1
From the geometry of the figure a
p1 p2 2a sin60o 30°
60°
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P2 a P3
JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_23
L
so, I P2
p1 p22
L L
o 2
(2a sin60 ) 3a2
L
and I P3 cos30o
(P1P22 2
a )
L 3 3L
=
o 2
[(2a sin60 ) a ] 2 8 a22
3 3 3 3
I P3 I P2 I0
8 8
All options are wrong.
18. (b)
Image formation by a mirror (either plane or spherical) does not depend on the medium.
The image of P will be formed at a distance h below the mirror. If d = depth of liquid in the tank.
dh
Apparent depth of P x1
m
d h
Apparent depth of the image of P x2
m
2h
\ Apparent distance between P and it's image x2 x1
m
19. (a)
The real depth m ( apparent depth)
In first case, the real depth h1 m (b a)
Similarly in the second case, the real depth h2 m (d c)
Since h2 h1, the difference of real depths h2 h1 m (d c b a)
(d b)
Since the liquid is added in second case, h2 h1 (d b) m
(d c b a)
20. (b)
In case of refraction from a curved surface, we have
m 2 m1 m 2 m1 1 2 (1 2)
v =– 30 cm.
v u R v (15 ) 10
A C
m=1 m=2 m=4/3
P O
10 cm C ' I
B D
15 cm
20 cm
i.e. the curved surface will form virtual image I at distance of 30 cm from P. Since the image is
virtual there will be no refraction at the plane surface CD (as the rays are not actually passing
through the boundary), the distance of final image I from P will remain 30 cm.
21. (c)
For a vibrating string
n1l1 n2l2 n3l3..... constant = k (say) = nl
Also l1 l2 l3 l4 ...... 1
k k k k k 1 1 1 1
.... .......
n1 n2 n3 n4 n n n1 n2 n3
22. (b)
l 32
Path difference (r 2r) 16 ,
2 2
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16
r 14cm.
2
23. (c)
v
For open pipe f1 and for closed pipe
2l
v v
f2 2f1 f1 1
l l
4 f2 2
4
24. (a)
Let the piston be displaced through distance x towards left, then
h
volume decreases, pressure increases. If DP is increase in pressure
and DV is decrease in volume, then considering the process to take
place gradually (i.e. isothermal) M
Gas
P1V1 P2V2 PV (P DP )(V DV)
P A
PV PV DPV PDV DPDV
DP.V P .DV 0 (neglecting DP .DV)
x
P.x
DP (Ah) P(Ax) DP
h
This excess pressure is responsible for providing the restoring force (F) to the piston of mass M.
PAx
Hence F DP.A
h
PA
Comparing it with | F | kx k Mw 2
h
PA Mh
w T 2
Mh PA
Short trick : by checking the options dimensionally. Option (a) is correct.
25. (b)
Time taken by particle to move from x=0 (mean position) to x = 4 (extreme position)
T 1.2
0.3 s
4 4
Let t be the time taken by the particle to move from x=0 to x=2 cm
2 1 2
y asinwt 2 4 sin t sin t
T 2 1.2
2
t t 0.1 s . Hence time to move from x = 2 to x = 4 will be equal to 0.3 – 0.1 = 0.2
6 1.2
s
Hence total time to move from x = 2 to x = 4 and back again 2 0.2 0.4 sec
26. (b)
The wire may be treated as a string for which force constant
Force YA F L
k1 Y
Extension L A DL
Spring constant of the spring k2 K
Hence spring constant of the combination (series)
k1k2 (YA / L)K YAK
keq
k1 k2 (YA / L) K YA KL
1/ 2
m (YA KL )m
Time period T 2 2
k YAK
27. (b)
As here two masses are connected by two springs, this problem is equivalent to the oscillation of
a reduced mass mr of a spring of effective spring constant.
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mr
T 2
K ef.
m1m2 m
Here mr K ef. K 1 K 2 2K
m1 m2 2
1 K ef. 1 2K 1 K 1 0.1 1
\ n 2 Hz
2 mr 2 m m 0.1
28. (c)
F
Tensile strain on each face
Y
2F
Lateral strain due to the other two forces acting on perpendicular faces
Y
F
Total increase in length (1 2 )
Y
29. (c)
Total force at height 3L / 4 from its lower end
= Weight suspended + Weight of 3/4 of the chain
W1 (3W / 4)
W1 (3W / 4)
Hence stress
S
30. (c)
Restoring force is zero at mean position
F Kx F0 0 Kx F0 x
F0
K
F0
i.e. the particle will oscillate about x
K
CHEMISTRY
1. D
l eq�
BaC2 O4 80.75
BaCl2 136.1
HCl 212.25
l�
eqH2 C2 O4 80.75 212.25 136.1
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Cr
6
\ charge is transferred from ligand to central metal ion & that is responsible for colour
5. D
acid ligands are the ones that accept electron density from central atom in their vacant
(bonding/antibonding/non-bonding) orbital
6. A
OH O
C OCH3
It cannot excite the remaining unpaired electron & thus the possible hybridisation of this
complex is sp2 d and it is square planar
10. A
Isooctane has low boiling point and very low tendency of knocking so it is given an arbitrary
octane no = 100
% isooctane in a fuel = octane no.
= 70%
11. D
Gold sol is negatively charged. The electrolyte having positive ions with maximum valency will be
most effective is causing its coagulation
12. B
�3 � �1 �
DS 50 � �40 � � �60 �
�2 � �2 �
= 50 – 60 – 30
= –40 JK–1 mol–1
At equilibrium, DG 0
DG 0
DH TDS 0
DH TDS
20 �1000
T
40
= 500 K
13. A
When egg is boiled, the protein molecules unfold and thus entropy increases
14. B
Let molar mass of metal be M
Z �M 1�M
Density, dcubic
NA �a NA �a
2 �M dBCC
dBCC 2
NA �a dcubic
� dBCC dcubic
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15. C
Fact
16. B
Zn s 2Cr 3 ��
� 2Cr 2 Zn2
2 moles of Cr 3 need 1 mole of Zn(s)
1
0.1 moles ��� �0.1
2
= 0.05moles
= 3.27g
17. B
Acc to Raoult’s law
pT= psolvent �mole fraction of solvent
p p0 �N1
18. A
FeSO4 KCN excess �� �K 4 �
�Fe CN 6 �
�
19. A
DTf 3.87 i �1.86 �1
3.87
i 2
1.86
\Total ions 2
Pd H2O 3 Cl3 �
\ Formula: �
� �Cl �
3H2O
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20. C
NH2
Hg
Hg
I
21. B
lim m ��
� 0 implies
� complete dissociation
NaHSO4 ���Na H HSOQ4
1 4 44 2 4 4 43
i 3
NaCl ��
�Na Cl
14 243
i 2
DTb iNaHSO4
3
1.5
DTb '
iNaCl 2
22. A
2AgNO3 Na2S2O3 �� � 2NaNO3 Ag2S2 O3
White B
� Ag2S D
Ag2S2O3 ��
B Black
t0 1
t t eq 1 a a a
Here i 1 a a a
= 1 a
a i 1
a2
\ Ka
1 a
i 1 i 1
2 2
=
1 i 1 2 i
24. B
Mg s Br2 l
MgBr2 s DH 524kJ mol
148 31
Br2 g
2421
193
Mg g
2Br g
2187
2 EA
Mg2 g 2Br
Ace to Boron Haber Cycle
524 148 31 193 2187 2 �EA 2421
� EA 331kJ mol
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25. C
Fact (Definition)
26. B
27. C
Hydrate isomerism is shown if H2O in the complex can be exchanged with anion present
outside. No such case can happen here
28. C
Fe CN 6 �
Fe 4 �
� � � brown
3
29. D
(A) is tetrahedral
(B) is square planar
1 6 1
(C) Fe : d S �� � paramagnetic
30. C
More the splitting, more is CFSE & hence lesser is lmax
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MATHEMATICS
1. B
Given can be written as
a2 4 i a j
a 2 4 k . tan A i tanB j tanC k 6a
� a2 4 a 2 a 2 4
tan2 A tan2 B tan2 C cos q 6a
{\a.b a b cos q}
3a . tan A tan B tan C (6a) sec q
2 2 2
2. C
The given equation can be written as
1 sin x
2 cos x
cos x
�1 sin x 2cos2 x 2(1 sin2 x)
� 2sin2 x sin x 1 0
� sin x 1 or 1/ 2
Now sin x 1 tanx and sec x not defined. sin x 1/ 2 � x / 6 or 5 / 6
The required number of solution is 2.
3. C
xi A
We know that if di then x h d .
h
x 3/2
In this case 2xi 3 i
1/ 2
1
So h .
2
1
Thus d x 2 �3.5 7
h
4. D
K 3!�3!�1 36
P 6!�3! 6! 5040
5. B
Equation of a plane passing through the line of intersection of the given planes is
2x y 3z 5 l5x 4y 2z 1) 0
Or (2 5lx 1 4ly 3 2lz l 0
This will be perpendicular to the plane 2x y 3z 5 0 if 2 2 5l 1 4l 3 3 2l 0
� l 7 / 4 and the required equation of the plane is
4(2x y 3z 5) 7(5x 4y 2z 1) 0
� 27x 24y 26z 13 0
6. D
1 �x 2 4x 5 �1
x 2 is only solution
\ 4 2a 0 � a 2
2 4
7. D
Conceptual
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8. B
If the three planes intersect in a line, then comparing
{ } {
ˆ ˆi ˆj akˆ 2 l r.
r. }
ˆ 2iˆ ajˆ kˆ 1 0 with the equation of the third plane gives
2l 1 al 1 l a l 2
� l 1 & a 1
a 2 2 1
9. C
10
�r � 1 10 � r �
�
r 0
cos3 � � ��
�3 � 4 r 0
cos r 3cos �
� 3�
1 �10 10
�r �
�
��
4 �r 0
(cos r) 3�cos � �
�3 �
�
r 0 �
1 �1 � 1
1 3 � �
4 �2 � 8
10. D
FC 2AB
AD 2BC
EB 2DC
AD EB FC 2 BC DC AB
2 AC AB AC AD AD
2 2AC AD
2 AC AC AD
2 AC DC
11. B
Consider origin as the circumcentre of triangle ABC.
r r r
Let OA a,OB b,OC c and OT
r r r
Here, a b c R (circum radius)
Here, OA OB OC OA 2OD OA AH OH
r r
OH OT b c r r
Point D � OT b c OH
2 2
r r
OT a � OT a R
r
AT OT OA 2a
r
� AT 2 a 2R
BC
As 2R
sin A
� BC 2R sin A 2R sin30o R
AT
2
BC
12. C
r r r r
n n1 i n2 j n3k, where n12 n22 n32 1
rr
u.n 0 � n1 n2 0
rr
Also, v.n 0 � n1 n2 0, hence n1 n2 0
\ n3 1 or 1
r r r
\ n k or k
r
w.n 3
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r r r2 r2
So, w.n u v 3 2 2 7
13. A
L1.L 2
\ cos a
L1 L 2
a cos q 3 b 2 sin q c cos q 3
�cos q 3
cos q 3 ��
2 2 2
2 sin q a2 b 2 c 2 �
�
� ��
� �
(a c)cos q b 2 sin q a c 3
a 2
b2 c 2 8
So if cosa is independent of q, so a c 0 and b 0
2a 3 3
cos a
2a2 2 2
14. C
Direction ratio of the line
ˆi ˆj kˆ
n 3 2 1 ˆi( 8 3) ˆj(12 4) k(
ˆ 9 8)
4 3 4
5iˆ 8ˆj kˆ
Normal of plane, n1 2iˆ ˆj kkˆ
n1.n2 10 8 k 0; k 2
15. C
2 4 6
Given expression cos2 cos2 cos2
14 14 14
16. A
cos A m
use componedo & dividendo
cosB 1
17. C
� �
sin � �p sin x � sin(p cos x)
�2 �
pcos x �p sin x
2
x
cos x �sin x � 2 \p �
2p 2 2
18. D
On simplifying given expression we get
C C �A B �
4 sin2 4 sin cos � � 1 0
2 2 � 2 �
D �0
19. D
20. D
21. A
u2 a2 b 2 (a2 b2 )2 .sin2 2q 4a 2b 2
2
umax 2(a2 b2 )
2
umin ( a b )2 0 If a b 0
22. C
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4 cos 2
x 2sin x 3 sin x 0
� sin x 0 � x n
1 � 5
sin x � x n ( 1)n
4 10
n 1 3
Or n 1
10
23. B
2 2 � �
2tan x
1 or 2tan x = 8 But tan x = 0 not possible as x ��
0, �
� 2�
24. B
25. A
26. C
S ABCD A(BCD) AA T ...(1)
S (ABCD)(ABCD)(ABCD)
3
(ABC)(DAB)(CDA)(BCD)
DT CT B T A T
(BCD)T A T AA T ..(2)
From (1) and (2) S S I is correct 3
(1 x ) � (B)]
2 3
29. D
�xi 400 3 4 5
�x 2
i 2475 3 2 42 52
n 97
2
1 ��x i �
Variance �xi2 �
�n � �
n � �
2
1 �388 �
(2425) � �
97 �97 �
30. A
sin1 �
cot 1(1 x)�
� tan1 x �
� cos �
� �
� 1 � 1
sin1
sin � � coscos 1
�
� 1 (1 x) �
2
� 1 x2
2
1 1 x2 1 x2
1
x
2
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