St. Louis Review Center, Inc. d.

oblique drawing
Room 3C, 3rd Floor, Central Mktg. Bldg., Quezon 15. When parts that are not seen are represented by
Boulevard, Kidapawan City
(064) 288-5990 / 09499336764 / 09233593564 series of light dash lines then this line is classified as
_________.
TLE Exam Drills a. reference line c. section line
b. visible line d. invisible line
16. What kind of drawing has one surface that is
(Drafting)
parallel to the picture plane?
1. Horizontal lines are best drawn using this
a. oblique drawing
instrument.
b. isometric drawing
a. triangles c. meter stick
c. perspective drawing
b. ruler d. t-square
d. orthographic drawing
2. To completely describe a cone, sphere, and
17. This pictorial view is normally seen by the
rectangular pyramid, how many views are needed?
observer’s eyes. Which one is it?
a. two c. three
a. isometric drawing
b. One d. six
b. oblique drawing
3. What line is projected as a shorter line in a
c. perspective drawing
drawing?
d. orthographic drawing
a. vertical line c. curve line
18. A drawing instrument that serves as guide in
b. inclined line d. horizontal line
drawing vertical and diagonal lines as in triangles. It
4. Geometrical solids are usually drawn in how many
is generally used in drawing horizontal lines. Which
views?
one it?
a. two views c. six views
a. t-square c. triangle
b. four views d. eight views
b. extension line d. lettering guide
5. If all the information needed to complete
19. What is that fine line used to show clearly the
construction of a product is shown, then what do
dimension limits?
you call this type of mechanical drawing?
a. center line c. dimension line
a. working drawing
b. extension line d. phantom line
b. schematic drawing
20. A type of section used to emphasize the interior
c. orthographic drawing
construction of an object without destroying the
d. pictorial drawing
continuity of the exterior view.
6. One of the best practices of a good draftsman is to
a. Phantom section or hidden section
NEVER letter without __________.
b. Removed or detailed section
a. guidelines c. lettering pens
c. Revolved section
b. pencil d. ink
d. Full section
7. In dimensioning an object, which view shows most
21. Where should you place the name of the top view
clearly the shape of the object?
for labeling?
a. Top view c. Right side view
a. below the view
b. Front view d. Bottom view
b. above the view
8. Central horizontal strokes of some letters placed at
c. beside the view
mid-height appear to be below center due to
d. inside the view
optical illusion. Which letters are they?
22. The lightest or finest line that represents the axis or
a. b, e, f & h c. a, k, t & y
center of objects with symmetrical shapes is known
b. r, s, g & p d. b, p, g & f
as _________.
9. Letters that are composed of uniform width
a. extension line c. visible line
elements are classified as _________.
b. center line d. cutting plane line
a. Italic letters c. Gothic letters
23. These are considered as the heaviest or darkest
b. Text letters d. Roman Letters
lines that surround a drawing and are usually
10. Boxing method is the most widely used method of
rectangular in shape.
drawing a _________.
a. border lines c. dimension lines
a. isometric view c. mechanical view
b. visible lines d. cutting plane lines
b. pictorial view d. perspective view
24. If a drawing is generally made without the aid of
11. What is the horizontal guide line used to determine
drawing instruments and straight edges then it is
the general height of lower case letters?
classified as __________.
a. Cap line c. Base line
a. orthographic drawing
b. Waist line d. Drop line
b. isometric drawing
12. These are lines to indicate the measurement of
c. freehand drawing
objects and are represented by fine dark solid lines.
d. axonometric drawing
a. dimension lines c. leader lines
25. This view is generally drawn directly above the front
b. extension lines d. center lines
view in an orthographic drawing. Which one is it?
13. Drafting is considered as the universal language of
a. bottom view c. side view
__________.
b. rear view d. top view
a. artistry c. industry
26. Which of the following drawing instruments will you
b. humanity d. pottery
use if you are to create distances into equal parts,
14. If a drawing has an equal measure, what does it
transfer measurement and spacing points or lines?
refers to?
a. dividers c. compass
a. isometric drawing
b. French curves d. templates
b. perspective drawing
c. mechanical drawing
St. Louis Review Center Kidapawan - Tel. no. (064) 288-5990 1
27. These lines are used to indicate the measurement direction of fiber reaches the highest level of
of objects and are represented by fine dark solid bending strength?
lines. a. Parallel to fiber direction
a. dimension lines c. leader lines b. Across the fiber direction
b. extension lines d. center lines c. Diagonal with the load
28. When solidity of an object is shown by gradual d. Along the fiber direction
darkening of its particular portion or portions, what 4. What process is used in making bent wood products
process is involved? to easily distort the shape of the wood without
a. darkening c. shadowing reverting to its original state?
b. shading d. lighting a. Cold water treatment
29. When parts that are not seen are represented by b. Sun drying
series of light dash lines then this line is classified as c. Heat treatment by hot stream
_________. d. High pressure treatment
a. visible line c. section line 5. What tool is used to adjust the “kerf” or teeth of
b. invisible line d. reference line the saw in order to reduce friction between the
30. One of the following is NOT included in the saw blade and wood, and to discharge the saw dust
participles of an orthographic drawing. Which one is easily?
it? a. Triangular file c. Saw horse
a. vertical line is drawn from top to bottom b. Pliers d. Saw set
b. no line or edge of the object can be projected 6. In sawing soft and thin wood, what is the
longer than each true length recommended angle of the saw to the wood?
c. the width of the top view is equal to the width a. 30 – 45 degrees c. 10 – 20 degrees
of the side views b. 15 – 30 degrees d. 40 – 50 degrees
d. the side views are horizontally in line with the 7. Aside from having a sharp blade, how should you
front view run a hand plane in a wood to get a good result?
31. Miley is asked to draw an art project without the aid a. Run the hand plane parallel to the fiber
of drawing instruments and straight edges. Which direction of the wood
of the following will she apply to perform the task? b. Run the hand plane against the fiber direction
a. freehand drawing of the wood
b. orthographic drawing c. Run the hand plane across the fiber direction of
c. isometric drawing the wood
d. axonometric drawing d. Run the hand plane diagonally with fiber
32. If you are to present the pictorial drawing that is direction of the wood
most pleasing to the eyes of the viewer then one of 8. What type of wood joint should be used in
the following methods should be used. constructing chairs and tables to obtain strength
a. isometric drawing and durability?
b. oblique drawing a. Miter joint c. Lap joint
c. perspective drawing b. Butt joint d. Mortise and tennon joint
d. orthographic drawing 9. When you intend to disassemble the product later
33. What is that kind of oblique drawing which is drawn or need to obtain a strong joint, what construction
with the side reduced to one half of the hardware is appropriate to use?
corresponding dimension in the orthographic a. Screws c. Hinges
drawing? b. Nails d. Dowel
a. cabinet drawing c. oblique drawing 10. What finishing material may be used to obtain a
b. cavalier drawing d. isometric drawing suitable wood color before applying a transparent
34. if you are to draw an isometric drawing, how many finishing material?
axes will you use to perform the job? a. Paint c. Stain
a. two c. four b. Base coat d. Filter
b. five d. three 11. One of the following is the operation performed in
35. A kind of perspective drawing with one vanishing the preparation of wood for commercial purposes.
point is known as _________. Which one is it?
a. parallel perspective c. cabinet drawing a. sawing c. lumbering
b. cavalier drawing d. angular perspective b. logging d. seasoning
(Carpentry / Woodworking) 12. Lumber is as good as its preparation. When it is
1. Which part of the wood is consisting of substances dried the process involved is ____________.
that are insusceptible to attacks by insects and has a. seasoning c. lumbering
high level of durability? b. staining d. logging
a. Heartwood c. Cambium layer 13. What is the conversion equivalent of one inch to
b. Sap wood d. Late wood centimeters?
2. Wood changes its shape during the drying process. a. 25.4 b. 2.54 c. 0.254 d. 0.0254
What should be the approximate moisture content
or drying percentage of hardwood for home 14. There are numerous kinds of saw. Which one is
furniture? used for sawing along the grain of wood?
a. 5 – 10% c. 20% a. back saw c. cross cut saw
b. 6 – 12% d. 25% b. rip saw d. turning saw
3. Fiber direction of wood should be taken into 15. A surfaced lumber where four of its side are smooth
consideration when designing a product. Which or planed is called _________.

St. Louis Review Center Kidapawan - Tel. no. (064) 288-5990 2

 a. S4S b. S2S c. Rough d. S3S 30. Buildings are necessarily constructed to be strong
and safe. What do you call the lowest support on
16. Which of the following is used for the cutting and which it rests?
for making delicate wood joint? a. foundation c. post
a. turning saw c. compass saw b. floor d. ceiling
b. keyhole saw d. back saw 31. You are given a stock for measurement. Which of
17. A kind of caliper used for measuring the inside the following rules will you use to appropriately
diameter of a cylinder is ____________. measure length, thickness, and width?
a. vernier caliper c. inside caliper a. tape rule c. steel rule
b. outside caliper d. adjustable caliper b. folding rule d. push-pull rule
18. Removing or paring away some part of the wood 32. The smallest division of the metric scale that you
requires the use of this hand tool. can find in the steel rule is _________.
a. chisel c. spoke shave a. millimeter c. decimeter
b. plane d. file b. centimeter d. meter
19. Nails are essential material in putting in place pieces 33. Time frame, costs and specifications of materials,
of wood. To drive or pull a nail the right tool for the steps and procedures and evaluation scale are
job is ____________. distinctive features of a __________.
a. cross peen hammer a. project plan c. business plan
b. claw hammer b. electrical plan d. mechanical plan
c. ball peen hammer 34. Which of the following tools is used in checking the
d. mallet squareness of the corners and flatness of a surface?
20. Sawing irregular shapes on thin pieces of wood is a. Trammel point c. Sliding T-bevel
done with the use of _________. b. Steel Square d. Try square
a. key hole saw c. rip saw 35. Find the total number of board feet of five pieces of
b. back saw d. coping saw lumber with a dimension of 2” x 4” x 12”.
21. This fastening material holds better, look better, a. 8 bd. ft c. 40 bd. ft
and can be removed easily without damaging the b. 96 bd. ft d. 480 bd. ft
wood. It is commonly known as __________.
a. screw b. bolt c. spike d. nail set (Basic Masonry and Concrete)
22. A type of roof frame consisting series of triangles 1. The most widely used masonry materials for
used to distribute loads and stiffen the structure of construction works.
the roof. a. Concrete hollow blocks
a. Girt b. Rafter c. Truss d. Purlins b. Bricks
c. Rubbles stone
23. Cabinets and doors are common parts of a house. d. Ashlar
They require swinging shutters for appropriate 2. It is the masonry material manufactured from clay
attachment with the use of _________. and other materials.
a. hinges c. bolts a. Stones c. Bricks
b. screws d. handles b. Adobe d. Course rubbles
24. The finishing material has pigment, thinner, and 3. What is the tool used to guide the vertical position
drier. Which one is it? in laying bricks?
a. stain c. varnish a. Plumb bob c. Spirit level
b. paint d. shellac b. Water hose d. String or chord
25. With the numerous classifications of paints the one 4. Which of the following is NOT a requirement to
with flat finish used only to paint wood is called consider in proportioning concrete mixture?
__________. a. Economy c. Strength
a. flat wall enamel paint b. Workability d. Flexibility
b. cedar paint 5. Concrete is said to be workable if it can be molded
c. trim paint or deformed without segregation. This
d. shake paint characteristic is known as _________.
26. It is a substance that makes paint less heavy. Which a. Consistency c. Mobility
one is it? b. Plasticity d. Workability
a. pigment c. vehicle 6. Which of the following classes of mixture produces
b. drier d. thinner a hard or tough concrete?
27. Chisels are only effective if they are driven. Which a. Class AA c. Class B
of the following hand tool is used to drive them? b. Class A d. Class C
a. chipping hammer c. wooden mallet 7. A good concrete can be produced also by hand
b. ball peen hammer d. claw hammer mixing. Which of the following is a good concrete
28. A level compact wood surface is a must in wood mix proportion for hand mixing?
works. Open grain and minor wood defects are a. ½ kg of water + 1 kg of cement + 2 kg sand +
filled in by one of the following materials. 2.5 to 3 kg of gravel
a. wood filler c. nail b. 2 kg of water + 1 kg of cement + 2 kg sand + 2.5
b. saw dust d. shellac to 3 kg of gravel
29. Drills and bits are friendly tools that facilitates c. ½ kg of water + 2 kg of cement + 2 kg sand +
project making. Which of the following are used for 2.5 to 3 kg of gravel
boring holes on wood? d. ½ kg of water + 2 kg of cement + 3 kg sand +
a. nail set c. auger bit 2.5 to 3 kg of gravel
b. drill bit d. saw set
St. Louis Review Center Kidapawan - Tel. no. (064) 288-5990 3
8. Which of the following should be avoided in placing 20. How many cubic feet of sand and gravel should be
concrete to its final form? mixed with one 40 kg bag of cement to form a Class
a. Segregation of particles B mixture of concrete?
b. Displacement of form and displacement of a. 3 cu. ft. and 6 cu ft. gravel
reinforcement in the form b. 2 cu. ft. and 4 cu ft. gravel
c. Poor bond between successive layers of c. 2 cu. ft. and 5 cu ft. gravel
concrete d. 1 cu. ft. and 3 cu ft. gravel
d. All of the above should be avoided 21. To produce a Class AA mixture of concrete, how
9. Gravel tends to settle, lighter materials and water many cubic feet of gravel is added?
to rise inside a container when displayed in the a. 3 cu. ft. c. 5 cu. ft.
delivery to the form. What do you call this b. 4cu. ft. d. 6 cu. ft.
tendency? 22. What is the ration of cement, sand, and gravel to
a. Displacement produce a Class C mixture of concrete?
b. Segregation of Particles a. 1 : 1 : 3 c. 1 : 2 : 5
c. Consistency b. 1 : 2 : 4 d. 1 : 3 : 6
d. Mobility of particles 23. Following are factors that regulate the strength of
10. Which factor/s regulates the strength of concrete? concrete except one. Which is it?
a. Correct proportion of the ingredients a. Correct portion of ingredient
b. Proper method of mixing b. Proper method of mixing
c. Adequate protection of concrete during the c. Adequate protection of concrete during curing
process of curing d. Dropping concrete mixture from high elevation
d. All of the abovementioned factors 24. What class of concrete mixture is consisting of 1 bag
11. What do you call the mixture of cement, sand and cement, 2 cu. ft. of sand and 4 cu. ft of gravel or
water that used to bind stones, bricks or concrete 1:2:4?
hollow blocks? a. Class AA c. Class B
a. Mortar c. Concrete b. Class A d. Class C
b. Plaster d. Cement 25. Which among the following is a surface finishing
12. A mixture of cement, sand and water applied wet to tool for concrete?
an interior wall or ceiling and hardening to a a. Crandal c. Float
smooth surface is called _________. b. Bolster d. Spade
a. Mortar c. Concrete 26. Bricks are laid where its longer side is exposed to
b. Plaster d. Cement view. This arrangement is called __________.
13. What is the type of hydraulic cement is widely used a. Header c. Bond
in small and large construction including roads and b. Stretcher d. Ashlar
highways? 27. In setting up concrete pavers, what material is used
a. Hydraulic cement c. Pozzolan cement to prevent erosion from drainage?
b. Portland cement d. Lime a. Filter fabric c. Compacted gravel
14. What material or ingredient in cement is added to b. Jute sack d. Bed of sand
concrete before or during mixing to improve its 28. What do you call the process of hardening of
workability and consistency to fill all the voids of concrete?
aggregates inside the form? a. Curing c. Hardening
a. Water c. Admixture b. Setting d. Molding
b. Sand d. Gravel 29. In laying out concrete walls and fences, what
15. The inert material that is bound together into a concrete material is commonly used?
conglomerate mass by Portland cement and water a. CHB or Concrete hollow blocks
is known as __________. b. Bricks
a. Aggregate c. Admixture c. Tiles
b. Concrete d. Mortar d. Boulders and stones
16. In a total mass of concrete, how many percent 30. Seventy percent (70%) of concrete strength is
comprises aggregate components? reached at the end of first week and thirty percent
a. 50% c. 80% (30%) could be lost by premature drying of
b. 75% d. 100% concrete. What must be done within the curing
17. Which of the following are known as coarse period to prevent premature drying?
aggregates in a concrete mixture? a. Moisten the concrete at all times within the
a. Sand c. Concrete curing period
b. Soil d. Stones b. Submerge in water within the curing period
18. What do you call the artificial stone that is a result c. Flood with water within the curing period
from mixing cement, fine aggregates, coarse d. Expose it to heavy rains during the curing
aggregates and water? period
a. Mortar c. Concrete 31. To prevent undue evaporation of moisture in the
b. Plaster d. Bricks concrete that may affect its strength, what should
19. A conglomeration of cement, fine aggregates, be avoided?
coarse aggregates water and reinforced by steel a. Continuous sprinkling of water
bars is called __________? b. Early removal of forms
a. Reinforced concrete c. Cover surface with wet burlap
b. Plain concrete d. Cover with wet sand
c. Natural concrete
d. Concrete with bars
St. Louis Review Center Kidapawan - Tel. no. (064) 288-5990 4
32. According to the building code of the Philippines, a. Vent pipe c. Drain
for how many days shall concrete be maintained b. Cleanout d. Tee fitting
above 10 °C temperature and in a moist condition? 11. An underground tunnel that carries off the drainage
a. 3 days c. 7 days and waste matter from a home or town is called
b. 5 days d. 10 days ___________.
33. What tool or instrument is used to set-up the lateral a. Sewer c. Sewerage
level of a concrete fence? b. Fixture d. Drainage system
a. Water hose level c. Plumb bob 12. The kind of fitting used to connect fixed pipe and
b. Spirit level d. Straight edge fixtures is a __________.
34. To obtain a fine textured concrete plaster, a mason a. Union Fitting c. Wye fitting
may use this very useful material. What is that b. Tee fitting d. Reducer
material? 13. A fitting or device installed at the inlet of a water
a. Rubber or plastic foam pump to prevent backflow of water.
b. Plastic or nylon string a. Check valve c. Suction valve
c. Aligning stick b. Inlet valve d. Gate valve
d. Cotton cloth 14. It is a device installed in water lines that can be
35. What material may be used by a mason in guiding, closed or opened to allow installation or
or making horizontal line particularly in bricks, tiles troubleshooting of fixtures.
and concrete blocks laying? a. Check valve c. Gate valve
a. Aligning stick c. Plastic or nylon string b. Inlet valve d. Float valve
b. Meter stick d. Thin GI wire 15. A metal or plastic fitting used to connect smaller
pipe from a larger pipe.
(Basic Plumbing) a. Reducer c. Nipple
1. A person who install pipes, fixtures and other b. Bushing d. Coupling
apparatus to convey and supply water in buildings 16. What material is used to seal off threaded fittings to
to dispose and discharge waste water. avoid leakage?
a. Carpenter c. Mason a. Masking tape c. Scotch tape
b. Plumber d. Mechanic b. Teflon tape d. Adhesive tape
2. What must be installed to prevent siphonage or 17. Plastic pipes are commonly used in water fixture
backflow of the water seal in the drainage system? installation nowadays. Which of the following is
a. Vent Pipe c. Soil Pipe preferred?
b. Drain Pipe d. Cleanout a. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
3. Which of the following is NOT required by the b. Chlorinated PVC (CPVC)
National Plumbing Code? c. Unplasticized PVC (uPVC)
a. Drainage pipe should be inclined properly for a d. Styrene rubber plastic (SR)
downward gravity flow of water. 18. Which of the following is NOT a requirement of a
b. Drainage pipe should be provided with drainage system?
adequate cleanout. a. All pipe joints are well-fitted and tightly
c. No ventilation pipe is needed. connected with each other.
d. All pipe joints must be well-fitted and tightly b. The drainage pipe should be leveled
connected. horizontally towards the main sewer line.
4. The pipe that conveys waste from various fixture c. The drainage system must be provided with a
other than from the water closet. ventilation pipe.
a. Waste pipe c. Vent pipe d. Each fixture should be provided with a suitable
b. Soil Pipe d. Drain pipe trap that will prevent backflow.
5. It is a fitting or device that provides liquid seal to 19. Showers, lavatories and bath tubs are fixed
prevent the back passage of air. plumbing items in a household called _________.
a. Trap c. Sewer a. Fixtures c. Sewers
b. Fixture d. Loop b. Traps d. Accessories
6. The tools used to tighten or loosen hexagonal 20. What do you call the piece of apparatus, equipment
fittings like unions and other metal fittings. or furnishing used for pipe installation?
a. Pipe vise c. Wrenches a. Fixtures c. Traps
b. Pliers d. Threader b. Fittings d. Elbows
7. It is a receptacle or vault used to collect organic 21. What part of the plumbing fixtures does a P-trap is
waste discharged from the house sewer. connected?
a. Septic tank c. Water tank a. Floor drain c. Sinks and lavatories
b. Man hole d. Waste tank b. Bath tubs d. Ventilation pipe
8. The semi-liquid substance accumulated at the 22. Organic waste discharged from the home sewer is
bottom of the septic tank. collected in a receptacle or vault called _________.
a. Scum c. Sludge a. Sewerage c. Container vault
b. Sediment d. Silt b. Septic tank d. Plumbing vault
9. What is the ideal inclination of a horizontal waste 23. The process of decomposition in the upper portion
pipe as recommended by the National Plumbing of the septic tank is called _________.
Code? a. Sedimentation
a. 2% slope c. 4% slope b. Anaerobic decomposition
b. 3% slope d. 0% slope or level position c. Digestion
10. For purposes of troubleshooting in case of stoppage d. Accumulation
of flow, what must be installed in the pipe system?
St. Louis Review Center Kidapawan - Tel. no. (064) 288-5990 5
24. Sinks, lavatories, urinals and bath tubs are a. One (1) cleanout for every ten (10) meters pipe
connected to a pipe in a drainage installation to layout
convey its discharges to the house drain. What do b. One (1) cleanout for every twenty (20) meters
you call that pipe? pipe layout
a. Drainage pipe c. Waste pipe c. One (1) cleanout for every fifteen (15) meters
b. Sewer pipe d. fixture pipe pipe layout
25. Which among the following are general conditions d. One (1) cleanout for every twenty-five (25)
for a good waste pipe installation? meters pipe layout
a. Right slope or grade of the pipeline 35. What is the most common plumbing tool used to
b. Right location of the cleanout tighten or loosen metal pipe fittings and
c. Correct manner of joining the pipes connections?
d. All of the conditions above a. Pipe wrench
26. For a vertical to horizontal directions or horizontal b. Mechanical wrench
to horizontal change of pipes, what should NOT be c. Adjustable wrench
used? d. Expansion wrench
a. Short radius fittings c. 45 ° fittings (Basic Electricity)
b. Long sweep fittings d. Wye fittings 1. Circuit breakers are used to protect household
27. The ideal position of horizontal waste pipes were electrical circuits. What is the capacity rating
those installed at 2 0/0 slopes. Given a pipe breaker used for convenience outlets or general
installed with an inclined ratio of two (2) purpose circuits?
centimeters per meter length, a three (3) meters a. 20 amperes c. 15 amperes
pipe installed as a waste line will have an inclination b. 30 amperes d. 60 amperes
of how many centimeters? 2. A form of electricity where the flow of current is
a. 6 cm b. 4 cm c. 10 cm d. 15 cm always in the same direction _________.
28. The National Plumbing Code on soil pipe provides a. power c. alternating current
that, at least one of the vertical stacks in the b. direct current d. voltage
plumbing system must extend full size to the roof. 3. The force which opposes and reduces the flow of
What is its purpose? electrical current is recognized as ________.
a. To ventilate and dispose off the sewer gas a. resistance c. electromagnetic force
above the roof b. power d. frequency
b. To prevent siphoning of the water trap seal by 4. A part of an electrical circuit, consist of batteries,
force of suction generator or a main electrical power which supplies
c. To prevent the possibility of back pressure electricity.
which may force the water seal off the fixture a. load c. control
trap b. source d. voltage
d. All of the above purposes 5. What is the voltage required by an automatic
29. Which pipe layout is susceptible to stoppage or pressure cooker having a resistance of 30 ohms
retarded flow? when the current flowing is 8 amperes?
a. Pipe with 2 % inclination a. 480 volts c. 120 volts
b. Pipe with less than 2 % inclination b. 160 volts d. 240 volts
c. Pipe with more than 2 % inclination 6. A law that states that current is directly
d. Pipe with 3 % inclination proportional to voltage and inversely proportional
30. In installing a water closet, what is the ideal to resistance is known as _________.
diameter of the pipe to be used as soil pipe? a. kirchoff’s law c. ohm’s law
a. At least 3 inches or 75 mm diameter b. law of resistivity d. PEC
b. Less than 3 inches or 75 mm diameter 7. What amount of current does a 40-watt fluorescent
c. Not more than 3 inches or 75 mm diameter lamp draw from a 220 volts power source?
d. At least 4 inches or more than 75 mm diameter a. 18 amperes c. 25.5 amperes
31. Among the processes that take place inside a septic b. 55.5 amperes d. 50.5 amperes
tank, which of them refers to the decomposition of 8. There are several factors involved in electrical
the accumulated sludge at the bottom of the tank? wiring installation but the foremost consideration is
a. Sedimentation ________.
b. Digestion a. cost b. labor c. safety d. function
c. Anaerobic decomposition 9. What is the standard number or diameter of wire
d. Decomposition for receptacles or convenience outlet layout?
32. The Plumbing Code on House Drain provides that a. No. 14 AWG c. No. 18 AWG
there must be no more than two closets that shall b. No. 12 AWG ` d. No. 10 AWG
discharge into a _________ pipe diameter? 10. To comply with the requirements of the Philippine
a. 3 inches or 75 mm c. less than 75 mm Electrical Code the appropriate fuse rating for
b. 80 mm d. 70 mm lighting outlet should be _________.
33. What should be provided in the house drain to a. 20 amperes c. 60 amperes
prevent breaking of the floor case of drain b. 30 amperes d. 15 amperes
stoppage? 11. Planning and designing of electrical wiring plan is
a. Cleanout c. Drain flow being done in order to __________.
b. Trap d. Fitting a. provide efficient and effective wiring system of
34. What is the interval distance of a cleanout in a pipe the building
layout as provided by the National Plumbing Code? b. maintain quality workmanship
c. avoid overloaded circuit
St. Louis Review Center Kidapawan - Tel. no. (064) 288-5990 6
 d. protect the circuit from high current 24. What unit is used to express the number of
12. In a 220-volt power line, three 50-watt complete cycles performed in one second in an
incandescent bulbs are connected in parallel. How alternating current?
many more bulbs will light if one of the bulbs is a. frequency c. resistance
open? b. power d. hertz
a. two b. one c. all d. none 25. What condition of a circuit refers to a huge amount
13. An electrical component used to control electrical of current flow caused by the line 1 of a live circuit
circuit in two different locations. directly touching line 2 without passing through a
a. Four-way switch load?
b. Three-way switch a. short circuit c. open circuit
c. Push-button switch b. grounded circuit d. parallel circuit
d. Remote controlled switch 26. A type of circuit in which the current flows in two or
14. In a simple electrical connection, one of the lines of more paths is known as _________.
the source is connected to __________. a. series circuit c. open circuit
a. Terminal 1 of the load b. parallel circuit d. grounded circuit
b. Terminal 2 of the load 27. This condition exists when there is a break in the
c. Terminal 1 of the switch flow of electrons in some part of the circuit.
d. Terminal 1 & 2 of the switch a. short circuit c. series circuit
15. Which of the following electrical symbols means b. shunt circuit d. open circuit
that there are three wires running in a line? 28. Following Ohm’s Law, what formula is used to find
a. --/--/--/------ c. --------------- the unknown voltage in the circuit?
b. --/--/--/--/--- d. S3W a. E = 1 X R c. I = E / R
16. To conserve energy, what kind of lamp should be b. E = I / R d. E = R / I
used in lighting fixtures? 29. It is a close conducting path by which a current can
a. Incandescent lamp transfer electric energy from a source to a load.
b. Mercury lamp a. electric current c. load
c. Compact fluorescent lamp b. resistance d. electric circuit
d. Neon lamp 30. In the illustration below the total voltage across A
17. The size of electrical wire recommended for and B _________.
installing lighting fixtures. a. 3 volts c. 45 volts
a. No. 12 AWG c. No. 18 AWG b. 1.5 volts d. zero volts
b. No. 14 AWG d. No. 10 AWG 31. A series connected dry cells will result to
18. In calculating electrical usage, what is the _________.
equivalent value per square foot of a living space as a. increase in the amount of current
established by the National Electric Code? b. increase in the amount of voltage
a. 10 watts per square foot c. increase total resistance
b. 5 watts per square foot d. more powerful supply of electricity
c. 4 watts per square foot 32. When a coil of wire passes through the rotating
d. 3 watts per square foot magnetic field electricity is generated. This
19. What is the normal value for a power used for each phenomenon is associated with ___________.
20-amp small-appliance circuit that is used for a. magnetism c. generating
calculating electrical usage? b. relativism d. fluidity
a. 1,000 watts c. 2,000 watts 33. Electrical symbols can be represented with
b. 1,500 watts d. 2,500 watts graphical symbols commonly known as
20. What type of category of lighting is used to ____________.
illuminate the area \where a visual activity – such as a. symbols and lines c. graphs and chart
reading, sewing or preparing food – occurs? b. schematic diagram d. pictorial diagram
a. Ambient or general lighting 34. The meaning of each symbol in an electrical plan is
b. Accent lighting indicated in the __________.
c. Task lighting a. legend c. nameplate
d. Decorative lighting b. schedule of load d. riser diagram
21. How do you classify that conduit made of PVC
plastic which is used to protect individual (Basic Electronics)
conductors from moisture and physical harm and 1. In the electronic symbol of a transistor, the
often allowed for interior installation? electrode with an arrow is the _________.
a. Rigid nonmetallic conduit a. Emitter c. Collector
b. Thin wall metal conduit b. Base d. Cathode
c. Armored cable conduit 2. You will find an electrode nearest the white band
d. Flexible hose on a rectifier. What is it?
22. Which of the following has the largest diameter of a. Gate c. Cathode
wire according to the American Wire Gauge (AWG)? b. Anode d. Main terminal
a. No. 10 AWG c. No. 14 AWG 3. An ordinary radio can be tuned to different stations.
b. No. 12 AWG d. No. 16 AWG The electronic component responsible for this
23. Which of the following test instrument is used to function is the _________.
determine the presence or absence of current a. Oscillator coil c. IF transformer
flowing in a receptacle for a small-appliance circuit? b. Tuning capacitor d. detector diode
a. Ohm meter c. Test lamp 4. Printed on the dial of an AM radio is an RF band
b. Ammeter d. Oscilloscope covering ____________.
St. Louis Review Center Kidapawan - Tel. no. (064) 288-5990 7
 a. 535 – 1,605 kHz a. allow current to flow in both directions
b. 88 – 108 MHz b. multiply voltage
c. 16 Hz – 20 kHz c. allow current to flow in one direction only
d. 76 – 90 MHZ 19. There are varied sources of electrical power. The
5. Volt Ohm Millimeter or VOM is a measuring 220 volts power source from MERALCO is classified
instrument. Which of the following VOM functions as ____________.
uses its internal battery? a. Pulsating Direct Current
a. DC milliameter c. DC voltmeter b. Alternating current
b. Ohmmeter d. AC voltmeter c. Pure Direct current
6. The condition of a loud speaker is tested more d. Varying Direct current
accurately using one of the ranges listed below. 20. It is a type of metal used as a heat sink for power
a. R x 1 b. R x 10 c. R x 1K d. R x 10K transistor in the audio amplifier. Which one is it?
7. There are various types of diodes. The diode that a. Aluminum c. Copper
acts as a regulator is the _________. b. Zinc d. Silver
a. Silicon diode c. Light emitting diode 21. When you are asked to amplify you are expected to
b. Tunnel diode d. Zener diode do this:
8. The common cause of an erratic or distorted sound a. Filter c. Control
of a transistor radio is a defective _________. b. Decrease d. Increase
a. Volume control c. Antenna 22. A device used to change sound waves to audio
b. Amplifier d. Tuner signals is called ___________.
9. An appliance with 110 Volts AC supply is a. Microphone c. Loudspeaker
accidentally plugged to a 220 Volts AC outlet. What b. Transistor d. Diode
component is usually destroyed? 23. It is important for a radio mechanic to differentiate
a. Switch c. Line fuse an AM signal from an FM signal. AM means
b. AC plug d. Power transformer __________.
10. What happens to a transistor radio when batteries a. Audio Modulation
are connected in reverse polarity? b. Amplitude Modulation
a. It will operate normally. c. Altitude Modulation
b. It will operate for a while and eventually stops. d. Auxiliary Modulation
c. It will erratically operate. 24. The antenna bar of an AM radio receiver is made of
d. It will not operate. this material
11. When a diode is tested and the reading is zero, it a. Ferrite c. Plastic
means the diode is __________. b. Iron d. Ceramic
a. Shorted c. Leaky 25. An insulator that separates the two plates of a
b. Open d. Good capacitor is known as __________.
12. If the arrow of a transistor symbol is pointing a. Vacuum c. Air
inward , it tells us that the transistor is: b. Dielectric d. Ceramic
a. NPN c. Bipolar 26. If the components or instruments below are
b. PNP d. Injunction connected in a circuit, which one would the polarity
13. One of the following is a non-polarized electronic be important?
component. a. Switch c. Bulb
a. Resistor c. Diode b. DC ammeter d. Resistor
b. Transistor d. Electrolytic capacitor 27. The voltage rating found in as capacitor is called
14. A schematic diagram shows the components of an __________.
electronic circuit by means of __________. a. Working voltage c. Blow-up voltage
a. Linear appearance b. Peak-reverse voltage d. Breakdown voltage
b. Construction 28. There are various types of diodes. The diode that
c. Physical Appearance acts as a regulator is the __________.
d. Symbol a. Silicon diode c. Light emitting diode
15. The voltage rating found in as capacitor is called b. Tunnel diode d. Zener diode
__________. 29. The common defect of a carbon resistor is
a. Blow-up voltage c. Working voltage ___________.
b. Peak-reverse voltage d. Breakdown voltage a. Change in value with respect to its tolerance
16. The type of current whose amplitude drops to zero b. Shorted resistor
periodically and is produced in rectifier is known as c. Open resistor
________________. d. Broken resistor
a. Pulsating Direct Current 30. Frequencies are essentials elements in the
b. Damped Alternating Current operation of radio works. The basic unit frequency
c. Varying Direct Current is __________.
d. Saw tooth wave a. Hertz c. Siemens
17. A resistor is color coded with Yellow-Violet-Black- b. Farad d. Henry
Gold. Which of the following is the value and 31. Working efficiently is a good work habit. Tinning the
tolerance of the capacitor? tip of a soldering iron refers to:
a. 47 ohms, 5% c. 4 ohms, 5% a. Cleaning the tip with a sand paper
b. 47 ohm, 5% d. 470 ohms, 5% b. Applying flux to the tip
18. A diode is an electronic part that all times is c. Cutting the tip
expected to do one of the following functions. d. Making the tip pointed
Which one is it?
St. Louis Review Center Kidapawan - Tel. no. (064) 288-5990 8
32. What is the rate or speed of the horizontal scanning a. regular milk and vinegar
or horizontal retrace in the screen of a television b. coffee creamer
system? c. vinegar and butter
a. 15,750 hertz c. 60 hertz d. regular milk and butter
b. 100 megahertz d. 60 kilohertz 9. Martha, a busy mother is on a limited food budget.
33. What do you call the design drawn on the foil side Which of the dishes below is a good choice for her
of the printed circuit board? to prepare the viands that will still give her family
a. foil pattern their nutrient requirements?
b. schematic diagram a. Ampalaya con karne c. Pork adobo
c. magnetic board b. Relienong talong d. Chicken tinola
d. parts placement guide 10. Which ingredient practically used in all native
34. In a schematic diagram of a radio, symbols of part delicacies?
or components are indicated. Which of the a. Sugar c. Butter
following symbols represents a transistor? b. Coconut milk d. Rice flour
a. R1 b. C1 c. T1 d. Q1 11. Water is a remarkable substance for it occurs and
35. What solution or chemical is used in etching copper used in various ways. When water boils at 212
clad in a period circuit board? degrees, what does “rolling boil” means?
a. Muriatic acid a. the bubbles are rolling non-stop
b. Hydrogen peroxide solution b. the bubbles are forming rapidly and cannot be
c. Ferric chloride stopped when stirred
d. Sulfuric acid solution c. the bubbles are forming slowly and can be
stopped when stirred
(Foods) d. the bubbles are spilling out of a container
1. Mila has sautéed some meat in the pan. There are 12. A cake just wouldn’t be a cake without frosting for it
some brown bits left on the bottom of the pan. adds visual appeal and flavor. What is the
While the pan is still on the stove, she added some classification of fudge frosting?
white wine and scrapped the bottom of the pan. a. Soft c. Thick
What do you call the technique she just used? b. Uncooked d. Cooked
a. Cleaning c. Caramelizing 13. Meat is cooked to improve its palatability, increase
b. Deglazing d. Flambé tenderness and quality. To minimize meat shrinkage
2. If a recipe calls for you to “beat” something, what and retain much of its nutritive value, the best
are you being asked to do? cooking temperature is:]
a. Harass it. a. moist heat c. high heat
b. Roll it with a rolling pin. b. low to moderate heat d. dry heat
c. Agitate the mixture until it is smooth. 14. What does ‘proofing’ means?
d. Cut it into smaller pieces. a. Weighing the dough to make sure loaves are
3. Energy value is expressed in terms of calories which the same size
represents the chemical energy that is released as b. Letting the yeast grow to produce carbon
heat when food is oxidized. Which nutrient has dioxide
more than twice the calorie per gram? c. Testing cakes for doneness
a. Carbohydrate c. Fat d. Brushing risen loaves before baking with egg
b. Protein d. Mineral whites for a shiny glazed finish
4. Food furnishes the body with the different nutrients 15. The boiling point of water is a very important
it needs. Which of the following nutrients is needed reference point in cooking. When boiling water
as the main structural component of the body? what does adding salt do?
a. Carbohydrates c. Fat a. Make the water softer
b. Protein d. Fiber b. Makes the water boil more quickly
5. Fresh produce contains chemical compounds called c. Makes the water boil at higher temperature
enzymes which cause the loss of color, loss of d. Makes the water boil at a lower temperature
nutrients, flavor changes, and color changes in 16. Food safety is the most important factor in cooking.
frozen fruits and vegetables. These enzymes must It doesn’t matter how delicious or complicated the
be inactivated to prevent such reactions from taking recipe is: if the food makes people sick because of
place. What kind of vegetables needs pre-cooking improper cooking or handling, all the efforts will be
before packing? wasted. How long does it take for bacteria to
a. Non-acidic c. Neutral double their numbers at warm temperatures?
b. Acidic d. Basic a. half an hour c. 4 hours
6. Which cooking method is the LEAST healthy? b. 2 hours d. 1 day
a. Grilling c. Frying 17. What is the final cooking temperature for raw
b. Baking d. Broiling chicken?
7. Frostings are products that are closely associated a. 140 °F b. 165 °F c. 155 °F d. 140 °F
with sugar. What kind of sugar used primarily in the 18. Several ingredients act as leaveners in baking.
preparation of flat icings and butter creams? Which ingredient for bread hurts the leavening
a. Brown sugar c. Granulated sugar (rising) ability?
b. Refined sugar d. Confectioner sugar a. sugar b. flour c. salt d. water
8. While Rachel is reading a magazine, she comes 19. Meats are considered rich in proteins, what kind of
across a simple cake recipe. But the recipe calls for protein is found in connective tissue of meat that
one cup of buttermilk, which she don’t have. What converts to gelatin when it is cooked?
could she use instead of buttermilk? a. Elastin c. Marbling
St. Louis Review Center Kidapawan - Tel. no. (064) 288-5990 9
 b. Gluten d. Collagen 31. When testing the doneness of the cake, a cake
20. How do you know if you are “simmering” tester is inserted at what part of the cake?
something? a. Bottom side c. side
a. If there is cooking oil involved b. Center d. Upper side
b. If the liquid you are dealing with has reached a 32. Chef Roy is preparing a chocolate frosting? What
rolling boil cooking technique would you recommend to her?
c. If you are maintaining the temperature of the a. Cook chocolate in a double boiler
liquid just below boiling point b. Cook chocolate over high degree
d. If the liquid has reached more than the boiling c. Cook chocolate over low flame
point d. Cook chocolate using steam
21. Always serve beverage on _________ side of the 33. Ka Rosa is preparing a native rice cake (biko). She
guest using the right hand. ran out of panocha, a local sweetener, what could
a. right c. center be the best substitute for panocha?
b. left d. left or right a. Brown sugar c. Washed sugar
22. One of the objectives of good food preparation is to b. Powdered sugar d. White sugar
conserve the nutritive value of the food. What is the 34. What is that kitchen tool appropriate in applying
best way to prepare vegetables to retain the most egg wash to pies and pastries?
antioxidant activity? a. Rubber scraper c. Tong
a. Serve raw c. Boil b. Spatula d. Pastry Brush
b. Steam lightly d. Microwave 35. Which of the following mixing technique is
23. Salads usually use brightly colored fruits, vegetables described when a baker mixes the dough with a
and greens. What’s the best way to help oil-based pressing motion accompanied by folding and
salad dressings adhere to the greens? pressing?
a. Used only expensive lettuce a. Beat b. Cream c. Knead d. Fold
b. salt salad before tossing 36. What type of cakes contains butter or other fats?
c. Add a drop of sugar to dressing a. Batter cakes c. Chiffon cakes
d. Make sure greens are completely dry before b. Butter cakes d. Sponge cake
applying dressing 37. The recipe calls to pour the mixture of flour and
24. Nutrients are substances that enrich the body. liquid to the pan. What flour mixture is being
Which of these nutrients is needed for a healthy described?
immune and strong connective tissue? a. Batter c. Dough
a. Fiber c. Vitamin C b. Butter d. Egg wash
b. Vitamin K d. Fluoride 38. Family Sebastiano is experiencing a hard time
25. Iron is absorbed the best from the diet comes from financially. Which of the following shows a very
which sources? appropriate economic practice?
a. meat a. Reduced quantity of food prepared
b. milk and milk product b. Recycle leftovers
c. spinach, pechay, other green leafy vegetables c. use substitutes
d. enriched whole grains d. reduced quality of food prepared 30
26. Healthy diets are: 39. What is the process that changes the flavor, breaks
a. adequate and balanced down the cellulose and reduces the water content
b. do not include sugars of vegetables?
c. controlled a. Cutting c. Washing
d. low in potassium b. Preparation d. Cooking
27. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about water in
the human body? (Cosmetology)
a. helps regulate body temperature 1. A client comes into the salon for a scalp treatment.
b. will relieve fatigue, migraines, and high blood She has some obvious abrasions on her scalp.
pressures Which treatment should be acceptable?
c. the largest component of the adult human body a. Apply an antiseptic scalp treatment with
weight minimum massage.
d. provides a medium for chemical reactions b. Apply an oil treatment with a heat cap.
28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of c. Advise the client of her scalp condition and
stages in the breading procedure? reschedule her appointment.
a. Flour, egg wash, flour d. Give a first aid treatment and proceed with
b. Flour, egg wash, bread crumbs manipulations.
c. Flour, water, bread crumbs 2. During an analysis procedure, cleansing milk is
d. Egg wash, flour, bread crumbs applied to the skin using:
29. Vera is planning to have a party of more than 50 a. downward circular motion
guests. What type of table service would you b. rounded strong movements
recommend to her? c. upward circular movements
a. Blue plate service c. Formal service d. outward movements
b. French service d. Buffet service 3. If a powder foundation is being used for a facial
30. A kind of cloth plays vital role in setting the mood of make-up application, a concealer is applied:
the dining table. What do you call that long narrow a. after eye color application
strips of cloth used on bare tables? b. after lipstick application
a. Silence cloth c. Top cloth c. after foundation application
b. Table cloth d. Table runner d. before foundation
St. Louis Review Center Kidapawan - Tel. no. (064) 288-5990 10
4. For which one of the following are oil manicures 15. The classic barbering comb is used with clippers
recommended? when:
a. Leconychia c. Brittle nails a. cutting longer lengths
b. Split nails d. Free edge b. detailing is not required
5. When does the manicurist wash her hands for a c. cutting thicker lengths
manicure service? d. cutting the hair close to the head
a. Before and after each manicure service. 16. The amount of elevation from head form is:
b. Before each manicure service. a. dictated by parting size
c. After each manicure service. b. equal to the subsection size
d. During each manicure service. c. measured in degrees
6. If the hair is cut partially wet and partially dry, the d. measured in inches
results will be _________. 17. What is the skin type that has medium pores, a
a. even c. perfect smooth and even texture, good circulation, healthy
b. uneven d. curly color, may tend toward dryness on the cheeks while
7. The angle or degree at which a subsection of hair is being oily in the t-zone?
held, or elevated, from the head with cutting is a. oily skin
called _________. b. sensitive skin
a. sectioning c. angling c. combination/normal skin
b. elevation d. graduation d. dry skin
8. Following a haircut, when is texturing most 18. A section of hair that is molded in a circular
effective? movement in preparation for the formulation of
a. When performed on dry hair styled the way it curls is:
will typically be worn. a. shaping b. parting c. base d. section
b. When performed at the shampoo bowl after 19. By parting the hair at the parietal ridge and
the conditioner is applied. continuing all the way around the head, you can
c. When performed on soaking wet hair that has locate the:
been brushed. a. crown b. sides c. front d. top
d. When performed on moderately damp hair 20. Blunt or straight lines are cut in the hair with:
prior to styling. a. hair cutting shears c. a clipper
9. What kind of cosmetic is used to set the foundation, b. a straight razor d. thinning shears
giving a matte finish, and also to conceal small flaws 21. The relationship between hair, face and body type
or blemishes? is called ___________.
a. powder c. eyeliner a. emphasis c. symmetry
b. lipstick d. blush b. proportion d. contrasting lines
10. For corrective make-up application, how is a 22. For corrective make-up application, a darker shade
highlight produced? of eye color makes the natural color of the eye
a. A highlight is produced when a darker appear
foundation than the original one is applied to a a. lighter c. smaller
particular part of the face. b. darker d. deeper
b. A highlight is produced when a lighter shade 23. The condition of the hair and scalp is most
than the original one is applied to a particular influenced by the shampoo products.
part of the face. a. color c. thickness
c. A highlight is produced when a medium shade b. acidity or alkalinity d. lathering ability
similar to the original one is applied to a 24. For nail polish application, the functions of top coat
particular part of the face. include to :
d. A shadow subdues or minimizes prominent a. prevent staining of the nail
features. b. protect the enamel from chipping
11. What kind of cosmetic is used to smooth out the c. fill in ridges
face and cover spots or uneven skin coloration? d. prevent the nail from breaking
a. lipstick c. eyeliner 25. What type of nail products is a cuticle cream?
b. blush d. foundation a. emulsion c. exfoliant
12. When cutting curly hair, keep in mind that: b. astringent d. emollient
a. curly naturally layers itself 26. What is the effect of highlighter above the
b. curly hair expands less than straight hair cheekbones?
c. straight hair shrinks more than curly hair a. To emphasize good bone structure
d. curly hair expands more than straight hair b. To diminish cheekbones
13. “Removing bulk” and “removing weight” are more c. To attract attention to the eyes
modern term for: d. To attract attention to the nose
a. thinning the hair 27. During the nail application, when do excess nail
b. Straightening the hair polish is best removed?
c. shortening the hair a. after all fingers are done
d. graduating the hair b. with the use of a pusher
14. During manicure service, do not shake the bottle to c. when it is necessary
mix nail polis, as this causes: d. right after each application
a. separation of ingredients 28. In manicuring, softening the cuticle with cuticle oil
b. air bubbles is good treatment for:
c. foaming a. white spots on nails
d. sprayed brush bristles b. hang nails
St. Louis Review Center Kidapawan - Tel. no. (064) 288-5990 11
 c. cut or bleeding cuticle financial success in the future is known as
d. redness or swelling around the nail _________.
29. Dead cuticle tissue is usually removed: a. Entrepreneurship c. Small business
a. just before the base coat is applied to nail b. Enterprise d. Buy and sell
b. as the last step of manicuring procedure 2. You want to start your own business, what should
c. after loosing the cuticle by the pusher you consider?
d. right after the soaking period a. Assess your entrepreneurial inclinations.
30. the section of the pin curl between the base and b. Get to know your target market.
the first arch is the: c. Make a business plan.
a. stem b. curl c. circle d. wave d. All of the above should be considered.
31. During the haircutting procedure, the fine teeth or 3. To be able to steer your business in the first difficult
the styling comb are used to: months, you need a good _________.
a. detangle wet hair a. Marketing Plan c. Production Plan
b. holds the hair at high elevations b. Financial Plan d. Out-sourcing Plan
c. comb and part the hair 4. For the business to have a legal personality, a
d. comb the subsection before cutting business man has to __________.
32. During a shampoo service, manipulating the scalp a. Organize it.
immediately follows: b. Register it in proper institution / agency.
a. squeezing excess water from hair c. Hire lawyers for the business.
b. applying shampoo d. Hire an accountant for the business.
c. adjusting water volume 5. Which of the following implies that the
d. comfortably seating the client entrepreneur has a “word of honor”?
33. When preparing to shampoo a client, it’s important a. When he pays suppliers on due date.
to: b. Give employees salaries and benefits agreed on.
a. apply an infrared lamp c. Deliver on the day his customer ask him to do.
b. apply a scalp steamer d. All opinions above are correct.
c. brush the hair for 15 minutes 6. In the business plan essentials, which part
d. examine the client’s hair and scalp encapsulates entire business plan?
34. Moisturizers contain an ingredient that helps the a. The mission statement
skin retain: b. The executive summary
a. Oil b. water c. vitamins d. collagen c. The management team
35. Madeleine requests for a scalp treatment service d. The marketing plan
because her hair is dry. Which of the following 7. What type of entrepreneurial business actually
products would you recommend? produces the products they sell?
a. alcoholic lotion a. Manufacturing c. Retailing
b. mineral or sulfonated oil b. Wholesaling d. Service
c. Baby shampoo 8. A (n) __________ captures the reader’s attention,
d. moisturizers or emollients should explain the business status, provide
36. How often would you advice a person for a facial objectives, and describe products or services.
with normal skin? a. Executive summary c. Table of contents
a. about once a week c. daily b. transmittal letter d. fact sheet
b. about a month d. about twice a month 9. Locations, facilities, labor and manufacturing [plans
37. How can ingrown toe nails be prevented in are part of:
pedicuring? a. Financial plan
a. File or clip corners of nail. b. Marketing plan
b. File toe nails rounding them slightly to conform c. Implementation plan
shape of toes. d. Production / Operations Plan
c. Leave toe nails’ corner alone 10. Work Ethics are:
d. Clipped dead skins near toenails’ corners. a. based on moral virtues of hard work
38. When conducting a client consultation, you can b. based on working hard only when the manager
begin to make decisions about the most suitable is looking
haircut for the client by analyzing the: c. based on looking for shortcuts
a. hair length c. hair color d. based on trying to get to work on time
b. skin type d. face shape 11. An individual who can identify the various products
39. In haircutting, your __________ hand will generally or services which people need and deliver these at
be your dominant hand. the right time and place and at the price:
a. holding c. cutting a. Entrepreneur c. Industrialist
b. weak d. controlling b. Capitalist d. Contractor
40. Where all manicuring cosmetic supplies should be 12. A business form which is owned by only one person
kept when not being used? is:
a. On a clean shelf. a. Cooperative c. Partnership
b. On the manicuring table b. Corporation d. Sole proprietorship
c. In a clean manicuring kit 13. The ___________ plan tells what has to be done,
d. In clean, closed containers when, how and who as far as sales, advertising,
policy and distribution.
(Entrepreneurship) a. Marketing c. Pricing
1. A concept among business-minded individuals who b. Financial d. Selection
want to start small, but dream of becoming huge
St. Louis Review Center Kidapawan - Tel. no. (064) 288-5990 12
14. The aspect of business management that analyzes 27. Time frame, financial reserve and resources and
and determines the supply and demand for the cost are distinctive features of __________.
product or service in the past and its competitive a. business plan c. mechanical plan
position at present is: b. electrical plan d. project plan
a. Financial aspect c. Production aspect 28. The competence to convince, use personal
b. Marketing aspect d. Budgeting aspect influence and develop explicit strategies to
15. A __________ statement should be short (one/two influence people is associated with __________.
sentences) easy to understand and easy to a. persuasion and networking
remember. b. information seeking and monitoring
a. Mission c. Cash flow c. opportunity seeking and creativity
b. Vision d. Pro Forma d. self confidence and skill in decision making
16. The process of utilizing land, labor and capital to 29. Business Code of Ethics:
create market and produce new goods and services: a. should provide a list that only new employees
a. Salesman c. Proprietorship must follow
b. Partnership d. Entrepreneurship b. Should exempt upper management
17. The probable problems that a business and c. should change every week
entrepreneur faces are: d. should provide a framework for professional
a. Strengths c. Weakness responsibility
b. Opportunities d. Threats 30. Entrepreneurs adopt risk management programs to
18. Reviewing at any point of the business period the eliminate or reduce risk. Which of the following is
strength and weaknesses of the venture is referred an exception?
to as ___________. a. Employee safety program
a. Monitoring and evaluating b. Inaccurate accounting and financial reports
b. Risk taking c. Burglars alarm, security guard’s and guard dogs
c. Opportunity seeking d. Proper safety program
d. SWOT analysis 31. Whenever an entrepreneur recruits, selects a
19. A business form owned by only one person is: person to fill a vacancy in the organizational
a. Partnership c. Corporation structure, he is performing a function of
b. Sole Proprietorship d. Cooperative management called:
20. The process of utilizing land, labor and capital to a. controlling c. planning
create market and produce new goods and services: b. directing d. staffing
a. Proprietorship c. Partnership 32. Which of the following items is a trait that is NOT
b. Entrepreneurship d. Salesman observed among high achievers and entrepreneurs?
21. Quality control refers to the firm’s evaluation of its a. Willing to forego small inconveniences.
___________. b. Persistent worker even in the face of difficulties
a. overall performance and hardships.
b. operational control c. Likes to associate with the hardworking and the
c. employee’s performance knowledgeable about many things.
d. organizational control d. Consider is not important to attain a position or
22. If an entrepreneur acts to do things that meet or to come up with accomplishment in society.
even exceed existing standards of excellence then 33. Which of the following Best explains why goal-
he is considered to be __________. setting is important especially in entrepreneurship?
a. hard worker c. committed worker a. It assures you of your being able to attain your
b. risk taker d. goal setter objectives.
23. Profit is a concrete indicator of how well an b. It helps make life more enjoyable and satisfying.
entrepreneur has managed his ___________. c. One is much more likely to get what he/she
a. business c. affairs wants and is willing to work for it.
b. sales d. credits d. You are only one who can tell what is important
24. If a lot of unknown and uncontrollable factors affect to you.
the success or failure of a firm then an 34. Which of the following basic principles in planning a
entrepreneur should be competent in __________. business plan deals with the necessity of
a. making decisions environmental scanning?
b. seeking opportunity a. The plan must be based on simple projects.
c. introducing innovation b. The plan must respond to consumer tastes and
d. planning ahead preferences.
25. Environmental screening involves one of the c. The plan must be flexible.
following basic principles in planning a business. d. The plan must be based on the needs of the
Which one is it? community.
a. the plan must respond to consumer tastes and 35. Business planning is a continuous process until
preferences consumer satisfaction is maximized and sustained.
b. the plan must be based on simple projects One of the components of business planning is
c. the plan must be based on the needs of the SWOT. What does SWOT means?
community a. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities and
d. the plan must be flexible Threats
26. A business enterprise must obtain a business permit b. Strengths, Weaknesses, Operations and Threats
from the ___________. c. Supports, Weaknesses, Operations and Threats
a. Mayor’s office c. DOLE d. Supports, Weaknesses, Operations and Time
b. DTI d. SEC
St. Louis Review Center Kidapawan - Tel. no. (064) 288-5990 13
 11. Find the profit of Manny’s water refilling business
with revenue of P 56, 000, 000 and costs of P 42,
000, 000.
(Business Mathematics) a. P 14, 000, 000 c. P 1, 400, 000
1. At a supermarket, white sugar has increased from P b. P 140, 000 d. P 14, 000
38 per kilo to P 46 per kilo. What is the percent 12. How long it would take a $ 200 bank account
increase in the cost of the item? earning 8% simple interest to earn 4 40 interest?
a. 10% b. 20% c. 21% d. 25% a. 2 years c. 2.5 years
2. Tiger Woods shots the following scores in a recent b. 1 year d. 1.5 years
golf tournament (68, 71, 66, 67). What was Tiger’s 13. Nora’s food stall has costs of P 2, 900. Her total
average score for that tournament? food sales are P 11, 600. What percent of her food
a. 70 b. 68 c. 69 d. 67 sales do the food costs represent?
3. If you are paid a certain amount of money for every a. 20% b. 25% c. 27% d. 30%
sale you make or a percent of the value of your 14. Jonie needs 250 cookies for a buffet. he will make
sales, which type of pay are you receiving? oatmeal raisin, macaroons, and chocolate chunk
a. commission c. piece work cookies. He wants 25% of the cookies to be oatmeal
b. straight time pay d. profit share raisin and 15% of the cookies to be macaroons. How
4. What is it called when you determine how many many chocolate chunk cookies must Jonie bake?
units of a product must be made and sold to cover a. 150 b. 125 c. 140 d. 100
production expenses? 15. What is the total of your cash, plus items you have
a. quality control purchased, plus money your customers owe you
b. break-even analysis called?
c. a time study analysis a. inventory c. liabilities
d. unit analysis b. assets d. profit
5. Margie is buying donuts at the bakery for her 16. What does a balance sheet show?
classmates at school. She wants to buy twice as a. the financial position of your company on a
many as students in her class. Margie has 18 certain date
students in her class. About how many donuts b. how much money everybody in your company
should Margie buy? makes
a. 20 donuts c. 40 donuts c. the difference between two income statements
b. 50 donuts d. 60 donuts d. the summary of your company’s profit
6. Mr. Calbo had 776 4/5 dozens of canned tuna 17. If a shirt marked down 25%, what will the purchase
luncheon meat. He divided equally these dozens of price be?
canned tuna luncheon meat to 8 buyers. How many a. P 25 c. 50% off
dozens of canned tuna luncheon meat did each b. 75% of its original price d. P 75
buyer get? 18. What is the difference between the cost of a
a. 90 dozens c. 98 dozens product and its selling price called?
b. 98.8 dozens d. 97 1/10 dozens a. the retail price c. the discount
7. Lea’s Enterprise gives 10% profit to all items for b. the markup d. the percentage discount
sale. What is the profit if the capital of the goods is 19. What is the correct accounting name given to
P 50.00, P 870.00? distributions of cash or other assets from an
a. P 5180.00 c. P 5, 087.00 incorporated business to its shareholders?
b. P 5017.00 d. P 508.70 a. business perks c. dividends
b. bonuses d. drawings
8. What is 125% expressed a s a mixed number in 20. A customer places a special order through 480
simplest form? Furniture Store. The list price in the manufacturer’s
a. 1 ¼ c. 4/5 catalog is P 1, 600. 480 Furniture receives a 35%
b. 125/100 d. 25/20 trade discount. What is the net price for the
9. An asset is considered to be a current asset if: furniture order?
a. It has been bought recently and was bought a. P560 b. P1,535 c. P1,565 d. P1,040
new and not used. 21. Min’s Manufacturing offers discounts on most of its
b. It could be sold immediately by the business for products. What is the trade discount rate on an
other assets. item with a list price of P 16.79 and a net price of P
c. It could be realized in cash or sold or consumed 12.42?
in the business within one year. a. 22% b. 26% c. 54% d. 74%
d. It is a piece of new machinery that is expected 22. Lina buys 4 scrapbook kits at P 9.99 each, 2 sets of
to fast for at least ten years scissors for P 9.99 each and 1 circle cutter for p
10. Net income is: 24.99. The sales tax rate is 5%. What is the total
a. revenues less the cost of goods sold to purchase price?
customers and operating expenses a. P 8.25 c. P 68.22
b. revenues less the cost of goods sold to b. P 162.69 d. P 173.18
customers, operating expenses interest expense 23. During her vacation in the US, Carla had purchased
and taxes a sweater from the clearance rack and gave the
c. revenues less the cost of goods sold to clerk $30.00. She received $4.96 in change. IF the
customers sales tax rate was 8%, find the total selling price?
d. cash collected less cash paid out a. $ 21.04 c. $ 23.19
b. $ 25.04 d. $ 27.22

St. Louis Review Center Kidapawan - Tel. no. (064) 288-5990 14

24. To pay for his son’s tuition, Mr. Torre borrows P95, total of 80 grapes, how many red grapes did she
800.00 from a lending institution with an interest use?
rate of 9.5% a year. How much is his interest for one a. 36 b. 42 c. 48 d. 50
year? 35. Which of the following items should not be included
a. P 910.00 c. P 9,101.00 in a listing of current assets?
b. P 9011.00 d. P 9,111.00 a. marketable securities
25. Last week, Michelle bought a new computer for b. accounts payable
10% off the advertised price in an online store. The c. accounts receivable
advertised price was $ 1,800. How much did d. inventories
Michelle have to pay for the computer?
a. $ 1, 800 c. $ 1, 980
b. $ 2, 200 d. $ 1, 620
26. Which of these is true statement?
a. Payment made for the use of someone else’s
money is called interest.
b. Payment made into an investment is called
interest.
c. Payment made for the use of someone else’s
money is called principal.
d. Payment made into a bank account is called
interest.
27. Paula always spends in full her P200 weekly
allowance. She decided to decrease her expenses
by 24% for savings. Compute for her new weekly
allowance.
a. P52 b. P142 c. P152 d. P132
28. After net income in entered on the work sheet, the
Balance Sheet debit and credit columns must:
a. be the same amount As the total amount of the
Income Statement debit and credit columns
b. equal each other
c. be the same amount as the amount in the
Adjusted Trial Balance debit and credit columns
d. not be equal to each other and need not to be
the same total amounts as any other pair of
columns on the work sheet
29. Adjusting entries:
a. need not be journalized since they appear on
the work sheet
b. need not be posted if the financial statements
are prepared from the work sheet
c. are not needed if reversing entries are prepared
d. must be journalized and posted
30. Mr. Montemayor harvested 890 kilograms of
shrimps from his fishpond. He sold 6/8 kilograms of
shrimps in international markets and 2/8 kilograms
of shrimps was sold in domestic markets. (a) How
many kilograms of shrimps did he sell in
international markets?
(b) How many kilograms did he sell in domestic
markets?
a. 660.25 kg / 140.75
b. 770 kg / 120 kg
c. 778.75 kg / 111 .25 kg
d. 667.5 kg / 222.5 kg ANSWER KEYS
31. A marketing manager sold items worth P 189, 355, Drafting
000. His commission as incentive is 7%. How much 1. D 11. B 21. B 31. A
is his commission? 2. A 12. A 22. B 32. C
a. P 1,325.48 c. P 1,300.45 3. B 13. C 23. A 33. A
b. P 13,254.85 d. P 13,250.00 4. C 14. A 24. C 34. D
32. Aizza bought 3 ¼ kilograms of chico, 2 ½ kilograms 5. A 15. D 25. D 35. A
6. A 16. A 26. A
of grapes, 4 ¾ kilograms of water melon. how many
7. B 17. C 27. A
kilograms of fruits did she buy altogether?
8. A 18. A 28. B
a. 9 ½ kg b. 10 ½ kg c. 7 ½ kg d. 11 kg
9. C 19. B 29. B
33. What is the decimal 0.33 written as a fraction? 10. A 20. A 30. A
a. 1/3 b. 1/4 c. 1/8 d. 1/33 Carpentry / Woodworking
34. Jessa made a fruit tart using red and green grapes. 1. A 11. C 21. A 31. D
Forty percent of the grapes are green. If she used a 2. B 12. A 22. C 32. A
St. Louis Review Center Kidapawan - Tel. no. (064) 288-5990 15
3. A 13. B 23. A 33. A 9. A 19. D 29. C 39. C
4. C 14. B 24. B 34. D 10. B 20. A 30. A 40. D
5. D 15. A 25. A 35. C Entrepreneurship
6. B 16. D 26. D 1. A 11. A 21. B 31. D
7. A 17. C 27. C 2. D 12. C 22. D 32. A
8. D 18. A 28. A 3. A 13. A 23. B 33. A
9. A 19. B 29. C 4. B 14. B 24. A 34. D
10. C 20. D 30. A 5. D 15. B 25. C 35. A
Basic Masonry and Concrete 6. B 16. D 26. A
1. A 11. A 21. A 31. B 7. A 17. C 27. A
2. C 12. B 22. D 32. C 8. A 18. A 28. A
3. A 13. B 23. D 33. A 9. D 19. B 29. D
4. D 14. C 24. B 34. A 10. A 20. B 30. B
5. B 15. A 25. C 35. C Business Mathematics
6. A 16. B 26. B 1. C 11. A 21. B 31. B
7. A 17. C 27. A 2. B 12. C 22. D 32. B
8. D 18. C 28. A 3. A 13. B 23. C 33. A
9. B 19. A 29. A 4. B 14. A 24. C 34. C
10. D 20.C 30.A 5. C 15. B 25. D 35. B
Basic Plumbing 6. D 16. A 26. B
1. B 11. A 21. C 31. C 7. C 17. B 27. C
2. A 12. A 22. B 32. A 8. A 18. B 28. B
3. C 13. A 23. A 33. A 9. C 19. C 29. D
4. A 14. C 24. C 34. B 10. B 20. D 30. D
5. A 15. A 25. D 35. A
6. C 16. B 26. A
7. A 17. A 27. A
8. C 18. B 28. D
9. A 19. A 29. B
10. B 20. B 30. A
Basic Electricity
1. A 11. A 21. A 31. B
2. B 12. A 22. A 32. A
3. A 13. B 23. C 33. D
4. B 14. A 24. D 34. A
5. D 15. A 25. A
6. C 16. C 26. B
7. A 17. B 27. D
8. C 18. D 28. A
9. B 19. B 29. D
10. D 20.C 30.B
Basic Electronics
1. A 11. A 21. D 31. B
2. C 12. B 22. A 32. A
3. B 13. A 23. C 33. A
4. A 14. D 24. A 34. D
5. B 15. C 25. B 35. C
6. A 16. A 26. B
7. D 17. A 27. A
8. A 18. C 28. D
9. C 19. B 29. A
10. D 20. A 30. A
Foods
1. B 11. B 21. A 31. B
2. C 12. C 22. B 32. A
3. C 13. A 23. D 33. A
4. B 14. B 24. A 34. D
5. A 15. A 25. A 35. C
6. C 16. C 26. A 36. B
7. D 17. B 27. B 37. A
8. A 18. C 28. B 38. B
9. D 19. D 29. D 39. D
10. A 20. C 30. D
Cosmetology
1. C 11. D 21. B 31. D
2. C 12. D 22. A 32. B
3. D 13. A 23. B 33. D
4. C 14. B 24. B 34. B
5. A 15. D 25. D 35. D
6. B 16. C 26. A 36. A
7. B 17. C 27. D 37. B
8. A 18. A 28. B 38. D

St. Louis Review Center Kidapawan - Tel. no. (064) 288-5990 16

St. Louis Review Center Kidapawan - Tel. no. (064) 288-5990 17