Mock #36 (Mock CLAT #25)

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LEGALEDGE MOCK #36 (MOCK CLAT #25)

ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS
1. d 2. c 3. d 4. c 5. c 6. c 7. a 8. d 9. c 10. d
11. b 12. d 13. d 14. a 15. d 16. c 17. b 18. a 19. d 20. a
21. c 22. d 23. b 24. a 25. c 26. b 27. a 28. b 29. d 30. d
31. b 32. c 33. c 34. c 35. b 36. d 37. b 38. b 39. b 40. c
41. b 42. a 43. a 44. d 45. a 46. b 47. b 48. d 49. a 50. d
51. d 52. d 53. d 54. b 55. a 56. d 57. b 58. b 59. d 60. a
61. a 62. a 63. c 64. c 65. d 66. a 67. d 68. c 69. c 70. a
71. b 72. b 73. a 74. c 75. b 76. c 77. c 78. b 79. c 80. b
81. a 82. b 83. a 84. c 85. c 86. a 87. c 88. c 89. c 90. a
91. a 92. d 93. d 94. b 95. b 96. c 97. b 98. b 99. c 100. c
101. d 102. a 103. a 104. a 105. c 106. d 107. d 108. d 109. d 110. d
111. d 112. d 113. d 114. b 115. c 116. c 117. b 118. a 119. b 120. a
121. b 122. d 123. d 124. a 125. a 126. c 127. d 128. a 129. d 130. b
131. c 132. a 133. b 134. a 135. c 136. c 137. d 138. a 139. b 140. c
141. d 142. a 143. c 144. d 145. b 146. d 147. d 148. d 149. c 150. b
151. b 152. a 153. d 154. b 155. b 156. a 157. c 158. c 159. b 160. c
161. a 162. c 163. d 164. a 165. a 166. c 167. d 168. a 169. c 170. d
171. a 172. c 173. b 174. d 175. b 176. b 177. a 178. b 179. c 180. b
181. b 182. a 183. c 184. d 185. a 186. a 187. c 188. a 189. b 190. d
191. b 192. b 193. c 194. b 195. c 196. c 197. d 198. a 199. b 200. c

1. This is an inference based indirect question. All the options
other than option (d) are either incomplete or irrelevant to
the essence of the passage. The very first line of the
passage indicates what the author sets out to illustrate in
this passage: 'To discover the relation between rules,
paradigms, and normal science ... that have been
described as accepted rules". Hence, option (d) is the
answer.
2. This is a vocabulary based direct question. None of the
options other than option (c) explain precisely what loci of
commitment as used in the second line of the first
paragraph corresponds to in the context of the passage.
Hence, option (c) is the answer.
3. This is an inference based indirect question. Answering this
question correctly calls for proper understanding of the
authors perspective of the issue and statements mentioned
in the passage that support his viewpoints. Option (a) says
'Paradigms almost entirely define..; which is an
overstatement and does not comply with the essence of the
passage. Options (b) and (c) are either too generic or totally
contradictory to the author's feelings and viewpoints. Hence,
option (d) is the answer.
4. This is a direct question. In the third paragraph, it is
mentioned: 'The students of human history can draw ............
potential methodological criticism' Options (b) and (d) can be
eliminated straightaway because nowhere it is mentioned
directly nor can it be inferred that 'isolated islands increase
the number of observations' or 'arouse curiosity ...'as given
in options (b) and (d) respectively. Then 'the good
comparison....' of option (d) is again something that is not
indicated anywhere in the passage. Though options (a) and
(c) appear to be very close at first glance, 'the difference' that
option (a) just 'mentions', gets better explained' through
'differing in their endowments and size..' of option (c). Hence,
option (c) is the better choice.
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5. This is an inference based indirect question. Answering this
question correctly calls for proper understanding of the
authors perspective of the issue described in the passage.
All the options other than option (c) are either irrelevant or
contradictory to what the author says about 'human history'
in the passage. It is clearly given in the first paragraph itself,
'Prediction in history ... the historian can recognize factors
that made ... but not the outcome of the 1960 US presidential
election1. This very well gets complemented by 'historical
sciences ... not interested in a multitude of minor factors...'
of option (c). Hence, option (c) is the answer.
6. This again is an inference based indirect question.
Answering this question correctly calls for proper
understanding of the author's perspective as mentioned in
the passage. All the options other than option (c) are either
irrelevant or contradictory to what the author says about
'human history' in the passage. Option (a) says 'missing
opportunities by not conducting any natural experiments',
which is not the case. Option (b) says, 'large islands provide
great opportunities' which again is nowhere mentioned
directly or can be inferred from the text. Options (d) speak
about 'unique problem ... inability to establish ...' and 'cultural
anthropologists ... confounding variables ...' respectively,
which is not mentioned anywhere in the passage. While it is
indicated in the second paragraph of the passage, 'A
methodology ... by comparing systems differing in the
presence or absence ... causative factor which helps to infer:
'students ... are missing significant opportunities ... variety of
natural experiments' of option (c). Hence, option (c) is the
answer.
7. Statement A is incorrect because with erroneous use of
preposition 'to' before 'home. It should be 'returned home'
and NOT returned to home. Statement B is incorrect
because of wrong usage of phrase 'hands on'. It should be
'get my hands on’ and NOT 'could get my hand on.’
Statement D is incorrect because of punctuation error. It
Page 1 of 8
Mock #36 (Mock CLAT #25)
should be Shaliach—a sort of recruiter Shaliach; a sort of
recruiter and NOT 'Shaliach a sort of recruiter'. Statements
C and E are correct. Hence, option (a) is the answer.
8. Statement A is incorrect because of redundant use of 'So'
before once. It should be 'Once an economy....'and NOT 'So
once an economy.....’. Statement B is incorrect again
because of redundant use of words like 'assuming' and
'hypothetically'. It should be either Out of slump—assuming
or 'Out of slump— hypothetically' and NOT 'Out of slump—
assuming hypothetically'. Statement D is incorrect because
of wrong noun number (singular-plural) usage. It should be
'by a temporary stimulus' (singular of 'stimuli') and NOT 'by a
temporary stimuli'. Statement E is incorrect because of
wrong word usage. It should be 'such policies have no effect'
(a noun) and NOT 'such policies have no affect' (a verb).
Only statement B is correct. Hence, option (d) is the answer.
9. Statement A is incorrect because of erroneous word usage
(noun). It should be It is sometimes said and NOT 'It is
sometimes told'. Statement C is incorrect because of
incomplete use of phrase 'hand over'. It should be either
'ideals have been handed over to us' and NOT ‘ideals have
been handed to us.’
Statement E is incorrect because of wrong usage of hence
as conjunction (meant for connecting the clauses) while it is
an adverb. It should be 'Greeks gave us the word but did not
provide us with a model' and NOT 'Greeks gave us the word,
hence did not provide us with a model'. Statements B and D
are correct. Hence, option (c) is the answer.
10. This is a mixture of direct as well as an inference based
question. Answering this question correctly calls for patient
reading and proper understanding the gist of the passage
without any leaning on personal judgments or point of views.
All the options other than option (e) are either incorrect or
incomplete or misleading. Besides, in the second paragraph
of the passage, it specifically mentions: '...but everywhere
behaviour is coordinated by the reciprocal nature of role ...
to tighten laws'. Hence, option (d) is the answer.
11. This is again an indirect question. Options (a), (c) and (d)
someway or the other endorse the 'reciprocal relationship'
while option (b) could happen if 'biological linkages
structured human society'. It is also encapsulated in the last
paragraph of the passage, 'We would not be surprised ...
Clergyman or faith healer would say for more about that
person than describing someone as a bus driver'. Hence,
option (b) is the answer.
12. This is again a mixture of direct as well as an inference based
question. Answering this question correctly calls for patient
reading and proper understanding of the passage without
any leaning on personal judgments or point of views. The
passage revolves around the two major aspects mentioned
in statement A and B. All the options other than option (d)
are either focuses on one or all or two wrong combinations
of statements A, B and C. Hence, option (d) is the answer.
13. The sentence labelled A starts with a statement: "In America,
highly educated women, who are in stronger position in the
labour market than less qualified ones, have higher rates of
marriage than other groups'? Now you need to look for
sentences that lead this statements further either with
argument or supporting facts and figures.
Sentence labelled E with "Indeed, just as with crime, an....'
leads statement A further in much logical manner than any
other statements. Here the word crime' immediately links it
up with statement C with 'And, as with crime, it is equally
inconclusive'.
Next we have statement B and D left. Here B should come
prior to D because it is logical to first mention Becker thesis'
and then to wind up by: 'But regardless ... it is hard to
establish convincing connections between ...' Thus sentence
labelled can very well be the conclusion of this passage.
Hence, option (d) is the most logical sequence order of the
given set of sentences.
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14. The sentence labelled A speaks about motherhood saying:
'Personal experience of mothering ... Underpin stereotypes
of the "godmother" ' Now you need to look for sentences that
further elaborate on this issue.
Sentence labelled E with 'In addition, a third," unofficial
popular discourse" comprising "old wives".... do not"
conform" to conventional stereotypes of the "good mother'
leads statement A further in much logical manner than any
other statements.
Sentences labelled B and D have close connection:
contemporary reproduction and 'woman's biological tie'.
Here D should come prior to B because it better connects
with A & E respectively and serves as their extension.
Sentence labelled C is clearly a concluding sentence with
'Similarly, historical work has shown ... need for greater
expert management'. Hence, option (a) is the most logical
sequence order of the given set of sentences.
15. The sentence labelled A speaks about political scenario in
Indonesia after President Soeharto: 'Indonesia has
experienced dramatic shifts ............ regime in 1997'
Now you need to look for sentences that further elaborate on
this issue.
Sentence labelled B with 'the political system has taken its
place in the nearly 10 year since towards administrative,
fiscal, and political decentralization leads statement A further
in much logical manner than any other statements mainly
because it presents the contrasting picture of 'his
centralized, authoritarian" New Order" regime' of statement
A.
Sentences labelled C and D explain various developments
(mainly change in policy) that has taken place post-1997.
Here C should come prior to D because it gives explains the
change ' has experienced significant liberalization...' while D
mentions its implication 'seen optimistically' At last E makes
a final statement 'A different group of analysts ... has been
anything but linear, apt for concluding the passage. Hence,
option (d) is the most logical sequence order of the given set
of sentences.
16. The sentence labelled A starts with the author's description
of his vast area of land : I had six thousand acres of land ....
what (Kikyu) called their shambas'. Now you need to look for
sentences that further elaborate this description.
Sentence labelled C immediately takes the description of
statement A further with 'The squatters are Natives, who ...
on their estates'.
Sentences labelled B and E speak of 'what all were grown
cultivated on the land'. Here B should come prior to E
because it makes sense to give an introduction to farming:
'was more intensely alive than the rest of the farm and then
give the details of what all were farmed: 'beans ripened...
maize stalk and coffee pods..! Sentence labelled D with 'also
grew the sweet potatoes' immediately connects with the list
of crops grown as mentioned in E. Hence, option (c) is the
most logical sequence order of the given set.
17. This question is vocabulary related still an indirect question.
It is mentioned in the last line of the first paragraph of the
passage: They do not create new experience ... their works
do not differ ... but like a Madonna from a Madonna!
Differences mentioned in all the options other than (b) are
either too superficial or altogether irrelevant to what the
author tries to point out with the given phrase. Hence, option
(b) is the answer.
18. This is a direct question. All the options other than option (a)
are either superficial or too philosophical and thus abstract
to understand the given metaphor (other creation) in right
spirit. In the last paragraph of the passage, it specifically
mentions: '...the sea and the distance of other creation' that
becomes the image of the poet’s reality'. Hence, option (a) is
the answer.
19. Although this question is vocabulary related, it still is an
indirect question. It is mentioned in the seventh line of the
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Mock #36 (Mock CLAT #25)
second paragraph of the passage: 'Adventures of
experience set out ... bring back to the shore treasures of
knowing and feeling ... old order had left floating on the high
seas'. Explanations of the term in all the options other than
(d) are nowhere near to what the phrase actually sets out-to
convey. Hence, option (d) is the answer.
20. I and 'D' are together thus eliminating options (b) and (d). III
matches with 'A'. Hence option (a) is the best answer.
21. I and ‘D' are together thus eliminating options (a), (d) and (c).
III matches with 'A' .Hence option (c) is the best answer.
22. I and 'A' are together thus eliminating options (a) and (c). III
matches with 'C'. Hence option (d) is the best answer.
23. I and 'A' are together thus eliminating options (a) and (c). III
matches with 'B'. Hence option (b) is the best answer.
24. The correct usage is ‘look great on paper’ and not ‘look great
on the paper’. Options (b), (c) and (d) use the word correctly.
Hence, the answer is (a).
25. Proscribe means 'to prohibit' which suits the context.
26. Prescient means 'ability to forecast' which suits the context.
27. Gluttony means 'excessive' which is the same as option (a).
28. ‘animadversion’ means ‘harsh criticism or disapproval.’
Hence the answer is (b)
29. Kaput means 'to stop working' which is the same as option
(d).
30. In the second blank a negative word fits in. Hence option (d)
is correct.
31. Options (a) and (d) get eliminated as it will amount to repeat
in the sentence. In the second blank only beleaguered fits in.
Hence option (b) is correct.
32. The clue 'only' indicates that a strong positive word should
come in the first blank. Hence option (d) get eliminated. In
the second blank 'fragmentary' matches the idea presented.
Hence option (c) is correct.
33. The clue 'both' indicates that opposite words should come in
the two blanks. Hence option (c) is correct.
34. In the second blank, 'fatal/bold/ecstatic' none match the idea
presented. Hence option (C) is correct.
35. Options (a), (c), (d) have the irrelevant word in the first
option, hence can be easily eliminated. Option (b) is correct
as both the words are apt.
36. Options (a) and (b) are completely irrelevant, hence can be
easily eliminated. In the second blank, 'livid’ does not match
the idea presented. Option (d) is correct as it complements
the idea.
37. The sentence requires the phrase, ‘more…..than.’ Also to
keep the sentence parallel, both the attributes being
compared should have the indefinite article. Hence the
answer is (b)
38. Few/fewer is used with countable nouns. Besides students
are people. Hence ‘who’ is the most suitable pronoun.
Answer is (a).
39. The preposition 'by' is correct in the given context. Also there
need not be a comma after ‘Good Evening.’ The answer is
(b).
40. Seldom or never is the correct usage. Hence the answer is
(c).
41. American toymaker Mattel on 60th anniversary of International
Women’s Day has released a new range of barbies. With an aim
to help inspire the next generation of girls Indian gymnast Dipa
karmakar has been selected as a Barbie Role Model.
42. As per the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute’s
latest report titled ‘Trends in International Arms Transfers’ Saudi
Arabia has become the largest arms importer in 2014-18. The
imports by Saudi Arabia accounted for 12% of the total imports
during the period from 2014-2018.
43. (a) Lothal was the trading centre during the Indus
Valley Civilization. It had a dockyard for exporting the
products.
44. The 34th edition of Aahar 2019-The international Food and
Hospitality Fair is organized by India. Wide range of food
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433| www.legaledge.in
products, machinery, food and beverages are featured at the 5-day
fair, organized by India Trade Promotion Organization.
45. Black soil (also called black cotton soil) is very fertile, black
in colour, high in organic matter and is often found in
grasslands and wetlands. It is also known as Regur soil.
46. National Crime Records Bureau is headquartered in New Delhi
and works under the Ministry of Home Affairs. It was founded in
1986 and is the government agency for authentic source of data
on crime. Ramphal Pawar is the current director of NCRB.
47. Lunar Reconnaissance Orbiter is a robotic spacecraft of NASA.
Recently Lunar Reconnaissance Orbiter made it to the news as
scientists at the Planetary Science Institute have observed water
molecules moving around the dayside of the Moon using the
same.
48. ‘DOLPHIN’-optical imaging system for finding tiny tumours has
been discovered by Massachusetts Institute of Technology.
‘DOLPHIN’ to track a 0.1-millimetre fluorescent probe through
the digestive tract of a living mouse relies on near infrared light.
49. With an aim to spread global health awareness world Kidney day
is celebrated on 2nd Thursday of March. “Kidney Health for
Everyone Everywhere” was the theme for World Kidney Day
2019.
50. GI tag has been conferred upon Marayoor Jaggery from Idukki
district of Kerala. Name or sign used on certain products owing to
a specific geographical location or origin is termed as
Geographical Indication. It ensures that the name of the popular
product is not used by any other than those registered as
authorised users.
51. With an aim to reduce causalities in Pulwama type attacks,
Institute of Nuclear Medicine and Allied Sciences (INMAS) a
medical laboratory of DRDO has developed ‘combat casualty
drugs’.
52. Dr. Mohammad Shtayyeh has been officially named the Prime
Minister of Palestine by Palestinian President Mohmoud Abbas.
Shtayyeh is a member of the West Bank's dominant Fatah party
and was appointed as the new Prime Minister after Rami al-
Hamdallah tendered his resignation from the post and of his unity
government to President Mahmoud Abbas.
53. At the recently concluded nationwide competition, Smart India
Hackathon, 2019 Students from IIT kharagpur have devised
solutions through which they can detect counterfeit currency to
nuclear radiation.
54. The world's largest and most powerful particle collider and the
largest machine in the world The Large Hadron Collider is
associated with European Organisation for Nuclear Research
(CERN). Large Hadron Collider is in news because a new
experiment designed to look for light and weakly interacting
particles at the LHC has been approved by CERN.
55. Rome Statute is associated with International Criminal Court.
International Criminal Court as established as per the Rome
Statute. On 1st July 2002 was Rome Statute entered into force.
56. First All-female spacewalk at the International Space Station
(ISS) will be carried by NASA. The spacewalk is scheduled on
29th March 2019. on a mission to replace batteries installed last
summer Christina Koch and Anne McClain -will walk outside the
ISS.
On 25th July 1984 Soviet cosmonaut Svetlana Savitskaya became
the first woman to carry out a spacewalk.
57. The 11-member group constituted Insurance Regulatory and
Development Authority of India (IRDAI) and the National Health
Authority (NHA) have formed a Joint Working Group (JWG) to
curb fraud in the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya
Yojana (AB-PMJAY) will be headed by Dinesh Arora.
58. Internationally acclaimed food expert and Indian-American
television personality has been appointed as the UNDP Goodwill
Ambassador.
59. 624 MW Kiru Hydro Electric Project on River Chenab in
Kishtwar district of Jammu & Kashmir (J&K). Recently Cabinet
Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) has recently approved
the investment sanction for construction of the same.
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Mock #36 (Mock CLAT #25)
60. National Mission on Transformative Mobility and Battery
Storage will be headed by Amitabh Kant. The mission with an
aim to promote clean, connected, shared, sustainable and holistic
mobility initiatives has been approved by the Union Cabinet.
61. Ans:-“Trusted Smart Products” was the theme for World
Consumers Day 2019. With an aim to highlight what consumers
want World Consumers Day is observed each year on March 15.
62. The headquarters of National Centre for Good Governance is
located in New Delhi. A Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)
has been signed between National Centre for Good Governance
(NCGG) and Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs to ensure better
utilisation of infrastructure facilities during training programmes.
63. The Andhra Pradesh government has signed a pact with Hewlett
Packard to build a 3D printing centre in the state.
64. PM launched 'Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Mandhan (PM-SYM)
Yojana' i.e national pension scheme for workers and labourers of
unorganised sector was launched on 5th March at Vastral in
Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
65. The first ever Bhagwan Mahavir Ahimsa Puraskar was conferred
upon Indian Air Force Wing Commander Abhinandan
Varthaman. The award was instituted by Indian Air Force Wing
Commander Abhinandan Varthaman.
66. 116 year old Kane Tanaka was conferred as the World’s Oldest
Living Human after the death of Chiyo Miyako who passed away
in July 2018 at the age of 117, earlier being the world’s Oldest
Living Human. Both of them are Japanese Citizens. Guinness
Book of World Records is headquartered in London, United
Kingdoms
67. Legal Affairs Secretary Alok Srivastava has been appointed as
the head of the committee that will recommend a comprehensive
insurance scheme for the welfare of advocates all over the
country to address concerns relating to premature death and
medical insurance.
68. (c) This is done to purify the ring before a match.
They also throw salt before every match, which also acts as
a good disinfectant for their scratches.
69. Indra Mani Pandey is Additional Secretary for Disarmament and
International Security Affairs in Ministry of External Affairs.
Indian Space Agency is Indian Space Research Organization
(ISRO) AND Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) is
Japan’s Space Organization and this bilateral cooperation was
focused on Surveillance and Maritime Domain Awareness.
70. Krishna Kumari Kohli was elected to the Senate of Pakistan in
March 2018, she recently chaired the session of the Upper House
of Parliament on the occasion of the International Women’s Day,
2019. In 2006 first Hindu Women to be elected in the Senate of
Pakistan is Ratna Bhagwandas Chawla.
Pakistan’s Capital – Islamabad,
Currency – Pakistani Rupee
Prime Minister - Imran Khan
71. Subhash Chandra Garg is a 1983 batch IAS officer from Rajasthan
cadre has been designated as the New Finance Secretary. He
currently serves as the Union Economic Affairs Secretary. He will
succeed Ajay Narayan Jha.
72. (b) He is the youngest editor in the history of Indian
journalism. He has also authored books like ‘Men of Steel’,
‘Rude Food’ and ‘India Then and Now’.
73. All India Carrom Federation has been recognized by Union
Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports as National Sport
Federation with effect from 31st March 2019.
74. (c) Christopher Sholes is credited with the invention of
Keyboard, Adam Osborne was the inventor of Laptop,
whereas Shiva Ayyadurai is controversially credited with
inventing email.
75. Dhubri district in Assam on the India Bangladesh Border has
been brought under BOLD-QIT surveillance. The river
Brahmaputra enters into Bangladesh from the region of the
Dhubri sector. The region is home to vast char lands and
innumerable river channels. Especially In the rainy season the
geography makes the border guarding a difficult task and thus
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technology intervention has been envisaged to eliminate
possibility of illegal cross border.
76. (c) ‘Living History’ is the memoir of Hilary Clinton,
published in 2003. Its sales during its first week of
availability set a record for a non-fiction book.
77. Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI) and NGO SpaceIL launched the
unmanned spacecraft Beresheet to Moon from Cape Canaveral. It
is Israel’s First-ever Moon mission that will measure the lunar
magnetic field to understand moon’s formation.
US’s space agency - National Aeronautics and Space
Administration
India’s Space Agency – Indian Space Research Organization
China’s Space Agency – China National Space Administartion
78. (b) It was also referred to as Jahangirnama and was written
in Persian.
79. The high-level committee to review cases against tribals in naxal-
hit areas of Chhattisgarh will be headed by A K Patnaik. The
committee eview cases against tribals who are in prison for
alleged involvement in Left-Wing Extremism (LWE).
80. (b) He is the current president of Republic of India.
81. BOLD-QIT stands for Border electronically dominated quick
response team interception technique. It is a part of the Integrated
Border Management System (CIBMS).
82. (b) Bosons are a class of particles that obey Bose-Einstein
statistics and were named so by Paul Dirac after SN Bose.
83. National Company Law Tribunals are set up under the
Companies Act, 2013 to look after the cases related to
Company’s Law. Recently the Government of India has approved
to establish two more bench of NCLT at Indore for Madhya
Pradesh and Amravati for Andra Pradesh. Earlier cases from
these respective states went before the Ahmedabad Bench and the
Hyderabad Bench respectively. Currently there are 14 benches of
NCLT including the principle bench.
84. (c) Sabeer Bhatia is one of the founders of Hotmail.
SatyaNadella is the current CEO of Microsoft.
VinodKhosla is one of the founders of Sun Microsystems.
85. Recently European Union and the Jawaharlal Nehru University
inaugurated Jean Monnet Centre of Excellence for European
Union Studies in India at the University. Jawaharlal Nehru
University is New Delhi based University which was established
in the year 1969.
86. (a) LalaLajpatRai was an ardent nationalist and a dedicated
social reformer. It was due to his efforts for the Indian
community which earned him the title of “Sher-e-Punjab”.
87. 2019 SAFF i.e. South Asian Football Federation Women’s
Championship is organized by Nepal. The 5th edition has started
in Biratnagar on March 12.
SAFF Women’s Championship is biennial international women’s
football championship. It was founded in the year 2010.
88. (c) The slogan “No taxation without representation” was
raised during the American Revolution in Boston Tea Party
which took place in 1773.
89. Nice agreement is associated with Intellectual Property. Recently
the Union Cabinet for the purposes of registration of marks has
approved the proposal for accession of India to the Nice
agreement concerning the International classification of Goods
and services.
90. (a) The first battle of Panipat was fought in 1526 between
the forces of Babur and Ibrahim Lodhi. It marked the
beginning of the Mughal Empire in India.
91. (a) The man invests Rs. 1200 at 10% p.a.
At the end of 1st year the amount = Rs. 1320
30
Withdrawal × 1320 + 24 = Rs. 420
100
Amount at the end of second year
= 900 × 1.1 = 𝑅𝑠. 990
30
Withdrawal = × 990 + 93 = 𝑅𝑠. 390
100
∴ Amount at the end of 3 years
= 600 × 1.1 = 𝑅𝑠. 660
Page 4 of 8
Mock #36 (Mock CLAT #25)

92. (d) Total of Ist 10 students = 12.5 × 10 (∵ AB = x from Eq. (2))

= 125 𝑥 (√3 − 1) = 5
Total of other 20 students = 13.1 × 20 5 5(√3+1)
𝑥= =
= 262 (√3−1) 2

Total = 387 = 6.83 m

𝐴𝐶 3
Average = 387/30 100. (c) =
𝑊 2
= 12.9 years W = AC – 6000
93. (d)Let y = 𝑛3 − 7𝑛2 + 11𝑛 − 5 ⇒ W=
3𝑊
− 6000
2
At n = 1, y = 0
⇒ 2W = 3W – 12000
∴ (n – 1) (𝑛2 − 6𝑛 + 5) = (𝑛 − 1)2 (𝑛 − 5)
⇒ W = 12000
Now, (𝑛 − 1)2 is always positive.
101. (d) Let speed of two trains are S1 and S2
Also, for n < 5, the expression gives a negative quantity. 100+80 180
Therefore, the least value of n will be 6. ∴ S1 + S2 = = = 20 …(i)
9 9
100+80 180
Hence, m = 6. S1 – S2 = = = 10 …(ii)
18 18
94. (b) LCM of 5 and 4 = 20 units On solving (i) and (ii)
20
Unit work of pipe A = = 4 units ∴ 2S1 = 30
5
20 18
Unit work of pipe B = = 5 units S1 = 15 15m/sec = 15× = 54 km/hr
4 5
18
When both pipes are opened together, total unit work of A ∴ S2 = 5m/sec = 5× = 18 km/hr
5
and B= 4 + (-5) = -1 unit 102. (a) According to question
20
So, time taken by both pipes = = 20 hours Given:
1
95. (b) Let she invest for x year.
A sum will be double when interest is equal to principal.
9535×4×𝑥
∴ 9535 =
100
=> 4x = 100
=> x = 25 years.
96. (c)Let length of train B is x meter.
Length of train A AB = CD = 8 cm
5
= 54 × × 6 = 90 m R = 5 cm
18
∴ Length of train B ∴ In ∆OMB
5 OB2 = OM 2 + MB2
= × 54 × 18 − 90
18 r 2 = OM 2 + 16
= 180m 25 – 16 = OM 2
97. (b) According to the question, OM 2 = 25 – 16
Divisor = 25 × Quotient OM 2 = 9
Divisor = 25 × 16 = 400 OM = 3
Also, divisor = 5 × Remainder ∴ MN = 2× OM
400
∴ Remainder = = 80 MN = 2 × 3 = 6 cm
5
∴ Dividend = divisor × Quotient +Remainder 103. (a) Total number of ways in which we can choose 2 cards
= 16 × 400 +80 = 6400 +80 = 6480 from 52 cards is =
7 n(S) = 52 × 51/2
98. (b) Water quantity in first case = × 48 liter
20
17 = 1326.
Water quantit in second case = × 42 liter Let A be the event of getting both black cards.
35
Total water quantity in 90 liter of mixture Let B event of getting both queens
7×48 17×42 186
= + = liter (A ∩ B) is the event of getting queens of black cards
20 35 5
After adding of 20 liter of water the quantity will be ⇒n(A) =26C2.
=
186
+ 20 =
286 We have 26 black cards from that we have to choose 2
5 5 cards.
Quantity of wine in 110 liter of mixture
286 264 ⇒n(A)=26C2⇒n(A)=26C2
= 110- = = 26 × 25/2 = 325
5 5
264 286
∴ Required ratio = : = 12 ∶ 13 From 52 cards we have 4 queens.
5 5
99. (c) Let the height of the tower be x m. ⇒n(B)=4C2⇒n(B)=4C2
= 4!/(2! × 2!) = 6
⇒n(A ∩ B) =
⇒P(A) = n(A) /n(S) =325/1326
⇒P(B) = n(B)/n(S) = 6/1326
⇒P(A ∩ B) = n(A ∩ B)/n(S) = 1/1326
⇒P(A U B) = P(A) +P(B) - P(A∩B)
325 6 1
= + −
1326 1326 1326
= 330/1326
𝐵𝐷 (5+𝑥)
= tan 60° = = ……(i) ⇒P(A U B) = 55/221
𝐴𝐵 𝐴𝐵
= tan 45° =
𝑥
….(ii) 104. (a) Let cost price be Rs. 100 and total number of articles= 4
𝐴𝐵 Total cost price = 4× 100 = Rs. 400
From Eq. (i),
Marked price = 100 ×1.2 = 120
AB × tan 60° = (5 + x)
𝑥 × √3 =(5 + x)
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Mock #36 (Mock CLAT #25)

Total selling price = 2 × 120 + 1 × (120 − 24) + 1 × (120 − 116. (c) Three
48)=408 Forward - OS, MO
Profit % =
408−400
× 100 = 2% Reverse – OP
400 117. (b) 4 km
105. (c) Let initially speed of Heena = 4x 118. (a) Two
Let initially speed of Renu = 2x 674, 522, 427, 386, 286
∴ Time will be same when Renu catches Heena. 874, 722, 627, 586, 486
50 𝑑 50+𝑑
+ = 119. (b) 386
4𝑥 𝑥 2𝑥
50+4𝑑 50+𝑑 674, 522, 427, 386, 286
= => 50 + 4𝑑 = 100 + 2𝑑 764, 522, 742, 863, 862
4𝑥 2𝑥
2d = 50 => d = 25 120. (a) 2
∴ Required distance (N) = 100 – (50 + 25) = 25m 674, 522, 427, 386, 286
106. (d) The volume of prism = the area of base height 8/4 = 2
√3 121. (b) S
108√3 = × (6)2 × Height
4 Q>S>P>R(2000)>T
108 ×4
⟹ Height = 122. (d) T
36
= 12 cm 123. (d) Other than those given as options
107. (d) No of factors = 3×3×3=27 (powers should be multiple 124. (a) None
of 3)= 27 − 2(𝑖𝑛𝑐𝑙𝑢𝑑𝑒𝑠 1 & 𝑁) = 25 125. (a) ©
126. (c) 9
108. (d) For an income of Re. 1 in 12% stock at 120, investment =
96 127. (d) 5QM
( ) =Rs. 10. 128. (a) Only I is true
6
For an income of Re.1 in 12% stock at 120, investment = Rs. 129. (d) Neither I nor II is true
120 130. (b) Only II is true
( ) = Rs. 10.
12 131. (c) Only conclusion I is true
32
∴ Ratio of investments = : 10 = 32:30 = 16: 15 Hint (Q.132):
3
109. (d) Let LCM be x and HCF be y. A is husband of H.
According to the question. A is brother-in-law of G.
LCM = 20 × HCF Q is son of A and H.
i.e., x = 20 y T is husband of M.
and x + y = 2520 T is father of G and H.
Putting the value of x, we get 132. (a) Q is son of H and H is mother of Q.
20y + y = 2520 G is brother of H. So, Q is nephew of G.
 21y = 2520 133. (b) RPCRZG
2520 134. (a) 20
 Y= = 120
21 X4W
∴ LCM = x = 120 × 20 = 2400 15 --- from right
LCM × HCF = Product of two numbers 14 X 4 W 14
2400 × 120 = 480 × 𝑥, 𝑥 = 600 W - 20th
110. (d) Time difference between 3 am on Sunday and 10 am on 135. (c) XK
Tuesday = 2 days and 7 hours 136. (c) Three
= 48 + 7 = 55 hours.
We know that the clock gains 12 seconds in 3 hours, i.e. 4
seconds in 1 hour.
Hence, in 55 hours, it will gain 55 × 4 seconds = 220
seconds.
Hence, At 10 am on Tuesday it will show 10:03:40 am

111. (d) 4
137. (d) E sits second to the right of F
Person Day Time State 138. (a) G,B
139. (b) D
G Mon 9.00 AM Karnataka 140. (c) E
B Mon 5.00 PM Gujarat Hint (Q.141-Q.145):
Floor Persons Salary
I Tue 9.00 AM UP
7 G 26000
D Tue 5.00 PM MP 6 B 31000
E Wed 9.00 AM HP 5 A 16000
4 E 23000
C wed 5.00 PM AP 3 D 41000
F Thu 9.00 AM TN 2 F 11000
A Thu 5.00 PM Kerala 1 C 36000
141. (d) Rs. 31000
H Fri 9.00 AM J&K 142. (a) A – 16000
J Fri 5.00 PM West Bengal 143. (c) D
144. (d) F – 41000
112. (d) E 145. (b) C
113. (d) G – Wednesday
114. (b) J
115. (c) F,A

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Mock #36 (Mock CLAT #25)
146. (d)
147. (d)
148. (d) All desks are tables conversion Some tables are desks
At least some tables are desks. Therefore, conclusion I
follows. Again, All desks are tables + Some tables are
chairs = A + I = No conclusions. But, a relationship between
‘desk’ and ‘chair’ exists. Therefore, ‘Some desks being
chairs is a possibility’ i.e. conclusion II follows.
149. (c) Some books are diaries (I) → conversion → Some
diaries are books (I) + No book is library = I + E = O =
Some diaries are no libraries. Therefore neither conclusion
I nor conclusion II follows. But both conclusions from I – E
type of complementary pair. Therefore, either conclusion I
or II follows.
150. (b) No bank is a school (E) + Some schools are colleges
(I) =E+I =O* = Some colleges are not bank. It means All
banks being colleges is a possibility. Hence, conclusion II
follows. But conversion of 2nd statement does not lead to
conclusion I.
151. Sasha had the intent because he thought it would be
funny. Hence, the battery suit will succeed.
152. Abha knew with reasonable degree of certainty that her
action would result in the unwanted or offensive contact.
So that gives rise to liability.
153. Truth is the ultimate defense in a proceeding for
defamation. Hence stating and proving the truthfulness of
their claim would be the best defense for the newspaper
in question.
154. The transport of the hockey team of the armed forces
doesn’t count as a part of sovereign function of the
government. Thus, the car owner is very well within his
right to sue the government for the accident.
155. The principle elaborates that if in the exercise of the right
of private defence against an assault which reasonably
causes the apprehension of death, the defender be so
situated that he cannot effectually exercise that right
without risk of harm to an innocent person, his right of
private defence extends to the running of that risk.
However, in the instant case, it is clear that Tomar risked
harm to the innocent pedestrian even when it was not
necessary. Thus, his right of private defence does not
extend to risking the life of that pedestrian.
156. In the instant case, the same principle applies. The
scenario is different from the previous one though, since
here, Ramesh cannot effectually exercise his right of
private defence without risking harm to the innocent
people in the fair. Hence, the answer would change and it
would be in the affirmative, i.e. Ramesh’s right of private
defence would extend to risking harm to the other people
in the fair.
157. As per the Principles and facts given, it is evident that the
gatherings at Kangar and Khairabad were the ones that
fulfilled the criteria to be called “unlawful assemblies” for
the gathering at Sublar fell short of the minimum number
of people required to constitute an unlawful assembly.
158. As per PrincipleI(i), when an assembly of 5 or more
persons is designated an “unlawful assembly”, if the
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common object of the persons composing the assembly is
to overawe by criminal force, or show of criminal force any
public servant in the exercise of the lawful power of such
public servant. Further, Principle II states that an assembly
which was not unlawful when it assembled, may
subsequently become an unlawful assembly. In the instant
case, while Kishore and his aides had not assembled with
an unlawful intention, they converted the assembly into an
unlawful one when they attacked the police inspector.
159. As per the facts and Principles given, it may be deduced
that the assembly at Khairabad was formed with an
unlawful intention to begin with and thus, Principle II would
not apply here. Moreover, merely because more than five
people were present did not make the assembly unlawful.
It was an unlawful assembly by virtue of Principle I.
160. Priya entered into the agreement voluntarily. Moreover, it
does not matter whether the value of consideration was
huge or not. It had some worth in the eyes of law and
therefore the agreement was legal and binding and hence
cannot be cancelled by Priya.
161. Earthquake is an act of God, but that defense is only
available when a person has taken all the reasonable care
and precaution. However, in this case it was known that the
nuclear power plant was built in a seismic zone having a
record of high intensity earthquakes. Even when this was of
common knowledge, cement which is not suitable for
building a nuclear power plant was used. This was clearly a
negligent act.
162. A storm in an act of God and NFFO could not have
reasonably foreseen it. They even took reasonable
measures to ensure everybody’s safety. Hence, they should
not be made liable for the injuries sustained by the people.
163. Tullika cannot challenge the fact that she is not appointed
merely because she has the correct qualification- every
recruiter is allowed some subjective judgment. These tests
do not check programming ability or any other requirement
for the position. The test conducted were frivolous and not in
accordance to the position offered and therefore Tullika can
challenge the recruitment policy.
164. Direct application of principle.
165. The answer is (a).
166. The property of the apartment was entitled to be used by
the General Manager (the person holding the post), and not
just by Mr. Mehra. Hence a tort of conversion committed.
167. There are two separate contracts in this case, one is a
contract of mortgage between A and B and the other one is
a contract of sale between A and X. B being a stranger to
the contract between A and X does not get the right to sue.
168. The Principle justifies use of reasonable force which should
be proportionate to the apprehended danger. The facts state
that on seeing Ravi’s revolver, Mariyan ran away. Thus,
there was no longer any danger from him. Therefore, use of
force by Ravi then was not justified and he shall be punished
169. Applying the Principle directly, Shivappa is entitled to Rs.
10,000 as according to the agreement 5% commission was
to be paid in case of sale of the house. Since the original
agreement (of finding a tenant, and not a buyer) was no more
in place, the original terms would no longer apply to the
present case.
170. A simple application of the principle to the facts will fetch the
correct answer. Since TCA was not in force when the alleged
offence was committed, the act of keeping undeclared
jewellery was perfectly legal. No government notification
which gives a retrospective effect can make such an act
illegal. Had this been a real case, such a notification or the
retrospective effect of the Act (TCA) would have been shot
down as unconstitutional by the Courts.
171. One should understand that prosecution and questioning by
the police officials are not one and the same thing. The
former implies prosecution by a court of law. Since the case
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Mock #36 (Mock CLAT #25)
instituted against her was actually the first prosecution, DM
cannot claim that her right against double jeopardy has been
violated.
172. Option (c) is correct as according to Principle I, to be a
citizen of India one must be ordinarily resident in India and
a) was born in the territory of India or b) either of whose
parents were born in the territory of India or c) has been
ordinarily a resident in the territory of India 5 years
immediately preceding commencement. Raghu’s Father
was born in Thiruvananthapuram and he was now living
ordinarily in India for more than 5 years since he has
completed his law education.
173. Option (b) is correct. According to the principle, the right
against self-incrimination is not available if a person is forced
to provide physical evidence like blood sample, DNA or
fingerprints. In the given fact situation, the police can force a
suspect to provide fingerprints by force if he refuses to
willingly provide it.
174. Since the tag of Bengal imparts no special quality to the
delicacy (which is prepared from ingredients available all
over Central and East India) it does not qualify for a
Geographical Indication.
175. The right to information includes the person's right to know
the details of public expenditure. The Proctor cannot refuse
to provide such information
176. The factory owner is responsible for the death of the thief
becausewhat he did was in excess of what he was required
to do to protect his property. Electrification of the boundary
wall is such a dangerous act in itself that it may cause more
harm than required in order to protect one's property.
177. A surety can claim the guarantee amount from the principal
debtor.
178. The crime here is theft. Cheating involves an element of
deceiving the victim to cause him to voluntarily do something
that result in damage to himself. That is not the case here.
There is no voluntary conduct on the part of A. [If this were
to be broken down into the exact terms of s. 415, it could be
said that A did not deliver the book to B or allow him to keep
it. Nor in fact did he do anything that he would not ordinarily
have done under the influence of B's deception. He looked
away for a moment.] B dishonestly removed the book from
A's possession with a view to taking ft. The answer is (a).
179. Here, the custom officer was negligent in their service and
hence, the govt. can be held liable vicariously.
180. Y's action will fail because given the wording of the circular,
it would be impossible to assume that a reasonable man
would infer the meaning alleged by Y. Further, there is
nothing unreasonable or lawfully unjustified about a firm
informing its customers about the identity of the bank whose
service they employ.
181. Since Trial Court had issued summons to C for appearance
in Court; it became a statutory duty to comply and as per
Principle I, the same is not valid consideration.
182. Option (a) best encapsulates Principle II.
183. By plain application of Principle I, option (c) is the best option
available. EastSide’s agreement is not ‘legally enforceable’
184. Option (a) is not wrong. However, as given in Principle II,
such a contract is voidable at the option of the minor;
therefore option (d) becomes the best answer. Option (c) is
ruled out because although ‘clothes’ are termed as
necessaries, but a Rs. 4000/- shirt is a luxury and not a
necessity.
185. Direct application of Principle III.
186. The Concurrent List contains topics on which both the
State and the Union Legislature can legislate. However, if
there are any clashes, the law passed by the Union shall
prevail.
187. This was done by the Morarji Desai led government to
make sure National Emergency is not proclaimed by any
government on frivolous grounds.
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188. The Doctrine of Basic Structure was propounded by the
Constitutional bench of Supreme Court in the
Keshwananda Bharti v. State of Kerala in 1973.
189. Article 148 of the Constitution provides for the position of
Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India and is
appointed by the President of India.
190. The Constituent Assembly of India was made in order to
prepare the Constitution of India. The Assembly had a total
of eleven sessions, the first one being held on December
9, 1946. It took 2 years 11 months and 18 days to prepare
the draft Constitution on November 26, 1949.
191. Prorogation means the termination of a session of the
House by an order made by the President under article 85
of the Constitution. An adjournment terminates the sitting
of the House which meets again at the time appointed for
the next sitting. Dissolution of the House means the end of
the life of the LokSabha either by an order made by the
President under article of the Constitution or on the expiry
of the 5 year period.
192. Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of seats in the
RajyaSabha, the Upper House of the Parliament. Seats in
RajyaSabha are allotted in proportion to the population in
the state. Uttar Pradesh has a total of 31 elected members
in the RajyaSabha.
193. The word ‘Secularism’ literally meant the non-involvement
of the Church in the affairs of the State and required the
religion to be kept outside the public education system.
The word finds its place in the Preamble to the Indian
Constitution. It promotes the idea that the State has no
religion and thus treats everyone equally.
194. Consolidated fund is the chief account of the Government
of India. No amounts can be withdrawn from the fund
without the authorisation from the parliament. Fund is
formed under the provision of Article 266(1) of Indian
Constitution and provision of Article 266(3) states that no
money can be appropriated from consolidated funds
except in accordance with law.
195. The Directive Principles of State Policy are the guidelines
or principles given to the central and state governments of
India, to be kept in mind while framing laws and policies.
These provisions, contained in Part IV of the Constitution
of India, are not enforceable by any court, but the
principles laid down therein are considered fundamental in
the governance of the country, making it the duty of the
State to apply these principles in making laws to establish
a just society in the country.
196. If the President of India is convinced that the Anglo Indian
Community is not correctly and properly represented in the
LokSabha, he may nominate not more than two members
of that community to the House of People, under Article
331.
197. Under the Article 192, it has been mentioned that that if
any question arises as to whether or not the member of a
house of the Legislature of a state has become subject to
any of the disqualification criteria, the question shall be
cited to the Governor of the State for decision who will act
as per the opinion of the Election Commission. His
decision shall be final and may not be reviewed by any
court of law.
198. During Emergency imposed under Articles 352 and 356 of
the Constitution of India (not under Article 360), the
Parliament has temporary powers of making laws under
matters enumerated in the State list.
199. The Gram Nyayalaya, established by the State
Government is established for circles. Such circles usually
comprise of ten or more Gram Panchayats of the
respective states.
200. Prior to holding the office as the Chief Justice of the
Supreme Court of India, he was the Chief Justice of the
Federal Court of India, which was the predecessor of
Supreme Court of India
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