Reviewer

COMPILATION OF REVIEW QUESTIONS IN GENERAL ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS AND
ALLIED SCIENCES
1. Mechanical Engineering, in the fulfillment of B. Questionable reputation

their professional duties, shall hold paramount C. Different profession
the safety, health, and ____of the public. D. Suspicious behavior
A. Interest 6. A mechanical engineer shall inform his client or

B. Ideals employer the ff., which may influence his
C. Welfare judgement, or impair the quality or character of
D. Ethical standards his services,except,
2. The mechanical engineer shall, in the practice of A. Business contracts

his profession, be guided by the ______, the B. Business connections
ideals of service to man and his environment, C. Business interests
and the need to secure unwavering public D. Business affiliations
confidence in his professional competence,
integrity and humanity. 7. The Code of Ethical and Professional Standards
for the practice of Mechanical Engineering
A. Rile of Law profession had taken effect how many days
B. Golden Rule following its publication in full in the Official
C. Murphy’s Rule Gazette or in a newspaper of general circulation,
D. General Rule whichever came earlier.
3. The mechanical engineer shall be ready to render A. 7

the services needed for the development of the B. 15
resources of the country and to offer his C. 14
mechanical devices and inventions essential or D. 10
necessary for,
8. Personnel required in a mechanical plant of
A. National Security 200kW capacity per shift.
B. National Welfare
C. National Interest A. 1CPM
D. National Defense B. 1RME
C. 1PME
4. The mechanical engineer shall be well-informed D. Any of the ff.
of the latest technological progress in his own
line of work. He shall encourage or require 9. Under Transitory Provisions of the ME Law,
whenever appropriate the use or application of faculty members teaching ME professional
standard mechanical equipment, machinery, or subjects shall not be allowed to continue
process for safety, economy, and, teaching after 5 years from the approval of the
law unless they become PME or RME with,
A. Durability
B. Reliability A. Master of Science in Mechanical
C. Efficiency Engineering
D. Dependability B. Master of Engineering major in Mechanical
Engineering
5. The mechanical engineer shall refrain from C. Master of Engineering Education major in
associating with or allowing the use of his name Mechanical Engineering
by, and any person or entity of, D. Any of the above
A. Unprofessional conduct
ALLIED SCIENCES
C. Three semesters
D. One year
10. The newest member of the board of mechanical

engineering. 16. How many articles do the new ME Law consists
of?
A. Engr. Po
B. Engr. Palisbo A. 4
C. Engr. Soliman B. 5
D. Engr. Evangelista C. 6
D. 7
11. The article in the ME Law with the most number
of section. 17. The mew ME Law was approved during the
presidency of,
A. Article I
B. Article II A. Fidel Ramos
C. Article III B. Joseph Estrada
D. Article IV C. Gloria Arroyo
D. Corazon Aquino
12. Article I of the ME Law with the least number of
sections. How many sections does it have? 18. At the time the new ME law was signed, the
Senate President was,
A. 2
B. 3 A. Fraklin Drilon
C. 4 B. Jose De Venecia
D. 5 C. Neotali Gonzales
D. Marcelo Fernan
13. The official seal adopted by the board of
Mechanical Engineering. 19. Under thr Creation and composition of the BME,
the Chairman and two members are to be
A. Hero’s steam engine appointed by the President of the Philippines
B. Hero’s steam turbine from a list of 3 recommenders for each position
C. Hero’s steam generator by PRC from a list of how many nominees
D. Hero’s steam cylinder submitted by PSME?
14. The term of office of a BME is 3 year term, with A. 4

possible reappointment, but no more than, B. 5
C. 6
A. 4 regular terms D. 7
B. 3 regular terms
C. 2 regular terms 20. The personnel required in mechanical plants of
D. 1 regular terms above 2000kW capacity with 3 shifts.
15. A Mechanical Engineering board examinee, A. 1PME

failing for the third time, will only be allowed to B. 1PME or 1RME
take another board exam after lapse of, C. 3PMEs
D. 3PMEs or 3RMEs
A. One semester
B. Two years
ALLIED SCIENCES
A. Is zero at the centroidal axis

B. Increase as the distance of the axis moves
farther from the centroid
C. Decrease as the distance of the axis moves
21. A real number which can expressed as a quotient farther from the centroid
of an integer by a nonzero integer. D. Is maximum at the centroidal axis
A. Irrational 27. A point on the curve where the first derivative of

B. Complex number the function is zero and the second derivative is
C. Rational number negative is a:
D. Ordinary number
A. Minimum point
22. Identify the locus of the equation B. Inflection poin
2 2
x +4y +4xy+x-1/2=0 C. Intersection point
D. Maximum point
A. Ellipse
B. Circle 28. The chord passing through the focus of the
C. Parabola parabola and perpendicular to its axis is termed
D. Hyperbola
A. Foci
23. When a circle rolls externally on the B. Latus rectum
circumference of a second, fixed circle, any point C. Translated axis
P on the circumference of the rolling circle D. Directrix
describes:
29. The momentum of a moving object is the
A. Hypocycloid product of its mass and velocity. Newton’s
B. Epicycloids second law of motion says that the rate of change
C. Cycloid of momentum with respect to time is:
D. Involutes
A. Power
24. The axis of the hyperbola that passes through the B. Impulse
foci, vertices and center is called; C. Energy
D. Force
A. Asymptote
B. Major axis 30. A free falling body is a body in rectilinear
C. Conjugate axis motion with constant________.
D. Transverse axis
A. Velocity
25. A form of matter which cannot be separated into B. Speed
two or more other forms of matter except by C. Jerk
means of a chemical process. D. Acceleration
A. Pure substance 31. It is the sequence of numbers such that the

B. Solution successive terms differ by a common constant
C. Mixture ratio.
D. None of these
A. Arithmetic progression
26. The moment of inertia of a plane figure: B. Infinite progression
C. Harmonic progression
ALLIED SCIENCES
D. Geometric progression C. Circumference

D. Incenter
38. The sum of the sides of a polygon is called

32. If the first derivative of the equation of the curve
is a constant, then the given curve is a;
A. Apothem
B. Circumference
A. Circle
C. Perimeter
B. Straight line
D. Area
C. Parabola
D. Hyperbola
39. A frequency curve which is composed of a series
of rectangles constructed with the steps as the
33. The median of a triangle is the line connecting a
base and the frequency as the height.
vertex and the midpoint of the opposite side. For
a given triangle, these medians intersect at a
A. Histogram
point which is called_______.
B. Ogive
A. Orthocenter
C. Frequency distribution
B. Incenter
D. Bar graph
C. Centroid
D. Circumference
40. Equations relating x and y that cannot readily be
solve for y as a function of x or for x as a
34. If the sum of two angles is o90, the angle is said
function of y. such equation may none the less
to be________.
determine y as a function of x or vise versa. Such
function is called_____.
A. Supplementary angles
B. Complementary angles
A. Logarithmic function
C. Explementary angles
B. Implicit function
D. Quadrantal angles
C. Continuous function
D. Explicit function
35. One nautical mile is equivalent to______.
41. In physics, if Lf and Lv are the latent heat of
A. 5280ft
fussion and vaporization, respectively. Which of
B. 6280ft
the following equations apply in determining the
C. 1.256 statute miles
amount of heat needed to freeze a liquid?
D. 1.854km
A. q= -mLf
36. The hydrostatic force on a submerged surface is
B. q= -mLv
acting at what point?
C. q= mLf
D. q=mLv
A. Center of force
B. Center of buoyancy
42. When the two waves of the same frequency
C. Center of pressure
speed and amplitude traveling in opposite
D. Center of gravity
direction are superimposed,
37. The angular bisector of the sides of a triangle

A. The phase difference is always zero
intersects at the point which is known as_____.
B. Distractive waves are produced
C. Standing waves are produced
A. Orthocenter
D. Constructive interference always results
B. Centroid
ALLIED SCIENCES
43. In matrix operation, when the corresponding in depreciation or thr reduction of debt by either
elements of two row of a matrix are proportional, periodic or irregular prearranged program is
then the value of the determinant is: called:
A. Undefined A. Amortization
B. Zero B. Annuity
C. Multiplied by the ratio C. Depreciation
D. Divided by the ratio D. Capital recovery
44. If the second derivative of the equation of a 49. A mathematical expression or tabular relation
curve is equal to the negative of the equation of that expresses the interaction of technical and
that sane curve, then the curve is______. economic variable applying to a specific
problem.
A. A sinusoid
B. A paraboloid A. Economic goal
C. A cissoid B. Economic return
D. A exponential C. Economic model
D. Earning value
45. To maximize the horizontal range of the

projectile, which of the following applies?
50. An economic concept concerned with this
A. Maximize velocity\ elements of cost and revenue associated directly
B. Maximize the angle of elevation and with a specific cost of action, normally using
velocity available current cost and revenue as a base and
C. Maximize the angle of elevation usually independent of traditional accounting
D. The tangent of the angle of trajectory must allocation procrdures.
be equal to one
A. Economic analysis
46. The locus of points which moves so that the sum B. Replacement analysis
of its distance between two fixed point is C. Marginal analysis
constant. D. Investment analysis
A. Circle
B. Parabola
C. Ellipse
D. Hyperbola
47. The chord passing though the focus of the

parabola and perpendicular to its axis is termed
A. Directrix
B. Translated axis
C. Latus rectum
D. Foci
48. As applied to capitalized asset, the distribution of

the initial cost by periodicchanges to operation as
ALLIED SCIENCES
37. D incenter
38. C perimeter
ANSWERS:
39. A histogram
1. C welfare 40. B implicit function
2. B Golden Rule 41. A q=mLf
3. D national defense 42. C standing waves are produce
4. C efficiency 43. B zero
5. B questionable reputation 44. A a sinusoid
6. A business contracts 45. D the tangent of the angle of
7. B 15 trajectory must be equal to one
8. D any of the ff. 46. C ellipse
9. D any of the above 47. C latus rectum
10. B Engr. Palisbo 48. A amortization
11. C Article III 49. C economic model
12. B 3 50. C marginal analysis
13. A Hero’s steam engine
14. C 2 regular terms
15. D one year
16. B 5
17. A Fidel Ramos
18. C Neptali Gonzales
19. B 5
20. C 3PMEs
21. C rational number
22. C parabola
23. B epicycloid
24. D transverse axis
25. A pure substance
26. B Increase as the distance of the axis
moves farther from the centroid
27. D maximum point
28. B latus rectum
29. D force
30. D acceleration
31. D geometric progression
32. B straight line
33. C centroid
34. B complementary angles
35. D 1.854km
36. C center of pressure
ALLIED SCIENCES
1. An investment analysis that compares the present A. Value added tax

worth of projected receipts and disbursements B. Real state tax
occurring at designated future times in order to C. Ad valorem tax
estimate the rate of return from the investment or D. Import tariff tax
project.
7. Are payroll costs other than wages not directly to
A. Discounted cash flow the employee? These include holidays, pensions,
B. Engineering estimates insurance, savings plans etc.
C. Earning value
D. Market analysis A. Paternal benefits
B. Fringe benefits
2. The hydrostatic force on a submerged surface is C. Assurance benefits
acting at what point? D. Health benefits
A. Center of force 8. Is the law established by legislation through the

B. Center of buoyancy legislative branch of the government
C. Center of pressure
D. Center of gravity A. Constitutional law
B. Criminal law
3. The angular bisector of the sides of a triangle C. Statute law
intersects at the point which is known as____. D. Administrative law
A. Orthocenter 9. The change, substitution or renewal of an

B. Centroid obligatory relation, with the intention of
C. Circumference extinguishing or modifying essentially the
D. Incenter former
4. The sum of all sides of a polygon is called A. Renewal

B. Novation
A. Apothem C. Innovation
B. Circumference D. All of these
C. Perimeter
D. Area 10. This device utilized the phenomenon of
persistence of vision when object is viewed
5. It occurs at one critically low market prices, intermittently.
where the perfectly competitive firm just
recovers its variable costs of production. Below A. Microscope
this price it will produce nothing. B. Stroboscope
C. Stratoscope
A. Break-even point D. Netoscope
B. Shot-down point
C. Starting point 11. If a triangle is inscribed in a circle and one side
D. A and B of the triangle is the diameter of the circle, then
the triangle is:
6. Is the property taxes and other taxes usually
recur annually and receive the same A. Oblique
mathematical treatment in an economic study as B. Right
expenses like maintenance and repairs C. Isosceles
D. Equilateral
ALLIED SCIENCES
12. It is a polyhedron of which two faces are equal A. Bonds

polygons in parallel planes and the other faces B. T-bills
are parallelograms. C. Certificate of deposits
A. Tetrahedron D. All of the above
B. Prism
C. Frustum 18. The amount of company’s profits that the board
D. Prismanoid of directors of the corporation decides to
distribute to ordinary share holders.
13. The locus of points generated when a circle is
made to roll externally along the circumference A. Dividend
of another circle. B. Return
C. Share of stock
A. Cissoids of diocles D. Par value
B. Folium of Descartes
C. Epicycloids 19. A financial summary showing the relationship
D. Cardioids among assets, liabilities, and ownership in the
corporation on a specific date.
14. The family of curves which intersect a given
family of curves at an angle less than 90o are A. Income tax return
called: B. Balance sheet
C. Bookkeeping records
A. Orthogonal D. Accounting cost
B. Intersecting curves
C. Isogonal 20. Which of the following is not a theorem on
D. Acute angle limits?
15. The momentum of a moving object is the A. The limit of the algebraic sum of several
product of its mass(m) and velocity(v). Newton’s functions is equal to the sum of their limits
Law of Motion says that the rate of change of B. The limit of the product of several function
momentum with respect to time is: is equal to the production of their limits
C. The limit of the difference of several
A. Power functions is equal to the difference of their
B. Momentum limits
C. Energy D. The limit of the quotient of two functions is
D. Force equal to the quotient of their limits, provided
the denominator is not zero
16. The loss of weight of a body submerged in a
fluid is: 21. What is the figure that will give the largest area
that can be inscribed in a circle?
A. Proportional to the weight of the body
B. Proportional to the depth of submergence A. Triangle
C. Equal to the weight of the fluid displaced B. Square
D. Independent of the volume of the body C. Rectangle
D. Pentagon
17. A form of fixed-interest security issued by
central or local government, companies, banks or 22. When a homogeneous, flexible cord is held at the
other institutions. They are usually a form of two ends and allowed to sag freely on its own
long term security, but may be irredeemable.
ALLIED SCIENCES
weight, it will produce a curve very similar to a 28. When a circle rolls externally on the
parabola opening upwards. What is this curve? circumference of a second, fixed circle, any point
P on the circumference of the rolling circle
A. Parabola describes_________.
B. Catenary
C. Cycloid A. Hypocycloid
D. Epicycloids B. Epicycloids
C. Cycloid
D. Involute
23. What is the oldest Mechanical Engineering Law?
29. A thermometer reading 18oF brought into a room
A. Commonwealth act 394 whose temperature is 70oF. One minute later the
B. Commonwealth act 594 reading is 31oF. Find the reading 5min after the
C. Commonwealth act 294 thermometer is first brought to the room.
D. Commonwealth act 894
A. 82F
24. The energy change that occurs when electron is B. 108F
added to gaseous atom or ion is called C. 58F
D. 42F
A. Electromotive force
B. Electron capture 30. The locus of points which move so that the sum
C. Electron density of its distance between two fixed point is
D. Electron affinity constant.
25. Hydrogen containing one or more carbon-carbon A. Circle

triple bond B. Parabola
C. Ellipse
A. Alkynes D. Hyperbola
B. Alkenes
C. Alkanes 31. The chord passing through the focus of the
D. None of these parabola and perpendicular to its axis is termed
as:
26. A straight line drawn from two circles such that
the tangents drawn from any point of this line to A. Directrix
the two circles are of equal length. B. Translated axis
C. Latus rectum
A. Transverse axis D. Foci
B. Conjugate
C. Radical axis 32. The path traced by a given point on the
D. Major axis circumference of a circle that rolls along a line.
27. A regular polygon which has 54 diagonals is A. Cycloid

called B. Hypocycloid
C. Involute
A. Bidecagon D. Ellipse
B. Dodecagon
C. Icosahedrons 33. As applied to capitalized asset, the distribution of
D. Pentadecagon the initial cost by periodic or irregular
prearranged program is called:
ALLIED SCIENCES
C. -3/2
A. Amortization D. -2.5
B. Annuity
C. Depreciation 39. Find the volume generated by revolving about
D. Capital recovery the x-axis the area bounded by the hyperbola
34. A mathematical expression or tabular relation xy=a2, the line x=a, and the x-axis.
that expresses the interaction of technical and
economical variable applying to a specific A. 𝜋a3
problem. B. 2𝜋a2
C. 3𝜋a3
A. Economic goal D. 1.5 𝜋a3
B. Economic return
C. Economic model 40. Mechanical Engineers, in the fulfillment of their
D. Earning value professional duties, shall hold paramount the
safety, health, and _____ of the public.
35. An economic concept concerned with this
elements of cost and revenue associated directly A. Interest
with a specific cost of action, normally using B. Ideals
available current cist and revenue as a base, and C. Welfare
usually independent of traditional accounting D. Ethical standards
allocation procedures.
41. The mechanical engineer shall, in the practice of
A. Economic analysis his profession, be guided by the ______, the
B. Replacement analysis ideals of service to man and his environment,
C. Marginal analysis and the need to secure unwavering public
D. Investment analysis confidence in his professional competence,
integrity and humanity.
36. An investment analysis that compares the present
worth of projected receipts and disbursements A. Rile of Law
occurring at designated future times in order to B. Golden Rule
estimate the rate from the investment or project. C. Murphy’s Rule
D. General Rule
A. Discounted cash flow
B. Engineering estimates 42. The mechanical engineer shall be ready to render
C. Earning value the services needed for the development of the
D. Market analysis resources of the country, and to offer his
mechanical devices and inventions essential or
37. A program of action undertaken as a result of necessary for
established policy to influence the final decision.
A. National security
A. Economic alternative B. national welfare
B. Decision making C. national interest
C. Depreciation plan D. national defense
D. Capitalized program
43. The mechanical engineer shall be wll-informed
38. If g(x) = 4x4-3x2+2x-2, find g(1/2). of the latest technological progress in his own
line of work.He shall encourage or require
A. -4 whenever appropriate the use or application of
B. 2
ALLIED SCIENCES
standard mechanical equipment, machinery or teaching after 5 years from the approval of the
process for safety, economy and, law unless they become PME or RME with,
A. Durability A. Master of Science in Mechanical

B. reliability Engineering
C. efficiency B. Master of Engineering major in Mechanical
D. dependability Engineering
44. The mechanical engineer shall refrain from C. Master of Engineering Education major in
associating with or allowing the use of his name Mechanical Engineering
by, and any person or entry of, D. Any of the above
A. Unprofessional conduct 49. The newest member of the Board of Mechanical

B. Questionable reputation Engineering.
C. Different profession
D. Suspicious behavior A. Engr. Po
45. A mechanical engineer shall inform hi client or B. Engr. Palisbo
employer the ff., which may influence his C. Engr. Soliman
judgement, or impair the quality or character of D. Engr. Evangelista
his services, except, 50. The article in th ME Law with the most number
of sections.
A. Business contracts
B. Business connections A. Article I
C. Business interests B. Article II
D. Business affiliations C. Article III
D. Article IV
46. The Code of Ethical and Professional Standards
for the practice of Mechanical Engineering
profession had taken effect how many days
following its publication in full in the Official
Gazette or in a newspaper of general circulation,
whichever came earlier.
A. 7
B. 15
C. 14
D. 10
47. Personnel required in a mechanical plant of

200kW capacity per shift.
A. 1 CPM
B. 1 RME
C. 1 PME
D. Any of the ff.
48. Under Transitory Provisions of the ME law,

faculty members teaching ME professional
subjects shall not be allowed to continue
ALLIED SCIENCES
ANSWERS: 37. B. decision making

38. C. -3/2
1. A. discounted cash flow 39. A. 𝝅a3
2. C. center of pressure
40. C. welfare
3. D. incenter
41. B. Golden Rule
4. C. perimeter
42. D. national defense
5. B. shot-down point
43. C. efficiency
6. C. ad valorem tax
44. B. questionable reputation
7. B. fringe benefits
45. A. business contracts
8. C. statute law
46. B. 15
9. B. novation
47. D. any of the ff.
10. B. stroboscope
48. D. any of the above
11. A. oblique
49. B. Engr. Palisbo
12. B. prism
50. C Article III
13. C. epicycloids
14. C. isogonal
15. D. force
16. C. equal to the weight of the fluid
displaced
17. B. t-bills
18. A. dividend
19. B. balance sheet
20. C. the limit of the difference of several
functions is equal to the difference of
their limits
21. B. square
22. B. catenary
23. C. commonwealth act 294
24. D. electron affinity
25. A. alkynes
26. C. radical axis
27. B. dodecagon
28. B. epicycloids
29. C. 58F
30. C. ellipse
31. C. latus rectum
32. A. cycloid
33. A. amortization
34. C. economic model
35. C. marginal analysis
36. A. discounted cash flow
ALLIED SCIENCES
D. Corazon Aquino
1. Article I of the ME Law has the least number of

sections. How many sections does it have? 7. At the time the ME Law was signed, the Senate
President was,
A. 2
B. 3 A. Franklin Drilon
C. 4 B. Jose de Venecia
D. 5 C. Neptall Gonzales
D. Marcelo Fernan
2. The official seal adopted by the Board of
Mechanical Engineering. 8. Identify the locus of the equation x2+4y2+4xy+x-
1/2=0.
A. Hero’s steam engine
B. Hero’s steam turbine A. Ellipse
C. Hero’s steam generator B. Circle
D. Hero’s steam cylinder C. Parabola
D. Hyperbola
3. The term of office of a BME is 3 year term, with
possible reappointment, but no ore than, 9. When a circle rolls externally on the
circumference of a second, fixed circle, any point
A. 4 regular terms P on the circumference of the rolling circle
B. 3 regular terms describes:
C. 2 regular terms
D. 1 regular term A. Hypocycloid
B. Epicycloids
4. A Mechanical Engineering board examinee, C. Cycloid
failing for the third time, will only be allowed to D. Involute
take another board exam after a lapse of,
10. A form of matter which cannot be separated in
A. One semester two or more other forms of matter except by
B. Two years means of chemical process.
C. Three semesters
D. One year A. Pure substance
B. Solution
5. How many articles do the new ME Law consists C. Mixture
of? D. None of these
A. 4 11. A point on the curve where the first derivative of

B. 5 the function is zero and the second derivative is
C. 6 negative is a:
D. 7
A. Minimum point
6. The new ME Law was approved during the B. Inflection point
presidency of, C. Intersection point
D. Maximum point
A. Fidel Ramos
B. Joseph Estrada
C. Gloria Arroyo
ALLIED SCIENCES
12. The chord passing through the focus of the A. Orthocenter

parabola and perpendicular to its axis is termed B. Incenter
as: C. Centroid
D. Circumcenter
A. Foci
B. Latus rectum 18. If the sum of two angles is o90, the angle is said
C. Translated axis to be________.
D. Directrix A. Supplementary angles
B. Complementary angles
13. The momentum of a moving object is the C. Explementary angles
product of its mass and velocity. Newton’s D. Quadrantal angles
second law of motion says that the rate of change
of momentum with respect to time is: 19. One nautical mile is equivalent to______.
A. 5280ft
A. Power B. 6280ft
B. Impulse C. 1.256 statute miles
C. Energy D. 1.854km
D. Force
20. The hydrostatic force on a submerged surface is
14. A free falling body is a body in rectilinear acting at what point?
motion with constant __________.
A. Center of force
A. Velocity B. Center of buoyancy
B. Speed C. Center of pressure
C. Jerk D. Center of gravity
D. Acceleration
21. The angular bisector of the sides of a triangle
15. It is the sequence of numbers such that the intersects at the point which is known as_____.
successive terms differ by a common constant
ratio. A. Orthocenter
B. Centroid
A. Arithmetic progression C. Circumference
B. Infinite progression D. Incenter
C. Harmonic progression
D. Geometric progression 22. The sum of the sides of a polygon is called
16. If the first derivative of the equation of the curve A. Apothem

is constant, then the given curve is a: B. Circumference
C. Perimeter
A. Circle D. Area
B. Straight line
C. Parabola 23. The apothem of a polygon is the_______ of its
D. Hyperbola inscribed circle.
17. The median of a triangle is the line connecting a A. Radius

vertex and the midpoint of the opposite side. For B. Circumference
a given triangle, these medians intersect at a C. Diameter
point which is called _______. D. Length
ALLIED SCIENCES
24. A regular polygon with 27 diagonals is called:

A. Cube roots
A. Nonagon B. Numbers that cannot be expressed as a ratio
B. Pentagon of integers
C. Hexagon C. Number that do not make sense
D. Heptagon D. Integers
31. In a typical plan and specifications prepared by

or under the supervision of a PROFESIONAL
25. Choose the correct meaning for “term” in
MECHANICAL ENGINEER signed and sealed
mathematics?
by PME show the detail of a title block with
corresponding dimensions.
A. An expression containing a number or the
product of a number and one or more
A. 150 mm x 50 mm
variables raised to power
B. 150 mm x 30 mm
B. The amount of time spent in this course
C. 120 mm x 17 mm
C. A word that describes a number
D. A variable
32. A ________ is relation in which no two ordered
pairs have the same first coordinate and different
26. A polynomial is a:
second coordinates.
A. Four or more terms

A. Function
B. Many numbers
B. Relation
C. Sum of four or more numbers
C. Domain
D. A single term or a finite sum of terms
D. Range
27. If a line contains points in quadrant I and III,

33. Is the process of finding the function whose
then the slope is_______.
derivative or differential is given.
A. Positive
A. Antidifferentiation
B. Negative
B. Differential equation
C. Neutral
C. Differentiation
D. Zero
D. NOTA
28. The graph of y2=x2 + 1 is___________.

34. A regular polyhedron bounded by twelve regular
pentagons.
A. Line
B. Ellipse
A. Octahedron
C. Circle
B. Dodecahedron
D. Hyperbola
C. Regular tetrahedron
D. Icosahedrons
29. What do “additive inverse” mean?
35. 𝑒 𝜋𝑖 =?
A. The number -1
B. The number 0
A. 0
C. The opposite of addition
B. 1
D. Opposite
C. -1
D. i
30. Irrational numbers are?
ALLIED SCIENCES
D. 5
36. 300 gradian=?
41. Standard sheet sizes for mechanical plans and
A. 90˚ drawings shall be base on a width to length ratio
B. 180˚ of;
C. 270˚
A. 1:√2
D. 360˚ B. 1:2
C. 1:√3
D. 1:3
37. If 𝑓 𝑛 (x1)=0 then the point (x1,y1) is called;
42. Standard sheets for mechanical plans and
A. Minimum point drawings shall have boarders of at least;
B. Maximum point
C. Inflection point A. 10mm
D. Critical point B. 20mm
C. 25.4mm
38. Water and water vapor are in equilibrium in an D. 30mm
insulated container. If a small quantity of vapor
is released from the container; 43. Some chlorine atoms have a mass of 35, while
some have 37 atomic mass units. What is the
A. The temperature of the liquid goes up. name of these different types of chlorine atoms?
B. The temperature of the liquid goes down.
C. The vapor in the container gets superheated. A. Azeatropes
D. Enthalpy of the system goes up. B. Isotrope
C. Isotope
39. Adding more solute to an already saturated D. Mezotrope
solution will cause the excess solute to settle to
the bottom of the container. What is this process 44. What is the science of measurement?
called?
A. Numerology
A. Precipitation B. Metrology
B. Hydration C. Meterology
C. Dehydration D. Cosmetology
D. Saturation
45. A type of bond where the corporation’s owners
40. All proposed installations, additions ad alteration name are recorded and the interest is paid
involving machinery, mechanical equipment or periodically to the owners without asking for it.
processes shall be covered by plans and
specifications prepared by or under supervision A. Registered bond
of a PME signed and sealed by the same. Such B. Bond paper
plans shall accompany applications for C. Referred bond
installation and operation permit. How many D. Debenture
copies of such plan shall be made?
46. The prohibition of the export and import of a
A. 2 particular types of product or a complete ban on
B. 3 trade with a particular country as an adjunct to
C. 4 the political policies pursued by the government.
ALLIED SCIENCES
A. Tariff
B. Embargo
C. Trade-off
D. All of these
47. In a typical plan and specifications prepared by

or under the supervision of a PROFESSIONAL
MECHANICAL ENGINEER signed and sealed
by P.M.E., show the details of a title block with
corresponding dimensions.
A. 150 mm x 50 mm
B. 150 mm x 30 mm
C. 120 mm x 50 mm
D. 120 mm x 30 mm
48. Modes of extinguishing obligations when

creditor abandons his right to collect.
A. Condonation
B. Dept cancellation
C. Forfeiture
D. Liquidated damages
49. The equation x2 + y2 – 2y -20 = 0 describes:
A. A circle of radius 5 centered at the origin

B. An ellipse center at (2,-1)
C. A sphere with a center at the origin
D. A circle of radius 5 with a center at (2,-1)
50. “The moment of the resultant of two concurrent

forces with respect to a center of their planes is
equal to the algebraic sum of the moments of the
components with respect to the same center”.
This statement is otherwise known as______.
A. Law of reaction
B. Varignon’s theorem
C. Mass moment of inertia
D. Law of inertia
ALLIED SCIENCES
ANSWERS: 37. C inflection point

38. B temperature of the liquid goes down
1. B 3 39. A precipitation
2. A Hero’s steam engine 40. B 3
3. C 2 regular terms
41. A 1:√𝟐
4. D one year
42. C 25.4mm
5. B 5
43. C isotope
6. A Fidel Ramos
44. B metrology
7. C Neptali Gonzales
45. A registered bond
8. C parabola
46. B embargo
9. B epicycloids
47. 150 mm x 150 mm
10. A pure substance
48. Condonation
11. D maximum point
49. D a circle of radius 5 with a center at
12. B latus rectum
(2,-1)
13. D force
50. B Varignon’s theorem
14. D acceleration
15. D geometric progression
16. B straight line
17. C centroid
18. B complementary angles
19. 1.854km
20. C center of pressure
21. D incenter
22. C parameter
23. A radius
24. A nonagon
25. An expression containing a number or
the product of a number and one or
more variables raised to power
26. D single term or a finite sum of terms
27. A positive
28. D hyperbola
29. C the opposite of addition
30. B number that cannot be expressed as
a ratio of integers
31. A 150 mm x 150 mm
32. A function
33. A antidifferentiation
34. B dodecahedron
35. C -1
36. C 270o
ALLIED SCIENCES
A. Newton’s first law of motion

B. Newton’s second law of motion
1. The angular bisector of the sides of a C. Farday’s law of forces
triangle intersect at the point which is D. Hook’s law of equilibrium
known as:
A. Orthocenter family of curves at an angle less than 90o
B. Circumcenter are called:
C. Centroid
D. Incenter A. Orthogonal
B. Intersecting curves
2. How many faces have an icosahedron? C. Isogonal
D. Acute angle
A. 16
B. 18 7. The momentum of a moving object is the
C. 20 product of its mass(m) and velocity(v). Newton’s
D. 22 Law of Motion says that the rate of change of
momentum with respect to time is:
3. It is a polyhedron of which two faces are
equal polygons in parallel planes and the A. Power
other faces are parallelograms. B. Momentum
C. Energy
D. Force
A. Tetrahedron
B. Prism
C. Frustum fluid is:
D. Prismatoid
A. Proportional to the weight of the body
4. The locus of points generated when a circle B. Proportional to the depth of submergence
is made to roll externally along the C. Equal to the weight of the fluid displaced
circumference of another circle. D. Independent of the volume of the body
A. Cissoids of diocles 9. Everything a company owns and which has a

money value is classified as an asset. Which of
B. Folium of Descartes
the following is classified as an asset?
C. Epicycloids
D. Cardioids
A. Intangible assets
B. Fixed assets
5. Whenever a net force acts on a body, it
C. Trade investments
produces an acceleration in the direction of
D. All of these
the resultant force, an acceleration which is
directly proportional to the resultant force
10. A form of fixed-interest security issued by
and inversely proportional to the resultant central or local government, companies, banks or
force and inversely proportional to the mass other institutions. They are usually a form of
of the body. This theory is known as: long term security, but may be irredeemable.
ALLIED SCIENCES
A. Bonds
B. T-bills A. The tangent is positive
C. Certificate of deposits B. The cotangent is positive
D. All of the above C. The cosine is negative
D. The sine is negative
11. The amount of company’s profits that the board
of directors of the corporation decides to
distribute to ordinary share holders. 17. The roots of the equation 2x2 – 13x +20 = 0
A. Dividend A. Rea and equal

B. Return B. Real and unequal
C. Share of stock C. Complex and unequal
D. Par value D. Complex
12. A financial summary showing the relationship 18. Velocity tells us how the position of something
among assets, liabilities, and ownership in the is changing while acceleration tells us how
corporation on a specific date. the____ is changing.
A. Income tax return A. Direction

B. Balance sheet B. Velocity
C. Bookkeeping records C. Acceleration
D. Accounting cost D. Time
13. A member of Mechanical Engineering must be at 19. The locus points which move so that the sum of
least how many years old? its distance between two fixed point is constant.
A. 25 year A. Circle
B. 30 year B. Parabola
C. 35 year C. Ellipse
D. 40 year D. Hyperbola
14. Explementary angles are two angle whose sum is 20. The chord passing through the focus of the
parabola and perpendicular to its axis is termed
A. 90o as;
B. 180o
C. 270o A. Directrix
D. 360o B. Translated axis
C. Latus rectum
15. The equation y = a1 + a2x is an algebraic D. Foci
expression for which of the following:
21. It is defined as the motion of a rigid body in
A. Cosine expansion series which a straight line passing through any two of
B. Projectile motion its particles always remains parallel to its initial
C. Potential energy position.
D. Straight line
A. Translation
16. Which is true regarding the signs of the natural B. Rotation
function for angles between 90o and 180o? C. Plane motion
ALLIED SCIENCES
D. Kinetics B. Infinite progression

C. Geometric progression
22. The axis of the hyperbola that passes through the D. Harmonic progression
foci, vertices and center is called;
28. A free falling body is a body in rectilinear
A. Asymptote motion and with constant_________.
B. Major axis
C. Transverse axis A. Speed
D. Conjugate axis B. Velocity
23. A point on the curve where the first derivative of C. Jerk
the function is zero and the second derivative is D. Acceleration
negative is a:
29. The family of curves given by F(x)=ax2 are;
A. Maximum point
B. Minimum point A. Ellipse
C. Inflection B. Lines through (0,a)
D. Intersection point C. Parabolas
D. Hyperbolas
24. Geometric figures having identical shape and
size are said to be; 30. The vector which represents the sum of a group
of force vectors is called the;
A. Similar
B. Equal A. Magnitude
C. Symmetric B. Resultant
D. Congruent C. Sum
D. Force polygon
25. The moment of inertia of a plane figure:
31. The moment of inertia of any plane figure can be
A. Is zero at the centroidal axis expressed in units of length to the;
B. Increase as the distance of the axis moves
farther from the centroid A. 1st power
C. Decrease as the distance of the axis moves B. 2nd power
farther from the centroid C. 3rd power
D. Is maximum at the centroidal axis D. 4th power
26. The momentum of a moving object is the 32. The first derivative of the equation of a curve is a
product of its mass and velocity. Newton’s constant, the curve is a,
second law of motion says that the rate of change
of momentum with respect to time is; A. Circle
B. Hyperbola
A. Power C. Parabola
B. Momentum D. Straight line
C. Energy
D. Force 33. The point on the curve where the first derivative
of a function is zero and the second derivative is
27. It is the sequence of numbers such that positive is called;
successive tern differ by a constant.
A. Maximum point
A. Arithmetic progression B. Inflection
ALLIED SCIENCES
C. Minimum point A. The tangent is positive

D. Tangency point B. The cotangent is positive
C. The cosine is negative
34. The median of a triangle is the line connecting a D. The sine is negative
vertex and the midpoint of the opposite side. For
a given triangle, these medians intersects a point 40. A straight line that approaches a curve at infinity
which is called __________. but will never intersect.
A. Orthocenter A. Skew line

B. Incenter B. Inclined line
C. Centroid C. Parallel line
D. Circumcenter D. Asymptote
41. What angle does a projectile go farthest when
35. A form of matter which cannot be separated into fired?
two or more other forms of matter except by
means of a chemical process. A. 75°
B. 60°
A. Pure substance C. 45°
B. Solution D. 30°
C. Mixture 42. If the product of the slopes of two straight lines
D. None of these is negative, the two lines is said to be:
36. Moment of inertia of a square cross section with A. Parallel

a dimension “a” in each side: B. Skew
C. Perpendicular
A. a4/16 D. Non intersecting
B. 0.208a3
C. 0.166a3 43. Another term for Napierian logarithm.
D. a4/12
A. Common
37. The degree of differential equation B. Base ten
y”-5xy’=𝑒 𝑥 +1. C. Hyperbolic
D. Exponential
A. 1
B. 2 44. A year divisible by 4 is a leap year and contains
C. 5 366 days, except what kind of years of which
D. 3 only those divisible by 400 are leap years?
38. A relationship between two variables which A. Quadresimal yrs

contains only essential arbitrary constants. B. Quadrennial yrs
C. Centennial yrs
A. Proportionality D. Centisemal yrs
B. Essential
C. Primitives 45. How many meters is 1 Myriameter (Mm)?
D. Solution
A. 100m
39. Which is true regarding the signs of the natural B. 1000m
function for angles between 90° and 180°? C. 10 000m
ALLIED SCIENCES
D. 50 000m
46. How many grams is 1 Quintal (q)?
A. 100 000
B. 500 000
C. 10 000
D. 50 000
47. Areas of irregular figures can be determined by

the ff. rules except,
A. Simpson’s rule
B. Durand’s rule
C. Trapezoidal rule
D. Cycloidial rule
48. Term to describe the integral solution owing to

the necessity of adding the arbitrary constant C.
A. Definite
B. Indefinite
C. Irrational
D. Rational
49. An integration method frequently employed if it

is advantageous to consider the integral of a
function as the integral of the product of a
function by the differential of another function.
A. Integration by parts
B. Integration of rational functions
C. Integration of irrational functions
D. Fundamental integration
50. Which is better, to invest your money at a rate of

12% cpded monthly or 12% cpded semi-
annually?
A. 12% cpded monthly

B. 12% cpded semi- annually
C. None of these
D. Both are the same
ALLIED SCIENCES
36. B. a4/12
37. A.1
ANSWERS:
38. C. primitives
1. D. incenter 39. C. the cosine is negative
2. C. 20 40. D. asymptote
3. B. prism 41. C. 45˚
4. C. epicycloids 42. C. perpendicular
5. B. Newton’s Second Law of Motion 43. C. hyperbolic
6. C. isogonal 44. D. centesimal yrs
7. D. force 45. C. 10 000m
8. C. equal to the weight of the fluid 46. A. 100 000
displaced 47. D. cycloidial rule
9. D. all of these 48. B. indefinite
10. B. t-bills 49. A. integration by parts
11. A. dividend 50. A. 12% cpded monthly
12. B. balance sheet
13. C. 35 years
14. D. 360˚
15. D. a straight line
16. C. the cosine is negative
17. B. real and unequal
18. B. velocity
19. C. ellipse
20. C. latus rectum
21. A. translation
22. C. transverse axis
23. A. maximum point
24. D. congruent
25. B. increase as distance to the axis
moves farther from the centroid
26. D. force
27. A. arithmetic progression
28. D. acceleration
29. C. parabolas
30. B. resultant
31. D. 4th power
32. D. straight line
33. C. minimum point
34. C. centroid
35. A. pure substance
ALLIED SCIENCES
D. Humanity
1. Senate bill number which spearheaded the 6. From the Penal and Concluding Provisions of the
amendment of ME Laws. new ME law, aside from administrative
sanctions, violators will be fine an amount an
A. 1973 amount of not less than PhP 50,000 but no more
than
B. 1793
C. 1379
A. PhP 200,000
D. 1739 B. PhP 100,000
C. PhP 300,000
2. Article II of the ME law is about the Board of D. PhP 250,000
Mechanical Engineering. How many sections
does the article have? 7. The enforcing agency of he Board of Mechanical
Engineering.
A. 5
B. 6 A. PNP- Phil. National Police
C. 7 B. AFP- Armed Forces of the Phil.
D. 8 C. CCS- Commission on Civil Service
D. PRC- Professional Regulation Commission
3. The Code of Ethics for Mechanical Engineers
states rules governing different relation of a 8. Mechanical Engineers in the fulfillment of their
Mechanical engineer. How many relations are professional duties, shall hold paramount the
there? safety, health, and welfare of the public in the
performance of their
A. 4
B. 5 A. Professional work
C. 6 B. Professional duties
D. 7 C. Professional obligation
D. Professional competence
4. The new Code of Ethical Professional Standards
for the Practice of Mechanical Engineering 9. House Bill number which spearheaded the
Profession was approved and signed by the ff. amendment of ME laws.
BMEs, except
A. 9608
A. Donato Karamihan B. 9860
B. Chona Evangelista C. 9068
C. Alfredo Po D. 9806
D. Antonio Herrera
10. The term of office of the BME is 3year tem with
5. A Mechanical Engineer shall be ready to render the possible reappointment but no more than
the services needed for the development of the
resources of the country, and to offer his A. 1 regular term
mechanical devices and inventions essential or B. 2 regular terms
necessary for C. 3 regular terms
D. 4 regular terms
A. National emergency
B. Community 11. The curve define by the polar equation r=a𝜃 is
C. National defense known as
ALLIED SCIENCES
A. Limacon 17. Any positive integers as 1,2,3, etc. is also called

B. Cardioids
C. Spiral of archemedes A. Unnatural number
D. Strophoid B. Rational number
C. Natural number
12. What is a deuteron? D. Irrational number
A. A neutron plus two protons 18. The set of integers does not satisfy the closure
B. A nucleus containing a neutron and a proton property under the operation of
C. An electron with positive charge
D. A helium nucleus A. Division
B. Subtraction
13. The splitting up of beam of light which contains C. Multiplication
several frequencies on passing it through a D. Addition
substance whose refracted index changes with
frequency. 19. An equation which is satisfied by some, but not
all, of the values of the variables for which the
A. Polarization members of the equation are not defined is called
B. Diffraction a
C. Dispersion
D. Reflection A. Conditional equation
B. Linear equation
14. According to this law “ if the angle of incidence C. Rational equation
is equal to the polarizing angle, then the angle of D. Irrational equation
the reflected ray is perpendicular to the refracted
ray”. 20. Two prime numbers which differ by 2 is called
prime twins. Which of the following pairs of
A. Malu’s law numbers are prime twins?
B. Brewster’s law
C. Candela’s law A. (1,3)
D. Huygen’s law B. (13,15)
C. (7,9)
15. What is the time required for a vibrating object D. (9,11)
to complete one full cycle?
21. The relation in which every ordered pair (x,y)
A. Frequency has one and only one value of y corresponds to
B. Amplitude the value of x is called
C. Period
D. Time constant A. Function
B. Set
16. When a logarithm is expressed as an integer plus C. Coordinate
a decimal (between 0 and 1), the integer is called D. Abscissa
the
22. A polynomial which is exactly divisible by two
A. Characteristic or more polynomials is called as:
B. Briggs logarithm
C. Napierian logarithm A. Least common denominator
D. Mantissa B. Common multiple
ALLIED SCIENCES
C. Factors C. Order of numbers

D. Binomial D. Sequence
23. The roots of the 2x2 – 13x +20 = 0 are 29. Radicals can be added if they have the same
radicand and
A. Real and unequal
B. Real and equal A. Order
C. Complex and equal B. Power
D. Complex and unequal C. Exponent
D. Coefficients
24. In the SI unit, the small k means kilo while the
capital letter K means 30. If the roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0, are real and
equal, then
A. Kelvin
B. Kilometer A. B2 - 4ac = 0
C. Kilogram B. B2 - 4ac > 0
D. Kilowatt C. B2 – 4ac ≥ 0
D. B2 – 4ac < 0
25. Any number that can be expressed as a quotient
of two integers (division of zero excluded) is 31. The other form of logaN = b is
called
A. N = ab
A. Rational number B. N = ba
B. Imaginary number C. N = a/b
C. Irrational number D. N =ab
D. Odd number
32. In the quadratic equation Ax2 + Bx + C = 0, the
𝑛
26. In the expression √𝑎 , the letter n represents the product of the root is:
A. Order A. C/A
B. Power B. –B/A
C. Exponent C. –C/A
D. Radicand D. B/A
27. Which of the following non terminating decimal 33. Any number multiplied by______ equals unity.
is rational
A. Infinity
A. 2.470470 B. Itself
B. 3.14159265… C. Its reciprocal
C. 2.71828182… D. Zero
D. 1.141421356
34. If equals are added to equals, the sum is equal.
28. A succession of numbers in which one number is
designated as first, another as second, another as A. Theorem
third and so on is called a B. Postulate
C. Axiom
A. Series D. Corollary
B. Arrangement
ALLIED SCIENCES
35. If every element of a column(or row) of a square 40. The chord passing through the focus of the
matrix is multiplied by m, the determinant of the parabola and perpendicular to its axis is termed
matrix will be: as:
A. Unchanged A. Directrix
B. Multiplied by m B. Translated axis
C. It depends C. Latus rectum
D. None of these D. Axis
36. In probability theory, the set of possible
outcomes of an experiment is termed as:
41. The locus of the point which move so that the
A. A sample space
sum of its distances between two fixed points is
B. A set of random event
constant is known as:
C. A set of random variable
D. Fuzzy set
A. Parabola
B. Circle
37. Which of the following is not a property of
C. Ellipse
probability?
D. Hyperbola
A. If events E1 and E2 are mutually exclusive,
42. A tangent to a conic is a line:
then the probability that both events can
happen is zero.
A. Which is parallel to the normal
B. The probability that an event can happen is
B. Which touches the conic at any one point
always positive and is less than one or equal
C. Which passes inside the conic
to one.
D. All of the above
C. If E0 is an event which cannot occur in the
sample space, the probability of E0 is zero.
43. The locus of a point that move so that its
D. If events E1 and E2 are mutually exclusive,
distance from a fixed point and fixed line is
then P (E1 and E2)=P(E1)+P(E2)–P(E1E2).
always equal, is known as:
38. If the equation is unchanged by the substitution
A. Parabola
of –x for x, its curve is symmetric with respect to
B. Circle
the:
C. Ellipse
D. Hyperbola
A. y-axis
B. x-axis
44. The locus of a point, which moves so that it is
C. origin
always equidistant from a fixed point, is known
D. line 45o with the axis
as:
39. What is the quadrilateral formed cy joining the
A. Parabola
foci of an ellipse to the end points of the minor
B. Circle
axis?
C. Ellipse
D. Hyperbola
A. Rhombus
B. Square
45. In polar coordinate system, the polar angle is
C. Rectangle
positive when:
D. Trapezoid
A. Measured clockwise
ALLIED SCIENCES
B. Measured counterclockwise
C. Measured at the terminal side
D. None of these
46. The plane rectangular coordinate system is

divided into four parts which are known as:
A. Coordinates
B. Octants
C. Quadrants
D. Axis
47. A conic section whose eccentricity is less than

one is known as:
A. Parabola
B. Ellipse
C. Circle
D. Hyperbola
48. A conic section whose eccentricity is equal to

one.
A. Parabola
B. Ellipse
C. Circle
D. Hyperbola
49. In polar coordinate system, the distance from a

point to the pole is known as:
A. Polar angle
B. X-coordinate
C. Radius vector
D. Y-coordinate
50. The curve represented by the equation r = 6 is:
A. Equal to the other

B. Equal to the negative of the other
C. Equal to the reciprocal of the other
D. Equal to the negative of the reciprocal of the
other
ALLIED SCIENCES
36. A a sample space

37. D If events E1 and E2 are
ANSWERS:
mutually exclusive, then P (E1
1. B 1793 and E2)=P(E1)+P(E2)–P(E1E2).
2. D8 38. A y-axis
3. B5 39. A rhombus
4. C Alfredo Po 40. C latus rectum
5. C national defense 41. C ellipse
6. A PhP200,000 42. B which touches the conic at
7. D PRC-Professional Regulation any one point
Commission 43. A parabola
8. B professional duties 44. B circle
9. D 9806 45. B measured counterclockwise
10. B 2 regular terms 46. C quadrants
11. B Spiral and Archimedes 47. B ellipse
12. B a nucleus containing a 48. A parabola
neutron and a proton 49. C radius vector
13. C dispersion 50. D a circle
14. B Brewster’s law
15. C period
16. A characteristic
17. C natural number
18. A division
19. A condition equation
20. A (1,3)
21. A function
22. A least common denominator
23. A real and equal
24. A Kelvin
25. A rational numbers
26. A order
27. A 2.470470
28. A series
29. A order
30. A b2 – 4ac = 0
31. A N =ab
32. C –C/A
33. C its reciprocal
34. A theorem
35. B multiplied by m
ALLIED SCIENCES
1. When two lines are perpendicular, the slope of

one is. 7. It represents the distance of a point from the y-
axis.
A. Equal to the other
B. Equal to the negative of the other A. Ordinate
C. Equal to the reciprocal of the other B. Coordinate
D. Equal to the negative of the reciprocal of the C. Abscissa
other D. Polar distance
2. The axis of the hyperbola, which is parallel to its 8. In a conic section, if the eccentricity e>1, the
directrices, is known as: locus is:
A. Conjugate A. Ellipse
B. Transverse B. Hyperbola
C. Major C. Parabola
D. Minor D. Circle
3. The axis of the hyperbola through its foci is 9. A line perpendicular to the x-axis has a slope of:
known as:
A. Zero
A. Conjugate B. Unity
B. Transverse C. Infinity
C. Major D. None of these
D. Minor
10. In finding the distance between two points
4. If the product of the slopes of any two straight P(x1,y1) and P(x2,y2), the most direct procedure is
lines is negative one, one of these lines are said to use:
to be:
A. The law of cosines
A. Parallel B. The slope of the line
B. Skew C. The translation of the axes
C. Perpendicular D. The Pythagorean theorem
D. Non-intersecting
11. In finding the distance between two points
5. The line passing through the focus and P1(r1,𝜃1) and P2(r2,𝜃2), the most direct procedure
perpendicular to the directrix of a parabola is is to use:
called:
A. The law of cosine
A. Latus rectum B. The slope of the line
B. Axis parabola C. The translation of the axes
C. Tangent line D. The Pythagorean theorem
D. Secant line
6. What is the graph of the equation family of curves at an angle less than 90o are
Ax2+By+Cy2+D+E=0? called:
A. Circle
B. Ellipse A. Orthogonal
C. Parabola B. Intersecting curves
D. Hyperbola C. Isogonal
ALLIED SCIENCES
D. Acute angle 18. The altitudes of the side of a triangle

intersects at the point known as:
13. A line segment joining two points on a circle
is called: A. Orthocenter
B. Circumcenter
A. Arc C. Centroid
B. Tangent D. Incenter
C. Sector
D. Chord 19. The angular bisector of the sides of a
triangle intersect at the point which is
14. All circle having the same center but with known as:
unequal radii are called:
A. Orthocenter
A. Encircle B. Centroid
B. Tangent circle C. Incenter
C. Concyclic D. Circumcenter
D. Concentric
20. The arc angle to the radius of the circle is
15. A triangle having three sides equal is called: called:
A. Equilateral A. 1rad
B. Isosceles B. 1 quarter circle
C. Scalene C. 𝜋rad
D. Right D. 1grad
16. The angle which the line of sight to the 21. To find the angles of a triangle, given only
object, makes with the horizontal, which is the lengths of the sides, one would use:
above the eye of the observer is called:
A. Cosine law
A. Angle of depression B. Law of tangents
B. Angle of elevation C. Sine law
C. Acute angle D. Inverse square law
D. Bearing
22. In general triangles the expression
17. The median of a triangle is the connecting a (sinA/a)=(sinB/b)=(sinC/c) is called:
vertex and the midpoint of the opposite side.
For a given triangle, these medians A. Eulers formula
intersects at a point which is called: B. Law of cosines
C. Sine law
A. Orthocenter D. Pythagorean theorem
B. Incenter
C. Circumcenter 23. An angle more than 180o but less than 360o
D. Centroid is:
ALLIED SCIENCES
A. Straight line B. 568.89

B. Obtuse angle C. 125.36
C. Related angle D. 284.44
D. Reflex angle
30. 1000 mils are equivalent to_____.
24. The sum of the sides of a polygon:
A. 62.5 grad
A. Perimeter B. 0.156 grad
B. Square C. 40,000grad
C. Hexagon D. 876.45 grad
D. Circumference
31. How many mils in 150 gradian?
25. One-fourth of a great circle:
A. 960,000
A. Cone B. 42.67
B. Quadrant C. 2,400
C. Circle D. 1234.87
D. Sphere
32. An angle measures 45o, what are the
26. Point that lie in the same plane equivalent measures in gradian?
A. Coplanar A. 150
B. Oblique B. 50
C. Collinear C. 300
D. Parallel D. 1200
27. 3200 mils is equivalent to______. 33. The measure of 2.25 revolutions
counterclockwise is:
A. 270o
B. 180o A. -835o
C. 90o B. -810o
D. 360o C. 805o
D. 810o
28. One nautical mile is equivalent to:
34. If the sine of an angle is 0.3456, what is the
A. 5280ft cosine of an angle?
B. 6280ft
C. 1.256 statute miles A. 0.7866
D. 1.854km B. 0.9384
C. 0. 97865
29. The angle of inclination of the road is D. 0.6544
32o.what is the angle of inclination in mils?
35. The cosine function in the third quadrant is:
A. 456.23
ALLIED SCIENCES
A. Positive 41. A triangle having three sides equal is called:

B. Negative
C. 0 A. Equilateral
D. Undefined B. Scalene
C. Isosceles
36. The angle of inclination of ascend of a road D. Right
having 8.25% grade is: 42. The angle which the line of sight to the
object, makes with the horizontal, which is
A. 5.12 degrees above the eye of the observer is:
B. 4.72 degrees
C. 1.86 degrees A. Angle of depression
D. 4.27 degrees B. Angle of elevation
C. Acute angle
37. In an isosceles triangle, the hypotenuse is D. Bearing
how much longer than its sides?
43. The median of a triangle is the line
A. 2 times connecting a vertex and the mid point of the
B. 0.414 times opposite side. For a given triangle, these
C. 1.5 times medians intersects at a point which is called:
D. None of these
A. Orthocenter
38. An angle between 90o and 180o has: B. Incenter
C. Circumcenter
A. A positive sine and cosine D. Centroid
B. A negative cotangent and cosecant
C. A negative secant and tangent 44. The altitudes of the sides of a triangle
D. All trigonometric functions are negative intersect at the point known as:
39. To find the angles of a triangle, given only A. Orthocenter

the length of the sides, one would use, B. Circumcenter
C. Centroid
A. Cosine law D. Incenter
B. Law of tangents
C. Sine law 45. The angular bisector of the sides of a
D. Inverse-square law triangle intersect at the point which is
known as:
40. An angle greater than a straight angle and
less than two straight angles ia called: A. Orthocenter
B. Circumcenter
A. Right angle C. Centroid
B. Obtuse angle D. Incenter
C. Reflex angle
D. Acute angle 46. The arc length equal to the radius of the
circle is called:
ALLIED SCIENCES
A. 1 radian
B. 1 quarter circle
C. 𝜋rad
D. 1 grad
47. To find the angles of a triangle, given only

the length of the sides, one would use:
A. The law of cosines

B. The law of tangents
C. The law of sines
D. The inverse square law
48. In general triangles, the expressions

sinA/a=sinB/b=sinC/c is called:
A. Euler’s formula
B. Law of cosines
C. The law of sines
D. Pythagorean theorem
49. A line segment joining two points is called:
A. Arc
B. Tangent
C. Sector
D. Chord
50. All circles having the same center but with

unequal radii are called
A. Encircle
B. Tangent
C. Concyclic
D. Concentric
ALLIED SCIENCES
Answers: 39. A cosine law

40. C reflex angle
1. D Equal to the negative of the 41. A equilateral
reciprocal of the other 42. B angle of elevation
2. A conjugate 43. D centroid
3. B transverse 44. A orthocenter
4. C perpendicular 45. D ibcenter
5. B axis of parabola 46. C 𝝅 rad
6. B ellipse
47. A the law of cosines
7. C abscissa
48. C the law of sines
8. B hyperbola
49. D chord
9. C infinity
50. D concentric
10. D the Pythagorean theorem
11. A the law of cosines
12. C isogonal
13. D chord
14. D concentric
15. A equilateral
16. B angle of elevation
17. D centoid
18. A orthocenter
19. C incenter
20. B 1 quarter circle
21. A cosine law
22. C sine law
23. D reflex angle
24. A perimeter
25. B quadrant
26. A coplanar
27. B 180o
28. D 1.854km
29. B 568.89
30. A 62.5 grad
31. C 2400
32. B 50
33. 810o
34. B 0.9384
35. B negative
36. B 4.72 degrees
37. B 0.414times
38. C a negative secant and tangent
ALLIED SCIENCES
B. collinear
1. In a regular polygon, the perpendicular line C. coplanar
drawn from the center of the inscribed D. oblique
circle to any one of the side is called
7. A quadrilateral whose opposite sides are
A. radius equal is generally termed as
B. altitude
C. median A. square
D. apothem B. rectangle
C. rhombus
2. A quadrilateral with two and only two sides D. parallelogram
of which are parallel is called
8. A part of a line included between two points
A. parallelogram on the line is called
B. trapezoid
C. rhombus A. tangent
D. square B. secant
C. sector
3. A polygon with fifteen sides is called D.segment
A. dodecagon 9. The section of the sphere cut by a plane

B. decagon through its center is termed as
C. pentedecagon
D. nonagon A. small circle
B. incircle
4. A rectangle with equal sides is called C. big circle
D. great circle
A. rhombus
B. trapezoid 10. Points which lie on the same plane are called
C. square
D. parallelogram A.collinear
B.coplanar
5. The sum of the length of the sides of a C.concurrent
polygon is termed as D. congruent
A. circumference 11. A normal to a given plane is

B. altitude
C. apothem A.perpendicular to the plane
D. perimeter B. lying on the plane
C. parallel to the plane
6. A line that meets a plane but not D. oblique to the plane
perpendicular to it,in relation to the plane is
12. A polygon is ___ is no side,when extended
A.parallel will pass through the interior of the polygon
ALLIED SCIENCES
18. It is a polyhedron of which two faces are

A. convex equal polygons in parallel planes and the
B. equilateral other faces are parallelograms
C. isoperimetric
D. congruent A.tetrahedron
B. prism
13. Which of the following statement is correct? C.frustum
D.prismatoid
A.all equilateral triangles are similar
B. all right angled triangles are similar 19. In plain geometry,two circular arcs that
C.all isosceles triangle are similar together make up a full circle are called
D. all rectangle are similar
A.coterminal arcs
14. When two planes intersect with each other B. conjugate arcs
the amount of divergence between the two C. half arcs
planes is expressed by measuring the D. congruent arcs
A. dihedral angle 20. How many faces have an icosahedrons?

B. plane angle
C. polyhedral angle A. 16
D. reflex angle B. 18
C. 20
15. A five pointed star is also known as D. 22
A.pentagon 21. Each of the faces of a regular hexahedron is

B. pentatron a
C. pentagram
D. quintagon A.square
B. triangle
16. The area bounded by two concentric circles C.hexagon
is called D.circle
A. ring 22. Polygons with all interior angles less than

B. disk 180o are called
C. annulus
D. sector A.concave polygon
B.convex polygon
17. Prisms are classified according to their ___ C. acute polygon
D. supplemental polygon
A. diagonals
B. sides 23. To cut a right circular cone in order to reveal
C. vertices a parabola, it must be cut
D. bases
A.perpendicular to the axis of symmetry
ALLIED SCIENCES
B. at any acute angle to the axis of about an axis while travelling at a constant
symmetry speed,v,parallel to the axis
C. parallel to an element of a cone and
intersecting the axis of symmetry A.helix
D.parallel to the axis of symmetry B. spiral of Archimedes
24. The study of the properties of figures in thee C. hypocycloid
dimensions D. cycloid
29. A point on the curve where the second
A.physics derivative of a function is equal to zero is
B. plane geometry called
C.solid geometry
D.trigonometry A.maxima
B.minima
25. The volume of a circular cylinder is equal to C.point of inflection
the product of its base and altitude D. point of intersection
A.postulate 30. The point on the curve where the second

B. theorem derivative of a function is zero and the
C. corollary second derivative is positive is called
D.axiom
A.maxima
26. The volume of any solid of revolution is B.minima
equal to the generating area times the C.point of inflection
circumference of the circle described by the D. point of intersection
centroid of the area.This is commonly
known as 31. At the minimum point the slope of the
tangent line is
A.first proposition of pappus
B.cavaliers principle A.negative
C.second proposition of pappus B.infinity
D.simpsons rule C.positive
D.zero
27. The locus of points generated when a circle
is made to roll externally along the 32. At the point of inflection where x=a
circumference of another circle
A.f1(a)=0
A.cissoid of diocles B.f1(a)=0
B. folium of Descartes C.f1(a)>0
C. epicycloids D.f1(a)<0
D.cardioid
33. Point of the derivatives which do not exist
28. What type of curve is generated by a point (and so equals zero) are called
which moves in uniform circular motion
A.stationary point
ALLIED SCIENCES
B.maximum point C.kinematics

C.minimum point D.statics
D. inflection point
39. A branch of physical science that deals with
34. If the second derivative of the equation of a state of rest or motion under the action of
curve is equal to the negative of the equation forces is known as
of that same curve the curve is
A.mechanics
A.a cissoids B.kinetics
B. a paraboloid C.kinematics
C.a sinusoid D. statics
D.an exponential
40. In physics work is defined in terms of the
35. It is defined as the motion of a rigid body in force acting through a distance.The rate at
which a straight line passing through any which the work is done is called
two of its particles always remains parallel
to its initial position A.power
B.energy
A.translation C.force
B.rotation D.momentum
C.plane motion
D. kinetics 41. The point through which the resultant of the
distributed gravity force passes regardless of
36. Which of the following is not a vector the orientation of the body in space is known
quantity as
A.mass A.center of inertia

B.torque B.center of gravity
C.displacement C.center of attraction
D.velocity D.moment of inertia
37. The product of force and time during which 42. The momentum of a moving object is the
it acts is known as product of its mass(m) and velocity
(v),Newtons law of motion says that the rate
A.impulse of change of momentum with respect to time
B. momentum is
C.work
D.Impact A.power
B. momentum
38. The study of motion without reference to C.energy
the forces which causes motion is known as D.force
A.kinetics 43. The acceleration due to gravity in

B.dynamics engineering units or English system of units
ALLIED SCIENCES
B.the glass hits the ground before the flower

A.20.2 pot
B.9.81 C.the flowerpot hits the ground first and
C.32.2 with a higher speed than the glass
D.62.4 D.the flower pot and the glass hit the ground
at the same instant
44. Whenever a net force acts on a body it
produces an acceleration in the direction of 48. One joule of work is done by a force of one
the resultant force,an acceleration which is Newton acting through a distance of
directly proportional to the resultant force
and inversely proportional to the resultant A.1cm
force and inversely proportional to the mass B.1in
of the body.This theory is known as C.1m
D.1ft
A.newtons first law of motion
B.newtons second law of motion 49. The path of the projectile is
C.fardays law of forces
D.hooks law of equilibrium A.parabola
B.ellipse
45. What is the term for the vector that C.part of a circle
represents the sum of two or more vectors? D.hyperbola
A.scalar 50. Kinetic energy equals

B. tangent
C. tensor A.1/2 mass x velocity
D.resultant B.mass x acceleration
C. mass x velocity
46. Metastic collision is a collision in which the D.1/2 mass x velocity2
total kinetic energy after collision is _____
before collision
A.equal to zero
B.equal
C.less than
D.greater than
47. A flower pot falls off the edge of a fifth

floor window.Just it passes the third floor
window someone accidentally drops a glass
of water from the window.Which of the
following is true?
A.the flowerpot hits the ground at te same

time as the glass
ALLIED SCIENCES
37. A. impulse
ANSWERS: 38. C. kinematics
39. A. mechanics
1. D. apothem 40. A. power
2. B. trapezoid 41. B. center of gravity
3. C. pentedecagon 42. D. force
4. C. square 43. C. 32.2
5. D. perimeter 44. F. Newton’s Second Law of Motion
6. C. coplanar 45. D. resultant
7. B. rectangle 46. C. less than
8. D. segment 47. C. the flowerpot hits the ground first
9. D. great circle and a higher speed than the glass.
10. B. coplanar 48. C. 1m
11. A. perpendicular to the plane 49. A. parabola
12. A. convex 50. D. ½ mass x velocity2
13. A. all equilateral triangles are similar
14. A. dihedral angle
15. C. pentagram
16. C. annulus
17. D. bases
18. B. prism
19. B. conjugate arcs
20. C. 20
21. A. square
22. B. convex polygon
23. C. parallel to an element of a cone and
intersecting the axis of symmetry
24. C. solid geometry
25. B. theorem
26. C. second proposition of pappus
27. C. epicycloids
28. D. cycloid
29. C. point of inflection
30.
31.
32.
33. A. stationary point
34. C. a sinusoid
35. A. translation
36. A. mass
ALLIED SCIENCES
1. The family of curves which intersect a given C.m2/s

family of curves at an angle less than 90o are D.N-m
called
A.orthogonal fluid is
B.intersecting curves
C.isogonal A.proportional to the weight of the body
D.acute angle B.proportional to the depth of submergence
C.equal to the weight of the fluid displaced
2. The specific gravity of the substance is the D.independent of the volume of the body
ratio of the density of the substance to the
density of water.Another term for specific 7. A leak from a faucet comes out in separate
gravity is drops.Which of the following is the main
cause of this phenomemnon?
A.specific weight
B.unit weight A.gravity
C.relative density B.air resistance
D.density C.viscosity of the fluid
D.surface tension
3. Ivory soap floats in water because
8. In tubes having very small diameters,liquids
A.all matter has mass are observed to rise or fall relative to the
B.the density of ivory soap is unity level of the surrounding liquid.What do you
C.the specific gravity of ivory soap is call this phenomenon?
greater than that of water
D.the specific gravity of ivory soap is less A.fluidity
than that of water B.capillarity
C.surface tension
4. Any two points along a streamline in an D.viscosity
ideal fluid in steady flow,the sum of the
pressure the potential energy per unit 9. The continuity equation of fluid flow is
volume and the kinetic energy per unit applicable to which of the following
volume has the same value.The concept is conditions?
known as the
i.the flow of the fluid is one dimensional
A.Pascal’s theorem ii.the flow of fluid is steady
B. Bernoullis energy theorem iii.the velocity of the flow is uniform over
C.fluid theory the cross section
D.hydraulic theorem
A.i only
5. Kinematic viscosity in SI units is B.i and ii only
C.ii and iii only
A.W/m-K D I,ii,and iii
B.Pa-s
ALLIED SCIENCES
10. In hydraulics what is the head required to 15. What is the oxidation state of nitrogen in
overcome resistance to flow in NO3-1
pipe,fittings,valves,entrances and exists?
A.-1
A.velocity head B.1
B.friction head C.3
C.static discharge head D. 5
D.pressure head
16. Which of the following elements and
11. Which of the following ratios describes compounds is unstable in its pure form?
Reynolds number?
A.sodium
A.inertial forces/viscous forces B.helium
B.drag forces/buoyant forces C.carbon dioxide
C.buoyant forces/inertial forces D. neon
D.viscous forces/drag forces
17. The critical point for a mixture occurs for
12. An instrument which is used to determine which of the following cases?
the specific gravity of a substance
A.the vapor and liquid have a sing;e form
A.Hydrometer B.the liquid has no absorbed gas
B.throttling calorimeter C. the vapor phase is stable
C.odometer D.the liquid completely vaporized
D.none of these
18. How is molality defined?
13. In a floating body, what do you call the
distance between the center of gravity and A. the number of moles of solute in 1000g
the metacenter of solvent
B.the number of moles of solute in 1liter of
A.metacentric height solution
B.metacentric head C.the number of gram formula weights of
C.buoyancy head solute per liter
D.submerged height D.the number of grams of solute per liter of
solution
14. It refers to the fractional change in the
volume of a fluid per unit change in pressure 19. The mole is a basic unit of measurement in
in a constant temperature process.Which chemistry.Which of the following is not
one? equal to or the same as one mole of the
substance indicated?
A.proportional limit
B.bulk modulus A.22.4 liters of nitrogen gas at STP
C. compressibility B.6.02x1023 oxygen molecules
D.capillarity C.12g of carbon atoms
D.1 gram of hydrogen atoms
ALLIED SCIENCES
E.16gram of oxygen molecules C.bipolar semiconductor

20. How much chemical energy must a 12V car D.extrinsic semiconductor
battery expend in moving 6.73x1020 25. Flow of fluids wherein its individual
electrons from its positive terminal to particles have definite paths and distinct
negative? particles do not cross one another.This type
of flow is known as
A.2.588x106J
B.5.588x106J A.non uniform flow
C.1.294x103J B.turbulent
D.2.564x103J C .laminar
D.unsteady
21. The total current of a simple circuit with a
voltage supply of 12 volts and resistance of 26. A fluid flow in a pipe is at a constant
24ohms is ____ amperes. velocity..The fluid completely fills the pipe,
and the Reynolds number is such that the
A.0.05 flow is just critical.I all other parameters
B.0.5 remain unchanged and the viscosity of the
C.0.25 fluid is increased a significant amount,one
D.0.55 would generally expect the flow to.
22. What is the maximum voltage that can be A.not change

applied across the series combination of a B. become laminar.
120 ohms.2W resistor and a 110 ohms, 3W C. become turbulent
resistor without exceeding the power rating D.increase
of either resistor.
27. The volume of fluid passing a cross section
A.39.7mV of a stream per unit time is called
B.26.69mV
C.29.69mV A.steady flow
D.39.7mV B.uniform flow
C.discharge
23. Semiconductors have D.continous flow
A.zero temperature coefficient of resistance 28. It is a series of equal payments occurring at

B. positive temperature of coefficient of equal intervals of time where the first
resistance payment is made after several periods after
C.negative temperature of coefficient of the beginning of the payment.
resistance
D.none of the above A.deffered annuity
B.delayed annuity
24. The doped semiconductor is called C.progressive annuity
D.simple annuity
A.impure semiconductor
B.dipole semiconductor
ALLIED SCIENCES
29. A market whereby there is only one buyer of A.present worth factor
an item for which there are no goods B.interest factor
substitute. C.time value of money
D.yield
A.monopoly
B.monopsony 34. Double taxation is disadvantage of which
C.oligopoly business organization?
D.oligosopny
A.sole proprietorship
30. The amount of a property in which a willing B.partnership
buyer will pay to a willing seller for the C.corporation
property when neither one is under the D.enterprise
compulsion to buy nor sell.
35. The function of interest rate and time that
A.fair value determines the cumulative amount of a
B.goodwill value sinking fund resulting from specific periodic
C.book value deposits.
D. market value
A.sinking fund factor
31. A type of annuity where the payment are B.present worth factor
made at the start of its period,beginning C. capacity factor
from the first period D.demand factor
A.ordinary annuity 36. The intangible item of value the exclusive

B.annuity due right of a company to provide a specific
C.deffered annuity product or service in a stated region of the
D.perpetuity country
32. A method of computing depreciation in A.market value

which the annual charge is a fixed B.book value
percentage of the depreciated book value at C.goodwill value
the beginning of the year to which the D.franchise value
depreciation applies
37. The first cost of any property includes
A.straight
B. sinking fund A.initial cost
C. sum of-the years digit B.installation expense purchase price
D. demand factor C.freight and transportation charges
D.initial taxes
33. The cumulative effect of elapsed time on the E.all of the above.
money value of an event,based on the
earning power of equivalent invested funds 38. Defined as the future value minus the
capital should or will earn present value in a negotiable paper
ALLIED SCIENCES
A. interest
B.rate of return A.sinking fund factor
C.discount B.capacity factor
D.capital C.deman factor
D.present worth factor
39. A type of annuity where the payments are
made at the end of each payment period 44. The payment for the use of borrowed money
starting from the first period. is called
A.ordinary annuity A.loan

B.annuity due B.maturity value
C.deferred annuity C. interest
d.perpetuity D. principal
40. Capitalized cost of any structure or property 45. The interest rate at which the present worth
is equal to of the cash flow on a project is zero of the
interest earned by an investment.
A.first cost + interest
B. annual cost of the first cost A.effective rate
C.first cost + cost of perpetual B.nominal rate
maintenance,operation and replacement C.rate of return
D.first cost + salvage value D.yield
41. The flow back of profit plus depreciation 46. As applied to the capitalized asset the
from a given project is called distribution of the initial cost by a periodic
changes to operation as in depreciation or
A.capital recovery the reduction of the dept by either periodic
B.cash flow or irregular prearranged program is called
C.economic return
D.earning value A.annuity
B.capital recovery
42. The profit derived from a project or business C.annuity factor
enterprise without consideration of D.amortization
obligations to financial contributors or
claims of other based on profit. 47. The lessening of the value of an asset due to
the decrease in the quantity available
A.economic return (referring to the natural resources,coal,etc)
B.yield
C.earning value A.depreciation
D.expected yield B. depletion
C.inflation
43. A mathematical expression also know as D.incremental cost
the present value of an annuity of one is
called
ALLIED SCIENCES
48. The recorded current value of an asset is

known as
A.scrap value
B.salvage value
C.book value
D.present worth
49. The ratio of the interest payment to the

principal for a given unit of time and usually
expressed as a percentage of the principal.
A.interest
B. interest rate
C.investment
D.all of the above
50. A method of depreciation whereby the

amount to recover is spread over the
estimated life of the asset in terms units of
output.
A.straight line
B.sinking fund
C.declining balance
D.service output
ALLIED SCIENCES
ANSWERS: 34. C. corporation

35. A. sinking fund factor
1. C. isogonal 36. D. franchise value
2. C. relative density 37. E. all of the above
3. D. the specific gravity of ivory soap is 38. C. discount
less than that of water 39. A. ordinary annuity
4. B. Bernoulli’s energy theorem 40. C. first cost + cost of perpetual
5. C. m2/s maintenance, operation and
6. C. equal to the weight of the fluid replacement
displaced 41. B. cash flow
7. D. surface tension 42. A. economic return
8. B. capillarity 43. A. sinking fund factor
9. D. I, II, and III 44. C. interest
10. B. friction head 45. C. rate of return
11. A. inertial forces/viscous forces 46. D. amortization
12. A. hydrometer 47. B. depletion
13. A. metacentric height 48. C. book value
14. C. compressibility 49. B. interest rate
15. D. 5 50. D. service output
16. A. sodium
17. A. the vapor and liquid have a single
form
18. A. the number of moles of solute in
1000g of solvent
19. E. 16 gram of oxygen molecules
20. C. 1.294x103J
21. B. 0.5
22. B. 26.69mV
23. C. negative temperature coefficient of
resistance
24. D. extrinsic semiconductor
25. C. laminar
26. B. become laminar
27. C. discharge
28. A. deferred annuity
29. B. monopsony
30. D. market value
31. B. annuity due
32. D. declining balance
33. D. yield
ALLIED SCIENCES
D. compound interest is paid on all amounts

1. A method of depreciation where a fixed sum in the annuity
of money is regularly deposited at 6. Which is not a type of business
compound interest in a real or imaginary organization?
fund in order to accumulate an amount equal
to the total depreciation of an asset’s A. sole proprietorship
estimated life. B. Corporation
C. enterprise
A. straight line D. partnership
B. sinking fund method
C. declining balance 7. A condition where only few individual
D. SYD method produce a certain product that action of one
will lead to almost the same action by the
2. The true value of interest rate computed by other.
equations for compound interest for a 1 year
period is known as: A. monopoly
B. oligopoly
A. Expected return C. semi-monopoly
B. nominal interest D. perfect competition
C. interest
D. effective interest 8. Is the simplest form of business
organization.
3. Scrap value an asset is sometimes known as:
A. sole proprietorship
A. Book value B. partnership
B. Salvage value C. enterprise
C. Replacement value D. corporation
D. Future value
9. An association of two or more persons for a
4. The reduction of the value of an asset due to purpose of engaging in a profitable business.
constant use and passage of time.
A. sole proprietorship
A. scrap value B. enterprise
B. depletion C. partnership
C. depreciation D. corporation
D. book value
10. A distinct legal entity which can practically
5. Which is not an essential element of an transact any business transaction which a
ordinary annuity? real person could do.
A. The amount of all the payments are equal A. sole proprietorship

B. They are made at equal interval of time B. enterprise
C. the first payments is made at the C. partnership
beginning of each period D. corporation
ALLIED SCIENCES
banks or other institution. They are usually a

11. The type of annuity where payments form of long term security, but may be
continue infinitely. irredeemable.
A. ordinary annuity
B. annuity due A. bonds
C. deferred annuity B. t-bills
D. perpetuity C. certificate of deposits
D. all of these
12. A currency traded in a foreign market for
which the demands are consistently high in 17. Defined as the certificate of indebtedness of
relation to its supply. a corporations usually for a period not less
than 10 years and guaranteed by a mortgage
A. money market on certain assets of a corporation.
B. fixed assets
C. trade investments A. bond
D. all of these B. t-bills
C. stock
13. Everything a company owns and which has D. all of these
a money value is classified as an asset.
Which of the following is classified as an 18. A type of bond where the corporation
asset? pledges securities which it owns (stocks,
bonds of its subsidiaries):
A. intangible assets
B. fixed assets A. mortgage bond
C. trade investments B. registered bond
D. all of these C. coupon bond
D. collateral trust bond
14. Which is an example of intangible assets?
19. A type of bond which does not have security
A. cash except a promise to pay by the issuing
B. investment in subsidiary companies corporation.
C. fixed assets
D. patents A. debenture
B. registered bond
15. Lands, buildings, plant and machinery are C. coupon bond
examples of: D. collateral trust bond
A. current assets 20. A type of bond issued jointly by two or

B. fixed assets more corporation.
C. trade investments
D. intangible assets A. joint bond
B. debenture bond
16. A form of fixed-interest security issued by C. registered bond
central or local governments, companies, D. collateral bond
ALLIED SCIENCES
26. It is a negotiable claim issued by a bank in

21. A type of bond whose guaranty is in lien on lieu of a term deposit.
railroad equipment.
A. Time deposit
A. equipment B. Bond
B. debenture bond C. Capital gain
C. registered bond D. Certificate of deposit
D. infrastructure bond
27. Any particular raw material or primary
22. If the security of the bond is a mortgage on product (e.g. cloth, wool, flour, coffee…) is
certain specified asset of a corporation, this called;
bond is classified as:
A. Utility
A. registered bond B. Necessity
B. preferred bond C. Commodity
C. mortgage bond D. Stock
D. All of these
28. It denotes in the fall in the exchange rate of
23. A type of bond where the corporation’s one currency in terms of other. The term
owner name are recorded and the interest is usually applies to floating exchange rates.
paid periodically to the owners with their
asking for it. A. Currency appreciation
B. Currency devaluation
A. registered bond C. Currency float
B. preferred bond D. Currency depreciation
C. incorporator’s bond
D. all of these 29. The deliberate lowering of the price of a
nation’s currency in terms of accepted
24. An increase in the value of a capital assets is standards (gold, American dollar, or the
called; British pound) is known as
A. profit A. Currency appreciation

B. capital gain B. Currency devaluation
C. capital expenditures C. Currency float
D. capital stock D. Currency depreciation
25. The reduction in the money value of a 30. The amount of company’s profits that the
capital asset is called: board of directors of the corporation decides
to distribute to ordinary shareholders.
A. capital expenditures
B. capital loss A. Dividend
C. loss B. Return
D. deficit C. Share of stock
D. Par value
ALLIED SCIENCES
D. The partners may sell stock to generate

31. The residual values of the company’s assets additional capital
after all outside liabilities (shareholders
excluded) have been allowed for. 36. Which is true about partnership?
A. Dividend A. It has perpetual life

B. Equity B. It will be dissolved if one partners ceases
C. Return to be connected with the partnership
D. Bond C. It can be handed down from one
generation of partners to another.
32. A saving which takes place goods are not D. Its capitalization must be equal for each
available for consumption rather than the partner.
consumer really want to save.
37. Which is true about corporations?
A. Compulsory saving
B. Consumer saving A. It is not best for business organization
C. Forced saving B. The minimum number of incorporators
D. All of these to start a corporation is three
C. The life is dependent on the lives of the
33. A document that shows proof of legal incorporators
ownership of a financial security. D. The stockholders of the corporation only
liable to the extent of their investments
A. Bond
B. Bank note 38. The amount of money invested at 12%
C. Coupon interest per annum will double in
D. Check approximately;
34. A marked condition where there are two A. 4 years

buyers and two sellers. B. 5 years
C. 6 years
A. Doupsony D. 7 years
B. Duopoly
C. Bilateral doupsony 39. A is a periodic payment and I is interest rate,
D. Bilateral oligopoly then present worth of perpetuity is
35. In case of bankruptcy of a partnership A. Ai

B. A-i
A. The partners are not liable for the C. i/A
liabilities of the partnership D. A/i
B. The partnership assets (excluding the
partners personal assets) only will be 40. Defined as the capacity of commodity to
used to pay the liabilities satisfy human want
C. The partners personal assets are attached
to the debt of the partnership A. Discount
ALLIED SCIENCES
B. Necessity C. Bookkeeping records

C. Luxuries D. Accounting cost
D. Utilities
46. The ratio of the annual net profit to the
41. It is the profit obtained by selling at a higher amount of capital invested.
price than its original purchase price.
A. Net income
A. debenture B. Gross income
B. goodwill C. Rate of return
C. capital gain D. Working capital
D. internal rate of return 47. The difference between sales revenue and
the cost of good sold
42. Bond which are attached coupons indicating
the interest due and the date when such A. Net income
interest is to be paid. B. Gross profit
C. Rate of return
A. Registered bond D. Gross national
B. Coupon bond
C. Mortgage bond 48. Represent the ownership of stockholders
D. Collateral trust bond who have a residual claim on the assets of
the corporation after all other claims have
43. Bond whose security is a mortgage on been settled.
certain specified assets of the corporation.
A. Authorized capital
A. Registered bond B. Preferred stock
B. Coupon bond C. Incorporators stock
C. Mortgage bond D. Common stock
D. Collateral trust bond
49. Sometimes called second hand value.
44. The process of determining the value of a
certain properties for define reasons. A. Scrap value
B. Salvage value
A. valuation C. Book value
B. appraisal D. Going value
C. estimate
D. both a an b 50. Represent the ownership, and enjoy certain
preference than ordinary stock.
45. A financial summary showing the
relationship among assets, liabilities, and A. Authorized capital
ownership in the corporation on a specific B. Preferred stock
date. C. Common stock
D. Incorporator’s stock
A. Income tax return
B. Balance sheet
ALLIED SCIENCES
ANSWERS: 36. B. it will be dissolved if one partners

ceases to be connected with the
1. B. sinking fund method partnership
2. D. effective interest 37. D. the stockholders of the corporation
3. B. salvage value only liable to the extent of their
4. C. depreciation investments
5. C. the first payments is made at the 38. A. 4years
beginning of each period 39. D. A/i
6. C. enterprise 40. C. luxuries
7. B. oligopoly 41. C. capital gain
8. A. sole proprietorship 42. B. coupon Bond
9. C. partnership 43. C. mortgage bond
10. B. enterprise 44. D. both a and b
11. D. perpetuity 45. B. balance sheet
12. A. money market 46. C. rate of return
13. D. all of these 47. B. gross profit
14. D. patents 48. C. incorporators stock
15. B. fixed assets 49. B. salvage value
16. B. t-bills 50. B. preferred stock
17. A. bond
18. D. collateral trust bonds
19. A. debenture
20. A. joint bond
21. A. equipment
22. C. morigage bond
23. A. registered bon
24. B. capital gain
25. B. capital loss
26. D. certificate of deposit
27. C. commodity
28. D. currency depreciation
29. B. currency devaluation
30. A. dividend
31. B. equity
32. C. forced saving
33. C. coupon
34. C. bilateral doupsony
35. C. the partners personal assets are
attached to the debt of the partnership
ALLIED SCIENCES
6 “When free competition exists, the price of a

1 An intangible value which is actually operating product will be that value where supply is equal
concern has due to its operation. to the demand.”
A. Scrap value A. Law of diminishing return

B. Salvage value oligopoly B. Law of supply
C. Book value C. Law of demand
D. Going value D. Law of supply and demand
2 The satisfaction or pleasure that an individual 7 “When one of the factor of production is fixed in
derives from the consumption of a good or quantity or is difficult to increase, increasing the
services. other factor of production will result in a less
than proportionate increase in output”.
A. necessity
B. utility A. Law of diminishing return
C. market B. Law of supply
D. luxury C. Law of demand
D. Law of supply and demand
3 An intangible item of value arising from the
exclusive right of the company to provide 8 The place where sellers and buyers come
specified product and service in a certain region together.
of the country.
A. Department store
A. Market value B. market
B. Goodwill value C. mall
C. Fair value D. shopping center
D. Franchise value
9 A market situation where there are few sellers
4 The quality of a certain commodity that is and few buyers.
offered for sale at a certain price at given time
and place. A. oligopoly
B. oligopsony
A. demand C. bilateral oligopoly
B. supply D. bilateraloligopsony
C. utility
D. market 10 A market situation where there is one seller and
one buyer.
5 The quality of a certain commodity that is
brought at a certain price at a given time and A. monopoly
place. B. monopsony
C. bilateral monopoly
A. demand D. bilateralmonopsony
B. supply
C. utility 11 An agreed payment made to an owner of an
D. market industrial property right for the grant of an
exclusive sell for profit of the item concerned.
A. Salary
B. commission
ALLIED SCIENCES
C. royalty
D. all of these A. Book value
B. Fair value
12 A form of indirect tax which is incorporated into C. Scrap value
the selling price of a product and which is borne D. Salvage value
by the consumer.
18 The government agency that will approve the
A. EVAT method of depreciation to be used in reporting
B. Capital gain tax expenses of a firm is the
C. Sales tax
D. Tariff A. Department of Budget and Mgt. (DBM)
B. National Bureau of Investigation (NBI)
13 EVAT means C. Department of Labor and Emp. (DOLE)
D. Bureau of Internal Revenue (BIR)
A. Extended value added tax
B. External value added tax 19 At break-even point which of the following is
C. Expanded value added tax not correct
D. Export value added tax
A. Profit income are equal
14 A market that deals in long term company B. Profit and loss are equal
securities ( stocks and shares) and government C. Income and expenses are equal
securities(bonds). D. Loss is zero
A. Stock exchange 20 The sum of the first cost and the present worth of
B. Share market all costs of replacement, operation and
C. Super market maintenance for a long time or forever.
D. Test market
A. Fixed costs
15 The negotiation of wage rates, conditions of B. Variable costs
employment, etc. by representative of the labor C. Capitalized costs
force and management is known as: D. None of these
A. Union trade 21 Is obtained by setting the sum of the values on a

B. Union rally certain comparison or focal date of one set of
C. Collective bargaining obligations equal to the sum of the values on the
D. Cooperative same date of another set of obligations.
16 A form of business firm which is owned and run A. Focal date

by a group of individuals for their mutual B. Equation of state
benefit. C. Equation of value
D. Disbursement
A. union
B. cooperative 22 On a negotiable paper is the difference between
C. partnership the amount received for the paper in cash and the
D. joint revenue face value of the paper or principal. This follows
the principle of “interest deducted in advance.”
17 If the value which is usually determined by a
disinvested third party in order to establish a A. discount
price that is fair to each seller and buyer. B. nominal rate of interest
ALLIED SCIENCES
C. income 28 The process of determining the value of certain

D. none of these property
23 The book value where the original accounts are A. appraiser

recorded is known as B. booking
C. appraisal
A. ledger D. evaluation
B. journal
C. balance sheet 29 A depreciation method where depreciation
D. folio charge for any for any period is charged on the
basis of the service that has been rendered during
24 The secondary and final book account is the the period
ledger and generally termed by the banker as
A. Straight line
A. T-account B. Declining balance
B. V-account C. Sinking fund
C. L-account D. Service output method
D. B-account
30 A cost which, though hidden or implied, is
25 The point where the cost of an order (ordering incurred because of the use of limited resources
cost) will approximately compensate with the in such a manner that the chance to use those
inventory carrying cost resources to monetary advantage is an alternative
is forgone
A. Break-even point
B. Shot-down point A. Variable cost
C. Economic order quantity B. Fixed cost
D. Safety stock C. Sunk cost
D. Opportunity cost
26 Competition wherein the law permits it to
operate for a limited time through the issuance of 31 A form or report stating the financial status of an
copyrights or patents that help to maintain the individual or firm at a particular point in time
uniqueness of a product by preventing identical
products from being marketed. A. Balance sheet
B. Income statement
A. polygopoly C. Trial balance
B. semi-monopoly D. Financial statement
C. oligopoly
D. monopoly 32 104. Is a contra- asset, uncollectible as the result
to customer’s non-payment of their accounts
27 An intangible item of value arising from the
exclusive right of a company to provide specific A. purchase
product or service in a stated region of the B. bad dept
country. C. merchandise
D. freight-in dept
A. Going value
B. goodwill 33 105.When the use of one factors of production is
C. merchandise limited, either the increase cost or by absolute
D. franchise quantity, a point will be reached beyond which
ALLIED SCIENCES
an increase in the variable factors will result in a

less than proportionate increase in output A. Book value
A. Law of saturation B. Market value
B. Law of supply C. Original cost
C. Law of demand D. Salvage value
D. Law of diminishing return
40 The decrease in the value of the property due to
34 Result when there are so few suppliers of a gradual extraction of its content
product or service that action of one will mostly
inevitable results similar action by the others A. Depletion
A. Monopoly B. Inflation
B. Perfect competition C. Appreciation
C. Oligopoly D. None of these
D. Polygopoly
35 Is a certificate of indebtedness of a corporation 41 Current ratio is the ratio that indicates the ability
usually for a period of not less than ten years and of the business to pay current debts. The other
guaranteed by a mortgage on a certain assets of term for current ratio is
the corporation or its subsidiaries
A. Acid-test ratio
A. Discount B. Banker ratio
B. Bond C. Owners ratio
C. Stock D. Quick asset ratio
D. Bond value
42 The tax of imports is known as
36 Reference guide which give the source of the
transaction A. Import value added tax
B. Import quote
A. Folio C. Import tariff
B. Particulars D. Value added tax
C. Debit 43 The market value of all local final goods and
D. Credit services plus the goods and services done by the
country minus the goods and services done to the
37 The general equation for engineering accounting country.
A. Assets=liabilities-owners equity A. Gross National product

B. Liabilities=assests+owners equity B. Gross Domestic product
C. Assets = liabilities+owners equity C. Gross Annual income
D. Owners quality = liabilities-assets D. Net Annual income
38 The series of equal payments made at equal 44 Net working capital is equal to
interval of time
A. Current assets- Current liabilities
A. Annuity B. Current assets- salvage value
B. Liability C. Current liabilities- current assets
C. Sunk cost D. Current liabilities- profit
D. Loss
45 Double taxation means
39 The price that can be obtained from the sale of
the property after it has been used
ALLIED SCIENCES
A. Corporate income is taxed at double the

personal income rate
B. The partners in a firm are taxed at first
at equal personal income rates
C. The income is twice the as high as it
should be
D. Corporate income is taxed first as
corporate income then taken as personal
income then taken as personal income
from the individual payments stock
46 The ratio between the quick assets to the current

liabilities
A. Acid test ratio

B. Current ratio
C. Working amount
D. Marginal ratio
47 The length of time needed to recover the capital
A. Rate of investment
B. Pay back period
C. Present worth
D. Future worth
48 Benefit-to-cost ratio is defined as the
A. (benefits-disbenefit)/costs
B. (benefits-disbenefits)(costs)
C. (disbenefits-benefits)/(costs)
D. Benefit/cost
49 The interest earned by the stock is known as the
A. Income
B. Par value
C. Dividend
D. Face value
50 Is the addition cost of producing one more unit

of a product
A. Sunk cost
B. Marginal cost
C. Variable cost
D. Fixed cost
ALLIED SCIENCES
ANSWERS: 39. D. salvage value

40. A. depletion
1. D. going value 41. B. bankers ratio
2. B. utility 42. C. import tariff
3. D. franchise value 43. A. Gross National Product
4. B. supply 44. A. Current Assets- Current liabilities
5. A. demand 45. D. corporate income is taxed first as
6. D. law of supply and demand corporate income than taken as
7. A. law of diminishing return personal income then taken as
8. B. market personal income from the individual
9. C. bilateral oligopoly payment stock
10. C. bilateral monopoly 46. A. acid test ratio
11. C. royalty 47. B. pay back period
12. A. EVAT 48. A. (benefits-disbenefits)/costs
13. B. expanded value added tax 49. C. dividend
14. A. stock exchange 50. B. marginal cost
15. C. collective bargaining
16. B. cooperative
17. B. fair value
18. D. Bureau of Internal Revenue (BIR)
19. A. profit income are equal
20. C. capitalized cost
21. C. equation of value
22. A. discount
23. B. journal
24. A. T-account
25. C. economic order quantity
26. B. semi-monopoly
27. D. franchise
28. C. appraisal
29. D. service output method
30. D. opportunity cost
31. A. balance sheet
32. B. bad debt
33. D. law of diminishing returns
34. C. oligopoly
35. B. bond
36. A. folio
37. B. assets= liabilities +owners equity
38. A. annuity
ALLIED SCIENCES
1. Is the present worth of all the future 6. The actual rate of interest on the
amounts that are expected to be received principal during one is
through the ownership of the bond. A. Rate of discount
B. Rate of interest
A. Face value C. Effective rate of interest
B. Par value D. Rate of return
C. Redemption
D. Bond value 7. On a negotiable paper is the difference
between the amount received for the
2. Is the method of depreciation that the paper in cash and the face value of the
annual cost of depreciation is a fixed paper or principal. This follows the
percentage of the salvage value at the principle of “interest deduction in
beginning of the year. advance”
A. Sinking fund method A. Discount

B. Matheson formula method B. Nominal rate of interest
C. Double declining balance method C. Income
D. Sum-of-year-digit method D. None of these
3. Aside from the straight line method of 8. Are things of value and rights owned by
depreciation what other method assumes the business
a uniform annual depreciation
A. Property
A. Sinking fund method B. Assets
B. Service output method C. Liabilities
C. Declining balance method D. Equity
D. None of these
9. Is the quantity in addition to the
4. Profit volume ratio is: economic order quantity use to
anticipate sudden change of demand and
A. Contribution margin/sales the delay of the ordered quantity
B. Sales-variable cost/profit
C. (fixed cost)/(break even sales) A. Safety stock
D. None of these B. Safety allowance
C. Tolerance stock
5. The efficiency of an investment is D. None of these
known as
10. Is done when all the existing stocks
A. Rate of discount should be disposed and to be replaced
B. Rate of interest by the new stocks
C. Effective rate of interest
D. Rate of return A. Discounting
B. Crediting
C. Wash sale
ALLIED SCIENCES
D. Debiting 15. The replacement of the original cost of

an investment is called:
11. Are cash, accounts receivable,
merchandise inventory, marketable A. Pay off
securities and other assets which are B. Return on investment
readily convertible into cash C. Breakeven
D. Capital recovery
A. Fixed assets 16. A form of business organization owned
B. Current liabilities by one individual who is responsible for
C. Current assets the firm’s policies, owned all its assets,
D. Expenses and personally liable for its debts.
12. Are liabilities which are usually secured A. Partnership

by mortgage. These are payable within B. Sole proprietorship
one year or one accounting period C. Corporation
D. Cooperative
A. Fixed assets
B. Current liabilities 17. A cost item which is common both the
C. Current assets fixed and operating cost of an enterprise.
D. Expenses
A. Interest
13. It is the analysis and evaluation of the B. Taxes
factors that will affect the success of C. Depreciation
engineering projects to the end that a D. Supplies
recommendation be made which will
ensure the best use of capital. 18. The length of time, usually in years, for
cumulative net annual profit to equal the
A. Engineering economy investment.
B. Engineering management
C. Engineering statistics A. Receivable turnover
D. Engineering accounting B. Return of investment
C. Payback period
14. Which of the following is incorrect D. Price earning ratio
between lease and outright purchase of
equipment? 19. The reduction in value and marketability
due to competition from newest
A. Leasing fees needed working capital products/model.
B. Leasing reduces maintenance and
administrative expenses A. Depreciated cost
C. Leasing offers certain tax advantage B. Fixed cost
D. Leasing offers less flexibility with C. Indirect cost
respect to technical obsolescence D. Obsolescence
ALLIED SCIENCES
20. Form of summary of assets, liabilities A. Equity capital

and net worth. B. Working capital
C. Investment
A. Balance sheet D. Present fund
B. Break even point
C. Balance method 26. Fund supplied by others on which a
D. All of these fixed rate of interest must be paid and
the debt be repaid at a specific place and
21. The worth of property that is equal to time.
the original cost less depreciation.
A. Earning value A. Discount
B. Scrap value B. Cash flow
C. Book value C. Working capital
D. Face value D. Borrowed capital
22. The type of interest that is periodically 27. The length of time during which the
added to the amount of loan so that property may be operated at a profit
subsequent interest is based on the
cumulative amount. A. Length of time
B. Economic life
A. Compound interest C. Physical life
B. Interest rate D. Life
C. Simple interest
D. Sinking fund 28. Kind of obligation that has no condition
attached.
23. Output or sales at which income is
insufficient to equal operating cost. A. Analytic
B. Private
A. Break even point C. Gratuitous
B. Depreciation D. Pure
C. Investment
D. Cash flow 29. Gross profit, sales less cost of goods
sold, as a percentage of sales
24. An estimate of assets net market value at
the end of its estimated life. A. Profit margin
B. Gross margin
A. Book value C. Return of investment
B. Depreciation D. Price earnings
C. Salvage value
D. Cash flow 30. The present worth of all depreciation
over the economic life of the item
25. Fund supplied and used by owners of an
enterprise in the expectation that profit A. Maintenance
will be earned. B. Capital recovery
ALLIED SCIENCES
C. Depreciation recovery D. Land and buildings

D. Annuity
36. Direct cost incurred in the factory and
31. The provision in the contract that direct material costs are the cost of all
indicates the possible adjustment of materials that go into production. The
material cost and labor cost sum of these two direct costs are known
as:
A. Secondary clause
B. Specification A. Gross sales and account expenses
C. Escalatory clause B. Operation and maintenance cost
D. General provision C. Prime cost
D. Overhead and maintenance costs
32. Type of ownership in business where
individuals exercise and enjoy the right 37. The total income equals the total
in their own interest operating cost
A. Equitable A. Balance sheet

B. Public B. In-place value
C. Private C. Check and balance
D. Pure D. Break-even-no-gain-no-loss
33. What is the highest position in the 38. Estimate the value at the end of the
corporation? useful life
A. President A. Salvage value

B. Board of directors B. Compounded annually
C. Manage C. Economic life
D. Stockholders D. Balance sheet
34. An index of short term paying ability 39. An artificial expense that spreads the
purchase price of an asset or another
A. Current ratio property over a number of years
B. Receivable ratio turn-over
C. Acid-test ratio A. Depreciation
D. Profit margin B. Sinking fund
C. Amnesty
35. Liquid assets such as cash and other D. Bond
assets that can be converted quickly into
cash, such as accounts receivable, and 40. Consists of the annual counting or
merchandise. determination of the actual quantity of
the materials on hands as of a given date
A. Total assets
B. Fixed assets A. Physical inventory
C. Current assets B. Material update
ALLIED SCIENCES
C. Technological assessment C. Capital gain

D. Material count D. Deficit
41. It is a series of equal payments 46. The difference between the sale revenue
accounting at equal interval of time and the cost of goods
where the first payment is made several
periods, after the beginning of the A. Net income
payment B. Rate of return
C. Gross profit
A. Deferred annuity D. Goss national product
B. Delayed annuity
C. Progress annuity 47. A currency trade in a foreign exchange
D. Simple annuity market for which the demand is
consistently high in relation to its supply
42. A market whereby there is only one
buyer of an item for which there are A. Money market
good substitute B. Hard currency
C. Treasury bill
A. Monopsony D. Certificate deposit
B. Oligopoly
C. Monopoly 48. Defined as the certificate of
D. Oligopsony indebtedness of a corporation usually for
a period of not less than 10 years and
43. A distinct legal entity that can guaranteed by a mortgage on certain
practically transact any business assets of a corporation
transaction that a real person could do
A. Bonds
A. Sole proprietorship B. Stocks
B. Partnership C. T-bills
C. Enterprise D. Treasury bill
D. Corporation
49. It is a negotiable claim issued by a bank
44. An increase in the value of capital asset in lieu of a term deposit
A. Profit A. Time deposit

B. Capital gain B. Capital gain
C. Capital expenditure C. Bond
D. Capital stock D. Certificate of deposit
45. The reduction in the money value of a 50. The amount of the company’s profit that
capital asset the board of directors of the corporation
decides to distribute to ordinary
A. Capital expenditure shareholders
B. Capital loss
ALLIED SCIENCES
A. Dividend B. Salvage value

B. Share stock C. Market value
C. Return D. Book value
D. Par value
56. The price that can be obtained from the
51. A document that shows proof of legal sale of property or second hand
ownership of a financial security
A. Book value
A. Bond B. Salvage value
B. Coupon C. Fair value
C. Bank note D. Market value
D. Check
57. The process of determining the value of
52. The process of determining the value of a certain property for specific reason
a certain property for definite reasons
A. Amortization
A. Valuation B. Investment
B. Estimate C. Appraisal
C. Appraisal D. Depreciation
D. Valuation and appraisal
58. A bond whereby the security behind it
53. Represent ownership and enjoys certain are the equipment of the issuing
preferences than ordinary stocks corporation
A. Authorized capital stock A. Debenture bond

B. Common stock B. Collateral bond
C. Preferred stock C. Lien bond
D. Incorporator’s stocks D. Mortgage bond
54. It is the difference between present 59. An annuity where the payment period
worth and of the paper at some tome in extends forever or in which the periodic
the future payment continue indefinitely
A. Discount A. Ordinary annuity

B. Amortization B. Annuity due
C. Depletion C. Deferred annuity
D. Investment D. Perpetuity
55. The value that is usually determined by 60. It is the span of life of equipment during
the disinterested third party in order to which it is produces the product it is
establish a price that is fair to both seller designed to produce at a profit
and buyer
A. Write off period
A. Fair value B. Economic life
ALLIED SCIENCES
C. Physical life
D. Perpetual life
61. It is a deprecation method whereby the

decrease in value of the unit is constant
year
A. Matheson formula
B. SYD method
C. Straight line method
D. Sinking fund
62. It is a distinct legal entity separate from

the individual who own it and which can
engage in practically any business
transaction, which a real person can do
A. Sole proprietorship
B. Corporation
C. Partnership
D. Enterprise
63. These are costs that remain relatively

constant regardless of any change in
operation or policy, which is made.
A. Fixed cost
B. Variable cost
C. Incremental cost
D. Differential cost
ALLIED SCIENCES
ANSWERS: 40. A physical inventory

41. A Deferred annuity
1. D bond value 42. A Monopsony
2. B Matheson formula method 43. D corporation
3. A sinking fund method 44. B capital gain
4. A contribution margin/sales 45. B capital loss
5. D rate of return 46. A net income
6. C effective rate of interest 47. B hard currency
7. A discount 48. A bonds
8. B assets 49. D certificate of deposit
9. A safety stock 50. A dividend
10. C wash sale 51. B coupon
11. C current assets 52. D valuation and appraisal
12. B current liabilities 53. C preferred stock
13. A engineering economy 54. A discount
14. C leasing offers certain tax advantage 55. A fair value
15. A pay off 56. B salvage value
16. B sole proprietorship 57. C appraisal
17. A interest 58. D mortgage bond
18. C payback period 59. D perpetuity
19. D obsolescene 60. B economic life
20. C balance method 61. A Matheson formula
21. C book value 62. B corporation
22. A compound interest 63. A Fixed cost
23. A break even period
24. C salvage value
25. A equity capital
26. D borrowed capital
27. B economic life
28. C gratuitous
29. B gross margin
30. C depreciation recovery
31. C Escalatory clause
32. C private
33. B board of directors
34. C acid-test ratio
35. C current assets
36. C prime cost
37. D break-even-no-gain-no-loss
38. A salvage value
39. A depreciation

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COMPILATION OF REVIEW QUESTIONS IN GENERAL ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS AND

1. Mechanical Engineering, in the fulfillment of B. Questionable reputation

A. Interest 6. A mechanical engineer shall inform his client or

2. The mechanical engineer shall, in the practice of A. Business contracts

3. The mechanical engineer shall be ready to render A. 7

10. The newest member of the board of mechanical

14. The term of office of a BME is 3 year term, with A. 4

15. A Mechanical Engineering board examinee, A. 1PME

A. Is zero at the centroidal axis

A. Irrational 27. A point on the curve where the first derivative of

A. Pure substance 31. It is the sequence of numbers such that the

D. Geometric progression C. Circumference

38. The sum of the sides of a polygon is called

37. The angular bisector of the sides of a triangle

45. To maximize the horizontal range of the

47. The chord passing though the focus of the

48. As applied to capitalized asset, the distribution of

1. An investment analysis that compares the present A. Value added tax

A. Center of force 8. Is the law established by legislation through the

A. Orthocenter 9. The change, substitution or renewal of an

4. The sum of all sides of a polygon is called A. Renewal

12. It is a polyhedron of which two faces are equal A. Bonds

25. Hydrogen containing one or more carbon-carbon A. Circle

27. A regular polygon which has 54 diagonals is A. Cycloid

A. Durability A. Master of Science in Mechanical

A. Unprofessional conduct 49. The newest member of the Board of Mechanical

47. Personnel required in a mechanical plant of

48. Under Transitory Provisions of the ME law,

ANSWERS: 37. B. decision making

1. Article I of the ME Law has the least number of

A. 4 11. A point on the curve where the first derivative of

12. The chord passing through the focus of the A. Orthocenter

16. If the first derivative of the equation of the curve A. Apothem

17. The median of a triangle is the line connecting a A. Radius

24. A regular polygon with 27 diagonals is called:

31. In a typical plan and specifications prepared by

A. Four or more terms

27. If a line contains points in quadrant I and III,

28. The graph of y2=x2 + 1 is___________.

47. In a typical plan and specifications prepared by

48. Modes of extinguishing obligations when

49. The equation x2 + y2 – 2y -20 = 0 describes:

A. A circle of radius 5 centered at the origin

50. “The moment of the resultant of two concurrent

ANSWERS: 37. C inflection point

A. Newton’s first law of motion

A. Cissoids of diocles 9. Everything a company owns and which has a

A. Dividend A. Rea and equal

A. Income tax return A. Direction

D. Kinetics B. Infinite progression

C. Minimum point A. The tangent is positive

A. Orthocenter A. Skew line

36. Moment of inertia of a square cross section with A. Parallel

38. A relationship between two variables which A. Quadresimal yrs

46. How many grams is 1 Quintal (q)?

47. Areas of irregular figures can be determined by

48. Term to describe the integral solution owing to

49. An integration method frequently employed if it

50. Which is better, to invest your money at a rate of

A. 12% cpded monthly

A. Limacon 17. Any positive integers as 1,2,3, etc. is also called

C. Factors C. Order of numbers

46. The plane rectangular coordinate system is