Test - 1 (Code-A) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET - 2020

TEST - 1 (Code-A)
Test Date : 28/07/2019

ANSWERS
1. (1) 37. (2) 73. (3) 109. (4) 145. (4)
2. (3) 38. (1) 74. (3) 110. (3) 146. (4)
3. (3) 39. (1) 75. (3) 111. (3) 147. (3)
4. (1) 40. (4) 76. (4) 112. (3) 148. (2)
5. (1) 41. (2) 77. (2) 113. (3) 149. (4)
6. (2) 42. (1) 78. (2) 114. (2) 150. (2)
7. (1) 43. (1) 79. (2) 115. (2) 151. (4)
8. (4) 44. (3) 80. (2) 116. (2) 152. (2)
9. (1) 45. (3) 81. (3) 117. (2) 153. (4)
10. (1) 46. (2) 82. (4) 118. (3) 154. (1)
11. (3) 47. (1) 83. (2) 119. (2) 155. (3)
12. (2) 48. (3) 84. (1) 120. (3) 156. (1)
13. (3) 49. (2) 85. (3) 121. (1) 157. (1)
14. (4) 50. (1) 86. (2) 122. (3) 158. (2)
15. (1) 51. (2) 87. (2) 123. (2) 159. (3)
16. (1) 52. (3) 88. (4) 124. (3) 160. (3)
17. (4) 53. (4) 89. (2) 125. (2) 161. (3)
18. (4) 54. (2) 90. (3) 126. (3) 162. (2)
19. (1) 55. (4) 91. (3) 127. (4) 163. (3)
20. (3) 56. (2) 92. (3) 128. (3) 164. (3)
21. (1) 57. (3) 93. (4) 129. (3) 165. (3)
22. (3) 58. (2) 94. (3) 130. (2) 166. (1)
23. (1) 59. (2) 95. (3) 131. (2) 167. (1)
24. (1) 60. (4) 96. (3) 132. (4) 168. (3)
25. (4) 61. (3) 97. (3) 133. (3) 169. (2)
26. (3) 62. (3) 98. (4) 134. (3) 170. (2)
27. (2) 63. (3) 99. (4) 135. (2) 171. (4)
28. (2) 64. (2) 100. (2) 136. (4) 172. (3)
29. (4) 65. (1) 101. (3) 137. (4) 173. (4)
30. (1) 66. (2) 102. (2) 138. (3) 174. (2)
31. (4) 67. (3) 103. (2) 139. (2) 175. (4)
32. (3) 68. (4) 104. (3) 140. (3) 176. (3)
33. (1) 69. (4) 105. (3) 141. (2) 177. (4)
34. (4) 70. (3) 106. (3) 142. (1) 178. (1)
35. (2) 71. (2) 107. (4) 143. (2) 179. (4)
36. (1) 72. (2) 108. (2) 144. (1) 180. (4)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test - 1 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS –1
1 1 1 2C
Ceq     
1. Answer (1)  C C 2C  5

kq 5. Answer (1)
Hint : E 
r2 Hint : Apply Kirchhoff’s current law.

 2 2
Sol. : r  3  4  5 m Sol. :  iin   iout
10 + 3 + i = 1 + 2 + 1 + 11
9  109  100  106
E  36 kN/C i = 2A
25
6. Answer (2)
2. Answer (3)
Hint : Electrostatics of a conductor.  
Hint : Flux = E.A ; Net flux = 0

Sol. : Sol. : curved surface +plane faces = 0

curved – 5((52)) + 5 ((22)) = 0

curved = 5(25 – 4) = 105 N m2/C

7. Answer (1)
Hint : Conservation of energy

Sol. :
Surface charge density on A is uniform and on
B is non-uniform.
3. Answer (3) 2  k (3q 2 ) 6kq 2
 r  
Hint : Kirchhoff’s voltage law and current law. mv 2 mv 2
Sol. : 8. Answer (4)
Hint : If n identical capacitances are in series then
C
net capacitance 
n

C C C
Sol. : Cnet  C    ....
KVL : A  B 2 4 8
q
100 – 2(10) – 4(6) –
2
– 4 (6) = 0 C
Cnet   2C
1
 q = 64 C 1–
4. Answer (1) 2
Hint : Remove short circuited capacitors 9. Answer (1)
Hint : Infinite resistance ladder
Sol. : Removing short circuited capacitors, the
equivalent circuit is
Sol. :

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Test - 1 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020

Let effective resistance between A and B is x then

 4  12 
effective resistance between A and B will be 2x. Q   20 C  60 C
 4  12 
4  2x
2 x 15. Answer (1)
4  2x Hint : Kirchhoff’s laws.
 x2 – 4x – 4 = 0 Sol. : Before closing the switch
4  16  16
x  2  2 2    30 – 10 
i  A  5 A
2  4 
10. Answer (1) After closing switch
Hint : Use Gauss’s law
Sol. : If  is the volume charge density
x
E (x  R)
3 0
R 3
 (x  R)
3 0 x 2
Let potential at junction be V
11. Answer (3)
Hint : Balanced wheatstone bridge 30 – V 10 – V 0 – V
   0 (KCL)
Sol. : The circuit is a balanced wheatstone bridge 2 2 3
and therefore the current through the galvanometer V = 15 V
will always be zero.
15 – 10
12. Answer (2) Current from R1   2.5 A
2
l
Hint : T(simple pendulum)  2 5
g eff. Ratio   2 :1
2.5
Sol. : geff > g (as there is electrostatic repulsion) 16. Answer (1)

l Hint & Sol. : For a conductor in electrostatic condition,

 T  2 the net electric field due to induced charges and
g
charges outside the conductor is zero in a cavity.
13. Answer (3) 17. Answer (4)
Hint & Sol. : Balanced wheatstone bridge.
Hint : Use KVL
Sol. : Potential difference across R3 = 0

Sol. :

30 R 60  30
 R   45 
BC CA 40
14. Answer (4)
Hint : In series combination of capacitors charge
According to symmetry a and b are at same potential.
on each capacitor is equal to charge on equivalent
So current in R3 is zero.
capacitor
18. Answer (4)
Hint : Charge on an isolated capacitor remains
Sol. : constant and potential across a capacitor connected
to a given battery is constant.
Sol. : Let the dielectric constant be K.
Let e.m.f of the battery be E

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test - 1 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)

Charge stored in capacitor Q = CE

1 Q2 1 (4)
Initial energy   CE 2
2 C 2

Q2
O1  O2  final energy 
2C
 C decreases as separation increases 21. Answer (1)
 energy increases Hint : Parallel combination of batteries and maximum
power transfer theorem.
1 1 
O3  O1  final energy  (KC )E2  K  C E2  Sol. : Equivalent battery circuit
2 2 
19. Answer (1)
Hint Potential due to spherical shell.

1 1
Sol. : V  k (Q )   
 rA rB 
40
kQ Maximum power transfer when R  
 3
2rA 22. Answer (3)
20. Answer (3) Hint : To find internal resistance using a potentiometer.

Hint : Potential across parallel resistors is same. l 

r  R  1  1
Potential across identical resistors in series is equally  l2 
divided.
Sol. : Potential across each bulb is Sol. :

(1)

 2.4 
2  10   1
 x 
(2) 2 2.4
1
10 x
x=2m
23. Answer (1)
Hint : Parallel circuit elements have same potential
difference.
Sol. : Potential difference across resistance arm
(3)
with ammeter is 32 V

32
Current is 4A
8

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Test - 1 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020

24. Answer (1) 29. Answer (4)

Hint : Force between the plates Q2E1 Hint : Circuit analysis

Sol. : Simplified circuit
Q1
Sol. : E1 
2 A0

Q1Q2 Q2
F 
2A0 4 A0

25. Answer (4)

Hint : Conduction of electrons in a conductor.
Sol. : The motion of electrons is random but in
presence of external electric field, they slowly drift
 (R  R )(2 R ) 4 R 2
Rnet   R
opposite to E and cause a current. 2 R  (R  R ) 4 R
26. Answer (3) 30. Answer (1)
Hint : Time constant =  = Req C Hint : Bulb on which voltage is greater than the rated
Sol. : Finding Req. voltage would fuse.
Sol. : Since both bulbs are connected in parallel, the
voltage across every bulb will be 440 V. Thus, both
bulbs will fuse.
31. Answer (4)
Hint and Sol. : Maximum power transfer theorem.
 = 8 RC Current through 5  resistor is maximum if R = 0.
27. Answer (2) In this case, the power through 5  resistor will be
Hint : Balanced wheatstone bridge maximum.
Sol. : Simplified circuit diagram 32. Answer (3)

Hint : Circuit equation.

Sol. :

2 – i (1) = 0  i = 2 A
This is a balanced wheatstone bridge
8 8 24 28 10
Cnet     8 F i 2 2R 2
5 5 5 1 2  R R 3
28. Answer (2) 33. Answer (1)
Hint : Properties of a conductor in an electrostatic Hint : Colour code of carbon resistor
condition. Sol. : 54 M = 54 × 106 
Colour band : Green (5), Yellow (4), Blue (6)
Sol. : Positive charges move from higher to lower
potential while negative charges move from lower to 2.7
Tolerance limit   100  5%
higher potential. 54
Sharp points on a conductor have higher surface Colour band for tolerance limit : Gold
charge density. So, sequence : Green – Yellow – Blue – Gold

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test - 1 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)

34. Answer (4)

2kqQR
  u
Hint and Sol. : P  0 (K  1)E m(R 2 – d 2 )
35. Answer (2) 39. Answer (1)
Hint : V = IR and R = R0 (1 + T)
ER
Hint : V  Sol. : V = IR
Rr
As I is constant
E VR
Sol. : As R increases V  increases.
r  R2 = 2R1 = R1 (1 + (400))
1
R  2 = 1+ (400)
 Best answer : B  = 2.5 ×10–3 K–1
36. Answer (1) 40. Answer (4)
Hint : V = IR and R = R0 (1 + T)  i
Hint and Sol. : net 
1 n
Sol. : slope  tan() 
Resistance 1  2  3

As temperature is increased, resistance increases 3
and tan() decreases. 41. Answer (2)
37. Answer (2) Hint : In steady state a capacitor breaks the circuit
across it in direct currents.
Hint : E = k
Sol. : Both switches open
2  i4 = 0
Sol. : I   0.1 A
20 Both switches closed
Potential gradient
20 – 8
0.1 15  i 4  2A
k  1.5 V/m 42
1 42. Answer (1)
E = K  
Hint :  dV    E  dr
1.2
   0.8 m  
1.5 Sol. : dV  E  dr  ( yzi  zx j  xy k )  (dxi  dy j
38. Answer (1)
Hint : Conservation of angular momentum and energy.  dzk )
Sol. : Or, dV = – yzdx – zxdy – xydz
Or, dV = – d(xyz)
V
(1,1,1)
 dV  [ xyz]0,0,0  1  V  1V
0

43. Answer (1)

Hint : Parallel combination of resistors
Conservation of angular momentum about centre of R() R(2 – )
sphere. Sol. : R1  and R2  
A A
mud = mvx, (∵ x = R )
2
 R 
 mud  mvR  v 
ud
R1R2  A  ()(2 – )
R Rnet   
R1  R2 (2)(R )
Conservation of mechanical energy 
A
1 kqQ 1
mu 2   mv 2 R
2 R 2 
()(2 – )
2A
2 Maximum when  = 2 – 
1 kqQ 1  ud 
mu 2   m =
2 R 2  R 

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Test - 1 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020

44. Answer (3) Sol. : i = (1 – 0.4 + 2 × 0.4) = 1.4

Hint : At t = 0, capacitor is shortcircuited. Tf = 1.4 × 1.86 × 0.2
Sol. : Equivalent circuit at t = 0
= 0.52

Tf0  Tf  0.52
0 – Tf = 0.52
Tf = – 0.52°C
50. Answer (1)

2 1 1000  k
16 Hint : m (S cm mol ) 
i 2A C
 36 
6  1000  1.3  102
36 Sol. : m 
45. Answer (3) 0.1
m = 130 Scm2/mol
Sol. :
51. Answer (2)
7
Hint : MnO4  5e  Mn2
Sol. : Q = 0.5 × 5 × 96500 C
= 2.4 × 105 C
KVL in path AFEB : 52. Answer (3)
VA + 20 + 6 = VB Hint : For nth order reaction unit of rate constant is
(mol L–1)1–n s–1.
 VA VB = – 26 volt
Sol. : Rate constant for second order reaction will
CHEMISTRY be (mol L–1)1–2 s–1
46. Answer (2) = mol–1 L s–1
Hint : Packing efficiency of FCC unit cell is 74% 53. Answer (4)
Sol. : Percentage of vacant space is 26%. Hint : For first order reaction, unit of rate constant
is s–1.
47. Answer (1)
a
Hint : For BCC unit cell, 4r  3 a and kt  2.303log
ax

3 2.303 a
Sol. : r  a Sol. : t  log
4 k ax
2.303 100
3 t log
  360 2.303  10 3
100  70
4
= 155.9 pm 2.303
t [log10  log3]
48. Answer (3) 2.303  103
t = 0.52 ×103 s = 8.67 min
m
Hint : Mole fraction of urea (x)  54. Answer (2)
m  55.55
Hint : Order of a reaction can be zero as well as
4.45 fractional.
Sol. : x   0.07
4.45  55.55 55. Answer (4)
49. Answer (2) Hint : Silicon when doped with group 15 elements
then n-type semiconductor is formed.
Hint : Tf = iKfm and i = (1 –  + n)

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test - 1 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)

56. Answer (2) 63. Answer (3)

Hint : Each Ba 2+ ion introduces one cation Hint : Strongest oxidising agent is one whose
vacancy. reduction potential is highest and strongest reducing
Sol. : Cation vacancy per mole of NaCl crystal agent is one whose oxidation potential is highest.
Sol. : Co3+(aq) + e–  Co2+(aq) E° = + 1.81 V
2  105 Cu(s)  Cu2+(aq) + 2e–
  6.0  1023 E° = – 0.34 V
100 64. Answer (2)
= 1.2 × 1017

57. Answer (3) Hint : Degree of dissociation () 

Hint : In FCC unit cell, for each atom there is one
octahedral void and two tetrahedral voids. 25
Sol. :    0.1
Sol. : For FCC unit cell, the number of atoms of 250
A=4 C2
Dissociation constant K 
1 1 1 
The number of atoms of B  8  4  5
2 4 1 (0.1)2
K   5.55  104
 Formula of compound = A4B5 20 0.9
58. Answer (2) 65. Answer (1)
Hint : Mass of H2SO4 in 250 ml of 2.0 M H2SO4 is k 2 Ea  T2  T1 
250 × 2 × 98 × 10–3 g = 49 g Hint : ln   
k1 R  T1T2 
Sol. : 98 g of H2SO4 is present in 100 g of solution
 310  300 
Ea
100 Sol. : ln2   310  300 
49 g of H2SO4 will present in  49  50 g  R 
98
Ea = 9300 R ln2
59. Answer (2) 66. Answer (2)
Hint : Volume of liquid is temperature dependent.
1 dA 1 dB 1 dC
Hint : Rate of reaction   
W 2 dt 3 dt 4 dt
Sol. :   % is temperature independent
W d[C] 4 d[B]
Sol. : Rate of appearance of C  
60. Answer (4) dt 3 dt
Hint : For isotonic solution, 1 = 2 d[A]
 2
Sol. : = CRT dt
 C 67. Answer (3)
C1 = C2 Hint : Catalyst catalyses only spontaneous
reactions.
18 5  1000
 68. Answer (4)
180 100  M
Hint : G° = – nFE°cell
or, M = 50 × 10 = 500
Sol. : G° = – 2 × F × [E°R – E°L]
 Molar mass of the solute = 500 g mol–1
= – 2 × F × [– 0.25 + 2.36]
61. Answer (3)
= – 4.22 F joule
Hint : If reduction potentials are given then
E°cell = E°right – E°left 69. Answer (4)
Hint : Higher the charge and larger the size of ion
Sol. : Ni(s)  2Ag (aq.)  Ni2 (aq)  2Ag(s) higher will be molar conductivity.
E°cell = [0.80 – (– 0.25)]V = 1.05 V Sol. : Ion °/(S cm2 mol–1)
62. Answer (3) Na+ 50.1
Hint : The intermolecular attractive forces between K+ 73.5
A – A and B – B are weaker than those between Ca 2+ 119
A – B. Mg 2+ 106

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Test - 1 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020

70. Answer (3) 76. Answer (4)

Ea Hint : Order of the reaction is determined by
Hint : lnk    ln A slowest step.
RT
Ea Sol. : From equation (i)
Sol. : slope  
R
[C]2
71. Answer (2) K eq 
[A 2 ][B]2
Hint : Diamond crystal is FCC lattice where half of
the tetrahedral voids are occupied by carbon but [C]2 = Keq [A2] [B]2
octahedral voids are vacant.
From equation (ii)
72. Answer (2)
Rate = K [C]2
r  = K Keq [A2] [B]2
Hint :    ratio will give the coordination number.
 r  = K [A2] [B]2
 r  120  Overall order of reaction = 2 + 1 = 3
Sol. :  r   360  0.333
  77. Answer (2)
This lies between 0.225 – 0.414 so the co-ordination Hint : For zero order reaction t1/2 is proportional to
number is 4. the initial concentration t1/2  [A0].
73. Answer (3) 78. Answer (2)
Hint : For BCC unit cell, 4r  3 a 0.693
Hint : t1/2 
k
Sol. : 3 a  4r
0.693 0.693
4 Sol. : k    1 103 s1
a r t1/2 693
3
79. Answer (2)
In BCC unit cell, total number of atoms is 2 and the
Hint : 2H+(aq) + 2e  H2(g)
4
volume occupied by atoms is 2  r 3
3 0.059 pH
E  E  log  2 2
H /H2 H /H2 2
3 [H ]
3  4 
volume of cube, a   r
 3  0.059 1
Sol. : EH /H  0  log
2 2 (104 )2
4
2    r 3
3 3
 Packing fraction   0.059
 4 
3
8   8log10
r 2

 3 
= – 0.059 × 4
74. Answer (3) = – 0.236 volt
Hint : ptotal  x1p10  x2p02 80. Answer (2)
Hint : Number of equivalent of Ni2+ deposited
1.5 0.5
Sol. : ptotal   100   350
2 2 9.65  100  60

= (75 + 87.5) mm 96500
= 162.5 mm of Hg Sol. : Mass of Ni2+ deposited
75. Answer (3)
9.65  100  60 58.7
Hint : In positive deviation from Raoult’s law,  
96500 2
A – B interactions are weaker than those between A
– A or B – B interaction = 17.61 g

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test - 1 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)

81. Answer (3) 88. Answer (4)

Hint : The solute which will produce least number of 0 0 0
Hint : m (CH3COOH)  m (CH3COOK)  m (HBr)
particles will have minimum depression of freezing
point hence highest freezing point 0
m (KBr)
82. Answer (4)
0
Hint : The magnitude of osmotic pressure is large Sol. : m (CH3COOH)  (114.4  427.7  151.6)
even for dilute solutions.
83. Answer (2) S cm2 mol1
= 390.5 S cm2 mol–1
P0  P n2
Hint : 0
 89. Answer (2)
P n1  n2
Hint : In Frenkel defect density does not change.
480  470 n2 90. Answer (3)
Sol. : 
480 n2  0.1 Hint : In ZnS structure, the co-ordination number of
both Zn2+ and S2– is 4.
1
or, n2 
470 BIOLOGY
Molar mass of solute = 470 × 0.2 = 94 g
91. Answer (3)
84. Answer (1)
Hint : Polycarpic plants flower repeatedly at
P intervals.
Hint : Mole fraction in vapour phase (y) 
Ptotal Sol. : Jackfruit is a polycarpic plant while marigold,
Sol. : ptotal = p1 + p2 wheat and radish are monocarpic plants.
92. Answer (3)
ptotal  p10 x1  p02 x2
Hint : Yeast is a unicellular fungus.
2 3 Sol. : Most of the unicellular organisms reproduce
ptotal  360   300 
5 5 by binary fission or budding. Yeast shows budding
= 144 + 180 Zoospores formation is common in algae and fungi.
= 324 mm of Hg 93. Answer (4)
Mole fraction of hexane in vapour phase Hint : Monoecious plants have both the sex organs
144 on the same plant.
(y)  = 0.44
324 Sol. : Cucurbit plants are monoecious. Papaya,
date palm and Marchantia are dioecious.
85. Answer (3)
94. Answer (3)
Hint : van’t Hoff factor for dissociation (i) = (1 – 
+ n) Hint : Seed plants show internal fertilisation.
Sol. : i = 1 – 0.8 + 5 × 0.8 Sol. : Bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms
= 4.2 and angiosperms, they all show internal fertilisation
means fertilisation (syngamy) inside the body of
86. Answer (2)
organisms.
Hint : Electrolyte used in lead storage battery is
38% H2SO4. 95. Answer (3)

87. Answer (2) Hint : Only seed plants form the pollen grains.
Hint : G = – nFE Sol. : Seed plants are gymnosperms and
angiosperms and in both of these plant groups pollen
Sol. : Cell will work spontaneously if cell potential
grains are the carrier of the male gametes.
(E) is positive and G is –ve

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Test - 1 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
96. Answer (3)
Hint : Fertilised ovule is called seed. Ovary
contains ovules.
Sol. : Ovules are present before fertilisation.
After fertilisation they become seeds. Pericarp is fruit
wall which is formed from ovary wall
post-fertilisation. Similarly endosperm is nutritive
tissue formed after fertilisation.
97. Answer (3)
Hint : Heterogametes are morphologically dissimilar
gametes.
Sol. : Volvox produces heterogametes whereas
Rhizopus, Ulothrix and Cladophora produce
isogametes.
98. Answer (4)
Hint : China rose bears both the sex organs on the
same plant.
Sol. : China rose is monoecious plant and produces
bisexual flowers.
99. Answer (4)
Hint : Lower plants require water for transferring
male gametes to female gametes.
Sol. : Flowering plants (angiosperms) and
gymnosperms transfer their male gametes with the
help of pollen tube.
100. Answer (2)
Hint : Meiotically produced gametes are haploid.
Sol. : Gamete = (n)
Plant = (2n)
101. Answer (3)
Hint : The innermost layer of anther wall surrounds
the sporogenous tissue.
Sol. : Tapetum is the innermost layer which
provides nourishment to the developing microspores.
Epidermis – provides protection
Endothecium – helps in pollen dispersal
Middle layer – Provides protection and help in
dispersal
102. Answer (2)
Hint : The outer layer of sporoderm is exine.
Sol. : Exine is made up of sporopollenin which
helps in fossilisation. Sporopollenin is not degraded
by any enzyme known till the date.
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
103. Answer (2)
Hint : Generative cell of pollen grain is smaller than
vegetative cell.
Sol. : Generative cell is spindle shaped and floats
in the cytoplasm of vegetative cell.
104. Answer (3)
Hint : Embryo sac is a haploid structure.
Sol. : Nuclei of all cells of embryo sac are haploid
except secondary nucleus which is formed in central
cell just before fertilisation. Secondary nucleus is
diploid.
105. Answer (3)
Hint : Autogamy as well as geitonogamy are
prevented in dioecious plants.
Sol. : Vallisneria is a dioecious plant. Castor,
maize and coconut are monoecious plants.
106. Answer (3)
Sol. : Perisperm is persistent nucellus in seeds of
black pepper, beet etc. Tegmen is seed coat.
107. Answer (4)
Hint : Pericarp is fruit wall.
Sol. : Seeds have embryo, seed coat and may have
endosperm but not the pericarp. Pericarp is present
in the fruit.
108. Answer (2)
Hint : Parthenocarpic fruits develop without
fertilisation.
Sol. : These fruits are seedless as they are
produced without fertilisation for example banana.
109. Answer (4)
Hint : Apomictic seeds are produced without
fertilisation.
Sol. : Apomictic embryos are directly developed
from cells of nucellus or integuments hence they are
diploid. They are clones to each other but not to the
zygotic embryos.
110. Answer (3)
Hint : Wind pollinated flowers are called
anemophilous flowers.
Sol. : Given characteristics are of the plant which
shows anemophily.
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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
111. Answer (3)
Hint : Water hyacinth, water lily and Zostera are
aquatic plants.
Sol. : Water hyacinth, Salvia and water lily are
insect pollinated but Zostera is water pollinated.
112. Answer (3)
Hint : In most of the flowering plants, the pollen
grains are shed at two celled stage.
Sol. : If pollen grains are shed at two celled stage
then the generative cell divides and forms two male
gametes after the pollination during the growth of the
pollen tube.
113. Answer (3)
Hint : 1 PMC produces 4 microspores by meiosis.
Sol. : 4 microspores mature into 4 pollens and
produce 8 male gametes through mitosis.
114. Answer (2)
Hint : Anatropous ovule is the most common type
of ovule in angiosperms.
Sol. : It is inverted ovule and turns at 180° angle.
Most primitive type of ovule is orthotropous.
Members of leguminosae have campylotropous
ovule.
115. Answer (2)
Hint : Parenchymatous mass of ovule is nucellus.
Sol. : Nucellus is diploid. Beet has persistent
nucellus called perisperm
Megasporangium is ovule.
116. Answer (2)
Hint : Entry of pollen tube into the ovule can be
through chalaza, micropyle or through integuments.
Sol. : Entry of pollen tube into the embryo sac is
through micropylar end only.
117. Answer (2)
Hint : Double fertilisation is unique to angiosperms.
Sol. :
12/16
Test - 1 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
118. Answer (3)
Hint : Wheat is an angiospermic plant which has
triploid endosperm.
Sol. : Central cell after fertilisation called as PEC
(3n) and eventually forms the triploid endosperm.
119. Answer (2)
Sol. : The portion of embryonal axis above the level
of attachment of scutellum is called epicotyl and
below the level of attachment is called hypocotyl.
120. Answer (3)
Hint : Egg apparatus includes one egg cell and two
synergids.
Sol. : Egg cell and synergids both are haploid.
Hence the ploidy will be (n + n + n).
121. Answer (1)
Hint : Cleistogamy is a condition in which flowers
never open.
Sol. : Cleistogamous flowers are self pollinated.
Hence, they ensure seed set. It cannot bring genetic
variation.
122. Answer (3)
Sol. : Eyes in potato tuber are buds on nodes
which germinate to form plantlets.
123. Answer (2)
Hint : Bryophyllum has leaf buds.
Sol. : Bryophyllum reproduces vegetatively by
leaves. It has buds at the margins of leaves.
Grasses – Runner
Pineapple – Sucker
Ananas – Bulbils
124. Answer (3)
Hint : Eichhornia propagates vegetatively by sub
aerial stem.
Sol. : It propagates by offset, found in standing
water and drains O2 from water.
125. Answer (2)
Hint : Sexual reproduction brings genetic variation.
Sol. : In sexual reproduction, offsprings identical
to the parents cannot be produced. Sexual
reproduction can be uniparental in bisexual plants as
in Pea.
Test - 1 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020

126. Answer (3) 135. Answer (2)

Hint : Male sex organ of Chara is known as Hint : Coconut water provides nourishment to
antheridium or globule. developing embryo.
Sol. : Female sex organ of Chara is called Sol. : It is its endosperm (3n), formed as a result
oogonium or nucule. of triple fusion.
127. Answer (4) 136. Answer (4)
Hint : Vital link between two successive generations Hint : This process involves fusion of gametes.
is zygote. Sol. : Recombination during sexual reproduction leads
Sol. : Zygote is diploid and single celled. to variations.
128. Answer (3) 137. Answer (4)

Sol. : Algae do not have embryo. Embryogenesis Hint : This process enables an organism to leave
is absent in them. Zygote divides meiotically. behind more progeny of its kind.

129. Answer (3) Sol. : Fragmentation, sporulation and budding are not
observed in humans.
Hint : Peepal tree has a life span of 2500 years.
138. Answer (3)
Sol. : Banyan tree – 200-250 years
Hint : Identify a unicellular organism.
Parrot – 140 years
Sol. : A single celled organism can divide by
Fruit fly – 2-3 weeks
processes involving cell division eg : binary fission.
130. Answer (2)
139. Answer (2)
Hint : Unicellular organisms are considered
Hint : Its scientific name is Drosophila.
immortal.
Sol. : Life span of fruit fly is few weeks.
Sol. : Multicellular organisms have a fixed life span
after that they die. 140. Answer (3)

131. Answer (2) Hint : Which process ensures continuity of species?

Sol. : In Chrysanthemum, vegetative propagation Sol. : Reproduction enables the continuity of the
occurs by sucker. species
141. Answer (2)
132. Answer (4)
Hint : Gamete fusion occurs only in sexual
Hint : In cross pollination, genetically same type of
reproduction.
pollens cannot reach to the stigma.
Sol. : Sexual reproduction is more complex, slow and
Sol. : Autogamy, geitonogamy and cleistogamy are
elaborate and may be either uniparental or biparental.
genetically self pollination.
142. Answer (1)
Xenogamy is cross pollination.
Hint : Identify organism that can show internal budding.
133. Answer (3)
Sol. : Yeast and Hydra show external budding while
Sol. : Fragrance of flowers can attract the insects
Amoeba shows encystation and sporulation.
for pollination but it is not reward for them.
143. Answer (2)
134. Answer (3)
Hint : This process occurs in cervix.
Hint : Emasculation is removal of anther before its
maturity. Sol. : Decapacitation factors are removed after sperms
are deposited in female reproductive tract. Castration
Sol. : Unisexual flowers bear only one sex organ.
is removal of testes. Circumcision refers to removal
Emasculation is done in bisexual flower. of foreskin of penis.

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
144. Answer (1)
Hint : FSH and LH are gonadotropins.
Sol. : Amenorrhea is absence of menstrual cycle
whose common reason can be fertilisation of ova. At
menopause, gonadotropins increase due to absence
of negative feedback.
145. Answer (4)
Hint : It refers to helical arrangement.
Sol. : Mitochondria are arranged in a helical manner
in middle piece of sperm.
146. Answer (4)
Hint : This is a proteinaceous gonadotropin.
Sol. : Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is the
basis of Gravidex test performed to detect pregnancy.
147. Answer (3)
Hint : This hormone is secreted by placenta.
Sol. : Human placental lactogen i.e. hPL acts on
mammary glands to facilitate the process of lactation.
Cortisol, progesterone and estrogen are secreted in
non-pregnant females also.
148. Answer (2)
Hint : It is a glycoproteinaceous hormone
Sol. : LH maintains corpus luteum. Relaxin is released
from corpus luteum in pregnant females while estrogen
and progesterone are secreted from corpus luteum in
both pregnant and non-pregnant females.
149. Answer (4)
Hint : Identify a non primate.
Sol. : Monkeys, apes such as chimpanzees and
gorilla and man exhibit menstrual cycle.
150. Answer (2)
Hint : Meiocytes are diploid in nature while gametes
are haploid.
Sol. : Genetic constitution of sperm forming cells is
(44 + XY), sperms formed can have either (22 + X) or
(22 + Y) as chromosome number.
151. Answer (4)
Hint : Animals that give birth to young ones.
Sol. : Young one developing inside female reproductive
tract is safer. All land dwellers are not essentially
viviparous.
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Test - 1 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
152. Answer (2)
Hint : They are a result of parthenogenesis.
Sol. : Worker bees are sterile females while fertile
female is queen bee.
153. Answer (4)
Hint : Formation of zygote is seen in sexually
reproducing organisms.
Sol. : Sexually reproducing organisms can undergo
both internal and external fertilization.
154. Answer (1)
Hint : Post fertilisation event observed at puberty.
Sol. : Pulses of GnRH trigger gametogenesis in males
at puberty.
155. Answer (3)
Hint : This structure is also responsible for providing
nourishment during embryonic stage in reptiles and
birds.
Sol. : Yolk sac is responsible for formation of blood in
first trimester during embryogenesis.
156. Answer (1)
Hint : This hormone is released in pulsatile manner.
Sol. : GnRH is released in pulses and promotes
release of FSH and LH. Amnion is derived from
extraembryonic ectoderm and extraembryonic
mesoderm. Spermiation involves release of sperms
from seminiferous tubules.
157. Answer (1)
Hint : Site of fertilisation.
Sol. : Entry of sperm into cytoplasm of secondary
oocyte induces completion of meiotic division of the
secondary oocyte. Sperms are deposited in vagina
during copulation.
158. Answer (2)
Hint : Formation of gametes is followed by union of
gametes.
Sol. : The correct sequence of events is as follows
Gametogenesis  insemination  fertilisation 
implantation  gestation  parturition.
159. Answer (3)
Hint : It is a fluid filled cavity.
Sol. : Tertiary follicle is characterised by presence of
antrum.
Test - 1 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
160. Answer (3)
Hint : This hormone is called pregnancy hormone.
Sol. : Progesterone is responsible for maintaining
stability of endometrium. Decline in LH is responsible
for regression of corpus luteum.
161. Answer (3)
Hint : ICSH from anterior pituitary targets Leydig cells.
Sol. : Sertoli cells are called sustentacular cells as
they provide nourishment for developing sperms.
162. Answer (2)
Hint : Secretion of these glands constitute
60-70% of seminal plasma.
Sol. : Prostate gland is unpaired. Bulbourethral/
cowper’s gland secrete mucus.
163. Answer (3)
Hint : Cells with 46 chromosomes.
Sol. : Spermatid, first polar body and secondary
oocyte are haploid cells.
164. Answer (3)
Hint : Senescence is old age where degeneration of
body functions is generally seen.
Sol. : Heterogametes in humans differ in size, motility
and amount of cytoplasm.
165. Answer (3)
Hint : This is a unisexual animal.
Sol. : Earthworm, leech and sponges are bisexual
animals. They undergo cross fertilisation.
166. Answer (1)
Hint : Proestrous phase is comparable to proliferative
phase of menstrual cycle.
Sol. : Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) is the major
hormone of pro-estrous phase. Estrogen dominates
during estrous cycle.
167. Answer (1)
Hint : Gametogenesis is an in-vivo process.
Sol. : Gametogenesis results in formation of gametes
and occurs inside the body in all cases.
168. Answer (3)
Hint : It is secretory antibody.
Sol. : Early milk called colostrum during lactation
phase is rich in IgA.
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
169. Answer (2)
Hint : Vigorous contractions of the uterus at the end
of pregnancy cause expulsion of foetus.
Sol. : Parturition is a complex neuroendocrine
process. Ratio of estrogen to progesterone increases
during childbirth. Oxytocin is released from maternal
posterior pituitary.
170. Answer (2)
Hint : These structures develop at the end of 24
weeks.
Sol. : Placenta is well developed at the end of first
trimester. Heart beat can be heard after one month.
171. Answer (4)
Hint : Umbilical cord contains two umbilical arteries
and one umbilical vein.
Sol. : No mixing of blood occurs at placenta.
172. Answer (3)
Hint : These are non-identical twins.
Sol. : They are fraternal twins formed from two
separate fertilisation events.
173. Answer (4)
Hint : Zona pellucida is intact in this embryonic stage.
Sol. : Morula is 8-16 celled stage formed in fallopian
tube. Zygote is single celled structure.
174. Answer (2)
Hint : Human egg is alecithal.
Sol. : Cleavage is complete and occurs from one pole
to another.
175. Answer (4)
Hint : Structure rich in hydrolytic enzymes.
Sol. : Acrosome helps the sperm penetrate the
secondary oocyte.
176. Answer (3)
Hint : Duration of this phase is fixed.
Sol. : Luteal phase lasts for 14 days. Ovulation will
occur on 20th day in this woman (34-14 = 20).
177. Answer (4)
Hint : This is called milk letdown hormone.
Sol. : Prolactin helps in formation of milk by mammary
alveoli.
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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test - 1 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)

178. Answer (1) Oogenesis sequence

Hint : Identify a part of womb.
Sol. : Cervix is part of uterus (womb) which is part of
internal reproductive structures.
179. Answer (4)
Hint : These structures are the first formed haploid
structures.
Sol. : The correct sequence of spermatogenesis is
Spermatogonia  primary spermatocytes 
secondary spermatocytes  spermatids 
spermatozoa.
Oogonia  primary oocyte  secondary oocyte +
first polar body  ootid.
180. Answer (4)
Hint : Primary oocyte completes first meiotic division
in this stage.
Sol. : Tertiary follicle is characterised by presence of
antrum, theca externa and interna and secondary
oocyte.

‰ ‰ ‰

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Test - 1 (Code-B) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET - 2020

TEST - 1 (Code-B)
Test Date : 28/07/2019

ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (1) 73. (3) 109. (2) 145. (4)
2. (3) 38. (4) 74. (3) 110. (2) 146. (2)
3. (1) 39. (1) 75. (3) 111. (2) 147. (2)
4. (1) 40. (2) 76. (4) 112. (2) 148. (3)
5. (2) 41. (1) 77. (2) 113. (3) 149. (1)
6. (4) 42. (1) 78. (2) 114. (3) 150. (1)
7. (1) 43. (3) 79. (3) 115. (3) 151. (3)
8. (1) 44. (3) 80. (2) 116. (3) 152. (3)
9. (2) 45. (1) 81. (4) 117. (4) 153. (3)
10. (1) 46. (3) 82. (2) 118. (2) 154. (2)
11. (2) 47. (2) 83. (4) 119. (4) 155. (3)
12. (4) 48. (4) 84. (3) 120. (3) 156. (3)
13. (1) 49. (2) 85. (2) 121. (3) 157. (3)
14. (3) 50. (2) 86. (1) 122. (3) 158. (2)
15. (4) 51. (3) 87. (2) 123. (2) 159. (1)
16. (1) 52. (1) 88. (3) 124. (2) 160. (1)
17. (4) 53. (2) 89. (1) 125. (3) 161. (3)
18. (2) 54. (4) 90. (2) 126. (2) 162. (1)
19. (2) 55. (3) 91. (2) 127. (4) 163. (4)
20. (3) 56. (2) 92. (3) 128. (4) 164. (2)
21. (4) 57. (2) 93. (3) 129. (3) 165. (4)
22. (1) 58. (2) 94. (4) 130. (3) 166. (2)
23. (1) 59. (2) 95. (2) 131. (3) 167. (4)
24. (3) 60. (4) 96. (2) 132. (3) 168. (2)
25. (1) 61. (3) 97. (3) 133. (4) 169. (3)
26. (3) 62. (3) 98. (3) 134. (3) 170. (4)
27. (1) 63. (3) 99. (4) 135. (3) 171. (4)
28. (4) 64. (2) 100. (3) 136. (4) 172. (1)
29. (4) 65. (2) 101. (2) 137. (4) 173. (2)
30. (1) 66. (3) 102. (3) 138. (1) 174. (1)
31. (1) 67. (4) 103. (2) 139. (4) 175. (2)
32. (4) 68. (4) 104. (3) 140. (3) 176. (3)
33. (3) 69. (3) 105. (1) 141. (4) 177. (2)
34. (2) 70. (2) 106. (3) 142. (2) 178. (3)
35. (3) 71. (1) 107. (2) 143. (4) 179. (4)
36. (1) 72. (2) 108. (3) 144. (3) 180. (4)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test - 1 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

Or, dV = – d(xyz)
PHYSICS
V
1. Answer (3) (1,1,1)
∫ dV = −[ xyz]0,0,0 = −1 ⇒ V = −1V
Sol. : 0
5. Answer (2)
Hint : In steady state a capacitor breaks the circuit
across it in direct currents.
Sol. : Both switches open
⇒ i4Ω = 0
Both switches closed
KVL in path AFEB : 20 – 8
⇒ i 4Ω = =2A
VA + 20 + 6 = VB 4+2
⇒ VA VB = – 26 volt 6. Answer (4)
2. Answer (3) ∑ ρi
Hint and Sol. : ρnet =
Hint : At t = 0, capacitor is shortcircuited. n
Sol. : Equivalent circuit at t = 0 ρ1 + ρ2 + ρ3
=
3
7. Answer (1)
Hint : V = IR and R = R0 (1 + αΔT)
Sol. : V = IR
As I is constant
V∝R
⇒ R2 = 2R1 = R1 (1 + α(400))
⇒ 2 = 1+ α(400)
16 α = 2.5 ×10–3 K–1
i= =2A 8. Answer (1)
⎛ 3×6 ⎞
6+⎜ ⎟ Hint : Conservation of angular momentum and energy.
⎝3+6⎠
3. Answer (1) Sol. :
Hint : Parallel combination of resistors
ρR (θ) R(2π – θ)
Sol. : R1 = and R2 = ρ
A A
2
⎛ ρR ⎞
RR ⎜ ⎟ (θ)(2π – θ)
A ⎠
Rnet = 1 2 =⎝ Conservation of angular momentum about centre of
R1 + R2 (2π)(R )
ρ sphere.
A
mud = mvx, (∵ x = R )
ρR ud
= (θ)(2π – θ) ⇒ mud = mvR ⇒ v =
2πA R
Maximum when θ = 2π – θ Conservation of mechanical energy
θ=π
1 kqQ 1
4. Answer (1) mu 2 = + mv 2
  2 R 2
Hint : ∫ dV = − ∫ E ⋅ dr
2
  1 kqQ 1 ⎛ ud ⎞
Sol. : dV = −E ⋅ dr = −( yzi + zx j + xyk ) ⋅ (dxi + dy j mu 2 = + m⎜
2 R 2 ⎝ R ⎟⎠
+ dzk )
2kqQR
Or, dV = – yzdx – zxdy – xydz u=
m(R 2 – d 2 )

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Test - 1 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
9. Answer (2) 15. Answer (4)
Hint : E = k Hint and Sol. : Maximum power transfer theorem.
Current through 5 Ω resistor is maximum if R = 0.
2
Sol. : I = = 0.1 A In this case, the power through 5 Ω resistor will be
20
Potential gradient maximum.
16. Answer (1)
0.1× 15
k= = 1.5 V/m Hint : Bulb on which voltage is greater than the rated
1
E = K voltage would fuse.
Sol. : Since both bulbs are connected in parallel, the
1.2
⇒ = = 0.8 m voltage across every bulb will be 440 V. Thus, both
1.5 bulbs will fuse.
10. Answer (1) 17. Answer (4)
Hint : V = IR and R = R0 (1 + αΔT) Hint : Circuit analysis
1 Sol. : Simplified circuit
Sol. : slope = tan( θ) =
Resistance
As temperature is increased, resistance increases
and tan(θ) decreases.
11. Answer (2)
ER
Hint : V =
R+r
E
Sol. : As R increases V = increases.
r
1+ (R + R )(2 R ) 4 R 2
R Rnet = = =R
2 R + (R + R ) 4 R
∴ Best answer : B
12. Answer (4) 18. Answer (2)
  Hint : Properties of a conductor in an electrostatic
Hint and Sol. : P = ε0 (K − 1)E condition.
13. Answer (1) Sol. : Positive charges move from higher to lower
Hint : Colour code of carbon resistor potential while negative charges move from lower to
Sol. : 54 MΩ = 54 × 106 Ω higher potential.
Colour band : Green (5), Yellow (4), Blue (6) Sharp points on a conductor have higher surface
2.7 charge density.
Tolerance limit = × 100 = 5% 19. Answer (2)
54
Colour band for tolerance limit : Gold Hint : Balanced wheatstone bridge
So, sequence : Green – Yellow – Blue – Gold Sol. : Simplified circuit diagram
14. Answer (3)
Hint : Circuit equation.

Sol. :

2 – i (1) = 0 ⇒ i = 2 A
This is a balanced wheatstone bridge
2+8 10 8 8 24
i= =2⇒ =2⇒R =2Ω Cnet = + + = 8 μF
1+ 2 + R R+3 5 5 5

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test - 1 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions)

20. Answer (3) 25. Answer (1)

Hint : Time constant = τ = Req C Hint : Parallel combination of batteries and maximum
Sol. : Finding Req. power transfer theorem.
Sol. : Equivalent battery circuit

τ = 8 RC
21. Answer (4)
Hint : Conduction of electrons in a conductor.
40
Sol. : The motion of electrons is random but in Maximum power transfer when R = Ω
presence of external electric field, they slowly drift 3
 26. Answer (3)
opposite to E and cause a current.
22. Answer (1) Hint : Potential across parallel resistors is same.
Potential across identical resistors in series is equally
Hint : Force between the plates Q2E1
divided.
Q1
Sol. : E1 = Sol. : Potential across each bulb is
2 Aε0

Q1Q2 Q2
F= =
2Aε0 4 Aε0 (1)
23. Answer (1)
Hint : Parallel circuit elements have same potential
difference.
Sol. : Potential difference across resistance arm
with ammeter is 32 V

32 (2)
Current is =4A
8
24. Answer (3)
Hint : To find internal resistance using a potentiometer.
⎛l ⎞
r = R ⎜ 1 − 1⎟
⎝ l2 ⎠

(3)
Sol. :

⎛ 2.4 ⎞ (4)
2 = 10 ⎜ − 1⎟
⎝ x ⎠
2 2.4
+1=
10 x
x=2m

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Test - 1 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020

27. Answer (1)

Hint Potential due to spherical shell.

⎧1 1⎫
Sol. : ΔV = k (Q ) ⎨ − ⎬
⎩ rA rB ⎭
kQ
=
2rA Let potential at junction be V
28. Answer (4) 30 – V 10 – V 0 – V
+ + = 0 (KCL)
Hint : Charge on an isolated capacitor remains 2 2 3
constant and potential across a capacitor connected V = 15 V
to a given battery is constant.
Sol. : Let the dielectric constant be K. 15 – 10
Current from R1 = = 2.5 A
2
Let e.m.f of the battery be E
Charge stored in capacitor Q = CE 5
Ratio = = 2 :1
1 Q2 1 2.5
Initial energy = = CE 2
2 C 2 32. Answer (4)
Q 2 Hint : In series combination of capacitors charge
O1 → O2 → final energy = on each capacitor is equal to charge on equivalent
2C
⇒ C decreases as separation increases capacitor
⇒ energy increases
1 Sol. :
⎛1 ⎞
O3 → O1 → final energy = (KC )E2 = K ⎜ C E2 ⎟
2 ⎝ 2 ⎠
29. Answer (4)
Hint : Use KVL
⎛ 4 × 12 ⎞
Sol. : Potential difference across R3 = 0 Q=⎜ ⎟ × 20 μC = 60 μC
⎝ 4 + 12 ⎠
33. Answer (3)
Hint & Sol. : Balanced wheatstone bridge.

Sol. :

According to symmetry a and b are at same potential.

So current in R3 is zero.
30 R 60 × 30
30. Answer (1) = ⇒R= = 45 Ω
BC CA 40
Hint & Sol. : For a conductor in electrostatic condition,
the net electric field due to induced charges and 34. Answer (2)
charges outside the conductor is zero in a cavity.
31. Answer (1) l
Hint : T(simple pendulum) = 2π
Hint : Kirchhoff’s laws. g eff.
Sol. : Before closing the switch Sol. : geff > g (as there is electrostatic repulsion)
⎛ 30 – 10 ⎞
i =⎜ ⎟A = 5 A l
⎝ 4 ⎠ ∴ T < 2π
g
After closing switch

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test - 1 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions)
35. Answer (3) Sol. : φcurved surface + φplane faces = 0
Hint : Balanced wheatstone bridge
φcurved – 5(π(52)) + 5 (π(22)) = 0
Sol. : The circuit is a balanced wheatstone bridge
and therefore the current through the galvanometer φcurved = 5π(25 – 4) = 105π N m2/C
will always be zero.
36. Answer (1) 41. Answer (1)
Hint : Use Gauss’s law Hint : Apply Kirchhoff’s current law.
Sol. : If ρ is the volume charge density
ρx Sol. :
E= (x ≤ R)
3 ε0
10 + 3 + i = 1 + 2 + 1 + 11
ρR 3
= (x ≥ R) i = 2A
3ε 0 x 2
37. Answer (1) 42. Answer (1)
Hint : Infinite resistance ladder Hint : Remove short circuited capacitors
Sol. : Removing short circuited capacitors, the
Sol. : equivalent circuit is

Let effective resistance between A and B is x then

effective resistance between A′ and B′ will be 2x.
4 × 2x ⎛1 1 1⎞
–1
2C
2+ =x Ceq = ⎜ + + =
4 + 2x ⎝ C C 2C ⎟⎠ 5
⇒ x2 – 4x – 4 = 0
43. Answer (3)
4 + 16 + 16 ( Hint : Kirchhoff’s voltage law and current law.
x= = 2 + 2 2) Ω Sol. :
2
38. Answer (4)
Hint : If n identical capacitances are in series then
C
net capacitance =
n

C C C KVL : A → B
Sol. : Cnet = C + + + ....
2 4 8 q
100 – 2(10) – 4(6) – – 4 (6) = 0
C 2
Cnet = = 2C ⇒ q = 64 μC
1
1– 44. Answer (3)
2
39. Answer (1) Hint : Electrostatics of a conductor.
Hint : Conservation of energy Sol. :
k (q )(3q ) 1
Sol. : = mv 2
r 2

2 × k (3q 2 ) 6kq 2
⇒ r = =
mv 2 mv 2
40. Answer (2)
  Surface charge density on A is uniform and on
Hint : Flux = E.A ; Net flux = 0 B is non-uniform.

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Test - 1 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
45. Answer (1) 53. Answer (2)
kq P0 − P n2
Hint : E = Hint : =
r2 P 0
n1 + n2
 2 2
Sol. : r = 3 + 4 = 5 m 480 − 470 n2
Sol. : =
480 n2 + 0.1
9 × 109 × 100 × 10−6
E= = 36 kN/C
25 1
or, n2 =
470
CHEMISTRY
Molar mass of solute = 470 × 0.2 = 94 g
46. Answer (3)
54. Answer (4)
Hint : In ZnS structure, the co-ordination number of
Hint : The magnitude of osmotic pressure is large
both Zn2+ and S2– is 4.
even for dilute solutions.
47. Answer (2)
55. Answer (3)
Hint : In Frenkel defect density does not change.
Hint : The solute which will produce least number of
48. Answer (4)
particles will have minimum depression of freezing
0 0 0 point hence highest freezing point
Hint : Λm (CH3COOH) = Λm (CH3COOK) + Λm (HBr)
0 56. Answer (2)
−Λm (KBr)
0
Hint : Number of equivalent of Ni2+ deposited
Sol. : Λm (CH3COOH) = (114.4 + 427.7 − 151.6)
9.65 × 100 × 60
2 −1 =
S cm mol 96500
= 390.5 S cm2 mol–1 Sol. : Mass of Ni2+ deposited
49. Answer (2) 9.65 × 100 × 60 58.7
= ×
Hint : ΔG = – nFE 96500 2
Sol. : Cell will work spontaneously if cell potential = 17.61 g
(E) is positive and ΔG is –ve 57. Answer (2)
50. Answer (2) Hint : 2H+(aq) + 2e → H2(g)
Hint : Electrolyte used in lead storage battery is pH
0.059
38% H2SO4. EH+ /H = E°H+ /H − log + 22
2 2 2 [H ]
51. Answer (3)
Hint : van’t Hoff factor for dissociation (i) = (1 – ∝ 0.059 1
Sol. : EH+ /H = 0 − log
+ n∝) 2 2 (10 −4 )2
Sol. : i = 1 – 0.8 + 5 × 0.8
0.059
= 4.2 =− × 8log10
2
52. Answer (1)
= – 0.059 × 4
P = – 0.236 volt
Hint : Mole fraction in vapour phase (y) =
Ptotal 58. Answer (2)
Sol. : ptotal = p1 + p2
0.693
ptotal = p10 x1 + p20 x 2 Hint : t1/2 =
k
2 3 0.693 0.693
p total = 360 × + 300 × Sol. : k = = = 1× 10−3 s−1
5 5 t1/2 693
= 144 + 180 59. Answer (2)
= 324 mm of Hg Hint : For zero order reaction t1/2 is proportional to
Mole fraction of hexane in vapour phase the initial concentration t1/2 ∝ [A0].

144 60. Answer (4)

(y) = = 0.44 Hint : Order of the reaction is determined by
324
slowest step.

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test - 1 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions)
Sol. : From equation (i) 65. Answer (2)
Hint : Diamond crystal is FCC lattice where half of
[C]2 the tetrahedral voids are occupied by carbon but
K eq =
[A 2 ][B]2 octahedral voids are vacant.
[C]2 = Keq [A2] [B]2 66. Answer (3)
From equation (ii) Ea
Hint : lnk = − + ln A
Rate = K [C]2 RT
= K Keq [A2] [B]2 Ea
Sol. : slope = −
= K′ [A2] [B]2 R
∴ Overall order of reaction = 2 + 1 = 3 67. Answer (4)
61. Answer (3) Hint : Higher the charge and larger the size of ion
Hint : In positive deviation from Raoult’s law, higher will be molar conductivity.
A – B interactions are weaker than those between A Sol. : Ion λ°/(S cm2 mol–1)
– A or B – B interaction
Na+ 50.1
62. Answer (3)
K+ 73.5
Hint : ptotal = x1p10 + x 2p02 Ca2+ 119

1.5 0.5 Mg2+ 106

Sol. : p total = × 100 + × 350
68. Answer (4)
2 2
= (75 + 87.5) mm Hint : ΔG° = – nFE°cell
= 162.5 mm of Hg Sol. : ΔG° = – 2 × F × [E°R – E°L]
63. Answer (3) = – 2 × F × [– 0.25 + 2.36]
Hint : For BCC unit cell, 4r = 3 a = – 4.22 F joule
69. Answer (3)
Sol. : 3 a = 4r
Hint : Catalyst catalyses only spontaneous
4 reactions.
a= r
3
70. Answer (2)
In BCC unit cell, total number of atoms is 2 and the
−1 dA −1 dB 1 dC
4 3 Hint : Rate of reaction = = =
volume occupied by atoms is 2 × πr 2 dt 3 dt 4 dt
3
d[C] 4 d[B]
3 Sol. : Rate of appearance of C = =−
⎛ 4 ⎞ 3 dt 3 dt
volume of cube, a = ⎜ r⎟
⎝ 3 ⎠
d[A]
⎛4⎞ = −2
2 × ⎜ ⎟ πr 3 dt
⎝3⎠ 3π
∴ Packing fraction = 3
= 71. Answer (1)
⎛ 4 ⎞ 8
⎜ r⎟ k 2 Ea ⎡ T2 − T1 ⎤
⎝ 3 ⎠ Hint : ln = ⎢ ⎥
k1 R ⎣ T1T2 ⎦
64. Answer (2)
⎛r ⎞ Ea ⎡ 310 − 300 ⎤
Hint : ⎜ + ⎟ ratio will give the coordination number. Sol. : ln2 =
R ⎢⎣ 310 × 300 ⎥⎦
⎝ r− ⎠
Ea = 9300 R ln2
⎛ r+ ⎞ 120
Sol. : ⎜ r ⎟ = 360 = 0.333 72. Answer (2)
⎝ −⎠
This lies between 0.225 – 0.414 so the co-ordination Λ
Hint : Degree of dissociation (α) =
number is 4. Λ∞

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Test - 1 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020

25 79. Answer (3)

Sol. : α = = 0.1
250 Hint : In FCC unit cell, for each atom there is one
2 octahedral void and two tetrahedral voids.
Cα
Dissociation constant K =
1− α Sol. : For FCC unit cell, the number of atoms of
A=4
1 (0.1)2
K= × = 5.55 × 10−4
20 0.9 1 1
The number of atoms of B = ×8 + × 4 = 5
73. Answer (3) 2 4
Hint : Strongest oxidising agent is one whose ∴ Formula of compound = A4B5
reduction potential is highest and strongest reducing
agent is one whose oxidation potential is highest. 80. Answer (2)

Sol. : Co3+(aq) + e– → Co2+(aq) E° = + 1.81 V Hint : Each Ba 2+ ion introduces one cation
vacancy.
Cu(s) → Cu2+(aq) + 2e– E° = – 0.34 V
Sol. : Cation vacancy per mole of NaCl crystal
74. Answer (3)
Hint : The intermolecular attractive forces between 2 × 10−5
A – A and B – B are weaker than those between = × 6.0 × 1023
100
A – B.
= 1.2 × 1017
75. Answer (3)
Hint : If reduction potentials are given then 81. Answer (4)

E°cell = E°right – E°left Hint : Silicon when doped with group 15 elements
then n-type semiconductor is formed.
Sol. : Ni(s) + 2Ag+ (aq.) ⎯⎯→ Ni2 + (aq) + 2Ag(s) 82. Answer (2)
E°cell = [0.80 – (– 0.25)]V = 1.05 V Hint : Order of a reaction can be zero as well as
76. Answer (4) fractional.
Hint : For isotonic solution, π1 = π2 83. Answer (4)
Sol. : π = CRT Hint : For first order reaction, unit of rate constant
π∝C is s–1.
C1 = C2 a
and kt = 2.303log
18 5 × 1000 a−x
=
180 100 × M 2.303 a
Sol. : t = log
or, M = 50 × 10 = 500 k a−x
∴ Molar mass of the solute = 500 g mol–1 2.303 100
t= log
77. Answer (2) 2.303 × 10 −3 100 − 70
Hint : Volume of liquid is temperature dependent.
2.303
t= [log10 − log3]
⎛W⎞ 2.303 × 10 −3
Sol. : ⎜ ⎟ % is temperature independent
⎝W⎠ t = 0.52 ×103 s = 8.67 min
78. Answer (2) 84. Answer (3)
Hint : Mass of H2SO4 in 250 ml of 2.0 M H2SO4 is Hint : For nth order reaction unit of rate constant is
250 × 2 × 98 × 10–3 g = 49 g (mol L–1)1–n s–1.
Sol. : 98 g of H2SO4 is present in 100 g of solution Sol. : Rate constant for second order reaction will
be (mol L–1)1–2 s–1
100
49 g of H2SO4 will present in × 49 = 50 g = mol–1 L s–1
98

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test - 1 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions)

85. Answer (2)

BIOLOGY
+7 91. Answer (2)
Hint : MnO−4 + 5e− → Mn2+
Hint : Coconut water provides nourishment to
Sol. : Q = 0.5 × 5 × 96500 C developing embryo.
= 2.4 × 105 C Sol. : It is its endosperm (3n), formed as a result
of triple fusion.
86. Answer (1)
92. Answer (3)
2 1000 × k
−1
Hint : Λm (S cm mol ) = Hint : Emasculation is removal of anther before its
C maturity.
1000 × 1.3 × 10−2 Sol. : Unisexual flowers bear only one sex organ.
Sol. : Λm =
0.1 Emasculation is done in bisexual flower.
Λm = 130 Scm2/mol 93. Answer (3)
87. Answer (2) Sol. : Fragrance of flowers can attract the insects
Hint : ΔTf = iKfm and i = (1 – α + nα) for pollination but it is not reward for them.

Sol. : i = (1 – 0.4 + 2 × 0.4) = 1.4 94. Answer (4)

Hint : In cross pollination, genetically same type of
ΔTf = 1.4 × 1.86 × 0.2
pollens cannot reach to the stigma.
= 0.52
Sol. : Autogamy, geitonogamy and cleistogamy are
Tf0 − Tf = 0.52 genetically self pollination.
Xenogamy is cross pollination.
0 – Tf = 0.52
95. Answer (2)
Tf = – 0.52°C
Sol. : In Chrysanthemum, vegetative propagation
88. Answer (3) occurs by sucker.
96. Answer (2)
m
Hint : Mole fraction of urea (x) =
m + 55.55 Hint : Unicellular organisms are considered
immortal.
4.45 Sol. : Multicellular organisms have a fixed life span
Sol. : x = = 0.07
4.45 + 55.55 after that they die.
89. Answer (1) 97. Answer (3)
Hint : Peepal tree has a life span of 2500 years.
Hint : For BCC unit cell, 4r = 3 a
Sol. : Banyan tree – 200-250 years
3 Parrot – 140 years
Sol. : r = a
4 Fruit fly – 2-3 weeks
98. Answer (3)
3
= × 360 Sol. : Algae do not have embryo. Embryogenesis
4
is absent in them. Zygote divides meiotically.
= 155.9 pm
99. Answer (4)
90. Answer (2)
Hint : Vital link between two successive generations
Hint : Packing efficiency of FCC unit cell is 74% is zygote.
Sol. : Percentage of vacant space is 26%. Sol. : Zygote is diploid and single celled.

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Test - 1 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions)
100. Answer (3)
Hint : Male sex organ of Chara is known as
antheridium or globule.
Sol. : Female sex organ of Chara is called
oogonium or nucule.
101. Answer (2)
Hint : Sexual reproduction brings genetic variation.
Sol. : In sexual reproduction, offsprings identical
to the parents cannot be produced. Sexual
reproduction can be uniparental in bisexual plants as
in Pea.
102. Answer (3)
Hint : Eichhornia propagates vegetatively by sub
aerial stem.
Sol. : It propagates by offset, found in standing
water and drains O2 from water.
103. Answer (2)
Hint : Bryophyllum has leaf buds.
Sol. : Bryophyllum reproduces vegetatively by
leaves. It has buds at the margins of leaves.
Grasses – Runner
Pineapple – Sucker
Ananas – Bulbils
104. Answer (3)
Sol. : Eyes in potato tuber are buds on nodes
which germinate to form plantlets.
105. Answer (1)
Hint : Cleistogamy is a condition in which flowers
never open.
Sol. : Cleistogamous flowers are self pollinated.
Hence, they ensure seed set. It cannot bring genetic
variation.
106. Answer (3)
Hint : Egg apparatus includes one egg cell and two
synergids.
Sol. : Egg cell and synergids both are haploid.
Hence the ploidy will be (n + n + n).
107. Answer (2)
Sol. : The portion of embryonal axis above the level
of attachment of scutellum is called epicotyl and
below the level of attachment is called hypocotyl.
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
108. Answer (3)
Hint : Wheat is an angiospermic plant which has
triploid endosperm.
Sol. : Central cell after fertilisation called as PEC
(3n) and eventually forms the triploid endosperm.
109. Answer (2)
Hint : Double fertilisation is unique to angiosperms.
Sol. :
110. Answer (2)
Hint : Entry of pollen tube into the ovule can be
through chalaza, micropyle or through integuments.
Sol. : Entry of pollen tube into the embryo sac is
through micropylar end only.
111. Answer (2)
Hint : Parenchymatous mass of ovule is nucellus.
Sol. : Nucellus is diploid. Beet has persistent
nucellus called perisperm
Megasporangium is ovule.
112. Answer (2)
Hint : Anatropous ovule is the most common type
of ovule in angiosperms.
Sol. : It is inverted ovule and turns at 180° angle.
Most primitive type of ovule is orthotropous.
Members of leguminosae have campylotropous
ovule.
113. Answer (3)
Hint : 1 PMC produces 4 microspores by meiosis.
Sol. : 4 microspores mature into 4 pollens and
produce 8 male gametes through mitosis.
114. Answer (3)
Hint : In most of the flowering plants, the pollen
grains are shed at two celled stage.
Sol. : If pollen grains are shed at two celled stage
then the generative cell divides and forms two male
gametes after the pollination during the growth of the
pollen tube.
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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
115. Answer (3)
Hint : Water hyacinth, water lily and Zostera are
aquatic plants.
Sol. : Water hyacinth, Salvia and water lily are
insect pollinated but Zostera is water pollinated.
116. Answer (3)
Hint : Wind pollinated flowers are called
anemophilous flowers.
Sol. : Given characteristics are of the plant which
shows anemophily.
117. Answer (4)
Hint : Apomictic seeds are produced without
fertilisation.
Sol. : Apomictic embryos are directly developed
from cells of nucellus or integuments hence they are
diploid. They are clones to each other but not to the
zygotic embryos.
118. Answer (2)
Hint : Parthenocarpic fruits develop without
fertilisation.
Sol. : These fruits are seedless as they are
produced without fertilisation for example banana.
119. Answer (4)
Hint : Pericarp is fruit wall.
Sol. : Seeds have embryo, seed coat and may have
endosperm but not the pericarp. Pericarp is present
in the fruit.
120. Answer (3)
Sol. : Perisperm is persistent nucellus in seeds of
black pepper, beet etc. Tegmen is seed coat.
121. Answer (3)
Hint : Autogamy as well as geitonogamy are
prevented in dioecious plants.
Sol. : Vallisneria is a dioecious plant. Castor,
maize and coconut are monoecious plants.
122. Answer (3)
Hint : Embryo sac is a haploid structure.
Sol. : Nuclei of all cells of embryo sac are haploid
except secondary nucleus which is formed in central
cell just before fertilisation. Secondary nucleus is
diploid.
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Test - 1 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions)
123. Answer (2)
Hint : Generative cell of pollen grain is smaller than
vegetative cell.
Sol. : Generative cell is spindle shaped and floats
in the cytoplasm of vegetative cell.
124. Answer (2)
Hint : The outer layer of sporoderm is exine.
Sol. : Exine is made up of sporopollenin which
helps in fossilisation. Sporopollenin is not degraded
by any enzyme known till the date.
125. Answer (3)
Hint : The innermost layer of anther wall surrounds
the sporogenous tissue.
Sol. : Tapetum is the innermost layer which
provides nourishment to the developing microspores.
Epidermis – provides protection
Endothecium – helps in pollen dispersal
Middle layer – Provides protection and help in
dispersal
126. Answer (2)
Hint : Meiotically produced gametes are haploid.
Sol. : Gamete = (n)
Plant = (2n)
127. Answer (4)
Hint : Lower plants require water for transferring
male gametes to female gametes.
Sol. : Flowering plants (angiosperms) and
gymnosperms transfer their male gametes with the
help of pollen tube.
128. Answer (4)
Hint : China rose bears both the sex organs on the
same plant.
Sol. : China rose is monoecious plant and produces
bisexual flowers.
129. Answer (3)
Hint : Heterogametes are morphologically dissimilar
gametes.
Sol. : Volvox produces heterogametes whereas
Rhizopus, Ulothrix and Cladophora produce
isogametes.
Test - 1 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions)
130. Answer (3)
Hint : Fertilised ovule is called seed. Ovary
contains ovules.
Sol. : Ovules are present before fertilisation.
After fertilisation they become seeds. Pericarp is fruit
wall which is formed from ovary wall
post-fertilisation. Similarly endosperm is nutritive
tissue formed after fertilisation.
131. Answer (3)
Hint : Only seed plants form the pollen grains.
Sol. : Seed plants are gymnosperms and
angiosperms and in both of these plant groups pollen
grains are the carrier of the male gametes.
132. Answer (3)
Hint : Seed plants show internal fertilisation.
Sol. : Bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms
and angiosperms, they all show internal fertilisation
means fertilisation (syngamy) inside the body of
organisms.
133. Answer (4)
Hint : Monoecious plants have both the sex organs
on the same plant.
Sol. : Cucurbit plants are monoecious. Papaya,
date palm and Marchantia are dioecious.
134. Answer (3)
Hint : Yeast is a unicellular fungus.
Sol. : Most of the unicellular organisms reproduce
by binary fission or budding. Yeast shows budding
Zoospores formation is common in algae and fungi.
135. Answer (3)
Hint : Polycarpic plants flower repeatedly at
intervals.
Sol. : Jackfruit is a polycarpic plant while marigold,
wheat and radish are monocarpic plants.
136. Answer (4)
Hint : Primary oocyte completes first meiotic division
in this stage.
Sol. : Tertiary follicle is characterised by presence of
antrum, theca externa and interna and secondary
oocyte.
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
137. Answer (4)
Hint : These structures are the first formed haploid
structures.
Sol. : The correct sequence of spermatogenesis is
Spermatogonia → primary spermatocytes →
secondary spermatocytes → spermatids →
spermatozoa.
Oogenesis sequence
Oogonia → primary oocyte → secondary oocyte +
first polar body → ootid.
138. Answer (1)
Hint : Identify a part of womb.
Sol. : Cervix is part of uterus (womb) which is part of
internal reproductive structures.
139. Answer (4)
Hint : This is called milk letdown hormone.
Sol. : Prolactin helps in formation of milk by mammary
alveoli.
140. Answer (3)
Hint : Duration of this phase is fixed.
Sol. : Luteal phase lasts for 14 days. Ovulation will
occur on 20th day in this woman (34-14 = 20).
141. Answer (4)
Hint : Structure rich in hydrolytic enzymes.
Sol. : Acrosome helps the sperm penetrate the
secondary oocyte.
142. Answer (2)
Hint : Human egg is alecithal.
Sol. : Cleavage is complete and occurs from one pole
to another.
143. Answer (4)
Hint : Zona pellucida is intact in this embryonic stage.
Sol. : Morula is 8-16 celled stage formed in fallopian
tube. Zygote is single celled structure.
144. Answer (3)
Hint : These are non-identical twins.
Sol. : They are fraternal twins formed from two
separate fertilisation events.
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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
145. Answer (4)
Hint : Umbilical cord contains two umbilical arteries
and one umbilical vein.
Sol. : No mixing of blood occurs at placenta.
146. Answer (2)
Hint : These structures develop at the end of 24
weeks.
Sol. : Placenta is well developed at the end of first
trimester. Heart beat can be heard after one month.
147. Answer (2)
Hint : Vigorous contractions of the uterus at the end
of pregnancy cause expulsion of foetus.
Sol. : Parturition is a complex neuroendocrine
process. Ratio of estrogen to progesterone increases
during childbirth. Oxytocin is released from maternal
posterior pituitary.
148. Answer (3)
Hint : It is secretory antibody.
Sol. : Early milk called colostrum during lactation
phase is rich in IgA.
149. Answer (1)
Hint : Gametogenesis is an in-vivo process.
Sol. : Gametogenesis results in formation of gametes
and occurs inside the body in all cases.
150. Answer (1)
Hint : Proestrous phase is comparable to proliferative
phase of menstrual cycle.
Sol. : Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) is the major
hormone of pro-estrous phase. Estrogen dominates
during estrous cycle.
151. Answer (3)
Hint : This is a unisexual animal.
Sol. : Earthworm, leech and sponges are bisexual
animals. They undergo cross fertilisation.
152. Answer (3)
Hint : Senescence is old age where degeneration of
body functions is generally seen.
Sol. : Heterogametes in humans differ in size, motility
and amount of cytoplasm.
153. Answer (3)
Hint : Cells with 46 chromosomes.
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Test - 1 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions)
Sol. : Spermatid, first polar body and secondary
oocyte are haploid cells.
154. Answer (2)
Hint : Secretion of these glands constitute
60-70% of seminal plasma.
Sol. : Prostate gland is unpaired. Bulbourethral/
cowper’s gland secrete mucus.
155. Answer (3)
Hint : ICSH from anterior pituitary targets Leydig cells.
Sol. : Sertoli cells are called sustentacular cells as
they provide nourishment for developing sperms.
156. Answer (3)
Hint : This hormone is called pregnancy hormone.
Sol. : Progesterone is responsible for maintaining
stability of endometrium. Decline in LH is responsible
for regression of corpus luteum.
157. Answer (3)
Hint : It is a fluid filled cavity.
Sol. : Tertiary follicle is characterised by presence of
antrum.
158. Answer (2)
Hint : Formation of gametes is followed by union of
gametes.
Sol. : The correct sequence of events is as follows
Gametogenesis → insemination → fertilisation →
implantation → gestation → parturition.
159. Answer (1)
Hint : Site of fertilisation.
Sol. : Entry of sperm into cytoplasm of secondary
oocyte induces completion of meiotic division of the
secondary oocyte. Sperms are deposited in vagina
during copulation.
160. Answer (1)
Hint : This hormone is released in pulsatile manner.
Sol. : GnRH is released in pulses and promotes
release of FSH and LH. Amnion is derived from
extraembryonic ectoderm and extraembryonic
mesoderm. Spermiation involves release of sperms
from seminiferous tubules.
Test - 1 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions)
161. Answer (3)
Hint : This structure is also responsible for providing
nourishment during embryonic stage in reptiles and
birds.
Sol. : Yolk sac is responsible for formation of blood in
first trimester during embryogenesis.
162. Answer (1)
Hint : Post fertilisation event observed at puberty.
Sol. : Pulses of GnRH trigger gametogenesis in males
at puberty.
163. Answer (4)
Hint : Formation of zygote is seen in sexually
reproducing organisms.
Sol. : Sexually reproducing organisms can undergo
both internal and external fertilization.
164. Answer (2)
Hint : They are a result of parthenogenesis.
Sol. : Worker bees are sterile females while fertile
female is queen bee.
165. Answer (4)
Hint : Animals that give birth to young ones.
Sol. : Young one developing inside female reproductive
tract is safer. All land dwellers are not essentially
viviparous.
166. Answer (2)
Hint : Meiocytes are diploid in nature while gametes
are haploid.
Sol. : Genetic constitution of sperm forming cells is
(44 + XY), sperms formed can have either (22 + X) or
(22 + Y) as chromosome number.
167. Answer (4)
Hint : Identify a non primate.
Sol. : Monkeys, apes such as chimpanzees and
gorilla and man exhibit menstrual cycle.
168. Answer (2)
Hint : It is a glycoproteinaceous hormone
Sol. : LH maintains corpus luteum. Relaxin is released
from corpus luteum in pregnant females while estrogen
and progesterone are secreted from corpus luteum in
both pregnant and non-pregnant females.
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
169. Answer (3)
Hint : This hormone is secreted by placenta.
Sol. : Human placental lactogen i.e. hPL acts on
mammary glands to facilitate the process of lactation.
Cortisol, progesterone and estrogen are secreted in
non-pregnant females also.
170. Answer (4)
Hint : This is a proteinaceous gonadotropin.
Sol. : Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is the
basis of Gravidex test performed to detect pregnancy.
171. Answer (4)
Hint : It refers to helical arrangement.
Sol. : Mitochondria are arranged in a helical manner
in middle piece of sperm.
172. Answer (1)
Hint : FSH and LH are gonadotropins.
Sol. : Amenorrhea is absence of menstrual cycle
whose common reason can be fertilisation of ova. At
menopause, gonadotropins increase due to absence
of negative feedback.
173. Answer (2)
Hint : This process occurs in cervix.
Sol. : Decapacitation factors are removed after sperms
are deposited in female reproductive tract. Castration
is removal of testes. Circumcision refers to removal
of foreskin of penis.
174. Answer (1)
Hint : Identify organism that can show internal budding.
Sol. : Yeast and Hydra show external budding while
Amoeba shows encystation and sporulation.
175. Answer (2)
Hint : Gamete fusion occurs only in sexual
reproduction.
Sol. : Sexual reproduction is more complex, slow and
elaborate and may be either uniparental or biparental.
176. Answer (3)
Hint : Which process ensures continuity of species?
Sol. : Reproduction enables the continuity of the
species
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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
177. Answer (2)
Hint : Its scientific name is Drosophila.
Sol. : Life span of fruit fly is few weeks.
178. Answer (3)
Hint : Identify a unicellular organism.
Sol. : A single celled organism can divide by
processes involving cell division eg : binary fission.
 
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Test - 1 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions)
179. Answer (4)
Hint : This process enables an organism to leave
behind more progeny of its kind.
Sol. : Fragmentation, sporulation and budding are not
observed in humans.
180. Answer (4)
Hint : This process involves fusion of gametes.
Sol. : Recombination during sexual reproduction leads
to variations.