GATE EE Solved Paper for 6th Feb 2016 (Set A)

GENERAL APTITUDE:

Q1. The man who is now Municipal Commissioner worked as ____________________.

(A) the security guard at a university
(B) a security guard at the university
(C) a security guard at university
(D) the security guard at the university
Ans: (B)
Solution: The sentence is talking about the Municipal Commissioner’s previous profession.
There cannot be only one security guard at the University. Thus, the indefinite article
should precede the security guard. Since the location where he used to work is specific,
definite article ‘the’ needs to precede it. Hence the correct option satisfying this criteria is
option 2.

Q2. Nobody knows how the Indian cricket team is going to cope with the difficult and
seamer-friendly wickets in Australia.
Choose the option which is closest in meaning to the underlined phrase in the above
sentence.
(A) put up with
(B) put in with
(C) put down to
(D) put up against
Ans: (A)
Solution: The sentence is speaking about the problem that the Indian cricket team will face
in Australia. ‘Cope with’ means to tolerate. Another phrase meaning to tolerate is ‘put up
with’.

Q3. Find the odd one in the following group of words. mock, deride, praise, jeer
(A) mock
(B) deride
(C) praise
(D) jeer
Ans: (C)
Solution: The words ‘deride’, ‘mock’, ‘jeer’ are synonyms that are negative words meaning
to ridicule or make fun of. The other word ‘praise’ is a positive word that means to ‘express
admiration’. Hence it is the odd one out.

Q4. Pick the odd one from the following options.

(A) CADBE
(B) JHKIL
(C) XVYWZ
(D) ONPMQ
Ans: (D)
Solution: The pattern is as follows,

Here the pattern followed by ONPMQ is different.

Hence the odd one is ONPMQ.

Q5. In a quadratic function, the value of the product of the roots (α, β) is 4. Find the value of
𝛼 𝑛 + 𝛽𝑛
𝑎−𝑛 + 𝛽 −𝑛
(A) n4
(B) 4n
(C) 22n-1
(D) 4n-1
Ans: (B)
Solution:
𝛼 𝑛 + 𝛽𝑛 𝛼 𝑛 + 𝛽𝑛
=
𝛼 −𝑛 + 𝛽 −𝑛 1 1
𝛼 𝑛 + 𝛽𝑛
(𝛼 𝑛 𝛽 𝑛 )(𝛼 𝑛 + 𝛽 𝑛 )
=
𝛼 𝑛 + 𝛽𝑛
= (𝛼𝛽)𝑛 = 4𝑛

Q6. Among 150 faculty members in an institute, 55 are connected with each other through
Facebook® and 85 are connected through WhatsApp®. 30 faculty members do not have
Facebook® or WhatsApp® accounts. The number of faculty members connected only
through Facebook® accounts is _____________.
(A) 35
(B) 45
(C) 65
(D) 90
Ans: (A)
Solution:

No of members only on Facebook = x

No of members only on Whatsapp = z
No. of members on both = y
No of members on neither = w
x + y + z + w = 150
x + y = 55
y + z = 85, w = 30
x + y + z = 120
x = 120 – 85
x = 35

Q7. Computers were invented for performing only high-end useful computations. However,
it is no understatement that they have taken over our world today. The internet, for
example, is ubiquitous. Many believe that the internet itself is an unintended consequence
of the original invention. With the advent of mobile computing on our phones, a whole new
dimension is now enabled. One is left wondering if all these developments are good or,
more importantly, required.
Which of the statement(s) below is/are logically valid and can be inferred from the above
paragraph?
(i) The author believes that computers are not good for us.
(ii) Mobile computers and the internet are both intended inventions
(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) only
(C) both (i) and (ii)
(D) neither (i) nor (ii)
Ans: (D)
Solution: While the author wonders whether developments such as computers are good for
us, he does not offer an opinion on the same. He simply states facts as they are. So we
cannot say that the author believes that computers are not good for us. Thus the first
inference is not valid. The second inference does not hold because the passage clearly
states that many people feel that the internet is an unintended invention.

Q8. All hill-stations have a lake. Ooty has two lakes.

Which of the statement(s) below is/are logically valid and can be inferred from the above
sentences?
(i) Ooty is not a hill-station.
(ii) No hill-station can have more than one lake.
(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) only
(C) both (i) and (ii)
(D) neither (i) nor (ii)
Ans: (D)
Solution: According to the given statements, we the following least possible Venn diagram.

(i) Ooty is not a hill-station → Ooty can be a hill-station as shown in below diagram but is not
definite as per least possible Venn diagram shown above. Thus it does not follow.

(ii) No hill-station can have more than one lake → This is not definite hence does not follow.
Hence neither (i) nor (ii) follows.

Q9. In a 2 × 4 rectangle grid shown below, each cell is a rectangle. How many rectangles
can be observed in the grid?
(A) 21
(B) 27
(C) 30
(D) 36
Ans: (C)
Solution: 8 rectangles form single grid
2 × 4C2 = 12 rectangles using two grids.
2 × 4C3 = 8 Rectangles using three straight grids
Above were used horizontally.
If we go vertically, the total number will be 30

Q10.

Choose the correct expression for f(x) given in the graph.

(A) f(𝑥) = 1−|𝑥−1|
(B) f(𝑥) = 1+|𝑥−1|
(C) f(𝑥) = 2−|𝑥−1|
(D) f(𝑥) = 2 +|𝑥−1|
Ans: (C)
Solution: Putting the values shown is graph, option (C) matches.
CORE TOPICS

Q1. The maximum value attained by the function 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥(𝑥 − 1)(𝑥 − 2) in the interval [1,
2] is _____.
Ans: 0
Solution: The curve for f(x) = x (x – 1) (x – 2) will approximately be

In interval [1, 2], the maximum value is 0

Q2. Consider a 3 × 3 matrix with every element being equal to 1. Its only non-zero
eigenvalue is ____.
Ans: 3
1 1 1
Solution: The matrix is [ ]
1 1 1
1→ 1 1
Characteristic equation 𝐴 → 𝐼 = [1 1→ 1 ]
1 1 1→
=(1-λ) ((1-λ)2-1) – 1(1-λ-1) + 1(1-1+λ)
=(1–λ) (λ2–2λ) + 2λ
= λ2–2λ – λ3 + 2λ2 + 2λ
= λ3 + 3λ2
∴ The non zero eigen value is 3

Q3. The Laplace Transform of f(t) = e2t sin (5t) u(t) is

5
A) 𝑠2 −4𝑠+29
5
B) 𝑠2 +5
𝑠−2
C) 𝑠2 −4𝑠+29
5
D) 𝑠+5
Ans: (A)
Solution: f(t) = e2t sin 5t u(t)
1 5
𝐿(𝑒 2𝑡 ) = , 𝐿(𝑠𝑖𝑛5𝑡) = 2
𝑠−2 𝑠 + 25
5
𝐿(𝑒 2𝑡 sin 5𝑡 𝑢(𝑡)) =
(𝑠 − 2)2 + 25
5
= 2
𝑠 − 4𝑠 + 29

Q4. A function y(t) such that y(0) = 1 and y(1) = 3e-1, is a solution of the differential
𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
equation 𝑑𝑡 2 + 2 𝑑𝑡 + 𝑦 = 0 . Then y(2) is
(A) 5e-1
(B) 5e-2
(C) 7e-1
(D) 7e-2
Ans: (B)
Solution:
𝑑 2 𝑦 2𝑑𝑦
+ +𝑦 =0
𝑑𝑡 2 𝑑𝑡
taking laplace transform
𝑠 2 𝑌(𝑠) – 𝑠𝑦 (0) – 𝑦’(0) + 2𝑠𝑌(𝑠) – 2𝑦(0) + 𝑌(𝑠) = 0
𝑠 + 2 + 𝑦′(0)
𝑌(𝑠) =
(𝑠 + 1)2
1 1+𝑦′(0)
= 𝑠+1 + (𝑠+1)2
taking inverse laplace
𝑦(𝑡) = 𝑒 −𝑡 + (1 + 𝑦’(0)) + 𝑒 −𝑡
𝑦(0) = 1, 𝑦(1) = 3 𝑒 −1
Solving we get 𝑦’(0) = 1
∴ 𝑦(2) = 5 𝑒 −2

Q5. The value of the integral

2𝑧 + 5
∮ 𝑑𝑧
1 2
𝑐 (𝑧 − 2) (𝑧 − 4𝑧 + 5)
over the contour |z| = 1, taken in the anti – clockwise direction, would be
24𝜋𝑖
A) 13
48𝜋𝑖
B) 13
24
C) 13
12
D) 13
Ans: (B)
Solution:
2𝑧 + 5
𝑓(𝑧) = ∮ 𝑑𝑧
1 2
(𝑧 − 2) (𝑧 − 4𝑧 + 5)
the poles are 𝑧 = ½, 2 ± 𝑖
Since the contour is |𝑧| = 1, hence use will consider only 𝑧 = ½
the value of integral will be
1 2𝑧 + 5
2𝜋𝑖 [(𝑧 − ) ( )]
2 (𝑧 − 1) (𝑧 2 − 4𝑧 + 5)
2 𝑧=
1
2

6
= 2𝜋𝑖 ( )
1
− 2 + 5
4
48𝜋𝑖
=
13

𝑌(𝑠) 𝑠
Q6. The transfer function of a system is 𝑅(𝑠) = 𝑠+2. The steady state output y(t) is A cos (2t
+ ) for the input cos (2t). The values of A and , respectively are
1
(A) , −45°
√2
1
(B) , +45°
√2
(C) √2, −45°
(D) √2, +45𝑜
Ans: (B)
Solution:
𝑌(𝑠) 𝑠 𝑌(𝑗𝜔) 𝑗𝜔
= , =
𝑅(𝑠) 𝑠 + 2 𝑅(𝑗𝜔) 𝑗𝜔 + 2
𝑟(𝑡) – 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2𝑡
⇒𝜔 = 2
𝑌(𝑗𝜔) 𝑗
∴ =
𝑅(𝑗𝜔) 1 + 𝑗
𝐽
𝑌(𝑗𝜔) = 𝑅(𝑗ω)
1+𝑗
1
= ∠45°𝑅(𝑗𝜔)
√2
1
∴𝐴= , ∅ = 45°
√2
 100
Q7. The phase cross-over frequency of the transfer function 𝐺(𝑠) = (𝑠+1)3 in rad/s is
(A) √3
1
(B)
√3
(C) 3
(D) 3√3
Ans: (A)
Solution:
100 100
𝐺(𝑠) = 3
= 3
(𝑠 + 1) 𝑠 + 1 + 3𝑠(1 + 𝑠)
100((1 − 3𝜔2 ) − 𝑗(3𝜔 − 𝜔3 ))
𝐺(𝑗𝜔) =
(1 − 3𝜔 2 )2 + (3𝜔 − 𝜔 3 )2
at phase cross over frequency
phase = − 180°
∴ 𝑡𝑎𝑛  = 0
⇒ imaginary part should be zero
∴ 𝜔2 = 3
𝜔 = √3

Q8. Consider a continuous-time system with input x(t) and output y(t) given by y(t) = x(t)
cos (t)
This system is -
(A) linear and time-invariant
(B) non-linear and time-invariant
(C) linear and time-varying
(D) non – linear and time-varying
Ans: (C)
Solution: 𝑦(𝑡) = 𝑥(𝑡)
For time invariance, if output is vertical
𝑦(𝑡 + 𝛼) = 𝑥 (𝑡 + 𝛼) 𝑐𝑜𝑠 (𝑡 + 𝛼)
if input is varied
𝑦(𝑡’) = 𝑥 (𝑡 + 𝛼) 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑡
since 𝑦(𝑡′) is not equal to 𝑦(𝑡 + 𝛼)
Hence system is not time invariant.
Applying superposition theorem, we get the system as linear.

+∞
Q9. The value of ∫−∞ 𝑒 −𝑡 𝛿(2𝑡 − 2)𝑑𝑡, where 𝛿(𝑡) is the Dirac delta function, is
1
(A) 2𝑒
 2
(B) 𝑒
1
(C) 𝑒 2
1
(D) 2𝑒 2
Ans: (A)
∞
Solution: 𝐿𝑒𝑡 𝐼 = ∫−∞ 𝑒 −𝑡 𝛿(2𝑡 − 2)𝑑𝑡
let 2𝑡 – 2 = 𝑧
2𝑑𝑡 = 𝑑𝑧
∞
𝑧+2 𝛿(𝑧)𝑑𝑧
∴ 𝐼 = ∫ 𝑒 −( )
2
2
−∞
∞
1
= ∫ 𝑒 −𝑧/2 𝛿(𝑧)𝑑𝑧
2𝑒
−∞
1
=
2𝑒

Q10. A temperature in the range of −40˚ C to 55˚ C is to be measured with a resolution of

0.1˚ C. The minimum number of ADC bits required to get a matching dynamic range of the
temperature sensor is
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 14
Ans: (B)
Solution: Range of temperature = 55 – (-40) =95° C
Resolution = 0.1° C
95
No of points required = 0.1 = 960
28 <960 <210
Hence minimum bits required are 0

Q11. Consider the following circuit which uses a 2 – to – 1 multiplexer as shown in the
figure below. The Boolean expression for output F in terms of A and B is
(A) A ⊕ B
̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
(B) 𝐴 +𝐵
(C) A + B
(D) ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
𝐴⊕𝐵
Ans: (D)
Solution: For multiplexers
𝑆 𝐼𝑜
(𝐵 ) 0 0 (𝐴̅)
̅
𝐵 1 1 𝐴
̅ ̅
𝐹 = 𝐴 𝐵 + 𝐴𝐵
= ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
𝐴⊕𝐵

Q12. A transistor circuit is given below. The Zener diode breakdown voltage is 5.3 V as
shown. Take base to emitter voltage drop to be 0.6 V. The value of the current gain β is
_________.

Ans: 19
Solution:
V’ = 5.3 V, VBE = 0.6
- 5.3 + VBE + IE + 470 = 0
4.7
𝐼𝐸 = = 10 𝑚𝐴
470
10 – V’ = 4.7 kΩ × I’
I’ = 1 mA
IB = I’ – 0.5 = 0.5 mA
𝐼𝐸
𝛽= − 1 = 20 − 1 = 19
𝐼-𝐵

Q13. In cylindrical coordinate system, the potential produced by a uniform ring charge is
given by  = 𝑓(𝑟, 𝑧), where 𝑓 is a continuous function of 𝑟 and 𝑧. Let 𝐸⃗ be the resulting
electric field. Then the magnitude of ∇ × ⃗E
(A) increases with 𝑟.
(B) is 0.
(C) is 3.
(D) decreases with 𝑧.
Ans: (B)
Solution:
−𝜕𝐵
∇ × 𝐸⃗ =
𝜕𝑡
For absence of rotating field or magnetic field
∇ × 𝐸⃗ = 0

Q14. A soft-iron toroid is concentric with a long straight conductor carrying a direct current
I. If the relative permeability 𝜇𝑟 of soft-iron is 100, the ratio of the magnetic flux densities at
two adjacent points located just inside and just outside the toroid, is _______.
Ans: 100
𝜇𝑟𝑒𝑙 𝜇𝑜 𝐼
Solution: 𝐵 = 2𝜋𝑟
𝐵𝑖𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒
= 𝜇𝑟𝑒𝑙 = 100
𝐵𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒

Q15. RA and RB are the input resistances of circuits as shown below. The circuits extend
infinitely in the direction shown. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) RA = RB
(B) RA = RB = 0
(C) RA < RB
(D) RB = RA/(1 + RA)
Ans: (D)
Solution: For RA

𝑅𝐴
𝑅𝐴 = +2
1 + 𝑅𝐴
𝑅𝐴2 + 𝑅𝐴 = 2 + 3𝑅𝐴
𝑅𝐴2 − 2𝑅𝐴 − 2 = 0
 𝑅𝐵 + 2
𝑅𝐵 −
𝑅𝐵 + 3
2
𝑅𝐵 + 2𝑅𝐵 − 2 = 0
From given equation
𝑅𝐴 ≠ 𝑅𝐵 & 𝑅𝐴 , 𝑅𝐵 ≠ 0
also RA > RB
Hence options (D) is correct

Q16. In a constant V/f induction motor drive, the slip at the maximum torque
(A) is directly proportional to the synchronous speed.
(B) remains constant with respect to the synchronous speed.
(C) has an inverse relation with the synchronous speed.
(D) has no relation with the synchronous speed.
Ans: (C)
Solution: In V/f control the maximum torque remains content.
As frequency increases, speed required to get maximum torque increases and slip
decreases
𝑁𝑠 − 𝑁 𝑁
𝑠= =1−
𝑁𝑠 𝑁𝑠
Thus the slip has inverse relation with the synchronous speed.

Q17. In the portion of a circuit shown, if the heat generated in 5 Ω resistance is 10 calories
per second, then heat generated by the 4 Ω resistance, in calories per second, is _______.

Ans: 2
Solution:

If a voltage source is connected here, current flowing 5 Ω is double than 4 Ω & 6 Ω

resistance
Heat generated = I2 Rt
10×2
Heat generated is upper branch = = 5 calories per second
22
4
Heat generated in 4 Ω resistance = 5 × 10
= 2 calories per second

Q18. In the given circuit, the current supplied by the battery, in ampere, is _______.

Ans: 0.5
Solution:

From the circuit 𝐼1 = 2𝐼2

Applying KVL in outer loop
−1 + 𝐼1 + 𝐼2 + 𝐼2 = 0
1 = 2𝐼1
𝐼1 = 0.5 𝐴

Q19. In a 100 bus power system, there are 10 generators. In a particular iteration of
Newton Raphson load flow technique (in polar coordinates), two of the PV buses are
converted to PQ type. In this iteration,
(A) the number of unknown voltage angles increases by two and the number of unknown
voltage magnitudes increases by two.
(B) the number of unknown voltage angles remains unchanged and the number of
unknown voltage magnitudes increases by two.
(C) the number of unknown voltage angles increases by two and the number of unknown
voltage magnitudes decreases by two.
(D) the number of unknown voltage angles remains unchanged and the number of
unknown voltage magnitudes decreases by two.
Ans: (B)
Solution: For PV buses, voltage magnitude was known quantity, if changed to PQ type the
voltage magnitude becomes unknown. The angle was unknown quantity before and now
also.

Q20. The magnitude of three-phase fault currents at buses A and B of a power system are
10 pu and 8 pu, respectively. Neglect all resistances in the system and consider the pre-
fault system to be unloaded. The pre-fault voltage at all buses in the system is 1.0 pu. The
voltage magnitude at bus B during a three-phase fault at bus A is 0.8 pu. The voltage
magnitude at bus A during a three-phase fault at bus B, in pu, is ________.
Ans: 0.75
Solution: Voltage at bus B after 3 – phase fault at A = 0.8 p.u.
𝑉𝐵 = 𝑉(𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑓𝑎𝑢𝑙𝑡) – 𝑍12 × 𝐼𝑓(𝐵)
0.8 = 1.0 – 𝑍12 × 8
𝑍12 = 0.025 𝑝. 𝑢.
𝑉𝐴 = 1.0 – (0.025 × 10)
𝑉𝐴 = 0.75 𝑝. 𝑢.

Q21. Consider a system consisting of a synchronous generator working at a lagging power

factor, a synchronous motor working at an overexcited condition and a directly grid-
connected induction generator. Consider capacitive VAr to be a source and inductive VAr to
be a sink of reactive power. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) Synchronous motor and synchronous generator are sources and induction generator is
a sink of reactive power.
(B) Synchronous motor and induction generator are sources and synchronous generator is
a sink of reactive power.
(C) Synchronous motor is a source and induction generator and synchronous generator are
sinks of reactive power.
(D) All are sources of reactive power.
Ans: (A)
Solution: Overexcited synchronous motor is supplying lagging reactive power.
Synchronous generator is under excited hence supplies lagging reactive power.
Induction generator need reactive power to function in the absence of
Rotor dc excitation.

Q22. A buck converter, as shown in Figure (a) below, is working in steady state. The output
voltage and the inductor current can be assumed to be ripple free. Figure (b) shows the
inductor voltage VL during a complete switching interval. Assuming all devices are ideal, the
duty cycle of the buck converter is ________.

Ans: 0.4
Solution: For on time 𝑉𝐿 = 𝑉𝑖 – 𝑉𝑜 , 𝑉𝐿 = 30 𝑉
⇒ 30 = 𝑉𝑖 – 𝑉𝑜
For off time 𝑉𝐿 = − 𝑉𝑜 , 𝑉𝐿 = − 20 𝑉
𝑉𝑜 = 20 𝑉
∴ 𝑉𝑖 = 50 𝑉
𝑉𝑜 20
Duty cycle 𝐷 = = 50 = 0.4
𝑉𝑖

Q23. A steady dc current of 100 A is flowing through a power module (S, D) as shown in
Figure (a). The V-I characteristics of the IGBT (S) and the diode (D) are shown in Figures
(b) and (c), respectively. The conduction power loss in the power module (S, D), in watts, is
________.

Ans: 170
Solution: 𝑉𝐷 = 0.01𝐼𝐷 + 0.7 = 1.7 𝑉
𝑃 = 𝑉𝐷 𝐼𝐷 = 1.7 × 100 = 170 𝑊

Q24. A 4-pole, lap-connected, separately excited dc motor is drawing a steady current of 40

A while running at 600 rpm. A good approximation for the waveshape of the current in an
armature conductor of the motor is given by
A)

B)

C)

D)

Ans: (C)
𝐼
Solution: Armature current in the armature conductors, 𝐼𝐴 = 𝐴
Where A = No. of parallel paths.
In this case A = 4 for lap connected winding.
When dc current passes through simulator and goes inside armature, its shape will be that
of shown is option (C)

Q25. If an ideal transformer has an inductive load element at port 2 as shown in the figure
below, the equivalent inductance at port 1 is

(A) 𝑛𝐿
(B) 𝑛2 𝐿
𝑛
(C) 𝐿
𝑛2
(D) 𝐿
Ans: (B)
𝐿 𝐿
Solution: Seen from primary side, inductance will be = 𝑘 2 = 1 = 𝑛2 𝐿
𝑛2

Q26. Candidates were asked to come to an interview with 3 pens each. Black, blue, green
and red were the permitted pen colours that the candidate could bring. The probability that
a candidate comes with all 3 pens having the same colour is _____.
Ans: 0.0625
Solution: Total numbers of cases for picking any three pens = 4 × 4 × 4 = 64
Number of cases where all three pen have same colour = 4
(all 3 black pens + all 3 blue pen + all 3 green pen + all 3 red pen)
4 1
∴ probability = = = 0.0625
64 16

Q27. Let 𝑆 = ∑∞ 𝑛
𝑛=0 𝑛𝛼 where|𝛼| < 1. The value of 𝛼 in the range 0 < 𝛼 < 1, such that
𝑆 = 2 𝛼 is _______.
Ans: 0.2929
Solution: s = α + 2α2 + 3α3 + …………….
αs = α2 + 2α3 + 3α4 + …………….
s(1 – α) = α + α2 + α3 + …………….
𝛼
=
1−𝛼
 𝛼
𝑠= = 2𝛼
(1 − 𝛼)2
1
(1 − 𝛼)2 =
2
1
1−𝛼 =
√2
α = 0.2929

Q28. Let the eigenvalues of a 2 x 2 matrix A be 1, -2 with eigenvectors x1 and x2

respectively. Then the eigenvalues and eigenvectors of the matrix would, respectively, be
(A) 2, 14; x1, x2
(B) 2, 14; x1 + x2, x1 – x2
(C) 2, 0; x1, x2
(D) 2, 0; x1 + x2, x1 – x2
Ans: (A)
Solution: Eigen values for the new matrix will be (𝜆2 – 3𝜆 + 4) at 𝜆 = 1, − 2 which come
as 𝜆′ = 2, 14
Eigen vectors will same for 𝐴2 – 3𝐴 + 4𝐼 as that of A

Q29. Let 𝐴 be a 4 × 3 real matrix with rank 2. Which one of the following statement is
TRUE?
(A) Rank of 𝐴𝑇 𝐴 is less than 2.
(B) Rank of 𝐴𝑇 𝐴 is equal to 2.
(C) Rank of 𝐴𝑇 𝐴 is greater than 2.
(D) Rank of 𝐴𝑇 𝐴 can be any number between 1 and 3.
Ans: (B)
Solution: If 𝐴 is real
Rank of (𝐴𝑇 𝐴) = rank of 𝐴 = rank of 𝐴𝑇 = rank of 𝐴𝐴𝑇

Q30. Consider the following asymptotic Bode magnitude plot (ω is in rad/s).

Which one of the following transfer functions is best represented by the above Bode
magnitude plot?
2𝑠
(A) (1+0.5𝑠)(1+0.25𝑠)2
4(1+0.5𝑠)
(B) 𝑠(1+0.25𝑠)
2𝑠
(C) (1+2𝑠)(1+4𝑠)
4𝑠
(D) (1+2𝑠)(1+4𝑠)2
Ans: (A)
Solution: Between s = 0.5 and s = 8, there are two poles; are of powers and other of powers
2 only option (A) fits the criteria.

Q31. Consider the following state-space representation of a linear time-invariant system.

1 0 1 1
𝑥̇ (𝑡) = [ ] 𝑥(𝑡), 𝑦(𝑡) = 𝑐 𝑇 𝑥(𝑡), 𝑐 = [ ] 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥(0) = [ ]
0 2 1 1
The value of y(t) for t = loge 2 is __________.
Ans: 6
Solution: 𝑥̇ (𝑡) = 𝐴𝑥(𝑡)
Taking Laplace transform
𝑠𝑋(𝑠) – 𝑥0 = 𝐴𝑥(𝑡)
−1
𝑥(𝑡) = {𝐿−1 (𝑠𝐼 – 𝐴) 𝑥(0)}
𝑡
= [ 𝑒2𝑡 ]
𝑒
𝑦(𝑡) = 𝑐 𝑇 𝑥(𝑡)
= 𝑒 𝑡 + 𝑒 2𝑡
at 𝑡 = log e 2 , 𝑦(𝑡) = 2 + 4 = 6

𝑠+3
Q32. Loop transfer function of a feedback system is 𝐺(𝑠)𝐻(𝑠) = 𝑠2 (𝑠−3) . Take the Nyquist
contour in the clockwise direction. Then, the Nyquist plot of G(s) H(s) encircles -1 + j0
(A) once in clockwise direction
(B) twice in clockwise direction
(C) once in anticlockwise direction
(D) twice in anticlockwise direction
Ans: (A)
𝑠+3
Solution: Nyquist plot of 𝐺(𝑠)𝐻(𝑠) = 𝑠2 (𝑠−3). Is drawn below
In the plot G(s)H(s) encircle -1 + j0 once in clockwise direction.

Q33. Given the following polynomial equation

𝑠 3 + 5.5𝑠 2 + 8.5𝑠 + 3 = 0,
the number of roots of the polynomial, which have real parts strictly less than −1, is ________
Ans: 2
Solution: 𝑠 3 + 5.5𝑠 2 + 8.5𝑠 + 3 = 0
For real parts less than -1, putting 𝑠 = 𝑧 − 1
2
(𝑧 − 1)3 + 5.5 (𝑧 – 1) + (8.5) (𝑧 − 1) + 3 = 0
𝑧 3 + 2.5𝑧 2 + 0.5𝑧 − 1 = 1
Taking Routh criteria for the given characteristic equation
𝑧 3 1 0.5
𝑧 2 2.5 -1
𝑧 0.9 0
𝑧 0 -1
There is one sign change in first column. Hence, two roots of given polynomial will lie to the
left of s = -1.

Q34. Suppose x1(t) and x2(t) have the Fourier transforms as shown below.

Which one of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) x1(t) and x2(t) are complex and x1(t) x2(t) is also complex with nonzero imaginary part
(B) x1(t) and x2(t) are real and x1(t) x2(t) is also real
(C) x1(t) and x2(t) are complex but x1(t) x2(t) is real
(D) x1(t) and x2(t) are imaginary but x1(t) x2(t) is real
Ans: (C)
Solution: 𝑋1 (𝑗𝜔) and 𝑋2 (𝑗𝜔) are not conjugate symmetric, hence 𝑥1 (𝑡), 𝑥2 (𝑡) are not real
1
Now, fourier transform of 𝑥1 (𝑡). 𝑥2 (𝑡) will be 2𝑥 𝑋1 (𝑗𝜔) ∗ 𝑋2 (𝑗𝜔) and by looking at 𝑋1 (𝑗𝜔)
and 𝑋2 (𝑗𝜔) We can say that 𝑋1 (𝑗𝜔) ∗ 𝑋2 (𝑗𝜔) will be conjugate symmetric and thus
𝑥1 (𝑡). 𝑥2 (𝑡) will be real.

Q35. The output of a continuous-time, linear time-invariant system is denoted by 𝑇{𝑥(𝑡)}

where 𝑥(𝑡) is the input signal. A signal 𝑧(𝑡) is called eigen-signal of the system T , when
𝑇{𝑧(𝑡)} = 𝛾𝑧(𝑡), where 𝛾 is a complex number, in general, and is called an eigenvalue of T.
Suppose the impulse response of the system T is real and even. Which of the following
statements is TRUE?
(A) cos(t) is an eigen-signal but sin(t) is not
(B) cos(t) and sin(t) are both eigen-signals but with different eigenvalues
(C) sin(t) is an eigen-signal but cos(t) is not
(D) cos(t) and sin(t) are both eigen-signals with identical eigenvalues
Ans: (D)
Solution: The impulse response is real and even, hence H(jω) will also be real and even.

Since H(jω) is real and even, 𝐻(𝑗𝜔0 ) = 𝐻(−𝑗𝜔0 )

𝑒 𝑗𝑡 +𝑒 −𝑗𝑡
Now cos(t) is input i.e. is input
2
𝐻(𝑗1)𝑒 𝑗𝑡 +𝐻(−𝑗1)𝑒 −𝑗𝑡 𝑒 𝑗𝑡 +𝑒 −𝑗𝑡
Output = 𝐻(𝑗1) [ ] = 𝐻(𝑗1)cos(𝑡)
2 2
𝑒 𝑗𝑡 +𝑒 −𝑗𝑡
If sin(t) is input i.e. is input
2
𝐻(𝑗1)𝑒 𝑗𝑡 +𝐻(−𝑗1)𝑒 −𝑗𝑡 𝑒 𝑗𝑡 +𝑒 −𝑗𝑡
Output will be = 𝐻(𝑗1) [ ] = 𝐻(𝑗1) cos(𝑡)
2 2
So sin(t) and cos(t) are eigen signals with same eigen values.

Q36. The current state QA QB of a two JK flip-flop system is 00. Assume that the clock rise-
time is much smaller than the delay of the JK flip-flop. The next state of the system is
(A) 00
(B) 01
(C) 11
(D) 10
Ans: (C)
Solution: In the given circuit we have
𝐽𝐴 = 𝐾𝐴 = 1
𝐽𝐵 = 𝐾𝐵 = 𝑄̅𝐴
Clock JAKA JBKB QAQB
0 11 11 00
1 11
So next state will be 11.

Q37. A 2-bit flash Analog to Digital Converter (ADC) is given below. The input is 0 ≤ VIN ≤ 3
Volts. The expression for the LSB of the output 𝐵0 as a Boolean function of X2, X1, and X0 is

(A) 𝑋0 [𝑋 ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
2 ⊕ 𝑋1 ]
(B) 𝑋 ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
̅̅̅0 [𝑋 2 ⊕ 𝑋1 ]
(C) 𝑋0 [𝑋2 ⊕ 𝑋1 ]
(D) 𝑋̅0 [𝑋2 ⊕ 𝑋1]
Ans: (A)
Solution: Input is X2, X1, X0 and output is B1 B0
Forming the table, we get
X2 X1 X0 B1 B0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 1 0 1
0 1 1 1 0
1 1 1 1 1

Taking the K-Map for B0

𝐵0 = 𝑋̅2 𝑋̅1 𝑋̅0 + 𝑋2 𝑋1 𝑋0

= 𝑋0 (𝑋̅2 𝑋̅1 + 𝑋2 𝑋1 )
̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
= 𝑋0 (𝑋 2 ⊕ 𝑋1 )

Q38. Two electric charges q and −2q are placed at (0,0) and (6,0) on the x-y plane. The
equation of the zero equipotential curve in the x-y plane is
(A) x = −2
(B) y = 2
(C) x2 + y2 = 2
(D) (x + 2)2 + y2 = 16
Ans: (D)
Solution: From the given question, potential for q and -2q
𝑞
𝑉𝑞 =
4𝜋𝜖√𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2
−2𝑞
𝑉−2𝑞 =
4𝜋𝜖(√(𝑥 − 6)2 + 𝑦 2 )
For equipotential region in x-y plane,
𝑞 −2𝑞
𝑉𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 = 0 = +
4𝜋𝜖(√𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 ) 4𝜋𝜖(√(𝑥 − 6)2 + 𝑦 2 )
√(𝑥 − 6)2 + 𝑦 2 = 2(√𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 )
3𝑥 2 + 3𝑦 2 + 12𝑥 = 36
𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 4𝑥 = 12
(𝑥 + 2)2 + 𝑦 2 = 16
Q39. In the circuit shown, switch S2 has been closed for a long time. At time t = 0 switch S1
is closed. At t = 0+, the rate of change of current through the inductor, in amperes per
second, is _____.

Ans: 2
Solution:

at t = 0-, when 𝑆1 is open

at t = 0+, when 𝑆1 is closed

Suppose the junction is named as node A, the applying KCL at node A

𝑉𝐴 −3 3 𝑉𝐴 −3
1
+2+ 2
= 0 (1.5 A is the steady state current from inductor)
2(𝑉𝐴 – 3) + 3 + (𝑉𝐴 – 3) = 0
3𝑉𝐴 = 6 , 𝑉𝐴 = 2
𝑑𝑖(0+ )
𝑉𝐴 = 𝐿 =2
𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑖(0+ ) 2 2
= = = 2 𝐴/𝑠𝑒𝑐
𝑑𝑡 𝐿 1

Q40. A three-phase cable is supplying 800 kW and 600 kVAr to an inductive load. It is
intended to supply an additional resistive load of 100 kW through the same cable without
increasing the heat dissipation in the cable, by providing a three-phase bank of capacitors
connected in star across the load. Given the line voltage is 3.3 kV, 50 Hz, the capacitance per
phase of the bank, expressed in microfarads, is ________.
Ans: 47.96
Solution:
𝐾𝑉𝐴1 = √8002 + 6002 = 1000 𝐾𝑉𝐴
Without excessive heat dissipation, KVA rating must be constant as the current remains
unchanged
In second case Active power, P = 800 + 100 = 900 KW
Reactive power in second case 𝑄2 = √10002 − 9002 = 435.889 𝐾𝑉𝐴𝑅
Reactive power supplied by the three phase bank = 600 - 435.889
= 164.11 KVAR
𝑄𝑏 164.11
= = 54.7 𝐾𝑉𝐴𝑅
𝑝ℎ 3
𝑉 3.3
= = 1.9052 𝐾𝑉
𝑝ℎ √3
𝑉 2
𝑄𝑐 ( )
𝑝ℎ
=
𝑝ℎ 𝑋𝑐
(1.9052 × 103 )2
𝑋𝑐 = = 66.36Ω
54.7 × 103
1 1
𝐶= = = 47.96 𝜇𝐹
2𝜋𝑓𝑋𝐶 2𝜋 × 50 × 66.36

Q41. A 30 MVA, 3-phase, 50 Hz, 13.8 kV, star-connected synchronous generator has
positive, negative and zero sequence reactances, 15%, 15% and 5% respectively. A
reactance (𝑋𝑛 ) is connected between the neutral of the generator and ground. A double line
to ground fault takes place involving phases ‘b’ and ‘c’, with a fault impedance of j0.1 p.u.
The value of 𝑋𝑛 (in p.u.) that will limit the positive sequence generator current to 4270 A is
_________.
Ans: 1.07
30×103
Solution: Base current 𝐼𝐵 = = 1255.109 𝐴
√3×13.8
Positive sequence current, Ip = 4270 A
4270
Per unit current, 𝐼𝑝.𝑢. = 1255.109 = 3.402 𝑝. 𝑢.
𝐸𝑎
𝐼𝑔1 = 𝑋
1 +(𝑋2 ||𝑋0 )
𝑋0 = 3𝑋𝑛 + 0.35
 1.0
3.402 =
0.15 × (3𝑋𝑛 + 0.35)
0.15 +
0.15 + 3𝑋𝑛 + 0.35
From above equation, we get 𝑋𝑛 = 1.07 𝑝. 𝑢.

Q42. If the star side of the star-delta transformer shown in the figure is excited by a
negative sequence voltage, then

(A) VAB leads Vab by 60º

(B) VAB lags Vab by 60º
(C) VAB leads Vab by 30º
(D) VAB lags Vab by 30º
Ans: (D)
Solution:
Q43. A single-phase thyristor-bridge rectifier is fed from a 230 V, 50 Hz, single-phase AC
mains. If it is delivering a constant DC current of 10 A, at firing angle of 30o, then value of
the power factor at AC mains is
(A) 0.87
(B) 0.9
(C) 0.78
(D) 0.45
Ans: (C)
Solution: Input power factor = power factor at ac mains
2√2 2√2
= 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛼 = 𝑐𝑜𝑠30° = 0.78
𝜋 𝜋

Q44. The switches T1 and T2 in Figure (a) are switched in a complementary fashion with
sinusoidal pulse width modulation technique. The modulating voltage vm (t) = 0.8 sin
(200πt) V and the triangular carrier voltage (vc) are as shown in Figure (b). The carrier
frequency is 5 kHz. The peak value of the 100 Hz component of the load current (iL), in
ampere, is ________

Ans: 10
Solution: Modulating amplitude, 𝑀𝑎 = 0.8
 𝑉𝑑
Peak value of voltage at 100 Hz, (𝑉01 )𝑝𝑒𝑎𝑘 = 𝑀𝑎 [𝑀𝑎 ≤ 1]
2
= 0.8 × 250 = 200 V
(𝑉01 )𝑝𝑒𝑎𝑘 200 200
𝐼𝐿 = (𝐼01 )𝑝𝑒𝑎𝑘 = = = = 10 𝐴
𝑍1 √𝑅 2 + (𝜔𝐿)2 √122 + 162

Q45. The voltage (vs) across and the current (is) through a semiconductor switch during a
turn ON transition are shown in figure. The energy dissipated during the turn – ON
transition, in mJ, is_______.

Ans: 75
Solution:
𝑇1 𝑇2

𝐸𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦 = ∫ 𝑉. 𝑖𝑑𝑡 + ∫ 𝑣. 𝑖𝑑𝑡

0 0
1 1
= 𝑉 [ 𝐼𝑇1 ] + 𝐼 [ 𝑉𝑇2 ]
2 2
150 1
= 600 [ × 1 × 10−6 ] + 100 [ × 600 × 1 × 10−6 ]
2 2
Energy = 75 mJ

Q46. A single-phase 400 V, 50 Hz transformer has an iron loss of 5000 W at the rated
condition. When operated at 200 V, 25 Hz, the iron loss is 2000 W. When operated at 416 V,
52 Hz, the value of the hysteresis loss divided by the eddy current loss is ______.
Ans: 1.44
Solution:
At 400 V, 50 Hz, iron loss 𝑃𝑖 = 5000 Watt
At 200 V, 25 Hz ⇒ 𝑃𝑖 = 2000 Watt
𝑃𝑖 = 𝑃ℎ + 𝑃𝑒
𝑥
𝑃ℎ ∞ 𝑓𝐵𝑚
𝑃𝑒 ∞ 𝑓 2 𝐵𝑚2
𝑉 400 200 416
We have, 𝑓
= 50
= 25
= 52
= 8 = 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡
2
Hence, 𝑃ℎ = 𝐴𝑓, 𝑃𝑒 = 𝐵𝑓
Form given data
2000 = 𝐴 (25) + 𝐵(25)2 …(i)
5000 = 𝐴 (50) + 𝐵(50)2 …(ii)
Solving (i) and (ii)
𝐴 = 60, 𝐵 = 0.8
(𝑃ℎ ) = 𝐴𝑓 = 60 × 52
= 3120 Watt
(𝑃𝑒 ) = 𝐵𝑓 2 = 0.8 × (52)2
= 2163.2 Watt
(𝑃ℎ ) 3120
= = 1.4423
(𝑃𝑒 ) 2163.2

Q47. A DC shunt generator delivers 45 A at a terminal voltage of 220 V. The armature and
the shunt field resistances are 0.01 Ω and 44 Ω respectively. The stray losses are 375 W.
The percentage efficiency of the DC generator is ____________.
Ans: 86.84
Solution:

We have stray losses = 375 Watt

2
Total copper losses = 𝐼𝑎2 𝑅𝑎 + 𝐼𝑠ℎ 𝑅𝑠ℎ
2 2
= 50 × (0.01) + (5) × 44 = 1125 Watt
𝑂 ⁄𝑝 220 × 45
𝜂= +
𝑂 𝑝 + 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠𝑒𝑠 220 × 45 + (1125) + 375
⁄
= 0.86842 or 86.84 %

Q48. A three-phase, 50 Hz salient-pole synchronous motor has a per-phase direct-axis

reactance (Xd) of 0.8 pu and a per-phase quadrature-axis reactance (Xq) of 0.6 pu.
Resistance of the machine is negligible. It is drawing full-load current at 0.8 pf (leading).
When the terminal voltage is 1 pu, per-phase induced voltage, in pu, is _________.
Ans: 1.606
Solution: 𝑋𝑑 = 0.8,  = 36.86
𝑋𝑞 = 0.6, 𝑅𝑎 = 0
𝑉𝑠𝑖𝑛∅ + 𝐼𝑎 . 𝑋𝑞
tan ψ =
𝑉 𝑐𝑜𝑠∅
ψ = 56.30
for synchronous motor at leading p.f.
𝜓 =  + 𝛿
⇒ 𝛿 = 19.70°
Now, 𝐸 = 𝑉 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛿 + 𝐼𝑑 𝑋𝑑
𝐼𝑑 = 𝐼𝑎 𝑠𝑖𝑛  = 0.831
𝐸 = (1) 𝑐𝑜𝑠 (19.7) + (0.831) (0.8) = 1.606

Q49. A single-phase, 22 kVA, 2200 V/ 220 V, 50 Hz, distribution transformer is to be

connected as an auto-transformer to get an output voltage of 2420 V. Its maximum kVA
rating as an auto-transformer is
(A) 22
(B) 24.2
(C) 242
(D) 2420
Ans: (C)
Solution: Required output voltage is 2420 i.e. (2200 + 220) V
Hence it is case of additive polarity
(𝑘𝑉𝐴)𝑎𝑢𝑡𝑜 = (𝑘2𝑤𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑔 + 1) × 𝑘𝑉𝐴2𝑤𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑔
2200
𝑘2𝑤𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑔 = = 10
220
(kVA)auto = (10 + 1) × 22 = 242

Q50. A single-phase full-bridge voltage source inverter (VSI) is fed from a 300 V battery. A
pulse of 120o duration is used to trigger the appropriate devices in each half-cycle. The rms
value of the fundamental component of the output voltage, in volts, is
(A) 234
(B) 245
(C) 300
(D) 331
Ans: (A)
2√2
Solution: Fundamental output voltage, 𝑉01(𝑟𝑚𝑠) = 𝜋
𝑉. sin 𝛿
Where pulse width, 2𝛿 = 120°
𝛿 = 60°
2√2 2√2 √3
𝑉01(𝑟𝑚𝑠) = 𝑉𝑠 . sin 60° = × 300 × = 233.9 𝑉
𝜋 𝜋 2
Q51. A single-phase transmission line has two conductors each of 10 mm radius. These are
fixed at a center-to-center distance of 1 m in a horizontal plane. This is now converted to a
three-phase transmission line by introducing a third conductor of the same radius. This
conductor is fixed at an equal distance D from the two single-phase conductors. The three-
phase line is fully transposed. The positive sequence inductance per phase of the three-
phase system is to be 5% more than that of the inductance per conductor of the single-
phase system. The distance D, in meters, is _______.
Ans: 1.427
Solution: When single phase,

𝐷 100
𝐿1 = 2 × 10−7 ln = 2 × 10−7 ln ( )
𝑟 0.7788
L1 = 0.97 μ H/m
L2 = 1.05 × 0.97 = 1.0185 μ H/m
3
√𝐷 2 × 100
−7
𝐿2 = 2 × 10 ln (
)
0.7788
When converted to three phase,

Solving, we get
3
√𝐷 2 × 100 1.0185 × 10−6
ln ( )= = 5.0925
0.7788 2 × 10−7
3
√100 𝐷 2
5.0925
𝑒 =
0.7788
D = 142.7 cm = 1.427 m

Q52. In the circuit shown below, the supply voltage is 10 sin(1000 ) volts. The peak value of
the steady state current through the 1 Ω resistor, in amperes, is ______.
Ans: 1
Solution:

At 𝜔 = 1000 rad/sec both the parallel LC combination are at resonance.

Hence both are open circuited.
The circuit can be redrawn as shown above
10𝑠𝑖𝑛1000𝑡
so, 𝐼 = 10
= sin 100𝑡
Peak Value is 1 Amp.

Q53. A dc voltage with ripple is given by v(t) = [100 + 10 sin (ωt) – 5 sin (3ωt)] volts.
Measurements of this voltage v(t), made by moving-coil and moving-iron voltmeters, show,
readings of V1 and V2 respectively. The value of V2 – V1, in volts, is _________.
Ans: 0.312
Solution: 𝑉(𝑡) = 100 + 10 𝑠𝑖𝑛 (𝜔𝑡) – 5 𝑠𝑖𝑛 (3𝜔𝑡)
For moving coil, 𝑉1 = 𝑉𝑎𝑣𝑔 = 100 𝑉
1
For moving iron, 𝑉2 = 𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 = √1002 + 2 (102 + 52 )
= 100.312
V2 – V1 = 0.312

Q54. The circuit below is excited by a sinusoidal source. The value of R, in Ω, for which the
admittance of the circuit becomes a pure conductance at all frequencies is _____________.
Ans: 14.14
𝐿
1 𝑅𝐿2 −
Solution: Resonant frequency, 𝜔0 = √ 2 𝐶𝐿
√𝐿𝐶 𝑅𝐶 −
𝐶

Since (𝑅𝐿 = 𝑅𝐶 = 𝑅)
𝐿
For zero real part of admittance, 𝑅 = √𝐶

0.02
So, 𝑅 = √ = 14.14 Ω
100×10−6

Q55. In the circuit shown below, the node voltage VA is ___________ V.

Ans: 11.43
Solution:

Applying KCL at node A, we get

𝑉𝐴 𝑉𝐴 − 10 𝑉𝐴 + 10𝐼1
+ + =5
5 10 5
So, 2𝑉𝐴 + 𝑉𝐴 – 10 + 2 𝑉𝐴 + 20 𝐼1 = 50
5 𝑉𝐴 + 20 𝐼1 = 60
 𝑉𝐴 −10
Since 𝐼1 = 10
So, 5 𝑉𝐴 + 2 𝑉𝐴 – 20 = 60
7 𝑉𝐴 = 80
80
𝑉𝐴 = = 11.42857
7