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ChE Objective Type Questions Compilation Dean Medina 1 8 1 11 PDF
ChE Objective Type Questions Compilation Dean Medina 1 8 1 11 PDF
ChE Objective Type Questions Compilation Dean Medina 1 8 1 11 PDF
5. An irreversible process
a. is the analog of linear frictionless motion in machines
b. is an idealized visualization of behavior of a system
c. yields the maximum amount of work
d. yields the amount of work less than that of a reversible process.
6. In a adiabatic process
a. heat transfer is zero b. temperature change is zero
c. work done is a path function d. enthalpy remains constant
8. Efficiency of heat engine working on Carnot cycle between two temperature levels
depends upon
a. the two temperatures only b. the pressure of working fluid
c. the mass of the working fluid d. both mass and pressure of the
working fluid
9. What is the degree of freedom for a system comprising liquid water equilibrium with
its vapor?
a. 0 b. 1
c. 2 d. 3
10. Efficiency of a Carnot engine working between temperatures T1 and T2 (T1 < T2 ) is
a. (T2 – T1) / T2 b. (T2 – T1) / T1
c (T1 – T2) / T2 d. (T1 –T2) / T1
11. For a constant pressure reversible process, the enthalpy ( ∆H) change of the system is
a. C vdT b. Cp dT
c. ∫ Cp dT d. ∫Cv dT
13. Equation which relates pressure, volume, and temperature of a gas is called
a. Equation of state b. Gibbs Duhem equation
c. ideal gas equation d. none of these
29. Number of components (C) phase (P) and degrees of freedom (F) are related by Gibbs
phase rule as
a. P + F – C = 2 b. C =P – F +2
c. F = C –P – 2 d. P = F – C –2
30. Degrees of freedom at triple point will be
a. 0 b. 1
c. 2 d. 3
36. The absolute entropy for all crystalline substances at absolute zero temperature
a. is zero b. is negative
c. is more than zero d. can’t be determined
51. Which of the following equation is obtained on combining 1sT and 2nd law of
thermodynamics, for a system of constant mass?
a. dU = TdS – PdV b. dQ = Cv dT + PdV
c. dQ = Cp dT + Vdp d. TdS = dU – PdV
54. If different processes are used to bring about the same chemical reaction, the enthalpy
change is same for all of them.
a. Hess’s law b. Kirchhoff’s law
c. Lavoisier and Laplace law d. none of these
55. Change of heat content when one mole of the compound is burnt in oxygen at
constant pressure is called
a. calorific value b. heat of reaction
c. heat of combustion d. heat of formation
63. A chemical reaction will occur spontaneously at constant pressure and temperature, if
free energy is
a. zero b. positive
c. negative d. none of these
67. Free energy charges for two reaction mechanism X and Y are respectively – 15 and 5
units. It implies that X is
a. slower than Y b. faster than Y
c. three times slower than Y d. three times faster than Y
68. Chemical potential is
a. an extensive property
b. an intensive property
c. a force which derives the chemical system to equilibrium
d. both b and c
72. Fugacity and pressure are numerically equal when the gas is
a. in standard state b. at high temperature
c. at low temperature d. in ideal state
73. The relation connecting the fugacities of various components in a solution with one
another and to composition at constant temperature and pressure is called
a. Gibbs-Duhem equation b. Van Laar equation
c. Gibbs-Helmholtz equation d. Margules equation
78. The point at which both liquid and gas phases are identical is called
a. critical point b. triple point
c. freezing point d. boiling point
85. As the entropy of the universe is increasing day by day the work producing capacity
of a heat engine is
a. not changed b. decreasing
c. increasing d. data insufficient can’t be predicted
92. Which of the following have minimum value of COP for a given refrigeration effect?
a. reverse Carnot cycle
b. ordinary vapor compression cycle
c. vapor compression process with a reversible expansion engine
d. air refrigeration cycle
99. Coefficient to performance for a reversed Carnot cycle working between temperatures
T1 and T2 (T1> T2) is
a. T2 /(T1 - T2) b. T1 /(T1 – T2)
c. (T2 – T1) / T1 d. (T1 – T2) /T2
6. Dimension of viscosity is
(a) ML-1T-1 (b) MLT-1
(c) MLT-1T (d) MLT
11. The pressure intensity is the same in all direction at a point in a fluid
(a) only when the fluid is frictionless
(b) only when the fluid is at rest having zero velocity
(c) when there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
(d) regardless of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
13. For a fluid rotating at constant angular velocity about vertical axis as a rigid body, the
pressure intensity varies as the
(a) square of the radial distance
(b) radial distance linearly
(c) averse of the radial distance
(d) elevation along vertical direction
15. A rectangular surface 3’x4’, has the lower 3 edge horizontal and 6’ below a free oil
surface (sp. gr. 0.8). The surface inclination is 300 with the horizontal. The force in
one side of the surface is :(y = specific weight of water)
17. Mass velocity is the independent of temperature and pressure when the flow is
(a) unsteady through uncharged cross-section
(b) steady through changing cross-section
(c) steady and the cross-section is unchanged
(d) unsteady ant the cross-section is changed
22. Which of the following must be followed by the flow of fluid (real or ideal)?
(i) Newton’s law of viscosity
(ii) Newton’s second law of motion
(iii) the continuity equation
(iv) velocity of boundary must be zero relative to boundary
(v) fluid cannot penetrate a boundary
(a) I, II, III (b) II, III, V
(c) I, II, V (d) II, III, V
26. The kinetic energy correction factor for velocity distribution of laminar flow is
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.66
(c) 1 (d) 2
27. The momentum correction factor for the velocity distribution of laminar flow is
(a) 1.3 (b) 1.66
(c) 2.5 (d) none of these
31. Reynolds number flow of water at room temperature through 2 cm diameter pipe at
average velocity of 5 cm/sec is around
(a) 2000 (b) 10
(c) 100 (d) 1000
35. The friction factor for turbulent flow in a hydraulically smooth pipe
(a) depends only on Reynolds number
(b) does not depend on Reynolds number
(c) depends on the roughness
(d) none of these
36. For a given Reynolds number, in hydraulically smooth pipe, further smoothing
(a) brings about no further reduction of friction factor
(b) increases the friction factor
(c) decreases the friction factor
(d) none of these
42. The velocity profile for turbulent flow through a closed conduit is
(a) logarithmic (b) parabolic
(c) hyperbolic (d) linear
46. Consider two pipes of same length and diameter through which water is passed at the
same velocity. The friction factor for rough pipe is f1 and that for smooth pipe is f2.
Pick out the correct statement.
(a) f1 = f2 (b) f1 < f2
(c) f1 > f2 (d) data not sufficient to relate f1 and f2
47. Bernoulli’s equation for steady frictionless, continuous flow states that
(a) total pressure at all sections is same
(b) total energy at all section is same
(c) velocity head at all section is same
(d) none of these
54. For flow of fluid through packed bed, the superficial velocity is
(a) less than the average velocity through channels
(b) more than the average velocity through channels
(c) dependent on the pressure drop across the bed
(d) same as the average velocity through channels
61. For the free settling of a spherical particle through a fluid, the slope of CD – log NRe,
plot is
(a) 1 (b) –1
(c) 0.5 (d) –0.5
71. The maximum depth from which a centrifugal pump can draw water
(a) dependent on the speed N of the pump
(b) dependent on the power of the pump
(c) 34 feet (d) 150 feet
72. Boiler feed pump is usually a
(a) reciprocating pump (b) gear pump
(c) multisatge centrifugal pump (d) diaphragm pump
77. The maximum head that can be developed with a single impeller is
(a) 25 ft. (b) 1000 ft.
(c) 250 – 300 ft. (d) 1000 ft.
78. A fluid jet discharging from a 2” diameter orifice has a diameter of 1.75” at its vena-
contracta. The co-efficient of contraction is
(a) 1.3 (b) 0.766
(c) 0.87 (d) none of these
87. For a specific centrifugal air blower operating at constant speed and capacity the
power requirement and pressure vary
(a) directly as squares of gas density
(b) directly as gas density
(c) directly as square root of density
(d) inversely as gas density
88. Foot valves are provided in the suction line of a centrifugal pump to
(a) avoid priming every time we start the pump
(b) remove the contaminant present in the liquid
(c) minimize the fluctuation in dischrarge
(d) control the liquid discharge
91. While starting a centrifugal pump, its delivery valve should be kept
(a) opened (b) closed
(c) either opened or closed; it does not make any difference
(d) either opened or closed; depending on the fluid viscosity
92. Path followed by water jet issuing from the bottom of a water tank will be a
(a) parabola (vertex being at the opening)
(b) hyperbolic
(c) horizontal straight line
(d) zig-zag path (which is geometrically undefined)
93. A centrifugal pump loses prime after starting. The reason of this trouble may be
(a) incomplete priming (b) too high a suction lift
(c) low available NPSH and air leaks in the suction pipe
(d) all ‘a’, ‘b’, and ‘c’
95. For liquid flow through a packed bed, the superficial velocity as compared to average
velocity through the channel in the bed is
(a) more (b) less
(c) equal (d) independent of porosity
99. If more than two branches of pipes are to be connected at the same point, then use
(a) elbow (b) union
(c) tee (d) none of these
100. The most economical valve for use with large diameter pipes is
(a) butterfly valve (b) globe valve
(c) needle valve (d) none of these
101. Which of the following factors does not contribute to the pressure drop in a
pipeline?
(a) velocity of liquid (b) size of pipe
(c) length of pipe and number of bends (d) none of these
102. Which of the following can be used to create a flow of gas where no significant
compression is required?
(a) reciprocating compressor (b) blower
(c) axial flow compressor (d) centrifugal compressor
103. Erosion and pits formation on the impeller of a centrifugal pump may be due to
(a) cavitation (b) low speed of impeller
(c) its operation with delivery valve closed for considerable time after starting the
pump
(d) off centering of pump with motor
104. Which of the following valves will incur maximum pressure drop for the same
discharge of water?
(a) globe valve (b) gate valve
(c) needle valve (d) butterfly valve
105. While starting on axial flow pump, its delivery valve should be kept
(a) open (b) closed
(c) either open or closed (d) none of these
113. Disc compensators are provided in large diameter gas carrying pipelines to
(a) keep the pipe in proper orientation
(b) make the pipe joint leak-proof
(c) account for contraction/ expansion of pipe due to temperature changes of
the surroundings
(d) account for pressure variation inside the pipelines
114. Nominal Pipe Size (NPS) of a pipe less than 12 inches in diameter indicates its
(a) inner diameter (b) outer diameter
(c) thickness (d) neither inner or outer
115. The most important factor which determines the maximum height to which water
can be lifted by a pump at standard temperature (62F) is
(a) barometric pressure (b) speed of the impeller
(c) diameter of the impeller (d) both ‘b’ and ‘c’
117. When the water is warm, the height to which it can be lifted by a pump
(a) decreases due to reduced velocity
(b) decreases due to reduced vapor pressure
(c) increases due to increased vapor pressure
(d) decreases due to increased frictional resistance
121. A pump operating under specific conditions delivers insufficient quantity of liquid.
This may be set right by
(a) decreasing the size of the inlet pipe
(b) increasing the size of the inlet pipe
(c) lowering the pump position
(d) both ‘b’ and ‘c’
125. Horsepower requirement for given pump capacity depends upon the
(a) specific gravity of the liquid (b) suction lift
(c) discharge head (d) all ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’
FLOW OF HEAT
1. A pipe carrying steam at about 300°C traverses a room, the air being still at 30°C. the
major fraction of the heat loss will be by
a. conduction to the still air b. convection to the air
c. radiation to the surrounding d. conduction and convection put together
2. A satellite in space exchanges heat with its surroundings by
a. Conduction b. convection
c. Radiation d. conduction as well as convection
3. For the same temperature drop in the temperature ranges of 300-400°C the heat flow rate
will be highest by
a. Conduction process b. convection process
b. Radiation process d. other factors should be known before any
conclusion
4. In the cold season a person would prefer to be near a fire because
a. The conduction from the fire will be better
b. the convection will be better if he is near the fire
c. Direct unimpeded radiation will provide quick warmth
d. combined conduction and convection will be better
5. A finned tube hot water radiator with a fan blowing air over it is kept in rooms during
winter. The major portion of the heat transfer from radiator to air due to
a. Radiation b. convection
c. Conduction d. combined conduction and radiation
6. For a specified heat input and a given volume which material will have the smallest
temperature rise (Use data book if necessary)
a. Steel b. aluminum
c. Water d. copper
7. When a hot metal piece is left to cool in the air the time rate of cooling of the outer layer
will be
a. Slower at start and faster near the end
b. faster at start and slower near the end
c. both rate will be the same
d. this will depend on the material
8. A thin black plate at temperature T receives radiation from a surface at Temperature T
and radiates to a surface at T . If all surfaces are black at steady state
a. (T -T)>(T-T ) b. (T -T)<(T-T )
c. (T -T)=(T-T ) d. can be any one of a, b or c
9. In a slab under steady conduction if the thermal conductivity increases along the
thickness, the temperatures gradient along the direction will become
a. Steeper b. Flatter
c. Remain constant d. either b or c depending on the heat flow rate
10. In steady state conduction with variable thermal conductivity if the conductivity
decreases along the flow direction, then the temperature gradient along the flow direction
will become
a. Remain constant b. will become flatter
c. Will become steeper d. either b or c depending on the heat flow rate
11. In steady state conduction with variable thermal conductivity if the conductivity
decreases along the flow direction, then the temperature gradient along the flow direction
will become
a. Steeper b. flatter
c. Remain constant d. either of the three depending on heat flow rate
12. In steady state conduction with thermal conductivity given by k=k (1+β) where β, is
+ve, a slab of given thickness and given temperature drop will conduct
a. More heat at lower temperature levels
b. More heat at higher temperature levels
c. Will be the same as flow depends in the temperature drop
d. Will be the same as flow depends on the thickness only
13. Choose the correct statement or statements
a. The thermal conductivity of gases decreases with temperature
b. The thermal conductivity of insulating solids increase with temperature
c. The thermal conductivity of good electrical conductors are generally low
d. The thermal conductivity variation is of low percentage in gases as compared to
solids
14. In slab generating heat uniformly and at steady state convecting equally on both sides, the
temperature gradient will
a. Flatten out as the distance from the centre increases
b. Become steeper as the distance from the centre increases
c. Will remain constant
d. Can be any of (a,b) or (c) depending the heat generation rate
15. For the same linear size (i.e. L,r) and heat generation rate, the temperature drop from
centre to surface us highest in
a. Spherical shape b. plate shape
c. Cylindrical shape d. rod of square section
16. The temperature drop in the heat generating solid under steady state conduction depends
to a greater extent on
a. Linear dimension b. thermal conductivity
c. Heat generation rate d. convection coefficient at the surface
17. The most effective way to reduce the temperature drop in a heat generating solid is to
a. Reduce the linear dimension
b. Reduce thermal conductivity
c. Reduce the convection coefficient on the surface
d. Reduce the heat generation rate
18. The thermal gradient in a heat generating cylinder under steady conduction, at half the
radius location will be
a. One half of that at surface b. One fourth of the at surface
c. Twice that at surface d. four times that at surface
19. In a sphere under steady state conduction with uniform heat generation, the temperature
gradient at half the radius location will be
a. One half of that at the surface b. one fourth of that at surface
c. One eight of that at the surface d. 2 times of that at the surface
20. In a long fin if the thermal conductivity is increased with other parameters maintained
constant
a. The temperature will drop at a faster rate along the length
b. The temperature will drop at a lower rate along the length
c. The temperature gradient is not strongly influenced by the conductivity
d. The temperature gradient is dependent on the heat flow only
21. In a long fin if the convection coefficient is increased with other parameters maintained
constant.
a. The temperature drop along length is not strongly influenced by the convection
coefficient
b. The temperature gradient depends only on heat flow rate
c. The temperature drop will be faster along the length
d. The temperature drop along the length will be at a lower rate
22. In a long fin if the parameter m=√(hP/kA) increases, other parameters being maintained
constant then.
a. The temperature variation along the length will be a lower rate
b. The temperature drop along the length will be steeper
c. The parameter m influences the heat flow only
d. The temperature profile will remain the same
23. For a given sectional area of fin if the circumstances is increase by adopting different
geometric shape then
a. The temperature variation along the fin length will be steeper
b. The temperature variation along the fin length will be featter
c. The circumference length does not affect the temperature change
d. The circumference will only influence the heat convected
24. In a given fin configuration increase in conductivity will
a. Decrease the total heat flow
b. Will affect only the temperature gradient
c. Increase the total heat flow
d. Heat flow is influenced only by the base temperature and sectional area
25. An increase in convection coefficient over a fin will
a. Increase effectiveness b. decrease effectiveness
c. Does not influence effectiveness d. influences only the fin efficiency
26. In the case of fins it is desirable to have
a. Area of section maintained constant along the length
b. Area of section reduced along the length
c. Area of section increased along the length
d. Better to vary the convection coefficient than the area
27. Fin effectiveness will be increased more by
a. Having a higher value of convection coefficient
b. Higher sectional area
c. higher thermal conductivity
d. longer circumference
28. If a square section fin is split longitudinally used as two fins
a. The total heat flow will decrease
b. The total heat flow will increase
c. The total heat flow remain constant
d. Heat flow may increase or decrease depending on the material used
29. For a given volume of material for use in a pin fin
a. Longer the fin better the total heat flow
b. Shorter the fin better the heat flow
c. As the volume is constant the heat flow will not change
d. As length is increased heat flow will increase and after some length will decrease
6. If moisture content of a solid on dry basis is X then the same on wet basis is
a) X
X+1
b) X
1-X
c) 1+X
X
d) 1–X
X
7. In paper industry, paper is dried in
a) tunnel dryer
b) heated cylinder dryer
c) conveyor dryer
d) festoon dryer
10. Moisture in a substance exerting an equilibrium vapor pressure less than that of pure
liquid at
at the same temperature is
a) bound moisture
b) unbound moisture
c) critical moisture
d) none of these
12. Moisture in a solid exerting an equilibrium vapor pressure equal to that of the pure
liquid at
the same temperature is
a) unbound moisture
b) critical moisture
c) free moisture
d) bound moisture
13. Refractory bricks are usually dried in a
a) tray dryer
b) tunnel dryer
c) conveyor dryer
d) festoon dryer
14. Heat sensitive materials like certain pharmaceuticals and food stuff can be dried
a) in indirect tray dryer
b) in spray dryer
c) by freeze drying
d) none of these
17. In the constant rate period of the rate of drying curve for batch drying
a) cracks develop on the surface of the solid
b) rate of drying decreases abruptly
c) surface evaporation of unbound moisture occurs
d) none of these
22. A solid material shows case hardening properties while drying. Which of the
following
should be controlled to control the drying process?
a) flow rate of inlet air
b) relative humidity of outlet air
c) humidity of inlet air
d) temperature of the solid
24. Air at a particular humidity is heated in a furnace. The new dew point
a) decreases
b) increases
c) depends on the extent of heating
d) remains unchanged
26. A slurry is to be dried to produce flaky solid. Which dryer would you recommend?
a) spray dryer
b) drum dryer
c) rotary dryer
d) dielectric dryer
27. For continuous drying of granular or crystalline material, the dryer used is
a) tunnel
b) tray
c) rotary
d) none of these
29. During constant rate period, the rate of drying decreases with
a) decrease in air temperature
b) increased air humidity
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
6. Heat is BTU necessary to increase the temperature of 1 lb. of gas and its
accompanying
vapor by 1o F is called the
a) latent heat
b) humid heat
c) specific heat
d) sensible heat
7. Humid volume is the total volume in cubic feet of 1 lb. of
a) vapor laden gas at 1 atm. And room temperature
b) gas plus its accompanying vapor at 1 atm. and room temperature
c) gas plus its accompanying vapor at 1 atm. and gas temperature
d) vapor laden gas at 1 atm. and gas temperature
8. The temperature to which a vapor gas mixture must be cooled (at varying humidity)
to become saturated is
a) dew point
b) wet bulb temperature
c) dry bulb temperature
d) none of these
10. Steady state temperature reached by a small amount of liquid evaporating into a large
amount
of unsaturated vapor-gas mixture is
a) dry-bulb temperature
b) wet bulb temperature
c) dew point
d) adiabatic saturation temperature
12. The difference of wet bulb temperature and adiabatic saturation temperature of
unsaturated
mixture of any system is
a) positive
b) negative
c) zero
d) none of these
13. When the temperature and humidity of air is low we usually use
a) natural draft cooling tower
b) forced draft cooling tower
c) induced draft cooling tower
d) none of these
14. The equipment frequently used for adiabatic humidification-cooling operation with
recirculating liquid is
a) natural draft cooling tower
b) induced draft cooling tower
c) spray chamber
d) none of these
21. Which of the following processes is followed by unsaturated air (with dry bulb
temperature
12oC and relative humidity 47%) passing through water spray washer (temperature of
water being constant at 40oC)?
a) humidification only
b) heating only
c) both heating and humidification
d) evaporative cooling
22. Which of the following remains constant during sensible cooling process?
a) specific humidity
b) partial pressure of vapor
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
23. During sensible cooling process
a) relative humidity decreases
b) relative humidity increases
c) wet bulb temperature increases
d) both b and c
24. A mixture of 10% C6H6 vapor in air at 25oC and 750 mm Hg has a dew point of
20oC. Its dew point at 30oC and 700 mm Hg will be around
a) 21.7oC
b) 20oC
c) 27.3oC
d) 18.7oC
25. Which of the following remains constant during evaporative cooling process with
recirculated water supply?
a) relative humidity
b) partial pressure of vapor
c) wet bulb temperature
d) none of these
27. Which of the following decreases during evaporative cooling process with
recirculated water
supply?
a) wet bulb temperature
b) relative humidity
c) partial pressure of vapor
d) none of these
28. Which of the following increases during evaporative cooling process with
recirculated water
supply?
a) wet bulb temperature
b) relative humidity
c) partial pressure of vapor
d) both b and c
29. The relative saturation of a partially saturated mixture of vapor and gas can be
increased by
a) reducing the total pressure of the mixture
b) increasing the total pressure of the mixture
c) reducing the temperature of the mixture
d) both b and c
31. Unsaturated air (with dry and wet bulb temperatures being 35oC and 25oC
respectively) is
passed through water spray chamber maintained at 35oC. The air will be
a) cooled
b) humidified
c) both a and b
d) dehumidified
33. Unsaturated air (with dry bulb temperature and dew point being 35oC and 18oC
respectively)
is passed through a water spray chamber maintained at 15oC. The air will be
a) cooled and humidified
b) cooled and dehumidified with increase in wet bulb temperature
c) cooled at the same relative humidity
d) cooled and dehumidified with decrease in wet bulb temperature
34. Which of the following parameters remains almost constant during adiabatic
saturation of
unsaturated air?
a) dry bulb temperature
b) dew point
c) wet bulb temperature
d) none of these
35. Unsaturated air (with dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures being 45oC and 25oC
respectively)
is passed through a water spray chamber maintained at 23oC. The air will be
a) cooled and humidified with wet bulb temperature decreasing
b) cooled and humidified at constant wet bulb temperature
c) cooled and dehumidified
d) none of these
Diffusion
1. The unit of volumetric diffusivity is
a.) cm2/ec b.) cm/sec
c.) cm3/sec d.) cm3/sec3
2. The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to the temperature (T) as
a.) D T b.) D T0.5
1.5
c.) D T d.) D T3
3. The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to the pressure (P) as
a.) D T1.5 b.) D 1
P0.5
c.) D 1 d.) D 1
P P1.5
8. Penetration theory relates average mass transfer co-efficient (K) with diffusivity (D)
as
a.) K D b.) K D
1.5
c.) K D d.) K D2
12. Corresponding to Nusselt number in heat transfer, the dimensionless group in mass
transfer, is
a.) Scherwood number b.) Schmidt number
c.) Peclet number d.) Stanton number
16. In case liquid-liquid binary diffusion , diffusivity of one constituent into another is
not dependent on
a.) temperature and pressure
b.) concentration
c.) nature of the constituents
d.) none of these
18. Which of the following has the same dimension as mass diffusivity?
a.) momentum flux b.) kinematic viscosity
c.) thermal diffusivity d.) both b and c
19. Diffusivity in concentrated solutions differs from that in dilute solutions because of
changes in
a.) viscocity with concentration
b.) degree of ideality of the solution
c.) both a and b
d.) neither a nor b
20. The value of Lewis number Le = Sc for air-water vapor system is around
Pr
a.) 1 b.) 0.24
c.) 3.97 d.) 600.
GAS ABSORPTION
1. For absorbing a sparingly soluble gas in a liquid, the
a.) gas side coefficient should be increased
b.) liquid side coefficient should be increased
c.) gas side coefficient should be decreased
d.) liquid side coefficient should be decreased
6. Flooding results in
a.) High tray efficiency
b.) Low tray efficiency
c.) High gas velocity
d.) Good contact between the fluids
8. At the same gas flow rate, the pressure drop in a packed tower being irrigated with
liquid
a.) is greater than that in dry packed
b.) is lower than that in drying packing
c.) is same as that in drying packing
d.) cannot be predicted as data are insufficient
13. For an absorber, both equilibrium and operating line will be straight for
a.) concentrated solution and non-isothermal operation
b.) dilute solution and non-isothermal operation
c.) dilute solution and isothermal operation
d.) concentrated solution and isothermal operation
15. The minimum liquid rate to be used in an absorber corresponds to an operating line
a.) of slope = 1 b.) of slope = '1
c.) tangential to the equilibrium curve d.) none of these
18. If G = insoluble gas in gas stream and L = non-volatile solvent in liquid stream, then
the slope of the operating line for the absorber is
a.) L/G b.) G/L
c.) always < 1 d.) none of these
19. Raschig ring made of porcelain cannot be used for treating
a.) concentrated hydrochloric acid
b.) concentrated nitric acid
c.) alkalis
d.) concentrated sulfuric acid
22. Out of the following properties of a solvent for absorption, which combination of
properties provides a good solvent?
I. high viscosity II. Low viscosity
III. high vapour pressure IV. Low vapour pressure
V. high gas solubility VI. High freezing point
VII. low freezing point
23. When both the fluids flow concurrently in an absorber, the slope of the operating line
is
a.) negative b.) positive
c.) 1 d.) -1
24. Ammonia present in the coke oven gas is removed by washing with
a.) caustic solution b.) dilute ammoniacal liquor
c.) dilute HCl d.) ethanolamine
25. Which of the following is not fixed by process requirements in the design of
absorbers?
a.) flow rate of the entering gas
b.) composition of the entering liquid
c.) terminal concentration of gas stream
d.) none of these
28. Very tall packed towers are divided into series of beds to
a.) reduce the over-all pressure drop
b.) avoid channeling
c.) reduce liquid hold-up
d.) avoid flooding
29. For the same system, if the same liquid used in an absorber is decreased, the tower
height will
a.) increase
b.) decrease
c.) remain unaffected
d.) decrease or increase depends on the type of liquid
33. Co-current absorbers are usually used when the gas to be dissolved in the liquid is
a.) sparingly soluble b.) highly soluble
c.) a pure substance d.) a mixture
35. Diameter of raschig rings used in packed tower in industry is normally around
a.) 2" b.) 8"
c.) 12" d.) 18
FILTRATION
1. For a classification of potable water, we use
a.) gravity sand filter b.) plate and frame filter
c.) vacuum leaf filter d.) rotary vacuum filter
11. For separation of sugar solution from settled out mud we use
a.) sparkler filter b.) plate and frame
c.) centrifugal filter d.) rotary drum vacuum filter
15. The speed of a rotary drum vacuum filter (in rpm) may be
a.) 1 b.) 50
c.) 100 d.) 500
17. For laminar of flow of filtrate through the cake deposited on septum which of the
following with the valid?
a.) Kozency-Carman Equation b.) Leva's equation
c.) Clack-Plummer equation d.) none of these
18. Which of the following may prove unsuitable for filtering volatile liquids?
a.) pressure filter b.) gravity filter
c.) centrifugal filter d.) vacuum filter
19. In washing type plate and frame filter press the ratio of washing rate to the final
filtrate rate is
a.) 4 b.) 1/4
c.) 1 d.) 1/2
20. Moore filter is a
a.) leaf filter b.) filter press
c.) rotary filter d.) sand filter
22. Flow of filtrate through cake in a plate and frame filter press is best described by
a.) Kozency-Carman equation b.) Hagen-Poiseu equation
c.) Fanning's equation d.) Kremser equation
23. A straight line is obtained on plotting reciprocal of filtration rate vs the volume of
filtrate
a.) compressible cakes and laminar flow of filtrate
b.) incompressible cakes and laminar flow of filtrate
c.) compressible cake and turbulent flow of filtrate
d.) incompressible cake and turbulent flow of filtrate
25. Which of the following represents the plot of filtrate cvolume versus time for constant
pressure filtration?
a.) parabola b.) straight line
c.) hyperbola d.) exponential curve
26. With increase in drum speed, in a rotary drum filter, the filtration rate
a.) increases b.) increases linearly
c.) decreases d.) is not affected
29. Addition of filter aid to the slurry before filtration is done to ….. of the coke
a.) increase the porosity
b.) increase the compressibility coefficient
c.) decrease the porosity
d.) decrease the compressibility coefficient
30. The cake resistance increases steadily with the time of filtration in a plate and frame
filter employing constant ….. filtration
a.) rate b.) pressure
c.) both a and b d.) neither a nor b
31. The controlling resistance in a rotary drum vacuum filter is the …. Resistance
a.) piping b.) cake
c.) filter medium c.) none of these
ADSORPTION
1. Physical adsorption is
a. an irreversible phenomenon
b. a reversible phenomenon
c. accompanied by evolution of heat
d. both b and c
9. The change in enthalpy per unit weight of adsorbed gas when adsorbed on gas free or
“outgassed” adsorbent to form a definite concentration of adsorbate is called its
a. integral heat of adsorption
b. heat of wetting
c. differential heat of adsorption
d. heat of normal condensation
10. With increase in concentration of the adsorbate the integral heat of adsorption
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains unchanged
d. may increase or decrease; depends on type of adsorbate
11. The change in enthalpy when a unit quantity of gas is adsorbed by a relatively large quantity
of adsorbent (on which a definite concentration of the adsorbed gas already exists) is termed
as the
a. differential heat of adsorption c. integral heat of adsorption
b. heat of wetting d. heat of normal condensation
3. Which of the following can be most effectively used for clarification of tube oil and printing
ink?
a. sparkler filter c. disc-bowl centrifuge
b. precoat filter d. sharpless supercentrifuge
4. If the radius of a basket centrifuge is halved and the rpm is doubled, then
a. linear speed of the basket is doubled
b. linear speed of the basket is halved
c. centrifugal force is doubled
d. capacity of centrifuge is increased
5. Where the difference in density of the two liquid phases to be separated is very small (as in
milk cream separator), the most suitable separator is
a. disc bond centrifuge c. batch basket centrifuge
b. sharpless supercentrifuge d. sparkler filter
FLOTATION
4. Which of the following is the most suitable for cleaning of fine coal dust (< 0.5 m)?
a. Through washer c. Spiral separator
b. Baum Jig Washer d. Froth Flotation
LEACHING
7. Which of the following is the most suitable for extraction in a system having very low density
difference?
a. mixer-settler extractor c. pulsed extractor
b. centrifugal extractor d. packed extraction tower
8. In extraction, as the temperature increases, the area of heterogeneity (area covered by binodal
curve)
a. decreases c. remains unchanged
b. increases d. none of these
10. In a countercurrent extractor as the axial mixing increases, the extraction efficiency
a. increases c. remains unchanged
b. decreases d. depends on the pressure of the system
11. The solvent used in liquid extraction should not have high latent heat of vaporization because
a. the pressure drops and hence the pumping cost will be very high
b. it cannot be recovered by distillation
c. its recovery cost by distillation may be prohibitively high
d. it will decompose while recovering by distillation
13. Sides of equilateral triangular coordinates (on which ternary liquid system is plotted)
represent
a. a pure component c. a ternary mixture
b. a binary mixture d. partially miscible ternary system
14. As the reflux ratio, in a continuous counter current extraction is increased, the number of
stages
a. increase c. remain unchanged
b. decrease d. can either increase or decrease, depends on
the system
15. Acetic acid will be most economically separated from a dilute solution of acetic acid in water
by
a. solvent extraction c. evaporation
b. continuous distillation d. absorption
MATERIALS HANDLING
4. The capacity of a belt conveyor depends upon two factors. If one is the cross section of the
load, the other is the
a. speed of the belt c. thickness of the belt
b. length of the belt d. material to be transported
5. Dry powdery solid material are transported by a
a. belt conveyor c. belt conveyor
b. screw conveyor d. bucket elevator
SCREENING
1. The ratio of the actual mesh dimension of Taylor series to that of the next smaller screen is
a. 2 b. 2 c. 1.5 d. none of these
3. The ratio of the area of opening in one screen (Taylor series) to that of openings in the next
smaller screen is
a. 1.5 b. 1 c. 2 d. none of these
4. Cumulative Analysis for determining surface is more precise than differential analysis
because of the
a. assumption that all particles in single fraction are equal in size
b. fact that screening is more effective
c. assumption that all particles in a single fraction are equal in size is not needed
d. none of these
6. Screen efficiency is
a. recovery rejection b. recovery c. rejection d. none of these
18. The critical speed of a trommel (n) is related to its diameter (D)
1
a. N c. N D
D
1
b. N D d. N
D
20. Vibrating screens have capacity (tons/ft2 – hr – mm mesh size) in the range of
a. 0.2 to 0.8 c. 50 to 100
b. 5 to 25 d. 100 to 250
21. The material passing one screening surface and retained on a subsequent surface is called
a. intermediate material c. plus material
b. minus d. none of the above
SEDIMENTATION
Questions 1 and 2 are based on the following information and illustration
In an experiment, a sphere of density 1 and radius r is dropped in a tank of oil of
viscosity 1 and density 2 . The time of descent for the sphere through the first section of height
d is recorded as t1 and through the second section of the same height as t2, 0 < t2 – t1 << 1.
Sphere
d V ( 1 )
d 2
2. The drag force exerted on the sphere during its descent through the second section is
4 4 3 d
a. 1 2 g r 3 c. r 1 g 61r
3 3 t2
4 4 3 d
b. 1 g r 3 d. r 1 g 61r
3 3 t2
13. For the free settling of a spherical particle through a fluid, the slope of CD vs log NRe plot is
a. 1 c. – 1
b. 0.5 d. – 0.5
14. The terminal velocity of a small sphere settling in a viscous fluid varies as the
a. first power of its diameter
b. inverse of the fluid viscosity
c. inverse square of the diameter
d. square of the difference in specific weights of solid and fluid
17. The line of action of the buoyant force passes through the center of gravity of the
a. submerged body
b. displaced volume of the fluid
c. volume of fluid vertically above the body
d. horizontal projection of the body
19. Sphericity of raschig ring (whose length and diameter are equal) is
a. >1 c. <2
b. 1 d. 2
where: V and S are volume and surface area respectively of one particle
D = equivalent diameter of particles
SIZE REDUCTION
1. Shape factor for a cylinder whose length equals its diameter is
a. 1.5 b. 0.5 c. 1 d. 0
2. Equivalent diameter of a particle is the diameter of the sphere having the same
a. ratio of surface to volume as the actual volume
b. ratio of volume to surface as the particle
c. volume as the particle
d. none of these
15. As the product becomes finer, the energy required for grinding
a. decreases c. is same as for coarser grinding
b. increases d. is 1.5 times than for coarser grinding
16. Ultrafine grinders operate principally by
a. slow compression c. attrition
b. impact d. cutting action
20. Choke crushing (in case of a jaw crusher) compared to free crushing
a. results in increased capacity c. consumes more power
b. consumes less power d. both a and c
24. To get fine talc powder from its granules, the equipment used is
a. roller crusher c. jaw crusher
b. ball mill d. gyratory crusher
26. The main differentiation factor between tube mill and ball mill is the
a. length to diameter ratio c. final product size
b. size of the grinding media d. operating speed
29. Which of the following gives the crushing energy required to create new surface?
a. Taggart’s rule c. Rittinger’s law
b. Fick’s Law d. none of these
a. Diopt 3.9 q f
0.45
c 0.95 d. Diopt 3 q f
0.36
c 0.18
where q f = fluid flow rate, ft3/sec
= fluid density, lb/ft3
c = fluid viscosity, centipoise
Diopt = optimum inside pipe diameter, inches
48. For laminar flow (NRe < 2100) in steel pipe, the optimum inside pipe diameter is
given by
a. Diopt 3.6 q f c c 0.025
0.45 0.28 0.487
c. Diopt q f
a. Diopt 3 q f
0.36
c 0.18 d. Diopt q f
0.364
c 0.182
49. The necessary wall thickness for a metallic storage vessel is a function of the
a. ultimate tensile strength (or yield point) of the material and operating temperature
b. operating pressure and welding / joint efficiency
c. diameter of the vessel
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
50. Bubble cap plate column is
a. a finite stage contactor
b. used only for distillation, not for absorption
c. a differential stage contactor
d. a continuous contactor
51. The most common standard size of bubble caps used in industrial operation is
a. 1" diameter cap with 0.5" diameter riser
b. 6" diameter cap with 4" diameter riser
c. 8" diameter cap with 1" diameter riser
d. 4" diameter cap with 8" diameter riser
52. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to the design of the distillation column
a. Generally, a skirt clearance of 0.5 to 1.5 is recommended to prevent plugging of
the slots by residue build up.
b. The purpose of the slot is to disperse the gas into the liquid in the form of small
bubbles.
c. If sufficient slot area is not provided, the gas may pass through the skirt clearance
d. none of these
53. For a given design of bubble cap, the number of bubble caps to be used per tray is set
by the
a. allowable gas velocity through the slots b. plate spacing
c. diameter of the column d. all (a), (b) and (c)
54. Maximum and minimum linear slot velocities (in the distillation column design) as
recommended by Davies are respectively
a. 12/ 0.5 and 3.4/ ρ0.5 b.3.4/ ρ0.5 and 12/ ρ0.5
0.5 0.5
c. 3.4/ and 12/ d. 3.4/ ρ0.5 and 12/ 0.5
55. Normally, the ratio of the total riser area to the tower cross sectional area (for bubble
cap towers of diameter more than 3 ft) is around
a. 0.4 - 0.6 b. 0.35 - 0.75
c. 0.1 - 0.2 d. 0.55 - 0.85
56. An adequate clearance between the tray and the shell wall of a distillation column is
provided to
a. drain the liquid from the tray when the unit is not in operation.
b. allow for thermal expansion and facilitate installation
c. avoid back-trapping
d. none of these
57. The function of manholes provided in the shell of a distillation column is to
a. keep a check on the liquid gradient over the plate by direct visual observation
b. give access to the individual trays for cleaning, maintenance and installation
c. guard against foaming and entrainment by dumping anti-forming agent through it.
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
58. Weep holes provided in the plates of a distillation column
a. facilitate draining out liquid from a tray when the unit is not in operation
b. are normally located near the overflow weir so that any delivery of liquid during
operation follow approximately the same path as the overflow fluid
c. must be large enough (usually 1/4 inch to 5/8 inch diameter) to prevent plugging
but should not deliver excessive amount of fluid during operation
d. all (a), (b) and (c).
59. Excessive liquid gradient on a tray may result in
a. maldistribution of gas
b. back trapping
c. gas blowing beneath cap skirt
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
60. The maximum liquid gradient over a tray must not exceed
a. 0.5" - 1.25" b. 2"-3.5"
c. 5" d. half the tray spacing
61. Liquid gradient over the tray results due to
a. the resistance offered to flow of liquids by caps and risers and the flow of gas.
b. low gas velocity
c. large plate spacing
d. large reflux ratio
62. Liquid gradient over a tray can be minimized by
a. providing a higher skirt clearance or a higher weir
b. decreasing the number of rows of caps through which the liquid flows or by
decreasing the
velocity of liquid flow past the caps or by reducing the distance along the tray
through which the
liquid must flow.
c. using split flow, radial flow or cascade flow for column diameter larger than 4 ft.
d. all (a), (b) and (c).
63. Which of the following factors determine the amount of entrainment in a distillation
column?
a. plate spacing
b. depth of liquid above the bubble cap slots
c. vapor velocity in the volume between the plates
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
64. Larger depth of liquid on the trays of a distillation column
a. lead to high tray efficiency
b.results in higher pressure drop per tray
c. both (a) and (b)
d.neither (a) nor (b)
65. The minimum tray spacing in distillation column of diameter than 3 ft is normally
a. 6" b. 18" c. 24" d. 34"
66. The minimum plate spacing in most of the petroleum refinery distillation columns (of
diameter 73 ft)
is normally
a. 6" b. 12" c. 18" d. 34"
67. Back-trapping in a distillation column results due to
a. low gas velocity b. high gas velocity
c. excessive liquid gradient over the tray d. low reflux ratio
68. A calming section below the liquid flows into the downcomer is provided to
a. permit release of entrained vapor in the liquid
b. reduce the discharge fluctuation
c. ensure better vapor liquid contract
d. cool the liquid before it flows down.
69. The length of straight rectangular weir used on cross-flow trays is generally
a. 0.6 - 0.8 times the column diameter
b. equal to the column diameter
c. twice the column diameter
d. 2 ft irrespective of column diameter (for column 73 ft diameter)
70. Pick out the wrong statement
a. If sufficient residence time (around 8 seconds) is not provided to the downcoming
liquid in the downcomer, it may entrain some vapor.
b. The liquid head in the downcomer should not be greater than one half the plate
spacing to avoid flooding.
c. The discharge end of the downcomer must project far enough into the tray liquid so
that no gas bubbles can enter the open end and bypass the bubble caps.
d. none of these
∞ 2
(c) ∫ e dt (d) both a and b
0
MATERIALS OF CONSTRUCTION
1. Bog iron is used for adsorption of H2S from coke oven gas is
a. an intimate mixture of saw dust and iron dust (i.e. moist ferric hydroxide)
b. iron impregnated with resin (usually bakelite)
c. carbon free iron
d. none of these
2. Iron alloyed with carbon up to 2% is called
a. pig iron b. wrought iron
c. high carbon steel d. none of these
3. The softest material in Mho’s scale (for measuring hardness) is
a. talc b. gypsum
c. rubber d. none of these
4. Karbate is
a. a mixture of iron dust and saw dust
b. carbon impregnated with resin (usually bakelite)
c. acid resistant material
d. both (b) and (c).
5. Duralumin is an alloy of
a. aluminum, copper and manganese
b .aluminum, nickel and silicon
c. aluminum and nickel
d. none of these
6. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by the addition of
a. phosphorus and tungsten
b. nickel and chromium
c. lead and vanadium
d. molybdenum and tungsten
7. White metal is an alloy of
a. lead, tin and cadmium b. copper, tin and zinc
c. copper and lead d. none of these
8. Presence of cobalt in steel improve its
a. cutting ability b. corrosion resistance
c. tensile strength d. none of these
9. The impure iron (Pig iron) that is taped out from blast furnace contains about
a. 0.2% carbon b. 2% carbon
c. 4% carbon d. 8% carbon
10. Carbon content in steel is
a. 0.1 – 2% b. 4 – 6%
c. 5- 10% d. 0
11. An ideal material of construction for the storage of 50% caustic soda solution
would be
a. Karbate b. high silica cast iron
c. monel d. none of these
12. For storing water and acid free benzol, use
a. steel vessel b. karbate vessel
c. stainless steel vessel d. none of these
13. Brine (15% concentration) can be stored in a vessel made of
a. monel b. karbate
c. cast iron d. none of these
14. Most suitable material of construction for the storage of concentrated nitric acid is
a. cast iron
b. monel
c. karbate
d. aluminum or chromium alloys (Cr > 18% for cold acid).
15. Babbit metal (used for making bearings) comprises
a. mainly tin (85%) and lead
b. saw dust and iron dust mixture
c. zinc and aluminum
d. copper and aluminum
16. The material of construction of pressure mills used for squeezing out the juice
from sugar cane is
a. stainless steel b. cast iron
c. mild steel d. monel.
17. Chlorination of benzene is done to produce benzene hexachloride (a pesticide) in
a photochemical reactor lined with
a. karbate b. lead or glass
c. fire clay bricks d. PVC
18. Polymerization reactor used for the production of styrenebutadiene rubber (SBR)
is made of
a. vessel b. stainless steel or glass lined vessel
c. karbate d. wrought iron
19. Which of the following is the most suitable material of construction for
evaporator and its tubes for concentrating NaOH solution to 70%?
a. cast iron b. steel
c. nickel d. karbate
20. Most common stainless steel type 316, which it highly resistant to corrosion
contains
a. 16 – 13% chromium, 10 –14% nickel and 2 – 3% molybdenum
b. 20 – 22% chromium, and 8 –10% nickel
c. 2 – 4% chromium, 22% nickel and 2 – 4% molybdenum
d. none of these
21. Caustic soda can be stored in
a. steel drums b. cast iron drums
c. brass drums d. gun metal drums
22. Brass is an alloy of
a. nickel and tin b. copper and zinc
c. tin and lead d. copper, nickel and zinc
23. The carbonating tower used in Solvay Process of soda ash manufacture is made of
a. cast iron b. stainless steel
c. karbate d. lead lined steel
24. Gun metal is an alloy of
a. nickel, tin and copper
b. copper, tin and zinc
c. copper, phosphorus and nickel
d. manganese, phosphorus and nickel
25. Marcy ball mills are usually made of
a. steel b. cast iron
c. stainless steel d. bronze
26. Bronze is an alloy of
a. lead and copper b. copper and tin
c. nickel and copper d. copper and zinc
27. Rotary kilns in cement industry are lined with
a. fire clay b. silica
c. lead d. high alumina and high magnesia bricks
28. In the Kraft (sulfate) process for the paper manufacture the digester is made of
a. cast iron b. stainless steel
c. karbate carbon d. wrought iron
29. Dry chlorine can be handled in a vessel made of
a. iron or steel b. PVC
c. nickel d. brass
30. Tank furnace used for melting of glass is made of
a. mild steel b. cast iron
c. refractory blocks d. stainless steel
31. Stainless steel contains
a. chromium and nickel b. copper
c. aluminum d. vanadium
32. Caustic soda is reduced in a mercury cell having anode and cathode made
respectively of
a. moving mercury and graphite
b. graphite and moving mercury
c. moving mercury and carbon
d. moving mercury and crimped steel wire
33. Monel metal is an alloy of
a. molybdenum and nickel
b. nickel and copper
c. molybdenum and aluminum
d. molybdenum and zinc
34. German silver is an alloy of
a. copper, nickel and zinc
b. copper, aluminum and silver
c. silver, zinc and aluminum
d. silver, nickel and zinc
35. Chromel (Nichrome) is an alloy of
a. chromium and molybdenum
b. nickel and chromium
c. molybdenum and nickel
d. chromium and aluminum
36. Urea autoclave is made of
a. cast iron b. refractory blocks
c. stainless steel d. lead lined steel
37. Steel tower used for storage of oleum
a. is lined with lead b. need not be lined
c. is lined with rubber d. is lined with acid-proof bricks
38. Hydrochloric acid is stored in
a. lead lined steel vessel b. rubber-lined steel vessel
c. stainless steel vessel d. cast iron vessel
39. Photographic plates are coated in
a. silver nitrate b. silver halide
c. calcium silicate d. metallic silver
40. Aqueous nitric acid is stored in
a. steel drum
b. stainless steel vessel
c. cast iron vessel lined with acid-proof masonry brick
d. cast iron vessel
41. SO3 is absorbed using H2SO4 in
a. cast iron packed tower
b. stainless steel plate tower
c. packed steel tower lined with acid proof bricks
d. none of these
42. Hydrochloric acid absorber is made of
a. cast iron b. mild steel
c. karbate d. stainless steel
43. Sulfuric acid is mixed with ground phosphate rock (to produce phosphoric acid)
in a steel digester lined with
a. acidic refractory b. rubber
c. karbate d. lead or acid-proof bricks
44. Fill up the blanks from among the following alternatives:
Hydrochloric acid is _______ corrosive to common metals
a. least b. not
c. mildly d. highly
45. In SO3 absorber (Contact Process), packing material used is of
a. cast iron b. chemical stoneware
c. karbate d. mild steel
46. Valves in pipe sizes of 2” and under are normally made of
a. wrought iron b. brass
c. bronze d. monel
47. Acid proof stoneware
a. has very low strength
b. cannot be heated
c. is broken by small temperature changes
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
48. Duriron is
a. acid resistant, brittle and very hard
b. high silicon iron
c. prone to breakage due to thermal expansion because of very high co-efficient of
thermal expansion.
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
49. Lead pipe is
a. especially resistant to solutions containing H2SO4
b. usually joined by burning (e.g. by melting to adjacent pieces with a torch)
c. having very low elastic limit resulting in permanent deformation from either
mechanical or thermal strain
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
50. The most resistant material to alkaline corrosion is
a. duriron b. nickel
c. aluminum d. karbate
51. Presence of nickel in steel improves its
a. corrosion resistance b. cutting ability
c. wear resistance d. all (a), (b) and (c)
52. An alloy of iron containing 4% carbon is called
a. high carbon steel b. wrought iron
c. mild steel d. none of these
53. Bell metal is an alloy of
a. copper and zinc b. copper and tin
c. copper and nickel d. zinc and tin
54. Inconel is an alloy of
a. tin, zinc and nickel b. iron, nickel and chromium
c. copper and nickel d. zinc and tin
55. Hastelloy comprises
a. copper and tin b. copper and nickel
c. molybdenum and nickel d. lead and tin
56. Ability of a material to absorb energy in deformation in the plastic range is
characterized as its
a. ductility b. toughness
c. creep d. resilience
57. Slow and progressive deformation of a material with time under constant stress is
called
a. creep b. erosion
c. resilience d. none of these
58. Wrought iron is
a. high carbon iron
b. highly resistance to acid corrosion
c .malleable and ductile; hence used for chain links, hooks and couplings
d. an alloy of iron, chromium and carbon
59. Which of the following constituents of cast iron is mainly responsible for
imparting it an anti-corrosive property?
a. silicon b. phosphorus
c. sulfur d. none of these
60. Mild steel is
a. a low carbon steel (0.05 – 0.3% carbon)
b. highly resistance to corrosion (as much as stainless steel)
c. a high carbon steel (0.5 – 1.5% carbon)
d. very poor in strength and ductility
61. Presence of manganese in alloy steel improves its
a. corrosion resistance
b. cutting ability
c. abrasion resistance and toughness
d. elasticity and creep resistance
62. H2SO4 (<50% concentration) is corrosive to
a. aluminum, mild steel, stainless steel, concrete and tin
b. copper, cast iron and high silicon iron (14% Si)
c. rubber (butyl and hard) silicon rubber and teflon
d. glass, graphite, porcelain and stoneware
63. Aluminum storage vessel can be used to store
a. aqua regia b. ferrous sulfate
c. hydrochloric acid (10%) d. none of these
64. Brass container is suitable for storing
a. aqueous ammonia b. beer
c. H2SO4 (95% concentration) d. phosphoric acid (95%)
65. Cast iron vessels are not suitable for the storage of
a. Freon b. H2SO4 (95%) at room temperature
c. H2SO4 (fuming) d. Wet SO2
66. Out of the following, copper vessels are most suitable for the storage of
a. bromine
b. dry chlorine and dry fluorine
c. nitric acid (95% and fuming)
d. phosphoric acid (95%) and sulfuric acid (95% and fuming)
67. Gun metal and bronze are not corroded by the action of
a. wet chlorine b. synthetic detergent solution
c. hydrochloric acid (10%) d. nitric acid (<25%)
68. Containers made of high silicon cast iron (14% Si) are not suitable for the storage
of
a. acetic acid
b. benzoic and boric acids
c. phosphoric acid (95%) and sulfuric acid (95%)
d. hydrochloric acid (concentrated)
69. Lead lined equipments and vessels are suitable for handling
a. hydrochloric acid (10%) b. nitric acid
c. sulfuric acid up to 60˚C d. all (a), (b) and (c)
70. Mild steel storage vessels are suitable for the storage of
a. anhydrous ammonia b. fatty acids
c. hydrochloric acid (95%) d. sulfuric acid (25%)
71. Nickel made clad equipments are suitable for handling
a. ammonia (both aqueous and anhydrous)
b. fruit juices, milk and its products and caustic soda solution
c. nitric acid and hydrochloric acid (concentrated)
d. sulfuric acid (concentrated)
72. Platinum and silver are corroded by
a. caustic soda solution b. phosphoric acid
c. sulfuric acid (10%) d. none of these
73. 18-8 stainless steel means that it contains
a. 18% chromium and 8% nickel
b. 18% chromium and 8% molybdenum
c. 18% nickel and 8% chromium
d. 18% molybdenum and 8% chromium
74. Stainless steel is not corroded by
a. hydrochloric acid (10%) b. nitric acid (10%)
c. sulfuric acid (10%) d. saturated brine
75. Tin vessels are corroded by
a. anhydrous ammonia b. aromatic solvents
c. synthetic detergent solution d. none of these
76. Rubber lined vessels are corroded by the action of
a. aqua regia b. chloroform
c. sulfuric acid (95%) d. all (a), (b) and (c)
77. Silicon rubber is not resistant to the corrosive action of
a. sulfuric acid (10%) b. sulfuric acid (95%)
c. ether d. both (b) and (c)
78. Perspex is nothing but
a. acrylic sheet b. an elastomer
c. an alloy of lead and tin d. aluminum foil clad with bakelite
79. Teflon is corroded by
a. hydrochloric acid (10%) b. hydrochloric acid (95%)
c. sulfuric acid d. none of these
80. Polythene (low or high density) containers are not corroded by
a. sulfuric acid (10%) at room temperature
b. nitric acid (95%) at room temperature
c. sulfur trioxide at 60˚C
d. any of these
81. The most commonly used resin for making reinforced plastic is
a. unsaturated polyester b. polyproplylene
c. polyurethane d. nylon – 6
82. Carbon tetrachloride can be stored in a storage vessel made of
a. high silicon iron (14%) b. tin
c. stainless steel d. all (a), (b) and (c)
83. Concrete tank can be used to store
a. alum b. sulfuric acid
c. sulfuric acid d. saturated brine
84. Glass is corroded by
a. fluorine (dry or wet) b. sulfuric water
c. phosphoric acid d. none these
85. Graphite is corroded by
a. sulfuric acid (10%) b. sea Water
b. hydrochloric acid d. none of these
86. Wood is corroded by
a. hydrochloric acid b. SO2 (dry or wet)
c. chlorine (dry or wet) d. all (a), (b) and (c)
87. The 'bomb' in the bomb calorimeter is made of
a. molybdenum stainless steel b. mild steel
c. high silicon iron (14% Si) d. copper
88. Most suitable material for high pressure vessel operating at 500 atm and 500ºC is
a. molybdenum stainless steel b. 18-8 stainless steel
c. mild steel d. high silicon iron (14% Si)
89. Centrifugal pump made of pyrex or glass can't be used to pump
a. mild and fruit juices b. alkaline solutions
c. dilute H2SO4 at room temperature d. brine
90. Rubber lined pumps can be used to pump
a. caustic soda b. chlorinated brine
c. hypochlorous acid d. all (a), (b) and (c)
91. Copper is dissolved from its ore by H2SO4 in percolation tanks made of
a. wood b. stainless steel
c. reinforced concrete lined with lead d. high silicon iron (14% Si)
92. Rotary dryers are generally made of
a. cast iron b. mild steel
c. high silicon iron (14% Si) d. tin lined with refractory bricks
93. Kel-F is
a. nothing but polycholorotrifluroethylene
b. having excellent chemical and high temperature resistance (up to 200ºC)
c. an elastomer
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
94. Zircaloy used as a fuel cladding material in a nuclear reactor (thermal) is an alloy
of zirconium
a. tin, nickel, iron and chromium b. and graphite
c. and copper d. none of these
95. Which of the following would not be a suitable material of construction for handling
aqueous hydrofluoric acid (HF) at 100ºC?
a. none b. stainless steel
c. graphite d. Kel-F and Teflon
96. Specify the materials of construction suitable for handling concentrated HNO3 at
100ºC.
a. high silicon iron, Kel-F and Teflon b. silicon rubber
c. tin and wood d. stainless steel
97. Concentrated HCl at 30ºC can be stored in a vessel made of
a. PTFE and porcelain
b. cast iron and aluminum
c. stainless steel and high silicon cast iron
d. copper, nickel and monel
98. Which of the following material of construction may be recommended by a
chemical engineer for handling a gaseous chlorine (dry or wet) stream in a fluid flow
system?
a. High silicon iron, silicone rubber, Kel-F and teflon
b. Mild steel and stainless steel
c. Cast iron, tin and aluminum
d. Copper, nickel and monel
99. Which of the following materials may prove unsuitable for handling acetic (glacial
and anhydrous) at 40ºC?
a. silicone rubber, teflon, porcelain and wood
b. nickel, monel, stainless steel and graphite
c. aluminum, copper, high silicon iron
d. brass, cast iron, mild steel and tin
100. 100% H2SO4 at 30ºC can't be used and stored in a vessel made/ lined with
a. cast iron and high silicon iron b. mild steel and stainless steel
c. aluminum, tin and rubber d. teflon, glass and porcelain
ENGINEERING ECONOMY
1. The following cost item which in common both the fixed and operating cost of an
enterprise is:
a. interest b. depreciation
c. taxes d. supplies
2. The length of time, usually in years for the cumulative net annual profit to equal the
investment is called:
a. receivable turnover b. return of investment
c. price earning ratio d. payback period
3. The reduction in value and marketability due to competition from newest products /
model
a. depreciated cost b. fixed cost
c. indirect cost d. obsolescence
4. Form of summary of assets, liabilities and net worth
a. production b. break even point
c. balance method d. balance sheet
5. The worth of property which is equal to the original cost less depreciation.
a. earning value b. scrap value
c. book value d. face value
6. The type of interest that is periodically added to the amount of loan so that
subsequent interest is based on the cumulative amount.
a. compound interest b. simple interest
c. interest rate d. sinking fund
7. Output or sales at which income is insufficient to equal operating cost
a. break even point b. investment
c. depreciation d. cash flow
8. The price at which a given product will be supplied and purchased is the price that
will result in the supply and the demand being equal.
a. law of demand and supply b. law of diminishing returns
c. present worth method d. obsolescence
9. An estimate of an assets' net market value at the end of its estimated life.
a. break even point b. cash flow
c. interest d. book value
10. An estimate of an assets' net market value at the end if its estimated life.
a. book value c. salvage value
c. depreciation d. cash flow
11. A lessening of the value of an asset due to a decrease in the quantity available as a
coal, oil and timber in forests.
a. depletion b. depreciation
c. amortization d. investment
12. A certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a period of net loss that ten
years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of the corporation or its
subsidiaries.
a. appraisal b. bond
c. written contract d. equity capital
13. Funds supplied and used by owners of an enterprise in the expectation that profit will
be earned.
a. equity capital b. investment
c. working capital d. present
14. Funds supplied by others on which a fixed rate of interest must be paid and the debt
be repaid at a specific place and time
a. discount b. cash flow
c. working capital d. borrowed capital
15. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a
given place and time
a. supply b. demand
c. discount d. investment
16. The quantity of a certain commodity that is bought at a certain price at a given place
and time.
a. supply b. demand
c. discount d. investment
17. A condition where only few individuals produce a certain product that action of one
will lead to almost the same action by the other.
a. monopoly b. oligopoly
c. semi monopoly d. perfect competition
18. Is the simplest form of business organization
a. sole proprietorship b. enterprise
c. partnership d. corporation
19. An association of two or more persons for a purpose of engaging in a profitable
business
a. sole proprietorship b. enterprise
c. partnership d. corporation
20. A distinct legal entity which can practically transact any business transaction which a
real person could do.
a. sole proprietorship b. enterprise
c. partnership d. corporation
21. An increase in the value of capital asset is called
a. profit b. capital gain
c. capital expenditure d. capital stock
22. The reduction in the money value of a capital asset is called
a. capital expenditure b. capital loss
c. loss d. deficit
23. The difference between sales revenue and the cost of goods sold
a. net income b. gross profit
c. rate of return d. gross national product
24. A currency traded in a foreign exchange market for which the demand is consistently
high in relation to its supply
a. money market b. hard currency
c. treasury bill d. certificate of deposit
25. Defined as the certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a period not less
than 10 years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of a corporation
a. bonds b. T-bills
c. stock d. all of these
26. It is a negotiable claim issued by a bank in lieu of a term deposit
a. time deposit b. bond
c. capital gain d. certificate of deposit
27. The amount of a company's profit that the board of directors of the corporation
decides to distribute to ordinary shareholders
a. dividend b. return
c. share stock d. par value
28. a document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security
a. bond b. bank note
c. coupon d. check
29. The process determining the value of certain properties for definite reasons
a. valuation b. appraisal
c. estimate d. both a and b
30. Represent ownership and enjoys certain preferences than ordinary stock
a. authorized capital stock b. preferred stock
c. common stock d. incorporator’s stock
31. It is the difference between present worth and the worth of the paper at some time in
the future
a. discount b. amortization
c. depletion d. investment
32. The value which is usually determined by the disinterested third party in order to
establish a price that is fair to both seller and buyer.
a. fair value b. market value
c. salvage value d. book value
33. The price that can be obtained from the sale of property or second hand
a. book value b. salvage value
c. fair value d. market value
34. The process of determining the value of certain property for specific reasons
a. amortization b. appraisal
c. investment d. depreciation
35. A bond whereby the security behind it are the equipments of the issuing corporation
a. debenture bond b. lien bond
c. collateral bond d. mortgage bond
36. An annuity where the payment period extends forever or in which the periodic
payment continue indefinitely.
a. ordinary annuity b. deferred annuity
c. annuity due d. perpetuity
37. It is the span of life of an equipment during which it produces the product it is
designed to produce at a profit
a. write off period b. physical life
c. economic life d. perpetual life
38. It is a depreciation method whereby the decrease in value of the unit is constant each
year
a. Matheson formula b. Straight line method
c. SYD method d. Sinking fund method
39. It is a distinct legal entity separate from the individual who own it and which can
engage in practically any business transaction which a real person can do.
a. sole proprietorship b. partnership
c. corporation d. all of the above
40. These are costs which remain relatively constant regardless of any change in
operation or policy which is made.
a. fixed cost b. increment cost
c. variable cost d. differential cost
41. The length of time at which the original cost of capital used to purchase a unit have
already been recovered.
a. economic life b. write off period
c. physical life d. salvage life
42. The actual interest earned by a given principal is known as:
a. compound interest b. nominal interest
c. simple interest d. effective interest
43. The exclusive right of a company to provide a specific product / services in a given
region of the country.
a. franchise b. branch
c. extension d. outlet
44. It occurs when a commodity or service is supplied by a number of vendors and there
is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market
a. free market b. perfect competition
c. open market d. law of supply and demand
45. In making economy studies, a minimum required profit on the invested capital is
included as a cost.
a. rate of return b. annual cost pattern
c. present worth pattern d. capital cost
46. Depreciation method where the value of an asset decreases at a decreasing rate.
a. SYD method b. sinking fund
c. straight line method d. declining balance
47. Cost of things that are neither labor nor materials
a. construction cost b. expenses
c. labor cost d. investment
48. Kind of obligation which has no condition attached
a. analytic b. gratuitous
c. private d. pure
49. Gross, profit, sales less cost of goods sold as a percentage of sale is called
a. profit margin b. gross margin
c. ROI (rate of return) d. price earnings
50. The series of equal payments at equal intervals of time
a. interest b. depreciation
c. annuity d. amortization
51. A legally binding agreement on promise to exchange goods or services
a. contract b. barter
c. memorandum d. pro-forma
52. An index of short term paying ability is called
a. current ratio b. receivable turnover
c. acid test ratio d. profit margin ratio
53. Used to produce consumer goods
a. producer goods b. supply
c. consumer goods d. cash flow
54. It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time where the first
payment is made several periods after the beginning of the payment
a. deferred annuity b. delayed annuity
c. progressive annuity d. simple annuity
55. A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there are no goods
substitute
a. monopoly b. monopsony
c. oligopoly d. oligopsony
56. The amount of a property in which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for the
property when neither one is under the compulsion to buy or sell
a. fair value b. goodwill value
c. book value d. market value
57. A type of annuity where the payments are made at the start of each period, beginning
from the first period
a. ordinary annuity b. annuity due
c. deferred annuity d. perpetuity
58. A method of computing depreciation in which the annual charge is a fixed percentage
of the depreciated book value at the beginning of the year to which the depreciation
applies
a. straight line b. sinking fund method
c. SYD method d. declining balance method
59. The cumulative effect of elapsed time on the money value of an event based on the
earning power of equivalent invested funds capital should or will earn
a. present worth factor b. interest rate
c. time value of money d. yield
60. Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization?
a. sole proprietorship b. partnership
c. corporation d. enterprise
61. The function of interest rate and time that determines the cumulative amount of a
sinking fund resulting from specific periodic deposits
a. sinking fund factor b. present worth factor
c. capacity factor d. demand factor
62. The intangible item of value from the exclusive right of the company to provide a
specific product or service in a stated region of the country
a. market value b. book value
c. goodwill value d. franchise value
63. The length of time during which it is capable of performing the function for which it
was designed and manufactured.
a. economic life b. business life
c. insular life d. physical life
64. Products that are directly used by people to satisfy their wants.
a. supply b. consumer goods
c. producer goods d. cash flows
65. A change in cost for a small change in volume of production.
a. fixed cost b. sunk cost
c. first cost d. differential cost
66. An amount which has been spent and for some reasons cannot be recovered.
a. sunk cost b. first cost
c. increment d. fixed cost
67. The difference between the book value and the actual lower resale value is
a. salvage value b. resale value
c. sunk cost d. fixed cost
68. It occurs when a unique product or service is available only from a single supplier
and entry of all other possible suppliers presented.
a. competition b. monopoly
c. inventory d. profitability
69. A place where buyer and seller come together
a. market b. shop
c. department store d. parlor
70. Ratio of annual net profit and the capital invested
a. proportion b. rate of return
c. load factor d. use factor
71. The price of which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for a commodity
a. resale value b. market value
c. book value d. scrap value
72. The price of property when sold for a junk
a. scrap value b. book value
c. resale value d. market value
73. An interest earning fund in which equal deposits are made at equal intervals of time
a. annuity b. sinking fund
c. interest d. investment
74. A term describing wealth which is placed in a business and could include cash
equipment, raw materials and finished products
a. capital b. investment
c. collateral d. assets
75. The first cost of any property includes
a. the original purchase price and freight and transportation charges
b. installation expenses
c. initial taxes and permits' fee
d. all of the above
ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY
1. The hydrogen or deuterium discharge tube can be used as a source of continuous
ultraviolet radiation for spectrophotometers because of
a. the characteristics of chopper-modulated radiation
b. pressure broadening of hydrogen or deuterium emission lines
c. the great sensitivity of photomultiplier tube
d. the narrow band pass of modern grating of monochromators
2. Chopping the source beam in conjunction with the use of a tuned ac amplifier in an
atomic absorption spectrophotometer accomplishes the following
a. a recording potentiometer can be used instead of a voltmeter for the readout
b. a less sensitive detector can be used instead of the usual photomultiplier tube
c. a cooler can be used without decreasing the population of ground-state atoms
d. radiation emitted by excited atoms in the flame will not interfere with the
absorbance measurement
3. Line spectra are emitted by
a. hot solids
b. excited polyatomic molecules
c. molecules in the ground electronic state
d. excited atoms and monatomic ions
4. Recording spectrophotometers sometimes operate with feedback loops that vary the
power of the reference beam until it matches the power of the beam through the
sample. This mode of operation
a. eliminates the need for a continuous source
b. requires two monochromators
c. eliminates the need for nonabsorbing solvents
d. makes the detector a null device, with the result that nonlinear response to
radiant power would not be deleterious
5. Which of the following best explains why atomic absorption is sometimes more
sensitive than flame emission spectroscopy?
a. At the temperature of a typical flame, the population of ground-state atoms
is much greater than the population of excited atoms.
b. Detectors employed in absorption work are inherently more sensitive than those
used to measure emission.
c. Hollow cathode discharge tubes have a much greater radiant power output than do
ordinary flames .
d. An absorption line in a flame is always much sharper than an emission line
because of the Doppler effect.
6. The method of standard addition compensates for matrix effects provided
a. the addition does not dilute the sample appreciably and does not itself
introduce appreciable quantities or interfering substances
b. the addition dilutes the sample enough that the concentrations of interfering
substances are lowered to negligible values
c. the addition contains none of the substance being determined
d. the addition contains a large enough quantity of some substance to swamp out
sample variations
7. Fe3+ and Cu2+ form complexes with EDTA. The ferric complex is colorless , as is
Fe3+ itself, at the concentration involved here: the copper complex is a deep blue
color (deeper than the color of Cu2+ itself), while EDTA is colorless. The photometric
titration curve below was obtained when a solution containing both Fe3+ and Cu2+ was
titrated with EDTA using a spectrophotometer set at a wavelength of 745 nm in the
visible region of the spectrum.
A
B
A
ml of EDTA solution
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
61. Which of the following is always the same for allotropes of the same element?
a. The atomic mass b. the molar mass c. the structure d. the
chemical and physical properties
62. The semiconductor crystalline Si has a low electrical conductivity in the dark because
a. crystalline Si is a molecular solid
b. the band gap energy is much greater than 3RT at 23…C
c. the chemical bonding in the crystal is strong in all three dimensions
d. Si has fewer valence electrons that elements that form metallic solids
63. A laser pointer of a doped semiconductor junction (i.e., a region of A1 doped
semiconductor bonded to a region of P doped semiconductor) with a flowing current
due to an applied voltage from a battery. Which of the following statements is
TRUE?
a. The color of the light is determined by the semiconductor band gap
b. The device works better warm rather than cold because the number of thermally
generated electrons is higher
c. Light is emitted at the interface when a hole from the A1 region combines with an
electron from the P region
d. Both (a) and (c)
64. In order to dope crystalline Si with extra electrons, which element should be
incorporated into the lattice?
a. P b. A1 c. C d. O
65. All of the following statements about NaCl crystalline lattice are true, EXCEPT
a. Every Cl is surrounded by 4 Na at equal bond lengths, and vice versa
b. The structure along the x,y and z axes of the unit cell is all the same
c. If the length of one side of the unit cell and the atomic weights of Na and Cl are
known, then the density can be calculated
d. The unit cell is cubic even though the Na and Cl ions have different ionin radii
66. All of the following statements about the different forms of solid C are true, EXCEPT
a. Diamond is transparent and shows no color because its band gap is quite
large
b. Graphite slides easily because the C atoms are strongly bonded in only two
dimensions
c. In diamond the structure around each C atom is due to C sp3 hybridization
d. Diamond is hard yet brittle because the band gap is large
67. Solids with long-range microscopic order in their structures are called
a. amorphous b. crystalline c. glasses d. metals e. none
of these
68. A specimen is subjected to x-ray diffraction. The resulting diffraction pattern contains
many sharply defined spots. The specimen is
a. gaseous b. crystalline c. amorphous d. plastic
e. liquid
69. A specimen is subjected to x-ray diffraction. The resulting diffraction pattern contains
three diffuse rings close to primary x-ray beam. The specimen is
a. gaseous b. crystalline c. amorphous d.
polycrystalline e. colloidal
70. The colors in the gemstone opal result from
a. the diffraction of visible light by colloidal crystals in the stone
b. absorption by transition metal complexes
c. contamination by large organic molecules which absorb light in the visible region
d. radioactivity
e. none of these
71. Which of the following symmetry elements can be found in an equilateral triangle?
a. a 2-fold rotation b. a 3-fold rotation c. as mirror line or plane d. all
of these e. none of these
72. About half of all the crystals studied so far belong to the ______ crystal system
a. hexagonal b. orthorhombic c. cubic
d. triclinic e. monoclinic
73. The crystal system with the minimum symmetry requirement of one 4-fold rotation is
a. orthorhombic b. cubic c. tetragonal d.
triclinic e. trigonal
74. Crystalline substances are ________. Amorphous substances are ________.
a. isotropic, isotropic b. anisotropic, anisotropic
c. isotropic, anisotropic d. anisotropic, isotropic
75. The three-dimensional array made up of all points within a crystal that have the same
environment in the same orientation is called the
a. unit cell b. primitive cell c. crystal system d.
crystal lattice e. symmetry pattern
76. The basic repeating structural unit of a crystal lattice is the
a. unit cell b. atom c. molecule d. atomic
cluster e. symmetry pattern
77. The number of lattice points in a primitive unit cell is
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 e. this depends
on the crystal system
78. The conditions --- a≠ b ≠ c, alpha= beta =gamma = 90 --- describe the _________
unit cell.
a. tetragonal b. orthorhombic c. monoclinic
d. hexagonal e. trigonal
79. The conditions --- a≠ b ≠ c, alpha = gamma = 90, ß ≠ 90--- describe the _______
unit cell
a. tetragonal b. orthorhombic c. monoclinic d. hexagonal e.
trigonal
80. The number of lattice points in the unit cell for the body-centered cubic lattice is
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 8
81. For a face-centered cubic unit cell, each corner contributes _____ lattice points to the
unit cell
a. 1/8 b. ¼ c. ½ d. 1 e. none of these
82. In a face-centered cubic lattice, each lattice, each lattice point located in a face of the
unit cell is shared equally with ___ other unit cell
a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7 e. none of
these
83. A metal crystallizes in a body-centered cubic lattice. Which of the following correctly
relates the atomic radius r of the metal to the length of an edge a of the unit cell?
a. r = a b. r = a√2 c. r = a√3
2 4 4
d. This cannot be determined without additional information e. none
of these
84. The forces holding the molecules together in the lattice of a molecular solid are
a. van der Waals forces b. ionic bonds c. covalent bonds d. all of these
e. none of these
85. Molecular crystals typically
a. are soft b. have low melting points c. are insulators
d. all of these e. none of these
86. Most ionic solids crystallize in the ______ system
a. hexagonal b. orthorhombic c. cubic
d. tetragonal e. monoclinic
87. The rock salt structure can be viewed as a _______ lattice of anions, with cations
occupying positions exactly between pairs of anions
a. face-centered cubic b. monoclinic c. trigonal d.
body-centered cubic e. primitive cubic
88. In the rock salt structure, each ion is surrounded by ________ equidistant ions of
opposite charge
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 e. none
of these
89. Which of the following cannot possibly crystallize in the rock salt structure?
a. VN b. Na2S c. ZrSe d. NH4I e.
MgO
90. How many chloride ions are contained in a unit cell of CsCl?
a. 1/8 b. ¼ c. ½ d. 1 e. 2
91. The coordination number of each cesium atom in CsCl is
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 e. 12
92. A certain solid is a good insulator, is brittle, and has a high melting point. The
substance readily conducts electricity when molten. This substance is most likely
_____ in nature.
a. molecular b. covalent c. ionic d. metallic e. it
could be more than one of these
93. In a metallic solid, _______ are located at the lattice points.
a. neutral metal atoms b. molecules c. positively charged core ions d.
electrons e. atomic clusters
94. The metal with the highest melting point is
a. Pt b. Rh c. Nb d. Ga e. W
95. A structure that forms naturally when identical rigid spheres are placed as close
together as possible is called a ____ arrangement.
a. primitive b. close-packed c. face-centered d. dense
e. nematic
96. A crystal structure which yields close packing for uniform rigid spheres is
a. primitive cubic b. tetragonal c. body-centered cubic d. all of these e. none
of these
97. In the hexagonal close-packed structure, each atom has a coordination number of
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 e. 12
98. In diamond, each carbon is covalently bonded to ________ other carbon atoms
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6 e. 8
99. The most stable form of sulfur at room temperature is
a. gaseous atoms b. long chains of sulfur atoms c. S4 tetrahedral
d. S2 molecules with double bonds e. S8 rings
100. Which element in group V does not form a solid with each atom bonded to three
others?
a. As b. Bi c. N d. P e. Sb
101. Which of the following forms a layered structure?
a. graphite b. white tin c. sulfur
d. red phosphorous e. all of these
102. Which of the following forms a solid with the diamond structure?
a. sulfur b. white tin c. red phosphorous
d. sodium e. gray tin
103. The crystal defect in which an atom or ion is displaced from its regular position in
the lattice to an interstitial site is called a(n)
a. Schottky defect b. Frenkel defect c. F-center
d. site defect e. berthollide
104. Irradiation of NaCl with ultraviolet light can cause
a. chloride ions to lose electrons to the crystalline lattice
b. formation of an F-center
c. formation of a nonstoichiometric crystal
d. all of these
e. none of these
105. In a plastic crystal,
a. the molecules tumble before the lattice s disrupted
b. the lattice is disrupted before the molecules begin to tumble
c. the molecules are rod-like
d. all of these
e. none of these
106. The rate constant of a reaction depends upon
a. initial concentration of reactants
b. extent of reaction
c. temperature
d. time of reaction
107. Which of the following factors does not influence the rate of a reaction?
a. Concentration of reactants
b. Nature of reactants
c. Molecularity of the reaction
d. Temperature
108. The mechanism of a reaction can sometimes be reduced from
a. the temperature dependence of the rate
b. the rate law
c. the net equation
d. the activation energy
109. The activation energy of a reaction may be lowered by
a. raising the temperature
b. lowering the temperature
c. removing the products of the reaction
d. adding a catalyst
110. The equilibrium constant in a reversible chemical reaction at given temperature
a. depends on the initial concentrations of the reactants
b. depends on the concentration of one of the products at equilibrium
c. does not depend on the initial concentrations
d. is not characteristic of the reaction
Answer the following questions 111-113 with the help of the hypothetical
reaction and its rate law
3A(g) + B(g) +2C(g) D(g) + 2E(g)
Rate of formation of D = k[A] [B]2
111. Doubling of the concentration of A increases the rate of reaction by a factor of
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 9
112. Doubling of the concentration of B increases the rate of the reaction by a factor of
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 9
113. If the volume of the container is suddenly reduced to one-half its original volume
the rate will increase by a factor of
a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 16
114. The value of k, the specific rate constant, may be increased by
a. decreasing the concentration of D
b. increasing the concentration of A
c. increasing the concentration of C
d. increasing the temperature
115. What effect does an increase in temperature of 10C have on the rate of the
reaction?
a. Halved b. Multiplied by 1.5
c. Doubled d. Tripled
116. Which of the following is the best explanation for the effect of increase in
temperature on the rate of the reaction?
a. It increases the number of particles with the necessary activation of energy
b. It enables the reacting particles with the necessary activation energy
c. It lowers the activation energy for the reaction
d. It enables the activated complex to be more easily converted to the products
117. The reactions of high molecularity are rare because
a. activation energy of many body collisions is very high
b. many body collisions have low probability
c. many body collisions are not favoured energetically
d. none of the above statement is true
118. At 25C , the half –life for the decomposition of N2O5 is 5.7 hours, and is
dependent of the initial pressure of N2O5 the specific rate constant is
a. ln 2 b. (1/5.7)hr-1
-1 -1
c. (ln2/5.7) hr d. (ln2/5.7)hr
119. If the rate of reaction is independent of the concentration of the reactant, the
reaction is of
a. zero order b. first order
c. second order d. third order
120. Who among the following gave the law of photochemical equivalence?
a. Drapper b. Einstein
c. Grotthus d. Lambert
121. The energy of electromagnetic radiation depends on
a. its amplitude b. its frequency
c. its wave length d. none of the above
122. What term is used to define the phenomenon of emission of light in a chemical
reaction?
a. Chemical luminescence
b. Photosensitization
c. Both chemical luminescence and photosensitization
d. None of the above
123. Raman spectra may be obtained in
a. IR and Visible region
b. Visible region only
c. IR and micro wave region
d. UV and visible region
124. ESR spectra mainly helps in study of
a. compounds having hydrogen
b. compounds having carbons
c. free radicals
d. ionic compounds
125. Which one of the following rate laws has an overall order of 0.5 for the reactions
involving substances X, Y, Z.?
a. Rate = k(Cx) (Cy) (Cz)
b. Rate = k (Cx)0.5 (Cy) 0.5 (Cz)0.5
c. Rate = k (Cx)1.5 (Cy) –1 (Cz)0
d. Rate = k (Cx) (Cz)0/(Cy)2
126. Chemical reaction rates in solution do not depend to any great extent upon
a. pressure b. temperature
c. concentration d. catalyst
127. Which of the following might be used as an electrode?
a. A stick b. A nail
c. A glass rod d. A soda straw
128. The e.m.f. value for oxidation from H2 at 1.0 atm to H+ at 1.0 x 10-1 M is
a. 0.00V b. 0.059V
c. –0.059V d. 0.030V
129. A good reducing agent
a. will always react rapidly
b. has a negative oxidation potential
c. is readily oxidized
d. shows a negative oxidation number
130. A Faraday of electricity is
a. one ampere per second
b. 96,500 coulombs per second
c. 6.02 x 1023 electrons per second
d. 6.02 x 1023 electronic charges
131. When aqueous HCl is electrolyzed
a. chlorine gas is produced at the anode
b. hydrogen gas is produced at the anode
c. oxygen gas is produced at the anode
d. oxygen gas is produced at the cathode
132. The number of electrons necessary to produce 1.00gm of Cu from Cu2+ at the
cathode of an electrolytic cell is
a. 1.89 x 1022 b. 3.04 x 103
c. 9.47 x 1021 d. 1.91 x 1025
133. A possible advantage to using the half reaction method for balancing oxidation-
reduction equation is
a. electrons need not be balanced
b. oxidation numbers are not assigned
c. charges are not balanced
d. atoms need not be balanced
134. In a galvanic cell the cathode
a. is always made of copper
b. is always made of zinc
c. may be made of an inert metal
d. always attracts negative ions in the solution
135. Hydrogen ions are more readily reduced than
a. Ag+ b. Cu++
c. Cl2 d. Zn++
136. Not all galvanic cells contain
a. a cathode b. an anode
c. a porous partition d. ions
137. When a cell of a lead storage battery is being charged, it is
a. a galvanic cell b. an electrolytic cell
c. a Daniel cell d. a dry cell
138. A current of 9.65 ampere is drawn from a Daniel cell for exactly 1 hour. The loss
of mass of anode is
a. 0.180g b. 23.6g
c. 0.197g d. 11.8g
139. The following reaction does not occur spontaneously (all ions at 1m
concentration; all gases at 1 atmosphere pressure)
a. 2Cr(s) + 3Cl2(g) 2 Cr+3 + 6 Cl-
b. NO3- + 2 H+ + Ag(s) Ag+ + H2O + NO2(g)
c. NO3- + 4 H+ + 3 Ag(s) 3 Ag+ + NO(g) +2H2O
d. Cl2(g) + 2 Br- 2 Cl- + Br2
140. If 0.200 liter of 0.100 M NaCl are electrolyzed until the OH- concentration is
0.0500M, how many moles of Cl2 gas are produced?
a. 5.00 x 10-3mole b. 1.00 x 10-2mole
-2
c. 5.00 x 10 mole c. 1.00 x 10-1mole
141. As the lead storage battery is charged,
a. the amount of sulfuric acid decreases
b. the lead electrode becomes coated with lead sulfate
c. sulfuric acid is regenerated
d. lead dioxide dissolves
142. If an aqueous solution of KI is electrolyzed (with platinum electrodes) one would
expect to find
a. potassium deposited at the cathode
b. oxygen liberated at the anode
c. the solution around the cathode becoming alkaline
d. the solution around the anode becoming brown
143. When an aqueous solution of NaCl is electrolyzed, a product formed at the
cathode is
a. Na b. H+
-
c. OH d. Cl2
144. If aqueous Cu SO4 is electrolyzed for one minute with a current of 2.00 ampere,
the volume of ozygen produced at STP at the anode is
a. 3.10 x 10-4 liter b. 6.96ml
c. 1.16 x 10-4 liter d. 1.16 ml
145. As a lead storage battery is discharged
a. water is used up
b. lead is formed
c. lead sulfate is consumed
d. sulfuric acid is consumed
146. If a large quantity of cobalt metal were dropped into a solution containing Ag+,
Fe+2, Cu+2, the products of the reaction will be:
a. Ag, Fe and Cu b. Ag, Fe++ and Cu+
c. Fe++, Cu and Co++ d. Fe++, Cu, Ag and Co++
147. Which of the following instruments makes use of the standard electrode potentials
and the variation of electrode potential with concentration?
a. Polarimeter b. pH meter
c. Electrophorous d. Electrophotometer
148. The series in which the electrode potentials of metals are arranged in an order is
known as:
a. electrical conductivity series
b. electrode potential series
c. electrochemical series
d. chemical affinity series
CaCO3 CaO + CO2
Solid solid gas
a. 0 b. 1
c. 2 d. 3
164. The minimum number of phases existing in a system is
a. 0 b. 1
c. 2 d. 3
165. The incongruent melting point is so called
a. peritectic temperature
b. meritectic temperature
c. transition temperature
d. all of the above
ALGEBRA
1. The sum of two numbers is 11. The sum of their reciprocals is 11/30. Find the smaller number.
a. 6 b. 5 c. 2 d. 3
2. The sum of the squares of two numbers is 58 and the difference of their squares is 40. Find the larger no.
a. 7 b. -7 c. –3 d. 3
3. Find the smallest positive integer, which leaves a remainder of 2 when divided by 4, 6 and 8.
a. 98 b. 50 c. 26 d. 74
4. The sum of two numbers is 4 and their product is 2. Find the sum of their reciprocals.
a. ¼ b. ½ c. 2 d. 4
5. A number has two digits whose sum is 10. The difference between the original number and the number
resulting from an
interchange of its digit is 54. What is the original number?
a. 45 b. 54 c. 28 d. 82
6. A number is less than 100, and its tens digit is four more than its units digit. If the number with the
digits reversed is
subtracted from the original number, the remainder is three times the sum of the digits. Find the
original number.
a. 84 b. 48 c. 26 d. 62
7. A father’s age is now five times that of his first-born son. Six years from now, the old man’s age will
be only three times that
of his son. Find the son’s present age.
a. 12 b. 30 c. 6 d. 36
8. A mother is now three times as old as her daughter. In 4 years, the mother will be four times as old as
the daughter was, two
years ago. How old is the daughter?
a. 36 b. 12 c. 20 d. 60
9. If the altitude and the base of a triangle were each increased by 2 cm, the area would increase by 19
cm2. If the altitude is
increased by 3 cm and the base is decreased by 4 cm, the area will be decreased by 5 cm2. Find the
base of the triangle.
a. 7 b. 10 c. 9 d. 8
10. A rectangular piece of cardboard has an area of 150 cm2. By a cutting a square 2 cm wide on each side
from each of the
corners and folding up the sides, an open box is formed having a volume of 132 mL. Find the length of
the original
cardboard.
a. 8 b. 7 c. 10 d. 15
11. How soon after three o’clock will the hands of a clock be together?
a. 3:16:22 b. 3:15:00 c. 16:22 d. 15:00
12. At what time between 6 and 7` o’clock are the hands of a clock coincident?
a. 6:30 b. 6:32.73 c. 6:32.5 d. 6:35
13. One pipe alone can fill a tub in 12 minutes. Another pipe can fill it in only 8 minutes. How long would
it take both pipes to fill
the tub?
a. 4.7 mins b. 20.0 mins c. 4.8 mins d. 4.9 mins
14. A pipe can alone fill a tank in 5 hrs, while a drain could do the contrary in 12 hrs. How long would it
take the pipe to fill the
tank if the drain was simultaneously opened during the duration of the filling job and if the tank were
entirely emptied at the
start?
a. 7.6 hrs b. 8.6 hrs c. 4.42 hrs d. 4.06 hrs
15. A pipe can fill a tank in 7 hrs while a drain pipe can empty the tank in a matter of 11 hrs. If for the first
4 hrs, the drain was
left open while the pipe was filling it, how much longer would it have taken the input pipe to fill the
tank full if the tank was
emptied at the start?
a. 5.5 hrs b. 7.6 hrs c. 15.2 hrs d. 6.12 hrs
16. An ocean going vessel traveling at 20 kph between two ports of call of a short distance of 45 km, takes
an hour and 12
minutes less time when going with the low tide current than against it. What was the rate of the
current?
a. 0.44 kph b. 225 kph c. 20.5 kph d. 5 kph
17. A job can be done in as many days as there are men in the group. If the number of men is
reduced by 4, the work is
delayed by 5 days. How many were there in the original group?
a. 18 b. 16 c. 20 d. 24
18. A project can be done by 8 girls in 5 days. 5 boys can do the same project in 6 days. How long
will it take for 3 boys and 6
girls to do the job?
a. 4 days b. 5 days c. 6 days d. 8 days
19. The sum of two numbers is 14. The sum of the squares of the numbers is 100. Find the
product of the two numbers.
a. 42 b. 48 c. 54 d. 56
20. The amount of 135 is to be divided among three brothers in the ratio 3: 5: 7. What is the
biggest amount received by a
brother?
a. 54 b. 63 c. 72 d. 75
21. A high concentrated solution having a volume of 100 liters is 25% gasoline. How much
gasoline should be added to the
solution to produce a 50-50% mixture?
a. 50 L b. 75 L c. 40 L d. 60 L
22. The gasoline tank of a car contains 50 liters gasoline and alcohol, the alcohol comprising 25%.
How much of the mixture
should be drawn off and replaced by alcohol so that the tank contains a mixture of 50-50%
solution?
a. 14.5 L b. 15 L c. 16 L d. 16.67 L
23. The number 142 is divided into two parts such that when the greater part is divided by the
smaller part, the quotient is 3 and
remainder is 14. What is the greater part?
a. 110 b. 112 c. 114 d. 116
24. Two jet planes traveling toward each other took off at the same time from two airports located
4800 km apart. If they passed
each other after 2 hours, determine the speed (kph) of the faster plane if one plane is flying at
160 kph faster than the other.
a. 1280 b. 1300 c. 1320 d. 1350
25. A man driving his car at a certain speed will reach his destination 6 hours. If he increased his
speed by 24kph, he would
have reached his destination in 5 hours. Find the distance of his destination.
a. 750 km b. 720 km c. 650 km d. 600 km
32. Find k so that 4x2 + kx +1 = 0, will only have one real solution.
a. 1 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2
33. If the sum of the first 50 positive odd integers is subtracted from the sum of the first 50 positive even
integers, then the
difference is
a. 100 b. 50 c. 150 d. 250
37. A tank full of alcohol is emptied one-sixth of its content and then filled up with water and mixed. If
this is done six times and
the tank has a capacity of 6 liters, how much alcohol remains?
a. 3 liters b. 2 liters c. 1 liter d. 0 liter
42. What is the sum of the coefficients of the expansion of (2x –1)20?
a. 1 b. 0 c. 215 d. 225
6
43. Find the middle term in the expansion of 2 x 2
1
4 y
a. 5 x6 b. 5 x
6
3
2 y y3
d. 5 x
6
c. 5 x
6
4 y3 8 y 3
46. Evaluate : 10 7
. imaginary b. 70 c. 10 d. 70
47. A series of numbers which are perfect square numbers (i.e. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25…) is called
a. Fourier series b. Fermat’s number
c. Euler’s number d. Fibonacci number
48. If the roots of an equation are zero, then they are classified as
a. trivial solutions c. conditional solutions
b. extraneous solutions d. hypergolic solutions
a. - 2 b. 4 c. 1 d. 0
TRIGONOMETRY
14. Given: sin A = 3/5; cos A < 0 and cos B = -12/13; tan B < 0, determine cos (A-B)
a. 123/845 b. –123/845 c. –33/65 d. 63/65
19. What is the value of (log 5 to the base 2) + (log 5 to the base 3)?
a. 7.39 b. 3.79 c. 3.97 d. 9.37
21. A pole cast a shadow 15-m long when the angle of elevation of the sun is 61o. If the pole has
lean 15o from the vertical
directly toward the sun, what is the length of the pole?
a. 54.23 b. 48.64 c. 36.84 d. 64.84
22. The area of the isosceles triangle is 36-sq. m with the included angle of 30o between the two
equal sides. Find the perimeter
of the triangle.
a. 30.21 b. 32.12 c. 28.43 d. 29.65
23. If an equilateral triangle is circumscribed about a circle of radius 10-cm, determine the side of
the triangle.
a. 34.64 b. 64.12 c. 36.44 d. 32.1
24. Find the length of the side of a regular octagon that is inscribed in a circle of radius 243
inches.
a.143 b.154 c.165 d. 186
25. Find the area of a parallelogram whose sides are 67 cm and 43 cm, the acute angle between
them being 65.
a. 1305 b. 1611 c. 1805 d. 2611
26. Express in radian the angle between the hands of a clock at 3:25 PM.
a. 0.73 b. 0.83 c. 0.93 d. 1.0
27. The three dimensions of a rectangular parallelepiped are in the ratio 2:3:5. If the volume is
810 cu cm, what is the length of
the longest side?
a. 6 b. 9 c. 15 d. 18
28. Three spheres of radii 1, 2 and 3 inches, respectively, are melted and formed into a new
sphere. Find the radius of this new
sphere.
a. 3.3 b. 4.3 c. 5 d. 6
29. The two bases of a trapezoid are 12 inches and 18 inches respectively. If the angles at the
extremities of one base are 65
and 40 respectively, find the longer leg.
a. 5.63 b. 6.23 c. 7.21 d. 7.81
30. Find the radius of circle circumscribed about the triangle for which A = 50, B = 20, and a =
35 inches.
a. 22.84 b. 25.64 c. 31.25 d. 36.55
31. At one side of a road is a pole 25 ft. high fixed on the top of a wall, 15 ft high. On the other side of the
road, at a point on the
ground directly opposite, the flagstaff and the wall subtend equal angles. Find the width of the road.
a. 25 ft b. 40 ft c. 60 ft d. 30 ft
32. The angle of elevation of the top of the tower B from the top of tower A is 28 and the angle of
elevation of the top of tower A
from the base of the tower B is 46. The two towers lie in the same horizontal plane. If the height of
tower B is 120 m, find
the height of tower A.
a. 87 m b. 91 m c. 79 m d. 66 m
34. A circle is divided into two parts by a chord 3 cm away from the center. Find the area of the smaller
part, in square cm, if the
circle has an area of 201 cm2.
a. 372.5 b. 363.6 c. 368.4 d. 53.7
35. Given a triangle whose sides are 24 cm, 30 cm, and 36 cm. Find the radius of a circle which is tangent
to the shortest and
longest side of a triangle, and whose center lies on the third side.
a. 9 cm b. 12 cm c. 11 cm d. 18 cm
36. If a steel ball is immersed in an 8 cm diameter cylinder, it displaces water to a depth of 2.25 cm. The
radius of the ball is
a. 6 cm b. 3 cm c. 2 cm d. 4 cm
37. Each interior angle of a regular nonagon is equal to
a. 140° b. 144° c. 135° d. 150°
38. A polygon has 350 diagonals. How many sides are there?
a. 28 b. 25 c. 32 d. 30
39. One angle is 20 less than thrice its supplement. What are the angles?
a. 20, 160 b. 45, 135 c. 55, 125 d. 50, 130
40. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 30 cm. The perimeter is 72 cm. Find the length of its shortest side.
a. 16 b. 24 c. 18 d. 27
ANALYTIC GEOMETRY
1. Find the area of the triangle with vertices (2,-1), (-3, 4) and (0,-3).
a. 10 b. 9.5 c. 10.5 d. 9
2. A copying machine reduces the side of a triangle by 20%. The area of the triangle is reduced by
a. 36% b. 20% c. 18% d. 40%
3. A spherical balloon is being inflated so that the surface increases by 20%, then the volume of the
sphere increases by
a. 20% b. 30% c. 31.5% d. 31.45%
4. The midpoint of the line segment between P1(x1,y1) and P2(-2,4) is Pm(2, -1). Find the coordinate of P1
a. (6,-5) b. (5,-6) c. (6,-6) d. (-6,6)
5. If the distance between the points (8,7) and (3,y) is 13, what is the value of y?
a. 5 b. –19 c. 19 or –5 d. 5 or –19
6. The slope of the line joining ( 2,-3) and the midpoint of the line segment joining (0,4) and (5,-2) is
a. 8 b. –8 c. 3 d. –3
7. Find the distance from the point (2,3) to the line 3x+4y+9=0
a. 5 b. 5.4 c. 5.8 d. 6.2
9. If the points (-2, 3) , (x,y) and (-3, 5) lie on the straight line, then the equation of the line is
_____.
a. x + 2y –1 = 0 b. 2x + y –1 = 0
c. x + 2y + 1 = 0 d. 2x + y + 1 = 0
10. Two vertices of a triangle are (2,4) and (-2, 3) and the area is 2 square units, the locus of the
third vertex is
a. x – 4y = -10 b. x – 4y = -18
c. none of the above d. both a and b
11. Find the area of the triangle which the line 2x – 3y + 6 = 0 forms with the coordinate axis.
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
12. The intercepts of a straight line on the x and y axes are 4 and –6, respectively. Find its
equation.
a. 3x + 2y = 12 b. 2x + 3y = 12 c. 3x – 2y = 12 d. 2x – 3y = 12
13. What is the distance between the center of the circles X2 + Y2 + 2X + 4Y – 3 = 0 and X2
+ Y2 - 8X - 6Y + 7 = 0 ?
a. 7.07 b. 7.77 c. 8.07 d. 8.77
14. Find the radical axis of the circle x2 + y2 + 8x – 6y = 0 and the circle x2 + y2 -12x – 16y + 20
= 0.
a. 2x + y = 2 b. 2x – y = 2 c. x + 2y = 2 d. x – 2y = 2
16. The moon’s orbit is an ellipse with the earth at one focus. The length of the major axis is
478,000 miles and the
eccentricity e = 0.055. Find the least distance from the earth to the moon in miles.
a. 239,000 b. 225,855 c. 210,755 d. 190,255
17. Find the coordinates of the midpoint of the line segment joining the points A (4, 1, 8) and B
(6, -3, 4).
a. (5, -1, 6) b. (10, -2, 12) c. (-2, 4, 4) d. (0, 0, 0)
18. Find the angle between two vectors whose direction numbers are (2, 1, 1) and (1, -1, 2).
a. 300 b. 400 c. 450 d. 600
19. Find the polar equation of a circle with center at the (3, 0) and the radius 3.
a. r = 3cos θ b. r = 3sin θ c. r = 6cos θ d. r = 6sin θ
20. Find the angle that the line 2y-9x-18=0 makes with the x-axis.
a. 74.8 b. 4.5 c. 47.8 d. 77.5
21. Find the length of the chord common to the circles x2+y2=64 and x2+y2-16x=0
a. 14 b. 13 c. 12 d. 11
22. Find the area of the circle whose center is at (2,-5) and tangent to the line 4x+3y-8=0
a. 6 b. 9 c. 3 d. 12
23. What is the length of the latus rectum of the curve x2= - 12y
a. 12 b. –3 c. –12 d. 3
24. Find the equation of the axis of symmetry of the function y = 2x2–7x+5.
a. 4x+7=0 b. x-2=0 c. 4x-7=0 d. 7x+4=0
25. Find the length of the latus rectum of the following ellipse:
25x2+9y2-300x-144y+1251=0
a. 3.4 b. 3.2 c. 3.6 d. 3.0
28. The area of the region enclosed by the curve 4x2 + 25y2 = 50
a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 15
2 2
29. What is the equation of the asymptote of the hyperbola x y 1 ?
9 4
a. 2x-3y=0 b. 3x-2y=0 c. 2x-y=0 d. 2x+y=0
30. An arch 18 m high has the form of parabola with a vertical axis. The length of a horizontal beam
placed across the arch 8m
from the top is 64m. Find the width at the bottom.
a. 86m b. 96m c. 106m d. 76m
31. The collection of all points in the plane equidistant from two fixed points is
a. ellipse b. parabola c. line d. circle
32. Find the value of k for which the equation x2 – 4y2 + (k+1)x + k2 = 0 represents two
intersecting lines.
a. k =1 b. k = 0 c. k = 1, -1/3 d. k = -1,
1/3
DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS
1. Find lim 3 x 1
x 2 x2
a. 0 b. 1 c. –½ d.
infinite
2. Find lim x3 2x 9
x 2x3 8
a. 0 b. 2 c. ½ d. ¼
x
3. Find lim 2 x tan 2
x 1
a. e2 b. e2/ c. 0 d.
4. Find Limx ( 7 x3 ) / (4 x3 - 2x + 10 )
a. 0 b. 1.75 c. indeterminate d. infinity
5. Find Limx 0 ( 1 – ex ) / x
a. -1 b. 1 c. -2 d. 2
10. Find the partial derivatives with respect to x of the function xy2 –5y +6.
a. y2 –5 b. y2 c. xy – 5y d. 2xy
11. The length of a rectangle of constant area 800 q cm is increasing at a rate of 4 cm per second.
What is the width of the
rectangle at the moment the width is decreasing at a rate of 0.5 cm per second?
a. 10 cm b. 20 cm c. 30 cm d. 40 cm
12. A particle moves around a curve y = x2 + 2x. At what point on the curve are the x and y
coordinates of the particles changing
at the same rate?
a. (1, 3) b. (0, 0) c. (-1/2, -3/4) d. (-1, -1)
13. Find the slope- intercept equation of the normal line to the graph y = x3 – x2 at the point
where x=1.
a. y = x + 1 b. y = -x + 1 c. y = x – 1 d. y = -x – 1
14. Find the point on the graph of y = x2 at which the tangent line is parallel to the line y = 6x-1.
a. (0,0) b. (1,1) c. (2,4) d. (3,9)
15. At a point (1,2) of the curve x2 –xy + y2 = 3, find the slope of the tangent line.
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
19. Find a point on the curve y = e2x whose tangent line is perpendicular to the line x + 4y-8 = 0
a. (0,1) b. (ln 2 , 2) c. (ln2, 4) d. (l, e2)
21. Find the largest area of a rectangle that could be inscribed in the ellipse, 4x2 + 9y2 = 36
a. 12 b. 24 c. 6 d. 48
22. A balloon leaving the ground 18m from the observer rises 3m/sec. How fast is the angle of elevation of
the line of sight
increasing after 8 sec?
a. 0.12 rad/s b. 0.08 rad/s c. 0.03 rad/s d. 0.06
rad/s
23. A box is to be constructed from a piece of zinc 20 in2 by cutting equal squares from each corner and
turning up the zinc to
form the side. What is the maximum volume (cubic inch) of the box that can be constructed?
a. 600 b. 593 c. 580 d. 622
24. Water is flowing into a conical vessel 15 cm deep and having a radius of 3.75 cm across the top. If the
rate at which the
water rises in 2 cm/sec, how fast is the water flowing (m3/sec) into the conical vessel when the water
is 4 cm deep?
a. 6.28 b. 2.37 c. 4.57 d. 5.73
25. At the minimum point, the slope of the tangent line to a curve is
a. zero b. negative c. positive d. unity
26. Given a function, y = f(x) whose f “(x) = - f(x). Determine the function
a. logarithmic c. transcendental
b. exponential1 d. sinusoidal
27. At the maximum point, the value of f “(x) is
a. negative b. positive c. zero d. unity
INTEGRAL CALCULUS
1. Find the ∫ (x + 1) (x – 1) dx
a. ½ x2 + x + C b. ½ x2 – x + C c. 0.33 x3 + x + C d. 0.33 x3
–x+C
2. Find the ∫ x x dx
a. 2/5 x5/2 + C b. 5/2 x5/2 + C c. 2 x1/2 + C
d. ½ x1/2 + C
9. Find the ∫ ln x dx / x
a. ½ ln x + C b. 2 ln x + C c. x ln x –x + C d.
½ ln 2 x + C
14. What is the integral of x (x+1)8 dx if the lower limit is zero and the upper limit is 1.
a. 22.76 b. 34.76 c. 45.52 d.
54.52
15. What is the integral of x3 dx / (x + 1) if the lower limit is zero and the upper limit is 1.
a. 0.14 b. 0.28 c. 0.34 d. 0.38
16. What is the integral of x e 3x dx if the lower limit is zero and the upper limit is 1.
a. 1.57 b. 2.57 c. 3.57 d. 4.57
17. What is the integral of dx / (x2 -9) if the lower limit is 4 and the upper limit is 5.
a. 0.093 b. 0.193 c. 0.293 d.
0.393
18. What is the area bounded by the curve y = x3 , the x-axis , and the line x = -2 and x= 1.
a. 2.45 b. 4.25 c. 5.24 d. 5.42
20. Find the length of arc in one branch of the curve y2 = x3 from x = 0 to x = 1.
a. 1.2 b. 1.44 c. 1.64 d. 1.84
21. If
sin2ycos2ydx = , then x is equal to
x
1
4
0
a. 1+x2 b. x2 c. 1+x4 d. x4
2
23. Evaluate
0
4 x 2 dx
a. 4 b. 2 c. d. 3
3x
2
24. Evaluate 2
4 x 5 dx
1
a. 0 b. 2 c. 1 d. 3
1
25. Evaluate 0
xe x dx ?
a. 1 b. e c. e–1 d. e+1
6
26. Evaluate cos 8 3 A dA
0
30. The area bounded by the curve y2=12x and the line x=3 is revolved about the line x=3. What is the
volume generated?
a. 186 b. 179 c. 181 d. 184
STATISTICS
6. There are 10 basketball teams in NCAA. If each team plays every team twice, how many
games are played?
a. 45 b. 90 c. 180 d. 120
7. How many different three-digit numbers greater than 300 can be formed with the digits 1, 2, 3,
4 and 5 if no repetitions are
allowed?
a. 3,125 b. 1,875 c. 120
d. 36
8. In how many different ways can 5 persons be seated in an automobile having places for 2 in
the front seat and 3 in the back
seat if only 3 can drive?
a. 30 b. 60 c. 36 d. 72
9. How many ways can 4 boys and 4 girls be seated alternatively in the row of eight chairs?
a. 40320 b. 24 c. 48 d.
1152
10. In how many different ways can 4 persons be seated in consecutive seats in a row of 7 seats?
a. 72 b. 96 c. 120 d. 168
11. How many different committees of 6 can be formed from 12 boys and 20 girls if each
committee is consisting of 4 boys and
2 girls?
a. 34,560 b. 69,120 c. 94,050
d. 4,514,450
12. How many different signals each consisting of 6 flags hung in a vertical can be formed from 4
identical red flag and 2
identical yellow flag?
a. 720 b. 24 c. 15 d. 12
13. How many 4 digits number can be formed from the number 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9 if
repetition is allowed?
a. 4,536 b. 10,000 c. 5040
d. 9,000
15. If A and B are complimentary events and probability of occurrence of event A is zero or Pr(A)
= 0, then Pr(B) is
a. less than one b. more than one c. one d. zero
16. Determine the probability of throwing a total of 7 in a single throw with two dice.
a. 1/3 b. ¼ c. 1/6 d. 1/12
17. In one of the parlor games, nineteen tickets from 1 to 19 are in the box. If two tickets are
drawn at random. Determine the
probability that both are odd.
a. 4/19 b. 5/19 c. 6/19 d. 7/19
18. A box contains 4 red, 7 white and 5 blue balls. Two balls are chosen at random with
replacement. What is the probability
they are both red?
a. 1/16 b. 1/10 c. 1/12 d. 1/8
19. What is the probability of drawing either an ace or a king in a single draw from a deck of 52
playing cards?
a. 1/13 b. 2/13 c. 7/52 d. 1/6
20. What is the probability of drawing either an ace or a heart in a single draw from a deck of 52
playing cards?
a. 17/52 b. 4/13 c.9/26
d. 15/52
21. From a bag containing 4 black balls and 5 white balls, two balls are drawn. Find the probability
that one is white and the
other is black.
a. 4/9 b. 5/9 c. 2/3 d. 1/3
22. Two cards are drawn at random on an ordinary deck of cards. What is the probability that both
cards are either a king or a
diamond?
a. 16/169 b. 20/221 c. 4/13 d. 17/52
23. Two red books and 4 blue books are placed at random on a shelf. What is the probability that
the blue books will be
together?
a. 0.1 b. 0.143 c. 0.2 d.
0.341
24. A number from 1 to 10,000 inclusive is selected at random. What is the probability that it is a
perfect square?
a. 0.01 b. 0.015 c. 0.02 d. 0.025
25. What is the probability of drawing 3 face cards in 3 draws from an ordinary deck of card?
a. 0.0123 b. 0.00995 c. 0.123
d. 0.0995
26. If 10 coins are tossed, what is the probability that it will show 5 heads and 5 tails?
a. 0.246 b. 0.256 c. 0.0246 d.
0.0256
27. What is the probability of getting a number "4" thrice in five tosses of a dice?
a. 0.232 b. 0.322 c. 0.0232
d. 0.0322
28. If the probability that Ginebra, Alaska and Shell will win the PBA open conference championship are
1/5, 1/6 and 1/10
respectively. Find the probability that one of them will win the title.
a. 7/15 b. 1/300 c. 7/100 d. 1
29. An urn contains 4 black balls and 6 white balls. What is the probability of getting one black ball and
one white ball in two
consecutive draws from the urn?
a. 0.24 b. 0.27 c. 0.53 d. 0.04
30. There is 1 defectives per 100 items of a product in a long run. What is the probability that there is one
and only one detective
in a random lot of 100.
a. 0.3697 b. 0.3967 c. 0.3796 d. 0.3679
31. The graphical representation of the cumulative frequency distribution in a set of statistical data is
called?
a. Mean c. Frequency Polyhedron
b. Histogram d. Mass Diagram
32. A shoe store sells 10 different sizes of shoes; each in both high cut & low cut variety, each either
rubber or leather, and
each with white or black color. How many different kinds of shoes does he sell?
a. 64 b. 80 c. 72 d. 92
33. In a poker game consisting of 5 cards, what is the probability of holding 2 aces and 2 queens?
a. 5!/52! b. 5/52 c. 33/
54145 d.
1264/
45685
34. In how many ways can PICHE Chapter with 15 directors choose a president. a vice president, a
secretary, a treasurer and
an auditor, if no member can hold more than one position.
a. 630630 b. 3300 c. 360360 d.
3003
35. A two-digit number is chosen randomly. What is the probability that it is divisible by 7?
a. 7/50 b.13/90 c. 1/7
d. 5/
7
36. In raw data, the term that occurs most frequently is known as:
a. mean c. mode
b. median d. quartile
37. In probability theory, the set of possible outcomes of an experiment is termed as:
a. sample space c. a set of random variables
b. set of random counts d. a fuzzy set