Mini Question Bank - Vety Sci - For Students PDF

Comprehensive Training
for
Junior Research Fellowship (ICAR)
(VETERINARY SCIENCES)
Mini
Question
Bank
Course Director Course Co-ordinator

Dr. Sajjan Sihag Dr. Vinay Kant
Principal Scientist, Assistant Professor,
Department of Animal Nutrition Vety. Pharmacology & Toxicology
COVS, LUVAS COVS, LUVAS
Target for JRF, SRF, NET, PhD, Civil services, other competitive
examinations etc.
College of Veterinary Sciences

Lala Lajpat Rai University of Veterinary
and Animal Sciences, Hisar-125004
HARYANA, INDIA
Mini Question Bank
of
Comprehensive training (2nd - 22nd April,
2019) for B.V.Sc. & A.H. students for
Junior Research Fellowship (ICAR)
in
VETERINARY SCIENCES
Target for JRF, SRF, NET, PhD, Civil services, other competitive
examinations etc.
Course Director Course Co-ordinator

Dr. Sajjan Sihag, Dr. Vinay Kant
Principal Scientist, Assistant Professor,
Department of Animal Nutrition Vety. Pharmacology & Toxicology
COVS, LUVAS COVS, LUVAS
Compiled and edited by:

 Dr. Sajjan Sihag, Principal Scientist, ANN, COVS, LUVAS
 Dr. Vinay Kant, Assistant Professor, VPTx, COVS, LUVAS
 Dr. Ankit Magotra, Assistant Professor, AGB, COVS, LUVAS
College of Veterinary Sciences,

Lala Lajpat Rai University of Veterinary and Animal Science,
Hisar-125004 (Haryana), INDIA
Mini question bank of comprehensive training for B.V.Sc. & A.H. students for JRF (Vety. Sciences), ICAR
COVS, LUVAS, Hisar, Haryana-125004. INDIA 2019
INDEX
S. No. Unit Contributor(s) Page No.
Unit – I
1. Osteology Dr. Tej Parkash 1-4
2. Histology Dr. Aman Deep 5-7
3. Exocrine and endocrine glands; hormiones and their Dr. Meenakshi 8-9
functions Virmani
4. Biotechnology in animal production and Dr. Aman Kumar 10-11
reproduction
Unit – II
5. Bacteriology and mycology Dr. Parveen Kumar 12-15
6. Virology Dr. Sanjay Kapoor 16-19
7. Immunology Dr. Ajit Singh 20-23
8. Inflammation, necrosis, gangrene, calcification and Dr. Babu Lal Jangir 24-28
death
9. Etiology of disease and concept, extrinsic and Dr. Chandratre 29-30
intrinsic factors; atrophy and hypertrophy Gauri
10. Helminthology Dr. S. S. Grewal 31-33
11. Entomology and acarology Dr. Snehil Gupta 34-36
and Dr. S.K. Gupta
12. Protozoology Dr. Snehil Gupta 37-39
and Dr. S.K. Gupta
Unit – III
13. General clinical examination of different body Dr. Ricky Jhambh 40-43
systems in domestic animals
14. Important infectious diseases affecting different Dr. Divya Agnihotri 44-45
body systems of domestic animals in respect to
epidemiology, clinical symptoms, diagnosis,
treatment and control – Part 1
15. Important infectious diseases affecting different Dr. Divya Agnihotri 46-51
body systems of domestic animals in respect to
epidemiology, clinical symptoms, diagnosis,
treatment and control– Part 2
16. Veterinary obstetrics Dr. Sandeep Kumar 52-55
17. Infertility and sterility Dr. Ravi Dutt 56-58
18. Anaestheaisa Dr. R. N. Chaudhary 59-61
19. Veterinary surgery & radiology –Part 1 Dr. R. N. Chaudhary 62-67
20. Veterinary surgery & radiology –Part 2 Dr. R. N. Chaudhary 68-78
21. Radiology Dr. Deepak Kumar 79-81
Tiwari
22. Epidemiology, aims, objectives and applications; Dr. Dinesh Mittal 82-85
ecological concepts and applications
Unit – IV
23. General and autonomic pharmacology Dr. Vinod Kumar 86-90
24. CNS and systemic pharmacology Dr. Archana Lohiya 91-93
25. Chemotherapy Dr. Vijeyta Tiwari 94-97
26. Toxicology of xenobiotics Dr. Vinay Kant 98-102
OSTEOLOGY
Dr. Tej Parkash

Dept. of Vety. Anatomy, COVS, LUVAS, Hisar.
____________________________________________________________________
1. The characteristic feature of diarthrodial joint is:

a) Mobility
b) Joint cavity
c) Synovial membrane
d) All of these.
2. Orbital rim is incomplete in the skull of:

a) Ox
b) Horse
c) Dog
d) Sheep
3. The uncinate process is present on the rib of:

a) Dog
b) Rabbit
c) Fowl
d) All of these
4. The trochantric ridge continues straight down and does not join the trochanter minor in:
a) Ox
b) Horse
c) Pig
d) Sheep
5. The foramen triosseum in fowl is formed by:

a) Scapula
b) Coracoid
c) Clavicle
d) All of these
6. The ligament flava is present on the:

a) Atlanto-occipital joint
b) Costocentral joint
c) Intercentral joint
d) Interneural joint
7. The joint between the presphenoid and vomer bones is of the following type:
a) Gomphosis
b) Symphysis
c) Schyndylesis
d) Syndesmosis
8. The Sesamoidean pulley is formed by the:

a) Superior sessamoidean ligament
1
b) Distal sessamoidean ligament

c) Intersessmoidean ligament
d) Collateral sessamoidean ligament.
9. Fovea capitis in horse besides the round ligament also gives insertion to:
a) Accessory ligament
b) Cruciate ligament
c) Nuchal ligament
d) Falciformligament
10. The stifle joint is of:

a) Synarthrodialtype
b) Diarthrodial type
c) Amphiarthrodialtype
d) Synsarcosistype
11. The shoulder joint in ox is supported by:

a) Collateral ligament
b) Sessamoideanligament
c) Suspensory ligament
d) None of these
12. The coffin joint is:

a) Ginglimus
b) Trochoid
c) Enarthrosis
d) Arthrodia
13. The ligaments which form a part of the stay apparatus are:
a) Check ligaments
b) Sesamoidean ligaments
c) Suspensory ligament
d) All of these
14. Among the following bones which is not the paired facial bone:
a) Premaxilla
b) Sphenoid
c) Vomer
d) Palatine
15. The cranial lamellar part of ligamentumnuchae terminates at:

a) First 3 cervical vertebrae
b) Last 3 cervical vertebrae
c) 2,3 and 4th cervical vertebrae
d) None of these
16. The turbinates are bony scrolls present in:

a) Oral cavity
b) Nasal cavity
c) Cranial cavity
d) None of these
2
17. Dew claws in ox are rudimentary remains of the:

a) 3rd and 4th digits
b) 1st and 5th digits
c) 2nd and 5th digits
d) 4th and 5th digits
18. The largest sesamoid bone in the body is:

a) Distal sesamoid
b) Patella
c) Proximal sesamoid
d) Tibial tarsal
19. The number of metacarpal bones in dog is:

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
20. The number of carpal bones in dog is:

a) Five
b) Six
c) Seven
d) Eight
21. The largest paranasal sinus in horse is:

a) Maxillary sinus
b) Frontal sinus
c) Sphenopalatine
d) Ethmoidal sinus
22. The distal interosseous space between the radius and ulna is absent in:
a) Ox
b) Sheep
c) Goat
d) Horse
23. The plane which divides the body into two similar halves is called as:
a) Transverse plane
b) Sagittal plane
c) Frontal plane
d) Median plane
24. The special modification of articular surfaces which is pulley like is known as:
a) Condyle
b) Epicondyle
c) Head
d) Trochlea
25. The smallest tarsal bone in horse is:
3
a) Central
b) Fourth
c) Third
d) 1+2
26. The transverse diameter of pelvis is measured between the:

a) Sacrum & pectin pubis
b) Two iliopectineal eminences
c) Two psoas tubercles
d) None of these
27. The foramen lacerum is divided into anterior and posterior parts in:
a) Ox
b) Horse
c) Dog
d) Pig
28. The metacromion is present in:

a) Horse
b) Ox
c) Pig
d) Dog
29. The bicipital groove of humerus is divided in:

a) Horse
b) Ox
c) Pig
d) Dog
30. Ratio of infraspinous and supraspinous fossa is equal in:

a) Cattle
b) Horse
c) Dog
d) Pig
KEY
1.D , 2.C, 3.C, 4.B, 5.D, 6.D, 7.C, 8.A, 9.A, 10.B, 11.D, 12.A, 13.D, 14.C, 15.C, 16.B, 17.C,
18.B, 19.D, 20.C, 21.A, 22.D, 23.D, 24.D, 25.D, 26.C, 27.D, 28.D, 29.A, 30.C.
4
HISTOLOGY
Dr. Aman Deep

Dept. of Vety. Anatomy, COVS, LUVAS, Hisar.
____________________________________________________________________
Fill in the blanks
1. Ependymal cells lines ventricular cavities of the brain and central canal of the spinal
cord.
2. The crescent shape serous cell associated with mucous acinus in a mixed salivary gland
is called serous demilune.
3. The distance between two adjacent Z-lines in a myofibril is called sarcomere.
4. Leydig cells are the endocrine cells of the testes that produce the testosterone.
5. The simple squamous epithelium lining the serous membrane of body cavities is known
as mesothelium.
6. The epiglottis is supported by elastic cartilage
7. The collagen fibres are demonstrated with the help of

crossman’strichrome/masson’strichrome stain.
8. The nucleus of plasma cell contains extensive heterochromatin in cart wheel
arrangement.
9. Visceral layer of Bowman’s capsule is formed by podocytes.
10. The periosteum is firmly attached to bone by collagen bundles called sharpey’s fibers.
Multiple choice questions

1. The myelin sheath of central nervous system is formed by
a. Astrocytes
b. Schwann cells
c. Oligodendrocytes
d. Microglial cells
2. Perichondrium is absent in
a. Hyaline cartilage
b. Elastic cartilage
c. Fibrocartilage
d. None of these
3. Purkinje cells are seen in
5
a. Cerebrum
b. Cerebellum
c. Spinal cord
d. All of above
4. Apocrine mode of secretion is seen in:

a) Mammary glands
b) Salivary glands
c) Sebaceous glands of skin
d) Pancreas
5. Gomori’s stain is used for demonstration of:

a) Collagen fibers
b) Elastic fibers
c) Reticular fibers
d) None
6. Epithelium of trachea is:

a)Simple cuboidal
c) Transitional
b)Pseudo stratified ciliated columnar
d) Simple columnar
7. Metachromatic granules are seen in the cytoplasm of:

a) Macrophages
b) Mast cells
c) Plasma cells
d) Adipocytes
8. Centroacinar cells are present in:

a) Mammary gland
b) Pancreas
c) Skin
d) Liver
9. Kupffer cells are found in:

a) Parotid gland
b) Liver
c) Lung
d) Skin
6
10. Oxyphil cells are present in:

a) Thyroid
b) Parathyroid
c) Pancreas
d) Thymus
11. Corpora arenacea is present in:

a) Kidney
b) Liver
c) Mammary gland
d) Pineal gland
12. The Merkel’s cells are present in:

a)Spleen
b) Skin
c) Eye
d) Ear
13. Descement membrane is the part of:

a) Lens
b) Cornea
c) Tapetumlucidum
d) Sclera
14. Lamina muscularis mucosae is absent in:

a) Reticulum
b) Oesophagus
c) Omasum
d) Rumen
7
EXOCRINE AND ENDOCRINE GLANDS; HORMIONES AND THEIR FUNCTIONS
Dr. Meenakshi Virmani

Dept. of Vety. Physiology and Biochemistry, COVS, LUVAS, Hisar.
1. Glands without ducts are known as _______________ glands

2. The secretory products of endocrine glands are biologically active chemicals called
_______________.
3. The major effect of hormones is on the _______________ of their target organs, ultimately
helping to regulate total body metabolism, growth, and reproduction.
4. The four general chemical classes of hormones include _______________, proteins and
polypeptides and glycoproteins, and steroids.
5. Many hormones become active only after conversion from less active precursors called
_______________.
6. The major thyroid hormones are similar to _______________hormones because both are
nonpolar (lipophilic) and can be active in the body when taken orally, whereas protein,
polypeptide and glycoprotein hormones would be inactivated in the digestive tract.
7. Hormones and neurotransmitter molecules must combine with
specific_______________proteins that are synthesized and presented by the target cells.
8. The terms used to describe the interaction between different hormones
include_______________, permissive, and antagonistic.
9. Exposure of a cell to high concentrations of a hormone would induce_______________.
10. A pharmacological dose of any chemical such as the hormones active in the birth control pill
is considered a dose with an abnormally_______________concentration of that hormone.
11. The receptor proteins for the_______________hormones are located within the cytoplasm of
the target cells and when activated by the hormones the receptors_______________and bind
to the hormone-response element on the DNA.
12. Since thyroxine is_______________and thus not soluble in the blood, it must be transported
by means of carrier proteins. The carrier protein for thyroxine is called thyroxine-
binding_______________.
13. The active form of thyroxine inside the target cell has a total of_______________ (spell out)
iodine atoms attached to the basic structure of the hormone molecule.
8
14. Many of the polypeptide hormones bind to the membrane of target cells and activate the
enzyme, adenylate cyclase, that catalyzes the synthesis of the important second messenger
called_______________which then activates an enzyme in the cell known as.
15. The calcium ion second-messenger system is activated when Ca2+ enters the cytoplasm
through open Ca2+ channels and bind to a cytoplasmic protein called_______________.
16. The_______________portion of the pituitary gland synthesizes six hormones whose
secretions are controlled by releasing hormones from the_______________.
17. The pars nervosa portion of the pituitary gland is also known as
the_______________pituitary.
18. _______________hormone stimulates the kidneys to retain water so that less water is
excreted in the urine and more water is retained in the blood.
19. In females, _______________stimulates the contractions of the uterus during labor and for
this reason is needed for parturition (child birth).
20. The vascular link between the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary is called
the_______________ (hyphenated word) portal system.
21. _______________is an inhibitory hormone released from the hypothalamus to regulate the
secretion of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary gland.
22. The blood levels of many of the hormones from the anterior pituitary are controlled
by_______________feedback inhibition coming from the hormones subsequently released by
the target gland.
23. Many of the hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary are influenced by a higher brain
center that increases or decreases hormone secretion based on daily patterns
called_______________rhythms
24. The adrenal_______________secretes mineralocorticoids, of which the most potent
is_______________.
25. The adrenal medulla secretes two hormones: mainly_______________and lesser amounts
of_______________.
Key
1. Endocrine 10. High 19. Oxytocin
2. Hormones 11. Steroid, dimerize 20. hypothalamo-
3. Metabolism 12. Nonpolar, globulin hypophyseal
4. Amines 13. Three 21. Somatostatin
5. Prohormones 14. cAMP, protein kinase 22. Negative
6. Steroid 15. calmodulin 23. Circadian
7. Receptor 16. anterior, hypothalamus 24. Cortex
8. Synergistic 17. posterior 25. Epinephrine
9. Desensitization 18. Antidiuretic
9
BIOTECHNOLOGY IN ANIMAL PRODUCTION AND REPRODUCTION
Dr. Aman Kumar

Department of Animal Biotechnology, COVS, LUVAS, Hisar
____________________________________________________________________
1) The name of the first ever mammalian clone developed by Wilmut and Campbell in 1997
a) Molly
b) Polly
c) Holly
d) Dolly
2) World’s first cloned pashmina goat was named

a) Noori
b) Hoor
c) Molly
d) Dolly
3) Non-invasive and repeatable technique used for recovering large numbers of competent
oocytes from antral follicles of live animals is known as
a) Ovum pickup
b) Cloning
c) Artificial insemination
d) None of the above
4) Which one of the following is cryoprotective agent

a) Glycerol
b) Ethylene glycol
c) DMSO
d) All of the above
5) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) technique was developed by

a) Kary Mullis
b) Edward Jenner
c) Louis Pasteur
d) Campbell
6) The process of producing genetically identical copy of a biological entity is known as

a) Artificial insemination
b) Cloning
c) Hybridization
10
7) What are the limitations of IVFMC

a) Efficiency is low i.e 30-40%
b) The technique less feasible for application in buffalo due to low success rate and costs
c) Both a and b
d) Neither of the above
8) ……………………….. is a gender selection technique
a) Cloning
b) Semen sorting
c) Hybridoma technology
9) Animal biotechology aims at

a) Increasing accuracy Of Selection.
b) Reducing Generation Interval.
c) Increasing Selection Intensity.
d) all of the above
10) ................enzyme introduced in transgenic ENVIRO PIG. ……………………..

a) Amylase
b) Phytase
c) Pepsin
d) Tyrosin kinase
Answer key
1.dolly
2. noori
3. ovum pick up
4. all of the above
5. kary Mullis
6. Cloning
7 both a and b
8.semen sorting
9. all of the above
10. Phytase
11
BACTERIOLOGY AND MYCOLOGY
Dr. Parveen Kumar

Dept. of Vety. Microbiology, COVS, LUVAS, Hisar.
____________________________________________________________________
1. Bacteria that grow at 4-10oC are known as

a) Psychrophiles
b) Mesophiles
c) Thermophiles
d) Halophiles
2. Grape like cluster arrangement is characteristic of

a) Staphylococcus
b) Streptococcus
c) Micrococcus
d) All of the above
3. Moist heat is better means of sterilization because

a) It can be done at low temperature in short time
b) Steam has better penetration capacity
c) Liquid media can withstand moist heat
d) All of the above
4. Phylogeny means
a) Study of physical properties
b) Study of biological relationship
c) Study of evolutionary relationship
d) Study of fungi
5. Normal percentage of agar in nutrient agar is

a) 0.5%
b) 1.5-2.5%
c) 4-5%
d) 10%
6. Which of the following is an example of differential media?

a) Nutrient agar
b) Sabouraud Dextrose Agar
c) MacConkey Lactose Agar
d) All of the above
12
7. In bacteria, the replication process begins at a unique site on the bacterial chromosome called
a) Origin of replication
b) R factor
c) Ribosomes
d) Mesosome
8. The following microbiologist is known for his discoveries of the principles of vaccination,
microbial fermentation and pasteurization.
a) Robert Koch
b) Louis Pasteur
c) Francesco Redi
d) Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek
9. The following is a method of isolation of pure colony of a bacteria

a) Spread plate method
b) Pour plate method
c) Streak plate method
d) All of the above
10. The study of disease patterns and trends, of the occurrence, distribution and control of disease in
population is called
a) Epidemiology
b) Preventive Medicine
c) Incidence
d) Prevalence
11. Bacterial capsule act as virulence factor by

a) Act as endotoxin
b) Resist phagocytosis
c) Destroy host cells
d) All of the above
12. Normal percentage of blood present in blood agar is

a) 2-3%
b) 5-10%
c) 15%
d) 20%
13. The smallest bacteria are

a) Rickettsia
b) Chlamydia
c) Mycoplasma
d) Leptospira
13
14. Which of the following are Catalase negative

a) Staphylococcus
b) Streptococcus
c) E. coli
d) Pasteurella
15. Strangles in equines is caused by

a) Rhodococcus equi
b) Streptococcus equi
c) Pasteurella multocida
d) Burkholderia mallei
16. Preisz Nocard bacillus is

a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b) Yersinia pestis
c) Corynaebacterium ovis
d) Bacillus anthracis
17. Brucella abortus S-19 is

a) Live attenuated vaccine
b) Inactivated adjuvanted vaccine
c) Recombinant vaccine
18. Pasteurella multocida causes

a) Snuffles
b) Haemorrhagic Septicemia
c) Atropic rhinitis
d) All of the above
19. Hajjare disese in poultry is caused by

a) Staphylococcus
b) Streptococcus
c) E. coli
d) Pasteurella
20. IMVic reaction for Salmonella is:

a) ++--
b) --++
c) -+-+
d) +-+-
21. characteristic of fungi imperfecti is

a) sexual spores only
14
b) asexual spores only

c) both sexual and asexual spores
d) none of the above
22. The example of dermatophytes is

a) Microsporum
b) Trichophyton
c) Epidermophyton
d) All of the above
23. Special stains for demonstration of fungi in tissue section is

a) Gridley’s stain
b) Mayer’s mucicarmin stain
c) PAS stain
d) All of the above
24. Anthrax in bovines is prevented by

a) Toxoid
b) Spore vaccine
c) Inactivated vaccine
d) All of the above
25. Anton test is used for diagnosis of

a) Leptospirosis
b) Listeriosis
c) Lyme disease
Key:
1. a; 2.a; 3.d; 4.c; 5.b; 6.c; 7.a; 8.b; 9.d; 10.a; 11.b; 12.b; 13.c; 14.b; 15.b; 16.c; 17.a; 18.d; 19.c; 20.c;
21.b; 22.d; 23.d; 24.b; 25.b.
15
VIROLOGY
Dr. Sanjay Kapoor

____________________________________________________________________
1. The Order Mononegavirales contains the following viral family/families

A Coronaviridae B Orthomyxoviridae
C Paramyxoviridae D Arteriviridae
2. Morphology of Rotavirus is
A Wheel shaped B Bullet shaped
C Star shaped D Brick shaped
3. Foot and Mouth disease in cattle is caused by
A Pestivirus B Aphthovirus
C Coronavirus D Asfivirus
4. Naked virus do not have
A Envelope B Nucleic acid
C Capsid D Proteins
5. Classical swine fever virus belongs to family
A Asfiviridae B Circoviridae
C Flaviviridae D Adenoviridae
6. Segmented ssRNA genome is present in
A Avian influenza virus B Infectious bursal disease virus
C Rotavirus D Infectious bronchitis virus
7. Diploid genome is found in viruses belonging to family
A Retroviridae B Birnaviridae
C Poxviridae D Arteriviridae
8. Which of the following diseases has been eradicated
A Foot and Mouth Disease B Fowl pox
C Pseudorabies D Rinderpest
9. Rotaviruses in cattle can cause
A Abortion B Paralysis
16
C Diarrhoea D Teratogenic effects

10. The genome of Marek’s disease virus is
A ssDNA B dsDNA
C ssRNA D dsRNA
11. Rabies virus has following properties
A Bullet shaped, icosahedral B Wheel shaped, helical symmetry
symmetry
C Bullet shaped, complex symmetry D Bullet shaped, helical symmetry
12. Viruses are infectious agents that have
A DNA and RNA and proteins B DNA or RNA and proteins
C DNA and RNA or proteins D DNA or RNA or proteins
13. Which of the following is not a vector-borne disease
A Blue Tongue B Infectious bursal disease
C Eastern equine encephalitis D African horse sickness
14. Both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies are observed in
A Rabies virus B Bornavirus
C Blue tongue virus D Canine disptemper virus
15. ‘La Sota’ vaccine is used for the control of
A Gumboro disease B Ranikhet disease
C Canine distemper D Cattle plague
16. Reverse transcriptase enzyme is present in
A Equine influenza virus B Equine viral arteritis
C Equine infectious anemia D Equine herpes virus
virus
17. Which of the following serotypes of FMD virus is not present in India
A A B O
C SAT 2 D Asia 1
18. Pestes-des-petits ruminants (PPR) virus belongs to genus
A Pestivirus B Rhinovirus
C Orbivirus D Morbillivirus
17
19. Universal system of classification of viruses is done by

A Bergey’s Manual B ICTV
C UCTV D OIE
20. Complex symmetry is found in
A Sheep pox virus B Rabies virus
C Blue tongue virus D Canine parvo virus
21. Viruses with icosahedral symmetry have
A 30 edges B 20 edges
C 12 edges D 50 edges
22. Bovine ephemeral virus belongs to family
A Ephemerviridae B Rhabdoviridae
C Arterivirdae D Asfarviridae
23 Intra Venous Pathogenicity Index of mesogenic strains of Newcastle strains is
A Equal to lentogenic strains B Less than lentogenic strains
C More than lentogenic strains D Equal to velogenic strains
24.  Classification of Avian influenza viruses into subtypes is based on protein(s)

A Haemagglutinin B Neuraminidase
C Haemagglutinin and D M1 and M2
Neuraminidase
25 Which of the following is associated with viral oncogenesis
A Rinderpest virus B Rota virus
C Rous sarcoma virus D Rabies virus
26. Bovine herpes virus -1 produces the following in cattle except
A Abortions B Mastitis
C Infectious bovine D Infectious pustular vulvovaginitis
rhinotracheitis
27 Vaccination with Herpes virus of Turkey (HVT) is used for the control of
A Fowl pox B Rabies
C Marek’s Disease D Infectious bronchitis
28. Blue Tongue virus has following properties except
18
A Belongs to Orbivirus B Genome is made up of 11

segments dsRNA
C Has icosahedral symmetry D Insect transmission
29. Avian influenza virus can be cultivated in embryonated eggs by which route
A Intravenous B CAM
C Yolk sac D Allantoic cavity
30. Presence of more than one genome in a virion is called
A Reassortment B Heteroploidy
C Recombination D Phenotypic mixing
19
IMMUNOLOGY
Dr. Ajit Singh

____________________________________________________________________
1. The following are good immunogens, except
I. Polyflagellin
II. Gelatin
III. Keyhole limpet hemocyanin
IV. Green fluorescent protein
2. Only one of the following is T dep Ag
I. Lipopolysaccharide
II. Dextran
III. Insulin
IV. Betamethasone
3. B epitopes are
I. Antigenic determinants recognized by B cells
II. Either linear sequences or conformational
III. 4-6 amino acids size on protein antigen
IV. All of the above
V. None of the above
4. Blood group antigens of animals are detected by
I. Fluorescent antibody test
II. Immunoelectrophoresis
III. Antiglobulin test
5. All non-self molecules are immunogens, except
I. Small inorganic salts
II. Gut normal microflora
III. Self-antigens accidentally released from the immune privileged sites
6. Antibody molecules perform effector functions by binding to
I. Antigen alone
II. Fc receptors on phagocytes
III. Fc receptors on natural killer cells
7. Mammalian IgG can be cleaved by
I. Trypsin
II. Chymotrypsin
III. Pepsin
20

8. Effector functions of antibody can be mediated by
I. Paratope
II. Fc fragment
III. CH2-CH3 interface
9. Ab diversity is achieved by
I. Gene knockout
II. Receptor recycling
III. Recombinational inaccuracies
IV. Epigenetic mechanisms
10. Antigen- antibody interactions involve
I. Ionic bonds
II. Hydrophobic interactions
III. Hydrogen bonds
11. Chicken IgY is a homologue of
I. Mammalian IgA
II. Xenopus IgM
III. Mammalian IgG
IV. Shark NARC
V. Camelid HCAb
12. C9 polymerization for MAC formation is inhibited by
I. Properdin
II. Factor H
III. Factor D
13. The anaphylatoxins produced during complement activation are
I. C2a4b
II. C3dg
III. C5b678
IV. C3a, C4a, C5a
14. Following is a pathway of complement activation
I. The lectin pathway
II. Hexose monophosphate shunt pathway
III. The respiratory burst pathway
IV. The signal transduction pathway
15. Biological effect of complement components
I. Cytolysis
21
II. Pro-inflammatory reaction

III. Regulation of immune responses
16. Lectin pathway of complement activation does not involve
I. C3 convertase (C4b2a) formation
II. Mannan-MBL complex formation
III. Membrane attack complex formation
IV. None of the above
V. All of the above
17. Allergic contact dermatitis is
I. Type I hypersensitivity
II. Diagnosed by P-K skin test
III. Triggered by Th1 response in sensitized animal
18. Type III hypersensitivities can be caused by
I. Repeated injections of therapeutic proteins
II. Injection of tuberculin
III. Exposure of skin to picric acid
19. Neonatal isoerythrolysis in foals is
I. An example of type II hypersensitivity
II. Preventable by vaccination
III. Treated by transfusing blood from the sire
IV. Diagnosed by passive cutaneous anaphylaxis
V. All of the above
20. Drugs and haptens can trigger
I. Type I hypersensitivity
II. Type II hypersensitivity
III. Type IV hypersensitivity
IV. None of the above
V. All of the above
21. Mast cell degranulation can be caused by
I. Allergens
II. Anti-IgE antibody
III. C3a, a complement component
IV. Calcium ionophores
V. All of the above
22. Final damage to blood vessels in an immune complex-mediated arthritis is caused by
I. Cytokines from T cells
II. Histamine
22
III. Lysosomal enzymes of PMN

IV. Cytotoxic T cells
23. Serine proteases of the alternate pathway of complement activation
I. C3bBb3bP
II. FB, FD and FI
III. C2, C1r, FB
IV. FB, FH, MCP
24. A set of complement control proteins/C regulators of the lectin pathway
I. Vitronectin, Clusterin, FH
II. C1INH, FI, CR1
III. CR2, MCP, CR4
IV. MBL, MASP1, MASP2
25. Potent vaccines
I. Contain Tdep immunogens
II. Contain both B epitopes and T epitopes
III. Induce class-switched immune response
26. Polymeric Igs
I. Invariably contain CH4 domain in their structure
II. Bind to pIgR for transport across mucosal surface
III. Contain 2-4 J chains linked by disulphide bonds
IV. Bind to FcγRI on macrophages
27. Target shock organs of acute systemic anaphylaxis in ruminants are
I. Lung and respiratory tract
II. Hepatic veins
III. Intestine and respiratory tract
IV. Skin and gut
28. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease in which
I. The damage is caused by a variant of type II hypersensitivity
II. Auto-Abs against acetyl choline receptor on motor endplates of striated muscles are
incriminated
III. Complement activation-mediated loss of AChRs occurs
KEY TO QUESTION No. 1-28

Q. NO. ANSWER Q. NO. ANSWER Q. NO. ANSWER Q. NO. ANSWER
1 II 8 IV 15 IV 22 I
2 III 9 III 16 IV 23 II
3 IV 10 IV 17 III 24 II
4 III 11 III 18 I 25 IV
5 I 12 V 19 I 26 II
6 IV 13 IV 20 V 27 I
7 IV 14 I 21 V 28 IV
23
INFLAMMATION, NECROSIS, GANGRENE, CALCIFICATION AND DEATH
Dr. Babu Lal Jangir

Department of Veterinary Pathology, COVS, LUVAS, Hisar.
____________________________________________________________________
Q. 1 Fifth cardinal sign of inflammation was given by

a. Cornelius Celsus
b. Rudolf Virchow
c. Louis Pasteur
d. All of the above
Q. 2 Which of the cellular events is first in chronological order in case of inflammatory process
a. Phagocytosis
b. Emigration
c. Margination
d. Adhesion
Q. 3 Which of the following inflammatory cells are originated from myeloid lineage
a. Neutrophils
b. Monocytes
c. Eosinophils
d. All of the above
Q. 4 Which of the following cells is non-phagocytic

a. Eosinophils
b. Macrophages
c. Basophils
d. Both a and c
Q. 5 Cart wheel-like arrangement of nuclear chromatin is observed in

a. Lymphocytes
b. Tuton giant cells
c. Plasma cells
d. Macrophages
Q. 6 In which of the following cells mirror image nuclei are observed

a. Tumour giant cell
b. Touton giant cell
c. Reed - Sternberg cells
d. Both b and c
Q. 7 Which of the following is not a newly synthesized chemical mediator of inflammation

a. Cytokines
24
b. Serotonin
c. Nitric oxide
d. Both a and b
Q. 8 Which of the following act as membrane attack complex

a. C3a and C5a
b. C3a and C3b
c. C5a and C5b
d. C5b-9
Q. 9 Leukotrienes are secreted by

a. Lymphocytes and Macrophages
b. Lymphocytes and Neutrophils
c. Neutrophils and Eosinophils
d. All of the above
Q. 10 which of the following are observed in fever

a. TNF α and IL-1
b. IL-1 and IL-6
c. TNF α, IL-1 and IL-6
d. TNF α and IL-6
Q. 11 which of the following is responsible for causing vasodilatation

a. Histamine
b. Prostaglandins
c. Nitric oxide
d. All of the above
Q. 12 Keratitis is inflammation of
a. Keratin
b. Conjunctiva
c. Cornea
d. None of the above
Q. 13 Spondylitis is defined as inflammation of

a. Ribs
b. Vertebrae
c. Spleen
d. Adipose tissue
Q. 14 Inflammation of tendon sheath is known as

a. Tendovaginitis
b. Tendosaculitis
c. Tendonitis
25
Q. 15 In which of the following necrosis there is absence of both architectural and cellular details
a. Coagulative and Caseative necrosis
b. Coagulative and Liquefactive necrosis
c. Caseative and Liquefactive necrosis
d. Fat necrosis
Q. 16 In Johne's disease in cattle and sheep which type of fat necrosis is observed
a. Traumatic fat necrosis
b. Nutritional fat necrosis
c. Pancreatic fat necrosis
Q. 17 Which of the following is the characteristic of apoptosis

a. Cell shrinkage and chromatin condensation
b. Membrane blebbing
c. Apoptotic body formation
d. All of the above
Q. 18 Which of the following is not as pro-apoptotic

a. Bax
b. Bcl-2
c. Bac
d. Bid
Q. 19 Which of the following is anaphlyotoxins

a. C3a
b. C5a
c. C3a and C3b
d. C3a and C5a
Q. 20 which of the following cells is known as second line of cellular defence

a. Neutrophils
b. Macrophages
c. Lymphocytes
d. Basophils
Q. 21 Which of the following necrosis is common in brain

a. Coagulative necrosis
b. Caseative necrosis
c. Liquefactive necrosis
d. All of the above
26
Q. 22 Which of the following caspases is initiator caspase

a. Caspase 3
b. Caspase 6
c. Caspase 7
d. Caspase 9
Q. 23 In coccidiosis which of the following inflammation is observed

a. Fibrinous inflammation
b. Serous inflammation
c. Haemorrhagic inflammation
d. Suppurative inflammation
Q. 24 No line of demarcation between live and dead tissue is observed in

a. Dry gangrene
b. Moist gangrene
c. Both a and b
Q. 25 Deposition of calcium occurs in soft tissue following hypercalcaemia is

a. Dystrophic calcification
b. Metastatic calcification
c. Both a and b
d. In such cases no calcification occurs
Q. 26 Formation of atherosclerotic plaques is an example of

a. Dystrophic calcification
b. Metastatic calcification
c. Both a and b
Q. 27 In which of the following diseases rigor mortis is either incomplete or absent

a. Haemorrhagic septicaemia
b. Caseous lymphadenitis
c. Anthrax
d. Brucellosis
Q. 28 In parasitic infections and allergic reactions which condition is observed

a. Neutrophilia
b. Eosinopaenia
c. Neutropaenia
d. Eosinophilia
27
Q. 29 Which of the following is not a post-mortem change

a. Algor mortis
b. Livor mortis
c. Rigor mortis
d. Liver mortis
Q. 30 Pseudomelanosis occurs due to

a. Formation of iron sulphate
b. Formation of lead sulphide
c. Formation of iron sulphide
d. Formation of lead sulphate
KEY
Q. No. Answer Q. No. Answer

Q. 1 b) Rudolf Virchow Q. 16 b) Nutritional fat necrosis
Q. 2 c) Margination Q. 17 d) All of the above
Q. 3 d) All of the above Q. 18 b) Bcl-2
Q. 4 c) Basophils Q. 19 d) C3a and C5a
Q. 5 c) Plasma cells Q. 20 b) Macrophages
Q. 6 c) Reed - Sternberg cells Q. 21 c) Liquefactive necrosis
Q. 7 b) Serotonin Q. 22 d) Caspase 9
Q. 8 d) C5b-9 Q. 23 c) Haemorrhagic inflammation
Q. 9 d) All of the above Q. 24 b) Moist gangrene
Q.10 c) TNF α, IL-1 and IL-6 Q. 25 b) Metastatic calcification
Q. 11 d) All of the above Q. 26 a) Dystrophic calcification
Q. 12 c) Cornea Q. 27 c) Anthrax
Q. 13 b) Vertebrae Q. 28 d) Eosinophilia
Q. 14 a) Tendovaginitis Q. 29 d) Liver mortis
Q. 15 c) Caseative and Liquefactive necrosis Q. 30 c) Formation of iron sulphide
28
ETIOLOGY OF DISEASE AND CONCEPT, EXTRINSIC AND INTRINSIC FACTORS;

ATROPHY AND HYPERTROPHY
Dr. Chandratre Gauri

Department of Veterinary Pathology, COVS, LUVAS, Hisar..
1. Supernatural theory of disease is based on
a. Evil force of the demons
b. Role of environment in disease causation
c. Koch’s postulates
2. Father of medicine is
a. Alexander Fleming
b. Hippocrates
c. Robert Koch
d. William Harvey
3. Father of modern pathology
a. Rudolph Virchow
b. Bichat
c. Hippocrates
d. None
4. Shrinkage in the size of the parenchymal cells by loss of cell substances in a well
developed organ or tissue
a. Hypertrophy
b. Atrophy
c. Dysplasia
d. Anaplasia
5. Diminished blood supply result into
a. Disuse atrophy
b. Neuropathic atrophy
c. Ischemic atrophy
d. Senile atrophy
6. Neuropathic atrophy is caused due to
a. Loss of innervation
b. Due to aging
c. Malnourishment
d. Hormonal imbalance
7. Enlargement of skeletal muscle of a sportsman is an example of
a. Endocrine hypertrophy
b. Compensatory hypertrophy
c. Bothe 1 & 2
d. None
29
8. Which of the following is an example of intrinsic factor

a. Bacteria
b. Virus
c. Fungus
d. Idiosyncrasy
9. Hyperplasia is
a. Increase in number of cells
b. Decrease in number of cells
c. Increase in size of cell after maturation
d. Abnormal change in morphology of cell
10. Examination of tissue removed from the living animal to determine cause of disease is
a. Necropsy
b. Biopsy
c. Morbidity
d. Both a and b
11. Melanosarcomas are very common in
a. Grey horses
b. Brown horses
c. Black horses
d. Both a and c
12. An unusual reaction to some substance like drug is
a. Idiosyncrasy
b. Anaphylaxis
c. Shock
d. Both a and c
13. Germ theory of disease is given by
a. Louis Pasteur
b. Bichat
c. Cornelius celsus
d. William Harvey
14. Phagocytosis discovered by
a. Elie Metechnikoff
b. John Hunter
c. John Mueller
d. None
15. Vitamin A deficiency results into
a. Urolithiasis
b. Goiter
c. Myxedema
d. Cushing syndrome
30
HELMINTHOLOGY
Dr. S. S. Grewal
Department of Veterinary Parasitology, COVS, LUVAS, Hisar.
Q. I. Write true/false against each of the following statements:

( ) 1. Eggs of tapeworm have hexacanth embryo.
( ) 2. Foetus in the womb of a mother is a parasite as it is metabolically dependent upon its mother.
( ) 3. The adult male of Schistosoma spp. lie permanently in a groove, the gynaecophoric canal, in the
body of female.
( ) 4. Aneurysm in anterior mesenteric artery in equines is seen due to infection of Strongylus equinus.
( ) 5. Praziquantel is the drug of choice for the treatment of schistosomosis in sheep.
( ) 6. Gravid segments of Taenia saginata are motile.
( ) 7. Niclosamide is the drug of choice for the treatment of echinococcosis in dogs.
( ) 8. Gravid segments of Dipylidium caninum are motile.
( ) 9. Schistosoma spp. are commonly known as blood flukes.
( ) 10. Water chestnut play an important role in transmission of Fasciolopsis buski.
Q. II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Vaccine against Ancylostoma caninum was developed by ________________ .
2. Rat tailed appearance in horses is caused by ________________.
3. Husk in cattle is caused by __________________.
4. ‘Measly pork’ is the condition caused by the metacestode __________________.
5. Detection of small, conical red flukes in diarrhoeic faeces of sheep confirms _________.
6. Cysticercus tenuicollis is the larval stage of __________________.
7. Dwarf tapeworm of horses is __________________.
8. Pipe stem liver in cattle is caused by ________________________.
9. A laying hen passing thin shelled eggs or eggs without shells is suffering from
__________________ (Name the trematode).
10. Triclabendazole is effective against mature and immature stages of __________________ in
sheep.
Q. IV. Encircle the correct answer from the followings:
i) Neurocysticercosis in human being is caused by:

a) Cysticercoid spp.
b) Coenurus spp.
c) Hydatid cyst
ii) Bottle jaw condition with foetid diarrhoea in sheep indicates the infection of:
a) Haemonchosis
b) Paramphistomosis
c) Fasciolosis
d) All of the above
31
iii) The nematode(s) transmitted by transmammary route of infection are:

a) Toxocara canis
b) Ancylostoma caninum
c) Strongyloides ransomi
d) All of the above
iv) Paramaphistomosis in sheep and goats is treated with the anthelmintic:
a) Praziquantel
b) Oxyclozanide
c) Albendazole
d) Levamisole hydrochloride
v) A dog drags its anus on the ground in case of:
a) Opisthorchiosis
b) Diphylobothriosis
c) Dipylidiosis
d) Echinococcosis
vi) Strobilocercus is the larval stage of:.
a) Taenia taeniaformis
b) Taenia hydatigena
c) Taenia pissiformis
vii) The intermediate host of Amoebotaenia sphenoides is:
a) Ant
b) Snails and slugs
c) Earthworm
d) Oribated mite
viii) Cucumber seed shape segments in the faeces of dog indicates the infection of:
a) Taenia saginata
b) Taenia solium
c) Dipylidium caninum
d) Echinococcus granulosus
ix) The most pathogenic stage of paramphistomes in domestic animals is:
a) Egg stage
b) Immature stage
c) Mature stage
d) Mature and immature stage
x) A mare brought to the clinic was having granular ulcers on limbs. There was intense itching in ulcers
and mare was trying to bite these. History revealed that the cutaneous lesions had a tendency to
increase and did not respond to ordinary treatment.
a) Draschia megastoma
b) Habronema megastoma
c) Habronema muscae
d) All of the above
32
Answer Key
Q. I
1. True
2. False
3. False
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. False
8. True
9. True
10. True
Q. II
1. T.A. Miller
2. Oxyuris equi
3. Dictyocaulus viviparus
4. Cycticercus cellulosae
5. Paramphistomes/ Amphistomes
6. Taenia Hydatigena
7. Paranoplocephala mamillana
8. Fasciola hepatica/F. gigantica
9. Prosthogonimus ovatus
10. Fasciola spp.
Q. III
1. d
2. d
3. d
4. b
5. c
6. a
7. c
8. c
9. b
10. d
33
ENTOMOLOGY AND ACAROLOGY
Dr. Snehil Gupta and Dr. S.K. Gupta

1. Insect faeces are known as

a) Frass
b) Poop
c) Dust
d) Coal
2. Spindle shaped eggs are seen in case of

a) Sarcoptes scabies
b) Psoroptesovis
c) Cheytiellaparasitivorax
d) Demodexcanis
3. Red mange in dog is caused by

a) Lynxacarusradovskyi
b) Demodexcanis
c) Sarcoptes scabies
d) Otodectescynotis
4. Rabbit fur mite is

a)Sarcoptes scabies
b) Psoroptesovis
c)Cheytiellaparasitivorax
d) Demodexcanis
5. Sarcoptesscabiei is not morphologically characterized by

a) Globose shape
b) Bell shaped suckers
c) Segmented pedicels
d) Terminal anus
6. Mite associated with ear canker in rabbit is
a) Psoroptescuniculi
b) Notoedrescati
c) Sarcoptesscabiei
d) Chorioptesbovis
7. Eyeless sand tampan is
a) Ornithodorosmoubata
34
b) Otobiusmegnini
c) Otodectescynotis
d) Ornithodorossavignyi
8. Brown ear tick is
a) Rhipicephalus sanguineus
b) Rhipicephalus evertsi
c) Rhipicephalus appendiculatus
d) All of the above
9. Species of mite which is visible with the naked eye is
a) Sarcoptes scabies
b) Psoroptesovis
c) Cheytiellaparasitivorax
d) Demodexcanis
10. Winter tick or moose tick is
a) Dermacentoroccidentalis
b) Dermacentornigrolineatus
c) Dermacentoralbipictus
d) Dermacentorvariabilis
11. Identify the odd one out
a) Amblyommavariegatum: Tropical bont tick

b) Amblyommaamericanum: Lone star tick
c) Amblyommamaculatum: Gulf coast tick
d) Amblyommacajennense: Brown winter tick
12. Tick paralysis is caused by
a) Ixodesholocyclus
b) Ixodesrubicundus
c) Argaspersicus
d) All of the above
13. Scrub typhus is transmitted by
a) Rickettsia tstusugamushi
b) Orientiatstusugamushi
c) Trombiculadelhiensis
d) All of the above
14. Gall sickness (Anaplasmamarginale) in cattle is transmitted by
a) Haemaphysalisbispinosa
35
b) Rhipicephalus (Boophilus) microplus

c) Hyalommaanatolicum
d) Amblyommavariegatum
15. Fly responsible for transmission ofTrypanosomatheilerito cattle is
a) Cuterebra emasculator
b) Hippobosca
c) Melophagusovinus
d) Stomoxyscalcitrans
16. Winter resting site ofHypodermabovisis
a) Oesophageal wall
b) Spinal canal
c) Subcutaneous tissue of basck
d) Perirenal fat
17. Lund’s fly is
a) Cordylobiarodhaini
b) Booponusintonsus
c) Auchmeromyialuteola
d) Polleniarudis
18. Hairy larvae are not seen in case of
a) Chrysomyiarufifacies
b) Chrysomyiaalbiceps
c) Microcalliphoravaripes
d) Chrysomyiamicropogon
19. The latrine fly responsible for urogenital myiasis is
a) Morelliaaenescens
b) Fanniascalaris
c) Stomoxyscalcitrans
d) Musca autumnalis
20. Trypanosomacruzi is transmitted by
a) Triatoma
b) Cimex
c) Haematopinustuberculatus
d) Ctenocephalidescanis
36
PROTOZOOLOGY
Dr. Snehil Gupta and Dr. S.K. Gupta

1. Equine protozoan myeloencephalitis (EPM) is caused by

e) Toxoplasma gondii
f) Neosporahughesi
g) Sarcocystisneurona
h) Both b and c
2. Test which is used to distinguish between Trypanosomabruceiand T. rhodesiense is

e) Card agglutination test (CAT)
f) Latex agglutination test (LAT)
g) Blood incubation infectivity test (BIIT)
h) Mice inoculation test
3. In vitro cultivation of Leishmania is carried out in

e) Microaerophilus stationary phase (MASP)
f) Balmuth media
g) Diamond’s media
h) Novy Mc Neal Nicolle Media (NNN)
4. Protozoan parasite which shows both pseudopodia and flagella during its life cycle stage is
a) Entamoebahistolytica
b) Naegleriafowleri
c) Histomonasmeleagridis
d) Both b and c
5. Most satisfactory immunodiagnostic test for Tritrichomonas foetus is

a) Capillary agglutination test
b) Cervical mucus agglutination test (CMAT)
c) Intradermal test
d) Cysteine-peptone liver extract maltose serum medium (CPLM)
6. Infectious catarrhal enteritis in turkey is caused by

a) Histomonasmeleagridis
b) Hexamitameleagridis
c) Heterakisgallinarum
d) Both a and b
7. Travellor’s diarrhoea with excess mucus formation and upset of fat metabolism is seen in case of
a) Entamoebahistolytica
b) Giardia lamblia
37
c) Eimeria necatrix
d) Eimeria tenella
8. Uninucleate cysts are seen in case of
a) Entamoebabovis
b) Entamoebabubalis
c) Entamoebasuis
d) All of the above
9. Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) in man is caused by

a) Naegleriafowleri
b) Hartmannella
c) Acanthamoeba
d) All of the above
10. Organ of penetration in apicomplexan protozoan parasite is

a) Micropyle
b) Dense granule
c) Rhoptries
d) Conoid
11. Eimeria species which affect the abomassum of sheep and goat is
a) Eimeria ahsata
b) Eimeria arlongi
c) Eimeria gilruthi
d) Eimeria granulosa
12. Intranuclear developmental stages occur in case of

a) Eimeria aubernensis
b) Eimeria alabamensis
c) Eimeria bukidnonensis
d) Eimeria bovis
13. Major pathogenic coccidium of cattle (winter coccidiosis) is

a) Eimeria bovis
b) Eimeria zuernii
c) Eimeria subspherica
d) Eimeria cylindrica
14. Most recently discovered protozoan parasite is

a) Besnoitiabesnoiti
b) Hammondiahammondi
c) Toxoplasma gondii
d) Neospora caninum
38
15. Coccidian parasite in which cyst forms exclusively in brain and spinal cord is
a) Sarcocystis
b) Frankelia
c) Toxoplasma
d) Besnoitia
16. Corneal opacity in dog is caused by

a) Babesia gibsoni
b) Hepatozooncanis
c) Trypanosomaevansi
d) Toxoplasma gondii
17. Olifantvel/ elephant hide in cattle is caused by

d) Neospora caninum
18. Abortion storm in cattle is seen in case of infection with

d) Neospora caninum
19. Intracellular extracytoplasmic protozoan parasite is

a) Cryptosporidium pavum
c) Wenyonellagallinae
d) Neospora caninum
20. Which of the following is ionophorous antibiotic?

a) Monensin
b) Lasolacid
c) Salinomycin
d) All of the above
39
GENERAL CLINICAL EXAMINATION OF DIFFERENT BODY SYSTEMS IN DOMESTIC

ANIMALS
Dr. Ricky Jhambh

Department of Veterinary Medicine, COVS, LUVAS, Hisar.
____________________________________________________________________
1. While history taking, it is generally best to take first

a. Patient data
b. Disease history
c. Management history
d. Any of the above
2. The following is not a component of outdoor environment of the animal
a. Topography
b. Soil type
c. Population density
d. Layout of animal house
3. Dummy syndrome in cattle is observed in
a. Subacute lead poisoning
b. Listeriosis
c. Acetonemia
d. All of the above
4. Frenzy behavior is a characteristic in
a. Rabies
b. Acute lead poisoning
c. Nervous acetonemia
d. All of the above
5. On palpation, if the structure quickly resumes its normal shape after pressure is removed, the
consistency is termed as
a. Resilient
b. Doughy
c. Fluctuating
d. Tense
6. The method of shaking the animal body from side to side while auscultating the abdomen for
evidence of fluid splashing or tinkling sounds is
a. Auscultation
b. Ballottement
c. Succussion
d. Tactile percussion
7. The type of respiration in horses is
a. Costal
b. Abdominal
c. Costo-abdominal
d. Any of the above
40
8. The ‘Gallop rhythm’ is normal in

a. Cattle
b. Horses
c. Sheep
d. Dog
9. The 3rd heart sound common in race horses is associated with
a. Atrial contraction
b. Closure of aortic/pulmonary valves
c. Closure of atrioventricular valves
d. Rapid filling of ventricle in early diastole
10. Ventral boundary of triangular lung area forms a shallow concavity on its anterodorsal aspect in
all species except
a. Cat
b. Cattle
c. Dog
d. Horses
11. The discontinuous, non-musical breath sounds over lungs as in exudative bronchopneumonia are
a. Crackles
b. Wheezes
c. Pleuritic friction sounds
d. Stertor
12. Silent lung is a characteristic feature in
a. Exudative pneumonia
b. Pleuritis
c. Pulmonary abscess
d. Tracheobronchitis
13. The following is not the normal sounds on auscultation of rumen in cattle
a. Exploding
b. Fluid splashing
c. Rasping
d. Rustling
14. An increase in the intensity and frequency of intestinal sounds in horses occurs in
a. Caecal impaction
b. Enteritis
c. Thromboembolic colic
d. All of the above
15. The color of rumen fluid in grain engorgement in cattle is
a. Dark green
b. Yellow brown
c. Milky gray
d. Greenish black
16. In late stages of necrosis of the gut wall, the color of peritoneal fluid is
a. Straw colored
b. Orange-green
41
c. Pink-red
d. Red-brown
17. Test (s) for eyesight in domestic animals is (are)
a. Menace reflex
b. Obstacle test
c. Both of the above
18. The sweet sickly smell of breath is a characteristic of
a. Acetonemia
b. Renal failure
c. Gangrenous pneumonia
d. All of the above
19. Abnormally frequent passage of urine is known as
a. Oliguria
b. Pollakiuria
c. Polyuria
d. Stranguria
20. Glycosuria in domestic animals is characteristic in
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Enterotoxemia
c. Tubular nephrosis
d. All of the above
21. The erythrocytes count/µl of synovial fluid in degenerative arthropathy ranges
a. < 4000
b. 4000-8000
c. 6000-12000
d. > 12000
22. Lateral deviation of vertebral column is termed as
a. Kyphosis
b. Lordosis
c. Opisthotonus
d. Scoliosis
23. Paraparesis is the function abnormality of
a. Both the thoracic limbs
b. Both the pelvic limbs
c. Thoracic and pelvic limb on same side
d. All the four limbs
24. The test to check the oculomotor nerve function is
a. Menace response test
b. Pupillary light reflex
c. Palpebral reflex
d. Corneal reflex
25. BAER testing is done to check the function of
a. Olfactory nerve
42
b. Optic nerve
c. Oculomotor nerve
d. Vestibulocochlear nerve
26. The normal leucocyte count in cerebrospinal fluid is usually
a. < 5 cells/µl
b. 6-49 cells/µl
c. 50-200 cells/µl
d. > 200 cells/µl
27. The following test is not applicable in detection of subclinical mastitis in dairy animals
a. California mastitis test
b. Electrical conductivity
c. Somatic cell count
d. Strip cup test
28. Weak positive reaction of California mastitis test corresponds to somatic cell count/ml of
quarter’s milk
a. 0-200000
b. 150000-500000
c. 400000-1500000
d. 800000-5000000
29. The following cells predominate in bovine mastitic milk
a. Epithelial cells
b. Lymphocytes
c. Macrophages
d. Neutrophils
30. Circumscribed solid elevation of the skin upto 1 cm diameter is termed as
a. Papule
b. Pustule
c. Nodule
d. Plaque
31. The following is not a primary lesion of skin in domestic animals
a. Macule
b. Papule
c. Nodule
d. Scale
Answers:
1-b 2-d 3-d 4-d 5-a 6-c 7-c 8-b 9-d 10-b 11-a 12-c 13-b
14-b 15-c 16-d 17-c 18-a 19-b 20-d 21-c 22-d 23-b 24-b 25-d 26-a
27-d 28-c 29-d 30-a 31-d
43
IMPORTANT INFECTIOUS DISEASES AFFECTING DIFFERENT BODY SYSTEMS OF

DOMESTIC ANIMALS IN RESPECT TO EPIDEMIOLOGY, CLINICAL SYMPTOMS,
DIAGNOSIS, TREATMENT AND CONTROL-Part 1
Dr. Divya Agnihotri

Veterinary Clinical Complex, COVS, LUVAS, Hisar.
____________________________________________________________________
Fill in the blanks
1. ______________ and ___________________ are the most common clinical signs exhibited by
the animals suffering from theileriosis.
2. Theileria sporozoites are present in ______________, schizonts are present in
_________________________ and piroplasms are present in _________________.
3. Bovine Tropical theileriosis is a tick borne_________________ disease of cattle, sheep and goats
caused by _____________ and _________________ respectively.
4. HVT vaccine is given in poultry at ____________ of age for protection
against_____________________.
5. Characteristic lesion of NCD is the formation of hemorrhagic ulcers in_____________________.
6. Normal chloride content in cattle milk is______________ percent.
7. Threshold level of Somatic Cell Count in milk is ___________________.
8. Velogenic viscerotropic Ranikhet disease can be differentiated from
________________________.
9. COFAL test is used for the diagnosis of______________________ disease in poultry.
10. Serological test conducted for the diagnosis of pullorum disease in poultry
is________________________.
11. Vaccination in canine against ICH (Canine Adeno virus –I) also gives cross protection against
____________________.
12. Canine Parvo virus is antigenically related with _________________.
13. ________________ disease can be controlled by controlling the rodent population.
14. Winter spring disease of feed lot cattle or housed cattle, fed poor quality silage
is___________________________.
15. Viral disease of swine transmitted through tick bite is ______________________.
16. Listeric Encephalitis occurs due to inflammation of __________________ which causes
unilateral facial paralysis in ruminants.
17. Abortions in animals occur in Leptospirosis as in _________________,
_____________________ and _____________________.
18. Classical Swine fever virus is antigenically similar to ___________________ and
_________________.
19. Hypersensitivity test done for the diagnosis of Glanders in horses is ____________________
20. F.M.D. is mainly manifested with fever, __________________ in mouth and ____________ and
occasionally on udder and teat with high morbidity and low mortality.
21. F.M.D. virus is _____________ to common disinfectants.
22. Diseases of viral etiology affecting canine are ______________, _________________
and _______________________.
44
23. The virus causing Canine Parvo infection has predeliction for ____________________ of
intestines where it multiplies.
24. A transient opacity of eyes seen in the clinical cases of ICH is called ______________.
25. Salmonellosis of animals can be differentiated from ________________ & _________________.
26. Leptospirosis is also called as _____________________ disease of calves.
27. Swine Erysipelas is also called as ________________ and is characterized
by________________________ and ____________________ in its chronic form.
28. In Swine fever ____________ lesions are pathognomonic.
29. African swine fever is transmitted through tick _________________ (name) bite.
30. Hemorrhagic Septicemia is also known as ________________________ as it causes oedema of
neck and severe dyspnoea.
Answers of fill in the blanks:
1. Anaemia, fever, lymphadenopathy 16.trigeminal nerve

2. Salivary glands, lymphocytes/lymph nodes, 17. Campylobacteriosis, Brucellosis, Trichomoniasis
RBC’s
3. haemoprotozoan, T. annulata and 18. Border disease of sheep and BVD

T. hirsi
4. 1day old, Marek’s disease 19. Mallein test
5. caeco-colic junctions 20. vesicles, feet
6. <0.14 g/dl 21. resistant
7. 22. CPV, CDV, Rabies

<100,000 cells/ml
8. Avian Influenza 23. Payer’s patches
9. Avian Leucosis 24. Pearl eyes
10. Rapid slide plate agglutination test 25. Colibacillosis, campylobacterosis

BVD, coccidiosis
11. CAV-II 26. Red water disease
12. Feline pan leucopenia virus 27. diamond skin disease, endocarditis and arthritis
13. Leptospirosis 28. Button ulcers
14. Listeriosis 29. Ornithodorus moubata
15. African swine fever 30. Gal ghotu
45
IMPORTANT INFECTIOUS DISEASES AFFECTING DIFFERENT BODY SYSTEMS OF

DOMESTIC ANIMALS IN RESPECT TO EPIDEMIOLOGY, CLINICAL SYMPTOMS,
DIAGNOSIS, TREATMENT AND CONTROL - Part 2
Dr. Divya Agnihotri

Veterinary Clinical Complex, COVS, LUVAS, Hisar.
____________________________________________________________________
1. One of the following diseases is also called as ‘Scrofula’’:

i) Mastitis
ii) Tuberculosis
iii) Ranikhet disease
iv) Fowl plague
2. “Strauss test’’ is done for the diagnosis of which of the following disease:
i) Tuberculosis
ii) Strangles
iii) Glanders
iv) Actinobacillosis
3. Anaplasmosis can be transmitted by
i) Ticks
ii) Flies
iii) Blood Transfusion
iv) All of the above.
4. Foal Enterotoxaemia is caused by Clostridium perfringens
i) Type B only
ii) Type C only
iii) Type B and Type C
iv) None of the above
5. In following diseases majority of symptoms appears because of neurotoxins:
i) Tetanus
ii) Enterotoxaemia
iii) Both of the above
6. Pododermatitis due to ringworm is common in
i) Dogs
ii) Swine
iii) Equines
7. Coccidiodomycosis mainly occurs in
i) Dogs
ii) Horses
iii) Cattle
iv) Camel
46
8. One of the following organisms is known to cause ‘Coliform mastitis’ in animals:

i) Streptococcus agalactiae
ii) Staphylococcus aureus
iii) E. coli
iv) Corynebacterium pyogenes
9. Avian leucosis virus induces the following non lymphoid tumors except:
i) Lymphoid leucosis
ii) Erythroblastosis
iii) Myeloblastosis
iv) Osteopetrosis
10. COFAL test is used for the diagnosis of which of the following diseases:
i) Avian Influenza
ii) Infectious Bronchitis
iii) Lymphoid Leucosis
iv) New Castle disease
11. Marek’s disease gets transmitted through one of the following means:
i) Direct contact
ii) Eggs
iii) Inhalation
iv) Faeco- oral route
12. Liver in the poultry shows copper discoloration in which of the following diseases:
i) Pullorum disease
ii) Fowl typhoid
iii) NCD
iv) Lymphoid Leukosis
13. Pullorum disease of poultry is not transmitted through the following means
i ) Faeco-oral route
ii) Carriers
iii) Inhalation
iv) Eggs
14. Characteristically “Darting motility” under dark field microscopy is shown by which of the
following organism:
i) Streptoccocus agalactiae
ii) Campylobacter jejuni
iii) Leptospira pomona
iv) Pseudomonas aerugenosa
15. Which of the following diseases is also called as ‘Big Liver Disease’?
i) Anthrax
ii) Leptospirosis
iii) Lymphoid Leucosis
iv) Fowl typhoid
16. Coenuriasis is also known as
i) Gid
ii) Staggers
47
iii) All of the above

17. Tetanus in animals is characterized by:
i) Hyperesthesia
ii) Tetany
18. Amphistomiasis is also known as:
i) Liver fluke disease
ii) Rumen Fluke disease
iii) Lung Fluke Disease
iv) All of the above
19. For the treatment of Nematodes, following can be given:
i) Ciprofloxacin
ii) Chloramphenicol
iii) Gentamycin
20. Enterotoxaemia leads to:
i) Hypoproteinemia
ii) Anaemia
iii) None of the above
21. Enterotoxaemia is caused by:
i) Clostridium perfringens type D
ii) Clostridium perfringens type C
22. ‘Shakers foal syndrome’ is a:
i) Fungal disease
ii) Parasitic disease
iii) Bacterial disease
iv) Viral disease
23. In case of Anthrax:
i) Dogs and cats are quite resistant
ii) Sheep and goat are resistant
iii) Horses and Donkeys are resistant
24. Tapeworm infestation is considered to be a very serious concern in :
i) Dogs and Cats
ii) Cattle
25. In cases of the Lung worm infestation, diagnosis can be done by:
i) Faecal examination
48
ii) Blood examination

iii) None of the above
iv) All of the above
26. Which of the following clinical findings is incorrect in context of Leptospirosis?
(a) Hemoglobinuria
(b) Ictrus
(c) Pearl eye
(d) Renal failure
27. Which of the following is not related with Brucellosis?
(a) Hygroma
(b) Abortion storms
(c) Circling
(d) Infertility
28. Which of the following is incorrect in context of ICH?
(a) CAV-1
(b) Rubarth’s disease
(c) Pearl eye
(d) Undulating fever
29. Which of the following clinical findings is incorrect in context of Listeriosis?
(a) Menningioencephlitis
(b) Unilateral facial paralysis
(c) Circling
(d) Infllammation of tongue
30. Which of the following statement is true for Anthrax?
(a) Splenomegaly
(b) Kidneys have ‘Turkey egg appearance’.
(c) G-ve coccobacilli
(d) Jaundice and anaemia
31. Which of the following observations is true for Canine Distemper?

(a) Hyperkeratinisation of foot pads.
(b) Saddle shaped curve
(c) Abortions
(d) Apparent blindness
32. Which of the following is incorrect in context of Swine Fever?
(a) RNA virus
(b) Button ulcers
(c) Antigenically related with BVD and PPR
(d) Turkey egg appearance of kidneys
33. Anthrax is transmitted through the following means:
(a) Inhalation
(b) Percutaneus route
(c) Ingestion
(d) None of the above
49
(e) All of the above

34. Which of the following is not related with Actinobacillosis?
(a) Unilateral facial paralysis
(b) Abrasive pastures
(c) Glossitis
(d) Iodides
35. Which of the following diseases is not zoonotic?
(a) Leptospirosis
(b) Salmonellosis
(c) African swine fever
(d) Swine Erysipelas
36. CNS is not affected in which of the following disease?
(a) Canine Parvo virus
(b) Rabies
(c) ICH
(d) Canine Distemper
37. Laboratory tests for Equine infectious anemia diagnosis include
a) Coggin’s test
b) ELISA
c) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
d) All of above
e) None of above
38. Which of the following diseases of horses is zoonotic?
(a) Strangles
(b) EIA
(c) African Horse Sickness
(d) Glanders
(e) None of the above
(f) All of the above
39. Bovine Viral Diarrhea is an infectious disease of cattle caused by a virus & manifested clinically by
a) Acute erosive stomatitis
b) Gastro-enteritis
c) Diarrhea
d) All of above
e) None of above
40. Which of the following statement is incorrect in context of H.S.?
(a) Etiological agent is Pasteurella multocida type 1.
(b) Stress is the predisposing factor in disease causation.
(c) ‘Pleuritic frictional rubs’ are observed on auscultation of lungs.
(d) Brisket oedema is the main clinical observation.
50
Answers:
1. ii) 21. iii) 41.) e) 61)d
2. iii) 22. iii) 42. c) 62)d
3. iv) 23. i) 43. c) 63)d
4. iii) 24. iii) 44. c) 64)d
5. i) 25. i) 45. a) 65)d
6. iv) 26. c) 46. c) 66) c
7. i) 27. c) 47. c) 67) d
8. iii) 28. d) 48. c) 68)a
9. iv) 29. d) 49. c) 69)a
10. iii) 30. a 50. d) 70)e
11. iii) 31. a) 51. c) 71)e
12. ii) 32. a) 52. b) 72)e
13. iii) 33. e) 53. c) 73)a
14. iii) 34. a) 54. a) 74)a
15. iii) 35. c) 55. d) 75)d
16. iii) 36. a) 56. d) 76)c
17. iii) 37. a) 57. d) 77)e
18. i) 38. d) 58. d) 78)a
19. iv) 39 d) 59) d 79)a
20. iv) 40. c) 60) d)
51
VETERINARY OBSTETRICS
Dr. Sandeep Kumar

Dept. of Veterinary Gynacology and Obstetrics, COVS, LUVAS, Hisar.
____________________________________________________________________
1. Angle of croup is formed by

a.Tuber coxae
b. Tuber sacrale
c. Tuber ischii
d. All
2. Pygopagus monsters are connected at
a. Sternum
b. thorax
c. sacrum
d. ishium
3. Adventitious placenta is commonly observed in
a. hydroamnios
b. hydroallantois
c. both
d. none
4. superfetation is suspected when
a. foetuses of very different size are born together
b. when 2 fetuses are born at widely separated time
c. both
d. none
5. Dystocia can occurs by
a. underfeeding
b. overfeeding
c. both
d. none
6. Most common cause of dystocia in cow is
a. abnormal presentation position and posture
b. primary uterine inertia
c. incomplete dilation of cervix
d. feto-maternal pelvic disproportion
7. Estrogen administration at day 1-3 of mating prevents pregnancy establishment by
a. Interfering with ovicidal transport of embryo
b. preventing closure of cervix
c. causing luteolysis
d. all of above
52
8. Dropsy of fetal sac is mostly observed in cow at

a. 1st trimester
b. 2nd trimester
c. 3rd trimester
d. none
9. Most severe presentation is
a. vertex
b. nape
c. poll
d. all
10. Primary uterine inertia is a common cause of dystocia in
a. old bitch
b. sow
c. bitch
d. all
11. Primary uterine inertia in bitch can be treated by
a. Ca therapy
b. Oxytocin
c. feathering
d. all
12. Epidural anaesthesia is a
a. nerve block
b. spinal anaesthesia
c. both
d. none
13. kuhn’s obstetrical crutch is used for
a. retropulsion
b. version
c. traction
d. rotation
14. Version is usually limited to
a. 90 degree
b. 180 degree
c. 270 degree
d. 360 degree
15. In cow, decision to perform a caesarean operation must be ideally taken when a live fetus
cannot be delivered after manipulation of
a. 15-20 min.
b. 30-60 min.
c. 1-2 hrs
d. 2-4 hrs
53
16. To deliver live pups , caesarean section is performed under

a. thiopentone
b. pentobarbitone
c. acepromazine
d. diazepam + local anaesthesia
27. Removal of head at atlanto – occipital articulation is
a. decapitation
b. decollation
c. cephalotomy
d. all
18. In caslicks operation , we perform closure of
a. 1/3 lower part of vulva
b. 1/3 upper part of vulva
c. 2/3 lower part of vulva
d. ¾ upper part of vulva
19. Foot nape posture is most commonly observed in
a. bovine
b. equine
c. ovine
d. caprine
20. Obturator paralysis is most commonly observed in
a. bovine
b. equine
c. ovine
d. caprine
21. To relieve right uterine torsion, animal should be laid on right side and rolled in
a. right direction
b. left direction
c. any direction
d. none
22. Peroneal paralysis leads to
a. knuckling of fetlock
b. dropping of hock
c. difficulty in standing
d. all of above
23. Vaginal cystocoel is most common observed in
a. cow
b. sow
c. mare
d. bitch
24. Twinning in eve is usually associated with
a. pregnancy toxaemia
b. mastitis-metritis agalactia
c. postparturient hemoglobinuria
d. subinvolution of placental sites
25. Conceptus is most susceptible to teratogens during
54
a. period of zygote
b. period of embryo
c. period of fetus
d. all
26. Amosphus globosus is an imperfect zygote of
a. monozygotic twins
b. dizygotic twins
c. both
d. none
27. In transverse dorsal presentation, position of fetus is
a. dorso sacral
b. dorso pubic
c. cephalo ilial
d. cephalo pubic
28. Iodine deficiency in sows or the administration of thiourecil to produce hypothyroidism
results into
a. reduced gestation length
b. prolonged gestation length
c. no effect on gestation length
d. either prolonged or reduced
29. Mare is more responsive to oxytocin for termination of pregnancy because
a. mare has high level of estrogen during pregnancy hence more oxytocin receptors
b. mare has high level of eCG during pregnancy hence more oxytocin receptors
c. both
d. none
30. Deviation of head and neck is commonly observed in all species except
a. mare
b. buffalo
c. goat
d. pig
31. Breech presentation is
a. anterior longitudinal
b. posterior longitudinal
c. transverse ventral
d. transverse dorsal
32. Mineral present in carboxy methylcellulose lubricant is
a. sodium
b. potassium
c. magnesium
d. calcium
33. Most preferred approach of caesarean operation for removal of an emphysematous fetus is
a. left flank approach
b. ventrolateral approach
c. right flank approach
d. right paralumbar approach
55
INFERTILITY AND STERILITY
Dr. Ravi Dutt

Dept. of Veterinary Gynaecology & Obstetrics, COVS, LUVAS, Hisar.
1. In freemartinism, vascular anastomosis occurs as early as

a) 10 days of gestation
b) 30 days of gestation
c) 45 days of gestation
d) 60 days of gestation
Answer: b
2. In white heifers disease, ovaries are

a) Hypoplastic
b) Cystic
c) Normal
d) Absent
Answer:c
3. Persistent corpus luteum have been reported in

a) Mummification
b) Pyometra
c) Chronic endometritis
d) All
Answer: d
4. PSP dye test should be performed during
a) Follicular phase
b) Luteal phase
c) Both a & b
d) On the day of estrus
Answer: b
5. The blood level of progesterone in anestrus is

a) Above 1 ng/ml (High)
b) Below 1ng/ml (low)
c) Depends on season
d) All of the above
Answer: b
6. Predominant organism found in canine pyometra is

a) Archanobacterium
b) E.Coli
c) Corynebacterium
d) Streptococcus
Answer: b
56
7. Cabergoline causes termination of pseudopregnancy by

a) Regression of CL
b) Decreasing progesterone
c) Decreasing prolactin
d) All
Answer: c
8. Pseudopregnancy in bitch is characterized by

a) Extended luteal phase
b) Vulval phase
c) Mammary gland receding
d) Extended time for mating
Answer: a
9. Rosette inhibition test is used to diagnose

a) Ovarian dysfunction
b) Tubal patency
c) Endometritis
d) Pregnancy
Answer: d
10. Post coital pyometra is characterstic of

a) Campylobacteriosis
b) Trichomoniasis
c) Brucellosis
d) Leptospirosis
Answer: b
11. Testicular determining factor (TDF) is expressed by

a) Sertoli cell
b) Leydig cell
c) Germ cell
d) Myoid cells
Answer: a
12. Seminal vesicle of stallion is

a) Lobulated
b) Oval
c) Elongated pear shaped
d) Absent
Answer: c
13. Flehman’s reaction does not occur in

a) Boar
b) Stallion
c) Ram
57
d) Buffalo bull
Answer: a
14. The length and diameter of French medium straw are

a) 133 mm, 4.2 mm
b) 133 mm, 2 mm
c) 133 mm, 2.9 mm
d) 133 mm, 2.8 mm
Answer: d
15. Match the options from column B against column A

Column A Answer Column B
1 Fast freezing A Solution effect
2 Slow freezing B Epididymis
3 Halo cells C Refractory period
4 Peg cells D Intra- cellular ice crystals
5 Coolidge effect E Oviduct
6 Honey moon back F Young bulls
Answer: 1-D , 2-A , 3-B , 4-E , 5-C , 6-F
58
ANAESTHEAISA
Dr. R. N. Chaudhary
Department of Veterinary Surgery and Radiology, COVS, LUVAS, Hisar
_________________________________________________________________________________
1. Lower eyelid is desensitized by
A).Infraorbital nerve block B). Supraorbital nerve block
C) Auriculopalpebral nerve block D) Retrobulbar nerve block
2. Which of the following anaesthetic is having comparatively short induction time and
duration of action
A) Ketamine B) Pentobarbitone C) Propofol D) chloral hydrate
3. Ventro medial rotation of eye ball is seen in following stage of general anesthesia
A) Stage of voluntary excitement B) Stage of Involuntary excitement
C) First plain of third stage D) Third plain of third stage
4. Dose of ketamine recommended for anesthesia in dogs is

A) 8 to 15 mg/kg B.W B) 0.5mg/kgB.W. C) 0.05 to 0.11 mg/kg B.W. D) 1 mg/kg B.W.
5. Which of the following feature is seen with thiopentone anaesthesia

A) Diffusion hypoxia B) Glucose effect
C) Muscle relaxation D) Analgesic effect
6. Hypotension, respiratory depression are commonly seen with following anaesthesia

A) Ether B) Ketamine C)Xylazine D) Nitrous Oxide
7. Which of the following species is more sensitive to xylazine

A) Pig B) Horse C) Dog D)Buffalo
8. Which of the following anaesthetic is associated with diffusion hypoxia

A) Halothane B) Ether C) Isoflurane D) Nitrous oxide
9 Which of the following is the most common feature of diaphragmatic hernia in buffalo
A) Impaction of rumen B) Chronic recurrent Tympany
C) Leukocytosis and shift to left D) Brisket oedema
10. Common site of obstruction due to calculi in dog is

A) Urinary bladder B) Sigmoid flexure
C) Glans penis D) Caudal to ospenis
59
11. Preferred incision for castration in dog is

A) Midline postscrotal B) Midline prescrotal
C) Scrotal ablation D) Ischial incision
12. Preferred surgical approach for ovariohysterectomy in dog is

A) Cranial ventral midline approach B) Caudal ventral midline approach
C) Caudal paramedian D) Paracostal approach
13. Preferred approach for splenectomy in dog is
A) Caudal midline approach B) Left Flank approach
C) Caudal Paramedian approach D) Left paracostal approach
14. Suture size used for closure of skin in cow is
A) No.2 B) No.3-0 C) No.1-0 D) No.2-0
15. Preferred method of treatment for avulsion fracture is

A) Interfragmentary wiring B) hemicirclage wiring
C) tension band wiring D) Circlage wiring
16. Radiological sign of Non union of fracture is

A)External bridging callous B) Fracture line not visible, medullary cavity reestablished
C) fracture line not visible and obliterated with callous
D) Rounding of fracture ends with large radiolucent line
17 Rotation of third phalanx is a radiological sign of

A) Quittor B) Side bone C) Chronic laminitis D) Navicular disease
18. Scattered radiation can be minimized by using following device during radiography
A) Aluminium filter B) Cassette C) Grid D ) Rotatary anode
19. Fixing time followed during processing of radiograph is

A) 10 mts B) 30 mts C) 2 mts D) 10 sec
20. Following suture material is having best handling characteristics

A) Cotton B) Silk C) Nylon D) Stainless steel
21. Deminiralization of teeth is noticed in

A) Dental tartar B) Dental plaque C) Dental caries D) Periodontal disease
22. Horn caner is common in

A) Bulls B) Buffaloes C) Cows D) Bullocks
60
23. Proptosis refers to

A) Displaced eyeball out of the orbital cavity B) Perforated cornea
C) Prolapse of iris D) Continuous lacrimation
24. Tarsorraphy refers to

A) Suturing of eye ball B) Suturing of eye lid
C) Suturing of tarsal gland D) Suturing of tendon
25) Hernia present on right lateral abdominal region in goat due to trauma can be referred as
A) Lateral hernia B) Ventral hernia C) Perineal hernia D) Umbilical hernia
ANSWER KEY
1 C 2 C 3 C 4 A 5 B 6 C 7 D 8 D 9 B 10 D 11 B 12 B 13 D
14 A 15 C 16 D 17 C 18 C 19 A 20 C 21 C 22 D 23 A 24 B 25 B
61
VETERINARY SURGERY & RADIOLOGY –Part 1
Dr. R. N. Chaudhary
_________________________________________________________________________________
(Part A)
1. Which of the following anaesthetic causes diffusion hypoxia

A. Halothane B. Ether C. Nitrous Oxide D. Isofluorane
2. Which of the following is less rapidly acting intravenous anesthetic
A. chloral hydrate B. Ketamine C. Propofol D. Tiletamine
3. Following is a method of low flow anaesthesia in which the fresh gas flow equals uptake of
anaesthetic gases by the patient.
A. Closed circle system B. Open system
C. semi closed system D. Semi open system
4.Following is longer acting antisialogague anticholinergic which does not penetrate
placental barrier and can be recommended for caesarean in bitch.
A. Atropine B. Pilocarpine C. Glycopyrrolate D. Scopalamine
5. Fatty meal before thiophental anaesthesia causes

A. Increased requirement of thiophental B. Significant reduction in sleeping time
C. Increase in sleeping time D.Excitement and difficulty in induction
6.With thiophental anaesthesia, endotracheal tube is passed in
A. First Stage of anaesthesia B. Second Stage of anaesthesia
C. Third Stage of anaesthesia D. Fourth stage of anaesthesia
7. Romifidine causes
A. Sedation B. Sedation, analgesia
C. Sedation, analgesia, muscle relaxation, hypotension, bradycardia
D. Sedation., analgesia, hypertension and tachycardia
8. Recommended non toxic topical anaesthesia for examination and minor surgery of eye in
ruminants is
A. 0.5% proparacaine hcl B. 4% xylocaine hcl
C. Tetracaine hcl D. Mepivacaine hcl
9) Chloral hydrate is a
A. good analgesic B. good anaesthetic but weak analgesic
C. good hypnotic but poor anaesthetic D. good anaesthestic and analgesic
10) Which of the following local anaesthetic is less potent

A. Lignocaine B. Procaine C. Bupivacaine D. Mepavacaine
11) Which of the tranqulizer/sedative in horses causes paralysis of penis
62
A. Detomidine B. Diazepam C. Propriopramazine D. Droperidol
12) Following is the most significant symptom of intususception in bullock

A. Diarrhoea B. Blood and mucous in rectum
C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Dehydration, anorexia, sunken eye ball
13) Most common site for oesophagatomy in buffaloes is
A. Proximal cervical, left lateral B. Mid or distal cervical, left lateral
C. Proximal cervical, mid ventral D. Mid or distal cervical, mid ventral
14) Most common acid base imbalance noticed in bladder rupture of bullock is
A. Metabolic alkalosis, hypokalemia, hypocalcemia, hyponatraemia
B. Metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, hyponatraemia
C. Respiratory alkalosis, and increased bicarbonate
D. Respiratory acidosis, increased bicarbonate, hyperkalemia
15) Common site of calculi obstruction in horse is
A. Urinary bladder B. Pelvic urethra C. Glans penis D. Kidney
16) Following exposure factor is most useful in diagnosis of diaphragmatic hernia in buffalo
A. 50 mAS, 50 KVp B. 80 mAS, 70 KVp
C. 90 mAS, 90 KVp D. 30 mAS, 80 KVp
17) Preferred approach for surgical treatment of chronic obstructive balonoposthitis in
bullock is
A. Midline postscrotal B. Midline incision from prepuce to glans penis
C. Midline incision on glans penis D. Paramedian
18)Following radiographic signs are seen in osteomedullography following 4 months after
healed fracture repair using bone plating
A. Presence of contrast material in surrounding soft tissue around the fracture site
B. Uptake of contrast agent by lymphatics
C. Uptake of contrast agent by arteries of proximal and distal fragment
D. Uptake of contrast agent by veins from distal fragement and passing of
contrast agent into Proximal fragment
19) Following nerve block is done for insertion of nose ring in bullock
A. Infraorbital B. Supraorbital C. Linear infiltration D. Mental nerve block
20) Suture size used for closure of uterus in cow is

A. No.2 B. No.4 C. No.1-0 D. No.2-0
21) Atresia ani are not common in

A. Foals B. cow calves C. kids D. Buffalo calves
22) Champignon means
A. streptococcal infection of spermatic cord in ligated cords after open castration
63
B. Accumulation of peritoneal fluid in tunica vaginalis

C. Infection of t. vaginalis and granulomatous fibrous proliferation and draining tract
D. Proud cut horse
23) During fracture repair, following has a tendency to slip down if bone is not uniform
A. External skeletal fixation B. Hemicirclage wiring
C. Tension band wiring D. Circlage wiring
24) Earliest sign of infectious arthritis seen in radiograph is

A. Osteolytic distruction of subchondral bone
B. Synovial effusion and widening of joint space
C. Reduced radiolucent joint space
D. Osteophyte formation
25) Pectineal myotomy is indicated for
A. Dislocation of hip B. Hip dysplasia
C. Elbow dislocation D. Dislocation of pubis
ANSWER KEY
1C 8A 15 A
2A 9C 16 C
3A 10 B 17 B
4D 11 C 18 D
5C 12 B 19 A
6C 13 B 20 A
7C 14 A 21 A
22 A 23 D 24 B 25 B
(Part B)
1. Father of Veterinary radiology is

(a) W.C. Roentgen (b) Richard Eberlin (c) Kingsman (d) Bucky
2. Contrast radiography of nasolacrimal duct is known as

(a) Rhinography (b) Cystography (c) Dacrocystorhinography (d) Sialography
3. Quality controller in X-ray machine is

(a) mA (b) mAs (c) KVP (d) Time factor
4. The Quantity of X-ray output in X-ray machine is determined by

(a) KVP (b) mA (c) mAs (d) FFD
5. The motion un-sharpness during radiography are prevented by
64
(a) Fixing the head tube (b) Anaestheting the patient

(c) Placing cassette in stable position (d) All the above
6. The preservative used for preventing oxidation of developer and fixer is
(a) Sodium Sulphate (b) Sodium Sulphite
(c) Sodium Carbonate (d) Aluminum Hydroxide
7. Low contrast radiography is also known as
(a) Mottled Radiograph (b) Long Scale of Contrast
(c) Short Scale of Contrast (d) Lack of Contrast
8. The cleft palate condition is common in
(a) Burmese Cat (b) Black Bengal Cat
(c) Siamese Cat (d) Mongrel Cat
9. Sebaceous cyst in false nostril is known as
(a) Acne (b) Ranula (c) Honey Cyst (d) Atheroma
10. The technique used to make an aged horse to appear young by creating infundibular
marks artificially is known as
(a) Quidding (b) Bishopping (c) Jabote d) Marsupilization
11. Localized inflammation of hair follicles of eye lashes is known as
(a) Hardolium (b) Stye (c) Frunculosis (d) Boil
12. Inflammation of irise, ciliary body and choroid is known as
(a) Iriditis (b) Cyclitis (c) Choroidits (d) Uveitis
13. Inflammation of mucus membrane of hard palate is known as

(a) Palatoschisis (b) Cheiloschisis (c) Lampas (d) Gnathitis
14. The opacity of lens is known as
(a) Nebula (b) Macula (c) Amblyoma (d) Cataract
15. Abnormal retraction of eye ball into the cavity is known as
(a) Exopthalmia (b) Enopthalmia (c) Micropthalmia (d) Squint
16. The density of radiograph is directly related to
(a) mAs (b) Developing Time (c) Developer Temperature (d) All the above
17. The frequency of ultra sound probe used for large animals is
(a) 7.5 MHz. (b) 10 MHz. (c) 2.5 MHz. (d) 5 MHz.
18. Hobdaying is done for correction of
(a) Hyoid Fracture (b) Roaring (c) Chondroid (d) Uvulus
19. Blephritis is the inflammation of
(a) Cornea (b) Lens (c) Conjunctiva (d) Eye Lids
20. Ameloblastoma is the tumour arising from
(a) Gum (b) Dentine (c) Cementine (d) Ameloblast
21. Cleft palate is common in
(a) Chondrodystrophic Breed (b) Chondrohypertrophic Breed
(c) Great Dane Breed (d) Mastiff Breed
65
22. The chemical used for disbudding is

(a) 10% Calcium Chloride (b) 10% Calcium Carbonate
(c) 10% Zinc Chloride (d) Caustic Potash
23. Contrast radiography of the spinal cord is known as
(a) Discography (b) Myelography `(c) Medulography (d) Pyelography
24. Brachygnathism
(a) Mandible is short (b) Maxilla is short
(c) Mandible and Maxilla are equal (d) Sow Mouth
25. In diagnostic radiography the scatter radiation produce
(a) Compton effect (b) Fluroscent effect
(c) Incandisence effect (d) Sharpness effect
26. The enlargement of stomach associated with rotation on its mesenteric axis
(a) GDV (b) Pyloric Obstruction (c) Gastric Ulcer (d) Gastrinoma
27. Hernial ring located below the stifle fold is called
(a) Ventral Hernia (b) Perineal Hernia (c) Inguinal Hernia (d) Umbilical Hernia
28. Abnormal presence of air within the thoracic cavity is called
(a) Pneumo Thorax (b) Pneumocele (c) Emphysema (d) Hydrothorax
29. A condition in which the penis fails to return into the prepuce is called
(a) Priapism (b) Paraphymosis (c) Phymosis (d) Satyriasis
30. Surgical removal of the uterus and ovaries is known as
(a) Ovario-Hysterectomy (b) Ovariotomy (c) Spaying (d) Oopharectamy
31. Congenital absence of both the testicles is referred as
(a) Anorchid (b) Single Rig (c) Double Rig (d) Gubernaculum
32. Inflammation of shoulder joint is called as
(a) Gonits (b) Omarthritis (c) Coxitis (d) Cubital Arthritis
33. Atrophy of supraspinatus and infrastpinatus muscles is known as
(a) Dropped Elbow (b) Sweeny (c) Myositis (d) Cording up
34. Diapharagmatic Hernia is common in
(a) Cow (b) Buffalo (c) Sheep (d) Goat
35. Malicious cutting of Achilles tendon is referred as
(a) Tenotomy (b) Hamstringing (c) Desmotomy (d) Myotomy
36. Purulent inflammation of the cartilage of the third phalanx characterized by of the
cartilage in draft horses is known as
(a) Quittor (b) Side Bone (c) Buttress Foot (d) Coon Foot
37. Intussusception is common in
(a) Duodenum (b) Rectum (c) Colon (d) Ileum
38. Belt Loop Gastropexy is a surgical technique used for correction of
(a) Pyloric Stenosis (b) GDV (c) IVD (d) Gastric Ulcer
39. Dropped elbow occurs due to
(a) Radial Nerve Paralysis (b) Supra Scapular Nerve Paralysis
66
(c) Ulnar Nerve Paralysis (d) Median Nerve Paralysis

40. Phalangeal exostosis is known as
(a) Splint bone (b) Spavin (c) Ring bone (d) Side bone
41. Carpitis is also known as
(a) Osselets (b) Wind Puff (c) Navicular Disease (d) Popped Knee
42. The treatment for chronic subluxation of patella in cattle is
(a) Medial patellar desmotomy (b) Median patellar desmotomy
(c) Lateral patellar desmotomy (d) Middle patellar desmotomy
43. The treatment for blemished knee is
(a) Cherry’s Operation (b) Casslic’s Operation (c) Caponisation (d) Pinioning
44. The typical symptom of canine hip dysplasia is
(a) Anterior drawer sign (b) Posterior drawer sign (c) Bunny hopping (d) Stifle drop
45. Liptack test is used for the diagnosis of
(a) LDA (b) TP (c) TRP (d) DH
46. Chronic hypertrophy and apparent suppuration of the horn-producing tissues of the foot,
involving the frog and the sole in horses
(a) Canker (b) Thrush (c) Keratoma (d) Corn
47. The operation done for teat fistula is
(a) Gold’s Operation (b) Frossel Operation
(c) Laminectomy (d) Dietrish Operation
48. The ectropion is corrected by
(a) V-y technique (b) Holtzcelsius technique
(c) Y-u technique (d) Zep’s operation
49. The struvite calculi is also known as
(a) Ureate calculi (b) Cystine calculi (c) MAP (d) Carbonate calculi
50. The treatment for IVD is
(a) Laminectomy (b) Ventral Slot Technique
(c) Puduculectomy (d) All the above
ANSWER KEY
1b 11 b 21 a 31 a 41 d
2c 12 d 22 d 32 b 42 a
3c 13 c 23 b 33 b 43 a
4c 14 d 24 a 34 b 44 c
5d 15 b 25 a 35 b 45 a
6b 16 d 26 a 36 a 46 a
7c 17 c 27 a 37 d 47 a
8c 18 b 28 a 38 b 48 a
9d 19 d 29 b 39 a 49 c
10 b 20 d 30 a 40 c 50 d
67
VETERINARY SURGERY & RADIOLOGY –Part 2
Dr. R. N. Chaudhary
_________________________________________________________________________________
1 Polydiaxonone suture is
a Synthetic monofilamentous b Polymer of paradiaxanone
c Absorbed in 180 days d All
2 Silk is treated by substance to decrease its capillary
a Oil immersion b Wax immersion c Silicon immersion d All
3 The disadvantage of silk are
a Capillary action b Tissue reaction c Cutting through tissue d All
4 Nylon is
a Hexamethylenediamine + adipic acid combination b Inert, noncapillary
c Monofilament & multifilament d All
5 Caprolactum
a Vitafil b Multifilament c Herniorrhaphy d All
6 Suture size used for skin and subcutis is
a 4-0 to 3-0 b 1 to 2 c 4 to 3 d All
7 Suture for muscle and facial of small animals
a 3-0 to 0 b 3 to 1 c 6-0 to 8-0 d None
8 Suture for cornea, nerve
a 6-0 to 5-0 b 6 to 5 c 2-3 d None
9 The ultrasound cleaner cleans the instrument by
a Cavitation b Vibration c Surface tension d All
10 The basic grips of holding scalpel are
a Pencil grip b Finger grip c Palm grip d All
11 Catgut is prepared from
a Submucosa of sheep intestine b Serosal layer of cattle small intestine
c Both d None
12 Collagen suture is prepared from
a Bovine steer flexor tendon b Extensor tendon
c Both d None
13 PGA
a Non-collagenous synthetic absorbable suture
b Multifilamentous
c Pliable
d All
14 Which of the following is true regarding PGA suture
a Degraded product of PGA is antimicrobial
68
b Absorbed by hydrolysis
c Absorbed in 120 days
d All
15 Polyglactin 910 is
a Braided synthetic absorbable
b Glycolic acid lactic acid : 9:1 ration
c Absorbed by hydrolysis in 40 to 90 days d All
16 The relationship between degree of differentiation and regeneration is
a Direct b Inverse c Indirect d No relation
17 The cells which regenerate are
a Endodermal b Mesodermal c Ectodermal d All
18 The mitotic inhibitors in tissues are
a Bradykinins b Histamine c Serotonin d Epinephrine-chalone complex
19 Monocytes may become
a Epitheloid cells b Histocytes c Foreign body giant cells d All
20 The wound healing is retarded by
a Hypoproteinaemia(2g. /100ml.)
b Low oxygen supply
c Uraemia d All
21 Steroids decrease wound healing by
a Decrease in protein synthesis b Stabilize lysosomal membrane
c Inhibit inflammation d All
22 The vitamin A effect on wound healing is
a Increases inflammation b Labelling of lysosome
c Stimulate fibroblasts d All
23 Effect of vit. E on wound healing is
a Stabilizes lysosomal membrane b Retards collagen production
c Retards wound healing d All
24 Vit. C in wound healing is needed for
a Hydroxylation of proline b Hydroxylation of lysine
c Secretion of collagen d All
25 Effect of zinc on wound healing is
a Component of DNA polymerase b Component of reverse transcriptase
c Increased levels retard healing d All
26 The wound healing is retarded by
a Radiation and toxic drugs b Dehydration and edema
c Infection d All
27 The drugs which retards wound healing
a Antiseptics b Hypertonic solutions
c Hypotonic solutions d All
69
28 Golden yellow pus is produced by

a Corynaebacterium pyogens b Streptococci c Staphylococcus aureus d Staphylococcusalbicans
29 Thin watery pus is produced by
a E coli b Pseudomonas c Proteus d Shigella
30 Greenish yellow pus is produced by
a Corynaebacterium pyogenes b Spherophorus necrophorus
c Pseudomonas d Streptococcus equi
31 Abnormal cavity containing pus is known as
a Abscess b Phlehgman orcellulites c Empyema d Antibioma
32 The wounds get infected above the critical level of microbes
a 101/gm./ml b 102/gm./ml c 103/gm./ml d 106/g./ml
33 The hospital borne infections are known as
a Iatrogenic infection b Nosocominal infection
c Super infections d All
34 The example for clean wounds re
a Surgically incised skin b Tenotomies c Desmotomies d All
35 Clean contaminated wound produced in
a Tracheotomy b Caslick’s operation c Episiotomy d All
36 The golden period of wound is
a 4 hours b 6-8 hours c 10 hours d 12 hours
37 The dog bite wound should not be closed because
a Virus carried deeper b Infection spreads quickly
c Bite wounds are contaminated d All
38 Opening of ripened abscess is known as
a Lancing b Counter opening c Excision d All
39 Debridement of wound means
a Removal of foreign material b Removal of devitalized tissue
c Irrigation of wound under pressure d All
40 The conditions met out in autoclaving are
a 121oC, 15 mts.,15lb/mm
b 121oF, 15 mts.,15lb/mm
c 121oK, 15 mts.,15lb/mm
d None
41 The biological indicator used in autoclaving is
a Bacillus sterarotehrmophilus spores
b Paper strip
c Both d None
42 Disinfection means
a Destruction of all micro-organisms on something
70
b Destruction of pathogenic organisms on inanimate objects

c Both d None
43 Antiseptics are used to kill microorganisms on
a Skin b Inanimate object c Air d All
44 Steam destroys microorganisms by

a Co-agulation and penetration of cellular proteins
b By oxidation c Both d None
45 The surgical pack placement in autoclave should be
a Vertically and longitudinally
b Horizontally and longitudinally
c Both ways d None
46 The gravity displacement sterilizer works on the principle of
a Air is heavier than steam
b Steam is heavier than air
c Both d None
47 The temperature, pressure, time combination is gravity displacement
autoclave is
a 121oC, 15 mts.,15lb/inch
b 250o F, 15 mts.,15lb/ inch
c 250oK, 15 mts.,15lb/ inch
d None
48 Prevaccum sterilizer has
a Steam injected in vacuum b Greater steam penetration for short period
c 270 to 275 o F (132 to 135 o C) for 3 to 4 minutes d All
49 The flash sterilization is done
a Unwrapped, non sterile item for quick sterilization
b Gravity sterilizer is used
c The gravity flash sterilizer used 270 to 285o F for 4 minutes
d All
50 Ethylene oxide is
a Inflammable b Explosive c Carcinogenic d All
51 Ethylene oxide flammability is reduced by mixing with
a CO2 b Neon c Both d None
52 Ethylene oxide can be used for sterilization of
a Endoscopes b Cameras c Plastics d All
53 Ethylene oxide kills the organisms by
a Alkyklation b Acetylation c Hydroxylation d All
54 The standards of Ethylene oxide are
a 250 to 15000 mg/Inch
71
b 30-60o C
c 33 -60 % of humidity d All
55 The items sterilized by Ethylene oxide should be clean and dry because
a Moisture and organic material bids to Ethylene oxide
b Leaves toxic residues
c Acrylic cannot be sterilized by Ethylene oxide
d All
56 Plasma sterilization
a Low temperature sterilization
b Uses reactive ions, electrons, neutral atomic particles
c Vapor from of H2O2 d All
57 Gamma rays are used for sterilization of
a B.P.blade b Catgut c Tissue grafts d All
58 Operation theatre is sterilised by
a UV rays b Laser c Infrared rays d All
59 B- propiolactone is not used for sterilization of hospitals due to
a Damage on paints and plastic surface
b Toxic c Carcinogenic d All
60 Gluteraldehyde is used for sterilization of
a Endoscope b Gloves c Orthopedic set d All
61 Drug excreted without metabolism in liver is
a Thiopental b Fentanyl c Glycopyrrolate d Ketamine
62 The site of epidural anesthesia in dogs is at the
a Intercoccygeal space between duramater and periosteum
b Lumbo-sacral place, between periosteum andduramatter
c Lumbosacral place in subarachinoid space
d Lubosacral place in between piameter and arachinoid
63 Low epidural anesthesia paralyses
a Hind limb b Abdomen c Perineal region d Thoracic region
64 The local anesthesia that blocks both sensory and motor nerve for 2-3 times more than
lidocaine or mepivocaine is
a Lignocaine b Tetracaine c Bupivacaine d Novocaine
65 Epidural anesthesia is contra indicated in
a Infection b Hypotension c Hemorrhages d All
66 Spinal anesthesia induces hypotension due to
a Post ganglionic sympathetic blockage
b Preganglionic sympatheticblockade
c Preganglionic para sympathetic blockade
d Postganglionic parasympathetic blockade
67 Ketamine causes
72
a Tachycardia and hyperthermia

b Increased IOP and intracranial pressure
c Increased myocardial oxygen consumption
d All
68 Ketamine is anesthetic of choice in
a Brady cardiac dogs with upper airway obstruction
b Cats with hyperthyroidosis and tachycardia
c Cats with urethral obstruction
d All
69 Major drugs which are used as preanaesthetics are
a Phenothiazine derivatives
b Anticholinergics c Opiods d All
70 Which of the following statement is correct
a Tiletamine is a benzodiazepine
b Propofol is a thiobariturate
C Thiamulal is a dissociate anesthetic
d Zolazepam is a long acting benzodiazepine
71 Example for neuroletpic analgesia is
a Glycol pyrrolate and promazine
b Etorphine andNalaxone
C Diazepam and neostigimine
d Fentanyl and Droperidol
72 The drug which produces visceral analgesia is
a Succinyl Choline b glycopyrrolatge C ketamine d thiopental sodium
73 The animals are premedicated before anesthetic with the intention of
a Abolishing pain b Ease out handling
c Increase reflex sympathetic activity
d Increase margin of safety by reducing the dose of general anesthetic
74 Atropine acts on post ganglions of cholinergic nerves by
a Reducing formation of acetyl choline b Blocks release of acetyl choline
c Blocks choline esterase enzyme d Competitively blocks acetylcholine at
muscranic receptor
75 Atropine produces tachycardia by
a vagolytic action b vagotonic action
c Cardiac chronotropism d Myocardial stimulation
76 The main difference between atropine and Robinol V is
a Atropine produces more tachycardia than Robinol – V
b Rabinol – V produces more tachycardia than atropine
c Both produce equal chronotropism on heart
d Atropine is powerful antisialogaoue than glycopyrrolate
73
77 Phenothiazine does not produce which of the following effects on the CNS
a Depression of chemoreceptor trigorzone
b α2 –adrenoceptor agonist action
c Tranquilization d Antihistaminic action
78 Acepromazine produces paraphimosis in
a Colts b Stallions c Geldings d Filleys
79 Guafensin, a muscle relaxant
a Acts on CNS b Acts at myoneural junction
c Acts as internunical neurons at spinal cord
d Acts at ANS
80 A tranquilizer having muscle relaxation effect is
a Glycopyrrolate b Butorphanol c Succinyl choline d Diazepam
81 In equines, deaths are associated with
a Respiratory muscle paralysis
b Skeletal muscle rigidity with cardiac arrest and respiratory failure
c Hypotension d Respiratory centre depression
82 If you administer 100ml of 5 % solution of guanfensin to 200Kg. horse, what is the dose
a 250mg. b 75 mg. c 300mg. d 5000mg.
83 Succinyl choline
a should be used with IPPV
b Can be used without IPPV
c Produces effect on CNS
d Relaxes cardiac muscles
84 Altracurium has advantage over succinyl choline
a It causes direct muscle relaxation
b It causes muscular rigidity
c Does not relax diaphragm
d Does not relax respiratory muscles
85 Patients under general anesthesia with sever bradycardia , the administration of
nestigmine produces
a Tachycardia b Bradycardia due toinhibition Ach
c Bradycardia due to inhibitionAchE d No effect on heart rate
86 In the CNS, Medetomidine causes
a Antagonism to K receptor b Agonist to sigma receptor
c Agonist to presynaptic alpha 2adrenergicreceptor
d Antagonist to postsynaptic alpha 1adregnergc receptor
87 In cattle, xylazine premedication causes
a Tachycardia b Bradycardia c Increased cardiac output
d Decreased CVP
88 Xylazine contraindicated in
74
a Pregnancy b ETT c Urolithiaisis d All of the above

89 Narcotic pure agonists produce analgesia by primarily their effect on
a Alpha 2 receptor b GABA receptor c Mu-opiate receptor
d Sigma opiate receptor
90 Most potent narcotic among the following is
a Morphine b Fentanyl c Carfentanyl d Etorphine
91 The perfect reversal agent of narcotics is
a Diprenorphine b Levallophan c Nalaxone d Nalorphine
92 The drug producing cycloplegic effect on ciliary body is
a Triflupromazine b Promazine c Atropine d Acepromazine
93 Phenothiazines are used in urolithiasis because
a They relax urinary bladder b They relax retractor penis muscle
c They cause dieresis d They reduce calculi formation
94 Atropine sulphate is contraindicated in
a Intussusceptions b Bovines premedication c Equines d All
95 The patients with Mendelson syndrome are premeditated with
a Atropine b Hom atropine c Glycopyrrolate d All
96 Preanaesthetic of choice in equines is
a Chlorpromazine b Triflupromazine c Acepromazine d Promazine
97 Morphine produces
a Increased tone in gastrointestinal sphincter
b Decreased tone in gastrointestinal sphincter
c Increased peristaltic movement
d Atonic gastrointestinaleffect
98 I/V administration of Fentanyl to dogs causes
a Tachycardia b Hypertension c Bradycardia d SA block
99 Opiate induced respiratory depression can be reversed perfectly by
a Xylazine b Nalorphine c Nalaxone d Doxapram
100 Thiobariturates
a Produce transient apnea and cardiac arrhythmia
b Long acting c Prolongedinduction time
d Do not undergo ionization in plasma.
101 General anesthesia induced with thiamylal sodium in dog and maintained with halothane in
closed circuit and animal develops apnea such cases can be managed by
a Dorapram injection b IPPV with slow breath rate
c Pure oxygen administration d Coramine with lidocaine I/V
102 Thiopental in cats produce
a Barbiturate slough on I.M. administration
b Laryngeal and cough reflex in light levels
75
c Transient apnea d All

103 Propofol
a Dissolved in soyabean oil-egg lecithin emulsion
b Should be used as single dose
c Can be stored at room temperature
d All
104 Ketamine is used in animals with
a impaired CV functions b Produces seizures in dogs
c Can be combined with α2 adrenoreceptor agonists
d All
105 Dobutamine administration to cattle under halothane produces
a Ventricular bigeminy b Ventricular trigeminy
c Inverted T- wave d Sinus tachycardia
106 Telazol prolonged recovery in pigs is due to
a Tletamne b Mannitol c Zolazepam d Lorazepam
107 Drug having oxytocic effect on bovine uterus in 3rd trimester of pregnancy is
a Detomedine b Xylazine c Trilfupromazine d Medazolam
108 Fasting in equines helps in
a Preventing stomach rupture b Reduces the extent of lung collapse
c Prevents residual food material of mouth entering trachea d All
109 In a to and fro anesthesia breathing system
a Canister is placed between patient and rebreathing bag
b Mechanical dead space is less than circle system
c Gases pass through canister not during inhalation and exhalation d All
110 In I/V retrograde regional anesthesia
a Adrenaline containing local anesthetic should not be used
b Haematoma formation can occur in vein used for local anesthetic administration
c Tourniquet should not be left in situ for more than 30minutes d All
111 The Peterson block desensitizes
a V cranial nerve b X cranial nerve c VII cranial nerve d III, IV,and VI cranial nerves
112 Anesthetic technique used for placement of nose ring in bulls
a Mandibular nerve block b Mental nerve block c Supraorbital nerve block
d Bilateral infraorbital nerve block
113 The principle of ultrasound scanning is
a refraction b diffraction c Polarization d Pulse- echo principle
114 The image produced by bone on the ultrasound machine monitor will be
a hypo echoic b anechoic c Hyper-ehoic d None
115 The pregnancy diagnosis in bitch is done as early as by ultrasound
a 38 days b 10 days c 45 days d 55 days
116 IVD is common in
76
a German shepherd b Labrador c Mastiff d Daschound

117 Fredt Ramsted pyloromyotomy is used to correct
a Polyric stenosis b GDV c Gastric ulcer d Zollinger Ellison syndrome
118 Ground glass appearance of radiograph seen in
a Fracture b dislocation c pneumonia d Ascites
119 Filling defect are seen in
a Gastric ulcer b Intersusception c volvulius d Torsion
120 Ping sound heard in
a LDA b TRP c Caecal dilation d DH
121 Sausage like mass on per rectal examination in LA
a Intussusceptions b hernia c prolapse d Rectal tears
122 Urolithias in bullock
a Urethral pulsation b Urinary bladder distention c Both d None
123 Slab fractures are common in
a Metatarsal b Radius and ulna c Acessory carpal and tarsal d None
124 Horn cancer shows
a Cell nests b Cauliflower like growth c Bull eye is exfoliative cytology d All
125 Eye cancer common seen at
a limbus b Sclera c Cornea d Eyelids
126 Phacoemulsification is used for the treatment of
a Keratitis b Cornel ulcer c Cataract d Blephritis
127 Surgical opening of crop in birds is known as
a Ingluvotomy b Uvalotorny c Caponisation d Pinionuy
128 Vincrystacin for the treatment of TVT is used at close rate of ………….. for 4 weeks at
weekly interval
a 0.025 mg/kg i/v b 0.25mg/kg i/v c 2.5mg/kg i/v D 25mg/kg i/v
129 The orthopaedic implant which neutralizes all forces acting on bone
a DCP b IMP c K-Nail D V-nail
130 Bocor’s operation is used for
a Teat fistula b String halt c Gonitis d Spavin
131 Z- plasty is used for
a Knuckling b Pervious c Persistant urachus frenulum d Marsupilization
132 The common seat of calculi lodgment in Ram is
a Ischial arch b Sigmoid flexure c Urethra process d Glans penis
133 Pus in the antrum involves
a Carnasial tooth b Maxillary sinus c Both d None of the above
134 Sun burst appearance is seen in
a Osteosarcoma b Fibrosarcoma c Fracture d Dislocation
135 Grids are used when past thickness is more than
a 10 cms b 10 mm c 10 μ d 10 Å
77
ANSWER KEY
1d 21 d 41 a 61 b 81 b 101 b 121 a
2d 22 d 42 b 62 b 82 d 102 d 122 c
3d 23 d 43 a 63 c 83 a 103 d 123 c
4d 24 d 44 a 64 c 84 a 104 d 124 d
5d 25 d 45 a 65 d 85 c 105 a 125 a
6b 26 d 46 b 66 a 86 b 106 c 126 c
7a 27 d 47 a 67 d 87 d 107 b 127 a
8a 28 c 48 d 68 d 88 c 108 d 128 a
9a 29 a 49 d 69 d 89 d 109 d 129 a
10 d 30 c 50 d 70 d 90 c 110 d 130 b
11 c 31 a 51 c 71 d 91 c 111 d 131 a
12 a 32 d 52 d 72 c 92 c 112 d 132 c
13 d 33 b 53 a 73 d 93 b 113 d 133 c
14 d 34 d 54 d 74 d 94 d 114 c 134 a
15 d 35 d 55 d 75 a 95 c 115 a 135 a
16 b 36 b 56 d 76 b 96 d 116 d
17 a 37 a 57 d 77 b 97 a 117 a
18 d 38 d 58 a 78 b 98 c 118 d
19 d 39 d 59 d 79 c 99 c 119 a
20 d 40 a 60 d 80 d 100 a 120 a
78
RADIOLOGY
Dr. Deepak Kumar Tiwari

1. X-rays are high energy

(a) Electron (b) Proton
(c) Neutron (d) Electromagnetic radiations
2. Reflecting layer of intensifying screen is made up of
(a) Magnesium oxide (b) Titanium dioxide
(c) Both a & b (d) None of the above
3. Radiation dose is calculated by
(a) Chest Badges (b) Dental cones
(c) Timer clock (d) All the above
4. Misrepresentation of shape and size on a radiograph is known as
(a) Image magnification (b) Image unsharpness
(c) Image distortion (d) All the above
5. Xeroradiography was developed by
(a) Chester F. Carlson (b) H.F. Waite
(c) G.N. Hounsfield (d) W.C Roentgen
6. Melting point of tungsten is
(a) 3370ºC (b) 3370ºF
(c) 2270ºC (d) 2270ºF
7. An overdeveloped film appear as
(a) Yellowish green (b) White
(c) Black (d) Greenish yellow
8. Replenisher replaces and maintains the concentration of exhausted
(a) Developer (b) Fixer
(c) Both a & b (d) None
9. Cholecystography is the contrast radiographic study of
(a) Urinary Bladder (b) Renal pelvis
(c) Gall Bladder (d) All the above
10. Radiographically, air filled distended intestinal loop appears as
(a) White (b) Black
(c) Grey (d) All the above
11. The minimum age (years) of the person involved in radiography work is
(a) 17 Years (b) 18 Years
(c) 20 Years (d) 21 Years
12. Commonly used contrast medium for GI tract is
(a) Air (b) Conray
(c) Barium sulphate (d) Nitrous oxide
13. A radiograph of the renal pelvis and ureter is called as
(a) Myelogram (b) Pyelogram
(c) Skiagram (d) Cystogram
79
14. In veterinary radiography, the focal film distance should always be

(a) 60-70 cm (b) 90-100 cm
(c) 110-120 cm (d) 140-150 cm
15. The following acts as negative contrast media
(a) Air (b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitrous oxide (d) All the above
16. X-ray film emulsion consists of gelatin and
(a) Silver (b) Silver halide
(c) Silver nitrate (d) Barium sulphate
17. Fixing agent in the x-ray fixer is
(a) Ammonium sulphide (b) Acetic acid
(c) Formaline (d) Ammonium thiosulphate
18. Ultrasonography is a
(a) Invasive technique (b) Less invasive technique
(c) Non invasive technique (d) Highly invasive technique
19. X-ray tube current is measured in
(a) Volts (b) Electron volts
(c) Mega Hertz (d) Ampere
20. The distinct representation of an object’s true borders or edges
(a) Density (b) Contrast
(c) Detail (d) Pnumbra
21. To obtain a good quality radiograph, the essential requirements are
(a) Correct positioning (b) Correct exposure
(c) Correct processing (d) All the above
22. Low kVp produces
(a) High contrast (b) Low contrast
(c) No contrast (d) None of the above
23. Movable grids are also known as
(a) Parallel Grids (b) Focussed grids
(c) Pseudo focused grids (d) Potter Bucky diaphragm
24. During x-ray production, %age of kinetic energy converted into x-rays is
(a) 50% (b) 99%
(c) 1% (d) 33.4%
25. The most radiosensitive cells are
(a) Germinal cells (b) Haemopoietic cells
(c) Lymphoid cells (d) Brain cells
26. Different modes of Ultrasonography are
(a) A-mode (b) B-mode
(c) M-mode (d) All the above
27. Soft X-rays from the X-ray tube are filtered by using filters made up of
(a) Aluminium (b) Lead
(c) Copper (d) Calcium tungstate
28. The colour of safe light used in dark room
(a) Red (b) Green
80
(c) Blue (d) Yellow

29. Contrast radiography of channels of long bones is called as
(a) Osteography (b) Arthrography
(c) Osteomedullography (d) All the above
30. The effect of radiation on biological material is measured in
(a) Curie (b) Decibel
(c) rem (d) rad
ANSWER KEY
1. (d) Electromagnetic radiations

2. (c) Both a & b
3. (a) Chest Badges
4. (c) Image distortion
5. (a) Chester F. Carlson
6. (a) 3370ºC
7. (c) Black
8. (c) Both a & b
9. (c) Gall Bladder
10. (b) Black
11. (b) 18 Years
12. (c) Barium sulphate
13. (b) Pyelogram
14. (b) 90-100 cm
15. (d) All the above
16. (b) Silver halide
17. (d) Ammonium thiosulphate
18. (c) Non invasive technique
19. (d) Ampere
20. (c) Detail
22. (a) High contrast
23. (d) Potter Bucky diaphragm
24. (c) 1%
25. (c) Lymphoid cells
27. (a) Aluminium
28. (a) Red
29. (c) Osteomedullography
30. (c) rem
81
EPIDEMIOLOGY, AIMS, OBJECTIVES AND APPLICATIONS; ECOLOGICAL CONCEPTS

AND APPLICATIONS
Dr. Dinesh Mittal

Department of Veterinary Public Health and Epidemiology, COVS, LUVAS, Hisar
_____________________________________________________________________
1. Outbreaks of diseases in avian population are called...
a) Epidemics
b) Epizootics
c) Epornitics
d) Endemic
2. A propagated epidemic is usually the result of what type of exposure

a) Point source
b) Continuous common source
c) Intermittent common source
d) Person to person
3. Which one of the following is not a transboundary disease

a) FMD
b) HS
c) Avian influenza
d) Rinderpest
4. …………………………..is the more intensive form of data recording than monitoring.

a) Study
b) Surveillance
c) Survey
d) Study
5. A cross-sectional study is a …………..

a) Prospective study
b) Retrospective study
c) Both
6. ……….... is the effect of an extraneous variable that can wholly or partly account for an apparent
association between variables.
a) Association
b) Confounding
c) Variability
d) All of the above
7. The factors that are associated with definitive onset of the disease are known as …
a) Predisposing factors
b) Precipitating factors
c) Enabling factors
d) Reinforcing factors
82
8. The constant presence of a disease in a population is ………

a) Endemic
b) Epidemic
c) Epornitics
d) Outbreak
9. The number of new cases that occurs in a known population over a specified period of time is
a) Prevalence
b) Cumulative incidence
c) Incidence rate
d) Incidence
10. Proportion of cases of a transmissible disease that develop as a result of contact with the primary
case is …………
a) Attack rate
b) Incidence rate
c) Prevalence
d) Secondary attack rate
11. Which one is not true for cross-sectional study:

a) It usually provides information on prevalence rather than incidence
b) It is limited to health exposures and behaviours rather than health outcomes
c) It is more useful for descriptive epidemiology than it is for analytical epidemiology
d) It is synonymous with survey
12. A reservoir of an infectious agent can be:

a) An asymptomatic human
b) A symptomatic human
c) An animal
d) All of the above
13. A host in which an agent is transferred mechanically, without further development is

a) Secondary host
b) Intermediate host
c) Link host
d) Paratenic host
14. The infectious agent …………………in the mechanical vector

a) Multiplies
b) Develop
c) Neither multiply nor develop
d) Destroyed
15. The proportion of the true negatives that are detected by a test defines its …..
a) Specificity
b) Sensitivity
c) Precision
83
d) Biasness
16. In the definition of epidemiology, ‘determinants’ generally includes….

a) Agents
b) Causes
c) Risk factors
d) All of the above
17. The smallest spatial unit providing uniform conditions for life is …..
a) Ecosystem
b) Biotope
c) Biome
18. Collection of living organisms in a biotope is called as ….

a) Biomass
b) Biocenosis
c) Biome
d) All of the above
19. When plants, animals, microbes, soil and macroclimate have evolved to a stable, balanced
relationship it is said to be …….
a) Ecological interface
b) Ecological mosaics
c) Ecological climax
d) None
20. The study of diseases in relation to the ecosystem in which they are found is
a) Vertical epidemiology
b) Landscape epidemiology
c) Descriptive epidemiology
d) Analytical epidemiology
21. Comparison of exposed group with non-exposed group with respect to development of disease
is….
a) Case-control study
b) Cohort study
c) Cross sectional study
d) None
22. Time of occurrence of a disease constitutes

a) Temporal distribution
b) Spatial distribution
c) Both
d) None
23. The epidemiological triad of disease causation refers to :

a) Agent, host, environment
84
b) Time, place, person

c) Source, mode of transmission, susceptible host
d) John Snow, Robert Koch, Kenneth Rothman
24. Animal that sheds organisms without any clinical signs is …….
a) Host
b) Carrier
c) Reservoir
d) Primary host
25. The proportion of true positives that are detected by a test defines its ….
a) Specificity
b) Sensitivity
c) Precision
d) Biasness
1 c
2 d
3 b
4 b
5 d
6 b
7 b
8 a
9 d
10 d
11 c
12 d
13 d
14 c
15 a
16 d
17 b
18 b
19 c
20 b
21 c
22 a
23 a
24 b
25 b
85
GENERAL AND AUTONOMIC PHARMACOLOGY
Dr. Vinod Kumar

Dept. of Veterinary Pharmacology and Toxicology, COVS, LUVAS, Hisar.
____________________________________________________________________
1. 100% bioavailability is achieved when a drug is administered through:
a) s.c. route
b) i.m. route
c) oral route
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
2. Constant rate i.v. infusion tends to follow:
a) First-order kinetics
b) Zero-order kinetics
c) All of the above
3. Amphetamine is not metabolized in the body of mammals as it is resistant to:
a) Aldehyde dehydrogenase and aldehyde reductase enzymes.
b) COMT and MAO enzymes.
c) Aldehyde dehydrogenase and MAO enzymes.
d) All of the above.
e) None of the above.
4. One of the followings is not a selective beta-2 agonist.
a) Terbutaline
b) Isoproterinol
c) Isoetharine
d) All of the above
5. The effects of MAO inhibition can be reversed by one of the following drugs:
a) Tyramine
b) Octopamine
c) Reserpine
d) All of the above
6. High dose of epinephrine produces:
a) Fall in B.P. only
b) Rise in B.P. only
c) Biphasic response on B.P.
d) All of the above
7. Centrally acting alpha2-adrenergic agonistlike clonidine can be used to treat:

a) Hypotension
86
b) Hypertension
c) Diabetes
d) All of the above
8. One of the following is a selective antagonist of M3-mAChRs:

a) Methacholine
b) Methoctramine
c) Darifenacine
d) All of the above
9. Zero order kinetics means:

a) A constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time
b) A constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time.
c) The fraction of the administered dose that reaches the systemic circulation
d) The effect that can be increased by giving a second agent that boosts the effect of the liver’s
enzyme system.
10. Bioavailability of a drug is influenced by:
a) Extent and rate of dissolution of drug.
b) First pass effect
c) Route of administration
d) All of the above
11. A high concentration of COMT is present in:

a) Non neuronal tissues
b) Neuronal tissues
c) Both of above
d) None of above
12. One of the following is a hydrazine derivative and is used as MAO inhibitor:
a) Iproniazide
b) Clorgyline
c) Pargyline
d) All of the above
13. Response of any cell or organ to sympathomimetic drug is dependent upon:

a) Density of alpha-receptors
b) Density of beta-receptors
c) Density and proportion of alpha & beta-receptors
d) None of the above.
87
14. Low dose of epinephrine produces:

c) Biphasic response on B.P
d) All of the above
15. Isoproterenol produces:

a) Positive inotropic effect
b) Positive chronotropic effect
c) Bronchodilation
d) All of the above
16. Alpha1-adrenergic agonists are mostly used in the treatment of:

a) Hypotension
b) Hypertension
c) Congestive heart failure
d) All of the above.
e) None of the above.
17. One of the following drugs is used for reversal of xylazine toxicity:
a) Tolazoline
b) Metoprolol
c) Atenolol
d) All of the above
18. Propranolol antagonizes:

a) Beta1-adrenergic receptor only
b) Beta2-adrenergic receptor only
c) Beta1& Beta2 adrenergic receptors
d) All of the above
19. Beta1-adrenergic receptor antagonists are used in treating:

a) Hypotension
b) Tachyarrhythmias
c) Bradyarrhythmias
d) All of the above
20. One of the following is a selective agonist of M2-mAChRs:

a) Methacholine
b) Methoctramine
88
c) Darifenacine
d) All of the above
21. The effects of MAO inhibition can be reversed by one of the following drugs:
a) Tyramine
b) Octopamine
c) Reserpine
d) All of the above
22. –CH3 group is transferred to one of the following hydroxyl group at catechol ring:
a) para -OH group
b) meta-OH group
c) Both of above
d) None of above
23. Predominent adrenergic receptors in heart are:

a) alpha1- adrenergic
b) alpha2-adrenergic
c) beta1- adrenergic
d) all of the above
e) Noneof the above
24. High dose of epinephrine produces:

c) Biphasic response on B.P.
d) All of the above
25. Tocolytic action of ritodrine in mammals is related to the action produced in:
a) Liver
b) Uterus
c) Heart
e) All of the above
26. Centrally acting alpha2-adrenergic agonist like clonidine can be used to treat:
a) Hypotension
b) Hypertension
c) Diabetes
d) All of the above
89
27. Ergot alkaloids are used primarily for:

a) Tocolytic action on uterus
b) Contraction of uterus post-partem
c) Treating hypertension
d) All of the above
28. Inhibition of renin-angiotension-aldosterone system results in:

a) Hypotension
b) Hypertension
c) Oligourea
d) All of the above

a) Methacholine
b) Methoctramine
c) Darifenacine
d) All of the above

a) Methacholine
b) Methoctramine
c) Darifenacine
d) All of the above
90
CNS AND SYSTEMIC PHARMACOLOGY
Dr. Archana Lohiya

_________________________________________________________________________________
Q.1 Fill in the Blanks
1. Cisapride is ________________ receptor agonist.
2. Cloprostenol is analogue of ___________________.
3. Castor oil is obtained from seeds of ___________________ plant.
4. _________________ is the first drug of choice for treating status epilepticus.
5. Diaphragmatic muscles relaxes in _________________ plane of surgical stage of anaesthesia.
6. Chloroform on exposure to light results in production of ____________________.
7. Phenytoin blocks ___________________ on the neuronal cell.
8. Lidocaine ____________ the duration of effective refractory period.
9. Ranitidine is ____________________ receptor antagonist.
10. Losartan is ___________________receptor antagonist.
11. Metaclopromide acts locally and produced ___________________ action and acts centrally and
produced _____________________ action.
12. _____________________ is synthetic analogue of Vit. K
13. Phase 1 of cardiac cycle occurs due to transient outflow of ______________________ ions.
14. _____________________ is the antidote of Paracetamol toxicity.
15. _____________________ enzyme is inhibited specifically by Coxibs.
Answers
1. 5-HT4
2. PGF2α
3. Ricinus Communis
4. Diazepam
5. Plane-4
6. Phosgene gas
7. Na+ Channels
8. Decrease
9. H2 receptor antagonist
10. AT2 receptor antagonist
11. Prokinetic, anti-emetic
12. Menadione
13. K+
14. Acetylcysteine
15. COX-2
Q.2 Tick the most appropriate answer:

1. Antacid tablet neutralizing gastric acid is an example of which one of the followings interaction
a) Physiological antagonism
b) Chemical antagonism
c) Pharmacological antagonism
91

2. Which one of the followings is the primary site of action of Thiazide diuretics
a) Na+- Cl- symporter
b) Na+- K+- 2Cl- symporter
c) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
3. Which one of the followings is the parenteral preparation of iron
a) Ferrous sulphate
b) Iron-Dextran
c) Ferrous fumarate
4. Which one of the following cardiac effects is not shown by Digoxin in CHF
a) Slows the heart rate
b) Reduces SA node automaticity
c) Increase refractory period of AV conduction
5. All the four clinical stages of anaesthesia are observed with which one of the followings
a) Methoxyflurane
b) Nitrous oxide
c) Pentobarbital sodium
d) Ether
6. Which one of the followings is methyl morphine and widely used as cough sedative
a) Codeine
b) Fentanyl
c) Mepridine
7. Which one of the following drugs is not used as antidepressant/thymoleptics
a) Imipramine
b) Fluoxetine
c) Amphetamine
d) Chlorpromazine
8. Which one of the followings causes depolarizing muscle relaxation
a) D-tubocurarine
b) Succinyl choline
c) Gallamine
d) Pancuronium
9. Which one of the followings is not used as a local haemostatic
a) Fibrin foam
b) Oxidized cellulose
c) Aprotinin
d) Human thrombin
10. Which one of the followings is the agent that produce protective action by
precipitating proteins at the surface of skin
a) Astringents
92
b) Adsorbents
c) Caustics
d) Demulcents
11. Balsam of tolu is obtained from
a. Cephaelis sp.
b. Myroxylon sp.
c. Foxglove plant
d. Aspergillus oryzae
12. Streptodornase is classified as
a. Thrombolytic agent
b. Coumarin derivative
c. In vitro anticoagulant
d. Systemic haemostatics
13. One of the followings is the drug of choice for treatment of malignant hyperthermia
a) Dantrolene b) Xylazine
c) Ketamine d) Diazepam
14. Which of the following receptor is not targeted by glutamate neurotransmitter
a) NMDA b) AMPA
c) Kainate d) None of the above
15. All the following mentioned drugs have sedative properties except
a) Alprazolam b) Barbiturates
c) Flumazenil d) Paraldehyde
Answers
1. b
2. a
3. b
4. d
5. d
6. a
7. d
8. b
9. c
10. a
11. b
12. a
13. a
14. d
15. c
93
CHEMOTHERAPY
Dr. Vijeyta Tiwari

_________________________________________________________________________________
1. Praziquental and tartar emetic is drug of choice for:

a. Schistosoma sp.
b. Fasciola sp.
c. Notocotylus sp.
d. Ancylostoma sp.
2. Source of bacitracin is:
a. Streptomyces rimosus
b. Bacillus subtilis
c. Streptomyces aurafaciens
d. Bacillus polymyxa
3. Drug used as anthelmentic by producing its effect by GABA mediated hyper polarization is:
a. Albendazole
b. Mebendazole
c. Fenbendazole
d. Ivermectin
4. Kanamycin derivate is:
a. Amikacin
b. Spectinomycin
c. Atramycin
d. Spiramycin
5. Polymixin E is also called as:
a. Novobiocin
b. Bacitracin
c. Colistin
d. Kanamycin
6. An agent used against anaerobic bacteria as well as protozoa is:
a. Mebendazole
b. Metronidazole
c. Methicillin
d. Marbofloxacin
7. Following point is correct with related to vincrystine sulphate:
a. Anticancer antibiotic
b. Administered I/M
c. Inhibits tubulin polymerization
d. Cytosine analogue
8. In body netobimin is converted into:
a. Albendazole
b. Mebendazole
94
c. Fenbendazole
d. Lobendazole
9. Sulphonamide is responsible for producing which condition:
a. Optic neuritis
b. Peripheral neuropathy
c. Arthritis
d. Crystalluria
10. Sulphonamide mainly metabolised through?
a. Glucuronidation
b. Sulphation
c. Methylation
d. Acetylation
11. Penicillin produces its antibacterial action by:
a. Inhibiting transpeptidation
b. Inhibiting translocation
c. Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation
d. Inhibiting ion transport
12. Antibiotic which is contraindicated in young animals due to its cartilaginous toxicity?
a. Sulphonamide
b. Nitrofurantoin
c. Fluroquinolone
d. Lincosamide
13. Grey baby syndrome is the major side effect of which antibiotics:
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Tetracycline
c. Sulphonamide
d. Penicillin
14. The antibiotic with high degree of photosensitivity is:
a. Ampicillin
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Tetracycline
d. Gentamicin
15. Drug of choice for trichomoniasis in cattle is:
a. Ampicillin
b. Metronidazole
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Tetracycline
16. The agent used for delaying the excretion of ampicillin is:
a. Probenecid
b. Diaminopyrimidine
c. Sulbactam
d. Tazobactam
17. The compounds obtained from Chrysanthemum cinerariaefolium plant have:
a. Anticancer activity
95
b. Antinematodal action
c. Ectoparasiticidal action
d. Antidiarrhoeal action
18. “Sequential double blockage” is the term commonly associated with which antibiotic?
a. Cyclophosphamide
b. Chlortetracycline
c. Sulphamethoxazole
d. Quinapyramine
19. Point out the correct statement:

a. Chloramphenicol inhibits protein synthesis after binding with 30 s ribosomal subunit
b. Tetracycline inhibits protein synthesis after binding with 50 s ribosomal subunit
c. Streptomycin inhibits protein synthesis after binding with 30 s ribosomal subunit
d. Erythromycin inhibits protein synthesis after binding with 30 s ribosomal subunit
20. Amphotericin-B is combined with Flucytosine to avoid:
a. Nephrotoxicity
b. Neurotoxicity
c. Hepatotoxicity
d. Hemotoxicity
21. Amitraz is classified under:
a. Organochlorine
b. Organophosphatyes
c. Pyrethroids
d. Formamidine
22. The antibacterial indicated for bacterial meningitis is:
a. Azithromycin
b. Lincomycin
c. Ceftizoxime
d. Gentamicin
23. The mechanism of action of Fluroquinolone includes:
a. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
b. Inhibition of protein synthesis
c. Inhibition of xanthine oxidase
d. Inhibition of topoisomerase
24. Topically used sulphonamide for ophthalmic infection:
a. Suphacetamide
b. Sulphaquinoxaline
c. Sulphadiazine
d. Sulphathiazole
25. The mechanism of action of benzimidazole group of drugs includes:
a. Inhibition of oxidative phosphorylation
b. Inhibition of fumerate reductase enzyme
c. Muscle hyper polarization
d. Mitotic spindle inhibitors
96
26. The safest way to proceed for the management of an unconfirmed penicillin allergic condition
is:
a. Avoid all antibiotics
b. Avoid all penicillins and cephalosporins
c. Get evaluated and tested for penicillin allergy
d. Drug can be taken after dose adjustment
27. The most commonly used coccidiocidal drug:
a. Amitraz
b. Salinomycin
c. Enrofloxacin
d. Ivermectin
28. Which of these body systems causes allergic reactions?
a. Endocrine system
b. Immune system
c. Autonomic system
d. Nervous system
29. The most severe form of allergic reaction is called anaphylaxis. What happens?
a. Hypotension
b. Difficult breathing
c. Runny nose
d. Both a and b
30. The antimicrobial action of following drug is considered as time dependent:
a. Streptomycin
b. Enrofloxacin
c. Gentamicin
d. Amoxycillin
Answer Key:
1. A 11. A 21. D
2. B 12. C 22. C
3. D 13. A 23. D
4. A 14. C 24. A
5. C 15. B 25. B
6. B 16. A 26. C
7. C 17. C 27. B
8. A 18. C 28. B
9. D 19. C 29. D
10. D 20. A 30. D
97
TOXICOLOGY OF XENOBIOTICS
Dr. Vinay Kant

_________________________________________________________________________________
1. Which of the following produces ‘T-syndrome’ in rats?

(i) Paraquat (ii) DDT
(iii) Type I pyrethroid (iv) Type II pyrethroid
2. In which of the following toxicity, animal drowns in its own secretions (fluids)?
(i) Warfarin (ii) Zinc phosphide
(iii) Nitrite (iv) ANTU (Alpha naphthyl thiourea)
3. Which of the following form of phosphorus (P) is most toxic?
(i) Yellow P (ii) Red P
(iii) Black P (iv) Blue P
4. Which of the following state of arsenic is most toxic:
(i) Arsine (ii) As+3
(iii) As+4 (iv) As+5
5. The mucous membrane of animal becomes cherry red or pink in -------------- toxicity:
(i) Chlorate (ii) Cyanide
(iii) CO2 (iv) Nitrite
6. In ------------ toxicity, opening of abdomen gives peculiar bitter almond smell.
(i) Molybdenum (ii) Oxalate
(iii) Phosphorus (iv) Cyanide
7. In fluoroacetate toxicity, the monoacetin act as antidote by --------------- mechanism.
(i) Complexes with poison
(ii) Metabolic conversion of poison to nontoxic product
(iii) blocks metabolic formation of poison from less toxic precursor
(iv) specifically accelerates excretion of poison
8. Paraquat belongs to ---------------------- group
(i) Dinitro compounds (ii) Bipyridinium compounds
(iii) Phenoxyacetic acids (iv) Triazenes
98
9. Dinitrophenol produce its action mainly by:

(i) pulmonary fibrosis (ii) producing free radicals
(iii) interfereing with ETC (iv) depressing ribonuclease synthesis
10. Lindane produces its action by binding to ---------
(i) Na+-K+-ATPase (ii) Na+ ion channel
(iii) GABA receptors (iv) Acetylcholinestrase
11. In organophosphate poisoning, the ageing of phosphorylated acetylcholinestrase enzyme
is due to loss of ------
(i) Amino group (ii) Alkyl or alkoxy group
(iii) Carboxyl group (iv) Ketone group
12. Dying back axonopathy produced in organophosphate poisoning is mainly due to the
inhibition of ------------
(i) Acetyl transferase (ii) Neuropathy Target Esterase
(iii) Carboxy-methyl transferase (iv) all of the above
13. The binding site of Oxime (cholinesterase reactivators) is -----------------
(i) Na+ ions channel (ii) Anionic site of AChE
(iii) Esteratic site of AChE (iv) Cl- ions channel
14. Specific treatment for Organophosphate poisoning is
(i) DAM (diacetyl monoxime) (ii) Diazepam
(iii) Pentobarbitol (iv) Chloral hydrate
15. Which of the following is not a nerve gas?
(i) Tabun (ii) Sarin
(iii) Soman (iv) Sevin
16. ------------------ is irreversible anticholinesterase agent.
(i) Sarin (ii) Aldicarb
(iii) Propoxur (iv) Physostigmine
17. On basis of chemical nature, -------------- is Type II pyrethroid
(i) Deltamethrin (ii) Permethrin
(iii) Allethrin (iv) Both (i) and ( iii)
18. ‘CS-syndrome’ is produced in rats due to ----------------- toxicity
(i) Paraquat (ii) DDT
(iii) Type I pyrethroid (iv) Type II pyrethroid
99
19. Specific treatment for carbamate poisoning is

(i) DAM (diacetyl monoxime) (ii) Diazepam
(iii) Atropine sulphate (iv) All of the above
20. Toxicity of amitraz in mammalian species is produced by:
(i) stimulation of alpha2-adrenoceptors
(ii) inhibition of COX-2 enzyme
(iii) inhibition of monoamine oxidase (MAO) enzyme
(iv) Both (i) and ( iii)
21. Dead fish odour may be detected in stomach in ---------- poisoning.
(i) Zinc phosphide (ii) Thallium sulphate
(iii) Warfarin (iv) Cyanide
22. In Warfarin poisoning, the blood concentration of ----------- factors decreases.
(i) I, II, VIII, IX and X (ii) II, VIII, IX and X
(iii) II, VII, IX and X (iv) II, VII, X and XII
23. Which of the following plant has cardioactive glycosides as toxic constituent?
(i) Datura Plant (ii) Strychnos nuxvomica
(iii) Nerium oleander (iv) Abrus precotorius
24. ---------- has been found to neutralize the effects of gossypol.
(i) Ferrous sulphate (ii) Copper sulphate
(iii) Calcium carbonate (iv) Aluminium sulphate
25. Which of the following animal can tolerate larger doses of Datura plants?
(i) Rabbit (ii) Sheep
(iii) Cat (iv) Dog
26. In phase II reactions, Benzoic acid is converted to hippuric via
(i) Methylation (ii) Glycine conjugation
(iii) Glutathione conjugation (iv) Transulfuration
27. In phase II reactions, acetylation process is lacking in ----------- animal(s).
(i) Dog (ii) Fox
(iii) Cat (iv) Both (i) and (ii)
28. The component in snake venom which itself is not toxic but helps spreading the toxin.
(i) Hyaluronidase (ii) Proteolytic phosphates
100
(iii) Phospholipase A (iv) Cholinestrases

29. Jelly like edema around the bite is observed in ----------- venom toxicity
(i) Scorpion (ii) Black widow spiders
(iii) Bees and Wasps (iv) Cobra snake
30. Neurotoxin in Scorpion venom interacts with ------------------
(i) Cl- channel (ii) Na+-K+-ATPase
(iii) Voltage gated Na+ channel (iv) GABA receptors
31. Bufotoxin interacts with ------------------
(i) Cl- channel (ii) Na+-K+-ATPase
(iii) Voltage gated Na+ channel (iv) GABA receptors
32. Saxitoxin produces its action via ------------------
(i) Binding Cl- channel (ii) Inhibiting Na+-K+-ATPase
(iii) inhibiting inward current of Na+ (iv) Binding glycine receptors
33. Multiple stings of Bee results in death due to ---------------
(i) Respiratory failure (ii) Neurotoxicity
(iii) Anaphylactic shock (iv) Nephrotoxicity
KEY
1. (iii) Type I pyrethroid 12. (ii) Neuropathy 23. (iii) Nerium oleander
2. (iv) ANTU Target Esterase 24. (i) Ferrous sulphate
3. (i) Yellow P 13. (ii) Anionic site of 25. (i) Rabbit
4. (i) Arsine AChE
26. (ii) Glycine conjugation
5. (ii) Cyanide 14. (i) DAM (diacetyl
27. (iv) Both (i) and (ii)
6. (iv)Cyanide monoxime)
28. (i) Hyaluronidase
7. (iii) blocks metabolic 15. (iv) Sevin
29. (ii) Black widow spiders
formation of poison from 16. (i) Sarin
30. (iii) Voltage gated Na+
less toxic precursor 17. (i) Deltamethrin
8. (ii) Bipyridinium compounds 18. (iv) Type II channel
9. (iii) interfereing with ETC pyrethroid 31. (ii) Na+-K+-ATPase
10. (iii) GABA receptors 19. (iii) Atropine sulphate 32. (iii) inhibiting inward
11. (ii) Alkyl or alkoxy group 20. (iv) Both (i) and ( iii) current of Na+
21. (i) Zinc phosphide 33. (iii) Anaphylactic shock
22. (iii) II, VII, IX and X
101
Fill in the blanks:

i) ------------ is gamma-isomer of BHC.
ii) Puffer fish toxicity occurs due to ----------------- toxin .
iii) In cats, there is lack of glucuronide conjugation due to --------------------------------.
iv) In phase II reactions, the endogenous donor of the sulphate group in sulphation is --------
v) Animal downs in its own secretions (fluids) in ---------- poisoning.
vi) ---------- gas is liberated in zinc phosphide toxicity.
vii) Rice water diarrhea is observed in --------- toxicity.
viii) Strychnine is a competitive antagonist of ---------------- receptor.
ix) Treatment for urea toxicity is ------------ .
x) The specific antidote in heparin poisoning is __________________.
Answers
i) Lindane
ii) Tetrodotoxin
iii) Reduced glucronide transferase activity.
iv) PAPS (3-phosphoadeno-5-phosphosulphate)
v) ANTU (Alpha naphthyl thiourea)
vi) Phosphine
vii) Arsine
viii) Glycine
ix) Acetic acid
x) Protamine sulfate
102

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Comprehensive Training

Course Director Course Co-ordinator

College of Veterinary Sciences

Course Director Course Co-ordinator

Compiled and edited by:

College of Veterinary Sciences,

Dr. Tej Parkash

1. The characteristic feature of diarthrodial joint is:

2. Orbital rim is incomplete in the skull of:

3. The uncinate process is present on the rib of:

5. The foramen triosseum in fowl is formed by:

6. The ligament flava is present on the:

8. The Sesamoidean pulley is formed by the:

b) Distal sessamoidean ligament

10. The stifle joint is of:

11. The shoulder joint in ox is supported by:

12. The coffin joint is:

15. The cranial lamellar part of ligamentumnuchae terminates at:

16. The turbinates are bony scrolls present in:

17. Dew claws in ox are rudimentary remains of the:

18. The largest sesamoid bone in the body is:

19. The number of metacarpal bones in dog is:

20. The number of carpal bones in dog is:

21. The largest paranasal sinus in horse is:

25. The smallest tarsal bone in horse is:

26. The transverse diameter of pelvis is measured between the:

28. The metacromion is present in:

29. The bicipital groove of humerus is divided in:

30. Ratio of infraspinous and supraspinous fossa is equal in:

Dr. Aman Deep

3. The distance between two adjacent Z-lines in a myofibril is called sarcomere.

6. The epiglottis is supported by elastic cartilage

7. The collagen fibres are demonstrated with the help of

Multiple choice questions

3. Purkinje cells are seen in

4. Apocrine mode of secretion is seen in:

5. Gomori’s stain is used for demonstration of:

6. Epithelium of trachea is:

7. Metachromatic granules are seen in the cytoplasm of:

8. Centroacinar cells are present in:

9. Kupffer cells are found in:

10. Oxyphil cells are present in:

11. Corpora arenacea is present in:

12. The Merkel’s cells are present in:

13. Descement membrane is the part of:

14. Lamina muscularis mucosae is absent in:

EXOCRINE AND ENDOCRINE GLANDS; HORMIONES AND THEIR FUNCTIONS

Dr. Meenakshi Virmani

1. Glands without ducts are known as _______________ glands

BIOTECHNOLOGY IN ANIMAL PRODUCTION AND REPRODUCTION

Dr. Aman Kumar

2) World’s first cloned pashmina goat was named

4) Which one of the following is cryoprotective agent

5) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) technique was developed by

6) The process of producing genetically identical copy of a biological entity is known as

d) None of the above

7) What are the limitations of IVFMC

8) ……………………….. is a gender selection technique

9) Animal biotechology aims at

10) ................enzyme introduced in transgenic ENVIRO PIG. ……………………..

BACTERIOLOGY AND MYCOLOGY

Dr. Parveen Kumar