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Multiple Choice Questions

Introduction To Abnormal Behaviour (University of Newcastle (Australia))

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1. Give an example of a type of Specific Phobia (2 marks).

2. List four symptoms that someone with this type of phobia might experience (8
marks).
2 points for listing an acceptable example of Specific Phobia.
2 points for each correctly identified symptom

1. What is a hallucination (1 mark).

2. Name and briefly describe three types of hallucination (9 marks).
1 mark for the corect definition of a hallucination.
1 mark for each hallucination identified (max 3).
1-2 marks for each hallucination decription based on how accurately/throughly the hallucination is
described.

MONDAY 2nd

Perspectives on Abnormal Behaviour

1. Who is the main influence in the psychoanalytic perspective?

a. Carl Rogers
b. Sigmund Freud
c. Hans Eysenck
d. Ogden Lindsay
2. Describe in 2 sentences, the meanings of the following within the supernatural tradition (1 mark each):
a. Demons and witches
b. Possession
c. Stress and Melancholy
d. Moon and stars
3. Which of the following is NOT an intervention?
a. Cognitive Behavioural Therapy
b. Couples Therapy
c. Detoxication
d. Psychoeducation
4. What is not a function of the EGO?
a. To balance the demands of the ID and SUPEREGO
b. To govern the reality principles
c. To oversee the learning, memory, language and planning
d. Locates gratification of the ID
e. None of the above
5. Projection, denial and splitting are defence mechanisms of which cluster?
a. Narcissistic
b. Immature
c. Anxiety
d. Mature
6. Dissociation, undoing and intellectualisation are defence mechanisms of which cluster?
a. Narcissistic
b. Immature
c. Anxiety
d. Mature
7. “My 5 year old is having nightmares and insisting on sleeping my bed again, since he found out his grandfather
passed away,” is an example of what defence mechanism?
a. Rationalisation
b. Acting Out
c. Somatisation

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d. Regression
8. Which of the following is not a limitations within the Psychoanalytic Perspective:
a. Analysis of transference and counter-transference
b. Virtually untestable in controlled research
c. Unfalsifiable
d. Questionable accountability
9. Which of the following is not an assumption of cognitive therapies?
a. They are cognitive
b. Cognitive mediate clients problems
c. Mediating factors are available for scrutiny and change
d. Cognitions are the secondary target for change in attempts to address clients’ cognitive, affective and
behaviour difficulties
10. What are the Hierarchy of needs?
a. Physiological, security, family, esteem and self-actualisation
b. Physiological, safety, love, esteem and self-actualisation
c. Physiological, love, esteem and self-actualisation
d. Biosocial, safety, love, esteem and self-actualisation
11. Treatment of Abnormal Disorders using the Psychoanalytic Perspective are:
a. Dream analysis, fear association and analysis of transference and counter-transference.
b. Objective relations, fear association and analysis of transference and counter-transference.
c. Dream analysis, free association and analysis of transference and counter-transference.
d. Objective relations, free association and analysis of transference and counter-transference.
12. What did Carl Rogers determine as the limitations of the Humanistic Perspective?
a. A lack of unconditional positive regard
b. Does not use diagnostic terms that they believe “pathologise” behaviour
c. Lack of self-actualisation is the core of all psychological disturbance
d. All of the above
13. Cannabis, ecstasy, LSD and GHB are all under what branches in the pharmacological drug use?
a. Licit and recreational
b. Licit and prescription
c. Illicit and soft
d. Illicit and hard
14. Neurogenesis is not promoted by one of the following:
a. Benzodiazepines
b. Antidepressants
c. Environmental enrichment
d. Abstinence from alcohol
15. Cognitive Therapy techniques do not involve:
a. Evaluating automatic thoughts.
b. Reporting to automatic thoughts.
c. Identifying and recording automatic thoughts.
d. Identifying thoughts and distinguishing between thoughts.
16. What are antidepressants used for?
a. For sedation in acute mania and psychosis.
b. For treatment for depression but also most anxiety disorder and Bulimia
c. For bipolar affective disorder but often used in schizophrenia
d. For ADHD
17. What are stimulants used for?
a. For sedation in acute mania and psychosis.
b. For treatment for depression but also most anxiety disorder and Bulimia
c. For bipolar affective disorder but often used in schizophrenia
d. For ADHD
18. Which of the following is not an antidepressant drug categories?

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a. Noradrenergic and specific serotonin antagonists NASSAs

b. Serotonin antagonist reuptake inhibitors SARIs
c. Tricyclic antidepressant SSRIs
d. Reversible inhibitors of monoamine oxidase RIMAs
19. What is the best medicine for someone diagnosed with schizophrenia?
a. Antidepressant
b. Mood-stabiliers
c. Antipsychotics
d. Benzodiazepines
20. Which of the following steps to reconstruct of the world-view within Cognitive Therapy and Automatic Thoughts
is in the wrong spot?
1. Recognise maladaptive think and ideation
2. Distance and decentre – to develop some “distance” from the immediate emotion, thought and problems.
3. Change the rules. Challenging automatic thoughts.
4. Note repeating patterns of ideation that tend to be ineffective
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
21. Which of the following is not a technique of identifying perception, memory and problem solving within
cognitive perspective?
a. Self-instructional training
b. Cognitive perception therapy
c. Cognitive therapy
d. Rational-emotive therapy
22. Which is not an examples of behaviour therapy
a. Aversion therapy
b. Exposure therapy
c. Modelling
d. Social skills therapy
23. Social Learning Theory is combined classical conditioning operant conditioning with observational learning,
which forms of observational learning does this involve?
a. Modelling, imitation, social learning and vicarious learning
b. Imitation, social learning, modelling and listening
c. Vicarious learning, social learning and imitation
d. Listening, vicarious learning, social learning and imitation
24. B. F. Skinner contributed three finding to operant conditioning, which is not one of these?
a. Operant conditioning: learning in which the future probability of a behaviour is affected by its
consequences.
b. To predict and alter behaviour we need to understand and probability of response and what influences this.
c. Radical position ruled out self-determination and freedom.
d. Instrumental learning: behaviours are controlled by the consequences that follow them.
25. What is the most popular prescription drug when considering all disorder types?
a. Benzodiazepine
b. Antipsychotic
c. Antidepressants
d. Anticonvulsant

Assessment and Diagnosis

1. What is the correct three-step sequence for duration of a disorder?

a. Observation, diagnosis and treatment
b. Diagnosis, observation and treatment
c. Diagnosis, assessment and treatment

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d. Assessment, diagnosis and treatment

2. What is the definition of assessment?
a. Systematic evaluation and measurement of psychological, biological and social factors in an individual
presenting with possible psychological disorder.
b. Evaluation of social and psychological factors of abnormal functioning.
c.
3. What is the definition of diagnosis?
4. Which of the following is not an advantage of diagnosis?
a. Treatment matching
b. Stigma
c. Improves communication between clinicians
d. Can be tremendously beneficial for clients
5. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of diagnosis?
a. Totalisation
b. Reification
c. Subjectivity
d. Cultural bias
6. What does not contributes to the prevalence of mental illness?
a. The definition of mental illness
b. Cultural context
c. Prevalence of human sufferings
d. Family influence
7. What do we consider when contributing to the definition of ‘normal’?
a. Social, culture, history, family, political and research
b. History, religion, culture, research, media, social and political
c. Biology, social, political, history, religion, culture and research
d. Biology, culture, research, history, social and political
8. Which of the following reasons stated below is not a reason to assess?
a. Medicare, the access to counselling/support through diagnosis by GP
b. Important to determine what treatment(s) is/are appropriate to use.
c. Evidence is the most important thing in a practical world.
d. Assessment originates from the biological perspective; symptoms were considered categorically for the
purpose of directing appropriate treatment.
9. When doing a biopsychosocial assessment of someone diagnosed with bipolar disorder, we must consider which
factors?
a. Social, clinical and biological factors.
b. Clinical, family and social factors.
c. Biological, psychological and social factors.
d. Psychological, social and family factors.
10. Which of the following is not part of the ‘clinical toolbox’?
a. Clinical interview
b. Structured diagnostic interview
c. Psychometric testing
d. Treatment strategies
11. Psychometric testing does not include which of the following?
a. Syndrome specific test
b. Global distress inventories
c. Biological tests
d. Personality tests
12. Assessment framework does not consist of which factor?
a. Psychiatric history
b. Family and biological history
c. Assessing risk

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d. Mental state examination

13. Assessing risk
a. Biological assessment
b. Drug and alcohol assessment
c. Suicide risk assessment
d. Risk of other
14. Assessment objectivity
a. How objective are you when you are talking to a client.
b. The framework that you identity with may influence your assessment style, the kinds of questions that you
ask, the information that you seek.
c. We all use filters to process information

Anxiety Disorders

1. What is the nature of fear and anxiety

a. Flight or fight
b. Scared or combat
c. Run away or battle
d. Distress or conflict
2. Related behaviours within fight or flight does not include:
a. Stand point – not to make a reaction to danger
b. Freezing – to evaluate danger
c. Flight – escape
d. Fight – if danger is unavoidable
3. The epidemiology of an anxiety disorder as a specific phobia is:
a. 12 month prevalence 5-7%, female to male ratio 1:2
b. 12 month prevalence 5-7%, female to male ratio 2:1
c. 12 month prevalence 7-9%, female to male ratio 2:1
d. 12 month prevalence 7-9%, female to male ratio 1:2
4. The epidemiology of an anxiety disorder as a social phobia is:
a. 12 month prevalence 2-7%, female to male ratio 1.5:1
b. 12 month prevalence 7-9%, female to male ratio 1:1.5
c. 12 month prevalence 2-7%, female to male ratio 1.5:1
d. 12 month prevalence 7-9%, female to male ratio 1:1.5
5. Definition of agoraphobia
a. Intense fear within all public surroundings, resulting in panic attacks.
b. Anxiety about being in places from which escape might be difficult or embarrassing in the event of having a
panic attack.
c. Immense anxiety when escaping from social interactions and situations.
d. Anxiety that is a result of any social situations when human contact is a possibility.
6. GAD stands for what?
a. Generalised Angry Disorder
b. Generalised Anxiety Disease
c. Gland Annoying Disorder
d. Generalised Anxiety Disorder
7. Biological precipitating factors does not include which of the following:
a. Chronic illness
b. Stimulants and recreational drugs
c. Family history
d. Hyperventilation
8. Which of the following is not a social precipitating factor?
a. Cumulative stress over time
b. Social support
c. Significant personal loss

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d. Significant life change/challenge

9. Treat/attentional bias is defined as,
a. Differential attentional allocation toward threatening relative to neutral stimuli
b. I don’t know?
c. The clinical has a bias towards the patient that stems from personal interaction, only affecting treatment.
d. Can you tell I’m over this now?
10. General treatment principle does not consist of which of the following?
a. Psychoeducation
b. Managing anxiety symptoms
c. Exposure
d. CB therapy
11. Treatments for specific phobias
a. Exposure-based treatments are the most effective
b. Exposures may work through extinction
c. They may also work by challenging expectations of danger. Increasing self-efficacy, and increasing
perception of control
d. Cognitive-behavioural therapy are proven to be effective.
12. Which of the following as an incorrect example of a treatments for social phobia using cognition behaviour
therapy?
a. Psychoeducation, cognitive restructuring of negative thoughts, learning about cognitive distortions and
exposure to feared social situations
b. Psychoeducation, cognitive analyse of negative thoughts, learning about cognitive distortions and exposure
to feared social situations
c. Psychoeducation, cognitive analyse of positive thoughts, learning about cognitive distortions and exposure
to feared social situations
d. Psychoeducation, cognitive restructuring of positive thoughts, learning about cognitive distortions and
exposure to feared social situations
13. One of the following does not related to treatment for Generalised Anxiety Disorder.
a. Pharmacological therapy
b. Cognitive-behavioural therapy
c. Some symptom improvement, yet only 50% of those affected and up in non-clinical range
d. It is entirely up to the person to change their behaviour and thought process.
14. Cognitive models used when diagnosing Generalised Anxiety Disorder
a. ABC model
b. Information processing model
c. Metacognitive model
d. Avoidance theory
e. Intolerance of uncertainly model
15. What is the avoidance theory used for?
a. Based toward threat
b. Worry to avoid imagery and underlying concerns
c. Positive and negative meta-beliefs about worry
d. Need to control
16. Difference between obsession and compulsion?
a. Obsession is recurrent thoughts, images or impulses experienced as unwanted and intrusive. Compulsions is
repetitive behaviours that the person feels compelled to perform in response to obsession or according to
rigid rules.
b. Obsession is repetitive behaviours that the person feels compelled to perform in response to obsession or
according to rigid rules. Compulsions are recurrent thoughts, images or impulses experienced as unwanted
and intrusive.
c. Obsessions are recurrent thoughts that are only there because the person is weak. Compulsions are actions
that repeat themselves without the person being able to stop them.

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d. Obsessions are thoughts that repeat themselves without the person being able to stop them. Compulsions
are actions that are only repeated because the person is weak.
17. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder treatment does not consist of which of following?
a. Pharmacological therapy
b. Cognitive-behaviour therapy
c. Fear exposure
d. Applying CBT to survivors after trauma exposure

THURSDAY 5th

Schizophrenia and Psychoses

1. What is the duration and number of symptoms a patient must have before being diagnosed with schizophrenia?
a. At least 6 months and has 2 or more symptoms
b. At least 6 months and has 3 or more symptoms
c. At least 12 months and has 2 or more symptoms
d. At least 12 months and has 3 or more symptoms
2. To be diagnosed with Schizophrenia, a patient must have two or more of seven possible symptoms to make
criteria A. Name these symptoms.
a. _______________________________
b. _______________________________
c. _______________________________
d. _______________________________
e. _______________________________
f. _______________________________
g. _______________________________
3. Which of the following is not a necessarily but sufficient characteristic of a delusion?
a. The belief is described clearly in the respondent’s own words, not simply assented to following a leading
question.
b. It is held with a basic and compelling subjective conviction though the degree of certainty may fluctuate or be
concealed
c. It is not susceptible, or only briefly, to modification by experience or evidence that contradict it.
d. The belief is impossible, incredible or false.
4. What is the definition of a delusion?
5. What is the definition of hallucinations?
6. What are the visual symptoms of hallucinations?
a. Unformed
b. Formed
c. Scenic
d. Hypnagogic and hypnopompic
e. None of the above
7. Disorganised speech does not have which of the following characteristics?
a. Fight of ideas
b. Circumstantiality
c. Neologisms
d. Disconnected
e. Distorted grammar.
8. What is not a negative symptoms
a. Blunting or flattening of affect
b. Alogia
c. Reducing
d. Avolition
9. What must we not consider when diagnosing Schizophrenia from DSM-5
a. Social and occupational dysfunction

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b. Duration
c. Schizoaffective and mood disorder exclusion
d. Substance/general medical condition exclusion
e. Relationship to a pervasive developmental disorder
f. Family income
10. Drug induced psychosis does not include which of the following?
a. Amphetamine
b. Cocaine
c. LSD & Ketamine
d. PCP
e. Alcohol
f. Cannabis
11. Which of the following is not a positive symptom?
a. Delusions
b. Hallucinations
c. Social withdrawal
d. Disorganised speech
e. Catatonia
12. Cognitive deficits do not consist of which of the following?
a. Attention
b. Learning
c. Memory
d. Executive functions
13. Antipsychotics do not differ in:
a. Brain activity
b. How selectively and to what extent thy block D2 receptors
c. Which dopamine pathways they block
d. The extent they also work by altering activity in related
e. Their side effect and efficacy profile
14. Factors of treatment does not include
a. Recovery
b. Social skills training
c. Cognitive behaviour therapy
d. Location
e. Cognitive rehabilitation

Eating Disorder

1. Three most common eating disorders:

a. Anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa and binge-eating disorder.
b. Bulimia nervosa, anorexia nervosa and normal eating.
c. Anorexia nervosa, normal eating and binge-eating disorder
d. Anorexia nervous, bulimia nervosa and binge-eating disorder
2. Which of the following is the correct BMI for an Anorexia Nervosa diagnosis?
a. < 19.5
b. < 16.5
c. < 17.5
d. < 18.5
3. Anorexia nervosa results in what percentage or less of expected body weight?
a. 80%
b. 85%
c. 90%
d. 95%
4. Anorexia is strong female reported, what percentage are males?

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a. 8%
b. 9%
c. 10%
d. 11%
5. There are many symptoms for AN, which of the following area is used most when first diagnosing?
a. Mental
b. Social
c. Biological
d. Physical
6. Bulimia nervosa
a. Repeated episodes of binge eating, followed by some form of inappropriate compensatory behaviour to
prevent weight gain, not necessarily overweight.
b. Repeated episodes of binge eating, followed by some form of inappropriate compensatory behaviour to
prevent weight gain, and does not have a normal BMI.
c. Repeated episodes of binge eating, not necessarily overweight
d. Repeated episodes of binge eating, and does not have a normal BMI.
7. Bulimia nervosa DSM-5 criteria.
a. Binges and compensatory occurring at least twice a week over a 6 month period, and self-evaluation is
unduly influenced by shape and weight
b. Binges and compensatory occurring at least once a week over a 6 month period, and self-evaluation is
unduly influenced by shape and weight
c. Binges and compensatory occurring at least once a week over a 3 month period, and self-evaluation is
unduly influenced by shape and weight.
d. Binges and compensatory occurring at least twice a week over a 3 month period, and self-evaluation is
unduly influenced by shape and weight
8. What effects do eating disorders have on the brain?
a. Shrink, adaptive to new situations, thoughts of food, rigid and fragmented thinking, and problem solving
impairment.
b. Shrink, fails to adjust to new situations, thoughts of food, consistent thinking, and problem solving
impairment
c. Shrink, fails to adjust to new situations, thoughts of food, rigid and fragmented thinking, and problem
solving impairments
d. Shrink, fails to adjust to new situations, thoughts of food, rigid and fragmented thinking, and increased
problem solving ability
9. Characteristics variables
a. Body weight
b. Skin appearance
c. Presence of absence of restrictive/binge eating
d. Presence or absence of compensatory behaviour
10. Levels of intervention
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
11. Levels of intervention consist of:
a. Primary (improve infant-caregiver attachments), secondary (detect early signs and provide intervention)
and tertiary (outpatient psychotherapy and nutrition education)
12. Assessment tools
a. Mental stability scale
b. Depression scale
c. Anxiety scale
d. Eating disorder scale
e. Eating attitudes scale

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13. Treatment
a. CT
b. CBT
c. Nutritional
d. Acceptance and commitment therapy

Disorders of Childhood

1. What is a mental health disorder?

a. Currently be considered to be a manifestation of a behavioural, psychological or biological dysfunction in
the individual
2. Which of the following is not a category of childhood disorders
a. Anxiety disorders
b. Externalising disorders
c. Eating disorder
d. Learning, communication and motor skills disorders
e. Internalising disorders
f. Pervasive developmental disorders
g. Trauma and abuse
3. Which of the following is not a way to assess children?
a. Referrals usually come from concerned others
b. School reports and any recent assessments
c. Clinical interviewing
d. Family therapy
e. Standardised assessments
f. Discussion with teachers/ other carers
g. School/home based observation
4. Which of the following is not an interviewing technique?
a. Family
b. School
c. Parent
d. Child only
5. An externalising disorder is disruptive behaviour disorders, it consists of three aspects. Which of the following is
not one of those?
a. Oppositional defiant disorder
b. Conduct disorder
c. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
d. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
6. Which of the following is not a disruptive behaviour disorder?
a. ODD
b. Anxiety disorder
c. Conduct disorder
d. ADHD
7. ADHD
a. Attention-Deficit/ Hyperactivity disorder
b. Attention-Deficit/ Hypo-activity disorder
c. Attention-deviance/ Hyperactivity disorder
d. Attention-deviance / hypo-activity disorder
8. ADHD symptoms consist of:
a. Problems with concentration, long term memory and organisation
b. Problems with concentration, short term memory and preparation
c. Problems with concentration, short term memory and organisation
d. Problems with learning, long term memory and preparation
9. Conduct disorder

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a. Naughty, violating basic rights of others or major societal norms

b. Naughty and serious disturbances, violating basic rights of others or major societal norms
c. Serious disturbances, violating basic rights of others or major societal norms.
d. Naughty and serious disturbances, live outside the law and major societal norms.
10. ODD
a. Oppositional defiant disease
b. Occupational defiant disease
c. Occupational defiant disorder
d. Oppositional defiant disorder
11. ODD overview does not include:
a. Due to temperament, brain and environmental factors.
b. Technical term for very naughty
c. Behavioural management is the key
d. Biological factors have the largest influence
12. Anxiety disorders does not include
a. Oppositional defiant disorder
b. Generalised anxiety disorder
c. Panic disorder
d. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
e. Social phobia
f. Selective mutism
g. Separation Anxiety disorder
h. Major depressive disorder
i. Bipolar affective disorder
13. Which of the following treatment is used for anxiety disorders
a. CBT
b. CT
c. Behaviour therapy
14. What is Enuresis?
15. Treatment for enuresis
a. CBT
b. CT
c. Conditioning approach
d. Behavioural therapy
16. What is Encopresis?
a. Repetitive soiling in inappropriate places at least one per month for 6 months in a child older than 4.
b. Repetitive soiling in inappropriate places at least one per month for 3 months in a child older than 4.
c. Repetitive soiling in inappropriate places at least one per month for 6 months in a child older than 6.
d. Repetitive soiling in inappropriate places at least one per month for 3 months in a child older than 6.
17. Trauma and abuse does not include which of the following?
a. Specific engagement disorder
b. Post-traumatic stress disorder
c. Reactive attachment disorder
d. Social engagement disorder
e. Dissociation
f. Self-harm

MONDAY 9th

Mood Disorders

1. Depression disorders
a. Major Depression Disorder
b. Persistent Depressive Disorder

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c. Unipolar Depression
2. Major Depression Disorder must have four additional symptoms before being diagnoses. Which of the following
is not a symptom?
a. Feelings of worthless or guilt
b. Appetite disturbance
c. Poor concentration
d. Increased intelligence
3. Which of the following is incorrect about Persistent Depressive Disorder
a. Presence of at least two symptoms
b. Low self-esteem
c. Seasonal pattern
d. Most serve from of depression
4. Which of the following is false about the prevalence of depression?
a. In Australia: 3.4% of men, 6.8% of women over 1-year period
b. Lifetime prevalence – 17%
c. Often occurs in the 40s
d. Omen 2x as likely to have depression – cause of gender difference not completely known
5. Which of the following is false about the course of depression?
a. Most who have an MDE will have another episode within 5 years
b. 25% change of relapse
c. 10% experience of chronic cause
d. Up to 50% with depression recover within 6 months of treatment
6. Which of the following in not a biological factor of aetiology of unipolar depression?
a. Neurotransmitters – serotonin, norepinephrine, dopamine
b. Neuroendocrine – hyperactivity in HPA axis
c. Neurobiological dysfunction – brain malfunctions
d. Neurophysiological – abnormalities in brain structure, including prefrontal cortex, hippocampus, anterior
cingulate and amygdala.
7. Environmental factors of aetiology of unipolar depression does not include:
a. Inherited genetics
b. Stressful life events
c. High level of ‘expressed emotion’ in families of depressed patients
d. Interpersonal difficulties
8. Psychological factors of aetiology of unipolar depression does not include:
a. Behavioural theories
b. Selgiman’s learned helplessness model – depression linked with expectancy of helplessness in face of
adverse events
c. Cognitive theories
d. Beck – childhood experiences lead to dysfunctional beliefs which are triggered by relevant events.
9. Behavioural factors of aetiology of unipolar depression does not include:
a. Poor coping skills
b. Protective factors may reduce risk
c. Influence of adverse events and lack of positive reinforcement
d. Social support
10. Which of the following is not a bipolar disorder?
a. Bipolar I
b. Bipolar II
c. Bipolar III
d. Cyclothymic
11. What is the difference between a manic episode and hypomania episode for someone diagnosed with bipolar
disorder?
12. How do you tell the difference between Bipolar I, Bipolar II and Cyclothymic
13. Which of the following is not a treatment for Bipolar disorder?

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a. Mood stabilisers
b. Cognitive behaviour therapy
c. Relapse prevention
d. Medication

Substance Abuse (Addiction)

1. Which was the most popular substance in 2013?

a. Tobacco
b. Alcohol
c. Pharmaceuticals
d. Illicit drugs
2. Which is the most at risk age group when considering addiction?
a. 18-24
b. 20-29
c. 12-18
d. 15-40
3. Which of the following is not an at risk population?
a. Aboriginal and torres strait islander people
b. Low SES
c. Pregnant women
d. High SES
e. Remote and very remote
f. Mental illness
4. Why is the biopsychosocial model important when analysing addiction?
5. Genetics may not affect which of the following?
a. Drug metabolism, absorption, excretion, sensitivity
b. Impulsivity
c. Risk taking behaviour
d. SES
e. Likelihood of dependence
f. Novelty seeking
6. Which of the following mesolimbic and neocortical is not affected by addiction?
a. Midbrain
b. Nucleus accumbency
c. Amygdala
d. Prefrontal cortex
e. Forebrain
7. Which of the following is not a risk factor for problematic drug use?
a. Age of first use
b. Peers
c. Social support system
d. Setting
8. How many symptoms are there for substance used disorder?
a. 8
b. 9
c. 10
d. 11
9. What is not counted towards the diagnosis of substance used disorder?
a. Tolerance
b. Substance groups
c. Withdrawal
d. Duration
10. Which is the correct process of developing substance use disorder?

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a. Positive attitude, experimentation, regular use, heavy used and dependence or abuse
b. Positive attitude, regular use, experimentation, heavy used and dependence or abuse
c. Experimentation, Positive attitude, regular use, heavy used and dependence or abuse
d. Positive attitude, experimentation, heavy used, regular use and dependence or abuse.
11. Which two drugs have the following effects: insomnia, cravings, dysphonia, automatic drive, risk seizures?
a. Alcohol
b. BZDs
c. Cannabis
d. Opioids
e. Stimulants
f. Hallucinogen
12. Which of the following is not a common substance group often associated with addiction?
a. Pharmaceutical drugs
b. Licit substances
c. Heroin
d. Illicit substances
13. Match depressants, stimulants and hallucinogens with the correct definitions below:
a. Produce a change in perception
b. Speed up CNS to increase activity in the brain
c. Slowing down messages between the brain and body
14. Which of the following is not an alcohol withdrawal outcome?
a. Alcohol withdrawal delirium
b. Discontinuation
c. Hangover
d. Depression
15. Match the following substances with their categories (depressants, stimulants or hallucinogens)

a. Ecstasy g. Alcohol m. Magic mushrooms

b. Ketamine h. LSD n. Cannabis
c. Nicotine i. Benzodiazepines o. Cocaine
d. Steroids j. Amphetamines p. Caffeine
e. GHB k. Ephedrine q. Phencyclidine
f. Opiates l. Inhalants

16. Clinical assessment does not include which of the following?

a. Medical
b. Past treatment
c.
d. Withdrawal
e. Mental health
f. Social
17. Which is the correct cycle of stages of change?
a. Pre-contemplation, Contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance and relapse
b. Contemplation, pre-contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance and relapse
c. Pre-contemplation, preparation, Contemplation, action, maintenance and relapse
d. Pre-contemplation, Contemplation, preparation, maintenance, action and relapse
18. Which of the following is not a treatment option?
a. Range of effective treatment therapies
b. Cognitive behavioural therapies
c. Family support
d. Self-help
e. Harm reduction
19. Which is the least important when considering treatment?
a. Psychological factors

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b. Client factors
c. Therapist factors
d. Social factors

THURSDAY 12th

Personality Disorders

1. Distinguish who said the following definitions of personality

a. “Personality is the dynamic organisation with the individual of those psychophysical systems that determine
his (her) characteristic behaviour and thought”
b. “A consistent pattern of thinking, feeling and behaviour that is pervasive across situations and enduring
over time”
2. How does the DSM define Personality disorders?
a. A continuing pattern of internal behaviour that separates expansively from the diagnoses of the individual’s
social constructs.
b. An enduring pattern of inner experience and behaviour that deviates markedly from the expectations of the
individual’s culture.
c. A long-term pattern of central behaviour that diverges extensively from the prospects of the individual’s
society.
d. None of the above.
3. Behaviour pattern manifest in two (or more) of the following areas. Which of the following is not included?
a. Interpersonal functioning
b. Cognition
c. Dependence
d. Impulse control
e. Affectivity
4. Which is the correct fact about prevalence of gender in PD?
a. Prevalence depends on the specific PD.
b. Males have more PDs than females.
c. Females have more PDs than males.
d. Equal prevalence, only in those older than 25.
5. Which of the following is the correct Cluster group for group A?
a. None of those listed below
b. Anxious and fearful
c. Dramatic, emotional and erratic
d. Odd and Eccentric
6. Which of the following is not found in cluster A?
a. Schizoid
b. Schizotypal
c. Paranoid
d. Borderline
7. Match the personality disorders in cluster A with their definitions.
a. A pervasive pattern of detachment from social relationships and a restricted of expression of emotions in
interpersonal settings.
b. Pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others.
c. A pervasive pattern of social and interpersonal deficits marked by acute discomfort with and reduced
capacity for, close relationships as well as by cognitive or perceptual distortion and eccentricities of
behaviours.
8. Treatment for cluster A does not consist of which of the following?
a. CBT
b.
c. Mindfulness/thought and mood monitoring
d. Pharmacotherapy

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9. Which of the following is the correct Cluster group for group B?

a. Dramatic, emotion and erratic
b. Anxious and fearful
c. Odd and Eccentric
d. None of the above
10. Which of the following is not found in cluster B?
a. Borderline
b. Antisocial
c. Histrionic
d. Paranoid
e. Narcissistic
11. Match the personality disorders in cluster B with their definitions
a. A pervasive pattern of grandiosity, need for admiration, and lack of empathy, beginning by early adulthood
and present in a variety of contexts.
b. Pervasive pattern of excessive emotionality and attention seeking, beginning by early adulthood and
present in variety of contexts.
c. A pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others occurring since age 15 years.
d. Pervasive pattern of instability of interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, and marked
impulsivity beginning by early adulthood and present in a variety of context.
12. Which of the following is not a true fact about antisocial treatment?
a. None of those listed below
b. Mixed results regarding type of intervention
c. Some use of pharmacotherapy to manage aggression and impulsivity
d. Difficulty building therapeutic alliance as the client is likely to lie to the therapist, manipulate and threaten.
e. Do not see that they need treatment, to them to problem is the behaviour of others.
13. Which of the following is not a true fact about Borderline personality treatment?
a. BPD of most interest to clinicians due to intervention treatment
b. Have an easy one, it is not this one!!
c. Dialectical behaviour therapy
d. Schema therapy found to be effective to some degree
14. Which of the following is not a true fact about narcissistic treatment?
a. Highly unlikely to seek treatment.
b. Once they have seek their own treatment, treatment is a relatively easy process.
c. Diagnosed typically given when client presents due to depression or relationship problems
d. None of the above
15. Which of the following is the correct Cluster group for group C?
a. Dramatic, emotional and erratic
b. Odd and eccentric
c. Anxious and fearful
d. None of the above
16. Which of the following is not found in cluster C?
a. Dependent
b. Avoidant
c. Paranoid
d. Obsessive-compulsive
17. Match the definitions with the disorders in cluster C.
a. A pervasive excessive need to be taken care of that leads to submissive and clinging behaviour and fears of
separation, beginning by early adulthood and present in a variety of contexts.
b. A pervasive pattern of severe anxiety and behaviour, often gets in the way of important activities in the
person values.
c. A pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings in inadequacy and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation,
beginning by early adulthood and present in a variety of contexts
18. Which of the following is not a fact about treatment for those with avoidant issues?

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a. CBT is used
b. Training in assertiveness, countering social voidance
c. Behavioural modification progression
d. None of the above
19. Which of the following is not a fact about treatment for those with dependent issues?
a. Seek their own treatment
b. Might be very willing to engage in therapy
c. Desire to be taken care of by other a problem in therapy
d. Most willing to become overly dependent on therapist
20. Which of the following traits is not included in the trait facets
a. Narcissistic
b. Psychoticism
c. Negative emotionality
d. Disinhibition
e. Antagonism
f. Detachment
21. Match the domain trait facets with their definition below:
a. Unusual beliefs and experiences, eccentricity, cognitive and perceptual dysregulation.
b. Manipulativeness, deceitfulness, grandiosity, attention seeking, callousness and hostility.
c. Emotional lability, anxiousness, separation insecurity, submissiveness hostility and perseveration.
d. Irresponsibility, impulsivity, distractibility, risk taking and rigid perfectionism (lack of).
e. Social withdrawal, intimacy avoidance, anhedonia, depressively, restricted affectivity and suspiciousness.

Trauma, Stress and Health

1. Outline the transactional model for coping with stress.

2. Which of the following is not a coping strategy for stress?
a. Problem-focused coping
b. Emotion-focused coping
c. Solution-focused coping
d. None of the above
3. Define emotion-focused coping
4. Examples of emotion-focused coping does not include which of the following?
a. Positive reappraisal – create positive meaning.
b. Accepting responsibility – acknowledging one’s role in the situation while trying to put things right
c. Distancing – cognitive effort to detach
d. Seeking social support – can be either problem or emotion focused coping
e. Emotional detachment – often a problem as emotion should be confronted to be resolved.
f. Self-control – wishful thinking or taking action to escape or avoid it.
5. Problem-focused coping is defined as which?
a. Aimed at controlling the emotional response to a stressor
b. Analysing the situation to arrive at solutions and then taking direct action to correct the problem.
c. The tenet is that stress is detrimental but coping-well can mitigate these detrimental effects
d. None of the above.
6. Outline the Diathesis Stress Model.
7. Which of the following is a weak coping and stress management?
a. Progressive muscle relaxation
b. Relaxation breathing
c. Manage your hostility
d. Grounding exercises
8. What is the outline of the main effect hypothesis?
9. What is the outline of the tress buffering hypothesis?
10. What is the definition of bereavement?
a. The emotional response to grief, drawing from the awareness of that someone is missing.

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b. No one cares
c. Loss, through death, of someone known to the individual. It is often used, incorrectly, synonymously with
grief.
d. A and B
e. None of the above
11. Which of the following is not an expression of grief
a. Anger
b. Sadness
c. Loneliness
d. Thankfulness
e. Guilt, blame and shame
f. Anxiety
g. Relief
h. None of the above
12. Which of the following is not a fact about Lindemann’s View?
a. Assess grief as a somatic disorder. At this time he describes as a functional mental disorder because it is
associated with all the signs and symptoms of such disorders.
b. Focuses on a somatic symptomatology of the grieving process.
c. Two aims: define symptomatology and management of the bereaved – seen to be within a medical context.
d. Two categories of grief. Categorisation based upon the duration and intensity of the grieving process:
normal and morbid
13. Match who said the following things about grief. [Klein (1940), Parkes (1965) and Engel (1968)]
a. Compare grief to pathogenic bacteria and argues that is should be treated as a disease.
b. The conclusion that grief is pathogenic comes from the acknowledgement that, for many, the result of grief
is a manic depressive state, which is believed to be pathological in nature.
c. Assess grief as a somatic disorder. At this time he describes as a functional mental disorder because it is
associated with all the signs and symptoms of such disorders.
14. What are the 5 stages described by Kubler-Ross?

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