CHAPTER I

GENERAL MILITARY KNOWLEDGE

The General Military Knowledge chapter has the following purpose: (1) A source of
questions for the 30 points general military knowledge portion of the different AFPOS, and
(2) As per policy, this is to be taken by Private First Class and soldiers who have
undetermined career areas, (3) Because all soldiers from the different AFPOS ‘should act as
infantrymen when required’ duties and responsibilities of the soldier in the infantry squad
organization is emphasized.

The sources of this exam are the candidate soldier’s course and other topics
expected to have been learned by the Private First Class’. References also include The
Infantry Rifle Squad FC3-0151 and the ISO Framework.
Topics for Review

1. AFP Core Values

2. Map Reading & Land Navigation
3. Laws and Land Warfare
4. Fundamentals of Armaments
5. Military Leadership
6. Custom and Tradition
7. Communication Skills
8. AFP Organization
9. Army Operation
10. Doctrine Development
11. Types of Military Briefing
12. Supply Management, Procedures and Types of Supplies
13. Types of Military Operation
14. Unit/Office Management
15. Types of Explosives
16. The Principles of War
17. Radio Message Form
18. Method of Instruction
19. Military Correspondence
20. NCO Leadership
21. Radio Operation and Procedures
22. Military Symbols
23. Military Justice
24. First Aid
25. PA Promotion
26. Supply Management
27. Radio Message Precedence
28. Patrolling
29. Squad Organization
30. Internal Security Operations vs CPP-NPA-NDF
31. Ethical Conduct
32. Squad movement
33. Squad Tactics
34. Personnel Service Support
35. Squad Battle Drills
Sample Questions

A. AFP VALUES

1. It is the crowning value we in the AFP believe in, as it is more precious than life itself.

a. Loyalty c. Solidarity
b. Duty d. Honor

2. It is the power and strength, courage, and ability to overcome fear to carry out our mission
and accomplish what is seemingly impossible.

a. Honor c. Loyalty
b. Valor d. Solidarity

3. Loyalty is simply adherence to the chain of command.

a. True b. False

4. This AFP Core values drives us to obey the mandate to support and defend the Constitution.
The code of ethics explicitly expresses this by saying “To us, _________ to the unit shall imply
that we express in words and in deeds, strong support to those who lead us, those whom we
lead and all those who serve with us.”

a. Honor c. Loyalty
b. Valor d. Solidarity

5. The AFP Core Values state that as soldiers, “We believe in ______ as the value of
obedience and disciplined performance despite difficulty and danger.” It is a personal act of
responsibility manifested by accomplishing all assigned tasks to the fullest of one’s
capability….

a. Honor c. Duty
b. Valor d. Solidarity

6. Keeping CCIE complete and always neat and clean shows:

a. Love of country and honor

b. Loyalty
c. Duty and solidarity
d. All of the above

7. Being emotionally and physically unprepared for combat operation is an act of disloyalty.

a. True b. False

B. MAP READING & LAND NAVIGATION

8. Map is a graphic representation of a portion of the earth’s surface drawn to scale on a

plane as seen from above.

a. True b. False

9. A six -digit grid coordinate represents a location nearest to?

a. 1000 meter c. 100 meters

b. 10 meters d. 1 meter
10. The reference number assigned to a particular map sheet is its _______.

a. Series number c. Sheet number

b. Serial number d. Sheet name

11. While moving towards your objective, you were ordered by the Battalion Commander to
give your location. What method shall you use to locate it?

a. Intersection c. Resection
b. Polar plot d. Map spotting

12. Vertical distance above mean sea level is called the _________.

a. Elevation c. Slope
b. Contour d. Ridge

13. It indicates the relationship between the distance measured on the map and the
corresponding distance on the ground.

a. Scale c. RF
b. Ground distance d. Measurement

C. LAWS AND LAND WARFARE

14. The knowledge and guidance on the customary and treaty laws applicable to the conduct
of warfare on land and its relationship to belligerents and neutral states.

a. Force of the Law of war c. Laws of Land Warfare

b. Constitutional Laws d. None of the above

15. A law of war which applies to all cases of declared war or any other armed conflict even if
the state of war is not recognized by one of them.

a. Force of the laws of war c. Customary of laws

b. Martial law d. None of the above

D. FUNDAMENTALS OF ARMAMENTS

16. As a basic principle in the maintenance of the soldier’s rifle, the rifle should be inspected
daily when used for any evidence of rust or fouling and also to check its general condition.

a. True b. False

17. This policy must be strictly adhered to: Do not use a muzzle plug to cover the muzzle of
the rifle. This will cause moisture inside the bore and cause damage to the barrel if forgotten.

a. True b. False

E. MILITARY LEADERSHIP

18. It is an art of influencing and directing men to obtain their willing obedience, confidence,
respect, loyalty and cooperation to accomplish the mission.

a. Leadership Traits c. Leadership Principle

b. Leadership d. a & b

19. It is the feeling of assurance that you and your men will succeed in whatever you do.

a. Confidence c. Integrity
b. Courage d. Courage
20. A trait of a leader when he gets all the facts, weighs one against the other, and then
calmly arrives at a sound decision.

a. Endurance c. Justice
b. Decisiveness d. Judgment

21. Analyzing yourself objectively to determine your strong and weak personal qualities for
you to overcome the weak ones and strengthen the strong ones.

a. Seek responsibility and take responsibility for your action

b. Be technically and tactically proficient
c. Set the example
d. Know yourself and seek self improvement

22. A leadership trait where in a leader can be relied upon to carry out the activity or mission
in his best effort to achieve the highest standard of performance.

a. Loyalty c. Dependability
b. Initiative d. Tact

23. A leadership trait characterized by the uprightness of character, sincerity, and honesty.

a. Bearing c. Confidence
b. Integrity d. Initiative

24. A trait of a leader who is able to make sound decisions promptly and announce them in a
clear and forceful manner.

a. Courage c. Decisiveness
b. Dependability d. Initiative

25. It is a leadership trait whose mental and physical stamina is measured by the ability to
withstand fatigue, pain, stress and hardship.

a. Integrity c. Unselfishness
b. Endurance d. Knowledge

F. CUSTOMS AND TRADITIONS

26. Drills and Ceremonies are part of the customs and traditions of the soldiery which makes
it distinct from other professions.

a. True b. False

27. _______ are accepted practices realized through continued usage that take the force and
effect of a common law.

a. Culture c. Traditions
b. Customs d. All of the above

G. COMMUNICATION SKILLS

28. The listeners who comprise the body to whom the communication is directed.

a. Audience c. Speaker
b. Delivery d. Feedback

29. Voice projection is imperative in delivering a good speech. It must be audible to be heard
and understood.
a. True b. False
H. AFP ORGANIZATION

30. The _________ provides strategic direction to the AFP through the Secretary of National
Defense (SND). He/She likewise exercises command of the AFP through Chief of Staff, AFP.

a. Senate President c. Chief Justice

b. President of the Philippines d. Commanding General, Phil Army

31 He commands the AFP and acts as the principal military adviser to the President. The
president issues orders to all AFP Commanders through him.

a. CSPA b. SND c. CSAFP d. Chief, PNP

I. ARMY OPERATION

32. Commanders integrate and coordinate this system to synchronize battle effect in time,
space and purpose.

a. Tenets of Army Operations c. Battlefield Operating System

b. Principles of War d. Dynamics of Combat Power

33. It is defined as sustained armed conflict between nations or parties.

a. Peacetime c. War
b. Conflict d. All of the above

J. DOCTRINE DEVELOPMENT

34. The doctrine development component of the Modernization Program aims to develop
Army doctrine that are suitable to our peculiar requirements.

a. True b. False

35. Are the fundamental principles by which military forces and elements thereof guide their
actions in support of national objectives.

a. Strategy c. Tenets
b. Doctrine d. Laws

K. TYPES OF MILITARY BRIEFING

36. SALUTE is an acronym to be used as guide in briefing about the enemy. The acronym
means Size, Activity, Location, Unit, Training and Equipment.

a. True b. False

37. The parts of a good briefing are the introduction, body and conclusion.

a. True b. False

L. SUPPLY MANAGEMENT, PROCEDURES AND TYPES OF SUPPLIES

38. A record showing that expendable supplies have been used for official transaction of a
unit.

a. Tally out c. Attendance record

b. Record of consumption d. Voucher file
39. Ammunition is categorized under what class of supplies?

a. Class IV c. Class V
b. Class III d. Class II

M. TYPES OF MILITARY OPERATIONS

40. A form of operation with the purpose of defeating the attacking enemy forces, securing the
key decisive terrain, gaining information and disrupting enemy attacks.

a. Defense c. Offense
b. Retrograde d. Raid

N. UNIT/OFFICE MANAGEMENT

41. Promotion or leave of an EP is recorded in which section of the Morning Report?

a. Strength c. Remarks
b. Authentication d. Record of events

42. You are a student of TRADOC, PA taking up a specialization or career course. Which of
the following that best describes your status from the view point of the school.

a. Assigned Duty c. OPCON

b. Detached Service d. TACON

O. TYPES OF EXPLOSIVES

43. The FO wants to inflict as many casualties as he can from the enemy so he requests for
_____ type of artillery shell.

a. WP c. Illuminating
b. Smoke d. High Explosive

44. _______ sabotage is the use of combustible material to maliciously start a fire to destroy
property.

a. Explosive c. Incendiary
b. Nuclear Biological Chem d. Mechanical

P. THE PRINCIPLES OF WAR

45. The fundamental truths derived from lessons learned from the study of military history
which govern the thoughts and actions of military forces in waging a war.

a. Principles of Jurisprudence c. Principles of War

b. Principles of Leadership d. Principles of Teaching

46. Strike the enemy at a time or place or in a manner for which he is unprepared is the
principle of ______.

a. Mass c. Security
b. Maneuver d. Surprise

Q. RADIO MESSAGE FORM

47. The person who composes the message and assigns the precedence and security
classification is the __________.
a. Originator c. Addressee
b. Drafter d. Releasing Officer
48. It is a form intended for transmitting communication through the AFP communication
system.
a. Routing Slip c. AFP Message Form
b. Endorsement d. Personal Action Form

R. METHODS OF INSTRUCTION

49. It is a method of instruction that depends primarily on speech and illustration to achieve
effect.

a. Lecture Method c. Demonstration Method

b. Conference Method d. None of the above

50. It is a method of instruction, which is a combination of lessons on different theories

followed by the actual performance of the trainees of the newly acquired skills.

a. Demonstration Method c. Practical Exercise

b. Lecture Method d. Conference Method

S. MILITARY CORRESPONDENCE

51. It is a written communication that transmits information, ideas, and attitudes from one
person to another.

a. Communication c. Military correspondence

b. Correspondence d. None of the above

52. It is a written form of communication whereby the Armed Forces of the Philippines
transacts most its business.

a. Correspondence c. Military correspondence

b. Communication d. None of the above

T. NCO LEADERSHIP

53. Squad, Section and Team Leaders are personally responsible for each soldier’s health,
welfare and safety because these leaders live and work with their soldiers day in and day
out?

a. True b. False

54. An NCO, with the rank of sergeant is considered a ________.

a. Staff NCO c. Senior NCO

b. Junior NCO d. All of the above

U. RADIO OPERATION AND PROCEDURES

55. A combination of characters or communicable words, which identifies a communicable

facility, command, authority and activities.

a. Call Sign c. Nickname

b. Proword d. Code Number

56. Most convenient method of transmitting messages. It includes any of the methods which
cover far distances such as Radio, Visual, Wire.

a. Communication c. Television
b. Telecommunications d. Radio Station
V. MILITARY SYMBOLS

57. The military symbol of “A” Coy, 24th Inf Bn, 7th Inf Div is ___________.

a. I c. II
A 24/7 A 24/7

b. II d. X
A/24 A 24/7

58. Represents a military symbol of a signal battalion.

a. c.

b. d.

W. MILITARY JUSTICE

59. Military justice is exercised through one of the following:

a. Articles of War c. Civil courts

b. Sandigan Bayan d. None of the above

60. It involves the process of looking into the circumstances of a case for the purpose of
verifying and establishing facts.

a. Prosecution c. Complaint
b. Trial d. Investigation

X. FIRST AID

61. It is the care and treatment given to casualties before trained medical personnel become
available to administer professional treatment.

a. Bandage c. Tourniquet
b. First Aid d. Sanitation

62. Any breakage in the continuity of the bone is a __________.

a. Wound c. Fracture
b. Sprain d. Dislocation

Y. PA PROMOTION

63. As a general rule, promotion is based on the vacancy in every rank/grade.

a. True b. False

64. A Private may be promoted to the rank of Private First Class if he has no pending case,
he has completed one year in grade and has not been punished under AW 105.

a. True b. False

65. The temporary rank being held by an EP can qualify him to be promoted to the next
higher grade upon recommendation of the Commanding Officer.

a. True b. False
Z. SUPPLY MANAGEMENT

66. It is a form presented to pick up accountability for non-expendable supplies ______.

a. Requisition Slip c. Requisition & Issue Voucher

b. Memorandum Receipt d. Record of Consumption

AA. RADIO MESSAGE PRECEDENCE

67. Precedence designation in radio messages which is reserved for initial reports of enemy
contacts or operational messages of extreme urgency.

a. Routine ( R) c. Flash (Z)

b. Immediate (Y) d. Priority (P)

BB. PATROLLING

68. It is a detachment sent out from a unit to perform an assigned mission of reconnaissance
or combat, or a combination of both.

a. Route security c. Forward observer

b. Combat outpost d. Patrol

CC. SQUAD ORGANIZATION

69. He has the rank of Staff Sergeant in the squad and appears to be the most ranking
personnel. He is responsible for all that the rifle squad does or fails to do. He is a tactical
leader and as such, he leads by example.

a. Squad Leader c. Automatic Rifleman

b. Fire Team Leader d. Grenadier

70. He assists the squad leader. He is a fighting leader who leads by personal example and
helps the squad leader as required. He controls the movement of his fire team and the rate
and placement of fires. He also secures the front areas of the squad during movements and
halts. He is the ‘Scout’ or ‘Eyes and Ears’ of the team.

a. Squad Leader c. Automatic Rifleman

b. Fire Team Leader d. Grenadier

71. The _____ is equipped with a Squad Automatic Weapon. He must be proficient in the
operation and maintenance of this weapon. He responsible for providing sustained automatic
fire for the squad. He secures the flank area of the squad during movements and halts.

a. Squad Leader c. Automatic Rifleman

b. Fire Team Leader d. Grenadier

72. The ________ provides grenade capability to the squad. He secures the right flank area
of the squad during movements and halts.

a. Squad Leader c. Automatic Rifleman

b. Fire Team Leader d. Grenadier

73. The ________ is responsible for the food supply and medical requirements of the team.
He monitors the health and hygiene of the team and provides technical expertise and
supervision to combat lifesavers. He erases the tracks left by the team during operations.

a. Automatic Rifleman c. Rifleman

b. Fire Team Leader d. Grenadier
74. It is a Command policy on ‘Firearms at detachments’ that only firearms of personnel on
active duty should be made available at the detachments anytime. Firearms of personnel on
leave must be well secured and stocked with their bolt assembly separately kept.

a. True b. False

75. The Command Policy on valor says that military personnel who surrender or run away
during a firefight will be separated/discharged from the service.

a. True b. False

DD. INTERNAL SECURITY OPERATIONS VS CPP-NPA-NDF

76. __________ is a politico-military unit of the CPP-NPA operating at a given geographical

area called the “Front Territory”.

a. Guerilla Front c. District Committee

b. Regional Operations Command d. None of the above

77. The cluster of barangays where the Front has made inroads in its mass organizing works
is called the “Front Territory”

a. True b. False

78. “IPO works” in the barangays of the CPP-NPA means the conduct of ___.

a. Internal-physical order
b. International-practical-official
c. Intelligence-Political-Organizational
d. Ideological-political-organizational

79. _______ is a phase in ISO which involves the conduct of combat, intelligence, and
psychological operations as separate weapon systems, to decisively defeat the NPAs and
launch organizational SOT Operations.

a. Clear Phase c. Support Phase

b. Hold Phase d. Develop Phase

80. _______ is a phase in ISO, which involves the utilization of the territorial defense forces to
limit the freedom of action and movement, resources, and mass base support of the LCM to
prevent its incursion and resurgence. It aims to preserve the initial gains of the clearing forces
through occupation and control of cleared areas.

a. Clear Phase c. Support Phase

b. Hold Phase d. Develop Phase

81. ______________ is a phase in ISO, which is divided into two sub-phases of

consolidation and development. It desires to support government institutions involved in the
two sub-phases of consolidation and development.

a. Clear Phase c. Support Phase

b. Hold Phase d. Develop Phase

82. ____________ is the conduct of psychological operations to isolate the enemy from the
populace. It involves the Planning and Preparation Phase, Immersion Phase, Mobilization and
Empowerment Phase, Maintenance Phase, and Evaluation Phase.

a. Civil-Military Operations c. Intelligence Operations

b. SOT Operations d. Commando Operations
EE. ETHICAL CONDUCT

83. Per Command Policy, __________ is prohibited. Examples of this are cockfighting,
playing cards and ‘kara – krus’ which usually involve betting money.

a. Corruption c. Gambling
b. Pilferage d. None of the above

84. Energy conservation is a command responsibility. As such, all military commanders

should be responsible in reducing power bills. Examples of saving energy are putting off lights
when not in use, scheduling the ironing of clothes, maximizing the use of natural lighting.

a. True b. False

85. Professionalism in a soldier is something seen in one’s:

a. Attention to duty and skills improvement.

b. Adherence to the Chain-of-Command.
c. Focus on tasks and discipline
d. All of the above

86. Acts of the soldier that are prejudicial to the service are those:

a. Make the people fear of soldiers

b. Make the Army look shabby
c. Allow crimes to flourish
d. All of the above

FF. SQUAD MOVEMENT

87. In the movement of fire teams, team leaders are up front in formations. This allows the fire
team leader to lead by example. It demonstrates the quote “ ___”.

a. Do what I say, do not do what I do.

b. Do unto others as others do unto you.
c. Follow me and do as I do.
d. Go ahead, make my day.

88. The two basic formation for a fire team moving is a wedge and a file. The ________ is the
basic formation for a fire team moving in less open terrain.

a. file c. echelon
b. wedge d. column

89. When the terrain restrains the use of the wedge, fire teams use the formation.

a. wedge c. file
b. echelon d. column

90. In squad formation, the squad _________ is the most common formation, particularly in
open terrain. It provides good dispersion laterally and in depth without sacrificing control and
facilitates maneuver.

a. column c. echelon
b. line d. file

91. In squad formation, the squad ________ provides maximum firepower to the front.

a. column c. echelon
b. file d. line
92. In squad formation, the squad __________ is the preferred formation in densely
vegetated terrain and limited visibility environment.

a. column c. file
b. echelon d. line

93. In movement techniques, __________ is used when contact with the enemy is not likely
and speed is important.

a. Traveling c. Bounding overwatch

b. Traveling overwatch d. None of the above

94. In movement techniques, ________ is used when contact is expected, when the squad
leader feels the enemy is near, or when a large open area must be crossed.

a. Traveling c. Bounding overwatch

b. Traveling overwatch d. None of the above

95. In movement technique, ________ is used when contact is possible.

a. Traveling b. Bounding overwatch

b. Traveling overwatch d. None of the above

96. In crossing danger areas, cross roads and trail at or near a bend, narrow spot or on low
ground.

a. True b. False

97. In crossing danger areas, pass villages on the downwind side and well away from the
village. Avoid animals, especially dogs that might reveal the presence of troops.

a. True b. False

98. Actions at halts. During halts, security is posted in all directions. During halts of 30
seconds or less, the soldiers drop on one knee and cover their assigned sector. During halts
longer than 30 seconds, a “360 degree” perimeter is formed and the soldiers assume prone
position.

a. True b. False

GG. SQUAD TACTICS

99. In patrolling, ________ patrols provide timely and accurate information on the enemy and
terrain. They confirm the squad leader’s plan before it is executed.

a. reconnaissance c. combat
b. tracking d. None of the above

100. In patrolling, patrol missions are done to gather information or to establish contact with
the enemy.

a. False b. True

101. A type of reconnaissance patrol conducted to obtain information about a specified

location and area around it.

a. area c. route
b. zone d. point
102. A type of reconnaissance conducted to obtain information on enemy, terrain and routes
within a specified zone.

a. area c. route
b. zone d. point

103. A type of reconnaissance conducted to obtain detailed information about one route and
all the adjacent terrain. It is oriented on a road; narrow axis, such as infiltration lane; or a
general direction of attack.

a. area c. route
b. zone d. point

104. _______ patrols are conducted to destroy or capture enemy soldiers or equipment,
destroy installations, facilities, or key points; or harassing enemy forces.

a. Reconnaissance c. Security
b. Combat d. Stability

105. Two types of combat patrol missions are _______:

a. feints and ruses c. ambush and raids

b. delay and withdrawal d. security and stability

106. A squad conducts __________ ambush when it makes a visual contact with an enemy
force; and has no time to establish an ambush position without being detected.

a. zone c. deliberate
b. point d. hasty

107.______ ambush is conducted against a specific target at a predetermined location. The

squad leader requires detailed information in planning this type of ambush.

a. zone c. deliberate
b. point d. hasty

HH. PERSONNEL SERVICE SUPPORT

108. During lulls in the battle, squad leaders give thorough situation reports (SITREPS) and
casualty information to the platoon leader. Statements of soldiers with direct knowledge of an
incident are included in the SITREP.

a. True b. False

109. Soldiers must handle Enemy Prisoner of War (EPWs) in accordance with international
law; and treat them humanely, and must not abuse them physically or mentally.

a. True b. False

110. Do not search the EPW for weapons or papers.

a. True b. False

111. Do not segregate the EPWs so that they can connive and plan out an escape.

a. True b. False
II. SQUAD BATTLE DRILLS

112. _________ is defined as a collective action rapidly executed without applying a

deliberate decision-making process.

a. Full dress battle c. Drill master

b. Battle dress attire d. Battle drills

113. The following are the characteristics of a battle drill, except:

a. Require minimal leader orders to accomplish a battle task.

b. Sequential actions vital to success in combat or critical to preserving life.
c. Applicable to Battalions and Brigade size units.
d. Trained responses to enemy actions or leader’s orders.

114. __________ is the key to combat. All soldiers and their leaders must know their
immediate reaction to enemy contact as well as during follow-on actions.

a. Slow reaction c. Quick reaction

b. Drastic reaction d. Hasty reaction

115. The drills have the following purpose:

a. Identify the key actions that the squad leader and the soldiers must perform
quickly.
b. Provide for a smooth transition from activity to another, for example, from
movement to offensive action to defensive action.
c. Provide standardized action that links individual collective tasks with the squad.
d. All of the above

116. In ‘react to contact battle drill’, after accomplishing the immediate actions, the team
leaders control fir using standard fire command containing the following elements:

a. Alert and Direction c. Method of Fire and Command to Commence

b. Description of Target and Range d. All of the above

117. In all battle drills, team leaders, squad leaders and platoon leaders continue to remain in
contact with each other by radio or sight.

a. True b. False

118. In a near ambush, soldiers receiving fire immediately return fire, take-up covered
positions, and throw fragmentation, and smoke grenades. Immediately after the grenades
detonate, soldiers in the kill zone assault through the ambush using fire and movement and
leave the kill zone immediately.

a. True b. False

119. In entering or clearing a trench, the squad may be Task Organized as the breaching
squad, clearing squad, and security squad.

a. True b. False

120. In clearing a trenches, each clearing team rotate or take turns clearing in order to
ensure equal usage/distribution of ammo and preservation of individual energy.

a. True b. False

---GOOD LUCK---
 ANSWER KEY

CHAPTER I
General Military Knowledge
1. d 45. c 89. c
2. b 46. d 90. a
3. a 47. b 91. d
4. c 48. c 92. c
5. c 49. a 93. a
6. d 50. c 94. c
7. a 51. b 95. b
8. a 52. c 96. a
9. c 53. a 97. a
10. c 54. b 98. a
11. c 55. a 99. a
12. a 56. b 100. b
13. a 57. a 101. a
14. c 58. a 102. b
15. c 59. a 103. c
16. a 60. d 104. b
17. a 61. b 105. c
18. b 62. c 106. d
19. a 63. a 107. c
20. d 64. a 108. a
21. d 65. b 109. a
22. c 66. b 110. b
23. b 67. c 111. b
24. c 68. d 112. d
25. b 69. a 113. c
26. a 70. b 114. c
27. b 71. c 115. d
28. a 72. d 116. d
29. a 73. c 117 a
30. b 74. a 118 a
31. a 75. a 119 a
32. c 76. a 120 a
33. c 77. a
34. a 78. d
35. b 79. a
36. a 80. b
37. a 81. c
38. b 82. b
39. c 83. c
40. a 84. a
41. c 85. d
42. b 86. d
43. d 87. c
44. c 88. b