*S1041506F1*

S1041506F1

S104/K
S104/

Module Examination 2015

EXPLORING SCIENCE

Monday, 8 June 2015 2:30 pm – 5:30 pm

Time allowed: 3 hours

This examination consists of THREE Parts (A, B and C) all of which should
be attempted. Parts A and B address the ‘Core material’ studied by all
students. You should answer all the questions in Parts A and B. Part C
concerns the ‘Option material’ at the end of the module. There are three
questions in Part C, one on each option. You should attempt one question
from Part C. For each Part, the following table indicates the type of
question, the choice of question (if any), the recommended allocation of
your time and the proportion of marks awarded.

Part Nature of Choice of Time Proportion

question question allocation of marks / %
A Computer-marked Answer ALL 1 hour 45
questions on Core questions 20 minutes
material
B Long questions on Answer BOTH 1 hour 35
Core material questions
C Long questions on Answer ONE 40 minutes 20
Option material question from three

You are provided with a computer marked assessment (CME) form for Part
A, graph paper and an answer book. Answer the Part B questions and your
chosen Part C question in the answer book, using the graph paper where
required. Additional answer books and graph paper are available from the
invigilator if needed. A list of standard equations and constants is attached
to this examination paper as a separate insert.
At the end of the examination
Make sure that you have completed Part 1 of the CME form and that you
have written your personal identifier and examination number on all of the
answer books you have used and on the graph paper you used for Part B.
Failure to do so will mean that your work cannot be identified.
Attach the graph paper you used for Part B to the answer book you used for
Part B. Put all your used answer books and graph paper together with your
signed desk record on top. Fasten them together in the top left-hand corner
with the paper fastener provided. Attach the CME form and this question
paper to the back of the answer books with the flat paper clip.

Copyright © 2014 The Open University

Instructions for completing the CME form

(1) One CME form is provided with this paper. The invigilator has a
supply of spare forms if you should need any.
(2) You should use an HB pencil to make entries on the CME form. If
you make any smudges or other spurious marks on the form which
you cannot cancel out clearly, you should ask the invigilator for a
new form, and transfer your entries to it.
(3) If you do not wish to answer a question, pencil across the ‘don’t
know’ cell (‘?’).
(4) If you think that the question is unsound in any way, pencil across
the ‘unsound’ cell (‘U’), in addition to pencilling across either an
answer cell or the ‘don’t know’ cell.
(5) For each question you must pencil across either a single answer
cell or the ‘don’t know’ cell.
(6) We suggest that in the first instance, you answer by pencilling
across the facsimile CME rows reproduced below. Check your
answers before transferring them to your CME form.
(7) You should note that NO ADDITIONAL TIME will be allowed at the
end of the three-hour period for transferring your marks to the CME
form. Time for this is included in the 1 hour 20 minutes for Part A.
(8) On Part 1 of the CME form you must write in your personal identifier
(NOT the examination number) and the ‘assignment number’ for
this examination (S104 81). You should also pencil across the cells
in the two blocks in Part 1 of the CME form corresponding to your
personal identifier and assignment number given above. We
suggest that you check that Part 1 of the CME form has been
completed correctly before moving on to Part B of the examination
paper.
(9) Failure to follow the above instructions may mean that we shall not
be able to award you a mark for this Part of the examination.

Note: You may use a page at the back of any of your answer books for
any rough work required in Part A. Please note that this rough work will
not be considered by the examiners.
PART A Computer-marked questions on Core material
Attempt ALL of the questions in Part A.
Part A carries 45% of the total marks.
Questions 1–5 carry 1 mark each.
Questions 6–25 carry 2 marks each.
You are advised to spend about 1 hour and 20 minutes on Part A.
Pencil your answers on the CME form provided.
Each question requires ONE answer for which you should pencil across ONE cell
in the corresponding row on the CME form.
No marks will be given for questions where more than one of the answers has
been selected from the key.
There are no penalty marks for incorrect answers.

Question 1 Figure 1 shows the anthropogenic sources of atmospheric methane. Which one
of the following statements about these sources is incorrect?
7% biomass
burning

8% waste
treatment
36% energy
production
14% landfill

38% livestock

Figure 1 For use with Q1.

KEY for Q1
A Livestock generates more methane than all other anthropogenic sources
combined.
B Energy production generates more methane than landfill, biomass burning
and waste treatment combined.
C The ratio of methane from landfill to methane from waste treatment is 1.75:1.
D Landfill accounts for less than one fifth of the total anthropogenic methane.
E Biomass burning generates the least methane of all anthropogenic sources.

4 S104 June 2015

Question 2 In 2013, atmospheric carbon dioxide levels reached a record high of 396 ppm.
What percentage increase over pre-industrial levels (280 ppm) does this
represent?
KEY for Q2
A 70.7%
B 59.4%
C 41.4%
D 1.16%
E 0.71%

Question 3 Which one of the following is an incorrect definition of the sort of uncertainties
and errors that may arise in any scientific experiment?
KEY for Q3
A Random uncertainty is defined by measurements scattered about a mean
value.
B A systematic error is one that results in the measurement of a quantity being
consistently different from the quantity's true value.
C Systematic uncertainties are uncertainties due to random errors.
D Experimental uncertainties may arise from the equipment or method being
used to make measurements.
E Random uncertainty can be estimated by repeating the measurement a
number of times.

Question 4
In the equation a =
(b - c ) , the units of quantity b and c are m s−1 and the units of
d
quantity d are s. What are the units of quantity a?

KEY for Q4
A m s−1
B m2 s−2
C m s−2
D m2
E ms

S104 June 2015 TURN OVER 5

Question 5 Which one of the following is the correct rearrangement of the equation,
bc
a= to make b the subject?
d
KEY for Q5
1 æ ad ö÷
A b = çç ÷
2 èç c ø÷÷
ad
B b=
c2
æ ab ö
C b = çç ÷÷÷
çè d ø÷
2

D b=
(ad )
c

E b =2
(ad )
c

Question 6 Which one of the following is an incorrect description of either a surface or

atmospheric energy gain that can help to determine the GMST (Global Mean
Surface Temperature)?
KEY for Q6
A Absorption of solar radiation by the Earth's surface.
B Absorption of infrared radiation from the atmosphere by the Earth's surface.
C Solar radiation scattered by the atmosphere and clouds.
D Absorption of infrared radiation from the Earth’s surface by the Earth's
atmosphere.
E Absorption of solar radiation by the Earth’s atmosphere.

6 S104 June 2015

Question 7 Which one of the following is an incorrect label for the locations A–E on
Figure 2?

75° W 15° E
10 km 10 km
Pacific South America South Atlantic Ocean
Ocean Andes B
5 km 5 km
C
E
A D
0 km 0 km

5 km 5 km
0 1000 2000 km
10 km 10 km

Figure 2 For use with Q7.

KEY for Q7
A trench
B continental shelf
C continental slope
D continental rise
E mid-ocean ridge

Question 8 Which one of the following statements about earthquakes is incorrect?

KEY for Q8
A The position of an earthquake is called the focus.
B Tsunamis may be triggered by earthquakes.
C Earthquake intensity is estimated by the damage it causes.
D An increase in one unit on the Richter scale for measuring earthquake
magnitude indicates about ten times more maximum ground motion.
E Deep earthquakes (greater than 300 km deep) occur beneath mid-ocean
ridges.

Question 9 Which one of the following is an area where volcanoes do not occur?
KEY for Q9
A the Himalayan mountain chain
B the Andes mountain chain
C ocean ridges
D East Africa
E Japan

S104 June 2015 TURN OVER 7

Question 10 Which one of the following statements about planets is incorrect?
KEY for Q10
A There are eight major planets in the Solar System.
B Asteroids are mainly between the planets Mars and Jupiter.
C Mercury has a rocky composition.
D Jupiter is mainly composed of hydrogen and helium.
E Neptune orbits around the Sun in the opposite direction to the other planets.

Question 11 Which one of the following statements, describing the energy changes involved
when electricity generated by a wind turbine is used to light a bulb, is correct?
KEY for Q11
A The kinetic energy of the wind is directly converted into electrical energy by
the turbine in a single step.
B All the kinetic energy of the wind is converted into electrical energy by the
turbine.
C Electrical energy is converted into both light and internal energy in the bulb.
D There are no energy conversions involved in the transmission of electricity
from the turbine through cables to the bulb.
E No stage of this process involves the conversion of kinetic energy to sound
energy.

Question 12 How much energy is transferred when a 1500 W heater is switched on for
5 minutes?
KEY for Q12
A 1500 J
B 7500 J
C 90 kJ
D 450 kJ
E 1.5 MJ

Question 13 A vase is knocked off a shelf and falls 0.8 m to the floor. Assuming it was initially
at rest, which value is closest to the speed of the vase when it hits the floor?
KEY for Q13
A 1 m s−1
B 2 m s−1
C 3 m s−1
D 4 m s−1
E 5 m s−1

8 S104 June 2015

Question 14 Which one of the following statements about electrical phenomena is incorrect?
KEY for Q14
A Electrical phenomena are caused by a property of particles called electric
charge.
B There are two types of electrical charge, called positive charge and negative
charge.
C Like charges repel one another, unlike charges attract one another.
D Electrically neutral objects have no overall electrical charge.
E All electrically neutral objects have no overall electrical charge because they
lack any positively or negatively charged particles.

Question 15 Which photon from the list below carries the most energy?
KEY for Q15
A A photon of X-ray radiation.
B A photon of gamma-ray radiation.
C A photon of radio radiation.
D A photon of microwave radiation.
E A photon of infrared radiation.

Question 16 Aqueous nitric acid (HNO3) will react with solid magnesium hydroxide (Mg(OH)2)
to form an aqueous product. Which one of the following reaction schemes best
represents this reaction?
KEY for Q16
A HNO3 (aq) + Mg(OH)2 (s) = Mg(NO3)2 (aq) + H2O (l)
B 2HNO3 + Mg(OH)2 = Mg(NO3)2 + 2H2O
C 2HNO3 (aq) + Mg(OH)2 (s) = Mg(NO3)2 (aq) + 2H2O (l)
D 2HNO3 (aq) + Mg(OH)2 = Mg(NO3)2 (aq) + 2H2 (g) + O2 (g)
E HNO3 (aq) + Mg(OH)2 (s) = MgNO3 (aq) + H2O (l)

Question 17 Which one of the following represents the electronic configuration for the
aluminium ion (Al3+)?
KEY for Q17
A 1s22s22p63s23p64s2
B 1s22s22p63s23p1
C 1s22s22p63s2
D 1s22s22p6
E 1s22s22p63s1

S104 June 2015 TURN OVER 9

Question 18 The concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) in a solution of sodium hydroxide
(NaOH) is 1.50 × 10−9 mol dm−3. What is the pH of the solution?
KEY for Q18
A 8.46
B 8.76
C 8.82
D 9.08
E 9.18

Question 19 Which one of the following statements related to the equilibrium reaction below is
incorrect? Assume the equilibrium is at 25 °C and at a pressure of 1 atmosphere
in a sealed reactor.

H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) ⇌ 2 HCl (g) ∆H = –92.3 kJ mol−1

KEY for Q19

A Reducing the temperature of this reaction to 10 °C will drive the equilibrium
position to the right.
B A catalyst will increase the rate of reaction but not have any effect on the
yield.
C Addition of H2 gas to the reactor will drive the equilibrium position to the right.
D An increase to 2.25 atmospheric pressures will have no effect on the
equilibrium.
E Addition of the product will drive the equilibrium position to the right.

Question 20 Which one of the following statements related to covalent compounds and
bonding is incorrect?
KEY for Q20
A Covalent compounds are discrete entities.
B Covalent bonds can be single, double or triple.
C In covalent bonding, electrons are transferred from one atom to another.
D A covalent bond between atoms of different sizes will exhibit a dipole.
E Molecular formulae are used to describe covalent compounds.

Question 21 Which one of the following statements about the eukaryotic cell cycle and
reproduction is incorrect?
KEY for Q21
A A male spermatozoon fertilises a female ovum to produce a zygote.
B During mitosis, DNA molecules become coiled but the overall length of each
molecule remains the same.
C Clones contain DNA identical to that of the parent cell that divided to produce
them.
D The cell cycle can take anything from a few hours to many weeks to complete.
E In a haploid cell, each autosome is one of a pair.

10 S104 June 2015

Question 22 Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
KEY for Q22
A Organelles are present in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types.
B Most organisms are classified into one species or another on the basis of their
appearance and/or behaviour.
C Species in which the sexes are strikingly different from one another exhibit
sexual dimorphism.
D Mitochondria are bounded by a membrane and have an internal membrane
too.
E Almost all plants are autotrophs, while all animals are heterotrophs.

Question 23 Figure 3 is a schematic representation of a biological molecule. Which one of the

following statements about this molecule is incorrect?

Figure 3 For use with Q23.

KEY for Q23

A The folding of this molecule results in the special shape essential for a specific
biological function.
B The higher order structure of this biological molecule is determined by the
primary sequence of amino acids (shown here as black dots).
C The monomers in this polymer chain are held together by strong covalent
bonds.
D Groups of these molecules are bundled together into aggregates to form
myosin, an important component of muscle.
E In an aqueous environment there is likely to be a predominance of hydrophilic
groups on the outside of the folded molecule.

S104 June 2015 TURN OVER 11

Question 24 Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
KEY for Q24
A Amylopectin is composed solely of glucose and is the main component of
starch.
B Phospholipids are biopolymers made by linking together large numbers of
monomers.
C The movement of glucose across membranes is controlled by special
transport proteins.
D Cellulose is the major component of the extracellular matrix that forms the
rigid cell wall in plants.
E The cell membrane is selectively permeable and allows some substances,
e.g. water, oxygen and carbon dioxide, to diffuse into the cell.

Question 25 Which one of the following statements concerning enzymes is incorrect?

KEY for Q25
A All enzymes are globular proteins.
B Hypothermia is linked to the temperature dependant rate of enzyme catalysed
metabolic reactions.
C Most enzymes are able to catalyse a wide range of chemical reactions.
D An enzyme’s activity declines above its optimum temperature because the
weak interactions, which hold the active site in a particular shape, are broken.
E Below an enzyme’s optimum temperature, the rate of the enzyme-catalysed
reaction decreases because fewer collisions occur between reactant
molecules.

12 S104 June 2015

PART B Long questions on Core material (Maths Skills and Chemistry)
Answer BOTH questions in Part B.
Part B carries 35% of the total marks.
Question 26 concerns maths skills and carries 15 marks.
Question 27 concerns Book 4 The Right Chemistry and carries 20 marks.
You are advised to spend about 1 hour on Part B.
You must plot your graph on the graph paper provided.
Write all other parts of your answers in the answer book provided.
Additional answer books and graph paper are available from the invigilator if
required.

Question 26 Often in science, one quantity is plotted against another to reveal an

approximately linear relationship. Table 1 gives the data for two quantities
(A and B) where this is the case.

Table 1 For use with Q26.

Quantity A/mol Quantity B/g

1.0 13.0
3.0 31.0
5.0 46.0
7.0 61.0
9.0 71.5
11.0 87.0

(a) Plot these data on a graph, plotting Quantity A on the horizontal axis. You
should label the axes of your graph and give your graph an appropriate title.
(4 marks)
(b) Draw a best-fit straight line through your plotted data. (You should judge the
line by eye, but use a ruler to draw it.)
(1 mark)
(c) From your completed graph, determine the values for
(i) the gradient and
(ii) the intercept of your best-fit straight line.
Include the units for both and give your answers to two significant figures, using
scientific notation where appropriate. Indicate on your graph those features used
to determine the gradient and intercept values but give any calculations in the
exam answer book.
(5 marks)

S104 June 2015 TURN OVER 13

 (d) Write down the equation that describes your straight line graph using the
values for the gradient and intercept you determined in (c).
(1 mark)
(e) Rearrange this equation to make Quantity A the subject and hence
determine, using the rearranged equation, the value of Quantity A when
Quantity B = 100 g. Show all of your working, giving your answer to two
significant figures.
(3 marks)
(f) State the value of the gradient you determined in (c) in SI base units.
(1 mark)
Question 27 (a) This question involves the chemistry of Compounds 1 and 2, shown here.

H H H H H
H C C C N C C
H H H H H Cl

Compound 1 Compound 2

(i) Name the two functional groups that are present in Compound 2. Note:
For this part of the question you should not consider the benzene ring
in Compound 2 to be a functional group.
(ii) Which of these two compounds exhibits chirality? Briefly explain your
answer.
(iii) Compounds 1 and 2 will react together to form a single compound.
Sketch the full structural formula of the resultant molecule, and name
the other product of this reaction.
(iv) Name the type of reaction, and the new functional group that is formed
in the reaction described in (a)(iii).
(8 marks)
(b) Methane gas (CH4) reacts with oxygen gas (O2) to produce carbon dioxide
gas (CO2) and steam (H2O). This is shown in Reaction Scheme 1. The
associated molar bond enthalpies in kJ mol−1 for these molecules are given
in Table 2.

CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) = CO2 (g) + 2H2O (g) Reaction Scheme 1

Table 2 For use with Q27.

Bond Molar Bond Enthalpy / kJ mol−1

C–H 413
O=O 498
C=O 805
O–H 464

14 S104 June 2015

 (i) Calculate the total enthalpy change for the reaction in Reaction
Scheme 1 using the data provided in Table 2 and state whether this
reaction is exothermic or endothermic. All steps in your calculation
should be shown and clearly laid out.
(ii) This reaction was performed using 24.06 g of methane (CH4).
Assuming an excess of oxygen gas, calculate the volume of carbon
dioxide gas produced by this reaction. Assume the reaction has been
carried to completion and has been performed at 25 °C and a pressure
of 1 atmosphere, so that one mole of gas occupies 24.5 dm3. Show all
of your working and give your answer to 3 significant figures.
(7 marks)
(c) Suppose you are given an aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid (HCl), a
strong acid of pH 4.5.
(i) Magnesium metal is added to this solution until no further reaction
occurs. Write out a suitable ionic equation that occurs in this reaction.
Note: This equation should not include spectator ions.
(ii) To the resulting solution of magnesium chloride the following metals
are added. (A) zinc; and (B) potassium. In each case, predict what
would occur and give a reason for your answer.
(iii) Explain what is meant by the term ‘strong acid’.
(5 marks)

S104 June 2015 TURN OVER 15

PART C Long questions on Option material
Answer ONE of the three questions in Part C.
Part C carries 20% of the total marks.
Question 28 concerns Book 5 Life and carries 20 marks.
Question 29 concerns Book 6 Exploring Earth’s History and carries 20 marks.
Question 30 concerns Book 7 Quarks to Quasars and carries 20 marks.
You are advised to spend about 40 minutes on Part C.

Question 28 (a) In a particular woodland ecosystem, of the 1.0 × 1010 kJ ha−1 y−1 of energy
entering the system from the Sun, 1.6 × 103 kJ ha−1 y−1 ends up as biomass
in the highest carnivore, a secondary consumer.
(i) Express this biomass as a percentage of the incident solar energy.
(ii) Explain why there are progressively fewer organisms as you move from
herbivore level to highest carnivore level within such an ecosystem.
(iii) Using Figure 4 as your guide, describe the role of hydrogen ions
(protons) in the capture of energy from light by chlorophyll resulting in
the production of ATP (photophosphorylation).
(8 marks)
chloroplast chloroplast
outer membrane inner membrane

STROMA light
movement of
electrons
chlorophyll H+ thylakoid
membrane

H+ THYLAKOID
LUMEN
H+
H+
H+
+
H
H+
+
H high concentration H +
+ of protons H+ H+ ATP synthase
H H+

low concentration
of H+ protons
H+ ADP + Pi ADP + Pi
+
H
H+ ATP ATP
H+ H+ + +
H H

Figure 4 For use with Q28.

16 S104 June 2015

 (b) (i) In meiosis, the processes that lead to the recombination of alleles are
independent (random) assortment and crossing over. Briefly describe
these two processes. (Guideline: one or two sentences for each
process.)
(ii) Haemophilia is a human blood clotting disorder that is associated with
an allele found on the X chromosome. The defective allele, Xh, is
recessive whereas the allele that produces healthy clotting factors is
dominant, XH. Females whose genotype is XHXh are sometimes
referred to as carriers. Draw a genetic cross diagram showing the
genotypes and stating the phenotypes (including gender) of all the
possible offspring of a female carrier and a normal male.
(iii) What is the probability that any offspring of the mating described in part
(ii) would be a carrier for haemophilia?
(7 marks)
(c) The guppy (Poecilia reticulata) is a popular aquarium fish. Male guppies are
much more brightly coloured than females and show variation in the
number, size and colour of the spots on their bodies. This striking feature
allows them to be used in experiments to demonstrate natural selection as
long as the following necessary and sufficient conditions are present: a
struggle for existence, variation and inheritance.
(i) How could you explain, in terms of these three conditions, an observed
increase in the number of spots per male fish recorded over 6 months
(sufficient time for several breeding episodes to have occurred) in the
absence of any predators? (Guideline: three or four sentences.)
(ii) After 6 months, the population of fish was split into two groups (A and
B) and maintained under the following conditions:
Group A received no additional species.
Group B received the addition of a predatory fish species.
State what you might expect to observe over the next 6 months in each
group and give an explanation of your answer. (Guideline: three or four
sentences.)
(5 marks)

S104 June 2015 TURN OVER 17

Question 29 (a) Figure 5 is a simplified geological cross-section through the upper 100 m of
the Earth’s crust of a well-studied area. Brief descriptions of the sedimentary
and igneous rock units in Figure 5 (designated by letters) are given in
Table 3.

Location 1
F

A
J

X E Y

10 m
1 km

Figure 5 For use with Q29.

Table 3 For use with Q29.

Rock Unit Description

Sedimentary rocks
A Highly-deformed and folded schist intruded by granite J
B Sandstone, devoid of fossils, and composed of poorly sorted angular
grains. The base of the sandstone bed is characterised by a thin
conglomerate layer
C Limestone containing well-preserved fossils of crinoids, echinoids and
corals of Carboniferous age (350 Ma)
D Coal bed containing woody plant fossils of Permian age
Igneous rock
J Coarse-grained granite of lower Devonian age (400 Ma)

(i) Using the principle of superposition, draw a stratigraphic column to

depict the sequence of rock types that would be observed by drilling a
borehole at Location 1, remembering to label the different strata.
(ii) Sedimentary rocks are useful indicators of the environments in which
they were deposited. Suggest the most likely environments for the
formation of each of the sedimentary rocks that would be encountered
in the borehole at Location 1, stating clearly the main evidence for each
environment. (Guideline: up to 70 words.)

18 S104 June 2015

 (iii) Describe the geological evidence that supported the interpretation of
E–F as a fault and state whether the faulting was a result of
compressional or extensional forces citing suitable evidence.
(Guideline: two or three sentences.)
(iv) Based on the information provided in Figure 5 and Table 3, identify and
describe a geological feature that corresponds to a major break in the
stratigraphic record and give the maximum time estimate for the
duration of this break. (Guideline: two or three sentences.)
(10 marks)
(b) (i) Define the term ‘mineral’. (Guideline: one or two sentences.)
(ii) Define the term ‘rock’. (Guideline: one sentence.)
(3 marks)
(c) (i) Explain the main cause of partial melting in subduction zone settings.
(Guideline: one or two sentences.)
(ii) Write a brief account that explains how the schist in Figure 5
(containing crystals of quartz, feldspar and mica), when exposed at the
Earth’s surface could provide some of the mineral ingredients for the
overlying sandstone. (Guideline: up to 100 words.)
(7 marks)

S104 June 2015 TURN OVER 19

Question 30 (a) The Balmer series lines in the spectrum of atomic hydrogen, involve electron
transitions to and from the n = 2 energy level. The lines can be observed by
ground-based astronomers and are therefore potentially a valuable source
of information.
(i) Show that the energies of the first two Balmer transitions (i.e. n = 3 to
n = 2 and n = 4 to n = 2) are 1.89 eV and 2.55 eV respectively.
(3 marks)
(ii) What wavelengths of visible light correspond to these two energies?
(You may assume 1 J = 6.241 × 1018 eV.)
(6 marks)
(iii) Briefly describe some of the items of physical information about
astronomical bodies that might be obtained from measurements of the
lines in their spectra. (Guideline: three or four sentences.)
(3 marks)
(b) Briefly describe the nature of α, β+, β– and - decay and, for each, state the
location within the atom where that decay process occurs. (Guideline: up to
100 words.)
(5 marks)
(c) In each case below, briefly explain why the particle described cannot exist in
the form stated.
(i) A new baryon consisting of two quarks
(ii) A new meson consisting of two antiquarks
(iii) A new lepton consisting of 2 down and 1 up quarks
(Guideline: one sentence for each of (i) to (iii).)
(3 marks)

[END OF QUESTION PAPER]

20 S104 June 2015

S104 Exploring science

Standard equations and

constants
Note: You will be provided with this list of constants, mathematical formulae and
equations in the exam.
This list of constants, mathematical formulae and equations is included for
reference. It may be useful as an aid to your memory but please bear in mind that
many of the entries will not be needed in this examination.

Useful constants
magnitude of the acceleration due to g = 9.8 m s−2
gravity on Earth
Newton’s universal gravitational G = 6.7 × 10−11 N m2 kg−2
constant
Coulomb’s law, constant of ke = 9.0 × 109 N m2 C−2
proportionality
Avogadro constant = 6.02 × 1023 mol−1
Hubble constant = 70 km s−1 Mpc−1
Planck’s constant h = 6.63 × 10−34 J s
speed of light c = 3.0 × 108 m s-1
charge of proton +e = 1.6 × 10−19 C
charge of electron −e = −1.6 × 10−19 C
mass of proton = 1.7 × 10−27 kg
mass of neutron = 1.7 × 10−27 kg
mass of electron = 9.3 × 10−31 kg
astronomical unit AU = 1.5 × 1011 m

Mathematical formulae and useful equations

y = mx + c

4 3
volume of a sphere V = ʌr
3
area of a circle = ʌr 2
1
Ek = mv 2
2
continued overleaf

Copyright © 2013 The Open University WEB 03329 9

2.1
ǻEg = mgǻh

m
ρ=
V
F = ma
q = mcΔT
q = Lv m
q = Lf m
ǻV = RI
P = IǻV
v = fλ
Δλ
z=
λ0
v = z×c
v = H0 × r

[H + (aq)] = 10−pH mol dm −3

§ [H + (aq)] ·
pH = −1og ¨ −3 ¸
© mol dm ¹
E = mc 2
separation distance
speed of separation =
elapsed time

rstar m
= planet
rplanet mstar
rise
gradient =
run
−13.60
En = Z 2 × eV
n2
Eph = hf

L
F=
4ʌr 2
Q1Q2
Fe = − ke
r2
m1m2
Fg = G
r2
mass of substance
number of moles of a substance =
molar mass of substance
GPP = NPP + R

2
Periodic Table of the Elements

1.01
23.0

6.94
85.5

39.1
223

133

Na
Rb
Fr

Cs

19
87

55

11
37

Li

H
K

1
francium caesium rubidium potassium sodium lithium hydrogen

87.6

24.3
40.1

9.01
137
226

Mg
Ra

Ba

Be
Ca
Sr
88

56

38

12
20

4
227

139
Ac

La
89

57
radium barium strontium calcium magnesium beryllium
actinium lanthanum

88.9

45.0
Ce
232

140

262

103

175
Th

Sc
Lu
Lr
90

58

71

39

21
Y
thorium cerium lawrencium lutetium yttrium scandium

91.2

47.9
231

141
Pa

104

178
Pr

Hf
91

59

Zr
72

40

22
Ti
protactinium praseodymium hafnium zirconium titanium

92.9

50.9
Nd

Nb
238

144

105

181
Ta
92

60

73

41

23
U

V
uranium neodymium tantalum niobium vanadium
Pm

52.0
Np
237

145

95.9
106

184

Mo

Cr
W
93

61

74

24
42
neptunium promethium tungsten molybdenum chromium
Sm
244

150

98.9

54.9
Mn
Pu

Re
107

186
94

62

Tc
75

43

25
plutonium samarium rhenium technetium manganese

55.8
Am

152

108

190

101
Os

Ru
243

Eu

Fe
95

63

76

44

26
americium europium osmium ruthenium iron
Cm

58.9
Gd

Rh

Co
247

157

109

192

103
96

64

77

45

27
Ir

curium gadolinium iridium rhodium cobalt

58.7
195

106
Pd
159
247

Tb
Bk

Pt
78

46
65

Ni
97

28

berkelium terbium platinum palladium nickel

63.5
197

108
Au

Ag
251

163
Dy

Cu
Cf

79

47
98

66

29

californium dysprosium gold silver copper

65.4
254

165
Ho

Cd
112
Es

Zn
Hg
201
99

67

30
48
80

einsteinium holmium mercury cadmium zinc

10.8
69.7

27.0
Fm

204

Ga
167

115
257

100

Er

81

49

Al
68

Tl

In

31

13

B
5

fermium erbium thallium indium gallium aluminium boron

12.0
Tm
Md

72.6

28.1
169

207

119
258

101

Ge
Pb

Sn
82

50

Si
69

32

14

C
6

mendelevium thulium lead tin germanium silicon carbon

14.0
74.9

31.0
173

122
No

209
Yb

Sb
259

102

As
70

51
Bi
83

33

15

N
P

nobelium ytterbium bismuth antimony arsenic phosphorus nitrogen

79.0

16.0
32.1
128
209
Po

Se
Te
84

52

34

16

O
S

polonium tellurium selenium sulfur oxygen

19.0
79.9

35.5
127
210

53

Br
At

Cl
85

35

17

F
I

astatine iodine bromine chlorine fluorine

4.00
83.8

39.9

20.2
222

131
Rn

He
Xe

Ne
Kr

Ar
86

54

36

18

10

radon xenon krypton argon neon helium

[From Book 4, Figure 5.3]