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Aldebaran Answer Keys By: EEC, RMT: Clinical Chemistry
Aldebaran Answer Keys By: EEC, RMT: Clinical Chemistry
1:3s
1:2s Shift
4:1s
Trend
R:4s
1.
Trend 10:x
2:2s
2.
In statistical analysis of data, this refers to the middle or midpoint of a distribution:
a. Mean = AVERAGE
3. B b. Median 1 1 3 4 5
c. Mode = FREQUENT observation Mean = 2.8 Median = 3 Mode = 1
d. All are correct
4. A
5. A
What kind of quality control is important in maintaining long term accuracy of analytical methods?
6. B a. Internal QC = DAILY MONITORING c. Sensitivity
b. External QC d. Specificity
7. D
8. D
9. Point of care testing Test performed usually by nonlaboratorian personnel (nurses, RTs, etc.)
10. C
11. B
CENTRIFUGES (Ciulla)
Horizontal Head Centrifuge Angle-Head Centrifuge
A.k.a. swinging-bucket centrifuge Fixed-angle
High air friction and air resistance Lesser air friction and air resistance
13.
When not spinning = VERTICAL Speed = 9,000g
When spinning = HORIZONTAL
Speed = 1,650g
20. B
21. B
22. DECREASED Effect of high WBC count on blood glucose
23. B
24. A
25. ≤ 50 mg/dL Blood glucose level diagnostic for hypoglycemia (Rodriguez)
33. B
34. A
41. D
42.
43. C
44. Arias syndrome (Criggler-Najjar syndrome Type II) Characterized by partial deficiency of UDPGT
45. A
46. B
47. C
48. A
66. A
67. B
2. A
5. D
6. B
7. A
8. A
9. B
10. C
11.
12. A
13. D
14. M PROTEIN
18.
19.
20. To sterilize inoculating loops & needles for sputum culture, dip them in 70% alcohol w/ SAND before flaming
21. 2 x 3 cm
22.
23.
24.
25. B
26. A
Which of the following are sexual spores?
27. D a. Basidiospores c. Ascospores
b. Zygospores d. All of the above (and OOSPORES)
28. C
29. B
30. A
31. B
32. Parvovirus B19
36.
37. B
38. A
39. C
40. B
41. A
42. D
43. D
44. D
45. B
46. Fasciola hepatica
47.
48. A
49. C
50. C
51. D
MalaQuick Standby Malaria test detects:
52. B a. Parasite LDH = detected BY OptiMal test c. Schuffner dot antigens
b. Histidine-rich protein 2 d. P. vivax and P. ovale only
53. A
54. C
55. B
56. D
10.
11.
12.
13. DONOR/CLIENT An individual who submits urine sample for drug testing is called ___ (DOH)
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24. C
25. D
26. D
27. C
28. B
29. A
31. A
32. B
33. C
34. C
39. B
42. A
43.
44.
45.
46.
47. B
48. A
49. C
50.
51. A
52. B
53. B
54. A
55. C
56. A
19. B
20. D
21. C
22. B Dilution used when WBC count is >30.0 x 109/L a. 1:10
b. 1:100
23. C Dilution used when WBC count is between 100-300 x 10 /L 9
c. 1:200
24. A Dilution used when WBC count is <3.0 x 109/L d. 1:20
25. B WBC count is <1.0 x 109/L, how many WBCs are counted in the differential? a. 300 to 400
b. 50
26. C WBC count is >40 x 109/L, how many WBCs are counted in the differential?
c. 200
27. A WBC count is 100 x 109/L, how many WBCs are counted in the differential? d. 100
Among the following blood cells, which one is the most fragile?
28. C a. Red blood cells c. Lymphocytes (HENRY)
b. Granulocytes d. Platelets
According to WHO, to establish the diagnosis for leukemia, the percentage of blasts found in the bone
marrow should be:
29. A
a. ≥20% c. ≥15%
b. ≥30% = FAB d. ≥40%
34. C
Ecchymosis would suggest a deficiency in:
35. B a. Coagulation factors c. Protein C and S
b. Platelets = Rodak, Henry d. Plasminogen
3. C
6. DIAPEDESIS is the passage of blood, or any of its formed elements, through the intact walls of blood vessels
What is the function of IL-8?
7. C a. Stimulates blood cells c. Inflammatory = BRYANT
b. Prevents apoptosis d. Anti-inflammatory
Alfred Nisonoff used the enzyme pepsin to obtain evidences on structure of immunoglobulins. The
enzyme he used cleaves antibodies into:
9. B
a. 2 Fab and 1 Fc = PAPAIN c. 1 Fab and 1 Fc
b. 1 F(ab)2 and 1 Fc’ d. 1 Fab and 1 Fc’
Which of the following IgG subclasses does not cross the placenta?
10. B a. IgG1 = BEST TO CROSS PLACENTA c. IgG3 = BEST TO FIX C’ (3 > 1 > 2)
b. IgG2 d. IgG4 = DOES NOT FIX C’
13. 30 MINUTES Inactivation of the complement is done by heating serum at 56OC for ____ minutes
14. 10 MINUTES Reinactivation of the complement is done by heating serum at 56OC for ____ minutes
23. C
25. C
27. C A reactive result in the qualitative VDRL test should be followed by performing:
a. FTA-ABS c. Quantitative VDRL = TITER
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b. TPI d. Nothing. Report the result as reactive
Destroyed by Enzymes : MNSs, Fy, CR Y X (Chido, Rodgers, Yt, Xg)
28. A
Enhanced by Enzymes
Treponema : P R I K Le (TPI)
pallidum immobilization (P1, Rh,
test:I,10%
Kidd, Lewis) are immobilized:
treponemes
29. B a. Positive = >50% IMMOB. c. Doubtful = 20-50% IMMOB.
b. Negative = <20% IMMOB. d. Indeterminate
When using RF latex tests, a titer of 20-40 is considered as:
30. A a. Weakly positive reaction c. Positive = >80
b. Negative = <20 d. Strongly positive
Which of the following body fluids does not contain HBV?
31. B a. Saliva c. Semen
b. Sputum = UNLESS BLOODY d. Vaginal secretions
4.
5. D
6. C
7. D
What could be the possible cause of the following reactions?
Forward Typing Reverse Typing
Anti-A = 4+ A1 cells = 0 A = N-acetyl-D-galactosamine
Anti-B = 2+ B cells = 4+ Proteus vulgaris (DEACETYLASE)
8. C
D-galactosamine = reacts with
a. Weak antibodies
b. Cold agglutinins anti-B
c. Acquired B phenomenon B = D-galactose
d. Rouleaux formation
9. A
Identify the blood type of this newborn patient: WEAK ANTIBODIES, FOLLOW FORWARD TYPING
Forward Typing Reverse Typing
10. B Anti-A Anti-B A1 cells B cells
0 4+ 0 0
a. Group A b. Group B c. Group AB d. Group O
11.
12. C
13. C
14. C
15. C
17. D (12 months) Sexual contact with a person positive for AIDS
18. D (Indefinite) Bluish purple areas under the skin (Kaposi’s sarcoma)
a. Accepted
19. D (indefinite) White spots in mouth or mucous membranes (thrush)
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20. D (min. of 12.5 or 11.0 g/dL) Hemoglobin level of 10.8 g/dL
21. A (2 weeks deferral only) Rubeola vaccine 2 months ago
d. Deferred
22. D (12 months) Appendectomy 5 months ago
23. C
24. 4 weeks (American Red Cross) MMR (Measles-Mumps-Rubella) vaccine deferral period
27. D
28. C Blood component therapy for individuals with Rosenthal syndrome: (FACTOR XI DEFICIENCY)
Lesions of storage, EXCEPT:
29. D a. Decreased pH c. Decreased ATP
b. Decreased glucose d. Decreased lactate = INCREASED
30. A
31. A
32. B
HISTOPATHOLOGY
-
12. A
13. D
15. C
16. A
17. B
18. D
19. A
20. C
21. B
6. D
9. B
10. A
11. B