FOURTH PERIODICAL TEST IN SCIENCE 10

I. Multiple Choice. Choose the letter of the best answer. Write the chosen letter on a separate sheet of paper.
1. Who was the English scientist who made accurate observations on how pressure and volume were related?
a. Josef Boyle b. Robert Boyle c. Gay Lussac d. Jacques Charles
2. When pressure on a gas is reduced to half, what happens to its volume?
a. doubles b. stays the same c. reduced to half d. rises, then falls
3. In the equation for Boyle’s Law, P2 stands for:
a. new pressure c. difference in pressure
b. original pressure d. standard pressure, 1 atm
4. The volume of a gas increases to 150%. What happens to its temperature?
c. rises c. stays the same d. falls d. rises then falls
5. The equation P1V1 = P2V2 is known as:
a. the Combined Gas Law c. Boyle's Law
b. Charles' Law d. the Ideal Gas Law
6. The mathematical statement of Charles' Law is
a. T1V1 = T2V2 b. T2V1 = T1V2 c. T1V2 = T2V1 d. T2V2 = T1V1
7. Which of the following is true of a chemical reaction?
a. Only physical changes occur. c. Only changes of state occur.
b. New substances must form. d. Chemical properties remain the same.
8. A substance that enters into a chemical reaction is called a
a. mole b. coefficient c. product d. reactant
9. A substance that is formed by a chemical reaction is called a
a. mole b. coefficient c. product d. reactant
10. When oxygen is available, sulfur dioxide is produced from the burning of sulfur. Which of the following word
equations best represents this reaction?
a. sulfur + oxygen → sulfur dioxide c. sulfur dioxide → sulfur + oxygen
b. sulfur dioxide + oxygen → sulfur d. sulfur → sulfur dioxide + oxygen
11. In a chemical equation, the symbol that takes the place of the words ‘reacts with’ is a (n)
a. equal sign b. plus sign c. coefficient d. arrow
12. Which of the following is TRUE of a balanced equation?
a. The total number of atoms remains the same.
b. The kinds of atoms remain the same.
c. The total number of molecules remains the same.
d. The number of atoms of each element remains the same.
13. In a chemical equation, the number of molecules of a given substance is indicated by a
a. subscript b. superscript c. coefficient d. reaction number
14. The symbol (s) written after a formula in a chemical equation stands for
a. soluble b. solid c. solution d. synthesis
15. What number should be written in front of Na to balance the equation Na + MgCl2 → NaCl + Mg?
a. 1 b. 3 c. 2 d. 4
Use the diagram to answer questions 16 – 20.
16. What word equation describes the reaction in the figure above?
a. Hydrogen plus bromine are formed from hydrogen bromide.
b. Hydrogen plus bromine yields hydrogen plus bromine.
c. Hydrogen plus hydrogen bromide yields bromine.
d. Hydrogen plus bromine yields hydrogen bromide.
17. What formula equation describes the reaction?
a. H2 + Br2 → H2Br2 c. H2 + Br2 → HBr
b. 2 H + 2 Br → 2HBr d. 2H + 2 Br → H2Br2
18. What is the balanced formula equation for the reaction shown in the figure?
a. H2 + Br2 → 2HBr c. H2 + Br2 → H2Br2
b. 2H + 2Br → 2HBr d. H2 + Br2 → HBr + HBr
19. Identify the product(s) in the figure
a. hydrogen only c. hydrogen bromide only
b. both hydrogen and bromine d. both bromine and hydrogen bromide
20. Identify the reactant(s) in the figure
a. hydrogen only c. hydrogen bromide only
b. both hydrogen and bromine d. both bromine and hydrogen bromide
21. Which of the following categories includes all others in the list?
a. monosaccharide b. disaccharides c. carbohydrate d. starch
22. Which of the following statements concerning unsaturated fats is TRUE?
a. They are more common in animals than in plants
b. They have double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids.
c. They are generally solidify at room temperature.
d. They contain more hydrogen than do saturated fats having the same number of carbon atoms.
23. The structural level of a protein least affected by a disruption in hydrogen bonding is the
a. primary level b. secondary level c. quarternary level d. all structural levels are equally affected
24. The molecular formula for glucose is C6H12O6. What would be the molecular formula for a polymer made by linking
10 glucose molecules together by dehydration reactions?
a. C60H120O60 b. C6H12O6 c. C60H102O51 d. C60H100O50
25. Carbon atoms usually form how many covalent bonds?
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8
26. _________ are solids at room temperature and contain saturated fatty acids.
a. fats b. fats and oils c. oils d. myristic acid
27. Disaccharide is formed by combining 2 monosacharrides. What do you call the process of combining 2 or more
simple sugars?
a. hydrolysis b. peptide bonding c. condensation d. saccharide bonding
28. An amino acid is a molecule with what functional groups?
a. an amine and hydrochloric acid c. hydrogen bonds between base pair
b. a hydroxyl and an amine d. aromatic base stacking
29. Which of the following is the major function of carbohydrate?
1. Structural 2. Storage 3. Energy production
a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1 and 3 only
30. The molecules that are composed of 2 parts: a 5-carbon sugar and nitrogen- containing base is called
a. nucleotides b. nucleosides c. monomer d. ribonucleic acid
31. Consider a steel cylinder of O2 gas that has a pressure of 135 atm at a tempt. of 20 0C. Suppose that the cylinder is
heated to 850C. What is the pressure inside the cylinder?
a. 273 atm b. 165 atm c. 110.0 atm d. 1.00 atm
32. A sample of Helium has a volume of 11.2 L at STP. What will be the volume at 720C and 4.0 atm?
a. 30.8 L b. 22.4 L c. 3.54 L d. 2.22 L
33. What pressure is required to reduce the volume of a sample of air from 1.00 L to 0.250 L? The original pressure on
the sample is 98.0 torr; the amount and tempt. of the sample remain the same.
a. 392 torr b. 200.0 torr c. 24.5 torr d. 0.750 torr
34. How many biologically important amino acids are known?
a. 10 b. 20 c. 36 d. 45
35. DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) is a _______
a. heteropolymer b. homopolymer c. peptide polymer d. ribonucleotide polymer
36. The enzyme amylase can break down glycosidic linkages between glucose monomers if the monomers are in the
alpha form. Which of the following could amylase break down?
a. glycogen, starch and amylopectin c. cellulose and pectin
b. glycogen and cellulose d. starch, amylopectin and cellulose
37. Nutritional chemists have found that burning 1 gram of fat releases twice the amount of heat energy as burning 1
gram of starch. Based on this information, which type of biomolecule would cause a person to gain more weight?
a. carbohydrate b. fat c. proteins d. nucleic acid
38. The following are the importance of lipids, EXCEPT:
a. forms a protective coating
b. found in the cell component structure such as phospholipid bilayer in cell
c. cell recognition and specie specificity
d. None of the above
39. Unsaturated lipids are
a. lipids containing double bonds within the hydrocarbon chain.
b. lipids that are not saturated with hydrogen
c. lipids that cannot pack as closely together as saturated lipids.
d. all of the above
40. Enzymes that break down DNA catalyse the hydrolysis of the covalent bonds that join nucleotides together. What
would happen to DNAN molecules treated with these enyzmes?
a. The 2 strands of the double helix would separate.
b. The phosphodiester linkages of the polynucleotide backbone would be broken.
c. The purines would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars.
d. The pyrimidines would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars.
 FOURTH PERIODICAL TEST IN SCIENCE 8

I. Multiple Choice: Choose the letter that corresponds to the correct answer.
1. Which is not a characteristic of insects?
a. 4 pairs of legs b. one pair of antennae c. 2 pairs of wings d. head, thorax and abdomen
2. Sponges have
a. stinging cells b. tentacles c. porous bodies d. segmented bodies
3. The group of mollusks without shell
a. Cephalopoda b. Pelecypoda c. Gastropoda d. Pseudopodia
4. Which is not true of mosses?
a. They do not have conducting tissues. c. They do not have true roots, stems and leaves
b. They thrive in moist environments. d. They reproduce by means of seeds.
5. Punnett squares are used to ________ the outcome of crosses of traits.
a. assure b. number c. dominate d. predict
6. Which of the following are located in the chromosomes?
a. Carbohydrates b. Pedigrees c. DNA codes d. Zygotes
7. An organism with two identical alleles for a trait is called
a. heterozygous b. homozygous c. homologous d. polyploid
8. Which refers to the different forms of genes representing a certain trait?
a. allele b. hybrid c. chromosome d. locus
9. Which of these is a combination of the dominant and recessive genes present in the cells of an organism?
a. genotype b. neotype c. lectotype d. isotype
10. Which of the following plants has a parallel type of leaf venation?
a. coconut b. peanut c. gumamela d. pili nut
11.There are seven major biological levels of classification. The species level is the smallest unit. What is considered as
the largest unit of classification?
a. class b. kingdom c. family d. order
12. Who was the first Swedish naturalist to classify living things? This man is regarded as the father of Taxonomy.
a. Anton Van Leuwenhoke c. Charles Darwin
b. Carolous Linnaeus d. Robert Hooke
13. Vertebrates are animals with vertebral column. Which of the following is NOT a vertebrate?
a. fish b. snail c. parrot d. turtle
14. Cold blooded animals are those that can not regulate their body temperature. Which of the following is a cold-
blooded animal?
a. anteater b. lizard c. eagle d. monkey
15. Turtles live in water. Where do they lay their eggs?
a. deep portion of the sea c. pits along the sand
b. in seagrasses d. subtidal zone
16. In what part of the mother kangaroo does the young grow and develop?
a. placenta b. pouch c. uterus d. fallopian tube
17. The following are the characteristics of amphibians EXCEPT:
a. with moist skin b. warm-blooded c. can lay eggs d. can live both on land and water
18. The diploid chromosome number in an organism is 42. The number of chromosomes in its sex cells is normally
a. 21 b. 63 c. 42 d. 84
19. DNA in the nucleus is replicated during this phase.
a.G1 b. S phase c. G2 d. mitosis
20. If a couple has blood type O, what could be the blood type/s of their children?
a. type O b. type A and type O c. type B and type O d. type AB
21. The site of final digestion of food molecules is the
a. stomach b. large intestine c. small intestine d. esophagus
22. Which of the following does not produce enzymes?
a. liver b. pancreas c. salivary glands d. stomach
23. The wavy contractions of muscles of the digestive tract is known as
a. digestion b. absorption c. peristalsis d. swallowing
24. Which organ is part of the digestive tract?
a. liver b. pancreas c. gall bladder d. stomach
25. Evaporation, condensation, and precipitation are processes involved in the
a. hydrologic cycle b. nitrogen cycle c. carbon-oxygen d. phosphorus
26. In a food chain where a worm feeds on the leave of a corn is being eaten by a crow, the crow is a
a. producer b. herbivore c. carnivore d. first- order consumer
27. Which pair of organisms exhibit predation?
a. spider- mosquito b. orchid- tree c. dog- flea d. flower- bee
28. Which of the following processes get the most energy in an ecosystem?
a. producers b. consumers c. primary consumers d. secondary consumers
29. ____________ is a biotic relationship in which both organisms benefit.
a. parasitism b. commensalism c. mutualism d. predation

30. The following are nonbiodegradable materials, except

a. paper b. plastics c. aluminum cans d. glass
31. Carrageenan, agar, and align are produced by
a. fungi b. bacteria c. algae d. protozoans
32. Protists differ from monerans because protists
a. have cell walls b. have chlorophyll c. are microscopic d. have a well- developed nucleus
33. Students research unicellular, prokaryotic organisms that live in harsh environments such as volcanic hot springs,
brine pools, and anaerobic black organic mud. Which of group are the students most likely researching?
a. Archaebacteria b. Eubacteria c.Plantae d.Protista

34. Refer to the illustration above. Which of the diagrams has a shape like the Coccus bacterial group?
a.Organism A b.Organism B c.Organism C d.Both A and B
35. A student observes that a type of eubacteria contains chlorophyll. Which of these does this type of bacteria have in
common with plants?
a.It contains chloroplasts. c.It is photosynthetic.
b.It is heterotrophic. d.It is unicellular.
36. Ticks, fleas and leeches are common types of ____________________.
a. hosts b.detritus feeders c. parasites d.secondary consumers
37. Omnivores are represented by which group of animals?
a.humans, seals, cows b.rats, bears, raccoons c. deer, cows, seals d. wolves, snakes, frogs
38. To produce their offspring, various species of reptiles ___________.
a. lay eggs on land b. lay eggs in water c. give birth to live young d. A and C
39. 12. An animal that is warm-blooded, covered with hair or fur, and that has mammary glands that produce milk is
a/an ___________.
a. amphibian b. mammal c. parasite d. none of these
40. Young amphibians hatch_________and breathe ___________.
a. in water; through gills c. twice; occasionally
b. at night; through lungs d. thrice; occasionally
 Ika-Apat na Markahan sa Pagbasa at Pagsusuri

I. Basahin ang bawat pahayag. Isulat TAMA kung ang ipinapahayag na ideya ay katotohanan at MALI naman kung hindi.
1. Ang proseso ng riserts ay isang saykol at nagsimula sa pangunahing suliranin.
2. Ang interpretasyon ng mga datos ay sabjektiv at nakabatay ito sa saykolohikal na pag-iisip.
3. Ginagamit sa etnograpiyang pananaliksik ang obserbasyon sa pangongolekta ng datos.
4. Ang pangunahing suliranin ay maaring hatiin sa mga tiyak na suliranin.
5. Ang riserts ay nagmula sa isang disenyo o suliranin.
6. Dapat malinaw at payak ang pagpapahayag ng suliranin.
7. Ang disenyo ay tumutukoy sa kabuuang balangkas at pagkakaayos ng pananaliksik.
8.Angkop ang historical na riserts sa larangan ng edukasyon upang mapabuti ang mga programa sa pagturo.
9. Ang fly leaf ay isang blankong pahina bago ang katawan ng riserts na papel.
10. Sa kabanata 2 matatagpuan ang pagtukoy ng ipotesis.

II. Tukuyin kung anong pamamaraan sa pananaliksik ang tinutukoy sa sumusunod na aytem. Piliin ang titik ng tamang
sagot mula sa kahon at isulat ang tamang sagot sa sulatang papel.

A. SARBEY C. DOKUMENTARYONG PAGSUSURI

B. PAKIKINAYAM D. OBSERBASYON
11. Pagmamasid sa kilos, pag-uugali, at interaksyon ng mga kalahok sa isang likas na kapaligiran.
12. Nakikisalamuha at nakikisali sa karaniwang proseso o pamumuhay ng mga tao sa isang komunidad ang
mananaliksik.
13. Madalas na ginagamit sa field study gaya ng etnograpiya.
14. Maaaring maging batis ng datos ang iba’t ibang uri ng media, pampublikong tala, biyograpiya, panitikan at katitikan
ng mga pulong.
15. Ang ila sa mga uri nito ay pagsusuring semyotiko at pagsusuri sa nilalaman.
16. Mahalaga rito ang husay sa pagbuo ng mga kasunod at kaugnay na tanong (follow-up question).
17. Naglalayong kumuha ng malalim at malawak na impormasyon mula sa isang taong may personal na pagkaunawa sa
paksa.
18. Kadalasang ginagamitan ng estadistikal na pagsusuri.
19. Madalas na ginagamit sa mga deskriptibong pananaliksik na naglalayong bumuo ng mga pangkalahatang
kongklusyon mula sa malakihang populasyon.
20. Ang tagumpay ay batay sa husay ng sampling o pamimili ng representatib ng isang tiyak na populasyon.

III. Isulat kung saang kabanata nabibilang ang mga sumusunod.

21. Lagom, kongklusiyon, at rekomendasyon 26. Rebyu ng kaugnay na literature
22. Pagsusuri ng datos 27. Sakop at delimitasyon ng pag-aaral
23. Rasyonal at kaligiran ng pag-aaral 28. Lokal at populasyon ng pananaliksik
24. Daloy ng pag-aaral 29. Resulta at diskursyon
25.Paglalahad ng suliranin 30. Layunin at kahalagahan ng pag-aaral

IV. Tukuyin kung anong kategorya ng interbyu makikita ang mga halimbawa. Piliin ang titik ng tamang sagot na
nakapaloob sa kahon.
A. AYON SA PAKSA C. AYON SA LAYUNIN
B. AYON SA DAMI D. AYON SA PAMAMARAAN
31. nagtatampok 34. isahan 37. aktwal 40. pansarili
32. jornalistik 35. formal 38. bayograpikal
33. informal 36. akademik 39. Panlathain
 FOURTH PERIODICAL TEST IN PE AND HEALTH

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Encircle the letter of the correct answer.

1. It is a team sport which is played by 2 teams; consisting of 5 players each team.
a. volleyball b. basketball c. sepak takraw d. soccer
2. He advances the ball by bouncing it while walking or running (dribbling) or by passing it to a teammate.
a. defensive player b. ball captain c. goal keeper d. players
3. It is worth 2 points, unless made from behind the 3-point line, when it is worth 3 points.
a. field goals b. free throws c. flagrant foul d. blocking
4. Who are on each side at a time fall into 5 positions?
a. the 2 Teams b. Field goal c. the 5 players d. shooter
5. It is the most significant professional basketball league in the world in terms of popularity, salaries, talent and level of
competition.
a. PBA b. NBA c. APA d. ABA
6. An illegal personal contact resulting from a defender not establishing position in time to prevent an opponent drive to
the basket.
a. blocking b. charging c. travelling d. flagrant foul
7. It is a violent contact with an opponent.
a. blocking b. charging c. travelling d. flagrant foul
8. An offensive foul that is committed when a player pushes or runs over a defensive player.
a. foul b. charging c. field goal d. intentional foul
9. Which is NOT a benefit of playing basketball?
a. improves blood circulation c. helps develop a positive mind set
b. can contribute negative thought d. improves flexibility
10. What are the 2 violations of basketball?
a. walking and double dribbling c. travelling and fouls
b. spiking and serving d. blocking and hitting
11. Which of the ff. does not belong to striking techniques in arnis?
a. thrust to the stomach c. left side of the hand
b. weight loss d. right eye poke
12. The size of cane or baton in arnis is
a. 74 cm b. 71 cm c. 73 cm d. 72 cm
th
13. The 4 striking technique in arnis is
a. right side of the body c. right side of the head attack
b. right chest stab d. right lower leg
th
14.________ is the number 6 striking technique in arnis.
a. right side of the head attack c. left chest stab
b. right chest stab d. left eye poke
15. Why is arnis an important sport?
a. serves as a self-defense c. to develop belongingness in a group
b. promotes maturity among youth d. to conduct a military service
th
16. ___________ is the 9 striking technique in arnis.
a. right eye poke c. left lower leg
b. right lower leg d. left chest stab
th
17. ___________ is the 11 striking technique in arnis.
a. right eye poke c. left chest stab
b. right lower leg d. left side of the body
18. The practice of arnis starts by having how many partners standing face to face each other?
a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 2
19. What do you call the person that will refine his skills and techniques?
a. trainor b. arnisador c. player d. martial trainor
20. ________is the 8th striking technique in arnis.
a. left eye poke b. left chest stab c. left lower leg d. left side of the head attack
21. What are the parts of a volleyball court?
a. playing surface, agility, power, nets and line c. playing surface, zones, nets, and speed
b. playing surface, nets, lines and zones d. palying surface, lines, nets and endurance
22. It is divided into 2 equal square halves by a net with a width of 1 meter.
a. playing surface b. net c. court d. speed
23. Who invented the game volleyball?
a. WilliaM G. Burgos b. William B. George c. William G. Ramos d. William G. Morgan
24. It is a popular team sport in which 2 teams of 6 players are separated by a net.
a. volleyball b. sepak takraw c. baseball d.basketball
25. Which of the ff. belongs to fitness component?
a. agility b. speed c. power d. all of these
th
26. Which belongs to the 6 position filled on every volleyball team at the elite level?
a. liberos b. desendants c. blockers d. none of these
27. Who are not allowed to keep contact with the ball for a prolonged amount of time?
a. liberos b. seater c. blockers d. all of them
28. It is usually played with hands or arms, but players can legally strike or push the_____ with any part of the body.
a. net b. plating surface c. court d. ball
29. What are the 2 row of volleyball court?
a. line and zone row b. net and line row c. back and front row d. position and areas
30. Which is the correct position of the volleyball court?
a. b. c. d.
31. What aerobic exercise that improves your heart and lung health, and that helps to work all major muscle group?
a. basketball b. swimming c. volleyball d. arnis
32. Competitive swimming became popular during ________ century.
a. 20th b. 21st c. 16th d. 19th
33. What is the goal of high level competitive swimming?
a. require the use of one’s body c. to perform swimming
b. to break personal or world record d. to recognize events
34. He was the first man who swam the English Channel in 1875.
a. Matthew Webb b. Mathew Webb c. Mateo Webb d. Mateo Webe
35. A swimming style that has the advantage of easy breathing?
a. backstroke b. freestyle c. front crawl d. dolphin kick
36. What style of swimming that is good for lap swimmers who have neck problems?
a. freestyle b. butterfly c backstroke d. sidestroke
37. When was the first competition of swimming?
a. 1940s b. 1930s c. 1999 d. 1857
38. It happens when male and female athletes compete in 16 of the recognized events.
a. Filipino Martial Arts b. NBA c. Tribute d. Summer Olympic Games
39. Which is NOT a swimming health benefit?
a. works the whole body c. helps in managing stress
b. burn or torches calories d. not a good option for people with injuries
40. A swimming style that use both arms and is moving symmetrically.
a. frestyle b. butterfly c. backstroke d. sidestroke