Chapter 40

BEHAVIOUR BASED SAFETY

1. ________means any activity involving a highly hazardous chemical including any use, storage, manufacturing,
handling, or the onsite movement of such chemicals, or combination of these activities.

a) Process
b) Procedure
c) Project
d) Operation

2. Facility which is operated, maintained or serviced by employees who visit the facility only periodically to check
its operation and to perform necessary operating or maintenance tasks is called as

a) Normally unoccupied remote facility

b) Normally occupied remote facility
c) Periodically unoccupied remote facility
d) Periodically occupied remote facility

3. Information on the hazards of the highly hazardous chemicals can be obtained by

a) Toxicity, (LC50 and LD50)

b) Permissible exposure limits
c) Reactivity data
d) All of the above

4. Information on the technology of the process does not includes

a) Block flow diagram

b) Process chemistry
c) Safe upper and lower limit
d) Material of construction

5. SMP

a) Standard management procedure

b) Standard maintenance procedure
c) Standard management program
d) Standard maintenance program

6. Safe Work Practices address ______ operations and often require special authorisations

a) Non routine
b) Routine
c) Both
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d) None

7. Any confidential formula, pattern, process ,device, information or compilation of information that is used in an
employer’s business, and that gives the employer an opportunity to obtain advantage over competitors who do not
know or use it is known as

a) Trade Secret
b) Advantage
c) Competition
d) Blackmail

8. Training given to each employee before being involved in operating a newly assigned process is

a) Initial training
b) Refresher training
c) Job specific training
d) None

9. Refresher training shall be provided at least every

a) 3 years
b) 2 years
c) 5 years
d) 1 year

10. After the completion of the initial process hazard analysis, the process hazard analysis shall be updated and
revalidated at least every

a) 1 year
b) 3 years
c) 5 years
d) 10 years

11. Following methodologies are used to determine and evaluate the hazards of the process being analysed

a) What if/checklist
b) Hazard and Operability Study (HAZOP)
c) Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)
d) All of the above

12. Requirement of compliance audit

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a) The compliance audit shall be conducted by at least one person knowledgeable in the process.
b) A report of the findings of the audit shall be developed
c) Promptly determine and document an appropriate response to each of the findings of the compliance audit, and
document that deficiencies have been corrected
d) Retain the two (2) most recent compliance audit reports
e) All of the above

13. Audit performed by the company upon itself is known as

a) First party audit

b) Second party audit
c) Third party audit
d) All of the above

14. Audits done by outside or third parties approved by statutory authorities to meet the requirements under
various statuary rules and regulations

a) Internal audit
b) External audit
c) Both
d) None

15. Audit usually performed by the customer upon its suppliers (or potential suppliers) to ascertain whether or not
the supplier can meet existing or proposed contractual requirements

a) First party audit

b) Second party audit
c) Third party audit
d) All of the above

16. Assessment of a quality system conducted by an independent, outside auditor or team of auditors

a) First party audit

b) Second party audit
c) Third party audit
d) All of the above

17. Periodic detailed audits of one or more plants/facilities of an installation conducted by a multidisciplinary team
drawn from various departments of the installation
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a) Internal audit
b) External audit
c) Both
d) None

18. Organization (or part of an organization) that is being audited

a) Auditee
b) Auditor
c) Management representative
d) Lead Auditor

19. Person who carries out audits

a) Auditee
b) Auditor
c) Management representative
d) Client

20. Official of the auditee organization authorized to deal with the audit team

a) Auditee
b) Auditor
c) Management representative
d) Client

21. Audits conducted to verify the corrective actions initiated on previous nonconformities and its effectiveness

a) Third party audit

b) Follow up audit
c) External audit
d) Internal audit

22. Action taken to eliminate the cause of an existing nonconformity or other undesirable situation in order to
prevent recurrence

a) Corrective action
b) Preventive action
c) Recommendation
d) Prevention

23. Action taken to eliminate the cause of potential nonconformity, defect or other potentially undesirable situation
in order to prevent occurrence
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a) Corrective action
b) Preventive action
c) Recommendation
d) Prevention

24. Suggestion made by the audit team in the course of audit for improvement in the OS&H system

a) Corrective action
b) Preventive action
c) Recommendation
d) Prevention

25. Guards that are attached permanently to equipment and can only be removed with considerable effort

a) Fixed guards
b) Interlocked guards
c) Adjustable guards
d) Self – adjustable guards

26. Guards that are designed to be removed or opened to allow access to the hazard zone

a) Fixed guards
b) Interlocked guards
c) Adjustable guards
d) Self – adjustable guards

27. Guards that allow a machine to handle a wide variety of material sizes while still protecting the unused portion
of the blade or the point of operation

a) Fixed guards
b) Interlocked guards
c) Adjustable guards
d) Self – adjustable guards

28. Guards, that are pushed away from the point of operation when material is fed into the machine

a) Fixed guards
b) Interlocked guards
c) Adjustable guards
d) Self – adjustable guards

29. Why do we use guards

a) Prevent contact
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b) Protect from falling objects
c) Create no new hazards
d) Create no interference
e) Allow safe lubrication
f) All of the above

30. The hazards associated with improper material handling are associated

a) Struck by a load
b) Losing control of a load,
c) Physically overexerting oneself,
d) Exceeding equipment capacity
e) All of the above

31. Low back stress occurs at

a) L5/S1 Disk
b) L1/S5 Disk
c) L3/S5 Disk
d) L5/S3 Disk

32. Maximum compressive force on L5/S1 disk causing 4 times the injury is

a) 550 lbs
b) 500 lbs
c) 525 lbs
d) 575 lbs

33. The belt conveyor is used to transfer the material the density of which is less than

a) 2.5 t/m3
b) 2 t/m3
c) 1.5 t/m3
d) 3 t/m3
34. Work surface height is designed to according to

a) Taller members
b) Shorter members
c) Average of both
d) As per designers wish

35. Height of platform for fixed work surface for standing workstations from the floor is

a) 1075 mm
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b) 1750 mm
c) 1570mm
d) 1500 mm

36. Height of platform for fixed work surface for seating workstations from the floor is

a) 780 mm
b) 870 mm
c) 790 mm
d) 970 mm

37. Minimum leg height clearance under the conveyor for fixed work surface for seating workstations from the
floor is

a) 720 mm
b) 750 mm
c) 780 mm
d) 740 mm

38. Zones of repetitive reaching on the conveyor should lie within _____ of the front of the operator’s body.

a) 350 mm
b) 400 mm
c) 450 mm
d) 500 mm

39. Chemicals, which will cause damage to the living tissue and/or chemically attack metallic containers and
structures are

a) Corrosive chemicals
b) Oxidising chemicals
c) Pyrophoric chemicals
d) Incompatible chemicals

40. chemical that initiates or promote combustion in other materials, thereby causing fire either of itself or through
release of oxygen or other gases.

a) Corrosive chemicals
b) Oxidising chemicals
c) Pyrophoric chemicals
d) Incompatible chemicals

41. Chemicals which are so reactive that on contact with air and its moisture, oxidation/ hydrolysis occurs at such a
rate so as to cause ignition

a) Corrosive chemicals
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b) Oxidising chemicals
c) Pyrophoric chemicals
d) Incompatible chemicals

42. chemical substances which in contact with each other cause hazardous reactions which may be violent or
produce toxic materials

a) Corrosive chemicals
b) Oxidising chemicals
c) Pyrophoric chemicals
d) Incompatible chemicals

43. Minimum interval between two successive exposure at STEL is

a) 30 min
b) 45 min
c) 60 min
d) 90 min

44. Cold work permit is to be given to

a) Receiver
b) Fire Section
c) Safety section
d) All of the above

45. Confined Space Entry and Work at Height Permit time is generally restricted up to

a) 5 PM
b) 6 PM
c) 7 PM
d) 8 PM

46. Which of the following should satisfy to issue a confined space permit

a) oxygen level should be at least 19.5 %

b) Explosimeter reading is zero
c) oxygen and acetylene cylinders are kept outside
d) combustible gases are upto 5% of lower explosive limit (LEL)
e) All of the above

47. Employee Compensation Act 1923 does not apply to

a) Members of armed forces of union

b) Employees covered by ESI Act, 1948. (Dependent’s benefits available)
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c) Casual Workers & workers employed otherwise than for employer’s trade or business
d) All of the above

48. Wages given to an employee does not includes

a) Night out allowance

b) Dearness allowance
c) Employers contribution to a pension or PF
d) Gratuity overtime

49. Employer shall not be liable of any injury not resulting in death, caused by an accident which is directly
attributable to

a) Workmen having been at the time thereof under the influence of drugs, or
b) Willful disobedience of the workman to an order expressly given, or to a rule expressly framed, for the purpose of
securing the safety of workmen, or
c) Willful removal or disregard by the workmen of any safeguard or other device which he knew to have been provided
for the purpose of securing the safety of workmen.
d) When the employee has contacted a disease which is not directly attributable to a specific injury caused by the accident
or to the occupation; or
e) When the employee has filed a suit for damages against the employer or any other person, in a Civil Court.
f) All of the above

50. Maximum penalty on employer in case of not paying the compensation within one month from date it fell due is

a) Compensation only
b) Compensation + Simple interest at rate of 12% or higher
c) Compensation + penalty of not greater than 50% of the compensation
d) Compensation + penalty of not greater than 50% of the compensation + Simple interest at rate of 12% or higher

51. BBS is a process that helps you and your coworkers choose a safe behaviour over an unsafe one

a) True
b) False

52. Behaviour is defined as

A) what you do
B) what you think,feel or believe
C) a situation of accident potential
D) commiting an unsafe act

53. Your attitude is

A) what you do
B) what you think,feel or believe
C) a situation of accident potential
D) commiting an unsafe act

54. Your Attitude has no effect on your behaviour

a) True
b) False
55. A consequence has

A) triggers behaviour
B) is what you do
C) can either reinforce or deter a behaviour
D) all of the above

56. Feedback should be delivered ____________ following an observation

A) immediately
B) in a safety meeting
C) privately
D) publicly

57. Reinforce a safe behaviour with_____________ feedback

A) positive
B) negative
C) neutral
D) none of these

58. For BBS to work,_____________needs to be involved

A) a supervisor
B) a manager
C) an operator
D) everyone

59. Workers are responsible for___________

A) keeping an eye on fellow coworkers

B) developing a positive safety attitude
C) participating in BBS training
D) all of the above

60. Workers must not be penalized for reporting unsafe behaviour

A) True
B) False

61. Behaviour Based Safety is

A) A process of enforcing safety rules

B) A process of involving workers in defining the ways they are most likely to be injured
C) A process reporting someone to management
D) A process of devlopin a positive attitude

62. Safety is shared responsibility

A) True
B) False
63. Systems Approach Requires Attention to which areas:

A) Work environment
B) Behaviour
C) People
D) All of these
64. What is the purpose of Safety Coaching
A) Identify & reinforce safety behaviors
B) Identify oppurtunities for injury
C) Communicate the risk
D) All of the above
65. Who all benefits the most from Safety Coaching?
A) The person being coached
B) The person doing the coaching
C) The organization that cares enough to encourage the coaching
D) All of the above
66. Becoming a skilled observer does not take any training and/or practice
A) True
B) False

67. What will be an appropriate length of time to observe and coach someone
A) 30 Seconds
B) 1-4 minutes
C) 5-10 minutes
D) all day
68. How many BBS are you suppose to do a week
A) None
B) 1
C) 5
D) 4
69. When filling out a BBS form you should write your name,last name and Period/Week in a legible manner to get
Credit for your BBS
A) True

B) False
70. Behaviour Based Safety is maintained for:
A) Avoiding human error
B) Preventing accidents
C) Preventibg Hazards
D) Both A and B
71. BBS analyzes employees attitudes about workplace safety
A) True

B) False
72. BBS helps determine why at risk behaviour occurs and how to change it.
A) True

B) False
73.To promote safe behavior on the job, behavior-based safety uses:
a. Positive feedback

b. Disciplinary action

c. Both a and b

d. Negative feedback
74. When using the behavior-based safety method, you should NEVER correct a coworker who is doing something
unsafe.
A) True

B) False

75. Behaviors selected for observation must be:

a. Reliable

b. Described in a negative way (what NOT to do)

c. Out of the employee’s control

d. Faithfull

76. Behavior-based safety observations should be subjective, based on your interpretation of what a person you are
observing is doing.
A) True

B) False
77. Feedback on observed safety performance should be:
a. Specific and immediate
b. General

c. Out of the employee’s control

d. Faithfull

78. Which of these statements would be considered effective feedback on safety performance?
a. “That was good. You lifted with your legs, not with your back.”
b. “Good job.”
c. Either a or b.
d. “Bad job”
79. When using behavior-based safety, focus only on safe behavior and ignore unsafe behavior.
A) True

B) False
80. Hazard is______________

A) Likelihood of a substance person, activity or process to cause harm

B) The Probability of a substance person, activity or process to cause harm

C) The potential of a substance person, activity or process to cause harm

D) The prospect of a substance person, activity or process to cause harm