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Solutions of 8 Online Physics Brawl
Solutions of 8 Online Physics Brawl
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
100 = 445k + q ,
−62 = 40k + q
. .
we obtain k = 0.4 a q = −78. We substitute for the coefficients in the conversion formula
◦ ◦
y( T) = 0.4x( C) − 78. Plugging in the value for the boiling temperature of mercury in Celsius
we get 65 ◦ T.
Josef Jírů
jiru@gyoa.cz
t1 (t1 + 2t2 ) .
t3 = = 1.6 min .
2 (t1 + t2 )
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
The resistance of the cube with contacts on opposite sides would be only 3.36 · 10−5 Ω. As a side
note, the length of the cube is around 1.5 cm.
Karel Kolář
karel@fykos.cz
gold coins.
Matěj Mezera
m.mezera@fykos.cz
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
Invoking the symmetry properties of the given problem, we conclude that the surface area,
where the sky reflection is visible, is a circle. The radius of this circle r can be expressed with
the help of the tangent function
r
tan αm = .
h
Then the area of the circle is given by
sin2 αm sin2 αm
S = πr2 = πh2 tan2 αm = πh2 = πh2 ,
2
cos αm 1 − sin2 αm
where we expressed radius r in terms of depth of submersion of the scuba diver h and angle
αm . In the last two steps we also used trigonometric formulas to substitute tan with the sine
function. The final result is
1/n21 1
S = πh2 = πh2 2 ,
1 − 1/n21 n1 − 1
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
Centrifugal force
v2
Fc = m
R
acts in the outward direction on the car taking the turn. A static friction force acts in the
opposite direction and compensates Fc completely. However, the strength of static friction is
limited by
Ft,max = f mg .
In order to avoid a car slide, the centrifugal force must be less than or equal to the maximum
friction force
Fc < Ft,max ,
v2
m < f mg .
R
The condition on allowed values of velocity follows
√ .
v< f gR = 45.8 km·h−1 .
The car can take the turn with a maximum velocity of 45.8 km·h−1 .
Daniela Pittnerová
daniela@fykos.cz
For each unit (kg, m and s) we get a linear equation, resulting in a set
1 = 0α + β − γ ,
−1 = α + 2β + 3γ ,
0 = −α − β − 2γ .
c2 .
λ= = 1.35 · 1027 kg·m−1 .
G
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
An alternative approach starts with the definitions of Planck mass and Planck length, which
can be then divided to immediately obtain
√ √
m cℏ c3 c2
λ= = = .
l G ℏG G
The task requires us to sum the exponents we found, so the final result is 1.
Karel Kolář
karel@fykos.cz
The velocity of the droplet when it hits the ground is 11.2 m·s−1 . We accentuate that this
solution works only when there is enough time for gravitational and drag forces to reach an
equilibrium.
Katarína Častulíková
katka.castulikova@fykos.cz
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
move together with a common velocity w. As a positive direction we choose direction of the
arrow as mentioned in the task.
p = m1 v1 − m2 v2 = (m1 + m2 )w .
mg = ∆lk = l0 k ,
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
σ0 cos α
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
σ = σ0 cos α ,
2σ = σ0 sin α .
solved by
.
α = arctan 2 = 63.43◦ .
As one would expect, the wind blows from the east with a slight inclination to the north.
Matěj Mezera
m.mezera@fykos.cz
vx = v0 cos α ,
vy = v0 sin α .
Choosing the coordinate system so that the initial postion of a ball lies in its origin (initial
elevation is zero), we can express the time dependence of a ball’s coordinates as
x = vx t ,
1 2
y = vy t − gt .
2
Now we want to find the maximum distance d. For time of flight td we have
xd = d = vx td ,
1 2
yd = 0 = vy td − gtd .
2
We solve the first equation for td ,
d
td =
vx
and substitute into the second equation. After few simple manipulations we obtain
2vx vy
d= ,
g
2v 2 sin α cos α
d= ,
g
v2
d= sin 2α .
g
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
To compute the difference between ranges d1 and d2 for each ball, we just subtract d2 from d1
because we know that without air drag the distance d1 (45◦ elevation angle) must be larger.
v2 .
∆d = d1 − d2 = (sin 2α1 − sin 2α2 ) = 1.38 m .
g
The winning ball will go 1.38 m farther than the other ball. However, in real conditions the ball
thrown by Mišo might go further because air drag with v 2 dependence decreases the optimal
elevation angle.
Daniela Pittnerová
daniela@fykos.cz
s = h tan φ ,
where h is the height of the object (i. e. us). We are interested only in the critical case of s = h.
Then we have
tan φ = 1 ,
φ = 45◦ .
Now we include inclination of the rotation axis Φ = 23.4◦ . In the worst case scenario, that is
during solstice, the angle between sun rays and the vertical is going to be φ − Φ. So
φ − Φ = 45◦ ,
φ = 45◦ + 23.4◦ = 68.4◦ .
This means that at latitudes higher than this value, our shadow can never be shorter than us.
The result accidentally almost coincides with the latitude of the polar circle φ ≈ 66.5◦ .
Matěj Mezera
m.mezera@fykos.cz
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
The fastest operation regime is achieved when the elevator accelerates as much as possible
for time t1 and then immediately starts decelerating. Let’s denote the deceleration time as t2 .
Initially the elevator is still and it again comes to a halt at the end of the travel. Therefore
v = a1 t1 = a2 t2 .
1 1 a1 (a1 + a2 ) 2
h= a1 t21 + a2 t22 = t1 .
2 2 2a2
This leads to √
2ha2
t1 = ,
a1 (a1 + a2 )
and similarly, √
2ha1
t2 = .
a2 (a1 + a2 )
The total time is then given by the sum
√
2h(a1 + a2 ) .
t = t1 + t2 = = 7.07 s .
a1 a2
The minimum time of travel is 7.07 s.
Josef Jírů
jiru@gyoa.cz
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
The edge will smash the tomato with velocity 9.56 m·s−1 .
Matěj Mezera
m.mezera@fykos.cz
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
−2 −2
If we evaluate this equation, we obtain a = 1.5 · 10 m·s .
Vít Beran
vit.beran@fykos.cz
Substituting for the integrand, we get the well-known formula for the volume of a spherical cap
∫ [ ]x ( )
x
( ) y3 x3
V (x) = π 2r2 y − y 2 dy = π r2 y 2 − = π r2 x2 − .
0
3 0
3
Obviously, V (x) < V (h) for all x ∈ ⟨0, r2 − r1 ⟩, since V (h) > V (2r2 )/2 = V (r2 ). Using sym-
metry, we could calculate V (x) for x ∈ ⟨r2 + r1 , 2r2 ⟩, but it can be shown that these volumes
would be too large. Therefore, we need to find a formula for V (x) with x in the middle interval
(r2 − r1 , r2 + r1 ). Again, this is not particularly difficult, we can just subtract the volume of
a smaller spherical cap from the volume V (x) obtained in the same way as for the first interval,
that is
( ) ( )
x3 (x − r2 + r1 )3
V (x) = π r2 x − − π r1 (x − r2 + r1 ) −
2 2
3 3
( 2 ) r2 + 2r1
= πx r2 − r12 − π (r2 − r1 )2 .
3
Finally, we calculate the height
( )
3V (h) + π (r2 + 2r1 ) (r2 − r1 )2 4 ϱϱbo r23 − r13 + (r2 + 2r1 ) (r2 − r1 )2 .
h= = = 12.5 mm .
3π (r22 − r12 ) 3 (r22 − r12 )
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
.
A perfect olive will submerge h = 12.5 mm deep in the brine.
Jáchym Bártík
tuaki@fykos.cz
This amounts to 37,386,415 passed milestones (the ratio ∆l/l was rounded down to an integer
value).
Lukáš Timko
lukast@fykos.cz
Ep0 = mgh0 ,
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
while h0 satisfies
h0 = l (1 − cos α) .
During the oscillations, potential energy changes to kinetic and vice versa, while part of the
energy dissipates. Let’s denote η = 0.99. After one swing, the potential energy of the ball equals
Ep1 = ηEp0 .
Let’s denote n number of swings, after which the condition from assignment is satisfied. Then
after n swings, the potential energy in an amplitude equals
Epn = η n Ep0 .
When the ball passes the equilibrium position for the first time, it has zero potential energy
and it’s kinetic energy equals
1
Ek1 = mv12 ,
2
while the equation
Ek1 > Ep1
is satisfied. During n-th passing through the equilibrium position it therefore holds
W = E − W0 .
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
Now we use (1) and easily obtain the maximum wavelength of the electron
hc hc hc .
λ= = = ( ( )) = 6.675,82 · 10−12 m = 6.675,82 pm .
nE n (W0 + W ) n W0 + m0 c √
2 n
−1
n2 −1
using Stirling approximation. Evaluate both formulas (exact and approximate) for N = 20 and
m = 8 and find the relative error (in percentage) of the approximate value with respect to
the exact value, i.e. by how many percent the approximate value differs from the exact one.
Vítek is in another state.
To solve this task we must realize that the distribution described above is binomial – the
problem is the same as e. g. “find the probability of getting 8 heads in 20 coin tosses”. Our job
is to calculate the binomial coefficient for the event N1 within N possible states (or even N1 ,
since the probabilities for 0 and 1 are the same, that is 1/2). From the definition of binomial
coefficient, ( )
N N!
t= = ,
N1 (N − N1 )!N1 !
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
which is the number of ways of choosing N1 particles from the set of N particles. The expression
N − N1 is exactly N0 . Substituting N0 = (N − m)/2 and N1 = (N + m)/2 we get
N!
t = ( N −m ) ( N +m ) .
2
! 2
!
Now we plug in the number into this formula and also into the approximate one. The resulting
difference is
37,771
q =1− ,
38,760
which can be also written as 2.55 %.
Vít Beran
vit.beran@fykos.cz
where c is the speed of light. Combining all formulas we determine the temperature as
( v
) 12
b 1+ c
T = .
λ0 1− v
c
.
For given numerical values we arrive at T = 4,380 K.
Vít Beran
vit.beran@fykos.cz
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
−2
what is approximately 0.242 m·s .
Jáchym Bártík
tuaki@fykos.cz
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
Qex/d
E(x) = − ,
ε 0 κ0 S
where κ0 = 1.5 and x is the distance from the negatively charged plate. Find the capacitance
of this capacitor. Vítek broke a capacitor at his practical class.
We are dealing with a 1D problem, the electric field can be thus written in the form E(x) =
= − ∂φ
∂x
. Capacitance of the capacitor C is defined as C = Q/∆φ, where ∆φ gives the potential
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
difference between the plates and Q is the magnitude of the charge that each plate was given.
E(x) is given in the task, so we need to integrate a differential equation
Q
dφ = ex/d dx .
ε 0 κ0 S
∫ φ2 ∫ d
Q x
dφ = e d dx ,
φ1
ε 0 κ0 S 0
Qd
∆φ = (e − 1) .
ε 0 κ0 S
Substituting the result into the definition of capacitance, we get
ε 0 κ0 S .
C= = 7.7 pF .
d (e − 1)
As we can see, the result is independent of the stored charge. This was to be expected because
capacitance is a characteristic of electronic components.
Vít Beran
vit.beran@fykos.cz
where we substituted y/r = t and k is yet another constant, which depends on the linear
intensity density of the source.
1
In the solution we deal with numerous constants whose value is not important to us. We denote those
constant as various types of the letter K.
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
An important property of the sound intensity is its additivity. That is, the total intensity is
given by the sum of intensities from all sources (this was already used in the integration). One
can easily observe that k and k′ are directly proportional to the car flow of respective roads,
k′ = πk = Kn.
In the following, the unknown distance of Matěj from the first road is denoted by x. The
intensity in distance x is obtained as a sum of intensities from each road,
Kn1 Kn2
Itot (x) = + .
x s−x
Now, we need to minimize this function, which is done with the use of its first derivative with
respect to x.
dIclk (x)
=0
dx
Kn1 Kn2
− 2 + =0
x (s − x)2
n1 (s − x)2 = n2 x2
( )2
s n2
−1 =
x n1
√
s n2
=1+
x n1
√
n1 n1 n2
x=s
n1 − n2
where the obvious inequality s/x > 1 is utilized. Substitution of known values gives us
3
x = s = 210 m .
7
The second solution, with minus sign, has no physical meaning because Itot (x) is defined only
on the interval between the two roads. This way we avoided the absolute values |x| and |s − x|.
Matěj Mezera
m.mezera@fykos.cz
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
R1 L
R1 L
R2 C
R1 L
R2 C
R2 C
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
With Young’s modulus of copper denoted by E, the force exerted by the cuboid on each side
of the block is
l0 − l
F = SE = SEα∆T ,
l0
where S denotes the cross-section of the cuboid, this value is determined from the known density
ϱ of copper
m
S= .
ϱl0
The maximum magnitude of the static friction force is Ft = 2f F . The maximum mass M that
can be placed on the cuboid is then
( )
Ft 2f Eα∆T .
M= −m=m −1 = 3,300 kg ,
g ϱl0 g
where we used the values α = 1.7 · 10−5 K−1 , E = 120 GPa and ϱ = 8,900 kg·m−3 . The cuboid
can support an additional mass of 3,300 kg.
Jáchym Bártík
tuaki@fykos.cz
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
The length of the loop changes from l0 to l, that is ∆l = l − l0 . Since the cross-section area of
a wire is S = πr2 , the tension in the wire is given by the Hooke’s law as
∆l F
σ= E=− ,
l0 S
where F is the force acting inward on each element of the wire. Now, let’s choose an infinitesimal
section of the wire of length dx. The central angle corresponding to this infinitesimal arc is
dx
2dφ = ,
R
where R is the radius of the loop, expressed using l = 2πR. The initial length of the loop was
l0 = 2πR0 .
Magnetic force dFm acts upon this element, pointing to the centre of the loop. Then, there
is the force F acting on the element from each side. The element is at rest, therefore the
forces must cancel out. Also, F can be decomposed into tangential and radial components. The
tangential components cancel out each other and the radial component has opposite direction
to the magnetic force. This radial force is related to the central angle by
dFx = F sin dφ ≈ F dφ .
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
The next to last step is to express the magnetic force in known variables. A particle with
charge dq moving with velocity v in the magnetic field B experiences perpendicular force dFm =
= dqvB. Velocity is defined as distance covered in time and electric current is defined as a flow
of charge. This leads to
dq dx
dFm = dqvB = = IB dx .
dt
Now we have all the ingredients we need to solve this problem. After substituting force F ,
expressed as
F = BIR ,
into the formula for tension, we get
∆l BIR
σ= E=− .
l0 S
Finally we arrive at
2πR02 IB
∆l = .
R0 IB − πr2 E
However, we are interested in the shrinkage of the loop, so for the given values we obtained the
.
result |∆l| = 0.85 mm.
Václav Mikeska
v.mikeska@fykos.cz
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
The carousel would have to rotate with frequency of 0.266 Hz to produce the desired accelera-
tion.
Jáchym Bártík
tuaki@fykos.cz
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
2 8π2 R2 wmag
IR = .
µ0
Rearrangement of the formula defining wel leads to
2wel
E2 = .
ε0
Now, we have all ingredients to express the conductivity in known variables as
√ √ √
2 ε0 wmag 2 1 wmag
σ= = ,
R µ0 wel R Z0 wel
.
where Z0 is the impedance of vacuum. For given values this yields σ = 6.26 · 107 Ω−1 ·m−1 .
Consulting the tables we conclude that the conductor is made of silver.
Vít Beran
vit.beran@fykos.cz
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
which must be divided by the reference intensity (at the zeroth maximum) 2I0 + I0 = 3I0 . The
resulting ratio is
( )2
Imin, 1 2 π .
= δλ = 5.7 · 10−7 .
Imax, 0 9 2
We may notice that the result is heavily dependent on the intensity ration of the two sodium
lines, but it is completely independent of the geometry of the experiment!
Jakub Šafin
xellos@fykos.cz
2hν 3 1
∆Φ(ν) = ∆ν ,
c2 exp(hν/kB T ) − 1
2hc2 1
∆Φ(λ) = ∆λ ,
λ5 exp(hc/λkB T ) − 1
where ∆λ is a small wavelength interval centered around wavelength λ (similarly for frequency
ν = c/λ). ∆Φ is the emitted flux per unit solid angle on this wavelength interval; The solid angle
covered by the mirror with area S is ϑ ≈ S/d2 and the incident power (in the given wavelength
interval) is given as ∆P = ∆Φ · ϑ. Since the momentum of a photon with relativistic mass m is
mc and its energy is mc2 , we can transform the power (energy per time) to force (momentum
per time) by diving it by c. The mirror doesn’t absorb but reflects the photons, so the relation
between incident power P and the force in question (denoted by F ) is
2P
F = .
c
Now we need to determine P . Since we know the dependence of P on λ, we can determine the
total power in the interval ⟨400 nm, 500 nm⟩ by numerical integration (that is, by division into
subintervals and summing the partial powers). But there is a catch: the Planck’s law depends
on the frame of reference. We will continue to work in an inertial frame with velocity v (slow
acceleration during a short time interval can be neglected). The formula for ∆Φ then changes
to
2hν ′3 3 1
∆Φ′ (ν ′ ) = β ∆ν ′ .
c2 exp(hν ′ /kB βT ) − 1
The frequency in mirror’s frame of reference is denoted as ν ′ . We also introduced
√
1 − v/c
β= .
1 + v/c
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
′
The relativistic Doppler effect provides us with ν = νβ and we can see that the expression for
∆Φ′ (ν) looks almost as if we just substituted ν, only that the factor is β 3 instead of β −4 . The
derivation of ∆Φ′ can get complicated, so let us only remark that the result must describe a
black body radiation curve, but for a different temperature, T ′ = βT , and that the factor β 3
comes from spacetime deformation. Using the wavelength λ′ in the mirror’s frame of reference
(keeping in mind that the reflectance is given in this frame) we can write
2hc2 3 1
∆Φ′ (λ′ ) = β ∆λ′ .
λ′5 exp(hc/λ′ kB βT ) − 1
The following conversion to power is also tricky,
√because from the reference frame of the mirror
the Sun is at distance d′ = dγ, where γ = 1/ 1 − v 2 /c2 . The angle under which we observe
the solar radiation is then equal to ϑ′ = ϑ/γ 2 = ϑ(1 − v 2 /c2 ). In conclusion, the radiation force
is
∫ λr
4hSc 1 .
F = (1 − v/c)5/2 (1 + v/c)−1/2 λ′−5 (√ ) dλ′ = 1.32 · 10−22 N .
d2 λb exp c+v hc
c−v λ′ kB T
−1
This result can be obtained in another way while keeping the required precision. Instead of
the integration, we evaluate the integrand at λ′ = 450 nm and multiply it by the length of the
interval 100 nm (a midpoint-rectangular rule). The result will differ only by circa 0.02 %.
Jakub Šafin
xellos@fykos.cz
x2 + (y − R)2 = R2 .
y = −ax2 + c , (2)
where a, c are unknown, positive constants. The linear term is missing since the parabola must
be symmetrical about the vertical axis, which follows from the nature of the problem. We need
to fit the circle under the parabola. To minimize the initial velocity, the circle and the parabola
must be as close as possible – the touch in two points symmetric about the y axis (there could
be possibly just one point of contact at the top of the cylinder, but this option will be ruled
out by the following solution). The crossing of the curves can be obtained by substituting the
second equation into the first one,
a2 x4 + (1 + 2a (R − c)) x2 + c (c − 2R) = 0 ,
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
g 2 vy2
y=− x + ,
2vx2 2g
which is similar in form to the expression (2). By comparison of these two we get
g
a= ,
2vx2
2
vy
c= .
2g
The initial velocity of the stone is then given by
( )
1
v 2 = vx2 + vy2 = g + 2c .
2a
Substituting for c from expression (3), we obtain
( )
1
v 2 = g 2R2 a + 2R + .
a
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
2 2
The velocity magnitude v is minimal when v is. The minimum of v is obtained by taking its
derivative with respect to a and equating it to zero:
dv 2 ( )
= g 2R2 − a−2 = 0 ,
da
a = 2−1/2 R−1 .
√ √ .
Finally, we arrive at the numerical value of the initial velocity v = 2gR(1 + 2) = 21.8 m·s−1 .
Jáchym Bártík
tuaki@fykos.cz
where k′ is stiffness of the chosen element. This stiffness is proportional to the length of the
elements (the reasoning being based on the properties of tension in the spring), that is
l
k′ = k .
∆x
The appropriate coordinate for the elongated state is
∫ x ∫ x ∫ x ( )
m(x)g gλ gλ gλ 2
y= dy = x + dx = x + (l − x) dx = 1 + x− x .
0 0
k′ kl 0
k 2kl
we used the fact that ∆y/∆x from equation (5) converges to the derivative dy/dx in the zero
length limit.
Now let’s compute the change in potential energy. In the initial state all points are at height
0, so Eg 0 = 0. After reaching the equilibrium each element dx with mass dm = λdx is in height
−y. It holds
∫ m ∫ l (( ) ) ( )
gλ gλ 2 2gλ gλl2
Eg = g (−y) dm = −gλ 1+ x− x dx = − 1 + .
0 0
k 2kl 3k 2
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
Next we have to determine the change in elastic potential energy. Initially, Ep 0 = 0. In the final
state each element ∆x extends to ∆y, which corresponds to energy change
VD ≈ SD h = 4πdS2 h .
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
You can prove by yourself that if we calculated this volume as a difference of volumes of two
spheres VD′ = 43 πd3S − 43 π(dS − h)3 , we would get an almost identical result. Now, we simply use
the equation VZ = VD to get
4 3
πRZ = 4πdS2 h ,
3
R3 .
h = Z2 = 3.86 · 10−3 m .
3dS
We can see that the thickness is in the order of milimetres, fourteen orders of magnitude smaller
than dS . Therefore, we may conclude that our approximation is valid.
Matěj Mezera
m.mezera@fykos.cz
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
due to gravity on its equator would be the same as on the equator of the (regular) Earth?
Karel really likes problems with a Dyson sphere.
Firstly, we must realize that the gravitational force of the Sun (calculated in the previous
problem) is very small, compared to the gravitational acceleration g = 9.81 m·s−1 certainly
negligible. Also, the gravitational force inside of the sphere is zero (result of the Gauss’s law).
Therefore, we only need to use the formula for centrifugal acceleration
g ≈ ω 2 dS ,
√
g
ω≈ ,
dS
√
π dS . .
t≈ = 64,660 s = 0.748 dne ,
6 g
T 2π
where we used t = 12
= 12ω
to calculate the period from the angular velocity.
Matěj Mezera
m.mezera@fykos.cz
where x is the distance of the point of acceleration a from the inner surface of the sphere and
MZ x
h
is (for linear approximation) the mass closer to the centre.2
2
That is basically the same approximation as we used in the M1 problem, calculating the volume, since the
4 π(d +x)3 − 4 πd3
Vin S 4πdS x
inner mass is V MZ = 3 3 S
4 π(d +h)3 − 4 πd3 MZ ≈ 4πdS h MZ = x
h MZ .
3 S 3 S
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
Now, integrating the gravitational force we get the force acting upon this part of the layer
∫h ∫h
GMZ ϱdS GMZ hϱdS GMZ σdS
dF = a(x)ϱ dSdx = x dx = = ,
hd2S 2d2S 2dS2
0 0
MZ
where ϱ is density and σ = ϱh = 4πd2
the area density of the layer.
S
Using analogy of an air bubble on the water surface, this force per unit volume corresponds
to pressure
dF GMZ σ
= pp = .
dS 2dS2
Hence, we can imagine the spheric layer as if it was in a medium of constant hydrostatic pressure
pp , which replaces gravitational forces.
Upon its cross-section acts a force
πGMZ σ GMZ2
Fp = πd2S pp = = ,
2 8d2S
This is the force, which pushes two hemispheres together. That force spreads over the area of
the cross-section (the area is 2πdS h). The material, which the layer is made of must therefore
withstand pressure
Fp GMZ2 3GMZ2 .
p= = 3
= = 3.66 MPa .
2πdS h 16πdS h 16πdS RZ3
Because the layer is very thin, we can consider the pressure inside the material constant.
Matěj Mezera
m.mezera@fykos.cz
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
Let’s denote the inner resistance of the source by Ri and the total resistance of the two resistors
in series by R. Then, the efficiency of the source can be expressed as
R
η1 = .
R + Ri
It follows from this equation that
1 − η1
Ri = R .
η1
And the efficiency with the parallel connection schema (where the total resistance of the two
resistors is R/4) is
R
4 R R η1 .
η2 = = = = = 0.626 .
R
4
+ Ri R + 4Ri R + 4R 1−η
η1
1 4 − 3η1
This computation is so easy because the light rays are perpendicular to Earth’s axis on the
equinox. In general case, we would use identities of spherical trigonometry.
Jan Střeleček Václav Mikeska Matěj Mezera
strelda@fykos.cz v.mikeska@fykos.cz m.mezera@fykos.cz
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
The effective voltages on the primary and the secondary coil are U1 , U2 , respectively. The power
delivered to the bulb as a function of the voltage on it is given by
U22
P = .
R
The voltage on the transformer is transferred across with the same ratio as is between the
number of loops
U1 N1
= .
U2 N2
Now what’s left, is to express
N1 N1 √ .
U1 = U2 = P R = 23.6 V .
N2 N2
We need to induce a voltage of 23.6 V on the ends of the primary coil.
Daniela Pittnerová
daniela@fykos.cz
3l 3l 3l
∞
∑ 1
3l + + + + · · · = 3l = 6l
2 4 8 2n
n=0
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
3
That’s because the moment of inertia depends only on the distance of mass from the axis and the triangle
has a constant amount of mass at each distance from the axis between 0 and l/2
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
R R
4 4
R
4
R
Fig. 1: Replaced subfractal scheme
This is now an easily solvable arrangement of resistors (even symmetrical, so we can ignore
the vertical wire of the star). The resistance of half of the outer side is λl/2. The total resistance
can be expressed as
R λl
λl λl 4
2 2 + 4 2
2 2 R λl
2 +2
R= 4 2
R λl
λl λl 4
2 +2 + 4 2
2 2 R λl
2 +2
4 2
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Online Physics Brawl 8th year November 28, 2018
which solution is (we are only interested in the positive solution, negative resistance has no
meaning in physics) √
−1 + 7 .
R= λl = 54.858,4 Ω .
3
An alternative approach can be developed from the idea that thanks to the symmetry of the
fractal the voltage is the same everywhere on the axis of the triangle and consequently we can
replace this axis with a single node S. Then we obtain the resistance R/2 between the vertex
of the fractal and the node S expressed as
2 2 1
= + ,
R λl λl 1
+
2 2 4
+
λl R
because the resistance between the vertex of the inner half-fractal and the node S will be R/4.
This leads to the identical quadratic equation and to the same result.
Matěj Mezera
m.mezera@fykos.cz
FYKOS
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