Download as pdf or txt
Download as pdf or txt
You are on page 1of 28

PharmacyPREP.

com EE FINAL MOCK

Pharmacy Prep
EE FINAL MOCK TEST 2
1. Colon transit time measurement is used in diagnosis of?
A. Prostate cancer B. constipation C. Heartburn D. Prokinetic effect E.
Fever in children

2.Which of the following is incorrect statement about body cavities and membranes?
A. dorsal body cavity divided into cranial cavity and vertebral cavity
B. cranial cavity host the brain
C. Ventral body cavity consist of thoracic, abdominal, and pelvic cavity
D. Pelvic cavity consist of digestive organs, peritoneal cavity

3. A women clients comes at your pharmacy for codeine syrup for her 3 yo daughter cough
symptoms. She is allergy to amoxicillin and otherwise healthy child. What is pharmacist
concern?
A. Penicillin allergy B. age C. body weight D. other symptoms

4) What is not related diabetic foot ulcer?


a) Erythema
B) Increase risk of infection
C) Should not cover with bandage
D) Diabetic neuralgia
E. Uncontrolled blood glucose

5) What is correct Tallman letters for diphenhydramine and dimenhydrinate


A) dimenhyDRINATE and diphenhydrAMINE
B) diMENhydrinate and diPHENhydramine
C) DIMENHYDRINATE and diphenhydramine
D) dimenhydrinate and DIPHENHYDRAMINE
E. All of the above

6. Escape of the fluids from blood capillaries or vessels to the surrounded tissues is termed
as?
A. Infiltration B. Extravasations C. Intramuscular D. Transdermal E. Vesicant

7) A mother of 2 year old child approaches to pharmacist. Asking what is appropriate


recommendation for eczema or atopic dermatitis of her child?
I) Olive oil is applied directly to rehydrated skin after bath.
II) Give colloidal oat meal bath
III) Wash with excessive soap and dry thoroughly after shower
A. I only B. III only C. I and II D. II and III E. I,II,III

Copyright © Tips Inc Protect copyright and Report Piracy 1


PharmacyPREP.com EE FINAL MOCK

8.Which of the following can contribute to medication incidents or environmental?


A) Poor lighting b.Poor handwriting c.Lack of patient education
d. Clutter in work area e,All of the above

9. Calculate the mark up on cost. A regular customer of your pharmacy get refill of
rosuvastatin 10 mg for 3 mo and gliclazide 30 mg for 3 m. Each 3 mo is $120 and $150.
Prescription fee is $11. Patient has prescription coverage of 70% for drugs only. What patient
pays?
A) 211 B) $103 C) $189 D)$200

10. Which of the following is the dependent variable in statistical analysis determining risk
factors for hypertension?
A. Age B. Gender C. Demographic D. Hypertension E. body weight
Ans. D

11. What is a rate of constant of the drug having initial concentration of drug 1000 mg/ml and
100 mg/ml after 90 minutes?
a. 0.025 min-1 b.0.5 min-1 c. 2.2 min–1 d.3.2 min-1

12. How many gram of Mg present in every 350 ml dose


MgCO 3 15 g
Citric acid 27.4 g
Syrup 60 ml
H 2 O qs 350 ml
(Mg = 24.3, CO 3 = 60) MgCO 3 = 84.3
A) 4.3 gram B) 8.7 gram C) 87 gram D) 19 gram E) 21 gram

13) What is specificity?


A) Measures how well a test identifies truly, accurately.
B) Measures close to true value
C) Ability to reproduce with accurately
D) Ability to be specific
E) Ability to be correct and perfect

14) Collect data after both disease and exposure. Measured by cross sectional study
A) Prevalence B) Incidence C) Validity D) Sensitivity E) Specificity

15) The major analgesic effect of morphine is due to action on?


A) Enkephalins B) Endorphins C) Dinorphins D) Serotonins E) Norepinephrines

Copyright © Tips Inc Protect copyright and Report Piracy 2


PharmacyPREP.com EE FINAL MOCK

16) Which of the following conditions is NOT mediated by antibody?


a) Hay fever
b) Anaphylaxis
c) Serum sickness
d) Contact dermatitis
e) Autoimmune hemolytic disease

17) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of plasmids?


a) Confer conjugal fertility
b) Carry genetic information
c) Exist as circular RNA molecules
d) Exist as extra chromosomal elements in bacteria
e) None of the above

18) Insertion of genes into an individual cells and tissues to treat a disease such as hereditary
diseases is referred as?
A) DNA recombination
B) Cloning
C) Gene therapy
D) Retrovirus
E) Reverse transcriptase

19) Which of the following has been shown to have a relationship to carcinoma of the cervix?
a) Papilloma virus
b) Varicella-zoster virus
c) Herpes virus type I
d) Herpes virus type II
e) None of the above

20) Hyperplasia is a condition in which there is?


a) An increase in the size of a part, organ, or cell
b) A decrease in the size of a part, organ or cell
c) An increase in the number of individual tissue elements or cells in a given organ
d) A congenital defective formation in which there is incomplete development of an organ or
part
e) The production of one type of adult tissue by cells which normally produce tissue of
another type
21. The following hormone catalyzed by 5-alpha reductase to form potent
dihydrotestosterone hormone. The following structure of hormone is?

Copyright © Tips Inc Protect copyright and Report Piracy 3


PharmacyPREP.com EE FINAL MOCK

A. Estrogen B. Progesterone C. Androgen D. Vitamin D E. hydrocortisone

22) All of the following are pharmacodynamic reactions, except?


A) Release of 5ASA from Sulfasalazine
B) Diuretic and insulin actions
C) Sedative with alcohol gives sedation
D) None of the above

23) A patient comes to pick up refills alprazolam 0.5 mg tablets, 15 days before refill time,
what action is appropriate?
A) Ask him to come just before 4 to 5 days before refill
B) Call doctor to get refill date change
C) Ask patient reason for early refill
D) Go to emergency or walk in clinic to get medication
E) Refuse refills and educate patient about compliance

24) Phrenic nerve injury can cause?


A. Inability to move elbow
B. Inability to move wrist
C. Sciatic pain in thigh and foot
D. Breathing regulations

25) What is defined as "near missed errors"?


a) Dispensing error just occurred but did not harm the patient
B) Dispensing error occurred and caused side effects to patient
C) Dispensing error occurred and did harm to patient
D) Dispensing error occurred but did not reached to patient
E) Dispensing never occurred but once only

26) Which of the following abbreviation is categorized dangerous abbreviation by the Institute
of safe Medication Practices (ISMP)
A) Q4H B) HS C) IU D) Daily E) Once week

Copyright © Tips Inc Protect copyright and Report Piracy 4


PharmacyPREP.com EE FINAL MOCK

27) Prostaglandins are ecosanides are made within cells


a) On an RNA template
b) On rough endoplasmic reticulum
c) From methionine
d) From progesterone
e) From polyunsaturated fatty acids (arachidonic acid)

28. A man wearing a mask and brandishing a weapon enters your pharmacy and demands
that you hand over the keys of the narcotics cupboard. What do you do?
A. Hand the keys to him immediately
B. Pretend to look for the keys in order to delay him
C. Try to reach for the phone to alert the police or security
D. Ask patient if you could be helpful by any means
E. Leave the pharmacy immediately

29) Carbon monoxide DECREASES the amount of


a) Bicarbonate in the blood plasma
b) Carbonic anhydrase available in the lungs
c) Oxygen that can be transported by hemoglobin
d) Alveolar surface available for gaseous exchange
e) Carbon dioxide that can be transported by the blood

30) Which of the following is not a diabetic complication?


a) Retinopathy b) Cardiovascular complication C) Nephropathy
D) Neuropathy E) Hepatic necrosis

31) The physiologically active form of vitamin D produced in the kidney is


a) 1, 25-dyhyroxycholecalciferol
b) 25-hydroxycholecalciferol
c) 7-dehydrocholesterol
d) Cholescalciferol
e) Ergosterol

32) Which of the following diuretic cause hyperchloremic systemic acidosis?


A) Spironolactone B) acetazolamide C) hydrochlorothiazide D) furosemide E)
mannitol

33) A patient receiving phenytoin 200 mg BID has a steady-state level of 8 mg/L. The
physician increases the dose to 300 mg BID. What steady-state concentration would you
expect?
a) Greater than 8 mg/L but, less than 12 mg/L

Copyright © Tips Inc Protect copyright and Report Piracy 5


PharmacyPREP.com EE FINAL MOCK

b) Nearly equal to 12 mg/L


c) Significantly greater than 12 mg/L
D) No change in phenytoin steady state concentration
E) None of the above

34) Calcium supplements separate 2 to 4 hrs from all, except?


A) Ciprofloxacin B) Tetracycline C) Alendronate D) Thyroxin E) ASA

35. What is used in toothpastes to prevent dental caries?


A.Triclosan B. Glycerol C. Sodium triphosphate D) Menthol E) Fluoride

36. Cellular protein synthesis is expressed by DNA, RNA to ribosome. Which of the following is
the correct process?
A) Transcription occurs before translation
B) Translation occurs before transcription
C) Transcription occurs after translation
D) Transcription occurs in ribosomal RNA
E) Translation occurs on DNA template

37) A patient cannot afford to buy new medication that is not covered by his insurance plan.
Pharmacist called his doctor and asked him to change the medication into another medication
covered by the patient’s insurance plan. Which ethical principle did the pharmacist follow?
a) Beneficence b.Veracity c.Justice d. Nonmaleficence Fidelity

38. What drug act by inhibits the conversion of testosterone to the androgen 5-alpha-
dihydrotestosterone?
A. Tamoxifen B. Clomiphene C. Raloxefine D. Finasteride
E-Alendronate

39.Which of the following require shaking before use?


A. Salbutamol inhaler
B. Budesonide nebulizer
C. salmeterol/budesonide diskus
D. Tiotropium handihaler
E. Salmeterol turbuhaler

40) Selective B 1 adrenergic agonists will produce


a) Glycogenolysis
b) Increased cardiac output
c) Decreased diastolic pressure
d) Decreased peripheral resistance
e) Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle

Copyright © Tips Inc Protect copyright and Report Piracy 6


PharmacyPREP.com EE FINAL MOCK

41. Carboxyhemoglobin is formed due to?


A. hemoglobin plus O 2
B. hemoglobin plus CO 2
C. hemoglobin plus CO
D. hemoglobin plus ferrous
E. hemoglobin plus ferric

42) Which one of the following is not a side effect associated with the use of B 2 agonists in
asthma?
a) Tremor resulting from B 2 receptor activation
b) Tachycardia resulting from B 1 receptor activation
c) Bradycardia resulting from B 1 receptor activation
d) Headache and apprehension resulting from vasodilatation

43) Which of the following reference books contain information about infant formula milk?
A) Compendium Pharmaceutical Specialties
B) Pediatric handbook
C) Compendium of Therapeutic Minor Ailment
D) Martindale
E) Compendium of Therapeutics choices

44. Which of the following vitamins is depleted in the blood by smoking?


a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin B c) Vitamin E d) Vitamin D E) Vitamin A

45) Protrusion of upper part of stomach into thorax through a tear is defined as?
A. Peptic ulcer b. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Crohn's disease D. Hiatal hernia

46. Advantages of nasal route over oral route absorption of drugs may include:
I- Nasal route has a higher surface area
II. Nasal route has more blood vessels
III- Nasal route has a higher onset of absorption
A-I only B-III only C-I and II only D-II and III only E-I, II and III

47. Which of the following risk increase after hip or knee replacement surgery?
A. Myocardial infarction B. stroke C. Angina D. Vein thrombosis

48) which of the following is an infectious complication associated with HIV if the CD4 is 350?
A. Mycobacterium avium, complex
B. Oral candidiasis
C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
D. Hodgkin's lymphoma
E. All of the above

Copyright © Tips Inc Protect copyright and Report Piracy 7


PharmacyPREP.com EE FINAL MOCK

49. When you acquire business, what is the first step you should plan to do?
A. Talk to your competitors
B. Check prescription fee of other pharmacies in area
C. Meet prescribers in area
D. Geographical market area analysis
E. Check the salary of staff

50. There are 9 cranial nerve. Of these cranial nerve, the vagus nerve?
A. sensation from visceral (internal) organs and parasympathetic motor regulation of visceral
organs
B. serves muscle that move head, neck, and shoulders
C. serves muscles of the tongue
D. Equilibrium and hearing

51. A very frequent customer at your pharmacy, request for 15 days supply of Lipitor 10 mg
tablets. Next few hours he has to take a flight for vacation. Currently all walk-in-clinics are
closed and his physician is not available for prescription. Customer has no prescription and no
refills of Lipitor? According to extended scope of pharmacy practice pharmacist dispensed 15
days of drugs? This is defined as?
A. Adaptation
B. Advancing a drug
C. Pharmaceutical opinion
D. Professional discretion
E. Professional judgement

52. Coalescence is problem affecting on stability of?


A. suspension b. emulsion c. tablets D.capsule E. suppositories

53) What is purpose of academic detailing?


A) To enhance patient compliance of medication
B) Drug coverage in insurance plans and formularies
C) Drug use and drug overuse
D) To enhance physician prescription practices
E) To enhance appropriate use of broad spectrum antibiotics

54. What types of drugs having these properties SHOULD NOT be formulated into SR forms
A) Poor solubility (dissolution rate is limiting step)
B) Very long half-life (no need) or very short half life (need very large amounts)
C) Very high potency (individual variation increase high dose)
D) Narrow margin of safety e.g. digoxin
E) All of the above

55. Which of the following resources would provide the most up-to-date answer when
checking new approved drug marketed in Canada?

Copyright © Tips Inc Protect copyright and Report Piracy 8


PharmacyPREP.com EE FINAL MOCK

a) eCPS
b) Health Canada's drug product data base
c) Food and Drug Administration website
d) Martindale’s
e) Compendium of Therapeutic choices

56. What is the drug of choice in diabetic foot infection?


a. ciprofloxacin B. cloxacillin C. Amoxicillin D. Cotrimoxazole E. vancomycin

57. When we add salt to solvent, what is correct?


A. Increase boiling point
B. Increase vapor pressure
C. Decrease boiling point
D. Increase freezing point

58.Presence of 17-ethinyl group in the following estrogen structures results in?

A) Oral stable products


B) Carcinogenic side effects
C) Nausea and vomiting side effects
D) Weight loss side effects
E) Na/water retention

59. Lithium carbonate is particularly effective in treating


a) Parkinson’s Disease b. Hypertension c.Schizophrenia d.Acute anxiety
b) Manic-depressive psychosis

60. Amphetamine acts by


a) Promoting storage of the mediator
b) Causing a rapid release of the mediator
c) Causing a slow depletion of the mediator
d) Combining with a receptor substance on the effectors cell
e) Interfering with the response of the receptor to the mediator

61. Generally, elixirs do not require antimicrobial preservatives. The reason is:
A. They contain high sugar content.
B. If they contain greater than 12% alcohol, they are self-preserving.
C. The active ingredient is usually an antimicrobial agent.
D. The active ingredient is usually an antimicrobial agent.

Copyright © Tips Inc Protect copyright and Report Piracy 9


PharmacyPREP.com EE FINAL MOCK

E. They are only used as vehicles. Final product must contain a preservative.

62) All the following are examples of long acting benzodiazepines, EXCEPT:
a) Clonazepan b) Diazepam c) Chlorazepate d) Flurazepan e) Temazepan

63) ABC pharmacy revenue for the last financial year was declined. The financial statement of
pharmacy reflect which of the following?
A. increase in revenue
B. Increase in net profit
C. decrease in net profit
D. increase in expenses
E. Decrease in expenses

64. Using the following correct procedures can reduce the presence of micro organisms in
parenteral products:
A) Using 0.22 micron filter
B) Working in a laminar flow hood
C) Using aseptic techniques
D) Preparation by qualified personal
E) All of the above

65. Septal defect is?


A. Ventricular arrhythmias B. Atrial Arrhythmias C. Hole in the heart D. Myocardial infarction
E. Congestive heart failure

66) Biohazard products should be prepared in:


I) Vertical flow hood
II) Horizontal flow hood
III) Can be prepared open atmosphere no needed of flow hood.
A) I only B) III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II, III

67) What is correct about nucleoside?


A. base + phosphate B. base+ sugar C. sugar + phosphate D. phosphate+ base
E. base + sugar + phosphate

68. A new drug require $20,000 more than older drug per deep vein thrombosis? What is the
type of the study? What type of pharmacoeconomic methodology is used to analyse this?
A. Cost effective analysis
B. Cost benefit analysis
C. Cost minimization analysis
D. Cost utility analysis

Copyright © Tips Inc Protect copyright and Report Piracy 10


PharmacyPREP.com EE FINAL MOCK

69) A pharmacist is required to give knowledge of drugs and supply the patient with enough
pieces of information to overcome the patient ignorance. This is done by:
a) Written information only
b) Verbal information only
c) Verbal and written information
d) Magazines and folders information
e) Video information

70) The MOST common clinical cause of bacterial resistance is


a) Improper antibiotic selection
b) Faulty gastrointestinal absorption of antibiotics
c) Use of antibiotics when they are not indicated
d) Failure to use culture and sensitivity tests
e) None of the above

71. Double set of unpaired chromosomes are?


A) Recombination B) Hemophilia C) Hapten D) Haploid E) Diploid

72) GLP-1 analog are structurally and functionally same as human GLP-1. When administered
subcutaneously they increase GLP-1 action by five folds. Which of the following is a GLP-1
analog?
A. Canagliflozin B. Sitagliptine C.Exenatide D. Linagliptine E. Glimepiride

73. You are working as pharmacist in pharmacy A. The Pharmacist in pharmacy B was breaking
a pharmacy law?
A. Complain to college of pharmacy
B. Talk to manager of pharmacy B
C. Ignore it is not your pharmacy problem
D. Complain to police

74) Penicillin should be administrated 1 hour before meals or 2 to 3 hours after meals in order
to:
A. Improve the bioavailability
B. Maximize the dissolution rate
C. Avoid interaction with calcium ions

75) Diabetic foot ulcer?


a. erythema B. neuralgia C. swelling D. infection

76) Insurance companies pay for the drugs of cheapest price of substituted medications.
According to the following data which medication could be chose?
a) 40 mg bid with a cost of $0.55/tablet
b) 20 mg qid with a cost of $0.60/tablet
c) 80 mg qd with a cost of $1.90/tablet

Copyright © Tips Inc Protect copyright and Report Piracy 11


PharmacyPREP.com EE FINAL MOCK

d) 120 mg hs with a cost of $2.30/tablet


e) 40 mg qid with a cost of $0.50/tablet

77) Correct statements regarding aminoglycosides may include:


I) Has a half-life of 32 hours
II- The effect continue remain after all drug is eliminated
III- The relation plasma concentration and half life is not clear
A) I only B-III only C) I and II only D) II and III only E) I, II, III

78. All of the following are TNF alpha inhibitors except?


A. Adalimumab B. Infliximab C. Golimumab and Certrolizumab
D. Etanercept E. Rituximab

79. A results in statistically significant and reject the null hypothesis, when in fact null is true?
A. type 1 error B. type 2 error C. statistical significant D. confidence interval

80. According to Institute of safe medication practices (ISMP), which of the following drug
require label as high alert?
A. Simvastatin B. Lisinopril C. Digoxin D. progesterone E. Estrogen

81. A patient checks the blood pressure in pharmacy. The patient blood pressure was 140/90.
Pharmacist assist patients to double check the blood pressure. The patient blood pressure
was 140/90 What is appropriate action?
A. patient should be recommend to do lifestyle modifications to control blood pressure
B. patient should be referred to doctor to confirmation of blood pressure.
C. patient should be referred to emergence
D. patient blood pressure is not too high so patient need not to worry.
E. Pharmacist should check again patient blood pressure

82) Four types of physician, and their patient involved in study. Which non-parametric
method is appropriate
A. T-test B. Chi-square C. Anova D. F-Test E. Mean

83) Second generation antipsychotic drug are mainly indicated for:


A) Positive schizophrenia symptoms
B) Negative schizophrenia symptoms
C) Negative and positive symptoms
D-Depression and schizophrenia
E-Seizures and depression

84) Which of the following prescription require pharmacist intervention?


A. Amoxicillin 500 mg 4 capsules before procedure
B. Azithromycin 250 mg, take 2 tab day 1 and 1 tab day 2-5.
C. Atorvastatin daily for 3 months

Copyright © Tips Inc Protect copyright and Report Piracy 12


PharmacyPREP.com EE FINAL MOCK

D. Metformin 500 mg bid for 3 month


E. Gliclazide 30 mg (Dimicron MR) one tab daily for 3 month

85) A drug was wrongly dispensed to a patient what is the main concern?
A. Legal action B. Financial Liability C. Patient safety D. Drug effectiveness
E. Licence suspension

86) You are to prepare 750 mg medication in 75 mL for infusion over 30 minutes, using a 10-
drop set. How many drops/min will that be?
A. 20 drops/min B. 25 drop/min C. 30 drops/min D. 10 drops/min E. 5 drops/min

87) You are requested to add 44 mEq of sodium chloride (NaCl) to an IV bag. Sodium
chloride is available as a 4 mEq/ml solution. How many milliliters will you add to the bag?
a. 20 ML b. 8 mL C. 11 mL D. 15 mL E. 25 mL

88) Which of the following receptors are mediated by chemotherapy induced nausea and
vomiting?
A. type 1 serotonin B. type 2 serotonin C. type 3 serotonin D. type 4 serotonin

89. Simethicone is?


A) Laxative B) Antiflatulance C) Antidiarrheal D) Antacids E) Mucosal protective
agent

90) Buffers are made with?


A. Sodium acetate and acetic acid
B. Base and acid mixture
C. Acid and Acid mixture
D. Base and base mixture

91) The molecular weight of magnesium sulfate (Mg 2+ SO 4 2-) is 120 mg and its valence is
2. How many milligrams does 1 mEq of magnesium sulfate weigh?
A. 20 mg B. 40 mg C.60 mg D. 80 mg E. 100 mg

92) An average adult has a body surface area of 1.72 m2 and requires an adult dosage of
12 mg of a given medication. The same medication is to be given to a child in a pediatric
dosage. If the child has a body surface area of 0.60 m2, and if the proper dosage for pediatric
and adult patients is a linear function of the body surface area (in other words, think of the
child as a small adult), what is the proper pediatric dosage?
A. 7mg B, 4 mg C. 6 mg D. 8 mg E. 10 mg

93. Which of the following is not available as over the counter drug?
A. bisacodyl b. mupirocin c. Cetirizine D. diclofena topical E. ibuprofen 300 mg

Copyright © Tips Inc Protect copyright and Report Piracy 13


PharmacyPREP.com EE FINAL MOCK

94) You have a stock solution that contains 10 mg of active ingredient per 5 ml of solution.
The physician orders a dose of 4 mg. how many milliliters of the stock solution will have to be
administered?
A. 2 mL B. 4 mL C. 6 mL D. 8 mL E. 10 mL

95. A researcher develops a new drug to prevent the common cold in children over the of
two. 1000 children received placebo and 1000 received the drug. During the one-year follow
up the research diagnosed colds in 2.5% of the kids on placebo and in 2% of the active
treatment. What is the absolute risk reduction?
A) 0.5% B-20% C-10% D-40% E) 5%

96. Who set the prices of prescription brand name of patented medicine drugs in Canada?
A)Patented Medicine Price Review Board (PMPRB) B)Health Canada C)Provincial government
D)Federal government E)Manufacturer

97. Which of the following drug combination therapy most likely associated with serotonin
syndrome?
A) Fluoxetine and bupropion
B) Tranylcypromine and paroxetine
C) Amitriptyline and selegiline
D) Rasagiline and fluoxetine
E) Bupropion and venlafaxine

98) All of the following statements with regard to the autocoids prostaglandin are correct
EXCEPT,
a) It is a fatty acid
b) It is derived from essential amino acids
c) It is thought to be involved in the inflammatory process
d) It is thought to be involved in the reproductive process
e) Its synthesis may be inhibited by non steroidal anti-inflammatory agents

99. Diabetic supplies e.g. blood glucose testing agents, syringes, lancets are identified as?
A) Drug identification number
B) Natural product number
C) Product identification number (PIN)
D) Homeopathic Medicine Number (DIN-HM)
E) Universal product code

100) Which phase involves the comparison between the test drug and the standard drug in
the process of developing a new drug?
A. Preclinical trial B-Phase I trial C- Phase II trial D- Phase III trial E- Phase IV trial

101) What is the p?


A. probability of error or level of significant in type 1 error

Copyright © Tips Inc Protect copyright and Report Piracy 14


PharmacyPREP.com EE FINAL MOCK

b. probability of error or level of significant in type 2 error


C. probability of all errors in a study
E. probability of false negative error

102) MK is 60 year old post menopausal women, recently had hysterectomy and currently
suffering from vasomotor symptoms. Which of the following is hormonal therapy is
appropriate?
A. Androgen B. Estrogen C. Progesterone D. estrogen and progesterone
E. no hormonal therapy is recommended

103) What is suitable reference source to locate detail information about drug-grape fruit
juice interaction?
A. Comoendim of therapeutic choices B. USP-DI Vol. I C-PDR D-CPS E-Merck Manual

104. Which of the following is the incorrect about a general anesthetic ketamine regulations?
A. It is regulated as straight narcotic
B. Ketamine should be given only by written prescription.
C. Ketamine can be refilled only 3 times maximum
D. Ketamine prescription cannot be transferred
E. Ketamine prescription hard copy should be stored for minimum 2 years

105) What is not recommended for the management of burn?


A. Ibuprofen B. Fusidic Acid 2% C. Amikacin IM D. Fentanyl IV E. Silver Sulfadiazine 1%

106) What is correct about Reverse Phase High Performance Liquid Chromatography?
I- Mobile phase is a non-polar solvent
II- The particle size of stationary phase affects resolution
III) Utilize high pressure pump to increase efficiency in the resolution
a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) I,II,III

107) What is the mechanism of action of propylthiouracil in treatment o of hyperthyroidism?


A) Interferes with concentration of iodide ion in the thyroid gland
B) Inhibits the synthesis of both idotyrosine and idothyronine
C) Inhibition of T 4 deiodination (blocks the conversion of T 4 to T 3 )
D) Inhibition of T 3 deiodination
E) Inhibition of serum TSH

108. MK is 55 yo man just diagnosed with COPD. He smokes half pack of cigarettes daily. His
pharmacist advised and counselled to quit smoking. MK started nicotine patch. He returns
after 3 days complains he is not able to sleep or feeling insomnia?
A. Insomnia is nicotine withdrawal symptom
B. Insomnia is side effect of nicotine patch
C. Insomnia is due to COPD
D. All nicotine product can cause insomnia, he should be switched to bupropion

Copyright © Tips Inc Protect copyright and Report Piracy 15


PharmacyPREP.com EE FINAL MOCK

E. COPD patient should not use nicotine patch

109) A customer of your pharmacy using metformin 500 mg bid and glyburide qd. Complains
to have gritty and sandy feeling in eye. What is appropriate to do?
A)Refer to doctor because of diabetic condition
B)Refer to doctor because sandy and gritty feeling in eye is conjunctivitis.
C)Refer to doctor because glyburide side effect is dry eye
D)Refer to doctor because metformin side effect is dry eye
E)Refer to doctor because these are side effects of anticholinergic drugs

110) Which of the followings is Not correct?


A) Children receive smaller doses of drugs, as their metabolizing enzymes are not developed
B) Deficiencies of vitamins affect drug-metabolizing capacity
C) Congestive heart failure affects liver metabolism by altering hepatic blood flow
D) Genetic differences affect both the rate and extent of drug metabolism
E) Increasing the dose does not affect metabolizing capacity, as enzymes are continuously
formed in liver at a constant rate

111) Acetylcholine and epinephrine antagonize the effect of each other. What type of
antagonism is it?
A. Physiological antagonism B. Somatic antagonism C-Competitive antagonism
D-Neutralizing antagonism E-Opposite antagonism

112) What is BPMH?


A. Blood pressure medication history
B. Best possible medication history
C. Best possible medication records
D. Best possible myocardial history
E. Best person medication history

113) Which one is incorrect about oleaginous base?


I) Decrease side effects of corticosteroids
II. Prevent water evaporation from skin
III. Petrolatum and glycerine is an examples
a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct

114) A patient reports to emergence with diabetic keto acidosis medical condition. What
incorrect about diabetic ketoacidosis?
A) the major ketone is beta hydroxybutyric acid
B) it is mainly occurs in type 1 DM
C) Fruity smell is symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis
D) diabetic ketoacidosis is NOT life threatening

Copyright © Tips Inc Protect copyright and Report Piracy 16


PharmacyPREP.com EE FINAL MOCK

E) diabetic ketoacidosis occurs due to severe hyper/hypoglycemia

115) A 9 years old boy is suffering from absence seizure. Which drug is recommended for this
patient?
a) Phenytoin b) Ethosuximide c) Gabapentin d) Carbamazepine e) Pregabalin

116) Which of the following contraceptive methods prevents gonorrhea and Chlamydia
infections?
A) Transdermal contraceptives
B) Intrauterine device
C) Vaginal cream
D) Sub dermal progesterone implants
E) None of the above

117) Medications to be prescribed and sold in Canada are approved by?


A. Canadian Health Act
B. NAPRA
C. Therapeutic Directorate, Health Canada
D.Federal Government of Canada
E. Provincial governments

118) Which of the following acne therapy available only oral?


A) Erythromycin B) clindamycin C) Isotretinoin D) Tretinoin

119. Which of the followings is No associated with isoniazid?


A. Vitamin B 6 supplements is given to minimize the neuropathy side effects
B-Orange-red urine
C-Convulsion
D-Agranulocytosis
E-Hepatotoxicity

120) Which of the following special population has high water content in body?

121) A nurse mistakenly administered double dose of insulin to a 80 year old senior diabetic
patient? Which of the following symptoms may NOT occur
A. Confusion B. Tremor C-Palpitation D. Hunger E. Diarrhea
122) Which of the following is NOT screening test for cancer?
A) Prostate specific antigen B) Digital rectal exam C) Pap smear D) ESR E) Colonoscopy

123) All of the following drugs are associated with decreased appetite, Except?
A. Metformin B. Clomipramine C. Bupropion D. Atomoxetine E. Methylphenidate

124) A prescription signs as indicates “ii gtt. au qd x 1/52”. It can be interpreted as:
a. 2 drops in each of both the ears four times a day for 1 week

Copyright © Tips Inc Protect copyright and Report Piracy 17


PharmacyPREP.com EE FINAL MOCK

b. Apply 1 tube to affected area four times a day for 1 day


c. 2 drops in left ear once a day for 7 days
d. 2 drops in each of both the ears once a day for 7 days
e. 2 drops in each of both the eyes once a day for 1 week

125.What spectroscopic methods detects hydrogen, carbons by nuclear spinning of hydrogen


ion?
A. Mass spectrometer B. Nuclear magnetic resonance C. Western blot D. Ultra violet
spectrometer E. HPLC

126. What is correct about Alpha lipoic acid?


A) Essential for aerobic metabolism
B) Has antioxidant properties
C) Organosulfur compound derived from octanoic acid
D) Lipoic acid is cofactor for some enzymes
E) all of the above

127. Which of the followings is Not a correct recommendation for a patient with Congestive
Heart Failure?
A-Restricted sodium intake (<2 to 3 g/day) in all patients
B-Regular physical exercise like walking, jogging, swimming in all patients
C-Control obesity, hypertension and diabetes mellitus if present
D. Restricted fluid intake (1.5 to 2L/day) in all patients
E-Allowed moderate alcohol consumption in patients with less severe condition

128) What is incorrect of subcutaneous injections


A) Given just below the skin and the layer of fatty tissue usually in the arm or thigh
B) Suspensions or oily fluids can be used
C) A small volume (<2 mL) can be administered
D) All types of insulin can be administered by subcutaneous injection
E) Larger amount can be administered in subcutaneous injection

129) Which of the followings are communication barrier?


A) Pharmacy counter height B) Confidence C) Cell phone D) Language
E) All of the above

130. What is the primary pathogen to cause Acute Otitis Media?


I) H. influenza II) S. pneumonia III) M. catarrhalis
A-I only B-III only C-I and II only D-II and III only E-All of the above

131. Which of the following statement is incorrect about alcohol and drug interactions?
A. Alcohol and metronidazole can give disulfiram reactions
B-Alcohol and metformin can give lactic acidosis

Copyright © Tips Inc Protect copyright and Report Piracy 18


PharmacyPREP.com EE FINAL MOCK

C-Alcohol and chlorpropamide can give lactic acidosis


D-Alcohol and benzodiazepines can give sedation
E-All are correct

132) What is primary protein structure?


a) Linear sequence
b) Alpha helix
c) Beta pleated sheet
d) Protein consisting more than one protein chain
e) Three dimensional structure

133) All of the following are true about transdermal patches? except
A) drug with short half life and large quantity can be used
B) Effectiveness for a long period of time allowing for retention of patch for a number of hours
C) Consistent blood drug level of drug is achieved.
D. Fentanyl patch is applied for 48 hours
E. Fentanyl has short half life

134) What modifies protein activity by adding phosphate group or by phosphorylation?


A) Transcription B) post-Translation C) Protein kinases D) Epimerization E) Catalysis

135) Sitagliptin (Januvia) act by?


A) Inhibiting DPP4 enhances incretin like GLP hormones
B) Inhibiting insulin
C) Inhibiting glucagon
D) Increasing incretin levels
E) Analog of incretin

136. A patient using glargine insulin and insulin lispro morning and bedtime. Patient feels
hypoglycemia at bedtime? What is appropriate to do?
A. decrease dose of glargine
B. decrease dose of lispro
C. Recommend to take snacks before bedtime
D. Recommend to avoid lispro insulin

137) Contraceptive methods that may protect STDs such as, gonorrhea, syphilis, chlamydia,
and AIDS?
A) Vaginal rings B) Spermicidal gel C-Intrauterine devices D-Vaginal cream E-Condoms

138. A pharmacy cost of drug for a over the counter drug is $2.00 and sales price is $2.50.
Calculate the mark up (percentage of margin)?
A) 25% B) 30% C) 40% D) 50% E) 80%

139) A prescription sign as indicates “1 gtt ou qid x 10”. It can be interpreted as:

Copyright © Tips Inc Protect copyright and Report Piracy 19


PharmacyPREP.com EE FINAL MOCK

a) 1 drop to right eye four times a day for 10 days


b) Apply 1 tube to affected area four times a day for 10 days
c) 1 drop to both eyes four times a day for 10 days
d) 1 drop to left eye four times a day for 10 days

140) A hospital pharmacist attending a pharmaceutical product trade show. A sales


representative provides a information of a new promotional products in CD. What is
appropriate to do?
A) Do not accept any promotional CD.
B) Take this CD, and review then give it to your hospital pharmacy manager.
C) Take this CD but do NOT discuss with your manager
D) Do not attend any tradeshows or conferences in future
E) None of the above

141) Antibiotics with high partition coefficient from bacterial cell wall have?
A) lower absorption
B) higher absorption
C) absorption of drugs does not depends on partition coefficient
D) absorption of drugs does not depends on bacterial cell wall
E) partition coefficient <1 has high absorption

142) A medication previously approved by insurance is referred as?


A. off label drug B. Pre-authorized medication c. Special access program D. orphan drug

143. Who promotes, sets and implements model standards of pharmacy practice in
Canada?
A-Provincial colleges of pharmacy
B-Pharmacy examination of board of Canada
C-National association of pharmacy regulatory authority (NAPRA)
D. Federal government

144. The axillary nerve supplies which one of the following muscles?
A. Deltoid. B. Supraspinatus. C. Teres major. D. Infraspinatus. E Latissimus dorsi.

145) Which of the following an example of luteinizing hormone releasing hormone (LHRH), a
hormone that is naturally produced in the body and involved in the release of testosterone.
Administering such agents reduces testosterone production. All of the following are example
of analog of LHRH that is used as chemotherapy for prostate cancer treatment? except
A) goseriline acetate B) buserelin acetate C) leuprolide acetate D) Finasteride

146) Muscle temporalis have the following functions?


A. Adduction B-Abduction C-flexion D-biceps E-mastication

Copyright © Tips Inc Protect copyright and Report Piracy 20


PharmacyPREP.com EE FINAL MOCK

147. Atrial fibrillation, all of the following are true, except?


A. irregularly irregular rhythm
B. P wave can be frequent or not seen
C. can increase the risk of stroke
D. Can be due to heart valve defect
E. heart rate will not change

148) What is daily maximum dose of acetaminophen?


A. 10 g B. 4 g C-7 g D-1 g E. 8 g

149. MP is 49 year old male, has been prescribed amlodipine 10 mg daily to treat
hypertension. What is incorrect about amlodipine?
A) Bradycardia
B) may cause peripheral or ankle edema
C) dihydropyridine is essential for activity
D) Avoid taking grapefruit juice
E) may cause orthostatic hypotension and headache

150) A pharmacist is making a presentation on medication adherence and compliance to


group of patients. Which of the following is the most effective in your presentation.
A-reduce the number of prescription refill dates per month
B-Reduce the number of prescription filled per month
C-have more quantities in each refill
D-prescription fill dates closer to expected fill intervals
E-None of the above

151. Which of the following group is NOT covered by the federal drug benefit program?
A)inmates B)refugees C)seniors >65 yr old D)natives or aboriginals E)RCMP

152. The hospital pharmacist is asked for advice from a physician after a newly admitted
patient is diagnosed with ischemic stroke. In the selection of drug therapy for the initial
management of this patient, the pharmacist would find all of the following resources useful,
EXCEPT:
A) Published clinical guidelines
B) Harrison’s principles of internal medicine
C) Cochrane database
D) Compendium of Therapeutic Choices
E) Compendium of Therapeutic Minor Ailment

153. The practice of writing part of a drugs name in upper letter to help distinguish?

Copyright © Tips Inc Protect copyright and Report Piracy 21


PharmacyPREP.com EE FINAL MOCK

A. Dispensing error of generic and brand name drugs


B. Packaging error of medication
C. Dose errors of drugs
D. To prevent incidents of Sound alike and look alike drugs
E. drugs name with same first and last letter

154. A compounding technique used in preparing creams, ointment, and supps that involves
integrating a soluble solid substance (active ingredient) into an oleaginous base by first
melting the base under low heat, then mixing the solid substance into the melted base and
allowing the mixture to cool and solidify is termed as?
A. Geometric dilution B. Fusion C. Trituration D. Levigation E. Pulverisation

155.MP is 50 year old women. She is using metformin 1000 mg bid for the past one year but
her blood glucose levels HbA1C is >8%. What is appropriate to add medication to control her
blood glucose levels?
A. Sitagliptine B. Acarbose C. Liraglutide D. Gliclazide E. Insulin

156. JP 60 yo man hospitalized for a surgical procedure. A clinician describes the surgical
procedure. This is termed as?
A. Confidentiality B. Consent C. Disclosure D. Ethical standard E. Legal requirement

157. A chemical drug-drug incompatibility between gentamycin and penicillin's takes place
thus inactivates both antibiotics. Gentamycin N-acetylation by the penicillin's?
A. Beta lactam ring B. Amide bond C. Ester on dihydrothiazine ringD. Thiazolidine ring
E. carboxylic acid on penicillin

158. Which of the following cytochrome drug interactions are incorrect?


A. grapefruit juice is inhibitor of CYP3A4
B. SSRIs fluoxetine is inhibitor of CYP2D6
C. clopidogrel is substrate of CYP2C19
D. Carbamazepine is inducer of CYP2C9
E. Macrolides are substrates of CYP3A4

159. The major mechanism of drug absorption from placenta in pregnancy?


A. Passive diffusionB. Active transportC. Protein assistedD. Facilitated diffusion
E. All of the above

160. The "contact angle" is an important parameter reflective of the angle that a droplet of
the liquid makes with the solid surface at the point of contact. This parameter is wetting
phenomenon is used to measure ?
A. Degree of wetting of a solid by a liquid
B. Rate of dissolution
C. Rate of disintegration
D. Rate of solubility

Copyright © Tips Inc Protect copyright and Report Piracy 22


PharmacyPREP.com EE FINAL MOCK

E. All of the above

161. What is incorrect about benzodiazepines regulations?


A) Prescription expires in one year
B) Prescription can have 5 refills
C) Prescription with refills are NOT allowed
D) Prescription can have one transfer
E) Prescription direction can be as needed or PRN

162. Health Canada's advisories and product recalls are related to?
A) Information about drug warnings or advisories.
B) Information about drugs that are recalled
C) Information about products that are discontinued
D) When a product recalled. This should be tracked by product lot number.
E) All of the above

163.Edema is?
A) excessive accumulation of water in the extra cellular fluid
B) excessive accumulation of fluids in the intra cellular fluid
C) Accumulation of fluids in the extra cellular's spaces
D) Excessive accumulation of water in the tissues
E) Excessive accumulation of fluids in peritoneal cavity

164. Arrange higher elemental iron to low elemental iron supplements?


A) Ferrous fumarate>Dried ferrous sulfate>Ferrous sulfate> Ferrous gluconate
B) Ferrous gluconate > Dried ferrous sulfate > Ferrous sulfate> Ferrous fumarate
C) Ferrous sulfate > Dried ferrous sulfate > Ferrous gluconate > Ferrous fumarate
D) Ferrous sulfate > Dried ferrous sulfate > Ferrous fumarate > Ferrous gluconate
E) All of the above are same elemental content iron supplements

165. Which of the following ophthalmic preparations have higher bioavailability?


A) Ophthalmic solutions B) Ophthalmic suspensions
C) Ophthalmic liquid D) Ophthalmic drops E) All of the above

166.A clinical trial for a drug A on 300 patients shows no difference. Again trail done on
30,000 patient’s shows difference. What is appropriate biostatical hypothesis error?
A) Type I error
B) Increase in sample size
C) Type II error
D) Probability of error
E) None of the above

167. Bone metastasis disease is?


A. Tumor spreading to the bone

Copyright © Tips Inc Protect copyright and Report Piracy 23


PharmacyPREP.com EE FINAL MOCK

B. Weakening of bone
C. Bone fracture due to osteoporosis
D. Osteopenic conditions of bone
E. Paget disease

168. Which of the following are the requirement of parenteral preps?


A. Terminal "sterile testing" by membrane filtration methods
B. Pyrogen test by LAL test or rabbit tests
C. Particulate test by Light Obscuration particle count test
D. Packaging test by "Package leak test"
E. All of the above

169. 70/30 insulin?


A. Insulin analog suspension containing 70% insulin aspart protamine crystals and 30%
soluble insulin aspart.
B. Insulin analog suspension containing 70% insulin aspart protamine amorphous and 30%
soluble insulin aspart.
C. Insulin analog suspension containing 70% insulin aspart portamine
E. intermediate acting and long acting insulin

170. Atypical antipsychotics antagonistic action on 5HT 2a is used to treat?


A) HallucinationsB) DelusionC) AgitationD) Social withdrawal and isolation
E) Extra pyramidal symptoms

171.Guanine contain same number as ?


A. Cytosine b.Uracil c. Thiamine d.Adenine
172.What is incorrect about lymphatic system functions?
A) Remove excessive interstitial fluids
B) Absorbs and Transport of dietary lipids to cells
C) Specific immunity as compared to non specific immunity
D) Absorbs water soluble vitamins
E) The lymphatic system also removes excess fluid, and waste products from the interstitial
spaces between the cells.

173. Cisplatin is widely used as chemotherapy agent. Which act by?


A. Cisplatin cross links to DNA and forms intra and inter strand adduct.
B. Cisplatin induce DNA breakage linkage by free radical
C. Cisplatin act by mediating topoisomerase II
D. Cisplatin is a microtubule inhibitor

Copyright © Tips Inc Protect copyright and Report Piracy 24


PharmacyPREP.com EE FINAL MOCK

174. What is correct about drug excretion into breast milk?


A. Basic drug excrete more into breast milk
B. Acid drug excrete more into breast milk
C. Water soluble drugs excrete more into breast milk
D. Lipid soluble drugs does not excrete into breast milk

175. Why COMT inhibitors always should use with levodopa?


A) COMT inhibitor decrease metabolism of levodopa to 3-methyl dopa in CNS and peripheral
B) COMT inhibitors have synergistic action with levodopa
C-COMT inhibitors have additive action with levodopa
D-COMT inhibitors should not be combined with levodopa
E-None of the above

176. Polysorbate are?


A) Dispersing agent B) Suspending agent C) Levigating agents D) Fillers E) Glidant

177. Which of the following can be used for evidence based reference for decision making?
A) Compendium of Therapeutic choices
B) Compendium of Therapeutic Minor ailments
C) Compendium of pharmaceutical specialties
D) Cochrane review database
E) Martindale

178. The pharmacy staff are complaining about one pharmacist who has just come back from
maternity leave, also patient complains because of the frequent errors in Rx filling and due to
delay in their Rx filling due to lengthy phone calls. What is the best response from the
manager especially when he asked the pharmacist and knew that a problem with the nanny of
the baby is found and she is looking for a better one:
A. He might tell the pharmacy staff and patient that this is a temporary situation and it will be
solve soon.
B. He might tell the pharmacist that the existing behavior is unacceptable and so a discipline
might be applied if it is continued
C-Hire more staff temporarily to help the pharmacist, ↓↓ frequency of errors
D-Arrange a trusted co-worker to follow the pharmacist’s behaviour to ensure that the future
decision is the right one.
E-Apply a discipline for her

179.Who among the following patients can use oral contraceptives with caution?
A) Patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
B) Patient with migraine and aura
C) Patient with BP >160/100 and uncontrolled hypertension

Copyright © Tips Inc Protect copyright and Report Piracy 25


PharmacyPREP.com EE FINAL MOCK

D) A 28 yo women with one child


E) Patient with genital bleeding

180. To prepare a solution of 25 mmols/L of NaCl, how many grams of NaCl should you use for
1L solution (MW of NaCl 58.5)
A.0.50 b.0.73 c.1,25 d.1.46 d.2.50

181. What is the minimum quantity that can be weight on a balance with sensitivity
requirements of 15 mg, where permissible error is 5%?
a) 100mgb) 200mg c) 300mg d) 400mg e) 500mg

182. If a patient is noted to have experienced an allergic reaction to a medication, the


pharmacist should:
a) Tell the patient the physician make a mistake and refuse to fill the prescription.
b) Assume the physician knew about the allergy and fill the prescription and
document in computer.
c) Ask the patient about the type of allergic reaction experienced, document the
allergy and contact prescriber
d) Recommend the patient call the physician before taking the medication and
document.
e) Allergy is minor and assume the physician is already aware

183. What would be the loading dose of a drug to achieve a 20 mcg/ml steady state plasma
concentration? The apparent volume of distribution is 4.5 L.
A) 25 mg B) 35 mg C) 90 mg D) 56 mg E) 70 mg

184. What is least likely true in patient using inhaled corticosteroid?


A. Dysphonia (hoarseness) is likely side effect
B. Oral fungal infections can be minimized by rinsing mouth after inhalation
C. Patient has been on treatment for asthma
D. Patient has been on treatment for COPD
E. Patient using inhaler with aerochamber

185. Alpha 1-antitrypsin (A1AT) is produced in the liver, and one of its functions is to protect
the lungs from neutrophil elastase, an enzyme that can disrupt connective tissue. The
deficiency of alpha-1-antitrypsin can cause?
A. Diabetes
B. Cardiovascular diseases
C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D. Increase in low density proteins
E. Hypertension

186. The antipsychotic effects of the phenothiazines are probably the result of
a) release of serotonin in the brain

Copyright © Tips Inc Protect copyright and Report Piracy 26


PharmacyPREP.com EE FINAL MOCK

b) release of norepinephrine in the brain


c) blockade of dopaminergic sites in the brain
d) prevention of the release of norepinephrine form brain neuron terminals
e) increase in the dopamine content of the cerebral cortex

187. A 70 year old patient has chronic renal disease, which of the following is the pharmacist
least concern?
A. Enoxaparin B. Heparin C. Warfarin D. Ramipril E. Hydrochlorothiazide

188. Which one is the most appropriate antidepressant for a patient, who is already suffering
from sexual dysfunction?
A) Paroxetine B) Bupropion C) FluoxetineD. VenlafaxineE. Amitriptyline

189. Enterohepatic recirculation between?


A. Small intestine to portal vein and liver
B. Small intestine to bile duct and liver
C. Small intestine to liver recircular
D. Portal vein to small intestine
E. bile duct to portal vein

190. What is incorrect about binders in tablet manufacturing?


A-Binder to cause the adhesion of the powdered drug and inactive ingredients
B. Excessive binder will present capping problem
C-Excessive binder will present excessive hardness
D. Corn starch is used as binder in tablet manufacturing
E. Magnesium stearate is used as binder in tablet manufacturing

191. Venous pooling occurs due to lack of sympathetic activity and loss of active muscle
function in the lower extremities and trunk musculature, this results more retention of blood
in veins. There are drugs know to induce venous pooling. What drugs more likely can cause
venous pooling?
A. Isosorbide dinitrate B. Propranolol C. Amlodipine D-Captopril
E-Hydrochlorothiazide

192. What type acetaminophen metabolism saturation can cause hepatotoxicity?


A) phenacetin and acetanilide
B) glutathione conjugation
C) Glycine conjugation
D) Glucuronidation
E) Sulphate conjugation

193. What is incorrect about cholesterol lowering drug statins?


A) Essential group of statin action is 3,5 dihydroxycarboxylate
B) All statins have similar onset, duration, dosing interval and plasma protein binding

Copyright © Tips Inc Protect copyright and Report Piracy 27


PharmacyPREP.com EE FINAL MOCK

C) Statin takes 2 weeks to lower plasma cholesterol


D) Decrease liver trans aminases
E) Atorvastatin can be taken anytime of the day.

194. ACE, is a central component of the renin-angiotensin system (RAS), which controls blood
pressure by?
A. regulating the volume of fluids in the body and potent vasoconstrictor effect
C. blocking beta2 receptors
D. peripheral vasodilatation
E. decrease work load on heart

195. what day of menstrual cycle, the luteinizing hormone (LH) is surged?
A. day 1 of menstruation
B. day 5 of menstruation
C. day 14 of menstruation
D. day 21 of menstruation
E. day 28 of menstruation

196. The neurocranium consists of eight bones. Which of the following is not cranial bone
A. occipital bone B. temporal bone C. Parietal bone D. Facial bone E. Sphenoid bone

197. What is true about combination drug Acetaminophen 300 mg + codeine 8 mg + caffeine
15 mg
A. It is schedule 2 and can be given by pharmacist
B. Require prescription because it contain codeine
C. it is over the counter drug
D. It is straight narcotic and given by written prescription only
E-None of the above

198. Dental abscess is treated by?


A. Erythromycin base B. Erythromycin estolate C. Ciprofloxacin D. Metronidazole
E. Clotrimazole

199. Which of the following drug require to dispensed only by written prescription?
A) Lorazepam B) Clonazepam C) Methylphenidate D) OxyNeo E) Anabolic steroids

200. What is selection bias?


A. The selection of subjects into your sample or their allocation to treatment group produces
a sample that is not representative of the population, or treatment groups that are
systematically different.
B. Random selection and random allocation to produce a sample.
C. A factor that is prognostically linked to the outcome of interest and is unevenly distributed
between the study groups.
D. None of the above

Copyright © Tips Inc Protect copyright and Report Piracy 28

You might also like