Navigation

CPL NAV
Q.1 HDG ( C ) 350 VAR 2E DEV 3W TR RER 340 DR SP. Find TMG.
Q.2 TR requied 165, TMG168, HDGC 172, VAR 2W DEV 1W Drift is ----
Q.3 TR Req 320 drift 5P VAR 5W DEV 2E Find HDG ( C )
Q.4 TR REQ 220 (T) TMG 222 (T) DR 5P HDG 227 (T). Find track Error
Q.5 HDG ( C) 325 DR 5P DEV 0 VAr 3E. Find TMG.
Q.6 TR Req 260 TMG 265 HDG (T) 370 Find Drift.
Q.7 TR Req 328 TMG 325 HDG 320 Find TR Error
Q.8 Find R/L distance between A 51 27 N 00 19 W & B 51 27 N 13 27 E
Q.9 A flight in planned from 40 S 110 E: 0 40 S 102 E The flight is to take place along R/I
Track. Give dist in KM.
Q.10 What is R/L distance and G/C distance from calculate (30N 90E) to New or leans (3
0N 90W)
Q.11 Departure 242 nm ch long 4 deg 45 min what is the latitude.
Q.12 At what Jat would a distance of 1066 n.m. cause a change of longitude of 23 ocg 59
min.
Q.13 How long will it take to go round the earth along the parallel of 75 N at a G/S of 540
K. (Cos 75 = .26)
Q.14 A flight of 2148 KM is being made along a track of 270 (T) along a parallel of 65 N.
If LHT of arrival and LMT of departure is the same fine (a) Flying time (b)G/S
Q.15 At what latitude a distance of 900 nm will involve a D’long of 30 degrees.
Q.16 How long will it take to go round the earth at 60 deg lat at a G/S of 600 K.
Q.17 A is 60 N 16S E: B is 545 nm due dast of A What is its longitude.
Q.18 What is the shorte 1 distance between Calcuua (30N90E) and New Orleans (30N
90W) Find the difference between RA & G/C dist.
Q.19 How long will a take to go round the earth at G/S of 540 K along a parallel of 75 S
Q.20 An from 4730 S 17830W & files on R/L track of 270. for 224 nm Find the
latitude & longitude of its new position.
Q.21 On a from 70N 100W to 70N80E find
Shortes distance in nm
The difference between Rhumb line & G/C dist
Q.22 An a/c T/O from 4730S 17830W & flies on a R/L track of 270 for 224 nm. What is its
new position?
Q.23 G/C Brg of A from B is 060. CA is 4 deg if both place are N/H Find
(a) R/L Brg of A from B
(b) R/L Brg of B from A
Q.24 G/C Brg of O from P is 040. R/L Brg of from P is 042 Find
(a) CA
(b) Hemisphere in which o & P are situated
(c) G/C Brg of P from O.
Q.25 G/C Brg of B from A is 280. R/L Brg of A from B is 096 Find
(a) CA
(b) Hemisphere in which A & B are located
(c) What is the G/C Brg of A from B.
Q.26 R/L Brg of P from Q is 050. G/C Brg of Q from P is 220 Find
(a) CA
(b) Hemisphere of the two places.
(c) G/C Brg of P from Q.
Q.27 P & Q are on a parallel of Lat 30 N, P is at 8 W longitude G/C Brg of Q from P is 087.
What is the longitude of Q.
Q.28 ‘X’ is at 45 S. 175 W convergency between ‘X’ & ‘Y’ is 7 deg. If y is due west of ‘X’
find-
(a) G/C Brg of Y from X
(b) Long of Y
Q.29 Earth convergency between two points & deg l Long apart is 7.2 deg. On the same
parallel of lat P is 173W g is170 E find-
(a) G/C Brg of P from Q in NH
(b) G/C Brg of Q from P in SH
Q.30 LMT at Posn 5730 N 0000E is 1100 hrs. What the LMT at position 48155 0000’W
Q.31 A place is 5:30 hrs behind UTC. What is its longitude
Q.32 What is the LMT in ISTANBUL (41N 29E) when—
(a) LMT in PARIS (Long 02.30’E) is 0800
(b) LMT in Rome (Long 12 E) is 1900
( c) LMT is BAGHDAD (Long 44 17’E) is 0013 hrs on 1 may.
Q.33 If UTC is 1200 hrs At what long is LMT 2000 hrs
Q.34 An ac wishes to arrive at Sydney ( 3352 S 15123E) one hr before SS or 16 Apr 88.
The flight is planned to take 5h 13 min. What is the latest time LMT it can depart from
(355 172 17 E) Sydney SS in LMT is 1915 hrs.
Q.35 An Ac takes off from Bombay (1900N 7320E) for ADEN 1230N 4315E and
completes flying in 8h 35 mts. If it reaches ADEN at 0530 LMT on 19 AUG, Find
time of departure from BOMBAY in LMT IST & UTC
Q.36 An ac takes off from Delhi (2434 N, 7707E) for SINGAPORE (0320N, 10422E). It
arrives at Singapore after flying for 5:25 hrs. Time arrival is 0620 LMT on 16 Apr.88
Find time Departure Delhi in LMT IST & UTC.
Q.37 An ac takes off from Bombay (1900N 7330E) for CAIRO (1500N, 3815E). It arrives
at CAIRO at 0245 LMT on 16 Apr 88 after flying for 6:47 Hrs Find time departure
Bombay in IST, LMT & UTC.
Q.38 An ac takes off from Q (2310N, 16215W) at 2245 LMT on Feb8-8 It lands at
P(4507N, 14830E) after flying for 8:25 Hrs Find ETA at P in LMT &UTC.
Q.39 An ac takes off from X(4559S 14145E) at 2257 LMT on 27 Mar It lands at Y(4000S,
15545W) after flying for 3;47 Hrs Find ETA at Y in LMT & UTC.
Q.40 An ac with its altimeter set to 1013.2 mts lands at an A/F where QNH is 1000 Hpa and
elevation is 300’. If the altimeter was not reset what will alt read on landing.
Q.41 An ac takes off from “x” with Alt set to QNH 1005 Hpa ( Elev 600’) and lands at ‘B’
where QNH is 1001 mbs and elevation is 700’. If altimeter is not reset what it will
read on landing.
Q.42 An ac sets its altimeter to read zero at stn A. The QNH of A is 1000 Hpa and Elevation
is 90’. It lands at B without resetting the altimeter QNH at B is 1014 Hpa Elev is 930’.
What will altimeter read on landing.
Q.43 An ac altimeter is set to 1013 mbs and flies to Bombay where QFE is 1001 Hpa. It
true Ht of AC over Bombay is 5000’, What is altimeter reading.
Q.44 An ac takes off from Delhi QNH 1005 Hpa and goes to Srinagar. Enroute at Banihal
the QNH is 1008 Mbs, Elevation of the hills is 12750 Ft. If track (M) is 355 what is
the Lowest F/L to fly in order to be 1000 above the hill.
Q.45 An ac takes off from A Elev 660 with pressure altitude reading as 600’. It lands at B
Elev 330’ and on landing Pressure altitude reads 450’. Find QNH A & B.
Q.46 An ac takes off from ‘A’ Elev 900’ with pressure altitude reading as 990’, It lands at
‘B’ elev 600’ with pressure altitude reading as 570’ what is QNH & QFE at A&B.
Q.47 An aircraft flies from A to B. QNH A is 1000 Hpa Elev 240 feet QFE at B is 1000 Hpa
Elev 300 feet. Enroute there is hill 5000 feet in elevation. The aircraft takes off from A
with altimeter reading zero feet on T/O
(a) Find the indicated height to clear the hill by 1000 feet.
(b) If Tr(M) is 120, what is the lowest F/L to clear the hill by 1000’
Q.48 On a Mercator chart meridian spacing between 65 W and 66 W is 30 cm Find scale at
(a) Equator
(b) 48 N
Q.49 On a Mercator chart Line joining 40N15E and 40Ni5W measure 165cm. Find
(a) Scale at Equator
(b) Scale at 40 N
(c ) Scale at 60 N
(d) Chart length between 175 W & 176 W.
Q.50 On Mercator chart a distance of 40 cm on chart equals a distance of 400 nm on earth
at 40 S. Find scale at Equator.
Q.51 On a Mercator chart 2 deg ch long measures 15 cm. Find the lat when scale 1/1000000
Q.52 On a Mercator chart spacing between 174E and 175W at 50 N is 26 cm. Find scale at
50 N.
Q.53 Scale at 30 N is 1/2000000 on a Mercator chart find the Lat where scale is 1/1000000
Q.54 Scale at 60 N is 1/1000000 on Mercator chart Find the lat where scale is 1/1500000
Q.55 Scale at 45 N is 1/1000000 on Mercator. Find the spacing between meridians 1 deg ch
long apart ( in cm)
Q.56 On Mercator chart Scale at 60 N is 1/1500000. Find Scale at 30 S.
Q.57 On Mercator Scale at 45 S is 1/1000000. Find scale at 56 N.
Q.58 An a/c obtains a QTE 045 from GD Stn. CA is 3 Deg. Find bearing to plot on
Mercator in NH.
Q.59 An a/c obtains a QDM of 135 CA 4 deg. Var 15 W find bearing to plot on Mercator in
SH
Q.60 An a/c obtains a LSR of 313 QC-1 Var 2W, Hdg (T) 215 CA4 deg. Find BTP on
Mercator
Q.61 An a/c on Dr position 30N 120 E obtains a QTE of 215 from a station 45N 135 E Find
BTP on Mercator.
Q. 62 An a/c on Dr position 45S 40 E obtains LSR of 240QC +1 of a beacon 55S 55E Hdg
(T) 270 find BTP on Mercator.
Q.63 An a/c on Dr position 4000S 5500E receives a QDM of 321 from a ground station
3000 S 3000E Var at the a/c position is 20W & at the ground station is 18W Find BTP
on Mercator.
Q.64 An a/c on Dr position 2430N 1500 W (Var 10E gets a QDM of 126 from a ground
station at 2000N 1000W (Var 9E) what is BTP on Mercator.
Q.65 On a Mercator chart scale at 56N is 1/2000000. Find the chart distance between
meridians 1 deg longitude apart.
Q.66 On a Mercator chart scale at 56 N is 1/1000000 Find scale at
(a) Equator
(b) 35S
© 35N
Q.67 If the scale at 57* 20*N is 1/1091000. What is the meridian spacing in centimeters
between meridians one long Apart.
Q.68 After flying for 90 nm you find drifted 9 nm to the stbd of TR. Find track error.
Q.69 At 1000 hrs an aircraft is 220 nm from destination GS 240 k. It is required to deley its
ETA by 15 Mts, By reducing ground speed to 150 K At what time & after how much
distance ground speed should be reduced.
Q.70 Distance A to B is 800 nm Ground speed 480 K. After T/O the aircraft is required to
delay ETA by 8 Mts. After how much time & at what distance from B the ground
speed should be reduced to 360 K.
Q.71 Distance to go for the destination is 200 nm. GS 150 K. Aircraft is required to reach
early by 10 Mts. After how much time & distance the ground speed should be
increased to 200 K.
Q.72 An ac departs A at 0600 EF G/S 300K for B. Dist Between A & B is 900 nm Another
ac departs B at 0630 fro A. Find time and place of meeting, if the G/S of second a/c is
also 300K.
Q.73 A/C A & B are flying on a track of 270. A/C is behind A/c A by 50 n.m. G/S of B is
390 K & G/S of A is 310K. Find
(a) How much time it will take for ‘B’ to overtake ‘A’
(b) In how many mts ac ‘b’ will be 5 n.m. behind ‘A’
(c) In how much time will A/C B will be 3 mts behind A/C. A
Q.74 A/C ‘A’ departs from a station at 0900 and flies on a track of 090(T) at a G/S of 250K.
Anorther AC departs from the same station at 0930 z and flies on a track of 090(T)
with a G/S of 350K. Find-
(a) Time when AC B will overtake ac A.
(b) Place of meeting
(c) When AC B will be 5 mts behind ac ‘A’
Q.75 Two ac take off from two station 500 n.m. apart both meet in 44 mts. If the first ac
flies 3/5 of total distance, find the G/S of each ac.
Q.76 Two ac depart from station 60 N90 W A/C ‘A’ flies due east and ac ‘B’ flies dir West.
A/C ‘A’ reaches back at the station ( fter going) round the earth) 4 hrs earlier than a/c
B.
(a) If G/S of ‘B’ is 600K find G/S of a/c ‘A’
(b) If G/S of ‘A’ is 700K find G/S of a/c ‘B’
Q.77 A/c ‘A’ leaves place ‘X’ 1630N 17530W at 0600 LMT on 14.5.88 and flies due south
at G/S of 200K. Another a/c ‘B’ leaves from place Y 0000N, 16130E at 0600 LMT on
15.5.88 and flies due east eventually both a/c meet. Find
(a) Place of meeting
(b) G/S of second ac.
© IMT of meeting
(d) GMT of Meeting.
Q.78 A/c ‘A’ leaves place ‘X’ 4200S 0600W at 0700 LMT on 22.5.88 and flies due North at
G/S of 180K. Another a/c ‘B’ leaves from place Y 3000S, 1200E at 0700 LMT on
22.5.88 and flies due West eventually both a/c meet. Find
(a) Place of meeting
(b) LMT and GMT of Meeting.
(c ) G/S of second ac.
Q.79 (a) Wave length is 1.5 KM. Find the frequency

(b) Frequency is 1.5 KM. Find the Wave length
(a) Wave length is 3Meters. Find frequency
(d) Express 100 Khz in Meters.
Q.80 How many Wave Lengths to the nearest whole number are equivalent to 52 ft if
frequency is 150 MHZ.
Q.81 On a ‘X’ country flight your turn your ADF to a ground station It reads 290®. What
will you do to reach the ground station
(a) Turn right by 290 Deg.
(b) Turn left by 70 Deg.
(c) Turn on to a heading of 290 Deg.
Q.82 You are homing to an NDB on a heading of 270. Drift is 8S. What will be ADF
reading.
Q.83 (a) You are homing on ADF on a heading of 137. Drift is 7 P. What will be ADF
reading
(b) You are tracking out from a NDB. Drift is 6P what will bwe ADF reading.
Q.84 An ac is on a Brg of 070(M) from ‘x’ it obtains LSR of 315 from station X. Find
HDG(T), HDG(M) QDM, QTE and QDR, Var 3W.
Q.85 An ac is on a true bearing of 127 from a beacon Var 2E Find
(a) QTE
(b) QDM
(c) QDR
(d) RMI
Q.86 An an a/c RMI shows Var 2W Find

(a) QTE
(b) QDM
(c) QDR
(d) RUJ
Q.87 An ac is on a VOR Radial 015 VAR 5W find-

(a) TB of ac from the station.
(b) RMI reading
(c) QDM
(d) If ac heading is 150 (M) what will be ADF reading (If NDB & VOR are co-
located)
Q.88 If ADF maintains a steady indication 340 deg® while homing on VOR radial 245.
Find HDG(M) of the A/C & the drift, NDB & VOR are co located
Q.89 After T/O from Delhi. on a heading of 080 (T) RMI reads 264, VAR 2W Find
(a) TMG(T)
(b) TMG(M)
(c) DRIFT
(d) LSR reading from Delhi If NDB is co-located with VOR.
Q.90 An ac is heading 041 (m) 40 nm from VOR (P) is on a bearing of 215 (M). The pilot
has selected 212 on OBS Find
(a) RMI Reading
(b) To/ From indication.
(c) CDI indication.
Q.91 An ac is heading 050 (T) 40 is tracking on on a VOR 248 CBS si set at 068 VAR 10W
Find
(a) CDI Indication
(b) RMI Reading.
(c ) Drift
(d) ADF Reading ( If VOR & NDB are co-located)
Q.92 An ac is homing on NDB Bombay. It is on Brg of 060(T) and observes a drift as 5 P,
Dev 6 W var 2 W Find
(a) ADF Reading
(b) RMI Reading.
(c ) What QTE do you expect from Bombay.
(d) What QDM do you expect from Bombay.
Q.93 An ac is approaching Lucknow on VOR radial 120. The pilot has selected 305 on
OBS. To/ From shows TO Find
(a) RMI Reading.
(b) What QTE do you expect from Lucknow (VAR 1W)
(c) CDI indications.
(d) Direction to turn to maintain the selected radial on OBS.
Q.94 An ac is after departing from Delhi is on a VOR radial 215. Delhi approach asks the
ac to maintain Radial 230. The pilot selects radial 230 on OBS & proceeds towards
Jaipur. Find
(a) RMI Reading at present.
(b) Which side the ac should turn intercept radial 230.
(c ) CDI reading.
(d) To/ from indication.
Q.95 Dr. 12 n m to port distance gone 150 nm find track error.
Q.96 Distance A to B 220 nm after flying for 90 n.m. you find a/c 6 nm. Stbd off track. Find
A/H to reach ‘B’.
Q.97 Dist. P to Q is 240 n.m. After flying for 150 n.m. a pin point is obtained 12 n. m. Port
of Track Find alteration of heading to reach destination.
Q.98 A flight is made from VOR (51 N 01 W) Local variation 8W to VOR (51 N 06W)
Local variation 9W. The radials are maintained throughout the flight. Drift is 7 S. Find
HDG (M)
(a) On departure.
(b) On arrival (Sin 51 = .8)
Q.99 The ADF indicates a wing tip bearing change of 10* in 2 min. TAS is 160 K. The
distance to beacon is.
(a) 15 nm.
(b) 32 nm.
(c) 36 nm.
Q.100 With a TAS of 115 K the relative bearing on an ADF changes from 090 to 095 in 1½
min. The distance to beacon is
(a) 12.5 nm.
(b) 24.5 nm.
(c) 34.5 nm.
Q.101 The ADF indicates a wing tip bearing change of 5* in 5 min. TAS is 115 K. The
distance to beacon is.
(a) 36 nm.
(b) 57.5 nm.
(c) 115 nm.
Q.102 The ADF indicates a wing tip bearing change of 5* in 1.5 min. The time to beacon is.
(a) 18 nm.
(b) 24 nm.
(c) 30 nm.
Q.103 With a TAS of 90 K the relative bearing on an ADF changes from 090 to 100 in 2½
min. The distance & time to beacon is
(a) 15 nm 22.5 Min.
(b) 22.5 nm 15 Min.
(c) 32 nm 15 Min.
Q.104 The ADF indicates a wing tip bearing change of 10* in 4 min. The Fuel consumption
is 11 Gal/Hr. The fuel to reach beacon is.
(a) 4.4 Gal.
(b) 8.4 Gal.
(c) 12 Gal.
Q.105 The ADF indicates a wing tip bearing change of 15* in 7.5 min. The Fuel
consumption is 9.6 GPH. TAS is / 85 K.Time Distance & fuel to beacon is.
(a) 30 min, 42.5 nm 4.48 Gal.
(b) 32 min, 48 nm 5.58 Gal.
(c) 48 min, 48 nm 4.58 Gal.
Q.106 Maintaining a constant heading the relative bearing doubles in 6 min. time to beacon
is.
(a) 6 Min.
(b) 12 Min.
(c) 18 Min.
Q.107 Maintaining a constant heading the ADF reading changes from 045 to 090 in 5 Min.
TAS is 120 Fuel consumption is 15 GPH. Time Dist & fuel to beacon is..
(a) 5 min, 10 nm 1.25 Gal.
(b) 6.7 min, 13.4 nm 5.58 Gal.
(c) 10 min, 20 nm 2.5 Gal.
Q.108 Maintaining a constant heading the ADF reading changes from 315 to … in 7 Min.
TAS is 120 Fuel consumption is 18 GPH. Time Dist & fuel to beacon is
(a) 7 min, 14 nm 2 Gal.
(b) 7 min, 13 nm 2.1 Gal.
(c) 9.3 min, 17.4 nm 2.8 Gal.
Q.109 In bound on radial 090. pilots rotates OBS 10 Deg. To the left & turns the
aircraft to right& notes the time. While maintaining a constant heading it is noticed
that the cdi is centered in 8 minutes Consider nil winds. Bascs on this you can
conclude that the time to station will be.
(a) 48 minutes.
(b) 8 minutes.
(c) 16 minutes
(d) 24 minutes
Q.110 If wind direction is 90 deg to the heading
a) TAS>G/S.
b) TAS<G/S.
c) TAS=G/S.
Q.111 If wind direction is 90 deg to the track
a) TAS>G/S.
b) TAS<G/S.
c) TAS=G/S.
Q.112 At a constant wind speed, in which case the drift is maximum
a) When Wind is 90 degrees to track.
b) When wind is 90 degrees to heading.
c) Any of the above it will depend upon the wind speed.
Q.113 Given Coeff a=+1, Coeff b=-3, Coff c=+2 Find Deviation on Hdg 330
Q.114 On Hdg 225 Dev is 3E Coeff a=+2, Coff c=+4. Find Coeff B
Q.115 On a compass swing the following reading were obtained. Find Coefficients
A,B & C
Landing compass P4
360 001
089 092
176 175
271 270
A,B & C
Landing compass P4
095 092
183 179
270 271
360 002
A,B & C
P4 Landing compass
001 002
096 091
186 183
Q.118 You have been asked to hold on radial 130, standard holding
a) Tear drop entry lies between radials

b) Parallel entry lies between radials
c) Direct entry lies between radials
Q.119 To check a VOR against a VOT which of the following will indicate that the VOR is
working with in normal limits
a) 360 TO
b) 180 FROM
c) 180 TO
d) It will depend whether the aircraft is to North or South of VOT
Q.120 Which of the following OBS/CDI combinations indicate that the aircraft is with in
180-269 radials relative to VOR
(a) 090 TO , Fly Right
(b) 270 TO , Fly Left
(c) 090 TO , Fly Left
(d) 270 TO , Fly Right
PART II
Q.1 An aircraft descends to an airport under the following condition
Cruising Altitude 6500 feet
Airport elevation 700 feet
Descending to 800 feet AGL
Rate of descend 500 feet /Min.
Average TAS 110 K
Track 335*
Average W/V 080/15
Variation 3W
Deviation +2
Average Fuel consumption 8.5 Gal/Hr
Find the time, Hdg ( c) & distance & fuel used during descend
(a) 10 Min , 348 , 18 nm, 1.4 Gal
(b) 10 Min , 355 , 17 nm, 2.4 Gal
(c) 12 Min , 346 , 18 nm, 1.6 Gal
Average TAS 120 K
Track 165*
Average W/V 240/20
Variation 4E
Deviation -2
(a) 16 Min , 168 , 30 nm, 2-9 Gal
(b) 18 Min , 164 , 34 nm, 3.2 Gal
(c) 18 Min , 168 , 34 nm, 2.9 Gal

Average CAS 119 K
Mean Temp +18 C
Track 263*
Average W/V 330/30
Variation 7E
Deviation +3
(a) 9 Min , 274 , 26 nm, 2-8 Gal
(b) 13 Min , 274 , 28 nm, 2.5 Gal
(c) 13 Min , 271 , 26 nm, 2.5 Gal
Q.4 An aircraft departs from an airport under the following condition
Rate of Climb 500 feet/ Min.
Average TAS 135 K
Track 215*
Average W/V 290/20
Variation 3W
Deviation -2
Average Fuel consumption 13 Gal/Hr
(a) 14 Min , 234 , 26 nm, 3-9 Gal
(b) 17 Min , 224 , 36 nm, 3.7 Gal
(c) 17 Min , 242 , 31 nm, 3.5 Gal
Average TAS 160 K
Track 145*
Average W/V 080/15
Variation 5E
Deviation -3
(a) 14 Min , 128 , 35 nm, 3.2 Gal
(b) 16 Min , 132 , 41 nm, 3.7 Gal
(c) 16 Min , 128 , 32 nm, 3.8 Gal

Average TAS 121 K
Mean Temp +22 C
Track 215*
Average W/V 290/20
Variation 3W
Deviation -2
(a) 14 Min , 234 , 26 nm, 3.9 Gal
(b) 17 Min , 224 , 36 nm, 3.7 Gal
(c) 17 Min , 242 , 31 nm, 3.5 Gal
Q.7 Track 345, Hdg (T) 355, TAS 85 K, G/S 95 K, The W/V is
(a) 095/19
(b) 115/18
(c) 238/18
Q.8 Track 105, Heading (T) 085, TAS 95 K, G/S 95 K, The W/V is
(a) 095/19
(b) 115/18
(c) 238/18
Q.9 Fuel consumption 95 lbs/Hr, Altitude 6500 feet, G/S 173 K Dist 450 nm. The required
Is
(a) 248 lbs.
(b) 265 lbs.
(c) 284 lbs.
Q.10 Track 075, W/V 175/20, Distance 135 nm, TAS 80 K, F/C 105 lbs/Hr Find the flying
time & the fuel used
(a) 1:28 Hrs, 3.2 lbs.
(b) 1:38 Hrs, 158 lbs.
(c) 1:40, Hrs, 175 lbs.
Q.11 If fuel consumption 14.7 GPH, G/S 157, Dist 612 nm. Fuel required is
(a) 58 Gal.
(b) 60 Gal.
(c) 64 Gal.
Q.12 Given : Dist off Tr 9 nm, Dist flown 95 nm, Dist to fly 125 nm. To converge to the
destination change in heading is
(a) 4*
(b) 6*
(c) 11*
Q.13 T/O Weight 50000 lbs, Landing weight 29000 lbs, Climb fuel 4000 lbs, Descend fuel
1000 lbs. Find the mid cruise weight
Q.14 T/O Weight 80000 lbs, Landing weight 62000 lbs, Climb fuel 5000 lbs, Descend fuel
2000 lbs. Find the mid cruise weight.
Q.15 Which of the following levels will give maximum economy with details given below
FL Temp Dev(ISA) Mach Wind Fuel Flow

(a) 350 +16 0.84 -50 6600
(b) 330 +15 0.84 -50 6800
(c) 310 +15 0.84 -20 7100
Q.16 Which aircraft is most economical to fly? Given the following details SG 0.8
(a) 34.5 liters/Km.
(b) 0.065 GNM/ liter
(c ) 16.85 KG/GNM
(d) 0.20 GNM/IMP Gal
Q.17 Fuel efficiency is 9.32 Kg. SG is 0.79 TAS 360 K. Wind component +45 K. The Fuel
consumption in Imp Gal per hour is
(a) 1200
(b) 1150
(c) 1050
(d) 1020
Q.18 The performance data of four different aircraft is give below. Which aircraft has the
best performance. The SG of fuel is 0.79
TAS Fuel Cons
180 1.25 USG/nm.
240 4.1 IG/Minute
220 815 Kg/Hr.
160 12.7 Liters/Min.
Q.19 Which flight level will give Max fuel economy when flying at Mack No. 0.82 SG is
0.8
FL Temp Dev Fm ISA Wind Component Fuel Flow/Hr
320 +19 +20 6100
340 +19 +30 6000
360 +21 +20 5900
Q.20 In an ac the following tables give the fuel consumption at various airspeeds
TAS CONS G/PH
180 160
185 165
190 171
195 177
200 183.54
Q.21 Given the following data

Max T/O Wt 20000 Kg.
Max Landing Wt 18000 Kg.
Max ZFW 17000 Kg.
Basic Operating Weight 14000 Kg.
Flight Fuel 1400 Kg.
Fuel on Board 3000 Kg.
Find (a) The pay load that can be carried
(b) Pay load if the aircraft consumes 700 Kg of reserve fuel before landing
(c) Pay load if FOB is reduced by 700 Kg.
Q.22 Ac ac is to fly from A to B
Max T/O Weight =82000 lbs
Max weight without fuel & pay load =50000 lbs
Max permissible landing weight =64000 lbs
Fuel Requirements
(a) Fuel for flight A to B 16000 Lbs
(b) Reserve Fuel 8000 Lbs
If the ac lands at B after having consumed 500 lbs of reserve fuel what is the
maximum pay load that can be carried.
Q.23 Max T/O Weight 51.00 Tons
RTOW 50.00 Tons
Max Landing Weight 43.25 Tons
Max Zero Fuel Weight 39.10 Tons
APS Weight 27.50 Tons
Trip Fuel 4.2 Tons
Reserve Fuel 1.00 Ton
Find the payload that can be carried
Q.24 Max Take off Weight 80000 Lbs
Max Landing Weight 60000 Lbs
Basic Weight 48000 Lbs
TAS 200 K
Tarck 350
W/V 350/20
Distance 1350 nm.
Fuel consumption 2500 Lbs / Hr
Reserve Fuel 3500 Lbs
Find the pay load that can be carried
Q.25 Track 055. Distance 1545 nm. TAS 4 Eng 300 K TAS 3 Eng 250 K. W/V up to CP
260/55 After CP W/V 310/30 . FOB 18000 Lbs. Reserve 3000 Lbs. F/C 4 Eng 2600
lbs/Hr 3 Eng 2100 Lbs/Hr
Find (a) Distance & Time to CP
(b) Distance & Time to PNR Assume engine failure at PNR
060/45 After CP W/V 110/30 . FOB 19000 Gal. Reserve 3000 F/C 4 Eng 310 Gal/Hr
3 Eng 260 Gal/Hr
Find (a) Distance & Time to CP assume Engine failure CP
(b) Distance & Time to PNR Assume engine failure at PNR
(b) Distance & Time to PNR (Return on # engine)
(b) Distance & Time to PNR
Q.29 A flight is to be made from A to B Distance 1000 nm. Track 150. TAS 230 K W/V up
to CP 190/10 & beyond CP 220/35. Find time & distance to CP.
Q.30 A flight is to be made for X to Z via Y . Route details are give below
FROM TO Tr W/V Dist TAS Fuel consumption
X Y 050 090/15 550 230 1200
Y Z 130 150/35 715 230 1200
In case of engine failure the reduced TAS is 190 K & Fuel consumption is 840.
Find time & distance to PNR assuming engine failure at PNR.
Q.31 The details of flight plan are given below
A B 090 010/40 557 180 230
Y Z 130 150/35 295 195 230
In case of engine failure TAS is 155 K & Fuel consumption is 840.
Find time & distance to PNR return on 3 Eng.
Q.32 The details of a flight plan are give below

X Y 050 090/15 550 230 1200
Y Z 130 150/35 715 230 1200
In case of engine failure the reduced TAS is 190 K & Fuel consumption is 840.
Find time & distance to PNR assuming engine failure at PNR. ( FOB is 10000 Lbs)
.
Q.33 Track 280. 4 Eng TAS 230, 3 Eng TAS 190, W/V 260/65 for first 400 nm & head
wind of 30 K for rest of the flight . FOB 1400 G Reserve Fuel 500 Gal. Fuel
consumption 4 Eng 100 GPH, 3 Eng 80 GPH.
Find Time & Distance to CP & Distance to PNR Return on 3 Eng.
Q.34 Distance 1000 nm, 4 eng TAS 180 k, 3 Eng TAS 150 K Head Wind 10K for first 400
nm & head Wind of 30 K for rest of the flight. FOB 1400 G Reserve Fuel 500 Gal.
Fuel consumption 4 Eng 100 GPH, 3 Eng 80 GPH.
Find Time & distance to CP & Time & distance to PNR Return on 3 Eng.
Q.35 Max T/O Weight 55000 Kg
Max Landing Weight 52000 Kg
Max Zero Fuel Weight 38000 Kg
A/C weight without Fuel & pay load 29000 Kg
Fuel Cons 1600 Kg/Hr
Distance 1500 nm
Reserve Fuel 2750 Kg.
TAS 260 K
Find Max pay load in still air
Find Max pay load with a head wind of 90 K
Q.36 Max T/O Weight 14500 Lbs
Max Landing Weight 97900 Kg
Max Zero Fuel Weight 90100 Kg
A/C weight without Fuel & pay load 70500 Kg
Fuel Cons 5500 Kg/Hr
Distance 3600 nm
Reserve Fuel 7500 Kg.
TAS 470 K
Find Max pay load that can be carried with ahead wind of 20K, 1500 Lbs of Reserve
Fuel is consumed due to over consumption during flight. Ignore climb & descend.
Q.37 A twin engine aircraft FOB 1400 gal. Reserve fuel 200 Gal, Fuel consumption 100
gal/hr/Engine TAS 200 K Head wind 25 K Find time to PNR & Distance to PNR
Q.38 Max Take off weight 50 Tons Max Landing weight 46 Tons Total fuel 7.5 Tons, Trip
fuel 3.5 Tons Empty weight 30 Tons. Find the pay load that can be carried.
Q.39 Scale on Mercator chart is 1:250000 at 48*N Find the distance between two meridians
in inches
Q.40 Ground speed 248 K, Fuel consumption 400 G/hr. Fuel used 500 Gal. Find the
distance flown
Q.41 When flying below 15000 feet on Tr 088 (T) Var 2W. What is the highest flight level
that can be flown
Q.42 During a flight the climb fuel is 1500 Kg. Distance during climb 130 nm. Descend
fuel 500 Kg. Distance during descent is 120 nm. Take off weight 6.5 Tons Landing
weight 2.85 tons. Find the mid cruise weight.
Q.43 Tr 080, TAS 260 K, W/V 140/40. Safe endurance 8 Hrs, Reserve endurance 2 Hrs,
Find distance to PNR.
Q.44 TAS 450 K, Tr 050 W/V 230/30 Distance 1000 nm safe endurance 4 Hrs. Find time to
PNR Distance 800 nm, TAS 200 K out bound Head wind 30 K, Inbound Tail wind 25
K Find Distance to CP
Q.45 Track (T) 175, W/V 355/25, TAS 175K distance 854 nm. Find ETA to CP if set
heading time is 0820
Q.46 (a) F/L 350, TAT – 11C, Temperature deviation from ISA +20 Find Out side air
temperature and TAS
(b) F/L 350 TAS 450 K TAT – 11C Find Temp Dev from ISA
Q.47 Total fuel 15000 Kg. Reserve Fuel 3000 Kg. Fuel consumption 2800 Kg./Hr. Find safe
endurance.
Q.48 Given
Take of weight =72 Tons
Max landing weight =64 Tons
Max zero Fuel Weight =60 Tons
Empty Weight =50 Tons
Trip Fuel =6.5 Tons
Reserve Fuel =3.5 Tons
Find the payload Assume reserve is not use
Q.49 Track 090, Distance 2000 nm. TAS 4 Eng 180 K TAS 3 Eng 150 W/V 330/20 for first
1000 nm & 270/20 for rest of the flight. Fuel cons 4 Eng 100 GPH. 3 Eng 80 GPG.
FOB 1800 gal. Reserve 300 Gal. Find
(a) Time & distance to CP
(b) Time & distance to PNR Return on 3 Eng.
Q.50 The details of a flight are given below On the return flight the aircraft is required to
land back at Y assuming an engine failure at PNR. Find time & distance to PNR FOB
is 3000 Liters
FROM TO DIST TRACK W/V TAS(4Eng) TAS(3Eng) F/C(4Eng) F/C(3Eng)
X Y 460 060 090/25 210 170 340Lit/Hr 310 Lit/Hr
Y Z 710 030 240/30 210 170 340 Lit/Hr 310 Lit/Hr.
Q.51 An aircraft is to fly from A to D via B &C. TAS 4 Eng 350K, TAS 3 Eng 300 K. Route
details are given below. Find Time & Distance to CP
SECTOR DIST WIND
A-B 345 -15
B-C 320 +15
C-D 440 -25
Q.52 On flight from A to C via B Route details are given below TAS 4 Eng 200 K TAS 3
Eng 170 K F/C 4 Eng 1500 Lbs/Hr, 3Eng 1200 Lbs/Hr FOB 18500 Lbs, Reserve 2000
Lbs Find Time & Distance to CP
SECTOR TRACK DISTANCE W/V
A - B 075 625 130/25
B - C 350 215 210/30
Q.53 22 us Gallons is equal to how many Liters
(a) 125
(b) 83.1
(c) 100
(d) None
PART III
Q.1 If a radio wave is described as horizontally polarised’ , in what planes are the (i)
magnetic and (ii) electrical fields oriented
(a) (i) horizontal (ii) horizontal
(b) (i) Horizontal (ii) vertical
(c) (i) vertical (ii) horizontal
(d) (i) horizontal (ii) circular
Q.2 What is a hertz?

(a) the wavelength in cycles per second.
(b) a frequency of one cycle per second
(c) the wavelength corresponding to one cycle per second
(d) the frequency in cycles per second
Q.3 If wavelength is, 8 mm what is the frequency?
(a) 37.5 GHz.
(b) 375 GHz.
(c) 3750 GHz.
(a) 3.75 GHz.
Q.4 For a frequency of 200 kHz. What is the wavelength?
(a) 1500 m.
(b) 150 m.
(c) 1500 km.
(d) 150 km.
Q.5 What happens to the direction and speed of propagation of radio waves as they pass
through air whose density is increasing?
(a) The waves bend towards the high density and speed up.
(b) The waves bend towards the high density and slow down.
(c) The waves bend away from the high density and speed up.
(d) The waves bend away from the high density and slow down.
Q.6 Which of the following is true?
(a) Ground reflected waves may interfere with surface waves.
(b) Ground waves include space waves and surface waves.
(c) Sky waves and direct waves combine to produce space waves
(d) Direct waves do not curve at all.
Q.7 Which of the following is true?
(a) Sky waves are refracted most at high frequencies.
(b) Surface waves are attenuated most at low frequencies.
(c) Sky waves are absorbed most at low frequencies.
(d) The range of sky waves is proportional to the square root of the transmitted
power.
Q.8 Which of the following is untrue about sky waves?
(a) The skip distance increases with frequency.
(b) The dead space increases with frequency.
(c) The critical angle increases with frequency.
(d) Absorption increases with frequency.
Q.9 Which of the following is true about HF transmissions?
(a) The critical angle of a 30 MHz signal is about 10 Deg during the day.
(b) The skip distance of a given signal increases at night.
(c) The range of the surface wave increases with frequency.
(d) The dead space increases with frequency.
Q.10 Which of the following is true about the ionosphere?
(a) The D layer extends from approx 50 to 80 km and reflects LF signals
(b) The F layer extends from approx 150 to 250 km and refracts VHF
(c) The E layer extends from approx 100 to 150 km and refracts MF.
(d) The F2 layer varies with season and time and refracts LF.
Q.11 If you are using HF voice communications and have good two-way signal during the
day, what must you do as night falls to maintain communications?
(a) Nothing.
(b) Change to a higher frequency.
(c) Change to a lower frequency.
(d) Stay at the same frequency but increase the volume.
Q.12 At what maximum range would a VHF signal transmitted from an aircraft flying at
14000 ft be received by another aircraft flying at 9000 ft:
(a) 190 km.
(b) 212 km.
(c) 267 km.
(d) 494 km.
Q.13 Which emergency frequency is preferred for survival radio transmitters carried during
flight over large ocean regions?
(a) 406.025 MHz
(b) 243.000 MHz
(c) 136.975 MHz
(d) 121.500 MHz
Q.14 On a VDF lct-down the controller passes a QDM of 127 Deg class Bravo. The class
Bravo means that the bearing is accurate to within;
(a) + 1 Deg.
(b) + 2 Deg.
(c) + 5 Deg.
(d) + 10 Deg.
Q.15 VHF range for VDF let-down is:
(a) 3x √Height (ft)
(b) 1.5x √Height (ft)
(c) 12x √Height (ft)
(d) Line-of- sight.
Q.16 QTE means:
(a) The aircraft’s true track to the station
(b) The aircraft’s true bearing from the station
(c) The aircraft’s magnetic track to the station
(d) The aircraft’s magnetic bearing from the station.
Q.17 The ‘Q-code’ for an aircraft’s magnetic heading to steer to reach the station in zero
wind is:
(a) QDM.
(b) QDR.
(c) QTE.
(d) QUJ.
Q.18 If an aircraft is at 8000 ft. and the ground station is at sea level, what will be the
maximum range at which the pilot can expect a QTE from the ground station?
(a) 80 nm.
(b) 107 nm.
(c) 144 nm.
(d) 200 nm.
Q.19 Which of the following are all factors affecting the accuracy of ADF indications?
(a) Night effect tropospheric ducting coastal refraction hill effect
(b) Coastal refraction, static interference, loop alignment, quadrantal error
(c) Quadrantal effect site error, night effect station interference
(d) Thunderstorm interference, loop alignment, duct propagation. Hill effect.
Q.20 Which of the following are all factors affecting the range of an ADF.
(a) Night effect, loop alignment, static interference,
(b) Transmission power, static interference, type of emission.
(c) Frequency, transmission power night effect.
(d) Terrain attenuation, frequency, loop alignment.
Q.21 Which of the following frequencies might be used by an NDB?
(a) 40 KHz.
(b) 400 KHz.
(c) 40 MHz.
(d) 400 MHz.
Q.22 An aircraft is heading 240 Deg (M). The RBI indicates 030. What is the magnetic
bearing of the aircraft from the NDB?
(a) 030.
(b) 090.
(c) 210.
(d) 270.
Q.23 An aircraft is heading a constant 045 (M). On which magnetic bearing from the
aircraft will the ADF be most subject to quadrantal error?
(a) 045.
(b) 075.
(c) 090.
(d) 135.
Q.24 The protection range for an NDB is valid:
(a) at all times?
(b) only at night?
(c) only during the day?
(d) only over the sea?
Q.25 What is the maximum range at which ADF can be safely used at night?
(a) The published protected range.
(b) Half the published protected range.
(c) 70 nm
(d) 200 nm
Q.26 An aircraft’s VOR is tuned to a station. When 025 is selected on the OBS the
deviation bar becomes central and the TO/FROM indicator indicates TO. What is the
a/c radial on?
(a) 025(T)
(b) 025(M)
(c) 205(T)
(d) 205(M)
Q.27 In question 26 above if the ADF is tuned to an NDB on the same site as the VOR and
the RBI indicates a constant 011 on ADF, What drift is the aircraft experiencing?
(a) 11 port
(b) 11 starboard
(c) 14 port
(d) 14 starboard
Q.28 In question 27 above what is the aircraft’s heading?
(a) 011.
(b) 014
(c) 036.
(d) 039.
Q.29 If a VOR station in the AIP has 100/30000 written beside it. What does that mean?
(a) An aircraft can receive its signal at 100 km if it flies at 30000 ft
(b) An aircraft can receive its signal at 100 nm if it flies at 30000 ft
(c) Aircraft should not use the beacon on the 100 Deg radial below 30000 ft.
(d) Aircraft should not use the beacon on the 100 nm or above 30000 ft.
Q.30 To minimize quadrantal error from a VOR station. A pilot should
(a) Choose a VOR station on the aircraft’s bean?
(b) Choose a VOR station on the aircraft’s nose or tail?
(c) Both (a) and (b)?
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)?
Q.31 Doppler VOR compares a reference signal with a variable signal by:
(a) Measuring the phase difference between them.
(b) Measuring the time difference between receiving them.
(c) Measuring the amplitude difference between them.
(d) Measuring the Doppler shift between them.
Q.32 Which of the following are all factors affecting VOR range?
(a) Transmission power, aircraft altitude night effect.
(b) Station elevation site error static.
(c) Station elevation aircraft altitude transmission power
(d) Night effect station elevation coastal effect.
Q.33 Which of the following are all factors affecting VOR accuracy?
(a) Beacon alignment site error propagation error.
(b) Airborne equipment error, propagation error
(c) Pilotage night effect airborne equipment error.
(d) Site error, night effect beacon alignment.
Q.34 Which of the following is the expected accuracy of a VOR signal
(a) + 5 Deg all the time
(b) + 3 Deg 95% of the time
(c) + 3 Deg all the time
(d) + 5 Deg 95% of the time
Q.35 Which of the following indications would be acceptable if you tuned the VOR to a
station marked VOT during the pre-takeoff checks?
(a) 180 FROM.
(b) 004 FROM.
(c) 359 TO.
(d) 175 TO.
Q.36 The modulation of the fixed signal of a Doppler VOR station is:
(a) Frequency modulated at 30 Hz?
(b) Frequency modulated at 30 MHz?
(c) Amplitude modulated at 30 Hz?
(d) Amplitude modulated at 30 MHz?
Q.37 From the OBI indications given, what is the correct interpretation if the aircraft is
heading 270 (M)?
(a) Aircraft is 3 Deg N of the 280 radial, heading towards the station.
(b) Aircraft is 3 Deg S of the 280 radial, heading away from the station.
(c) Aircraft is 3 Deg N of the 100 radial, heading towards the station.
(d) Aircraft is 3 Deg S of the 100 radial, heading away from the station.
Q.38 An aircraft approaches a VOR station on a track of 030 and is instructed to hold at the
fix. The holding pattern is right-hand with a holding leg of 180. Wind is 240/20 and
TAS is 240 K
(a) What form of join should the pilot select?
(b) What will be the drift on the inbound leg?
(c) What should be the heading on the outbound leg?
(d) How long should the pilot maintain the outbound heading?
Q.39 An aircraft receives a radial from a VOR at long range. At the same time it measures
an ADF bearing from an NDB which is co-located with the VOR. Which of the
following will be most correct on the RMI?
(a) The relative bearing of the NDB from the aircraft.
(b) The magnetic bearing of the VOR from the aircraft
(c) The magnetic bearing of the aircraft from the NDB.
(d) The relative bearing of the VOR from the aircraft.
Q.40 A category 1 ILS allows approaches with the following criteria:

(a) Decision height below 30 m an appropriate RVR?
(b) Decision height not below 30 m RVR 350 m?
(c) Decision height below 60 m RVR 350 m?
(d) Decision height below 60 m RVR 550 m?
Q.41 The outer marker of an ILS system emits:
(a) Blue flashes synchronized with audio dashes?
(b) White flashes synchronized with audio dashes?
(c) Blue flashes synchronized with audio dots?
(d) White flashes synchronized with audio dots?
Q.42 What rate of descent should an aircraft use on a 3.5 Deg ILS glide slope if has a
groundspeed of 120 kts?
(a) 500 ft per min.
(b) 600 ft per min.
(c) 700 ft per min.
(d) 800 ft per min.
Q.43 The frequency band 108 MHz to 112 contains:
(a) VOR signals only?
(b) ILS signals only?
(c) VOR and ILS signals?
(d) VOR and VHF communications signals?
Q.44 An ILS glide slope signal may be received within the following footprint:
(a) 8 Deg either side of the centerline out to 25 nm?
(b) 8 Deg either side of the centerline out to 10 nm?
(c) 10 Deg either side of the centerline out to 25 nm?
(d) 10 Deg either side of the centerline out to 10 nm?
Q.45 What height should an aircraft on a 2.5 Deg glide Slope be at a range of 6 nm from
touchdown given an ILS reference of 50 ft?
(a) 1350 ft.
(b) 1550 ft.
(c) 1750 ft.
(d) 1950 ft.
Q.46 What rate of descent should an aircraft use on a 2.5 Deg ILS glide slope if it has a
groundspeed of 120 K
(a) 500 ft per min.
(b) 600 ft per min.
(c) 700 ft per min.
(d) 800 ft per min.
Q.47 If DME is paired with an ILS where will the indicated range be correct?
(a) In all directions up to 20 nm.
(b) Within the localizer catchment area
(c) In all directions, up to 10 nm.
(d) Along the runway centerline in both directions up to 20 nm.
Q.48 A radar transmission has a pulse width of 2 micro sec. What is its minimum resolution
distance in range?
(a) 3 km.
(b) 600 m
(c) 300 m.
(d) 60 m.
Q.49 Azimuth resolution on a radar screen depends on the:
(a) Pulse width of the transmission?
(b) Frequency of the transmission?
(c) Bcam width of the transmission?
(d) PRF of the transmission?
Q.50 What is a radar vector? Choose the most accurate answer.
(a) The heading the controller wants the pilot to steer.
(b) The safe track down which the aircraft should approach the runway.
(c) The line on display screen which represents the time base.
(d) The blip on the radar screen.
Q.51 On an EFIS AWR pictures what colour depicts the strongest echoes?
(a) Green.
(b) yellow
(c) Blue.
(d) Magenta.
Q.52 What accuracy would you expect from a DME range indication of 50 nm?
(a) 0.5 nm.
(b) 1 nm.
(c) 1.5 nm.
(d) 2 nm.
Q.53 Under normal circumstances a DME station can transmit ranges to:
(a) 50 aircraft located on to it?
(b) 100 aircraft located on to it?
(c) 50 aircraft in search mode?
(d) 100 aircraft in search mode?
Q.54 If your DME indicator reads 5 nm, and your aircraft is flying at 24000 ft. What is your
surface range from the station?
(a) 3 km.
(b) 4 km.
(c) 5.5 km.
(d) 8 km.
Q.55 What SSR code would you select on Mode ‘A’ if you were crossing an FIR and had
not been allocated a specific code?
(a) Standby
(b) 2000
(c) 7000
(d) 0000
Q.56 How many codes are available in Mode ‘A’ of SSR?
(a) 3
(b) 7777
(c) 4069
(d) 4096
Q.57 ACAS II gives information to the pilot about collision threats. What advice it
provides?
(a) It tells the pilot the range of a possible collision threat but no bearing.
(b) It tells the pilot the bearing of a possible collision threat but no range.
(c) It tells the pilot the range and bearing of a possible collision threat.
(d) It advises the pilot of avoiding action in the vertical plane.
Q.58 What is the normal range of an ACAS installation?
(a) 120 nm
(b) 60 nm.
(c) 30 nm.
(d) 10 nm.
Q.59 What information is available from an ACAS I installation?
(a) Range and direction of conflicting traffic.
(b) Range direction and track of conflicting traffic.
(c) Direction of conflicting traffic only.
(d) Range of conflicting traffic only.
Q.60 What indication should a pilot expect on a TCAS I installation if the equipment
assesses that another aircraft is a probable collision threat?
(a) Resolution advisories are given on a plan display only.
(b) Audio and/or visual signals give traffic advisories only.
(c) Audio and/ or visual signals in plan give traffic or resolution advisories.
(d) Resolution advisories may be given in the vertical plane.
Q.61 How much warning will a TCAS I give a pilot before a possible collision?
(a) 10 s.
(b) 20 s.
(c) 30 s.
(d) 40 s.
Q.62 Which of the following is true about ACAS II compared with ACASI
(a) Traffic advisories are given in the vertical plane as well as horizontal.
(b) Resolution advisories are given in the vertical plane.
(c) Resolution advisories are given in the horizontal plane.
(d) Resolution advisories are co-ordinated between all conflicting aircraft.
Q.63 What indication would a pilot see on his ACASII display if an aircraft was assessed as
requiring resolution advisory action?
(a) A white square
(b) A blue diamond
(c) A yellow circle
(d) A red square
Q.64 If a pilot sees a solid white diamond on his EFIS what does that tell him?
(a) This is a traffic advisory which will pass well away from his aircraft.
(b) This is a traffic advisory which will pass close to his aircraft.
(c) This is a resolution advisory which the pilot must turn to avoid.
(d) This is a resolution advisory which the pilot must change height to avoid.
Q.65 Up to what another distance from the centerline would a pilot receive correct MLS
azimuth indications?
(a) 20 Deg either side.
(b) 30 Deg either side.
(c) 40 Deg either side.
(d) 60 Deg either side.
Q.66 What frequency bands does MLS use?
(a) UHF for azimuth and elevation.
(b) UHF for azimuth SHF for elevation.
(c) SHF for azimuth, UHF for elevation.
(d) SHF for azimuth and elevation.
Q.67 An MLS azimuth guidance signal may be received:
(a) Within 20 Deg of the centerline, from 1 to 10 Deg above the ground?
(b) Within 20 Deg of the centerline, from 1 to 20 above the ground?
(c) Within 40 Deg of the centerline, from 1 to 10 Deg above the ground?
(d) Within 40 Deg of the centerline, from 1 to 10 Deg above the ground?
Q.68 What is the cover of the glide path beam of an MLS station?
(a) +2 Deg from the centerline out to 20 nm 1 to 20 Deg in elevation up to 20000
ft.
(b) +10 Deg from the centerline out to 10 nm 1 to 20 Deg in elevation up to 20000
ft.
(c) +20 Deg from the centerline out to 10 nm 1 to 20 Deg in elevation up to 10000
ft.
(d) +40 Deg from the centerline out to 20 nm 1 to 20 Deg in elevation up to 20000
ft.
Q.69 What is the cover of the azimuth beam of an MLS station?
(a) +20 Deg from the centerline out to 20 nm 1 to 20 Deg in elevation up to 20000
ft.
(b) +40 Deg from the centerline out to 20 nm 1 to 20 Deg in elevation up to 20000
ft.
(c) +20 Deg from the centerline out to 40 nm 1 to 20 in elevation up to 40000 ft.
(d) +40 Deg from the centerline out to 40 nm 1 to 20 in elevation up to 20000 ft.
Q.70 Which of the following is an error of MLS?
(a) Interference from vehicles or aircraft close to the transmitter
(b) Siting error
(c) False glide path at approximately twice the angle of the correct one
(d) Scalloping
Q.71 How is range measured by the MLS?
(a) DME ranges are found from normal installations
(b) A separate precision DME gives ranges from the center of the airfield.
(c) A precision DME gives range from touchdown
(d) Azimuth and elevation signals combine to give a 3 dimensional picture.
Q.72 How can radio altimeter information be presented to the pilot?
(a) On a dial with logarithmic scale
(b) By lights
(c) Aurally
(d) All the above.
Q. 73 An aircraft is flying at FL250 with its altitude alerting system set to that flight level. If
it enters a climb at what altimeter indication will the altitude alert warn the pilot?
(a) 25100 ft
(b) 25300 ft
(c) 25500 ft
(d) 25900 ft
Q.74 What does a GPWS Mode 3 alert indicate to a pilot?
(a) The aircraft is close to the ground with the undercarriage up
(b) The aircraft is sinking after take-off or go-around
(c) The aircraft is below its selected decision height
(d) The aircraft is approaching high ground
Q.75 Which of the following is not an input to a GPWS?
(a) Radio altimeter
(b) ILS localiser
(c) Vertical speed sensor
(d) Flap position sensor
Q.76 How low on the ILS glide slope will the GPWS alert the pilot?
(a) When the aircraft is below the bottom of the glide slope
(b) When the aircraft is more than 3’ below the glide slope
(c) When the ILS indicator shows more than half a full fly-down indication
(d) When the ILS indicator shows more than half a full fly-up indication
Q.77 Which mode of the GPWS will warn the pilot when he descends below 500 ft with
gear still up?
(a) Mode 1
(b) Mode 2b
(c) Mode 3
(d) Mode 4a
Q.78 Below what height will GPWS Mode 1 warn the pilot of a high rate of descent?
(a) 2500 ft.
(b) 1800 ft.
(c) 790 ft.
(d) 500 ft.
PART IV
Q.1 Which of the following circumstances will GPWS not give warning about?
(a) A high rate of descent close to the ground
(b) Rising ground ahead
(c) Approaching with the undercarriage not locked down
(d) Approaching without flaps lowered.
Q.2 Nautical twilight is then the sun is
(a) 12 to 18 deg below the horizon
(b) 6 to 12 deg below the horizon
(c) 0 to 6 deg below the horizon
(d) below the horizon
Q.3 While assigning MOCA the acceptable navigation coverage of VOR is within a
distance of
(a) 30 nm
(b) 22 nm
(c) 12 nm
(d) 25 nm
Q.4 Mark the correct statement
(a) mean solar day = apparent solar day
(b) apparent solar day = sidereal day
(c) sidereal day = mean solar day
(d) mean solar day > sidereal day
Q.5 Liquid swirl in DRC
(a) Increases error while turning through North in NH
(b) Decreases error while turning through South in NH
(c) has the same effect while turning through North or south.
(d) all are correct
Q.6 While carrying out 360 deg turn the error in an artificial horizon
(a) Is to show climb & the bank under reads
(b) Increases to its maximum after completing 180 deg turn
(c) After completing 180 deg turn the error starts decreasing & is zero after
completing 360 deg turn
(d) All are correct
Q.7 The mach meter measures the
(a) ratio of dynamic pressure & static pressure
(b) difference between the dynamic pressure & static pressure
(c) ratio of (pilot –static) and static pressure
(d) both a& c are correct
Q.8 The ILS CAT I provides guidance up to a height of
(a) 100 feet
(b) 50 feet
(c) 200 feet
(d) up to the ground level
Q.9 Reverse sensing of the VOR is
(a) failing to set OBS after passing over the VOR
(b) flying a heading reciprocal to the OBS setting
(c) flying with FROM indication on the window
Q.10 The purpose of the latitude nut in a DGT is
(a) to correct for topple in the vertical plane
(b) to correct for topple in the horizontal plane
(c) to correct for drift in the horizontal plane
(d) to correct for drift in the vertical plane
Q. 11 You have been advised to hold on radial 130
(a) The tear drop entry lies between radial ………….. & radial………..
(b) The parallel entry lies between radial ………… & radial…………
(c) adjustment in the timing for HW/TW will be done on the ……… leg on ..
Q.12 To maintain a right hand DME are with no crosswind the RMI pointer should be kept
at
(a) ahead & right
(b) behind & right
(c) on the right
Q.13 To maintain a right hand DME are with right crosswind the RMI pointer should be
kept at
(a) ahead & right
(b) behind & right
(c) on the right
Q.14 To maintain a right hand DME are with left crosswind the RMI pointer should be kept
at
(a) ahead & right
(b) behind & right
(c) on the right
Q.15 To maintain a left hand DME are with right crosswind the RMI pointer should be kept
at
(a) ahead & right
(b) behind & right
(c) on the right
Q.16 To maintain a left hand DME are with left crosswind the RMI pointer should be kept
at
(a) ahead & right
(b) behind & right
(c) on the right
Q.17 When ILS/VOR is used for ILS approach & the CDI needle is fully deflected to the
right the aircraft position is minimum………… degrees & ……… meters away from
the extended center line of the R/W when the DME shows 5 nm from threshold
Q.18 In GPWS the warning for the excessive rate of descend with respect to terrain is …….
Q.19 In TCAS the term proximate traffic means
(a) + 600 feet 12 nm
(b) + 600 feet 30 nm
(c) + 1200 feet 6 nm
Q.20 The aural warning in TCAS accompanying TA is
(a) Whoop whoop pull up
(b) climb or increase climb
(c) as in ‘b’ or – descend or increase descend
(d) traffic traffic.
Q.21 One Nano Second is
(a) 0.000000001 sec
(b) 0.00000001 sec
(c) 0.0000000001 sec
Q.22 On a Lamberts projection scale is the least at
(a) latitude of origin
(b) standard parallels
(c) at the poles
(d) non is correct as scale is constant.
Q.23 The requirements on ILS glide slope will depend upon
(a) ground speed
(b) IAS
(c) TAS
(d) Prevailing wind velocity
Q.24 PVR is…
(a) Visibility from R/W approach to R/W end
(b) Slant range visibility
(c) Horizontal visibility
Q.25 while flying from 165 E to 170 W
(a) LMT & date decrease
(b) LMT increases & date decreases
(c) LMT decreases & date increase
(d) LMT & date increase
Q.26 Given Heading (c) 359 Deviation 3W Variation 15W True & Magnetic headings are
(a) 347 (T) 002 (M)
(b) 347 (M) 002 (T)
(c) 356 (M) 011 (T)
(b) 356 (M) 341 (T)
Q.27 Lines joining the places of equal dip are called
(a) agonic
(b) aclinal
(c) isoclinal
Q.28 Pressure error will make an altimeter to
(a) over read
(b) under read
(c) either under read or over read
Q.29 VSI works on the principle of
(a) measuring rate of change of static pressure with height
(b) change of static pressure
(c) change of dynamic pressure
Q.30 Mach meter works on the principle of measuring the ratio of
(a) dynamic & static pressure at the flight level in the prevailing conditions.
(b) dynamic & static pressure at the flight level in ISA conditions
(c) dynamic & static pressure with height
Q.31 With a constant Mach number & decreasing temperature the TAS will
(a) decrease because local speed of sound decrease
(b) decrease because local speed of sound increase
(c) increase because local speed of sound decrease
Q.32 With electrical driven gyros faster speed means
(a) more rigidity.
(b) more moment of inertia
(c) more precession
Q.33 Apparent wander is due to
(a) misalignment of lubber line
(b) due to component H
(c) due to component Z
(d) none is correct
Q.34 The minimum range of a radar is defined by
(a) PRF
(b) Pulse width
(c) Flying period
Q.35 An aircraft going from NDB ‘A’ to NDB ‘B’ the relative bearings of ‘A’ & ‘B’ are 177
& 357 respectively. The aircraft is
(a) right of track
(b) left of track
(c) on track
Q. 36 An aircraft is required to maintain radial 160. DME shows 60 nm & RMMI indicates
336 The aircraft is away from radial
(a) 4 nm to the left
(b) 4 nm to the right
(c) on the required radial
Q.37 Lowest false glide slope on a 3 deg glide slope will appear at
(a) 3 deg
(b) 6 deg
(c) 9 deg
Q.38 The MLS gives indications in
(a) range, azimuth & elevation
(b) range azimuth & 3 letter code
(c) range & bearing
Q.39 If not allotted a squack code & you are crossing an FIR you will set your transponder
to
(a) 0200
(b) 2000
(c) 7777
(d) 1200
Q.40 In a CRT to give different sharpness we adjust
(a) cathode
(b) grid
(c) 2nd anode
(d) all anodes
Q.41 Heavy precipitation in an AWR is indicated by
(a) red colour
(b) yellow colour
(c) green colour
Q.42 The principle advantage of a Doppler VOR is to
(a) minimize propagation error
(b) minimize site error
(c) minimize the transmitter frequency stability
Q.43 GPS gives position by
(a) simultaneous ranges from various satellites
(b) simultaneous ranges from various satellites
(c) simultaneous ranges & bearings from various satellites
Q.44 On an ILS approach if the required visual reference is not established. The missed
approach is to be initiated upon reaching
(a) DH
(b) MDA
(c) Missed approach point
(d) Minimum assigned altitude
Q.45 If PNR is calculated for a stage length of 500 nm with 50 gallons of reserve fuel & 50
K of head wind. But in flight instead of head wind of 50 K there is a tail wind of 50 K.
The distance to PNR will be
(a) same
(b) increase
(c) decrease
Q.46 During a right turn the aircraft is skidding
(a) the ball will be deflected to the right.
(b) the ball will be deflected to the left.
(c) the ball will be in the center.
Q.47 While Taxing In a left turn the ball of the TSI will be towards
(a) left
(b) right
(c) center
Q.48 While crossing abeam an NDB a pilot notices the relative bearing change from 270 to
260 in 2½ minutes. The time to reach the beacon is
(a) 12 minutes
(b) 15 minutes
(c) 9 minutes
Q.49 Mark the correct statement
(a) The local speed of sound varies directly with the square root of temperature
(Deg K)
(b) The local speed of sound varies directly with the square root of temperature
(Deg K)
(c) The local speed of sound depends upon the ISA temperature at the flight level.
Q. 50 In a spiral dive the correct recovery sequence is

(a) power idle, wings level, pitch correction
(b) wings level, power idle, pitch correction
(c) pitch correction wings level power idle.
Q. 51 In a turn if the airspeed is increased, the rate of turn & the radius of turn will
(a) increase, increase
(b) decrease, increase
(c) decrease, decrease
(d) increase, decrease
Q.52 In an altimeter the static pressure is fed to
(a) to the capsule which is partially evacuated
(b) the capsule
(c) the case with an aneroid capsule
Q. 53 On a Mercator’s projection the scale & the earth convergency are correct at
(a) equator
(b) poles
(c) latitude of origin
Q. 54 When the ground speed is decreased the ROD to maintain the glide slope will be
required to be
(a) decreased.
(b) increased.
(c) remain the same.
Q. 55 The runway the indication for PAPI when on glide slope will be …………….
Q.56 On final approach to landing when on ILS the needle is fully deflected to the right the
aircraft is on …………… side………… from the center line.
Q.57 A to B track is 065 TAS is 210 wind velocity is 090/30 fuel consumption is 190
gallon/hr
(a) if DCP is 435 find the distance from A to B
(b) if PNR is reached 40 min after CP find the fuel in excess for flight
(c) find still air range
Q. 58 aircraft takes off from 00N1790W at 2100 LMT on 21/12/99 at a ground speed of 300
K. Another aircraft take off from 15N 165E on 22/12/99 at 2100 LMT to intercept the
first aircraft Find..
(a) Time of interception
(b) Ground speed of second aircraft
Q.59 The shape of a typical holding pattern is
(a) circular
(b) rectangular
(c) oval
(d) None
Q. 60 Mark the correct statement
(a) mean solar day = apparent solar day
(b) apparent solar day = sidereal day
(c) mean solar day > sidereal day
Q. 61 In TCAS approximate traffic means
(a) Traffic within 5 nm
(b) Traffic within 6 nm & + 1000 feet
(c) Traffic within 6 nm & + 1200 feet
(d) Traffic within 5 nm & + 1200 feet
Q.62 While flying from 165 E to 170 W
(a) LMT & date decrease
(b) LMT increase & date decreases
(c) LMT decreases & date increase
(d) LMT & date increase
Q. 63 The principle advantage of a Doppler VOR is to
(a) Minimize propagation error
(b) Minimize site error
(c) Minimize the transmitter frequency stability
Q. 64 The shape of a typical holding pattern is
(a) circular
(b) Rectangular
(c) Elliptical
(d) Race course pattern
Q. 65 An aircraft descends with the static vents blocked
(a) The altimeter & the ASI will over read
(b) The altimeter & the ASI will under read
(c) The altimeter will under read & the ASI will over read
(d) The altimeter will show constant reading & the ASI will over read
Q. 66 To check a VOR equipment with a VOT, on selecting the VOT frequency the? CDI
will centralize on which of the following indicating that the VOR is working within
the normal limits
(a) 360 TO
(b) 180 FROM
(c) 180 TO
(d) The indication will depend upon whether the aircraft is to the NORTH or
SOUTH of the VOT
Q. 67 One micro second is equal to
(a) .001 sec
(b) .00001 sec
(c) .000001 sec
Q. 68 The correct sequence of signal lights of markers on an ILS approach is
(a) OM Blue, NM White, IM Red.
(b) OM Green, NM Amber, IM White.
(c) OM Blue, NM Amber, IM White.
Q.69 The lowest false glide slope will occur at or more than which of the following angles
above the horizontal plane
(a) 9 Deg.
(b) 6 Deg.
(c) 7 Deg.
Q. 70 An aircraft is to track from NDB ‘A’ to NDB ‘B’. The RMI of NDB ‘B’ reads 357 &
RMI of NDB ‘A’ reads 177 the aircraft is
(a) Drifted left of track.
(b) Drifted right of track.
(c) On track.
Q.71 If airspeed is increased during a level turn. What action is necessary to maintain
altitude?
(a) Angle of attack & angle of bank must be decreased
(b) Angle of attack decreased or angle of bank increased
(c) Angle of attack increased or angle of bank decreased
Q.72 When crossing abeam an NDB a pilot observes a wing tip bearing change of 10
degrees in 2.5 mts. The elapsed time to reach the NDB is
(a) 6 mts.
(b) 12 mts.
(c) 15 mts.
Q. 73 When flying over the OM the audio signal will be …………
Q.74 In one micro second the radio wave will travel …………..
Q.75 An aircraft climb with the static blocked, The ASI & altimeter will
(a) Both under read
(b) ASI under reads & altimeter over read
(c) ASI under reads & the altimeter shows a constant reading.
Q. 76 At night the effective range of an NDB will decrease due to …………
Q.77 On final approach to a runway the aircraft is below the glide path & left of centerline.
The CDI will show
(a) Above & right
(b) Below & left
(c) Above & left
(d) Below & right
Q.78 In a GPS the position obtained from three satellites is similar to
(a) VOR position lines.
(b) ADF position lines from ADF.
(c) Range position lines from DME.
Q. 79 When using a VSI the pilot can
(a) Rely on its reading especially when a change in …. Attitude is occuring
(b) Rely on its reading when established in climb/descend
(c) Not rely on its readings especially when a change in …. Attitude is occuring
(d) Both ‘B’ & ‘C’ are correct.
Q. 80An a constant altitude & mach number with the increase in temperature the TAS will
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain the same
Q. 81 The LMT at Paris (0230E) is 0800. Find the LMT at Istanbul
(a) 0954
(b) 0946
(c) 0016
(d) 0750
Q. 82 The attitude indicator utilizes
(a) Earth gyro.
(b) Tied gyro.
(c) Rate gyro.
Q. 83 The principle of VSI is
(a) It measures the static pressure.
(b) It measures the rate of change of static pressure.
(c) It measures the difference between the instant static delayed static.
Q. 84 In TCAS TA stands for
(a) Time advisory
(b) Total advisory
(c) Traffic advisory
(d) Timely advisory
Q. 85 The distance to PNR with 50 K of head wind is 1200 nm. If the wind direction
changes to tail wind & the wind speed remains 50 K. The distance to PNR will be
(a) 1200 nm.
(b) Less than 1200 nm.
(c) More than 1200 nm.
(d) can not be determined as information given is not sufficient.
Q. 86 In a TCAS the TA gives
(a) Audio & Visual warnings
(b) Traffic location
(c) Advisory action to avoid collision
Q. 87 The frequency is 8800 MHz. The wavelength is
(a) 3.4 cm.
(b) 3.4 meters.
(c) 0.34 cm.
Q. 88 The NDB signals propagate by
(a) Ground wave & sky waves in LF & MF bands
(b) Only ground waves in LF & MF bands
(c) Only sky waves in LF & MF bands
Q.89 An altimeter ‘A’ set to QFE 1015 Hpa will read …………. As compared to altimeter
‘B’ set to QNH 1008 Hpa
Q.90 An altimeter ‘A’ set to QNH 1015 Hpa will read …………. As compared to altimeter
‘B’ set to QFE 1008 Hpa .
Q.91 ATIS is broadcast
(a) Every one hour
(b) Every half an hour
(c) Continuously
(d) When it is deemed essential
Q. 92 The details of an aircraft are given below. Find the pay load
Max T/O Weight 51 Tons
RTOW 50 Tons
Max landing Weight 43.25 Tons
Max Zero fuel Weight 39.1 Tons
APS weight 27.5 Tons
Trip Fuel 4.2 Tons
Reserve Fuel 1.0 Tons
Q.93 You are approaching the VOR on radial 220. You are required to approach the VOR
on radial 270. You will an intercept of
(a) 30 Deg on to heading of 010
(b) 60 Deg on a heading of 340
(c) 90 deg on a heading of 360
(d) Any of the above
Q. 94 You are approaching the NDB on a heading 270. You are required to approach on a
track of 240 you will make an intercept of
(a) 60 Deg on to heading of 300
(b) 60 Deg on a heading of 330
(c) 30 deg on a heading of 300
Q.95 An aircraft at TAS 130 K, W/V 090/30, on a final approach to R/W 09, Glide slope
angle is 3 deg The ROD to maintain Glide Slope is
(a) 390 feet per min.
(b) 800 feet per min.
(c) 500 feet per min.
(d) 50 feet per min.
Q. 96 Route details of a flight from ‘A’ to ‘B’ are given below Track 075(T), TAS 215 K,
W/V 215/25, Fuel cons. 300 liters/hr
(a) If the distance to CP is 455 nm find distance between A & B
(b) If PNR is reached 40 mts after CP Find distance between A & B
(c) Find SAR
Q. 97 The rated coverage of homing & holding NDB is a range of
(a) 25 nm.
(b) 10 to 25 nm
(c) 50 nm
Q. 98 The acceptable navigation coverage at MOCCA is assured at What distance from
VOR
(a) 30 nm
(b) 22 nm
(c) 25 nm
Q. 99 On a AWR having a coloured CRT, the heaviest precipitation is shown by
(a) Green echoes
(b) Red echoes
(c) Yellow echoes
Q 100 Nautical twilight is said to exist when the upper tip of the sun is at a depression angle
between
(a) Horizon & 6 degrees below horizon
(b) 6 to 12 degrees below horizon
(c) 12 to 18 degrees below horizon
Q. 101 Aclinal is
(a) Line joining the places of equal magnetic dip.
(b) A line joining the places of equal magnetic variation
(c) A line joining the places of equal compass deviation
(d) Line joining the places of zero magnetic dip.
Q. 102 In one micro second the radio wave will travel a distance of
(a) 3000 meters.
(b) 300 meters.
(c) 300 meters.
(d) 30 km.
Q.103 On a Lamberts chart the scale is least at
(a) Equator
(b) Standard parallels
(c) Latitude of origin
Q. 104 The information provided by MLS is
(a) Range deviation & MLS read out.
(b) Azimuth elevation & distance
(c) Azimuth elevation & identification
Q. 105 Details of flight are:- T/O weight 55 tons. Landing weight 49 Tons, Fuel used during
climb is 1500 Kg, Fuel used during descent is 500 Kg. Find the mid cruise weight
Q.106 On a CAT II ILS when crossing the MM the Morse code is

(a) Two low pitch dashes at 400 Hz modulation
(b) Alternate dashes & dots low pitch at 3000 Hz modulation
(c) Alternate dashes & dots low pitch at 1300 Hz modulation
(d) Alternate dashes & dots high pitch at 1300 Hz modulation
Q.107 During a Taxing turn a Turn & slip indicator will show
(a) Turn needle to the side of turn & the ball in the center
(b) Turn needle to the side of turn & the ball in the same slide.
(c) Turn needle to the side of turn & the ball in the opposite side.
(d) Turn needle remains in center & the ball in the opposite side.
Q.108 The maximum safe deflection of the glide slope pointer is
(a) 1.25 degrees
(b) 0.7 degrees
(c) 0.35 degrees
(d) 0.175 degrees
Q. 109 The position fixing by a satellite is by means of
(a) simultaneous bearings
(b) simultaneous range from one satellite.
(c) simultaneous range from two or more satellite.
(d) Radar observation from the satellite.
Q.110 The distance between the equator & the poles is
(a) 10000 km
(b) 10010 km
(c) 10000 nm
Q. 111 An aircraft descends to an airport under the following conditions
Cruising altitude 6500 feet
Descend to 800 feet agl
Rate of descend 500 feet / min
Average TAS 110 K
True course 335
Average W/V 060 at 15 K
Variation 5W
Deviation +3
Average F Consumption 8.5 G/H
Find the approximate Time, Heading Distance traveled & Fuel consumed during
descend
(a) 12 min, 346 deg, 18 nm, 1.6 Gal
(b) 12 min, 348 deg, 17 nm, 1.8 Gal
(c) 10 min, 348 deg, 18 nm, 1.4 Gal
(d) 10 min, 350 deg, 18 nm, 1.4 Gal
Q.112 In the NH the magnetic compass will read correctly when
(a) An aircraft turns through north towards East.
(b) An aircraft accelerates on a westerly heading
(c) Aircraft accelerates or decelerates on Northerly heading.
Q.113 TAS 450 K, local speed of sound 600 K, Speed of sound at sea level 662 K Find
Mach number
Q.114 The Warning envelope for GPWS is
(a) 50 feet to 1800 feet
(b) 50 feet to 2450 feet
(c) 50 feet to 2000 feet
Q.115 ADF reads 290 ® In order to reach the NDB alter heading
(a) To 290 (M)
(b) 70 degrees to the left
(c) To 290 (T)
(b) 70 degrees to the right
Q.116 The GNSS satellite completes one orbit around the earth in ……..
Q.117 22 US Gallons is equal to how many Liters
(a) 125
(b) 83.1
(c) 100
(d) None
Q.118 4425 Liters is equal to how many Imperial Gallons
(a) 1168
(b) 974
(c) 1000
(d) None
Q.119 22 US Gallons is equal to how many Imperial Gallons
(a) 26.4
(b) 18.3
(c) 100
(d) None.
Q.120 22 Imperial Gallons is equal to how many Liters
(a) 100
(b) 125
(c) 83
(d) None
Q.121 On a cross country you are flying on Magnetic track of 090. Variation is 2W. The
Flight level to fly is
(a) 60
(b) 65
(c) 70
(d) 75
Q.122 If wind direction is 90 deg to the heading
(a) TAS > GAS
(b) TAS < GAS
(c) TAS = GAS
Q.123 If wind direction is 90 deg to the track
(a) TAS > GAS
(b) TAS < GAS
(c) TAS = GAS
Q.124 At a constant wind speed, in which case the drift is maximum
(a) When Wind is 90 degrees to track
(B) When Wind is 90 degrees to heading.
(a) Any of the above it will depend upon the Wind speed.
PART V
Q.1 When using alternate static source in the aircraft which instruments are affected
(a) Pressure Altimeter will under read
(b) ASI will over read
(c) ASI will under read during descend
(d) VSI will show a climb
Q.2 In the NH. Turning through North towards East/West.
(a) Compass will lead, Overshoot the turn
(b) Compass will lag, Under shoot the turn
(c) Compass will lag, Overshoot the turn
(d) Overshoot/Undershoot. It will depend upon the rate of turn
Q.3 Aircraft is cruising at a constant altitude & the temperature decreases

(a) TAS will decrease & turn altitude will decrease
(b) TAS will decrease & turn altitude will increase
(c) TAS will increase & turn altitude will decrease
(d) TAS will decrease & turn altitude will increase
Q.4 The difference between turn co-coordinator and turn & slip indicator is?
(a) Both give rate of turn
(b) The turn coordinator gives rate of turn & rate of roll & TSI gives rate of turn
only
(c) Turn coordinator is electrically operated & TSI can be electrically operated or
air driven
(d) Both ‘b’ & ‘c’ are correct
Q.5 Horizontal Axis Gyro on equator what is the drift and topple?
(a) Max drift no toppic
(b) Max topple no drift.
(c) No drift no topple.
(d) As in ‘b’ if gyro axis is East/West & as in ‘c’ if axis is North/South
Q. 6 Mode 4 on the GPWS gives

(a) Warning of Terrain clearance between 50 to 500 feet with LG not down
(b) Warning of Terrain clearance between 50 to 500 feet with Flaps not down
(c) Both are correct
Q. 7 In TCAS if RA is triggered then can it be ignored? if
(a) The pilot is flying VMC
(b) There is no risk of collision
(c) The pilot is under the command of the ATC
(d) All the above.
Q.8 Mode C in a transponder
(a) Gives altitude alerts.
(b) Can report altitude automatically
(c) Can alert the pilot if the pilot is not flying the assigned altitude.
Q.9 Position fixing by satellite is by means of
(a) Simultaneous bearing from satellites.
(b) Simultaneous ranges from satellites.
(c) Simultaneous ranges & bearing from satellites.
Q.10 An aircraft approaches a VOR station on a track of 030 and is instructed to hold at the
fix. The holding pattern is right hand, with a holding leg of 180. Wind is 240/20 and
TAS is 240K
(a) What form of join should the pilot select
(b) Give the three sectors with their limiting QDMs.
Q.11 AWR operation on the ground is
(a) Totally prohibited.
(b) Unrestrictedly permitted in the acrodrome maintenance areas
(c) Only permitted with certain precautions to safeguard the health of personnel &
to protect the equipment
Q.12 IN GPWS the BITE can it be activated
(a) On ground only
(b) In flight only
(c) Both on the ground & in flight
Q.13 AWR works on SHF band because
(a) Large water drops, hailstones etc give good reflection at 3 cm wavelength &
small drops like Fog. Mist Stratus clouds do not give reflection
(b) It enables the equipment to be powerful but light enough to be installed in the
nose cone
(c) It enables narrow beam width to be used to obtain the required degree of
definition
Q.14 When DME is co-located with I.L.S. then the Zero distance will be indicated at
(a) The ILS threshold
(b) At the DH
(c) At the MAP
(d) At the VOR
Q.15 Mode 1 on GPWS gives a warning
(a) Below 2450 feet agl
(b) Below 2450 feet amsl
(c) Of excessive rate of descent with respect to terrain
(d) Both ‘a’ & ‘c’ are correct
Q.16 In a TSI if gyro RPM is less than the rated RPM it will show
(a) Correct rate of turn
(b) Higher rate of turn
(c) Lower rate of turn
Q. 17 Doppler will unlock
(a) Calm sea
(b) When flying close to thunderstorms
(c) When flying low
(d) All are correct
Q. 18 Aircraft is in unusual attitude. Attitude indicator has toppled what instrument will you
rely before taking the recovery action
(a) Turn indicator & VSI
(b) VSI & ASI to detect Vsi or Vmo
(c) Turn indicator & rate of climb
(d) Altimeter & ASI
Q.19 A.D.F. range due to sky wave
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains same
Q. 20 At 400 K TAS T.A.T is= -35 Deg C, find out S.A.T.
Q.21 Radio waves moving from Sea to Land.
(a) Bends away from normal
(b) Bends Towards normal
(c) Does not bend.
Q.22 An aircraft is flying at FL 250 with its altitude alerting system set to that flight level If
it enters climb, at what altimeter indication will the altitude alert warn the pilot?
(a) 25 100 ft.
(b) 25 300 ft.
(c) 25 500 ft.
(d) 25 900 ft.
Q.23 What does a GPWS Mode 3 alert indicate to a pilot?
(a) The aircraft is close to the ground with undercarriage up
(b) The aircraft is sinking after take-off or go around.
(c) The aircraft is below its selected decision height.
(d) The aircraft is approaching high ground.
Q.24 The radio altimeter indicates 2000 ft. What is the minimum height that the aircraft
could be?
(a) 1935 ft in the cruising attitude
(b) 1935 ft in the landing attitude
(c) 1935 ft in the cruising attitude
(d) 1935 ft in the landing attitude
Q.25 When an aircraft is on Localizer indication is to the full left on final approach. How
many degrees deflection & which side to turn to come back on localizer?
(a) 2.5 deg & left
(a) 2.5 deg & right
(a) 0.7 deg & left
(a) 10 deg & left
Q.26 After take-off from I.L.S. runway the localizer needle is in the yellow sector. The
correction to reach the center line of R/W will be toward
(a) Right
(b) Left
(c) Can not be determined because the localizer works only on the final approach
Q.27 At FL 330 the beam width of 5 deg is beamed at 6 deg at 40 nm the cloud disappears
what is the height of the cloud top?
Q.28 From A to B. Elevation of A 240 Feet, QNH 1000 hpa the aircraft takes off with 180 ft
set on its altimeter. There is a hill of 5000 ft elevation at half the way & QFE at B
1000 hpa and elevation is 300 ft. find
(a) Pressure gradient from A to B
(b) Pressure at the foot hills.
(c) Indicated height to fly to clear the hill by 1000 feet.
(d) If track (M) is 240 find the lowest flight level to give a clearance of 1000 feet
above hill.
Q.29 Aircraft in a constant descending turn, the requirement of change in pitch is given by
(a) Altimeter
(b) Attitude indicator
(c) ASI
(d) VSI
Q.30 Mode 5 of GPWS, Mode 5 is inhibited when mode …………. Is in use
Q.31 How to check the serviceability of Attitude indicator
(a) Horizontal bar & miniature aircraft should align within 5 minutes
(b) During a taxing turn it should not show more than 5 deg bank
(c) Both are correct.
Q.32 Given C= 5 deg Variation 5W Dev 2E RMI reading after departure 152 deg find
T.M.G.
Q.33 Your aircraft is being hijacked. What SSR code should you select on Mode ‘A’
(a) 7700.
(b) 7600.
(c) 7500
(d) 7007
Q.34 Up to what angular distance from centerline would a pilot receive correct MLS
azimuth indicator
(a) 20 Deg either side.
(b) 30 Deg either side.
(c) 40 Deg either side.
(d) 60 Deg either side.
Q.35 An MLS azimuth guidance signal may be received:
(a) Within 20 Deg of the centerline from 1 to 10 Deg above the ground?
(b) Within 20 Deg of the centerline from 1 to 20 Deg above the ground?
(c) Within 40 Deg of the centerline from 1 to 10 Deg above the ground?
(d) Within 40 Deg of the centerline from 1 to 10 Deg above the ground?
Q.36 Skip distance is
(a) The distance between the Tx & the point where the sky wave is received.
(b) The distance between the Tx & the point where the first sky wave is received.
(c) The distance skipped by the radio wave.
(d) The distance where no radio wave can be received.
Q.37 On reduction of speed of the aircraft will cause a typical air driven. Artificial horizon
to indicate Climb
(a) Descend
(b) Right turn
(c) Left turn
Q.38 Compared to the P-Type compass, a modern stand-by direct reading compass is
(a) Unaffected by dynamic errors.
(b) So located as to reduce dynamic errors
(c) Still affected by dynamic errors.
Q.39 The outer marker of an ILS system emits
(a) Blue flashes synchronized with audio dashes?
(b) White flashes synchronized with audio dashes?
(c) Blue flashes synchronized with audio dots?
(d) White flashes synchronized with audio dots?
Q.40 While carrying out a turn at the magnetic Equator, with a direct reading compass there
would be
(a) No turning error
(b) A tendency to overhead turns through North & under read turns through South
(c) A tendency to under read all turns due to the liquid swirl
Q.41 EGPWS 50% of terrain indications in red indicates
(a) Unknown terrain
(b) Obstruction 1000 to 2000 feet above aircraft
(c) Obstruction is more than 2000 feet above aircraft
(d) Obstruction threat area warning.
Q.42 The sensitive axis of ring laser gyro is
(a) Along the laser plane
(b) 90 degrees to laser plane
(c) 30 degrees to laser plane
(d) 45 degrees to laser plane
Q.43 EFIS indications of collision area when RA is cleared
(a) Green
(b) Audio indications ALL CLEAR ALL CLEAR
(c) White diamond
Q.44 Height of glide slope line at middle marker is ……….
Q.45 What are the lateral approach azimuth angle limit to either side of landing runeay of
MLS
Q.46 On a RA VSI. The eye brow FLY to vertical speed indicator is shown in which color
(a) Red.
(b) Green.
(c) Gold.
(d) Hatched white
Q.47 Resolution advisory on a ND TCAS on EFIS is which colour and shape?
Q.48 In an attitude indicator the error is maximum in both pitch and bank as aircraft rolls
out of
(a) 90 Deg turn
(b) 180 Deg turn
(c) 270 Deg turn
(d) 360 Deg turn
Q.49 On EGPWS when is audio alert indications given
(a) 30 seconds before approaching terrain
(b) 60 seconds before approaching terrain
(c) 60 seconds in closing terrain in red colour
(d) 30 seconds in closing terrain in red colour.
Q.50 Primary instrument for pitch control when established in a climb is ……………
Q.51 Rate of drift of gyro at equator is ………
Q.52 EGPWS gives a caution alert
(a) 60 seconds ahead of terrain conflict
(b) As in ‘a’ & is repeated every 7 seconds till you are clear of the obstruction
(c) 20 seconds ahead of terrain conflict
(d) 30 seconds ahead of terrain conflict
Q.53 To maintain right hand DME are with a right cross wind, the bearing pointer should
be
(a) Right & behind
(b) Right & ahead
(c) Lift & behind
Q.54 An aircraft receives a warning on EGPWS, Pilot should
(a) Disengage autopilot & initate recovery action.

(b) Continue with the autopilot & initiate recovery action
(c) Look around the maneuvering area before attempting any action.
(d) Ask ATC for instructions
Q.55 Radio altimeter determines aircraft height by the principle of…………
Q.56 In a 16 colour EFIS the cautionary information is shown in
(a) Cyan
(b) Magenta
(c) Amber
Q. 57 At what height GPWS starts warning when the flaps are down?
(a) 790 feet
(b) 2450 feet
(c) 500 feet
Q.58 While going over the outer marker the indications are …………
Q.59 During a constant bank level turn what effect an increase in airspeed will have on rate
& radius of turn
(a) Rate & radius of turn will increase
(b) Rate of turn will decrease & radius of turn will drcrease
(c) Rate of turn will decrease & radius of turn will increase
(d) Rate of turn will increase & radius of turn will drcrease
Q.60 Missed approach in an approach using an ASR will be initiated at what place?
(a) DH
(b) MDH
(c) MAP
Q. 61 In level flight the attitude of the aircraft will depend upon
(a) Weight & thrust
(b) Weight & drag
(c) Lift drag & thrust
(d) Thrust
Q.62 DH setting knob and DH set on a radio altimeter is
(a) Available on all altimeters
(b) Available on some altimeters
(c) Not available on radio altimeters
Q. 63 Mode ‘A’ 7700 is used in case of an …………..
Q.64 SBR mode C reads out indicate
(a) Height
(b) Altitude
(c) Pressure altitude
Q.65 S SR code for entering FIR and radio failure are
(a) 2000/7600
(b) 4326/7600
(c) 2000/750
(d) 2000/7700
PART VI
Q.1 Other than the pressure what factor controls the true altitude of aircraft
(a) Mean Sea level pressure
(b) Mean sea level temperature
(c) Lapse rate
(d) Elevation of the terrain below the aircraft
Q.2 At a constant RAS a decrease in the OAT will cause the TAS to
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) No change
Q.3 If head wind changes to a tail wind, What effect will it have on Critical Point
(a) Distance of CP will increase
(b) DCP will decrease first & then increase
(c) The ETA to CP will increase
(d) The CP will be located at appoint before the mid way point.
Q.4 What indications will you get when going over the outer marker
(a) Series to low pitch dashes
(b) Series to high pitch dashes
(c) Series to high pitch dots
(d) Alternate dots & dashes
Q.5 To check the sensitivity of VOR against VOT, the maximum deviation allowed is
(a) +4 deg
(b) +6 deg
(c) No deviations are permitted
Q.6 When checking the VOR against a VOT the correct indications are
(a) 180 TO & CDI central
(b) 180 FROM & CDI central
(c) 360 TO & CDI central
Q. 7 OBS is set to 170 The CDI indicates full deflection to the right. TO/FROM sfhfows
TO the approximate position of aircraft with respect to the VOR is
(a) 360.
(b) 180.
(c) 160.
(d) 340.
Q.8 An aircraft obtains the relative bearing of a beacon to bc340. Heading(M) is 090,
Variation 3W CA 2 deg find
(a) QDM
(b) BTP on Mercator
Q.9 The GPS satellites are going around the earth in how many orbital planes
(a) 6.
(b) 9.
(c) 8
Q.10 If frequency is 1000 MHz Find wave length …..
Q.11 The VSI indications in pitch are more reliable in
(a) Straight & level flight
(b) Descend
(c) Steady Climb/Descend
(d) Climb
Q.12 GPS ranges can be compared to ………….
Q.13 Parallels of latitudes are
(a) Great circles
(b) Perpendicular to equator
(c) Rhumb lines
Q.14 Lamberts projection is used for navigation because
(a) It is orthomorphic
(b) Rhumb line is nearly a straight line
(c) It can be used in Polar Regions
(d) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ are correct
Q.15 The great circle bearing of B form A is 280 & the great circle bearing of A from B is
`090. Find Rhumb line bearing of A from B
Q.16 LMT at position ‘A’ 40N 160W is 2200 on 28 May. Find LMT at position B 20S
160E
Q.17 Position of ‘A’ is 20N 160 W Position of ‘B’ is 20N 20 E, Which track will give the
shortest distance between A & B
(a) 270
(b) 090 or as in ‘a’
(c) 360
(d) 180
Q.18 The magnetic North will always be between True north & compass north.
Q.19 An aircraft takes off with a blocked pilot tube. The ASI will
(a) Over read
(b) Under read
(c) Read Zero
Q.20 The static tube is blocked during descend
(a) Altimeter & ASI will under read
(b) Altimeter shows constant reading & VSI reads Zero
(c) Altimeter shows constant reading & VSI over reads
(d) Altimeter shows constant reading & VSI under reads
Q.21 ILS CAT I operating minimum is
(a) 200 feet RVR 550 meters
(b) 200 feet RVR 350 meters
(c) 100 feet RVR 550 meters
(d) 100 feet RVR 350 meters
Q.22 On an ILS an aircraft CDI shows equal amount of deviations on Localizer & Glide
slope which needle will show a greater deflection
(a) Glide slope
(b) Localizer
(c) Both will show equal deflection
Q.23 Altimeter is set to QFE & the aircraft is on the ground the altimeter will read
(a) Elevation
(b) Zero
(c) Pressure altitude
(d) Height above the terrain level.
Q.24 Departure is ………………………………………………………………………….
Q.25 Two aircraft take off from ‘X’ at 52N & fly on a track of 270. Both aircraft go round
the earth &Land back at ‘X’ Aircraft ‘A’ lands 3 hours after aircraft ‘B’. If the ground
speed of ‘A’ is 480 K Find the ground speed ‘B’
Q.26 Departure is 243 nm & Ch Long is deg 45 mts Find the latitude
Q.27 In a TCAS RA stands for
(a) Radar advisory
(b) Resolution advisory
(c) Radio advisory
(d) Radar activate.
Q.28 In a TCAS TA stands for
(a) Traffic advisory
(b) Threat advisory
(c) Temporary advisory
Q.29 A leak in the pilot line will cause the ASI to
(a) Over read
(b) Under read
(c) Continue to read correctly
Q.30 The pressure error can cause an altimeter to
(a) Consistently over read
(b) Consistently under read
(c) Either over read or under read.
Q.31 An aircraft climbs out after take off with static vents still sealed. If set to QFE the
altimeter will
(a) Continue to read Zero
(b) Indicate correctly the increase in altitude as the aircraft climbs
(c) Show a slower gain of altitude than correct
Q.32 A reduction in the forward speed of an aircraft will cause a typical air driven artificial
horizon to indicate
(a) A climbing turn to the left
(b) A descending turn to the left
(c) A pitch up
(d) correctly
Q.33 Cruising at constant TAS at your flight level an increase in OAT will cause
(a) Increase in TAS
(b) Decrease in TAS
(c) No effect on TAS
Q.34 At 15000 feet the temperature conditions are ISA + 15C, The OAT is
(a) + 15 C
(b) -15 C
(c) 0 C
Q.35 Recovery from spiral dive the correct action is
(a) Increase pitch attitude, reduce power & level wings
(b) Reduce power, level wings & raise the nose to level attitude
(c) Reduce power, raise the nose to level attitude & correct the bank
(d) Correct bank reduce power & raise the nose.
Q.36 Aircraft experiences 8 deg starboard drift flying 10 nm parallel to the left of center
line of airway Estimate the ADF reading from an NDB situated on the center line of
the airway but 30 nm ahead.
Q.37 Maximum range of VOR transmitter 100 feet aircraft 12,5 00 feet?
RAIN- 3
Q.1 In a VOR the error due to ground propagation is 7 deg & the error in the airborne
equipment is 4.5 deg. Find the aggregate error
(a) 7 deg
(b) 11.5 deg
(c) 2.5 deg
(d) 8.3 deg
Q.2 To ensure that the aircraft remains within the airway limit the distance between two
VORs should not be more than
(a) 80 n.m.
(b) 60 n.m.
(c) 100 n.m.
(d) 120 n.m.
Q.3 The VOR ground beacon is at 165 feet elevation. The aircraft is at flt level 135. Find
the range of the VOR
(a) 161 n.m.
(b) 129 n.m.
(c) 145 n.m.
Q.4 At what altitude an aircraft will receive VOR signal at a range of 130 n.m. The VOR
beacon is at 500 feet elevation.
(a) 6725 feet
(b) 5225 feet
(c) 7575 feet
Q.5 The wave length is 8 mm find frequency
Q.6 The frequency is 200 Khz Find wave length
Q.7 In a VOR the error due to ground propagation is 3.5 deg. The airborne equipment is
deg. Find the aggregate error
Q.8 Statice interference is maximum in which band
(a) VHF
(b) LF
(c) UHF
Q.9 The major factor which influences the sky wave propagation is
(a) power of transmitter
(b) Terrain
(c) Time of the day
Q.10 Radio waves in SHF band mainly propagate by
(a) Direct wave
(b) Ground wave
(c) Sky wave
Q.11 In the ionosphere the F laver
(a) is the lowest ionized layer
(b) is at all times more weakly ionized than other layers
(c) may be split in two layers during day.
Q.12 Radio waves ducting is most significant in which band
(a) VLF & MF
(b) VHF & above
(c) MF & HF
Q.13 The MUF between two specified points at a particular time is
(a) The frequency which gives the least radio interference
(b) The maximum frequency that can be used.
(c) The maximum frequency which can be reflected by the ionosphere
Q.14 On heading 270 at dawn you have a choice of frequency of 9 MHz for HP
communication. To contact the station it will be better to use
(a) 9 MHz for a station ahead
(b) 5 MHz for a station ahead
(c) 5 MHz for a station behind
Q.15 For a given HF frequency the skip distance will normally
(a) be greater at night than by day
(b) be greater at day than by night
(c) will have no diurnal variation
Q.16 SATCOM uses satellites which are
(a) Polar orbiting
(b) Equational orbiting
(c) Geos….
Q. 17 Which of the following nav aids are affected by site error
(a) VOR
(b) ADF
(c) Doppler VOR
(d) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’
Q.18 An aircraft VOR is tuned to station ‘A’ OBS is selected to 075 CDI is central
TO/FROM shows TO At the same time ADF reads 012. If the NDB & VOR are co-
located find the heading & drift.
Q.19 An aircraft is on a true bearing to 216 from a VOR. Variation is 10 E. What is the
difference between reference signal & variable signal
Q.20 An aircraft is on a heading 150(M) The pilot selects 170 on OBS TO/FROM shows
TO. The CDI is very close to maximum deflection indicating right turn. What is the
approximate position of the aircraft in relation to the beacon.
Q.21 An aircraft is on a true bearing of 216 from a VOR Variation is 10 W. find the phase
difference between reference signal & variable signal
Q.22 An aircraft is on a magnetic bearing of 216 from a VOR. Variation is 10 E. Find the
phase difference between reference signal & variable signal.
Q.23 An aircraft on heading of 060 (T), tracking to a VOR on radial 258, Var 10 W. What
will ADF read if VOR & ADF are co-located
Q.24 An aircraft on heading of 060 (T), variation 10E. AN NDB bears 200 (R) What is RMI
indication.
Q.25 An aircraft is flying a constant heading with 8 Deg Port drift & is making good a track
5 n.m. to the right of the center line of the runway but parallel to it. Find ADF reading
from an NDB situated on the center line of the airway 30 n.m. ahead
Q.26 An aircraft is homing to a VOR drift 8 deg Port. Variation at the VOR is 5 W &
variation at the aircraft position is 4W. Give initial heading to maintain radial 253.
Q.27 An aircraft is heading towards VOR ‘A’ maintaining radial 130 drift 10 Deg Port NDB
‘B’ is due east of VOR ‘A’ . When the aircraft is abeam the NDB the heading is altered
for ‘B’ The new drift is 5 Deg. ‘S’ what will be the RMI indications of ‘A’ & ‘B’
(a) Shortly before altering heading for ‘B’
(b) Shortly before altering heading for ‘B’
Q.28 An aircraft is flying a constant heading with 5 Deg ‘S’ drift & is making good a track
parallel to the center line of the airway but 5 n.m. to the right of center line . Find
ADF reading from an NDB situated 30 n.m. ahead on the center line of the airway.
Q.29 An aircraft is flying a constant heading with 8 Deg ‘P’ drift & is making good a track
parallel to the center line of the airway but 5 n.m. to the left . Find the ADF reading
from an NDB situated 30 n.m. ahead on the center line of the airway.
Q.30 The frequency difference between LOM & LMM should not be
(a) Less than 25 Khz
(b) more than 25 Khz
(c) Less than 15 Khz
(d) both ‘b’ & ‘c’ are correct
Q.31 The type of emission for ILS localizer, glide slope & marker beacon is
(a) AW8
(b) A8W
(c) A9W
(d) PON
Q.32 At 2 n.m. from an ILS an aircraft gets half full scale deflection fly up indication. A
spot height below is 200 feet above the threshold level & the radio altimeter reads 286
feet when over the spot height. Find the angle of glide slope.
Q.33 Fan markers are
(a) highly directional
(b) omini directional
(c) undirectional
Q.34 PRF is 250, What is the PRP?
Q.35 Frequency is 1000 MHz Radar pulse length is 3.5 micro seconds. Find the number of
cycles carried in one pulse.
Q.36 An echo is received back in 500 micro seconds. What is the distance in Km. Of the
object reflecting it
Q.37 Radar range is 185 Km. Find PRP
Q.38 The PRF of a radar is 1000. Find the maximum range in nm.
Q.39 Radar range is 200 nm. Find the maximum PRR (PRF).
Q.40 The PRR of a radar is 380 PPS. Find the range in nm.
Q.41 An aircraft is at flight level 150. The DME is at sea level Find Max & Min. range.
Q.42 Type of emission of EME is
(a) AW8
(b) PON
(c) A9W
(d) A8W
Q.43 DME operates on which band
(a) VLF
(b) LF
(c) UHF
(d) VHF
Q.44 On a DME with digital presentation the failure indication is given by
(a) distance to go indication returning to zero
(b) a drop down bar falling across the face of the figures
(c) distance to go indications oscillating at figures in excess of 200 nm
Q.45 The range indicated by the DME is.
(a) ground range
(b) slant range
(c) ground range only if the DME is co-located with the VOR
Q.46 If the VOR & DME have separate identification codes of VON & VOZ for VOR &
DME respectively. It means that
(a) VOR & DME are co-located
(b) VOR & DME are not co-located but are serving the same location & may be
used conjunction with each other
(c) VOR & DME beacons are entirely at different locations
Q.47 An aircraft is at 40000 feet. DME reads 80 nm. Find ground distance from the
beacon
Q.48 An aircraft is reporting over the DME at Flt Level 300. The DME is at sea level what
the DME indication.
Q.49 An aircraft is at 24320 feet mat a ground range of 30 …. Indication.
Q.50 The use of AWR on the ground is
(a) totally prohibited
(b) unrestrictedly permitted in the aerodrome maintenance are
(c) only permitted with certain precautions to safeguard the protect the
equipment.
Q. 51 The main purpose of the hold switch on an AWR is
(a) to assess storm movement
(b) to assess storm potential development
(c) to assess storm potential rate of decay
Q.52 On a coloured AWR the heaviest precipitation is shown by
(a) green echo
(b) yellow echo
(c) red echo
Q.53 When using iso echo contour circuit the area of maximum turbulence is (BS\\ Radar)
(a) black surrounded by yellow colour
(b) yellow colour in maximum brightness
(c) black colour
Q.54 To measure the movement of thunderstorm when using the AWR select
(a) Motion switch
(b) track switch
(c) hold switch
Q. 55 AWR operates on SHF band because
(a) large water droplers hail etc. give good reflection from 3 cm wavelength while
small water droplets, fog etc do not give reflection
(b) enables equipment to be powerful & light enough to be installed in aircraft nose
cone
(c) it enables narrow beam width to obtain the required degree of definition
Q.56 Radio altimeter operates upto a height of
(a) 2500 feet
(b) 1500 feet
(c) 500 feet
Q.57 The mean frequency on which the radio altimeter operates is
(a) 4200 MHz
(b) 4300 MHz
(c) 4400 MHz
Q.58 Radio altimeter operates on
(a) VHF band
(b) SHF band
(c) VLF band
Q.59 ADH setting knob & DH setting indicator
(a) can only be integrated in a radio altimeter if it is a part of EFTS
(b) is usually incorporated in modern radio altimeters
(c) is a separate installation from the radio altimeter
Q.60 The formula used to determine the height displayed on the radio altimeter difference
in frequency equals the rate of change of frequency
(a) times half the time taken
(b) times the time taken
(c) times twice the time taken.
Q.61 GPA is a
(a) satellite based communication system
(b) satellite based navigation system
(c) long range navigation system
Q.62 The GPS fixes the position by means of
(a) simultaneous bearings from a number of satellites
(b) range & bearing from each known satellite position
(c) simultaneous ranges from a number of satellites
Q.63 In TCAS, RA stands for
(a) radar advisory
(b) radar active
(c) resolution advisory
(d) range advisory
Q.64 In TCAS, TA stands for
(a) traffic advisory
(b) threat advisory
(c) temporary advisory
Q.65 Outbound track from a VOR is 045 (T) Variation 10W Dev 3E W/V 290/20 TAS ISO
K NDB is co-located with VOR. What is
(a) OBS selection
(b) Hdg (C) to fly to maintain radial
(c) TO/FROM indication
(d) ADF reading when flying along radial
(e) RMI reading when flying along radial
(f) If after flying 45 nm. The CDI shows 3 dot deflection to the right ( 5 dot
indicator)
(i) How many nm is the aircraft off track
(ii) How much correction is required to converge to a point 90 nm. ahead
Q.66 The value of magnetic variation
(a) can not exceed 90 deg
(b) has maximum value of 180 deg
(c) must be zero at equator
Q. 67 If Dev = -3, & Var = 3E
(a) bdg (c) & Hdg (T) are of same value and are equal to hdg (M)
(b) true heading is greater than magnetic heading
(c) compass heading is greater than true heading
Q.68 Deviation due vertical soft iron “£z” varies as
(a) sine hdg
(b) cosine hdg
(c) tangent hdg
Q.69 Vertical soft iron magnetism
(a) strength increases with increase in magnetic latitude.
(b) strength varies as cosine of magnetic latitude
(c) has the same polarity in both the hemispheres
(d) all are correct
Q.70 The hard iron magnetism is permanent in nature The change in its strength is due to
change of
(a) heading is NIL but changes as sine latitude
(b) latitude is NIL but varies as sine heading
(c) latitude & heading is NIL
(d) none is correct.
Q.71 It is found that the brass mounting is secured with steel bolts. The effect is
(a) mounting will affect the compass reading but the bolts will not.
(b) the bolts will affect the compass readings but the mounting will not
(c) both the bolts & the mounting will affect the compass readings.
Q.72 On any heading the maximum deviation in a DRC should not be more than
(a) 1 deg
(b) 2 deg
(c) 3 deg
Q.73 The detector unit of a remote indicating compass has
(a) one flux valves
(b) two flux valves
(c) three flux valves
RAIN - 4
Q.1 The capsule of ASI is

(a) partially evacuated of air
(b) connected to the static vent
(c) connected to the pitot tube
Q.2 During descent the blockage of static source will cause the ASI to
(a) under read
(b) over read
(c) under read or over read, depending upon pressure change
Q.3 EAS is the IAS corrected for the errors
(a) Instrument, pressure, & compressibility
(b) Instrument, pressure & density
(c) Instrument, temperature deviation & density.
Q.4 RAS is corrected to TAS for
(a) Pressure error & density error
(b) Compressibility error only
(c) Density & compressibility error
Q.5 Compressibility error always causes the RAS to be
(a) under indicated
(b) Over indicated
(c) correctly indicated over speed of 300 K.
Q.6 Compressibility is most significant at
(a) low air speed range
(b) TAS of 300 K.
(c) TAS in excess of 300 K.
Q.7 When correcting RAS of 150 K a TAS of 146 K is obtained
(a) error must have been made in calculations
(b) no allowance has been made for compressibility
(c) density of air must be greater than ISA mean sea level air density.
Q.8 On a cockpit cross check of the altimeters, altimeter “A” which is set to 1013 Hpa
when compared to altimeter “B” which is set to 1029 Hpa, will indicate
(a) lower altitude by approximately 480 feet.
(b) lower altitude by approximately 390 feet.
(c) higher altitude by approximately 480 feet.
Q.9 In an area with a constant QNH of 1012 Hpa, an aircraft is flying at flt level 120 the
true altitude of the aircraft will depend upon
(a) the terrain below the aircraft
(b) temperature of the air below the aircraft
(c) correct setting of local QFE on the sub scale
Q.10 In a servo assisted altimeter
(a) the lag error is virtually eliminated
(b) lag error is more than the pressure altimeter
(c) Ing error is same as the pressure altimeter
Q.11 Company to pressure sensitive altimeter the servo assisted altimeter in
(a) equally as accurate
(b) less accurate
(c) more accurate
Q.12 In an ASI the sample of static pressure enters
(a) both the capsule & the case
(b) the case only
(c) the capsule only
Q.13 A leak in the pitot line will cause the ASI to
(a) over read
(b) under read
(c) continue to read correctly
Q.14 The purpose of IVSI is to
(a) automatically initiate climb & descend through automatic flight control system
(b) give instantaneous indications of aircraft vertical speed when a climb/descend is
initiated
(c) indicate to the pilot instantaneously when an aircraft pitches in a turn especially
steep turns
Q.15 Using IVSI when initiating changes in the aircraft pitch attitude
(a) indications will be reliable when aircraft is established in an unchanging
attitude
(b) indications are unreliable at all timed
(c) indications are reliable at all times except in a turn
Q.16 The p…. altitude is calibrated in accordance with
(a) environmental lapse rate & temperature
(b) JSA
(c) ISA
Q.17 Pressure Error causes an altimeter to
(a) consistently over read
(b) consistently under read
(c) Either over read or under read
Q.18 An aircraft climbs away from the runway with static still blocked ………. …….
The altimeter will
(a) continue to read zero
(b) indicate correctly the increasing altitude as the aircraft climb
(c) show a slower gain of altitude than correct
Q.19 The formula to calculate the Mach Number is
(a) 39T
(b) 644 + 1.21
(c) TAS / 39T
Q.20 At flt level 300 QAT is – 30 deg G Mach No. is 0.7 Find TAS
Q.21 At flt level 280 a decrease of Mach 1 results in a decrease of TAS of 58 K Find the
local speed of sound & the QAT.
Q.22 In VSI the maneuver induced error
(a) has significant effect on the reliability of readings
(b) has insignificant effect on the reliability of readings
(c) only affects readings when an aircraft rolls
Q.23 When using a VSI a pilot can
(a) rely on its readings in all attitudes of flight
(b) only rely when changing to horizontal flight
(c) can not rely on readings especially when change of pitch attitude is occuring
Q.24 In an inscentaneres VSI (IVSI) the lag error
(a) is eliminated by feeding a sample of static pressure to the case & delaying to the
capsule
(b) Is virtually eliminated by using a special dashpot accelerometer assembly
(c) is eliminated by the use of logrithmatic presentation
Q.25 Mach meter is subject to
(a) instrument & pressure error and manevenc
(b) instrument & density error
(c) instrument pressure & density error
Q.26 If static vent gets blocked with ice & the aircraft descends rapidly machmeter will
(a) over read
(b) under read
(c) not be subject to any error because of dual capsule system
Q.27 While cruising at 30000 feet, indicated Mach No. is the aircraft TAS as a decimal
fraction of the speed of sound
(a) In ISA at sea level
(b) In ISA at 30000 feet.
(c) Locally at 30000 feet.
Q.28 The speed of sound of temperature -25 deg C in ………….K

Q.29 The Mach meter measures the
(a) ambient speed of sound
(b) ratio of dynamic pressure to the static pressure
(c) ratio of pilot pressure to the static pressure
Q.30 In a Mach meter the pilot & the static pressures are fed respectively to
(a) case & the capsule
(b) one capsule & the case
(c) their own capsules
Q.31 A leak in the pilot source will
(a) not affect accuracy of Mach meter
(b) cause the Mach meter to over read
(c) cause the Mach meter to under read
Q.32 A gyro which does not have a rotor is called
(a) rotor free gyro
(b) ring laser gyro
(c) free gyro
Q.33 A RLG
(a) has a vertical gyro
(b) has horizontal gyro
(c) is a rate sensor
Q.34 Increasing the angular momentum of the gyro will
(a) increase the gyroscopic rigidity
(b) decrease the gyroscopic rigidity
(c) have no substantial effect on the rigidity
Q.35 The efficacy with which the spinning rotor will remain align with a given dan…. Is
dependent upon the rotor mass being
(a) concentrated at as great radius as possible
(b) concentrated as close to the axis of spin as possible.
(c) uniformly distributed throughout the rotor
Q.36 The degree of rigidity of a gyroscope depends upon
(a) the weight of the rotor only
(b) speed of the rotation of rotor
(c) distribution of the rotor weight & the speed of rotation
Q.37 Real wander of the gyroscope can be caused by
(a) asymmetric friction at the spia axis
(b) earth’s rotation beneath the gyroscope
(c) instrument being a tied gyro as opposed to space gyro
Q.38 Apparent wander in the horizontal plane caused by the earth’s rotation varies
(a) as sine latitude
(b) as cosine latitude
(c) in direct proportion to the angular velocity of the rotor.
Q.39 A space gyro with complete freedom of movement in all the three planes is spinning at
equator, with spin axis in the local vertical. After six hours, neglecting the mechanist
wander, the spin axis will be
(a) still in the local vertical
(b) in the local horizontal
(c) in the local vertical having tuned through 180 deg.
Q.40 A gyroscope which is constrained so as to have one plane of freedom only is called
(a) tied gyro
(b) earth gyro
(c) rate gyro
Q.41 On a ring luser gyro
(a) There is one laser beam which circulates clockwise.
(b) There is one laser beam which circulates anticlockwise.
(c) There are two laser beams circulating in opposite directions.
Q.42 The limitation in typical air driven Directional gyro are
(a) 55 deg in pitch & roll
(b) 110 deg in roll & 60 deg in pitch
(c) 60 deg in roll & 110 deg in pitch
Q.43 Gymbaling error in a DI is caused by
(a) Umbalance of the gymbal system
(b) geometry of the gymbol system
(c) excessive precession of gyroscope
Q.44 A typical air driven directional gyro will
(a) topple on any heading if pitch & roll limits are exceeded
(b) not topple on any of the cardinal heading even if aircraft is looped through 360
deg
(c) not topple on certain headings even if the aircraft is rolled through 360 deg.
Q.45 latitude out in a gyro stabilized DGI is to
(a) correct for wander in the horizontal plane
(b) correct for wander in the vertical plane
(c) correct for the increase of gravity from equator to pole.
Q.46 In a typical DGI the air jets are attached to
(a) instrument casing
(b) gymbal attached to the instrument casing
(c) the gymbal holding the
Q.47 In artificial horizon the horizon ……. Is moved by a glide pin attached to
(a) outer gymbal
(b) sky plate
(c) inner gymbal
Q.48 Using a compensated artificial horizon during a turn
(a) indication will be correct for selected speed & rate of turn
(b) there will be error in pitch & not in roll
(c) there will be errors in pitch & roll
Q.49 A reduction in airspeed of aircraft will cause an air driven artificial horizon to indicate
(a) a climbing turn to the right
(b) a descending turn to the left
(c) a pitch up
Q.50 When using an artificial horizon the indications require
(a) interpretations of lag error
(b) interpretations relative to aircraft attitude
(c) no interpretations as presentation in similar to as obtained from natural horizon
Q.51 In the artificial horizon the fast erection switch
(a) can be used within 15 seconds of switching on the power
(b) can not be used within 15 seconds of switching on the power
(c) as in ‘b’ failure to wait for 15 seconds will cause the horzon bar to oscillate
violently & damage the instrument.
Q.52 The artificial horizon uses
(a) horizontally controlled gyroscope
(b) gravity controlled gyroscope
(c) rule or restrained gyroscope
Q.53 If the rotor spinning speed of a TSI is greater than the rated speed the indicated rate of
turn will be
(a) correct
(b) an over reading
(c) an under reading
Q.54 In an air driven gyro TSI develops a leak, the indicated ROT will be
(a) correct
(b) an over reading
(c) an under reading
Q.55 A suspect rate of turn indicator of an aircraft may be checked in the air by
(a) exerting sideways pressure on the instrument panel holding the indicator
(b) slipping the aircraft left & right
(c) timing a rate one turn
Q.56 On an instrument …………….
(a) slip in to the turn
(b) skid out of turn
(c) no slip or skid
Q.57 When turning right on to runway prior to take off the ball of the balance indicator will
(a) move to the left
(b) move to the right
(c) stay in the center of the tube
Q.58 The principle of rate of turn indicator is that
(a) precessional force on a gyroscope is balanced by the spinning force
(b) variable gyro rigidity is balanced by the rate of turn
(c) rate of turn is indicated by the angle between the case & gyrotied in vertical
plane
Q.59 At a TAS of 500 K the RAM rise in temperature is
(a) 50 deg C
(b) 25 deg C
(c) 5 deg C
Q.60 Aircraft air temperature thermometers are shielded to protect from
(a) radiation
(b) airframe icing
(c) accidental physical damage on ground or hail stone damage in fli.t
Q.61 Flying at high speed & at high altitude the difference between RAT & SAT is
(a) likely to be less than when flying low & slow
(b) due to adiabatic cooling
(c) due to adiabatic warming
Q.62 Heading 225, Dev 3E, Coefficient A= +2, Coefficient C= 14, Find Coefficient B
Q.63 The detector unit of a remote indicating compass in
(a) fixed in the vertical plane only
(b) fixed in azimuth
(c) free in both vertical & horizontal planes
Q.64 When accelerating after take off towards West at ENTEBBE (00 30 N 32 30 E) the
DRC will show
(a) a significant apparent turn towards North
(b) a significant apparent turn towards South
(c) no significant error
Q.65 While approaching R/W 09 at Delhi the aircraft on the flap the landing gear are
lowered. The DRC will show
(a) a turn towards south
(b) a turn towards north
(c) no apparent turn due to deceleration
Q.66 While carrying out a turn at magnetic equator with a DRC, there will be
(a) no turning error
(b) a tendency to over read the turn through North & under read the turn through
South
(c) a tendency to over read all turns due to liquid swirl
Q.67 In a holding pattern at X ( 41 N o2 E) an aircraft using a DRC turns anticlockwise
from 040 to 330 . At the end of the turn the compass will
(a) over read the amount of turn
(b) under read the amount to turn
(c) correctly read the amount of turn.
Q.68 The sensitivity of a DRC varies
(a) directly with Z
(b) directly with H
(c) inversely with H & Z
Q.69 The compass card of E type of compass is shaped to match the inside profile of the
bowl in order to
(a) increase sensitivity
(b) minimize parallax error
(c) permit clearer calibration marks
Q.70 In a modern stand by DRC there is
(a) non pendulously mounted magnet
(b) a single pendulously mounted bar magnet
(c) circular magnet or a pair of bar magnets pendulously mounted
Q.71 Compared to a P type compass the modern stand by DRC is
(a) un affected by the dynamic errors
(b) so located to reduce the dynamic errors
(c) still affected by the dynamic errors
Q.72 In a DRC magnetic system is made apperiodic by
(a) damping action of compass liquid
(b) magnets with large magnetic moments.
(c) pendulous suspension
Q.73 The modern stand by DRC has
(a) no lubber line
(b) no facility for setting the heading
(c) no pendulous suspension
NAVIGATION 2
Q.1 The diameter of the earth along equator is ………………… nm

Q.2 The diameter of the earth along poles is ………………… nm
Q.3 The distance between the equator & north pole is ………………… nm
Q.4 The compression ratio of the earth is ………………… nm
Q.5 The length of a nautical mile is
(a) at equator ……………… feet ……………… meters
(b) at 45 deg lat ……………… feet ……………… meters
(c) at poles ……………… feet ……………… meters
Q.6 What is the shortest distance between Calcutta ( 30N 90E) & New …… ( 30N 90W)
what is the initial track to fly the shortest distance.
Q.7 What track to the nearest degree will give the shortest distance between
(a) 47S 30E & 47S 56 E
(b) 47S 30E & 20S 30E
Q.8 An aircraft flies from A ( 43 37 N 81 30W) to B(43 07 N 79 00W) The distance
between the meridians of A & B on a mercators chart is 15 inches. Find scale at 45 N.
Q.9 Transverse mercator projection is
(a) a conformal & convergence is correct every where
(b) a conformal & convergence is correct along all lines ( great circles)
perpendicular to the central meridian & antemeridian
(c) not a conformal & convergence is not correct anywhere.
Q.10 Wind velocity is 220/20 The drift will be maximum on
(a) Track of 310
(b) Heading of 310
Q.11 TMG 330 , Track required 320, Heading (T) 325, TAS-180 G/S 169 Find W/V
Q.12 If beam wind speed doubles. The distance to CP will
(a) Not change
(b) Increase
(c) Decrease
Q.13 When you have beam winds
(a) TAS = G/S
(b) TAS < G/S
(c) TAS > G/S
Q.14 The CP is exactly half way when
(a) O = H
(b) in nil wind conditions
(c) in beam wind conditions
(d) all are correct
Q.15 The CP is more than half way when
(a) O = H
(b) in head wind conditions
(c) in tail wind conditions
(d) all are wrong
Q.16 The CP is less than half way when
(a) O = H
(d) all are wrong
Q.17 The CP & PNR are collocated when
(a) O = H
(d) fuel on board is just sufficient for flight.
Q.18 The distance to PNR
(a) is maximum in nil wind conditions
(b) increases with increases in the tail wind
(c) decreases with increases in the tail wind
(d) is not affected by wind velocity
Q.19 With a fuel of 10000 lbs, the PNR is calculated to be 880 n.m. Other factor remaining
constant, if fuel is increased to 11000 lbs, the distance to PNR will be
(a) 928 n.m.
(b) 968 n.m.
(c) 950 n.m.
(d) 920 n.m.
Q.20 On a flight an aircraft is found to be achieving a G/S 10% higher than the planned G/S
Assuming all other conditions to be same the revised distance to PNR will be
(a) less
(b) more
(c) no change
(d) impossible to say
Q.21 The distance to PNR with 50 K head wind is 1200 n.m. the distance to PNR with .. K
tail wind will be
(a) less than 1200 n.m.
(b) more than 1200 n.m.
(c) 1200 n.m.
(d) it could be any value
Q.22 TAS 400 K In still air the distance to PNR is 1200 nm. If W/V is 90 deg to track at 40
K. The distance to PNR will be
(a) 1194 n.m.
(b) 1206 n.m.
(c) 1140 n.m.
(d) 1200 n.m.
Q.23 The primary emergency for which distance to PNR with engine failure is compared is
(a) engine failure
(b) emergency at the destination & its alternate
(c) any emergency on board requiring landing as early as possible
(d) fuel shortage
Q.24 The inflight checks reveal that the fuel consumption is 4% greater than expected at a
preflight planning If every thing else is as expected the distance to PNR will be
(a) 4% more
(b) 4% less
(c) unchanged
(d) 2% less
Q.25 The effect on the position of CP with reducing TAS if there is head wind component is
(a) to increase the distance
(b) to decrease the distance
(c) leave the distance unchanged
Q.26 While flying at a planned TAS, it is found that the aircraft is achieving faster stage
times than planned. Presuming that the situation remains unchanged the DP position
will be
(a) unchanged
(b) nearer to the half way point
(c) nearer to the destination
(d) nearer to the place of departure
Q.27 For a 1500 n.m. flight assuming 50 K of head wind outbound & 50 K tail wind
inbound CP is calculated to be 825 n.m. But it is discovered in flight that the winds are
other way round the correct distance to CP will be
(a) 675 n.m.
(b) 825 n.m.
(c) 750 n.m.
Q.28 Compared with a still air condition the CP with a along wind 90 deg to track will be
(a) in the same position with an earlier ETA
(b) in the same position with a later ETA
(c) at a greater distance with same ETA
(d) at a shorter distance with ETA
Q.29 Flying across North Atlantic with usual westerly winds the CP will be
(a) nearer to North America when flying eastwards.
(b) nearer to North America when flying westwards.
(c) always nearer to North America.
(d) always nearer to Europe.
Q.30 The effect on CP of reducing TAS is to
(a) always increase the distance to CP
(b) always reduce the distance to CP
(c) always move along the track further away from the mid point
(d) have no effect in case of zero winds or winds at 90 deg to the track
Q.31 To calculate the distance to CP in case of engine failure use
(a) reduced TAS for all calculations
(b) reduced TAS for distance calculations
(c) reduced TAS for G/S back & full TAS for G/S out
(d) full TAS for all calculations
Q.32 In the event of return to departure point 10000 lbs of fuel should be available when
back over the departure point. The flight reserves being carried are 15000 lbs. The
average fuel flow is 5000 lbs/ hr. TAS 400 K & there is a dead headwind of 100 K The
position of PNR in relation to the CP will be
(a) 200 n.m. furthur
(b) 250 n.m. furthur
(c) 188 n.m. less
(d) 200 n.m. furthur
Q.33 On a flight from “A” to “B” distance 250 nm after flying for 100 nm the aircraft drifts
10 nm port of track. The alteration of heading required is
(a) 6 deg “S”
(b) 10 deg “P”
(c) 4 deg “S”
(d) none
Q.34 G/S of aircraft is 180 K. It takes 4 minutes for a wing tip bearing change of 10 deg
from an NDB. Find the range of the aircraft from the beacon.
Q.35 An aircraft takes 3 minutes for a wing tip bearing change of 10 deg from an NDB it
the range of the aircraft is 60 nm. Find the G/S of the aircraft
Q.36 An aircraft measures the rel brg of an NDB to be 035. After 10 minutes the rel.brg
changes to 070 .If the G/S of aircraft is 180 K Find range of the aircraft from the NDB
Q.37 From A to B distance 1640 nm Flt level 130 Tr 075 W/V 100/20 Airfield elevation sea
level, RAS 140, mean temp +22 deg C, ROC 500 feet/ min. Fuel consumption 1500
lbs/Hr Var 14 W, Dev 3 E the climb time, the distance & fuel used during climb are
(a) 26 Mts, 089 (C), 650 lbs, 62 nm
(b) 25 Mts, 092 (C), 625 lbs, 59 nm
(c) 26 Mts, 089 (C), 650 gal, 62 nm
(d) 26 Mts, 067 (C), 650 lbs, 62 nm
Q.38 Find the standard temperature at 10000 feet
(a) +5 deg C
(b) 0 deg C
(c) -5 deg C
(d) -5 deg F
Q.39 Density altitude will be equal to pressure altitude when
(a) at standard temperature conditions exist
(b) altimeter is set to 29.92 inches
(c) altimeter has no installation error
(d) At sea level
Q.40 Lapse rate is 5 deg F/1000 feet. Find the freezing level
Q.41 Find the freezing level in the standard atmosphere.
Q.42 TAS 180 K, TMG 150, Heading (T) 145 Ground speed 169 K. Find the Wind velocity
Q.43 An aircraft is flying to Rawalpindi (32 00 N 7620 E). It pinpoints over Lahore at 1142
…TC. The distance to go is 173 nm. F/L 60 Temp +30 deg C. Winds light & variable.
Sunset time at Rawalpindi is 1740 LMT. What RAS should be maintained to reach
Rawalpindi sunset
Q.44 Crossing IDL on a Westerly Track a day has to be ………..
Q.45 Crossing IDL from East longitude to West long a day has to be……….
Q.46 IDL is 180 deg longitude & is a perfectly straight line …………….
Q.47 At flt level 310 temperature is 15 deg colder than standard (TSA – 15)
(a) true altitude is ---------- than 31000 feet
(b) density altitude is --------- than 31000 feet
Q.48 Density altitude is
(a) Altitude of aircraft with reference to standard datum plan
(b) Pressure altitude corrected for non standard temperature conditions
(c) Altitude read directly from the altimeter
(d) Altitude above the terrain.

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CPL NAV

Q.79 (a) Wave length is 1.5 KM. Find the frequency

Q.86 An an a/c RMI shows Var 2W Find

Q.87 An ac is on a VOR Radial 015 VAR 5W find-

a) Tear drop entry lies between radials

Q.3 An aircraft descends to an airport under the following condition

Q.6 An aircraft departs from an airport under the following condition

FL Temp Dev(ISA) Mach Wind Fuel Flow

Q.21 Given the following data

Q.32 The details of a flight plan are give below

Q.2 What is a hertz?

Q.40 A category 1 ILS allows approaches with the following criteria:

Q. 50 In a spiral dive the correct recovery sequence is

Q.106 On a CAT II ILS when crossing the MM the Morse code is

Q.3 Aircraft is cruising at a constant altitude & the temperature decreases

Q. 6 Mode 4 on the GPWS gives

(a) Disengage autopilot & initate recovery action.

Q.1 The capsule of ASI is

Q.28 The speed of sound of temperature -25 deg C in ………….K

Q.1 The diameter of the earth along equator is ………………… nm

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