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J£ï.n.J¸ï.E
¥ÀjÃPÉëAiÀÄ PÉÊ¦r
NTSE - SAT
HAND BOOK
(National Talent Search Examination)
2017
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ZÉÆÃ¼À£ÀUÀgÀ, Dgï.n.£ÀUÀgÀ, ¨ÉAUÀ¼ÀÆgÀÄ.
²æÃªÀÄw ¤ªÀÄð® ¹.J¯ï.,
02. ¸ÉÃPÉæqï ºÁmïð n.n.L PÁ¯ÉÃdÄ, fÃªÀ±Á¸ÀÛç
dAiÀÄ£ÀUÀgÀ. ¨ÉAUÀ¼ÀÆgÀÄ.
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zÁj£ÁAiÀÄPÀ£À¥Á¼Àå, UËj©zÀ£ÀÆgÀÄ,
aPÀÌ§¼Áî¥ÀÄgÀ.
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qÁ. UÀuÉÃ±ï ¨sÀmï. ºÉZï.J¸ï.

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gÁeÁf£ÀUÀgÀ, ¨ÉAUÀ¼ÀÆgÀÄ.
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ªÀÄlÖzÀ gÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ ¥Àæw¨sÁ£ÉéÃµÀuÉ ¥ÀjÃPÉë National Talent Search Examination (NTSE) ¸ÀàzsÁðvÀäPÀ
¥ÀjÃPÉëAiÀÄ£ÀÄß £ÀqÉ¸ÀÄªÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝjAiÀÄ£ÀÄß r.J¸ï.E.Dgï.n.AiÀÄÄ ºÉÆA¢zÉ. ºÉaÑ£À ¥ÀæZÁgÀzÀ
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¥ÀjÃPÉëAiÀÄ°è ¨sÁUÀªÀ»¹ ºÉZÀÄÑ CAPÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß UÀ½¸ÀÄªÀAvÉ ¥ÉæÃgÉÃ¦¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ F PÉÊ¦rAiÀÄ ªÀÄÄRå
GzÝÉÃ±ÀªÁVzÉ.
F ¤nÖ£À°è «zÁåyðUÀ½UÉ, ¥ÉÇÃµÀPÀjUÉ, ²PëÀPÀjUÉ ºÁUÀÆ EvÀgÀjUÉ F ¥ÀjÃPÉëAiÀÄ ¸ÀÆÜ®

¥ÀjZÀAiÀÄ, ¥Àæ±ÉßUÀ¼À ¸ÀégÀÆ¥À, «zsÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÀiÁzÀj ¤ÃqÀÄªÀ GzÝÉÃ±À¢AzÀ `¸ÀàzsÁð-PÀ° 2’ ``NTSE-
SAT ¥ÀjÃPÉë PÉÊ¦r’’ ¥ÀÅ¸ÀÛPÀ gÀa¸À¯ÁVzÉ. F PÉÊ¦rAiÀÄ°è SAT UÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀ ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå «eÁÕ£À,
¸ÀªÀiÁd «eÁÕ£À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ UÀtÂvÀ «µÀAiÀÄUÀ½UÉ ¥Àæ±ÉÆßÃvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁVzÉ. UÀtÂvÀ «µÀAiÀÄzÀ
¥Àæ±ÉßUÀ¼À eÉÆvÉUÉ F ¥Àæ±ÉßUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÃUÉ ©r¹ GvÀÛgÀ PÀAqÀÄPÉÆ¼Àî¨ÉÃPÀÄ JAzÀÄ ¸ÀÄ½ªÀÅUÀ¼À£ÀÄß
(Hints) ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁVzÉ. ¸Àé CzsÀåAiÀÄ£ÀPÉÌ F PÉÊ¦r C£ÀÄPÀÆ®ªÁVzÉ. F ¥ÀÅ¸ÀÛPÀªÀ£ÀÄß «zÁåyðUÀ¼ÀÄ
ºÁUÀÆ ²PëÀPÀgÀÄ ¸ÀzÀâ¼ÀPÉ ªÀiÁrPÉÆAqÀÄ, ²PëÀPÀgÀ ¸ÀÆPÀÛ ªÀiÁUÀðzÀ±Àð£À¢AzÀ J£ï.n.J¸ï.E.
(NTSE) ¸ÀàzsÁðvÀäPÀ ¥ÀjÃPÉëAiÀÄ°è ºÉaÑ£À «zÁåyðUÀ¼ÀÄ gÁµÀÖçªÀÄlÖzÀ ¥ÀjÃPÉëUÉ DAiÉÄÌAiÀiÁUÀ° JAzÀÄ
D²¸ÀÄvÉÛÃ£É. F ¥ÀÅ¸ÀÛPÀªÀÅ ¸ÀàzsÁðyðUÀ½UÉ ¸ÀàzsÁð¢Ã«UÉAiÀiÁV CªÀgÀ°è DvÀä«±Áé¸ÀªÀ£ÀÄß vÀÄA§°
JAzÀÄ ºÁgÉÊ¸ÀÄvÉÛÃ£É.
F ¥ÀÅ¸ÀÛPÀ gÀZÀ£ÉAiÀÄ°è ¥ÀæªÀÄÄR ¥ÁvÀæªÀ»¹zÀ J¯èÁ ¸ÀA¥À£ÀÆä® ªÀåQÛUÀ½UÉ E¯ÁSÉAiÀÄ

¥ÀgÀªÁV PÀÈvÀdÕvÉUÀ¼ÀÄ, ¥ÀÅ¸ÀÛPÀzÀ UÀÄuÁvÀäPÀ C©üªÀÈ¢ÞUÉ ¸À®ºÉ-¸ÀÆZÀ£ÉUÀ½UÉ ¸ÀzÁ ¸ÁéUÀvÀ«zÉ.
CPÉÆÖÃ§gï-2017 UÉÆÃ¥Á®PÀÈµÀÚ. ºÉZï.J£ï.

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gÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ ¥Àæw¨sÁ£ÉéÃµÀuÁ ¥ÀjÃPÉë
National Talent Search Examination (NTSE)
10£ÉÃ vÀgÀUÀwAiÀÄ°è C¨sÁå¸À ªÀiÁqÀÄwÛgÀÄªÀ «zÁåyðUÀ½UÉ «zÁåyðªÉÃvÀ£À ¤ÃqÀ®Ä

gÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ ¥Àæw¨sÁ£ÉéÃµÀuÁ ¥ÀjÃPÉë (National Talent Search Examination, NTSE) JA§
¸ÀàzsÁðvÀäPÀ ¥ÀjÃPÉëAiÀÄ£ÀÄß gÁdå ²PëÀt ¸ÀA±ÉÆÃzsÀ£É ªÀÄvÀÄÛ vÀgÀ¨ÉÃw E¯ÁSÉ (DSERT) ¥Àæw ªÀµÀð
ºÀ«ÄäPÉÆ¼ÀÄîvÁÛ §A¢zÉ.
NTSE ¥ÀjÃPÉëAiÀÄ CºÀðvÉ (Eligibility) :
¥ÀjÃPÉëUÉ Cfð ºÁPÀÄªÀ ªÀµÀðzÀ°è PÉÃAzÀæ ºÁUÀÆ gÁdå ¸ÀPÁðgÀ¢AzÀ ªÀiÁ£ÀåvÉ ¥ÀqÉ¢gÀÄªÀ
±Á¯ÉUÀ¼À°è 10£ÉÃ vÀgÀUÀwAiÀÄ°è NzÀÄwÛgÀÄªÀ J¯èÁ «zÁåyðUÀ¼ÀÄ gÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ ¥Àæw¨sÁ£ÉéÃµÀuÁ
¥ÀjÃPÉëUÉ CºÀðgÁVgÀÄvÁÛgÉ.
NTSE ¥ÀjÃPÉëAiÀÄ GzÝÉÃ±ÀUÀ¼ÀÄ :
1. 10£ÉÃ vÀgÀUÀwAiÀÄ°è NzÀÄwÛgÀÄªÀ ¥Àæw¨sÁªÀAvÀ «zÁåyðUÀ¼À£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ.
2. DAiÉÄÌAiÀiÁzÀªÀjUÉ DyðPÀ £ÉgÀªÀÅ ¤Ãr, ¥Àæw¨sÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ªÀÄvÀÛµÀÄÖ C©üªÀÈ¢Þ¥Àr¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ.
3. F ªÀÄÆ®PÀ ªÀÄPÀÌ¼À°è GvÀÛªÀÄªÁV zÉÃ±À¸ÉÃªÉ ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀ ªÀÄ£ÉÆÃ¨sÁªÀ ¨É¼É¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ.
F ¥ÀjÃPÉëAiÀÄÄ JgÀqÀÄ ºÀAvÀzÀ°è £ÀqÉAiÀÄÄvÀÛzÉ.

¥ÀæxÀªÀÄ ºÀAvÀ :
DSERT ¥ÀæxÀªÀÄ ºÀAvÀzÀ ¥ÀjÃPÉëAiÀÄ£ÀÄß £ÀqÉ¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ. ªÉÆzÀ®£ÉÃ ºÀAvÀzÀ ¥ÀjÃPÉëAiÀÄÄ 3
«µÀAiÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß M¼ÀUÉÆArgÀÄvÀÛzÉ. CªÀÅUÀ¼ÉAzÀgÉ,
C) ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ¨Ë¢ÞPÀ ¸ÁªÀÄxÀåð ¥ÀjÃPÉë General Mental Ability Test (GMAT)
F ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀÄ°è 50 §ºÀÄCA±À DAiÉÄÌ ¥Àæ±ÉßUÀ½gÀÄvÀÛªÉ. ¥Àæw ¥Àæ±ÉßUÀÆ MAzÀÄ CAPÀzÀAvÉ 50
CAPÀUÀ¼ÀÄ. «zÁåyðUÀ¼ÀÄ PÁgÀt ¤ÃqÀÄªÀ, «±ÉèÃ¶¸ÀÄªÀ, ¸ÀA±ÉèÃ¶¸ÀÄªÀ EvÁå¢ ¸ÁªÀÄxÀåðUÀ¼À£ÀÄß
C¼ÉAiÀÄÄªÀ ¥Àæ±ÉßUÀ½gÀÄvÀÛªÉ.
D) DAUÀè ¨ÁµÁ ¸ÁªÀÄxÀåð ¥ÀjÃPÉë (English Language Comprahensive Test)
F ¥ÀwæPÉ 50 CAPÀUÀ¼À 50 §ºÀÄDAiÉÄÌ ¥Àæ±ÉßUÀ¼À£ÀÄß M¼ÀUÉÆArgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
v
E) ªÁå¸ÀAUÀ ¥ÀæªÀÈwÛ ¸ÁªÀÄxÀåð ¥ÀjÃPÉë Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) :
F ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀÄ°è 100 CAPÀUÀ½UÉ MlÄÖ 100 §ºÀÄ DAiÉÄÌ ¥Àæ±ÉßUÀ½gÀÄvÀÛªÉ. EªÀÅUÀ¼À°è 40
¥Àæ±ÉßUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÀªÀiÁd «eÕÁ£À (EwºÁ¸À, ¨sÀÆUÉÆÃ¼À, ¥ËgÀ¤Ãw ªÀÄvÀÄÛ CxÀð±Á¸ÀÛç «µÀAiÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß) 40
¥Àæ±ÉßUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå «eÕÁ£À (¨sËvÀ±Á¸ÀÛç, gÁ¸ÁAiÀÄ£À ±Á¸ÀÛç ªÀÄvÀÄÛ fÃªÀ±Á¸ÀÛç) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 20 ¥Àæ±ÉßUÀ¼ÀÄ
UÀtÂvÀ «µÀAiÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß DzsÀj¹gÀÄvÀÛªÉ.
F «µÀAiÀÄzÀ ¥ÀjÃPÉëUÉ ¹zÀÞªÁUÀÄªÁUÀ «zÁåyðUÀ¼ÀÄ 10£ÉÃ vÀgÀUÀwAiÀÄ ¥ÀoÀåPÀæªÀÄ ºÁUÀÆ
¥ÀoÀåªÀ¸ÀÄÛ (State/CBSE/ICSE, Syllabus) DzsÀj¹zÀ «µÀAiÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß CzsÀåAiÀÄ£À
ªÀiÁqÀ¨ÉÃPÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ. ¥ÀjÃPÉë §gÉzÀ MlÄÖ «zÁåyðUÀ¼À°è ¥Àæw «zÁåyðAiÀÄÄ UÀ½¹zÀ MlÄÖ CAPÀUÀ¼À
DzsÁgÀzÀ ªÉÄÃ¯É (Rank) ¥ÀnÖ vÀAiÀiÁj¸À¯ÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ. State Rank DzsÁgÀzÀ ªÉÄÃ¯É «zÁåyðUÀ¼À£ÀÄß
¢éwÃAiÀÄ ºÀAvÀzÀ ¥ÀjÃPÉëUÉ DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁqÀ¯ÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
¢éwÃAiÀÄ ºÀAvÀ (Second Phase) :
¥ÀæxÀªÀÄ ºÀAvÀzÀ gÁdå ªÀÄlÖzÀ ¥ÀjÃPÉëAiÀÄ°è CºÀðvÉ UÀ½¹zÀ «zÁåyðUÀ½UÉ
National Council of Educational Research and Training, NCERT, New Delhi gÀªÀgÀÄ
¢éwÃAiÀÄ ºÀAvÀzÀ gÁµÀÖç ªÀÄlÖzÀ ¥ÀjÃPÉëAiÀÄ£ÀÄß £ÀqÉ¸ÀÄvÁÛgÉ.
F ªÀiÁ»wAiÀÄ£ÀÄß website : www.ncert.nic.in £À°è ¥ÀqÉAiÀÄ§ºÀÄzÀÄ.
«zÁåyð ªÉÃvÀ£À :
CAwªÀÄªÁV DAiÉÄÌAiÀiÁzÀ «zÁåyðUÀ½UÉ ¦.AiÀÄÄ.¹. (¥ÀæxÀªÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¢éwÃAiÀÄ)AiÀÄ°è
wAUÀ½UÉ gÀÆ. 1,250 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥ÀzÀ« ºÀAvÀzÀ°è gÀÆ. 2,000 ºÁUÀÆ G£ÀßvÀ ªÁå¸ÀAUÀzÀ°è
«zÁåyðªÉÃvÀ£À AiÀÄÄ.f.¹. ¤AiÀÄªÀiÁ£ÀÄ¸ÁgÀ ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
PÀ£ÁðlPÀ gÁdåzÀ «±ÉÃµÀ ¥ÉÆæÃvÁìºÀ :
NTSE ¥ÀjÃPÉëAiÀÄ°è gÁdåªÀÄlÖzÀ°è DAiÉÄÌAiÀiÁV gÁµÀÖçªÀÄlÖzÀ°è DAiÉÄÌAiÀiÁUÀ¢zÀÝgÉ, CAvÀºÀ
«zÁåyðUÀ½UÉ PÀ£ÁðlPÀ gÁdå «zÁåyð PÉëÃªÀiÁ©üªÀÈ¢Þ ¤¢ü PÀbÉÃj¬ÄAzÀ (Students Welfare
Fund) ¥Àæw ªÀµÀð gÀÆ. 2000/- UÀ¼ÀAvÉ JgÀqÀÄ ªÀµÀðUÀ¼À PÁ® (¥ÀæxÀªÀÄ ºÁUÀÆ ¢éwÃAiÀÄ PUC)
«zÁåyðªÉÃvÀ£À ¤ÃqÀÄvÀÛzÉ. (C£ÀÄzÁ£À ®¨sÀåvÉ EzÀÝ°è ªÀiÁvÀæ)
NTSE ¥ÀjÃPÉëAiÀÄ PÉÊ¦r (Question Bank) »A¢£À ¸Á°£À ¥Àæ±Éß¥ÀwæPÉUÀ¼ÀÄ DSERT
website (www.dsert.kar.nic.in) £À°è ®¨sÀå«zÉ.
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NTSE - SAT PHYSICS
PHYSICS - ¨sËvÀ±Á¸ÀçÛ
1. The SI unit of momentum is 1. ¸ÀAªÉÃUÀzÀ CAvÀgÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ KPÀªiÀ Á£À

1) ms1 1) ms1
2) ms2 2) ms2
3) Kgms1 3) Kgms1
4) Kgms2 4) Kgms2
2. The dimensional formula for FORCE is 2. §®zÀ DAiÀiÁªÀÄ ¸ÀÆvÀæ
1) [MoL1 T2] 1) [MoL1 T2]
2) [M1L2T2] 2) [M1L2T2]
3) [M1L0T2] 3) [M1L0T2]
4) [M1L1T2] 4) [M1L1T2]
3. The given velocity-timegraph represents the 3. F PÉ¼UÀ É PÉÆnÖgÄÀ ªÀ ªÉÃUÀ-PÁ®zÀ £ÀPëÉ AiÀÄÄ ªÀ¸ÄÀ Û«£À
motion of a body. ZÀ®£ÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸ÀÆa¸ÀÄvÀÛz.É
The magnitude of displacement of this body 30 ¸ÉPAÉ qÀÄUÀ¼°

À è F PÁAiÀÄzÀ ¸ÁÜ£¥
À ®
À l
è zÀ ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄªÀÅ
in 30 seconds
1) 200 m 1) 200 «ÄÃ
2) 250 m 2) 250 «ÄÃ
3) 300 m 3) 300 «ÄÃ
4) 400 m 4) 400 «ÄÃ
4. A car undergoes an acceleration of 10ms2 4. ¤±ÀÑ® ¹ÜwAiÀÄ°ègÀÄªÀ MAzÀÄ PÁgÀÄ 10ms2
starting from rest. The distance travelled by ªÉÃUÉÆÃvÀÌµð À ¢AzÀ ZÀ°¸À®Ä ¥ÁægAÀ ©ü¸ÄÀ vÀz
Û ,É ºÁUÁzÀgÉ
the car in first 5 seconds is, ¥ÁægAÀ ¨sz
À À 5 ¸ÉPAÉ qÀÄUÀ¼°
À è F PÁgÀÄ ZÀ°¹zÀ zÀÆgÀ
1) 50 m 1) 50 «ÄÃ
2) 75 m 2) 75 «ÄÃ
3) 100 m 3) 100 «ÄÃ
4) 125 m 4) 125 «ÄÃ
1
NTSE - SAT PHYSICS
5. A stone is dropped from the tip of a tower 5. MAzÀÄ PÀ®è£ÄÀ ß ¸ÉÆ£Éß ¥ÁægAÀ ©üPÀ ªÉÃUÀ¢AzÀ MAzÀÄ
with zero initial velocity. It reaches the UÉÆÃ¥ÀÅgÀzÀ vÀÄ¢¬ÄAzÀ ©mÁÖUÀ CzÀÄ 4 ¸ÉPAÉ qÀÄUÀ¼°À è
ground in 4s, then the height of the the tower ¨sÆ
À «ÄAiÀÄ£ÀÄß vÀ®Ä¥ÀÅvÀÛz.É ºÁUÁzÀgÉ D UÉÆÃ¥ÀÅgÀzÀ
is, (g = 9.8 ms2) JvÀÛgª
À ÅÀ , (g = 9.8 ms2)
1) 176.4 m 1) 176.4 «ÄÃ
2) 78.4 m 2) 78.4 «ÄÃ
3) 39.2 m 3) 39.2 «ÄÃ
4) 384.1 m 4) 384.1 «ÄÃ
6. A body is moving in a circular path of 6. MAzÀÄ PÁAiÀÄªÀÅ 14 ¸ÉA.«ÄÃ. ªÁå¸À«gÀÄªÀ ªÀÈvÁÛPÁgÀzÀ
diameter 14 cm. At time t it completes one ¥Àxz À è ¸ÀÄvÀÄÛwÛz.É EzÀÄ t ¸ÀªÄÀ AiÀÄzÀ°è MAzÀÄ
À °
rotation and comes to the original position. ¸ÀÄvÀÛ£ÄÀ ß ¸ÀÄwÛ vÀ£ßÀ ¥ÁægAÀ ©üPÀ ¸ÁÜ£ªÀ £
À ÄÀ ß vÀ®Ä¥ÀÅvÀÛz.É
The displacement and distance travelled by DUÀ F PÁAiÀÄzÀ ¸ÁÜ£¥ À ®
À lè ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ZÀ°¹zÀ zÀÆgÀU¼ À ÄÀ
this body respectively are PÀª
æ ÄÀ ªÁV
1) 88 cm and 0 cm 1) 88 ¸ÉA.«ÄÃ. ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 0 ¸ÉA.«ÄÃ.
7. The vector quantities among the following 7. F PÉ¼V
À £ÀªÅÀ UÀ¼°
À è ¸À¢±À ¥ÀjªÀiÁtUÀ¼ÄÀ
are
a) time b) velocity a) PÁ® b) ªÉÃUÀ
c) acceleration d) pressure c) ªÉÃUÉÆÃvÀÌµð
À d) MvÀÛqÀ
e) mass f) weight e) zÀª
æ åÀ gÁ² f) vÀÆPÀ
1) a, b, and d 1) a, b ªÀÄvÀÄÛ d
2) b, c and f 2) b, c ªÀÄvÀÄÛ f
3) a, d and e 3) a, d ªÀÄvÀÄÛ e
4) b, e and f 4) b, e ªÀÄvÀÄÛ f
8. The moment of inertia of a body does not 8. MAzÀÄ PÁAiÀÄzÀ dqÀvÁ ªÀÄºÀvª
éÀ ÅÀ CªÀ®A©¸ÀzÃÉ EgÀÄªÀ
depend on CA±À
1) Different orientations of axis 1) PÁAiÀÄzÀ CPëÀzÀ ««zsÀ £É¯ÉUÀlÄÖUÀ¼ÀÄ
2) Nature of distribution of mass 2) PÁAiÀÄzÀ zÀª
æ ÀågÁ²AiÀÄ «vÀgÀuÉAiÀÄ UÀÄt
3) Angular velocity 3) PÉÆÃ¤ÃAiÀÄ ªÉÃUÀ
4) Axis of rotation 4) CPëÀzÀ DªÀvÀð£É
2
NTSE - SAT PHYSICS
9. A lorry and a car moving with the same 9. MAzÉÃ ZÀ®£Á±ÀQÛAiÀÄ°è ZÀ°¸ÀÄwÛgÄÀ ªÀ MAzÀÄ PÁgÀÄ
kinetic energy are brought to rest by ªÀÄvÀÄÛ MAzÀÄ ¯ÁjUÀ½UÉ MAzÉÃ ¥Àª
æ iÀ ÁtzÀ ¤AiÀÄAvÀt
æ
applying retarding force of same magnitude, §®ªÀ£ÄÀ ß ¥ÀAæ iÉÆÃV¹zÁUÀ
then 1) ¯ÁjAiÀÄÄ PÀrªÉÄ CAvÀgz
À °
À è ¤±À®
Ñ ¹ÜwAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
1) Lorry will come to rest in a shorter distannce vÀ®Ä¥ÀÅvÀÛz.É
2) Car will come to rest in a shorter distance 2) PÁgÀÄ PÀrªÉÄ CAvÀgÀzÀ°è ¤±ÀÑ® ¹ÜwAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
3) Both will come to rest in the same distance vÀ®Ä¥ÀÅvÀÛz.É
4) Both will not stop. 3) JgÀqÀÆ MAzÉÃ CAvÀgÀzÀ°è ¤±ÀÑ® ¹ÜwAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
vÀ®Ä¥ÀÅvÀÛz.É
4) JgÀqÀÆ ¤®ÄèªÀÅ¢®è.
10. Assertion (A) : workdone during raising a box 10. ºÉÃ½PÉ (A) : MAzÀÄ JvÀÛgz
À À ¥sÁèmï¥sÁ«Äð£À ªÉÄÃ¯É
on to a platform depends upon how fast it is ¥ÉnÖUAÉ iÀÄ£ÀÄß EqÀÄªÀ PÉ®¸ÀªÅÀ , CzÀ£ÄÀ ß JµÀÄÖ ¨ÉÃUÀ£É
raised. EqÀÄªÀÅzÀ£ÄÀ ß ªÀ®A©¹gÀÄvÀÛz.É
Reason (R) : work done is the product of PÁgÀt (R) : ªÀiÁrzÀ PÉ®¸ÀªÅÀ §® ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÁ®UÀ¼À
force and time. UÀÄt®§ÞªÁVzÉ.
considering the above ªÉÄÃ°£ÀªÅÀ UÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß ¥ÀjUÀt¹Â zÁUÀ
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 1) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÆ
À ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R EzÀÄ A ºÉÃ½PÉUÉ
explanation to A ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ «ªÀgu
À É
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the 2) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÆ
À ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R EzÀÄ A ºÉÃ½PÉUÉ
correct explanation to A vÀ¥ÁàzÀ «ªÀgÀuÉ
3) Both A and R are false. 3) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÀÆ vÀ¥ÀÄà
4) A is false but R is true. 4) A vÀ¥ÀÄà DzÀgÉ R ¸Àj.
11. Power is the product of 11. ¸ÁªÀÄxÀåðªÀÅ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀgÀ UÀÄt®§Þ?
1) Force and velocity 1) §® ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÉÃUÀ
2) Force and time 2) §® ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÁ®
3) Mass and velocity 3) zÀª
æ ÀågÁ² ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÉÃUÀ
4) Mass and acceleration 4) zÀª
æ ÀågÁ² ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÉÃUÉÆÃvÀÌµÀð
12. When a metal rod is heated it expands 12. MAzÀÄ ¯ÉÆÃºÀzÀ vÀÄAqÀ£ÄÀ ß ©¹ ªÀiÁrzÁUÀ CzÀÄ
because, ªÁåPÉÆÃa¸ÀÄvÀÛz,É KPÉAzÀgÉ
1) The size of its atoms increase 1) CzÀgÀ CtÄUÀ¼À UÁvÀæ ºÉZÁÑUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
2) The distance among its atoms increases 2) CzÀgÀ CtÄUÀ¼À £ÀqÄÀ «£À CAvÀgÀ ºÉZÁÑUÄÀ vÀz
Û .É
3) Atmospheric air rushes into it 3) ªÁvÁªÀgÀtzÀ UÁ½ DzÀgÉÆ¼ÀUÉ £ÀÄUÀÄÎvÀÛzÉ.
4) Number of atoms increases 4) CtÄUÀ¼À ¸ÀASÉå ºÉZÁÑUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
3
NTSE - SAT PHYSICS
13. Out of the following which is not the part of 13. F PÉ¼V
À ªÀÅUÀ¼°
À è ¥ÉmÆ
É Ãæ ¯ï JAf£ï£À ¨sÁUÀªÁV®èzÃÉ
petrol engine is ? EgÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ
1) Piston 1) ¦¸À£
Ö ï
2) Fuel injection pump 2) EAzs£
À À EAeÉPë£
À ï ¥ÀA¥ï
3) Carburrator 3) PÁ¨ÉÆðgÉÃlgï
4) Spark plug 4) Qr ¨ÉuÉ
14. If the temperature of a black body is doubled, 14. MAzÀÄ PÀ¥ÄÀ à ªÀ¸ÄÀ Û«£À GµÀÚvA
É iÀÄ£ÀÄß JgÀqÄÀ ¥ÀlÄÖ
then the amout of heat radiations emitted by ºÉaÑ¹zÁUÀ CzÀjAzÀ ºÉÆgÀ§gÀÄªÀ GµÀÚ«QgÀtUÀ¼À
it per second ¥Àª
æ iÀ ÁtªÀÅ ¥Àw
æ ¸ÉPAÉ rUÉ
1) Increases by 8 times 1) 8 ¥ÀZÀÄÑ ºÉZÀÄÑvÀÛªÉ
2) Increases by 16 times 2) 16 ¥ÀlÄÖ ºÉZÀÄÑvÀÛªÉ
3) Increases by 32 times 3) 32 ¥ÀlÄÖ ºÉZÀÄÑvÀÛªÉ
4) Remains same 4) AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉÃ §zÀ¯ÁªÀuÉ ºÉÆAzÀÄªÀÅ¢®è
15. In winter season the water at the bottom of 15. ZÀ½UÁzÀ°è ¸ÀgÉÆÃªÀgÀUÀ¼À vÀ¼À¨sÁUÀzÀ°ègÀÄªÀ ¤ÃgÀÄ
the lakes donot freeze because of WÀ¤ÃPÀj¸ÀÄªÀÅ¢®è, KPÉAzÀgÉ
1) Ice is a good conductor of heat 1) ªÀÄAdÄUÀqÉØ CvÀÄåvÀÛªÀÄ GµÀª
Ú ÁºÀPÀ
2) Ice reflects heat and light 2) ªÀÄAdÄUÀqØÉ ±ÁR ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¨É¼PÀ £
À ÄÀ ß ¥Àw
æ ¥s°
À ¸ÀÄvÀz
Û É
3) Anomalous expansion of water between 3) 4oC ¤AzÀ 0oC ªÀgÉUÉ ¤Ãj£À C¥À¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå
4oC to 0oC ªÀvð
À £É
4) The fishes produces heat present in the 4) ¸ÀgÆ
É ÃªÀgz
À À vÀ¼z
À °
À gè ÄÀ ªÀ «ÄÃ£ÀÄUÀ¼ÄÀ GµÀª
Ú £
À ÄÀ ß
bottom of lake GvÀàwÛ ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛªÉ.
16. A railway engine is approaching a stationary 16. MAzÀÄ gÉÊ¯Éé JAf£ï ¤±ÀÑ® ¹ÜwAiÀÄ°ègÄÀ ªÀ «ÃPëÀP£
À À
observer sounds a whistle. Indicate whether PÀqU
É É ZÀ°¸ÀÄvÁÛ «µÀ¯ï ±À§Þ ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀz
Û .É DUÀ «ÃPëÀP£
À ÄÀ
the observer hears the sound of PÉÃ¼ÀÄªÀ ±À§ÞªÅÀ
1) Same frequency 1) MAzÀÄ DªÀÈwÛAiÀiÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ
2) Slightly higher frequency 2) ¸Àé®à ºÉaÑ£À DªÀÈwÛAiÀiÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ
3) Slightly lower frequency 3) ¸Àé®à PÀrªÉÄ DªÀÈwÛAiÀiÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ
4) Same frequency but of different quality 4) MAzÉÃ DªÀÈwÛ DzÀgÉ ¨ÉÃgÉ UÀÄtªÀÄlÖzÝÁVgÀÄvÀz
Û .É
4
NTSE - SAT PHYSICS
17. Assertion (A) : Sky appears black when we 17. ºÉ Ã ½PÉ (A) : ZÀ A zÀ æ £ À ªÉ Ä Ã°¤AzÀ DPÁ±À ª À £ À Ä ß
see it from moon. £ÉÆÃrzÁUÀ PÀ¥ÁàV PÁtÄvÀÛz.É
Reason (R) : There is no atmosphere on the PÁgÀt (R) : ZÀAzÀ£ æ À ªÉÄÃ¯É ªÁvÁªÀgt
À «¯èÁ. DzÀÝjAzÀ
surface of moon so there is no scattering of ¨É¼QÀ £À ZÀzg
À ÄÀ «PÉ «zÁåªÀiÁ£À £ÀqAÉ iÀÄÄªÀÅ¢®è.
light on it. ªÉÄÃ°£ÀªÅÀ UÀ¼£
considering the above
1) A is wrong but R is correct 1) A vÀ¥ÀÄà DzÀgÉ R ¸Àj
2) A is correct but R is wrong 2) A ¸Àj DzÀgÉ R vÀ¥ÀÄà
3) Both A and R are correct and R is the 3) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÆ
À ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ A UÉ R ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ
correct explanation to A «ªÀgu
À É
4) Both A and R are correct but R is not the 4) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÆ
À ¸Àj DzÀgÉ A UÉ R ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ
correct explanation to A. «ªÀgu
À A
É iÀÄ®è.
18. When a glass rod is rubbed with silk, it 18. MAzÀÄ UÁf£À PÀrØAiÀÄ£ÀÄß gÉÃµÉä §mÉ¬
Ö ÄAzÀ GfÓzÁUÀ
acquires positive charge because CzÀÄ zs£
À À DªÉÃ±Àª£
À ÄÀ ß ¥ÀqAÉ iÀÄÄvÀÛz,É KPÉzg
À É
1) Protons are added 1) ¥ÉÆÃæ mÁ£ÀÄUÀ¼ÄÀ ¸ÉÃjPÉÆ¼ÀÄîvÛª
À É
2) Protons are removed 2) ¥ÉÆÃæ mÁ£ÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß vÉUÉAiÀÄ¯ÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ
3) Electrons are added 3) J¯ÉPÁÖç£ÄÀ UÀ¼ÄÀ ¸ÉÃjPÉÆ¼ÀÄîvÛÀªÉ
4) Electrons are removed 4) J¯ÉPÁÖç£ÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß vÉUÉAiÀÄ¯ÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
19. A company manufacture four different types 19. MAzÀ Ä PÀ A ¥À ¤ AiÀ Ä Ä ««zs À «¨s À ª ÁAvÀ g À ªÀ Ä vÀ Ä Û
of motors which operates at different «zÀÄåvïUÀ¼À°è PÉ®¸À ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀ £Á®ÄÌ jÃwAiÀÄ
potential difference and current as shown in ªÉÆÃmÁgÀÄUÀ¼£ À ÄÀ ß vÀAiÀiÁj¸ÀÄªÀ «ªÀgU
À ¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß PÉ¼V
À £À
the given table. PÉÆÃµÀÖPz
À °
À è ¤ÃrzÉ.
MOTOR Potential current ªÉÆÃmÁgï£À «¨sª À ÁAvÀgÀ «zÀÄåvï
TYPE difference (volt) (ampere) «zsÀ (N¯ïÖ) (DA¥ÉÃgï)
A 6 15 A 6 15
B 9 11 B 9 11
C 10 10 C 10 10
D 7 12 D 7 12
The type of motor which has less electric EªÀÅUÀ¼°
À è PÀrªÉÄ ¸ÁªÀÄxÀåð (¥Àªg
À ï) ºÉÆA¢gÀÄªÀ
power is ªÉÆÃmÁgï£À «zsÀ
1) A 1) A
2) B 2) B
3) C 3) C
4) D 4) D
5
NTSE - SAT PHYSICS
20. The combinations of resistors having the 20. F PÉ¼V

À £ÀªÅÀ UÀ¼°À è X ªÀÄvÀÄÛ Y UÀ¼À £ÀqÄÀ ªÉ ¸ÀªÄÀ £ÁzÀ
same equivalent resistance between X and gÉÆÃzsª
À £
À ÄÀ ß ºÉÆA¢gÀÄªÀ gÉÆÃzsPÀ U À À (resistors)
À ¼
Y are ¸ÀAAiÉÆÃd£ÉU¼
À ÄÀ
a) a)
b) b)
c) c)
d) d)
1) a and b 1) a ªÀÄvÀÄÛ b
2) a and c 2) a ªÀÄvÀÄÛ c
3) a and d 3) a ªÀÄvÀÄÛ d
4) b and c 4) b ªÀÄvÀÄÛ c
21. 21.
The above diagram shows the refraction of ªÉÄÃ°£À avÀª æ ÅÀ UÁf£À ZÀ¥àÀrAiÀÄ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ ¨É¼QÀ £À
light through glass slab. In this the emergent ªÀQÃæ ¨sª
À £
À ª
À £
À ÄÀ ß vÉÆÃj¸ÀÄvÀz
Û .É EzÀg°
À è ¤UÀð«ÄvÀ QgÀt
ray is
1) AB 2) BC 1) AB 2) BC
3) BE 4) CD 3) BE 4) CD
6
NTSE - SAT PHYSICS
22. Iron and silicon are heated from 20oC to 22. PÀ © â t ªÀ Ä vÀ Ä Û ¹°PÁ£ï EªÀ Å UÀ ¼ À GµÀ Ú v É A iÀ Ä £À Ä ß
30oC, then 20oC ¤AzÀ 30oC UÉ ºÉaÑ¹zÁUÀ
1) Resistance of both increases 1) JgÀqÀgÀ gÉÆÃzsÀªÀÅ ºÉZÀÄÑvÀÛzÉ
2) Resistance of both decreases 2) JgÀqÀgÀ gÉÆÃzsÀªÀÅ PÀrªÉÄAiÀiÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ
3) Resistance of iron decreases and that of 3) PÀ©âtzÀ gÉÆÃzsÀªÀÅ PÀrªÉÄAiÀiÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
silicon increases ¹°PÁ£ï gÉÆÃzsÀªÀÅ ºÉZÁÑUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
4) Resistance of iron increases and that of 4) PÀ©âtzÀ gÉÆÃzsªÀ ÅÀ ºÉZÁÑUÄÀ vÀz
Û É ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¹°PÁ£ï
silicon decreases gÉÆÃzsÀªÀÅ PÀrªÉÄAiÀiÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
23. When a diamagnetic material is brought near 23. MAzÀÄ qÀAiÀiÁPÁAwÃAiÀÄ ªÀ¸ÄÀ Ûª£
À ÄÀ ß ªÉÆzÀ®Ä ¥À§
æ ®
North pole first and then to South pole of a zÀAqÀPÁAvÀzÀ GvÀgÛ À zsÈÀ ªÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ £ÀAvÀgÀ zÀQët zsÈÀ ªÀzÀ
strong bar magnet, then the diamagnetic ºÀwÛgÀ vÀAzÁUÀ qÀAiÀiÁPÁAwÃAiÀÄ ªÀ¸ÄÀ ÛªÅÀ
material is,
1) Attracted by both poles 1) JgÀqÀÆ zsÀÈªÀUÀ½AzÀ DPÀ¶ðvÀUÉÆ¼ÀÄîvÀÛzÉ.
2) Repelled by both poles 2) JgÀqÀÆ zsÀÈªÀUÀ½AzÀ «PÀ¶ðvÀUÉÆ¼ÀÄîvÀÛzÉ
3) Attracted by north pole and repelled by 3) GvÀÛgÀ zsÀÈªÀ¢AzÀ DPÀ¶ðvÀªÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
south pole zÀQët zsÀÈªÀ¢AzÀ «PÀ¶ðvÀªÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ
4) Attracted by south pole and repelled by 4) zÀQët zsÀÈªÀ¢AzÀ DPÀ¶ðvÀªÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
north pole GvÀÛgÀ zsÀÈªÀ¢AzÀ «PÀ¶ðvÀªÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
24. The most suitable material for making 24. ±Á±À é v À DAiÀ Ä ¸ÁÌAvÀ ª À £ À Ä ß vÀ A iÀ i Áj¸À ® Ä CvÀ å AvÀ
permanent magnet is ¸ÀÆPÀvª
À ÁzÀ ªÀ¸ÄÀ Û
1) Steel 1) ¹ÖÃ¯ï (GPÀÄÌ)
2) Copper 2) vÁªÀÄæ
3) Gold 3) a£Àß
4) Soft iron 4) ªÉÄzÀÄ PÀ©ât
25. Curie temperature is the temperature above 25. PÀÆåj vÁ¥ÀQÌAvÀ ºÉaÑ£À GµÀÚvA
É iÀÄ°è
which 1) ¥ÁågÁPÁAwÃAiÀÄ ªÀ¸ÀÄÛªÀÅ ¥sÀgÉÆÃ
1) Paramagnetic material becomes PÁAwÃAiÀÄªÁUÀÄvÀz
Û É
ferromagnetic 2) ¥sÉgÉÆÃPÁAwÃAiÀÄ ªÀ¸ÀÄÛªÀÅ
2) Ferromagnetic material becomes ¥ÁågÁPÁAwÃAiÀÄªÁUÀÄvÀÛz.É
paramagnetic 3) ¥ÁågÁPÁAwÃAiÀÄ ªÀ¸ÀÄÛªÀÅ
3) Paramagnetic material becomes qÀAiÀiÁPÁAwÃAiÀÄªÁUÀÄvÀz
Û É
diamagnetic 4) ¥sÉgÉÆÃPÁAwÃAiÀÄ ªÀ¸ÀÄÛªÀÅ
4) Ferromagnetic material becomes qÀAiÀiÁPÁAwÃAiÀÄªÁUÀÄvÀÛz.É
diamagnetic
7
NTSE - SAT PHYSICS
26. The weight of a body on earth is 49 kg, then 26. ¨sÆ

À «ÄAiÀÄ ªÉÄÃ¯É MAzÀÄ ªÀ¸ÄÀ «
Û £À vÀÆPÀ 49 kg EzÀÝgÉ
its mass is (given g = 9.8 ms2) æ åÀ gÁ² (PÉÆnÖzÉ g = 9.8 ms2)
CzÀgÀ zÀª
1) 3 kg 1) 3 kg
2) 4 kg 2) 4 kg
3) 5 kg 3) 5 kg
4) 6 kg 4) 6 kg
27. Assertion (A) : Transfomer is a device which 27. ºÉÃ½PÉ (A) : «zÀÄåvï ¥ÀjªÀvð
À PÀ EzÀÄ £ÉÃgÀ «zÀÄåwÛ£À
is used to alter the DC voltage. N¯ÉÖÃd£ÀÄß §zÀ¯Á¬Ä¸À®Ä §¼À¸ÄÀ ªÀ ¸Ázs£
À .À
Reasoning (R) : In step up transformer PÁgÀt (R) : ºÉaÑ£À N¯ÉÖÃeï ¥ÀjªÀvð À PÀz°À è ¥ÉÊæ ªÀÄj
number of turns is the primary coil is more ¸ÀÄgÀÄ½AiÀÄ°è ¸ÀÄgÀÄ½UÀ¼À ¸ÀASÉåAiÀÄÄ ¸ÉPAÉ qÀj ¸ÀÄgÀÄ½VAvÀ
than the number of turns in the secondary ºÉZÁÑVgÀÄvÀzÛ .É PÀrªÉÄ N¯ÉÃÖ eï ¥ÀjªÀvð À PÀz°À è ¥ÉÊæ ªÀÄj
coil.In step down transformer number of ¸ÀÄgÀÄ½AiÀÄ°è ¸ÀÄgÀÄ½UÀ¼À ¸ÀASÉåAiÀÄÄ ¸ÉPAÉ qÀj ¸ÀÄgÀÄ½VAvÀ
turns in the primary coil is less than the PÀrªÉÄ EgÀÄvÀÛª.É
number of turns in the secondary coil
considering the above ªÉÄÃ°£ÀªÅÀ UÀ¼£
1) A is only true 1) A ªÀiÁvÀæ ¸Àj
2) R is only true 2) R ªÀiÁvÀæ ¸Àj
3) Both A and R are true 3) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÀÆ ¸Àj
4) Both A and R are false 4) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÀÆ vÀ¥ÀÄà
28. Match the column-I with column-II for the 28. PÀA¨sÀ-I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÀA¨sÀ-II gÀ°è EgÀÄªÀÅUÀ¼À£ÀÄß PÉ¼ÀUÉ
correct options given below. PÉÆnÖgÄÀ ªÀ DAiÉÄÌU¼
À AÀ vÉ ºÉÆA¢¹ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀÄzÀ£ÄÀ ß
Column-I Column-II
§gÉ¬Äj.
PÀA¨sÀ - I PÀA¨sÀ - II
i) Diode A) Mechanical energy into electrical energy
i) qÉÊAiÉÆÃqï A) AiÀiÁAwæPÀ ±ÀQÛAiÀÄ£ÀÄß «zÀÄåvï ±ÀQÛAiÀiÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ
ii) Speaker B) Audible sound waves into electrical signals
ii) zsé¤
À ªÀzð
Às PÀ B) ±Àª
æ åÀ vÀgAÀ UÀU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß «zÀÄåvï ¸ÀAPÉÃvÀU¼
À ÁV¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ
iii) Dynamo C) Electrical energy into mechanical energy
iii) qÉÊ£ÀªÆ
É Ã C) «zÀÄåvï ±ÀQÛAiÀÄ£ÀÄß AiÀiÁAwæPÀ ±ÀQÛAiÀiÁV¸ÀÄÛzÉ
iv) Motor D) Alternating current into direct current.
iv) ªÉÆÃmÁgï D) ¥ÀAiÀiÁðAiÀÄ «zÀÄåvï C£ÀÄß £ÉÃgÀ «zÀÄåvÀ£
Û ÁßV¸ÀÄvÀz
Û .É
v) Microphone E) Electrical signals into audible sound waves
v) ªÉÄÊPÉÆÃæ ¥sÇÉ Ã£ï E) «zÀÄåvï ¸ÀAPÉÃvÀU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß ±Àª
æ åÀ vÀgAÀ UÀU¼
À £
À ÁßV¸ÀÄvÀz
Û .É
1) i-D, ii-E, iii-A, iv-C, v-B 1) i-D, ii-E, iii-A, iv-C, v-B
2) i-E, ii-D, iii-A, iv-C, v-B 2) i-E, ii-D, iii-A, iv-C, v-B
3) i-D, ii-E, iii-C, iv-B, v-A 3) i-D, ii-E, iii-C, iv-B, v-A
4) i-A, ii-C, iii-B, iv-E, v-D 4) i-A, ii-C, iii-B, iv-E, v-D
8
NTSE - SAT PHYSICS
29. In a silicon semiconductor, the energy gap 29. ¹°PÁ£ï CgÉªÁºÀPz

À °
À è ªÉÃ¯É¤ìAiÀÄ ¥ÀnÖ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÁºÀPÀ
between valence band and conduction band ¥ÀnÖU¼
À À £ÀqÄÀ «£À CAvÀgÀ
is,
1) 0 ev 1) 0 ev
2) < 3 ev 2) < 3 ev
3) > 3 ev 3) > 3 ev
4) Infinity 4) C¥Àj«ÄvÀ
30. The impurity atom added to germanium 30. dªÉÄÃð¤AiÀÄA C£ÀÄß n - jÃwAiÀÄ CgÉªÁºÀPª
À £
À ÁßV
crystal to make n-type semiconductor is, ªÀiÁqÀ®Ä CzÀPÌÉ ¸ÉÃj¸À¨ÃÉ PÁzÀ ¨ÉgPÀ É ¥ÀzÁxÀð
1) Aluminium 1) C®Æå«Ä¤AiÀÄA
2) Gallium 2) UÁå°AiÀÄA
3) Indium 3) EArAiÀÄªÀiï
4) Phosphorus 4) gÀAdPÀ
31. The ascending order of doping level of 31. mÁæ¤ì¸ÖÀj£À ««zsÀ ¨sÁUÀU¼
À ÄÀ /ªÀ®AiÀÄUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß CªÀÅUÀ¼À
different regions in a transistor is qÉÆÃ¦AUï ªÀÄlÖª£
À ÄÀ ß Dzsj
À ¹ KjPÉ PÀª
æ ÄÀ zÀ°è §gÉzÁUÀ
1) Emitter, Collector, Base 1) GvÀìdðPÀ, ¸ÀAUÁæºPÀ ,À DzsÁgÀ
2) Collector, Base, Emitter 2) ¸ÀAUÁæºPÀ ,À DzsÁgÀ, GvÀìdðPÀ
3) Base, Emitter, Collector 3) DzsÁgÀ, GvÀìdðPÀ, ¸ÀAUÁæºPÀ À
4) Base, Collector, Emitter 4) DzsÁgÀ, ¸ÀAUÁæºPÀ ,À GvÀìdðPÀ
32. The circuit symbol for pnp-transistor is 32. pnp - mÁæ¤ì¸Öj
À £À ªÀÄAqÀ® ¸ÀAPÉÃvÀ
1) 1)
2) 2)
3) 3)
4) 4)
9
NTSE - SAT PHYSICS
33. Sun is visible to us about 2 minutes before 33. ¸ÀÆAiÀÄð£ÀÄ ªÁ¸Àª

Û ª
À ÁV GzÀ¬Ä¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀQÌAvÀ ¸ÀÄªÀiÁgÀÄ
the actual sun rise and 2 minutes after the JgÀqÄÀ ¤«ÄµÀU¼ À ÄÀ ¨ÉÃUÀ£É UÉÆÃZÀj¸ÀÄvÁÛ£É ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
actual sunset. This is because of ªÁ¸ÀÛªÀªÁV ªÀÄÄ¼ÀÄV£À £ÀAvÀgÀ ¸ÀÄªÀiÁgÀÄ JgÀqÀÄ
atmospheric, ¤«ÄµÀUÀ¼À PÁ® UÉÆÃZÀj¸ÀÄvÁÛ£É. KPÉAzÀgÉ
ªÁvÁªÀgtÀ zÀ°è ¨É¼QÀ £À
1) Reflection of light 1) ¥Àw
æ ¥s®
À £À
2) Interference of light 2) ªÀåwÃPÀgt
À
3) Refraction of light 3) ªÀQÃæ ¨sª
À £
À À
4) Polarization of light 4) zsÈÀ «ÃPÀgt
À
34. 34.
In the given figure AB is an object of height PÉÆnÖgÄÀ ªÀ avÀU

æ z
À °
À è AB AiÀÄÄ 2 ¸ÉA.«ÄÃ. JvÀg
Û «
À gÀÄªÀ
2 cm is placed at C. The position and height ªÀ¸ÀÄÛªÁVzÀÄÝ EzÀ£ÀÄß C £À°è EnÖzÉ. ºÁUÁzÀgÉ
of the image formed is, ¥Àw
æ ©A§ GAmÁUÀÄªÀ ¸ÁÜ£À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ CzÀgÀ GvÀÛgU À ¼
À ÄÀ
1) at C and 4 cm 1) C £À°è ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 4 ¸ÉA.«ÄÃ.
2) at F and 4 cm 2) F £À°è ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 4 ¸ÉA.«ÄÃ.
3) at C and 2 cm 3) C £À°è ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 2 ¸ÉA.«ÄÃ.
4) Beyond C and 2 cm 4) C £À »AzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 2 ¸ÉA.«ÄÃ.
35. Focal length of a thin lens is 25 cm, then the 35. MAzÀÄ ªÀÄ¸ÀÆgÀzÀ ¸ÀAUÀªÄÀ ¸ÀÆgÀªÅÀ 25 ¸ÉA.«ÄÃ. EzÝÁUÀ
power of this lens is, D ªÀÄ¸ÀÆgÀzÀ ¸ÁªÀÄxÀåð (¥Àªg
À ï)
1) 4 dioptre 1) 4 qÀAiÀiÁ¥ÀÖgï
2) 0.04 dioptre 2) 0.04 qÀAiÀiÁ¥ÀÖgï
36. Arrangement of coloured lights according to 36. §tÚzÀ ¨É¼PÀ ÄÀ UÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß CªÀÅUÀ¼À DªÀÈwÛAiÀÄ E½PÉ PÀª
æ ÄÀ zÀAvÉ
descending order of their frequency is §gÉzÁUÀ
1) Red, yellow, green, blue 1) PÉA¥ÀÅ, ºÀ¼À¢, ºÀ¹gÀÄ, ¤ÃgÀÄ
2) Red, blue, yellow, green 2) PÉA¥ÀÅ, ¤Ã°, ºÀ¼¢
À , ºÀ¹gÀÄ
3) Blue, green, yellow, red 3) ¤Ã°, ºÀ¹gÀÄ, ºÀ¼¢
À , PÉA¥ÀÅ
4) Blue, yellow, red, green 4) ¤Ã°, ºÀ¼¢
À , PÉA¥ÀÅ, ºÀ¹gÀÄ
10
NTSE - SAT PHYSICS
37. 37.
In the figure M1 and M2 are the plane PÉÆnÖgÀÄªÀ avÀæzÀ°è M1 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ M2 UÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÀªÀÄvÀ®
mirrors, the angle between them is 60o. Then À tUÀ¼ÁVªÉ. EªÀÅUÀ¼À £ÀqÄÀ «£À PÉÆÃ£À 60o EzÉ.
zÀ¥ð
number of images of the object A formed ºÁUÁzÀgÉ ªÀ¸ÄÀ Û A £À ªÀÄÆqÀÄªÀ ¥Àw
æ ©A§UÀ¼À ¸ÀASÉå
are
1) 3 2) 4 1) 3 2) 4
3) 5 4) 6 3) 5 4) 6
38. The type of mirror used by dental surgeons 38. zÀAvÀ ªÉÊzÀågÀÄUÀ¼ÄÀ zÀAvÀ PëÀAiÀÄUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß «ÃQë¸À®Ä §¼À¸ÄÀ ªÀ
as inspection mirror to view the dental zÀ¥ð
À tzÀ «zs,À
cavities is,
1) Concave mirror 1) ¤ªÀÄß zÀ¥Àðt
2) Convex mirror 2) ¦Ã£À zÀ¥Àðt
3) Plane mirror 3) ¸ÀªÀÄvÀ® zÀ¥Àðt
4) Plano convex mirror 4) ¸ÀªÀÄvÀ® ¦Ã£À zÀ¥Àðt
39. The mass and energy equivalent to 1 amu in 39. 1 amu UÉ ¸ÀªÄÀ £ÁzÀ zÀª
æ åÀ gÁ² ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ±ÀQÛAiÀÄ
respectively are ¥Àª
æ iÀ ÁtUÀ¼ÄÀ PÀª
æ ÄÀ ªÁV
1) 1.67 x 1027 g and 9.31 Mev 1) 1.67 x 1027 g ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 9.31 Mev
2) 1.67 x 1027 kg and 931 Mev 2) 1.67 x 1027 kg ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 931 Mev
3) 1.67 x 1027 kg and 1 Mev 3) 1.67 x 1027 kg ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 1 Mev
4) 1.67 x 1027 g and 1 Mev 4) 1.67 x 1027 g ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 1 Mev
40. A sample of radioactive element of 16 g is 40. 16 UÁæA EgÀÄªÀ MAzÀÄ «QgÀt ¥ÀlÄ zsÁvÀÄ«£À
taken from Bangalore to Hubli in 2 hours and ¥Àwæ ZÀAiÀÄªÀ£ÄÀ ß ¨ÉAUÀ¼Æ
À j¤AzÀ ºÀÄ§â½îUÉ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁV
it was found that 1 g of the element remain JgÀqÄÀ UÀAmõÉUÉ vÀAzÁUÀ PÉÃªÀ® 1 UÁæA £ÀµÄÀ ÖzÁs vÀÄ
undisintegrated. Half life period of this PëÀ¬Ä¸ÀzÉ G½¢gÀÄvÀÛzÉ. ºÁUÁzÀgÉ F zsÁvÀÄ«£À
element is, CzsÁðAiÀÄÄµÀå
1) 2 hours 1) 2 UÀAmÉU¼
À ÄÀ
2) 1 hour 2) 1 UÀAmÉ
1 1
3) hour 3) UÀAmÉ
2 2
1 1
4) hour 4) UÀAmÉ
4 4
11
NTSE - SAT PHYSICS
41. In an atom of 11 Na 23 , the number of protons, 23

41. 11 Nα F ¥ÀgÀªÀiÁtÄ«£À°ègÀÄªÀ ¥ÉÆæÃmÁ£ï,
neutrons and electrons are,
£ÀÆåmÁæ£ï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ J¯ÉPÁÖç£ÄÀ UÀ¼À ¸ÀASÉåAiÀÄÄ PÀª
æ ÄÀ ªÁV
1) 11, 12, 11
1) 11, 12, 11
2) 23, 12, 11
2) 23, 12, 11
3) 12, 11, 0
3) 12, 11, 0
4) 23, 11, 12
4) 23, 11, 12
42. In nuclear reaction, M denotes 42. F ¥Àgª
À iÀ ÁtÄ QæAiÉÄAiÀÄ°è M EzÀÄ
4 4
Y A +3 + M
A
2 H e + ZX →
A
A +3
2 H e + ZX → Z+ 2 Y +M Z+ 2
1) Electron 1) J¯ÉPÁÖç£ï
2) Positron 2) ¥Á¹mÁæ£ï
3) Proton 3) ¥ÉÆÃæ mÁ£ï
4) Neutron 4) £ÀÆåmÁæ£ï
43. Assertion (A) : A stick is partially dipped in 43. ºÉÃ½PÉ (A) : MAzÀÄ PÀrØAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¤Ãj£À°è NgÉAiÀiÁV
water at slanting position. If observed from ¸Àé®à ¨sÁUÀ ªÀÄÄ¼ÀÄV¹zÉ. CzÀ£ÄÀ ß ¥ÀPÌÀ ¢AzÀ «ÃQë¹zÁUÀ
sideways, the stick appears short and bent PÀrØAiÀÄÄaPÀÌzÁVAiÀÄÆ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¤Ãj£À ªÉÄÃ¯ÉäÊ£À°è
at the surface of water. ¨sÁVzÀAvÉ PÁtÄvÀz Û .É
Reason (R) : Light coming from the stick PÁgÀt (R) : PÀrØ¬ÄAzÀ §AzÀ ¨É¼PÀ ÄÀ ¤Ãj£À CtÄUÀ¼°
À è
undergoes scattering from water molecules ZÀzÀÄgÀÄªÀÅzÀjAzÀ PÀrØAiÀÄÄ aPÀÌzÁVAiÀÄÆ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
giving the stick a short and bent appearance. ¨ÁUÀzAÀ vÉ PÁtÄvÀz
Û .É
consider the above.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 1) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÆ
À ¸Àj ºÁUÀÆ R EzÀÄ A
explanation to A ºÉÃ½PÉUÉ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ «ªÀgÀuÉAiÀiÁVzÉ.
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the 2) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÀÆ ¸Àj ºÁUÀÆ R EzÀÄ A
correct explanation to A ºÉÃ½PÉUÉ vÀ¥ÁàzÀ «ªÀgÀuÉAiÀiÁVzÉ.
3) A is true but R is false 3) A ¸Àj DzÀgÉ R vÀ¥ÀÄà
4) A is false but R is true 4) A vÀ¥ÀÄà DzÀgÉ R ¸Àj
44. A body of mass m kg is lifted by a person to 44. m zÀª
æ åÀ gÁ² EgÀÄªÀ ªÀ¸ÄÀ Ûª£
À ÄÀ ß M§â ªÀåQÛAiÀÄÄ 30
a height of 1 m in 30 seconds. Another person ¸ÉPAÉ qÀÄUÀ¼°À è 1 «ÄÃ JvÀÛgPÀ ÌÉ JvÀÄÛvÁÛ£.É ªÀÄvÉÆÛ§â
lifts the same body to the same height in 60 ªÀåQÛAiÀÄÄ CzÉÃ ªÀ¸ÄÀ ªÛ £
À ÄÀ ß 60 ¸ÉPAÉ qÀÄUÀ¼°
À è 1 «ÄÃlgï
seconds. The work done by them is in the JvÀÛgPÀ ÌÉ JvÀÄÛvÁÛ£.É ºÁUÁzÀgÉ CªÀgÄÀ ªÀiÁrzÀ PÉ®¸ÀzÀ
ratio. C£ÀÄ¥ÁvÀ
1) 1:2 1) 1:2
2) 2:1 2) 2:1
3) 4:1 3) 4:1
4) 1:1 4) 1:1
12
NTSE - SAT PHYSICS
45. The process of super imposing signal waves 45. ¸ÀAPÉÃvÀ vÀgA
À UÀU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß ¥À¸
æ g
À t
À vÀgAÀ UÀU¼
À À ªÉÄÃ¯É
on the carrier wave is known as DzÁågÉÆÃ¦¸ÀÄªÀ QæAiÉÄ
1) Transmission 1) ¥À¸
æ g
À t
À
2) Reception 2) ¹àÃPÀgt
À
3) Modulation 3) ªÀiÁqÀÄå¯ÃÉ µÀ£ï
4) Detection 4) ºÀvÛÉºZ
À ÄÀ «
Ñ PÉ
46. Two bodies of mass m1 and m2 are separated 46. m1 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ m2 zÀª
æ åÀ gÁ² ºÉÆA¢gÀÄªÀ JgÀqÄÀ ªÀ¸ÄÀ ÛU¼
À À
by a distance d, then the gravitational force £ÀqÄÀ «£À CAvÀgÀ d EzÝÁUÀ, D ªÀ¸ÄÀ ÛU¼
À À £ÀqÄÀ «£À
F between them is UÀÄgÀÄvÀé §® F ,
m12 m22 m12 m22

1) Fα 1) Fα
d2 d2
m1 m2 m1 m2
2) Fα 2) Fα
d d
m12 m22 m12 m22

3) Fα 3) Fα
d2 d2
m1 m2 m1 m2
4) Fα 4) Fα
d2 d2
47. Consider the following phenomenon 47. F PÉ¼V
À £À «zÁåªÀiÁ£ÀU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß UÀªÄÀ ¤¹zÁUÀ
a) Sun appear bigger at dusk a) ¸ÀÆAiÀÄð£ÀÄ ªÀÄÄ¸ÀìAeÉAiÀÄ°è zÉÆqÀØzÁV
b) Red colour of sun at dawn UÉÆÃZÀj¸ÀÄvÁÛ£.É
c) Moon visible at dawn b) ¸ÀÆAiÀÄð£ÀÄ ªÀÄÄA¨É¼U
À °
À è PÉA¥ÁV PÁtÄvÁÛ£.É
d) Twinkling of stars in the night sky c) ªÀÄÄA¨É¼U
À °
À è ZÀAzÀ£
æ ÄÀ UÉÆÃZÀj¸ÀÄvÁÛ£É
e) polestar being visible in the same d) gÁwæ DPÁ±Àz°
À è £ÀPëÀvU
æÀ ¼
À ÄÀ «Ä£ÀÄUÀÄvÀÛªÉ
position e) zsÈÀ ªÀ £ÀPëÀvª
æÀ ÅÀ MAzÉÃ ¸ÁÜ£z
À °
À è UÉÆÃZÀj¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ
The optical illusions are EªÀÅUÀ¼°
À è zÀÈ¶×¨ª
æÀs ÄÉ AiÀÄ «zÁåªÀiÁ£ÀU¼
À ÄÀ
1) a, b, d 1) a, b, d
2) a, b, c 2) a, b, c
3) a, b, e 3) a, b, e
4) c, d, e 4) c, d, e
13
NTSE - SAT PHYSICS
48. A black hole is a celestial body which does 48. PÀ¥ÄÀ àPÄÀ ½ MAzÀÄ DPÁ±ÀPÁAiÀÄªÁVzÀÄÝ EzÀÄ vÀ¤ßAzÀ
not allow any radiations to come out of it. AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉÃ «QgÀtUÀ¼ÄÀ ºÉÆgÀ§gÀ®Ä ©qÀÄªÀÅ¢®è. PÀ¥ÄÀ à
This property of black hole is due to its, PÀÄ½AiÀÄ F UÀÄtPÉÌ PÁgÀt CzÀg,À
1) Small size 1) PÀrªÉÄ UÁvÀæ
2) Large size 2) ºÉa£
Ñ À UÁvÀæ
3) High gravitational force 3) ºÉaÑ£À UÀÄgÀÄvÀé §®
4) Low density 4) PÀrªÉÄ ¸ÁAzÀv
æ É
49. The value of Rydbergs constant is, 49. jqï§Uïð ¹ÜgÁAPÀzÀ ¨É¯É
1) 1.0693 × 10−23 m −1 1) 1.0693 × 10−23 m −1
2) 6.023 × 10 −11 Nm −1 2) 6.023 × 10 −11 Nm −1
3) 1.0973 × 10+7 m −1 3) 1.0973 × 10+7 m −1
4) 1.0973 × 10 −7 m −1 4) 1.0973 × 10 −7 m −1
50. Assertion (A) : The boiling point of water 50. ºÉÃ½PÉ(A) : JvÀÛgPÀ ÌÉ ºÉÆÃzÀAvÉ¯èÁ ¤Ãj£À PÀÄ¢AiÀÄÄªÀ
decreases as the altitude increases. ©AzÀÄ PÀrªÉÄAiÀiÁUÀÄvÀÛz.É
Reason (R) : The atmospheric pressure PÁgÀt (R) : JvÀg
Û PÀ ÌÉ ºÉÆÃzÀAvÉ¯Áè ªÁvÁªÀgt
À zÀ MvÀq
Û À
increases with altitude. ºÉZÁÑUÄÀ vÀz
Û .É
Considering the above ªÉÄÃ°£ÀªÅÀ UÀ¼£
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 1) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÀÆ ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R EzÀÄ A UÉ
explanation of A ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ «ªÀgu
À É
2) Both A and R are truee but R is not a correct 2) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÀÆ ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R EzÀÄ A UÉ
À A
É iÀÄ®è
4) A is flase but R is true 4) A vÀ¥ÀÄà DzÀgÉ R ¸Àj
14
NTSE - SAT PHYSICS
PHYSICS - KEY ANSWERS PHYSICS - KEY ANSWERS

01 3 26 3
02 4 27 4
03 1 28 1
04 4 29 2
05 2 30 4
06 4 31 4
07 2 32 1
08 3 33 3
09 3 34 3
10 3 35 1
11 1 36 3
12 2 37 3
13 2 38 1
14 2 39 2
15 3 40 3
16 2 41 1
17 3 42 4
18 4 43 3
19 4 44 4
20 3 45 3
21 4 46 4
22 4 47 1
23 2 48 3
24 1 49 3
25 2 50 3
15
NTSE - SAT CHEMISTRY
CHEMISTRY - gÀ¸ÁAiÀÄ£À±Á¸ÀçÛ
1) Sand is used as sand bath in laboratory to 1. ¥À æ A iÉ Æ ÃUÀ ±Á¯É A iÀ Ä °è g Á¸ÁAiÀ Ä £PÀ Qæ A iÉ Ä UÀ ¼ À £ À Ä ß

carryout chemical reactions due to its PÉÊUÉÆ¼ÀÄîªÅÀ zÀg°
À è ªÀÄgÀ¼£ À ÄÀ ß ªÀÄgÀ¼À vÀ¥PÛÀ ª
À ÁV §¼À¸® À Ä
PÁgÀt.
1) high thermal capacity and non combustible 1) ºÉa£ Ñ À GµÀz
Ú Ás gÀuÉ ¸ÁªÀÄxÀåð ºÁUÀÆ CzÀºåÀ
property ®PÀt
ë
2) low thermal capacity and high combustible 2) PÀrªÉÄ GµÀz Ú Ás gÀuÉ ¸ÁªÀÄxÀåð ºÁUÀÆ ºÉa£
Ñ À
property zÀºåÀ ®PÀët.
3) high thermal capacity and high combustible 3) ºÉa£ Ñ À GµÀz
Ú Ás gÀuÉ ¸ÁªÀÄxÀåð ºÁUÀÆ ºÉa£
Ñ À
4) low thermal capacity and low combustible 4) PÀrªÉÄ GµÀz Ú Ás gÀuÉ ¸ÁªÀÄxÀåð ºÁUÀÆ PÀrªÉÄ
2) The non example for Dobereiners Triods is 2. qÉÆ§gÉÊ£Àgï£À wæª½
À UÀ½UÉ GzÁºÀgu
À AÉ iÀÄ®èzÄÀ Ý
1) Lithium, Sodium, Potassium 1) °ÃyAiÀÄªÀiï, ¸ÉÆÃrAiÀÄªÀiï, ¥ÉÆmÁå²AiÀÄA,
2) Calcium, Strontiam, Barium 2) PÁå°êAiÀÄA, ¸ÁÖçöåA²AiÀÄA, ¨ÉÃjAiÀÄA,
3) Potassium, Iodine, Barium 3) ¥ÉÆmÁå²AiÀÄA, CAiÉÆÃr£ï, ¨ÉÃjAiÀÄA
4) Chlorine, Bromine, Iodine 4) PÉÆèÃj£ï, ¨ÉÆÃæ «Ä£ï, CAiÉÆÃr£ï
3) The organic compound with relatively 3. vÀÄ®£ÁvÀäPªÀ ÁV C¢üPÀ PÀgU À ÄÀ ªÀ ºÁUÀÆ PÀÄ¢AiÀÄÄªÀ
maximum melting & boiling points is ©AzÀÄUÀ¼£À ÄÀ ß ºÉÆA¢gÀÄªÀ ¸ÁªÀAiÀÄªÀ ¸ÀAAiÀÄÄPÀÛ
1) Methane 1) «ÄÃxÉÃ£ï
2) Chloroform 2) PÉÆÃè gÉÆÃ¥sÁªÀiïð
3) Ethanol 3) ExÀ£Æ
É Ã¯ï
4) Ethanoic acid 4) ExÀ£Á¬ÄPï DªÀÄè
4) Consider the following statements and Select 4. F PÉ ¼ À V £À ºÉ Ã ½PÉ U À ¼ À £ À Ä ß ¥À j UÀ t Â ¹ ¸À j AiÀ i ÁzÀ
the correct alternative DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß Dj¹j.
Statement A : Glazed Ceramic materials are used ºÉÃ½PÉ A : UÉèÃeï ªÀiÁrzÀ ¹gÁ«ÄPïì ªÀ¸ÄÀ ÛU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß
in water filters ¤ÃgÀÄ ±ÉÆÃzsPÀ U
À ¼
À °
À è §¼À¸ÄÀ vÁÛg.É
Statement B : Glazed ceramic materials are ºÉÃ½PÉ B : UÉèÃeï ªÀiÁrzÀ ¹gÁ«ÄPïì ªÀ¸ÄÀ ÛU¼ À £
À ÄÀ ß
produced by removing certain fillers PÉ®ªÀÅ ¦ü®ègïUÀ¼£À ÄÀ ß vÉUz
É ÄÀ ºÁPÀÄªÀÅzÀgÀ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ
vÀAiÀiÁj¸À¯ÁUÀÄvÀz
Û .É
1. A & B are true 1) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B ¸Àj
2. A & B are false 2) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B vÀ¥ÄÀ à
3. A is true & B is false 3) A ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B vÀ¥ÄÀ à
4. A is false & B is true 4) A vÀ¥ÄÀ à ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B ¸Àj
16
5) The source of silicosis is not 5. ¹°PÉÆÃ¹¸ï UÉ ªÀÄÆ®ªÀ®z

è ÄÀ Ý,
1) Asbestos factory 1) PÀ¯ÁßgÀÄ PÁSÁð£É
2) Glass factory 2) UÁf£À PÁSÁð£É.
3) Cement factory 3) ¹ªÉÄAn£À PÁSÁð£É
4) Paper factory 4) PÁUÀzz
À À PÁSÁð£É
6) According to Newlands law of octaves the 6. £ÀÆå¯ÁåAqïgÀªg À À CµÀÖPÀ ¤AiÀÄªÀÄzÀAvÉ PÁå°êAiÀÄA£À
properties of Ca should match with the ®PÀëtUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß ºÉÆÃ®ÄªÀ ®PÀëtUÀ½gÀÄªÀ zsÁvÀÄUÀ¼ÄÀ ,
properties of
1) Mg and Be 1) Mg ªÀÄvÀÄÛ Be
2) Mg and Na 2) Mg ªÀÄvÀÄÛ Na
3) Be and Li 3) Be ªÀÄvÀÄÛ Li
4) Na and Li 4) Na ªÀÄvÀÄÛ Li
7) The groups and general formula of its 7. ªÉÄAqÀ°ÃªÀªæ g
À À ªÀÄÆ® DªÀvð À PÉÆÃµÀÖPz
À À ªÀUð
À UÀ¼ÄÀ
corresponding element oxides of ºÁUÀÆ CªÀÅUÀ½UÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀ zsÁvÀÄ DPÉìöÊqïUÀ¼À
Mendeleves original periodic table are ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ¸ÀÆvÀU æ ¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß ºÉÆÃ°¸À¯ÁVzÉ, EªÀÅUÀ¼° À è
matched below The correct option is ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌ,
Group Oxides ªÀUð
À UÀ¼ÄÀ DPÉìöÊqïUÀ¼ÄÀ
a) I i) R O4 a) I i) R O4
b) II ii) R O2 b) II ii) R O2
c) III iii) R O3 c) III iii) R O3
d) IV iv) R2 O7 d) IV iv) R2 O7
e) V v) R2O5 e) V v) R2O5
f) VI vi) R2 O3 f) VI vi) R2 O3
g) VII vii) R2 O g) VII vii) R2 O
h) VIII viii) RO h) VIII viii) RO
1) a-i ; b iv; c iii; d-v; e-ii; f-vi ; g-viii; h-vii 1) a-i ; b iv; c iii; d-v; e-ii; f-vi ; g-viii; h-vii
2) a-ii; b-vi; c-viii; d-vii, e-i, f-iv; g-iii, h-v 2) a-ii; b-vi; c-viii; d-vii, e-i, f-iv; g-iii, h-v
3) a-vii; b-viii; c-vi; d-ii; e-v; f-iii; g-iv; h-i 3) a-vii; b-viii; c-vi; d-ii; e-v; f-iii; g-iv; h-i
4) a-v; b-iii; c-iv; d-i; e-vii; f-viii, g-vi; h-ii 4) a-v; b-iii; c-iv; d-i; e-vii; f-viii, g-vi; h-ii
17
8) Consider the following Assertion and Reason 8. PÉ¼U

À À PÉÆnÖgÄÀ ªÀ ¥Àw
æ ¥ÁzÀ£É ºÁUÀÆ CzÀgÀ PÁgÀtUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß
for it and select the correct alternative ¥ÀjUÀt¹Â ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß Dj¹.
Assertion (A) : Paper turns brownish with age æ ¥ÁzÀ£É (A) : PÁ® PÀ¼z
¥Àw É A
À vÉ PÁUÀzÀ PÀAzÀÄ §tÚPÌÉ
due to the presence of the chemical lignin ªÀiÁ¥ÁðqÁUÀÄªÀÅzÀPÌÉ PÁgÀt °Vß£ï JA§
Reason (R) : Lignin reacts to give brownish gÁ¸ÁAiÀÄ¤PÀzÀ G¥À¹Üw.
materials in the presence of light and oxygen PÁgÀt (R) : ¨É¼PÀ ÄÀ ºÁUÀÆ DªÀÄd
è £ÀPz
À À ¸ÀªÄÀ PÀª
ë ÄÀ zÀ°è
°Vß£ï ¥Àw æ Qæ¬Ä¹ PÀAzÀÄ §tÚzÀ ¥ÀzÁxÀðUÀ¼£ À ÄÀ ß
PÉÆqÀÄvÀÛz.É
1. A is false and R is true 1) A vÀ¥ÄÀ à ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R ¸Àj
2. A is false and R is also false 2) A vÀ¥ÄÀ à ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R ¸ÀºÀ vÀ¥ÄÀ à
3. A is true and R is false 3) A ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R vÀ¥ÄÀ à
4. A is true and R is also true 4) A ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R ¸ÀºÀ ¸Àj
9) Ornamental objects are made of 9. D¨sg
À t
À UÀ¼À vÀAiÀiÁjPÉAiÀÄ°è §¼À¸ÄÀ ªÀ ªÀ¸ÄÀ ª
Û ÅÀ EzÁVzÉ.
1) Cryolite 1) PÉÊæ AiÉÆÃ¯ÉÊmï
2) Topaz 2) mÉÆ¥Áeï
3) Zeolite 3) fAiÉÆÃ¯ÉÊmï
4) Silica gel 4) ¹°PÁ eÉ¯ï.
10) The non example for organic compounds is 10. ¸ÁªÀAiÀÄªÀ ¸ÀAAiÀÄÄPÀPÛ ÌÉ GzÁºÀgu
À AÉ iÀÄ®èzÄÀ Ý
1) Carbides 1) PÁgÉâöÊqïì
2) Hydrocarbons 2) ºÉÊqÉÆÃæ PÁ§ð£ï
3) Carboxylic acids 3) PÁ¨ÁðQì°Pï D¹qï
4) Aldehydes 4) D°ØÃºÉÊqïì
11) The group of elements that is common in both 11. qÉÆ§gÉÊ£Àgï£À wæª½À UÀ¼À ¤AiÀÄªÀÄ ºÁUÀÆ £ÀÆå¯ÁåAqï£À
Dobereners triads & New lands law of CµÀÖPÀ ¤AiÀÄªÀÄUÀ¼°À £
è À ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå zsÁvÀÄUÀ¼À ªÀUð
À ªÀÅ
octaves is EzÁVzÉ.
1) Ca, Sr, Ba 1) Ca, Sr, Ba
2) Be, Mg, Ca 2) Be, Mg, Ca
3) Cl, Br, At 3) Cl, Br, At
4) Li, Na, K 4) Li, Na, K
12) In the Process of paper manufacturing thin 12. PÁUÀzzÀ À vÀAiÀiÁjPÁ ¥ÀQæ Aæ iÉÄAiÀÄ°è PÁUÀzz
À À ªÉÄÃ¯ÉäöÊ
layer of Calcium Carbonate on the surface ªÉÄÃ¯É PÁå°êAiÀÄA PÁ¨ÉÆÃð£ÉÃmï£À vÉ¼ÄÀ ªÁzÀ
of paper is coated ¯ÉÃ¥À£ªÀ £
À ÄÀ ß ªÀiÁqÀ¨ÃÉ PÁVgÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ
1) Before finishing 1) ªÀÄÄPÁÛAiÀÄ ºÀAvÀzÀ ªÀÄÄ£Àß
2) Before mixing additives 2) «Ä±ÀPæ U
À ¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß ¨Ég¸
É ÄÀ ªÀ ªÀÄÄ£Àß
3) After finishing 3) ªÀÄÄPÁÛAiÀÄ ºÀAvÀzÀ £ÀAvÀgÀ
4) before drying 4) MtV¸ÀÄªÀ ªÀÄÄ£Àß
18
13) The group of element oxides having the 13. MAzÉÃ vÀgºÀ z
À À gÁ¸ÁAiÀÄ¤PÀ ®PÀëtUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß ºÉÆA¢gÀÄªÀ
similar chemical properties is zsÁvÀÄ«£À DPÉìöÊqïUÀ¼À UÀÄA¥ÀÄ
1) Li2O, Na2O, Al2O3 1) Li2O, Na2O, Al2O3
2) Li2O, Na2O, K2O 2) Li2O, Na2O, K2O
3) Cl2O7, N2O5, MgO 3) Cl2O7, N2O5, MgO
4) Na2O, CO2, N2O5 4) Na2O, CO2, N2O5
14) The atomic numbers of the missing elements 14. 2003£ÉÃ E¸À«AiÀÄ £ÀAvÀgÀ D«µÁÌgª À ÁzÀ DzsÄÀ ¤PÀ
in the 7th Period of modern periodic table DªÀvð À PÉÆÃµÀÖPz
À À K¼À£ÃÉ CªÀ¢Aü iÀÄ°è£À ªÀÄgÉªiÀ ÁazÀ
which are discovered after 2003 are zsÁvÀÄUÀ¼À ¥Àgª
À iÀ ÁtÄ ¸ÀASÉåUÀ¼ÄÀ .
1) 114, 116, 118 1) 114, 116, 118
2) 111, 113, 115 2) 111, 113, 115
3) 110, 112, 115 3) 110, 112, 115
4) 113, 115, 117 4) 113, 115, 117
15) The example for Carbon occurring in free 15. ªÀÄÄPÀÛ ¹ÜwAiÀÄ°è ®¨såÀ ªÁUÀÄªÀ EAUÁ®PÉÌ GzÁºÀgu
À É
state is
1) Diamond & Buckminster fullerence 1) ªÀdæ ºÁUÀÆ §Qä¤¸ÀÖgï ¥sÄÀ ®èg£
À ïì
2) Lime stone & Natural Gas 2) ¸ÀÄtÚ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ £ÉÊ¸ÀVðPÀ C¤®
3) Fats and Wool 3) PÉÆ§Äâ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ GuÉÚ
4) Graphite and Wood 4) UÁæ¥ÊÉs mï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ËzÉ
16) The chemical in the place of borax to be 16. UÁ½AiÀÄ UÀÄ¼ÉîU¼
À ÄÀ UÁf¤AzÀ vÀ¦à¹PÉÆ¼Àî®Ä PÁ¬Ä¸ÀÄªÀ
added to the glass before heating to remove ªÀÄÄ£Àß ¨ÉÆÃgÁPïì£À §zÀ°UÉ ¸ÉÃj¸À¨ÉÃPÁzÀ
the air bubbles is gÁ¸ÁAiÀÄ¤PÀªÅÀ
1) Calcium Carbonate 1) PÁ°ìAiÀÄA PÁ¨ÉÆÃð£ÉÃmï
2) Aluminium Powder 2) C®Æå«Ä¤AiÀÄA ¥ÀÄr
3) Hydrogen Floride 3) ºÉÊqÉÆÃæ d£ï ¥sÆ
É Ãè gÉÊqï
4) Sodium Carbonate 4) ¸ÉÆÃrAiÀÄA PÁ¨ÉÆÃð£ÉÃmï
17) The gaps eka-boron, eka-aluminium and 17. ªÉÄAqÀ°ÃªÀgÀ DªÀvÀð PÉÆÃµÀÖPÀzÀ°è SÁ° ©nÖzÀÝ
eka-silicon left in the Mendeleev Periodic ¸ÀÜ¼z
À °À z
è ÝÀ KPÀ-¨ÉÆÃgÁ£ï, KPÀ-C®Äå«Ä¤AiÀÄA ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
table were later discovered and named as KPÀ-¹°PÁ£ÀÎ¼ÄÀ ªÀÄÄAzÉ D«µÁÌgz À À £ÀAvÀgÀ PÀª
æ iÀ ªÁV
¥Àqz É À ºÉ¸g À ÄÀ UÀ¼ÄÀ
1) Gallium, Scandium and Germanium
1) UÁå°AiÀÄA, ¸ÁÌArAiÀÄA, ªÀÄvÀÄÛ dgÉäÃ¤AiÀÄA
respectively
2) ¸ÁÌArAiÀÄA, dgÉäÃ¤AiÀÄA ªÀÄvÀÄÛ UÁå°AiÀÄA
2) Scandium, Germanium and Gallium
respectively 3) ¸ÁÌArAiÀÄA, UÁå°AiÀÄA ªÀÄvÀÄÛ dgÉäÃ¤AiÀÄA
3) Scandium, Gallium and Germanium 4) dgÉäÃ¤AiÀÄA, ¸ÁÌArAiÀÄA ªÀÄvÀÄÛ UÁå°AiÀÄA
respectively
4) Germanium, Scandium and Gallium
respectively
19
18) Consider the following Assertion and reason 18. PÉ¼U

æ ¥ÁzÀ£É ºÁUÀÆ CzÀgÀ PÁgÀtªÀ£ÄÀ ß
for it and select the correct alternative, ¥ÀjUÀt¹Â ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß Dj¹.
Assertion (A) : The Carbon atoms do not form æ ¥ÁzÀ£É (A) : PÁ§ð£ï ¥Àgª
¥Àw À iÀ ÁtÄUÀ¼ÄÀ EvÀgÃÉ
strong bonds with the atoms of other elements zsÁvÀÄUÀ¼À ¥Àgª
À iÀ ÁtÄUÀ¼Æ
É A¢UÉ zsÈÀ qsÀ ¸ÀA§AzsU
À ¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß
Reason (R) : The formation of strong bonds by K¥Àðr¸ÀÄªÀÅ¢®è
the carbon atoms is due to their small size PÁgÀt (R) : PÁ§ð£ï ¥ÀgÀªÀiÁtÄUÀ¼À zsÀÈqsÀ
¸ÀA§AzsU
À ¼
À À K¥ÀðqÀÄ«PÉUÉ CªÀÅUÀ¼À ¸ÀtU
Ú ÁvÀª
æ ÃÉ
PÁgÀt.
1. A is false & R is true 1) A vÀ¥ÄÀ à ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R ¸Àj
2. A is true & R is false 2) A ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R vÀ¥ÄÀ à
3. A is true & R is also true 3) A ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R ¸ÀºÀ ¸Àj
4. A is false & R is also false 4) A vÀ¥ÄÀ à ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R ¸ÀºÀ vÀ¥ÄÀ à
19) The lateral surface area of a cylindrical glass 19. MAzÀÄ PÉÆ¼ÀªÉ (¹°AqÀgï) DPÁgÀzÀ UÁf£À ªÀ¸ÄÀ « Û £À
article is decorated by making it to react with ¥Á±À é ð zÀ ªÉ Ä Ã¯É ä öÊ ¥À æ z É Ã ±À ª À £ À Ä ß C®APÀ j ¸À ® Ä
EzÀgÆ É A¢UÉ ¥Àw æ Qæ¬Ä¸ÀP¨ À ÃÉ PÀÄ
1) Manganese dioxide 1) ªÀiÁåAUÀ¤Ã¸ï qÉÊDPÉöì Êqï
2) Calcium phosphate 2) PÁ°ëAiÀÄA ¥sÁ¸ÉáÃmï
3) Cuprous compound 3) PÀÄå¥À¸
æ ï ¸ÀAAiÀÄÄPÀÛ
4) Hydrofluoric acid 4) ºÉÊqÉÆÃæ ¥sÇÉ ÃèjPï DªÀÄè
20) Consider the following statements and select 20. F PÉ¼V À £À ºÉÃ½PÉU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß ¥ÀjUÀt¹Â ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ
Statement A : Compounds containing oxygen ºÉÃ½PÉ A : DªÀÄd è £ÀPª
À £
À ÄÀ ß ºÉÆA¢gÀÄªÀ ¸ÀAAiÀÄÄPÀU
Û ¼
À ÄÀ
are water attracting d¯ÁPÀµð À PÀU¼
À ÄÀ
Statement B : Emery paper is a compound ºÉÃ½PÉ B : GdÄÓ PÁUÀzU À ¼À ÄÀ DªÀÄd
è £ÀPª
À £
À ÄÀ ß ºÉZÁÑV
containing more oxygen ºÉÆA¢gÀÄªÀ ¸ÀAAiÀÄÄPÀÛU¼À ÁVªÉ.
Statement C : Emery paper dipped in water will ºÉÃ½PÉ C : ¤Ãj£À°è C¢Ý ºÉÆgÀUÉvÉUÉzÀ GdÄÓ
have no traces of water after removing from water PÁUÀzz
À °
À è ¤Ãj£ÁA±À PÉÆAZÀªÇÀ G½AiÀÄÄªÀÅ¢®è
1. A & B are true and C is false 1) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B ¸Àj ºÁUÀÆ C vÀ¥ÄÀ à
2. A & B are true and C is also true 2) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B ¸Àj ºÁUÀÆ C ¸ÀºÀ ¸Àj
3. A & C are true and B is false 3) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C ¸Àj ºÁUÀÆ B vÀ¥ÄÀ à
4. B & C are true and A is false 4) B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C ¸Àj ºÁUÀÆ A vÀ¥ÄÀ à
20
21. Carborundum is formed in the electric 21. «zÀÄåvï PÀÄ®ÄªÉÄAiÀÄ°è PÁ¨ÉÆÃðgÀAqÀªiÀ ï£À vÀAiÀiÁjPÉ
furnace when DUÀ¨ÃÉ PÁzÀgÉ
1. Excess coke is heated with Silica 1) ¹°PÁªÀ£ÄÀ ß ºÉa£
Ñ À ¥Àª
æ iÀ ÁtzÀ PÉÆÃPï£ÉÆA¢UÉ
2. Equal amount of coke is heated with sand PÁ¬Ä¸À¨ÃÉ PÀÄ.
3. Excess Silica is heated with coke 2) ªÀÄtÚ£ÄÀ ß ¸ÀªiÀ Á£À ¥Àª
æ iÀ ÁtzÀ PÉÆÃPï£ÉÆA¢UÉ
PÁ¬Ä¸À¨ÃÉ PÀÄ.
4. Excess coke is heated with excess sand
3) PÉÆÃPï C£ÀÄß ºÉa£
Ñ À ¥Àª
æ iÀ ÁtzÀ ¹°PÁzÉÆA¢UÉ
4) ªÀÄtÚ£ÄÀ ß ºÉa£Ñ À ¥Àª
æ iÀ ÁtzÀ PÉÆÃPïzÉÆA¢UÉ
22) Consider the following assertion and reason 22. PÉ¼U
À É PÉÆnÖgÄÀ ªÀ ¥Àw
æ ¥ÁzÀ£É ºÁUÀÆ CzÀgÀ PÁgÀtªÀ£ÄÀ ß
and select the correct alternative ¥ÀjUÀt¹Â ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß Dj¹.
Assertion (A) : Wax paper is made moisture æ ¥ÁzÀ£É (A) : PÁUÀzÀªÀ£ÀÄß gÀAzsÀg
¥Àw æ À»vÀªÀ£ÁßV
proof through the application of wax that makes ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀ ªÉÄÃtzÀ ¯ÉÃ¥À£z À À ªÀÄÆ®PÀ ªÉÄÃtzÀ
paper nonporous) PÁUÀzªÀ £
À ÄÀ ß DzÀð
æ vÉg»
À vÀª£
À ÁßV ªÀiÁqÀÄvÁÛg.É
Reason (R) : Paraffin paper cannot be used to PÁgÀt (R) : L¸ïQæÃªÀiï ¸ÀAgÀPu
ëÀ A
É iÀÄ°è ¥ÁågÁ¦ü£ï
store ice creams PÁUÀzª
À £
À ÄÀ ß §¼À¸¯
À ÁUÀzÄÀ
1. A & R are true 1) A ¸Àj ºÁUÀÆ R ¸Àj
2. A is true & R is false 2) A ¸Àj ºÁUÀÆ R vÀ¥ÄÀ à
3. A & R are false 3) A vÀ¥ÄÀ à ºÁUÀÆ R ¸ÀºÀ vÀ¥ÄÀ à
4. A is false & R is true 4) A vÀ¥ÄÀ à ºÁUÀÆ R ¸Àj
23) The organic liquid added with small piece of 23. ¸ÉÆÃrAiÀÄA ¯ÉÆÃºÀzÀ aPÀÌ vÀÄAr£ÉÆA¢UÉ ºÉÊqÉÆÃæ d£ï
sodium metal that produces the bubbles of C¤®zÀ UÀÄ¼ÉîU¼À £
À ÄÀ ß GvÀàwÛ ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀ ¸ÁªÀAiÀÄªÀ
hydrogen gas is zÀæªÀ
1) CH3CHO 1) CH3CHO
2) CH3COCH2 CH2 CH3 2) CH3 COCH2, CH2 CH3
3) C3H7COCH3 3) C3H7COCH3
4) C2H5OH 4) C2H5OH
24) The hydrocarbons that undergo addition 24. PÀÆqÀÄªÀ ¥ÀQæ Aæ iÉÄUÀ¼°
À è ¨sÁUÀª»
À ¸ÀÄªÀ ºÉÊqÉÆÃæ
reactions are PÁ§ð£ïUÀ¼ÄÀ
1) C3H6 and C2H2 1) C3 H6 ºÁUÀÆ C2 H2
4) C3H6 and CH4 4) C3 H6 ºÁUÀÆ CH4
21
25) In the Mendeleevs Periodic table the 25. ªÉÄAqÀ°ÃªïgÀªg À À DªÀvðÀ PÉÆÃµÀPÖ zÀ °À è dªÉÄÃð¤AiÀÄA
germanium, after its discovery, is positioned zsÁvÀÄªÀÅ vÀ£ßÀ D«µÁÌgzÀ À £ÀAvÀg,À ¥ÀqzÉ ÄÀ PÉÆAqÀ ¸ÁÜ£ª
À ÅÀ
1) After Bromine 1) ¨ÉÆÃæ «Ä¤£À £ÀAvÀgÀ
2) Before Aluminium 2) C®Äå«Ä¤AiÀÄA£À ªÀÄÄ£Àß
3) After Silicon 3) ¹°PÁ£ï £ÀAvÀgÀ
4) Before Silicon 4) ¹°PÁ£ï ªÀÄÄ£Àß
26) The general formula of element oxides and 26. zsÁvÀÄ«£À DPÉìöÊqïUÀ¼ÄÀ ºÁUÀÆ zsÁvÀÄ«£À
element hydrides are matched with its ºÉÊqÁæPìöÉ ÊqïUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß CªÀÅUÀ¼À ¸ÀA§A¢üvÀ ªÀUð
À UÀ¼Æ
É A¢UÉ
corresponding groups. The correct option is ºÉÆÃ°¸À¯ÁVzÉ. ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄÄ EzÁVzÉ.
Element oxides Element hydrides zsÁvÀÄ«£À DPÉìöÊqïUÀ¼ÀÄ zsÁvÀÄ«£À ºÉÊqÁæPÉìöÊqïUÀ¼ÀÄ
a) R2 O i) RH2 a) R2 O i) RH2
b) RO3 ii) RH b) RO3 ii) RH
c) R2 O 5 iii) RH4 c) R 2O5 iii) RH4
d) RO2 iv) RH3 d) RO2 iv) RH3
1) a-i; b-ii; c-iii; d-iv 1) a-i ; b - ii; c -iii; d-iv
2) a-ii; b-i; c-iv; d-iii 2) a-ii; b-i; c-iv; d-iii
3) a-iv; b-iii; c-ii; d-i 3) a-iv; b-iii; c-ii; d-i
4) a-iii; b-iv; c-i; d-ii 4) a-iii; b-iv; c-i; d-ii
27) The correct sequential order of steps 27. ÇÀánPÀ gÀÆ¥ÀzÀ ¹°PÁ¤£À GzÀÞgu
À AÉ iÀÄ ¥ÀQæ Aæ iÉÄAiÀÄ°è
involved in the extraction of amorphous form M¼ÀUÉÆArgÀÄªÀ ºÀAvÀUÀ¼À ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ C£ÀÄPÀæªÀÄªÀÅ
of silicon is EzÁVzÉ.
a) Finely Powdered Silica and magnesium a) ZÉ£ÁßV ¥ÀÄr ªÀiÁrzÀ ¹°PÁ ºÁUÀÆ
powders should be mixed ªÉÄVßÃ¶AiÀÄA ¥ÀÄrUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß «Ä±Àt
æ ªÀiÁqÀ¨ÃÉ PÀÄ
b) It should be washed with dilute hydrofluoric b) EzÀ£ÀÄß zÀÄ§ð® ºÉÊqÉÆæÃPÉÆèÃjPï
acid DªÀÄz
è Æ
É A¢UÉ vÉÆ¼ÉAiÀÄ¨ÉÃPÀÄ.
c) It should be heated in a fire- clay crucible c) EzÀ£ÄÀ ß eÉÃr ªÀÄÆ¸ÉAiÀÄ°è PÁ¬Ä¸À¨ÃÉ PÀÄ
d) Magnesium oxide and silicon are formed d) ªÉÄVß¶AiÀÄA DPÉöì ÊqïUÀ¼ÄÀ ºÁUÀÆ ¹°PÁ£ïUÀ¼ÄÀ
gÀÆ¥ÀÄUÉÆ¼ÀÄv
î ª
ÛÀ É
e) The silica is removed
e) ¹°PÁ vÉUA
É iÀÄ®àqÄÀ vÀÛz.É
f) Magnesium oxide is dissolved
f.) ªÉÄVßÃ¶AiÀÄA DPÉöì Êqï PÀgÄÀ UÀÄvÀz
Û .É
g) The product should washed with dilute
g) zÀÄ§ð® ºÉÊqÉÆÃæ PÉÆèÃjPï DªÀÄèzÆ É A¢UÉ F
hydrochloric acid.
GvÀà£ßÀ ªÀ£ÄÀ ß vÉÆ½AiÀÄ¨ÉÃPÀÄ
1) a, c, d, g, f, b, e 1) a, c, d, g, f, b, e
2) a, g, f, d, c, e, b 2) a, g, f, d, c, e, b
3) a, e, f, b, c, d, g 3) a, e, f, b, c, d, g
4) a, b, g, c, e, f, d 4) a, b, g, c, e, f, d
22
28) The systematic relation between the order 28. ¥Àgª

À iÀ ÁtÄ zÀª
æ åÀ gÁ² ºÁUÀÆ zsÁvÀÄ«£À ®PÀëtUÀ¼À
of atomic masses and repetition of properties ¥ÀÄ£ÀªÀðvÀð£ÉUÀ¼À £ÀqÀÄ«£À PÀæªÀÄªÁzÀ ¸ÀA§AzsÀªÀÅ
of elements is first inferred from ªÉÆzÀ® ¸À® ¹QÌzÄÀ Ý.
1) Modern periodic law 1) DzsÄÀ ¤PÀ DªÀvð
À ¤AiÀÄªÀÄ
2) Mendeleevs periodic law 2) ªÉÄAqÀ°ªïìgª
À g
À À DªÀvð
À ¤AiÀÄªÀÄ
3) Dobereiners triads 3) qÉÆ¨ÉgA
É iÀÄ£Àgïì wæª½
À UÀ¼ÄÀ
4) Newlands law of octaves 4) £ÀÆå¯ÁAqïgÀªg
À À DPÉÖÃªïì ¤AiÀÄªÀÄ
29) The correct option about the following 29. ªÉÄAqÀ°Ãªïìgª À g
À À zsÁvÀÄUÀ¼À ªÀVÃðPÀgt
À PÉÌ ¸ÀA§AzsÀ
statements about Mendeleevs classification ¥ÀlÖ ºÉÃ½PÉU¼
À À ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌ
of elements is ºÉÃ½PÉ (A) : Ga, Sc, Ge UÀ¼£ À ÄÀ ß »AzÉ ©nÖgÄÀ ªÀ
Statement (A) : Ga, Sc, Ge disturbed the existing SÁ° ¸ÀÜ¼U À ¼
À °
À è ¨sw
À ð ªÀiÁrzÁUÀ C¹ÛvéÀz°À ègÄÀ ªÀ
elements when placed in the gaps left earlier. zsÁvÀÄUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß «ZÀ®£É ªÀiÁqÀ¯ÁVzÉ.
Statement (B) : Noble gases discovered later ºÉÃ½PÉ (B) : ºÉÆ¸ÀzÁV D«µÀÌj¸À¯ÁzÀ gÁeÁ¤®UÀ¼ÄÀ
could easily accommodated without disturbing the ªÀÄÆ® «£Áå¸Àª£ À ÄÀ ß «ZÀ°vÀUÆ
É ½¸ÀzÉ ¸ÀÄ®¨sª
À ÁV
original arrangement. ºÉÆA¢PÉÆArzÉ
1) A is true & B is also true 1) A ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B ¸ÀºÁ ¸Àj
2) A is true & B is false 2) A ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B vÀ¥ÄÀ à
3) A is false & B is true 3) A vÀ¥ÄÀ à ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B ¸Àj
4) A is false & B is also false 4) A vÀ¥ÄÀ à ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B ¸ÀºÁ vÀ¥ÄÀ à
30) Consider the following statements and select 30. F PÉ¼ÀV£À ºÉÃ½PÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥ÀjUÀtÂ¹ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ
the correct alternative. DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß Dj¹j.
Statement (A) : Catenation can be seen in silicon ºÉÃ½PÉ (A) : PÉl¤ÃPÀgt
À ªÀ£ÄÀ ß ¹°PÁ£ï ¸ÀAAiÀÄÄPÀU
Û ¼À °À è
compounds but not in carbon compounds. £ÉÆÃqÀ§ºÀÄzÉÃ ºÉÆgÀvÄÀ PÁ§ð£ï ¸ÀAAiÀÄÄPÀÛU¼ À °À è
Statement (B) : Silicon and Carbon compounds C®è.
both are stable due to strong covalent bonds. ºÉÃ½PÉ (B) : ¹°PÁ£ï ºÁUÀÆ PÁ§ð£ï
¸ÀAAiÀÄÄPÀÛU¼
À g
É q
À ÄÀ zsÈÀ qsª
À ÁzÀ PÉÆÃªÀ¯A
É mï
§AzsUÀ ½À AzÀ ¹Ügv À A
É iÀÄ£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢gÀÄvÀÛz.É
1) A & B are true 1) A ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B ¸ÀºÁ ¸Àj
2) A & B are false 2) A vÀ¥ÄÀ à ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B ¸ÀºÁ vÀ¥ÄÀ à
3) A is true but B is false 3) A ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B vÀ¥ÄÀ à
4) B is true but A is false 4) B ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ A vÀ¥ÄÀ à
31) An element with its atomic number shown in 31. «zÀÄå£Áä£À «£Áå¸À (J¯ÉPÁÖç¤Pï «£Áå¸À) 2,8,7 EgÀÄªÀ
brackets which is chemically similar to an zsÁvÀÄ«£ÉÆA¢UÉ gÁ¸ÁAiÀÄ¤PÀªÁV ¸ÁªÀÄåvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
element with the electronic configuration ºÉÆA¢gÀÄªÀ DªÀgt À zÀ°è ¥Àgª À iÀ ÁtÄ ¸ÀASÉåAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
2,8,7 is ¸ÀÆa¹gÀÄªÀ zsÁvÀÄªÀÅ EzÁVzÉ.
1) N (7) 1) N (7)
2) F (9) 2) F (9)
3) P (15) 3) P (15)
4) Ar (18) 4) Ar (18)
23
32) The mismatching of Nickel and cobalt with 32. ªÉÄAqÀ°ÃªïgÀªg À À zsÁvÀÄUÀ¼À ªÀVÃðPÀgt
À zÀ°,è ¤PÀÌ¯ï
its group chemical properties when arranged ºÁUÀÆ PÉÆÃ¨Á¯ïÖU¼ À £
À ÄÀ ß ¨ÉÃ¥Àðr¹zÁUÀ CªÀÅUÀ¼ÄÀ
in Mendleevs Classification of elements is vÀªÄÀ ävªÀ ÄÀ ä ªÀUð
À UÀ¼À gÁ¸ÁAiÀÄ¤PÀ ®PÀëtUÀ¼Æ É A¢UÉ
rectified by reversing its order by EgÀÄªÀ zÉÆÃµÀAiÀÄÄPÀÛ ºÉÃ½PÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸Àj¥Àr¸À®Ä CªÀÅUÀ¼À
PÀª
æ ÄÀ UÀ¼À CzÀ®Ä §zÀ®Ä ªÀiÁqÀ®Ä EgÀÄªÀ DzsÁgÀ
1) considering atomic masses. 1) ¥Àgª
À iÀ ÁtÄ«£À zÀª
æ åÀ gÁ²UÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß ¥ÀjUÀt¸
Â ÄÀ ªÀÅzÀÄ
2) increasing the atomic mass of nickel. 2) ¤PÀÌ¯ï£À ¥ÀgÀªÀiÁtÄ zÀæªÀågÁ²AiÀÄ£ÀÄß
3) decreasing the atomic mass of cobalt. ºÉa¸Ñ ÄÀ ªÀÅzÀÄ
4) considering atomic numbers 3) PÉÆÃ¨Á¯ïÖ£À ¥Àgª À iÀ ÁtÄ zÀª
æ åÀ gÁ²AiÀÄ£ÀÄß
PÀrªÉÄªÀiÁqÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ
4) ¥Àgª
À iÀ ÁtÄ ¸ÀASÉåUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß ¥ÀjUÀt¸
Â ÄÀ ªÀÅzÀÄ
33) The steps of manufacturing common Glass are 33. ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå UÁf£À vÀAiÀiÁjPÁ ºÀAvÀU¼
À ÄÀ F PÉ¼U À É CzÀ®Ä
jumbled below, followed with sequentially §zÀ¯ÁVzÀÄÝ, eÉÆÃr¹zÀ DAiÉÄÌU¼ À £À ÄÀ ß F PÉ¼U À É
arranged steps as alternatives. The correct PÉÆqÀ¯ÁVzÉ, ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌ EzÁVzÉ,
alternative is
a) Subjected to grinding a) GdÄÓ«PÉUÉ M¼À¥r
À ¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ
b) Pressed between rollers b) gÉÆÃ®gïUÀ¼À £ÀqÄÀ ªÉ MvÀÄÛªÅÀ zÀÄ
c) Passed through ascending temperature c) KjPÉ PÀª
æ ÄÀ zÀ°è EgÀÄªÀ vÁ¥ÀzÀ DªÀgt
À UÀ¼À
chambers ªÀÄÄSÁAvÀgÀ PÀ½¹ PÉÆqÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ
d) Carbondioxide escapes d) PÁ§ð£ïqÉÊDPÉìöÊqï «°Ã£ÀUÆ
É ¼ÀÄîvÛz
À É
e) Metallic compound is added e) ¯ÉÆÃºÀzÀ ¸ÀAAiÀÄÄPÀÛU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß ¨Ég¸
É ¯
À ÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ
d) Manganesedioxide is added. f) ªÀiÁåAUÀ¤Ã¸ï qÉÊDPÉìöÊqÀ£ÄÀ ß ¨Ég¸
É ¨
À ÃÉ PÀÄ
1. a e c b d 1) a e c b d
2. d f e b a 2) d f e b a
3. b d e f c 3) b d e f c
4. e a c d f 4) e a c d f
34) Consider the following statements and select 34. F PÉ¼ÀV£À ºÉÃ½PÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥ÀjUÀtÂ¹ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ
the correct alternative. DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß Dj¹j.
Statement (A) : Coal & coke are free carbons ºÉÃ½ÃPÉ (A) : PÀ°èzÝÀ ®Ä ºÁUÀÆ PÉÆÃPïUÀ¼ÄÀ ªÀÄÄPÀÛ
where as diamond & graphite are carbon PÁ§ð£ÀÎ¼ÄÀ , DzÀgÉ ªÀdæ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ UÁæ¥ÊÉs mïUÀ¼Æ
À PÁ§ð£ï
compounds ¸ÀAAiÀÄÄPÀU
Û ¼
À ÁVgÀÄvÀª
Û .É
Statement (B) : Coal burns as fuel but not ºÉÃ½PÉ (B) : PÀ°zè ÝÀ ®Ä EAzs£
À z
À A
À vÉAiÉÄÃ GjAiÀÄÄvÀz
Û É
graphite. DzÀgÉ UÁæ¥ÊÉs mï GjAiÀÄÄªÀÅ¢®è
Statement (C) : Coal and diamond both burns ºÉÃ½PÉ (C) : PÀ°èzÀÝ®Ä ºÁUÀÆ ªÀdæ EªÉgÀqÀÆ
as fuels. EAzs£
À zÀ A
À vÉ GjAiÀÄÄvÀÛª.É
1) A & C are true 1) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C ¸Àj
2) A & B are true 2) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B ¸Àj
3) B & C are false 3) B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C vÀ¥ÄÀ à
4) A & C are false 4) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C vÀ¥ÄÀ à
24
35. If the organic compound A which is a 35. ªÉÊ£ï ºÁUÀÆ ©ÃgïUÀ¼À WÀlPÀªÁVgÀÄªÀ ¸ÁªÀAiÀÄªÀ
constituent of wine and beer on heating with ¸ÀAAiÀÄÄPÀÛ A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D®Ì°Ã£ï ¥ÉÆmÁ¶AiÀÄA
alkaline potassium permanganate forms ¥ÀªiÀ ÁðAUÀ£ÃÉ mï£ÉÆA¢UÉ PÁ¬Ä¹zÁUÀ, ¤Ã° °lä¸£ ìÀ ÄÀ ß
another organic compound B that turns blue PÉ A ¥À Ä °lä¸À ì £ ÁßV §zÀ ¯ Á¬Ä¸À ® Ä ªÀ Ä vÉ Æ Û A zÀ Ä
litmus to red then ¸ÁªÀAiÀÄªÀ ¸ÀAAiÀÄÄPÀÛ BAiÀÄ£ÀÄß PÉÆqÀÄªÀÅzÁzÀgÉ CzÀÄ
1. A is Ethanol and B is Ethnoic Acid 1) A ExÀ£Á¯ï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B ExÀ£Á¬ÄPï DªÀÄè
2. A is Ethnoic Acid and B is Ethanol 2) A ExÀ£Á¬ÄPï DªÀÄè ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B ExÀ£Á¯ï
3. A is Sodium Ethanoate and B is Sodium 3) A ¸ÉÆÃrAiÀÄA ExÀ£ÃÉ mï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B
hydroxide ¸ÉÆÃrAiÀÄA ºÉÊqÁæPöìÉ Êqï
4. A is Ethyl Ethanoate and B is Ethanol 4) A ExÉÊ¯ï ExÀ£ÃÉ mï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B ExÀ£Á¯ï
36. While pizza is burning in the air, the gas 36. UÁ½AiÀÄ°è ¦eÁÓ ¸ÀÄqÀÄªÁUÀ GzÀãªªÀ ÁUÀÄªÀ C¤®ªÀ£ÄÀ ß
formed is passed through lime water that ¸ÀÄtÚzÀ ¤Ãj£À°è ºÁ¬Ä¹zÁUÀ CzÀÄ ¸ÀÄtÚzÀ ¤ÃgÀ£ÄÀ ß
turns it to F PÉ¼PÀ AÀ qÀAvÉ §zÀ¯Á¬Ä¸ÀÄvÀz
Û É
1. Milky, as the gas does not contain carbon 1) C¤®ªÀÅ PÁ§ð£ï qÀAiÀiÁPÉÊì qï£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢gÀzÀ
dioxide PÁgÀt ºÁ°£ÀAvÉ §zÀ¯ÁUÀÄvÀÛz.É
2. Curdy as the gas contains alkalae 2) C¤®ªÀÅ D®Ì°AiÀÄ£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢gÀÄªÀ PÁgÀt
3. Curdy as the gas contains oxygen ªÉÆ¸Àj£ÀAvÉ DUÀÄvÀz
Û É
4. Milky as the gas contains carbondioxide 3) C¤®ªÀÅ DªÀÄèd£ÀPª À £À ÄÀ ß ºÉÆA¢zÀ PÁgÀt
ªÉÆ¸Àj£ÀAvÉ DUÀÄvÀÛz.É
4) C¤®ªÀÅ PÁ§ð£ï qÀAiÀiÁPÉìÊqï£ÀÄß
ºÉÆA¢gÀÄªÀÅzÀjAzÀ ºÁ°£ÀAvÉ DUÀÄvÀÛz.É
37. The false statements related to mendaleevs 37. ªÉÄAqÀ°ÃªïgÀªÀgÀ zsÁvÀÄUÀ¼À ªÀVÃðPÀgÀtPÉÌ
classification of elements are ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ vÀ¥ÄÀ à ºÉÃ½PÉU¼
À ÄÀ
Statement (A) : The position of isotopes could ºÉÃ½PÉ (A) : L¸ÉÆÃmÉÆÃ¥ïìU¼
À À ¸ÁÜ£U
À ¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß «ªÀj¸À®Ä
be explained ¸ÁzsåÀ ªÁ¬ÄvÀÄ
Statement (B) : Wrong order of atomic masses ºÉÃ½PÉ (B) : PÉ®ªÀÅ zsÁvÀÄUÀ¼À ¥Àgª À iÀ ÁtÄ zÀª
æ åÀ gÁ²UÀ¼À
of some elements could not be explained. vÀ¥ÄÀ à PÀª
æ ÄÀ UÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß «ªÀj¸À®Ä ¸ÁzsåÀ ªÁUÀ°®è
Statement (C) : A correct position could not be ºÉÃ½PÉ (C) : DªÀvð À PÉÆÃµÀÖPz
À °
À èUÉ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ
assigned to hydrogen in the perialic table ¸ÁÜ£ª
À £
À ÄÀ ß PÉÆqÀ¯ÁUÀ°®è.
Statement (D) : The existance of some elements ºÉÃ½PÉ (D) : D«µÁÌgU À Æ
É ¼ÀîzÀ PÉ®ªÀÅ zsÁvÀÄUÀ¼À
that have not been discovered were not predicted C¹ÜvéÀª£
À ÄÀ ß H»¸À¯ÁUÀ°®è
1. B and C 1) B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C
2. A and D 2) AªÀÄvÀÄÛ D
3. A and C 3) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C
4. B and D 4) B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D
25
38. The reason for the extremely large number 38. ¹PÁÌ¥m
À ÖÉ C¢üPÀ ¸ÀASÉåAiÀÄ°è£À ¸ÁªÀAiÀÄªÀ ¸ÀAAiÀÄÄPÀU
Û ½
À UÉ
of organic compounds is due to EgÀÄªÀ PÁgÀt
1. Catenation but not tetravalency 1) PÉl¤ÃPÀgt
À DzÀgÉ ZÀvÄÀ ªÉÃð¯É¤ì C®è
2. Tetravalency but not catenation 2) ZÀvÄÀ ªÉÃð¯É¤ì DzÀgÉ PÉl¤ÃPÀgt
À C®è
3. Catenation and tetravalency 3) ZÀvÄÀ ªÉÃð¯É¤ì ºÁUÀÆ PÉl¤ÃPÀgt
À JgÀqÆ
À
4. Neither catenation nor tetravalency 4) ZÀvÄÀ ªÉÃð¯É¤A
ì iÀÄÆ C®è ºÁUÀÆ PÉl¤ÃPÀgt
À ªÀÇ
C®è
39. The formula of ethanol is not 39. ExÀ£Á¯ï£À ¸ÀÆvÀª
æ ®
À z
è ÄÀ Ý
1) C2H5OH 1) C2H5OH
2) CH3CH2OH 2) CH3CH2OH
3) CH3 CH2 OH 3) CH3 CH2 OH
4) CH2 CH2 OH2 4) CH2 CH2 OH2
40. Ethanoic acid reacting with Ethanol gives 40. ExÀ£Á¯ï dvÉ ExÀ£Á¬ÄPï DªÀÄª
è ÅÀ ¥Àw
æ Qæ¬Ä¹zÁUÀ
¹UÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ
1. Ethanol 1) ExÀ£Á¯ï
2. Ethanoic acid 2) ExÀ£Á¬ÄPï DªÀÄè
3. Esters 3) F¸Àg
Ö ïì
4. Carboxylic acids 4) PÁ¨ÁðQì°Pï DªÀÄèU¼
À ÄÀ
41. Consider the following assertion and the 41. PÉ¼U
À ÄÀ ß
reason and select the correct alternative ¥ÀjUÀt¹Â ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß Dj¹.
Assertion (A) : Ethanol has no effect on any æ ¥ÁzÀ£É (A) : AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉÃ °lä¸ï zÀª
¥Àw æ z
À À ªÉÄÃ¯É
litmus solution ExÀ£Á¯ï £À ¥À¨ æ Ás ªÀ«gÀÄªÀÅ¢®è
Reason (R) : Ethanol contains hydrogen ions PÁgÀt (R) : ExÀ£Á¯ï ºÉÊqÉÆÃæ d£ï CAiÀiÁ£ÀÄUÀ¼£ À ÄÀ ß
and is a neutral compound. ºÉÆA¢gÀÄvÀÛzÉ ºÁUÀÆ vÀl¸ÀÜ ¸ÀAAiÀÄÄPÀÛªÁVgÀÄvÀÛz.É
1. A is true and R is true 1) A ¸Àj ºÁUÀÆ R ¸ÀºÀ ¸Àj
2. A is false and R is false 2) A vÀ¥ÄÀ à ºÁUÀÆ R ¸ÀºÀ vÀ¥ÄÀ à
3. A is true and R is false 3) A ¸Àj ºÁUÀÆ R vÀ¥ÄÀ à
4. A is false and R is true 4) A vÀ¥ÄÀ à ºÁUÀÆ R ¸Àj
42. Neither organic chemistry nor inorganic 42. PÉÃªÀ® ¸ÁªÀAiÀÄªÀ gÁ¸ÁAiÀÄ¤PÀ±Á¸ÀçÛ CxÀªÁ ¤gÀªAÀ iÀÄªÀ
chemistry alone studies gÁ¸ÁAiÀÄ¤PÀ ±Á¸ÀçÛ MAzÉÃ MAzÀÄ CzsåÀ AiÀÄ£À ªÀiÁqÀzÀ
«µÀAiÀÄ
1. Carbonates and carbides 1) PÁ¨ÉÆÃð£ÉÃmïì ºÁUÀÄ PÁgÉâöÊqïì
2. Oxides of carbons and hydrogen 2) PÁ§ð¤ß£À DPÉìöÊqÀÄUÀ¼ÄÀ ºÁUÀÄ ºÉÊqÉÆÃæ d£ï
carbonates PÁgÉÆâ£ÃÉ mïì
3. Hydrocarbons 3) ºÉÊqÉÆÃæ PÁ§ð£ïì
4. Hydrocarbons and hydrogen carbonates 4) ºÉÊqÉÆæÃPÁ§ð£ïì ºÁUÀÄ ºÉÊqÉÆæÃd£ï
PÁgÉÆâ£ÃÉ mïì
26
43. Carbon occuring substances and the forms 43. PÁ§ð£ï ºÉÆA¢gÀÄªÀ ªÀ¸ÄÀ ÛU¼ À ÄÀ ºÁUÀÆ CªÀÅUÀ¼À
to which they belong are matched below. The gÀÆ¥ÀU¼
À ÄÀ ºÉÆA¢¸À¯ÁVzÉ. ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌ EzÁVzÉ.
correct alternative is
Carbon occuring forms of its PÁ§ð£ï ºÉÆA¢gÀÄªÀ CªÀÅUÀ¼À
substances occurance ªÀ¸ÄÀ ÛU¼
À ÄÀ gÀÆ¥ÀU¼À ÄÀ
a. Buckminister i) carbonates a. §Qä¤¸ÀÖgï ¥sÄÀ ®èg£

É ïì i. PÁ¨ÉÆð£ÉÃmïì
fullerence b. ªÀÄgÀ ii. ¥sÁ¹¯ï EAzs£
À U
À ¼
À ÄÀ
b. Wood ii) fossil fuels c. CªÀÄÈvÀ ²¯É iii. ªÀÄÄPÀÛ ¹Üw
c. Marble iii) free state d. £ÉÊ¸ÀVðPÀ C¤® iv. ¸ÁªÀAiÀÄªÀ
d. Natural gas iv) organic ¸ÀAAiÀÄÄPÀU
Û ¼
À ÄÀ
compounds e. ¥ÉÆÃæ nÃ£ïì v. ¸ÀAAiÉÆÃUÀ ¹Üw
e. Proteins v) combined state 1) a-v ; b - iv; c -ii; d-i; e-iii;
1) a-v ; b - iv; c -ii; d-i; e-iii; 2) b-i; c-iv; d-iii; e-v, a-ii,
2) b-i; c-iv; d-iii; e-v, a-ii, 3) e-iv; d-ii; c-i; b-v; a-iii;
3) e-iv; d-ii; c-i; b-v; a-iii; 4) d-v; c-iii; b-ii; a-iv; e-i;
4) d-v; c-iii; b-ii; a-iv; e-i;
À ÄÀ ß
reason and select the correct alternative ¥ÀjUÀt¹Â , ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀDAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß Dj¹.
Assertion (A) : The arrangement of elements in æ ¥ÁzÀ£É (A) : DzsÄÀ ¤PÀ DªÀvð
¥Àw À PÉÆÃµÀÖPz À °
À è£À
modern periodic table is based on ascending order zsÁvÀÄUÀ¼À eÉÆÃqÀuÉ DgÉÆÃºÀt PÀª æ ÄÀ zÀ°è eÉÆÃr¹zÀ
of atomic numbers where in, the second period ¥ÀgªÀ iÀ ÁtÄ ¸ÀASÉåU¼À À ªÉÄÃ¯É DzsÁgÀªÁVzÀÄÝ, JgÀq£ À ÃÉ
can starts from Li and ends with Si. CªÀ¢ü Li ¬ÄAzÀ ±ÀÄgÀÄªÁV Si ºÀwÛgÀ
ªÀÄÄPÁÛAiÀÄªÁUÀÄvÀzÛ .É
Reason (R) : The breakup of elements into
different periods is based on valence electrons PÁgÀt (R) : zsÁvÀÄUÀ¼À eÉÆÃqÀuA É iÀÄ°è ¤°è¸ÄÀ «PÉ
ºÁUÀÆ ««zsÀ CªÀ¢UÀ¼À eÉÆÃqÀuÉ J¯ÉPÁÖç£ïUÀ¼À
ªÉÃ¯É¤ì ªÉÄÃ¯É DzsÁgÀªÁVgÀÄvÀÛz.É
1. A is true and R is true
1) A ¸Àj ºÁUÀÆ R ¸ÀºÀ ¸Àj
2. A is false and R is true
2) A vÀ¥ÄÀ à ºÁUÀÆ R ¸Àj
3. A is false and R is false
3) A vÀ¥ÄÀ à ºÁUÀÆ R ¸ÀºÀ vÀ¥ÄÀ à
4. A is true and R is false
4) A ¸Àj ºÁUÀÆ R vÀ¥ÄÀ à
45. As per Mendeleevs periodic table 45. ªÉÄAqÀ°Ãªïægª
À g
À À DªÀvð
À PÉÆÃµÀÖPz
À À ¥ÀPæ ÁgÀ
K : K2O :: Si : _____ K : K2O :: Si : _____
1. SiO2 1) SiO2
2. Si 2O 2) Si 2O
3. Si 2O2 3) Si 2O2
4. Si 2O3 4) Si 2O3
27
46. The Anomalies of Mendeleevs classification 46. ªÉÄAqÀ°Ãªïìgª À g À À zsÁvÀÄUÀ¼À ªÀVÃðPÀgt

À zÀ
of elements can be rectified by not ªÉÊ¥ÀjÃvÀåUÀ¼£À ÄÀ ß EzÀ£ÄÀ ß DzsÁgÀªÁVlÄÖPÆ É ¼ÀÄîªÀ
considering the following as the basis vÀAvÀª
æ £
À ÄÀ ß ¥ÀjUÀt¸ Â z
À ÃÉ EgÀÄªÀÅzÀgÀ ªÀÄÄSÁAvÀgÀ
¸ÀÄzsÁj¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ.
1. Atomic number of elements 1) zsÁvÀÄUÀ¼À ¥Àgª
À iÀ ÁtÄ ¸ÀASÉåUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß
2. Number of protons of an atom 2) ¥Àgª
À iÀ ÁtÄ«£À ¥ÉÆÃæ mÁ£ÀÄUÀ¼À ¸ÀASÉåAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
3. Number of electrons of an atom 3) ¥Àgª
À iÀ ÁtÄ«£À J¯ÉPÁÖç£ïUÀ¼À ¸ÀASÉåAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
4. Atomic masses of elements 4) zsÁvÀÄUÀ¼À ¥Àgª
À iÀ ÁtÄ«£À zÀª
æ åÀ gÁ²AiÀÄ£ÀÄß
47. The periods and the number of its elements 47. DªÀvð À PÉÆÃµÀPÖ z À À CªÀ¢Uü ¼
À ÄÀ ºÁUÀÆ CªÀÅUÀ¼À zsÁvÀÄUÀ¼À
are matched below. The correct alternative ¸ÀASÉåU¼À £
À ÄÀ ß PÉ¼UÀ É ºÉÆÃ°¸À¯ÁVzÉ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄÄ
is
a) 5th period i) 8 a) 5th period i) 8
b) 4th period ii) 32 b) 4th period ii) 32
c) 2nd period iii) 18 c) 2nd period iii) 18
d) 6th period iv) 15 d) 6th period iv) 15
1. a-iii ; b iii; c i; d-ii; 1) a-iii ; b iii; c i; d-ii;
2. a-i; b-ii; c-iii; d-iv, 2) a-i; b-ii; c-iii; d-iv,
3. a-ii; b-iii; c-iv; d-i; 3) a-ii; b-iii; c-iv; d-i;
4. a-iii; b-ii; c-iv; d-i; 4) a-iii; b-ii; c-iv; d-i;
48. Consider the following statements and select 48. F PÉ¼V À £À ºÉÃ½PÉU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß ¥ÀjUÀt¹Â ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ
Statement (A) : Elements belonging to 14th group ºÉÃ½PÉ (A) : DªÀvð À PÉÆÃµÀÖPzÀ À 14£ÉÃ ªÀUð À PÉÌ
of the periodic table are semi conductors ¸ÀA§Azs¥À l
À Ö zsÁvÀÄUÀ¼ÄÀ CgÉªÁºÀPUÀ ¼
À ÁVgÀÄvÀÛª.É
Statement (B) : C, Si, Ge, Sn belongs to 14th ºÉÃ½PÉ (B) : C, Si, Ge, Sn, UÀ¼ÄÀ 14£ÉÃ ªÀUð
À PÉÌ
group. ¸ÉÃgÀÄvÀÛª.É
1. Ge is a semiconductor but not the C 1) Ge CgÉªÁºÀPÀ DzÀgÉ C C®è
2. C is a semiconductor but not the Si 2) C CgÉªÁºÀPÀ DzÀgÉ Si C®è
3. Both Ge and Sn are semiconductors 3) Ge ºÁUÀÄ Sn JgÀqÆ
À CgÉªÁºÀPU
À ¼
À ÄÀ
4. Both C and Si are non semiconductors 4) C ºÁUÀÄ Si JgÀqÆ
À CgÉªÁºÀPU
À ¼
À ®
À è
28

À ÄÀ ß
reason. Select the correct alternative ¥ÀjUÀt¹Â ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß Dj¹.
Assertion (A) : The atomic mass is not the basis ºÉÃ½PÉ A : DzsÀÄ¤PÀ zsÁvÀÄUÀ¼À ªÀVÃðPÀgÀtzÀ°è
for the classification of elements in the modern zsÁvÀÄUÀ¼À ªÀVÃðPÀgÀtPÉÌ ¥ÀgÀªÀiÁtÄ zÀæªÀågÁ²
classification of elements DzsÁgÀª® À è.
Reason (R) : The atomic mass varies regularly PÁgÀt R : MAzÀÄ zsÁvÀÄ«¤AzÀ ªÀÄvÉÆAÛ zÀÄ zsÁvÀÄ«UÉ
from one element to the next. ¥Àgª
À iÀ ÁtÄ zÀª
æ åÀ gÁ² MAzÀÄ PÀª
æ ÄÀ zÀ°è §zÀ¯ÁUÀÄvÀz
Û .É
1. A is incorrect and R is incorrect 1) A ¸Àj C®è ºÁUÀÆ R ¸ÀºÀ ¸Àj C®è
2. A is incorrect and R is correct 2) A ¸Àj C®è ºÁUÀÆ R ¸Àj
3. A is correct and R is correct 3) A ¸Àj ºÁUÀÆ R ¸ÀºÀ ¸Àj
4. A is correct and R is incorrect 4) A ¸Àj ºÁUÀÆ R ¸Àj C®è
50. The divisions of the elements in a long form 50. DªÀvð À PÉÆÃµÀÖPz
À °
À £
è À zsÁvÀÄUÀ¼À ¨sÁUÀU¼À ÄÀ ºÁUÀÆ D
of periodic table and the elements belonging ¨sÁUÀU½À UÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀ zsÁvÀÄUÀ¼£ À ÄÀ ß PÉ¼U
À É
to each division are matched below. Select ºÉÆÃ°¸À¯ÁVzÉ, ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀDAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß Dj¹.
the correct alternative
Divisions Number of elements ¨sÁUÀU¼
À ÄÀ zsÁvÀÄUÀ¼À ¸ÀASÉå
a) Non-metals i) Rf a. C¯ÉÆÃºÀU¼
À ÄÀ i) Rf
b) Heavy metals ii) Rn b. ¨sÁgÀ ¯ÉÆÃºÀU¼
À ÄÀ ii) Rn
c) Lanthanides iii) Po c. ¯ÁåAxÀ£ÊÉ qïUÀ¼ÄÀ iii) Po
d) Light metals iv) At d. ºÀUÄÀ gÀ ¯ÉÆÃºÀU¼
À ÄÀ iv) At
e) Actinide series v) Cm e. DQÖ£ÊÉ qï ±ÉÃæ tÂ v) Cm
f) Noble gases vi) Dy f. gÁeÁ¤®UÀ¼ÄÀ vi) Dy
g) Mettaloids vii) Ra g. ªÉÄl¯Áèqïì÷ vii) Ra
1) a-vii ; b-v; c-ii; d-iii; e-iv; f-i; g-vi; 1) a-vii ; b-v; c-ii; d-iii; e-iv; f-i; g-vi;
2) a-iv; b-i; c-vi; d-vii, e-v, f-ii; g-iii, 2) a-iv; b-i; c-vi; d-vii, e-v, f-ii; g-iii,
3) a-i; b-iv; c-vii; d-vi; e-iii; f-v; g-ii; 3) a-i; b-iv; c-vii; d-vi; e-iii; f-v; g-ii;
4) a-i; b-vii; c-iv; d-iii; e-vii; f-ii, g-v; 4) a-i; b-vii; c-iv; d-iii; e-vii; f-ii, g-v;
29
CHEMISTRY- KEY ANSWERS CHEMISTRY- KEY ANSWERS

01 1 26 2
02 3 27 1
03 4 28 4
04 2 29 3
05 4 30 2
06 1 31 2
07 3 32 4
08 2 33 2
09 2 34 4
10 1 35 1
11 4 36 4
12 3 37 2
13 2 38 3
14 4 39 4
15 1 40 1
16 2 41 3
17 3 42 4
18 1 43 3
19 4 44 2
20 2 45 1
21 3 46 4
22 2 47 1
23 4 48 1
24 1 49 4
25 3 50 2
30
NTSE - SAT BIOLOGY
BIOLOGY - fÃªÀ±Á¸ÀçÛ
1. If salivary anylase is lacking in the saliva, 1. ¯Á¯ÁgÀ¸z À °

À è ¸À¯ÊÉ ªÀj CªÉÄÊ¯ÉÃ¸ï PÉÆgÀv¬ É ÄzÀÝ°è
which of the following act in the mouth cavity ¨Á¬ÄAiÀÄ M¼ÀV£À F PÉ¼V À £À AiÀiÁªÀ PÁAiÀÄðzÀ ªÉÄÃ¯É
will be affected? ¥À¨
æ Ás ªÀ ©ÃgÀÄvÀÛz?É
1) Protein breaking down into amino acids 1) ¥ÉÆæÃnÃ£ï CªÉÄÊ£ÉÆÃ Då¹qïUÀ¼ÁV
2) Starch breaking down into Maltose «WÀl£ÉAiÀiÁUÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ.
3) Fats breaking down into fatty acids and 2) ¦µÀ× ªÀiÁ¯ÉÆÖÃ¸ï DV «WÀl£ÉAiÀiÁUÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ
glycerol 3) ªÉÄÃzÀ¸ÄÀ ,ì ªÉÄÃzÁªÀÄU
è ¼
À ÄÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ Vè¸g
À Á¯ï DV
4) The digetion of proteins. «WÀl£ÉAiÀiÁUÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ
4) ¥ÉÆÃæ nÃ£ïUÀ¼À fÃtÂð¸ÀÄ«PÉ
2. Choose the incorrect statement about insulin 2. E£ï¸ÀÄ°£ï PÀÄjvÀ vÀ¥ÁàzÀ ºÉÃ½PÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß Dj¹
1) Deficiency of insulin leads to diabetes 1) E£ï¸ÀÄ°£ï PÉÆgÀvÉAiÀÄÄ ªÀÄzÀÄªÉÃºÀªÀ£ÀÄß
2) It regulates the growth and development of GAlÄªÀiÁqÀÄvÀz
Û .É
body 2) EzÀÄ ±ÀjÃgÀzÀ ¨É¼ÀªÀtÂUÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ «PÁ¸ÀªÀ£ÀÄß
3) It controls sugar level in the blood ¤AiÀÄAwæ¸ÄÀ vÀz
Û .É
4) It is produced from the pancreas 3) EzÀÄ gÀPÀÛzÀ°è£À ¸ÀPÀÌgÉAiÀÄ ªÀÄlÖªÀ£ÀÄß
ºÀvÆ
É ÃnAiÀÄ°èqÄÀ vÀz
Û .É
4) ªÉÄÃzÉÆÃfgÀPÀ¢AzÀ EzÀÄ GvÀàwÛAiÀiÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
3. Assertion (A) : The blood flows through the 3. ¥À æ w ¥ÁzÀ £ É (A) : ¯É Æ ÃªÀ Ä £Á¼À U À ½ VAvÀ ® Æ
glomerulus under great pressure than in the UÁèªÄÀ gÀÄ®¸ïUÀ¼À ªÀÄÆ®PÀ ºÀjAiÀÄÄªÀ gÀPª ÛÀ ÅÀ Cw ºÉaÑ£À
capillaries MvÀÛqz À °
À è ºÀjAiÀÄÄvÀÛz.É
Reason (R) : The efferent arteriole is ¸ÀªÄÀ xÀð£É (R) : C©üªÁ» ¸ÀÆPëÀäzª
Às ÄÀ ¤VAvÀ C¥ÀªÁ»
narrower than the afferent arteriole ¸ÀÆPëÀäzªÀs ÄÀ ¤ QjzÁVgÀÄvÀÛz.É
1) Both A and R are true and R explains 1) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÆ
À ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVªÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R
A A AiÀÄ£ÀÄß «ªÀj¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
2) Both A and R are true but R does not 2) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÆ
À ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVªÉ DzÀgÉ R
explain A A AiÀÄ£ÀÄß «ªÀj¸ÀÄªÀÅ¢®è
3) A is true and R is false 3) A ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R vÀ¥ÁàVzÉ.
4) A is false and R is truee 4) A vÀ¥ÁàVzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ.
4. After pollination, the growth of pollen tube 4. ¥ÀgÁUÀ¸àÀ±ð
À zÀ £ÀAvÀgÀ CAqÀPz À q
É U
É É ±À®PÁUÀz
æ À ªÉÄÃ°£À
on stigma towards ovule is due to the ¥ÀgÁUÀ£Á¼ÀzÀ ¨É¼ª À t
À UÂ AÉ iÀÄÄ EzÀjAzÀ GAmÁUÀÄvÀz Û .É
following 1) ¥ÀPæ Á±Á£ÀÄªÀvÀð£É
1) Phototropism 2) UÀÄgÀÄvÁé£ÄÀ ªÀvð
À £É
2) Geotropism 3) d¯Á£ÀÄªÀvÀð£É
3) Hydrotropism 4) gÁ¸ÁAiÀÄ¤PÁ£ÀÄªÀvð
À £É
4) Chemotropism
31
NTSE - SAT BIOLOGY
5. Which of the following statement/s is/are 5. ºÀÈzÀAiÀÄzÀ PÀÄjvÀ F PÉ¼ÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉÃ½PÉ/UÀ¼ÀÄ
correct about heart? ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVªÉ?
i) superior venacava brings oxygenated i) ±ÀjÃgÀzÀ ««zsÀ ¨sÁUÀU½ À AzÀ DªÀÄèd£ÀPÀ ¸À»vÀ
blood from different parts of body gÀPÛª
À £
À ÄÀ ß HzséÀð C©üzªÀ ÄÀ ¤ vÀgÄÀ vÀÛz.É
ii) pulmonary veins collect the oxygenated ii) ±Áé¸ÀPÉÆÃ±À¢AzÀ DªÀÄèd£ÀPÀ ¸À»vÀ gÀPÀÛªÀ£ÀÄß
blood from the lungs. ¥ÀÅ¥Àà¸PÀ À C©üzª
À ÄÀ ¤ ¸ÀAUÀ»
æ ¸ÀÄvÀÛz.É
iii) left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood iii) JqÀ ºÀÈvÀÄÌQë DªÀÄdè £ÀPÀ ¸À»vÀ gÀPª ÛÀ £
À ÄÀ ß zÉÃºÀzÀ
to different parts of body while right ««zsÀ ¨sÁUÀU½ À UÉ ¥ÀA¥ÀÅ ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛz.É ºÁUÉAiÉÄÃ
ventricles pump deoxygenated blood to §®ºÀÈvÀÌQë DªÀÄdè £ÀPÀ gÀ»vÀ gÀPª
ÛÀ £
À ÄÀ ß ±Áé¸PÀ ÆÉ Ã±ÀPÌÉ
lungs. ¥ÀA¥ÀÅ ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛz.É
iv) oxygenated blood enters the right iv) DªÀÄd
è £ÀPÀ ¸À»vÀ gÀPª
ÛÀ ÅÀ §® ºÀÈvÀÌtðªÀ£ÄÀ ß ¢éz¼
À À
ventricle through bicuspid valve PÀªÁlzÀ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ vÀ®Ä¥ÀÅvÀÛz.É
1) i and ii 1) i ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ii
2) ii only 2) ii ªÀiÁvÀæ
3) ii and iii 3) ii ªÀÄvÀÄÛ iii
4) iv only 4) iv ªÀiÁvÀæ
6. Germination of seed inside the fruit while it 6. ¥É Ç ÃµÀ P À ¸À ¹ UÉ E£À Æ ß CAnPÉ Æ ArgÀ Ä ªÁUÀ ¯ É Ã
is still attached to the parent plant is called ºÀtÚÂ£Æ
É ¼ÀUÉ ©ÃeÁAPÀÄgÀªÁUÀÄªÀÅzÀ£ÄÀ ß »ÃUÉ£ÄÀ ßªÀgÄÀ
1) Epigeal 1) C¢ü£®
É
2) Vivipary 2) dgÁAiÀÄÄd
3) Hypogeal 3) ¨sÆ
À UÀvÀ
4) Epicotyl 4) C¢ü©Ãdzs¼
À À
7. Examine the following statements and select 7. F PÉ¼ÀV£À ºÉÃ½PÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥Àj²Ã°¹ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ
the correct option GvÀÛgª
À £
À ÄÀ ß Dj¹.
Statement A : Amphibians exoskeleton is in ºÉ Ã ½PÉ A : G¨s À A iÀ Ä ªÁ¹UÀ ¼ À ºÉ Æ gÀ PÀ A PÁ®ªÀ Å
the form of epidermal scales. J¦qÀªÄÀ ð¯ï ºÀÄgÀÄ¥ÉU¼ À À gÀÆ¥Àz°
À èª.É
Statement B : Amphibians heart is three ºÉÃ½PÉ B : JgÀqÀÄ ºÀÈvÀÌtð ªÀÄvÀÄÛ MAzÀÄ
chambered with two auricles and one ºÀÈvÀÌQëAiÉÆA¢UÉ G¨sAÀ iÀÄªÁ¹UÀ¼À ºÀÈzÀAiÀÄzÀ°è ªÀÄÆgÀÄ
ventricle. PÉÆÃuÉU½ À ªÉ.
1) Both A and B are true 1) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B JgÀqÀÆ ¸Àj
2) Both A and B are false 2) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B JgÀqÀÆ vÀ¥ÀÄà
3) A is false but B is truee 3) A vÀ¥ÀÄà DzÀgÉ B ¸Àj
4) A is true but B is false 4) A ¸Àj DzÀgÉ B vÀ¥ÀÄà
32
NTSE - SAT BIOLOGY
8. Given below is an experimental setup to 8. MAzÀÄ fÃªÀAvÀ PÉÆÃ±Àz° À £

è À PÉ®ªÉÇAzÀÄ «zÀåªiÀ Á£Àª£ À ÄÀ ß
demonstrate a certain phenomenon in a living ¥Àz
æ ²
À ð¸À®Ä F PÉ¼UÀ É MAzÀÄ ¥ÀAæ iÉÆÃUÀzÀ ªÀåªÀ¸ÜÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
cell. Name the phenomenon being ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁVzÉ. ¥Àzæ ²
À ð¹gÀÄªÀ «zÀåªÀiÁ£Àª£ À ÄÀ ß ºÉ¸j
À ¹.
demonstrated.
Weight vÀÆPÀ
Piston ¦¸À£
Ö ï
Initial Level ¥ÁægA

À ©üPÀ ºÀAvÀ
Water ¤ÃgÀÄ
Sugar Solution ¸ÀPÌÀgÉ zÁæªt

À
1) Osmotic pressure 1) ¥ÀgÁ¸ÀgÀt MvÀÛqÀ

2) Root pressure 2) ¨ÉÃj£À MvÀÛqÀ
3) Plasmolysis 3) fÃªÀzª
Àæ Àå DPÀÄAZÀ£À
4) Imbibition 4) CAvÀB¸Àgt
À
9. Assertion (A) : Smaller the size of the animal 9. ¥Àw

æ ¥ÁzÀ£É (A) : ¥ÁætAÂ iÀÄ UÁvÀæ aPÀÌzÁzÀµÄÀ Ö ºÀÈzÀAiÀÄzÀ
faster the heart beat rate. §rvÀzÀ zÀgÀ ªÉÃUÀªÁVgÀÄvÀÛz.É
Reasons (R) : Smaller the animal, the more ¸ÀªÄÀ xÀð£É (R) : ¥ÁætÂ aPÀÌzÁzÀµÄÀ Ö, C¢üPÀ ªÉÄÃ¯ÉäÊ
it loses its body heat due to higher surface WÀ®¥s® À C£ÀÄ¥ÁvÀzÀ PÁgÀt¢AzÀ vÀ£ßÀ ±ÀjÃgÀzÀ GµÀzÚ À
volume ratio ºÉaÑ£À ¨sÁUÀª£À ÄÀ ß PÀ¼z
É ÄÀ PÉÆ¼ÀÄîvÛz
À .É
1) A is true and R explains A 1) A ¸À j AiÀ i ÁVzÉ ªÀ Ä vÀ Ä Û R A AiÀ Ä £À Ä ß
2) A is true but R doesnot explain A «ªÀj¸ÀÄvÀz
Û .É
3) A is correct and R is incorrect 2) A ¸À j AiÀ i ÁVzÉ DzÀ g É R A AiÀ Ä £À Ä ß
«ªÀj¸ÀÄªÀÅ¢®è.
4) A is incorrect and R is correct
3) A ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R vÀ¥ÁàVzÉ
4) A vÀ¥ÁàVzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ
33
NTSE - SAT BIOLOGY
10. Study the diagram below and select the 10. F PÉ ¼ À V £À avÀ æ ª À £ À Ä ß UÀ æ » ¹, ¸À j AiÀ i ÁV
correct labelling UÀÄgÀÄw¹gÀÄªÀÅzÀ£ÄÀ ß Dj¹.
B A B A
C C
D D
1) A-Afferent arteriole 1) A-C©üªÁ» ¸ÀÆPëÀäzÀª

s ÀÄ¤
B-Efferent arteriole B-C¥ÀªÁ» ¸ÀÆPëÀäzÀª
s ÀÄ¤
C-Glomerulus C-UÁèªÄÀ gÀÆ®¸ï
D-Bowmans capsule D-¨ËªÀÄ£ïì PÉÆÃ±À
2) A-Efferent arteriole 2) A-C¥ÀªÁ» ¸ÀÆPëÀäzÀª
s ÀÄ¤
B-Afferent arteriole B-C©üªÁ» ¸ÀÆPëÀäzÀª
s ÀÄ¤
C-Bowmans capsule C-¨ËªÀÄ£ïì PÉÆÃ±À
D-Glomerulus D-UÁèªÄÀ gÀÆ®¸ï
3) A-Glomerulus 3) A-UÁèªÄÀ gÀÆ®¸ï
B-Bowmans capsule B-¨ËªÀÄ£ïì PÉÆÃ±À
C-Afferent arteriole C-C©üªÁ» ¸ÀÆPëÀäzÀª
s ÀÄ¤
D-Efferent arteriole D-C¥ÀªÁ» ¸ÀÆPëÀäzÀª
s ÀÄ¤
4) A-Bowmans capsule 4) A-¨ËªÀÄ£ïì PÉÆÃ±À
B-Efferent arteriole B-C¥ÀªÁ» ¸ÀÆPëÀäzÀª
s ÀÄ¤
C-Afferent arteriole C-C©üªÁ» ¸ÀÆPëÀäzÀª
s ÀÄ¤
D-Glomerulus D-UÁèªÄÀ gÀÆ®¸ï
11. Asertion (A) : We cannot distinguish colours 11. ¥Àw
æ ¥ÁzÀ£É (A) : ZÀAzÀ£
æ À ¨É¼QÀ £À°è £ÁªÀÅ §tÚU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß
in moon light ªÀåvÁå¹ÃPÀj¸À¯ÁgÉªÅÀ
Reason (R) : Only the cones function in ¸ÀªÄÀ xÀð£É (R) : ZÀAzÀ£
æ À ¨É¼QÀ £À°è PÉÆÃ£ïUÀ¼ÄÀ ªÀiÁvÀæ
moonlight and not the rods. PÁAiÀÄð¤ªÀð»¸ÀÄvÀÛª.É DzÀgÉ gÁqïUÀ¼® À è
1) A is true and R is the correct explanation 1) A ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R A AiÀÄ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ «ªÀgu
À É
of A 2) A ¸À j DzÀ g É R A AiÀ Ä ¸À j AiÀ i ÁzÀ
2) A is true but R is not the correct «ªÀgu
À A
É iÀÄ®è
explanation of A 3) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÀÆ ¸Àj
3) Both A and R are true 4) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÆ
À vÀ¥ÄÀ à
4) Both A and R are false
34
NTSE - SAT BIOLOGY
12. The gene of haemophilia is present on X 12. »ÃªÉÆÃ¦üÃ°AiÀiÁzÀ ªÀA±ÀªÁ»UÀ¼ÄÀ X ªÀtðvÀAvÀÄ«£À
chromosome. If a haemophilic male marries ªÉÄÃ°ªÉ. »ÃªÉÆÃ¦üÃ°Pï ¥ÀÅgÀÄµÀ, DgÉÆÃUÀåªÀAvÀ
a normal female, the probability of their son ªÀÄ»¼ÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ªÀÄzÀÄªÉAiÀiÁzÀgÉ, CªÀgÀ ªÀÄUÀ
being haemophilic »ÃªÉÆÃ¦ü°Pï DUÀÄªÀ ¸ÀA¨sª À ¤
À ÃAiÀÄvÉ
1) 25% 1) 25%
2) 50% 2) 50%
3) 100% 3) 100%
4) 0% 4) 0%
13. What will happen to the body of an adult 13. ªÀAiÀÄ¸ÀÌ ªÀiÁ£Àªg
À °
À è UÀÄºÀä (spleen) ªÀ£ÄÀ ß vÉUz
É ÄÀ
human being if spleen is removed? ºÁQzÀgÉ ±ÀjÃgÀPÌÉ Ã£ÁUÀ§ºÀÄzÀÄ?
1) R.B.C. production will be reduced 1) PÉA¥ÀÅ gÀPÀÛPÀtUÀ¼À GvÀàwÛ PÀrªÉÄAiÀiÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
2) Antibody production will be less 2) ¥Àw
æ PÁAiÀÄUÀ¼À GvÀàwÛ PÀrªÉÄAiÀiÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
3) W.B.C.production will be lowered 3) ©½ gÀPÀÛPÀtUÀ¼À GvÀàwÛ PÀrªÉÄAiÀiÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
4) Filtration of dead R.B.C. will not be possible 4) ¸ÀvÀÛ PÉA¥ÀÅ gÀPÀÛ PÀtUÀ¼À ¸ÉÆÃ¸ÀÄ«PÉ ¸ÁzsÀå«®è.
14. An elderly person is suffering from 14. ªÀAiÀÄ¸ÁìzÀ ªÀåQÛAiÉÆ§âgÀÄ ¥Éæ¸ï §AiÉÆÃ¦AiÀÄ¢AzÀ
Presbyopia. Which of the following §¼À®ÄwÛzÝÁgÉ. F ¹ÜwAiÀÄ PÀÄjvÀ PÉ¼ÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ
statement/s is/are correct about this ºÉÃ½PÉU¼
À ÄÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVªÉ?
condition
A) The lens has lost elasticity and become A) ªÀÄ¸ÀÆgÀªÅÀ ¹Üw¸ÁÜ¥PÀ À ±ÀQAÛ iÀÄ£ÀÄß PÀ¼z
É ÄÀ PÉÆArzÉ
rigid. ªÀÄvÀÄÛ UÀqÄÀ ¸ÁVzÉ.
B) There is a layer formation in the eye B) PÀtÚÂ£°
À è MAzÀÄ ¥ÉÇgÉ GAmÁVzÉ.
C) This defect can be corrected by using C) F zÉÆÃµÀª£À ÄÀ ß G£ÀßvÀ ªÀÄ¸ÀÆgÀ G¥ÀAiÉÆÃV¹
convex lens. ¸Àj¥Àr¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ.
D) In this case the image of the distant D) EAvÀºÀ ¸ÀAzÀ¨sÀðUÀ¼À°è zÀÆgÀzÀ ªÀ¸ÀÄÛUÀ¼À
object is formed in front of the retina ¥Àw
æ ©A§ªÀÅ CQë¥Àl®zÀ ªÀÄÄAzÉ GAmÁUÀÄvÀz
Û .É
1) A and C 1) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C
2) C and D 2) C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D
3) Only B 3) B ªÀiÁvÀæ
4) Only D 4) D ªÀiÁvÀæ
15. The economic importance of Gambusia 15. UÁåA§Ä¹AiÀiÁzÀ DyðPÀ ¥ÁæªÄÀ ÄRåvÉ
1) Oil obtained from the liver of this is rich in 1) EzÀgÀ ¦vÀd Û £ÀPÁAUÀ¢AzÀ ¥ÀqA
É iÀÄ¯ÁUÀÄªÀ vÉÊ®
vitamin A and D «Äl«Ä£ï `J ªÀÄvÀÄÛ `r UÀ½AzÀ
2) It is used in making polishes ¸ÀªÄÀ ÈzÀÞªÁVzÉ.
3) It is used in the biological control of 2) ¥Á°µïUÀ¼À vÀAiÀiÁjPÉAiÀÄ°è EzÀ£ÄÀ ß §¼À¸ÄÀ vÁÛg.É
mosquitoes 3) ¸ÉÆ¼ÉîUÀ¼À eÉÊ«PÀ ¤AiÀÄAvÀt
æ zÀ°è EzÀ£ÀÄß
4) It is used to treat some ailments §¼À¸ÄÀ vÁÛg.É
4) PÉ®ªÀÅ PÁ¬Ä¯ÉU¼
À À aQvÉU
ì É EzÀ£ÄÀ ß §¼À¸ÄÀ vÁÛgÉ
35
NTSE - SAT BIOLOGY
16. Some frogs and toads remain buried for 16. PÉ®ªÀÅ PÀ¥Éà ªÀÄvÀÄÛ §AiÀÄ®Ä PÀ¥ÉàUÀ¼ÀÄ vÉÃªÀ¨sÀjvÀ
weeks together in damp places. Reason for ¥Àz
æ ÃÉ ±ÀU¼
À °
À è ªÁgÀU¼
À À PÁ® ºÀÆvÀÄPÉÆAqÀÄ fÃ«¸ÀÄvÀª
Û .É
this EzÀgÀ PÁgÀt
1) To escape from enemies 1) ªÉÊjUÀ½AzÀ vÀ¦à¹PÉÆ¼Àî®Ä
2) To avoid extremes of temperatue 2) vÁ¥ÀzÀ wÃªÀv
æ ÉUÀ½AzÀ vÀ¦à¹PÉÆ¼Àî®Ä
3) To catch their prey 3) vÀªÀÄä DºÁgÀªÀ£ÀÄß ¸ÀA¥Á¢¸À®Ä
4) To preserve energy 4) ±ÀQÛAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸ÀAgÀQë¸À®Ä
17. 17.
The given diagram shows a cell placed in a E°è ¤ÃrgÀÄªÀ avÀæ ¸ÁgÀªz À ð
À PÀ zÁæªt À zÀ°è EnÖgÄÀ ªÀ
concentrated solution. What would happen MAzÀÄ fÃªÀPÆ É Ã±Àª£
À ÄÀ ß vÉÆÃj¸ÀÄwÛz.É fÃªÀPÆ É Ã±Àª£
À ÄÀ ß
when the cell is taken out from the ¸ÁgÀªz
À ð
À PÀ zÁæªtÀ ¢AzÀ DZÉ vÉUz É ÄÀ vÁeÁ ¤Ãj£À°è
concentrated solution and placed in §ºÀ¼À ºÉÆvÀÄÛ ElÖgÉ K£ÁUÀ§ºÀÄzÀÄ?
freshwater for a long time?
A. The cell will recover its shape slowly A. fÃªÀPÆ É Ã±ÀªÅÀ vÀ£ßÀ DPÁgÀª£
À ÄÀ ß ¤zsÁ£ÀªÁV ¥ÀÅ£ÀB
B. The cell will shrink first ¥ÀqAÉ iÀÄÄvÀz
Û .É
C. The cell will burst eventually B. ªÉÆzÀ®Ä fÃªÀPÆ
É Ã±À ªÀÄÄzÀÄqÀÄvÀÛz.É
D. Water molecules will diffuse into the cell C. PÉÆ£ÉUÉ fÃªÀPÆ
É Ã±À MqÉAiÀÄÄvÀÛz.É
by osmosis D. C©ü¸gÀ t
À ¬
Â ÄAzÀ ¤Ãj£À PÀtUÀ¼ÄÀ fÃªÀPÆ
É Ã±ÀzÀ
Select the correct option M¼ÀUÉ «¸ÀguÀ U
É Æ
É ¼ÀÄîvÛª
À .É
¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß Dj¹.
1) A and B 1) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B
2) Only D 2) D ªÀiÁvÀæ
3) A, B and C 3) A, B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C
4) A, B, C and D 4) A, B, C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D
18. The Africans rarely suffer from obesity, high 18. D¦üPæ £
À ßÀ gÀÄ
C¢üPÀ ¨ÉÆdÄÓ gÀPÛzÀ Æ
É vÀÛqÀ CxÀªÁ
blood pressure or diabities. Reason for this qÀAiÀiÁ©n¸ï¤AzÀ §¼À®ÄªÀÅzÀÄ «gÀ¼.À EzÀgÀ PÁgÀt
1) Low intake of proteins 1) ¥ÉÆÃæ nÃ£ïUÀ¼À «ÄwAiÀiÁzÀ ¸ÉÃªÀ£É
2) High intake of refined carbohydrates 2) ¸ÀA¸ÀÌj¹zÀ PÁ¨ÉÆÃðºÉÊqÉÃæ mïUÀ¼À C¢üPÀ ¸ÉÃªÀ£É
3) Low intake of vitamins 3) «ÄwAiÀiÁzÀ «l«Ä£ï ¸ÉÃªÀ£É
4) High intake of dietary fibres 4) £ÁgÀÄ ¥ÀzÁxÀðUÀ¼À C¢üPÀ ¸ÉÃªÀ£É
36
NTSE - SAT BIOLOGY
19. Dead cells of cork contain a chemical that 19. ¤ÃgÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C¤®UÀ½UÉ vÀªÄÀ ä£ÄÀ ß C¨ÉÃzsåÀ ªÁUÀÄªÀAvÉ
makes them impervious to gases and water. ªÀiÁqÀ®Ä ¤fÃðªÀ PÉÆÃ±ÀU¼ À À ºÉÆA¢PÉ MAzÀÄ
Name the chemical gÁ¸ÁAiÀÄ¤PÀª£
À ÄÀ ß ºÉÆA¢ªÉ. gÁ¸ÁAiÀÄ¤PÀª£
À ÄÀ ß ºÉ¸j
À ¹.
1) Lignin 1) °Vß£ï
2) Suberin 2) ¸ÀÄ¨Éj£ï
3) Ethylene 3) Ey°Ã£ï
4) Sucrose 4) ¸ÀÄPÉÆÃæ ¸ï
20. 20.
The diagram shows the arrangement of cells MAzÀÄ J¼ÉAiÀÄ ºÀ¹gÀÄ ¸À¸åÀ zÀ J¯ÉAiÀÄ M¼À¨Ás UÀzÀ
inside the leaf of a young green stem of a fÃªÀPÆÉ Ã±ÀU¼ À À eÉÆÃqÀuAÉ iÀÄ£ÀÄß F avÀæ vÉÆÃj¸ÀÄvÀz Û .É
plant (No cell content are shown). Which two (fÃªÀPÆ É Ã±ÀU¼ À À CA±ÀU¼ À £
À ÄÀ ß ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁV®è). AiÀiÁªÀ
alphabets indicates the presence of JgÀqÄÀ CPëÀgU À ¼À ÄÀ PÉÆèÃgÉÆÃ¥Áè¸ïÖ£ÄÀ ß ºÉÆA¢gÀÄªÀ
chloroplasts in cells? fÃªÀPÆ É Ã±ÀU¼ À £À ÄÀ ß ¸ÀÆa¸ÀÄvÀÛª?É
2) A and D 2) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D
3) B and D 3) B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D
4) B and C 4) B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C
21. Whenever there is severe throat infection, 21. UÀAl°£À CwAiÀiÁzÀ ¸ÉÆÃAPÀÄ GAmÁzÁUÀ¯É®è
normally Malini gets ear pain too, this is ¸ÁªÀiÁ£ÀåªÁV Q«£ÉÆÃªÀÅ §gÀÄªÀÅzÀ£ÀÄß ªÀiÁ°¤
due to UÀªÄÀ ¤¸ÀÄvÁÛ¼,É EzÀgÀ PÁgÀt
1) The middle ear is connected with the throat 1) ªÀÄzsåÀ Q«AiÀÄÄ AiÀÄÄ¸ÉÃÖ ¶AiÀÄ£ï £Á¼ÀzÀ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ
region through eustachian canal. UÀAl°£À ¸ÀA¥ÀPÀð ºÉÆA¢zÉ.
2) The inner ear is filled with a fluid. 2) M¼ÀQ«AiÀÄÄ MAzÀÄ jÃwAiÀÄ zÀª
æ ¢
À AzÀ vÀÄA©zÉ
3) Auditory canal consits of hair and wax 3) PÀtð£Á¼ÀªÀÅ PÀÆzÀ®Ä ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÉÄÃtªÀ£ÀÄß
4) Auditory nerve carries pain from throat to ºÉÆA¢zÉ.
the ear. 4) ±Àª
æ Àt£ÀgÀªÀÅ UÀAl°¤AzÀ Q«UÉ £ÉÆÃªÀ£ÀÄß
vÀ®Ä¦¸ÀÄvÀzÛ .É
37
NTSE - SAT BIOLOGY
22. The technique of bringing genetic changes 22. PÉ®ªÀÅ PÁgÀPU

À ¼
À ÄÀ CxÀªÁ gÁ¸ÁAiÀÄ¤PÀU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß §¼À¹
in a plant by using certain agents or MAzÀÄ ¸À¸åÀ zÀ°è C£ÀÄªÀA²ÃAiÀÄ ªÀiÁ¥Áðl£ÀÄß ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀ
chemicals. MAzÀÄ vÀAvÀ.æ
1) Tissue culture 1) CAUÁA±À PÀÈ¶
2) Hybridization 2) ¸ÀAPÀgt
À
3) Polyploidy 3) §ºÀÄUÀÄtÂvv
À É
4) Induced mutation 4) ¥ÉÃæ gÉÃ¦vÀ GvÀàjªÀvÀð£É
23. Assertion (A) : Leaves of balsam plant wilt 23. ¥Àw
æ ¥ÁzÀ£É (A) : ªÀÄtÂÚUÉ ¤ÃgÀÄtÂ¹zÀÝgÆ
À ¨Á®ìªiÀ ï
during midday even if the soil is watered. VqÀzÀ J¯ÉU¼
À ÄÀ ªÀÄzsÁåºÀßzÀ ¸ÀªÄÀ AiÀÄzÀ°è ¸ÉÆgÀUÄÀ vÀÛª.É
Reason (R) : The rate of transpiration during ¸ÀªÀÄxÀð£É (R) : ¨ÉÃgÀÄUÀ½AzÀ ¤ÃgÀ£ÀÄß »ÃgÀÄªÀ
midday exceeds the rate of absorption of zÀgÀQÌAvÀ®Æ ¨ÁµÀà «¸Àdð£É zÀgÀªÀÅ ªÀÄzsÁåºÀßzÀ
water by the roots. ¸ÀªÄÀ AiÀÄzÀ°è ºÉZÁÑVgÀÄvÀÛz.É
1) Assertion A is true and R explains A 1) ¥Àw
æ ¥ÁzÀ£É ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R A AiÀÄ£ÀÄß
2) Assertion A is true but R does not explain «ªÀj¸ÀÄvÀz
Û .É
A 2) ¥Àw
æ ¥ÁzÀ£É ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ DzÀgÉ R A AiÀÄ£ÀÄß
3) A is true but R is false «ªÀj¸ÀÄªÀÅ¢®è.
4) A is false but R is true 3) A ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R vÀ¥ÁàVzÉ.
4) A vÀ¥ÁàVzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ.
24. 24.
Figure X shows female reproductive system avÀæ X ¹ÛçÃ ¸ÀAvÉÆÃ£ÉÆÃvÀàwÛ ªÀåªÀ¸ÜÉ AiÀÄ£ÀÄß ºÁUÀÆ
and figure Y shows, the development of a avÀæ Y MAzÀÄ ¤±ÉÃZÀ£UÀ Æ É AqÀ CAqÀPÆ É Ã±À ªÀÈ¢ÞAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
fertilized egg cell. In which labelled parts of vÉÆÃj¸ÀÄwÛz.É ¹ÛçÃ ¸ÀAvÁ£ÉÆÃvÀàwAÛ iÀÄ ¯ÉÃ§¯ï ªÀiÁrgÀÄªÀ
the female reproductive system will the stage AiÀiÁªÀ ¨sÁUÀU¼ À è ºÀAvÀ I, II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III GAmÁUÀÄvÀz
À ° Û ?É
I, II and III occur?
I II III I II III
1) S P P 1) S P P
2) S Q P 2) S Q P
3) S Q Q 3) S Q Q
4) S Q R 4) S Q R
38
NTSE - SAT BIOLOGY
25. Name of plastids found in beetroot. 25. ©ÃmïgÀÆmï£À°è PÀAqÀÄ§gÀÄªÀ ¥Áè¹qï£À ºÉ¸g
À ÄÀ
1) Leucoplasts 1) ®ÆåPÆ
É Ã¥Áè¸ïÖ
2) Carotenoids 2) PÁågÆ
É Ãn£ÁAiÀiïØ¸ï
3) Anthocyanins 3) DåAxÉÆÃ¸ÀAiÀiÁ¤£ïì
4) Chloroplast 4) PÉÆÃè gÉÆÃ¥Áè¸ïÖ
26. I II 26. I II
A. Cerebrum - Centre for A. ªÀÄºÁªÀÄ¹ÛµÌÀ - PÀ®à£É ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¨sÁªÀ£Á
imagination and PÉÃAzÀæ
emotion B. ºÉÊ¥ÉÇÃxÀ¯ÁªÀÄ¸ï - gÀPÛz
À À MvÀÛqz
À À ¤AiÀÄAvÀt
æ
B. Hypothalamus - Maintains blood C. ªÀÄzsåÀ «ÄzÀÄ¼ÀÄ - G¹gÁl ¤AiÀÄAwæ¸ÄÀ vÀz
Û É
pressure
D. C£ÀÄªÀÄ¹ÛµÌÀ - ¸ÁßAiÀÄÄUÀ¼À ZÀ®£ÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
C. Mid brain - Regulates ¤AiÀÄAwæ¸ÄÀ vÀÛzÉ ºÁUÀÆ
respiration ºÉÆAzÁtÂPÉ ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛz.É
D. Cerebellum - Controls and co- E. ¥Á£ïì - vÀ¯É ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÀwÛ£À
ordinates movement ¥ÀgÁªÀwðvÀ ZÀ®£É
of muscles
F. ªÉÄqÀÄ¯èÁ - ±ÀjÃgÀzÀ GµÀÚvA
É iÀÄ£ÀÄß
E. Pons - Reflex movement of C¨ÁèAUÉÃl ¤AiÀÄAwæ¸ÄÀ vÀz
Û .É
head and neck
F. Medulla - Regulate body
oblongata temperature
Which of these functions are correctly EªÀÅUÀ¼°
À è AiÀiÁªÀ PÁAiÀÄðUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß ¸ÀjAiÀiÁV ºÉÆA¢¸À¯ÁVzÉ.
matched?
1) B and E only 1) B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ E ªÀiÁvÀæ
2) A and D only 2) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D ªÀiÁvÀæ
3) C, D and E only 3) C, D ªÀÄvÀÄÛ E ªÀiÁvÀæ
4) C and F only 4) C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ F ªÀiÁvÀæ
27. The organization which protects the trade of 27. CAvÀgÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ ªÀÄlÖz° À è C½«Aa£À°g
è ÄÀ ªÀ ¥À¨
æ ÃÉ zsU
À ¼
À À
endangered species at international level ªÁå¥ÁgÀª£À ÄÀ ß ¸ÀAgÀQë¸ÀÄªÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜ
1) IBWI 1) IBWI
2) CITES 2) CITES
3) WPSI 3) WPSI
4) WWF 4) WWF
39
NTSE - SAT BIOLOGY
28. Which of the following statements are correct 28. ªÀzð

Às £À CAUÁA±ÀzÀ fÃªÀPÆ
É Ã±ÀU¼
À À PÀÄjvÀ F PÉ¼V
À £À
about cells of the meristematic tissue? AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉÃ½PÉU¼
À ÄÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVªÉ?
A. The cells have thcik walls A. fÃªÀPÆ
É Ã±ÀU¼
À À PÉÆÃ±À©wÛAiÀÄÄ zÀ¥àÀªÁVzÉ.
B. The cells have a large nucleus but lack B. fÃªÀPÆÉ Ã±ÀU¼À °
À è zÉÆqÀØ PÉÆÃ±À PÉÃAzÀ«
æ gÀÄvÀz
Û .É
chloroplasts DzÀgÉ PÉÆèÃgÉÆÃ¥Áè¸ïÖU½ À gÀÄªÀÅ¢®è.
C. The cells are loosely arranged with inter C. fÃªÀPÆ É Ã±ÀU¼
À ÄÀ ¸Àr®ªÁV eÉÆÃqÀuAÉ iÀiÁVzÀÄÝ
cellular spaces in between £ÀqÄÀ ªÉ CAvÀgPÀ ÆÉ Ã²ÃAiÀÄ CªÀPÁ±ÀU½
À gÀÄvÀÛª.É
D. They are found at the nodes between D. EªÀÅUÀ¼ÀÄ J¯ÉUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÁAqÀzÀ UÉtÄÚUÀ¼À
leaves and the stem ªÀÄzsåÉ PÀAqÀÄ§gÀÄvÀÛª.É
29. Trees that shed all their leaves once a year 29. ªÀµÀðPÉÆÌªÉÄä ZÀ½UÁ®zÀ ªÉÆzÀ®Ä vÀªÀÄä J¯èÁ
before winter J¯ÉU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß GzÀÄj¸ÀÄªÀ ªÀÄgÀU¼
À ÄÀ
1) Deciduous 1) ¥Àv£
À ²
À Ã®
2) Annuals 2) ªÁ¶ðPÀ
3) Perennials 3) ¸ÁªÀðPÁ°PÀ
4) Evergreen 4) ¤vÀå ºÀjzÀétð
30. Match the following 30. ºÉÆA¢¹ §gÉ¬Äj
I II I II
A. Algin i) Condiment A. D°Ó£ï i) SÁzÀå ¥ÀzÁxÀð
B. Agar ii) Purification of water B. CUÀgï ii) ¤Ãj£À ±ÀÄzÀÞvÉ
C. Porphyra iii) Iodine production C. ¥ÉÇÃ¥ÉÊðgÁ iii) CAiÉÆÃr£ï GvÁàz£
À É
D. Laminaria iv) Chocolates D. ¯Áå«Ä£ÉÃjAiÀiÁ iv) ZÁPÉÆÃ¯ÉÃmïUÀ¼ÄÀ
v) Culturing bacteria v) ¨ÁåQÖÃjAiÀiÁ ¨É¼¸
É ÄÀ ªÀ
ªÀiÁzsåÀ ªÀÄ
1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-v 1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-v
2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i 2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
3) A-iv, B-v, C-i, D-iii 3) A-iv, B-v, C-i, D-iii
4) A-v, B-i, C-iv, D-ii 4) A-v, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
40
NTSE - SAT BIOLOGY
31. P is a joint that allows movement in one 31. P JA§ QÃ®Ä MAzÉÃ ¸ÀªÄÀ vÀ®zÀ°è ªÀiÁvÀæ ZÀ®£É
plane only. This type of joint is found in our ªÀiÁqÀ®Ä C£ÀÄªÀÅ ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛz.É F jÃwAiÀÄ QÃ®Ä
body at elbow and in knee. Q is a joint allows £ÀªÄÀ ä ±ÀjÃgÀzÀ ªÉÆ¼ÀPÊÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÀÄArAiÀÄ°è PÁt¹UÀÄvÀz
Û .É
movement in all direction and more than in Q JA§ QÃ®Ä MAzÀQÌAvÀ®Æ ºÉaÑ£À ¸ÀªÄÀ vÀ®zÀ°è
one plane. This joint controls the movement ºÁUÀÆ J¯èÁ ¢QÌ£À°è ZÀ®£É ªÀiÁqÀ®Ä C£ÀÄªÀÅ
of the humerus and femur bone. ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛz.É ¨sÄÀ eÁ¹Ü ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¦üÃªÀÄgï£À ZÀ®£ÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
The P and Q in the above paragraphs are EzÀÄ ¤AiÀÄAwæ¸ÄÀ vÀÛz.É
respectively. À è£À P ªÀÄvÀÄÛ Q C£ÀÄPÀª
ªÉÄÃ°£À ¥ÁågÁUÀ¼° æ ÄÀ ªÁV
AiÀiÁªÀÅªÉAzÀgÉ
1) Hinge joint, pivot joint 1) wgÀÄUÀuÉ QÃ®Ä, ¥Àz
æ Ás £À QÃ®Ä
2) Pivot joint, ball and socket joint 2) ¥Àz
æ Ás £À QÃ®Ä, UÀÄAqÀÄUÀÄ½ QÃ®Ä
3) Gliding joint, Hinge joint (¨Á¯ï CAqï ¸ÁPÉmï)
4) Hinge joint, ball and socket joint 3) eÁgÀÄªÀ QÃ®Ä, wgÀÄUÀtÂ QÃ®Ä
4) wgÀÄUÀtÂ QÃ®Ä, UÀÄAqÀÄUÀÄ½ QÃ®Ä
(¨Á¯ï CAqï ¸ÁPÉmï)
32. Examine the following statements and select 32. F PÉ¼ÀV£À ºÉÃ½PÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥Àj²Ã°¹ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ
the correct option GvÀÛgª
À £
À ÄÀ ß Dj¹.
Statement A : When the disease breaks out ºÉÃ½PÉ A : MAzÀÄ ¸ÀÜ¼¢
À AzÀ ªÀÄvÉÆAÛ zÀÄ ¸ÀÜ¼PÀ ÌÉ PÁ¬Ä¯É
and spreads from place to place affecting ºÀgr
À ºÉZÄÀ Ñ d£ÀgÀ ªÉÄÃ¯É ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄ ©ÃgÀÄwÛzÝÀ g,É
larger number of people then it is called CzÀ£ÄÀ ß RAqÁAvÀgÀ ¦qÀÄUÀÄ J£ÀÄßªÀgÄÀ .
pandemic disease. ºÉÃ½PÉ B : ¥Àæ¥ÀAZÀzÁzÀåAvÀ ªÁå¥ÀPÀªÁV PÁ¬Ä¯É
Statement B : When the disease is widely ºÀgr
À zÀÝgÉ CzÀ£ÄÀ ß ¸ÁAPÁæ«ÄPÀ ¦qÀÄUÀÄ J£ÀÄßªÀgÄÀ .
distributed world wide, it is called epidemic
disease.
1) Both A and B are truee 1) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B JgÀqÀÆ ¸Àj
2) Both A and B are false 2) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B JgÀqÆ
À vÀ¥ÄÀ à
4) A is false but B is true 4) A vÀ¥ÀÄà DzÀgÉ B ¸Àj
33. The disease in which there is abnormal 33. ©½AiÀÄ gÀPÛÀ PÀtUÀ¼À ¸ÀASÉåAiÀÄ°è ÇÁªÀiÁ£Àå PÉÆgÀvÉ
decrease in the number of white blood cells. PÀAqÀÄ§gÀÄªÀ PÁ¬Ä¯É
1) Leucopenia 1) ®ÆåPÆ
É Ã¦Ã¤AiÀÄ
2) Haemophilia 2) »ÃªÉÆÃ¦üÃ°AiÀÄ
3) Leukemia 3) ®ÄåPÃÉ «ÄAiÀÄ
4) Anaemia 4) C¤Ã«ÄAiÀÄ
41
NTSE - SAT BIOLOGY
34. A type of cropping pattern where subsidiary 34. ªÀÄÄRå ¨É¼A

É iÉÆA¢UÉ ¸ÀºÁAiÀÄPÀ ¨É¼AÉ iÀÄ£ÀÄß ¨É¼AÉ iÀÄÄªÀ
crops are grown along with the main crops. MAzÀÄ jÃwAiÀÄ ¥s¸ À °
À £À ªÀiÁzÀj. F ¨É¼U É ¼
À ÄÀ ªÀÄÄRå
These crops are usually are of shorter ¨É¼V
É AvÀ PÀrªÉÄ CªÀ¢Aü iÀÄ°è ¨É¼AÉ iÀÄÄªÀÅªÁVzÀÄÝ, ¥Àv æ åÉ ÃPÀ
duration than the main crops and are grown ¸Á®ÄUÀ¼° À è ¨É¼¸
É ÄÀ vÁÛg.É F ªÀåªÀ¸ÜÉ AiÀÄ£ÀÄß ºÉ¸j À ¹.
in seperate rows. Name the system.
1) Crop rotation 1) ¨É¼É DªÀvÀð£É
2) Multiple cropping 2) §ºÀÄ ¨É¼É ¥ÀzÞÀ w
3) Inter cropping 3) CAvÀgÀ ¨É¼É ¥ÀzÞÀ w
4) Nor folk rotation 4) £Ágï¥sÇÉ ÃPÀ DªÀvð
À £É
35. The plants involved in the formation of fossil 35. PÀ°z
è ÝÀ®Ä ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥ÉmÆ
É Ãæ °AiÀÄA EAzs£
À U
À ¼
À À GvÁà£AÉ iÀÄ°è
fuels like coal and petroleum ¨sÁVAiÀiÁUÀÄªÀ ¸À¸åÀ UÀ¼ÄÀ
1) Lycopodium 1) ¯ÉÊPÉÆÃ¥ÉÇÃrAiÀÄA
2) Horse tail 2) ºÁ¸ïðmÉÊ¯ï
3) Adiantum 3) CrAiÀiÁAlªÀiï
4) Marsilea 4) ªÀiÁ¹Ãð°AiÀÄ
36. Given below are diagram showing different 36. MAzÀÄ CAqÁtÄ«£À ¤±ÉÃZÀ£z
À À ««zsÀ ºÀAvÀU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß
stages of fertilization of an egg. Use the F PÉ¼V À £À avÀz æ °
À è ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁVzÉ. ¥Àw æ avÀPæ Æ
À Ì ¤ÃrgÀÄªÀ
alphabets given to each diagram to show the CPëÀgU À ¼À £À ÄÀ ß §¼À¹ ¤±ÉÃZÀ£zÀ À ¥ÀQæ Aæ iÉÄAiÀÄ°è£À ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ
correct order in the process of fertilization PÀª
æ ÄÀ ªÀ£ÄÀ ß ¸ÀÆa¹.
1) B, C, D, A 1) B, C, D, A
2) C, B, D, A 2) C, B, D, A
3) A, C, B, D 3) A, C, B, D
4) D, B, C, A 4) D, B, C, A
37. The tissue responsible for the plants to 37. ¸À¸åÀ UÀ¼ÄÀ
¸ÀÄvÀÛ¼v
À É ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÁå¸Àª£
À ÄÀ ß ºÉaÑ¸®
À Ä
increase in diameter and girth PÁgÀtªÁUÀÄªÀ CAUÁA±À
1) Collenchyma 1) PÉÆÃ¯É£ïPÉÊªÀÄ
2) Lateral meristem 2) ¥Á±ÀéðªÀzð
Às £À
3) Sclerenchyma 3) ¹Ì èÃgÀAPÉÊªÀÄ
4) Apical meristem 4) vÀÄ¢ ªÀzÀð
s £À
42
NTSE - SAT BIOLOGY
38. Which of the following function is performed 38. ¤ÃrgÀÄªÀ avÀz

æ °
À è X JAzÀÄ UÀÄgÀÄw¹gÀÄªÀ ¨sÁUÀ F
by the part marked X in the given figure PÉ¼V
À £À AiÀiÁªÀ PÁAiÀÄðªÀ£ÄÀ ß £Égª
À ÃÉ j¸ÀÄvÀÛz?É
1) Secretion of chemicals 1) gÁ¸ÁAiÀÄ¤PÀU¼

À À ¸À«
æ ¸ÀÄ«PÉ
2) Synthesis of proteins 2) ¥ÉÆÃæ nÃ£ïUÀ¼À GvÁàz£
À É
3) Using oxygen to break down glucose 3) UÀÄèPÉÆÃ¸ï£ÀÄß «¨sÀf¸À®Ä DªÀÄèd£ÀPÀ §¼ÀPÉ
4) Destruction of old and weak cells. 4) ºÀ¼ÉAiÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ zÀÄ§ð® fÃªÀPÉÆÃ±ÀUÀ¼À
¤£ÁðªÀÄ
39. The bilobed gland situated infront of the neck 39. zs¤
éÀ ¥ÉnU
Ö AÉ iÀÄ PÉ¼U
À ,É PÀÄwÛUAÉ iÀÄ ªÀÄÄA¨sÁUÀz°
À è PÁt¹UÀÄªÀ
just below the laryns ¢éºÁ¯ï (¨ÉÊ¯ÉÆÃ¨ïØ) UÀAæ y
1) Thyroid 1) xÉÊgÁAiÀiïØ
2) Pituitory 2) ¦lÄålj
3) Adrenal 3) Cræ£¯
À ï
4) Islets of Langerhans 4) ¯ÁåAUÀgïºÁ£ïì£À QgÀÄ¢éÃ¥ÀUÀ¼ÀÄ
40. Study the diagram below and select the 40. F PÉ ¼ À V £À avÀ æ ª À £ À Ä ß UÀ æ » ¹, ¸À j AiÀ i ÁV
correct labelling UÀÄgÀÄw¹gÀÄªÀÅzÀ£ÄÀ ß Dj¹.
1) A-Nucleus, B- Whip, C-Lid, D-Cytoplasm 1) A-£ÀÆåQèAiÀÄ¸ï, B- ZÁn, C-ªÀÄÄZÀÑ¼À,

2) A-Lid, B-Whip, C-Cytoplasm, D-Nucleus D-¸ÉÊmÉÆÃ¥Áè¸A
À
3) A-Whip, B-Lid, C-Nucleus, D-Cytoplasm 2) A-ªÀÄÄZÀÑ¼À, B-ZÁn, C-¸ÉÊmÉÆÃ¥Áè¸ÀA,
4) A-Cytoplasm, B-Nucleus, C-Whip, D-Lid D-£ÀÆåQA
è iÀÄ¸ï
3) A-ZÁn, B-ªÀÄÄZÀÑ¼À, C-£ÀÆåQèAiÀÄ¸ï,
D-¸ÉÊmÉÆÃ¥Áè¸A
À
4) A-¸ÉÊmÉÆÃ¥Áè¸ÀA, B-£ÀÆåQèAiÀÄ¸ï, C-ZÁn,
D-ªÀÄÄZÀ¼
Ñ À
43
NTSE - SAT BIOLOGY
41. Variation combined with geographical 41. ©ü£ÀßvÉAiÀÄ eÉÆvÉUÀÆqÀÄªÀ ¨sËUÉÆÃ½PÀ

isolation may result in ¥Àv
æ åÉ ÃQÃPÀgt
À ¢AzÁV GAmÁUÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ.
1) Mutation 1) GvÀàjªÀvð
À £É
2) Speciation 2) ¥À¨
æ ÃÉs ¢PÀgt
À
3) Fossilization 3) ¥sÁ¹°ÃPÀgt
À
4) Genetic drift 4) eÉ¤nPï ræ¥ïs Ö
42. The two hormones secreted by adrenal 42. ±ÀjÃgÀ vÀÄvÀÄð ¥Àj¹ÜwAiÀÄ£ÀÄß JzÀÄj¸À®Ä vÀAiÀiÁgÀÄ
glands which regulates the rate of ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀ, ZÀAiÀiÁ¥ÀZAÀ iÀÄ QæAiÉÄAiÀÄ ªÉÃUÀª£ À ÄÀ ß ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
metabolism and the concentration of salts in gÀPz
ÛÀ °
À g
è ÄÀ ªÀ ®ªÀtUÀ¼À ¸ÁAzÀv
æ AÉ iÀÄ£ÀÄß ¤AiÀÄAwæ¸ÄÀ ªÀAvÉ
blood and prepares the body to face the ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀ Cræ£À¯ï UÀæAy ¸Àæ«¸ÀÄªÀ JgÀqÀÄ
emergency. ºÁªÉÆÃð£ÀÄUÀ¼ÄÀ .
1) Insulin and Glucagon 1) E£ï¸ÀÄ°£ï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ UÀÄèPÀUÁ£ï
2) Testosterone and Estrogen 2) mÉ¸Æ
É ÖÃ¹ÖgÁ£ï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ F¸ÉÆÖçÃd£ï
3) Cortisone and Dopamine 3) PÁnð¸ÉÆÃ£ï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ qÉÆÃ¥À«Ä£ï
4) Cortisone and Adrenaline 4) PÁnð¸ÉÆÃ£ï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ Cræ£À°£ï
43. Examine the following statements and select 43. F PÉ¼V
À £À ºÉÃ½PÉU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß ¥Àj²Ã°¹ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ
the correct option DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß Dj¹.
Statement A : Auxins help to prevent fruit ºÉÃ½PÉ A : DQì£ïUÀ¼ÄÀ ªÀÄÄAavÀªÁV ºÀtÄÚ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
and leaf drop at early stages. J¯É GzÀÄgÀÄªÀÅzÀ£ÄÀ ß vÀqU
É l
À ®
Ö Ä ¸ÀºÁAiÀÄ ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀz
Û .É
Statement B : Abscisic acid promotes seed ºÉÃ½PÉ B : D©â¹Pï DªÀÄè ©Ãd ªÉÆ¼ÉAiÀÄÄªÀÅzÀ£ÄÀ ß
germination GvÉÃÛ f¸ÀÄvÀz
Û .É
À vÀ¥ÄÀ à
4) A is false but B is true 4) A vÀ¥ÀÄà DzÀgÉ B ¸Àj
44. Assertion (A) : During cold weather we 44. ¥Àw
æ ¥ÁzÀ£É (A) : vÀtÚ£AÉ iÀÄ ºÀªÁªÀiÁ£À ¸ÀªÄÀ AiÀÄzÀ°è
secrete less sweat £ÁªÀÅ PÀrªÉÄ ¨Éªg
À ÄÀ vÉÛÃªÉ.
Reason (R) : When outside temperature is ¸ÀªÄÀ xÀð£É (R) : ºÉÆgÀV£À GµÀÚvÉ PÀrªÉÄ¬ÄzÝÁUÀ,
low, the blood supply to the skin is increased ZÀªÄÀ ðzÀ°£è À gÀP£
ÛÀ Á¼ÀU¼
À À »UÀÄÎ«PÉ¬ÄAzÀ ZÀªÄÀ ðPÉÌ gÀPz
ÛÀ À
by the dilation of blood vessels in the skin. ¸Àg§
À gÁdÄ ºÉZÁÑUÄÀ vÀz Û .É
1) Both A and R are true and R explains 1) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÆ
À ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R A AiÀÄ£ÀÄß
A «ªÀj¸ÀÄvÀz
Û .É
2) Both A and R are true and R doesnot 2) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÆ
À ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R A AiÀÄ£ÀÄß
explain A «ªÀj¸ÀÄªÀÅ¢®è
3) A in true and R is false 3) A ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R vÀ¥ÀÄà
4) A is false and R is true 4) A vÀ¥ÀÄà ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R ¸Àj
44
NTSE - SAT BIOLOGY
45. Phagocytes are found in this tissue 45. ¥sÁåUÉÆÃ¸ÉÊmïì F CAUÁA±Àz°

À è PÀAqÀÄ§gÀÄvÀÛz.É
1) Blood 1) gÀPÛÀ
2) Lymph 2) zÀÄUÀÝg¸
À À
3) Cartilage 3) ªÀÄÈzÀ¹
é Ü
4) Ligament 4) vÀAvÀÄPÀlÄÖ
46. A pure tall plant can be identified from a 46. MAzÀÄ ±ÀÄzÀÞ JvÀg
Û À VqÀª£
À ÄÀ ß «Ä±Àæ vÀ½ JvÀg
Û À VqÀ¢AzÀ
hybrid tall plant. »ÃUÉ ¥ÀvÛÉ ºÀZÑÀ§ºÀÄzÀÄ.
1) By measuring the length of plant 1) VqÀzÀ GzÀÝªÀ£ÀÄß C¼ÀvÉ ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀÅzÀjAzÀ
2) By spraying gibberline 2) f§âgï°£ï£ÀÄ ¹A¥Àr¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀjAzÀ
3) If all plants tall after self pollination 3) ¸ÀéQÃAiÀÄ ¥ÀgÁUÀ¸àÀ±ð
À zÀ £ÀAvÀgÀ J¯èÁ VqÀU¼
À ÄÀ
4) If all plants are dwarf after self pollination JvÀgÛ ª
À ÁVzÀÝgÉ
4) ¸ÀéQÃAiÀÄ ¥ÀgÁUÀ¸àÀ±ð
À zÀ £ÀAvÀgÀ J¯èÁ VqÀU¼
À ÄÀ
VqÀªØ ÁVzÀÝgÉ
47. Read the following statements and select the 47. F PÉ¼V
À £
À ÄÀ ß UÀ»
æ ¹j ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ
correct option DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß Dj¹.
Statement A : Wind pollinating flowers need ºÉÃ½PÉ A : UÁ½AiÀÄ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ ¥ÀgÁUÀ¸Àà±ÀðªÁUÀÄªÀ
to produce more quantity of pollen grains. ºÀÆUÀ¼ÄÀ ºÉa£Ñ À ¥Àª
æ iÀ ÁtzÀ°è ¥ÀgÁUÀgÃÉ tÄUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß GvÀàwÛ
Statement B : Seeds from cross pollinated ªÀiÁqÀ¨ÃÉ PÁUÀÄvÀz
Û .É
flowers produce weaker and less healthy ºÉÃ½PÉ B : ¥ÀgQÀ ÃAiÀÄ ¥ÀgÁUÀ¸àÀ±ð À ªÁzÀ ºÀÆ«¤AzÀ
plants GvÀàwAÛ iÀiÁzÀ ©ÃdUÀ¼ÄÀ §®»Ã£À ºÁUÀÆ
DgÉÆÃUÀåPÀgª À ®
À èzÀ VqÀU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß GvÀàwÛ ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛª.É
À vÀ¥ÄÀ à
3) A is false and B is true 3) A vÀ¥ÀÄà ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B ¸Àj
4) A is true and B is false 4) A ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B vÀ¥ÀÄà
48. The method of inducing early flowering in 48. ¸À¸ÀåUÀ¼À°è ªÀÄÄAavÀªÁV ºÀÆªÁV¸ÀÄ«PÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
plants ¥ÉÃæ gÉÃ¦¸ÀÄªÀ «zsÁ£À
1) Vernalization 1) CAPÀÄgÀwéÃPÀgt
À
2) Polyploidy 2) §ºÀÄUÀÄtÂvv
À É
3) Mutation 3) GvÀàjªÀvð
À £É
4) Speciation 4) ¥À¨
æ ÃÉs ¢PÀgt
À
45
NTSE - SAT BIOLOGY
49. Read the following statements and choose 49. F PÉ¼V

À £
À ÄÀ ß UÀ»
æ ¹, ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
the right option Dj¹.
A : Diatoms form a component of tooth A : qÀAiÀiÁlªÀiïUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß ºÀ®ÄèU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß ¸ÀéZÒÀ UÆ
É ½¸ÀÄªÀ
pastes ¥ÉÃ¸ïÖ£°
À è §¼À¸¯
À ÁUÀÄvÀÛz.É
B : They are used in the preparation of B : CªÀÅUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¨Éæqï£À vÀAiÀiÁjPÉAiÀÄ°è
bread G¥ÀAiÉÆÃV¸ÀÄvÁÛg.É
C : Certain diatoms are used in the C : PÉ®ªÀÅ qÀAiÀiÁlªÀiïUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß ¥Àw
æ fÃªÀPU
À ¼
À À
preparation of antibiotics vÀAiÀiÁjPÉAiÀÄ°è G¥ÀAiÉÆÃV¸ÀÄvÁÛg.É
D : Diatoms contribute to the food chain D : qÀAiÀiÁlªÀiïUÀ¼ÀÄ DºÁgÀ ¸ÀgÀ¥À½UÉ PÉÆqÀÄUÉ
¤ÃqÀÄvÀª
Û .É
2) B and C 2) B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C
3) A and D 3) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D
50. Name an animal phylum whose members are 50. «±ÉÃµÀªÁV PÀq®
À £ÉßÃ DªÁ¸À ¸ÁÜ£ª
À ÁV ºÉÆA¢gÀÄªÀ
exclusively marine in habitat ¥ÁætÂ ¸ÁªÀiÁædåzÀ ªÀA±Àª£
À ÄÀ ß ºÉ¸j
À ¹.
1) Arthropoda 1) QÃ¯ÁÎ°UÀ¼ÄÀ
2) Echinodermata 2) PÀAlPÀZ«
À ÄðUÀ¼ÄÀ
3) Coelenterata 3) PÀÄlÄPÀPt
À ªÀAvÀU¼
À ÄÀ
4) Porifera 4) ¸ÀàAdÄ ¥ÁætÂUÀ¼ÀÄ
BIOLOGY - KEY ANSWERS BIOLOGY - KEY ANSWERS BIOLOGY - KEY ANSWERS

01 2 18 4 35 2
02 2 19 2 36 4
03 1 20 3 37 2
04 4 21 1 38 3
05 3 22 4 39 1
06 2 23 1 40 2
07 3 24 2 41 2
08 1 25 3 42 4
09 1 26 2 43 3
10 2 27 2 44 3
11 2 28 3 45 2
12 4 29 1 46 3
13 4 30 3 47 4
14 1 31 4 48 1
15 3 32 2 49 3
16 2 33 1 50 2
17 4 34 3
46
NTSE - SAT HISTORY & BUSINESS STUDIES
HISTORY & BUSINESS STUDIES - EwºÁ¸À & ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ CzsåÀ AiÀÄ£À

1. Location shown on the map represents a 1. ¨sÁgÀvz À À £ÀPëÉ AiÀÄ°è vÉÆÃj¸À¯ÁzÀ ¥sAæÉ ZÀgÀ ªÁå¥ÁgÀ
French settlement in India It is/was PÉÃAzÀæ
1) Chandranagore 1) ZÀAzÀ£
æ ÁUÉÆÃgï
2) Mahe 2) ªÀiÁºÉ
3) Pondicherry 3) ¥ÁArZÉj
4) Yanam 4) AiÀiÁ£ÀA
2. Place located on the map of India was a Dutch 2. ¨sÁgÀvz
À À £ÀPëÉ AiÀÄ°è UÀÄgÀÄw¸À¯ÁzÀ qÀZï ªÁå¥ÁgÀ PÉÃAzÀæ
settlement in India. it is
1) Machilipatanam 1) ªÀÄZÀ°Ã¥ÀltÖ
2) Pulicat 2) ¥ÀÅ°PÁmõï
3) Chandranagore 3) ZÀAzÀ£
æ ÁUÉÆÃgï
4) Mahe 4) ªÀiÁºÉ
3. Defeat of Indian rulers by the English in the 3. ¥Áè¹ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ §PÁìgï PÀz£
À UÀ ¼
À °
À è ¨sÁgÀwÃAiÀÄ gÁdgÀÄ
battles of plassey and Buxar was the result EAVèÃµÀjAzÀ ¸ÉÆÃ°¸Ààq® À Ä PÁgÀt
of
1) Fall of Moghul empire 1) ªÉÆWÀ¯ï ¸ÁªÀiÁædåzÀ ¥ÀvÀ£À
2) Industrial revolution in England 2) EAUÉèAr£À PÉÊUÁjPÀ PÁæAw
3) Military superiority of the British 3) EAVèµÀgÀ ¸ÉÊ£ÀåzÀ GvÀÛªÀÄ UÀÄtªÀÄlÖ
4) Rise of Marathas under Shivaji 4) ²ªÁfAiÀÄ £ÁAiÀÄPÀvÀézÀ°è ªÀÄgÁoÀgÀ GzÀAiÀÄ
47
4. Dual government of Robert clive meant, the 4. gÁ§mïð PÉÊè ªÀ£À ¢é¸PÀ ÁðgÀ JAzÀgÉ EAVèµgÀ ÄÀ ºÉÆA¢zÀÝ
English acquired C¢üPÁgÀ
1) Military rights 1) ¸ÉÊ£ÀåzÀ ºÀPÀÄÌ
2) Diwani rights 2) ¨sÀÆPÀAzÁAiÀÄ ªÀ¸ÀÆ° ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀ ºÀPÀÄÌ
3) Judicial administration 3) £ÁåAiÀiÁ¢üPÀgÀtzÀ ºÀPÀÄÌ
4) Commercial functions 4) ªÁå¥ÁgÀPÉÌ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀ PÉ®¸ÀUÀ¼ÀÄ
5. Observe the following cluster of regions 5. PÀ£ÁðlPÀ KQÃPÀgÀtPÉÌ ªÉÆzÀ®Ä EzÀÝ ¥ÀæzÉÃ±ÀUÀ¼À
existed before unification of Karnataka : UÀÄA¥À£ÄÀ ß PÉÆqÀ¯ÁVzÉ.
[Dharwad, Belgaum, North Canara & [zsÁgÀªÁqÀ, ¨É¼U
À Á«£À, GvÀg
Û À PÀ£ßÀ qÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ©eÁ¥ÀÅgÀ]
Bijapur] It belonged to EzÀÄ AiÀiÁªÀ PÉ¼V
À £À ¨sÁUÀPÌÉ ¸ÉÃjvÀÄÛ?
1) Madras presidency 1) ªÀÄzÁæ¸ï ¥ÁæAvÀåzÀ D½éPÉ
2) Bombay presidency 2) ªÀÄÄA¨ÉÊ ¥ÁæAvÀåzÀ D½éPÉ
3) Hyderabad provice 3) ºÉÊzÀgÁ¨Ázï ¥ÁæAvÀåzÀ D½éPÉ
4) Mysore state 4) ªÉÄÊ¸ÀÆgÀÄ ¥ÁæAvÀåzÀ D½éPÉ
6. Study the following conditions : 6. F PÉ¼V
À £
À ÄÀ ß UÀªÄÀ ¤¹ :
a) Tipu had to give Rs. 330 lakhs as war a) n¥ÀÄà¸ÄÀ ¯ÁÛ££ À ÄÀ ©ænÃµÀjUÉ 330 ®PëÀ gÀÆ.UÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß
expenses AiÀÄÄzÀÞ £ÀµÖÀ ¥ÀjºÁgÀªÁV PÉÆqÀ¨ÃÉ PÁVvÀÄ.Û
b) Two of his sons were to be sent as b) F ªÉÆvÀÛª£ À ÄÀ ß ¥ÁªÀw¸ÀÄªÀªg À UÉ É vÀ£ßÀ E§âgÄÀ
hostages till payment was made. ªÀÄPÀÌ¼£
À ÄÀ ß MvÉAÛ iÀiÁ¼ÀÄUÀ¼ÁV PÀ¼ÄÀ »¸À¨ÃÉ PÁVvÀÄ.Û
Which of the following is connected with F PÉ¼V À £À AiÀiÁªÀ WÀl£ÉAiÀÄÄ ªÉÄÃ¯É ºÉÃ½zÀ
them? ¤AiÀÄªÀÄUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀÄzÁVvÀÄÛ?
1) Tipus refusal towards the subsidiary 1) ¸ÀºÁAiÀÄPÀ ¸ÉÊ£Àå ¥ÀzÀÞwAiÀÄ£ÀÄß n¥ÀÄà
alliance ¤gÁPÀj¹zÀÄzÀÄ
2) Treaty of Madras 2) ªÀÄzÁæ¸ï M¥ÀàAzÀ
3) Treaty of Srirangapatna of 1799 3) 1799gÀ ²æÃgÀAUÀ¥ÀlÖtzÀ M¥ÀàAzÀ
4) Treaty of Srirangapatna of 1792 4) 1792gÀ ²æÃgÀAUÀÄ¥ÀlÖtzÀ M¥ÀàAzÀ
7. Arrange the following in chronological order 7. F PÉ¼V
À £À WÀl£ÉU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß PÁ¯Á£ÀÄPÀª
æ ÄÀ zÀ°è eÉÆÃr¹
a) Revolt of Bedas of Halagali a) ºÀ®UÀ°AiÀÄ ¨ÉÃqÀgÀ zÀAUÉ
b) Ist Anglo-Sikh war b) MAzÉ£ÃÉ DAUÉÆÃè -¹Sï AiÀÄÄzÀÞ
c) Defeat of Hyderali by Sir Iyre coote c) ºÉ Ê zÀ g Á°AiÀ Ä Ä ¸À g ï LgïPÀ Æ mï¤AzÀ
d) End of Peshwa rule ¸ÉÆÃ°¸Àànz Ö ÄÀ Ý.
d) ¥ÉÃ±ÉéAiÀÄ DqÀ½vÀ PÉÆ£ÉUÆ
É ArzÀÄÝ
1) b, c, d, a 1) b, c, d, a
2) a, d, c, b 2) a, d, c, b
3) c, d, b, a 3) c, d, b, a
4) d, a, b,c 4) d, a, b,c
48
8. The British were greatly impressed by war 8. ©ænµÀgÄÀ , n¥ÀÄà¸ÄÀ ¯ÁÛ££

À ÄÀ G¥ÀAiÉÆÃV¹zÀ MAzÀÄ AiÀÄÄzÀÞ
weapon used by Tipu Sultan. ¸ÁªÀÄVæ¬ÄAzÀ, vÀÄA¨Á ¥À¨ æ Ás «vÀgÁVzÀÝgÄÀ .
They/It was/were CzÀÄ/CªÀÅ
1) Rockets - Missiles 1) gÁPÉmïUÀ¼ÄÀ -Që¥t
À U
Â ¼
À ÄÀ
2) Cartridges 2) vÀÄ¥ÁQUÀ¼ÄÀ
3) Bullets and guns 3) UÀÄAqÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ §AzÀÆPÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ
4) Gun powder 4) ªÀÄ¢Ý£¥
À ÅÀ r
9. a) Indian view of passage of time : Cyclic 9. a) ¨sÁgÀwÃAiÀÄ PÁ®zÀ ªÀiÁzÀj : ZÀPÁæväÀ PÀ
b) Western view of passage of time : b) ¥Á²ÑªiÀ ÁvÀågÀ PÁ®zÀ ªÀiÁzÀj : ¸Àg¼
À À gÉÃSÁvÀäPÀ
Linear ªÉÄÃ¯É PÉÆnÖgÄÀ ªÀ AiÀiÁªÀ eÉÆÃr/UÀ¼ÄÀ
Which of the above pair/s is/are correctly ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ/ªÉ?
matched?
1) Both a & b are correct 1) a ªÀÄvÀÄÛ b JgÀqÆ
À ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVªÉ
2) Only b is correct 2) b ªÀiÁvÀæ ¸Àj
3) Only a is correct 3) a ªÀiÁvÀæ ¸Àj
4) Neither a nor b is correct 4) a CxÀªÁ b AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁV®è
10. Match the following 10. ºÉÆA¢¹ §gÉ¬Äj.

A B A B
a) Pits India Act i) Federal structure a) ¦mïì EArAiÀiÁ ±Á¸À£À i) ¸ÀAAiÀÄÄPÀÛ gÁdå
b) Minto-Morely ii) Board of control b) «ÄAmÉÆÃ-ªÀiÁ¯Éð ii) ¤AiÀÄAvÀt

æ ªÀÄAqÀ½
reforms ¸ÀÄzsÁgÀuÉ
c) The regulating iii) Competitive c) gÉUÀÄå¯ÉÃnAUï iii) ¸ÀàzÁs ðvÀäPÀ ¥ÀjÃPÉë
Act exams ±Á¸À£À
d) The Government iv) Communal d) 1935gÀ ¨sÁgÀvÀ iv) ªÀÄwÃAiÀÄ ZÀÄ£ÁªÀuÁ
of India Act of electorates ¸ÀPÁðgÀzÀ ±Á¸À£À PÉëÃvÀU
æ ¼
À ÄÀ
1935 v) ¸ÀªÇ
É ÃðZÀÒ £ÁåAiÀiÁ®AiÀÄ
v) the Supreme
court
1) a-iii, b-iv, c-v, d-i 1) a-iii, b-iv, c-v, d-i
2) a-iv, b-v, c-i, d-ii 2) a-iv, b-v, c-i, d-ii
3) a-ii, b-iv, c-v, d-i 3) a-ii, b-iv, c-v, d-i
4) a-v, b-ii, c-iv, d-i 4) a-v, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
11. Buying goods from Indians and selling them 11. ¨sÁgÀvz
À °
À è ¸ÀgPÀ ÄÀ UÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß RjÃ¢¹ AiÀÄÆgÉÆÃ¦£À
for profit in European countries was called zÉÃ±ÀU¼ À °
À è ¯Á¨sPÀ ÁÌV ªÀiÁgÀÄªÀÅzÀ£ÄÀ ß »ÃUÉAzÀÄ
PÀgAÉ iÀÄÄwÛzÝÀ gÄÀ .
1) Trade capitalism 1) ªÁå¥Áj §AqÀªÁ¼À ±Á»vÀé
2) Imperialism 2) ªÀ¸º
À v
À ÄÀ ±Á»vÀé
3) Industrial capitalism 3) PÉÊUÁjPÁ PÁæAw
4) Modernisation 4) DzsÄÀ ¤QÃPÀgt
À
49
12. Which of the following pair/s is/are correctly 12. F PÉ¼V

À £À AiÀiÁªÀ eÉÆÃr/UÀ¼ÄÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁV
matched? ºÉÆA¢¸À®ànªÖ ?É
a) Rajaram Mohan Roy : Modern science a) gÁeÁgÁA ªÉÆÃºÀ£ïgÁAiÀiï : DzsÄÀ ¤PÀ «eÕÁ£À
and English education ªÀÄvÀÄÛ DAUÀè «zÁå¨sÁå¸À
b) Dayananda Saraswathi : Campaign b) zÀAiÀiÁ£ÀAzÀ ¸Àg¸À éÀw : ±ÀÆzÀg
æ À UÀÄ¯ÁªÀÄVj0iÀÄ
against slavery of Shudras «gÀÄzÀÞzÀ ZÀ¼ÄÀ ªÀ½
1) a is correct 1) a ¸Àj
2) b is correct 2) b¸Àj
3) Both a & b are correct 3) a ªÀÄvÀÄÛ b JgÀqÀÆ ¸Àj
4) Neither a nor b is correct 4) a ªÀÄvÀÄÛ b JgÀqÆ
À vÀ¥ÄÀ à
13. The Shuddhi Movement was aimed at 13. ±ÀÄ¢Þ ZÀ¼ÀÄªÀ½AiÀÄÄ F PÉ¼ÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ CA±ÀªÀ£ÀÄß
a) bringing the converted Hindus back to the UÀÄjAiÀiÁV ºÉÆA¢vÀÄ?Û
folds of Hinduism a) ªÀÄvÁAvÀgU À Æ
É AqÀ »AzÀÆUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß ªÀÄvÉÛ »AzÀÆ
b) teaching vedic literature to converted zsÀªÀÄðPÉÌ vÀgÀ®Ä
christians. b) ªÀÄvÁAvÀgÀUÉÆAqÀ Qæ²ÑAiÀÄ£ÀßjUÉ ªÉÊ¢PÀ
c) eradication of untouchability ¸Á»vÀåªÀ£ÀÄß ¨ÉÆÃ¢ü¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ
d) spreading Hinduism outside India c) ÇÀàÈ±ÀåvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¤ªÁj¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ.
d) ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ ºÉÆgÀUÀqÉ »AzÀÆzsÀªÀÄðªÀ£ÀÄß
ºÀgq
À ÄÀ ªÀÅzÀÄ.
14. Study the following statements about English 14. DAUÀè «zÁå¨sÁå¸À ¥ÀzÞÀ wUÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ F PÉ¼V
À £À
education : ºÉÃ½PÉU¼
À £
a) Western literature and science were a) ¥Á²ÑªiÀ ÁvÀå ¸Á»vÀå ªÀÄvÀÄÛ «eÕÁ£ÀU¼ À £
À ÄÀ ß ±Á¯Á
taught in schools & colleges. PÁ¯ÉÃdÄUÀ¼° À è ¨ÉÆÃ¢ü¸¯
À ÁUÀÄwÛvÄÀ Û.
b) Sanskrit and Persian learning was b) ¸ÀA¸ÀÌøvÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥À²ðAiÀÄ£ï «zÁå¨sÁå¸Àª£
À Æ
À ß
equally encouraged by the British ¸ÀªiÀ Á£ÀªÁV ©ænµÀgÄÀ GvÉÃÛ f¹zÀgÄÀ .
c) English educated Indians were inspired c) DAUÀè «zÁå¨sÁå¸Àª£ À ÄÀ ß ¥Àqz
É À «zÁéA¸ÀgÄÀ
by nationalist ideas of the west. ¥Á²ÑªÀiÁvÀågÀ gÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ «ZÁgÀUÀ½AzÀ
d) The objective of the New Education ¸ÀÆáwðUÉÆArzÀÝgÄÀ .
system was to promote freedom d) F ºÉÆ¸À «zÁå¨sÁå¸À ¥ÀzÞÀwAiÀÄ GzÝÃÉ ±À ¸ÁévAÀ vÀåæ
struggle. ZÀ¼ÄÀ ªÀ½AiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¥ÉÆÃæ vÁì»¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ.
Which of the above mentioned F ªÉÄÃ°£À ºÉÃ½PÉU¼
À °
À è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ¸Àj?
statements are correct ?
1) a & c only 1) a ªÀÄvÀÄÛ c ªÀiÁvÀæ
2) b & d only 2) b ªÀÄvÀÄÛ d ªÀiÁvÀæ
3) a & b only 3) a ªÀÄvÀÄÛ b ªÀiÁvÀæ
4) c & d only 4) c ªÀÄvÀÄÛ d ªÀiÁvÀæ
50
15. The following is the list of Native states in 15. 1857gÀ ªÀÄÄAZÉ EzÀÝ ¨sÁgÀvz
À À ¸ÀÜ½ÃAiÀÄ gÁdåUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß
India before 1857. Which of the following F PÉ¼U
À É PÉÆnÖzÉ : EªÀÅUÀ¼°
À è AiÀiÁªÀ gÁdåUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß
were annexed to the company by Dalhousie. qÁ¯ïºË¹ PÀA¥É¤ gÁdåPÉÌ ¸ÉÃj¹PÉÆAqÀ£ÄÀ .
a) Rohilkhand b) Hyderabad a) gÉÆÃ»¯ïRAqï b) ºÉÊzÀgÁ¨Ázï
c) Satara d) Jhansi c) ¸ÀvÁgÁ d) gÀhiÁ¤ì
e) Mysore f) Nagpur e) ªÉÄÊ¸ÀÆgÀÄ f) £ÁUÀ¥ÅÀ gÀ
g) Jaipur h) Udaipur g) eÉÊ¥ÀÅgÀ h) GzÀAiÀÄ¥ÀÅgÀ
1) a, c, d, g, h only 1) a, c, d, g, h ªÀiÁvÀæ
2) b, d, f, c, g only 2) b, d, f, c, g ªÀiÁvÀæ
3) c, e, g, b, a only 3) c, e, g, b, a ªÀiÁvÀæ
4) c, d, f, g, h only 4) c, d, f, g, h ªÀiÁvÀæ
16. Assertion (A) : The Hindu sepoys were 16. ¥Àw
æ ¥ÁzÀ£É (A) : ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ¸ÉÃªÁ £ÉÃªÀÄPÁw ±Á¸À£¢
À AzÀ
greatly upset over passing of the General »AzÀÆ ¸ÉÊ¤PÀgÄÀ §ºÀ¼À ÇÀªiÀ ÁzsÁ£ÀUÆ
É ArzÀÝgÄÀ .
Service Recruitment Act. ¸ÀªÄÀ xÀð£É (R) : ©ænµï ¸ÀPÁðgÀªÅÀ ¨sÁgÀwÃAiÀÄ ¸ÉÊ¤PÀg£
À ÄÀ ß
Reason (R) : The British government would G£ÀßvÀ ¥Àz« À UÀ½UÉ §rÛPÆÉ qÀÄwÛg°À ®è.
not promote Indian sepoys to high ranks. 1) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÀÆ ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R A £À
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ «ªÀgu
À A
É iÀiÁVzÉ.
correct explanation of A 2) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÆ
À ¸Àj DzÀgÉ R A £À
2) Both A and R are correct but R is not ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ «ªÀgu
À A
É iÀiÁV®è
the correct explanation of A 3) A ¸Àj R vÀ¥ÄÀ à
3) A is correct but R is incorrect 4) A vÀ¥ÄÀ à R ¸Àj
4) A is incorrect but R is correct.
17. Assertion (A) : The British annexation of 17. ¥Àw
æ ¥ÁzÀ£É (A) : CªÀzïs ¥ÁæAvÀåªÀ£ÄÀ ß PÀA¥É¤ ¸ÀPÁðgÀPÌÉ
oudh was an important cause of war of 1857. ¸ÉÃj¹zÀÄzÀÄ 1857gÀ AiÀÄÄzÀÞPÌÉ ªÀÄÄRå PÁgÀt.
Reason (R) : nearly 1/3rd of the British Indian ¸ÀªÄÀ xÀð£É (R) : ¸ÀÄªÀiÁgÀÄ 1/3 £ÉÃ gÀµÄÀ Ö ©ænµï ¸ÉÊ£ÀåzÀ°è
army was of sepoys from oudh and it hurt CªÀzïs £À ¸ÉÊ¤PÀgÄÀ EzÀÝgÄÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ CªÀjUÉ vÀÄA¨Á
their sentiments. ÇÀªiÀ ÁzsÁ£ÀªÁ¬ÄvÀÄ.
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the 1) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÀÆ ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R A £À
correct explanation of A ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ «ªÀgu
À A
É iÀiÁVzÉ.
2) A and R are correct, but R is not the 2) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÆ
À A
É iÀiÁV®è.
3) A is correct but R is incorrect 3) A ¸Àj R vÀ¥ÄÀ à
4) A is incorrect but R is correct 4) A vÀ¥ÄÀ à R ¸Àj
51
18. Match the following : 18. ºÉÆA¢¹ §gÉ¬Äj :

A B A B
a) Nana Saheb i) Jagdishpur a) £Á£Á¸ÁºÉÃ§ i) dUÀ¢Ã±ï¥ÀÅgÀ
b) Kunwar Singh ii) Lucknow b) PÀÄ£Àégï ¹AUï ii) ®PÉÆßÃ
c) Bahadur Shah iii) Kanpur c) §ºÀzÆ
À Ýgï µÁ iii) PÁ£ÀÄàgÀ
d) Mangal Pandey iv) Delhi d) ªÀÄAUÀ¯ï ¥ÁAqÉ iv) zÉº°
À
v) Barrackpur v) ¨ÁgÀPï¥ÀÅgÀ
1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-v 2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-v
4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-v 4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-v
19. Study the following sentences : 19. F PÉ¼V
À £À ªÁPÀåUÀ¼£
a) This revenue policy was introduced by a) F ¨sÀÆPÀAzÁAiÀÄ ¤ÃwAiÀÄ£ÀÄß C¯ÉUÁìAqÀgï
Thomas Munroe & Alexander Reid jÃqï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ xÁªÀÄ¸ï ªÀÄ£ÉÆæ eÁjUÉ vÀAzÀgÄÀ .
b) Ownership right of lands were held by b) ¨sÆ
À MqÉv£
À z
À À ºÀPÄÀ Ì gÉÊvÀjUÉÃ G½¢vÀÄÛ.
the peasants c) ¨s À Æ «ªÁzÀ U À ¼ À £ À Ä ß £ÁåAiÀ i ÁAUÀ U À ¼ À ° è A iÉ Ä Ã
c) All the land disputes were to be settled §UÉºj À ¸À¨ÃÉ PÁVvÀÄ.Û
in the British Courts only. F PÉ¼V
À £À AiÀiÁªÀ GvÀg
Û ª
À ÅÀ ªÉÄÃ¯É ºÉÃ½zÀ ®PëÀtUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß
Which one of the following represents the ºÉÆA¢zÉ?
above mentioned features?
1) The Mahalwari system 1) ªÀÄºÀ¯Áéj ¥ÀzÀÞw
2) The Zamindari system 2) d«ÄÃ£ÁÝj ¥ÀzÞÀ w
3) The Annual leasing system 3) ªÁ¶ðPÀ UÀÄwÛUÉ ¥ÀzÀÞw
4) The Ryotwari system 4) gÉÊvÀªÁj ¥ÀzÀÞw
20. Assertion (A) : The British rule had uprooted 20. ¥Àw
æ ¥ÁzÀ£É (A) : ©ænµÀgÀ D½éPAÉ iÀÄ ¨sÁgÀwÃAiÀÄ gÉÊvÀg£
À ÄÀ ß
the peasants and impoverished them. §ÄqÀªÄÉ Ã®Ä ªÀiÁr Cw §qÀªg
À £
À ÁßV ªÀiÁrvÀÄ.Û
Reason (R) : Dadabhai Navroji wrote poverty ¸ÀªÀÄxÀð£É (R) : zÁzÁ¨sÁ¬Ä £ÀªÀgÉÆÃfAiÀÄªÀgÀÄ
and unbritish Rule in India. `¥ÁªÀnð DåAqï C£ï©ænµïgÀÆ¯ï E£ï EArAiÀiÁ
JA§ ¥ÀÅ¸ÀÛPªÀ £
À ÄÀ ß §gÉzg
À ÄÀ .
correct explanation of A. ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ «ªÀgu
À A
É iÀiÁVzÉ.
2) A and R are correct, but R doent 2) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÆ
explain A ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ «ªÀgu
À A
É iÀiÁV®è.
3) A is correct but R is incorrect 3) A ¸Àj DzÀgÉ R vÀ¥ÀÄà
4) R is correct but A is incorrect. 4) R ¸Àj DzÀgÉ A vÀ¥ÀÄà
52
21. Select the correctly matched pairs from the 21. F PÉ¼V
À £À AiÀiÁªÀ eÉÆÃr/UÀ¼ÄÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁV
following : ºÉÆA¢¸À®ànÖz/É ªÉ?
a) Poona Sarvajanik a) ¥ÀÇ£Á ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ
Sabha : M.G. Ranade ¸À¨Ás : JA.f. gÁå£ÀqÉ
b) The East India : Dadabhai b) F¸ïÖ EArAiÀiÁ : zÁzÁ¨sÁAiÀiï
Association Naoroji ÇÉÆÃ¹AiÉÄÃµÀ£ï £Àªg
À Æ
É Ãf
c) The Indian c) EArAiÀÄ£ï
Association of : W.C. Banerjee ÇÉÆÃ¹AiÉÄÃµÀ£ï : qÀ§Æè.¹. ¨Áå£Àfð
Calcutta D¥sï PÀ®àvÁÛ
d) The Servants of d) ¸Àªð
É Amïì D¥sï : ©.f. w®Pï.
India Society : B.G. Tilak. EArAiÀiÁ ¸ÉÆ¸ÉÊn
1) a & d only 1) a ªÀÄvÀÄÛ d ªÀiÁvÀæ
2) b & c only 2) b ªÀÄvÀÄÛ c ªÀiÁvÀæ
3) b, c & d only 3) b, c ªÀÄvÀÄÛ d ªÀiÁvÀæ
22. Observe the following events related to 22. d°AiÀÄ£ïªÁ¯Á¨ÁUï zÀÄgÀAvÀPÌÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ F
Jalian Walabagh tragedy. Find the incorrect PÉ¼V
À £À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉÃ½PÉU¼
À ÄÀ vÀ¥ÁàVªÉ.
statements. a) R°Ã¥sg À À ¸ÁªÀiÁædåªÀ£ÄÀ ß gÀzÄÀ ÝªiÀ ÁrzÀgÀ «gÀÄzÀÞ
a) There was a protest meeting against £Àqz
É À ¸À¨.És
abolition of caliphate b) JZÀÑjPÉ ¤ÃqÀzÉ d£Àgï qÀAiÀÄgÀ£ÄÀ vÀ£ßÀ ¸ÉÊ¤PÀjUÉ
b) General Dyer ordered his troops to fire d£ÀU¼À À ªÉÄÃ¯É UÀÄAqÀÄºÁj¸À®Ä DeÉÕ ¤ÃrzÀ£ÄÀ .
at the crowd without warning c) ¯ÁºÉÆÃj£À d£ÀgÄÀ MAzÀÄ gÀ¸AÛÉ iÀÄ°è
c) As an aftermath, citizens of Lahore vÉª½
À PÉÆAqÀÄ ºÉÆÃUÀÄªÀÅzÀ£ÄÀ ß
were made to crawl across a street. eÁjUÉÆ½¸À¯Á¬ÄvÀÄ.
d) General Dyer was punished by the Bri- d) ©ænµï ¸ÀPÁðgÀªÅÀ d£Àg¯
À ï qÀAiÀÄgÀ££
À ÄÀ ß
Government. ²PÉëUÉÆ¼À¥r
À ¹zÀgÄÀ .
3) a & d only 3) a ªÀÄvÀÄÛ d ªÀiÁvÀæ
4) a, c & d only 4) a, c ªÀÄvÀÄÛ d ªÀiÁvÀæ
53
23. Consider the following terms : 23. F PÉ¼V

À £À CA±ÀU¼
À £
a) Champaran revolt a) ZÀA¥ÁgÀtåzÀ zÀAUÉ
b) Textile workers of Bombay led a revolt b) ªÀÄÄA¨ÉÊ §mÉÖ PÉÊUÁjPÉAiÀÄ PÁ«ÄðPÀgÀ zÀAUÉ
c) Santala revolt c) ¸ÀAvÁ®gÀ zÀAUÉ
d) Munda revolt d) ªÀÄÄAqÀ zÀAUÉ
e) Tehbhaga revolt e) vÉÃ¨sÁUÀ zÀAUÉ
f) Mopilla revolt f) ªÀiÁ¦¼ÀîgÀ zÀAUÉ
Which of the above mentioned event/s was/ ªÉÄÃ¯É PÉÆnÖgÄÀ ªÀ CA±ÀU¼
À °
À è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ/ªÀÅ §ÄqÀPl
À ÄÖ
were tribal movement/s? §AqÁAiÀÄUÀ¼ÁVzÀÝªÅÀ ?
1) b only 1) b ªÀiÁvÀæ
2) c & d only 2) c ªÀÄvÀÄÛ d ªÀiÁvÀæ
3) e only 3) e ªÀiÁvÀæ
4) a, e, & f only 4) a, e, ªÀÄvÀÄÛ f ªÀiÁvÀæ
24. Some events are shown in the following Flow- 24. F PÉ¼V
À £À ºÀjªÀÅ avÀz
æ °
À è ¸ÁévAÀ vÀåæ ZÀ¼ÄÀ ªÀ½AiÀÄ PÉ®ªÀÅ
diagram. They represent a chain of events WÀl£ÉU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß ¸Àgt
À AÂ iÀÄ°è vÉÆÃj¹zÉ.
of freedom movement. SÁ° ¥ÉnÖUÉ AiÀiÁªÀ WÀl£ÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¥Àw
æ ¤¢ü¸ÄÀ vÀÛz?É
What does the empty box stand for ?
The Montegu-chelms ford ªÀiÁAmÉUÆ
É -ZÉ¯ïä ì¥ÇÉs Ãqïð
reforms
The Rowlatt Act gË®mï PÁ¬ÄzÉ
¸ÀÄzsÁgÀuU
É ¼
À ÄÀ
? Chauri-chaura incident ? ZËj ZËgÁ WÀl£É
1) The Swadeshi movement 1) ¸ÀézÉÃ²Ã ZÀ¼ÀÄªÀ½

2) Home Rule movement 2) ºÉÆÃAgÀÆ¯ï ZÀ¼ÀÄªÀ½
3) Salt Satyagraha 3) G¦à£À ¸ÀvÁåUÀº
æ À
4) Non Co-operation movement 4) ÇÀºPÀ ÁgÀ ZÀ¼ÄÀ ªÀ½
25. Assertion (A) : No congress leader attended 25. ¥Àw
æ ¥ÁzÀ£É (A) : MAzÀ£ÃÉ zÀÄAqÀÄ ªÉÄÃf£À ¥ÀjµÀw£
Û °
À è
the I Round Table conference. AiÀiÁªÀ PÁAUÉ¸
æ ï £ÁAiÀÄPÀgÆ
À ¨sÁUÀª»
À ¸À°®è.
Reason (R) : Mahatma Gandhi hoisted ¸ÀªÄÀ xÀð£É (R) : ¥ÀÇtð ¸ÀégÁdå¢£ÀzÀ DZÀgu À AÉ iÀÄ°è
Indian Flag during poorna swaraj ªÀÄºÁvÁä UÁA¢üAiÀÄªÀgÄÀ gÁµÀÖçzéÀsdªÀ£ÄÀ ß ºÁj¹zÀgÄÀ .
celebrations.
correct explanation of A. ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ «ªÀgu
À A
É iÀiÁVzÉ.
2) Both A and R are correct but R is not 2) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÆ
the correct explanation of A ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ «ªÀgu
À A
É iÀiÁV®è
3) A is true but R is false 3) A ¸Àj R vÀ¥ÄÀ à
4) R is true but A is false 4) R ¸Àj A vÀ¥ÀÄà
54
26. Which one of the following was not a 26. F PÉ¼V

À £À AiÀiÁªÀ CA±ÀªÅÀ ÇÀºPÀ ÁgÀ ZÀ¼ÄÀ ªÀ½AiÀÄ
programme of the non co-operation PÁAiÀÄðPÀª
æ ÄÀ zÀ°è ¸ÉÃjgÀ°®è?
movement? 1) ±Á¯É, PÁ¯ÉÃdÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ £ÁåAiÀiÁ®AiÀÄUÀ¼À
1) Boycott of government schools, colleges §»µÁÌgÀ
and law courts. 2) ©ænµï D½éP0É iÀÄ C¢üPÁgÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ©gÀÄzÀÄUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß
2) Surrendering of titles and offices of the »A¢gÀÄV¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ (vÀåf¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ)
British administration. 3) ºÀ½îUÁr£À d£ÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß EzÀgÀ°è ¨sÁUÀªÀ»¸À®Ä
3) Rural masses were not involved in the CªÀPÁ±À ¤ÃqÀ°®è.
movement. 4) SÁ¢ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ EvÀgÀ ¸ÀÜ½ÃAiÀÄ PÉÊUÁjPÉUÀ½UÉ
4) Promotion of khadi and other local ¥ÉÆÃæ vÁìºÀ
industries.
27. Lathiblows inflicted on me would prove as 27. ``£À£Àß ªÉÄÃ¯É £ÀqÉzÀ ¯ÁpÃ ¥ÀæºÁgÀªÀÅ ©ænµï
the last nails in the caffin of the British ¸ÁªÀiÁædåzÀ ±Àªº
À n
É ÖUAÉ iÀÄ°è£À PÉÆ£ÉAiÀÄ ªÀÄ¼É JAzÀÄ
empire. This quotation was given by ºÉÃ½zÀªgÀ ÄÀ
1) Lala Lajpat Roy 1) ¯Á¯Á ®d¥ÀvïgÁAiÀiï
2) Bipin Chandra Pal 2) ©¦£ï ZÀAzÀ¥
æ Á¯ï
3) Arabindo Ghosh 3) CgÀ©AzÀ WÉÆÃµï
4) Balagangadhar Tilak 4) ¨Á®UÀAUÁzsg
À À w®Pï
28. the I.N.A. officers were prosecuted by the 28. 1946gÀ°è L.J£ï.J. (I.N.A.) C¢üPÁjUÀ¼À£ÀÄß
British government in 1946. Its immediate £ÁåAiÀiÁ®AiÀÄ «ZÀgu
À UÉ Æ
É ¼À¥r
À ¹zÀgÄÀ . EzÀgÀ vÀvïPëÀtzÀ
impact on freedom movement was ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄ
1) The I.N.A. officials were hanged 1) L.J£ï.J. C¢üPÁjUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß UÀ°U
è ÃÉ j¸À¯Á¬ÄvÀÄ.
2) Naval revolts and large scale demonstrations 2) £ËPÁ §AqÁAiÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ d£ÀUÀ¼À zÉÆqÀØ
were organised by people ¥Àª
æ ÀiÁtzÀ ¥Àw æ ¨sÀl£Á ªÉÄgÀªÀtÂUÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß
3) The congress and the Muslism league £Àq¸É ¯
À Á¬ÄvÀÄ.
decided to unite. 3) PÁAUÉ¸
æ ï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÀÄÄ¹èA °ÃUï MUÀÎnÖ£À°ègÀ®Ä
4) The British decided to give freedom in the ¤zsð
À j¹zÀªÅÀ .
same year. 4) CzÉÃ ªÀµð À zÀ°èAiÉÄÃ ©ænµÀgÄÀ ¨sÁgÀwÃAiÀÄjUÉ
¸ÁévÀAvÀåæ PÉÆqÀ®Ä ¤zsÀðj¹zÀgÀÄ.
55
29. Assertion (A) : The Indian government sent 29. ¥Àw

æ ¥ÁzÀ£É (A) : ¨sÁgÀvÀ ¸ÀPÁðgÀªÅÀ vÀ£ßÀ ¸ÉÃªÉ0iÀÄ£ÀÄß
its forces to junagadh. dÄ£ÁWÀqï gÁdåPÉÌ PÀ¼ÄÀ »¹vÀÄ.
Reason (R) : The nawab of Junagadh was ¸ÀªÄÀ xÀð£É (R) : d£ÁWÀqz À À £ÀªÁ§£ÀÄ vÀ£ßÀ gÁdåªÀ£ÄÀ ß
planning to merge Junagadh with Pakistan, ¥ÁQ¸ÁÛ£PÀ ÌÉ «°Ã£ÀUÆ É ½¸À®Ä ¤zsð À j¹zÀ£ÄÀ . DzÀgÉ
but people didnt want it. C°èAiÀÄ ¥Àe æ U
É ½
À UÉ CzÀÄ EµÀÖ«gÀ°®è.
À A
É iÀiÁUÀz.É
the correct explanation of A. ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ «ªÀgu
À A
É iÀiÁVzÉ.
4) R is true but A is false 4) R ¸Àj A vÀ¥ÄÀ à
30. Which of the following were the French 30. F PÉ¼ÀV£À UÀÄA¦£À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅªÀÅ ¥sÉæAZï
colonies ªÀ¸ÁºÀvÄÀ UÀ¼ÁVzÀÝªÅÀ ?
(a) Diu (b) Mahe c) Goa (d) Daman (a) qÀAiÀÄÄ (b) ªÀiÁºÉ c) UÉÆÃªÁ (d) qÁªÀÄ£ï
(e) Chandranagore (f) Pondicherry (e) ZÀAzÀ£
æ ÁUÉÆÃgï (f) ¥ÁArZÉj
1) b, e, and f only 1) b, e, ªÀÄvÀÄÛ f ªÀiÁvÀæ
2) a, e & f only 2) a, e ªÀÄvÀÄÛ f ªÀiÁvÀæ
3) c, d & e only 3) c, d ªÀÄvÀÄÛ e ªÀiÁvÀæ
4) d, e & f only 4) d, e ªÀÄvÀÄÛ f ªÀiÁvÀæ
31. Assertion (A) : Kashmir Joined Indian Union 31. ¥Àw
æ ¥ÁzÀ£É (A) : 1947gÀ°è PÁ²äÃgÀªÅÀ ¨sÁgÀvz
À À MPÀÆÌlPÉÌ
in 1947. ¸ÉÃjvÀÄ.
Reason (R) : Pakistan had a democratic ¸ÀªÄÀ xÀð£É (R) : ¥ÁQ¸ÁÛ£ªÀ ÅÀ ¥Àe
æ Á¥À¨
æ ÄÀs vÀé eÁvÁåwÃvÀ
secular Republican constitution. UÀtgÁdåzÀ ¸ÀA«zsÁ£Àª£ À ÄÀ ß ºÉÆA¢vÀÄÛ.
À A
É iÀiÁVzÉ.
2) Both A and R are correct, but R is not 2) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÆ
À A
É iÀiÁV®è.
4) R is true but A is false 4) R ¸Àj A vÀ¥ÀÄà
56
32. Which of the following phrase/s was/were 32. ¸ÀA«zsÁ£ÀzÀ 42£ÉÃ wzÀÄÝ¥r
À AiÀÄ°è ¸ÉÃj¸À¯ÁzÀ ¥ÀzU
À ¼
À ÄÀ
added to the preamble of the constitution in AiÀiÁªÀÅªÀÅ?
42nd amendment?
a) Democratic a) ¥Àe
æ Á¥À¨
æ ÄÀs vÀé
b) Secular b) eÁvÀåwÃvÀ
c) Sovereign c) ¸ÁªÀð¨sËªÀÄ
d) Socialist d) ¸ÀªiÀ ÁdªÁ¢
1) a only 1) a ªÀiÁvÀæ
2) d only 2) d ªÀiÁvÀæ
3) b & d only 3) b & d ªÀiÁvÀæ
4) a & b only 4) a & b ªÀiÁvÀæ
33. Fazl Ali Commission favoured state 33. ¥s À d ¯ï D° DAiÉ Æ ÃUÀ ª À Å gÁdåUÀ ¼ À
reorganisation on the basis of ¥ÀÅ£À«ðAUÀq£
À AÉ iÀÄ£ÀÄß AiÀiÁªÀ DzsÁgÀzÀ ªÉÄÃ¯É
eÁjUÉÆ½¸À®Ä C£ÀÄªÉÆÃ¢¹vÀÄ?
1) Religion 1) zsª
À ÄÀ ð
2) Common cultural heritage 2) ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ¸ÁA¸ÀÌøwPÀ ¥ÀgÀA¥ÀgÉ
3) Language 3) ¨sÁµÉ
4) Common race 4) ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå d£ÁAUÀ
34. The course of emergence of communist China 34. aÃ£ÁzÀ°è PÀªÄÀ Äå¤¸ïÖ ¸ÀPÁðgÀ ¸ÁÜ¥£
À AÉ iÀiÁzÀ ºÁ¢AiÀÄ
is depicted in the following Flow diagram. ºÀAvÀª£À ÄÀ ß F PÉ¼V À £À ºÀjªÀÅ avÀz æ °
À è vÉÆÃj¸À¯ÁVzÉ.
Identify the correct sequence. ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ ¸Àgt À AÂ iÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
(a) Civil war (a) CAvÀAiÀÄÄðzÀÞ

(b) Formation of Communist Party (b) PÀªÄÀ Äå¤¸ïÖ ¥ÀPëÀzÀ ¸ÁÜ¥£
À É
(c) Democratic revolution under Dr. Sun- (c) qÁ|| ¸À£ïAiÀiÁvï ¸ÉÃ£ïgÀ ¥Àe
æ Á¥À¨
æ ÄÀs vÀézÀ PÁæAw
yat sen (d) ¢ÃWÀð¥ÀAiÀÄt
(d) The long March
1) 1b, 2c, 3d, 4a 1) 1b, 2c, 3d, 4a
2) 1d, 2a, 3b, 4c 2) 1d, 2a, 3b, 4c
3) 1a, 2b, 3c, 4d 3) 1a, 2b, 3c, 4d
4) 1c, 2b, 3d, 4a 4) 1c, 2b, 3d, 4a
57
35. Which of the following events were the 35. F PÉ¼ÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ WÀl£ÉUÀ¼ÀÄ ²ÃvÀ® 0iÀÄÄzÀÞzÀ
instances of the cold war? GzÁºÀgu
À U
É ¼
À ÁVªÉ?
(a) Civil war in Korea (a) PÉÆjAiÀiÁzÀ CAvÀAiÀÄÄðzÀÞ
(b) Division of Germany (b) dªÀÄð¤AiÀÄ «¨sd
À £É
(c) Freedom struggle in Indonesia (c) EAqÉÆÃ£ÉÃµÁåzÀ ¸ÀévAÀ vÀæ ZÀ¼ª
À ½
À
(d) Disintegration of the U.S.S.R. (d) ¸ÉÆÃ«AiÀÄvï gÀµÁåzÀ ¥Àv£
À À
1) a & d only 1) a & d ªÀiÁvÀæ
2) a & b only 2) a & b ªÀiÁvÀæ
3) c & d only 3) c & d ªÀiÁvÀæ
4) b, c, & d only 4) b, c, ªÀÄvÀÄÛ d ªÀiÁvÀæ
36. Which one of the following factors led to 36. F PÉ¼V
À £À AiÀiÁªÀ CA±ÀªÅÀ JgÀq£
À ÃÉ ªÀÄºÁAiÀÄÄzÀÞz°
À è
entry of the U.S.A. onto II world war? CªÉÄÃjPÁ ¥Àª
æ ÃÉ ²¸À®Ä PÁgÀtªÁ¬ÄvÀÄ?
1) German attack on Russia 1) gÀµÁåªÀ£ÀÄß dªÀÄð¤AiÀÄÄ zÁ½ ªÀiÁrzÀÄzÀÄ.
2) Japans conquest of South-East Asian 2) d¥Á£ï DUÉßÃAiÀÄ KµÁå gÁµÀÖçUÀ¼À£ÀÄß UÉ¢ÝzÀÄÝ
countries 3) ¸ÀÆAiÉÄeï ¥ÀæzÉÃ±ÀªÀ£ÀÄß El°AiÀÄÄ zÁ½
3) Italys attack on Suez region ªÀiÁrzÀÄÝ
4) Japans attack on Pearl Harbour 4) ¥À¯ïð ºÁ§ðgï ªÉÄÃ¯É d¥Á¤£À zsÁ½
37. The group of East European countries having 37. ²ÃvÀ® ¸ÀªÄÀ gÀzÀ CªÀ¢A
ü iÀÄ°è ¥ÀÇªÀð AiÀÄÆgÉÆÃ¦£À
communist governments, during the cold war PÀªÄÀ Äå¤¸ïÖ ¸ÀPÁðgÀª£
À ÄÀ ß M¦àPÆ
É AqÀ zÉÃ±ÀU¼
À À UÀÄA¥À£ÄÀ ß
period was called the »ÃUÉAzÀÄ PÀgAÉ iÀÄÄwÛzÝÀ gÄÀ .
1) European union 1) AiÀÄÆgÉÆÃ¦AiÀÄ£ï MPÀÆÌl (European union)
2) Truman plan 2) lÆæªÀÄ£ï AiÉÆÃd£É
3) Warsaw Pact 3) ªÁ¸Áð M¥ÀàAzÀ
4) Marshall Plan 4) ªÀiÁµÀð¯ï AiÉÆÃd£É
58
38. The course of Russian revolution is shown 38. gÀµÁåzÀ PÁæAwAiÀÄ ºÀAvÀU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß F PÉ¼V
À £À ºÀjªÀÅ
in the following Flow-diagram Identify the avÀæzÀ°è vÉÆÃj¸À¯ÁVzÉ. ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ ¸ÀgÀtÂAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
correct sequence. UÀÄgÀÄw¹.
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
(a) Russia became a communist country (a) gÀµÁå zÉÃ±ÀªÅÀ PÀªÄÀ Äå¤¸ïÖ gÁµÀÖçªÁ¬ÄvÀÄ.
(b) Menshevik revolution (b) ªÉÄ£ïµÉ«Pï PÁæAw
(c) Russo-Japanese war (c) gÀÆ¸ÉÆ-d¥Á£ï AiÀÄÄzÀÞ
(d) Bolshevik revolution (d) ¨ÉÆ¯ïµÉ«Pï PÁæAw
1) 1c, 2d, 3a, 4b 1) 1c, 2d, 3a, 4b
2) 1d, 2a, 3b, 4c 2) 1d, 2a, 3b, 4c
3) 1c, 2b, 3d, 4a 3) 1c, 2b, 3d, 4a
4) 1a, 2c, 3b, 4d 4) 1a, 2c, 3b, 4d
39. Regarding the League of Nations, Which of 39. gÁµÀçÖ¸AÀ WÀPÌÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ F PÉ¼V
À £À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉÃ½PÉ/
the following statement/s is/are correct. UÀ¼ÄÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ/ªÉ?
(a) The league had a strong standing army (a) gÁµÀçÖ¸AÀ WÀªÅÀ vÀ£ßÀ zÉÃ DzÀ ¸ÉÊ£ÀåªÀ£ÄÀ ß ºÉÆA¢vÀÄ.Û
of its own (b) CzÀ Ä ¸À Ä ªÀ i ÁgÀ Ä 20 ªÀ µ À ð ±ÁAwAiÀ Ä £À Ä ß
(b) It maintained peace for nearly 20 years. PÁ¥ÁrvÀÄ.
1) a is correct 1) a ¸Àj
2) Both a and b are correct 2) a ªÀÄvÀÄÛ b JgÀqÆ
À ¸Àj
3) only b is correct 3) b ªÀiÁvÀæ ¸Àj
4) Neither a nor b is correct 4) a CxÀªÁ b AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁV®è
40. Arrange the following events of the I world 40. MAzÀ£ÃÉ ªÀÄºÁAiÀÄÄzÀÞzÀ WÀl£ÉU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß PÁ¯Á£ÀÄPÀª
æ ÄÀ zÀ°è
war in chronological order : eÉÆÃr¹j :
(a) The serajevo crisis (a) ¸ÀgAÀ iÀiÁªÉÇ WÀl£É
(b) Germany sank a British passenger (b) dªÀÄð¤AiÀÄÄ ©ænµï ¥ÀAæ iÀiÁtÂPg
À À £ËPÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
ship ªÀÄÄ¼ÀÄV¹vÀÄ.
(c) The treaty of Versailles (c) ªÀ¸ÊÉ ð¯ï M¥ÀàAzÀ
(d) Formation of Triple Entente (d) PÀz£
À À ¨ÁAzsª
À åÀ vÀAæ iÀÄzÀ gÀZ£
À É
(e) Russian revolution started (e) gÀµÁåzÀ PÁæAwAiÀÄ DgÀA¨sÀ
1) b, d, c, e, a 1) b, d, c, e, a
2) c, e, b, a, d 2) c, e, b, a, d
3) d, a, b, e, c 3) d, a, b, e, c
4) b, d, a, c, e 4) b, d, a, c, e
59
41. Assertion : The U.S. intervened in the civil 41. ¥Àæw¥ÁzÀ£É (A) : «AiÉÄmÁßA£À CAvÀAiÀÄÄðzÀÞzÀ°è
war in Vietnam. CªÉÄÃjPÁ zÉÃ±ÀªÅÀ ªÀÄzsåÀ ¥Àª
æ ÃÉ ²¹vÀÄ.
Reason (R) : The Nationalist leaders invited ¸ÀªÄÀ xÀð£É (R) : gÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ £ÁAiÀÄPÀgÄÀ CªÉÄÃjPÁ zÉÃ±ÀzÀ
the U.S. troops seeking their help, ¸ÉÊ£Àå ¸ÀºÁAiÀÄªÀ£ÄÀ ß ¨ÉÃr, CªÀg£ À ÄÀ ß DªÀÄAwæ¹zÀgÄÀ .
1) A and R are true and R is the correct 1) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÀÆ ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R A £À
À A
É iÀiÁVzÉ.
2) A and R both are correct but R is not 2) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÆ
À A
É iÀiÁV®è
4) R is true but A is false. 4) R ¸Àj A vÀ¥ÀÄà
42. With reference to Italian unification, Match 42. El°AiÀÄ KQÃPÀgÀtPÉÌ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ F
the following PÉ¼V
À £ÀªÅÀ UÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß ºÉÆA¢¹ §gÉ¬Äj.
A B A B
a) Garibaldi i) Papal states a) UÁåj¨Á°Ø i) ¥ÉÃ¥À¯ï gÁdåUÀ¼ÄÀ
b) Austro-Sardinian ii) Siciliy & Naples b) D¸ÉÆÖçÃ- ii) ¹¹° ªÀÄvÀÄÛ £ÉÃ¥À¯ïì
war ¸ÁrÃð¤AiÀÄ£ï AiÀÄÄzÀÞ
c) Franco-Prussian iii) Venetia c) ¥sÁæAPÉÆ- iii) ªÉ¤¶AiÀiÁ
war ¥À²
æ AiÀÄ£ï AiÀÄÄzÀÞ
d) Austro-Prussian iv) Piedmont d) D¸ÉÆÖçÃ- iv) ¦ÃqïªÀiÁAmï
war ¥À²
æ AiÀÄ£ï AiÀÄÄzÀÞ
v) Lombardy v) ¯ÉÆA¨Árð
1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-v 1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-v
2) a-ii, b-v, c-i, d-iii 2) a-ii, b-v, c-i, d-iii
4) a-iv, b-v, c-i, d-ii 4) a-iv, b-v, c-i, d-ii
43. Assertion (A) : The current account is more 43. ¥Àw
æ ¥ÁzÀ£É (A) : ZÁ°Û SÁvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ªÁå¥ÁgÀ¸ÜÀ gÄÀ
convenient for a businessman ºÉZÄÀ Ñ C£ÀÄPÀÆ® JAzÀÄ ¨sÁ«¸ÀÄvÁÛg.É
Reason (R) : Service charges are collected ¸ÀªÄÀ xÀð£É (R) : G½vÁAiÀÄ SÁvÉAiÀÄ ¸ÉÃªÉAiÀÄ ªÉÄÃ¯É
on Savings bank account. ¸ÉÃªÁ±ÀÄ®Ìª£ À ÄÀ ß ªÀ¸Æ
À ®Ä ªÀiÁqÀÄvÁÛg.É
À A
É iÀiÁVzÉ.
À A
É iÀiÁV®è
4) R is true but A is false 4) R ¸Àj A vÀ¥ÄÀ à
60
44. Which of the following bank services come 44. F PÉ¼V

À £À AiÀiÁªÀ CA±ÀU¼
À ÄÀ ¨ÁåAPÀg¤
À UÀÆ ºÁUÀÆ
under special relationship between banker UÁæºPÀ ¤
À VgÀÄªÀ «±ÉÃµÀ ¸ÀA§Azsª
À £
À ÄÀ ß vÉÆÃj¸ÀÄvÀÛª?É
and a customer?
a) Debtor & creditor relationship a) ¸Á°UÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸Á®UÁgÀ£À ¸ÀA§AzsÀ
b) Obligation to maintain secrecy of b) UÁæºPÀ £
À À ¯ÉPÌÀ U¼
À À UÉÆÃ¥ÀåvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß PÁ¥ÁqÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ.
accounts. c) zsª
À ÄÀ ðzÀ²ð ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥ÀAæ iÉÆÃd£ÀPÁjAiÀÄ ¸ÀA§AzsÀ
c) Trustee and beneficiary relationship d) PÁgÀ¨Áj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÀÄÄRå¸ÀÜ£À ¸ÀA§AzsÀ
d) Agent and principal relationship e) ZÉPÄÀ ÌU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß ªÀÄ£ÀßuÉ ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ.
e) Obligation to honour cheques
1) a, c & e only 1) a, c ªÀÄvÀÄÛ e ªÀiÁvÀæ
2) b & e only 2) b ªÀÄvÀÄÛ e ªÀiÁvÀæ
4) c, d & e only 4) c, d ªÀÄvÀÄÛ e ªÀiÁvÀæ
45. Which of the following factor/s is/are the 45. F PÉ¼V
À £À AiÀiÁªÀ CA±À/UÀ¼ÄÀ «ªÉÄAiÀÄ C£ÀÄPÀÆ®/
advantages of Insurance? UÀ¼ÄÀ DVzÉ/ªÉ?
a) Protects monopoly in business a) ªÁå¥ÁgÀz°
À è KPÀ¸ÁéªÄÀ åvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß PÁ¥ÁqÀÄvÀÛz.É
b) Removes the risk of loss b) £ÀµÖÀPÌÉ FqÁUÀÄªÀÅzÀ£ÄÀ ß vÀ¦à¸ÄÀ vÀÛz.É
c) Insurer gets the profit c) «ªÀiÁPÀvð
À ¤UÉ ¯Á¨sª
À ÅÀ ¹UÀÄvÀÛz.É
d) Promotes internal trade only d) gÁµÀÖçzÀ DAvÀjPÀ ªÁå¥ÁgÀª£
À ÄÀ ß ªÀiÁvÀæ
1) a & d only ¥ÉÆÃæ vÁì»¸ÀÄvÀz
Û .É
2) b only 1) a & d ªÀiÁvÀæ
3) b, c & d only 2) b ªÀiÁvÀæ
4) d only 3) b, c & d ªÀiÁvÀæ
46. Regarding General Insurance, observe the 4) d ªÀiÁvÀæ

following statements, 46. ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå «ªÉÄUÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ F PÉ¼V
À £À
a) Risk is certain and the law of indemnity ºÉÃ½PÉU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß UÀªÄÀ ¤¹.
doesnt apply. a) £ÀµÀÖ ¥ÀjºÁgÀ ¤²ÑvÀ DzÀgÉ £ÀµÀÖzÀ ¸ÀªÀÄAiÀÄ
b) The premium is paid on monthly or half C¤²ÑvÀ
yearly basis. b) «ªÀiÁ PÀAvÀÄ ªÀiÁ¹PÀ CxÀªÁ Czsð
À ªÁ¶ðPÀªÁV
Which of the statement/s given above is/are ¥ÁªÀw¸À¯ÁUÀÄvÀz Û .É
correct. F ªÉÄÃ°£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉÃ½PÉ/UÀ¼ÄÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ/ªÉ?
1) a only
2) Both a & b are correct 1) a ªÀiÁvÀæ
3) b only 2) a ªÀÄvÀÄÛ b JgÀqÆ

À ¸Àj
4) Neither a nor b is correct 3) b ªÀiÁvÀæ
4) a CxÀªÁ b AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁV®è
61
47. Which one of the following helps an 47. F PÉ¼V

À £À AiÀiÁªÀ CA±ÀªÅÀ GzÀåªÀÄzÁgÀ£ÄÀ UÀjµÀ×
enterpreneur maximise profits? ¯Á¨sU
À ½
À ¸À®Ä ¸ÀºÁAiÀÄPÀªÁUÀÄvÀÛz.É
1) Paying high wages to employees 1) PÉ®¸ÀUÁgÀjUÉ ºÉa£
Ñ À PÀÆ°AiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¤ÃqÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ.
2) Innovations in business 2) GzÀåªÄÀ zÀ°è ºÉÆ¸À §zÀ¯ÁªÀuU
É ¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß vÀgÄÀ ªÀÅzÀÄ
3) Expansion of business 3) GzÀåªÀÄªÀ£ÀÄß «¸ÀÛj¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ.
4) Providing training to employees 4) £ËPÀgÀjUÉ vÀgÀ¨ÉÃwAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¤ÃqÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ.
48. Assertion (A) : A charitable institution cannot 48. ¥Àw
æ ¥ÁzÀ£É (A) : MAzÀÄ zÀwÛ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ£ÀÄß GzÀåªÀÄ
be considered as an enterprise. JAzÀÄ ºÉÃ¼À¯ÁUÀÄªÀÅ¢®è.
Reason (R) : Risk of profit or loss is an ¸ÀªÄÀ xÀð£É (R) : ¯Á¨sÀ CxÀªÁ £ÀµÖÀª£À ÄÀ ß ºÉÆAzÀÄªÀ
integral part of an enterprise. C¤²Ñvv À AÉ iÀÄÄ GzÀåªÀÄUÁjPÉAiÀÄ C«¨sÁdå CAUÀ
1) A and R are correct and R is the correct 1) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÀÆ ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R A £À
explanation of A. ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ «ªÀgu
À A
É iÀiÁVzÉ.
2) A and R are correct, but R doesnt 2) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÆ
explain A ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ «ªÀgu
À A
É iÀiÁV®è.
4) R is true but A is false. 4) R ¸Àj DzÀgÉ A vÀ¥ÀÄà
49. The course of liberalisation and globalisation 49. GzÁjÃPÀgt
À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ eÁUÀwÃPÀgt
À zÀ ¨É¼ª
À t
À U
Â AÉ iÀÄ£ÀÄß
is depicted in the following flow-diagram F PÉ¼V
À £À ºÀjªÀÅ avÀz
æ °
À è vÉÆÃj¸À¯ÁVzÉ.
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
a) Fall in prices of goods & services a) ¸ÀgPÀ ÄÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÉÃªÉU¼

À À ¨É¯É E½AiÀÄÄªÀÅzÀÄ.
b) Removal of unnecessary rules & b) C£Àª±
À åÀ PÀ ¤Ãw ¤AiÀÄªÀÄUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß vÉUAÉ iÀÄÄªÀÅzÀÄ.
regulations c) GvÁàz£
À AÉ iÀÄ°è ºÉZÑÀ¼À
c) Increase in production d) ¥ÉÊ¥ÉÇÃn/¸Ààzð
És
d) Competition
1) 1c, 2d, 3a, 4b 1) 1c, 2d, 3a, 4b
2) 1d, 2a, 3b, 4c 2) 1d, 2a, 3b, 4c
3) 1b, 2c, 3d, 4a 3) 1b, 2c, 3d, 4a
4) 1a, 2d, 3c, 4b 4) 1a, 2d, 3c, 4b
50. Dumping of goods from one country into 50. MAzÀÄ zÉÃ±ÀzÀ ªÀ¸ÄÀ U
Û ¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß E£ÉÆßAzÀÄ zÉÃ±Àz°
À è CªÀÅUÀ¼À
another, at below cost price can GvÁàz£À Á ªÉZÑÀ (cost price) VAvÀ PÀrªÉÄ ¨É¯AÉ iÀÄ°è
ªÀiÁgÁl ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀÅzÀjAzÀ
1) Harm the existence of infant industry 1) ºÉÆ¸ÀzÁV DgÀA¨sÀªÁzÀ PÉÊUÁjPÉUÀ¼ÀÄ
2) Promote production G½AiÀÄÄªÀÅzÀÄ PÀµÀÖ.
3) Provide more employment opportunities 2) GvÁàzÀ£É ºÉZÀÄÑvÀÛzÉ.
3) ºÉZÀÄÑ GzÉÆåÃUÁªÀPÁ±ÀªÀÅ GAmÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
4) Create specialisation
4) GvÁàzÀ£ÉAiÀÄ°è ¥Áæ«ÃtåvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ºÉaÑ¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
62
HISTORY - KEY ANSWERS HISTORY - KEY ANSWERS

01 1 26 3
02 2 27 1
03 3 28 2
04 2 29 1
05 2 30 1
06 4 31 3
07 3 32 3
08 1 33 3
09 1 34 4
10 3 35 2
11 1 36 4
12 1 37 3
13 1 38 3
14 1 39 3
15 4 40 3
16 2 41 3
17 1 42 2
18 4 43 3
19 4 44 2
20 2 45 2
21 4 46 4
22 3 47 2
23 2 48 1
24 4 49 3
25 3 50 1
63
NTSE - SAT POLITICAL SCIENCE & ECONOMICS
POLITICAL SCIENCE & ECONOMICS - gÁdå±Á¸ÀçÛ & CxÀð±Á¸ÀçÛ

1. Match the following and identify the correct 1. PÉ¼ÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢¹ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
alternative UÀÄgÀÄw¹.
A B A B
a) Lokayukta i) Women empowerment a) ¯ÉÆÃPÁAiÀÄÄPÀÛ i) ªÀÄ»¼Á ¸À§°ÃPÀgt
À
b) COFEPOSA ii) Poverty b) PÉÆÃ¥s¥
É ÇÉs Ã¸Á ii) §qÀv£
À À
c) Yuvati Mandals iii) corruption c) AiÀÄÄªÀw ªÀÄAqÀ½UÀ¼ÄÀ iii) ¨sÀæµÁÖZÁgÀ
d) BPL cards iv) Smuggling d) BPL ¥ÀrvÀgÀ aÃnUÀ¼ÄÀ iv) PÀ¼Àî¸ÁUÁtÂPÉ
1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d -i 2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d -i
3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii 3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii 4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
2. The single citizenship of India is itself an 2. ¨sÁgÀvz
À À KPÀ¥ËgÀvéÀªÃÉ EzÀ£ÄÀ ß ¤AiÀÄAwæ¸®
À Ä MAzÀÄ
effective measure to control ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄPÁj ªÀiÁ¥À£ª À ÁVzÉ.
1) Communalism 1) PÉÆÃªÀÄÄªÁzÀ
2) Smuggling 2) PÀ¼Àî ¸ÁUÁtÂPÉ
3) Illiteracy 3) C£ÀPg
ëÀ v
À É
4) Regionalism 4) ¥ÁæzÃÉ ²PÀªÁzÀ
3. Planned financial system, better industries 3. AiÉÆÃd£Á§zÀÞ ºÀtPÁ¹£À ªÀåªÀ¸ÜÉ, GvÀª
Û ÄÀ PÉÊUÁjPÉU¼
À ÄÀ
and good taxation system in a country ªÀÄvÀÄÛ M¼ÉîAiÀÄ vÉjUÉ «zsÁ£ÀªÅÀ
promotes
1) Economic equality 1) DyðPÀ ¸ÀªÀiÁ£ÀvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¨ÉA§°¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
2) Position of women 2) ªÀÄ»¼Á ¸ÁÜ£ÀªÀiÁ£À ºÉaÑ¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
3) Population control 3) d£À¸ÀASÉåAiÀÄ ¸ÀªÀÄ¸Éå ¤ªÁj¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ
4) Eradication of profiteering 4) ¯Á¨sÀ §ÄqÀÄPÀÄvÀ£À ¤µÉÃ¢ü¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ
4. The principles of panchasheel were framed 4. ¥ÀArvï dªÁºÀgï¯Á¯ï £Éºg À ÄÀ gÀªg
À ÄÀ ¥ÀAZÀ²Ã®zÀ
by Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru along with vÀvéÀU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß EªÀgÆ
É A¢UÉ gÀÆ¦¹zÀgÄÀ .
1) Winston churchill 1) «£ïìl£ï ZÀað¯ï
2) Franklin D. Roosevelt 2) ¥sÁA
æ Qè£ï r. gÀÆ¸ï£É¯ïÖ
3) Choe-in-Lai 3) ZÀÆ E£ï ¯ÁAiÀiï
4) Joseph Stalin 4) eÉÆ¸É¥ïs ¸ÁÖ°£ï
64
5. The Asian countries conducted many 5. 1949 jAzÀ 1955 ªÀgU É Æ

À KµÁå RAqÀzÀ zÉÃ±ÀU¼
À ÄÀ
conferences from 1949 to 1955 at New Delhi ºÉ Æ ¸À ¢ °è ºÁUÀ Æ ¨Á£ïqÀ A Uï£À ° è ºÀ ® ªÁgÀ Ä
and Bandung to ¸ÀªÄÉ äÃ¼À£U
À ¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß £Àq¸
É ®
À Ä PÁgÀt
1) Support Non-Alignment 1) C°¥ÀÛ ¤ÃwAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸ÀºÀPÀj¸À®Ä
2) Oppose Racial Discrimination 2) ªÀtð¨sÉÃzÀ ¤ÃwUÉ «gÉÆÃzsÀ
3) Stop colonialism 3) ªÀ¸ÁºÀvÀÄ ±Á»vÀéPÉÌ «gÉÆÃ¢ü¸À®Ä
4) Support disarmament 4) ¤±Àå¹ÛçÃPÀgÀt ¨ÉA§°¸À®Ä
6. The wrongly Matched alternative is 6. vÀ¥ÁàV ºÉÆA¢¹gÀÄªÀ DAiÉÄÌ
1) NAM - India doesnot join in any 1) NAM - ¨sÁgÀvÀ JgÀq£ À ÃÉ AiÀÄ ªÀÄºÁ
block after 2nd world war C°¥ÀÛ¤Ãw AiÀÄÄzÀÞzÀ £ÀAvÀgÀ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉÃ
2) Article 51 - International brotherhood
§tzÀ°è ¸ÉÃj®è
and respecting 2) 51£ÉÃ «¢ü - CAvÀgg À Á¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ ¸Àº¨
À Á¼Éé
International Laws ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÁ£ÀÆ¤UÉ UËgÀªÀ
3) Nelson Mandela - Racial discrimination in 3) £É®ì£ï ªÀÄAqÉÃ¯Á - zÀQët D¦üPæ ÁzÀ°è
South Africa ªÀtð¨sÃÉ zÀ ¤Ãw
4) SAARC - India, USA, UK, Russia, 4) SAARC - ¨sÁgÀv,À CªÉÄÃjPÀ, ¸ÀAAiÀÄÄPÀÛ
Srilanka, Bhutan, (¸ÁPïð) gÁµÀÖçU¼À ÄÀ , gÀµÁå, ²æÃ®APÀ,
Bangladesh ¨sÀÆvÁ£ï, ¨ÁAUÁèzÉÃ±À
7. The incorrect statement regarding the 7. ¨sÁgÀvÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ gÀµÁå zÉÃ±ÀzÉÆA¢UÉ ¸ÀA¨sÀAzsÀPÉÌ
relation of India with Russia is ¸ÀjºÉÆAzÀzÀ DAiÉÄÌ
1) Russia supported India for the liberation of 1) 1961gÀ°è UÉÆÃªÁ «ªÉÆÃZÀ£A É iÀÄ ¸ÀAzÀ¨ð
Às zÀ°è
Goa in 1961 gÀµÁå ¨sÁgÀvÀPÉÌ ¸ÀºÀPÁgÀ ¤ÃrvÀÄ.
2) It played a great role in tashkent agreement 2) 1966gÀ°è vÁµÀÌAmï M¥ÀA
à zÀz°
À è gÀµÁå ªÀÄºÀvz
éÀ À
in 1966 ¥ÁvÀæ ªÀ»¹vÀÄÛ
3) It supported financially in the establishment 3) ©ü¯ÁÊ ºÁUÀÆ ¨sÉÆÃPÁgÉÆÃ PÁSÁð£ÉUÀ¼À
of Bhilai and Bakaro plants. C£ÀÄµÁ×£z
À °
À è DyðPÀªÁV ¸ÀºÁAiÀÄ ¤ÃrvÀÄ.
4) It supported China in 1962 war. 4) 1962gÀ PÀzÀ£ÀzÀ°è aÃ£ÁUÉ ¸ÀºÀPÁgÀ ¤ÃrvÀÄ.
8. There is a good relation between India and 8. ¨sÁgÀvÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ²æÃ®APÁ £ÀqÄÀ ªÉ M¼ÉîAiÀÄ ¸ÀA§AzsPÀ ÌÉ
Srilanka because PÁgÀt
a) Both are the members of SAARC a) E§âgÆ
À SAARC ¸ÁPïð£À ¸Àz¸
À åÀ gÀÄ
b) Srilanka is under Soverign of India b) ²æÃ®APÀ ¨sÁgÀvz
À À ¸ÁªÀð¨sËªÀÄvÀéz°
À èzÉ
c) Of Good relations in trade and commerce c) ªÁtÂdå ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÁå¥ÁgÀz°
À è M¼ÉîAiÀÄ ¨ÁAzsª
À åÀ
d) India helped Srilanka to defeat LTTE d) ²æ Ã ®APÁzÀ eÁ¥s À ß zÀ ° è LTTE AiÀ Ä £À Ä ß
in Jafna. ¸ÉÆÃ°¸À®Ä ¨sÁgÀvÀ £Égª À ÅÀ ¤ÃrvÀÄ.
1) a, b, c 1) a, b, c
2) a, c, d, 2) a, c, d,
3) b, c, d 3) b, c, d
4) a, b, d 4) a, b, d
65
9. Assertion (A) : We should end the war, 9. ºÉÃ½PÉ (A) : ``£ÁªÀÅ AiÀÄÄzÀÞª£ À ÄÀ ß PÉÆ£ÉUÁtÂ¸¨ À ÃÉ PÀÄ
otherwise the war will end us. E®èªÁzÀgÉ AiÀÄÄzÀÞ £ÀªÄÀ ä£ÄÀ ß PÉÆ£ÉUÁtÂ¸ÄÀ vÀÛz.É
Reason (R) : Disarmament is important for PÁgÀt (R) : ±ÁAwAiÀÄÄvÀ dUÀwU
Û É ¤±Àå¹ÛçÃPÀgt
À CªÀ±åÀ
peaceful world
1) Both A and R are incorrect 1) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÀÆ vÀ¥ÁàVªÉ
2) A is correct but R is wrong 2) A ¸Àj DzÀgÉ R vÀ¥ÀÄà
3) A is correct but R is not related to A 3) A ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ DzÀgÉ R, A UÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹®è
4) Both A and R are correct and inter related. 4) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÆ
À ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥Àg¸
À g
àÀ À
¸ÀA¨sA
À ¢ü¹ªÉ.
10. The programmes of WHO and FAO, ILO are 10. WHO («±Àé DgÉÆÃUÀå ¸ÀA¸ÉÜ), FAO («±Àé DºÁgÀ
carried out under the supervision of ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÀÈ¶ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜ) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ILO (CAvÀgÀgÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ
PÁ«ÄðPÀgÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜ)UÀ¼ÄÀ PÁAiÀÄPÀð
æ ªÀÄUÀ¼ÄÀ EzÀgÀ £ÉÃvÀÈvÀz
é °
À è
£ÀqAÉ iÀÄÄvÀz
Û .É
1) General Assembly 1) ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ¸À¨És
2) Social and economic council 2) ¸ÁªÀiÁfPÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ DyðPÀ ¸À«Äw
3) Security council 3) ¨sÀzv
Àæ Á ¸À«Äw
4) Secretariate 4) ¸ÀaªÁ®AiÀÄ
11. The most serious problem of our country 11. £ÀªÄÀ ä zÉÃ±ÀzÀ F UÀA©üÃgÀ ¸ÀªÄÀ ¸Éå¬ÄAzÀ §qÀv£
À ,À
which creates so many other problems like ¤gÀÄzÉÆåÃUÀ EvÁå¢ ¸ÀªÄÀ ¸ÉåUÀ¼ÄÀ ºÀÄlÄÖvÛª
À .É
poverty, unemployment etc. is
1) Corruption 1) ¨sµ
æÀ ÁÖZÁgÀ
2) Smuggling 2) PÀ¼Àî ¸ÁUÁtÂPÉ
3) Profiteering 3) ¯Á¨sÀ §ÄqÀÄPÀÄvÀ£À
4) Population explosion 4) d£À¸ÀASÉå ¸ÉÆàÃl
12. The dispute among the people of Tamilnadu 12. PÁªÉÃj £À¢AiÀÄ ¤ÃjUÁV PÀ£ÁðlPÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ vÀ«Ä¼ÀÄ£Ár£À
and Karnataka for the water of River Kaveri d£ÀgÀ £ÀqÄÀ ªÉ ªÁzÀ«ªÁzÀU¼
À ÄÀ EzÀ£ÄÀ ß ¸ÀÆa¸ÀÄvÀÛz.É
exhibits
1) Communal harmony 1) PÉÆÃªÀÄÄ ¸ÁªÀÄgÀ¸Àå
2) National Integrity 2) gÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ LPÀåvÉ
3) Secularism 3) eÁvÁåwÃvÀvÉ
4) Regionalism 4) ¥ÁæzÃÉ ²PÀªÁzÀ
66
13. The wrong statement regarding Non- 13. C°¥ÀÛ ¤ÃwUÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ F ºÉÃ½PÉ vÀ¥ÁàVzÉ
Alignment movement
1) The head quarter of NAM is in Jakarta 1) C°¥ÀÛ ¤Ãw ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ ªÀÄÄRå ¸ÀA¸ÁÜ£À
2) India join the Democratic Block dPÁvÀzð
À zÀ°èz.É
3) India doesnot join any world block 2) ¨sÁgÀvª
À ÅÀ ¥Àe
æ Á¥À¨
æ ÄÀs vÀé §tzÀ°è ¸ÉÃjPÉÆArvÀÄ
4) India adopted Non-Alighment during cold 3) ¨sÁgÀvÀªÀÅ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉÃ §tUÀ¼À°è ¸ÉÃj®è.
war. 4) ``²ÃvÀ® ¸ÀªÀÄgÀ ªÉÃ¼ÉAiÀÄ°è ¨sÁgÀvÀ C°¥ÀÛ
¤Ãw C£ÀÄ¸Àj¹vÀÄ.
14. The organ of U.N.O. primarily aims in solving 14. CAvÀgÀgÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ ªÁzÀ«ªÁzÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ±ÁAwAiÀÄÄvÀ
international disputes through peaceful jÃwAiÀÄ°è ¥ÀjºÀj¸ÀÄªÀ «±Àé¸AÀ ¸ÉÜAiÀÄ CA±À
means is
1) Security council 1) ¨sÀzv
Àæ Á ¸À«Äw
2) Secretariate 2) ¸ÀaªÁ®AiÀÄ
3) General assembly 3) ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ¸À¨És
4) International court of Justice 4) CAvÀgÀgÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ £ÁåAiÀiÁ®AiÀÄ
15. The Main reason for the formation of 15. ¨ÁAUÁèzÃÉ ±À ¤ªÀiÁðtPÉÌ ªÀÄÄRå PÁgÀt JAzÀgÉ
Bangladesh is
1) Indias victory against pakistan in the war 1) 1971gÀ°è ¥ÁQ¸ÁÛ£À «gÀÄzÀÞ ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ dAiÀÄ
of 1971 2) ¥ÁQ¸ÁÛ£z
À À vÁµïPÀAmï M¥ÀàAzÀ
2) Pakistans tashkent agreement 3) ¥ÁQ¸ÁÛ£À EzÀ£ÄÀ ß §AiÀÄ¹vÀÄÛ
3) Pakistan wanted to create it 4) ¥À²ÑªÀÄ §AUÁ¼ÀzÀ ¤Ãj£À ¸ÀªÀÄ¸Éå
4) The water crisis of West Bengal
16. The administrative languages of united 16. «±Àé¸A
À ¸ÉÜAiÀÄ DqÀ½vÀ ¨sÁµÉU¼
À AÉ zÀgÉ
nations organisation (UNO) are
(a) English (b) Chinese (a) DAUÀè (b) aÃ¤
(c) Hindi (d) French (c) »A¢ (d) ¥sÉæAZï
(e) Urdu (e) GzÀÄð
1) a, b, c 1) a, b, c
2) a, b, d 2) a, b, d
3) a, d, e 3) a, d, e
4) a, c, e 4) a, c, e
67
17. The bank established for the reconstruction 17. JgÀq£

À ÃÉ ªÀÄºÁAiÀÄÄzÀÞz°
À è £Á±ÀªÁVgÀÄªÀ zÉÃ±ÀU¼
À À
of nations destroyed in IInd world war is ¥ÀÅ£Àgï ¤ªÀiÁðtPÁÌV ¸ÁÜ¦¹zÀÝ ¨ÁåAPï
1) NABARD 1) £À¨Áqïð NABARD
2) IMF 2) CAvÀgÀgÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ ºÀtPÁ¸ÀÄ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜ
3) Swiss Bank 3) ¹éeï ¨ÁåAPï
4) IBRD 4) L.©.Dgï.r
18. The wrongly matched option is 18. vÀ¥ÁàV ºÉÆA¢¹gÀÄªÀ DAiÉÄÌ
A B A B
1) IMF - Washington 1) IMF - ªÁ¶AUÀÖ£ï
2) UNESCO - Paris 2) UNESCO - ¥Áåj¸ï
3) IBRD - New York 3) IBRD - £ÀÆåAiÀiÁPïð
4) ILO - Geneva 4) ILO - f£ÉÃªÁ
19. 10th December 1948 is considered as the 19. «±Àé¸A
À ¸ÉÜAiÀÄ EwºÁ¸Àz°
À è 10£ÉÃ r¸ÉA§gï 1948
important day in the history of U.N.O. MAzÀÄ ªÀÄºÀvéÀ ¢£ÀªAÉ zÀÄ ¥ÀjUÀt¸
Â ®
À Ä ªÀÄÄRå PÁgÀt
Because on that day
1) United Nations Organisation started 1) «±Àé ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ ¸ÁÜ¥À£É
2) First conference of General Assembly was 2) ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ¸ÀÄÉs iÀÄ ªÉÆzÀ® C¢üªÃÉ ±À£À £Àq¢
É zÀÄÝ
conducted 3) ErÃ dUÀwÛ£°
À è UÀÄgÀÄw¸À¯Á¬ÄvÀÄ.
3) It was recognised by whole world 4) ªÀiÁ£ÀªÀ ºÀPÀÄÌUÀ¼À WÉÆÃµÀuÉ
4) Human Rights were declared
20. The personalities responsible for the 20. «±Àé¸A
À ¸ÉÜAiÀÄ ¸ÁÜ¥£ À Á PÁAiÀÄðzÀ°è dªÁ¨ÁÝj
formation of United Nations Organisation ºÉÆA¢gÀÄªÀ ªÀåQÛU¼
À AÉ zÀgÉ
are
1) George Washington, Abraham Lincoln & 1) eÁeïð ªÁ¶AUÀÖ£ï, C§æºÁA °APÀ£ï, ..
W. Bush W. §Äµï
2) Mao-Tse.Tung, Jawaharlal Nehru & 2) ªÀiÁ-vÉì-vÀÄAUï, dªÁºÀgï¯Á¯ï £ÉºÀgÀÄ,
Nicolas ¤PÉÆÃ¯Á¸ï
3) Winston Churchill, Stalin, Franklin D 3) «£ïìl£ï ZÀað¯ï, ¸ÁÖ°£ï, ¥sÁA
æ Qè£ï r.
Roosevelt gÀÆ¸ïªÉ¯ïÖ
4) Lennin, Bismark and Adolf Hitler 4) ¯É¤£ï, ©¸ÁägïÌ, NqÉÆÃ¯ïà »lègï
21. Nelson Mandela in Africa and Martin Luther 21. D¦üæPÁzÀ°è £É®ì£ï ªÀÄAqÉÃ® ºÁUÀÆ ªÀiÁnð£ï
in America fought against ®ÆxÀgï CªÉÄÃjPÁzÀ°è EzÀgÀ «gÀÄzÀÞ ºÉÆÃgÁrzÀgÄÀ
1) Terrorism 1) ¨sA
À iÉÆÃvÁàz£
À É
2) Aparthied 2) ªÀtð¨sÃÉ zÀ ¤Ãw
3) Communalism 3) PÉÆÃªÀÄÄªÁzÀ
4) Arms and Ammunation 4) ±À¸ÀÛç ªÀÄvÀÄÛ AiÀÄÄzÀÞ ¸À®PÀgÀuÉUÀ¼ÀÄ
68
22. The head quarters of International court of 22. CAvÀgg

À Á¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ £ÁåAiÀiÁ®AiÀÄzÀ ªÀÄÄRå PÁAiÀÄð¸ÁÜ£À
Justice is at E°èzÉ
1) Newyork in America 1) CªÉÄÃjPÁzÀ £ÀÆåAiÀiÁQð£À°èzÉ
2) Geneva in Switzerland 2) ¹élÓgï¯ÁåAr£À f£ÉÃªÁzÀ°èz.É
3) Paris in France 3) ¥sÁ£
æ ïì£À ¥Áåj¸ï£À°èzÉ
4) Hague in Netherland 4) £ÉzÀgï¯ÁåAqï£À ºÉÃUï£À°èzÉ
23. Match and Identify the correct option 23. ºÉÆA¢¹ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹j
A B A B
1) UNESCO a) Eradication of small pox 1) UNESCO a) ¹qÀÄ§ÄgÉÆÃUÀª£
À ÄÀ ß
2) UNICEF b) Issue greeting cards vÉÆqÉzÀÄºÁQzÉ
3) IMF c) Science & Technological 2) UNICEF b) ±ÀÄ¨sÁ±ÀAiÀÄ ¥ÀvU

æÀ ¼
À À ªÀiÁgÁl
programes 3) IMF c) ªÉÊeÕÁ¤PÀ ºÁUÀÆ vÀAvÀe
æ ÕÁ£ÀzÀ
4) WHO d) International bank of UNO PÁAiÀÄðPÀæªÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ
4) WHO d) «±Àé¸A
À ¸ÉÜAiÀÄ ¨ÁåAPï
1) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a 1) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a
2) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a 2) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
3) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d 3) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
4) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a 4) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
24. The present secretary general of UNO is 24. «±Àé¸A
À ¸ÉÜAiÀÄ FV£À PÁAiÀÄðzÀ²ð
1) Ban-ki-Moon 1) eÁ£ï-QÃ-ªÀÄÆ£ï
2) Koo-fi-Annan 2) PÉÆ.¦üÃ. C£Áß£ï
3) Antonio Guiterraz 3) DAmÉÆÃ«AiÉÆÃ UÀÄmÁgÉeï
4) Curt.Whilliams 4) PÀlð «°AiÀÄªÀiïì
25. The members of UNO who franchise their 25. «ÃmÉÆÃ (veto) ºÀPÌÀ £ÄÀ ß ZÀ¯Á¬Ä¸ÀÄªÀ zÉÃ±ÀU¼
À AÉ zÀgÉ
veto power are
1) USA, India, Russia, China, England 1) CªÉÄÃjPÀ, ¨sÁgÀv,À gÀµÁå, aÃ£Á, EAUÉèAqï
2) USA, China, Russia, France, England 2) CªÉÄÃjPÀ, aÃ£Á, gÀµÁå, ¥sÁ£
æ ïì, EAUÉèAqï
3) India, America, Russia, Bhutan, Srilanka 3) ¨sÁgÀvÀ, CªÉÄÃjPÀ, gÀµÁå, ¨sÀÆmÁ£ï, ²æÃ®APÀ
4) England, USA, China, Canada, Germany 4) EAUÉA
è qï, CªÉÄÃjPÀ, aÃ£Á, PÉ£q
À Á, dªÀÄð¤
26. The Voilent activities intended to create fear 26. ªÀåQÛU½
À UÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÉÆvÀÄU
Û ½
À UÉ C¥ÁgÀºÁ¤ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¨sAÀ iÀÄzÀ
and damage to men and property is known ªÁvÁªÀgt
À ¸ÀÈ¶×¸ÄÀ ªÀ »A¸ÉAiÀÄ PÀÈvÀå
as
1) Racial discrimination 1) ªÀtð¨ÉÃzsÀ ¤Ãw
2) Denial of Human Rights 2) ªÀiÁ£ÀªÀ ºÀPÀÄÌUÀ¼À ¤gÁPÀgÀuÉ
3) Terrorism 3) ¨sA
À iÉÆÃvÁàz£
À É
4) Economic inequality 4) DyðPÀ ÇÀªiÀ Á£ÀvÉ
69
27. The amendment of constitution which 27. ²PëÀtzÀ ºÀPÌÀ £ÄÀ ß ªÀÄÆ®¨sÆ
À vÀ ºÀPÄÀ Ì JAzÀÄ ¥ÀjUÀt¹Â zÀ
declared Right to Education as a ¸ÀA«zsÁ£ÀzÀ wzÀÄÝ¥r
À
fundamental right is
1) 93rd Amendment 1) 93£ÉÃ
2) 92nd Amendment 2) 92£ÉÃ
3) 72nd Amendment 3) 72£ÉÃ
4) 73rd Amendment 4) 73£ÉÃ
28. The relation of India and china based on the 28. ¨sÁgÀvÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ aÃ£Á zÉÃ±ÀU¼
À À £ÀqÄÀ ªÉ ¨ÁAzsª
À åÀ PÉÌ
principles of MvÀÄÛ ¤ÃqÀÄªÀ vÀvéÀ
1) Communist and Democratic principles 1) PÀªÀÄÆå¤¸ïÖ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥Àe
æ Á¥À¨
æ ÀÄs vÀé vÀvÀéUÀ¼ÀÄ
2) Democracy and Equality 2) ¥Àe
æ Á¥À¨
æ ÀÄs vÀé ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀªÀiÁ£ÀvÉ
3) Hindi chine Bhai Bhai and Panchasheela 3) »A¢Ã aÃ¤ ¨sÁ¬Ä ¨sÁ¬Ä ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥ÀAZÀ²Ã®
4) Economic and Political vÀvéÀ
4) DyðPÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ gÁdQÃAiÀÄ
29. Article 51of Indian constitution directs to 29. ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ ¸ÀA«zsÁ£ÀzÀ 51£ÉÃ «¢üAiÀÄÄ EzÀ£ÀÄß
adopt the C£ÀÄ¸Àj¸À®Ä ¤zÉÃð²¸ÀÄvÀÛz.É
1) Planning commission 1) AiÉÆÃd£Á DAiÉÆÃUÀ
2) Welfare state 2) ¸ÀÄTÃ gÁdå
3) Secular state 3) eÁvÁåwÃvÀ gÁdå
4) Foreign policy 4) «zÉÃ±ÁAUÀ ¤Ãw
30. The second SAARC summit held at 30. ¸ÁPïð (SAARC) £À JgÀq£
À ÃÉ ªÀÄºÁ ¸ÀªÄÉ äÃ¼À£À
£ÀqÉ¢zÀÄÝ
1) Dhaka in Bangladesh 1) ¨ÁAUÀèzÃÉ ±ÀzÀ qÁPÁzÀ°è
2) Bangalore in India 2) ¨sÁgÀvz
À À ¨ÉAUÀ¼Æ
À j£À°è
3) Khatmandu in Nepal 3) £ÉÃ¥Á®zÀ PÁoÀäAqÀÄ«£À°è
4) Islamabad in Pakistan 4) ¥ÁQ¸ÁÛ£z
À À E¸ÁèªiÀ Á¨Á¢£À°è
31. According to world Development Report 31. «±À é C©ü ª À È ¢Þ ªÀ g À ¢ 2012gÀ ¥À æ P ÁgÀ 12276
2012 The countries of More than $ 12276 qÁ®gïVAvÀ ºÉZÄÀ Ñ vÀ¯Á DzÁAiÀÄ«gÀÄªÀ zÉÃ±Àª£
À ÄÀ ß
(dollar) per capita income are
1) Average income countries 1) ¸ÀgÁ¸Àj DzÁAiÀÄ zÉÃ±ÀUÀ£É£ÀÄßvÁÛgÉ
2) High income countries 2) ºÉZÀÄÑ DzÁAiÀÄ zÉÃ±ÀUÀ¼É£ÀÄßvÁÛgÉ
3) Low income countries 3) PÀrªÉÄ DzÁAiÀÄ zÉÃ±ÀUÀ¼É£ÀÄßvÁÛgÉ
4) Average and Low income countries 4) ¸ÀgÁ¸Àj ºÁUÀÆ PÀrªÉÄ DzÁAiÀÄ
zÉÃ±ÀU¼
À £
É ÄÀ ßvÁÛg.É
70
32. The concept of under development 32. `C©üªÈÀ ¢Þ ºÉÆAzÀÄwÛgÄÀ ªÀ zÉÃ±ÀU¼
À À ¥ÀjPÀ®à£ª
É AÉ zÀgÉ
countries denotes
1) Progress in a particular field 1) MAzÀÄ ¤¢ðµÀÖ PÉëÃvÀz
æ À°è ¥ÀU
æ Àw
2) Backward and under-developed countries 2) »AzÀÄ½zÀ ºÁUÀÆ C©üªÈÀ ¢Þ ºÉÆAzÀÄwÛgÄÀ ªÀÅzÀÄ
3) Having high national income 3) ºÉZÀÄÑ gÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ ªÀgÀªÀiÁ£À ºÉÆA¢gÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ
4) Scientifically improved 4) ªÉÊeÕÁ¤PÀªÁV ¥ÀU
æ Àw ºÉÆA¢gÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ
33. The Human Development indicators are 33. ªÀiÁ£ÀªÀ C©üªÈÀ ¢Þ ¸ÀÆZÀPU
À ¼
À AÉ zÀgÉ
1) Per capita income, National income, Gross 1) vÀ¯ÁzÁAiÀÄ, gÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ ªÀgÀªÀiÁ£À, ¤ªÀé¼À
income DzÁAiÀÄ
2) Life Expectancy, Educational achievement, 2) fÃªÀ£À ªÀÄlÖ, ±ÉÊPëÀtÂPÀ ¸ÁzsÀ£É, ¤jÃQëvÀ
Standard of living fÃ«vÁªÀ¢ü
3) Education, income, development 3) ²PëÀt, DzÁAiÀÄ, C©üªÀÈ¢Þ
4) Value of goods, All bank accounts, Value 4) ¸ÀgÀPÀÄUÀ¼À ¨É¯É, ¨ÁåAQ£À SÁvÉUÀ¼ÀÄ, a£ÀßzÀ
of gold. ¨É¯É
34. The members of Natioinal Development 34. 1952gÀ gÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ C©üªÈÀ ¢Þ ªÀÄAqÀ½AiÀÄ ¸Àz¸
À åÀ gÀÄ
council of 1952 were
1) All the chief ministers of India 1) ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ J¯èÁ ªÀÄÄRåªÀÄAwæUÀ¼ÀÄ
2) All the governors of India 2) ¨sÁgÀvz
À À J¯èÁ gÁdå¥Á®gÀÄ
3) Prime Minister and Cabinet Ministers 3) ¥Àz
æ Ás £ÀªÀÄAwæ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÁå©£Émï ¸ÀaªÀgÀÄ
4) All the members of Lokasabha 4) ¯ÉÆÃPÀ¸À¨ÉA
s iÀÄ J¯èÁ ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀågÀÄ
35. Per capita income is derived by 35. vÀ¯ÁzsÁAiÀÄ GvÀàwÛAiÀiÁUÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ
1) Calculating the income of each of citizen 1) ¥Àw
æ £ÁUÀjPÀgÀ DzÁAiÀÄªÀ£ÀÄß ¯ÉPÀÌºÁPÀÄªÁUÀ
2) Dividing National income of population 2) gÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ DzÁAiÀÄªÀ£ÀÄß d£À¸ÀASÉå¬ÄAzÀ
3) Measuring standard of living ¨sÁV¸ÀÄªÁUÀ
4) Measuring educational achievement. 3) fÃªÀ£ÀªÀÄlÖ C¼ÀvÉ ªÀiÁqÀÄªÁUÀ
4) ±ÉÊPëÀtÂPÀ ¸ÁzsÀ£É C¼ÉAiÀÄÄªÁUÀ
36. The concept of Third world refers to 36. ``ªÀÄÆgÀ£ÃÉ dUÀvÄÀ Û PÀ®à£É JAzÀgÉ
1) North and South American nations 1) GvÀÛgÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ zÀQët CªÉÄÃjPÁ gÁµÀÖçUÀ¼ÀÄ
2) The nations related to U.S.S.R. 2) AiÀÄÄ.J¸ï.J¸ï.Dgï.UÉ ¸ÉÃjzÀ gÁµÀÖçU¼
À ÄÀ
3) Developed and independent countries 3) C©üªÈÀ ¢Þ ºÉÆA¢zÀ ºÁUÀÆ ¸ÀévA
À vÀæ gÁµÀÖçU¼
À ÄÀ
4) Poor and undeveloped nations of the world 4) dUÀwÛ£À §qÀ ºÁUÀÆ »AzÀÄ½zÀ zÉÃ±ÀU¼
À ÄÀ
71
37. PURA project meant for providing 37. PURA AiÉÆÃd£ÉAiÀÄ ªÀÄÄRå PÁAiÀÄðªÉAzÀgÉ
1) Providing Good agricultural implements 1) M¼ÉîAiÀÄ jÃwAiÀÄ ªÀåªÀ¸ÁAiÀÄ ¸À®PÀgÀuÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß
2) Providing Employment facilities MzÀV¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ.
3) Providing Scientific aids to schools 2) GzÉÆåÃUÀ ¸Ë®¨sÀåUÀ¼À£ÀÄß MzÀV¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ
4) Providing city facilities to village 3) ±Á¯ÉUÀ½UÉ ªÉÊeÕÁ¤PÀ £ÉgÀªÀÅ ¤ÃqÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ
4) UÁæ«ÄÃt ¥Àz æ ÉÃ±ÀUÀ½UÉ £ÀUÀgÀ ¸Ë®§åUÀ¼À£ÀÄß
¤ÃqÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ.
38. The density of population is lowest in 38. Cw PÀrªÉÄ d£À ¸ÁAzsv
æÀ É ºÉÆA¢gÀÄªÀ gÁdå
1) Goa 1) UÉÆÃªÁ
2) Arunachal Pradesh 2) CgÀÄuÁZÀ® ¥Àz
æ ÉÃ±À
3) Kerala 3) PÉÃgÀ¼À
4) Tamilnadu 4) vÀ«Ä¼ÀÄ£ÁqÀÄ
39. The Planned economy of India is the work 39. ``¨sÁgÀvPÀ ÌÉ AiÉÆÃfvÀ CxÀðªÀåªÀ¸ÜÉ EªÀgÀ GvÀÛªÄÀ
of ¯ÉÃR£ÀªÁVzÉ
1) G..T. naidu 1) f.n. £ÁAiÀÄÄØ
2) M. Vishweshwaraiah 2) ¸Àgï. JA. «±ÉéÃ±ÀégÀAiÀÄå
3) Dr. Swaminathan 3) qÁ|| ¸Áé«Ä£ÁxÀ£ï
4) R.K. Narayanan 4) Dgï.PÉ. £ÁgÁAiÀÄt£ï
40. The wrong option in the three levels of 40. ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ ¥ÀAZÁAiÀÄvïgÁeï ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜAiÀÄ ªÀÄÆgÀÄ
panchayath raj in India is ºÀAvÀU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß ¸ÀjºÉÆAzÀzÀ DAiÉÄÌ
1) Grama panchayath 1) UÁæªÄÀ ¥ÀAZÁ¬Äw
2) Taluk panchayath 2) vÁ®ÆèPÄÀ ¥ÀAZÁ¬Äw
3) Town panchayath 3) £ÀUg
À À ¥ÀAZÁ¬Äw
4) Zilla panchayath 4) f¯èÁ ¥ÀAZÁ¬Äw
41. The Chairman of National Planning 41. ¨sÁgÀvz
À À gÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ AiÉÆÃd£Á DAiÉÆÃUÀzÀ CzsåÀ PëÀgÄÀ
commission in India is
1) The president 1) gÁµÀÖç¥w
À
2) Prime Minister 2) ¥Àz
æ Ás £À ªÀÄAwæ
3) Vice President 3) G¥ÀgÁµÀÖç¥w
À
4) Home Minister 4) UÀÈºÀ ¸ÀaªÀgÀÄ
42. The activity of women which cannot be 42. ªÀÄ»¼ÉAiÀÄgÀ F PÁAiÀÄðªÀ£ÄÀ ß zÀÄrªÉÄ JAzÀÄ
considered as labour ¥ÀjUÀt¸
Â ¯
À ÁUÀzÄÀ
1) Agricultural activities 1) ªÀåªÀ¸ÁAiÀÄzÀ PÉ®¸ÀU¼
À ÄÀ
2) Industrial work 2) PÉÊUÁjPÁ PÉ®¸ÀUÀ¼ÀÄ
3) Government employment 3) ¸ÀPÁðj E¯ÁSÉAiÀÄ £ËPÀj
4) Household activities without wage 4) ªÉÃvÀ£À gÀ»vÀ ªÀÄ£É PÉ®¸À
72
43. According to World Development Report the 43. «±Àé C©üªÈÀ ¢Þ ªÀg¢
À ¥ÀPæ ÁgÀ C©üªÈÀ ¢Þ ºÉÆAzÀÄwÛgÄÀ ªÀ
developing countries are zÉÃ±ÀU¼
À AÉ zÀgÉ
1) Average and low income countries 1) ¸ÀgÁ¸Àj ºÁUÀÆ PÀrªÉÄ ªÀgª
À iÀ Á£ÀzÀ zÉÃ±ÀU¼
À ÄÀ
2) Only Average income countries 2) PÉÃªÀ® ¸ÀgÁ¸Àj ªÀgÀªÀiÁ£À«gÀÄªÀ zÉÃ±ÀUÀ¼ÀÄ
3) Poor economical base countries 3) §qÀ DyðPÀ §Ä£Á¢¬ÄgÀÄªÀ zÉÃ±ÀUÀ¼ÀÄ
4) High growth rate countries 4) ºÉZÀÄÑ C©üªÀÈ¢Þ zÀgÀ ºÉÆA¢gÀÄªÀ zÉÃ±ÀUÀ¼ÀÄ
44. The ratio of number of women working to 44. MAzÀÄ zÉÃ±ÀzÀ MlÄÖ ªÀÄ»¼ÉAiÀÄgÀ ¸ÀASÉåUÉ D zÉÃ±ÀzÀ
total number of women of a country is known MlÄÖ PÁAiÀÄð¤gÀvÀ ªÀÄ»¼ÉAiÀÄgÀ C£ÀÄ¥ÁvÀªÀ£ÀÄß
as »ÃUÉ£ÄÀ ßªÀgÄÀ .
1) Womens empowerment 1) ªÀÄ»¼Á ¸À§°ÃPÀgt
À
2) Gender ratio 2) °AUÁ£ÀÄ¥ÁvÀ
3) Educational womens status 3) CPëÀgÀ¸ÀÜ ªÀÄ»¼ÉAiÀÄgÀ ¸ÁÜ£ÀªÀiÁ£À
4) Womens job participation rate 4) ªÀÄ»¼ÉAiÀÄgÀ PÉ®¸ÀzÀ ¨sÁUÀªÀ»¸ÀÄ«PÉ zÀgÀ
45. The Panchayath institutions in India operate 45. ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ°è ¥ÀAZÁAiÀÄvïgÁeï ¸ÀA¸ÉÜUÀ¼ÀÄ PÁAiÀÄð
their work according to the principles of ¤ªÀð»¸ÀÄvÀª
Û .É
1) Centralization 1) PÉÃA¢æÃPÀgt
À
2) Democracy 2) ¥Àe
æ Á¥À¨
æ ÄÀs vÀé
3) Dictatorship 3) ¸ÀªÁð¢üPÁgÀ
4) Monarchy 4) ¤gÀAPÀÄ±Á¢ü¥v
À åÀ
46. The increase of national income leads to 46. gÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ DzÁAiÀÄzÀ°è ºÉZÑÀ¼ª
À ÁzÀ°è F DzÁAiÀÄªÀÅ
increase in the income of ºÉZÁÑUÄÀ vÀz
Û .É
1) World 1) dUÀw£
Û À
2) Country 2) zÉÃ±ÀzÀ
3) State 3) gÁdåzÀ
4) People 4) d£ÀgÀ
47. The government balance its income and 47. ¸ÀPÁðgÀªÅÀ vÀ£ßÀ DzÁAiÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ RZÀÄðUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß EzÀgÀ
expenditure through ªÀÄÆ®PÀ ¸ÀªÄÀ vÉÆÃ°¸ÀÄvÀÛz.É
1) Reserve Bank of India 1) jdªïð ¨ÁåAPï D¥sï EArAiÀÄ
2) Private sector banks 2) SÁ¸ÀV PÉëÃvÀæ ¨ÁåAPÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ
3) Capitalist banks 3) §AqÀªÁ¼À ¨ÁåAPÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ
4) State Bank of India 4) ¸ÉÖÃmï ¨ÁåAPï D¥ï EArAiÀiÁ
48. The budget in which income is greater than 48. F vÀgÀºÀzÀ DAiÀÄªÀåAiÀÄzÀ°è DzÁAiÀÄ RaðVAvÀ
expenditure is C¢üPª
À ÁVgÀÄvÀz
Û .É
1) Deficiet budget 1) PÉÆgÀvÉ DAiÀÄªÀåAiÀÄ
2) Central budget 2) PÉÃAzÀæ DAiÀÄªÀåAiÀÄ
3) Surplus budget 3) C¢üPÀ DAiÀÄªÀåAiÀÄ
4) Balanced Budget 4) ¸ÀªÄÀ vÉÆÃ®£À DAiÀÄªÀåAiÀÄ
73
49. Individual calculates their income first and 49. EzÀg°

À è ªÀåQÛU¼
À ÄÀ DzÁAiÀÄªÀ£ÄÀ ß ªÉÆzÀ®Ä CAzÁdÄ
then spend it in ªÀiÁr £ÀAvÀgÀ CzÀPÌÉ C£ÀÄUÀÄtªÁV ªÉZÑÀ ªÀiÁqÀÄvÁÛg.É
1) Public finance 1) ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ ºÀtPÁ¸ÀÄ
2) Private finance 2) SÁ¸ÀVÃ ºÀtPÁ¸ÀÄ
3) Both public and private finance 3) ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ ºÁUÀÆ SÁ¸ÀVÃ ºÀtPÁ¹£À°è
4) Neither public nor private finance 4) ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ ºÀtPÁ¹£À°èAiÀÄÆ C®è SÁ¸ÀVÃ
ºÀtPÁ¹£À°èAiÀÄÆ C®è
50. The employment opportunities in rural areas 50. UÁæ«ÄÃt PÉëÃvÀæUÀ¼À°è GzÉÆåÃUÀzÀ CªÀPÁ±ÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß
were created by EªÀÅUÀ½AzÀ ¸ÀÈ¶Ö¸§
À ºÀÄzÀÄ
a) Starting cattle rearing and poultry a) ¥À±ÄÀ ¸ÁUÁtÂPÉ ºÁUÀÆ PÉÆ½ ¸ÁUÁtÂPAÉ iÀÄ£ÀÄß
b) Developing cottage industries ¥ÁægAÀ ©ü¸ÄÀ ªÀÅzÀÄ.
c) Nurturing rural productive activities b) UÀÈºÀ PÉÊUÁjPÉU¼
À À C©üªÈÀ ¢Þ¬ÄAzÀ
d) Providing digital cell phones c) UÁæ«ÄÃt GvÁàz£
À Á ZÀlÄªÀnPÉU¼
À À ¥ÉÇÃµÀuÉ
e) Providing self employment loans d) rfl¯ï ¥ÀÇ£ïUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß MzÀV¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ.
e) ¸ÀéAiÀÄA GzÉÆåÃUÀzÀ ¸Á®ªÀ£ÀÄß ªÀÄAdÆgÀÄ
ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ
1) a, b, c, e 1) a, b, c, e
2) b, c, d, e 2) b, c, d, e
3) c, d, e, a 3) c, d, e, a
4) a, c, b, d 4) a, c, b, d
51. Green revolution means 51. ºÀ¹gÀÄ PÁæAw JAzÀgÉ
1) Rise in production of food grains 1) DºÁgÀ zsÁ£ÀåUÀ¼À GvÁàzÀ£ÉAiÀÄ°è ºÉZÀÑ¼À
2) Rise in production of milk 2) ºÁ°£À GvÁàzÀ£ÉAiÀÄ°è ºÉZÀÑ¼À
3) Rise in production of fish 3) «ÄÃ¤£À GvÁàzÀ£ÉAiÀÄ°è ºÉZÀÑ¼À
4) Rise in production of meat 4) ªÀiÁA¸ÀzÀ GvÁàzÀ£ÉAiÀÄ°è ºÉZÀÑ¼À
52. Government can meet the expenditure by 52. ¸ÀPÁðgÀ vÀ£ßÀ RZÀÄðªÉZÑÀU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß ¨sj
À ¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ
1) Taxing people 1) ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ vÉjUÉ¬ÄAzÀ
2) Printing new money 2) ºÉÆ¸À ºÀt ªÀÄÄzÀt
æ ¢AzÀ
3) By borrowing loan from banks and other 3) EvÀgÉ ¸ÀPÁðgÀ ºÁUÀÆ ¨ÁåAPÀÄUÀ½AzÀ ¸Á®
governments ¥ÀqÉAiÀÄÄªÀ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ
4) By above all three methods 4) ªÉÄÃ°£À J¯èÁ «zsÁ£ÀU½
À AzÀ
74
53. In the beginning of Green revolution the 53. ºÀ¹gÀÄ PÁæAwAiÀÄ ¥ÁægA
À ¨sz
À °
À è ¸ÀÄzsÁjvÀ vÀAvÀe
æ ÁÕ £Àª£
À ÄÀ ß
advanced technology is applied only in this F ¨É¼AÉ iÀÄ°è ªÀiÁvÀæ §¼À¸¯
À Á¬ÄvÀÄ.
crop
1) Rice 1) ¨sv
À ÛÀ
2) Ragi 2) gÁV
3) Wheat 3) UÉÆÃ¢ü
4) Sugarcane 4) PÀ§Äâ
54. The effective projects started for providing 54. UÁæ«ÄÃt §qÀvÀ£À ¤ªÀÄÆð®£É ºÁUÀÆ UÁæ«ÄÃt
employment and eradicating poverty in rural GzÉÆåÃUÀ ¤ªÀiÁðtzÀ°è ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄPÁjAiÀiÁV C£ÀÄµÁ×£À
areas are ªÀiÁqÀ¨ÃÉ PÁVgÀÄªÀ AiÉÆÃd£ÉU¼
À AÉ zÉgÉ
a) Mahathma Gandhi National Rural a) ªÀÄºÁvÀäUÁA¢ü gÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ UÁæ«ÄÃt GzÉÆåÃUÀ
employment guarantee programmes SÁvÀj AiÉÆÃd£É (MGNREGP)
(MGNREGP) b) ¸ÀétðdAiÀÄAw UÁæªÄÀ ¸ÀéGzÉÆåÃUÀ AiÉÆÃd£É
b) Swarna Jayanthi Gramina Swaudyoga (SYS)
Yojane (SYS) c) EA¢gÁ DªÁ¸ï AiÉÆÃd£É
c) Indira Awaz Yojane d) ¸ÀéZÒÀ ¨sÁgÀvÀ C©AiÀiÁ£À
d) Swach Bharatha Abhiyana e) D±ÀAæ iÀÄ AiÉÆÃd£É
e) Ashraya Yojane
1) a, b, c, d 1) a, b, c, d
2) b, c, d, e 2) b, c, d, e
3) c, d, e, a 3) c, d, e, a
4) a, b, c, e 4) a, b, c, e
55. The true developement of India is the 55. ¨sÁgÀvzÀ À £ÉÊd C©üªÈÀ ¢ÞAiÉÄAzÀg,É CzÀÄ UÁæªÄÀ UÀ¼À
development of its villages. This statement C©üªÈÀ ¢Þ F ºÉÃ½PÉ ¤ÃrzÀªg À ÄÀ
was given by
1) Jawaharlal Nehru 1) dªÁºÀgÀ¯Á¯ï £ÉºÀgÀÄ
2) Mahatma Gandhiji 2) ªÀÄºÁvÀä UÁA¢ü
3) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar 3) qÁ|| ©.Dgï. DA¨ÉÃqÀÌgï
4) Sir M. Vishweshwaraiah 4) ¸Àgï. JA. «±ÉéÃ±ÀégÀAiÀÄå
56. The main institution to check corruption in 56. PÀ£ÁðlPÀzÀ°è ¨sÀæµÁÖZÁgÀªÀ£ÀÄß vÀ¤SÉ ªÀiÁqÀ®Ä
Karnataka is ¸ÁÜ¦¹gÀÄªÀ ¥Àª
æ ÄÀ ÄR ¸ÀA¸ÉÜ
1) Cofepose 1) PÁ¦üÃ¥ÉÇÃ¸ï
2) Lokayukta 2) ¯ÉÆÃPÁAiÀÄÄPÀÛ
3) Special officers bureu 3) «±ÉÃµÁ¢üPÁjUÀ¼À ¥ÀqÉ
4) Nemmadi Kendras 4) £ÉªÀÄä¢ PÉÃAzÀU
æ À¼ÀÄ
75
57. The countries signed Tashkent agreement 57. vÁµÀÌAmï M¥ÀàAzÀPÌÉ ¸À» ªÀiÁrzÀ gÁµÀÖçU¼
À ÄÀ
are
1) India and Russia 1) ¨sÁgÀvÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ gÀµÁå
2) India and China 2) ¨sÁgÀvÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ aÃ£Á
3) India and Pakistan 3) ¨sÁgÀvÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥ÁQ¸ÁÛ£À
4) India and Bangladesh 4) ¨sÁgÀvÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¨ÁAUÀèzÉÃ±À
58. The term United Nation was coined by 58. ``«±Àé¸A
À ¸ÉÜ ¥ÀzÀ GvÀàwÛ ªÀiÁrzÀªg
À ÄÀ
1) Churchill 1) ZÀað¯ï
2) Stalin 2) ¸ÁÖ°£ï
3) Kennedy 3) PÉ£r
À
4) F.D.Roosevelt 4) F.D. gÀÆ¸Éé¯ïÖ
59. The direct tax means 59. ¥Àv
æ åÀ PëÀ vÉjUÉ JAzÀgÉ
1) Heavy burden on tax payers 1) vÉjUÉ ¥ÁªÀwzÁgÀgÀ ªÉÄÃ¯É ºÉÆuÉ
2) Directly deposited in Bank 2) £ÉÃgÀªÁV ¨ÁåAQ£À°è ¥ÁªÀw¸À¨ÃÉ PÁzÀ vÉjUÉ
3) Which should not be paid 3) ¥ÁªÀw ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀAw®è
4) Paid by a person on whom it is levied 4) AiÀiÁgÀ ªÉÄÃ¯É vÉjUÉ «¢ü¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉAiÉÆÃ CªÀgÉÃ
¥ÁªÀw ªÀiÁqÀ¨ÃÉ PÁVzÉ
60. The most important soure of income for 60. ¸ÀPÁðgÀPÌÉ DzÁAiÀÄzÀ ªÀÄÄRå ªÀÄÆ®
government is
1) Foreign loans 1) «zÉÃ² ¸Á®UÀ¼ÄÀ
2) Taxes 2) vÉjUÉU¼
À ÄÀ
3) Money printing 3) ºÀt ªÀÄÄzÀt
æ
4) Sale of government property 4) ¸ÀPÁðj D¹ÛU¼
À À ªÀiÁgÁl
76
KEY ANSWERS KEY ANSWERS

POLITICAL SCIENCE & ECONOMICS POLITICAL SCIENCE & ECONOMICS
01 3 31 2
02 4 32 2
03 1 33 2
04 3 34 1
05 3 35 2
06 4 36 4
07 4 37 4
08 2 38 2
09 4 39 2
10 2 40 3
11 4 41 2
12 4 42 4
13 2 43 1
14 4 44 4
15 1 45 2
16 2 46 2
17 4 47 1
18 3 48 3
19 4 49 2
20 3 50 1
21 2 51 1
22 4 52 4
23 2 53 3
24 3 54 4
25 2 55 2
26 3 56 2
27 1 57 3
28 3 58 4
29 4 59 4
30 2 60 2
77
NTSE - SAT GEOGRAPHY & SOCIOLOGY
GEOGRAPHY & SOCIOLOGY - ¨sÆ

À UÉÆÃ¼À±Á¸ÀçÛ & ¸ÀªiÀ Ád ±Á¸ÀçÛ
1. The factor causing social stratification is 1. ¸ÁªÀiÁfPÀ ¸Àg
Û À «£Áå¸ÀPÌÉ F PÉ¼V
À è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ
1) Democracy PÁgÀtªÁVzÉ.
2) Caste system 1) ¥Àe
æ Á¥À¨
æ ÄÀs vÀé
3) Socialism 2) eÁw ¥ÀzÞÀ w
4) Secularism 3) ¸ÀªiÀ ÁdªÁzÀ
4) eÁvÁåwÃvÀvÉ
2. The Act of 1989 confers the special 2. 1989 ±Á¸À£ª
À ÅÀ ÇÀàÈ±ÀåvÉAiÀÄ ¤ªÀÄÆð®£É PÀÄjvÀÄ «±ÉÃµÀ
responsibility of eradicating untouchability to dªÁ¨ÁÝjUÀ¼£ À ÄÀ ß EªÀÅUÀ½UÉ ªÀ»¹zÉ
1) State Government 1) gÁdå ¸ÀPÁðgÀU½
À UÉ
2) Central Government 2) PÉÃAzÀæ ¸ÀPÁðgÀUÀ½UÉ
3) Co-operative society 3) ¸ÀºÀPÁj ¸ÀAWÀUÀ½UÉ
4) NGOs 4) ¸ÀPÁðgÉÃvÀgÀ ¸ÀAWÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜUÀ½UÉ
3. The act introduced by the government in 1976 3. zÀÄrªÉÄAiÀÄ°è ¨sÉÃzÀ ¨ÁªÀªÀ£ÀÄß vÉÆqÉzÀÄ ºÁPÀ®Ä
to put an end to the labour discrimination is ¸ÀPÁðgÀªÅÀ 1976gÀ°è eÁjUÉ vÀA¢gÀÄªÀ PÁ¬ÄzÉ
1) Employment guarantee Act 1) GzÉÆåÃUÀ SÁvÀj PÁ¬ÄzÉ
2) Untouchability prohibitions Act 2) ÇÀàÈ±ÀåvÁ ¤ªÁgÀuÁ PÁ¬ÄzÉ
3) Child labour prevention Act 3) ¨Á®±À«
æ ÄPÀ ¤ªÀÄÆð®£Á PÁ¬ÄzÉ
4) Equal wages Act 4) ¸ÀªÀiÁ£À ªÉÃvÀ£À PÁ¬ÄzÉ
4. Read the statement and identify the correct 4. ºÉÃ½PÉU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß N¢ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀg
Û ª
À £
À ÄÀ ß UÀÄgÀÄw¹
answer i) vÁ¬Ä vÀ£Àß ªÀÄPÀÌ½UÁV CqÀÄUÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
i) A mother cooks food for her children vÀAiÀiÁj¸ÀÄvÁÛ¼.É
ii) An artist paints a picture for his self ii) M§â PÀ¯ÁPÁgÀ vÀ£ßÀ DvÀä ¸ÀAvÉÆÃµÀPÁÌV
entertainment avÀª
æ ÇÉ AzÀ£ÄÀ ß ©r¸ÀÄvÁÛ£.É
iii) A sister supports his brother to finish iii) ¸ÀºÉÆÃzÀjAiÉÆ§â¼ÀÄ ±Á¯ÉAiÀÄ UÀÈºÀ¥ÁoÀ
his school homework §gÉAiÀÄ®Ä vÀ£ßÀ vÀªÄÀ ä¤UÉ £Égª
À ÁUÀÄvÁÛ¼.É
iv) A father nurses his ill son iv) vÀAzÉ vÀ£ßÀ gÉÆÃV ªÀÄUÀ£À DgÉÊPÉ ªÀiÁqÀÄvÁÛ£.É
These are called EªÀ£ÄÀ ß »ÃUÉ£ÄÀ ßªÀgÄÀ
1) Paid work 1) PÀÆ°¸À»vÀ zÀÄrªÉÄ
2) Unpaid work 2) PÀÆ°gÀ»vÀ zÀÄrªÉÄ
3) Self employment 3) ¸ÀéAiÀÄA GzÉÆåÃUÀ
4) Labour discrimination 4) zÀÄrªÉÄAiÀÄ°è ¨sÃÉ zÀ¨Ás ªÀ
78
5. The movement that led under the leadership 5. ªÉÄÃzsÁ¥ÁlÌgï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¨Á¨Á CªÉÄg
Ö ª
À g
À À £ÁAiÀÄPÀvz
éÀ °
À è
of Medha Patkar and Baba Amte is £ÀqzÉ À ZÀ¼ÄÀ ªÀ½
1) Chipko movement 1) a¥ÉÆÌ ZÀ¼ÀÄªÀ½
2) Narmada movement 2) £ÀªÀÄðzÁ ZÀ¼ÀÄªÀ½
3) Silent valley movement 3) ªÀiË£ÀPt
À ª
Â É ZÀ¼ÄÀ ªÀ½
4) Kaiga movement 4) PÉÊUÁ «gÉÆÃzsÀ ZÀ¼ÀÄªÀ½
6. Assertion (A) : In recent decades the 6. ºÉÃ½PÉ (J) : ¨sÁgÀvz
À °
À è ¸ÁPëÀgv
À AÉ iÀÄ ¥Àª
æ iÀ Át EwÛÃZÉUÉ
percentage of literacy is increasing in India ºÉZÄÀ Ñwz
Û .É
Reason (R) : The government has ¸ÀªÄÀ xÀð£É (PÁgÀt) (Dgï) : ¸ÀPÁðgÀ §ºÀ¼µÀ ÄÀ Ö ¸ÁPëgÀ v
À Á
introduced many schemes like sarvashiksha AiÉÆÃd£ÉU¼ À £
À ÄÀ ß eÁjUÉ vÀA¢zÉ. GzÁ : ¸Àªð À ²PëÀt
Abhiyan, Right to Education. C©üAiÀiÁ£À, ²PëÀtzÀ ºÀPÄÀ Ì EvÁå¢.
1) Both A and R are ture, but R does not 1) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÆ
À ¸Àj, DzÀgÉ R, A £À
explain A. ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ «ªÀgÀuÉ DV®è.
2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 2) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÀÆ ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R, A £À
explanation of A ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ «ªÀgÀuÉ DVzÉ.
3) A is true and R is false 3) A ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R vÀ¥ÀÄà
4) A is false and R is true 4) A vÀ¥ÀÄà ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R ¸Àj
7. The main aim of chipko movement under the 7. ¸ÀÄAzÀg¯À Á¯ï §ºÀÄUÀÄtgÀªg À À £ÉÃvÀÈvÀézÀ 1977gÀ°è
leadership of Sundarlal Bahuguna in 1973 £ÀqzÉ À a¥ÉÆÌÃ ZÀ¼ª
À ½
À AiÀÄ ªÀÄÄRå GzÝÃÉ ±À
was
1) Conservation of forest 1) PÁr£À ¸ÀAgÀPëÀuÉ
2) Prevention of soil erosion 2) ªÀÄtÂ£
Ú À ¸ÀªÀPÀ½AiÀÄ£ÀÄß vÀqÉAiÀÄÄªÀÅzÀÄ.
3) Conservation of water 3) d® ¸ÀAgÀPëÀuÉ
4) Conservation of wild life 4) ªÀ£Àå fÃ«UÀ¼À ¸ÀAgÀPëÀuÉ
8. Appiko movement in karnataka took place 8. PÀ£ÁðlPÀz°
À è C¦àPÆ
É Ã ZÀ¼ª
À ½
À £Àqz
É À ªÀµð
À
in the year
1) 1973 1) 1973
2) 1986 2) 1986
3) 1983 3) 1983
4) 1976 4) 1976
9. The Article of Indian constitution which 9. ªÀÄPÀÌ¼£
À ÄÀ ß zÀÄrªÉÄUÉ vÉÆqÀV¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀ£ÄÀ ß ¤µÉÃ¢ü¸ÄÀ ªÀ
prohibits employing children for work is ¨sÁgÀvÀ ¸ÀA«zsÁ£ÀzÀ «¢ü
1) 21 1) 21
2) 14 2) 14
3) 24 3) 24
4) 16 4) 16
79
10. Match the following 10. ºÉÆA¢¹ §gÉ¬Äj

A (Acts) B (years) A (PÁ¬ÄzÉU¼
À ÄÀ ) B (ªÀµð
À )
i) Right to a) 1986 i) ²PëÀtzÀ ºÀPÄÀ Ì a) 1986
education act PÁ¬ÄzÉ
ii) Prohibition of ii) ªÀgz
À QÀ ëuÉ ¤µÉÃzsÀ
Dowry act b) 1994 PÁ¬ÄzÉ b) 1994
iii) Pre Natal gender iii) ¥À¸
æ ª
À ¥
À ÇÀ ªÀð °AUÀ
determination ¥ÀjÃPÉë ¥Àwæ §AzsPÀ À
test act c) 1961 PÁ¬ÄzÉ c) 1961
iv) Child labour d) 2009 iv) ¨Á®PÁ«ÄðPÀ ¤µÉÃzsÀ d) 2009
prohibition ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¤AiÀÄAvÀt
æ
and control act PÁ¬ÄzÉ
1) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a 1) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
2) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b 2) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
3) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d 3) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
4) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c 4) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c
11. The act of killing foetus of a girl in the womb 11. UÀ¨sÀðzÀ°ègÀÄªÀ ºÉtÄÚ ¨sÀÆætªÀ£ÀÄß UÀ¨sÀðzÀ°èAiÉÄÃ
itself is known as PÉÆAzÀÄºÁPÀÄªÀÅzÀPÌÉ »ÃUÉ£ÄÀ ßªÀgÄÀ
1) Infanticide 1) ²±ÀÄºÀvåÉ
2) Matricide 2) ªÀiÁvÀÈºÀvåÉ
3) Patricide 3) ¦vÀÈºÀvÉå
4) Female foeticide 4) ºÉtÄÚ¨ÀÆ
s t
æ ºÀvÉå
12. In kanrnataka the district which began the 12. PÀ£ÁðlPÀz°
À è C¦àPÆ
É Ã ZÀ¼ÄÀ ªÀ½AiÀÄ£ÀÄß DgÀA©ü¹zÀ
Appiko movement was f¯è.É
1) Belagavi 1) ¨É¼U
À Á«
2) Uttara Kannada 2) GvÀÛgÀ PÀ£ÀßqÀ
3) Udupi 3) GqÀÄ¦
4) Dakshina Kannada 4) zÀQët PÀ£ÀßqÀ
13. The great Kannda poet who declared Truly 13. ``ªÀiÁ£ÀªÀ PÀÄ®A vÁ£ÉÆAzÉÃ ªÀ®A JAzÀ PÀ£ßÀ qÀzÀ
the whole mankind is one was PÀ«
1) Kuvempu 1) PÀÄªÉA¥ÀÅ
2) Pampa 2) ¥ÀA¥À
3) Ranna 3) gÀ£Àß
4) Siddalingaiah 4) ¹zÀÞ°AUÀAiÀÄå
80
14. The neighbouring countries with which India 14. ¨s Á gÀ v À ª À Å ªÁAiÀ Ä ÄªÀ å zÀ ° è ¨s À Æ UÀ r AiÀ Ä £À Ä ß
shares land frontier in North-west are ºÀAaPÉÆArgÀÄªÀ £Égg
É ÁµÀÖçU¼
À ÄÀ
1) Myanmar and Bangladesh 1) ªÀÄAiÀÄ£Áägï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¨ÁAUÁèzÉÃ±À
2) Sri Lanka and Maldives 2) ²æÃ®APÁ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÀiÁ°ØÃªïì
3) Nepal and Bhutan 3) £ÉÃ¥Á¼À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¨sÀÆvÁ£ï
4) Afghanistan and Pakistan 4) D¥sÁÏ¤¸ÁÛ£À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥ÁQ¸ÁÛ£À
15. The total area of India is 15. ¨sÁgÀvz
À À MlÄÖ «¹ÛÃtð
1) 32,87,263 square kilometres 1) 32,87,263 ZÀzÀgÀ Q.«ÄÃ.UÀ¼ÀµÀÄÖ
16. The well known hill stations, Shimla, 16. ¥À¹
æ zÀÞ VjzsÁªÀÄUÀ¼ÁzÀ ²ªÀiÁè, ªÀÄ¸ÀÆìj, £ÉÊ¤vÁ¯ï,
Mussorie, Nainital, Raniket are found in the gÁtÂSÃÉ vï EªÀÅUÀ½gÀÄªÀ ¥Àªð
À vÀ ±ÉÃæ tÂU¼
À ÄÀ
ranges of
1) Siwalik 1) ²ªÁ°Pï
2) The Himachal 2) »ªÀiÁZÀ®
3) Great Himalayas 3) ªÀÄºÁ»ªÀiÁ®AiÀÄ
4) Aravallis 4) CgÁªÀ½
17. Read the following statement and identify the 17. ºÉÃ½PÉU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß N¢ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀjAiÀÄÄvÀÛgª
À £
correct answer
i) The largest physiographic division i) ¨sÆ
À ¸ÀégÆ
À ¥À «¨sÁUÀU¼
À °
À è Cw zÉÆqÀØzÄÀ .
ii) Most ancient ii) Cw ¥ÀÅgÁvÀ£ª
À ÁzÀzÄÀ Ý
iii) A part of the Gondwana land mass iii) UÉÆAqÁé£À ¨sÆ
À gÁ²AiÀÄ MAzÀÄ ¨sÁUÀ
iv) Existed in the early stages of the earth iv) ¨sÆ
À «ÄAiÀÄ gÀZ£
À AÉ iÀÄ DgÀA¨sÀ PÁ®zÀÄÝ
These are the characteristics of the major F J®è ®PëÀtUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß ºÉÆA¢gÀÄªÀ ¨sÁgÀvz
À À ¥Àz
æ Ás £À
physical division of ¨sÆ
À ¸ÀégÆ
À ¥À
1) Northern mountains 1) GvÀÛgÀzÀ ¥ÀªÀðvÀUÀ¼ÀÄ
2) Peninsular plateau 2) ¥ÀAiÀiÁðAiÀÄ ¥À¸
æ ÜÀ ¨Æ
Às «Ä
3) The great northern plains 3) GvÀÛgÀzÀ ªÀÄºÁªÉÄÊzÁ£À
4) Coastal plains 4) PÀgÁªÀ½ ªÉÄÊzÁ£ÀUÀ¼ÀÄ
81
18. Indian climate is called tropital monsoon 18. ``¨sÁgÀvz

À À ªÁAiÀÄÄUÀÄtªÀ£ÄÀ ß GµÀÚª®
À AiÀÄzÀ ªÀiÁ£ÀÆ£
ì ï
climate because ªÁAiÀÄÄUÀÄt JAzÀÄ PÀgAÉ iÀÄÄvÁÛg.É PÁgÀt
1) It is situated in tropical zone and influence 1) CzÀÄ GµÀª Ú À®AiÀÄzÀ°è £É¯ÉUÉÆArzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
of monsoon winds ªÀiÁ£ÀÆì£ï ªÀiÁgÀÄvÀUÀ¼À ¥À¨
æ Ás ªÀPÉÌ M¼À¥ÀnÖzÉ.
2) It is situated in tropical zone and 75% of 2) CzÀÄ GµÀª Ú À®AiÀÄzÀ°è £É¯ÉUÉÆArzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
rainfall occurs by south west monsoon ±ÉÃ. 75 gÀµÄÀ Ö ªÀÄ¼ÉAiÀÄÄ £ÉÊgÀÄvÀå ªÀiÁ£ÀÆ£
ì ï¤AzÀ
3) It is situated in temperate zone and exhibits GAmÁUÀÄvÀÛz.É
tropical condition 3) CzÀÄ ¸ÀªÀÄ²ÃvÉÆÃµÀÚ ªÀ®AiÀÄzÀ°èzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
4) It is situated both in tropical and temperate GµÀªÚ À®AiÀÄzÀ ¥Àj¹ÜwAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ©A©¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
zone but the monsoon winds bring 88% of 4) CzÀÄ GµÀÚ ªÀ®AiÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀªÀÄ²ÃvÉÆÃµÀÚ
rainfall in a year ªÀ®AiÀÄUÀ¼gÉ q
À ®
À Æè £É¯U É Æ
É ArzÀÄÝ ªÁ¶ðPÀªÁV
ªÀiÁ£ÀÆì£ï ªÀiÁgÀÄvÀUÀ¼ÀÄ ±ÉÃ. 88 gÀµÀÄÖ
ªÀÄ¼ÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß vÀgÀÄvÀÛªÉ.
19. Read the statements and indetify the correct 19. F ºÉÃ½PÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß N¢ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀg
Û ª
À £
answer
i) Suns rays are perpendicular i) ¸ÀÆAiÀÄð£À ®A§QgÀtUÀ¼ÄÀ
ii) Days are long ii) ¢ÃWÀð ºÀU®
À Ä
iii) The temperature is high iii) C¢üPÀ GµÁÚA±À
iv) Due to local temperature and winds iv) ¸ÀÜ½ÃAiÀÄ GµÁÚA±À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥ÀZæ ®À £À ¥Àª
æ ÁºÀU½
À AzÀ
rainfall occurs at some places. PÉ®ªÀÅ PÀqÉ ªÀÄ¼ÉAiÀiÁUÀÄvÀÛz.É
1) Winter season 1) ZÀ°UÁ®
2) Summer season 2) ¨ÉÃ¹UÉ PÁ®
3) Retreating Monsoon season 3) ªÀiÁ£ÀÆì£ï ªÀiÁgÀÄvÀUÀ¼À ¤UÀðªÀÄ£À PÁ®
4) South-west monsoon season 4) £ÉÊgÀÄvÀå ªÀiÁ£ÀÆì£ï ªÀiÁgÀÄvÀUÀ¼À PÁ®
20. Assertion 20. ¥Àæw¥ÁzÀ£É (A) : £ÉÊgÀÄvÀå ªÀiÁ£ÀÆì£ï JAzÀgÉ
(A) : South-west monsoons comprise the ªÀÄ¼ÉUÁ®ªÉAzÀxð
À
rainy season. ¸ÀªÄÀ xÀð£É (PÁgÀt) (R) : ¨sÁgÀvz
À À MlÄÖ ªÀÄ¼ÉAiÀÄ°è
Reason ±ÉÃ. 75 gÀµÄÀ Ö F PÁ®zÀ°è ©Ã¼ÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ.
(R) : 75% of rainfall occurs during this
season.
1) Both A and R are true and R explains A 1) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÀÆ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVªÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R, A
2) Both A and R are true but R does not C£ÀÄß «ªÀj¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
explain A 2) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÀÆ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVªÉ, DzÀgÉ R, A
3) A is true but R is false C£ÀÄß «j¸ÀÄªÀÅ¢®è.
4) A is false but R is true 3) A ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ DzÀgÉ R vÀ¥ÄÀ à
4) A vÀ¥ÁàVzÉ DzÀgÉ R ¸Àj
82
21. The soil which most extensively spread in 21. ¨sÁgÀvz

À °
À è ºÉZÄÀ Ñ «¸ÁÛgª
À ÁzÀ ¥Àz
æ ÃÉ ±Àz°
À è ºÀgr
À gÀÄªÀ
India is ªÀÄtÄÚ
1) Laterite soil 1) dA©nÖUÉ (¯ÁålgÉÊmï)
2) Red soil 2) PÉA¥ÀÅ ªÀÄtÄÚ
3) Black soil 3) PÀ¥ÀÄà ªÀÄtÄÚ
4) Alluvial saoil 4) ªÉÄPÀÌ®Ä ªÀÄtÄÚ
22. In which one of the following state black soil 22. PÉ¼V
À £À AiÀiÁªÀ gÁdåzÀ°è PÀ¥ÄÀ à ªÀÄtÄÚ PÀAqÀÄ§gÀÄvÀÛz?É
is found?
1) Jammu and Kashmir 1) dªÀÄÄä ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÁ²äÃgÀ
2) Gujarat 2) UÀÄdgÁvï
3) Rajastan 3) gÁd¸ÁÛ£À
4) Jharkhand 4) eÁRðAqï
23. A woman employee denied maternity benefits 23. M§â ªÀÄ»¼Á GzÉÆåÃVUÉ ºÉjUÉAiÀÄ ¸Ë®¨sÀåªÀ£ÀÄß
but she cannot claim the same. Which one of ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁV®è. DzÀgÉ DPÉAiÀÄÄ CzÀ£ÄÀ ß ¥ÀqAÉ iÀÄ®Ä ¸ÁzsåÀ ªÉÃ
the following should have been her work spot. E®è. F PÉ¼V À £À AiÀiÁªÀ PÁAiÀÄðPÉëÃvÀz æ °À è DPÉAiÀÄÄ
GzÉÆåÃVAiÀiÁVgÀ¨ÃÉ PÀÄ
1) A construction site 1) PÀlÖqÀ ¤ªÀiÁðt PÉëÃvÀæ
2) Educational centre 2) ±ÉÊPëÀtÂPÀ PÉëÃvÀæ
3) Finance transaction centre 3) ºÀtPÁ¸ÀÄ ªÀ»ªÁn£À PÉëÃvÀæ
4) A software company 4) MAzÀÄ ¸Á¥sïÖªÉÃgï PÀA¥À¤
24. The soil which develops on crystaline ignous 24. PÀrªÉÄ ªÀÄ¼É ©Ã¼ÀÄªÀ ¥Àz
æ ÃÉ ±ÀU¼
À °
À è ¸ÀànPÀ CVß²¯ÉU½
À AzÀ
rocks in areas of low rainfall is gÀZ£
À AÉ iÀiÁzÀ ªÀÄtÄÚ
3) Alluvial soil 3) ªÉÄPÀÌ®Ä ªÀÄªÀÄÄÚ
4) Laterite soil 4) dA©nÖUÉ ªÀÄtÄÚ
83
25. Read the statement and identity the correct 25. F ºÉÃ½PÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß N¢ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀg
Û ª
À £
answer i) EzÀ g À ° è eÉ Ã r ªÀ Ä tÂ Ú £ À PÀ t UÀ ¼ À Ä ºÉ Z ÁÑ V
i) It contains more of clay particles PÀAqÀÄ§gÀÄvÀªÛ .É
ii) It is capable of retaining moisture ii) vÉÃªÁA±Àª£
À ÄÀ ß »r¢lÄÖPÆ
É ¼Àî®Ä ¸ÀªÄÀ xÀðªÁVzÉ.
iii) Formed from weathering of Volcanic iii) CVß²¯ÉU¼
À À ²y°ÃPÀgt
À ¢AzÀ GvÀàwÛAiÀiÁVzÉ.
rocks iv) ¸ÀÄtÚ ºÁUÀÆ ªÉÄVßÃ²AiÀÄA PÁ¨ÉÆÃð£ÉÃmïUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß
iv) It has more the lime and magnesium C¢üPÀ ¥Àª
æ iÀ ÁtzÀ°è ºÉÆA¢zÉ
carbonate
1) Mountain soil 1) ¥ÀªÀðvÀzÀ ªÀÄtÄÚ
2) Alluvial soil 2) ªÉÄPÀÌ®Ä ªÀÄtÄÚ
26. Which one of the following statements is not 26. PÉ¼V
À °
À è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ CgÀtåUÀ¼À E½ªÀÄÄRPÉÌ
a valid reasons for the depletion of forests vÀPÌÀ PÁgÀtªÀ®è.
1) Agricultural expansion 1) PÀÈ¶ «¸ÀÛgÀuÉ
2) Large scale developmental projects 2) §ÈºÀvï ¥Àª
æ ÀiÁtzÀ C©üªÀÈ¢Þ AiÉÆÃd£ÉUÀ¼ÀÄ
3) Grazing and fuel wood collection 3) ªÉÄÃ¬Ä¸ÀÄ«PÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ GgÀÄªÀ®Ä ¸ËzÉ ¸ÀAUÀº
æ À
4) Rapid industrialization and urbanization 4) PÉÊUÁjQÃPÀgÀt ªÀÄvÀÄÛ £ÀUÀjÃPÀgÀt
27. Consider the following statements 27. F ºÉÃ½PÉU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß UÀªÄÀ ¤¹
a) Motivating people to plant saplings a) ¸ÁªÀ ð d¤PÀ g À £ À Ä ß VqÀ U À ¼ À £ À Ä ß £É q À ® Ä
b) Guarding against illegal cutting of trees ¥ÉÆÃæ vÁì»¸ÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ.
c) Avoiding grazing of domestic animals in b) PÁ£ÀÆ£ÀÄ ¨Á»gÀªÁV ªÀÄgÀ PÀrAiÀÄÄªÀÅzÀ£ÀÄß
forests ¤AiÀÄAwæ¸ÄÀ ªÀÅzÀÄ.
d) Construction of roads, railways and c) CgÀtåUÀ¼°À è ¸ÁPÀÄ ¥ÁætU
Â ¼
À À ªÉÄÃ¬Ä¸ÀÄ«PÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
irrigational project ¤AiÀÄAwæ¸ÄÀ ªÀÅzÀÄ.
d) gÀ¸ÛU
É ¼
À ÄÀ gÉÊ®Ä ªÀiÁUÀðUÀ¼ÄÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¤ÃgÁªÀj
AiÉÆÃd£ÉU¼ À À ¤ªÀiÁðt
Which one of the above statement does not ªÉÄÃ°£À ºÉÃ½PÉU¼À °
À è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ CgÀtåUÀ¼À ¸ÀAgÀPëÀuU
É É
supports the conservation of forests ¸ÀºÁAiÀÄPÀªÁV®è.
1) A 1) A
2) C 2) C
3) D 3) D
4) B 4) B
84
28. Identify the correct maching of National 28. gÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ GzÁå£Àª£

À U
À ¼
À ÄÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ CªÀÅUÀ½gÀÄªÀ gÁdåUÀ¼À
parks with their states ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ ºÉÆAzÁtÂPAÉ iÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹.
a) Kazeranga National Park - Assam a) PÁfgÀAUÀ £ÁåµÀ£¯
À ï ¥ÁPïð - ÇÁìA
b) Gir National Park - Gujarat b) Vgï £ÁåµÀ£¯
À ï ¥ÁPïð - UÀÄdgÁvï
c) Kanha National Park - Bihar c) PÀ£Áí £ÁåµÀ£¯
À ï ¥ÁPïð - ©ºÁgÀ
d Tandova National Park - Maharastra d) vÁAqÉÆÃªÁ gÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ GzÁå£Àª£
À -À ªÀÄºÁgÁµÀçÖ
1) A, B and D 1) A, B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D
2) B, C and D 2) B, C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D
3) A, C and D 3) A, C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D
29. Match the multipurpose river project 29. ¨sÁgÀvz
À À ¨sÆ
À ¥ÀlzÀ°è i, ii, iii and iv JA§ÄzÁV
indicated on the map of India (i, ii, iii and iv) UÀÄgÀÄw¸À®àlÄÖ ««zÉÆÃzÝÃÉ ±À £À¢ AiÉÆÃd£ÉU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß
with their respective names CªÀÅUÀ¼À ºÉ¸j
À £ÉÆA¢UÉ ºÉÆA¢¹ §gÉ¬Äj.
ii ii
iv iv
i i
iii iii
A. Bhakranangal project A. ¨ÁPÁæ£ÁAUÀ¯ï AiÉÆÃd£É

B. Nagarjuna Sagar Project B. £ÁUÁdÄð£À¸ÁUÀgÀ AiÉÆÃd£É
C. Narmada Valley Project C. £ÀªÄÀ ðzÁ AiÉÆÃd£É
D. Damodar Valley Project D. zÁªÉÆÃzÀgÀ gÀtª
Â É AiÉÆÃd£É
1) i-D, ii-B, iii-C, iv-A 1) i-D, ii-B, iii-C, iv-A
2) i-B, ii-C, iii-D, iv-A 2) i-B, ii-C, iii-D, iv-A
3) i-C, ii-A, iii-B, iv-D 3) i-C, ii-A, iii-B, iv-D
4) i-A, ii-B, iii-A, iv-B 4) i-A, ii-B, iii-A, iv-B
85
30. Identify the incorrect match in the 30. PÉ ¼ À V £À d¯Á±À A iÀ Ä UÀ ¼ À ¥À n Ö ªÀ Ä vÀ Ä Û ºÉ ¸ À g À Ä UÀ ¼ À

following reservoires with their names ºÉÆAzÁtÂPAÉ iÀÄ°è vÀ¥àz
À Á ºÉÆAzÁtÂPAÉ iÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹.
A. Bhakranangal - Govinda sagar A. ¨sÁPÁæ£ÁAUÀ¯ï - UÉÆÃ«AzÀ ¸ÁUÀgÀ
B. Tungabhadra - Pampa sagar B. vÀÄAUÀ¨z
Às Áæ - ¥ÀA¥Á¸ÁUÀgÀ
C. Narmada - Nagarjuna sagar C. £ÀªÄÀ ðzÁ - £ÁUÁdÄð£À¸ÁUÀgÀ
D. Upper Krishna - Basava sagar D. PÀÈµÁÚªÄÉ Ã®ÝAqÉ - §¸Àª¸
À ÁUÀgÀ
1) A 1) A
2) C 2) C
3) B 3) B
4) D 4) D
31. One of the following sets is the important 31. PÉ¼U
À É PÉÆnÖgÄÀ ªÀ d®«zÀÄåvï GvÁàz£
À Á PÉÃAzÀU
æ ¼
À À
hydro electric power generation centre of UÀÄA¦£À°è MAzÀÄ DAzsÀæ ¥ÀæzÉÃ±ÀzÝÁVzÉ. CzÀ£ÀÄß
Andhra Pradesh. Indentify it UÀÄgÀÄw¹
1) Shivana Samudra, Tungabhadra, Sharavati, 1) ²ªÀ£¸
À ª
À ÄÀ ÄzÀ,æ vÀÄAUÀ¨z
Às ,æÀ ±ÀgÁªÀw, PÁ½
Kali 2) ªÉÄlÆÖgÀÄ, ¥ÉÊPÁgÀ, ªÉÆAiÀiÁgï, PÉÆqÀAiÀiÁgï
2) Mettur, Paikara, Moyar, Kodayar 3) mÁmÁ, ©ÃgÀ, ªÉÊvÁgÀ£Á, PÉÆAiÀÄß
3) Tata, Beera, Vaitarana, Koyna 4) ¹¯ÉÃgÀÄ, ²æÃ±ÉÊ®A, gÁªÀÄ¥ÁzÀ¸ÁUÀgÀ,
4) Seleru, Srisailam, Ramapadasagar, £ÁUÁdÄð£À¸ÁUÀgÀ
Nagarjunasagar
32. Hirakud project is built across the river 32. F £À¢UÉ CqÀØ¯ÁV »gÁPÀÄqï AiÉÆÃd£ÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
(CuÉPl
À ÄÖ) ¤«Äð¸À¯ÁVzÉ.
1) Mahanadi 1) ªÀÄºÁ£À¢
2) Cauvery 2) PÁªÉÃj
3) Krishna 3) PÀÈµÁÚ
4) Damodhar 4) zÁªÉÆÃzÀgï
33. Which one of the following describes a 33. PÉ¼U
À É PÉÆnÖgÄÀ ªÀ AiÀiÁªÀ ¨ÉÃ¸ÁAiÀÄ ¥ÀzÞÀ wAiÀÄ°è MAzÉÃ
system of agriculture where a single crop ¨É¼AÉ iÀÄ£ÀÄß «¸ÁÛgª
À ÁzÀ vÉÆÃlUÀ¼°
À è ¨É¼AÉ iÀÄ¯ÁUÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ
grown on a large area
1) Shifting agriculture 1) ¸ÀÜ¼ÁAvÀgÀ ¨ÉÃ¸ÁAiÀÄ
2) Plantation agriculture 2) vÉÆÃlUÁjPÁ ¨ÉÃ¸ÁAiÀÄ
3) Horticulture 3) vÉÆÃlUÁjPÉ
4) Intensive Agriculture 4) ¸ÁAzsÀæ ¨ÉÃ¸ÁAiÀÄ
86
34. Two-three crops growing in one agriculture 34. MAzÉÃ ªÀåªÀ¸ÁAiÀÄzÀ ¨sÆ
À «ÄAiÀÄ°è KPÀPÁ®zÀ°è JgÀqÄÀ -
field at the same time is called ªÀÄÆgÀÄ ¨É¼U
É ¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß ¨É¼AÉ iÀÄÄªÀÅzÀPÌÉ »ÃUÉ£ÄÀ ßªÀgÄÀ
1) Intensive farming 1) ¸ÁAzsÀæ ¨ÉÃ¸ÁAiÀÄ
2) Subsistance farming 2) fÃªÀ£ÁzsÁgÀ ¨ÉÃ¸ÁAiÀÄ
3) Commercial farming 3) ªÁtÂdå ¨ÉÃ¸ÁAiÀÄ
4) Mixed farming 4) «Ä±Àæ ¨ÉÃ¸ÁAiÀÄ
35. Witnessing immense progress in the field of 35. vÉÆÃlUÁjPÁ ¨ÉÃ¸ÁAiÀÄzÀ°è C¥ÁgÀ ¥ÀæUÀwAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
Harticulture is known as ¸Á¢ü¸ÄÀ ªÀÅzÀPÌÉ »ÃUÉ PÀgAÉ iÀÄ¯ÁVzÉ.
1) green Revolution 1) ºÀ¹gÀÄ PÁæAw
2) Golden Revolution 2) ¸ÀÄªÀtð PÁæAw
3) White Revolution 3) ±ÉéÃvÀ PÁæAw
4) Red Revolution 4) PÉA¥ÀÅ PÁæAw
36. The Cropping season that practised between 36. gÀ© ªÀÄvÀÄÛ RjÃ¥sï CªÀ¢U
ü ¼
À À ªÀÄzsåÀ ¨ÉÃ¸ÁAiÀÄzÀ ¨É¼É
the Kharif and Rabi seasons is known as CªÀ¢Aü iÀÄ£ÀÄß »ÃUÉ£ÄÀ ßªÀgÄÀ
1) Jade season 1) eÉÃqï CªÀ¢ü
2) Kharif season 2) RjÃ¥sï CªÀ¢ü
3) Rabi season 3) gÀ©ü CªÀ¢ü
4) Both kharif and rabi season 4) RjÃ¥sï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ gÀ© CªÀ¢ü
37. The following factors are responsible for the 37. vÀ«Ä¼ÀÄ£ÁqÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ DAzsÀæ¥ÀæzÉÃ±À gÁdåUÀ¼À°è ¨sÀvÀÛ
production of paddy, mainly in Tamilnadu, C¢üPª
À ÁV ¨É¼AÉ iÀÄ®Ä PÉ¼PÀ AÀ qÀ CA±ÀU¼
À ÄÀ PÁgÀtUÀ¼ÁVªÉ
Andhra Pradesh
A) They are located in tropical climate A) CªÀÅ GµÀÚª® À AiÀÄzÀ ªÁAiÀÄÄUÀÄtzÀ°èªÉ (25O
(High temperature of 25OC) ¸É°ìAiÀÄ¸ï£ÀµÄÀ Ö GµÀÚvÉ)
B) Irrigation facilities are in plenty B) C¢üPÀ ¥Àª
æ iÀ ÁtzÀ ¤ÃgÁªÀj ¸Ë®¨såÀ UÀ½ªÉ
C) Extension of Alluvial soil C) «¸ÁÛgª
À ÁzÀ ªÉÄPÀÌ®Ä ªÀÄtÚ£ÄÀ ß ºÉÆA¢ªÉ
D) Rainfall distribution from 100-200 cms. D) ªÀÄ¼É ºÀAaPÉAiÀÄ 100-200 ¸ÉA.«ÄÃ.UÀ¼¶
À ÖªÉ
1) A, B & C 1) A, B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C
2) A, B & D 2) A, B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D
3) A, B, C & D 3) A, B, C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D
4) A&B 4) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B
87
38. Indetify the Correct Matching pairs 38. ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ ºÉÆÃ°PÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹
A. Singhabaum - Jharkhand A. ¹AUï§ªÀiï - eÁRðAqï
B. Mayur bhanj - West Bengal B. ªÀÄAiÀÄÆgï§Aeï - ¥À²ÑªÄÀ §AUÁ¼À
C. Raipur - Chattisghar C. gÁAiÀiï¥ÀÅgï - bÀwÛÃ¸ïUÀqÀ
D. Kemmannugundi - Tamilnadu D. PÉªÄÀ ätÄÚUÄÀ Ar - vÀ«Ä¼ÀÄ£ÁqÀÄ
39. Petroleum is called Liquid gold because 39. ¥É m É Æ æ Ã °AiÀ Ä A£À Ä ß ``zÀ æ ª À g À Æ ¥À z À a£À ß JAzÀ Ä
PÀgAÉ iÀÄ¯ÁVzÉ. PÁgÀt
A. Number of industries have flourished A. EzÀ£ÀÄß §¼À¹PÉÆAqÀÄ C£ÉÃPÀ PÉÊUÁjPÉUÀ¼ÀÄ
using this C©üªÈÀ ¢Þ ºÉÆA¢ªÉ.
B. It is a very important energy resource B. J¯èÁ GvÁàzÀ£Á PÉëÃvÀæUÀ¼À°è §¼À¹PÉÆ¼ÀÄîªÀ
using in all productive sector CªÀÄÆ®å ±ÀQÛ ¸ÀA¥À£Æ
À ä®ªÁVzÉ.
C. Very precious in both during peace and C. EzÀÄ ±ÁAw ªÀÄvÀÄÛ AiÀÄÄzÀÞ PÁ®UÀ¼g
É q
À g
À ®
À Æè
war CªÀÄÆ®åªÁzÀÄzÀÄ.
D. It is yellow in colour like gold D. EzÀÄ a£ÀßzÀAvÉ ºÀ¼¢
À §tÚz°
À èzÉ
2) B, A and C 2) B, A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C
3) A, B and D 3) A, B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D
40. Identify the non metalic mineral 40. PÉ¼V
À £À ¥ÀnÖAiÀÄ°è C¯ÉÆÃºÀ R¤dªÀ£ÄÀ ß UÀÄgÀÄw¹
1) Bauxite 1) ¨ÁPÉìÊmï
2) Iron 2) PÀ©ât
3) Copper 3) vÁªÀÄæ
4) Mica 4) C¨sPæÀ À
41. Identify the non-conventional energy sources 41. PÉ¼V
À è ÇÁA¥Àz
æ Á¬ÄPÀ ±ÀQÛ ¸ÀA¥À£Æ
À ä®ªÀ£ÄÀ ß
in the following UÀÄgÀÄw¹.
1) Petroleum 1) ¥ÉmÆ
É Ãæ °AiÀÄA
2) Coal 2) PÀ°z
è ÝÀ ®Ä
3) Wind energy 3) ¥Àª£
À ±
À QÀ Û
4) Atomic energy 4) CtÄ±ÀQÛ
88
42. In India petroleum was first discovered at 42. ¨sÁgÀvz

À °
À è ªÉÆzÀ®Ä ¥ÉmÆ
É Ãæ °AiÀÄA£ÀÄß ¥ÀvÛÉ ªÀiÁqÀ¯ÁzÀ
¸ÀÜ¼À
1) Digboi 1) ¢UÁâAiÀiï
2) Ankaleshwar 2) CAPÀ¯ÃÉ ±ÀégÀ
3) Bombay High 3) ¨ÁA¨É ºÉÊ
4) Kolkata 4) PÉÆÃ®ÌvÛÀ
43. Which mode of transport reduces trans- 43. ¸ÁjUÉ¬ÄAzÁUÀÄªÀ £ÀµÖª
À £
À ÄÀ ß PÀrvÀUÆ
É ½¸ÀÄªÀ ¸ÁjUÉ
shipment losses and delay «zsÁ£À ªÀiÁUÀð
1) Railways 1) gÉÊ®Ä ªÀiÁUÀð
2) Roadways 2) gÀ¸ÉÛ ªÀiÁUÀð
3) Pipelines 3) PÉÆ¼ÀªÉ ªÀiÁUÀð
4) Waterways 4) d® ªÀiÁUÀð
44. Identify the correct Match of the following 44. PÉ¼PÀ AÀ qÀªÅÀ UÀ¼°
À è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ ºÉÆAzÁtÂPAÉ iÀiÁVgÀÄªÀÅzÀ£ÄÀ ß
UÀÄgÀÄw¹.
A. Chennai - oldest port of India A. ZÉ£ÊÉ §AzÀgÄÀ - ¨sÁgÀvz
À À ¥ÁæaÃ£À §AzÀgÄÀ
B. Kolkata - Tea port of India B. PÉÆÃ®ÌvÛÀ §AzÀgÄÀ - ¨sÁgÀvz
À À ZÀºz
À À §AzÀgÄÀ
C. Mumbai - Gateway of India C. ªÀÄÄA§¬Ä §AzÀgÄÀ - ¨sÁgÀvz
À À ºÉ¨ÁâV®Ä
D. Paradeep - Substitute port of Kolkata D. ¥ÁgÁ¢Ã¥À - PÉÆÃ®Ìvz
ÛÀ À ¥ÀAiÀiÁðAiÀÄ §AzÀgÄÀ
3) A, C and D 3) A, C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D
4) A, B, C and D 4) A, B, C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D
45. The highest road in the world is 45. dUÀwÛ£À CvÀåAvÀ JvÀÛgz
À À gÀ¸ÛÉ
1) Highway connecting Lahore and Amritsar 1) ¯ÁºÉÆÃgï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ CªÀÄÈvÀ¸g
À ª
À £
À ÄÀ ß ¸ÀA¥ÀQð¸ÀÄªÀ
2) The highway connecting Kulu-Manali and gÀ¸ÛÉ
Leh 2) PÀÄ®Ä-ªÀÄ£Á° ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¯ÉÃí UÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß ¸ÀA¥ÀQð¸ÀÄªÀ
3) The highway connecting Bari and ºÉzÝÁj
Khatmandu 3) ¨Áj-PÀoÀäAqÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¸ÀA¥ÀQð¸ÀÄªÀ ºÉzÝÁj
4) The highway connecting Varanasi and 4) ªÁgÀuÁ¹-PÀ£ÁåPÀÄªÀiÁjUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¸ÀA¥ÀQð¸ÀÄªÀ
Kanyakumari ºÉzÝÁj
46. The countries which India imports newsprint 46. ¨sÁgÀvÀ £ÀÆå¸ï¦æAmï PÁUÀzÀªÀ£ÀÄß DªÀÄzÀÄ
from ªÀiÁrPÉÆ¼ÀÄîªÀ gÁµÀÖçU¼
À ÄÀ
1) England, Iran, Russia and France 1) EAUÉèAqï, EgÁ£ï, gÀµÁå ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥sÁ£
æ ïì
2) Bangladesh, France, Russia and Srilanka 2) ¨ÁAUÁèzÃÉ ±À, ¥sÁ£
æ ïì, gÀµÁå ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ²æÃ®APÁ
3) Norway, Sweden, Canada and the USA 3) £ÁªÉð, ¹éÃqÀ£ï, PÉ£ÀqÁ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ AiÀÄÄ.J¸ï.J.
4) Korea, China, Nepal and Bangladesh 4) PÉÆjAiÀÄ, aÃ£Á, £ÉÃ¥Á¼À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¨ÁAUÁèzÃÉ ±À
89
47. Bengaluru is called Silicon city of India 47. ¨ÉAUÀ¼ÀÆgÀ£ÀÄß ``¨sÁgÀzÀ ¹°PÁ£ï ¹n JAzÀÄ
because PÀgAÉ iÀÄ¯ÁVzÉ. PÁgÀt
1) It is the centre of education 1) CzÀÄ ²PëÀtzÀ PÉÃAzÀª
æ ÁVzÉ.
2) It is the centre of Industries 2) CzÀÄ PÉÊUÁjPÁ PÉÃAzÀª
æ ÁVzÉ
3) It is the centre of Production 3) CzÀÄ GvÁàzÀ£Á PÉÃAzÀª
æ ÁVzÉ
4) It is the centre of Information technology 4) CzÀÄ ªÀiÁ»w vÀAvÀæeÕÁ£ÀzÀ ªÀÄÄRå
PÉÃAzÀª
æ ÁVzÉ.
48. Factor that not influence location of 48. PÉÊUÁjPÉU¼
À À ¸ÁÜ¤ÃPÀgt
À zÀ ªÉÄÃ¯É ¥À¨
æ ÁªÀ ©ÃgÀzÀ CA±À
industries is
1) Climatic condition 1) ªÁAiÀÄÄUÀÄtzÀ ¹ÜwUÀw
2) Raw-materials 2) PÀZÁÑ ªÀ¸ÀÄÛUÀ¼ÀÄ
3) Energy resources 3) ±ÀQÛ ¸ÀA¥À£ÀÆä®UÀ¼ÀÄ
4) Government policies 4) ¸ÀPÁðgÀzÀ ¤Ãw ¤AiÀÄªÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ
49. Gathering information about distance without 49. ªÀ¸ÀÄÛUÀ¼À£ÀÄß zÉÊ»PÀªÁV ¸Àà²ð¸ÀzÉ zÀÆgÀ¢AzÀ¯ÉÃ
touching the object is called CªÀÅUÀ½UÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀ ªÀiÁ»w ¸ÀAUÀº
æ PÀ ÌÉ »ÃUÉ£ÄÀ ßªÀgÄÀ
1) Remote sensing Technology 1) zÀÆgÀ¸ÀAªÉÃ¢ vÀAvÀe
æ ÕÁ£À
2) Global position system 2) UÉÆèÃ§¯ï ¥ÉÇf±À¤AUï ¹¸ÀÖA
3) Geographical information system 3) ¨sËUÉÆÃ½PÀ ªÀiÁ»w ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜ
4) Geographical communication system 4) ¨sËUÉÆÃ½PÀ ¸ÀA¥ÀPÀð ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜ
50. Tamil nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Orissa are 50. vÀ«Ä¼ÀÄ£ÁqÀÄ, DAzs¥
æÀ z
æÀ ÃÉ ±À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ Mj¸Áì gÁdåUÀ¼ÄÀ
severly affected by one of the following wÃªÀª
æ ÁV PÉ¼PÀ AÉ qÀªÅÀ UÀ¼°
À è MAzÀÄ £ÉÊ¸ÀVðPÀ «PÉÆÃ¥ÀPÌÉ
disaster M¼ÀUÁVªÉ.
1) Floods 1) ¥Àª
æ ÁºÀU¼
À ÄÀ
2) Cyclones 2) ZÀAqÀªiÀ ÁgÀÄvÀU¼
À ÄÀ
3) Landslides 3) ¨sÆ
À PÀÄ¹vÀU¼
À ÄÀ
4) Coastal erosion 4) PÀgÁªÀ½ ¸Àªv
É À
51. The regions of west coasts that severly 51. PÀq®
À PÉÆgÉv¢
À AzÀ ºÉZÄÀ Ñ ºÁ¤UÉÆ¼ÀUÁUÀÄªÀ ºÀ²ÑªÄÀ
affected by the coastal erosion are wÃgÀzÀ ¥Àz
æ ÃÉ ±ÀU¼
À ÄÀ
1) West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh and 1) ¥À²ª
Ñ ÄÀ §AUÁ¼À, DAzs¥
æÀ z
æÀ ÃÉ ±À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÀÄºÁgÁµÀçÖ
Maharashtra 2) vÀ«Ä¼ÀÄ£ÁqÀÄ, Mj¸Áì ªÀÄvÀÄÛ DAzs¥
Àæ z
Àæ ÉÃ±À
2) Tamil Nadu, Orissa and Andhra Pradesh 3) PÉÃgÀ¼À, PÀ£ÁðlPÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ UÉÆÃªÀ
3) Kerala, Karnataka and Goa 4) UÀÄdgÁvï, ªÀÄºÁgÁµÀÖç ªÀÄvÀÄÛ vÀ«Ä¼ÀÄ£ÁqÀÄ
4) Gujaraj, Maharashtra and Tamilnadu
90
52. The collection and analysis of facts and 52. d£ÀjUÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀ ¸ÀASÉå ºÁUÀÆ CªÀgÀ fÃªÀ£PÀ ÌÉ
figures related to human population is called ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀ EvÀgÀ J¯èÁ §UÉAiÀÄ CAQ-CA±ÀUÀ¼À
¸ÀAUÀº
æ u
À É ºÁUÀÆ «±ÉèÃµÀuU
É É »ÃUÉ£ÄÀ ßªÀgÄÀ
1) Density of population 1) d£À¸ÁAzÀv
æ É
2) Population growth 2) d£À¸ÀASÁå ¨É¼ÀªÀtÂUÉ
3) Human resource 3) ªÀiÁ£ÀªÀ ¸ÀA¥À£ÀÆä®
4) Census 4) d£ÀUt
À w
53. Identify the highest density zone of India in 53. ¨sÁgÀvz
À °
À è C¢üPÀ d£À¸ÁAzÀv
æ AÉ iÀÄÄ¼Àî ªÀ®AiÀÄUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß
the following UÀÄgÀÄw¹
1) Bihar, West Bengal, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh 1) ©ºÁgÀ, ¥À²ª
Ñ ÄÀ §AUÁ¼À, PÉÃgÀ¼,À GvÀÛg¥
À z
æÀ ÃÉ ±À
2) Goa, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Jharkhand 2) UÉÆÃªÀ, ªÀÄºÁgÁµÀÖç, PÀ£ÁðlPÀ, eÁRðAqï
3) Chattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Manipur, 3) ZÀwÛÃ¸ïWÀqÀ, ªÀÄzsÀå¥ÀæzÉÃ±À, ªÀÄtÂ¥ÀÅgÀ,
Meghalay ªÉÄÃWÁ®AiÀÄ
4) Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Rajasthan, 4) «ÄeÉÆÃgÁA, CgÀÄuÁZÀ® ¥Àz
æ ÃÉ ±À, gÁd¸ÁÛ£,À
Uttar Khand GvÀg
Û ÁRAqÀ
54. The state of highest density of population in 54. ¨sÁgÀvz
À °
À è Cw ºÉZÄÀ Ñ d£À¸ÁAzÀv
æ AÉ iÀÄ gÁdå
India
1) Bihar 1) ©ºÁgÀ
2) Punjab 2) ¥ÀAeÁ¨ï
3) Karnataka 3) PÀ£ÁðlPÀ
4) Uttar Pradesh 4) GvÀÛgÀ ¥Àz
æ ÉÃ±À
91
SOCIOLOGY & GEOGRAPHY SOCIOLOGY & GEOGRAPHY

01 2 28 1
02 1 29 3
03 4 30 2
04 2 31 4
05 2 32 1
06 2 33 2
07 1 34 1
08 3 35 2
09 3 36 1
10 1 37 3
11 4 38 1
12 2 39 1
13 2 40 4
14 4 41 3
15 1 42 1
16 2 43 3
17 2 44 1
18 4 45 2
19 2 46 3
20 1 47 4
21 4 48 1
22 2 49 1
23 1 50 2
24 1 51 3
25 3 52 4
26 1 53 1
27 3 54 1
92
NTSE - SAT MATHEMATICS
MATHEMATICS UÀtv
Â À
1) The number of non-empty subsets of the set 1) A = { 1, 2, 3, 4}UÀtzÀ ±ÀÆ£ÀåUÀtªÀ®z
è À G¥ÀUt
À UÀ¼À
A = { 1, 2, 3, 4} is ¸ÀASÉå
1) 14 1) 14
2) 15 2) 15
3) 16
3) 16
4) 17
4) 17
2) If A is any subset of the universal set U then 2) AAiÀÄÄ «±ÀéUt À U £À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉÃ G¥ÀUt À ªÁzÀg,É
correct statements among the following is PÉ¼V
À è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ ºÉÃ½PÉU¼
À ÄÀ
a) A ∪ A′ = φ b) A ∪ A′ = ∪ a) A ∪ A′ = φ b) A ∪ A′ = ∪
c) A ∪ φ′ = φ d) A ∪ φ′ = ∪ c) A ∪ φ′ = φ d) A ∪ φ′ = ∪
Options : DAiÉÄÌU¼À ÄÀ
1) a&b 2) b&c 1) a ªÀÄvÀÄÛ b 2) b ªÀÄvÀÄÛ c
3) b&d 4) a&d 3) b ªÀÄvÀÄÛ d 4) a ªÀÄvÀÄÛ d
3) Sets A and B have 3 and 6 elements 3) UÀt A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B UÀ¼ÄÀ C£ÀÄPÀªæ ÄÀ ªÁV 3 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 6
respectively. The minimum number of UÀuÁA±ÀUÀ¼À£ÉÆß¼ÀUÉÆArªÉ. ºÁUÁzÀgÉ AUB
elements in AUB is £À°g
è ¨
À ÃÉ PÁzÀ PÀ¤µÀÖ UÀuÁA±ÀU¼À ÄÀ
1) 3 2) 6 1) 3 2) 6
3) 9 4) 18 3) 9 4) 18
4) In a school of 300 students, every student 4) 300 «zÁåyðUÀ¼À MAzÀÄ ±Á¯ÉAiÀÄ°è ¥ÀæwÃ
reads 5 newspapers and every newspaper «zÁåyðAiÀÄÄ 5 ¢£À¥w À Pæ U
É ¼À £ À ÄÀ ß NzÀÄvÁÛ£É ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
is read by 60 students. Then, the number of ¥Àw
æ Ã ¢£À¥w
À Pæ AÉ iÀÄ£ÀÄß 60 «zÁåyðUÀ¼ÄÀ NzÀÄvÁÛg.É
newspapers in school is
ºÁUÁzÀgÉ ±Á¯ÉAiÀÄ ¢£À¥w À Pæ UÉ ¼ À À ¸ÀASÉå
1) at least 30 2) at most 20 1) PÀ¤µÀÖ 30 2) UÀjµÀÖ 20

3) exactly 25 4) more than 25 3) ¸ÀjAiÀiÁV 25 4) 25QÌAvÀ ºÉZÄÀ Ñ
5) Given n(U)=20, n(A)=12, n(B)=9, n(AÇB)=4, 5) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B UÀ¼ÄÀ «±ÀéUt
À U £À G¥ÀUt
À UÀ¼ÁVzÀÄÝ
where U is the universal set, A and B are n(U)=20, n(A)=12, n(B)=9 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ n(AÇB)=4, DVªÉ.
subsets of U. Then n[(AUB)1] is equal to ºÁUÁzÀgÉ n[(AUB) ] 1
UÉ ¸ÀªÄÀ £ÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌ
1) 17 2) 9 1) 17 2) 9
3) 11 4) 3
3) 11 4) 3
93
6) Some students are divided into groups A and 6) PÉ®ªÀÅ «zÁåyðUÀ¼£ À ÄÀ ß UÀÄA¥ÀÄ A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B UÀ¼ÁV
B. If 10 students are sent from A to B, the «AUÀr¸À¯ÁVzÉ. 10 «zÁåyðUÀ¼£ À ÄÀ ß A ¬ÄAzÀ
number in each is the same. But, if 20 B UÉ PÀ¼ÄÀ »¹zÁUÀ ¥Àw æ Ã UÀÄA¥ÀÅ«£À°è «zÁåyðUÀ¼À
students are sent from B to A, the number ¸ÀASÉå ¸ÀªÄÀ ªÁVgÀÄvÀz Û .É 20 «zÁåyðUÀ¼£ À ÄÀ ß B
in A is double the number in B. Then the ¬ÄAzÀ A UÉ PÀ¼ÄÀ »¹zÁUÀ, A £À°è B VAvÀ
number of students in group A and B JgÀ q À g À ¶ Ö g À Ä vÁÛ g É . ºÁUÁzÀ g É , A ªÀ Ä vÀ Ä Û B
respectively are UÀ Ä A¥À Ä UÀ ¼ À ° è g À Ä ªÀ «zÁåyðUÀ ¼ À ¸À A SÉ å AiÀ Ä Ä
1) 40 and 60 C£ÀÄPÀªæ ÄÀ ªÁV
2) 100 and 80 1) 40 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 60
3) 30 and 50
2) 100 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 80
4) 50 and 30
7) Let F1 be the set of parallelograms, F2 the 7) MAzÀÄ ¸ÀªÄÀ vÀ®zÀ°£ è À ¸ÀªiÀ ÁAvÀgÀ ZÀvÄÀ ¨sÄÀ ðdUÀ¼À
set of rectangles, F3 the set of rhombuses, UÀt F1, DAiÀÄvÀU¼À À UÀt F2, ªÀeÁæPÈÀ wUÀ¼À UÀt
F 4 the set of squares and F5 the set of F3, ZËPÀU¼
À À UÀt F4 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ vÁæ¦dåUÀ¼À UÀt F5
trapeziums in a plane. Then F1 be equal to DVªÉ. ºÁUÁzÀg,É UÀt F1 UÉ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌ
1) F2 ∩ F3 ∩ F4 ∩ F5 1) F2 ∩ F3 ∩ F4 ∩ F5
2) F2 U F3 U F4 U F5 2) F2 U F3 U F4 U F5
3) F1 U F2 U F3 U F4 3) F1 U F2 U F3 U F4
4) F1 ∩ F2 ∩ F3 ∩ F4
4) F1 ∩ F2 ∩ F3 ∩ F4
8) The option which represents shaded region 8) ªÉ£ï £ÀPÉëAiÀÄ°è UÉgÉUÀ½AzÀ UÀÄgÀÄvÀÄ ªÀiÁrzÀ
in the Venn diagram is ¨sÁUÀª£
À ÄÀ ß ¥Àw
æ ©A©¸ÀÄªÀ DAiÉÄÌ
1) (AUB) A B 1) (AUB) A B
2) (A∩B) 2) (A∩B)
3) (AUB) /(A∩B) 3) (AUB) /(A∩B)
4) (AUB) U(A∩B) 4) (AUB) U(A∩B)
 1  3 1   1  3 1 
9) If  [ +  = 3 then the value of  [ + 3  9)  [ +  = 3 DzÀgÉ  [ + 3  £À ¨É¯A
É iÀÄÄ
 [  [   [  [ 
is
1) 3 2) 3
1) 3 2) 3
3) 4) 0 3) 3 3 4) 0
3 3
10) The number whose square roots is twice of 10) ªÀUð
À ªÀÄÆ®ªÀÅ CzÀgÀ WÀ£ª
À ÄÀ Æ®zÀ JgÀqg
À µ
À PÖÀ ÌÉ
its cube root is ¸ÀªÄÀ ªÁVgÀÄªÀ ¸ÀASÉå
1) 128 1) 128
2) 64 2) 64
3) 16 3) 16
4) 4 4) 4
94
11) The number of positive divisors of 5060 is 11) 5060gÀ zs£À À C¥Àªv
À ð
À £ÀU¼
À À ¸ÀASÉå
1) 4 1) 4
2) 10 2) 10
3) 24 3) 24
4) 50 4) 50
12) In the Euclid algorithm of division a=bq+r, 12) AiÀÄÆQèqï£À ¨sÁUÁPÁgÀ D¯ÁÎjxÀA£À a=bq+r,
the value of r is £À°è r £À ¨É¯É
1) 0<r≤b 1) 0<r≤b
2) 0>r≥b 2) 0>r≥b
3) 0≤r<b 3) 0≤r<b
4) 0≥r>b
4) 0≥r>b
13) P is a prime number and P divides ab, where 13) P MAzÀÄ C«¨sÁdå ¸ÀASÉåAiÀÄÄ a ªÀÄvÀÄÛ b JgÀqÄÀ
a and b are integers then ¥ÀÇuÁðAPÀU¼ À À UÀÄt®§Þ ab AiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¨sÁV¸ÀÄvÀz
Û .É
a) P divides either a or b ºÁUÁzÀgÉ
b) P divides neither a nor b a) P AiÀÄÄ a CxÀªÁ b AiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¨sÁV¸ÀÄvÀz Û .É
b) P AiÀÄÄ a CxÀªÁ b AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀ£ÀÆß
c) P divides a but not b
¨sÁV¸ÀÄªÀÅ¢®è
d) P divides b but not a
c) P AiÀÄÄ a £ÀÄß ¨sÁV¸ÀÄvÀz Û É DzÀgÉ b
The correct statement (s) among a, b, c and
AiÀÄ£Àß®è
d related to the statement is
d) P AiÀÄÄ b £ÀÄß ¨sÁV¸ÀÄvÀz Û É DzÀgÉ a
1) a only AiÀÄ£Àß®è
2) a, b and d only ªÉÄÃ°£À ºÉÃ½PÉUÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ a, b, c ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
3) all d UÀ¼°
À è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ ºÉÃ½PÉ (UÀ¼ÄÀ )
4) a, c and d only 1) a ªÀiÁvÀæ
2) a, b ªÀÄvÀÄÛ d ªÀiÁvÀæ
3) J®èªÇÀ
4) a, c ªÀÄvÀÄÛ d ªÀiÁvÀæ
14) The value of the expression
14) ( 34 − 24 2 )( (4 + 3 2) ) 2
£À ¨É¯É
( 34 − 24 2 )( (4 + 3 2) ) is 2
1) -2
1) -2 2) 2
2) 2 3) 3
3) 3
4) 4
4) 4
1 1 1 1
15) 2 2 ,3 3 ,8 8 ,9 9 UÀ¼°
À è zÉÆqÀØ ¸ÀASÉå
1 1 1 1
15) The greatest number amongst 2 2 ,3 3 ,8 8 ,9 9
is
1 1
1 1 1) 2)
1) 2 2 2) 3 3 22 33
1 1 1 1
3) 8 4) 9 3) 8 8 4) 9 9
8 9
95
16) The rational number between 2 and 3 16) 2 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 3 UÀ¼À £ÀqÄÀ «£À ¨sÁUÀ®§Þ ¸ÀASÉå
is
1) 1.5
1) 1.5 2+ 3
2)
2+ 3 2
2)
2 3)
3) 4) 1.8
4) 1.8
17) If x = 136 + 52 + 144 then the value of 17) x = 136 + 52 + 144 DzÀgÉ x £À ¨É¯É
x is
1) 10 2) 11 1) 10 2) 11
3) 12 4) 13 3) 12 4) 13
18) If a and b are positive integers such that 18) a ªÀ Ä vÀ Ä Û b UÀ ¼ À Ä zs À £ À ¥ À Æ uÁAPÀ U À ¼ ÁVzÀ Ä Ý
(a2b2) is a prime number, then (a2-b2) is (a2b2)MAzÀÄ C«¨sÁdå ¸ÀASÉåAiÀiÁzÀgÉ (a2-b2)
equal to UÉ ¸ÀªÄÀ £ÁzÀzÄÀ Ý
1) a+b 1) a+b
2) a- b 2) a- b
3) ab 3) ab
4) 1
4) 1
19) In an A.P, the pth term is q and (p+q)th term 19) MAzÀÄ ¸ÀªiÀ ÁAvÀgÀ ±ÉÃæ rüAiÀÄ p £ÉÃ ¥ÀzÀ -q ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
is 0. Then, the qth term is (p+q) £ÉÃ ¥ÀzÀ 0 DVzÉ. ºÁUÁzÀgÉ q £ÉÃ ¥Àzª À ÅÀ
1) -p 1) -p
2) p
2) p
3) p+q
3) p+q
4) p-q
4) p-q
20) a ªÀÄvÀÄÛ b UÀ¼À £ÀqÄÀ «£À ºÀgÁvÀäPÀ ªÀiÁzsåÀ ªÀÅ
20) If the harmonic mean between a and b is
1 1
H, then H  1 + 1  is equal to H DzÀgÉ H  +  UÉ ¸ÀªÄÀ ªÁzÀzÄÀ Ý
D E D E
2DE D+E 1 2DE
1) 2 2) 3) 4) D+E 1
D+E 2DE 2 1) 2 2) 3) 4)
D+E 2DE 2
21) If a, b, c are in GP, then a+b, 2b, b+c are in 21) a, b, c UÀ¼ÄÀ UÀÄuÉÆÃvÀg
Û À ±ÉÃæ rüU¼
À ÁzÀgÉ a+b, 2b,
b+c UÀ¼ÄÀ
1) AP
1) ¸ÀªiÀ ÁAvÀgÀ ±ÉÃæ rüU¼À °À ègÄÀ vÀÛªÉ
2) GP 2) UÀÄuÉÆÃvÀÛgÀ ±ÉÃæ rüU¼ À °À ègÄÀ vÀÛªÉ
3) HP 3) ºÀgÁvÀäPÀ ±ÉÃæ rüU¼À °
À ègÄÀ vÀÛªÉ
4) Not in sequence 4) ±ÉÃæ rüAiÀiÁVgÀÄªÀÅ¢®è
96
22) If three numbers a, b, c are in HP. Then the 22) a, b, c ¸ÀASÉåUÀ¼ÄÀ ºÀgÁvÀäPÀ ±ÉÃæ rüAiÀÄ°èz.É ¥Àw æ Ã
numbers obtained by subtracting half of the ¸ÀASÉåAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ªÀÄzsåÀ ¸ÀASÉåAiÀÄ Czsð
À gÀ¶AÖ zÀ PÀ¼z
É ÁUÀ
middle number from each of them are in GAmÁUÀÄªÀ ¸ÀASÉåUÀ¼ÄÀ
1) AP 1) ¸ÀªiÀ ÁAvÀgÀ ±ÉÃæ rüAiÀÄ°ègÄÀ vÀªÛ É
2) GP
2) UÀÄuÉÆÃvÀgÛ À ±ÉÃæ rüAiÀÄ°ègÄÀ vÀªÛ É
3) ºÀgÁvÀäPÀ ±ÉÃæ rüAiÀÄ°ègÄÀ vÀª
Û É
3) HP
4) ±ÉÃæ rüAiÀiÁVgÀÄªÀÅ¢®è
4) Not a sequence
23) Let a1, a2, a3.. are in AP and ap, aq, ar be in 23) a1, a2, a3.....UÀ¼ÄÀ ¸ÀªiÀ ÁAvÀgÀ ±ÉÃæ rüAiÀÄ°èªÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
GP. Then, aq: ap is equal to ap, aq, ar UÀÄuÉÆÃvÀg Û À ±ÉÃæ rüAiÀÄ°èª.É ºÁUÁzÀg,É
aq: ap UÉ ¸ÀªÄÀ ªÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌ
U− S T− S U−S T− S
1) 2) 1) 2)
T− S U− S T− S U−S
U−T S−U
U −T S−U 3) 4)
3) 4) T− S T− S
T− S T− S
24) If for an AP a1, a2, a3 . an . The sum of 24) a1, a2, a3 . an.... ¸ÀªiÀ ÁAvÀgÀ ±ÉÃæ rüAiÀÄ°è a1, a3, a5
a1, a3, a5 is 12 and the product of of a1, a2, ¥ÀzÀUÀ¼À ªÉÆvÀÛªÀÅ -12 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ a1, a2, a3 ¥ÀzÀUÀ¼À
a3 is 8. Then the value of a2 + a4 + a6 is UÀÄt®§ÞªÅÀ 8 DVzÉ. ºÁUÁzÀgÉ a2 + a4 + a6 £À ¨É¯AÉ iÀÄÄ
1) -12 2) -16 1) -12 2) -16
3) - 18 4) - 21 3) - 18 4) - 21
25) Let Sn denotes the sum of the cubes of the 25) ªÉÆzÀ® n ¸Áé¨Ás «PÀ ¸ÀASÉåUÀ¼À WÀ£UÀ ¼À À ªÉÆvÀª
Û ÅÀ
first n natural numbers and Tn denotes the Sn ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÉÆzÀ® n ¸Áé¨Ás «PÀ ¸ÀASÉåUÀ¼À ªÉÆvÀª
Û ÅÀ
sum of the first n natural numbers. Then Tn DVzÉ. ºÁUÁzÀgÉ Sn : Tn UÉ ¸ÀªÄÀ ªÁzÀzÄÀ Ý
Sn : Tn is equal to
Q(Q + 1) Q 2 (Q + 1) 2 Q(Q + 1) Q 2 (Q + 1) 2
1) 2) 1) 2)
2 4 2 4
Q (Q + 1) 3
3
Q
3) 4) Q 3 (Q + 1) 3 Q
8 2 3) 4)
8 2
26) In an AP, Sn = Pn2 and Sm = pm2. Then Sp is 26) MAzÀÄ ¸ÀªiÀ ÁAvÀgÀ ±ÉÃæ rüAiÀÄ°è, Sn = Pn2 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
equal to Sm = pm2 ºÁUÁzÀgÉ Sp UÉ ¸ÀªÄÀ ªÁzÀzÄÀ Ý
1 3
1 3
S 1) S 2) mnp
1) 2) mnp 2
2
3) p3 4) (m+n)p2 3) p3 4) (m+n)p2
97
               
27)  −   −   −  .......  −  27)  −   −   −  .......  −  UÉ
       Q        Q
is equal to ¸ÀªÄÀ ªÁVgÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ
Q(Q + 1) 2Q − 1 Q(Q + 1) 2Q − 1
1) 2) 1) 2)
2 Q 2 Q
1 1
3) 4) 1 1
Q2 Q 3) 4)
Q2 Q
(2Q)! (2Q)!
28) The value of is equal to 28) Q ! £À ¨É¯É
Q!
1) 1 x 3 x 5 x (2n -1)2n 1) 1 x 3 x 5 x (2n -1)2n
2) 1 x 3 x 5 (n-1)2n
2) 1 x 3 x 5 (n-1)2n
3) 1 x 3 x 5 x .. (2n +1)2n
3) 1 x 3 x 5 x .. (2n +1)2n
4) 1 x 3 x 5 x(n+1)2n
4) 1 x 3 x 5 x(n+1)2 n
29) The value of Sn if Sn = 1 (1!) + 2(2!) +3(3!) + 29) Sn = 1 (1!) + 2(2!) +3(3!) + +n(n!) DzÀgÉ
+n(n!) Sn ¨É¯É
1) (n+1)! 1) (n+1)!
2) (n-1)! 2) (n-1)!
3) (n+1)! -0!
3) (n+1)! -0!
4) (n+1)!-n!
4) (n+1)!-n!
30) If 56 Pr+6 : 54Pr+3 =30800 :1 then the value of 30) 56
Pr+6 : 54Pr+3 =30800 :1 DzÀgÉ r £À ¨É¯É
r is
1) 39 1) 39
2) 40 2) 40
3) 41 3) 41
4) 42 4) 42
31) If 10Pr = 5040, then the value of r is 31) 10

Pr = 5040 DzÀgÉ r £À ¨É¯É
1) 3 2) 4 1) 3 2) 4
3) 5 4) 6 3) 5 4) 6
32) n-1
Pr + r (n-1 Pr-1) is equal to 32) n-1
Pr + r (n-1 Pr-1) £À ¨É¯É
1) n+1
Pr 1) n+1
Pr
2) n
Pr 2) n
Pr
3) n-1
Pr 3) n-1
Pr
4) n
Pr+1 4) n
Pr+1
98
n n n n
Pr Pr
33) The value of ∑
r =1 r! is 33) ∑
r =1 r! £À ¨É¯É
1) 2n 1 1) 2n-1
2) 2n 2) 2n
3) 2n 1 3) 2n 1
4) 2n +1 4) 2n+1
34) 1.1P1 + 2. 2P2 +3. 3P3+ +n nPn 34) 1.1P1 + 2. 2P2 +3. 3P3+ +n nPn
is equal to £À ¨É¯É
1) n+1
Pn+1 + 1 1) n+1
Pn+1 + 1
2) n+1
Pn+1 2) n+1
Pn+1
3) n+1
Pn+1 1 3) n+1
Pn+1 1
4) n+1
Pn+1 2 4) n+1
Pn+1 2
35) The total number of 9 digit numbers which 35) J¯Áè CAQUÀ¼ÄÀ ¨ÉÃgÉAiÀiÁVgÀÄªÀ 9 CAQUÀ¼À MlÄÖ
have all different digits is ¸ÀASÉåUÀ¼ÄÀ
1) 9! 2! 1) 9! 2!
2) 10! 2) 10!
3) 9 x 9! 3) 9 x 9!
4) 10 x 9! 4) 10 x 9!
36) The option which is not equal to nCr 36) Cr £À ¨É¯U
n
É É ¸ÀªÄÀ ªÁVgÀzÀ DAiÉÄÌ
Q!
1) Q!
(Q − U )!U! 1)
(Q − U )!U!
2) Cn-r
n
2) n
Cn-r
Q n-1
3) Cr-1 Q
U
Q n+1 3) n-1
Cr-1
4) Cr+1 U
U
Q
4) n+1
Cr+1
U
37) If nPr = nPr+1 and nCr = nCr-1 then the value 37) Pr = nPr+1 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ nCr = nCr-1 DzÀgÉ n ªÀÄvÀÄÛ r
n
of n and r respectively UÀ¼À ¨É¯U

É ¼
À ÄÀ C£ÀÄPÀª
æ ÄÀ ªÁV
1) 2 and 3
2) 3 and 2
3) 2 and 1
4) 3 and 1
99
38) The number of numbers of greater than a 38) 2, 3, 0, 3, 4, 2 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 3 CAQUÀ½AzÀ

million that can be formed with the digits 2, ¥ÀqAÉ iÀÄ§ºÀÄzÁzÀ zÀ±®
À PÀëQÌAvÀ ºÉZÁÑzÀ ¸ÀASÉåUÀ¼À
3, 0, 3, 4, 2 and 3 is MlÄÖ ¸ÀASÉå
1) 360 1) 360
2) 340 2) 340
3) 370 3) 370
4) 420 4) 420
39) The number of ways in which the letters of 39) ARTICLE JA§ ¥À z À z À CPÀ ë gÀ U À ½ AzÀ
the word ARTICLE can be arranged so that ¸À j ¸ÁÜ £ À U À ¼ À ° è ªÀ å Ad£À U À ¼ À Ä EgÀ Ä ªÀ ºÁUÉ
the even places are always occupied by eÉÆÃr¸À§ºÀÄzÁzÀ «zsU À ¼À ÄÀ
consonants is
1) 576 1) 576
2) 24 2) 24
3) 2 x 4! 3) 2 x 4!
4) 4 4) 4
40) A box has 3 red, 2 white and 7 green balls. 40) MAzÀÄ ¥ÉnU Ö AÉ iÀÄ°è 3 PÉA¥ÀÅ, 2 ©½ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 7
The number of ways 3 balls can be taken ºÀ¹gÀÄ ZÉAqÀÄUÀ½ªÉ. PÀ¤µÀÖ MAzÀÄ PÉA¥ÀÄ ZÉAqÀÄ
from the box so that atleast one of these is §gÀ Ä ªÀ A vÉ ¥É n Ö U É ¬ ÄAzÀ 3 ZÉ A qÀ Ä UÀ ¼ À £ À Ä ß
red is vÉUAÉ iÀÄ§ºÀÄzÁzÀ «zsU À ¼
À ÄÀ
1) 108 2) 27 1) 108 2) 27
3) 220 4) 136 3) 220 4) 136
41) In a roll of four dice the number of ways in 41) £Á®ÄÌ zÁ¼ÀU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß GgÀÄ½¹zÁUÀ MAzÁzÀgÄÀ 3£ÀÄß
which at least one die shows 3 is vÉÆÃj¸À§ºÀÄzÁzÀ «zsU À ¼
À À ¸ÀASÉå
1) 1296 2) 625 1) 1296 2) 625
3) 671 4) 4096 3) 671 4) 4096
42) The probability that at least one of the events 42) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B WÀl£ÉU¼ À °
À è PÀ¤µÀÖ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉÆAzÁzÀgÄÀ
A and B occurs is 0.6. If A and B occur ¸À A ¨s À « ¸À Ä ªÀ ¸À A ¨s À ª À ¤ ÃAiÀ Ä vÉ 0.6 DVzÉ .
simultaneously with probability 0.2, then KPÀPÁ°PÀªÁV A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B UÀ¼g É q
É Æ
À ¸ÀA¨s«
À ¸ÀÄªÀ
3 ( $ ) + 3 ( % ) is ¸ÀA¨sªÀ ¤ À ÃAiÀÄvÉAiÀÄÄ 0.2 DzÀgÉ 3( $ ) + 3( % )
1) 0.4 2) 0.8 £À ¨É¯É
3) 1.2 4) 1.6 1) 0.4 2) 0.8
3) 1.2 4) 1.6
100
43) A and B play a game where each is asked to 43) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B UÀ½§âgÆ
À 1 jAzÀ 25 gÀ°£
è À MAzÀÄ
select a number from 1 to 25. If the two ¸À A SÉ å AiÀ Ä £À Ä ß DAiÉ Ä Ì ªÀ i ÁqÀ Ä ªÀ DlªÀ £ À Ä ß
numbers match, both of them win a prize. ºÉÃ¼À¯Á¬ÄvÀÄ. DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁrzÀ ¸ÀASÉåUÀ¼ÄÀ MAzÉÃ
The probability that they not win a prize in a DVzÀ°è E§âjUÀÆ §ºÀÄªÀiÁ£À ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁUÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ.
single trial is CªÀ g À Ä MAzÀ Ä ¥À æ A iÉ Æ ÃUÀ z À ° è §ºÀ Ä ªÀ i Á£À
1)
1
2)
24 ¥ÀqAÉ iÀÄ¯ÁUÀzÀ ¸ÀA¨sª À ¤ À ÃAiÀÄvÉ
25 25
1 24
2 25 1) 2)
25 25
3) 4)
25 24
2 25
3) 4)
25 24
44) If A and B are any two events having P(AUB) 44) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B UÀ¼ÄÀ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉÃ JgÀqÄÀ WÀl£ÉU¼
À ÁVzÀÄÝ
1 2
= and 3( $ ) = then 3 ( $ ∩ % ) is 1 2
2 3 P(AUB) = ªÀ Ä vÀ Ä Û 3( $ ) = UÀ¼ÁzÁUÀ
2 3
3 ( $ ∩ % ) £À ¨É¯É
1 2 1 2
1) 2) 1) 2)
2 3 2 3
1 1 1 1
3) 4) 3) 4)
6 3 6 3
45) Two persons are selected in random from n 45) MAzÉÃ ¸Á°£À°è PÀÄ½wgÀÄªÀ n ªÀåQÛU½
À AzÀ E§âg£
À ÄÀ ß
persons sitting in a row. The probability that AiÀiÁzÀÈaÒPÀªÁV DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁqÀ¯ÁUÀÄªÀÅzÀÄ.
two persons selected are not together is ºÁUÁzÀgÉ, C£ÀÄPÀæªÀÄªÁV PÀÄ½wgÀzÀ E§âgÀ£ÀÄß
DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁqÀ§ºÀÄzÁzÀ ¸ÀA¨sª
À ¤ À ÃAiÀÄvÉ
2 2
2
1−
2 1) 2) 1−
1) 2) Q Q
Q Q
Q(Q − 1) Q(Q + 1)
Q(Q − 1) Q(Q + 1) 3) 4)
3) 4) ((Q + 1)(Q + 2) 2
((Q + 1)(Q + 2) 2
46) If A and B are two mutually exclusive events 46) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B UÀ¼ÄÀ ¥Àg¸
À àÀgÀ ªÀdåð WÀl£ÉU¼
À ÁzÁUÀ
then the correct statement is ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ ºÉÃ½PÉAiÀiÁzÀgÉ
1) P (A) ≤ P (B) 1) P (A) ≤ P (B)
2) P (A) > P (B) 2) P (A) > P (B)
3) P (A) < P (B) 3) P (A) < P (B)
4) P (B) < P (A) 4) P (B) < P (A)
101
3 2 3 2
47) If P(AUB) = then DQG 3 ( $ ) = 47) P(AUB) = ªÀ Ä vÀ Ä Û 3 ( $ ) = DzÁUÀ
4 3 4 3
3 ( $ ∩ %) is equal to 3 ( $ ∩ % ) UÉ ¸ÀªÄÀ £ÁzÀ ¨É¯É
1 7
1) 2) 1 7
2 12 1) 2)
2 12
5 1
3) 4) 5 1
12 12 3) 4)
12 12
48) If A and B are two events then probability 48) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B UÀ¼ÄÀ JgÀqÄÀ WÀl£ÉU¼
À °
À è CªÀÅUÀ¼°
À è
that exactly one of them occurs is AiÀiÁªÀÅzÁzÀgÀÄ MAzÀÄ ªÀiÁvÀæ ¸ÀA¨sÀ«¸ÀÄªÀ
¸ÀA¨sª
À ¤
À ÃAiÀÄvÉ
1) 2P (A) 1) 2P (A)
2) 2P (B) 2) 2P (B)
3) P (AUB) + P (A∩B) 3) P (AUB) + P (A∩B)
4) P(AUB) P (A∩B) 4) P(AUB) P (A∩B)
49) If A and B are independent events with P(A) 49) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B UÀ¼ÄÀ ¸ÀévAÀ vÀæ WÀl£ÉU¼
À ÁVzÀÄÝ
1 7
= and P(AUB) = then the value of 1 7
5 10 P (A) = ªÀÄvÀÄÛ P(AUB) = DzÀgÉ 3(% )
5 10
3(% ) is
£À ¨É¯É
2 7
1) 2)
7 9 2 7
1) 2)
7 9
3 5
3) 4) 3 5
8 8
3) 4)
8 8
50) A student has 75% chance of passing in at 50) M§â «zÁåyð «eÁÕ£,À UÀtv Â À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀªiÀ Ád
least one of the subject science, maths and «µÀ A iÀ Ä UÀ ¼ À ¯ É Æ è A zÁzÀ g À Ä GwÛ Ã tð£ÁUÀ Ä ªÀ
social studies. 50% chance of passing in at ¸ÀA¨sª
À ¤À ÃAiÀÄvÉ ±ÉÃ. 75. AiÀiÁªÀÅzÁzÀgÆ À JgÀqÄÀ
least two and 40% chance of passing in «µÀAiÀÄUÀ¼° À è GwÛÃtð£ÁUÀÄªÀ ¸ÀA¨sª À ¤ À ÃAiÀÄvÉ
exactly two. Then, percentage of passing in ±ÉÃ. 50 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉÃ JgÀqÄÀ «µÀAiÀÄUÀ¼° À è
all three subjects is ªÀiÁvÀæ GwÛÃtð£ÁUÀÄªÀ ¸ÀA¨sª À ¤ À ÃAiÀÄvÉ ±ÉÃ. 40.
1) 10% ºÁUÁzÀ g É , J¯Áè «µÀ A iÀ Ä UÀ ¼ À ® Æè
GwÛÃtð£ÁUÀ§ºÀÄzÁzÀ ±ÉÃPÀqÁ ¸ÀA¨sª À ¤ À ÃAiÀÄvÉ
2) 20%
1) 10%
3) 30%
2) 20%
4) 40% 3) 30%
4) 40%
102
51) The probability that the product of two of 51) UÀ t A= {1,2,3.........10} jAzÀ ªÀ Ä ÆgÀ Ä
the numbers is equal to the third when three ¸ÀASÉåUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß AiÀiÁzÀÈaÒPªÀ ÁV DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁrzÁUÀ
different numbers are selected at random JgÀqÄÀ ¸ÀASÉåUÀ¼À UÀÄt®§ÞªÅÀ ªÀÄÆgÀ£ÃÉ ¸ÀASÉåUÉ
from the set A= {1, 2, 3,..10} ¸ÀªÄÀ ªÁVgÀÄªÀ ¸ÀA¨sª À ¤
À ÃAiÀÄvÉ
3 1 3 1
1) 2) 1) 2)
4 8 4 8
1 1 1 1
3) 4) 3) 4)
20 40 20 40
52) The arithmetic mean of n numbers of a 52) n ¸ÀASÉåUÀ¼ÄÀ ¼Àî MAzÀÄ ±ÉÃæ rüAiÀÄ ¸ÀgÁ¸Àj ¨É¯AÉ iÀÄÄ
series is ; of the sum of first (n-1) terms is ; DVzÉ. ªÉÆzÀ® (n-1) ¥ÀzU À ¼
À À ªÉÆvÀª
Û ÅÀ k
k, then the nth number is DzÀgÉ n £ÉÃ ¥ÀzÀ
1) X−k 1) X−k
2) nX − k 2) nX − k
3) X − nk 3) X − nk
4) nX − nk 4) nX − nk
53) The arithmetic mean of a set of observations 53) «ÃPÀëuÉUÆ É ¼À¥lÀ Ö PÉ®ªÀÅ zÀvÁÛA±ÀU¼ À À ¸ÀgÁ¸ÀjAiÀÄÄ
is ; . If each observation is divided by a
; DVzÉ. ¥Àw æ Ã zÀvÁÛA±Àª£À ÄÀ ß a ¬ÄAzÀ ¨sÁV¹
and then is increased by 10, then the mean ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 10 jAzÀ ºÉaÑ¹zÁUÀ GAmÁUÀÄªÀ ºÉÆ¸À
of the new series is ±ÉÃæ rüAiÀÄ ¸ÀgÁ¸ÀjAiÀÄÄ
; ; + 10 ; ; + 10
1) 2) 1) 2)
α α α α
; + 10α
3) 4) α; + 10 ; + 10α
α 3) 4) α; + 10
α
54) The average of n numbers x1, x2xn is 54) x1, x2xn JA§ n ¸ÀASÉåUÀ¼À ¸ÀgÁ¸ÀjAiÀÄÄ
X . If x1 is replaced by a, then new average ; EªÀ Å UÀ ¼ À ° è x 1 §zÀ ® Ä a ºÁQzÁUÀ
is GAmÁUÀÄªÀ ºÉÆ¸À ¸ÀgÁ¸Àj
Q; − [1 + D ; − [1 + D Q; − [1 + D ; − [1 + D
1) 2) 1) 2)
Q Q Q Q
3) (n-1) - x1+a 4) nX − n1 + a 3) (n-1) - x1+a 4) nX − n1 + a
103
55) An additional observation 15 is included in 55) ¸ÀgÁ¸ÀjAiÀÄÄ §zÀ¯ÁUÀzÁUÉ «ÃQë¸À¯ÁzÀ 11

a series of 11 observations and its mean zÀvÁÛA±ÀUÀ½UÉ ºÉZÀÄÑªÀjAiÀiÁV 15£ÀÄß
remains unaffected. The mean of series was ¸É Ã j¸À ¯ ÁUÀ Ä ªÀ Å zÀ Ä . ºÁUÁzÀ g É , zÀ v ÁÛ A ±À U À ¼ À
¸ÀgÁ¸ÀjAiÀÄÄ
1) 12 2) 15 1) 12 2) 15
3) 20 4) 11 3) 20 4) 11
56) The standard deviation of marks of some 56) PÉ®ªÀÅ «zÁåyðUÀ¼ÄÀ 75PÉÌ ¥Àqz É À CAPÀU¼ À À ªÀiÁ£ÀPÀ
students out of 75 is 9. Then, the standard «ZÀ®£ÉAiÀÄÄ 9. ºÁVzÀgÉ, D «zÁåyðUÀ¼À
deviation of same students when the marks CAPÀ U À ¼ À £ À Ä ß UÀ j µÀ Ö 100 PÉ Ì AzÀ Ä Kj¹zÁUÀ
were raised to a maximum of 100 is GAmÁUÀÄªÀ ªÀiÁ£ÀPÀ «ZÀ®£É
1) 9 2) 12 1) 9 2) 12
3) 81 4) 144 3) 81 4) 144
57) If 25% of items are less than 10 and 25% 57) ¨sÁµÁAvÀgÀ ªÀiÁr®è
are more than 40, then coefficient of quartile
deviation is
4 5
4 5 1) 2)
5 3
1) 2)
5 3
1 3
1 3 3) 4)
3) 4) 3 5
3 5
58) If the standard deviation of the observations 58) -5, -4, -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
-51, -4, -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 is 10 . Then, zÀ v ÁÛ A ±À U À ¼ À ªÀ i Á£À P À «ZÀ ® £É A iÀ Ä Ä 10 .
the standard deviation of the observations ºÁUÁzÀg,É 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22,
15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25 is 23, 24, 25 zÀvÁÛA±ÀU¼ À À ªÀiÁ£ÀPÀ «ZÀ®£ÉAiÀÄÄ
1) 2) 1) 10 − 10 2) 10
10 − 10 10
3) 10 + 10 4) 10 10
3) 10 + 10 4) 10 10
59) The probability of three digit numbers with 59) 0,2,4,6,8 CAQUÀ ½ AzÀ AiÀ i ÁzÀ È aÒPÀ ª ÁV
same digits formed using the digits 0, 2, 4, gÀa¸À§ºÀÄzÁzÀ MAzÉÃ jÃwAiÀÄ CAQUÀ¼ÀÄ¼Àî
6, 8 chosen at random is ªÀÄÆgÀÄ CAQUÀ¼ÄÀ ¼Àî ¸ÀASÉåUÀ¼À ¸ÀA¨sª
À ¤
À ÃAiÀÄvÉ
1 16 1 16
1) 2) 1) 2)
16 25 16 25
1 1
1 1 3) 4)
3) 4) 645 25
645 25
60) The probability of random chose of four 60) ¥ÀÅ£ÀgÁªÀvÀð£ÉAiÀiÁUÀ¢gÀÄªÀAvÉ DAUÀè¨sÁµÀ
letter English alphabet password without ªÀtðªÀiÁ¯ÉUÀ½AzÀ AiÀiÁzÀÈaÒPÀªÁV DAiÉÄÌ
repetition is ªÀiÁqÀ§ºÀÄzÁzÀ £Á®ÄÌ CPÀëgÀU¼
À À ¥Á¸ïªÀqïð£À
¸ÀA¨sª
À ¤
À ÃAiÀÄvÉ
1) 0.27 2) 1.27 1) 0.27 2) 1.27
3) 0.78 4) 0.87 3) 0.78 4) 0.87
104
61) The probabilities of mutually exclusive 61) MAzÀÄ ¥ÀAæ iÉÆÃUÀzÀ ¥Àg¸
À àÀgÀ ªÀdåð ¥s°À vÀU¼À ÁzÀ
outcomes A, B, C and D of an experiment A, B, C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D UÀ¼À ¸ÀA¨sª À ¤
À ÃAiÀÄvÉU¼À £
À ÄÀ ß
are given below PÉ¼U
À É ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁVzÉ.
a) P(A) = 0.12, P(B) = 0.63, P(C) = 0.45, P(D) = a) P(A) = 0.12, P(B) = 0.63, P(C) = 0.45, P(D) =
- 0.20 - 0.20
b) P(A) = 0.30, P(B) = 0.25, P(C) = 0.12, P(D) b) P(A) = 0.30, P(B) = 0.25, P(C) = 0.12, P(D)
= 0.33 = 0.33
9 45 27 9 45 27
c) P(A) = , P(B) = , P(C) = , c) P(A) = , P(B) = , P(C) = ,
120 120 120 120 120 120
47 47
P(D) = P(D) =
120 120
15 7 22 6 15 7 22 6
d) P(A) = , P(B) = , P(C)= ,P(D) = d) P(A) = , P(B) = , P(C)= ,P(D) =
50 50 50 50 50 50 50 50
Choose the correct option which permits suitable ºÉÆAzÁtÂPAÉ iÀiÁUÀÄªÀ ¸ÀA¨sª À ¤
À ÃAiÀÄvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
probabilities C£ÀÄªÀÄw¸ÀÄªÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß Dj¹.
1) a and b only 1) a ªÀÄvÀÄÛ b ªÀiÁvÀæ
2) b and c only 2) b ªÀÄvÀÄÛ c ªÀiÁvÀæ
3) b and d only 3) b ªÀÄvÀÄÛ d ªÀiÁvÀæ
4) c and d only 4) c ªÀÄvÀÄÛ d ªÀiÁvÀæ
62) Three different number are selected at 62) A= {1, 2, 3, ..10} UÀt¢AzÀ ¨ÉÃgÉ ¨ÉÃgÉ ªÀÄÆgÀÄ
random from the set A= {1, 2, 3, ..10}. The ¸ÀASÉåUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß AiÀiÁzÀÈaÒPªÀ ÁV DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁqÀ¯ÁVzÉ.
probability that the product of two of the JgÀqÄÀ ¸ÀASÉåUÀ¼À UÀÄt®§ÞªÅÀ ªÀÄÆgÀ£ÃÉ ¸ÀASÉåUÉ
numbers is equal to the third is ¸ÀªÄÀ ªÁVgÀÄªÀ ¸ÀA¨sª À ¤À ÃAiÀÄvÉ
3 1 3 1
1) 2) 1) 2)
4 40 4 40
1 1
1 1 3) 4)
3) 4) 8 3
8 3
63) If A and B are mutually exclusive events, then 63) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B UÀ¼ÄÀ ¥Àg¸ À àÀgÀ ªÀådð WÀl£ÉU¼ À ÁzÁUÀ
the relation between their probabilities is CªÀÅUÀ¼À ¸ÀA¨sª
À ¤À ÃAiÀÄvÉU¼ À À £ÀqÄÀ «£À ¸ÀA§AzsÀ
1) P (A) ≤ P (B) 1) P (A) ≤ P (B)
2) P (A) ≥ P (B) 2) P (A) ≥ P (B)
3) P (A) < P (B) 3) P (A) < P (B)
4) P (B) < P (A) 4) P (B) < P (A)
105
64) The Venn diagram shows three events A, B 64) ªÉ£ï £ÀPëÉ AiÀÄÄ A, B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C ªÀÄÆgÀÄ WÀl£ÉU¼ À ÄÀ
and C and the probabilities of various ºÁUÀÆ PÉ®ªÀÅ «¨sÁUÀU¼ À À ¸ÀA¨sª
À ¤
À ÃAiÀÄvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
intersections ©A©¸ÀÄvÀÛª.É
B B
A 0.10 A 0.10
0.07 0.07
0.13 0.13
0.15 C 0.15 C
0.28 0.28
Match the following and chose correct option PÉ¼ÀV£À ¥ÀnÖAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢¹ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ
I II DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß Dj¹.
I II
a) P(A) (i) 0.13
a) P(A) (i) 0.13
b) P(AUB) (ii) 0.17
b) P(AUB) (ii) 0.17
c) P(B∩C) (iii) 0.45
c) P(B∩C) (iii) 0.45
d) P(B∩C) (iv) 0.15
d) P(B∩C) (iv) 0.15
(v) 0.20
(v) 0.20
Options :
a b c d
DAiÉÄÌU¼
À ÄÀ :
1) i v iv ii a b c d
2) ii iv iii v 1) i v iv ii
3) v iii iv ii 2) ii iv iii v
4) ii iv v i 3) v iii iv ii
4) ii iv v i
65) The mean of fifteen different natural 65) ºÀ¢£ÉÊzÀÄ ««zsÀ ¸Áé¨Ás «PÀ ¸ÀASÉåUÀ¼À ¸ÀgÁ¸Àj
numbers is 13. The maximum value for the 13 DVzÉ. EªÀÅUÀ¼°
À è JgÀq£À ÃÉ zÉÆqÀØ ¸ÀASÉåAiÀÄ
second largest of these numbers is UÀjµÀÖ ¨É¯É
1) 46 2) 51 1) 46 2) 51
3) 52 4) 53
3) 52 4) 53
66) The product of mean and mode for the data 66) 1,2,2,3,3,3, ...............9, 9 zÀvÁÛA±ÀU¼
À À ¸ÀgÁ¸Àj
1,2,2,3,3,3,3,4,4,4,4,9,9 is ªÀÄvÀÄÛ gÀÆrü¨¯
É UÉ ¼À À UÀÄt®§Þ
19 19
1) 2) 9 1) 2) 9
3 3
3) 57 4) 19
3) 57 4) 19
106
67) If 2 x = 8 y+1 and 9 y = 3 x-9 then the value of 67) 2x = 8y+1 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 9 y = 3x-9 ºÁUÁzÀgÉ y £À
y is ¨É¯ÉAiÀÄÄ
1) 2 2) 4 1) 2 2) 4
3) 6 4) 8 3) 6 4) 8
68) In a cage, there are rabbits and parrots. The 68) MAzÀÄ ¥ÀAdgÀzÆ É ¼ÀUÉ PÉ®ªÀÅ ªÉÆ®UÀ¼ÄÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
number of heads are 28 and feet are 72. V½UÀ½ªÉ. CzÀgÉÆ¼ÀUÉ 28 vÀ¯É ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 72
Then, the number of parrots and rabbits PÁ®ÄUÀ½ªÉ. ºÁUÁzÀg,É V½UÀ¼À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÉÆ®UÀ¼À
respectively are ¸ÀASÉåAiÀÄÄ C£ÀÄPÀª
æ ÄÀ ªÁV
1) 20 and 8 2) 8 and 20 1) 20 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 8 2) 8 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 20
3) 14 and 14 4) 12 and 16 3) 14 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 14 4) 12 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 16
69) The remainder when x20/7 is divided by 69) x20/7 £ÀÄß (x2 1) jAzÀ ¨sÁV¹zÁUÀ GAmÁUÀÄªÀ
(x2 1) is ±ÉÃµÀ
1) 1 2) 0 1) 1 2) 0
3) x 4) x2 3) x 4) x2
70) The roots of the equation (q r)x2 + (r p) 70) (q r)x2 + (r p) x+ (p q) =0 ¸À«ÄÃPÀgt
À zÀ
x+ (p q) =0 are ªÀÄÆ®UÀ¼ÄÀ
U−S S−T U−S S−T
1) ,1 2) ,1 1) ,1 2) ,1
T−U T−U T−U T−U
T−U U− S T−U U−S

3) ,1 4) ,1 3) ,1 4) ,1
S−T S−T S−T S−T
71) The roots of 2x3 3x2 -11x +6=0 which are 71) ¸À ª À i ÁAvÀ g À ±É æ Ã rü ªÀ Ä Æ®UÀ ¼ À £ É Æ ß¼À U É Æ AqÀ
in arithmetic progression are 2x3 3x2 -11x +6=0 ¸À«ÄÃPÀgt À zÀ ªÀÄÆ®UÀ¼ÄÀ
−5 1 −5
1
,−2, 1 1) ,−2, 2) -2,
1
, 3
1) 2 2 2) -2, , 3 2 2 2
2
3) -4, 2, 6 4) 1, 3, 5 3) -4, 2, 6 4) 1, 3, 5
72) If the equation x2 + px + q = 0 and x2 + qx + 72) x2 + px + q = 0 ªÀ Ä vÀ Ä Û x2 + qx + p=0

p=0 have a common root, then p+q+1 is equal ¸À « ÄÃPÀ g À t UÀ ¼ À Ä MAzÀ Ä ¸ÁªÀ i Á£À å ªÀ Ä Æ®
to ºÉÆA¢zÁÝUÀ p + q + 1 £À ¨É¯É
1) 0 2) 1 1) 0 2) 1
3) 2 4) -1 3) 2 4) -1
73) If a, b be the roots of 2x2 15x +4=0 then 73) 2x2 15x +4=0 ¸À«ÄÃPÀgt À zÀ ªÀÄÆ®UÀ¼ÄÀ a,
the equation whose roots are a+3 and b+3 b UÀ ¼ ÁzÀ g É a+3 ªÀ Ä vÀ Ä Û b + 3
is ªÀÄÆ®UÀ¼£À Æ
É ß¼ÀUÆ
É AqÀ ¸À«ÄÃPÀgt
À
1) 2x2 15x +4 =0 1) 2x2 15x +4 =0
2) 6x2 45x+12=0 2) 6x2 45x+12=0
3) 2x2 27x +67=0 3) 2x2 27x +67=0
4) 3x2 -15x +4 =0 4) 3x2 -15x +4 =0
107
[ +3 [ 1 1
74) 5 [ +3 [ =
2 2
74) The roots of 5 = are ¸À«ÄÃPÀgt

À zÀ ªÀÄÆ®UÀ¼ÄÀ
25 25
1) 2 and 1 2) -2 and 1 1) 2 and 1 2) -2 and 1
3) 2 and -1 4) -2 and -1 3) 2 and -1 4) -2 and -1
75) The value of P for which the equation 75) 2x2 + 2 S[ + S = 0 ¸À«ÄÃPÀgÀtzÀ ªÀÄÆ®UÀ¼ÀÄ
2x2 + 2 S[ + S = 0 has equal roots ¸ÀªÄÀ ªÁVzÁÝUÀ P £À ¨É¯É
1) 0 and 2 2) 0 1) 0 and 2 2) 0
3) 4 4) 0 and 4 3) 4 4) 0 and 4
76) If x = 6 + 6 + 6 + ...... + ∞ then the 76) x= 6 + 6 + 6 + ...... + ∞ DzÁUÀ x £À ¨É¯É

value of x is
1) -2 2) 2 < x < 3 1) -2 2) 2 < x < 3
3) 2 4) 3 3) 2 4) 3
77) Joshitha spent 25% of her monthly pocket 77) eÉÆÃ¶vÁ¼ÀÄ wAUÀ¼À Rað£À ºÀtzÀ ±ÉÃ. 25 £ÀÄß
money on magazines. Out of the balance ¤AiÀÄvÀPÁ°PÀU½
À UÉ G¥ÀAiÉÆÃV¸ÀÄvÁÛ¼.É G½zÀ ºÀtzÀ
amount she spent 75% on the hostel and ±ÉÃ. 75£ÀÄß PÁ¯ÉÃdÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÀ¸Àw ±ÀÄ®ÌUÀ½UÉ
college fee. If she had Rs. 120 at the end of G¥ÀAiÉÆÃV¸ÀÄªÀ¼ÄÀ . PÉÆ£ÉAiÀÄ°è gÀÆ. 120 G½AiÀÄ
the month then the money she received from §ºÀÄzÁzÀgÉ CªÀ¼ÄÀ vÀAzÉAiÀÄ §½ ¥ÀqAÉ iÀÄÄªÀ ºÀt
her father is 1) gÀÆ. 1000 2) gÀÆ. 1260
1) Rs. 1000 2) Rs. 1260 3) gÀÆ. 640 4) gÀÆ. 850
3) Rs. 640 4) Rs. 850
108
78) AB, AC and XY are the tangents to a circle 78) AB, AC ªÀÄvÀÄÛ XY UÀ¼ÄÀ O.PÉÃAzÀ« æ gÀÄªÀ ªÀÈvÀPÛ ÌÉ
with centre O. The perimeter of DAXY is ¸Àà±ð
À UÀ¼ÁVªÉ. DAXY £À ¸ÀÄvÀ¼
Û v
À U
É É ¸ÀªÄÀ ªÁzÀÄzÀÄ.
same as
B I) 2 AB B
I) 2 AB X X
A II) 2AC A
II) 2AC
III) AB + AC
III) AB + AC C
Y
C
Y
IV) 2XY
IV) 2XY
1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ ¸Àj
1) Only I true
2) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II ªÀiÁvÀæ ¸Àj
2) Only I & II are true
3) I, II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III ªÀiÁvÀæ ¸Àj
3) Only I, II & III are true
4) I, II, III ªÀÄvÀÄÛ IV ¸Àj
4) I, II, III & IV are true
79) BC & AX are the common tangents for 79) BC ªÀÄvÀÄÛ AX UÀ¼ÄÀ 4cm ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 3cm wædå«gÀÄªÀ
given circles of radii 4cm & 3cm. If ªÀÈvÀU
Û ½
À UÉ ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ¸Àà±ð
À PÀU¼
À ÁVªÉ. AX = 3cm
AX = 3cm then length BC = DzÀgÉ BC AiÀÄ GzÀÝ
1) 5 cm A 1) 5 cm A
2) 6 cm 2) 6 cm
3) 7cm B X C
3) 7cm B X C
4) 12 cm 4) 12 cm
80) In fig AB is the tangent for given circle, if 80) avÀzæ °À è AB AiÀÄÄ ¸Àà±ð
À PÀªÁVzÉ. ∠3%4 = 300
∠3%4 = 300 & ∠3 = 400 then the value of ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ∠3 = 40 0 DzÀgÉ ∠3%& ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ∠4%$
∠3%& and ∠4%$ respectively are UÀ¼À C¼ÀvÉ PÀª
æ ÄÀ ªÁV
1) 400 & 300
Q P 1) 400 & 300 Q P
2) 1100 & 400 40 0 40 0
2) 1100 & 400
3) 40 & 110
0 0 30 0 30 0
A C 3) 40 & 110
0 0
A C
B B
4) 300 & 400
4) 300 & 400
81) The distance between centres of two circles 81) 4 cm ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 2cm wædå«gÀÄªÀ ªÀÈvÀUÛ ¼À À PÉÃAzÀU
æ ¼
À À
of radii 4 cm & 2cm is 10 cm. The length of £ÀqÄÀ «£À zÀÆgÀ 10 cm DzÀgÉ ªÀÈvÀU Û ½À UÉ J¼ÉzÀ
direct common tangent drawn for these two £ÉÃgÀ ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ¸Àà±ð
À PÀzÀ GzÀÝ, cm UÀ¼° À è
circle in cm, is 1) 100
1) 100 2) 96
2) 96 3) 98
3) 98 4) 102
4) 102
109
82) In given figure, OP is same as twice the 82) avÀæzÀ°è OP AiÀÄÄ ªÀÈvÀÛzÀ wædåzÀ JgÀqÀgÀµÀÖPÉÌ
raidus of circle. The measure of ∠$3% is ¸ÀªÄÀ ªÁVzÉ. DUÀ ∠$3% AiÀÄ C¼ÀvÉ
1) 300 A 1) 300 A
2) 450 P 2) 450 P
O O
3) 60 0 Q Q
3) 600
4) 90 0 B
4) 900
B
83) A circle is inscribed in a quadrilateral PQRS, 83) PQRS ZÀ v À Ä ¨s À Ä ðdzÀ ¨ÁºÀ Ä UÀ ¼ À Ä ªÀ È vÀ Û z À

then ¸Àà±ð
À PÀU¼
À ÁzÀg,É DUÀ
1) PQ + RS = QR + SP 1) PQ + RS = QR + SP
2) PQ + RS = PR + QS 2) PQ + RS = PR + QS
3) PR + PS = QS + RS 3) PR + PS = QS + RS
4) PR + PS = QR + QS 4) PR + PS = QR + QS
84) Match the following 84) PÉ¼V

À £ÀªÅÀ UÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß ºÉÆA¢¹.
Type of Distance ªÀÈvÀÛUÀ¼À PÉÃAzÀæUÀ¼À

circles between «zsUÀ ¼À ÄÀ £ÀqÄÀ «£À zÀÆgÀ
their centres
a) ¨ÁºÀå¸Àà±Àð i) d = R r
a) Externally touching i) d = R r
circles ªÀÈvÀÛUÀ¼ÀÄ
b) Internally touching ii) d = 0 b) CAvÀgÀ ¸Àà±ð
À ii) d = 0
circles ªÀÈvÀÛUÀ¼ÀÄ
c) Concentric circles iii) d = R + r c) KPÀPÉÃA¢æAiÀÄ iii) d = R + r
d) Non-intersecting iv) d > R + r ªÀÈvÀÛUÀ¼ÀÄ
congruent circles
d) ¥ÀgÀ¸ÀàgÀ ¸Àà²ð¸ÀzÀ iv) d > R + r
v) d < R + r ¸ÀªÀð¸ÀªÀÄ ªÀÈvÀÛUÀ¼ÀÄ
v) d < R + r
1) a i, b iii, c-v, d iv 1) a i, b iii, c-v, d iv

2) a iii, b i, c- ii, d- iv 2) a iii, b i, c- ii, d- iv
3) a iii, b- i, c- ii, d-v 3) a iii, b- i, c- ii, d-v
4) a i, b iii, c- iv, d ii 4) a i, b iii, c- iv, d ii
110
85) AB and AC are the tangents to circle with 85) O PÉÃAzÀ« æ gÀÄªÀ ªÀÈvÀÛPÌÉ AB ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ACUÀ¼ÄÀ
centre O if ∠%$& = 60 0 then perimeter of ¸À à ± À ð PÀ U À ¼ ÁVªÉ . ∠%$& = 600 DzÀgÉ ABC
ABC is same as ¸ÀÄvÀÛ¼v
À É
I) 3AB I) 3AB
II) 3 BC II) 3 BC
III) 3CA III) 3CA
IV) AB + BC + CA IV) AB + BC + CA
1) Only IV is true 1) IV ªÀiÁvÀæ ¸Àj
2) Only I & IV are true 2) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ IV ªÀiÁvÀæ ¸Àj
3) Only I, II & IV are true 3) I, II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ IV ªÀiÁvÀæ ¸Àj
4) I, II, III & IV are true 4) I, II III ªÀÄvÀÄÛ IV ¸Àj
−E −E
86) In ax2 +bx+c=0, if the value of = 4 and 86) ax2 +bx+c=0 ¸À«ÄÃPÀgt
À zÀ°è = 4 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
D D
a=c=2, then the equation is a=c=2, DzÀgÉ ªÀUð
À ¸À«ÄÃPÀgt
À ªÀÅ
1) 2x + 4x 2 =0
2
1) 2x2 + 4x 2 =0
2) 2x + 4x + 2 =0
2
2) 2x2 + 4x + 2 =0
3) 2x2 8x 2 =0
3) 2x2 8x 2 =0
4) 2x2 8x +2 =0
4) 2x2 8x +2 =0
87) If m and n are the roots of equation 87) ax2 + bx +c=0, ¸À « ÄÃPÀ g À t zÀ ªÀ Ä Æ®UÀ ¼ À Ä
1 1
1 1 m ªÀÄvÀÄÛ n UÀ¼ÁzÀg,É DUÀ + £À ¨É¯É
ax2 + bx +c=0, then the value of + is P Q
P Q
E F
1) − 2) − E F
F E 1) − 2) −
F E
E F
3) − 4) − E F
D D 3) − 4) −
D D
88) i) In ax2+bx+c=0 , if b=0 then it is pure 88) i) ax +bx+c=0 £À°è b=0 DzÀg,É DUÀ EzÀÄ
2
quadratic equation ±ÀÄzÀÞªÀUÀð¸À«ÄÃPÀgÀt.

ii) In ax +bx +c=0, if c=0 then its one
2
ii) ax2 +bx +c=0 £À°è c=0 DzÀg,É DUÀ
root is zero
EzÀgÀ MAzÀÄ ªÀÄÆ® ¸ÉÆ£ÉßAiÀiÁVgÀÄvÀz
Û .É
1) (i) true & (ii) false
1) (i) ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ (ii) vÀ¥àÅÀ
2) (i) false & (ii) true 2) (i) ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ (ii) vÀ¥àÅÀ
3) (i) & (ii) are true 3) (i) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ (ii) ¸Àj
4) (i) & (ii) are false 4) (i) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ (ii) vÀ¥àÅÀ
111
89) The quadratic equation form, whose sum 89) ªÀÄÆ®UÀ¼À ªÉÆvÀÛ -1 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÀÄÆ®UÀ¼À UÀÄt®§Ý
of roots is -1 and product of roots is -2 is -2 ºÉÆA¢gÀÄªÀ ªÀUð À ¸À«ÄÃPÀgt À
1) x2 + 1x 2 = 0 1) x2 + 1x 2 = 0
2) x2 1x 2 = 0 2) x2 1x 2 = 0
3) x2 + 1x + 2 = 0 3) x2 + 1x + 2 = 0
4) x2 1x 2 = 0 4) x2 1x 2 = 0
90) If a1 and a2 be the roots of the equation 90) a1 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ a2 UÀ¼ÄÀ 5y2 py +1=0 ¸À«ÄÃPÀgt
À zÀ
5y2 py +1=0 and a1- a2=1 then the value of ªÀÄÆ®UÀ¼ÄÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ a1- a2=1 DzÀgÉ p £À ¨É¯É
p is
1) ±3 5
1) ±3 5
2) ±5 3
2) ±5 3 3) ±5
3) ±5
4) ±3
4) ±3
91) If one root of the equation x2 6kx + 5 = 0 91) x2 6kx + 5 = 0 ¸À«ÄÃPÀgt
À zÀ MAzÀÄ ªÀÄÆ®
is 5, then the value of k is 5 DzÀgÉ k £À ¨É¯É
1 1
1) 1)
2 2
2) 1 2) 1
3) -1 3) -1
1 1
4) − 4) −
2 2
92) If the discriminate of the equation 92) 6x2 bx + 2 = 0 ¸À«ÄÃPÀgÀtzÀ ±ÉÆÃzsÀPÀzÀ
6x2 bx + 2=0 is 1, then the value of b is ¨É¯É 1 DzÀgÉ b £À ¨É¯É
1) ± 7 1) ± 7
2) ±7 2) ±7
3) ± 3) ±
4) ±5 4) ±5
112
93) Which of the following equations has the 93) PÉ¼ÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ¸À«ÄÃPÀgÀtUÀ¼À°è ªÀÄÆ®UÀ¼ÀÄ
equal roots? ¸ÀªÀÄªÁVªÉ?
1 1
1) 10 x − = 3 1) 10 x − =3
[ [
1 1 1 1
2) x2 - [y − = 0 2) x2 - [y − = 0
6 3 6 3
3) x2 8x + 16=0 3) x2 8x + 16=0
4) x2 +6x+5=0 4) x2 +6x+5=0
94) The condition for equation ax2 + bx + c=0 94) ax2 + bx + c=0 ¸À«ÄÃPÀgt
À zÀ ªÀÄÆ®UÀ¼ÄÀ ¥Àg¸
À àÀgÀ
whose roots are reciprocal to each other is ªÀÅåvÀÌøªÀÄUÀ¼ÁVgÀ¨ÃÉ PÁzÀg,É EgÀÄªÀ ¤§Azs£
À É
1) a=c 1) a=c
2) a+b+c = 0 2) a+b+c = 0
3) a=b 3) a=b
4) b =c 4) b =c
95) In x2 + px + q=0 equation, if one root is 3 95) x2 + px + q=0 ¸À«ÄÃPÀgt
À zÀ MAzÀÄ ªÀÄÆ®ªÀÅ
times the other then E£ÉÆßAzÀÄ ªÀÄÆ®zÀ 3 gÀ¶z Ö ÝÀg,É DUÀ
1) 3q2 = 16p 1) 3q2 = 16p
2) 3p2 = 16q 2) 3p2 = 16q
3) 16q2 =3p 3) 16q2 =3p
4) 16p2 = 3q 4) 16p2 = 3q
96) The perimeter of right angle triangle is 96) ®A§PÉÆÃ£À wæ¨sÀÄdzÀ ¸ÀÄvÀÛ¼ÀvÉ 12 cm ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
12 cm and the difference between two sides ®A§PÉÆÃ£À GAlÄ ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀ ¨ÁºÀÄUÀ¼À £ÀqÄÀ «£À
which form right angle is 1 cm. the area of ªÀåvÁå¸À 1 cm DzÀgÉ wæ¨ÄÀs dzÀ «¹ÛÃtð
triangle is
1) 12 cm2 1) 12 cm2
2) 10 cm2 2) 10 cm2
3) 7.5 cm2 3) 7.5 cm2
4) 6 cm2 4) 6 cm2
97) For a given quadratic equation, the value of 97) zÀvÛÀ ªÀUð
À ¸À«ÄÃPÀgt
À zÀ°,è ªÀÄÆ®UÀ¼À UÀÄt®§Þ
product of roots ÷ sum of roots is ÷ ªÀÄÆ®UÀ¼À ªÉÆvÀÛ =
E E
1) 1)
D D
−F −F
2) 2)
E E
−E −E
3) 3)
D D
D D
4) 4)
F F
113
98) The ratio of the diameter of two sphere is 98) JgÀqÄÀ UÉÆÃ¼ÀU¼
À À ªÁå¸ÀU¼À À C£ÀÄ¥ÁvÀ 5:7 DzÀgÉ
5:7, then the ratio of their total surface areas CªÀÅUÀ¼À ¥ÀÆtð ªÉÄÃ¯ÉäöÊ «¹ÛÃtðUÀ¼À C£ÀÄ¥ÁvÀªÅÀ
is 1) 49 : 12
1) 49 : 12 2) 12 :25
2) 12 :25 3) 49 : 25
3) 49 : 25 4) 25 : 49
4) 25 : 49 99) ±ÀAPÀÄ«£À ¥ÁzÀzÀ wædåªÀ£ÄÀ ß JgÀqÄÀ ¥ÀlÄÖ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
99) If the radius of the base of a cone is doubled CzÀgÀ JvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß ªÀÄÆgÀÄ ¥ÀlÄÖ ºÉaÑ¹zÁUÀ
and the height is tripled, then the volume of GAmÁUÀÄªÀ ±ÀAPÀÄ«£À WÀ£À¥sÀ® ªÀÄvÀÄÛ zÀvÀÛ
obtained cone : given cone = WÀ£¥À ®
Às UÀ¼À C£ÀÄ¥ÁvÀ
1) 1 : 12 1) 1 : 12
2) 12 : 1 2) 12 : 1
3) 6:1 3) 6:1
4) 1:6 4) 1:6
100) The diameter of the base of two cones are 100) JgÀqÄÀ ±ÀAPÀÄ«£À ªÁå¸À ¸ÀªÄÀ ªÁVzÉ. CªÀÅUÀ¼À
equal. If their slant height are in the ratio NgÉ JvÀg Û U
À ¼À À C£ÀÄ¥ÁvÀªÅÀ 5:4 DzÀgÉ CªÀÅUÀ¼À
5:4, the ratio of their curved surface area is ªÀPæÀ ªÉÄÃ¯ÉäöÊ «¹ÛÃtðUÀ¼À C£ÀÄ¥ÁvÀªÅÀ
1) 5:4 1) 5:4
2) 5:6 2) 5:6
3) 4:5 3) 4:5
4) 3:5 4) 3:5
101) The surface area of the sphere is 616 cm2. 101) UÉÆÃ¼ÀzÀ ¥ÀÆtð ªÉÄÃ¯ÉäöÊ «¹ÛÃtðªÀÅ 616 cm2
The diameter of the sphere is DzÀgÉ UÉÆÃ¼ÀzÀ ªÁå¸ÀªÅÀ
1) 7 cm 1) 7 cm
2) 14 cm 2) 14 cm
3) 21 cm 3) 21 cm
4) 49 cm 4) 49 cm
102) A sphere of radius 5 cm is melted to make a 102) 5cm wædå«gÀÄªÀ UÉÆÃ¼Àª£ À ÄÀ ß PÀgV
À ¹ CµÉÃÖ ¥ÁzÀ
cone with base of the same radius. The wædå«gÀÄªÀ ±ÀAPÀÄªÀ£ÄÀ ß gÀa¸À¯ÁVzÉ. ±ÀAPÀÄ«£À
height of the cone is JvÀÛgÀªÀÅ
1) 5 cm 1) 5 cm
2) 10 cm 2) 10 cm
3) 15 cm 3) 15 cm
4) 20 cm 4) 20 cm
114
103) The area of the base of a right circular cone 103) £ÉÃgÀ ±ÀAPÀÄ«£À ¥ÁzÀzÀ «¹ÛÃtðªÀÅ 84 m2 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
is 84 m2 and its volume is 21 m3, then the WÀ£¥À ®
Às ªÀÅ 21m3 DzÀgÉ ±ÀAPÀÄ«£À £ÉÃgÀ JvÀg
Û ª
À ÅÀ
vertical height of the cone is
4 3 4 3
P P 1) P 2) P
1) 2) 3 4
3 4
3) 4m 4) 3m 3) 4m 4) 3m
104) The number of equal lead balls of radius 104) 4 cm wædåªÀÅ¼Àî WÀ£UÀ Æ
É Ã¼À¢AzÀ 2cm wædå«gÀÄªÀ
2 cm that can be made from a ball of radius WÀ£U
À Æ
É Ã¼À£ÄÀ ß gÀa¹zÀgÉ GAmÁUÀÄªÀ UÉÆÃ¼ÀU¼ À À
4 cm is ¸ÀASÉå
1) 1 1) 1
2) 2 2) 2
3) 4 3) 4
4) 8 4) 8
105) The radius of solid sphere formed by melting 105) 10 cm, 8 cm ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 6 cm WÀ£À UÉÆÃ¼ÀU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß
three spheres of radii 10 cm, 8 cm and 6 cm PÀgV
À ¹, gÀa¸ÀÄªÀ UÉÆÃ¼ÀzÀ wædåªÀÅ
is
1) 11 cm 1) 11 cm
2) 12 cm 2) 12 cm
3) 13 cm 3) 13 cm
4) 24 cm 4) 24 cm
106) If the area of three adjacent faces of a 106) DAiÀÄvÀ WÀ£zÀ À ªÀÄÆgÀÄ ¥Á±Àð
é ªÀÄÄRUÀ¼À «¹ÛÃtð
cuboid are a, b and c respectively, then PÀª
æ ÄÀ ªÁV a, b ªÀÄvÀÄÛ c DzÀgÉ DAiÀÄvÀ WÀ£zÀ À
the volume of cuboid WÀ£À¥sÀ®
1) 3DEF 1) 3DEF
2) DEF 2) DEF
3) 3abc 3) 3abc
4) abc 4) abc
107) The total surface area of cylinder is 462 cm2 107) MAzÀÄ WÀ£À ¹°AqÀgï£À ¥ÀÆtð ªÉÄÃ¯ÉäöÊ
and its lateral surface area is 1/3 rd of total «¹ÛÃtðªÀÅ 462 cm2 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ EzÀgÀ ªÀPª æÀ ÄÉ Ã¯ÉäöÊ
surface area. The radius of cylinder is «¹ÛÃtðªÀÅ, ¥ÀÆtð ªÉÄÃ¯ÉäöÊ «¹ÛÃtðzÀ ªÀÄÆgÀ£ÃÉ
MAzÀg¶
À z
Ö ÝÀgÉ ¹°AqÀgï£À wædåªÀÅ
7 14
1) FP 2) FP 7 14
2 2 1) FP 2) FP
2 2
22 24
3) FP 4) FP 22 24
2 2 3) FP 4) FP
2 2
115
108) One side of cylinder is attached with 108) CzsðÀ UÉÆÃ¼ÁPÀÈwAiÀÄ §lÖ®£ÀÄß ¹°AqÀgï DPÀÈwAiÀÄ
Hemispherical object. If the height of ªÉÄÃ¯É Ej¸À¯ÁVzÉ. ¹°AqÀgï£À JvÀg Û ª
À ÅÀ 8cm
cylinder is 8cm and its total height is ªÀÄvÀÄÛ §lÖ°£À MlÄÖ JvÀgÛ À 11.5 cm DzÀgÉ §lÖ°£À
11.5 cm then its total surface area is ¥ÀÆtð ªÉÄÃ¯ÉäöÊ «¹ÛÃtð
253 2 253 2
1) FP 2) 253 cm2 1) FP 2) 253 cm2
2 2
3) 506 cm2 4) 759 cm2 3) 506 cm2 4) 759 cm2
109) The pair of equations y = 0 and x = 0 109) y = 0 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ x = 0 ¸À«ÄÃPÀgt
À UÀ¼ÄÀ ¥Àg¸
À àÀgÀ
represents
1) non - intersecting lines 1) bÉÃ¢¸ÀzÀ gÉÃSÉU¼
À ÄÀ
2) parallel lines 2) ¸ÀªiÀ ÁAvÀgÀ gÉÃSÉU¼
À ÄÀ
3) perpendicular lines 3) ®A§ªÁVgÀÄªÀ gÉÃSÉU¼
À ÄÀ
4) coincident lines 4) LPÀåªÁUÀÄªÀ gÉÃSÉU¼
À ÄÀ
110) The linear equations having solution 110) x = 2 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ y = 1 ¥ÀjºÁgÀª£ À ÄÀ ß ºÉÆA¢gÀÄªÀ
x = 2 and y = 1 are KPÀPÁ°PÀ gÉÃSÁvÀäPÀ ¸À«ÄÃPÀgt
À UÀ¼ÄÀ
1) 3x 4y = 10 & x + y = 1 1) 3x 4y = 10 & x + y = 1
2) 3x + 4y =10 and x - y = 1 2) 3x + 4y =10 and x - y = 1
3) 3x - 4y = 10 & x y = 1 3) 3x - 4y = 10 & x y = 1
4) 3x 4y = 10 & x + y = 1 4) 3x 4y = 10 & x + y = 1
111) The equation y = px +1 passes through the 111) y = px +1 ¸À«ÄÃPÀgÀtªÀÅ (2,3) ©AzÀÄ«£À
point (2,3) then the value of p is ªÀÄÆ®PÀ ºÁzÀÄ ºÉÆÃzÀg,É DUÀ p £À ¨É¯AÉ iÀÄÄ
1) -1 2) 1 1) -1 2) 1
3) 2 4) -2 3) 2 4) -2
112) The pair of equations x+y+7=0 and x = - y 112) x + y + 7 = 0 ªÀ Ä vÀ Ä Û x = - y KPÀ P Á°PÀ
has ¸À«ÄÃPÀgt
À UÀ¼ÄÀ ºÉÆA¢gÀÄªÀ ¥ÀjºÁgÀU¼
À À ¸ÀASÉå
1) no solution 1) ¸ÉÆ£Éß
2) one solution 2) MAzÀÄ
3) two solution 3) JgÀqÀÄ
4) many solutions 4) ÇÀASÁåvÀ
116
113) If the pair of linear equations 113) a1 x + b1y + c1 = 0 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ a2x+b2y+c2=0

a1 x + b1 y + c1 =0 ¸À«ÄÃPÀgt
À UÀ¼ÄÀ C£ÀAvÀ ¥ÀjºÁgÀU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß
ºÉÆA¢zÀÝg,É DUÀ
a2x + b 2 y + c2 = 0 has infinitely many
solutions then
D1 E1 F1
D1 E1 F1 1) = =
1) = = D2 E2 F2
D2 E2 F2
D1 E1 F1
D1 E1 F1 2) = ≠
2) = ≠ D2 E2 F2
D2 E2 F2
D1 E1
D1 E1 3) ≠
3) ≠ D2 E2
D2 E2
D1 E F
D1 E F 4) ≠ 1 ≠ 1
4) ≠ 1 ≠ 1 D2 E2 F2
D2 E2 F2
114) The value of m for which the system of 114) 3x-4y=-7 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ mx+3y=5 ¸À«ÄÃPÀgÀtUÀ¼ÀÄ
equations 3x-4y=-7 and mx+3y=5 has no AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉÃ ¥ÀjºÁgÀU¼
À £
À ÄÀ ß ºÉÆA¢®è¢zÀÝg,É DUÀ
solution is m £À ¨É¯É
4 9 4 9
1) − 2) − 1) − 2) −
9 4 9 4
9 4 9 4
3) 4) 3) 4)
4 9 4 9
1 1 1 1 1 1
115) The value of y in equation + = 2 and 115) \ + [ = 2 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ \ − [ = 6 ¸À«ÄÃPÀgt
À UÀ¼°
À è
\ [
1 1
− = 6 is y £À ¨É¯É
\ [
1 1
1) 2)
1 1 3 4
1) 2)
3 4 1 1
3) − 4) −
1 1 3 4
3) − 4) −
3 4
116) In a 1x + b 1 y+c 1=0 and a 2 x+b 2 y+c 2 =0 116) a 1 x + b 1y+c 1 =0 ªÀ Ä vÀ Ä Û a 2 x+b 2 y+c 2=0
equations, the value of x is ¸À«ÄÃPÀgt
À UÀ¼°
À è x £À ¨É¯AÉ iÀÄÄ
E2 F1 − E1F2 E1F2 − E2 F1 E2 F1 − E1F2 E1F2 − E2 F1
1) 2) 1) D1E2 − D2E1 2) D1E2 − D2E1
D1E2 − D2E1 D1E2 − D2E1
E2F1 + E1F2 E1F2 + E2 F1 E2F1 + E1F2 E1F2 + E2F1
3) 4) 3) D1E2 + D2E1 4) D1E2 + D2E1
D1E2 + D2E1 D1E2 + D2E1
117) In the DABC, ∠% = 900., If AB = 3cm and 117) DABC AiÀÄ°è ∠% = 900., AB = 3cm ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
AC = 6 cm then ∠$ = . AC = 6 cm DzÀgÉ ∠$ = .
1) 300 1) 300
2) 600 2) 600
3) 450 3) 450
4) 200 4) 200
117
118) In the DABC , ∠% = 900., ∠$ = 300 and AB 118) DABC AiÀÄ°è ∠% = 900. , ∠$ = 300 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
= 9 cm then BC = AB = 9 cm DzÀgÉ BC =
1) 3cm 1) 3cm
2) 2 3 cm 2) 2 3 cm
3) 3 3 cm 3) 3 3 cm
4) 6 cm 4) 6 cm
119) If 2 cos3q = 1 then q is 119) 2 cos3q = 1 DzÀgÉ q £À ¨É¯É
1) 300 1) 300
2) 200 2) 200
3) 150 3) 150
4) 100 4) 100
( $ + %) ( $ + %)
120) In DABC, ∠& = 90 0., then the cos 120) DABCAiÀÄ°è ∠& = 900., DzÀgÉ cos
2 2
is 0
1) 0
1
2)
1 2
2)
2 3) 1
3) 1
3
4)
3 2
4)
2
121) If tan A = cot B then (A + B) is 121) tan A = cot B DzÀgÉ (A + B)

1) 0o 1) 0o
2) 30o 2) 30o
3) 45o 3) 45o
4) 90o 4) 90o
D 2 − E2 D2 − E2
122) If sin q = 2 then tanq = 122) sin q = DzÀgÉ tanq
D + E2 D2 + E2
D 2 − E2 2DE D 2 − E2 2DE
1) 2) 1) 2)
2DE D − E2
2
2DE D − E2
2
2DE D2 + E2 2DE D2 + E2
3) 4) 3) 4)
D + E2
2
2DE D + E2
2
2DE
118
123) If sinq + cos q=1 then the value of sin2q = 123) sinq + cos q=1 DzÀgÉ sin2q
1) 0 1) 0
2) 1 2) 1
1 1
3) 3)
2 2
1 1
4) − 4) −
2 2
124) If sin (A+B) = 2

3
and cos (A-B) = 2
3
then 124) sin (A+B) = 2
3
ªÀÄvÀÄÛ cos (A-B) = 2
3
DzÀgÉ
the value of A and B are respectively A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B £À ¨É¯U
É ¼
À ÄÀ PÀª
æ ÄÀ ªÁV
1) 30 and 60
o o
1) 30o ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 60o
2) 15 and 45
o o
3) 90 and 60
o o
4) 60 and 30
o o
VLQ 2 θ VLQ 2 θ
125) Statement I :- Sec q - Sec q =
4 2 125) ºÉÃ½PÉ I :- Sec4 q - Sec2 q =
cos 4 θ cos 4 θ
Statement II :- ºÉÃ½PÉ II :- Sec4 q - Sec2 q = tan4 q+ tan2 q

Sec4 q - Sec2 q = tan4 q+ tan2 q
1) I & II ¸Àj
1) I & II are true
2) I & II vÀ¥àÅÀ
2) I & II are false
3) I ªÀiÁvÀæ ¸Àj
3) Only I is true
4) II ªÀiÁvÀæ vÀ¥àÅÀ
4) Only II is true
126) From the top of a 7m high building, the angle 126) 7m JvÀg Û z
À À PÀlq Ö ¢
À AzÀ MAzÀÄ ªÉÆ¨ÉÊ¯ï
of elevation of the top of a cable tower is UÉÆÃ¥ÀÅgÀzÀ vÀÄ¢AiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀªÄÀ ¤¹zÁUÀ GAmÁUÀÄªÀ
600 and the angle of depression of its foot is G£ÀßvÀ PÉÆÃ£ÀªÅÀ 600 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ CzÀgÀ ¥ÁzÀª£ À ÄÀ ß
45o. The height of the tower is UÀªÀÄ¤¹zÁUÀ CªÀ£Àw PÉÆÃ£ÀªÀÅ 45 GAlÄ 0
ªÀiÁrzÀg,É UÉÆÃ¥ÀÄgÀzÀ JvÀg Û ª

À ÅÀ
1) 7 ( 3 + 1)P 1) 7 ( 3 + 1)P
2) 7 ( 3 − 1)P 2) 7 ( 3 − 1)P
3) 7 3P 3) 7 3P
7 3 7 3
4) P 4) P
3 3
119
1 + sin θ 1 + sin θ
127) = 127) =
1 − sin θ 1 − sin θ
1) secθ + tan θ 1) secθ + tan θ
2) secθ - tan θ 2) secθ - tan θ
3) tanθ - secθ 3) tanθ - secθ
4) sec2θ + tan2θ 4) sec2θ + tan2θ
128) If a sin (90-q) . cot (90-q) = cos (90-q) then 128) a sin (90-q) . cot (90-q) = cos (90-q)
a= DzÀgÉ a =
1) 2 1) 2
2) 1 2) 1
3) -1 3) -1
4) 0 4) 0
129) The point on y-axis which is equidistant from 129) (-5, 2) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ (9,-2) ©AzÀÄUÀ¼ÄÀ y CPÀëzÀ ªÉÄÃ°£À
the points (-5, 2) and (9,-2) is MAzÀÄ ©AzÀÄ«¤AzÀ ¸ÀªÀÄzÀÆgÀzÀ°èzÀÝgÉ, DUÀ
D ©AzÀÄ«£À ¤zÉðÃ±ÁAPÀªÅÀ
1) (0, -7) 1) (0, -7)
2) (0, 5) 2) (0, 5)
3) (0, 6) 3) (0, 6)
4) (0, -4) 4) (0, -4)
130) The slope of the line which is parallel to the 130) A(5,6) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B(3, 2) ©AzÀÄUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß ¸ÉÃj¸ÀÄªÀ
line joining A(5,6) and B(3, 2) is gÉÃSÉUÉ ¸ÀªiÀ ÁAvÀgª
À ÁVgÀÄªÀ gÉÃSÉAiÀÄ E½eÁgÀÄ
2 2
1) − 1) −
4 4
2) 2 2) 2
1 1
3) 3)
2 2
4 4
4) − 4) −
2 2
131) If the points (0, 0), (a,0) and (0, b) are 131) (0, 0), (a,0) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ (0, b) UÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÀgÀ¼À
collinear, then gÉÃSÁUÀvªÀ ÁVzÀÝg,É DUÀ
1) a =b 1) a =b
2) a +b=0
2) a +b=0
3) ab= 0
3) ab= 0
4) a≠ b
4) a≠ b
120
132) The distance between (cosq, cos q) and 132) (cosq, cos q) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ (sin q, sin q) ©AzÀÄUÀ¼À
(sin q, sin q) is £ÀqÄÀ «£À zÀÆgÀ
1) 1 1) 1
2) 2) 2
2
3) 3) 3
3
4) 2 4) 2
133) The co-ordinates of the centroid of the 133) wæ¨ÄÀs dzÀ ±ÀÈAUÀU¼
À À ¤zÉÃð±ÁAPÀU¼À ÄÀ (0,3b), (0,0)
triangle with vertices (0,3b), (0,0) and ªÀÄvÀÄÛ (3a, 0) DzÀg,É wæ¨ÄÀs dzÀ UÀÄgÀÄvÀé PÉÃAzÀz
æ À
(3a, 0) is ¤zÉÃð±ÁAPÀªÅÀ
1) (a,b) 2) (a, -b) 1) (a,b) 2) (a, -b)
3) (-a, b) 4) (-a, -b) 3) (-a, b) 4) (-a, -b)
134) The value of m if the distance between 134) (m, 3) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ (2,3) ©AzÀÄUÀ¼À £ÀqÄÀ «£À zÀÆgÀ 5
(m, 3) and (2,3) is 5, is DzÀgÉ m £À ¨É¯É
1) 5 1) 5
2) 6
2) 6
3) 7
3) 7
4) 8
4) 8
135) The area of the triangle formed by vertices 135) (0, 0), (a,0) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ (0,b) ±ÀÈAUÀU½
À AzÀ gÀavÀªÁzÀ
(0, 0), (a,0) and (0,b) is wæ¨ÄÀs dzÀ «¹ÛÃtð
1) a2 + b2 1) a2 + b2
2) ab
2) ab
3) a+b
3) a+b
1
1 4) DE
4) DE 2
2
136) If the points (a,0), (0, b) and (1,1) are 136) (a,0), (0, b) ªÀ Ä vÀ Ä Û (1,1) ©AzÀ Ä UÀ ¼ À Ä
D +E D+E
collinear then = ¸Àg¼
À g
À ÃÉ SÁUÀvª
À ÁVzÀÝg,É DUÀ =
DE DE
1) 0 1) 0
2) -1
2) -1
3) 1
3) 1
4) 2
4) 2
121
137) If (a, -1), (1, 0), (b, 3) and (1,2) are the 137) (a, -1), (1, 0), (b, 3) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ (1,2) UÀ¼ÄÀ ¸ÀªiÀ ÁAvÀgÀ
vertices of a parallelogram, then the value ZÀvÄÀ ¨sÄÀ ðdzÀ ±ÀÈAUÀU¼À ÁzÀg,É DUÀ a ªÀÄvÀÄÛ b UÀ¼À
of a and b are ¨É¯É
1) -2 & 4 1) -2 & 4
2) 2&-4
2) 2&-4
3) -1 & 2
3) -1 & 2
4) 1&4
4) 1&4
138) The ratio in which the point (4,8) divide the 138) (5,7) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ (3,9) ©AzÀÄUÀ¼£
À ÄÀ ß ¸ÉÃj¸ÀÄªÀ gÉÃSÉAiÀÄ
line segment joining the points (5, 7) and ªÉÄÃ°£À ©AzÀÄ (4,8) GAlÄ ªÀiÁqÀÄªÀ C£ÀÄ¥ÁvÀ
(3,9 ) is
1) 1:1 1) 1:1
2) 1:2 2) 1:2
3) 1 :3 3) 1 :3
4) 1:4 4) 1:4
139) The perimeter of two similar triangles are 139) JgÀqÄÀ ¸ÀªÄÀ gÀÆ¥À wæ¨ÄÀs dUÀ¼À ¸ÀÄvÀ¼
Û v
À U
É ¼
À À C£ÀÄ¥ÁvÀ
in the ratio 4:1 then the ratio of their areas 4:1 DzÀgÉ CªÀÅUÀ¼À «¹ÛÃtðUÀ¼À C£ÀÄ¥ÁvÀªÅÀ
is 1) 16 : 1
1) 16 : 1 2) 4:1
2) 4:1 3) 2:1
3) 2:1 4) 2 :1
4) 2 :1
140) ABCD is a trapezium in which diagonals 140) ABCD vÁæ¦dåzÀ°è PÀtðUÀ¼ÄÀ O £À bÉÃ¢¸ÀÄvÀª
Û .É
intersect at O. If OA = (3x -1), OA = (3x -1), OB = (2x +1), OC = (5x -3)
OB = (2x +1), OC = (5x -3) and OD = (6x -5) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ OD = (6x -5) DzÀgÉ x £À ¨É¯É
then the value of x is
1) 2
1) 2
2) 2.5
2) 2.5
3) 3
3) 3
4) 4
122
141) A In the figure, 141) A avÀæzÀ°è

E ∠$%& = ∠$(' = 90 0 E ∠$%& = ∠$(' = 90 0
D $' D $'
then = DzÀgÉ =
$& $&
B C B C
'( %& '( %&

1) = 1) =
%& '( %& '(
'( $( '( $(
2) = 2) =
%& $% %& $%
$( $' $( $'
3) = 3) =
$% (& $% (&
$( $' $( $'
4) = 4) =
$& $% $& $%
142) DABC DDEC, if AB = 4 cm, BC = 3.5 cm, 142) DABC DDEC, AB = 4 cm, BC = 3.5 cm,
CA = 2.5 cm and DF = 7.5 cm, then the CA = 2.5 cm ªÀÄvÀÄÛ DF = 7.5 cm DzÀgÉ DDEF
perimeter of DDEF is £À ¸ÀÄvÀ¼
Û v
À É
1) 10 cm 2) 14 cm 1) 10 cm 2) 14 cm
3) 30 cm 4) 25 cm
3) 30 cm 4) 25 cm
A A
143) In figure, AD is a 143) avÀz
æ ° À è AD AiÀÄÄ
E median of DABC. P E
DABC AiÀÄ
M
is the mid-point on ªÀÄzsÀågÉÃSÉAiÀiÁVzÉ.
P P M
AD and BE || DM. P AiÀÄÄ AD AiÀÄ
B D C
The ratio of AE and B ªÀÄzsåÀ ©AzÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
D C
AC is BE || DM. AE &
ACUÀ¼À C£ÀÄ¥ÁvÀªÅÀ
1) 1:1 2) 1:2 1) 1:1 2) 1:2
3) 1:3 4) 1:4 3) 1:3 4) 1:4
144) If the length of a diagonal of a square is 144) ªÀUð

À zÀ PÀtðzÀ GzÀÝ 50 cm DzÀgÉ ªÀUð
À zÀ
50 cm then the area of the square in cm 2
«¹ÛÃtð cm2UÀ¼° À è
is
1) 20 1) 20
2) 25 2 2) 25 2
3) 15 2 3) 15 2
4) 25 4) 25
123
145) The height of an equilateral triangle of area 145) ¸ÀªÄÀ ¨ÁºÀÄ wæ¨ÄÀs dzÀ «¹ÛÃtð 4 3 cm2 DzÀgÉ
4 3 cm2 in cm is wæ¨ÄÀs dzÀ JvÀgÀ ÅÀ cm UÀ¼°
Û ª À è
1) 2 2) 2 3 1) 2 2) 2 3
3 3
3) 3 4) 3) 3 4)
2 2
146) In DABC ∠$%& = 90 0 , & BDÂC. The 146) DABC AiÀÄ°è ∠$%& = 90 0 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ BDÂC
product of AD and DC is same as FUÀ AD ªÀÄvÀÄÛ DC UÀ¼À UÀÄt®§ÞªÅÀ
1) BC2 2) AC2 1) BC2 2) AC2

3) AB2 4) BD2 3) AB2 4) BD2
147) The longest side of a right angled triangle is 147) ®A§PÉÆÃ£À wæ¨sÀÄdzÀ CvÀåAvÀ zÉÆqÀØ ¨ÁºÀÄ
2( [ 2 + \ 2 ) other two sides are 2( [ 2 + \ 2 ) DzÀgÉ G½zÀ JgÀqÄÀ ¨ÁºÀÄUÀ¼ÄÀ
1) (x+y) and (x+y) 1) (x+y) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ (x+y)
2) (x+y) and (x-y) 2) (x+y) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ (x-y)
3) x2 and y2 3) x2 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ y2
4) 2x2 and 2y2 4) 2x2 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 2y2
148) In rhombus ABCD, diagonals intersect at o 148) ABCD ªÀ e Áæ P À È wAiÀ Ä £À Ä ß PÀ t ðUÀ ¼ À Ä o £À
then AC2 +BD2 = bÉÃ¢¸ÀÄvÀª
Û .É AC2 +BD2 =
1) 4AB2 1) 4AB2
2) 4AO2 2) 4AO2
3) 4BO x OA 3) 4BO x OA
4) 4AC x BD 4) 4AC x BD
149) In DABC ∠$%& = 90 0 and AB =BC. The 149) DABC AiÀÄ°è ∠$%& = 90 0 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ AB =BC
area of DABC is FUÀ DABC AiÀÄ «¹ÛÃtð
1 1
1) ( $& − %& ) 1) ( $& − %& )
2 2
1 1
2) ( $& 2 − %& 2 ) 2) ( $& 2 − %& 2 )
2 2
1 1
3) ( $% 2 − %& 2 ) 3) ( $% 2 − %& 2 )
2 2
1 1
4) ( $& + %& ) 4) ( $& + %& )
2 2
124
150) ABCD & AEDF are squares. If AF = a 150) ABCD ªÀÄvÀÄÛ AEDF ªÀUÀðUÀ¼ÀÄ.
units then area of square ABCD is AF = a ªÀÄÆ®ªÀiÁ£À DzÀg,É ABCD ªÀUðÀ zÀ
1) a 2 B C «¹ÛÃtð B C
E E
1) a 2
2) 2 D
3) 2a2 A B 2) 2 D A B
4) a2 3) 2a2
4) a2
F F
151) AD is perpendicular to side BC of an 151) ABC ¸ÀªÄÀ ¨ÁºÀÄ wæ¨ÄÀs dzÀ°è AD AiÀÄÄ BC UÉ
equilateral DABC. The true statement ®A§ªÁVzÉ. DUÀ PÉ¼ÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ
among the following is ºÉÃ½PÉ
1) 3AB2 = 4AD2 1) 3AB2 = 4AD2
2) 3BD2 = 4AB2 2) 3BD2 = 4AB2
3) 4AD2 = 3AB2 3) 4AD2 = 3AB2
4) 4AB2 = 3DC2 4) 4AB2 = 3DC2
152) In DABC, ∠$%& = 90 0 , AB=AC & 152) DABC AiÀÄ°è ∠$%& = 90 0 , AB=AC ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
BDÂC then BD2 +CD2 = BDÂC DzÀgÉ DUÀ BD2 +CD2 =
1) AC x CD 1) AC x CD
2) 2AC x CD 2) 2AC x CD
3) (AC2 CD2) 3) (AC2 CD2)
4) 2(AC2 CD2) 4) 2(AC2 CD2)
153) ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || CD and 153) ABCD AiÀÄÄ MAzÀÄ vÁæ¦då. AB || CD ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
BCÂB. If AB = 7.5 cm, AD =13 cm and BCÂB AB = 7.5 cm, AD =13 cm ºÁUÀÆ
CD =12.5 cm then length of BC is CD =12.5 cm DVzÀÝgÉ BC AiÀÄ GzÀÝªÅÀ
1) 7.5 cm 1) 7.5 cm
2) 5 cm 2) 5 cm
3) 12 cm 3) 12 cm
4) 13 cm 4) 13 cm
125
SOLUTIONS
(NOTE : For the benefit of students solutions are given in detail.
We can find these solutions by other alternative methods also.)
1) The number of subsets of a sets contains n 7) Option (3) F1UF2 UF3U F4
number of elements = 2n
8) Option (3) (AUB) / (A∩B)
= 2 = 16
4
1 1 1 1
∴ No. of non-empty subsets = 16 1 =15 9) [3 = ( [ + ) 3 − 3.[.  [ + 
[ 3
[ [ [
Option (3) 16
2) Option (3) b and d = ( 3 )3 − 3( 3)
3) n(A) +n(B) = n(AUB) + n(A∩B) = 3 3 −3 3

3 +6 = n(AUB) + n(A∩B)
=0
n(AUB) = 9 n(A∩B)
Option : (4) 0
The maximum value of n(A∩B) = 3
10) [ = 23 [
∴ n(AUB) = 9-3 =6
1 1
Option : (2) 6
[ 2 = 2[ 3
4)
No.of times read
No.of Newspapers = = 6
 12   13 
6
total No. Students  [  =  2[ 

   
   
300x5 150
= = 25 x3 = 64x2
60 6
x = 64
Option (3) exactly 25
Option (2) 64
5) n(AUB) = n(A) + n(B) n (A∩B)
11) 5060 = 22 x 51 x 111 x 231
= 12 + 9 -4
= 21 -4 No. of divisors = (2+1) (1+1) (1+1) (1+1)
n (AUB) = 17 =3x2x2x2
n [(AUB1)] =n(U) n(AUB) = 24
= 20 17 Option (3) 24
= 3 Option : (4) 3
12) Option : (3) 0 ≤ r < b
6) No. of students in A are x
13) Option : (4) a, c and d only
No. of students in B are y
∴ x 10 = y +10 and x + 20 = 2(y 20)
⇒ x y =20 now, x 2y = - 60
14) ( 34 − 24 2 ) (4 + 3 2) 2
= ( 34 − 24 2 ) ( (16 + 18 + 24 2) )
x 2y = 60 x x (80) = 60
xy = 20 x = 100
= ( 34 − 24 2 ) ( 34 + 24 2) )
y = 80
y = 80
Option : (2) 100 and 80 = (34 − 24 2) (34 + 24 2
126
19) tp = - q tp + q = 0
= (342 − (24 2)2
⇒ a + (p 1) d = q ⇒ a + (p + q1)d=0
= 1156 − 1152 ⇒ a + (p 1) d = qd
= 4 a + (p 1) d = - q ∴ a + (p1) d = q
= 2 a + (p -1) d = - qd a = p 1 q
Option : (2) 2
0 = (d-1) q ∴ Tq = a + (q1)d
15) LCM of 2, 3, 8, 9 = 72
d=1 = (1qq)d + (q1) a
1 36 1
Option (1) p = p
2 =22 72
= (2 )
36 72
2DE
1 36 1 20) +=
3 =33 72
= (3 )
24 72 D+E
1 9 1
⇒ H (a+b) = 2ab
8 =88 72
= (8 )
9 72
D +E
⇒ H =2
1 8 1  DE 
9 9 = 9 72 = (98 ) 72
1 1
1 ⇒ H +  = 2
Option (2) 3 3 E D
16) (1) 1.5 Option (1) 2

21) a, b, & c are in GP .
17) x = 136 + 52 + 144
⇒b= DF
x = 136 + 52 + 12 ⇒ b2 = ac
(a+b), 2b, (b+c) are in HP
= 136 + 64
D (D + E)(E + F )
= 136 + 8 than 2b =
(D + E) + (E + F)
= 144
DE + DF + E 2 + EF
b=
= 12 D + 2E + F
Option (3) 12
ab + 2b 2 + bc = ab + ac + b 2 + bc
18) (a2 b2) = (a+b) (a b) is a prime
b2 = ac
⇒ a2 b2 divisible itself or 1
∴ Option (3) HP
Since ab ∈ Z+ a+b ≠ 1 but a b =1
∴ (a2 b2 ) = a +b
Option (1) a+b
127
22) a, b, c are in HP DS T −U U −T
∴ = =
2ac DT S −1 T − S
⇒b=
a+c
U −T
b b b Option : (3)
consider a − , b − ,c − T− S
2 2 2
If these arein GP
b b 24) Let a-2d, a-d, a, a+d, a+2d are in AP
b− c−
2= 2 Given, a 1 +a 3 +a 5 = -12
b b
a− b− a -2d + a + a + 2d = - 12
2 2
b 3a = - 12
b c−
2 = 2 a=-4
b b
a− Option (4) = 21
2 2
b 2
ab bc b 2 Also, a 1a 2 a 3 = 8
= ac − − +
4 2 2+ 4 (a-2d) (a-d) a=8
ab bc
ac = + (-4-2d) (-4-d) (-4) = 8
2 2
2(-2-d) (-4-d) =1
b(a + c)
ac =
2 8 +2d +4d +d 2 = 1
2ac = b(a + c) d 2 +6d + 8 = 1
2ac d 2 + 6d + 9 = 0
b=
a+c
d 2 +3d +3d+ 9 = 0
∴ They are in GP d 2 +3d +3d + 9 = 0
Option : (2) GP d(d+3) + 3(d+3) = 0
(d+3) 2 = 0
23) ap = a+ (p -1) d d+3 = 0
aq = a + (q-1) d d = 3
ar = a + (r-1) d ∴ AP is,
Sin a ap, aq and dn are in GP 2, -1, -4, -7, -10, -13, .
aq an ∴ a 1 + a 4 + a 6 = (1) + (-7) + (3)
=
ap aq
= 21
D +(T −1)G D +(U −1)G D +(T −1)G −[(D +(U −1)G] Option : (4) 21
⇒ D +( S −1)G = D +(T −1)G = D +( S −1)G −[D +(T −1)G
Q 2 ( Q − 1) 2 Q ( Q + 1)
25) 6Q = DQG 7Q
4 2
Q 2 (Q + 1) 2
Q=
4Q (Q + 1)
128
Q(Q + 1) 28)
=
2
Q [ [ [ [ Q − Q − Q
=
Q(Q + 1) Q [ [ [ [ [ Q
Option : (1) =
[[[ Q − >[[[ Q − Q@
2 Q
− [ − [ Q@
26)
[[[ Q >[[[ [[Q
=
Q
Q
[[[ Q − [ Q
=
Sn = n 2 p and Sm = m2 p Q
Q
Q Q = >[[[ Q − @ Q
2D + (Q −1)G = Q2S 2D + (P −1)G = P2S Q
2 2 2SWLRQ [[[ Q − Q

2D + (Q − 1)G =2QS 2D + (P −1)G = 2PS
6ROYH : 29)
2D + (Q − 1)G = 2QS ∴2D + (P −1)2S = 2PS
2D + (P −1)G = 2PS 2D + 2PS − 2S = 2PS
1(1!) + 2(2!) + 3(3!) + . . . . + n (n!)
(Q − P)G = 2S(Q − P) 2D − 2S = 0
n
G = 2S D=S = ∑ k(k!)
k =1
n
p = ∑ {(k + 1) − 1}k!
∴ Sp =  2a + (p − 1)d  k =1
2 n
= ∑ {k!(k + 1) − 1k!}
p k =1
=  2xp + (p − 1) 2p 
2 n
= ∑ {(k + 1)! − k!}
p
=  2p + 2p 2 − 2p  k =1
2 = (2! − 1!) + (3! − 2!) + (4! − 3!) + ..... + (n + 1)! − n!
= p3
= (n + 1)! − 1
∴ Option : 3) p 3
= (n + 1)! − 0!
27) = (n + 1)! − 0!
Option : (3) (n + 1)! − 0!
 1   1  1   1
1 −  1 − 1 − !!! 1 − 
 2   3  4   n
1 2 3 (n − 1) 30) Given 56Pr+6 : 54Pr+3 = 30800 : 1
x x x........
2 3 4 1
(n − 1)! (n − 1)! 1 (51 − r)!
= = = 56!
x = 30800
n! n(n − 1)! n
(50 − r)! 54!
1
Option : (4) 56 x 55 x (51 − r) = 30800
n
30800
51 − r =
3080
51 − r = 10
r = 41
Option : (3) 41
129
31) 33)
n n
Pr
∑r =1 r!
10!
= 5040 n
(10 − r)! = ∑ n Cr
r =1
10!
= 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 3 x 5 x7 = 2 n −1
(10 − r)!
10! Option : (3) 2 n −1
= 2x3x 4x5x 6x7
(10 − r)!
10! [r =1 1
C1 = 1 = 2 1 −1
= 7!
(10 − r)! r=2 2
C1 + 2 C2 = 2 + 1 = 3 = 22 − 1
10! 10 x 9 x 8 x 7!
= r =3 3
C1 +3 C2 + 3 C3 = 3 + 3 + 1 = 7 = 23 − 1
(10 − r)! 10 x 9 x 8
# # # # #
10! 10!
= r=n 2n − 1]
(10 − r)! 2 x 5 x 3 x 3 x 4 x 2
10! 34) rth term = r rpr = r (r!)
=
1x 2 x 3 x 4 x 5 x 6
= (r + 1 1) (r!)
10! 10!
=
(10 − r)! 6! = (r + 1) (r!) r! = (r+1)! r!
10! 10! put r =1, 2, 3, ..... n and add, we get
= ⇒r=4
(10 − r)! (10 − 4)! (2! 1!) (3! 2!) + .......... + [(n+1)! n!]
= (n + 1)! 1!
Option : (2) 4 = n+1 Pn+1 1
Option : (3) n+1 Pn+1 1
32)
35) Sol. 9 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2
n −1 (n − 1)! (n − 1)! First box o cannot be filled among the digits 0,1,..9
Pr + r. n −1 Pr −1 = +r
(n − r − 1)! (n − r)! ∴ Total nos. = 9 x 9!
(n − 1)!  r  Option (3) 9 x 9!
= 1+
(n − r − 1)!  n − r 

(n − 1)!  n − r + r 
=
(n − r − 1)!  n − r 
(n − 1)!  n 
=
(n − r − 1)!  n − r 
n!
= = n Pr
(n − r)!
Option : (2 ) n Pr
130
36)
1 1
=
n +1 (n + 1)! r n − r +1
C r +1 = n − r +1 = r
[(n + 1) − (r + 1)]!(r + 1)!
(n + 1)! n − 2r = −1
=
(n − r)!(r + 1)! Solving
(n + 1)n! n - r =1
=
(n − r)!(r + 1) r! n - 2r = -1
n + 1 n! r=2
=
r + 1 (n − r)!r! n − 2 =1
n +1 n n =1+ 2
= C r ≠ n Cr
r +1 n=3
n
Option : (4) n +1Cr +1
r 38) Sol.
Million is 7 digit No.
37)
7!
No. of numbers formed = = 420
2! 3!
n
Pr = n Pr +1
n! n! 6!
= No. of number 0 in first place = 1x = 60
(n − r)! [n − (r + 1)]! 2! 3!
1 1 ∴ Required answer = 420-60 = 360
=
(n − r)(n − r − 1)! (n − r − 1)]! Option : (1) 360
1
=1
n−r
39) Sol.
n − r =1
Filling even places by consonants = 4P3 ways
Now n
C r = C r −1
n
Remaining places can be filled = 4P4 ways
n! n! 4 P x 4 P = 4! x 4!
= Total no. of ways =
(n − r)!r! [n − (r − 1)]!(n − r)! 3 4 1! 0!
1 1 = 24 x 24 = 576
=
(n − r)!r(r − 1)! (n − r)!(n − r + 1)(r − 1)!
Option : (1) 576
40) Sol.
The no. of ways to choose 1 red = 3C1 x 9C2 = 108
The no. of ways to choose 2 red = 3C2 x 9C1=3x9= 27
The no. of ways to choose 3 red = 3C3 x 9C0 = 1
Total no. of ways = 108 + 27 + 1 = 136 ways.
Option : (4) 136
131
41) Sol.
Total No. of possible out comes = 64 = 1
⇒ 1 − P(A) + P(B − A) =
6 x 6 x 6 x 6 = 1296 2
No. of outcomes no die shows 3 = 54 = 625 2 1
⇒ 1 − + P(B − A) =
3 2
Possible outcomes in which 1 die show 3 =
1
= 1296 625 ⇒ P(B − A) =
= 671
6
1
Option (3) 671 ⇒ P(A ∩ B) = (' A ∩ B = B − A)
6
42) Sol. 1
Option : (3)
P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) P(A ∩ B ) 6
0.6 = P(A) + P(B) 0.2
Þ= P(A) + P(B) = 0.8 45) Sol.
P( A ) + P( B ) = 1 P(A) + 1 P(B) n(S)=nC2

∴
n(E)=n-1
= 2 P(A) + P(B)
Probability of selection of
= 2-0.8
two persons sitting together
=1.2
Option : (3) 1.2 n(E)
=
43) Sol. n(S)
n(s) = Total ways of choosing numbers = 25 x n −1
= n
25 = 625 C
2
n
(E) = Ways of no. choosen both match = 25
n −1 2
= =
P(win) = P(E) =
n(E) 25
= =
1 n(n − 1) n
n(s) 625 25 2
1 24
P(not win) = P(E 1) = 1 − n(E) = 1 − = Probability of selection of two
25 25
2
24 persons not sitting together = 1 −
n
Option : (2)
25
2
Option : (2) 1−
44) n
46) Sol. A & B are mutually exclusive
1
P (A ∪ B) =
2 ⇒ A∩B=M
1
⇒ P [A ∪ (B − A)] = ⇒A⊆B & B⊆A
2
⇒ P(A) ≤ P(B) & P(B) ≤ P(A)
1
⇒ P(A) + P(B − A) =
2 Option : (1)P(A) ≤ P(B)
(' A & A − B are mutually exclusive)
132
47)
7 4x
= 1−
P(A ∩ B) = P(B) − P(A ∩ B) 10 5
4x 7
= P(A ∪ B) − P(A) = 1−
5 10
3
= − 1 − p(A)  4x 3
4 =
5 10
3 2
= −1+ 3
4 3 x=
8
9+8
= −1 3
12 Option : (3)
8
17
= −1
12
17 − 12 5 50) P (A ∪ B ∪ C) 75% =

= =
12 12
⇒ P(A)+P(B)+P(C)P(A ∩ B)P(B ∩ C)P(C ∩ A)+P(A ∩ B ∩ C) =
5
Option : (3)
12 But P(A ∩ B)+P(B ∩ C)+P(A ∩ C)2P(A ∩ B ∩ C) = 50% =

and P(A ∩ B)+P(B ∩ C)+P(A ∩ C)3P(A ∩ B ∩ C) = 40% =

48) Sol. P(exactly one of A,B occurs) Solving these, P(A ∩ B ∩ C) =

=

= 10%

Option : (1) 10%
= P (A ∩ B) ∩ (A ∩ B) 
51)
= P(A ∩ B) + P (A ∩ B)
= P(A) − P(A ∩ B) + P(B) − P(A ∩ B) n(S) = 10 C3
= P(A) + P(B) − 2P(A ∩ B) E = {(10,5, 2), (8, 2, 4), (6, 2,3)}
= P(A ∪ B) − P(A ∩ B) ⇒ n(E) = 3
Option : (4) = P(A ∪ B) − P(A ∩ B) n (E) 3 3
∴ P(E) = = 10 =
n (S) C3 10!
49) Sol. (10 − 3)! 3!
A and B are independent 3 x 3! x 7! 1
= =
10! 40
Let P (B) = x Option : (4)
1
= P(B) = 1 − x 40
1
⇒ P(A ∩ B) = P(A).P(B) = (1 − x)
5
P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) − P(A ∩ B)
7 1 1
= + (1 − x) − (1 − x)
10 5 5
7 1 1 x
= +1− + − x
10 5 5 5
133
52) Sol. 55)

x
X= ⇒ x = 11X
x1 + x 2 + .... + x n −1 + x n 11
X=
n x + 15
X=
k + xn 12
X=
n 12X = x + 15
nx = k + x n 12X = 11x + 15
nx − k = x n X = 15
Option : (2) nx − k Option : (2) 15
53) Sol. 56) Sol. Let S.D. for 75 marks be x.
100 4x
n
xi For 100 marks = × x=
∑i =1 n
=X 75 3
xi 4
New Series Yi = + 10 ∴ Marks increased (multiplied) by
∝ 3
n
 xi 
⇒ Mean of Yi = ∑  + 10  4
1=1  ∝  ∴ New S.D. = x 9 = 12
3
n
∑ xi + 10 ∝ Option : (2) 12
= 1=1
n∝
X + 10 ∝
=
∝ 57)
X + 10 ∝ Q3 − Q1
Option : (3) Co - efficiant of Q.D. =
∝ Q3 + Q1
40 − 10
=
40 + 10
30 3
= =
50 5
54)
3
x + x 2 + .... + x n Option : (4) =
X= 1 5
n
nX − x1 + x 2 + .....x n
nX − x1 = x 2 + x 3 + .....x n
nX − x1 + a = a + x 2 + x 3 + .....x n
nX − x1 + a
= New X
n
nX − x1 + a
Option : (4)
n
134
58)
63)
-5+20=15 New observations are
A ⊆ B’
-4+20=16 obtained by adding same
⇒ P(A) ≤ P(B)
-3+20=17 constant ∴ S.D. = Option : (1) P(A) ≤ P(B)
-2+20=18
64)
-1+20=19 Option (3) a b c d
0+20=20 V iii iv ii
1+20=21
2+20=22 65)
3+20=23 x1 + x 2 + .... + x15 = 15 x 13 = 195
4+20=24 13 x 14
∴ x14 + x15 = 195 −
2
5+20=25
= 195 − 91
Option : (2) x14 + x15 = 104
59) ⇒ x14 = 51 & x15 = 53
N(S) = Total possible 3 digit Nos. = 4 x 5 x 5=100 Option : (2) 51
N(E)=Total possible 3 digit number having all digits same = 4
n(E) 4 1
∴ P(E) = = = 66)
n(S) 100 25
(12 + 22 + 32 + .....92 )
Option : (4)
1 Mean =
25 (1 + 2 + ..... + 9)
9(9 + 1)(18 + 1)
60) =
n(S)=26 x 26 x 26 x 26 = 4,56,976 6
n(E) = 26 x 25 x 24 x 23 = 3,58,800 9 x10 19
=
n(E) 3,58,800 2 3
P(E) = = = 0.78 Mode = 9
n(S) 4,56, 976
19
Option : (3) 0.78 ∴ Product = x 9 = 57
3
61) Sol. Option : (3)57
A,B, C and D are mutually exclusive
∴ P(A) + P(B) + P(C) + P(D) = 1 67) 2 x =8 y+1 9 y =3 x-9
Option : (3) b and d only. x=3(y+1) 2y=x-9
x-3y=3 x-2y=9 → (1)
62)
x2y y = 3
n(S) = 10 C3 9 y = 3 (' (1)
E = {(10,5, 2), (8, 2, 4), (6, 2,3)} y=6
⇒ n(E) = 3 Option : (3) 6
n(E) 3 1
∴ P(E) = = 10 =
n(S) C3 40
135
68) Let x no. of parrots & y No. of rabbits
25
x + y = 28 ⇒ 2x + 2y = 56 = d2
4
2x + 4y = 72 ⇒ 2x + 4y = 72 5
2y = 16
=d
2
Y=8 1 −5 1 1 5
∴ , , +
∴ x + y = 28 2 2 2 2 2
x = 28 8 4 1 6
− , ,
x = 20 2 2 2
1 1
Option : (1) 20 and 8 − 2, ,3 Option : (2) − 2, ,3
2 2
69) x2017=(x2-1) q(x)+(ax+b)
72) x2+ px + q = 0 ®(1)
For x=1, 1=a+b
x2+ qx + q = 0 ®(2)
For x=1, -1=-a+b
Solving (1) and (2), we get
0= b
px p + q qx = 0 ∴ (1) becomes
and a=1
∴ remainder = ax + b = x p(x-1) + 1(1-x)=0 12 + p + q =0
Option : (3) x p(x-1) -q (x-1)=0 p-q+1=0

(x-1)(p-q)=0
70) Since one of the roots given 1
(x-1)=0
We know product of roots
(x=1)
c Option : (1) 0
=
a 73) If, α, β are the roots of ax2 + bx+c=0 then the
p−q equation of the roots α + k and β+k in
= a(x k)2+b(x-k)+c=0
q−r
p−q ∴ the equation is 2(x-3)2 -15(x-3)+4=0
∴ Another root =
q−r 2(x2+9-6x)-15x+45+4=0
p−q 2x2+18-12x-15x+49=0
Option : (2) ,1
q−r 2x2 - 27x + 67 = 0
Option : (3) 2x2 - 27x + 67 = 0
71) Let(a − d), a and (a + d) are the roots

2 +3x 1
74) 5x =
25
−b
(a − d) + a + (a + d) =
a 2 +3x
5x = 5 −2
 −3  3
3a = −   = x2 + 3x = 2
 2  2
1 x2 + 3x+2=0
a=
2 x2 + 2x+x+2=0
1  1  1  −d −6 x(x+2)+(x+2)=0
∴  − d  + d = =
2  2  2  a 2 (x+2)(x+1)=0
1 1
− d = − 6 : 6 + = d2 x=-2, -1
4 4
Option : (4) -2 and -1
136
75) 77) Monthly income be x
Equal roots b2 − 4ac = 0 1

Expenditure on magazine = 25% = x
4
( 2P)2 − 4 x 2 x p = 0
3
2p2 − 8p = 0 Balance amount = x
4
2p (p − 4) = 0
3x 75 9x
p = 0, 4 Hostel and college expenditure = x =
4 100 16
Option : (4)0 and 4 3x 9x 3x
Balance = − =
4 16 16
3[
76) ∴ = 120 ⇒ [ = 5V. 640
16
x = 6 + 6 + 6 + ........ + 0 Option : (3) 640
x = 6+x
x2 = 6 + x
x2 − x − 6 = 0
x 2 − 3x + 2x − 6 = 0
x(x − 3) + 2(x − 3) = 0
(x − 3)(x + 2) = 0
x = 3, −2
But x ≠ −2, ∴ x = 3
Option : (4) 3
137
B
78. Perimeter of ∆AXY 85.
60O A
= 2 x length of tangent drawn from external point.
79. AX=BX = 3 cm C
AX=CX=3 cm 120o
∠B = ∠C = = 60o
∴ BC = BX + CX 2
=3+3 ∴ Perimeter of equilateral ∆ABC
= 6 cm = 3AB = 3AC = 3CA
80. ∠ PQR = 180 - (40 + 30 )
o o o
= AB + BC + AC
= 180o 70o
86. Q.E. is
= 110o
⇒ ∠ PQR = ∠ PBC = 110o [ 2 − ( 6 .2.5.) [ + ( 3.2.5.) = 0
⇒ ∠ BPQ = ∠ ABQ = 40o  E F
[2 −  −  [ + = 0
 D D
81. Length of DCT = d 2 − (R − r) 2
2
[ 2 − (+4) [ + =0
2
= 102 − (4 − 2)2 [2 − 4[ + 1 = 0
= 100 − 22
1 1 m + n −b / a b
= 100 − 4 87. + = = =−
m n mn c/a c
= 96 88. Key - 3
82. ∠ OAP = 90o 89. x2 (S.O.R) x + P.O.R = 0
OP is hypoteneous & Q is mid point x2 + 1x -2 = 0
hence AQ = OQ = OA ⇒ x2 + 2x 1x 2 = 0
⇒ ∠ AOQ = 60o ⇒ x = -2, x = 1
⇒ ∠ AOB = 120o 90. 5y2 - py + 1 = 0
⇒ ∠ APB = 180o-120o=60o −b P.O.R. = a 1 × a 2 =
c
S.O.R.= a1 + a 2 =
a a
83. S R +p 1
a1 × a2 = a1 , a 2 =
PQ + SR = QR + SP 5 5
P S
∴ (a1 + a 2 ) 2 = (a1 − a 2 ) 2 + 4a1 a 2
2
84. (a) → d = R + r ( iii) p 1
  = 1 + 4x
2 5
25 × 9
(b) → d = R - r (i) 5 5 p =
2
2 5
(c) → d = 0 (ii) p 4
= 1+ p=± 45
(d) → d > R + r (iv) 25 5
p 2
5 + 4 p=± 3 5
=
25 5
2
p 9
=
25 5
138
91. x2 6kx + 5 = 0 96. a + a - 1 + b = 12

+6k c 2a + b = 13 b
m+n = mn = a
1 a b = 13 2a
b2 = a2 + (a-1)2 a-1
5
5 + n = 6K 5xn= (13-2a) = a + (a-1)
2 2 2
1
169 + 4a2 52a = a2 + a2+1-2a
n =1
2a2 - 50a +168 = 0
∴ 5 + 1 = 6K
6 a2 - 25a + 84 = 0
k= a=21, a = 4
6
k =1 ∴a=4 (a ≠ 21)
a-1=3
92. b 2 − 4ac = 1 b = 13 - 2 x 4
= 13-8
b2 − 4 x 6 x 2 = 1
=5
b 2 = 1 + 48
b 2 = 49 1
Area of = ×D × D −
b = ± 49 2
b=± 7 1
= × 42 × 3
2
93. b2 4ac = 82 4 x 1 x 16 = 6 cm2
= 64 64
=0 P.O.R c/a −c
97. = =
94. a=c S.O.R − b/a b
A1 4 U12 (5/2)2 25
−b a = = =
95. m+n = mn = 98. A 2 4 U2 2 2
a c
∴ = 25 : 49
−p
m + 3m = m x 3m = q A1 : A 2
1
4m = − p 3m 2 = q
−p  -p 
2 1
m= 3  = q 99. VNew = U2[K
3
4 4
1
3p 2 = 16q = x [U2[K
3
1
= 12x U2K = [9g
3
VNew : Vg = 12 :1
100. C.S.A1 = U1O1

CSA 2 U2 O2
2r x 5
=
2r x 4
5
=
139 4
101. A = 4 U 2 = 4 4 4
616 7 105. VBigsphere = U1 3 + U2 3 + U3 3
r2 = x 3 3 3
4 22 4 4
5 3 = 3 + 3 + 3
r 2 = 49 3 3
r = 7cm R = 1000 + 512 + 216
3
R 3 = 1728
4 2 4 22 R 3 = 123
102. Vsphere = U K = × × 3
3 3 7 ⇒ R = 12
4 22
= × × 125
3 7 106. A 1 =lb=a : A 2 = lh = b : A 3 = bh =c
∴ Vcone = Vsphere lb x lb x bh = abc
1 2 4 l 2 b 2 h 2 =abc
U K = × ×
3 3
lbh = abc
52 x h = 125
125 1
h= A CSA = A TSA
25 107. 3
h = 5cm 1
= x 462
3
= 154
103. V = 1 Bh 2 UU + K =
3
1 2 U 2 + =
21 = x 84h
3 2 U 2 = −
21 x 3 2 U 2 =
=h
84 308 x 7
r2 = = 49
28 2 x 22
3 r = 7 cm
21 3
h= = m
28 4 4
108. VTSA = 2 U 2 + UK
4 4
104. Vsp sm all = 3 U 3 DQG9sp big = 5 3 2
22  7  22 7
3 =2× ×  + 2 × × ×8
7 2 7 2
4/3 5 3 [[ 22 7  7 
N o.of balls = = =8 =2× ×  + 8
4/3 r 3 2x2x2 7 22  3.5 cm
 7 + 16 
= 2 
 2 
8 cm
23
= 22 ×
2
= 253cm2
140
109. Perpendicular lines

C
110. 3x + 4y = 10 ⇒ 3 x 2 + 4x 1 = 10
x-y ⇒2-1 = 1 (trial & error method) 118. tan A =
BC
AB
111. y=px + 1
BC
3=p x 2 + 1 tan30o =
9
30 o
3-1 = 2p 1 BC
B A =
P = 2/2 3 9
P=1 9
BC = =3 3
3
a1 b1 c1
112. = ≠ ⇒ No Solution
a 2 b 2 c2
119. 2 cos 3 =
1
a1 b1 c1 cos 3 =
113. a = b = c 2
2 2 2
cos 3 = FRV o
3 = o
a1 b
114. = 1 9 = − 4m 60o
a2 b2 =
3
2 −4 −9 = o
⇒ = m=
m 3 4
120. A + B + C = 180
o
1
115. u+v = 2 ⇒ =4
uv = 6 y A + B = 180o − C
2u = 8 y = 1/ A + B = 90o (' ∠C = 90 o )
4
u=4
A + B 90
=
2 2
[ \ 1 A+B 90
116. E F − E F = F D − D F = D E − E D cos   = cos
1 2 2 1 1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2  2  2
= cos 45o
E F − E2 F1
∴ [= 1 2 =1
D1E2 − E1D2
C
121. tan A = cot B
AB
117. cos A = tant t = tan (90 B)
BC
⇒ A = 90 B
3
cos A = ⇒ A + B = 90
6
1
B A cos A =
2
cos A = cos 60 o
⇒ A = 60 o
141
122)
C AB
BC = (a 2 + b2 )2 − (a 2 − b 2 ) 2 126) tan D =
BD
= a 4 + b 4 + 2a 2 b 2 − a 4 − b 4 + 2a 2 b 2 A 60o 7
B tan 45o =
BD
= 4a b 2 2
7 7
A BD = 7
= 2ab 45o
CE
AB B D tan 60o =
∴ tanT = a2 + b2 AE
BC a2 b2
CE
a 2 − b2 3=
= 7
2ab T 7 3 = CE
B C
∴ DC = DE + CE
123) (sinθ+cosθ) 2 =1 2 = 7+7 3

Sin 2 θ + cos 2 + 2sin θ cos θ = 1 = 7(1 + 3)
1 + 2 sinθ cos θ = 1
2 sinθ cosθ = 1-1
2sin θ cos θ = 0
⇒ sinθ = 0 127) 1 + sin + VLQ
x
0=0 1 − sin + VLQ
⇒sin 2θ = sin 2 x 0
= sin 0 (1 + sin 2
= 0 =
12 − sin 2
3 3 1 + sin VLQ
123) sin (A+B) = Cos (A-B) = = = + = sec WDQ
2 2 cos FRV FRV
Sin(A+B) = sin 60o Cos (A-B) = cos 30o
A+B = 60o A-B = 30o 128) a sin (90 − FRW − = FRV −
o o
Now A+B = 60o a cos WDQ = VLQ

A-B = 30o a=
sin
cos [WDQ
2A = 90o A+B = 60o
tan
2A = 90o B = 60o 45o a=
tan
A = 45o B = 15o a =1
II Sec 4 T − Sec 2 T
125) I Sec T − Sec T
4 2
= Sec 2 T (Sec 2 T − 1)
= Sec2T (Sec2T −1) = Sec 2 T (tan 2 T)
= Sec2T × tan2 T = (1 + tan 2 T) tan 2 T
1 sin2 T = tan 2 T + tan 4 T
= ×
cos2 T cos2 T
sin2 T
=
cos4 T
⇒ (I) and (II) are ture
142
129) A 0 B 132)
(5,2) (0,y) (9,2)
distance = (cos − sin )2 + (−cos − sin ) 2
AO = (−5 − 0) 2 + (2 − y) 2 OB = (9-0)2 + (-2-y) 2 = cos 2 + sin 2 − 2cos × sin + cos 2 + sin 2 + 2sin .cos
= 2(sin 2 + cos 2 )
= 52 + (2 − y) 2 = 92 + (2 + y) 2

= 2
= 25 + (2 − y)2 = 81 + (2 + y) 2
OA = OB A (0, 3b)
⇒ 25 + (2 − y) 2 = 81 + (2 + y) 2 133)
25 + (2 − y)2 = 81 + (2 + y) 2
2
(2 − y)2 − (2 + y) 2 = 81 − 25
G
4 + y 2 − 4y − 4 − y 2 − 4y = 56
− 8y = 56 1
−56
y= (0, 0) B C (3a, 0)
8 D
y = −7
 0 + 3a 0 + 0 
∴ Co − ordinate of po int ’O ’ = 0, − 7) D(x, y) =  , 
 2 2 
 3a 
=  ,0
y 2 − y1  2 
130) M1 = x − x  3a 
2 1  0x1 + 2x 2 3b x1 + 2 x 0 
2−6 G(m, n) =  , 
=  1+ 2 1+ 2 
3−5  
−4
=  0 + 3a 3b + 0 
−2 = , 
 3 3 
=2
 3a 3b 
∴ M1 = M 2 (Parallel lines) = , 
 3 3 
⇒ M2 = 2
= (a, b)
131)
134) distance = (2 − m) + (3 − 3)
2 2
A(0,0), B(a,0), C(0, b)
AB = (a − 0) 2 + (0 − 0) 2 BC = (a-0) 2 + (0-b) 2 5 = (2 − m) 2 + o 2
= a2 = a 2 + b2 52 = (2 − m) 2
=a
(2 − m) = ±5
AC = (0 − 0) 2 + (0 − b) 2
− m = ±5 − 2
= 0 + b2
− m = ±5 − 2
=b
m = −3 or = + 7
Now AB + AC = BC
a + b = a 2 + b2
(a + b) 2 = a 2 + b 2
a 2 + b 2 + 2ab = a 2 + b 2
2ab = 0
ab = 0
143
135) A (0, 0) 137) Diagonals of parallelogram bisect each other

(a, 1) A B (1, 0)
∴
(a, 0) B D C (0, b)
(1, 2) D C (b, 3)
AB = (a − 0)2 + (0 − 0) 2  a + b −1+ 3   1 +1 2 + 0 
O (x, y) =  ,  O (x, y) =  , 
 2 2   2 2 
= a 2 + 02
 a +b 2  2 2
= a =  ,  = , 
 2 2 2 2
AC = (0 − 0) 2 + (0 − b)2  a+b 
=  , 1 = (1,1)
= a 2 + b2  2 
= b a+b
⇒ =1
2
BC = (a − 0) 2 + (0 − b) 2 a + b = 2, ⇒ a = − 2, b = 4
= a 2 + b2
= b
Now AB2 = a 2  5m + 3n 7m + 9n 
138) (4,8) =  , 
AC 2 = b 2  m + n m+n 
BC 2 = a 2 + b 2 5m + 3n
=4
∴ ∆ ABC, A = 90o m+n
1
Areas of + = × AC × AB 5m + 3n = 4m + 4n
2 5m − 4m = 4n − 3n
1
= ×a×b m=n
2
1 ∴ m : n = 1:1
= ab
2
139) +1 = perimeter of + 1
2
136) A(a,0), B(0,b), C(1,1) +2 perimeter of + 2 2

Area of = 0 42
= 2
x1(y2y3) + x2(y 1y3) + x3(y 2y1)=0 1
a(b1)+0 (1-0) + 1(0b) = 0 16
=
1
ab a + 0 + 0 b = 0
ab a b = 0
ab = a + b
a+b
=1
ab
144
140) 143) In ∆CBE

D C
D is the mid point of BC and DM|| BE
∴ M is the mid point of EC
O
⇒ CM=ME
In ∆ADM
A B
p is the mid point of AD and PE || DM
∴E is the mid point of AM
∆ AOB = ∆ COD
⇒ AE=EM
AO OB
= ⇒ AE=EM=MC
CO OD
3x − 1 2x + 1
=
5x − 3 6x − 5 1
(3x − 1)(6x − 5) = (2x + 1)(5x − 3) ∴ AE = AC
3
18x 2 − 15x − 6x + 5 = 10x 2 − 6x + 5x − 3 AE 1
∴ =
18x 2 − 21x + 5 = 10x 2 − x − 3 AC 3
8x 2 − 20x + 8 = 0
2x 2 − 5x + 2 = 0 144) D C
AC = 50 = 5 2
4 1
x= , x= ∴ AB = 5cm
2 2
1 Area = AB2 = 52 = 25cm2
x =2 , x = B B
2
A
141) ∆ ABC ∆ AED 3 . a2 1

D E 145) A = A= ×b×h
AB BC AC 4 2
= =
AE AB AD 3 . a2 1
4 3= 4 3 = ×4×h
AD AE DE 4 2
∴ = =
B C AC AB BC 4 3×2
4 × 4 = a2 =h
4
a=4 h=2 3
142) perimeter of ∆ABC AC
=
perimeter of ∆DEF DF
(4 + 3.5 + 2.5) 2.5
=
per .of ∆DEF 7.5
10x7.5
per. of DEF = = 3.0cm
2.5
145
146) AD x DC = BD2 151) A
147) A
2 (x2 + y2 )
B D C
2
 BC 
AB = AD + 
2 2

B C  2 
AB2
AB2 = AD 2 + (' AB = BC)
AB2 = (x + y)2 = x 2 + y 2 + 2 xy 4
2
BC2 = (x − y)2 = x 2 + y 2 − 2 xy AB2 −
AB
= AD 2
AB2 + BC2 = 2x 2 + 2y 2 4
= 2 (x 2 + y 2 ) AB − AB2
2
4 = AD 2
4
( )
2
AC2 = 2 (x 2 + y 2 ) 3AB = 4AD 2
2
= 2(x 2 + y 2 )
152) A
⇒ AB = x + y, BC = x − y
148) AC2 + BD2 = 4AB2
B C
D
A 1 In ∆BDC, BC 2 =BD 2 +CD 2

149) ∆ = × AB × BC
2
1 Now In ∆ABC, ∠ABC= 90 o
= × AB2
2 ∴ BC 2 = AC x CD
1
= (AC2 − BC2 ) ⇒ BD 2 + CD 2 = AC x CD
2
B C
A 7.5 B
153)
13
7.5
D 5 E C
150) AD = a + a
2 2 2
= 2a 2 AE = BC = 12CM
=a 2
Area of ABCD = (a 2) 2
= a2 x 2
= 2a 2
146

01 2 39 1
02 3 40 4
03 2 41 3
04 3 42 3
05 4 43 2
06 2 44 3
07 3 45 2
08 3 46 1
09 4 47 3
10 2 48 4
11 3 49 3
12 3 50 1
13 4 51 4
14 2 52 2
15 2 53 3
16 1 54 1
17 3 55 2
18 1 56 2
19 1 57 4
20 1 58 2
21 3 59 4
22 2 60 3
23 3 61 3
24 4 62 2
25 1 63 1
26 3 64 3
27 4 65 2
28 1 66 3
29 3 67 3
30 3 68 1
31 2 69 3
32 2 70 2
33 3 71 2
34 3 72 1
35 3 73 3
36 4 74 4
37 2 75 4
38 1 76 4
77 3
147

78 4 116 2
79 2 117 2
80 2 118 3
81 2 119 2
82 3 120 3
83 1 121 4
84 2 122 1
85 4 123 1
86 4 124 3
87 1 125 1
88 3 126 1
89 1 127 1
90 1 128 2
91 2 129 1
92 2 130 2
93 3 131 3
94 1 132 2
95 2 133 1
96 4 134 3
97 2 135 4
98 4 136 3
99 2 137 1
100 1 138 1
101 1 139 1
102 1 140 1
103 2 141 2
104 4 142 3
105 2 143 3
106 2 144 4
107 2 145 2
108 2 146 4
109 3 147 2
110 2 148 1
111 2 149 2
112 1 150 3
113 1 151 1
114 2 152 3
115 2 153 3
148

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