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01.williams Obstetrics - Combined Questions
01.williams Obstetrics - Combined Questions
Following questions was reproduced based on past exams, taken from williams 22ed.
2-32. The uterus and fallopian tubes arise embryologically from which of the
following?
a. mullerian ducts
b. wolffian ducts
c. urogenital sinus
d. mesonephric ducts
2-41. Which is the narrowest diameter of the pelvic inlet through which the fetal
head must pass?
a. true conjugate
b. diagonal conjugate
c. transverse diameter
d. obstetrical conjugate
2-50. Engagement occurs when the biparietal diameter of the fetal head descends
below the level of which of the following?
a. midpelvis
b. pelvic inlet
c. pelvic floor
d. ischial tuberosities
3-17. The zone of fibrinoid degeneration known as the Nitabuch layer is found at
the junction of which of the following?
3-20. The time window surrounding ovulation that allows for fertilization of an
oocyte in humans is which of the following?
a. 3 days
b. 5 days
c. 7 days
d. 9 days
3-21. What is the solid ball of cells formed by 16 or more blastomeres?
a. zygote
b. morula
c. embryo
d. blastocyst
a. α-subunit
b. β-subunit
c. both subunits
d. carbohydrate moieties
3-53. The hCG receptor is also the receptor for what other hormone?
a. LH
b. FSH
c. estriol
d. progesterone
3-54. Human placental lactogen (hPL) is structurally MOST similar to which of the
followinghormones?
a. LH
b. FSH
c. insulin
d. prolactin
a. fetal urine
b. fetal serum
c. amnionic fluid
d. maternal serum
4-1. How many days does human pregnancy last, on average, counting from the
first day of the last menstrual period?
a. 260
b. 270
c. 280
d. 290
4-27. Direct transfer of nutrients and oxygen from mother to fetus occurs
primarily across which of the following interfaces?
a. decidua capsularis
b. fetal membranes
c. syncytiotrophoblast
d. yolk sac
a. active transport
b. simple diffusion
c. facilitated diffusion (carrier-mediated)
d. endocytosis
4-34. Of the following proteins involved in glucose transport, which are located in
the syncytiotrophoblast plasma membrane?
a. Glut-3
b. HPL
c. FGF-2
d. IGF-1
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgE
a. female phenotype
b. short, blind-ending vagina
c. no uterus or fallopian tubes
d. ovarian remnants on one side
a. 5.5 kg
b. 9.5 kg
c. 12.5 kg
d. 15.5 kg
5-18. What is the minimum amount of extra water that the average woman
accrues during normal pregnancy?
a. 1.0 L
b. 3.5 L
c. 6.5 L
d. 8.0 L
5-19. Of the total 1000 g net gain of protein in normal pregnancy, how much is
used by the fetus and placenta?
a. 100 g
b. 300 g
c. 500 g
d. 750 g
a. bladder trigone
b. pelvic brim
c. sacrospinous ligaments
d. ureterovesical junction
a. adrenal gland
b. placenta
c. posterior pituitary
d. ovary
8-12. What is the mean gestational age at which the fetal heartbeat can be
detected by auscultation with a stethoscope?
a. 17 weeks
b. 19 weeks
c. 21 weeks
d. 23 weeks
8-14. At what gestational age can an examiner typically first detect fetal
movements?
a. 14 weeks
b. 16 weeks
c. 20 weeks
d. 24 weeks
a. at bedtime
b. with breakfast
c. during the first trimester
d. only if the hemoglobin is less than 10 mg/dL
8-54. Which of the following is NOT associated with severe zinc deficiency?
a. cretinism
b. dwarfism
c. hypogonadism in children
d. limb reduction deformities
8-60. What percentage of neural-tube defects are related to folic acid metabolism
and therefore, preventable by folic acid supplementation?
a. 5
b. 15
c. 25
d. 50
8-61. What amount of daily folic acid intake is currently recommended during the
preconceptual period and early pregnancy?
a. 40 µg
b. 100 µg
c. 400 µg
d. 1000 µg
9-12. Your patient has had two first-trimester and one second-trimester
spontaneous abortions. Her screen for anticardiolipin antibodies is positive.
The most appropriate treatment option for this patient during her next pregnancy
includes which of the following?
10-2. Which poses the greatest risk of maternal death in the first trimester?
a. ectopic pregnancy
b. elective abortion
c. term pregnancy
d. all pose equal risk
10-4. What is the approximate rate of recurrent ectopic pregnancy after one
previous ectopic?
a. 1%
b. 10%
c. 50%
d. 90%
13-13. Isolated fetal structural defects are most commonly found in which of the
following organs?
a. liver
b. heart
c. bladder
d. neural tube
a. reassurance
b. repeat MSAFP level measurement
c. amniocentesis for fetal karyotyping
d. amniocentesis for amnionic fluid AFP level measurement
14-1. What percentage of children in the United States are born with a major
structural malformation detectable at birth?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
14-4. What percentage of congenital anomalies (structural or functional) are
caused by teratogens?
a. 10
b. 25
c. 50
d. 75
a. <1.0 weeks
b. 10 to 20 weeks
c. 20 to 30 weeks
d. 30 to 40 weeks
15-13. All of the following are descriptions of respiratory movements in the fetus
EXCEPT:
a. gasping
b. paradoxical breathing
c. glossopharyngeal breathing
d. irregular bursts of breathing
a. 1 acceleration in 20 min
b. 2 accelerations in 20 min
c. 8 accelerations in 20 min
d. 15 accelerations in 20 min
a. breathing
b. heart rate
c. eye movements
d. body movements
a. fetal weight
b. fetal presentation
c. placental location
d. maternal adnexal evaluation
16-17. What is the average diameter in millimeters of the lateral ventricular atrium
at 15 weeks' gestation and older?
a. 2 to 4
b. 6 to 8
c. 10 to 12
d. 14 to 16
17-3. What is the lie if the fetal and maternal axes cross at a 45-degree angle?
a. longitudinal
b. breech
c. oblique
d. transverse
a. 20
b. 50
c. 70
d. 99
17-8. In which presentation is the fetal head partially flexed and a large anterior
fontanel presenting?
a. vertex
b. face
c. brow
d. sinciput
a. 3%
b. 5%
c. 7%
d. 9%
17-16. What is the most common position of the fetal vertex as it enters the
pelvis?
a. nose
b. mouth
c. ear
d. shoulder
a. molding
b. caput succedaneum
c. subdural hematoma
d. erythema nodosum
a. 0 to 2 cm
b. 3 to 5 cm
c. 4 to 6 cm
d. 6 to 7 cm
a. <90 bpm
b. < 100 bpm
c. <110 bpm
d. < 120 bpm
a. >160 bpm
b. >170 bpm
c. >180 bpm
d. >190 bpm
a. drug-induced
b. thyroid storm
c. maternal fever
d. cardiac arrhythmia
19-13. Which nerve roots are responsible for the pain of vaginal delivery?
a. T10, T11
b. T11, T12
c. T10, T11, T12, L1
d. S2, S3, S4
a. succinylcholine
b. thiopental
c. magnesium sulfate
d. phenytoin
a. preeclampsia
b. skin infection at site of needle entry
c. controlled seizure disorder
d. diabetes
19-25. What are the effects of labor epidurals on the cesarean birthrate according
to current information?
a. no change
b. slightly decreased
c. slightly increased
d. markedly increased
a. >1 hr
b. >2 hr
c. >3 hr
d. >20 hr
20-25. Which of the following factors is amenable to radiographic measurement
(x-ray)?
20-53. Which of the following has the weakest association with fetal head
molding?
a. multiparity
b. oxytocin labor stimulation
c. vacuum extraction delivery
d. prolonged labor
a. swallowing
b. transudation
c. inspiration
d. vasopressin secretion
21-17. Which of the following is a side effect of using indomethacin for the
management of hydramnios?
a. <1%
b. 5 to 10%
c. 15 to 20%
d. 25 to 30%
23-5. Engagement, of the fetal head occurs when the occiput reaches what
station?
a. -2
b. 0
c. +2
d. + 4
23-7, Obstetrical practice over the past 20 years has shown which of the following
trends?
23-8. When forceps are applied to the fetal head with the scalp visible at the
introitus and without manual separation of the labia, what type of delivery-
occurs?
a. outlet forceps
b. low forceps
c. midforceps
d. either outlet or low forceps
23-14. Which of the following forceps is best suited for low forceps delivery of a
fetus with a rounded head?
a. Simpson
b. Tucker-McLane
c. Kielland
d. Chamberlain
23-18. When exceeded which of the following is the most correct definition of a
prolonged second stage in the parous patient?
a. <1%
b. 3 to 4%
c. 7 to 8%
d. 12 to 15%
24-6. Which of the following best describes the incomplete breech presentation?
a. cephalic presentation
b. transverse lie
c. breech presentation
d. multiple pregnancy
24-8. Which of the following help to differentiate a frank breech from a cephalic
presentation during vaginal examination?
a. maternal hemorrhage
b. maternal sepsis
c. perinatal mortality
d. perinatal morbidity
24-17. During early labor in a breech presentation the fetal heart rate should be
evaluated how often?
a. every 5 min
b. every 15 min
c. every 30 min
d. continuously
24-19. In which maneuver are the index and middle finger applied over the maxilla
in order to free the head?
a. Pinard
b. Bracht
c. Mauriceau
d. Zavanelli
24-23. According to the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists,
what is the approximate success rate of external cephalic version for breech
presentations late in pregnancy?
a. 20%
b. 40%
c. 60%
d. 80%
a. easier to repair
b. less blood loss
c. fewer problems with adhesions to bowel
d. ability to safely extend incision laterally
25-18. What is the average blood loss with an elective cesarean hysterectomy?
a. 500 mL
b. 1000 mL
c. 1500 mL
d. 3000 mL
a. metronidazole
b. cephalosporins
c. tetracycline
d. azithromycin
26-1. A trial of labor following cesarean delivery has the highest incidence of
which of the following?
a. uterine rupture
b. perinatal death
c. maternal death
d. thromboembolism
26-2. Compared with patients undergoing elective repeat cesarean delivery,
women undergoing trial of labor following cesarean delivery have a higher risk of
all of the following EXCEPT:
a. endometritis
b. uterine rupture
c. thromboembolism
d. fetal hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy
26-3. What is the rate of uterine rupture in women undergoing a trial of labor
following cesarean delivery?
a. <1%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 15%
26-4. What is the rate of fetal death or injury attributable to trial of labor following
cesarean delivery?
a. 1 per 1000
b. 5 per 1000
c. 10 per 1000
d. 15 per 1000
26-8. Selection criteria set forth by the American College of Obstetricians and
Gynecologists regarding trial of labor candidacy include which of the following?
26-9. Women with which of the following incision types would be candidates for a
trial of labor following cesarean delivery?
a. classical
b. T-shaped
c. low vertical without extension
d. low transverse in a bicornuate uterus
26-10. Your patient is contemplating a trial of labor following her prior cesarean
delivery She should be counseled that an increased risk of uterine rupture is
associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
a. cervical ripening
b. prior vaginal delivery
c. oxytocin augmentation
d. increasing number of prior cesarean deliveries
26-11. Generally, what is the success rate for trial of labor following cesarean
deliver)'?
a. 20 to 40%
b. 40 to 60%
c. 60 to 80%
d. 80 to 100%
26-12. Which of the following indications for the prior cesarean delivery are
associated with the highest success rates in subsequent trials of labor?
a. fetal distress
b. breech presentation
c. dystocia with cervical dilation ≤5 cm
d. dystocia during the second stage of labor
26-15. The most common fetal sign of uterine rupture in women undergoing a trial
of labor following prior cesarean delivery is which of the following?
27-1. What is the name for incomplete division of the placenta into separate lobes
with fetal vessels extending from one lobe to the other?
a. placenta bipartita
b. placenta succenturiata
c. placenta membranacea
d. placenta fenestrate
27-2. Which type of placenta contains small accessory lobes in the fetal
membranes distant from the main placenta?
a. fenestrated placenta
b. membranaceous placenta
c. placenta bilobata
d. placenta succenturiata
a. membranaceous placenta
b. placenta bipartita
c. placenta succenturiata
d. ring-shaped placenta
27-4. Of the abnormal placentas listed, which is associated with fetal growth
restriction?
a. fenestrated placenta
b. placenta bilobata
c. placenta succenturiata
d. ring-shaped placenta
27-5. What name is given to a placenta whose central portion is missing?
a. fenestrated placenta
b. membranaceous placenta
c. placenta accreta
d. placenta succenturiata
27-6. In which placental type is the chorionic plate smaller than the basal plate?
a. extrachorial
b. fenestrated
c. membranaceous
d. ring-shaped
a. circumvallate placenta
b. fenestrated placenta
c. placenta bipartita
d. triplex placenta
27-8. Which of the following are risk factors for the development of placenta
accreta, increta, and percreta?
a. placenta previa
b. prior cesarean delivery
c. uterine perforation in prior pregnancy
d. all of the above
a. <1
b. 10
c. 25
d. >50
30-1. The commonly used definition of the puerperium describes which of the
following time periods?
a. wider external os
b. scarred, narrowed external os
c. cervical length is doubled from prepregnancy
d. cervical length is halved from prepregnancy
a. 1.5 in 100,000
b. 1.5 in 10,000
c. 1.5 in 1000
d. 1.5 in 100
a. anesthetic complications
b. chronic pelvic pain
c. injury of adjacent structures
d. sterilization failure
a. 1 in 10
b. 1 in 100
c. 1 in 1000
d. 1 in 10,000
a. 0
b. 5
c. 10
d. 20
37-4. What happens to perinatal mortality after 42 weeks gestation?
a. markedly decreased
b. slightly decreased
c. no change
d. increased
37-5. What is the likelihood of a subsequent postterm birth if the first birth was
postterm?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 18%
d. 27%
37-6. Which of the following fetal factors are NOT associated with postterm
pregnancy?
a. renal agenesis
b. X-linked placental sulfatase deficiency
c. adrenal hypoplasia
d. anencephaly
a. >3800 g
b. >4000 g
c. >4200g
d. >4500g
a. pregnancy-induced hypertension
b. gestational diabetes
c. preterm birth
d. urinary tract infection
a.atenolol
b. acupunctue
c. sumitriptan
d. all of the above
a. Cortisol
b. aldosterone
c. melanocyte-stimulating hormone
d. unknown cause
58-27. Which of the following techniques is best for the diagnosis of fetal
cytomegalovirus infection?
a. amniocentesis or cordocentesis
b. chorionic villus sampling
c. ultrasonography
d. magnetic resonance imaging