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NTSE 5 Practice Sets For SAT MAT LCT For NTSE Stage 1 Disha PDF
NTSE 5 Practice Sets For SAT MAT LCT For NTSE Stage 1 Disha PDF
NTSE 5 Practice Sets For SAT MAT LCT For NTSE Stage 1 Disha PDF
EBD_7396
EBD_7085
MAT+ELT
Mental
Ability
Test
English
Language
Test 1
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 100
6. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on the answer sheet/loose paper.
7. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark. There is no negative marking.
8. After completion of this test you can evaluate your performance by comparing your answers with answers provided
in solution booklet.
EBD_7396
MT-2 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
EBD_7085
Mock Test-1 MT-3
40 2 5 6 6 7 4 8
8 10. 12 21 ?
4 5 10
4 (1) 22 (2) 30
(3) 32 (4) None of these
(1) 36 (2) 29 (3) 10 (4) 28
3 15
1 3 5 7 2 6
6. Which fraction comes next in the sequence , , , ,? 25 441
2 4 8 16
11. 10 289 ? 13
9 10 11 12 7 12
(1) (2) (3) (4)
32 17 34 35
(1) 25 (2) 125 (3) 156 (4) 625
7. A figure marked as transparent sheet is given and followed
by four answer figures. One out of these four options
resembles the figure which is obtained by folding A2 C4 E6
transparent sheet along the dotted line. This option is your
answer. 12. G3 I5 ?
Transparent Sheet M5 O9 Q14
(1) J15 (2) K8 (3) K15 (4) L10
13. Select from alternatives the figure (X) that exactly fits in
the main figure to complete its original pattern.
Answer Figures
3 2 4 5 1 3 3 1
35.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 2 (4) 1 (1) (2) (3) (4)
DIRECTIONS (Qs.32 and 33) : Figures A and B are related in a 36. Choose the correct mirror-image of the Fig. (X) from amongst
particular manner. Establish the same relationship between figures the four alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4) given along with it.
C and D by choosing a figure from amongst the four alternatives,
///////////////
which would replace the question mark in fig. (D)
32. PROBLEM FIGURES
?
X
A B C D
ANSWER FIGURES
(1) (2) (3) (4)
DIRECTIONS (Qs.37 and 38) : In each of the following questions,
you are given a combination of alphabets and/or numbers followed
by four alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4). Choose the alternative
which most closely resembles the water images of the given
(1) (2) (3) (4) combination.
37. NUCLEAR
33. PROBLEM FIGURES
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
? 38. BK5 0 RP 6 2
(1)
(3)
(2)
(4)
A B C D DIRECTIONS (Q.39) : Consider the three figures, marked X, Y,
ANSWER FIGURES and Z showing one fold in X, another in Y and cut in Z. From
amongst the four alternative figures 1, 2, 3 and 4, select the one
showing the unfolded position of Z.
39.
X Y Z
(1) (2) (3) (4)
44. Roshan ranked 11 th from the top and thirty one from the
bottom in a class. How many students are there in the class?
(1) 42 (2) 43
(1) (2) (3) (4) (3) 41 (4) 40
45. In a queue, A is eighteenth from the front while B is sixteenth
40. The figure shows a pile of blocks. When taken apart, how
many blocks would there be ? from the back. If C is twentieth from the front and is exactly
in the middle of A and B, then how many persons are there is
the queue ?
(1) 45 (2) 46
(1) 10 (2) 14 (3) 18 (4) 20 (3) 47 (4) 48
41. What comes in the sequence ?
46. At what time between 7 and 8 o’clock will the hands of a
?
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
EBD_7085
Mock Test-1 MT-7
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-7) : Read the following passage and answer 4. Which of the following is one of the requirements bringing
the questions given after it. out the best in man?
Power and Possession have been central pursuits of modern (1) Money (2) Success
civilisation for a long time. They blocked out or distorted other (3) Power (4) Understanding
features of the western 'renaissance' (revival) which promised so 5. The author hopes that the present crisis can be solved by
much for humanity. What people have been and are still being (1) devoted individual efforts.
taught to prize are money, success, control over the lives of others (2) different political systems.
acquisition of more and more objects. Modern social, political and (3) purpose and collective human efforts.
economic systems, whether capitalist, fascist or communist, reject (4) spiritually developed individuals.
in their working the basic principal that the free and creative 6. The modern value systems encourage the importance of
enfoldment of every man, woman and child is the true measure of which one of the following?
the worth of any society. Such enfoldment requires understanding (1) Craving for power and possession.
and imagination, integrity and compassion, cooperation among (2) Basic respect for all individuals.
people and harmony between the human species and the rest of (3) Spiritual development of all individuals.
the nature. Acquisitiveness and the pursuit of power have made (4) Spirit of inquiry and knowledge.
the modern man an aggressor against everything that is non- 7. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to the
human, an exploiter and oppressor of those who are poor, meek word 'central' as used in the passage?
and unorganised, a pathological type which hates and distrusts (1) Lateral (2) Inadequate
the world and suffers from both acute loneliness and false pride. (3) Peripheral (4) Major
The need for a new renaissance is deeply felt by those sensitive DIRECTIONS (Qs. 8-11) : Read the following passage and answer
and conscientious men and women who not only perceive the the questions given after it.
dimensions of the crisis of our age, but who also realise that only Dr. Carver was an American Negro slave, who by dint of his ability
through conscious and cooperative human effort may this crisis became a scientist and educator of world-wide fame. A national
be met and probably even overcome. monument has now been erected to honour him. This monument
1. The author appears to be advocating which of the following has been built at his birth place in the United States of America.
approaches to be adopted by the society Carver's life and achievements prove the American saying: "You
(1) Capitalistic (2) Communist can't keep a great man down." From childhood he showed qualities
(3) Humanistic (4) Authoritarian which gave promise of his genius. He would get up before sunrise
2. Which of the following best describes the behaviour of to study the wonders of nature before the break of dawn in the
modern man? east. His guardians wanted to educate him, but were too poor to
(1) imaginative and sympathetic do so. So he left home. He was hardly ten when he began to work
(2) cruel and greedy at small jobs to earn a little money for his school expenses. He
(3) conscientious and cooperative continued to do so even when he was at college. Thus, he passed
(4) perceptive and creative his M.Sc. examination and became a professor. There he wrote
3. The real attainment of any society can be adjudged by which several books on science subjects. His chief desire was to do the
of the following statement? greatest good to the greatest number of people. He left all his life's
(1) The encouragement for acquisitive tendencies. savings to found scholarships for research in Agricultural
(2) Total victimisation of conscientious persons. Chemistry. He know this research, was bound to benefit farmers
(3) The degree of freedom for pursuing more and more all over the world. Though world famous, he never felt proud of
power. his discoveries. "I discovered nothing," he once said, "I am God's
(4) None of the above. agent—the instrument through which he works."
(1) They derive this carbon from coal mines inside the earth. 26. It is inconceivable that in many schools children are
(2) They derive this carbon from the air exhaled by the subjected to physical _________ in the name of
humans. discipline.
(3) They derive this carbon from pollutants of vehicles. (1) violation (2) exercise
(4) They derive this carbon from the carbon dioxide in the (3) violence (4) security
air. 27. We have not yet fully realised the _________ consequences
19. A. The essence of democracy is the active participation of the war.
of the people in government affairs. (1) happy (2) pleasing
B. _____________________________________
(3) grim (4) exciting
C. By and large it is the actual practise of our way of life.
28. Attention to detail is _________ of a fine craftsman.
(1) Our democracy is founded upon inspirations from
(1) hallmark (2) stamp
foreign constitutions.
(3) seal of authority (4) authenticity
(2) Our democracy is founded upon a faith in the overall
29. I ___________ with him about his rudeness.
judgement of the people as a whole.
(1) remonstrated (2) demonstrated
(3) Our democracy is founded upon the principles laid
down by our freedom fighters. (3) shouted (4) reiterated
(4) Our democracy is founded upon a fact that our country DIRECTIONS (Qs. 30-35) : Select the meaning of the given
should withstand the competitions with other countries. phrases/idioms.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 20-29) : Choose the word which best fills the 30. To smell a rat
blank from the four options given. (1) Signs of plague epidemic (2) Bad smell
20. You have no business to _________ pain on a weak and (3) Suspect foul dealings (4) To be in a bad mood
poor person. 31. To be above board
(1) inflict (2) put (1) To have a good height (2) To be honest in any deal
(3) direct (4) force (3) To have no debts (4) To be able to swim
21. Her uncle died in a car accident. He was quite rich. She 32. To fall flat
suddenly _________ all her uncle’s money. (1) Retreat
(1) succeeded (2) caught (2) To meet accidentally
(3) gave (4) inherited (3) Quarrel
22. There was a major accident. The plane crashed. The pilot (4) To be met with a cold reception
_________ did not see the tower. 33. In the blues
(1) likely (2) probably (1) Being colourful
(3) scarcely (4) hurriedly (2) Melancholy and low spirited
23. I did not see the point of _________ waiting for them, so I
(3) Behave like a lord
went home.
(4) Cheerful and happy
(1) hanging around (2) hanging on
34. Talk shop
(3) hang together (4) hanging up
(1) Talk about one’s profession
24. I had a vague _________ that the lady originally belonged
(2) Talk about shopping
to Scotland.
(1) notion (2) expression (3) Ridicule
(3) imagination (4) theory (4) Treat lightly
25. The prisoner showed no _________ for his crimes. 35. Bad blood
(1) hatred (2) obstinacy (1) Infected blood (2) Ill-feeling
(3) remorse (4) anger (3) Unfaithful (4) Suspicion
Sig. of Invigilator.................................
EBD_7396
MT-12 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
EBD_7085
1
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 100
6. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on the answer sheet/loose paper.
7. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark. There is no negative marking.
8. After completion of this test you can evaluate your performance by comparing your answers with answers provided
in solution booklet.
EBD_7396
MT-14 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Target NTSE (Class-10 Stage - 2)
1. Consider the following statements regarding the living cell: 4. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer
(a) The Golgi apparatus links carbohydrates with proteins using the codes given below :
to form glycoproteins. Column I Column II
(b) In plants, the Golgi complex synthesizes pectin. (A) Duodenum (p) Opening of wind pipe
(c) The lysosomes store the hydrolysing enzymes.
(B) Epiglottis (q) Small wind sac
Which of these statement(s) is/are correct ?
(C) Caecum (r) A cartilaginous flap
(1) Only (a) and (b) (2) Only (b)
(D) Glottis (s) ‘V’ shaped structure
(3) Only (c) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
emerging from the stomach
2. Which among the folllowing statements are true for unisexual
flowers? (1) (A) s, (B) r, (C) q, (D) p
(a) They possess both stamen and pistil. (2) (A) p, (B) q, (C) r, (D) s
(b) They possess either stamen or pistil. (3) (A) s, (B) q, (C) r, (D) p
(c) They exhibit cross-pollination. (4) (A) s, (B) r, (C) p, (D) q
(d) Unisexual flowers possessing only stamens cannot 5. On the basis of following features identify correct option.
produce fruits. I. It is the type of fishery practised in small water bodies
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (b), (c) and (d) where fish is first reared and then harvested.
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (a), (c) and (d) II. It depends upon topography, water resource, particle
3. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer size and nutrients.
using the codes given below : III. It is integrated with agriculture in paddy cum fish
Column I Column II culture.
(A) Cyton (p) The body of the nerve cell (1) Fin fishery (2) Shell fishery
that contains the (3) Capture fishery (4) Culture fishery
6. It is said, the Tajmahal may be destroyed due to
organelles.
(1) flood in Yamuna river.
(B) Dendrite (q) Receives the stimuli sent
(2) decomposition of marble as a result of high
from another nerve or
temperature.
the outside environment. (3) air pollutants released from oil refinery of Mathura.
(C) Axon (r) The long, thin section of (4) All of the above
the nerve cell where the 7. Consider the following statements:
impulse is transmitted (a) In the animals of phylum Porifera, called sponges, the
across. reproduction is only asexual by budding.
(D) Myelin sheath (s) A fatty substance that (b) Many forms of Coelenterata possess a hard exoskeleton
covers the axon of of lime to form corals.
(c) In the animals of phylum Echinodermata, body surface
the nerve cell.
is covered all over by calcareous spines.
(1) (A) p, (B) q, (C) r, (D) s
Which of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
(2) (A) q, (B) p, (C) r, (D) s
(1) Only (a) (2) Only (b)
(3) (A) r, (B) s, (C) p, (D) q (3) (a) and (b) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (A) s, (B) r, (C) p, (D) q
15. Consider the following statements: 19. During the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas on a humid
(a) Molecular mass of CH3OH is 32 u. day, the gas is usually passed through the guard tube
containing anhydrous calcium chloride. The role of
(b) In NH3, the ratio of N and H by mass is 14 : 3.
anhydrous calcium chloride taken in the guard tube is to
(c) The formula weight of CaCl2 is 111 u.
(1) absorb the evolved gas
(d) Isotopes have same atomic mass.
(2) moisten the gas
Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (d) (3) absorb moisture from the gas
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a), (c) and (d) (4) absorb Cl– ions from the evolved gas
16. A teacher instructed four students A, B, C and D to prepare 20. Which of the following gases can be used for storage of
a suspension of chalk in water. The students prepared fresh sample of an oil for a long time?
suspension in the following manner: (1) Carbon dioxide or oxygen
student ‘A’ places a piece of chalk in water. (2) Nitrogen or oxygen
student ‘B’ places powdered chalk in water. (3) Carbon dioxide or helium
student ‘C’ places powdered chalk in water and then (4) Helium or nitrogen
shakes the mixture vigorously.
21. On the basis of following features identify the correct option
student ‘D’ places powdered chalk in dil. HCl.
I. This metal is not obtained in free state.
Which of the following students has correct way of
preparation of suspension? II. This metal is obtained by electrolysis of their chlorides
in molten state.
(1) Student A (2) Student B
(1) Na (2) Ca
(3) Student C (4) Student D
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2)
17. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below : 22. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below :
Column I Column II
(A) CuFeS2 (p) Distillation Column I Column II
(B) ZnCO3 (q) Liquation (A) Carbon (p) Unsaturated hydrocarbons
(C) Tin (r) Calcination (B) CnH2n (q) Conductor of electricity
(D) Mercury (s) Roasting (C) Graphite (r) Allotropy
(1) A (p), B (q), C (r), D (s) (D) Ethylalchol (s) Fermentation of molasses
(2) A (q), B (r), C (s), D (p) (1) (A) p, (B) r, (C) q, (D) s
(3) A (s), B (r), C (q), D (p) (2) (A) r, (B) p, (C) q, (D) s
(4) A (r), B (s), C (q), D (p) (3) (A) r, (B) q, (C) p, (D) s
18. Consider the following isotopes of chlorine : (4) (A) r, (B) p, (C) s, (D) q
35, 37, 23. Which of the following is correct order of density?
17Cl 17Cl
Atomic masses of these isotopes are different, while their (1) Air < Exhaust from chimneys < Honey < Water < Chalk
chemical properties are same. < Cotton < Iron
In the Mendeleev’s periodic table, isotopes of chlorine was (2) Air < Exhaust from chimneys < Water < Honey < Cotton
placed: < Chalk < Iron
(1) In the different groups (3) Air < Exhaust from chimneys < Honey < Water < Chalk
(2) In the same group < Iron < Cotton
(3) In different periods (4) Air < Exhaust from chimneys < Water < Honey < Chalk
(4) Both (1) and (3) are correct < Cotton < Iron
x
B
X A
32. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer 37. The correct set up for studying the dependence of the
using the codes given below : current on the potential difference across a resistor is :
Column I Column II
(A) Falling mass (p) Use of KWh R R
(B) Compressed spring (q) Gain in kinetic energy V A
(C) Ball hit with bat (r) Loss in potential energy (1) (2)
V V
(D) Glowing of bulb (s) Gain in energy
(1) (A) r, (B) s, (C) q, (D) p
(2) (A) p, (B) r, (C) s, (D) q
(3) (A) s, (B) p, (C) r, (D) q V
(4) (A) q, (B) r, (C) p, (D) s V
A
33. Bats detect the obstacles in their path by receiving the R
reflected (3) (4) R
A
(1) infrasonic waves (2) ultrasonic waves
(3) micro waves (4) radio waves
34. The distance between two consecutive compressions or
rarefactions in a wave of wavelength, is 38. On the basis of following features identify the correct option
(1) 2 (2) /2
I. They always start from north pole and end at the south
(3) /4 (4) pole of the magnet outside the magnet.
35. The path of a ray of light coming from air passing through a II. They never intersect each other.
rectangular slab traced by four students are shown by figures
A, B, C and D. Which one of them is correct? (1) Electric lines of force
(2) Magnetic lines of force
(3) Both (1) and (2)
54. One hundred cards are numbered from 1 to 100. The 61. Consider the following statements:
probability that a card chosen at random has the digit 5 is (a) In French society about 60% of the total land was
19 100 owned by nobles and other members of the third estate.
(1) (2)
100 19 (b) The population of France declined from 28 million to 20
million in 1789.
10 5
(3) (4) (c) First and second estates participated in revolts against
100 100
increasing taxes and food security.
55. If two zeros of the polynomial f (x) = x3 – 4x2 – 3x + 12 are (d) Montesquieu advocated the principle of distribution
3 and – 3 , then its third zero is of power within the government between the legislative,
(1) 4 (2) –4 the executive and the judiciary.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(3) 3 (4) –3
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (d)
56. Solve : x + 2y + z = 7
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
x + 3z = 11
62. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
2x – 3y = 1 using the codes given below :
Values of x, y and z are respectively Column I Column II
(1) x = 1, y = 2, z = 3 (2) x = 2, y = 3, z = 1 (A) Ghettos (p) Russian parliament
(3) x = 2, y = 1, z = 3 (4) x = 3, y = 2, z = 1 (B) Reichstag (q) Jacobins
57. The hypotenuse of a grassy land in the shape of a right (C) Duma (r) German parliament
triangle is 1 metre more than twice the shortest side. If the (D) Sans Culottes (s) Areas of jews
third side is 7 metres more than the shortest side, The sides (1) (A) q, (B) r, (C) s, (D) p
of the grassy land are (2) (A) s, (B) r, (C) p, (D) q
(1) 8 m, 17 m, 15 m (2) 2 m, 16 m, 13 m (3) (A) r, (B) s, (C) q, (D) p
(3) 10 m, 4 m, 5 m (4) 7 m, 10 m, 14 m (4) (A) s, (B) p, (C) r, (D) q
58. Two A.P’s have the same common difference.The difference 63. On the basis of following features identify the correct option-
between their 100th terms is 111 222 333. What is the I. He was an Italian freedom fighter.
difference between their Millionth terms? II. He was a sailor in merchant navy.
(1) 111 222 333 (2) 222 111 333 III. He joined the young Italy movement and participated
(3) 333 111 222 (4) 111 333 222 in a republican uprising.
IV. He was a leader of Red shirts.
59. Value of , if sin ( + 36°) = cos , where + 36° is an acute
angle, is (1) Rousseau (2) Karl Marx
(3) Giuseppe Garibaldi (4) Philip veit
(1) 90° (2) 36°
64. Assertion (A): British encouraged the production of
(3) 54° (4) 27° commercial crops like jute, sugar, wheat and cotton.
60. A vertical tower stands on a horizontal plane and is Reason (R): The demands of foodgrains were required to
surmounted by a vertical flag staff of height 6 meters. At get raw materials for manufacturing industries as well as the
point on the plane, the angle of elevation of the bottom and foodgrains for the consumption of the population
the top of the flag staff are respectively 30° and 60°. The (1) A and R are correct and R explains A.
height of tower is (2) A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(1) 2 m (2) 5m (3) A is true but R is false.
(3) 2.5 m (4) 3m (4) A is false but R is true.
(3) Capital (4) All of them (3) (A) s, (B) p, (C) q, (D) r
67. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer (4) (A) r, (B) s, (C) p, (D) q
using the codes given below : 69. Cricket was said to represent-
Column I Column II (1) English racial superiority
(A) PMRY-1993 (p) Aim is to create self employment (2) English sportsman spirit
opportunities for educated (3) English sense of enterprise
unemployed youth in rural areas (4) English values of fair play and discipline
and small towns
70. What was the style of clothing of women during Ist world
(B) REGP-1995 (q) Additional central assistance is war in Europe?
given to states for basic services (1) Blouse and trousers became popular as working uniform
such as primary health, primary
(2) Skirts became shorter.
education, rural shelter and
drinking and rural electrification (3) Women stopped wearing jewellery.
(C) SGSY-1999 (r) A target for creating 25 lakh new (4) Bright colours came into vogue.
jobs has been set for the 71. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
programme under the tenth five using the codes given below :
year plan Column I Column II
(D) PMGY-2000 (s) Aims at bringing the assisted poor (A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (p) Printing Press
families above the poverty line by (B) John Gutenberg (q) Kesari
organizing them into self help
(C) Martin Luther (r) Rajshekhara caritamu
groups through a mix of bank
credit and government subsidy (D) O. Chandu Menon (s) Ninety Five theses
(1) (A) s, (B) r, (C) q, (D) p (1) (A) q, (B) p, (C) s, (D) r
(2) (A) p, (B) r, (C) s, (D) q (2) (A) s, (B) q, (C) p, (D) r
(3) (A) p, (B) q, (C) r, (D) s (3) (A) q, (B) s, (C) q, (D) p
(4) (A) q, (B) r, (C) p, (D) s
(4) None of them
72. Why did Gandhiji withdraw the non-co-operation 76. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
movement? using the codes given below :
(1) Gandhiji realisied that people were losing interest in Column I Column II
the movement. (A) Justice (p) Freedom of thought and
(2) Gandhiji felt that the movement was turning violent in expression
many places. (B) Liberty (q) On social, economical
(3) Some congress leaders wanted to participate in and political ground
elections to provincial councils (C) Equality (r) Bounding and integrity of
(4) Some congress leaders wanted more radical mass Nation
agitations. (D) Fraternity (s) No discrimination on status
73. Globalisation does not involve which one of the following? opportunity
(1) (A) p, (B) r, (C) q, (D) s
(1) Rapid integration between countries.
(2) (A) r, (B) s, (C) q, (D) p
(2) Increased taxes on imports.
(3) (A) q, (B) p, (C) s, (D) r
(3) More goods and services moving between countries. (4) (A) s, (B) q, (C) p, (D) r
(4) Movement of people between countries for job, 77. Assertion (A): Once elections are announced ministers can
education etc. take policy decisions regarding public issues.
74. With reference to the female allegory of France, consider the Reason (R): Voters can choose their representatives who
following statements will form the government and take major decisions.
(a) She was named Marianne. (1) A and R are true and R explains A.
(b) She took part in the French revolution. (2) A and R are true but R does not explain A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(c) She was a symbol of national unity.
(4) A is False but R is true.
(d) Her characteristics were drawn from liberty and the
78. On the basis of following features identify the correct
republic.
options-
Which of the above statements are correct? I. It reduces the possibility of conflict between social
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d) groups.
(3) None of the above (4) All of the above II. It ensures political stability in the long run
75. Consider the following statements- III. It upholds the spirit of democracy
(a) Democracy promotes equality and freedom of IV. It promotes an equal division of power among all social
expression. groups.
(1) Democracy
(b) In non-democratic countries people cannot freely
choose their leaders. (2) Power sharing
(3) Provincial government
(c) The relationship between different countries has
(4) Majoritarian measures
become more democratic than ever before
79. Which one of the following does not come under the preview
(d) Now a days there is not any military government in the
of family laws?
world.
(1) Matters related to marriage
Which of the above statements are correct? (2) Matters related to divorce
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (b) (3) Matters related to adoption
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d) (4) Matters related to robbery
91. Which of the following is an example of Formal sector loan? 96. On the basis of following features identify the correct option-
(i) Bank Loan I. It links Delhi-Kolkata-Chennai- Mumbai.
(ii) Loan from friends II. It connects all major cities by six lane super highways.
(iii) Loan from cooperatives III. It reduces time and distance.
(1) Only (i) (2) Only (ii) IV. It is maintained by National Highway Authority of
(3) Only (iii) (4) Only (i) and (iii) India.
92. Consider the following statements- (1) National Highways.
(a) The cold weather season starts from November and (2) State Highways
stays till February (3) Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways
(b) Monsoon climate influences agricultural crops. (4) Grameen Sadak Yojna
(c) Sudden rise in temperature in summer affects partially 97. Arrange the states in descending order is terms of
grown foodgrains. population-
(d) Jet stream is moving air from high pressure to low (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) West Bengal
pressure areas. (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Maharashtra
Which of the above statements are correct? (1) a, d, b, c (2) d, a, b, c
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a), (b) and (c) (3) a, d, c, b (4) c, b, d, a
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d) 98. Which of the following are matched correctly?
93. Assertion (A): India produces large quantities of rice but (a) Area of highest growth rate of population - Nagaland
still does not export much. (b) Area with lowest sex ratio - Delhi
Reason (R): A large population results in equally large (c) Area with lowest density of population - Rajasthan
domestic consumption. (d) Area with highest density of population - Delhi
(1) A and R are correct and R explains A. (1) b, d (2) c, d
(2) A and R are correct but R does not explain A. (3) a, c, d (4) a, d
(3) A is true but R is not true. 99. How is an MNC defined?
(1) A MNC is a company that owns or controls production
(4) A is not true but R is true.
in more than one district in a country
94. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer (2) A MNC is a company that owns or controls production
using the codes given below : in more than one state in a country
Column I Column II (3) A MNC is a company that owns or controls production
A. BHEL (p) Iron and Steel in more than one nation
(4) All of the above
B. HAIL (q) Chemicals
100. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
C. SAIL (r) Electronics using the codes given below :
D. BPCL (s) Aeronautics Column I Column II
(1) (A) r, (B) q, (C) p, (D) s Agents of erosion Topographical features
(2) (A) r, (B) s, (C) p, (D) q (A) River (p) Cirques
(3) (A) s, (B) p, (C) r, (D) q (B) Glacier (q) Stalactites
(4) (A) p, (B) s, (C) r, (D) q (C) Wind (r) Ox-bow lakes
95. Copper-gold-iron-coal are connected with - (D) Underground water (s) Barkhans
1. Kolar - Kudremukh - Khetri - Jharia (1) (A) s, (B) q, (C) p, (D) r
2. Khetri - Kolar - Kudremukh - Jharia (2) (A) r, (B) p, (C) q, (D) s
3. Kudremukh - Kolar - Khetri - Jharia (3) (A) q, (B) s, (C) r, (D) p
4. Kolar - Khetri - Jharia - Kudremukh (4) (A) r, (B) p, (C) s, (D) q
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
1. 35. 68.
2. 36. 69.
3. 37. 70.
4. 38. 71.
5. 39. 72.
6. 40. 73.
7. 41. 74.
8. 42. 75.
9. 43. 76.
10.
44. 77.
11.
45. 78.
12.
46. 79.
13.
47. 80.
14.
48. 81.
15.
49. 82.
16.
50. 83.
17.
51. 84.
18.
52. 85.
19.
53. 86.
20.
54. 87.
21.
55. 88.
22.
23. 56. 89.
Sig. of Invigilator.................................
EBD_7396
MT-28 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
EBD_7085
MAT+ELT
Mental
Ability
Test
English
Language
Test 2
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 100
6. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on the answer sheet/loose paper.
7. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark. There is no negative marking.
8. After completion of this test you can evaluate your performance by comparing your answers with answers provided
in solution booklet.
EBD_7396
MT-30 Target NTSE (Class-10 Stage - 2)
6. Select from the choices the figure that fits in the given
1. figure to complete its original pattern.:
?
2. x
x
x x
(1) (2)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(3) (4)
3. ‘Hour’ is related to ‘Second’ in the same way as ‘Tertiary’
is related to 7. If the fifth day of the month falls two days after Monday,
(1) Ordinary (2) Secondary what day of week will be the 19th of the month ?
(3) Primary (4) Intermediary (1) Tuesday (2) Monday
4. Mohan was born on February 29 in the year 1960. How (3) Thursday (4) Wednesday
many birthdays will be celebrate upto February 1976 ? 8. Six families A, B, C, D, E & F are living in houses in a row,
(1) 16 (2) 8 B has F and D as neighbours, E has A & C as neighbours.
(3) 4 (4) 5 A does not live next to either F or D, C does not live next
to D. Who are F's next door neighbours ?
5. Identify the figure that is the mirror reflection of the given (1) B & E (2) B & D
figure (X). (3) B & C (4) Only B
P Q 9. A three centimetre cube has been painted red on all its
sides. It is cut into one centimetre cubes. How many cubes
will be there with only one side painted red ?
(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 1 (4) 9
10. Find the missing number :
(X) ( 11 5 ?
16 28 148
44 60 88
(1) (2)
(1) 16 (2) 44
(3) 116 (4) 176
(3) (4)
(1) (2) 16. In this question, two figures / words are given to the
left of the sign : : and one of the right with one of the
alternatives having the same relationship with the
figure/word to the right of the sign : : as between the two
figures/words to its left. Find the correct alternative:
(3) (4)
12. Find out from the choices, the figure that can fit into the
empty space :
: :: : ?
?
(1) (2)
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(3)
?
(4)
(X)
32. The calendar for the year 2005 is the same as for the year : DIRECTIONS (Qs 37 to 38) : These questions are based on
(1) 2010 (2) 2011 letter series. Study the series carefully to determine the order
(3) 2012 (4) 2013 (Pattern). Select the answer from the choices given :
33. In how many different ways can the letters of the word
BOOKLET be arranged such that B and T always come 37. DF I MR?
together? (1) S (2) U (3) U (4) X
(1) 360 (2) 720 38. XUSPNK?
(3) 480 (4) 5040 (1) I (2) L (3) M (4) Q
34. A clock is set right at 5 a.m. The clock loses 16 min. in
24 hours. What will be the true time when the clock
indicates 10 p.m. on the 4th day ? 39. There is a question mark in a blank space in which only
(1) 11 p.m. (2) 10 p.m one of the four alternatives given under satisfies the same
(3) 9 p.m. (4) 8 p.m. relationship as is found between the two terms to the left
of sign : : given in the question. Find the correct answer:
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 35 and 36) : In each of the following questions
a part of the figure is missing. Find out from the given options XWV : UTS : : LKJ : ?
(1, 2, 3 and 4) the right figure to fit in the missing place. (1) IHG (2) JKL (3) STU (4) MNO
35.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 40 and 41) : Find the correct letter pair from
the alternatives given in choices below, to locate the same
relationship among the group of letters as established between
the sets in the questions given below.
40. ABCD : WXYZ : : EFGH : ?
(1) STVU (2) STOU (3) STUE (4) STUV
41. F H : 6 – 8 : : DG : ?
(1) (2) (1) 7 – 2 (2) 4 – 7 (3) 4 – 8 (4) 3 – 4
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-7) : Read the following passage and answer (3) in a mechanical age a person cannot have individual
the questions given after it. aspirations
Democracy, so long as it is what it is, imperfectly educated, throws (4) an individual finds it hard to formulate his own opinion
a great responsibility on the leaders. The average voter even in in a complicated social structure
educated England has no opinion of his own on many questions. 4. The statement, "it does not even pay to think" means that
He chooses his party by tradition or by his agreement with its (1) thinking is actually discouraged
central aims in those matters on which he has strong views. On (2) thoughtful persons are condemned
other questions he takes his opinions from the leaders. His
(3) thinking brings no advantage
conscience is clear when the party is chosen and for the rest the
(4) thinking is not allowed
leaders decide and the voters obey. In a complex social machine,
it is difficult for the units to exercise thought. It is easier to be 5. According to the author, it is most convenient for a leader
obedient automatically. It does not even pay to think. Perhaps to, "create public opinion" because
thought may prove costly. If the leaders want to create public (1) he has been chosen by the public whom he represents
opinion, the machinery of the press and the wireless makes it most (2) the modern means of mass communication are readily
easy. Modern conditions afford propagandists vastly increased available to him
opportunities of promoting collective excitement and setting the (3) even an educated voter takes his opinion from the
world in a conflagration. A few clever and adventurous leaders leader
can excite people's passions and suppress intellectual freedom. In (4) the average voter has no opinion of his own
these circumstances, truth does not win as there is no attempt to 6. The word 'conflagration' in the passage signifies
find out truth. (1) confusion (2) widespread fire
1. The most suitable title for the given passage would be (3) conflict (4) unforeseen calamity
(1) democracy and public opinion 7. Which of the following has the opposite meaning to the
(2) democracy and intellectual freedom word 'suppress' as used in the passage?
(3) the role of leaders in a democracy (1) encourage (2) tolerate
(4) the role of voters in a democracy (3) dominate (4) describe
2. The opening sentence of the passage implies that
(1) the responsibility of educating a democracy lies with DIRECTIONS (Qs. 8-12) : Read the following passage and answer
its leaders the questions given after it.
(2) leaders in democracy with imperfectly educated voters There was a time when all homework was done by the women and
have to shoulder great responsibility girls of the household. Few husbands ever dreamt of washing up,
(3) a well educated democracy is based on responsible preparing breakfast or tending the baby! Such duties were no
leadership concern of theirs. It was viewed that the males should not – or
(4) in a democracy with uneducated masses the leaders could not – clean, mend, wash, cook or make beds. Things are
are highly duty conscious very different today. Doctors or barristers find nothing undignified
3. "In a complex social machine................" the statement implies or shameful in putting on an apron to help in the kitchen or nursery
that and even boast of their superior organisation of washing dishes
(1) it is difficult for an individual to challenge a complicated of the household or personal linen. The schoolboy is more often
social machinery than formerly expected to help his mother. One reason for the
(2) in a society which works like a machine an individual change is the shortage of domestic servants. Girls could once be
cannot be permitted to have his own political ambitions found to do the hard work in middle and upper class homes for
very moderate wages; such girls can now a day's earn in factories
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 18 & 19) : Following questions have the 26. The king has ________ to a proposal to enhance the powers
second sentence missing. Choose the appropriate sentence from of the Council of Ministers.
the given options to complete it. (1) allied (2) opined
18. A. It needs an expert to (3) assented (4) coincided
B._____________________________________ 27. The two sides in the civil was signed a peace ________
C. Army Officers during the war time. (1) truce (2) accord
(1) sign the consignments for the (3) alibi (4) pretext
(2) decipher the secret message sent to the 28. Many companies ask their employees to sign a ________
(3) declare the firing against enemies to the of secrecy.
(4) food and medicines to the (1) espionage (2) bond
19. A. Discovery of agriculture (3) bondage (4) wish
B._____________________________________ 29. The Chirstmas tree was ________ with stars and other
C. in the history of mankind. decorative items.
(1) led to a barbarian culture (1) endowed (2) enticed
(2) led to the construction of houses (3) beautiful (4) adorned
(3) led to the growth of economy
(4) led to the settled civilised life. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 30-35) : Select the meaning of the given
phrases/idioms.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 20-29) : Choose the word which best fills the 30. By hook or by crook
blank from the four options given. (1) In a completely insane manner
20. Mother Teresa was ________ about her achievements and (2) In whatever way one can
unwilling to discuss them before anyone. (3) Being very evil and destructive
(1) ignorant (2) unsure (4) To be very tenacious
(3) proud (4) modest 31. A feather in ones’s cap
21. His opinion ________ with the general opinion of the experts (1) Accumulating more money or property
on this matter.
(2) Taking more burden on oneself
(1) asserts (2) assimilates
(3) Being felicitated for one’s artistic merits
(3) concurs (4) approves
(4) Something achieved that constitutes a victory
22. By nature, Rahul was ________, given to striking up casual
32. In the guise of
conversations with strangers.
(1) casual (2) gregarious (1) In the cloak of (2) In the colour of
(3) reticent (4) diffident (3) In the semblance of (4) In the pretence of
23. It is difficult to drink from a cup which is full to the ________. 33. Take up the cudgels
(1) Circumference (2) brim (1) To support somebody
(3) top (4) edge (2) To start a new business
24. Duryodhana was the main ________ of the pandavas. (3) To go on a holiday
(1) adversity (2) enmity (4) To relax
(3) effrontery (4) adversary 34. As the crow flies
25. Her ideas do not ________ to the general definition of (1) To wander in jungles
civilization. (2) In a straight line
(1) opine (2) conform (3) To protect environment
(3) confirm (4) review (4) To travel to a foreign land
Sig. of Invigilator.................................
EBD_7396
MT-40 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
EBD_7085
2
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 100
6. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on the answer sheet/loose paper.
7. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark. There is no negative marking.
8. After completion of this test you can evaluate your performance by comparing your answers with answers provided
in solution booklet.
EBD_7396
42-42
MT SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Target NTSE (Class-10 Stage - 2)
1. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer 4. The set of diseases which spread through sexual contact as
using the codes given below : well as through placenta to the foetus are
Column I Column II (1) Malaria and AIDS (2) AIDS and Syphilis
(3) Syphilis and Malaria (4) AIDS and Cancer
(A) Amoeba, Paramoecium (p) Lysosomes
5. On the basis of following features identify correct option
Chlamydomonas and I. These animals are cold-blooded, have scales and
bacteria breathe through lungs.
II. Most of them have a three-chambered heart.
(B) Protoplasm (q) Unicellular organisms
III. They lay eggs with tough coverings and do not need
(C) ‘Suicide bags’ of a cell (r) Purkinje in 1839 to lay their eggs in water.
(D) Chromatin material (s) Schleiden and Schwann (1) Reptilia (2) Aves
and nucleolus (3) Amphibia (4) Pisces
6. Low visibility during cold weather is due to
(E) Cell theory (t) Nucleus
(1) formation of fossil fuel.
(1) (A) r, (B) q, (C) p, (D) t, (E) s (2) unburnt carbon particles or hydrocarbons suspended
(2) (A) q, (A) r, (A) p, (A) s, (A) t in air.
(3) (A) q, (B) r, (C) p, (D) t, (E) s (3) lack of adequate power supply.
(4) None of these
(4) (A) q, (B) p, (C) r, (D) t, (E) s
7. On the basis of following features identify correct option.
2. The decomposers in an ecosystem I. It is the covering or protective tissues in the animal
(1) convert inorganic material to simpler forms. body.
II. It forms a barrier to keep different body systems
(2) convert organic material to inorganic forms.
separate.
(3) convert inorganic materials into organic compounds. III. The skin, the lining of the mouth, the lining of blood
(4) do not break-down organic compounds. vessels, lung alveoli and kidney tubules are made up
3. Following figure represents the phenomenon: of this type of tissue.
(1) Epithelial tissue (2) Connective tissue
Long waves
Short (heat energy) (3) Muscular tissue (4) Nervous tissue
waves 8. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer
(light using the codes given below :
energy) High CO2 Column I Column II
Normal content in A. Global warming (p) Eutrophication
CO2 atmosphere
Content B. Algal bloom (q) CO, CO2
C. Nitrogen fixation (r) Rhizobium
D. Pseudomonas (s) Fossil fuel
Earth
E. Non-renewable resource (t) Denitrification
(1) (A) p, (B) q, (C) r, (D) t, (E) (s)
(1) Acid rain (2) Greenhouse effect (2) (A) q, (B) p, (C) r, (D) t, (E) (s)
(3) Ozone depletion (4) None of these (3) (A) q, (B) p, (C) r, (D) s, (E) (t)
(4) (A) q, (B) p, (C) s, (D) r, (E) (t)
18. On the basis of following features identify the correct option. The recorded observations in the form of table given below:
I. These rays travel in straight line. Student Colour [I] [II] [III] [IV]
II. These rays consist of positively charged particles of the
solution
III. These rays are deflected by electric and magnetic fields
(A) Initial Colour- Colour- Light Blue
IV. e/m values for the particles are not same for all gases. less less green
(1) Cathode rays (2) Anode rays Final Colour- Colour- Colour- Colour-
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2) less less less less
(B) Initial Colour- Light Light Blue
19. Consider the following statements:
less yellow green
(a) Rusting is exothermic process Final Colour- Colour- Light Colour-
(b) Dissolution of ammonium chloride in water is exothermic less less green less
process (C) Initial Colour Colour Light Blue
(c) Addition of chlorine is also oxidation process. less less green
Final Light Colour- Colour- Light
(d) The formula of calcium phosphate is Ca3(PO4)2. blue less less green
Which of the above statements are correct? (D) Initial Light Colour Light Blue
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (d) green less green
Final Colour- Colour- Dark Colour-
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (c) and (d)
less less green less
20. Four students A, B, C and D noted the initial colour of the
Which student noted the colour change in all the four beakers
solution in beakers I, II, III and IV. After inserting zinc rods in
correctly?
each solution and leaving it undisturbed for two hours, noted
(1) (A) (2) (B)
the colour of each solution again.
(3) (C) (4) (D)
Zn Zn 21. Which of the following are the characteristics of isobars of
an element?
(i) Isobars of an element have same number of neutrons
(ii) Isobars of an element have same number of protons
and neutrons
(iii) Isobars of an element have similar physical properties
Al2(SO4)3 ZnSO4 (iv) Isobars of an element have same mass number
(I) (II)
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (ii) and (iv)
Zn Zn (3) (i), (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
22. Arrange the following in increasing order of number of
molecules
I. 0.5 mol of H2 II. 4.0 g of H2
III. 18 g of H2O IV. 2.2 g of CO2
(1) II > III > I > IV (2) IV < I < III < II
FeSO4 CuSO4
(III) (IV) (3) I < II < III < IV (4) IV < III < I < II
32. Force F applied on a body moves it through a distance s 37. Blue colour of sky is due to
along F. Energy spent is (1) dispersion of light (2) scattering of light
(1) Fs 2 (2) F × s
(3) reflection of light (4) refraction of light
(3) F / s (4) F / s2
33. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer 38. Consider the following statements :
using the codes given below : (a) The specific resistance does not depend on the
Column I Column II dimensions of a conductor.
(A) 1 horse power (p) 10 m fall of a unit mass (b) The combined resistance of any number of resistors
(B) 3.6 × 106 joules (q) Work is zero connected in series is equal to the sum of the individual
(C) 100 joules (r) 746 watt resistors.
(D) Zero displacement (s) Commercial unit
(c) A good conductor of electricity offers more resistance.
(1) (A) q, (B) r, (C) p, (D) s
(2) (A) p, (B) q, (C) s, (D) r (d) The resistance of a wire decreases with the increases
(3) (A) s, (B) q, (C) r, (D) p in its temperature.
(4) (A) r, (B) s, (C) p, (D) q Which of the above statements are correct?
34. Consider the following statements : (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(a) Sound waves are longitudinal in nature.
(b) Sound waves cannot travel through vacuum. (3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b) (c) and (d)
(c) Sound waves are produced by oscillating charged 39. The direction of induced current is obtained by
particles only. (1) Fleming’s left hand rule.
(d) Sound waves are electromagnetic waves.
(2) Maxwell’s left hand rule.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (3) Ampere’s rule.
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4) Fleming’s right hand rule.
35. Which of the following properties of sound is affected by 40. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?
change in air temperature?
(1) Coal (2) Natural gas
(1) Amplitude (2) Frequency
(3) Wavelength (4) Intensity (3) Sun light (4) Uranium
36. In the glass slab experiment, the correct placement of the 4
41. If x is a root of the polynomial
protractor (or ‘dee’), for measuring the angles of incidence 3
and emergence, is shown in which figure? f (x) = 6x3 – 11x2 + kx – 20, then the value of k is
(1) 228 (2) 19
(3) 12 (4) –19
(1) (2) 42. If and are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial
f (x) = 2x2 – 5x + 7, then a polynomial whose zeroes are
2 + 3 and 3 + 2 . is
25 25
(1) k x2 x 41 (2) k x2 x 41
2 2
(3) (4)
25 25
(3) k x2 x 41 (4) k x2 x 41
2 2
46. The values of P for which the given quadratic equation has Q
real roots, Px2 + 4x + 1 = 0 is 2 cm
O
(1) P < 4 (2) P 4 P 2 cm
(3) P > 4 (4) P 4
47. If x = 2 and x = 3 roots of the equation 3x2 – 2mx + 2n = 0,
then the values of m and n are (1) y o (2) 35°
(3) 105° (4) 70°
15 15
(1) m ,n 9 (2) m ,n 9 54. Instead of walking along two adjacent sides of a rectangular
2 2
field, a boy took a short cut along the diagonal and saved a
15 15 distance equal to half the longer side. Then the ratio of the
(3) m ,n 9 (4) m ,n 9 shorter side to the longer side is
2 2
48. The sum of the first 100 natural numbers is 1 2
(1) (2)
(1) – 5050 (2) 5005 2 3
(3) 5050 (4) – 5005 1 3
(3) (4)
4 4
( xa b 2
) ( xb c )2 ( xc a 2
)
49. Value of is 55. Each side of a cube is increased by 50%. Then the surface
a b c 4
(x x x )
area of the cube is increased by
(1) 1 (2) – 1 (1) 50% (2) 100%
(3) 0 (4) None of these (3) 125% (4) 150%
56. The area of the shaded region in the diagram below where 60. A coin is tossed 40 times and it showed tail 24 times. The
the given triangle is isosceles with vertices of base lying on probability of getting a head was
axis of the radius perpendicular to the diameters of the two
2 3
small semicircles, is (1) (2)
5 5
4 1 17
(3) (4)
2 40
61. What is the function of Academy of Development Sciences
4
(ADS) in Maharashtra?
8 O (1) Facilitated a network of NGO's for setting up grain banks
8 in different regions
(1) 16 ( + 1) (2) 16 ( – 1) (2) It organizes training and capacity building programmes
(3) 32 ( – 1) (4) 32 ( + 1) on food security for NGO's
57. AB and CD are two perpendicular diameters of a circle with (3) It efforts to set up Grain Banks, to facilitate replication
centre O, OD is the diameter of smaller circle. If OA = 7 cm, through other NGO's and to influence the governments
then the area of the shaded region in figure, is policy on food security are thus paying rich dividends
B (4) All of them
62. With reference to the characteristics of Himalayan river
consider the following statements –
(a) They have great capacity for erosion.
(b) Many of them have their sources is the Inner Himalayas.
D O C
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
63. Assertion (A) : The higher regions of the Himalayas have a
A
dense cover of coniferous forests while most parts in the
(1) 66.5 cm2 (2) 66 cm2
plains are rapidly becoming devoid of forests.
(3) 65 cm2 (4) 67.5 cm2 Reason (R) : Heavy precipitation in the mountains results in
58. If x psec and y q tan then the growth of forests at a rate higher than the rate at which
forests can be cut down by man.
(1) x2 – y2 = p2q2 (2) x2q2 – y2p2 = pq
(1) A and R are true and R explains A.
1
(3) x2q2 – y2p2 = (4) x 2 q2 – y2p2 = p2q2 (2) A and R are true but R does not explain A.
p2q2
(3) A is true but R is false.
59. The median for the following distribution class
(4) A is false but R is true
Class 0 – 10 10 – 20 20 – 30 30 – 40 40 – 50 50 – 60 64. The monsoon reason in India is affected by –
Frequency 5 10 20 7 8 5 (1) EI – Nino effect
is (2) CFC releases
(1) 26 (2) 25 (3) Cyclones in the Bay of Bengal
(3) 26.25 (4) 27 (4) Rains in the Himalayan region
65. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer 69. The length of Broad Gauge is –
using the codes given below : (1) 1.00 metre (2) 0.762 metre
Column I Column II (3) 2 metre (4) 1.675 metre
(A) Kharif crop (p) Cucumber 70. On the basis of following features, identify the correct
option–
(B) Rabi crop (q) Tobacco
I. The FCL was set up in 1961.
(C) Zayad crop (r) Sugarcane
II. It is related to petro-chemicals.
(D) Cash crop (s) Barley
III. Naptha is used as basic raw material.
(1) (A) s, (B) p, (C) r, (D) s
IV. Sindri, Nangal, Trombay, Durgapur, Kota are famous
(2) (A) p, (B) q, (C) s, (D) r
for this industry
(3) (A) r, (B) p, (C) q, (D) s (1) Pharmaceuticals (2) Cement
(4) (A) q, (B) s, (C) p, (D) r (2) Aluminium smelting (4) Fertilizers
66. Consider the following statements – 71. The two volcanic islands in the Indian territory are –
(a) Alluvial soil are formed by sediments deposited by rivers (1) Kavaratti and New Moor
and waves
(2) Bitra and Kavaratti
(b) Black soil is found in the dry and Sami- day areas of (3) Pamban and Barren
Rajasthan and Gujarat.
(4) Norcondam and Barren
(c) Red soil cannot retain much moisture.
72. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer
(d) Laterite soil is found over lava deposits in the Deccan. using the codes given below :
Which of the above statements are correct? Column I Column II
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (c) (A) Kanha National Park (p) Kerala
(3) (b) and (d) (4) None of them (B) Periyar Game (q) Arunachal Pradesh
67. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer Sanctuary
using the codes given below : (C) Dachigam Sanctuary (r) Madhya Pradesh
Column I (Industries) Column II (Raw material) (D) Namdapha National (s) Kashmir
(A) Paper Industry (p) Fibres Park
(B) Cement Industry (q) Sugarcane (1) (A) q, B r, (C) p, (D) s
(C) Sugar Industry (r) Wood pulp (2) (A) r, (B) p, (C) s, (D) q
(D) Textile Industry (s) Limestone (3) (A) p, (B) s, (C) r, (D) q
(1) (A) r, (B) s, (C) r, D p (4) (A) s, (B) q, (C) p, (D) r
(2) (A) s, (B) r, (C) p, (D) q 73. What is the other name of the cardamom Hills ?
(3) (A) q, (B) p, (C) r, (D) s (1) Palni Hills (2) Nilgiri Hills
(4) (A) p, (B) q, (C) s, (D) r (3) Yelagiri Hills (4) Annamalai Hills
74. What made countries like Japan rich/developed?
68. Which of the following state is not connected with HVJ
(1) Scientific inventions and discoveries
pipeline?
(2) Efficiency and technology evolved by people
(1) Madhya Pradesh (2) Uttar Pradesh
(3) Raw materials and Natural resources
(3) Haryana (4) Gujarat (4) None of them
75. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer (1) (A) r, (B) s, (C) p, (D) q
using the codes given below : (2) (A) p, (B) r, (C) q, (D) s
Column I Column II (3) (A) s, (B) q, (C) r, (D) p
(A) Reign of Terror (p) Three demands of Lenin
(4) (A) q, (B) p, (C) s, D r
(B) April Theses (q) Suffering endured by Jews
80. Consider the following statements –
(C) November Criminals (r) Maximilian Robespierre
(a) Unlike an ordinary labourer who works on the fixed
(D) Holocaust (s) Supporters of the Weimar
wages and free to work, an indentured labourer is bound
Republic
to the employer by contract.
(1) (A) s, (B) p, (C) r, (D) q
(b) In 19th century, the concept of indentured labour was
(2) (A) r, (B) p, (C) s, (D) q
introduced as a system of slavery.
(3) (A) q, (B) r, (C) p, (D) s
(c) Most Indian indentured labourers came from regions
(4) (A) p, (B) r, (C) q, (D) s
where unemployment was high
76. Assertion (A) : Count camillo cavour was an Italian political
leader who founded Italian liberal party. (d) A indentured or bounded labourer always worked
willingly and recruited by the agents.
Reason (R) : With the growth of revolutionary nationalism,
ideas of ‘a lopartie’ and ‘la utoyen’ introduced. Which of the above statements are correct ?
(1) Both A and R are true and R explains A. (1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A. (3) (a) and (d) (4) (b) and (c)
(3) A is true and R is false 81. What was the main reason for breaking down the network of
(4) A is false and R is true foreign trade of the Indian merchants in the 18th century?
77. Which of the following is not true about the idea of ‘civilising (1) The mutual conflict of the Indian rulers.
mission ?
(2) The coming of the European companies
(1) It brought modern civilization to the Vietnamese.
(3) Continuous faminies in India
(2) It destroyed local cultures.
(3) It educated the native religions and traditions. (4) The foreign competition
(4) It taught the natives how to govern themselves. 82. What does MCC stand for ?
78. Over 80,000 tigers, 150,000 leopards and 200,000 wolves were (1) The Marylebone Cricket Club
killed for reward in the period – (2) The Marylebone Cricket Corporation
(1) 1815 – 1920 (2) 1885 – 1995
(3) The Marylebone Commercial Club
(3) 1805 – 1923 (4) 1875 – 1925
(4) The Marylebone Cricket Committee
79. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below : 83. The Human Development Report ranks countries on the
following basis:
Column I Column II
(i) Income (ii) Health
(A) Banjaras (p) Karnataka
(B) Raikas (q) Maharashtra (iii) Education (iv) Technology
(C) Gollas (r) Uttar Pradesh (1) Only (ii) and (iii) (2) Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) Dhangars (s) Rajasthan (3) All (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) None of them
94. What are the functions of RBI? 98. Consider the following statements –
(1) Supervises the formal sources of loan (a) Communalism Means to distinguish people on the basis
of religion.
(2) Monitors whether banks actually maintain the cash
(b) Poverty in India is a great challenge to the successful
balance or not
working of democracy.
(3) Ensures that the banks give loan not just to profit (c) Casteism plays important role in the development of
making businesses and traders but also to small scale Indian democracy.
industries and borrowers too. (d) Social and economic inequality is an important factor
(4) All of them for the successful working of democracy.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
95. Which country has not adopted Federalism?
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (b)
(1) U.S.A. (2) China
(3) (c) and (d) (4) None of the above
(3) India (4) Brazil 99. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer
96. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
using the codes given below : Column I Column II
Column I Column II (A) Availing details of (p) Right to safety
(A) Congress party (p) National Democratic ingredients of a product
Alliance (B) Accident due to faulty (q) Right to information
engine in scooter
(B) Bhartiya Janta Party (q) State Party
(C) Filing a case in Consumer (r) Right to redressal
(C) Communist Party (r) United Progressive Court
of India Alliance (D) Choosing the best product (s) Right to choice
(D) Telugu Desam Party (s) Left Front (1) (A) q, (B) p, (C) r, (D) s
(2) (A) p, (B) q, (C) r, (D) s
(1) (A) r, (B) p, (C) q, (D) s
(3) (A) s, (B) r, (C) q, (D) p
(2) (A) r, (B) s, (C) p, (D) q
(4) (A) r, (B) q, (C) p, (D) s
(3) (A) r, (B) p, (C) s, (D) q 100. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(4) (A) s, (B) r, (C) p, (D) q (1) Equality before law – Guaranteed to citizens & non
97. Which of the following states has the lowest literacy rate in citizens
India? (2) Altering the name of the state – Power of a state
legislatures
(1) Punjab (2) Jammu and Kashmir
(3) Creating a new state – Power of parliament
(3) Bihar (4) Maharashtra (4) Equality of opportunity in Public employment –
Guaranteed only to Indian citizens
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
1. 35. 68.
2. 36. 69.
3. 37. 70.
4. 38. 71.
5. 39. 72.
6. 40. 73.
7. 41. 74.
8. 42. 75.
9. 43. 76.
10.
44. 77.
11.
45. 78.
12.
46. 79.
13.
47. 80.
14.
48. 81.
15.
49. 82.
16.
50. 83.
17.
51. 84.
18.
52. 85.
19.
53. 86.
20.
54. 87.
21.
55. 88.
22.
23. 56. 89.
Sig. of Invigilator.................................
EBD_7396
MT-56 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
EBD_7085
MAT+ELT
Mental
Ability
Test
English
Language
Test 3
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 100
6. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on the answer sheet/loose paper.
7. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark. There is no negative marking.
8. After completion of this test you can evaluate your performance by comparing your answers with answers provided
in solution booklet.
EBD_7396
MT 58
MT--58 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Target NTSE (Class-10 Stage - 2)
DIRECTIONS (Qs.1 and 2) : In each of these questions select 6. Consider the mirror held at AB and then choose the correct
the figure which is different from the rest four : mirror image of given figure
1.
A B
A B C D E
(1) A (2) B
(1) (2)
(3) C (4) D
2.
(3) (4)
A B C D E
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D DIRECTIONS (Qs.7 and 8) : Read the following statements
3. If + means 'Multiplication', × means 'minus,' – means carefully and answer question that follow.
A is the father of C, but C is not his son
(36 4) 8 4
'division' and ÷ means 'plus', then is E is the daughter of C. F is the wife of A
4 8 2 16 1
B is the brother of C. D is the son of B
(1) 1 (2) 0 G is the wife of B. H is the father of G
13 7. Who is the grand mother of D ?
(3) (4) None of these (1) H (2) A
5
(3) C (4) F
4. At my house I am facing East. Then I turn left and go 10 m,
8. Who is the son of F?
then I turned right and go 5 m. Then I go 5 m to the South
(1) B (2) C
and from there 5 m to the West. In which direction am I
from my house ? (3) E (4) D
(1) North (2) South DIRECTIONS (Q.9) : This question is based on letter series
from which some of the letters are missing. The missing letters
( 3) East (4) West
are given in the proper sequence as one of the alternatives. Find
5. In a certain code TRIPOLI is written as SSHQNMH. Write the correct alternative :
the word SICILY in the same code
9. __ b __ abb __ __ bab __ __ bba
(1) SJHQKZX (2) RHJCZP (1) bababa (2) ababba
(3) RJBJKZ (4) TJDJMZ (3) bbbaaa (4) ababab
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
A B
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
C D
11. Find the relationship / analogy in the first set. Based on
same analogy, find the suitable figure from options (1) to
(4), to fit in the blank space : 14. Ram is richer than Shyam but not so rich as Sohan but
poorer than Ramesh, then shyam is
• •• •
•
(1) poorer than Ramesh
• ••
(2) richer than Sohan
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(3) as poor as Sohan
(4) richer than Ramesh
(1) (2) 15. A is the sister of B but B is not the sister of of A. What is
the relation between A and B ?
(1) sister and brother (2) brother and brother
(3) (4) (3) sister and sister (4) none of the above
16. I bought a number of books one day, four times of them
on the next day, and eight times on the third day. In all I
12. If > denotes +, < denotes –, + denotes ÷, ^ denotes ×, –
bought 78 books. How many books did I buy the second
denotes =, × denotes >, = denotes <.
day ?
Which one of the statement is correct ?
(1) 6 + 3 > 8 = 4 + 2 < 1 (2) 4 > 6 + 2 × 32 + 4 < 1 (1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 8 < 4 + 2 = 6 > 3 (4) 14 + 7 > 3 = 6 + 3 > 2 (3) 16 (4) 24
17. In this question, which of the alternatives (1), (2), (3) and DIRECTIONS (Qs.20 and 21) : In these questions, first two
(4) will exactly make up the key figure given : figures given to the left of (: :) are related in some way. The same
relationship holds between the third figure to the right of the
sign (: :) and one of the options (1), (2), (3) and (4). Identify that
figure.
20. : :: : ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(1) (2)
21. : :: : ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
18. Five books are lying in a pile, E is lying on A and C is lying (3) (4)
under B. A is lying above B and D is lying under C. Which
book is lying at the bottom ? 22. If 43572 stands for WORLD, then 7352 stands for
(1) A (2) B (1) DOLR (2) ROLD
(3) C (4) D (3) LORD (4) OLRD
19. When the given figure is rotated one step anticlockwise,
which of the options (1), (2), (3) and (4) will represent the
figure in the rotated form ? DIRECTIONS (Qs.23 and 24) : Each of the questions below
consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in
the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Read both the statements and — Give answer
(1) if the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient
to answer the question.
(1) (2) (2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient
to answer the question.
(3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone
is sufficient to answer the question.
(3) (4) (4) if the data in both the statements I and II together is
necessary to answer the question.
37. 5 9 16 29 54 103 ?
31. (1) 102 (2) 94
(3) 103 (4) 200
22 18
32. If '+' means '×', '–' means '÷', '÷' means '+', and '×' means
'–' then what will be the value of 20 ÷ 40 – 4 × 5 + 6
(1) 60 (2) 1.67
(3) 150 (4) 0 ?
(1) (2) A B
+ 7 2
9 6
(1) 12 (2) 22
(3) 24 (4) 28
(3) (4)
50. In the following quesiton, find out which of the alternatives
will exactly make up the key figure
(3) (4)
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-8) : Read the following passage and answer 3. War can be stopped if,
the questions given after it. (1) weapons invented by science are not used to launch a
The greatest enemy of mankind, as people have discovered is not war
science, but war. Science merely reflects the social forces by which (2) science is restricted to be utilised only during war time
it is surrounded. It is found that when there is peace, science is (3) science is not allowed to lead us to utter destruction
constructive, when there is war, and science is perverted to (4) we replace force and lawlessness by law and
destructive ends. The weapons which science gives us do not international government
necessarily create war; these make war increasingly more terrible. 4. According to the writer, the main problem we are faced with,
Until now it has brought us to the doorstep of doom. Our main is to
problem, therefore, is not to curb science, but to stop war to (1) prevent scientists from participating in destructive
substitute law for force and international government for anarchy activities
in the relations of one nation with another. That is a job in which (2) abolish war
everybody must participate, including the scientists. But the bomb (3) stop scientific activities everywhere
of Hiroshima suddenly woke us up to the fact that we have very (4) stop science from reflecting social forces
little time. The hour is late and our work has scarcely begun. Now 5. The expression," bring to the doorstep of doom "means
we are face to face with this urgent question, "Can education and (1) lead to the threshold of a new destiny
tolerance, understanding and creative intelligence run fast enough (2) introduce to an unpredictable destiny
to keep us abreast with our own mounting capacity to destroy?" (3) carry close to death and destruction
That is the question which we shall have to answer one way or
(4) induct in a ruinous activity
the other in this generation. Science must help us in the answer,
6. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the word
but the main decision lies within ourselves.
'anarchy' as used in the passage?
1. An appropriate title for the passage would be (1) law and order
(1) science and the new generation (2) economic prosperity
(2) science and social forces (3) political dominance
(3) science and the horrors of war (4) communal harmony
(4) science and world peace 7. The phrase 'our work has scarcely begun' implies that our
work
2. According to the author, the real enemy of mankind is not
(1) has not yet begun
science but war, because
(2) has begun but not yet completed
(1) science during wars is so destructive
(3) has only just begun
(2) science merely invents the weapons with which war is (4) has been half through
fought 8. The expression 'keep us abreast' in the passage means
(3) the weapons that science invents necessarily lead to (1) prevent from escaping
war (2) hold out a challenge
(4) the weapons invented by science do not cause war, (3) keep at a side
though these make it more destructive (4) keep side by side
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 9-12) : Read the following passage and answer The first day out we met our first rhino, two of them, and I had the
the questions given after it. fright of my life. The pair had got our scene before we spotted
Worship does not consist in fasts and prayers but in the offering them, and being bad tempered beasts, they rushed towards where
of a pure contrite heart. The musk is in the deer but it thinks that they thought we were. Now it just happened that we were about
the fragrance comes from outside and so hunts for it restlessly. fifty yards to one side of where they expected to find us – which
God is in us and we have only to turn within to realise the truth. was just as well, far I must say I did not like that look. As they
There is a Sanskrit verse which says that the thoughtless man thundered past, we crouched low and let them go. It did not strike
dives deep into lakes, penetrates into jungles, ascends steep hills me as a good opportunity for rhino photography. Anyhow I was
in search of flowers for the worship of God, while the one lotus he much too frightened to have been able to hold the camera steady.
can offer is his own mind. Man must make himself a living sacrifice. 13. From the above passage it appears that rhinos
We cannot offer anything unclean or impure to God. The temple (1) run away when they see human beings
of God is holy, which temple you are? Out of the confusion around (2) rush to attack when they smell human scent
us we have to devise a destiny and make it manifest through all (3) hide under the bushes at the sight of human beings
the twists and turns of life. Otherwise life becomes a meaningless
(4) stand still if they are not attacked
succession of irrelevant episodes unconnected with any specific
14. when the author saw a rhino for the first time , he was
purpose, springing from nothing and returning to nothing.
(1) excited (2) frightened
9. What does worship consist in?
(3) charmed (4) surprised
(1) rigorous fasts and prayers
15. The author could not take the photograph of the rhinos
(2) long and fatiguing pilgrimages
because
(3) offering of a penitent heart
(1) he was too far away from the rhinos
(4) climbing mountains barefooted
(2) he was not carrying a good camera
10. Which of the following thoughts are not said by the Sanskrit
(3) it did not occur to him that he had a chance to do so
verse?
(4) he did not like the look of rhinos
(1) man must make a human sacrifice to fulfil his dreams
(2) the thoughtless man dives deep into lakes
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16 & 17) : The following five sentences come
(3) ascends steep hills in search of flowers for the worship
from a paragraph. The first and the last sentences are given.
of God
Choose the order in which the three sentences (PQR) should
(4) the one lotus he can offer is his own mind
appear to complete the paragraph.
11. How can we make our life meaningful?
16. S1. We had in our village
(1) by succession of irrelevant episodes
S2.______________________________
(2) being independent with any specific purpose
S3.______________________________
(3) striving through the path lead by our ancestors
S4.______________________________
(4) devise a destiny and make it manifest through it
S5. near the river and throw stones into the water.
12. Find out the antonym of the word 'contrite'
P. whom I well remember who from
(1) remorseful (2) unrepentant
Q. morning till night would sit on a stone
(3) apologetic (4) penitent
R. some thirty years ago a stupid boy
Choose from the options given below.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 13-15) : Read the following passage and
(1) QPR (2) QRP
answer the questions given after it.
(3) RPQ (4) PRQ
Sig. of Invigilator.................................
EBD_7396
MT-72 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
EBD_7085
3
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 100
6. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on the answer sheet/loose paper.
7. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark. There is no negative marking.
8. After completion of this test you can evaluate your performance by comparing your answers with answers provided
in solution booklet.
EBD_7396
MT 74
MT--74 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Target NTSE (Class-10 Stage - 2)
1. Why should be germinating seeds be kept moist during (1) A - (t); B - (s); C - (q); D - (r); E - (p)
respiration experiment?
(2) A - (s); B - (t); C - (q); D - (p); E - (r)
(1) Germinating seeds require moisture for growth.
(3) A - (s); B - (t); C - (q); D - (r); E - (p)
(2) In absence of moisture seeds will dry up and rate of
(4) A - (s); B - (q); C - (t); D - (r); E - (p)
respiration decline significantly.
5. A cell will swell up if
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(1) the concentration of water molecules in the cell is higher
(4) None of these
than the concentration of water molecules in
2. On the basis of following features identify correct option. surrounding medium.
I. They obtain inorganic nutrients from outside. (2) the concentration of water molecules in surrounding
II. They constitute the first trophic level. medium is higher than water molecules concentration
in the cell.
III. They release oxygen during manufacture of food.
(3) the concentration of water molecules is same in the cell
(1) Producers (2) Consumers and in the surrounding medium.
(3) Parasites (4) Decomposers (4) concentration of water molecules does not matter.
3. Consider the following statements: 6. Which type of waste is represented by following figure?
(a) Light soil has good water retention capacity.
(b) A common method of introduction of desired trait in a
crop plant is hybridisation.
(c) Mullets are marine fish farmed in sea water. Z
Which of the above statements are correct?
Lead batteries Paint
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) None of these
4. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below:
Column I Column II
(A) Aspergillus, Penicillium (p) Gymnosperms
and Agaricus Plastic bag Aluminium container
(B) Ulothrix, Cladophora (q) Bryophytes
(1) Non-biodegradable (2) Bio-degradable
and Chara
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
(C) Riccia, Marchantia (r) Pteridophytes
7. Consider the following statements:
and Funaria
(a) High blood pressure is an infectious disease.
(D) Marsilea, ferns and (s) Fungi
(b) Penicillin is effective against bacteria because it
horse-tails inhibits their wall formation.
(E) Pinus, Cycas and Gingko (t) Algae (c) AIDS spreads, through sex, blood to blood contact
and from mother to child.
(C) Study of fossils (r) 9:3:3:1 Which of the above statement is correct?
(D) Nictitating membrane (s) Analogous organs (1) Only (a) (2) Only (b)
vermiform appendix 11. Which of the following would stop evolution by natural
selection from occurring?
(E) Wings of insects, bat (t) Vestigial organs
(1) If humans became extinct because of a disease epidemic.
and bird
(2) If a thermonuclear war killed most living organisms and
(1) A - (q); B - (r); C - (p); D - (t); E - (s)
changed the environment drastically.
(2) A - (r); B - (q); C - (p); D - (t); E - (s)
(3) If ozone depletion led to increased ultraviolet radiation,
(3) A - (r); B - (q); C - (p); D - (s); E - (t) which caused many new mutations.
(4) A - (r); B - (p); C - (q); D - (s); E - (t) (4) If all individuals in a population were genetically
9. Two of the following ‘4’ figures that illustrate budding are: identical, and there was no genetic recombination, sexual
reproduction, or mutation.
Pure Pure
Tall plant Dwarf plant
Height tt Height
Parent TT
= 15 cm = 5 cm
(i) (ii)
Gamete T t
F1 generation Tt Height = ?
13. Given below are a few statements related to biodiversity. and added 40 ml of water (2 test-tubes). He took 10 ml of new
Pick those that correctly describe the concept of biodiversity solution and added 40 ml of more water. He kept on diluting
(a) Biodiversity refers to the different species of flora and (adding water) like this 5 to 6 times and labelled the solutions
fauna present in an area. as I, II, III, IV, V, VI. Which of the following is correct on the
(b) Biodiversity refers to only the flora of a given area. basis of experiment?
(c) Biodiversity is greater in a forest. (1) The colour of solution is green.
(d) Biodiversity refers to the total number of individuals of (2) The order of darkness of purple coloured solutions is
a particular species living in an area. I > II > III > IV > V > VI
Which of the above statements are correct? (3) The darkness of purple coloured solutions is
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (d) I < II < III < IV < V < VI
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (b) and (c) (4) One crystal of KMnO4 has one tiny particle.
14. Consider the following statements: 17. Consider the following statements:
(a) Sudden action in response to something in the (a) In extraction of Fe, SiO2 is flux
environment is called reflex action. (b) Tin is purified by liquation.
(b) Sensory neurons carry signals from spinal cord to (c) Bauxite is purified by chemical separation.
muscles.
(d) Silver turns black due to formation of Ag2O.
(c) Motor neurons carry signals from receptors to spinal
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
cord.
(1) Only (d) (2) Only (a)
(d) The path through which signals are transmitted from a
receptor to a muscle or a gland is called reflex arc. (3) (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (d)
Which of the above statements are correct? 18. On the basis of following features identify the correct option.
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) and (c) I. This element exist in gaseous state at room temperature.
(3) (a) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (c) II. This element has germicidal properties.
15. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer III. This element has 7 electrons in valence shell.
using the codes given below: (1) Iodine (2) Chlorine
Column I Column II (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2)
(A) Ester (p) Allotropy 19. A test-tube contains a colourless solution of potassium
(B) Ethanol (q) Sodium salt of higher iodide. The presence of iodine can be tested by:
fatty acid (1) adding a few drops of blue litmus solution.
(C) Soap (r) Used in anti-freeze (2) adding a few drops of copper sulphate solution.
solutions (3) passing carbon dioxide gas through the solution.
(D) Carbon (s) Sweet smelling (4) passing chlorine gas through the solution.
(1) A (s), B (r), C (p), D (q) 20. A student tested the pH of distilled water and found that the
(2) A (s), B (q), C (r), D (p) colour of pH paper changed to green. He checked the pH
(3) A (r), B (s), C (q), D (p) again after dissolving a pinch of common salt in water. The
(4) A (s), B (r), C (q), D (p) colour of the pH paper this time was:
16. Ram took 2-3 crystals of KMnO4 and dissolved them in 50 (1) green (2) yellow
ml of water. He took 10 ml of this solution (half test-tube) (3) red (4) blue
30. Consider the following statements : 35. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
(a) Gravitational force is always attractive in nature. using the codes given below:
(b) Gravitational force is always on the line joining two Column I Column II
masses. (A) Myopia (p) The power of accomodation
(c) Gravitational force is always in dependent of other of the eye decreases with
masses in the surroundings.
ageing
(d) Gravitational force is always forms action-reaction pair.
(B) Hypermetropia (q) The focal length of the eye
Which of the above statements are correct?
lens is too long
(1) (a) and (b)
(C) Presbyopia (r) The focal length of the eye
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
lens is too small
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) Astigmatism (s) The eyes fail to distinguish
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
horizontal and vertical lines
31. A block of ice floats in water such that the temperature of
at the same distance
water as well as ice is 0°C. The weight of ice is equal to
(1) (A) r, (B) q, (C) p, (D) s
(1) weight of water displaced by the immersed part of ice
(2) (A) p, (B) r, (C) s, (D) q
(2) volume of water displaced by the immersed part of ice
(3) (A) s, (B) p, (C) r, (D) q
(3) weight of water displaced by the complete block of ice
(4) None of these (4) (A) q, (B) r, (C) p, (D) s
32. In which of the following situations, the work done by a 36. Consider the following statements :
force on a body will be positive. (a) Light bends from its path, when it goes from one medium
(1) body does not move to another medium.
(2) body moves perpendicular to the direction of applied (b) Speed of light changes, when it goes from one medium
force to another medium.
(3) body moves along the direction of applied force (c) Wavelength of light decreases, when it travels from air
to water.
(4) body moves opposite to the direction of applied force
(d) Wavelength of light in water
33. Which of the following statements is wrong?
(1) Sound travels in a straight line. Wavelength of light in air
(2) Sound travels as a wave. Refractive index of water
(3) Sound is a form of energy. Which of the above statements are correct?
(4) Sound travels faster in vacuum than in air. (1) (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (b)
34. Out the following which statement is correct? (3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(1) A pulse is of long duration 37. In an ammeter there are 19 additional marks between 0A to
(2) A pulse is a short and sudden disturbance 1A marks. The least count of the ammeter is
(3) Clapping of hands once produces a wave (1) 1/19 A (2) 1/20 A
(4) A pulse transports mass from one place to another (3) 1/21 A (4) 1A
51. In figure, a circle touches all the four sides of a quadrilateral (1) 48 days (2) 36 days
ABCD, whose sides AB = 6 cm, BC = 7 cm, and CD = 4 cm (3) 24 days (4) 12 days
Length of AD is
56. The captain of a cricket team of 11 players is 25 years oldest
D R C and the wicketkeeper is 3 years older than the captain. If the
ages of these two are excluded, the average age of the
remaining players is 1 year less than the average age of the
whole team. The average of the whole team is:
S Q
(1) 21.5 year (2) 22 year
(3) 22.5 year (4) 23 year
57 One side of an equilateral triangle is 6 cm. Its area by using
A P B
(1) 10 cm (2) 7 cm Heron’s formula is
(3) 3 cm (4) 4 cm (1) 9 cm2 (2) 3 cm2
52. The shape of the top of a table in a restaurant is that of a
segment of a circle with centre O and BOD = 90°. (3) 9 3 cm2 (4) 3 8 cm2
If BO = OD = 60 cm. The perimeter of the table is 58. A triangle and a parallelogram have the same base and the
(Take = 3.14) same area. If the sides of the triangle are 26 cm, 28 cm and
D 30 cm, and the parallelogram stands on the base 28 cm, then
B
the height of the parallelogram is
(1) 42 cm (2) 12 cm
O (3) 24 cm (4) 21 cm
59. The A.M. of the first ten odd numbers is
(1) 10 (2) 100
(1) 402 cm (2) 402.6 cm (3) 1000 (4) 1
(3) 401 cm (4) 400 cm 60. A shotput is a metalic sphere of radius 4.9 cm. If the density
53. In figure, POR and QOR form a linear pair. If a – b = 80°, then the mass of the shotput in kg is
then the values of a and b are (1) 3.401 kg (2) 3 kg
(1) a = 50°, b = 130° (2) a = 130°, b = 50° (3) 4 kg (4) 34 kg
(3) a = 260°, b = 60° (4) a = 60°, b = 260° 61. Who was olympe de Gouse?
R
(1) A politically active woman in revolutionary France.
(2) A social reformer
b
O (3) A supporter of Jacobin club
P Q
(4) All of the above
54. The ratio of the least prime number to the least composite 62. What was Auschwitz famous for?
number is
(1) Centre for mass killing during Nazi Germany
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 3
(2) Centre for educating children during Nazi Germany
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1: 3
55. X can do a piece of work in 24 days, while Y alone can do it (3) Centre for giving military training to the youth during
in 16 days. With the help of Z they finish the work in 8 days. Nazi Germany.
Find in how many days Z can do the work alone? (4) None of the above
73. Which was the earliest novel in Marathi? (1) (A) s, (B) r, (C) s, (D) p
(1) Kadambari (2) Panchatantra (2) (A) r, (B) q, (C) p, (D) s
(3) (A) q, (B) p, (C) s, (D) r
(3) Yamuna (4) Ganga
(4) (A) p, (B) s, (C) r, (D) q
74. Consider the following statements- 78. ITCZ is the abbreviated form of -
(a) Ho Chi Minh was the chairman of the Democratic (1) Indian Tropical Convergence Zone
Republic of Vietnam. (2) Inter Tropical convergence Zone
(b) He founded the Vietnamese communist party. (3) Inter Tropical Climate Zone
(c) He took control of South Vietnam after Vietnam split. (4) Inter Temperate Convergence Zone
79. Consider the following statements-
(d) He gave help to the National Liberation Front.
(a) With the rapid advancement of Industries, the use of
Which of the above statements are correct? metal has increased.
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d) (b) Mineral resources are renewable.
(3) (a) and (d) (4) (b) and (c) (c) High quality coal deposits are depleting.
75. The State level consumer court deals in cases involving (d) To conserve our resources, we should take measures
to reduce wastage during mining and processing of
claims between __________ to __________.
an ore.
(1) 10 lakhs; 90 lakhs (2) 20 lakhs; 1 crore Which of the above statements are correct?
(3) 30 lakhs; 5 crores (4) 40 lakhs; 10 crores (1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (c) and (d)
76. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer (3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) (c) and (d)
using the codes given below: 80. Assertion (A) : In recent years sugar mill are shifting towards
southern and western states.
Column I (Rivers) Column II (Origin)
Reason (R) : The cooler climate, favourable cooperatives
(A) Narmada (p) Mahabaleshwar and availability of sugarcane with higher sucrose content
(B) Krishna (q) Orissa are found in Maharashtra.
(C) Godavari (r) Madhya Pradesh (1) A and R true and R explains A.
(2) A and R are true but R does not explain A.
(Amarkantak)
(3) A is true but R is false.
(D) Mahanadi (s) Maharashtra (4) A is false but R is true.
(1) (A) p, (B) r, (C) q, (D) s 81. Which one is not an important tourist destination of India?
(2) (A) q, (B) s, (C) r, (D) p (1) Madhya Pradesh (2) Goa
(3) (A) r, (B) p, (C) s, (D) q (3) Rajasthan (4) Jammu and Kashmir
82. Consider the following statements-
(4) (A) s, (B) q, (C) p, (D) r
(a) Migration is the movement of people across the regions
77. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer and territories.
using the codes given below: (b) The rural-urban migration has resulted in a decline in
Column I Column II the percentage of population in cities.
(A) Thorn forests (p) Sundari (c) Migration can be internal as well as external.
(d) Migration is the important determinant of population
(B) Mangrove forests (q) Babool
change.
(C) Dry Dediduous (r) Pine
Which of the above statements are correct?
Forests (1) (a) and (d) (2) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) Montane forests (s) Peepal (3) (b) and (c) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
92. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer 96. How many political parties have been recognised as ‘national
using the codes given below: parties’ of India is
Column I Column II (1) 5 (2) 6
(A) Community (p) Power shared among (3) 7 (4) 8
government different organs 97. Democracy is better than any other form of rule because it-
(B) Separation of powers (q) Power shared among govern (1) promotes equality among citizens
-ment at different levels (2) enhances the dignity of the individual
(C) Coalition government (r) Power shared by different (3) improves the quality of decision making
social groups (4) all the above
(D) Federal government (s) Power shared by two or 98. Which of the following countries face challenge of expansion
more political parties of democracy?
(1) (A) p, (B) q, (C) s, (D) r (1) China and Nepal
(2) (A) r, (B) p, (C) q, (D) s
(2) Mynamar and Pakistan
(3) (A) s, (B) p, (C) q, (D) r
(3) India and US
(4) (A) q, (B) s, (C) p, (D) r
(4) France and Nepal
93. Which is the most diverse country in the world according to
language? 99. On the basis of following features identify the correct option-
(1) Australia (2) U. S. A I. It is formed under the leadership of Kanshi Ram.
(3) Brazil (4) India II. It represent dalits, adivasis and OBCs.
94. Assertion (A) : Under the caste system work is divided III. It has its main base in the state of U.P.
among people on the basis of their caste. IV. It is formed in 1984 and secured the interests and welfare
Reason (R) : Members of the same caste are supposed to of the dalits
form the different communities.
(1) Bhartiya Janta Party
(1) A and R are true and R explains A.
(2) Communist party of India
(2) A and R are true but R does not explain A.
(3) Bahujan Samaj Party
(3) A is true and R is false.
(4) A is false and R is true (4) Nationalist Congress party
95. Consider the following statements with the reference of the 100. The past decades of globalization has seen rapid
constitutional monarchy- movements in ___________
(a) If the monarch is the head of the state, he plays only (1) goods, services and people between countries
the symbolic role as in Great Britain. (2) goods, technology, investments and services between
(b) The king nominates the members of the legislative. countries
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only (3) goods, investments and people between countries
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b) (4) None of them
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
1. 35. 68.
2. 36. 69.
3. 37. 70.
4. 38. 71.
5. 39. 72.
6. 40. 73.
7. 41. 74.
8. 42. 75.
9. 43. 76.
10.
44. 77.
11.
45. 78.
12.
46. 79.
13.
47. 80.
14.
48. 81.
15.
49. 82.
16.
50. 83.
17.
51. 84.
18.
52. 85.
19.
53. 86.
20.
54. 87.
21.
55. 88.
22.
23. 56. 89.
Sig. of Invigilator.................................
EBD_7396
MT-88 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
EBD_7085
MAT+ELT
Mental
Ability
Test
English
Language
Test 4
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 100
6. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on the answer sheet/loose paper.
7. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark. There is no negative marking.
8. After completion of this test you can evaluate your performance by comparing your answers with answers provided
in solution booklet.
EBD_7396
MT 90
MT--90 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Target NTSE (Class-10 Stage - 2)
1. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the third, 7. Statement : Being from a business family, Chandan was
the fourth and the eleventh letters of the word apparently convinced by his parents and
CONTROVERSIAL, write the first letter for that word, other family members to join the family
if more than one word can be found write S, otherwise trade.
write X. Conclusions : I. People should take up their family
(1) N (2) S profession so that family prospers.
(3) T (4) I II. It is necessary to keep in family
2. I went 10 m to the East then turned North and walked members happy by choosing family’s
another 15 m then I turned West and covered 12 m, and business.
then turned South and covered 15 m. How far am I from DIRECTIONS (Qs.8 and 9) : These questions are based on the
my house? following information.
(1) 1 m (2) 2 m Five men A, B, C D and E read a newspaper. The one who reads
(3) 3 m (4) 5 m first gives it to C. The one who reads last had taken from A. E was
3. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way. Which not the first or last to read. There were two readers between
one is not like other three?
B and A.
(1) Boy (2) Dog
8. B passed the newspaper to whom ?
(3) Bull (4) Bake
(1) A (2) C
4. In a certain code RANGER is written as REGNAR. How is
TABLE written in that code? (3) D (4) E
(1) TABLE (2) ELBAT 9. Who read the newspaper last ?
(3) TELBA (4) TLBAT (1) A (2) B
DIRECTIONS (Q.5) : This question is based on letter series (3) C (4) D
from each of which some of the letters are missing. The missing DIRECTIONS (Qs.10 and 11) : In each of question A piece of
letters are given in the proper sequence as one of the alternatives paper is folded as shown and a cut is made as marked. How
among the four given. Find the correct alternative would the paper look like when unfolded?
5. __ a __ b a __ a __ b b a a __ a b __
(1) a b a a a b (2) b a b a a a b
(3) a a b b b a (4) b a a a b a
DIRECTIONS (Qs.6 and 7) : In each of the following questions, 10.
a statement is given followed by two conclusions I and II. Give
answer :
(1) if only conclusion I follows;
(2) if only conclusion II follows;
(3) if either I or II follows; (1) (2)
(4) if neither I nor II follows;
6. Statement : Vegetable prices are soaring in the market.
Conclusions : I. Vegetables are becoming a rare
commodity. (3) (4)
II. People cannot eat vegetables.
11.
: :: : ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
12. There are three poles X, Y and Z of varying height S.
Spiders A, B and C begin climbing up the three poles
simultaneously. In each attempt A crawls 5 cm up the pole 17. Which one number can be placed at the sign of
X and slides back 1 cm B crawls 6 cm up the pole Y and interrogation (?) in figure III so that it follows the operations
slides back 3 cm and C crawls 7 cm up the pole Z and of numbers in figure I and figures II?
slides back 2 cm. Assuming that each makes 50 attempts
before reaching the top, the heights in cms of three poles
respectively are: 14
12 5 3 11 15
(1) 200, 150, 252 (2) 201, 151, 250 4 1 ?
(3) 201, 153, 252 (4) 200, 153, 250 6 8 4 7 3 9
13. Ram and Shyam are ranked 13th and 14th respectively is a
class of 23. What are their ranks from the last respectively?
Figure I Figure II Figure III
(1) 10 th : 11th (2) 11 th; 12 th
(1) 33 (2) 10
(3) 11th ; 10 th (4) None of these
(3) 8 (4) 12
14. In a certain code IDIOT is written as KFKQV. How can
GENIUS be written in that code? 18. On January 12, 1980, it was Saturday. The day of the week
(1) HFOJVT (2) IFOKWT on January 12, 1979 was –
15. Which one word cannot be formed from the letters of the (3) Sunday (4) Thursday
following word? 19. If the word TRAIN is coded as WUDLQ, how the word
SUPERIMPOSABLE BUS will be coded?
(1) POSSIBLE (2) REPOSURE (1) EXU (2) DWU
(3) SPIRE (4) REPTILE (3) EXV (4) VXE
DIRECTIONS (Q.20) : In the following question how does the 25. In the following question, complete the missing portion of
figure look when folded into a cube along the marked line? the given pattern by selecting from the given alternatives
(1), (2), (3) and (4).
20.
(X)
(1) (2)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a), (b) and (d) (3) (4)
1 4 ?
64 9 16
49 36 25
(3) (4)
(1) 5 (2) 40
(3) 41 (4) 81
37. Anshu correctly remembers that his sister’s birthday is 43. Problem Figure
th th
before 20 but after 15 October but her father correctly
remembers that his daughter’s birthday is before 17th
October. Anshu’s sister’s birthday falls on which day?
(1) 19th October (2) 16th October
?
(3) 18th October (4) 15th October
Answer Figure
38. Which of the following has the same relationship as that of
‘PS’ : ‘TW’?
(1) JM : RQ (2) AD : DI
(3) AD : EH (4) FC : ZE
39. Which of the following will come in the place of question (1) (2) (3) (4)
mark in the given series?
44. If banana is called apple, apple is called grapes, grapes are
BYA, CXB, ?, EVD : called mango, mango is called coconut and coconut is called
(1) DVE (2) DCW guava, which is the king of fruits?
(3) DXB (4) DWC (1) Mango (2) Guava
40. 12 men can complete a piece of work in 16 days. How many (3) Coconut (4) Apple
days will 4 men take to complete the task? 45. If train is called bus, bus is called tractor, tractor is called car,
(1) 60 days (2) 45 days car is called scooter, scooter is called bicycle and bicycle is
(3) 54 days (4) 48 days called aeroplane then which is used to plough a field?
41. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word (1) Train (2) Bus
‘RAZORS’ each of which has as many letters between them (3) Car (4) Tractor
as in the English alphabet series: 46. In a certain code language, the sentences written in Column
(1) None (2) One I are coded as sentences written in Column II, but the
(3) Two (4) Three sequence of words is different. Decode the sentences and
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 42 and 43) : Complete the given series by find which word in coded language mean sweet?
choosing the appropriate answer (1, 2, 3 or 4).
42. Problem Figure Column - I Column - II
Drink fruit juice tee see pee
Juice is sweet see kee lee
(1) 18 (2) 19
(3) 25 (4) 27
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-7) : Read the following passage and answer 3. According to the passage, fleas are resistant to sprays and
the questions given after it. chemicals because they
Fleas are perfectly designed by nature to feast on anything (1) have waterproof sclerites
containing blood. The bodies of these tiny parasites are extremely
(2) are excellent jumpers
hardy and well-suited for their job. A flea has a very hard
exoskeleton, which means the body is covered by a tough, tile- (3) reproduce very rapidly
like plate called a sclerite. Because of these plates, fleas are almost (4) can stick to fur like Velcro
impossible to squish. The exoskeletons of fleas are also waterproof
4. Fleas are difficult to squish because they have
and shock resistant, and therefore fleas are highly resistant to the
sprays and chemicals used to kill them. I. sclerites
Fleas are some of the best jumpers in the natural world. A flea can II. tough spines
jump seven inches, or 150 times its own length, either vertically or III. resilin in their joints
horizontally. Fleas can jump 30,000 times in a row without stopping,
(1) I only (2) I and II only
and they are able to accelerate through the air at an incredibly high
rate-a rate which is over ten times what humans can withstand in an (3) II and III only (4) I, II, and III
airplane. Fleas have very long rear legs with huge thigh muscles and 5. According to the passage, fleas are able to jump
multiple joints. When they get ready to jump, they fold their long legs I. with a high rate of acceleration
up and crouch like a runner on a starting block. Several of their joints
II. up and down and from side to side
contain a protein called resilin, which helps catapult fleas into the air
as they jump, similar to the way a rubber band provides momentum to III. because the blood they eat contains resilin
a slingshot. Outward facing claws on the bottom of their legs grip (1) I only (2) I and II only
anything they touch when they land. The adult female flea mates
(3) II and III only (4) I, II, and III
after her first blood meal and begins producing eggs in just 1 to 2
days. One flea can lay up to 50 eggs in one day and over 2,000 in her 6. Based on information in the passage, the reader can
lifetime. Flea eggs can be seen with the naked eye, but they are about understand that
the size of a grain of salt. Shortly after being laid, the eggs begin to (1) fleas will die without access to blood
transform into cocoons. In the cocoon state, fleas are fully developed
(2) fleas survive at a higher rate in outdoor habitats
adults, and will hatch immediately if conditions are favourable.
(3) fleas will die after they produce 2,000 eggs
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(4) newly hatched fleas are the size of a grain of salt
(1) educate the reader about the physical characteristics
of fleas 7. It can be inferred that fleas will emerge from eggs as adults
(2) compare fleas to other members of the animal kingdom (1) when they outgrow the cocoon
(3) relate the problems that can result from a flea infestation (2) after a period of 3 weeks
(4) explain why a flea infestation is hard to get rid of (3) when they sense there is access to blood
2. The author's tone in the passage is best described as (4) if there is too much carbon dioxide in the cocoon
(1) concerned (2) passionate
(3) informative (4) opinionated
15. Find out the reasons why he couldn't forget the first collar DIRECTIONS (Qs. 18 & 19) : Following questions have the
he had starched. second sentence missing. Choose the appropriate sentence from
(i) used more starch than necessary the given options to complete it.
(ii) fear of burning the collar 18. A. The cinema is a more
(iii) superfluous starch continually dusted the jacket B. _____________________________________
(iv) good ironing of the collar made it stiff C. than most of other recreations.
(1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (iii) and (iv) only (1) enjoyable means of vehicle
(3) (i) , (ii) and (iii) only (4) (i) and (iv) only (2) enjoyable means of entertainment
(3) enjoyable means of activity
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16 & 17) : The following five sentences come (4) enjoyable means of talent
from a paragraph. The first and the last sentences are given. 19. A. Though no one is unaware of the
Choose the order in which the three sentences (PQR) should
B. _____________________________________
appear to complete the paragraph.
C. no one does anything to stop air pollution.
16. S1. All the arrangements
(1) Drainage system
S2.______________________________
(2) Natural calamities
S3.______________________________
(3) Greenhouse Effect
S4.______________________________
(4) Aforestation
S5. The travel agency
P. for the school
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 20-29) : Choose the word which best fills the
Q. were made by
blank from the four options given.
R. trip to Gangtok
20. After a recent mild paralytic attack his movements are_____
Choose from the options given below. restricted; otherwise he is still very active.
(1) QPR (2) QRP (1) entirely (2) slightly
(3) RPQ (4) PRQ (3) nowhere (4) frequently
17. S1. How unfortunate it is 21. The two brothers look so_____ that it is difficult to tell one
S2. ________________________________ from the other.
S3. ________________________________ (1) identical (2) same
S4. ________________________________ (3) similar (4) resembling
S5. and then to be dethroned. 22. His most striking _____ is the enthusiasm which he brings
P. and have reigned to everything he does.
Q. to be born a king (1) factor (2) attitude
R. for forty three years (3) characteristic (4) character
Choose from the given options below. 23. Ravi was always_______ of the good fortune of others.
(1) QPR (2) PRQ (1) miserable (2) irritable
(3) RQP (4) PQR (3) greedy (4) envious
(1) circulated (2) transferred Children are loved by all human beings. But (36) this world of human
beigns there is no (37) nuisance than a boy of the age of fourteen. He
(3) transmitted (4) conducted
is neither ornamental (38) useful. It is impossible to (39) affection on
him as on a (40) boy and he is always getting (41) the way. If he talks
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 30-35) : Select the meaning of the given with a childish lisp he'is called a baby, and if he answers in a grown up
phrases/idioms. way he is called impertinent. Then he is (42) the unattractive, growing
30. To turn over a new leaf age. He grows out (43) his clothes, with indecent haste. His voice
(1) to change one’s behaviour for the better begins to break and loses its childish charm.
(2) to read something attentively 36. (1) of (2) on
(3) to remain vigilant (3) for (4) in
(4) to be careful 37. (1) worst (2) bad
31. Black sheep (3) worse (4) better
(1) a costly item 38. (1) and (2) or
(2) a dark shiny object (3) nor (4) s o
(3) an unworthy person in a family or group 39. (1) show (2) shower
(4) a funny man (3) repose (4) showering
40. (1) tiny (2) big 46. Shyam hopes that the next fashion fad _______________
(4) small (4) little a more mature, oval figure like his own.
41. (1) through (2) in (1) will flatter (2) flattered
(3) on (4) off (3) flatter (4) flattering
42. (1) with (2) on 47. Rita _______________ it to me in detail yesterday.
(3) of (4) at (1) explains (2) explained
43. (1) of (2) from (3) explaining (4) to explain
(3) beyond (4) through
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 48-50) : Select the word which means the
similar of the given word
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 44-47) : Select the most appropriate option
to fill in the blanks from the given alternatives. 48. MUTUAL
44. I ___ football after work. (1) Reciprocal (2) Agreed
(1) am play (2) playing (3) Common (4) Conjugal
(3) play (4) to play 49. EVIDENT
45. Fashion is important to Shyam, so he always (1) Prominent (2) Seen
_______________ the latest and most popular style. (3) Observed (4) Quite clear
(1) select (2) selected 50. PENALIZE
(3) selects (4) selecting (1) Persecute (2) Punish
(3) Torture (4) Ruin
Sig. of Invigilator.................................
EBD_7396
MT-104 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
EBD_7085
4
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 100
6. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on the answer sheet/loose paper.
7. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark. There is no negative marking.
8. After completion of this test you can evaluate your performance by comparing your answers with answers provided
in solution booklet.
EBD_7396
MT 106
MT--106 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Target NTSE (Class-10 Stage - 2)
1. Transportation in the living organisms is necessary because 3. Consider the following statements:
of the following reasons: (a) Lysosomes keep the cells clean by digesting foreign
materials.
(1) Food, oxygen, water and other essential substances
are distributed through this system. (b) Ribosomes are present in eukaryotic cells only.
(c) The ER functions both as a passageway for intracellular
(2) It displaces the excretory wastes from the cells of the
transport and as a manufacturing surface.
body to the excretory organs from where they are
Which of the above statements are correct?
expelled out.
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) Temperature and pressure throughout the body are kept
(3) (a) and (c) (4) None of these
uniform.
4. The figure depicting neuron is given below. The correct
(4) All of the above identification of labels I, II, III and IV respectively is
2. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer __________, __________, __________ and __________.
using the codes given below :
Column I Column II
(A) Consists of 3 atoms (p) Unidirectional I
of oxygen
(B) Flow of energy in an (q) Ozone (O3) II
ecosystem
III
(C) Main cause of (r) Carnivores
depletion of ozone
layer
IV
(D) Third trophic level (s) Producers
(E) Green plants (t) CFCs
(1) (A) p, (B) q, (C) (t); (D) r, (E) (s)
(1) I - Dendron, II-Cytoplasm, III-Axon, IV - Synapse
(2) (A) q, (B) p, (C) (t); (D) s, (E) (r)
(2) I -Dendrites, II-Nucleus, III-Axon, IV-Axon endings
(3) (A) q, (B) (t); (C) p, (D) r, (E) (s)
(3) I-Axon, II-Nucleus, III-dendrites, IV-Axon endings
(4) (A) q, (B) p, (C) (t); (D) r, (E) (s) (4) I-Dendron, II-Cell body, III-Axon, IV-Dendrites
(3) (i) and (iii) (4) (iii) and (iv) (1) our immune system keeps a memory of that.
6. Consider the following statements: (2) after that we are given nutritious food.
(a) Plants are divided into five groups: Thallophytes, (3) we are not allowed to contact people suffering from it.
Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms and (4) None of the above
Angiosperms. 10. On the basis of following features identify correct option
(b) Monera is divided into Archaebacteria and Eubacteria. I. It is the process of reduction of nitrates into gaseous
(c) Penicillium and Yeast both belong to group fungi. nitrogen which escape into atmosphere.
Which of the above statements are correct? II. It is a reduction process.
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) III. It is caused by bacteria present in water logged soils,
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) None of these e.g., Pseudomonas.
7. It is important to make small check dams across the flooded (1) Nitrification (2) Denitrification
gullies because they (3) Nitrogen fixation (4) Nitrogen assimilation
(i) hold water for irrigation. 11. The number of chromosomes in parents and offsprings of a
(ii) hold water and prevent soil erosion. particular species remains constant due to
(iii) recharge ground water. (1) doubling of chromosomes after zygote formation.
(iv) hold water permanently. (2) halving of chromosomes during gamete formation.
(1) (i) and (iv) (2) (ii) and (iii) (3) doubling of chromosomes after gamete formation.
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iv) (4) halving of chromosomes after gamete formation.
8. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer 12. Consider the following statements:
using the codes given below : (a) Fore brain is centre of intelligence, control of
Column I Column II movements, hearing, smell and sight.
(A) Fish farming (p) Broiler (b) Control and coordination are functions of nervous and
(B) Cattle used for tilling (q) Culture fishery endocrine systems.
and carting (c) Rise in sugar level in blood stops secretion of insulin
by pancreas.
(C) Chicken better fed for (r) Draught animals
Which of the above statements are correct?
obtaining meat
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(D) Bee-keeping (s) Apiculture
(3) (a) and (c) (4) None of these
13. Following figures represent the type of waste: (1) (A) p, (B) r, (C) q, (D) s
(2) (A) r, (B) p, (C) q, (D) s
(3) (A) r, (B) q, (C) p, (D) s
(4) (A) r, (B) p, (C) s, (D) q
16. The cathode ray experiment is conducted in a discharge
Leaves Banana peel tube containing four different gases A, B, C and D, the
molecular weight of A = B > D > C, then e/m as observed will
be
(1) A > B > D > C (2) A< D<B<C
(3) A = B > D > C (4) A= B= C = D
17. Which of the following is incorrect statement about
Mendeleev’s classification of elements?
Flower Paper (1) He could classify all the elements including noble gases.
(1) Biodegradable (2) Non-biodegradable (2) He left gaps for some yet to be discovered elements.
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2) (3) He predicted the properties of some undiscovered
(C) C2H4(g) + 3O2(g) (s) Endothermic (1) turns lime water milky
2CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) (2) extinguishes a burning splinter
(D) CaCO3(s) (3) dissolves in a solution of sodium hydroxide
CaO(s) + CO2(g) (4) reacts with water to form sulphuric acid
shailendra 24-8-12
EBD_7396
MT-110 Target NTSE (Class-10 Stage - 2)
20. On the basis of following features identify the correct option: 24. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
I. It is stored in air-tight bags. using the codes given below :
(3) heterogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect (1) H2SO4 (2) HCl
(4) homogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect (3) HNO3 (4) All of these
28. Action and reaction 32. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below :
(1) act on two different objects
Column I Column II
(2) have opposite directions
(3) have equal magnitudes 1
(A) Mechanical to Electrical (p) mv2
(4) All of the above 2
y (cm) y (cm)
GR 2 g
GM
(1) g (2)
M R2
5
(3) (4) 0.01
g
GR GM 2
(3) (4) g t (s) t (s)
M2 R
R p2 q2
Q (3) (4) 1
p2 q2
(1) 60° (2) 65°
52. Out of the following four relations :
(3) 75° (4) 90°
46. If 2x + 3y + z = 15, then value of sin A sin A 2
(5 – 2x)3 + (5 – 3y)3 + (5 – z)3 – 3 (5 – 2x) (5 – 3y) (5 – z) is (I)
1 cos A 1 cos A sin A
(1) 1 (2) – 1
(3) 0 (4) 3
47. On solving 4x2 – 4a2x + (a4 – b4) = 0 we get value of x is 2
1 cos A 1 cos A
2 2 2 (II)
a b a sin A 1 cos A
(1) (2)
2 2
sin10
b2 a2 b2 (III) 1
(3) (4) cos 80
2 2
1 1 2p 1 4p
48. The nth term of the sequence , , , ... is (IV) sin4A – cos4 A = 1 + sin2A
p p p
the wrong one is
1 2np 2 p 1 – 2np – 2 p (1) I (2) II
(1) (2)
p p (3) III (4) IV
53. A line touches a circle of radius 4 cm. Another line is drawn
1 2np – 2 p 1 2np which is tangent to the circle. If the two lines are parallel
(3) (4)
p p then distance between them is
(1) 4 cm (2) 6 cm
49. For which value of 'k' the points (7, –2), (5, 1), (3, k) are
(3) 7 cm (4) 8 cm
collinear?
54. For what value of x + y in the given figure, will ABC be a line?
(1) – 4 (2) 4 (1) 180° (2) 90°
(3) 8 (4) – 8 (3) 45° (4) 360°
50. An aeroplane flying horizontally 1 km above the ground is
observed at an elevation of 60°. After 10 seconds, its elevation
is observed to be 30°. The speed of the aeroplane is D
A
(1) 240 km/hr (2) 420 km/hr
y
(3) 240 3 km/hr (4) 420 3 km/hr x
B C
55. Value of ADC from the given figure. 59. In the given figure, you see the frame of a
A lampshade.
It is to be covered with a decorative cloth.
The frame has a base diameter of 20 cm
30° and height of 30 cm. A margin of 2.5 cm is
to be given for folding it over the top and
D x
bottom of the frame. How much cloth is
required for making the lampshade?
(1) 2002 cm2 (2) 2020 cm2
50° 55°
B C (3) 2000 cm 2 (4) 2200 cm2
(1) 225° (2) 135° 60. Mala and Bala got 75 marks and 25 marks respectively in an
examination. The ratio of the marks scored by Mala to the
(3) 360° (4) 50°
total marks obtained by both of them is
56. If the mean of the numbers
(1) 3 : 4 (2) 3 : 1
27 + x, 31 + x, 89 + x, 107 + x, 156 + x is 82, then the mean of
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 4 : 3
130 + x, 126 + x, 68 + x, 50 + x, 1 + x is
(1) 75 (2) 157 61. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
(3) 82 (4) 80 using the codes given below :
57. If two dice are tossed, then the probability of throwing a Column I Column II
total of ten or more is (A) Louis Blanc (p) An Italian nationalist
(B) Karl Marx (q) Encouraged cooperatives
1 1 (C) Robert Owen (r) An English manufacturer
(1) (2)
36 6 (D) Giuseppe Mazzini (s) Opposed capitalism
(1) (A) s, (B) r, (C) p, (D) q
3 2 (2) (A) r, (B) p, (C) q, (D) s
(3) (4)
36 6 (3) (A) p, (B) q, (C) s, (D) r
(4) (A) q, (B) s, (C) r, (D) p
58. In the figure OAB is an equilateral triangle. The co-ordinate
62. What was the Napoleonic code known as?
of vertex B is (1) The Napoleonic code of 1808
B
Y (2) The civil code of 1809
(3) The civil code of 1804
(4) The Napoleonic code of 1802
63. Consider the following events and arrange them in their
correct chronological order -
I. Swadeshi Movement
X' O (0, 0) M A(2a, 0) X II. Home Rule Movement
III. Anti-Rowlatt Act Movement
Y'
(1) (a, a) (2) (– a, – a) IV. Khilafat Movement
(1) I, II, III, IV (2) I, II, IV, III
(3) (a, 3a) (4) (a, – 3a) (3) II, I, IV, III (4) III, I, II, IV
64. What was done during captain swing movement? (1) (A) q, (B) s, (C) p, (D) r
(1) Threshing machines were broken. (2) (A) r, (B) p, (C) s, (D) q
(2) Rich farmers were compelled to help poor farmers. (3) (A) p, (B) r, (C) q, (D) s
(4) (A) s, (B) q, (C) r, (D) p
(3) Landowners were looted. 70. What steps have been taken by the government to promote
(4) Agriculture was expanded. education?
65. Assertion (A) : The pastoral communities lost their grazing (1) There is a provision made for providing universal
lands due to preference given to cultivation. access, retention and quality in elementary education
with a special emphasis on girls
Reason (R) : Uncultivated lands were taken over by colonial
(2) Establishment of pace setting of schools like Navodaya
government and given to selected individuals for cultivation. Vidyalaya in each district
(1) A and R are true and R explains A. (3) Vocational streams have been developed to equip large
(2) A and R are true but R does not explain A. number of high school students with occupations
(3) A is true but R is false. related to knowledge and skills
(4) All of them
(4) A is false but R is true.
71. Why did dalits prefer western clothing?
66. Where was the Elgin Mill set up? (1) They were under the pressure of Britishers.
(1) Kanpur (2) Ahmedabad (2) It gave them more liberating performance is society.
(3) Banaras (4) Mirzapur (3) They were against the traditional dress.
67. Consider the following statements- (4) They did not like Hindu way of life and dressing.
72. Consider the following statements, with reference to the
(a) Industrialisation changed the force of urbanisation in
origin of Test Cricket-
the modern period. (a) Test cricket was initially organised as a competition
(b) Manchester and Leeds attracted large number of between different parts of the British empire.
migrants. (b) The first test was played between England and India
(c) By 1750, many people migrated from London. when India was a British colony at that time.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(d) With the technological developments, women got (1) (a) only (2) (b) only
industrial jobs. (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
Which of the above statements are correct? 73. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (b) and (c) using the codes given below :
(3) (a) and (b) (4) (b) and (d) Column I Column II
68. Chapbooks are- (A) Punjab (p) reduced poverty with the help of
(1) Pocket size books high agricultural growth Rates
(2) Coloured books (B) Kerela (q) reduced poverty with the help of
human resource Development
(3) Books giving astronomical information
(C) West Bengal (r) reduced poverty with the help of
(4) Comic books public distribution of Food
69. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer grains
using the codes given below : (D) Tamil Nadu (s) reduced poverty with the help of
land reform measures
Column I Column II
(1) (A) p, (B) q, (C) r, (D) s
(A) R. L. Stevenson (p) Jungle Book
(B) Rudyard Kipling (q) What Katy Did (2) (A) s, (B) r, (C) q, (D) p
(C) Helen Hunt Jackson (r) Treasure (3) (A) p, (B) q, (C) s, (D) r
(D) Chauncey Woolsey (s) Ramona (4) (A) q, (B) p,(C) r, (D) s
83. How much percentage of a bank's deposits does the bank 90. With reference to creation of new states by parliament under
hold as cash? Article 3. Consider the following statements-
(1) 15% (2) 20% (a) Parliament can not introduce a Bill to this effect without
(3) 10% (4) 12% the prior recommendations of the President.
84. On the basis of following features identify the correct option- (b) The president is bound to accept the opinion of the
I. Total length of the river is about 760 km. affected state in making recommendations to the
II. It rises in the Brahmagiri range of the western ghats. parliament.
III. Its main tributaries are Amravati, Bhavani, Hemavati
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
and Kabini.
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only
IV. Its basin drains parts of Karnataka, Kerala and
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
Tamilnadu.
91. Which state among the following has low infant mortality
(1) The Krishna Basin (2) The Godavari Basin
rate?
(3) The Kaveri Basin (4) The Narmada Basin
(a) Bihar (b) Kerela
85. To which one of the following types of vegetation does
(c) Kashmir (d) Assam
rubber belong to?
(1) Tundra (2) Himalayan (1) Only (a) (2) Only (b)
(3) Tidal (4) Tropical evergreen (3) Only (c) and (d) (4) None of them
86. A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as- 92. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
(1) Coast (2) Peninsula using the codes given below :
(3) Island (4) None of the above Column I Column II
87. Lands not available for cultivation is called- Ministry News that the ministry
(1) Forests have released
(2) Barren and waste lands (A) Ministry of Defence (p) Telephone services will
(3) Fallows other than current fallow be made more accessible
(4) Net sown area to rural areas.
88. Why did U.S and its allies invade Iraq?
(B) Ministry of Health (q) The allowances of the
(1) Iraq possessed secret nuclear weapons which posed a
soldiers will be increased.
big threat to the world security.
(C) Ministry of (r) A new policy is being
(2) Saddam Hussein abolished traditional Islamic law.
Communication and made to increase the Jute
(3) Saddam Hussein made provisions for free education to
Information exports.
the citizens of Iraq.
Technology
(4) Saddam Hussein appreciated women's participation in
(D) Ministry of commerce (s) A Pulse Polio campaign
defence.
89. The fundamental duties of a citizen do not include- and Industry will be launched.
(1) Promoting communal harmony (1) (A) s, (B) q, (C) r, (D) p
(2) Developing scientific temper (2) (A) q, (B) p, (C) s, (D) r
(3) Safeguarding public property (3) (A) p, (B) r, (C) q, (D) s
(4) Protecting children from hazardous employment (4) (A) q, (B) s, (C) p, (D) r
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
1. 36. 71.
2. 37. 72.
3. 38.
73.
4. 39.
74.
5. 40.
6. 41. 75.
7. 42. 76.
8. 43. 77.
9. 44. 78.
10. 45.
79.
11. 46.
80.
12. 47.
13. 48. 81.
14. 49. 82.
15. 50. 83.
16. 51. 84.
17. 52.
85.
18. 53.
86.
19. 54.
20. 55. 87.
21. 56. 88.
22. 57. 89.
23. 58. 90.
24. 59.
91.
25. 60.
92.
26. 61.
27. 62. 93.
28. 63. 94.
29. 64. 95.
30. 65. 96.
31. 66.
97.
32. 67.
98.
33. 68.
34. 69. 99.
35. 70. 100.
Sig. of Invigilator.................................
EBD_7396
MT-120 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
EBD_7085
MAT+ELT
Mental
Ability
Test
English
Language
Test 5
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 100
6. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on the answer sheet/loose paper.
7. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark. There is no negative marking.
8. After completion of this test you can evaluate your performance by comparing your answers with answers provided
in solution booklet.
EBD_7396
MT-122 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
EBD_7085
Mock Test-5 MT-123
22. Read the figure and find the region representing person
who are educated and employed but not confirmed. 25.
EDUCATED EMPLOYED
b
a e f c
d
35. A man is facing North-West. He turns 90° in clockwise DIRECTIONS (Qs. 43 and 44): Out of nine cells of a square one
direction and then 135° in the anticlockwise direction. Which cell is left blank and in the rest of the cells numbers are wirtten
direction is he facing now ? which follow some rule. Get the rule and find out the proper option
(1) East (2) West for the blank cell (?)
(3) North (4) South
36. In a class of 60, where girls are twice that of boys, Kamal 43.
2 72 56
ranked seventeenth from the top ? If there are 9 girls ahead
of Kamal, how many boys are after him in rank ? ? 0 42
(1) 3 (2) 7
12 20 30
(3) 12 (4) 23
37. Oriya is related to Orissa in the same way Dogri is related to;
(1) Himachal Pradesh (2) Sikkim (1) 4 (2) 6
(3) Jammu (4) Assam (3) 8 (4) 10
38. Four words are given below out of which three are alike in
some manner and fourth one is different. Choose out the
44.
odd one : 91 64 73
(1) Walk (2) Run
84 76 61
(3) Ride (4) Crawl
39. Choose odd pair of the words :
25 60 ?
(1) Volume : Litre (2) Time : Seconds
(3) Length: Metre (4) Pressure : Barometer (1) 66 (2) 68
40. Four numbers are given below out of which three are alike in (3) 69 (4) 71
some manner and fourth is different. Choose the different
45. The following figure is converted into a cube. Its correct
number :
shape will be:–
(1) 144 (2) 168
(3) 196 (4) 256
41. If REASON is coded as 5, BELIEVED as 7, what is the code
number of GOVERNMENT?
(1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 9 (4) 10
42. A man said to a lady "Your mother's husband's sister is my
aunt." How is the lady related to man ?
(1) Daughter (2) Grand-daughter
(3) Mother (4) Sister
7 13 19
50. : :: : (?)
11 17 23
(1) (2)
25 29
(1) (2)
27 31
23 29
(3) (4)
29 33
(3) (4) 49. If your birth day 30th June, 2003 falls on monday, on what
day of the week does your birth day fall in the year 2005 ?
(1) Sunday (2) Tuesday
Directions (Qs. 46 to 48): Find out the missing one from the (3) Wednesday (4) Thursday
given alternatives. 50. At what angle are the hands of a clock inclined at 30 minutes
46. 08 : 28 :: (?) : 65 past 6 ?
(1) 9 (2) 12
1 1
(3) 15 (4) 18 (1) 7 (2) 11
2 2
47. 35 : 91 :: 189 : (?)
(1) 343 (2) 341 (3) 15° (4) 23°
(3) 280 (4) 210
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-7) : Read the following passage and answer After these first two successful races, the goal was to lengthen the
the questions given after it. race a little further to the ghost town of Iditarod by 1973. However in
In the early 1920's, settlers came to Alaska looking for gold. They 1972, the U.S. Army reopened the trail as a winter exercise, and so in
travelled by boat to the coastal towns of Seward and Knik, and 1973, the decision was made to take the race all the way to the city of
from there by land into the gold fields. The trail they used to travel Nome-over 1,000 miles. There were many who believed it could not be
inland is known today as the Iditarod Trail, one of the National done and that it was crazy to send a bunch of mushers out into the
Historic Trails designated by the Congress of the United States. vast, uninhabited Alaskan wilderness. But the race went! 22 mushers
The Iditarod Trail quickly became a major thoroughfare in Alaska, finished that year, and to date over 400 people have completed it.
as the mail and supplies were carried across this trail. People also
1. The primary purpose of this passage is to
used it to get from place to place, including the priests, ministers,
and judges who had to travel between villages. In the winter, the (1) recount the history of the Iditarod trail and the race
settlers' only means of travel down this trail was via dog sled. Once that memorializes it
the gold rush ended, many gold-seekers went back to where they (2) describe the obstacles involved in founding the Iditarod
had come from, and suddenly there was much less travel on the race
Iditarod Trail. The introduction of the airplane in the late 1920's
(3) outline the circumstances that led to the establishment
meant dog teams were no longer the standard mode of
transportation, and of course with the airplane carrying the mail of the Iditarod Trail
and supplies, there was less need for land travel in general. The (4) re-establish the important place of the Iditarod Trail in
final blow to the use of the dog teams was the appearance of Alaska's history
snowmobiles. 2. Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that
By the mid 1960's, most Alaskans didn't even know the Iditarod Trail all of the following contributed to the disuse of the Iditarod
existed, or that dog teams had played a crucial role in Alaska's early Trail except
settlements. Dorothy G. Page, a self-made historian, recognized how
(1) more modern forms of transportation
few people knew about the former use of sled dogs as working
animals and about the Iditarod Trail's role in Alaska's colourful history. (2) depleted gold mines
To raise awareness about this aspect of Alaskan history, she came (3) highway routes to ghost towns
up with the idea to have a dog sled race over the Iditarod Trail. She
(4) reduced demand for land travel
presented her idea to an enthusiastic musher, as dog sled drivers are
known, named Joe Redington, Sr. Soon the Pages and the Redingtons 3. As used in paragraph 2, which is the best definition for
were working together to promote the idea of the Iditarod race. mode?
Many people worked to make the first Iditarod Trail Sled Dog Race (1) formula (2) way (3) preference (4) option
a reality in 1967. The Aurora Dog Mushers Club, along with men 4. According to the passage, the initial Iditarod race
from the Adult Camp in Sutton, helped clear years of overgrowth (1) was funded through the sale of musher entrance fees
from the first nine miles of the Iditarod Trail. To raise interest in the
(2) was founded by an advocate for Alaskan history
race, a $25,000 purse was offered, with Joe Redington donating
one acre of his land to help raise the funds. The short race, (3) ended at the ghost town of Iditarod
approximately 27 miles long, was put on a second time in 1969. (4) boasted a total of 400 entrants
13. The author wants us to know that his father 17. S1. The soldiers were starving.
(1) was a school teacher S2. ________________________________
last 25 or 30 years than in the hundreds of years (39) the invention 45. Mike _______________ on thin ice for two hours when he
of the plough. The marvellous gifts of science have made modern heard the first crack.
life (40) and comfortable. But science has at the same time created (1) had been skating (2) skating
new problems. One of these, which may become (41) in the years
(3) to skate (4) none of these
to come, is that of 'jet- lag'. With the coming of modem jets, flying
46. Rima _____________ Shyam for years about his smoking
at more than 900 kilometres an hour, the world (42) very small
habits, but he just won’t listen.
indeed. Today if you leave New Delhi at 4.00 in the morning, you
(43) eat an early breakfast in the sky over Kabul, and be in London (1) warn (2) warned
by about 1.00 p.m. (3) has been warning (4) warns
36. (1) unless (2) if (3) through (4) Although 47. Garima _____________ to speak to Mickey ever since he
37. (1) the (2) that (3) that (4) an declared that a little thin ice shouldn’t scare anyone.
38. (1) have (2) had (3) has (4) have been (1) refuse (2) has refused
39. (1) from (2) for (3) since (4) by (3) refusing (4) refuses
40. (1) dull (2) exciting (3) aimless (4) failure
41. (1) bad (2) worse (3) good (4) better DIRECTIONS (Qs. 48-50) : Select the word which means the
similar of the given word
42. (1) can become (2) became
48. REMEDIAL
(3) has become (4) become
(1) Punitive (2) Stringent
43. (1) will (2) can (3) must (4) ought
(3) Corrective (4) Strict
49. TRIVIAL
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 44-47) : Select the most appropriate option
to fill in the blanks from the given alternatives. (1) Unimportant (2) Transparent
44. Rima _______________ an acceptance speech, but the (3) Important (4) Unexpected
Leader of the Year title went to Henna instead. 50. INCREDIBLE
(1) will prepare (2) prepared (1) Hard to believe (2) Considerable
(3) had prepared (4) preparing (3) Inconsistent (4) Unsatisfactory
Sig. of Invigilator.................................
EBD_7396
MT-136 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
EBD_7085
5
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 100
6. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on the answer sheet/loose paper.
7. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark. There is no negative marking.
8. After completion of this test you can evaluate your performance by comparing your answers with answers provided
in solution booklet.
EBD_7396
MT-138 Target NTSE (Class-10 Stage - 2)
25. Consider the following statements : 29. Consider the following statements :
Hard water does not give lather with soap because hard (a) Change in momentum is impulse.
water contains:
(b) A body is momentarily at rest when it reverses the
(a) calcium bicarbonate
(b) magnesium bicarbonate direction.
(c) chlorides of calcium and magnesium (c) For stable equilibrium force has to be zero and potential
(d) sulphates of calcium and magnesium energy should be minimum.
Which of these statements are correct ? (d) Force required to accelerte a mass in two perpendicular
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d)
directions is never same.
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
26. Which statement is incorrect regarding the following reaction? Which of the above statements are correct?
Cu (s) + 2AgNO3 (aq) Cu(NO3)2 (aq) + 2 Ag(s) (1) (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (b)
(1) This is the example of redox reaction as well as (3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) All of the above
displacement reaction. 30. In order that a floating object be in a stable equilibrium, its
(2) Cu is reducing agent, because it reduces the Ag + to centre of buoyancy should be
Ag. (1) vertically above its centre of gravity
(3) Cu is reducing agent because it itself gets reduced and (2) vertically below its centre of gravity
oxidises AgNO3 (3) horizontally in line with its centre of gravity
(4) Both (1) and (2) are incorrect (4) may be anywhere
27. Consider the following statements: 31. Two objects of masses m1 and m2 are placed at a distance d.
(a) Elements in a group have same number of valency The force of gravitational attraction between them is
proportional to
electrons.
(b) Variation of atomic size along a period show a erratic m1m2
(1) (2) m1m2 d 2
behaviour towards the end. d2
(c) Electro-positive character decreases on moving down
a group. d2 m1m2
(3) (4)
(d) Electro-negativity in a period increases right from the m1m2 d
alkali metal to the inert gas element. 32. A body of mass 10 kg at rest is acted upon simultaneously
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? by two forces 4N and 3N at right angles to each other. The
(1) Only (a) (2) Only (d) kinetic energy of the body at the end of 10s is
(1) 50 J (2) 100 J
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (b)
(3) 125 J (4) 144 J
28. If we know the magnitude and direction of the net force
33. In the situation shown in the figure, coefficient of friction
acting on a body of given mass. Newton’s second law of
between the block and ground is 0.2, m = 2 kg, F1 = 5N and
motion allows us to calculate its
F2 = 4N. If the block is displaced by 10 m, match the following.
(1) position (2) speed
(g = 10 ms–2)
(3) velocity (4) acceleration
(1) always an even integer. 49. Two concentric circles with centre O have A, B, C, D as the
(2) always an odd integer. points of intersection with the line as shown in the figure.
(3) sometimes an odd integer, sometimes not If AD = 12 cm and BC = 8 cm, the length of AB, CD, AC and
BD are respectively.
(4) sometimes a rational number, sometimes not
42. If L.C.M. {1, 2, 3, .... , 200} = b × L.C.M. {102, 103, 200} then
b=
(1) 201 (2) 401
O
(3) 101 (4) 301
43. If H.C.F. (a, b) = 9 and a . b = 100, then
L.C.M. (a, b) =
A B M C D
(1) 200 (2) 900
(3) 100 (4) 150
(1) 2 cm, 2 cm, 10 cm, 10 cm
44. If , are the zeroes of f(x) = x2 – 5x + b and – = 1, then
(2) 10 cm, 10 cm, 2 cm, 2 cm
b is
(3) 10 cm, 2 cm, 10 cm, 2 cm
(1) 1 (2) 6
(4) 2 cm, 10 cm, 2 cm, 10 cm
(3) 4 (4) 0
50. A hollow sphere of internal and external diameters 4 cm and
45. Which of the following is not a solution of the pair of
equations 3x – 2y = 4 and 9x – 6y = 12 8 cm respectively, is melted into a cone of base diameter
(1) x = 2, y = 1 (2) x = 4, y = 4 8 cm. The height of the cone is
(3) x = 6, y = 7 (4) x = 5, y = 3 (1) 4 cm (2) 14 cm
46. Which constant should be added and subtracted to solve (3) 16 cm (4) 56 cm
the quadratic equation 4x2 – 3x 5 0 by the method of 51. In the figure, OACB represents a quadrant of a circle.
completing the square? The radius OA = 3.5 cm, OD = 2 cm.
B
9 3
(1) (2)
10 16 C D
3 3
2 cm
(3) (4)
4 4
A
47. x1, x2, x3, ..... are in A.P. If x1 + x7 + x10 = – 6 and 3.5 cm O
x3 + x8 + x12 = – 11, then the value of x3 + x8 + x22 is
The area of the shaded portion is
(1) 21 (2) –21
(3) 20 (4) –20 (1) 613 cm2 (2) 6.13 cm2
48. A vertical stick 12m long casts a shadow 8 m long on the (3) 316 cm2 (4) 3.16 cm2
ground. At the same time a tower casts the shadow 40m long 52. The value of tan2 60° cosec2 45° + sec2 45° sin30° is
on the ground. The height of the tower is
(1) –7 (2) 6
(1) 12 m (2) 8 m
(3) 60 m (4) 40 m (3) –6 (4) 7
53. An aeroplane at a height of 600 m passes vertically above 58. In figure, if l || m, then the value of x is
another aeroplane at an instant when their angles of
elevation at the same observing point are 60º and 45º
l
respectively. How many metres higher is the one from the 3y
other ?
(1) 286.53 m (2) 274.53 m 2y + 25°
m
(3) 253.58 m (4) 263.83 m x + 15°
54. If the mid-point of the line joining (3, 4) and (p, 7) is (x, y) and
2x + 2y + 1 = 0, then p =
(1) 30° (2) 45°
17 (3) 50° (4) 60°
(1) 15 (2) –
2 59. In ABC, if A = 50° and B = 60°, then the shortest and
largest sides of the triangle are
17 (1) AC and AB (2) BC and AB
(3) – 15 (4)
2 (3) AC and BC (4) BC and AC
60. Water flows out through a circular pipe whose internal
55. While computing mean of grouped data, we assume that the
diameter is 2 cm, at the rate of 6 metres per second into a
frequencies are cylindrical tank. The radius of whose base is 60 cm. The rise
(1) evenly distributed over all the class in the level of water in 30 minutes is
(2) centred at the classmarks of the class (1) 3 m (2) – 3 m
(3) centred at the upper limits of the class (3) 6 m (4) – 6 m
(4) centred at the lower limits of the class 61. Voting in the Estates General was conducted on the principle
56. The probability expressed as a percentage of a particular of-
(1) Each member of vote
occurence can never be
(2) Male adult franchise
(1) less than 100
(3) Universal adult franchise
(2) less than 0 (4) Each estate one vote
(3) greater than 1 62. On the basis of following features identify the correct option-
(4) anything but a whole number I. It is related to the three demands made by Lenin.
57. If the polynomials 2x3 + mx2 +3x – 5 and x3 + x2 – 4x + m II. It laid emphasis on the transfer of land to the peasants.
leaves the same remainder when divided by x – 2, then the III. It advocated on the nationalisation of banks.
value of m is IV. Lenin argued that the Bolshevik party rename itself as
the communist party through his demands.
3 13 (1) Reign of terror (2) Bloody Sunday
(1) – (2) –
13 3 (3) April theses (4) October Revolution
63. Consider the following statements with reference to
3 13 industrialisation-
(3) (4) (a) At the end of the 19th century, 80% of the total workers
13 3
in Europe were employed in the technologically
advanced industrial sector.
(b) The American war of Independence was the major 68. Assertion (A) : The poor could not collect their firewood
cause of reduction of cotton exports from India. from the forests as the enclosed land became the exclusive
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? property of one landowner.
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only Reason (R) : Deprived of the rights of poor and driven off
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b) the land they moved from Midlands to the southern
64. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer countries of England.
using the codes given below: (1) A and R are true and R explains A.
Column I (Attribute) Column II (Significance) (2) A and R are true but R does not explain A.
(A) Broken chain (p) Strength (3) A is true but R is false
(B) Breastplate with Eagle (q) Heroism (4) A is false but R is true.
(C) Sword (r) Being freed 69. Which of the following constitute pastoral communities of
(D) Crown of oak (s) Readiness to fight Africa?
(1) (A) q, (B) s, (C) p, (D) r (1) Bedouins, Berbers, Boran, Maasai, Somali, Turkana,
(2) (A) p, (B) r, (C) q, (D) s (2) Kurumas, Kurubas, Dhangar, Gujjars, Gaddis.
(3) (A) r, (B) p, (C) s, (D) q (4) Penda, Chena, Milpa,
(4) (A) s, (B) q, (C) r, (D) p (3) Yerukula, Korava, Karacha,
65. Champaran Satyagrah was launched by Gandhiji against- 70. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(1) High revenue demands (1) FCI - Food Corporation of India
(2) Indigo planters
(2) PAP - Poverty Alleviation Programmes
(3) Mill owners
(4) Salt tax (3) ICDS - Integrated Child Development Services
66. What was the name of book written by Phan Boi Chau? (4) All are correctly matched
(1) History of Vietnam 71. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
(2) History of Laos
using the codes given below:
(3) History of Cambodia
Column I Column II
(4) History of the loss of Vietnam
(A) Leo Tolstoy (p) French writer
67. Consider the following statements-
(B) Charles Dickens (q) Russian writer
(a) Croquet was a slow played elegant game.
Considered suitable for women. (C) Emile Zola (r) English novelist,
72. Which two countries were involved in opium wars? (1) Vinoba Bhave (2) Jawaharlal Nehru
(1) Britain and Japan (2) Britain and Poland (3) Subhash Chandra Bose (4) Sardar Patel
78. Consider the following statements-
(3) Britain and China (4) Japan and China
(a) Peninsular rocks contain most of the reserves of coal,
73. Surat and Hoogly were replaced with- metallic minerals, mica and other non-metallic minerals.
(1) Bombay and Orissa (b) Limestone is the basic raw material for the Iron and
(2) Bombay and Calcutta Steel Industry.
(3) Masulipatam and Calcutta (c) Biogas is produced from shrubs, farm waste, animal
(4) Bombay and Masulipatam and human wastes.
74. Why is a time tag of two hours from Gujarat to Arunachal (d) Hydro electricity is non-renewable resource.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Pradesh?
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (c)
(1) Because of India’s east-west extent
(3) (a) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
(2) Because of India’s north-south extent
79. Assertion (A) : Sugarcane grows well in hot and humid
(3) Because of India’s proximity to oceans climate with a temperature of 21°C to 27°C and annual rainfall
(4) Because of India’s landmass between 75cm - 100 cm.
75. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer Reason (R) : Tea cultivation is an example of shifting
agriculture.
using the codes given below:
(1) A and R are true and R explains A.
Column I Column II
(2) A and R are true but R does not explain A.
Name of the River Valley Rivers
(3) A is true and R is false
Project
(4) A is false and R is true.
(A) Bhakra Nangal (p) Krishna 80. On the basis of ownership industries are categories as-
(B) Nagarjun Sagar (q) Mahanadi (1) Large scale and small scale industries
(C) Rajasthan Canal (r) Satluj (2) Public sector, private sector, joint & cooperative sectors
(3) Basic / Key and consumer Industries
(D) Hirakund (s) Beas, Satluj
(4) Agro based and mineral based Industries
(1) (A) s, (B) r, (C) p, (D) q
81. With reference to the tourist industry, consider the following
(2) (A) p, (B) s, (C) q, (D) r statements-
(3) (A) q, (B) r, (C) s, (D) p (a) Over 2.6 million foreign tourists visit India every year
(4) (A) r, (B) p, (C) s, (D) q (b) Tourism helps in the development of international
understanding about our culture and heritage.
76. What does HYV stand for?
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(1) High Yielding Varieties
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only
(2) High Yolk Variety (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
(3) Health Young Variety 82. The largest population of scheduled Tribes is in-
(1) Himachal Pradesh (2) Madhya Pradesh
(4) None of them
(3) Arunachal Pradesh (4) Sikkim
77. On the basis of following features identify the correct option- 83. The most important objective behind the establishment of
I. He was the follower of Mahatma Gandhi. biosphere reserves is-
II. He was one of the votaries of Gandhi’s concept of Gram (1) Protection of endangered species of animals
Swarajya. (2) Preservation of tigers and Crocodiles
III. He started Bhoodan-Gramdan movement. (3) Preservation of the overall biotic diversity
IV. His movement is also known as Blood less revolution. (4) Optimum utilization of the forest products
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
EBD_7085
Mock Test-5 MT-147
84. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer (b) The World Bank gives loans to the individuals for the
using the codes given below: monetary help.
Column I Column II (c) The UN secretary General is the chief administrative
(A) Primary Sector (p) Transportation officer of UN.
(B) Secondary Sector (q) Manufacturing (d) The UN is only responsible for maintaining
(C) Tertiary Sector (r) Agriculture international law.
(1) (A) r, (B) q, (C) p Which of the above statements are correct?
(2) (A) p, (B) q, (C) r (1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (c)
(3) (A) q, (B) r, (C) p (3) (b) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (A) r, (B) p, (C) q 90. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
85. Consider the locational coordinates of stations X and Y and using the codes given below:
mark the correct answer- Column I Column II
I. X. 50°E longitude and 40°S latitude Type of countries Growth rate
II. Y. 50°E longitude and 60°s latitude (A) All democratic regimes (p) 4.28
Time of station X will be- (B) All dictorial regimes (q) 3.95
(1) Ahead of Y (2) behind of Y
(C) Poor countries (r) 4.42
(3) Same as station Y (4) Independent of that of Y
under dictatorship
86. ________climate is also known as the Tundra climate.
(1) Humid (2) Dry Mesothermal (D) Poor countries under (s) 4.34
(3) Monsoon (4) Polar democracy
87. Agriculture practiced only for the family’s own needs is (1) (A) p, (B) q, (C) s, (D) r
known as- (2) (A) q, (B) r, (C) s, (D) p
(1) Commercial farming (2) Subsistence farming (3) (A) r, (B) p, (C) q, (D) s
(3) Shifting agriculture (4) Horticulture (4) (A) s, (B) r, (C) p, (D) q
88. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
91. Assertion (A) : In 1979, a commission under the
using the codes given below:
chairmanship of shri B. P. Mandal was set up to identify
Column I Column II
(A) Kanhayalal Maniklal (p) Founder president of OBC.
Munshi Bhartiya Jansangh Reason (R) : A person who thinks that caste is the principal
(B) Shyam prased (q) Leader of the communist basis of community is called castist.
Mukherjee Party (1) A and R are true and R explains A.
(C) B. R. Ambedkar (r) Founder of the swatantra (2) A and R are true but R does not explain A.
Party (3) A is true and R is false
(D) Somnath Lahiri (s) Chairman of the Drafting (4) A is false and R is true.
Committee 92. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
(1) (A) s, (B) p, (C) r, (D) q using the codes given below:
(2) (A) p, (B) r, (C) q, (D) s Column I Column II
(3) (A) q, (B) s, (C) p, (D) r (A) Pressure Group (p) Narmada Bacho Andolan
(4) (A) r, (B) p, (C) s, (D) q (B) Long term movement (q) Asom Gana Parishad
89. Consider the following statements- (C) Single issue movement (r) Women’s movement
(a) The UN Security Council is responsible for maintaining
(D) Political Party (s) Fertilizer dealers’
peace and security among countries.
association
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
EBD_7396
MT-148 Target NTSE (Class-10 Stage - 2)
(1) (A) s, (B) r, (C) p, (D) q (3) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(2) (A) q, (B) s, (C) r, (D) p (4) Governor
97. According to the World Development Report 2006, brought
(3) (A) r, (B) p, (C) s, (D) q
out by the World Bank, countries with per capita income of
(4) (A) p, (B) q, (C) r, (D) s `4,53,000 p.a. and above are called ___________.
93. What does Kittiki - Hachchhiko mean? (1) Weak countries
(1) Catch and save (2) Sow and harvest (2) Rich countries
(3) Pluck and Plant (4) Pluck and throw (3) Low income countries
94. Which of the following states have bicameral legislature? (4) All of them
A. Andhra Pradesh B. Bihar 98. Consider the following statements-
C. Karnataka D. Maharashtra (a) Democracy aims to provide a fair share to every citizen
E. Tamil Nadu F. Uttar pradesh in the natural resources of the country.
Select the correct answer from the code given below- (b) A democracy gives every social group equal importance
(1) B, C, D and F (2) A, B, C and F to avoid any domination in the society.
(3) C, D, E and F (4) A, C, D and F (c) Democracy means rule by the government.
95. Which of the following is not included in the ‘Right to (d) Social democracy means there is different law for
Freedom’ in the constitution of India? different sections of the society.
(1) Freedom of speech and expression Which of the above statements are correct?
(2) Freedom of assemble with arms (1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (b)
(3) Freedom to form association (3) (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) Freedom to adopt any profession
99. How many times was Belgium’s constitution amended?
96. On the basis of following features identify the correct option-
(1) Twice (2) Thrice
I. He is the real ruler of the country.
II. He presides over the meetings of the Cabinet. (3) Four times (4) Five times
III. It has an important role in the management of foreign 100. How do you describe the judicial machinery under COPRA?
affairs (1) 3 tier quasi-judicial machinery
IV. He is the ex-offices chairman of the planning (2) 2 tier quasi-judicial machinery
commission.
(3) 4 tier quasi-judicial machinery
(1) President
(2) Prime Minister (4) 5 tier quasi-judicial machinery
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
1. 36. 71.
2. 37. 72.
3. 38.
73.
4. 39.
74.
5. 40.
6. 41. 75.
7. 42. 76.
8. 43. 77.
9. 44. 78.
10. 45.
79.
11. 46.
80.
12. 47.
13. 48. 81.
14. 49. 82.
15. 50. 83.
16. 51. 84.
17. 52.
85.
18. 53.
86.
19. 54.
20. 55. 87.
21. 56. 88.
22. 57. 89.
23. 58. 90.
24. 59.
91.
25. 60.
92.
26. 61.
27. 62. 93.
28. 63. 94.
29. 64. 95.
30. 65. 96.
31. 66.
97.
32. 67.
98.
33. 68.
34. 69. 99.
35. 70. 100.
Sig. of Invigilator.................................
EBD_7396
MT-150 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 1
5 km O
Starting from O, the final position of A and B are shown.
Since the distance between A and B is 5 + 4 = 9 km.
5. (3) Triangle, rectangle and square and given numbers 5, 2
and 4 respectively. The numbers given in the 14. (2) Using the operations given in (2), we get the given
overlapped areas are obtained by multiplying these expression as :
numbers. For instance in the product of 2 × 4 because 200 + 100 – 300 + 200 ÷ 10 × 2 – 40
the corresponding area is overlapped by square (4) = 300 – 300 + 20 × 2 – 40
and rectangle (2). Similarly 40 is the product of 2 × 4 × 5, = 0 + 40 – 40 = 0
where the area common to triangle (5), rectangle (2) 15. (3) The terms of the given series are numbers formed by
and square (4). Naturally 'X' is the area where triangle joining together consecutive odd numbers in order i.e.
(5) is overlapped by rectangle (2). Hence 5 × 2 = 10 1 and 3, 3 and 5, 5 and 7, 7 and 9, 9 and 11, ......
6. (1) Clearly, the numerators of the fractions in the given So, missing terms = number formed by joining 11 and
sequence form the series 1, 3, 5, 7 in which each term is 13
obtained by adding 2 to the previous term. = 1113
The denominators of the fractions from the series 16. (1) The pattern is – 66, – 55, – 44, – 33, – 22, .....
2, 4, 8, 16, i.e., 21, 22, 23, 24. So, missing term = 105 – 11 = 94
17. (3) Let H, C, B and K represent the number of hens, cows,
So, the numerator of the next fraction will be (7 + 2) i.e.
bullocks and keepers respectively.
9 and the denominator will be 25 i.e. 32.
Then, as given we have :
9 H + C + B + K < 50 ........... (1)
Thus, the next term is
32 C = 2B ........... (2)
EBD_7396
2 Target NTSE (Class-10 Stage - 2)
C=H ........... (3) (Q. 28 and Q.29)
Let Mahima’s age = x. Then, Anita’s age = 2x,
H C B
K ........... (4) Rajan’s age = x/2, Deepti’s age = 4x, Lata’s age = x/4.
10
So, the descending order of ages is :
From (2), (3) and (4), we have :
Deepti > Anita > Mahima > Rajan > Lata.
10K = H + C + B
28. (3) Lata is the youngest.
10K = 2C + B = 2 × 2B + B 10K = 5B B = 2K
29. (1) Deepti is the eldest.
Thus, B = 2K, C = 2B = 4K, H = C = 4K
30. (4) Clearly, we have :
Total number of heads = H + C + B + K
Total number of legs = 2H + 4C + 4B + 2K COMPREHENSION (COM) (PREHENS) (ION)
(2H + 4C + 4B + 2K) – (H + C + B + K) = 69 MOCIONSNEHERP
H + 3C + 3B + K = 69 The middle letter is the seventh letter, which is S.
4K + 12K + 6K + K = 69 31. (4) We shall first find the number which occurs most often
23K = 69 K=3 in the given figures .Clearly, 3 appears ih each of the
Hence, number of cows = C = 4K = (4 × 3) = 12. above figures. Form figures (i), (ii) and (iii) it is clear
18. (3) The digit 1 comes at the ten’s place in numbers from that 4, 2, 5 and 1 appear adjacent to 3. Obviously, 6
110 to 119, 210 to 219, 310 to 319, 410 to 419, 510 to 519, appears opposite 3. Now from figures (i) and (ii), it is
clear that 3,2 and 5 appears adjacent to 4. Also 6 appears
610 to 619, 710 to 719, 810 to 819 and 910 to 919.
adjacent to 4 (since it lies opposite to 3 and therefore
Required number = 10 × 9 = 90
cannot appear opposite to 4). Obviously 1 appears
(Q19 to 21) opposite to 4.
Given F is a physiologist. B is the mother of F and E means 32. (2) The outer element rotates 135ºCW. The inner element
E is the brother or sister of F. rotates 90ºCW and gets laterally inverted. Also the
There are only two married couples in the family. Since D is semicircular portion gets turned to the inner side of this
married to A, so C, the Jeweller who is married to a lawyer element.
will be married to B. Again, the manager D is married to A 33. (3) In fig. 1 the small circle is on the left has side and in fig.
means A is the doctor Grand father of F and E. Also, no one 2. It moves to right hand side in fig. 3 The small circle is
else is an Engineer. So, E must be an Engineer. upward keeping in view the analogical relationship
19. (4) Clearly, E is an engineer, So, the answer is none of between fig. 1 and 2 the small circle in fig. 4, should
these move downward.
20. (4) Clearly, A is the grandfather of F and E is the brother or 34. (2) Each one of the figures except fig. (2), contains
sister of F. So, A is the grand father of E. incomplete square missing one line segment.
21. (3) Clearly, D, the manager is married to A, so AD is one of 35. (4) In all other figures, the initial point takes either two or
the couples in the family. three complete rounds while in fig. (4), it takes two
complete and one half round.
50
22. (1) Let speed be x = time taken 36. (3) Use inversion technique.
x
37. (1) Use upside-down technique.
300 100 38. (1) Use upside-down technique.
also = time taken.
3x x 40. (2) Clearly there are 4 columns containing 2 cubes each
Hence ratio is 1 : 2. and 6 columns containing 1 cube each.
23. (3) Mumbai is the capital of Maharashtra. Similarly, Jaipur Number of cube in columns of cubes = 4 × 2 = 8
is the capital of Rajasthan. Number of cubes in columns of 1 cube = 6 ×1 = 6.
24. (4) Clearly, 32 + 2 = 11, 72 + 2 = 51 Therefore total number of cube = 8 + 6 = 14
So, if the first number is x. Then second number is 41. (3) Upper small circles decreases where as lower dots increases.
x2 + 2. 42. (3)
Thus, the relationship is x, x2 + 2.
25. (2) The letters at the third and sixth places are repeated
thrice to code BOMBAY as MYMYMY. Similarly, the
letters at the third, sixth and ninth places are repeated 43. (1) In each row, the second figure is obtained from the first
thrice to code TAMIL NADU as MNUMNUMNU. figure by reversing the direction of the RHS arrow and
26. (1) P + R – Q means P is the son of R who is the wife of Q the third figure is obtained from the second figure by
i.e. Q is the father of P. reversing the direction of both the arrows.
27. (3) P × R ÷ Q means P is the brother of R who is the mother 44. (3) Tr = 11, Br = 31
of Q i.e. P is the uncle of Q. no. of students = Tr + Br – 1 = 11 + 31 – 1 = 41
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 3
45. (3) A is 18th from front and C is 24th Solutions 47 to 50:
Number of persons between A and C = 6.
T X 7
Since C is exactly in middle of A and B, so number of persons
between C and B = 6. X T 7
17 6 6 15 A 7 T
A C B
Number of persons in the queue As the first column is the sum of two 7s, i.e., 7 + 7 = 14. So T = 4
= ( 17 + 1 + 6 + 1 + 6 + 1 + 15 ) = 47. and 1 is carried over. Therefore, now 1 + X + T = L = 7 and since T
= 4 X = L – T – 1 = 7– 4 – 1 = 2.
46. (4) When the hands of the clock are in the same straight
line but not together, they are 30 minute spaces apart. Thus A = T + X = 4 + 2 = 6.
At 7 o’clock, they are 25 min. spaces apart. 47. (1) X = 2.
Minute hand will have to gain only 5 in. spaces. 48. (1) A L T = 467 (jumbled up)
55 min. spaces are gained in 60 min. 49. (1) T A X = 426 (jumbled up)
50. (2) Sum of second row = X + T + L = 13.
60 5 Third multiple of 13 = 39.
5 min. spaces are gained in 5 min . 5 min .
55 11
5
Required time = 5 min . past 7
11
1. (3) Humanistic approach in modern social, political and 9. (2) His chief desire was to do the greatest good to the
economic systems, reject in their working the basic greatest number of people.
principal that the free and creative enfoldment of every 10. (1) Though world famous, he never felt proud of his
man, woman and child is the true measure of the worth discoveries.
of any society. 11. (3) Dr. Carver was an American Negro slave, who by dint
2. (2) Acquisitiveness and the pursuit of power have made of his ability became a scientist and educator of world-
wide fame.
the modern man an aggressor against everything that
is non-human, an exploiter and oppressor of those who 12. (1) They started looking on the ground for blood, hair or a
drag mark that would lead us to the deer killed by the
are poor, meek and unorganised.
tiger.
3. (4) The real attainment of any society requires
13. (4) Mothi whipped round and ran for dear life, beating the
understanding and imagination, in tegrity and air with his hands as if warding off a swarm of bees and
compassion, cooperation among people and harmony continuing to scream as he ran.
between the human species and the rest of the nature. 14. (2) a deer was killed by a tiger.
4. (4) Understanding is a specific quality in human species. 15. (1) The sudden and piercing scream of a human being in a
5. (3) Purpose and collective human efforts can solve the jungle, where a moment before all has been silent is
crisis to some extent. terrifying to hear.
6. (1) Power and Possession have been central pursuits of 20. (1) The word ‘inflict’ means burden someone with or
modern civilisation for a long time. impose.
7. (3) Peripheral mean of secondary importance. 21. (4) The word ‘inherit’ means become heir to or take over.
8. (3) His guardians wanted to educate him, but were too 22. (2) The word ‘probably’ means likely (very/most).
poor to do so. So he left home. He was hardly ten, 23. (1) The word ‘hanging around’ means linger or wait around.
when he began to work at small jobs to earn a little 24. (1) Vague notion is a right choice. Imagination is in itself
money for his school expenses. He continued to do so vague (unclear). While expressions cannot be vague.
even when he was at college. Theory is out of place for the context. Thoughts can be
vague or unclear or unstable.
EBD_7396
4 Target NTSE (Class-10 Stage - 2)
25. (3) Remorse is an emotion/action/feeling after the crime is 33. (2) ‘Blues’ refer to bad moods, melancholy, low spirit, ill
done. Hatred is for the other people who saw/hear/ temper.
gone through crime but certainly not for the prisoner. 34. (1) This means to talk about one’s profession in a dry,
Crime is done in anger and a cause. Obstinacy is boring way.
stubbornness. Only emotion that suits the context is 35. (2) Bad - blood refers to the element of animosity in a
Remorse. person and, thus, ill - feeling.
26. (3) If it would have been 'security' then it would have been 44. (1) Gravity is the singular subject which will have the
'provided' in the statement not 'subjected'. Exercise does present indefinite verb i.e., verb + s/es form.
not fit. Violation (to breech) is also out of place. Use of
45. (3) Capitalist society is the singular subject and the
'physical' in statement indicates 'violence'. It fits best
statement made is a dictum, so pesent infinitive tense
in the blank.
will be used.
27. (3) War is a negative word and it is synonym with mass
destruction, death hence certainly has grim 46. (1) The use of the word here is as a ‘noun’ not as a verb
consequences. Happy, Pleasing, exciting all have thus damage will be the right answer.
positive sense; so can not be linked with war. Tip : A sentence of form this can cause, will always be
28. (2) Option (b) best fits in the sentence to make the sentence followed by a noun.
grammatically correct. 47. (2) The right impression is ‘fond of’.
29 (1) The word 'remonstrated' means 'to make a protest or 48. (1) Profane means ‘unholy, not devoted to holy or religious
complain about something' which suits the content of purposes’. So option ‘a’ sacred would be the right
the sentence, therefore, (a) is the correct answer. antonym of this word.
30. (3) It means to get suspicious about some dealings. 49. (2) The word ‘obligatory’ means compulsory, mandatory,
31. (2) It means to always be upright and honest. required whose opposite is optional or voluntary.
32. (4) To fall flat means failing miserably or not being able 50. (4) The word ‘obscure’ means unclear whose opposite is
to create the effect or achieve the result one wanted clear.
to and, thus, meet cold reception.
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 5
1 2 O
E
x 2 23 23 40°
= 6 ( x –1) ...(i)
1 2
x 1 1 23 23 B D
F
= 6 (1 + 21/3 + 22/3)
x3– 6x2 + 12x – 8 = 6x – 6 Also AEB = 90°
x3– 6x2 + 12x – 6x – 8 + 6 = 0 BED = 180° – 90° = 90°
x3– 6x2 + 6x – 2 = 0 In BFD,
45. (1) 0.645 × 0.645 + 2 × 0.645 × 0.355 + 0.355 × 0.355 BED + EBD + EDB = 180°
90° + EBF + EDB = 180° [ EBD = EBF]
= (0.645)2 + 2 × (0.645) (0.355) + (0.355)2
90° + 20° + EDB = 180°
= (0.645 + 0.355)2 = (1)2 = 1
EDB = 180° – 110° = 70°
46. (2) n || p and m is transversal
i.e. EDF = 90°
1 = 3 = 85° (Corresponding angles)
50. (2) Let the radius of the common base be r. Let h1 and h2
Also, m || l & p is transversal
be the heights of the cone and cylinder respectively.
2 + 3 = 180° ( Consecutive interior angles)
Then,
2 + 85° = 180°
2 = 180° – 85° 1 2
Volume of the cone r h1 ,
2 = 95° 3
47. (1) Given ratio of angles are 3 : 5 : 9 : 13 Volume of the cylinder = r2h2
Let four angles of the quadrilateral are 3k, 5k, 9k and It is given that the cone and the cylinder are of the
13k. same volume.
We know that sum of four angles of a quadrilateral is
1 2
360° r h1 r 2 h2
Therefore, 3k + 5k + 9k + 13k = 360° 3
1
30k = 360° k = 12 h1 h2
Therefore four angles are 3
(3 × 12)°, (5 × 12)°, (9 × 12)° and (13 × 12)° h1 3
h1 : h2 = 3 : 1
or 36°, 60°, 108°, 156°. h2 1
48. (3) Since, EAB is a straight line
DAE + DAB = 180° Hence, the ratio of the height of the cone and cylinder
73° + DAB = 180° is 3:1
i.e., DAB = 180° – 73° = 107° 51. (1) Given, a quadrilateral ABCD in which AB = 9m,
Since, the sum of the angles of quadrilateral ABCD is BC = 12 m, CD = 5m, and AD = 8m. We divide the
360° quadrilateral in two triangular region ABD and BCD.
107° + 105° + x + 80° = 360° Now, In BCD, right angle at C.
292° + x = 360°
We have BD2 = BC2 + CD2
and x = 360° – 292° = 68°
[By pythagorous theorem]
EBD_7396
8 Target NTSE (Class-10 Stage - 2)
54. (1) Total number of cases = n = 100
All the numbers from 50 to 59 have the digit 5. They are
10 in number. Besides these numbers the numbers 5,
15, 25, 35, 45, 65, 75, 85, 95 have the digit 5. These are 9
in number.
Number of favourable cases = m = Number of numbers
which have the digit 5 = 10 + 9 = 19
m 19
Probability = p
n 100
55. (1) Let 3, – 3 be the given zeros and be the
= 52 + 122 = 25 + 144 = 169 m2
third zero.Then,
BD = 169 13m
–4
1 –
Area of BCD = × base × height 1
2
Coeff. of x 2
1 Using –
= × 5 × 12 = 30 m2 Coeff. of x3
2
52. (3) Water in the canal forms a cuboid of breadth = 12 dm 3– 3 4
= 12/10 m = 1.2m,
= 4
height = 30 dm = 30/10 m = 3m and,
Hence, third zero is 4.
Length = Distance covered by water in 30 minutes
56. (3) We have,
= velocity of water time
x + 2y + z = 7 ... (i)
30 x + 3z = 11 ... (ii)
= 20000 m 10000 m
60 2x – 3y = 1 ... (iii)
Volume of water flown in 30 min = lbh From equation (i), we get
= (1.2 3 10000) m3 = 36000m3 z = 7 – x – 2y
Suppose area irrigated be A m2. Substituting z = 7 – x – 2y in equation (ii), we get
Then, x + 3 (7 – x – 2y) = 11
x + 21 – 3x – 6y = 11 ...(iv)
9
A 36000 A 400000 m 2 –2x – 6y = –10
100 Adding equations (iii) and (iv), we get
Hence, area irrigated = 400000 m2 – 9y = – 9 y=1
53. (2) Arranging the observation in ascending order : Putting y = 1 in equation (iii), we get x = 2
7400, 7800, 8100, 8500, 9200, 10320, 11300, 11500, 12000, Putting x = 2, y = 1 in equation (i), we get
12700 2+ 2+ z=7 z=3
Total number of observations (n) = 10 (even) Hence, x = 2, y = 1, z = 3
th th
57. (1) Let the length of the shortest side be x metres. Then,
1 n n by hypothesis
median = observation 1 observation
2 2 2 Hypotenuse = (2x + 1) metres, Third side = (x + 7) metres.
(Hypotenuse)2 = Sum of the square of the remaining
two sides [By pythagorous theorem]
th th
1 10 10 (2x + 1)2 = x2 + (x + 7)2
= observation 1 observation
2 2 2 4x2 + 4x + 1 = 2x2 + 14x + 49
2x2 – 10x – 48 = 0
1 th x2 – 5x – 24 = 0
= 5 observation 6th observation x2 – 8x + 3x – 24 = 0
2
x (x – 8) + 3 (x – 8) = 0
1 19520 (x – 8) (x + 3) = 0
Median = 9200 10320
2 2 x = 8, – 3
Median = 9760 x=8 [ x = – 3 is not possible]
Median Salary = ` 9760 Hence, the lengths of the sides of the grassy land are 8
metres, 17 metres and 15 metres.
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 9
58. (1) Let the two A.P’s be a1, a2, a3, .... an, ... and 61. (1) Population of France increased from 20 million to 28
b1, b2, b3, ...., bn, .... million in 1789.
Also, let d be the common difference of two A.P’s. Then, 63. (3) Guiseppe Garibaldi with armed volunteers acquired the
an = a1 + (n – 1) d and bn = b1 + (n – 1) d southern kingdom of Italy and kingdom of two sicilies
and succeeded to drive out the Spanish rulers.
an – bn = {a1 + (n – 1) d} – {b1 + (n – 1) d}
65. (2) Ho chi Minch Trail formed the backbone of the
an – bn = a1 = b1
Vietnamese in their struggle for freedom, unification
Clearly, an – bn is independent of n and is equal to
and during US attack.
a1 – b1. In other words
66. (4) Land, Labour, Capital and Enterprise are the four factors
an – bn = a1 – b1 for all n N. of production which are required for running a firm or a
a100 – b100 = a1 – b1 company profitably.
and, ak – bk = a1 – b1, where k = 10,00,000. 67. (2) All the porgrammes written in column A are poverty
But,a100 – b100 = 111 222 333 alleviation programmes.
a1 – b1 = 111 222 333 69. (4) During British colonial rule cricket came to represent
ak – bk = a1 – b1 = 111 222 333, where k = 10,00,000. all that the Victorian English valued fair play, discipline
and gentlemanliness
59. (4) We have,
74. (4) Marianne was a female allegory which symbolised the
sin ( + 36°) = cos
people's nation in France.
cos{90° – ( + 36°)} = cos
75. (2) Democracy is a form of government in which the
90° – ( + 36°) = 2 = 54° = 27°
administration of the country is run by the
60. (3) Let AB be the tower of height h meter and BC be the
representatives who are elected by the people.
height of flag staff surmounted on the tower.
77. (4) Elections are fought generally on party basis though
Let the point of the plane be D at a distance m meter
some candidates fight elections as independent
from the foot of the tower.
candidates.
In ABD,
80. (1) Every social difference does not lead to social division.
AB Social division means the division of society on the
tan 30
BD basis of colour, religion and caste.
85. (3) Local governments deal with residuary powers.
1 h
x 3h ...... (1) 86. (3) Public sector is government owned sector. Whereas,
3 x
private sector is owned by private individuals.
91. (4) Banks and cooperatives come under formal lenders.
AC
In ADC, tan 60 92. (2) Meteorologists use the location of some of the jet
AD
C streams as an aid in weather forecasting.
5 h 5 h 93. (1) India is one of the world's largest producers of rice
3 x ...... (2) 5m
x 3 according for 20.01% of all world rice production.
B 96. (3) Golden quadrilateral is managed by the National
5 h Authority of India under the ministry of Road Transport
From (1) and (2), 3h
3 and Highways.
3h = 5 + h 2h = 5 h
98. (4) Kerala has the highest sex ratio while Haryana has the
lowest sex ratio. Area with lowest population density
5
h= = 2.5 m 60° is Arunachal Pradesh.
2
30° 99. (3) MNC i.e. Multinational Companies set up offices and
D x A
factories for production in regions where they can get
So, the height of tower = 2.5 m cheap labour and other sources.
EBD_7396
10 Target NTSE (Class-10 Stage - 2)
X
X
N W
Lakshmi Meena
mo Step daughter
ther Hence A is facing north-west direction.
Shalini
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 11
21. (3) 16 ÷ 8 × 6 – 2 + 12 = 16 + 8 – 6 × 2 ÷ 12 Here, No. of normal years = 22
And no. of leap years = 8
2
= 16 + 8 – 6 × So odd days = 22 + 16 = 38 i.e 3 odd days
12
(remainder when 38 is divided by 7, i.e. 3)
1 Hence, it was a Thursday
= 16 + 8 – 6 × = 16 + 8 – 1 30. (4) G = K, O = S, A = E, H = L, E = I, A = E, D = H;
6
Go AHEAD is KS ELIEH.
= 24 – 1 = 23 (by USING BODMAS Rule)
31. (2) Go one letter back in the case of every letter of the
22. (3) 2 22 23 24 25 word.
3 5 9 17 33 65
32. (3) Count the number of days from 2005 onwards to get 0
26 odd day.
129
Year 2005 2006 2007 2008 2010 2011
23. (2) Multiply by 3 and subtract 1; 122 × 3 – 1 = 365
Odd days 1 1 1 2 1 1
24. (4) Both I & II follow
= 7 or 0 odd day.
Calender for the year 2005 is the same as that for the
T
year 2012.
M
H 33. (2) Treat B and T as a single letter. Then the remaining
letters (5 + 1 = 6) can be arranged in 6! ways. Since, O is
repeated twice, we have to divide by 2 and the B and T
letters can be arranged in 2! ways.
6! 2!
where H = Huts, T = Temples and M = Mansions. Total no. of ways 720
25. (4) Both I & II follow. 2
34. (1) Time from 5 a.m. on a day to 10 p.m. on 4th day is 89
Horses hours.
Cows Now, 23 hrs. 44 min. of this clock are the same as 24
Hens
hours of the correct clock.
356
i.e., hrs. of this clock = 24 hrs. of correct clock.
15
24 15
89 hrs. of this clock = 89 hrs. of correct
356
Case I
clock = 90 hrs of correct clock.
Fly
So, the correct time is 11 p.m.
Trucks Scooters
26. (2)
35. (2)
Case II
Fly
Scooters
Trucks
36. (4)
28. (4) m o p n / m o p n / m o p n / m o p n
29. (4) 09/12/2001—— Sunday
37. (4) Letters are skipped in the order as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
No. of days between 9/ 12/ 71 & 9 / 12/ 2001
D (E) F (GH) I (JKL) M (NOPQ) R (STUVW) X
we know every year has 1 odd days
1 2 3 4 5
we know leap year has 2 odd days
EBD_7396
12 Target NTSE (Class-10 Stage - 2)
38. (1) Backward order is taken (Z -A). Letters are skipped in 48–50
the order of 2 and 1 alternately.
X (WV) U (T) S (RQ) P (O) N (ML) K (J) I (HG) F and so P A Y
on.
M E
39. (1) Reading from right second and first group are in
continuity. + R E A L
Fourth and Third also read from right.
M O N E Y
40. (4) The first term in the question pair consists of four
letters in forward sequence (A -Z) and the second term
From the pattern it is clear that M = 1, R = 9 and O = 0 as
consists of four letters from the end of the alphabetical. R (single digit no.) becomes a double digit no. (MO)
41. (2) 4 – 7 Alphabetical position of letters of first term are with the addition of 1, carried over from P + E.
given as second term. R + 1 = MO or 9 + 1 = 10
42. (1) Since product of two numbers = their HCF × LCM Further Y + E + L = 10 + Y
Hence, both the statements together are necessary to or E + L = 10 .......(1)
answer the question. So 1 is carried over to the second column.
43. (4) except (4), all are in reverse alphabetical order. Thus A + M + A + 1 = 10 + E
Using M = 1,
44. (4) Each 2 figure set consists of one odd number and one
2A + 2 = 10 + E
even number.
or 2A = E + 8 ........(2)
45. (4) All others total (sum of digits) up to 27 except(4) which
A 4 and E is even
total up to 23.
E 8 as if E = 8 then A = 8 not possible so E can be 2,
46. (1) Vijay’s position from downwards
4 or 6
Totalstudents –Vijay's position from upwards 1 Again, 1 + P + E = 10 + N
or P + E = 9 + N .....(3)
= [43 – 14] + 1 = 30th
If E = 2, P = 7 + N which is not satisfied by any of the
47. (1) Starting from his house in the East, Ravi moves
remaining number.
westwards. Then, the theatre, which is to the left, will be So E = 4 or 6
in the South. The hospital, which is straight ahead, will
L = 10 – E L = 6 or 4
be to the West. So, the University will be to the North.
Again Putting E = 4 in (2)
A = 6 not possible
N University
8 6
So E = 6 A 7
2
W E
Hospital Home Also, L = 4
In (3), P + 6 = 9 + N P–N=9 –6=3
Theatre
S As MONEY has to be maximum so N should be
maximum.
P = 8 and N = 5
[Not P = 5, N = 2]
48. (3) The remaining digits are 2 and 3. For MONEY to be
maximum, Y = 3.
49. (3) The digit which remained unutilised = 2
50. (2) MONEY = 10563
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 13
4. (3) It does not even pay to think. Perhaps thought may 34. (2) ‘As the crow flies’ means in a straight line.
prove costly. 35. (2) ‘Pie in the sky’ means an event which seems unlikely
5. (2) If the leaders want to create public opinion, the to happen.
machinery of the press and the wireless makes it most 44. (3) Modals such as must or should cannot be used with
easy. ‘hope’.
6. (1) Modern conditions afford propagandists vastly 45. (1) There must be the preposition ‘to’ to connect the verb
increased opportunities of promoting collective ‘tend’ with the noun ‘result’, (2) is not correct because
excitement and setting the world in a conflagration. first form of verb should be used and not continuous
7. (1) suppress means hold back, repress or restrain. since its a simple statement made suggesting no action
taking place at the current moment.
13. (3) Many poor farmers had been compelled to take up
indigo cultivation when the British settlers were given 46. (2) The subject of the sentence is candidate, but in the
the right to purchase and cultivate land in India. first part there is no subject, it should be passive or
have an active subject. (2) is the only option with
14. (2) Many whites, therefore, either acquired loans to poor
passive verb.
farmers or pressurised them to forsake the farming of
food grains and other cash crops for indigo cultivation. 47. (1) Difficulty is a noun, and is therefore used as difficulty
15. (1) Indigo export to Europe was lucrative for the British with or difficulty in.
settlers who held a monopoly for this business. 48. (1) The word ‘vital’ means essential, urgent while trivial
20. (4) ‘Modest’ is the correct word as per the context. means insignificant.
21. (3) ‘Concurs with’ means to agree. 49. (3) The word ‘exploit’ means treat unfairly, utilize, misuse
or take advantage of which is opposite in meaning to
22. (2) ‘Gregarious’ menas sociable.
support.
23. (2) ‘Brim’ means the top edge of a cup, bowl glass etc.
50. (4) The word ‘condemn’ means censure, criticize, blame
24. (4) ‘Adversary’ means opponent. etc. which is opposite in meaning to praise.
25. (2) ‘Conform’ means to obey a rule, law etc.
26. (3) ‘Assent’ means to agree
27. (2) ‘Accord’ means a formal agreement between two
organisations, countries etc.
EBD_7396
14 Target NTSE (Class-10 Stage - 2)
a1 b1 c1
Here condition is a b2 c2
2
k 4 k 4
16 k k
40. (3) The sun is the ultimate source of all forms of energy k 4
k2 = 64 k=±8
available on the earth. 16 k
41. (2) f (x) = 6x3 – 11x2 + kx – 20
4 k 4
Also, 4k = k2 – 4k
3 2 k k
4 4 4 4
f 6 11 k 20 0 k2 – 8k = 0 k (k – 8) = 0
3 3 3 3
k = 0 or k = 8 but k = 0 is not possible otherwise equation
64 16 4k will be one variable.
6. 11. 20 0
9.3 9 3 k = 8 is correct value for many solution.
128 – 176 + 12k – 180 = 0 44. (2) Let the constant part of the expenditure = ` x
and the variable part = ` y × price of wheat.
12k + 128 – 356 = 0
Given that when the price of wheat is ` 250 per quintal,
12k = 228 k = 19 the total expenses are ` 1000.
42. (3) Since, and are zeroes of polynomial f (x) = 2x2 – 5x + 7. x + 250y = 1000 ........... (1)
Given also that when the price of wheat is ` 240 per
5 5 7 quintal, the total expenses are ` 980
So + = and =
2 2 2 x + 240y = 980 ........... (2)
Let S and P denote respectively the sum and product Subtracting (2) from (1),
of zeroes of the required polynomial. Then, polynomial 10y = 20 y=2
is p(x) = k(x2 – Sx + P) Substituting this value of y in (1)
x + 250 (2) = 1000
5 25
S (2 3 ) (3 ) 5( ) 5 and, x = 1000 – 500 = 500
2 2
Therefore, when the price of wheat is ` 350 per quintal,
P = (2 + 3 ) (3 + 2 )
total expenses = x + 350 y = 500 + 350 (2) = ` 1200
P = 6( 2 + 2) + 13 = 6 2 + 6 2 + 12 + total expenses = ` 1200
= 6 ( + )2 +
45. (4) Since, the point (3, 4) lies on the graph of the equation
5
2
7 75 7 3y = ax +7, therefore this point satisfies the equation
P= 6 41 So, we put x = 3, y = 4 in given equation, we get
2 2 2 2
3(4) = a (3) + 7
Hence, the required polynomial is given by 12 = 3a + 7
p (x) = k (x2 – Sx + P) 3a = 12 – 7
3a = 5
25
or, p( x) k x 2 x 41 , where k is any non-zero
2 5
a
real number. 3
1 99 l
S100 = 100 1 (100 –1)1 = 100 1 = (l + b) l2 b2 = 2
2 2
101 l
= 100 = 5050 or b =
2 2 l2 b2
( xa b 2
) ( xb c 2
) ( xc a 2
)
49. (1) We have l2
a b c 4
(x x x ) or b 2 lb = l2 + b2
4
( x a )4 .( xb )4 ( x c )4 x 4 a . x 4b .x 4 c b 3
or 3l = 4b or = .
l 4
x 2a 2b 2b 2c 2 c 2 a
x 4a 4b 4c
55. (3) Let each side be 1.5l (after increase). Then, % increase
1
x4a 4b 4c
x 4a 4b 4c
in surface area
5 2 5 2 2 ( 5) 2 22 13.5l 2 6l 2
50. (2) x2 = 100 = 125%
5 1 6l 2
E 40 m D
41. (3)
A
Clearly, AE = 30 – 20 = 10 m
49. (3) A 2-digit number when added to 72 gives 96. That means
42. (3) Clearly, 'dog' is reared as pet. But 'dog' is called 24 is the number that is added to 72. Thus AB = 24.
'mangoose'. So, 'a 'mangoose' is reared as pet.
43. (2) The series is baa /baa/ baa/ ba a.
44. (3) 6 × 3 + 2 = 20, 9 × 5 + 2 = 47 24 × 3 + 2 = 74
45. (1) In the first and second statements, the common code 50. (3)
words are 'ki' and 'ma' and the common words are 'is'
and 'playing'. So, 'ki' and 'ma' are the codes for 'is' and
playing'.
15. (3) it did not occur to him that he had a chance to do so 27. (3) Equivocal means ambiguous or vague, pervasive means
something to be found everywhere, inseparable are
20. (4) Fastidious means difficult to please or very fussy,
things that cannot be separated from each other and
conciliatory means to reconcile with or come to terms
autonomous means independent is followed by a ‘but’
with, indignant means angry while wistful means full
so the noun or adjective that follows should be opposite
of sad longing. Nostalgia means longing for the past.
in meaning to Independent. Thus, inseparable is the
Thus, nostalgic and wistful can be used as synonyms.
right answer.
21. (1) Eminent means very respected or famous in one’s
profession or field, petulant means peevish or irritable, 28. (2) Soporific means tending to cause sleep, elated means
pathological refers to disease and amiable means very happy, drowsy means sleepy, riotous means
friendly. violent or mischievous, affable means friendly.
22. (2) Irascible means irritable or hot tempered, despondent 29. (1) Acerbic means harsh in tone or manner, laconic is brief,
means sad because of disappointment or losing hope, remorseful is repenting having done something,
lucid means clearly expressed and didactic means shackle is suffering without complaint. Since, the gap
preaching. is followed by better and even, it should be a synonym
23. (4) Coerced means to force someone into deny something, of better in a higher degree which will be acerbic.
relegated means to push to an unimportant status, 30. (3) This means to express openly one’s desires or
margins or inferior position, enpropriate is to confiscate emotions.
one’s property while chastise is to punish to bring in 48. (1) The word ‘scarcity’ means shortage, lack, paucity,
discipline. meagreness, dearth etc. Its opposite word is ‘plenty’
24. (1) Economise means to control one’s expenditure and in the given options.
spend less splurge means to spend money freely. 49. (1) The word ‘elegance’ means grace, stylishness, charm,
cleverness which is opposite in meaning to ‘balance’.
50. (4) The word ‘coarse’ means ugly, rough, ill-mannered,
rude, crude etc. which is opposite in meaning to ‘soft’
from the given options.
EBD_7396
22 Target NTSE (Class-10 Stage - 2)
3 1 3y 5 y 5 4
Also [ Using (1) ]
2k – 1 2k 1 4(192 y) 12 192 y 12 3
6k + 3 2k – 1 4k – 4 k – 1 (2) is false
y 5
For k = 1, x = 3, y = 1 – 9 = – 8 i.e. x = 3, y = – 8 9y 960 5y 4 y 960
192 y 9
This means, equations are consistent. Thus (4) holds.
y 240m
2n 2(n 1)
47. (2) an 3 ; an 1 3 3 240
3 3 Put y = 240 m in (1) we get , h 180m
4
2 51. (3) Given : A circle inscribed in a quadrilateral ABCD,
common difference, d an 1 – an
3 AB = 6 cm, BC = 7 cm, CD = 4 cm,
2 11 D R C
a a1 3 .
3 3
n 24 22 2
Sn [2a (n – 1) d ] S 24 23
2 2 3 3 S Q
22 46 12 68
12 4 68 272
3 3
A P B
48. (4) Ratio of the areas of the triangles
= (Ratio of corresponding sides)2 To find: AD
2 Proof : Let the circle touch the sides AB, BC, CD,
4 16
DA, at P, Q, R and S, respectively.
9 81
AP = AS Lengths of two tangents
1 BP = BQ
49. (2) Let ,6 divide the line segment joining the points drawn from an external
2 DR = DS
CR = CQ point of circle, are equal
(3, 5) and (–7, 9) in the ratio of K: 1
Using section formula, the co–ordinate of the dividing Adding all these, we get
point are given as (AP + BP) + (CR + RD) = (BQ + QC) + (DS + SA)
Kx2 x1 Ky 2 y1 AB + CD = BC + DA 6 + 4 = 7 + AD
x and y
K 1 K 1 AD = 10 – 7 = 3 cm.
52. (2) Given that BOD = 90°, so the top
1 K ( 7) 3 1 7K 3 3
K 1 14 K 6 of the table is of a circle of radius 60 cm.
2 K 1 2 K 1 4
1 Perimeter of the table
15K 5 K . Ratio is 1: 3
3
3 3
50. (3) Let CD be the tower = 2 r 2r cm = 2 3.14 60 2 60 cm
4 4
Let height of tower CD = h m and BC = y m
= (90 × 3.14 + 120) cm = 402.6 cm.
h 3
Now, in right angled BCD, tan = y tan 53. (2) POR and QOR form a linear pair
4
POR + QOR = 180° (Linear pair axiom)
h 3 3y D or a + b = 180° ........ (1)
h .....(1)
y 4 4 But a – b = 80° ......... (2) [Given]
In right angle ACD, Adding eqs (1) and (2), we get
h h
tan = 260
192 y 2a = 260° a 130
2
5 A Substituting the value of a in (1), we get
Since tan 192m B y C
12 130° + b = 180°
b = 180° – 130° = 50°
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 25
54. (1) Least prime : Least composite number 59. (1) First ten odd numbers are 1, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 15, 17, 19
= 2 : 4 or 1 : 2 respectively.
55. (1) X Y Z 1 So A.M. (x)
1 3 5 7 9 11 13 15 17 19
8 10
1
Z –X–Y 100
8 10
1 1 1 1 10
– –
8 24 16 48 60. (1) Radius of the shotput r = 4.9 cm
Z can do the work in 48 days. Volume of the shotput
56. (2) Let a1, a2, a3, .....all be the 11 players of the team. 4 3 4 22 4.9 4.9 4.9 cm3
r = 493.0053 cm3
Let a10 represents the captain and a 11 represents the 3 3 7
wicketkeeper. Density of the metal = 6.9 g per cm 3
Given: Age of captain = 25 yrs., i.e. a10 = 25 So the mass of the shotput = volume × density
And age of wicketkeeper = 25 + 3 = 28 yrs., i.e. a11 = 28 3401.7366
= 493.0053 × 6.9 g = 3401.7366 g kg
a a .... a 9 a10 a11 1000
To find: 1 2
11 = 3.4017366 kg 3.4 kg (approx)
According to the question, 61. (1) Olympe de Gouges was a French playwright and
a1 ... a 9 (a1 ... a 9 a10 a11) political activist whose feminist writing influenced a
1 large audience.
9 11
62. (1) Auschwitz concentration camp was a network of
a1 ... a 9 (a1 ... a 9 25 28) 11 concentration and extermination camps built and
9 11 operated by the third reach in polish areas annexed by
9(a1 ... a 9 ) 9 53 99 Nazis.
(a1 ... a 9 ) 64. (1) Lala Lajpat Rai was popularly known as Punjab Kesari
11 or Lion of Punjab. He went to U.S.A. to promote India’s
2 477 99 378 freedom struggle.
a1 ... a 9 67. (2) Rinderpest was an infectious viral disease of cattle that
11 11 11
means cattle plague.
a1 ... a 9 189 68. (1) Economic activities are divided into Market activities
a1 ... a 9 a10 a11 189 53 242 and Non-market activities.
22 71. (3) Unlike Fixed capital, Working capital which includes
11 11 11
Average age of whole team = 22 years. raw materials and money in hand is used up in
57. (3) a = 6 cm, b = 6 cm, c = 6 cm production.
73. (3) It focused on the Hindu widows and the urgent need
a b c 6 6 6 to permit their remarriages.
s 9cm
2 2 75. (2) The State level court is higher than the district level
Area of the equilateral triangle consumer court and deals in cases involving claims
s(s a)(s b)(s c) between 20 lakhs and 1 crore.
79. (3) Mineral resources are not renewable.
82. (1) Migration resulted in a steady increase in the
9(9 6)(9 6)(9 6) 9(3)(3)(3) 9 3 cm 2 percentage of population in cities.
58. (2) For triangle, sides are a = 26 cm, b = 28 cm, c = 30 cm 85. (1) Most loans from informal lenders carry a very heavy
interest rate and do little to increase the income of the
a b c 26 28 30 84 borrowers. Hence, it is necessary that banks and
s = 42 cm
2 2 2 cooperatives increase their lending particularly in rural
areas
Area of the triangle = s s a s b s c 87. (4) Terrace farming is a type of farming that was developed
(By Heron’s formula) first by the Indian people. This method of farming uses
42 42 26 42 28 42 30 steps called andenes that are built into the side of a
mountain or hill.
88. (4) Martial law in Poland refers to the period of time when
42 16 14 12 6 7 16 7 2 6 2 the authoritarian government of the people’s Republic
of Poland restricted normal life.
= 6 × 4 × 7 × 2 = 336 cm2 96. (3) India has a multi - party system with a predominance of
Let the height of the parallelogram be x cm. small regional parties. Political parties that wish to
contest local, state or national elections are required to
Then, area of the parallelogram = Base × Height = 28 × x cm2 be registered by three or more states.
Since, triangle and parallelogram have the same area 99. (3) The Bahujan Samaj party is a centrist national political
28x = 336 party in India with the socialist leanings. It was formed
to represent Bahujans or People of majority.
336 100. (2) More and more goods and services, investments and
x x = 12 cm
28 technologies are moving between various countries in
the past few decades.
EBD_7396
26 Target NTSE (Class-10 Stage - 2)
Left
III follow.
Solutions 17 - 21:
B
Here A = 3 and Q = 8.
E
B 3 N 3
N 3 N 3 N
G
8 B P B
W E
As, 3 + 3 = B = 6, N = 8 – B = 8 – 6 = 2. So, P = N + N = 4.
F
17. (1) 2 × 6 = 12.
S
18. (3) 6 × 4 = 24.
D
19. (2) N2 = 22 = 4.
20. (4) P × Q = 4 × 8 = 32
C
21. (2) B × A × N × A × N × A = 6 × 3 × 2 × 3 × 2 × 3 = 3888.
23. (1) GIVE BAT GATE
5137 92 4 5247 A
the South end
Third from
Right
24. (1)
W E
27. (2) MPOEPO London NPTDPX MOSCOW
Letter of words are one less than letters of code. S
28. (1) A B + 90 ° – 135° = – 45°
9 km N
As person is facing North west. Now, rotate that person
45° anticlockwise. Now, he is facing west direction.
12 km W E 36. (3) Let the no. of boys = x
Let the no. of girls = 2x
C S According to question
AC2 = 92 + 122 = 81 + 144 = 225 x + 2x = 60
AC = 15 kms x = 20
30. (2) Option (2) is the answer because it talks about scientists Boys = 20
being unsure about rapid shifts in earth’s climate and Girls = 40
how finding a definitive answer will help them to predict If Kamal is at Seventeenth position and 9 girls are a
the future climatic changes. Option (1) cannot be the head of him then out of 16 people standing ahead of
answer as it talks about research in general and the him, seven are boys. Therefore, there are 12 boys are
paragraph gives more emphasis on finding a “definitive after him in a rank.
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 35
37. (3) Oriya is language of Orissa likewise dogri is language
46. (3) 8 : 28 :: (?) : 65
of Jammu.
38. (3) Walk, run and crawl are various form of walking. Hence, 2 3 2 3
option (3) is ruled out. 3 –1 3 +1 4 –1 4 +1
39. (4) Except (4) all other are measurement unit like time is to
be measure is seconds. 15
40. (2) Except (2) all are perfect square numbers.
41. (3) No. of alphabets in REASON = 6 – 1 = 5 47. (2) 35 : 91 :: 189 : 341
No. of alphabets in BELIEVED = 8 – 1 = 7
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
GOVERNMENT = 10 – 1 = 9. 2 +3 3 +4 4 +5 5 +6
42. (4) Mother Husband Sister (Aunt)
48. (2, 4) 7 13 19 29
: :: :
11 17 23 31
Lady Man All are prime numbers.
Lady is sister to man. (OR)
Difference between numerator and denominator is 4.
43. (2) 22 2 2 92 9 72 82 8 56
29
32 3 6 12 1 0 72 7 42 Therefore, is also correct.
33
42 4 12 52 5 20 62 6 30 Hence, this question has two solutions.
49. (4) In every ordinary year there is one odd day and in leap
44. (1) In the first column, year there is two odd days.
91 + 84 + 25 = 200 Therefore, from 30th June 2003 to 30th June 2005, we
In the second column, get three odd days. Hence, Monday + 3 odd days =
64 + 76 + 60 = 200 Thursday.
Similarly, 11
73 + 61 + ? = 200 50. (3) Angle between hands of clock = 30H M
2
? = 200 – 73 – 61 = 66
where H Hour hand, M Minute hand
45. (4) The opposite pairs are – (2, 4), (1, 6) and (3, 5)
Therefore, option (4) is correct choice. 11
30 6 30 15
2
F 5 1 2
a= m/s 2 3 3
m 10 2 4 x– –5– 0
8 16
1 2 1 47. (2) Let the common difference = d.
Kinetic energy = mv = m (at )2 = 125 J
2 2 x1 + x7 + x10 = – 6
33. (3) Work done by F1W1 = F1S = 5 × 10 = 50 J x1 + x1 + 6d + x1+ 9d = – 6 .........(i)
1 and x1 + 2d + x1+ 7d + x1+ 11d = – 11 .........(ii)
Work done by F2W2 = F2S cos 60° = 4 × 10 × = 20J
2 (i) becomes 3x1 + 15d = – 6
Work done by friction, W3 = – mg s (ii) becomes 3x1 + 20d = – 11
= – 0.2 × 2 × 10 = – 40 J (i) – (ii) gives – 5d = 5 d=–1
Change in K.E. = Net work done From (i), 3x1 + 15(– 1) = – 6 x1 = 3
= W1 + W2 – W3 = 30 J Now, x3 + x8 + x22 = x1 + 2d + x1+ 7d + x1 + 21d
= 3x1 + 30d = 3(3) + 30(– 1) = – 21.
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 39
48. (3) In figure, AB represents the stick and BC is its shadow.
Therefore AB = 12 m and BC = 8m. P
A
2ccmm
44c c
mm
12m
4 1 4 56
(56) (16) h h 14 cm.
C 8m B 3 3 16
R 40m Q
Hence, the height of the cone is 14 cm.
Again PQ is tower and QR is its shadow. Therefore
QR = 40m 1 2 1 22 7 7
51. (2) Area of quadrant = r = = 9.63 cm2
Now, ABC ~ PQR 4 4 7 2 2
PQ AB PQ 12 1 1
PQ 60 m Area of AOD = OA OD = 3.5 2 3.5 cm2
QR BC 40 8 2 2
49. (1) Since OM BC, a chord of the circle. Area of shaded portion = 9.63 – 3.5 = 6.13 cm2
it bisects BC. 52. (4) We know that
1 1 tan 60° = 3 ; cosec 45° = 2
BM = CM = (BC) = (8) = 4 cm.
2 2
sec 45° = 2 ; sin 30° = 1/2
Since OM AD, a chord of the circle.
it bisects AD. tan2 60° cosec2 45° + sec2 45° sin 30°
2 2 1 1
1 1 = ( 3) ( 2) ( 2)2 3 2 2 6 1 7
AM = MD = AD = (12) = 6 cm. 2 2
2 2
53. (3) Let the aeroplanes are at point A and D respectively.
Now, AB = AM – BM = 6 – 4 = 2 cm. Aeroplane A is flying 600m above the ground.
CD = MD – MC = 6 – 4 = 2 cm
AC = AM + MC = 6 + 4 = 10 cm
BD = BM + MD = 4 + 6 = 10 cm.
8
50. (2) External radius of the hollow sphere = = 4 cm,
2
4
Internal radius of the hollow sphere = = 2 cm So, AB = 600.
2
ACB = 60º, DCB = 45º
Volume of the metal = Volume of external sphere AB 600
From ABC, = tan 60º BC = = 200 3
– Volume of internal sphere BC 3
4 4 4 4 DB
= (4)3 (2)3 = 43 – 23 = [64 – 8] From DCB, = tan 45° DB = 200 3 .
3 3 3 3 BC
4 So, the distance AD = AB – BD = 600 – 200 3
= (56) cm3
3 = 200 (3 – 3 ) = 200 (3 – 1.7321) = 253.58m.
8 54. (3) Since (x, y) is the mid-point of the line joining (3, 4) and
Radius of the cone = cm = 4 cm (p, 7).
2
3 p 4 7
x , y
Let h be the height of the cone. 2 2
1 2x = 3 + p, 2y = 11
Then volume of the cone = (4)2 h cm3
3 Since 2x + 2y + 1 = 0
Since the metal of the spherical shell is to be converted 3 + p + 11 + 1 = 0 p = – 15
into the conical solid, 56. (2) [ P(A) 0]
EBD_7396
40 Target NTSE (Class-10 Stage - 2)
57. (2) Let p(x) = 2x3 + mx2 + 3x – 5 and q(x) = x3 + x2 – 4x + m. 3 36
By remainder theorem, the remainders are p(2) and q(2) h 3m
36
But p(2) = q(2) (given) So required height will be 3 m.
2(2)3 + m(2)2 + 3(2) – 5 = (2)3 + (2)2 – 4(2) + m 62. (3) April theses was three demands made by Lenin on his
16 + 4m + 6 – 5 = 8 + 4 – 8 + m return from exile to Russia in April 1917.
17 + 4m = 4 + m 65. (2) Gandhiji organised his first satyagraha movement in
Champaran in 1916 to inspire peasants to struggle
3m = –13
13 against the oppressive plantation system.
m=– 70. (4) All the abbreviations are correctly matched with their
3
58. (4) Since l || m, then Full forms.
3y = 2y + 25° [Alternate s] 72. (3) When the British forced opium on the Chinese, they
3y – 2y = 25° consisted which is known as the opium war.
y = 25° ... (1) [Vertically opposite s] 76. (1) HYVs is a generic name for a group of genetically
Also x + 15° = 2y + 25° cultivars of crops such as rice, maize and wheat that
x + 15° = 2(25°) + 25° [using (1)] have an increased growth rate, and increased percentage
x + 15° = 50° + 25° of usable plant parts or an increased resistance against
x = 75° – 15° crop diseases.
x = 60° 77. (1) Mahatma Gandhi declared Vinoba Bhave as his spiritual
59. (2) We have
heir and after Gandhiji’s martyrdom, he undertook
A = 50°and B = 60°
A + B + C = 180° padyatra to spread Gandhiji’s message covered almost
[Angle sum property of a ] the entire country and insisted on cooperative farming.
50° + 60° + C = 180° 79. (3) Tea cultivation is an example of plantation farming.
110° + C =180° 80. (2) Public sector is owned and operated by government
C = 180° – 110° agencies. Joint sectors are jointly run by the state and
C = 70°
individuals Private sectors are owned and operated by
Since A and C are the smallest and largest angles,
therefore sides BC and AB are the smallest and largest individuals or a group of individuals. Cooperative sector
sides of the triangle. industries are owned by the produces or suppliers of
60. (1) Internal diameter of the pipe = 2 cm raw materials.
81. (3) Rajasthan, Goa, Jammu and Kashmir and South India
1
So its radius = 1cm = m are important tourist places.
100 84. (1) In column A, are the names of different kinds of sectors
Water that flows out through the pipe in 6 ms–1 and in column B are the one of the type of activity
So volume of water that flows out through the pipe in performed under each sector.
2 87. (2) Subsistence farming is a system of farming where the
1 farmer grows crops and keeps livestock for the needs
1 sec = × 6 m3
100 of his or her family. There is no surplus for sale.
In 30 minutes, volume of water flow 88. (4) The United Nations is a global association of nations
1 of the world. Everyone of the 194 member countries of
= 6 30 60 m3 the UN has one vote in the UN general assembly.
100 100
95. (2) The constitution includes the Freedom to assemble
This must be equal to the volume of water that rises in
the cylindrical tank after 30 min and height up to which peacefully and without areas. The remaining three
it rises say h. rights are included in the Right to Freedom.
96. (2) The prime minister of India as addressed to in the
60
Radius of tank = 60 cm m constitution of India, is the chief advisor to the
100
2 President of India, head of the council of ministers and
60
volume h leader of the majority party in parliament.
100
2 97. (2) According to the report, the countries with per capita
60 1 income of ` 37000 or less are called Low income
h 6 30 60
100 100 100 countries
60 60 6 30 60 100. (1) The judicial machinery under COPRA is describes as
h 3 tier quasi-judicial machinery. 3 tiers are at District
100 100 100 100
level, State level and at National level.