Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Ganong Compiled Questions
Ganong Compiled Questions
4. Which part of a neuron has the highest 4. The contractile response in skeletal muscle
concentration of Na+ channels per square millimeter A) starts after the action potential is over.
of cell membrane? B) does not last as long as the action potential.
A) dendrites C) produces more tension when the muscle contracts
B) cell body near dendrites isometrically than when the muscle contracts
C) initial segment isotonically.
D) axonal membrane under myelin D) produces more work when the muscle contracts
E) none of the above isometrically than when the muscle contracts
isotonically.
5. Which of the following statements about nerve E) decreases in magnitude with repeated
growth factor is not true? stimulation.
A) It is made up of three polypeptide subunits.
5. Gap junctions but the weakness begins soon after she becomes
A) are absent in cardiac muscle. active. The
B) are present but of little functional importance in weakness is improved by rest. Sensation appears
cardiac muscle. normal. The
C) are present and provide the pathway for rapid physician treats her with an anticholinesterase
spread of excitation from one cardiac muscle fiber to inhibitor, and she
another. notes immediate return of muscle strength. Her
D) are absent in smooth muscle. physician diagnoses
E) connect the sarcotubular system to individual her with
skeletal muscle cells. A) Lambert–Eaton syndrome.
SYNAPTIC AND JUNCTIONAL TRANSMISSION B) myasthenia gravis.
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS C) multiple sclerosis.
For all questions, select the single best answer unless D) Parkinson disease.
otherwise directed. E) muscular dystrophy.
1. Fast inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) NEUROTRANSMITTERS AND NEUROMODULATORS
A) are a consequence of decreased Cl– conductance. MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
B) occur in skeletal muscle. For all questions, select the single best answer unless
C) can be produced by an increase in Na+ otherwise directed.
conductance. 1. Which of the following is a ligand-gated ion
D) can be produced by an increase in Ca2+ channel?
conductance. A) VIP receptor
E) interact with other fast and slow potentials to B) norepinephrine receptor
move the C) GABAA receptor
membrane potential of the postsynaptic neuron D) GABAB receptor
toward or E) metabotropic glutamate receptor
away from the firing level.
2. Which of the following synaptic transmitters is not
2. Fast excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) a peptide,
A) are a consequence of decreased Cl– conductance. polypeptide, or protein?
B) occur in skeletal muscle. A) substance P
C) can be produced by an increase in Na+ B) met-enkephalin
conductance. C) β-endorphin
D) can be produced by a decrease in Ca2+ D) serotonin
conductance. E) dynorphin
E) all of the above
3. Activation of which of the following receptors
3. Initiation of an action potential in skeletal muscle would be
by stimulating expected to decrease anxiety?
its motor nerve A) nicotinic cholinergic receptors
A) requires spatial facilitation. B) glutamate receptors
B) requires temporal facilitation. C) GABAA receptors
C) is inhibited by a high concentration of Ca2+ at the D) glucocorticoid receptors
neuromuscular junction. E) α1-adrenergic receptors
D) requires the release of norepinephrine.
E) requires the release of acetylcholine. 4. Which of the following receptors is coupled to a
heterotrimeric G protein?
4. A 35-year-old woman sees her physician to report A) glycine receptor
muscle weakness B) GABAB receptor
in the extraocular eye muscles and muscles of the C) nicotinic acetylcholine receptor at myoneural
extremities. junction
She states that she feels fine when she gets up in the D) 5-HT3 receptor
morning, E) ANP receptor
5. Which of the following would not be expected to 5. Which of the following receptors and sense organs
enhance noradrenergic transmission? are
A) A drug that increases the entry of arginine into incorrectly
neurons. paired?
B) A drug that enhances tyrosine hydroxylase activity. A) rods and cones : eye
C) A drug that enhances dopamine β-hydroxylase B) receptors sensitive to sodium : taste buds
activity. C) hair cells : olfactory epithelium
D) A drug that inhibits monoamine oxidase. D) receptors sensitive to stretch : carotid sinus
E) A drug that inhibits norepinephrine reuptake. E) glomus cells : carotid body
PROPERTY OF SENSORY RECEPTORS
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 6. Which best describes the law of specific nerve
For all questions, select the single best answer unless energies?
otherwise directed. A) No matter where a particular sensory pathway is
1. Pacinian corpuscles are stimulated
A) a type of thermoreceptor. along its course to the cortex, the conscious
B) usually innervated by A nerve fibers. sensation produced
C) rapidly adapting touch receptors. is referred to the location of the receptor.
D) slowly adapting touch receptors. B) A nerve can only be stimulated by electrical
E) nociceptors. energy.
C) Receptors can respond to forms of energy other
2. Adaptation to a sensory stimulus produces than their
A) a diminished sensation when other types of adequate stimuli, but the threshold for these
sensory stimuli are withdrawn. nonspecific
B) a more intense sensation when a given stimulus is responses is much higher.
applied D) For any given sensory modality, the specific
repeatedly. relationship
C) a sensation localized to the hand when the nerves between sensation and stimulus intensity is
of the brachial plexus are stimulated. determined by
D) a diminished sensation when a given stimulus is the properties of the peripheral receptors.
applied repeatedly over time. E) The sensation evoked by impulses generated in a
E) a decreased firing rate in the sensory nerve from receptor
the receptor when one’s attention is directed to depends in part on the specific part of the brain they
another matter. ultimately
activate.
3. Sensory systems code for the following attributes
of a stimulus: 7. Which of the following does not contain cation
A) modality, location, intensity, and duration channels that are activated by mechanical distortion,
B) threshold, receptive field, adaptation, and producing depolarization?
discrimination A) olfactory receptors
C) touch, taste, hearing, and smell B) Pacinian corpuscles
D) threshold, laterality, sensation, and duration C) hair cells in cochlea
E) sensitization, discrimination, energy, and D) hair cells in semicircular canals
projection E) hair cells in utricle
REFLEXES
4. In which of the following is the frequency of MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
stimulation not linearly related to the strength of the For all questions, select the single best answer unless
sensation felt? otherwise directed.
A) sensory area of the cerebral cortex 1. The inverse stretch reflex
B) specific projection nuclei of the thalamus A) has a lower threshold than the stretch reflex.
C) lateral spinothalamic tract B) is a monosynaptic reflex.
D) dorsal horn C) is a disynaptic reflex with a single interneuron
E) cutaneous receptors inserted
between the afferent and efferent limbs.
D) is a polysynaptic reflex with many interneurons C) is poorly localized.
inserted between the afferent and efferent limbs. D) resembles "fast pain" produced by noxious
E) requires the discharge of central neurons that stimulation of the skin.
release acetylcholine. E) causes relaxation of nearby skeletal muscles.
6. Narcolepsy is triggered by abnormalities in the 5. Patients with transected spinal cords frequently
A) skeletal muscles. have a negative nitrogen balance because
B) medulla oblongata. A) they develop hypercalcemia, and this causes
C) hypothalamus. dissolution of the protein in bone.
D) olfactory bulb. B) they are paralyzed below the level of the
E) neocortex. transection.
CONTROL OF POSTURE AND MOVEMENT C) they lack the afferent input that normally
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS maintains growth hormone secretion.
For all questions, select the single best answer unless D) they have difficulty voiding, and this causes
otherwise directed. nitrogen to accumulate in the urine in the bladder.
1. A primary function of the basal ganglia is E) their corticotropin response to stress is reduced.
A) sensory integration.
B) short-term memory. 6. Which of the following diseases is not known to be
C) planning voluntary movement. caused by
D) neuroendocrine control. overexpression of a trinucleotide repeat?
E) slow-wave sleep. A) Alzheimer disease
HYPOTHALAMIC REGULATION OF HORMONAL FUNCTIONS
B) Fragile X syndrome MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
C) Spinocerebellar ataxia, type 3 For all questions, select the single best answer unless
D) Huntington disease otherwise directed.
E) Friedreich ataxia 1. Thirst is stimulated by
THE AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM A) increases in plasma osmolality and volume.
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS B) an increase in plasma osmolality and a decrease in
For all questions, select the single best answer unless plasma
otherwise directed. volume.
1. Which of the following drugs would not be C) a decrease in plasma osmolality and an increase in
expected to increase sympathetic discharge or mimic plasma
the effects of increased sympathetic volume.
discharge? D) decreases in plasma osmolality and volume.
A) Prazosin E) injection of vasopressin into the hypothalamus.
B) Neostigmine
C) Amphetamine 2. When an individual is naked in a room in which
D) Isoproterenol the air temperature is 21 °C (69.8 °F) and the
E) Methoxamine humidity 80%, the greatest amount of heat is lost
from the body by
2. Sympathetic nerve activity A) elevated metabolism.
A) is essential for survival. B) respiration.
B) causes contraction of some smooth muscles and C) urination.
relaxation D) vaporization of sweat.
of others. E) radiation and conduction.
C) causes relaxation of the radial muscle of the eye
to dilate the In questions 3–8, select A if the item is associated
pupil. with (a) below, B if the item is associated with (b)
D) relaxes smooth muscle of the gastrointestinal wall below, C if the item is associated with both (a) and
and gastrointestinal (b), and D if the item is associated with neither (a)
sphincter. nor (b).
E) all of the above
(a) V1A vasopressin receptors
3. Parasympathetic nerve activity (b) V2 vasopressin receptors
A) is essential for survival.
B) affects only smooth muscles and glands. B 3. Activation of Gs
C) causes contraction of the radial muscle of the eye
to allow A 4. Vasoconstriction
accommodation for near vision.
D) contracts smooth muscle of the gastrointestinal A 5. Increase in intracellular inositol triphosphate
wall and
relaxes the gastrointestinal sphincter. B 6. Movement of aquaporin
E) all of the above
D 7. Proteinuria
4. Which of the following is correctly paired?
A) sinoatrial node : nicotinic cholinergic receptors D 8. Milk ejection
B) autonomic ganglia : muscarinic cholinergic LEARNING, MEMORY, LANGUAGE, SPEECH
receptors MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
C) pilomotor smooth muscle : β2-adrenergic For all questions, select the single best answer unless
receptors otherwise directed.
D) vasculature of some skeletal muscles : muscarinic 1. The representational hemisphere
cholinergic A) is the right cerebral hemisphere in most right-
receptors handed
E) sweat glands : α2-adrenergic receptors individuals.
B) is the left cerebral hemisphere in most left-handed D) understanding spoken words.
individuals. E) mathematical calculations.
C) includes the part of the brain concerned with
language functions. 6. A lesion of Wernicke’s area (the posterior end of
D) is the site of lesions in most patients with aphasia. the superior temporal gyrus) in the categorical
E) is morphologically identical to the opposite hemisphere causes patients to
nonrepresentational hemisphere. A) lose short-term memory.
B) speak in a slow, halting voice.
2. The optic chiasm and corpus callosum are C) experience deja vu.
sectioned in a dog, and with the right eye covered, D) talk rapidly but make little sense.
the animal is trained to bark when it sees a red E) lose the ability to recognize faces.
square. The right eye is then uncovered and
the left eye covered. The animal will now 7. Which of the following is most likely not to be
A) fail to respond to the red square because the involved in production of LTP?
square does not produce impulses that reach the A) NO
right occipital cortex. B) Ca2+
B) fail to respond to the red square because the C) NMDA receptors
animal has bitemporal hemianopia. D) membrane hyperpolarization
C) fail to respond to the red square if the posterior E) membrane depolarization
commissure is also sectioned. THE THYROID GLAND
D) respond to the red square only after retraining. MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
E) respond promptly to the red square in spite of the For all questions, select the single best answer unless
lack of input to the left occipital cortex. otherwise directed.
1. In which of the following conditions is it most
3. The effects of bilateral loss of hippocampal likely that the TSH response to TRH will be reduced?
function include A) hypothyroidism due to tissue resistance to thyroid
A) disappearance of remote memories. hormone
B) loss of working memory. B) hypothyroidism due to disease destroying the
C) loss of the ability to encode events of the recent thyroid gland
past in long term memory. C) hyperthyroidism due to circulating antithyroid
D) loss of the ability to recall faces and forms but not antibodies with TSH activity
the ability to recall printed or spoken words. D) hyperthyroidism due to diffuse hyperplasia of
E) production of inappropriate emotional responses thyrotropes of the anterior pituitary
when recalling events of the recent past. E) iodine deficiency
4. Which of the following are incorrectly paired? 2. A young woman has puffy skin and a hoarse voice.
A) lesion of the parietal lobe of the representational Her plasma TSH concentration is low but increases
hemisphere: unilateral inattention and neglect markedly when she is given TRH. She probably has
B) loss of cholinergic neurons in the nucleus basalis A) hyperthyroidism due to a thyroid tumor.
of Meynert and related areas of the forebrain : loss B) hypothyroidism due to a primary abnormality in
of recent memory the thyroid gland.
C) lesions of mamillary bodies : loss of recent C) hypothyroidism due to a primary abnormality in
memory the pituitary gland.
D) lesion of the angular gyrus in the categorical D) hypothyroidism due to a primary abnormality in
hemisphere : nonfluent aphasia the hypothalamus.
E) lesion of Broca’s area in the categorical E) hyperthyroidism due to a primary abnormality in
hemisphere : slow Speech the hypothalamus.
5. The representational hemisphere is better than 3. The enzyme primarily responsible for the
the categorical hemisphere at conversion of T4 to T3 in the periphery is
A) language functions. A) D1 thyroid deiodinase.
B) recognition of objects by their form. B) D2 thyroid deiodinase.
C) understanding printed words. C) D3 thyroid deiodinase.
D) thyroid peroxidase. For all questions, select the single best answer unless
E) none of the above otherwise directed.
1. Which of the following are incorrectly paired?
4. The metabolic rate is least affected by an increase A) B cells : insulin
in the plasma level of B) D cells : somatostatin
A) TSH. C) A cells : glucagon
B) TRH. D) pancreatic exocrine cells : chymotrypsinogen
C) TBG. E) F cells : gastrin
D) free T4.
E) free T3. 2. Which of the following are incorrectly paired?
A) epinephrine : increased glycogenolysis in skeletal
5. Which of the following is not essential for normal muscle
biosynthesis of thyroid hormones? B) insulin : increased protein synthesis
A) iodine C) glucagon : increased gluconeogenesis
B) ferritin D) progesterone : increased plasma glucose level
C) thyroglobulin E) growth hormone : increased plasma glucose level
D) protein synthesis
E) TSH 3. Which of the following would be least likely to be
seen 14 days after a rat is injected with a drug that
6. Which of the following would be least affected by kills all of its pancreatic B cells?
injections of TSH? A) a rise in the plasma H+ concentration
A) thyroidal uptake of iodine B) a rise in the plasma glucagon concentration
B) synthesis of thyroglobulin C) a fall in the plasma HCO3+ concentration
C) cyclic adenosine monophosphate (AMP) in thyroid D) a fall in the plasma amino acid concentration
cells E) a rise in plasma osmolality
D) cyclic guanosine monophosphate (GMP) in thyroid
cells 4. When the plasma glucose concentration falls to
E) size of the thyroid low levels, a number of different hormones help
combat the hypoglycemia. After intravenous
7. Hypothyroidism due to disease of the thyroid administration of a large dose of insulin, the return
gland is associated with increased plasma levels of of a low blood sugar level to normal is delayed in
A) cholesterol. A) adrenal medullary insufficiency.
B) albumin. B) glucagon deficiency.
C) RT3. C) combined adrenal medullary insufficiency and
D) iodide. glucagon deficiency.
E) TBG. D) thyrotoxicosis.
E) acromegaly.
8. Thyroid hormone receptors bind to DNA in which
of the following forms? 5. Insulin increases the entry of glucose into
A) a heterodimer with the prolactin receptor A) all tissues.
B) a heterodimer with the growth hormone receptor B) renal tubular cells.
C) a heterodimer with the retinoid X receptor C) the mucosa of the small intestine.
D) a heterodimer with the insulin receptor D) most neurons in the cerebral cortex.
E) a heterodimer with the progesterone receptor E) skeletal muscle.
9. Increasing intracellular I– due to the action of NIS 6. Glucagon increases glycogenolysis in liver cells but
is an example of ACTH does not because
A) endocytosis. A) cortisol increases the plasma glucose level.
B) passive diffusion. B) liver cells have an adenylyl cyclase different from
C) Na+ and K+ cotransport. that in adrenocortical cells.
D) primary active transport. C) ACTH cannot enter the nucleus of liver cells.
E) secondary active transport. D) the membranes of liver cells contain receptors
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS different from those in adrenocortical cells.
ENDOCRINE FUNCTIONS OF THE PANCREAS
REGULATION OF CARBOHYDRATE METABOLISM
E) liver cells contain a protein that inhibits the action 5. Mole for mole, which of the following has the
of ACTH. greatest effect on plasma osmolality?
A) progesterone
7. A meal rich in proteins containing the amino acids B) cortisol
that stimulate insulin secretion but low in C) vasopressin
carbohydrates does not cause hypoglycemia because D) aldosterone
A) the meal causes a compensatory increase in T4 E) dehydroepiandrosterone
secretion.
B) cortisol in the circulation prevents glucose from 6. The secretion of which of the following would be
entering muscle. least affected by a decrease in extracellular fluid
C) glucagon secretion is also stimulated by the meal. volume?
D) the amino acids in the meal are promptly A) CRH
converted to glucose. B) arginine vasopressin
E) insulin does not bind to insulin receptors if the C) dehydroepiandrosterone
plasma concentration of amino acids is elevated. D) estrogens
ADRENAL MEDULLA AND CORTEX E) aldosterone
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
For all questions, select the single best answer unless 7. A young man presents with a blood pressure of
otherwise directed. 175/110 mm Hg. He is found to have a high
1. Which of the following is produced only by large circulating aldosterone but a low circulating
amounts of glucocorticoids? cortisol. Glucocorticoid treatment lowers his
A) normal responsiveness of fat depots to circulating aldosterone and lowers his blood pressure
norepinephrine to 140/85 mm Hg. He probably has an abnormal
B) maintenance of normal vascular reactivity A) 17-hydroxylase.
C) increased excretion of a water load B) 21-hydroxylase.
D) inhibition of the inflammatory response C) 3-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase.
E) inhibition of ACTH secretion D) aldosterone synthase.
E) cholesterol desmolase.
2. Which of the following are incorrectly paired?
A) gluconeogenesis : cortisol 8. A 32-year-old woman presents with a blood
B) free fatty acid mobilization : pressure of 155/96 mm Hg. In response to
dehydroepiandrosterone questioning, she admits that she loves licorice
C) muscle glycogenolysis : epinephrine and eats some at least three times a week. She
D) kaliuresis : aldosterone probably has a low level of
E) hepatic glycogenesis : insulin A) type 2 11-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase activity.
B) ACTH.
3. Which of the following hormones has the shortest C) 11-hydroxylase activity.
plasma halflife? D) glucuronyl transferase.
A) corticosterone E) norepinephrine.
B) renin
C) dehydroepiandrosterone 9. In its action in cells, aldosterone
D) aldosterone A) increases transport of ENaCs from the cytoplasm
E) norepinephrine to the cell membrane.
B) does not act on the cell membrane.
4. Mole for mole, which of the following has the C) binds to a receptor in the nucleus.
greatest effect on Na+ excretion? D) may activate a heat shock protein.
A) progesterone E) also binds to glucocorticoid receptors.
B) cortisol
C) vasopressin HORMONAL CONTROL OF PHOSPHATE & CALCIUM METABOLISM, PHYSIOLOGY OF BONE
D) aldosterone MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
E) dehydroepiandrosterone For all questions, select the single best answer unless
otherwise directed.
1. A patient with parathyroid deficiency 10 days after 6. In osteopetrosis, which of the following is
inadvertent damage to the parathyroid glands during defective?
thyroid surgery would probably have A) phosphate deposition in trabecular bone
A) low plasma phosphate and Ca2+ levels and tetany. B) structure of parathyroid hormone related protein
B) low plasma phosphate and Ca2+ levels and (PTHrP)
tetanus. C) osteoblasts
C) a low plasma Ca2+ level, increased muscular D) osteoclasts
excitability, and a characteristic spasm of the muscles E) bone collagen
of the upper extremity (Trousseau sign).
D) high plasma phosphate and Ca2+ levels and bone 7. At epiphysial closure
demineralization. A) cortical bone and trabecular bone merge.
E) increased muscular excitability, a high plasma B) osteoclasts and osteoblasts undergo
Ca2+ level, and bone demineralization. differentiation.
C) there is an extended amount of proliferating
2. A high plasma Ca2+ level causes cartilage that contributes to bone elongation.
A) bone demineralization. D) lacunae meet the trabecular bone.
B) increased formation of 1,25- E) ephyses unite with the shaft to end normal linear
dihydroxycholecalciferol. bone growth.
C) decreased secretion of calcitonin. THE PITUITARY GLAND
3. A decrease in which of the following would be 3. Gastric pressures seldom rise above the levels that
expected in a child exhibiting a congenital absence of breach the lower esophageal sphincter, even when
enterokinase? the stomach is filled with a meal, due to which of the
A) incidence of pancreatitis following processes?
B) glucose absorption A) peristalsis
C) bile acid reabsorption B) gastroileal reflex
D) gastric pH C) segmentation
E) protein assimilation D) stimulation of the vomiting center
E) receptive relaxation
D) detoxification of drugs
4. The migrating motor complex is triggered by which E) glycogen synthesis
of the following? ELECTRICAL ACTIVITY OF HEART
2. After complete hepatectomy, a rise would be 4. Currents caused by opening of which of the
expected in the blood level of following channels contribute to the repolarization
A) glucose. phase of the action potential of ventricular muscle
B) fibrinogen. fibers?
C) 25-hydroxycholecalciferol. A) Na+ channels
D) conjugated bilirubin. B) Cl– channels
E) estrogens. C) Ca2+ channels
D) K+ channels
3. Which of the following cell types protects against E) HCO3- channels
sepsis secondary to translocation of intestinal
bacteria? 5. In complete heart block
A) hepatic stellate cell A) fainting may occur because the atria are unable to
B) cholangiocyte pump blood into the ventricles.
C) Kupffer cell B) ventricular fibrillation is common.
D) hepatocyte C) the atrial rate is lower than the ventricular rate.
E) gallbladder epithelial cell D) fainting may occur because of prolonged periods
during which the ventricles fail to contract.
4. P450s (CYPs) are found in many parts of the body. THE HEART AS PUMP
In which of the following do they not play an MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
important role? For all questions, select the single best answer unless
A) bile acid formation otherwise directed.
B) carcinogenesis 1. The second heart sound is caused by
C) steroid hormone formation A) closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves.
B) vibrations in the ventricular wall during systole. 1. Which of the following has the highest total cross-
C) ventricular filling. sectional area
D) closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves. in the body?
E) retrograde flow in the vena cava. A) arteries
B) arterioles
2. The fourth heart sound is caused by C) capillaries
A) closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves. D) venules
B) vibrations in the ventricular wall during systole. E) veins
C) ventricular filling.
D) closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves. 2. Lymph flow from the foot is
E) retrograde flow in the vena cava. A) increased when an individual rises from the
supine to the
3. The dicrotic notch on the aortic pressure curve is standing position.
caused by B) increased by massaging the foot.
A) closure of the mitral valve. C) increased when capillary permeability is
B) closure of the tricuspid valve. decreased.
C) closure of the aortic valve. D) decreased when the valves of the leg veins are
D) closure of the pulmonary valve. incompetent.
E) rapid filling of the left ventricle. E) decreased by exercise.
4. During exercise, a man consumes 1.8 L of oxygen 3. The pressure in a capillary in skeletal muscle is 35
per minute. His arterial O2 content is 190 mL/L, and mm Hg at the arteriolar end and 14 mm Hg at the
the O2 content of his mixed venous blood is 134 venular end. The interstitial pressure is 0 mm Hg. The
mL/L. His cardiac output is approximately colloid osmotic pressure is 25 mm Hg in the capillary
A) 3.2 L/min. and 1 mm Hg in the interstitium. The net force
B) 16 L/min. producing fluid movement across the capillary wall
C) 32 L/min. at its arteriolar end is
D) 54 L/min. A) 3 mm Hg out of the capillary.
E) 160 mL/min. B) 3 mm Hg into the capillary.
C) 10 mm Hg out of the capillary.
5. The work performed by the left ventricle is D) 11 mm Hg out of the capillary.
substantially greater than that performed by the E) 11 mm Hg into the capillary.
right ventricle, because in the left ventricle
A) the contraction is slower. 4. The velocity of blood flow
B) the wall is thicker. A) is higher in the capillaries than the arterioles.
C) the stroke volume is greater. B) is higher in the veins than in the venules.
D) the preload is greater. C) is higher in the veins than the arteries.
E) the afterload is greater. D) falls to zero in the descending aorta during
diastole.
6. Starling’s law of the heart E) is reduced in a constricted area of a blood vessel.
A) does not operate in the failing heart.
B) does not operate during exercise. 5. When the radius of the resistance vessels is
C) explains the increase in heart rate produced by increased, which of the following is increased?
exercise. A) systolic blood pressure
D) explains the increase in cardiac output that occurs B) diastolic blood pressure
when C) viscosity of the blood
venous return is increased. D) hematocrit
E) explains the increase in cardiac output when the E) capillary blood flow
sympathetic nerves supplying the heart are stimulate
BLOOD AND LYMPH FLOW 6. When the viscosity of the blood is increased,
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS which of the following is increased?
For all questions, select the single best answer unless A) mean blood pressure
otherwise directed. B) radius of the resistance vessels
C) radius of the capacitance vessels B) More bradykinin is generated.
D) central venous pressure C) The damage lowers the pH of the remaining layers
E) capillary blood flow of the artery.
D) The damage augments the production of
7. A pharmacologist discovers a drug that stimulates endothelin by the endothelium.
the production of VEGF receptors. He is excited E) The damage interferes with the production of NO
because his drug might be of value in the treatment by the endothelium.
of CIRCULATION THROUGH SPECIAL REGIONS
A) coronary artery disease. MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
B) cancer. For all questions, select the single best answer unless
C) emphysema. otherwise directed.
D) diabetes insipidus. 1. Blood in which of the following vessels normally
E) dysmenorrhea. has the lowest PO2?
CV REGULATORY MECHANISMS A) maternal artery
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS B) maternal uterine vein
For all questions, select the single best answer unless C) maternal femoral vein
otherwise directed. D) umbilical artery
1. When a pheochromocytoma (tumor of the adrenal E) umbilical vein
medulla) suddenly discharges a large amount of
epinephrine into the circulation, the patient’s heart 2. The pressure differential between the heart and
rate would be expected to the aorta is least in the
A) increase, because the increase in blood pressure A) left ventricle during systole.
stimulates the carotid and aortic baroreceptors. B) left ventricle during diastole.
B) increase, because epinephrine has a direct C) right ventricle during systole.
chronotropic effect on the heart. D) right ventricle during diastole.
C) increase, because of increased tonic E) left atrium during systole.
parasympathetic discharge to the heart.
D) decrease, because the increase in blood pressure 3. Injection of tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)
stimulates the carotid and aortic chemoreceptors. would probably be most beneficial
E) decrease, because of increased tonic A) after at least 1 y of uncomplicated recovery
parasympathetic discharge to the heart. following occlusion of a coronary artery.
B) after at least 2 mo of rest and recuperation
2. Activation of the baroreceptor reflex following occlusion of a coronary artery.
A) is primarily involved in short-term regulation of C) during the second week after occlusion of a
systemic blood pressure. coronary artery.
B) leads to an increase in heart rate because of D) during the second day after occlusion of a
inhibition of the vagal cardiac motor neurons. coronary artery.
C) inhibits neurons in the CVLM. E) during the second hour after occlusion of a
D) excites neurons in the RVLM. coronary artery.
E) all of the above
4. Which of the following organs has the greatest
3. Sympathetic nerve activity would be expected to blood flow per 100 g of tissue?
increase A) brain
A) if glutamate receptors were blocked in the NTS. B) heart muscle
B) if GABA receptors were blocked in the RVLM. C) skin
C) if there was a compression of the RVLM. D) liver
D) during hypoxia. E) kidneys
E) for all of the above.
5. Which of the following does not dilate arterioles in
4. Why is the dilator response to injected the skin?
acetylcholine changed to a constrictor response A) increased body temperature
when the endothelium is damaged? B) epinephrine
A) More Na+ is generated. C) bradykinin
D) substance P D) facilitated diffusion
E) vasopressin E) passive diffusion
6. A baby boy is brought to the hospital because of 5. Which of the following causes relaxation of
convulsions. In the course of a workup, his body bronchial smooth muscle?
temperature and plasma glucose are found to be A) leukotrienes
normal, but his cerebrospinal fluid glucose is 12 B) vasoactive intestinal polypeptide
mg/dL (normal, 65 mg/dL). A possible explanation of C) acetylcholine
his condition is D) cool air
A) constitutive activation of GLUT 3 in neurons. E) sulfur dioxide
B) SGLT 1 deficiency in astrocytes.
C) GLUT 5 deficiency in cerebral capillaries. 6. Airway resistance
D) GLUT 1 55K deficiency in cerebral capillaries. A) is increased if the lungs are removed and inflated
E) GLUT 1 45K deficiency in microglia. with saline.
PULMONARY FUNCTION B) does not affect the work of breathing.
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS C) is increased in paraplegic patients.
For all questions, select the single best answer unless D) is increased in asthma.
otherwise directed. E) makes up 80% of the work of breathing.
1. On the summit of Mt. Everest, where the
barometric pressure is about 250 mm Hg, the partial 7. Surfactant lining the alveoli
pressure of O2 is about A) helps prevent alveolar collapse.
A) 0.1 mm Hg. B) is produced in alveolar type I cells and secreted
B) 0.5 mm Hg. into the alveolus.
C) 5 mm Hg. C) is increased in the lungs of heavy smokers.
D) 50 mm Hg. D) is a glycolipid complex.
E) 100 mm Hg. GAS TRANSPORT AND PH IN LUNG
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
2. The forced vital capacity is For all questions, select the single best answer unless
A) the amount of air that normally moves into (or otherwise directed.
out of) the lung with each respiration. 1. Most of the CO2 transported in the blood is
B) the amount of air that enters the lung but does A) dissolved in plasma.
not participate in gas exchange. B) in carbamino compounds formed from plasma
C) the largest amount of air expired after maximal proteins.
expiratory effort. C) in carbamino compounds formed from
D) the largest amount of gas that can be moved into hemoglobin.
and out of the lungs in 1 min. D) bound to Cl–.
E) in HCO3–.
3. The tidal volume is
A) the amount of air that normally moves into (or 2. Which of the following has the greatest effect on
out of) the lung with each respiration. the ability of blood to transport oxygen?
B) the amount of air that enters the lung but does A) capacity of the blood to dissolve oxygen
not participate in gas exchange. B) amount of hemoglobin in the blood
C) the largest amount of air expired after maximal C) pH of plasma
expiratory effort. D) CO2 content of red blood cells
D) the largest amount of gas that can be moved into E) temperature of the blood
and out of the lungs in 1 min.
3. Which of the following is not true of the system?
4. Which of the following is responsible for the CO2 + H2O ←→1 H2CO3 ←→2 H+ + HCO3
movement of O2 from the alveoli into the blood in –
the pulmonary capillaries? A) Reaction 1 is catalyzed by carbonic anhydrase.
A) active transport B) Because of reaction 2, the pH of blood declines
B) filtration during
C) secondary active transport breath holding.
C) Reaction 1 occurs in the kidneys.
D) Reaction 1 occurs primarily in plasma. 3. Spontaneous respiration ceases after
E) The reactions move to the left when there is A) transection of the brain stem above the pons.
excess H+ in the tissues. B) transection of the brain stem at the caudal end of
the medulla.
4. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis differs from C) bilateral vagotomy.
uncompensated metabolic acidosis in that D) bilateral vagotomy combined with transection of
A) plasma pH change is always greater in the brain stem at the superior border of the pons.
uncompensated respiratory acidosis compared to E) transection of the spinal cord at the level of the
uncompensated metabolic acidosis. first thoracic segment.
B) there are no compensation mechanisms for
respiratory acidosis, whereas there is respiratory 4. The following physiologic events that occur in vivo
compensation for metabolic acidosis. are listed in random order: (1) decreased CSF pH; (2)
C) uncompensated respiratory acidosis involves increased arterial PCO2; (3) increased CSF PCO2; (4)
changes in plasma [HCO3–], whereas plasma stimulation of medullary chemoreceptors; (5)
[HCO3–] is unchanged inuncompensated metabolic increased alveolar PCO2. What is the usual sequence
acidosis. in which they occur when they affect respiration?
D) uncompensated respiratory acidosis is associated A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
with a change in PCO2, whereas uncompensated B) 4, 1, 3, 2, 5
metabolic acidosis occurs along the isobar line for C) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
PCO2. D) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
E) 5, 3, 2, 4, 1
5. O2 delivery to the tissues would be reduced to the
greatest extent in 5. The following events that occur in the carotid
A) a normal subject breathing 100% O2 on top of Mt. bodies when they are exposed to hypoxia are listed
Everest. in random order: (1) depolarization of type I glomus
B) a normal subject running a marathon at sea level. cells; (2) excitation of afferent nerve endings; (3)
C) a patient with carbon monoxide poisoning. reduced conductance of hypoxia-sensitive K+
D) a patient who has ingested cyanide. channels in type I glomus cells; (4) Ca2+ entry into
E) a patient with moderately severe metabolic type I glomus cells; (5) decreased K+ efflux. What is
acidosis the usual sequence in which they occur on exposure
REGULATION OF RESPIRATION to hypoxia?
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS A) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
For all questions, select the single best answer unless B) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3
otherwise directed. C) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
1. The main respiratory control neurons D) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
A) send out regular bursts of impulses to expiratory E) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
muscles during quiet respiration.
B) are unaffected by stimulation of pain receptors. 6. Stimulation of the central (proximal) end of a cut
C) are located in the pons. vagus nerve would be expected to
D) send out regular bursts of impulses to inspiratory A) increase heart rate.
muscles during quiet respiration. B) stimulate inspiration.
E) are unaffected by impulses from the cerebral C) inhibit coughing.
cortex. D) raise blood pressure.
E) cause apnea.
2. Intravenous lactic acid increases ventilation. The
receptors responsible for this effect are located in 7. Injection of a drug that stimulates the carotid
the bodies would be expected to cause
A) medulla oblongata. A) a decrease in the pH of arterial blood.
B) carotid bodies. B) a decrease in the PCO2 of arterial blood.
C) lung parenchyma. C) an increase in the HCO3– concentration of arterial
D) aortic baroreceptors. blood.
E) trachea and large bronchi. D) an increase in urinary Na+ excretion.
E) an increase in plasma Cl–. B) proximal tubule
C) thin portion of the loop of Henle
8. Variations in which of the following components of D) thick portion of the loop of Henle
blood or CSF do not affect respiration? E) cortical collecting duct
A) arterial HCO3– concentration
B) arterial H+ concentration 6. What is the clearance of a substance when its
C) arterial Na+ concentration concentration in the plasma is 10 mg/dL, its
D) CSF CO2 concentration concentration in the urine is 100 mg/ dL, and urine
E) CSF H+ concentration flow is 2 mL/min?
RENAL FUNCTION AND MICTURITION A) 2 mL/min
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS B) 10 mL/min
For all questions, select the single best answer unless C) 20 mL/min
otherwise directed. D) 200 mL/min
1. In the presence of vasopressin, the greatest E) Clearance cannot be determined from the
fraction of filtered water is absorbed in the information given.
A) proximal tubule.
B) loop of Henle. 7. As urine flow increases during osmotic diuresis
C) distal tubule. A) the osmolality of urine falls below that of plasma.
D) cortical collecting duct. B) the osmolality of urine increases because of the
E) medullary collecting duct. increased amounts of nonreabsorbable solute in the
urine.
2. In the absence of vasopressin, the greatest C) the osmolality of urine approaches that of plasma
fraction of filtered water is absorbed in the because plasma leaks into the tubules.
A) proximal tubule. D) the osmolality of urine approaches that of plasma
B) loop of Henle. because an increasingly large fraction of the excreted
C) distal tubule. urine is isotonic proximal tubular fluid.
D) cortical collecting duct. E) the action of vasopressin on the renal tubules is
E) medullary collecting duct. inhibited
REGULATION OF ECF VOLUME AND COMPOSITION