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Urinary System Disorders Practice Quiz #1 (50 Questions)
Urinary System Disorders Practice Quiz #1 (50 Questions)
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This is a 50-item NCLEX style exam that has questions about the diseases affecting the
Renal System. Challenging questions such as Chronic Renal Failure, Kidney Transplant,
and Renal Calculi are given in this test.
EXAM TIP: When choosing which patient to see first, choose the patient who is the most
unstable. Patient’s who are most likely to perish, most critical, or will suffer further injury
without immediate action should be prioritized first.
Topics
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Acute Glomerulonephritis
Chronic Renal Failure
Diabetic Nephropathy
Kidney Transplant
Neurogenic Bladder
Peritoneal Dialysis
Prostatectomy
Pyelonephritis
Renal Calculi
Urinary Tract Infection
Guidelines
Follow the guidelines below to make the most out of this exam:
Questions
EXAM MODE
PRACTICE MODE
TEXT MODE
In Text Mode: All questions and answers are given for reading and answering at your own
pace. You can also copy this exam and make a print out.
1. Which of the following symptoms do you expect to see in a patient diagnosed with
acute pyelonephritis?
2. You have a patient that might have a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which statement
by the patient suggests that a UTI is likely?
1. “I pee a lot.”
2. “It burns when I pee.”
3. “I go hours without the urge to pee.”
4. “My pee smells sweet.”
3. Which instructions do you include in the teaching care plan for a patient
with cystitis receiving phenazopyridine (Pyridium).
1. If the urine turns orange-red, call the doctor.
2. Take phenazopyridine just before urination to relieve pain.
3. Once painful urination is relieved, discontinue prescribed antibiotics.
4. After painful urination is relieved, stop taking phenazopyridine.
4. Which patient is at greatest risk for developing a urinary tract infection (UTI)?
5. You have a patient that is receiving peritoneal dialysis. What should you do when
you notice the return fluid is slowly draining?
6. What is the appropriate infusion time for the dialysate in your 38 y.o. patient with
chronic renal failure?
1. 15 minutes
2. 30 minutes
3. 1 hour
4. 2 to 3 hours
8. Your patient becomes restless and tells you she has a headache and feels
nauseous during hemodialysis. Which complication do you suspect?
1. Infection
2. Disequilibrium syndrome
3. Air embolus
4. Acute hemolysis
10. Your patient with chronic renal failure reports pruritus. Which instruction should
you include in this patient’s teaching plan?
11. Which intervention do you plan to include with a patient who has renal calculi?
12. An 18 y.o. student is admitted with dark urine, fever, and flank pain and is
diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. Which would most likely be in this
student’s health history?
1. Renal calculi
2. Renal trauma
3. Recent sore throat
4. Family history of acute glomerulonephritis
13. Which drug is indicated for pain related to acute renal calculi?
1. Narcotic analgesics
2. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS)
3. Muscle relaxants
4. Salicylates
14. Which of the following causes the majority of UTI’s in hospitalized patients?
1. 200ml
2. 400ml
3. 800ml
4. 1000ml
1. Sodium retention
2. Elevated BUN level
3. Development of metabolic acidosis
4. Inability to dilute or concentrate urine
1. Overflow
2. Reflex
3. Stress
4. Urge
1. Pneumonia
2. Hemorrhage
3. Urine retention
4. Deep vein thrombosis
21. A 22 y.o. patient with diabetic nephropathy says, “I have two kidneys and I’m still
young. If I stick to my insulinschedule, I don’t have to worry about kidney damage,
right?” Which of the following statements is the best response?
1. “You have little to worry about as long as your kidneys keep making urine.”
2. “You should talk to your doctor because statistics show that you’re being unrealistic.”
3. “You would be correct if your diabetes could be managed with insulin.”
4. “Even with insulin, kidney damage is still a concern.”
22. A patient diagnosed with sepsis from a UTI is being discharged. What do you plan
to include in her discharge teaching?
23. You’re planning your medicationteaching for your patient with a UTI prescribed
phenazopyridine (Pyridium). What do you include?
24. Which finding leads you to suspect acute glomerulonephritis in your 32 y.o.
patient?
1. Dysuria, frequency, and urgency
2. Back pain, nausea, and vomiting
3. Hypertension, oliguria, and fatigue
4. Fever, chills, and right upper quadrant pain radiating to the back
25. What is the priority nursing diagnosiswith your patient diagnosed with end-stage
renal disease?
1. Activity intolerance
2. Fluid volume excess
3. Knowledge deficit
4. Pain
26. A patient with ESRD has an arteriovenous fistula in the left arm for hemodialysis.
Which intervention do you include in his plan of care?
27. Your 60 y.o. patient with pyelonephritis and possible septicemia has had five UTIs
over the past two years. She is fatigued from lack of sleep, has lost weight, and
urinates frequently even in the night. Her labs show: sodium, 154 mEq/L; osmolarity
340 mOsm/L; glucose, 127 mg/dl; and potassium, 3.9 mEq/L. Which nursing
diagnosis is priority?
29. Your patient had surgery to form an arteriovenous fistula for hemodialysis. Which
information is important for providing care for the patient?
30. A patient with diabetes mellitus and renal failure begins hemodialysis. Which diet
is best on days between dialysis treatments?
1. Disequilibrium syndrome
2. Respiratory distress
3. Hypervolemia
4. Peritonitis
32. Which action is most important during bladder training in a patient with a
neurogenic bladder?
33. A patient with diabetes has had many renal calculi over the past 20 years and now
has chronic renal failure. Which substance must be reduced in this patient’s diet?
1. Carbohydrates
2. Fats
3. Protein
4. Vitamin C
34. What is the best way to check for patency of the arteriovenous fistula for
hemodialysis?
35. You have a paraplegic patient with renal calculi. Which factor contributes to the
development of calculi?
37. Frequent PVCs are noted on the cardiac monitor of a patient with end-stage renal
disease. The priority intervention is:
38. A patient who received a kidney transplant returns for a follow-up visit to the
outpatient clinic and reports a lump in her breast. Transplant recipients are:
39. You’re developing a care plan with the nursing diagnosis risk for infection for
your patient that received a kidney transplant. A goal for this patient is to:
41. Your patient returns from the operating room after abdominal aortic
aneurysm repair. Which symptom is a sign of acute renal failure?
1. Anuria
2. Diarrhea
3. Oliguria
4. Vomiting
42. Which cause of hypertension is the most common in acute renal failure?
1. Pulmonary edema
2. Hypervolemia
3. Hypovolemia
4. Anemia
43. A patient returns from surgery with an indwelling urinary catheter in place and
empty. Six hours later, the volume is 120ml. The drainage system has no
obstructions. Which intervention has priority?
46. Which statement correctly distinguishes renal failure from prerenal failure?
1. With prerenal failure, vasoactive substances such as dopamine (Intropin) increase blood
pressure
2. With prerenal failure, there is less response to such diuretics as furosemide (Lasix)
3. With prerenal failure, an IV isotonic saline infusion increases urine output
4. With prerenal failure, hemodialysis reduces the BUN level
47. Which criterion is required before a patient can be considered for continuous
peritoneal dialysis?
49. Your patient has complaints of severe right-sided flank pain, nausea, vomiting
and restlessness. He appears slightly pale and is diaphoretic. Vital signs are BP
140/90 mmHg, Pulse 118 beats/min., respirations 33 breaths/minute, and temperature,
98.0F. Which subjective data supports a diagnosis of renal calculi?
1. For life
2. 24 hours after transplantation
3. A week after transplantation
4. Until the kidney is not anymore rejected
Costovertebral angle tenderness, flank pain, and chills are symptoms of acute
pyelonephritis.
A common symptom of a UTI is dysuria. A patient with a UTI often reports frequent voiding
of small amounts and the urgency to void.
Option D: Urine that smells sweet is often associated with diabetic ketoacidosis.
Pyridium is taken to relieve dysuria because is provides an analgesic and anesthetic effect
on the urinary tract mucosa. The patient can stop taking it after the dysuria is relieved.
Option A: The urine may temporarily turn red or orange due to the dye in the
drug.
Option B: The drug isn’t taken before voiding, and is usually taken 3 times a day
for 2 days.
Women are more prone to UTI’s after menopause due to reduced estrogenlevels. Reduced
estrogen levels lead to reduced levels of vaginal Lactobacilli bacteria, which protect against
infection.
Options B, C, and D: Angina, asthma and fractures don’t increase the risk of UTI.
Tubing problems are a common cause of outflow difficulties, check the tubing for kinks and
ensure that all clamps are open. Other measures include having the patient change
positions (moving side to side or sitting up), applying gentle pressure over the abdomen, or
having a bowel movement.
6. Answer: 1. 15 minutes
Dialysate should be infused quickly. The dialysate should be infused over 15 minutes or
less when performing peritoneal dialysis. The fluid exchange takes place over a period
ranging from 30 minutes to several hours.
7. Answer: 2. Avoid taking blood pressures in the arm with the fistula.
Don’t take blood pressure readings in the arm with the fistula because the compression
could damage the fistula.
Disequilibrium syndrome is caused by a rapid reduction in urea, sodium, and other solutes
from the blood. This can lead to cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure (ICP).
Signs and symptoms include headache, nausea, restlessness, vomiting, confusion,
twitching, and seizures.
Calcium-phosphate deposits in the skin may cause pruritus. Scratching leads to excoriation
and breaks in the skin that increase the patient’s risk of infection. Keeping fingernails short
and clean helps reduce the risk of infection.
11. Answer: 4. Strain all urine
All urine should be strained through gauze or a urine strainer to catch stones that are
passed. The stones are then analyzed for composition.
Option A: Ambulation may help the movement of the stone down the urinary tract.
Option C: Encourage fluid to help flush the stones out.
Narcotic analgesics are usually needed to relieve the severe pain of renal calculi.
Options B and D: NSAIDS and salicylates are used for their anti-inflammatory and
antipyretic properties and to treat less severe pain.
Option C: Muscle relaxants are typically used to treat skeletal muscle spasms.
Invasive procedures such as catheterization can introduce bacteria into the urinary tract. A
lack of fluid intake could cause concentration of urine, but wouldn’t necessarily cause
infection.
Hematuria and proteinuria indicate acute glomerulonephritis. These finding result from
increased permeability of the glomerular membrane due to the antigen-antibody reaction.
Generalized edema is seen most often in nephrosis.
16. Answer: 2. 400ml
Option A: Pneumonia may occur if the patient doesn’t cough and deep breathe.
Option C: Urine retention isn’t a problem soon after surgery because a catheter is
in place.
Option D: Thrombosis may occur later if the patient doesn’t ambulate.
An elevated prostate-specific antigen level indicates prostate cancer, but it can be falsely
elevated if done after the prostate gland is manipulated.
Drinking 2-3L of water daily inhibits bacterial growth in the bladder and helps flush the
bacteria from the bladder. The patient should be instructed to void after sexual activity.
The drug turns the urine orange. It may be prescribed for longer than 7 days and is usually
ordered three times a day after meals. Phenazopyridine is an azo (nitrogenous) analgesic;
not an antibiotic.
Mild to moderate HTN may result from sodium or water retention and inappropriate renin
release from the kidneys. Oliguria and fatigue also may be seen. Other signs are proteinuria
and azotemia.
Fluid volume excess because the kidneys aren’t removing fluid and wastes. The other
diagnoses may apply, but they don’t take priority.
26. Answer: 1. Apply pressure to the needle site upon discontinuing hemodialysis
Apply pressure when discontinuing hemodialysis and after removing the venipuncture
needle until all the bleedinghas stopped. Bleeding may continue for 10 minutes in some
patients.
27. Answer: 2. Fluid volume deficit related to inability to conserve water
Daily doubling of the urine output indicates that the nephrons are healing. This means the
patient is passing into the second phase (dieresis) of acute renal failure.
29. Answer: 4. Taking a blood pressure reading on the affected arm can cause
clotting of the fistula
Pressure on the fistula or the extremity can decrease blood flow and precipitate clotting, so
avoid taking blood pressure on the affected arm.
The patient should follow a low-protein diet with a prescribed amount of water. The patient
requires some protein to meet metabolic needs.
Disequilibrium occurs when excess solutes are cleared from the blood more rapidly than
they can diffuse from the body’s cells into the vascular system.
Instruct the patient with neurogenic bladder to write down his voiding pattern and empty the
bladder at the same times each day.
34. Answer: 4. Palpate the fistula throughout its length to assess for a thrill
The vibration or thrill felt during palpation ensures that the fistula has the desired turbulent
blood flow. Pinching the fistula could cause damage. Aspirating blood is a needless invasive
procedure.
Bones lose calcium when a patient can no longer bear weight. The calcium lost from bones
form calculi, a concentration of mineral salts also known as a stone, in the renal system.
Kidneys are unable to rid the body of excess fluids which results in fluid volume excess
during ESRD.
Option A: Call the doctor after checking the patient’s potassium values.
Option B: Lidocaine may be ordered if the PVCs are frequent and the patient is
symptomatic.
The immunosuppressive activity of cyclosporine places the patient at risk for infection, and
steroids can mask the signs of infection. The patient may not be able to resume normal fluid
intake or return to work for an extended period of time and the patient may need
cyclosporine therapy for life.
Symptoms of rejection include fever, rapid weight gain, hypertension, pain over the graft
site, peripheral edema, and diminished urine output.
Urine output less than 50ml in 24 hours signifies oliguria, an early sign of renal failure.
Anuria is uncommon except in obstructive renal disorders.
A total UO of 120ml is too low. Assess the patient’s circulation and hemodynamic stability
for signs of hypovolemia. A fluid bolus may be required, but only after further nursing
assessment and a doctor’s order.
With nephrotic syndrome, the glomerular basement membrane of the kidney becomes more
porous, leading to loss of protein in the urine. As the patient recovers, less protein is found
in the urine.
46. Answer: 3. With prerenal failure, an IV isotonic saline infusion increases urine
output
Prerenal failure is caused by such conditions as hypovolemia that impairs kidney perfusion;
giving isotonic fluids improves urine output. Vasoactive substances can increase blood
pressure in both conditions.
In renal failure, patients become hyperkalemic because they can’t excrete potassium in the
urine. Polystyrene sulfonate acts to excrete potassium by pulling potassium into the bowels
and exchanging it for sodium.
Patients with renal calculi commonly have blood in the urine caused by the stone’s passage
through the urinary tract. The urine appears dark, tests positive for blood, and is typically
scant.
50. Answer: 1. For life.