Cagayan State University

College of Medicine and Surgery

Written Revalida
Department of Pediatrics

Name Date
Score

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write letter of the correct answer before each number. No erasures.

_________ 1. This is the first bone to ossify in a fetus.

a. Wrist c. Sternum
b. Clavicle d. Femur

_________ 2. This is the most common congenital heart disease comprising 45%.
a. ASD c. VSD
b. PDA d. TOF

_________ 3. This appears as “Egg on a string” appearance on Chest X-ray.

a. TGA c. Coarctation of the aorta
b. TAPVR d. TOF

_________ 4. It appear as “String Sign” on abdominal X ray

a. Pyloric Stenosis c. Intussussception
b. Duodenal atresia d. Ileal atresia

_________ 5. This symptom alone is adequate to satisfy the Jones criteria.

a. Carditis c. Erythema multiforme
b. Sydenham’s chorea d. Arthritis

_________ 6. What is the most common cause of Furuncles and Carbuncles?

a. Staphylococcus aureus c. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Staphylococcus epidermidis d. all of the above

_________ 7. Infants of diabetic mothers are watched out for

a. Sepsis c. Bleeding
b. Respiratory distress syndrome d. Hypoglycemia

_________ 8. Staphylococcal Infections are usually transmitted thru

a. Droplets c. Contaminated food and water
b. Mosquitoes d. Persons hands

_________ 9. The earliest indicator of Pneumonia in a child of 6 months is

a. Wheezing c. RR and above 50/min
b. stridor d. chest indrawing

_________ 10. The most common cause of diarrheal disease in the first 2 years of life
a. Rotavirus c. E. coli
b. Vibrio cholera d. Amoebiasis

_________ 11. A 10 year old student develops frequent episodes of spontaneous blank staring for 5
seconds. Aside from that she is normal, she most likely has
a. Benign Rolandic epilepsy c. Atomic Seizures
b. Complex partial seizure d. Simple absence (petit mal)
_________ 12. What is the most common serious complication of Kawasaki disease?
a. Meningitis c. Hepatitis
b. Renal disease d. Coronary aneurysm

_________ 13. A 10 year old girl has lethargy, change of sensorium, headache, nausea, vomiting and
fever. Five years ago, she was hospitalized because of measles pneumonia. Her condition is
probably
a. Meningitis c. Guillain Barre Syndrome
b. Subacute Sclerosing panencephalitis d. Japanese B encephalitis

_________ 14. A 2y/o boy has vomiting and cyanosis following bouts of forceful coughing of 3 weeks
duration. His WBC is 20,000; Neutrophils of 10; lymphocytes 90. The most likely diagnosis is
a. Tuberculosis c. Pertussis
b. Diphtheria d. Pneumonia

_________ 15. A newborn with Congenital Rubella syndrome continuously shed the virus until
a. for the rest of his life c. until 3 years old
b. until treatment is given d. until 1 year old

_________ 16. Hemophilus influenza infections are most common between

a. 3 mos. up to 5 years c. 5 to 12 years old
b. birth to 2 mos. d. 4 years to 10 years old

_________ 17. Which of the following is abnormal in a Newborn

a. Red tinged diaper c. Epstein pearls
b. Mongolian spot d. Grunting

_________ 18. Dental caries in the upper incisors is most commonly suggestive of
a. Insufficient fluoride c. Milk bottle syndrome
b. Pacifier over use d. Infrequent toothbrushing

_________ 19. A 5 y/o boy has multiple papules with excoriations over the finger webs, axilla, wrists,
buttocks and genitals which is especially pruritic at night. His other sibling also complaints of
the same condition. This is likely a case of
a. Pinworm disease c. Pediculosis corporis
b. Atopic Dermatitis d. Scabies

_________ 20. Immunoglobulin that passes the placenta

a. Ig A c. Ig E
b. Ig G d. Ig M

_________ 21. Immunoglobulin that is found in allergic reaction

a. Ig A c. Ig E
b. Ig G d. Ig M

_________ 22. If the mother is HbsAg (+), the baby should be given
a. HB Ig within 12 hours after birth
b. HB vaccine within 7 days
c. A & B
d. None of the above

_________ 23. This is characterized as hypertension of the upper extremities

a. Coarctation of the Aorta c. TAPVR
b. TOF d. TGA

_________ 24. Positive Mantoux test in a previously vaccinated child

a. 20 mm induration c. < 10mm induration
b. 10 mm induration d. > 20mm induration
_________ 25. The normal average weight (in kg) of a Filipino newborn is
a. 2-4 kg. c. 5-6 kg.
b. 1-2 kg. d. 4-5 kg.

_________ 26. Drug of choice for the treatment of typhoid fever is

a. Ampicillin c. Chloramphenicol
b. Tetracycline d. Amoxicillin

_________ 27. An absolute contraindication to breastfeeding is

a. Mastitis c. Cigarette smoking
b. Breast tumor d. Active TB in the mother

_________ 28. The clinical picture of “Marasmus” originate from the following conditions Except
a. Inadequate caloric intake
b. Proper feeding habits
c. Disturbed parent-child relationship
d. Metabolic abnormalities

_________ 29. The physiologic weight loss for the 1st 7 days in a newborn is
a. 20% c. 5%
b. 10% d. none

_________ 30. Rheumatic fever is frequently observed in the age group from
a. 5-15 years c. 16-18 years
b. 1-2 years d. 2-5 years

_________ 31. Continues ear discharges longer than 2 weeks indicate

a. Otitis media c. Mastoiditis
b. Tympanitis d. Otitis Externa

_________ 32. A 15y/o girl developed a mild sore throat, low grade fever, diffuse maculopapular rash
and later noted to have tender swelling of the wrist and redness of the eyes with tender
enlarged posterior cervical and occipital lymph nodes. Your most likely diagnosis
a. Rubella c. Roseola
b. Rubeola d. Mumps

_________ 33. This is the most common adverse effect of Isoniazid

a. jaundice c. fever
b. peripheral neuritis d. vomiting

_________ 34. Bronchiolitis is usually caused by

a. Staphylococcus c. RSV
b. H. influenzae d. Echo virus

_________ 35. True of Pneumocystic carinii infection in children

a. Extrapulmonary infection is common
b. Important pathogen in children with AIDS
c. The organism can be cultured from sputum
d. It is common cause of pneumonia in day care centers

_________ 36. Pleurisy is an accumulation of fluid in the pleural spaces that is most often associated
with
a. H. influenzae c. M. tuberculosis
b. Staphylococcus d. Pneumoccocus

_________ 37. Treatment for Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

a. Platelet Transfusion c. Exchange transfusion
b. Prednisone d. PRBC transfusion
_________ 38. Bacterial Endocarditis due to Streptococcus viridans is best treated with
a. Penicillin G c. Ampicillin
b. Vancomycin d. Gentamicin

_________ 39. Cyanosis in Newborns may be caused by all of the following Except
a. Tetralogy of Fallot c. Tricuspid atresia
b. Patent Ductus arteriosus d. Persistent Pulmonary Hypertension

_________ 40. In females, 75-90% of Urinary Tract Infection are caused by

a. Proteus sp. c. E. coli
b. S. saprophyticus d. Klebsiella

_________ 41. Duration of secondary prophylaxis for Rheumatic fever is

a. 6 mos. c. 1 year
b. 5 years d. 2 years

_________ 42. Drug/s of choice in the treatment of patients with recurrent complex febrile seizures
a. Phenobarbital c. Valproic Acid
b. Diazepam d. all of the above

_________ 43. Pneumothorax can best be diagnosed by a chest x-ray. The following findings is typical
in this condition
a. Cysticl luscensis c. Air-fluid level
b. Wedge-shaped gravity d. Absence of lung markings

_________ 44. The most common cause of Gross hematuria in pediatrics

a. AGN c. Trauma to the Urinary Tract
b. UTI d. Ig A Nephropathy

_________ 45. A 10 year old child developed an acute attack of asthma. The drug that would afford
immediate relief for this would be
a. Nebulized corticosteroid c. inhaled corticosteroid
b. Nebulized B2 agonist d. inhaled cromolyn Na

_________ 46. The bone most frequently fractured during labor and delivery in the newborn
a. Femur c. Fibula
b. Tibia d. Clavicle

_________ 47. Which of the following may not necessarily be present at birth
a. grasp c. Plantar reflex
b. Moro reflex d. Babinski reflex

_________ 48. A micronutrient that helps in the formation of red blood cells, prevent serious neural
tube defects of the spinal cord and brain to
a. Iodine c. Zinc
b. Iron d. Folate

_________49. Management of hyperbilirubinemia of the Newborn is by

a. phototherapy c. Phenobarbital
b. Exchange transfusion d. all of the above

_________50. A 7 month-old male infant was brought in because of bloody stools. History revealed
that 5 days age, he had LBM. PPE: (+) elongated mass our (L) lower quadrant of the abdomen.
The most likely diagnosis is
a. Polyp c. Salmonellosis
b. Amoebiasis d. Intusussception
_________ 51. Ecthyma gangrenosum is a cutaneous lesion associated with
a. Group A B hemolytic Streptococcus
b. Pseudomonas aeruginous
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Neisseria meningitidis

_________52. Drug of choice for Pseudomonas aeruginosa

a. Erythromycin c. Ceftazidime
b. Streptomycin d. Ceftriaxone

_________53. Which of the following drugs crosses the blood brain barrier even in the absence of
inflammation.
a. Amikacin c. Cephalexin
b. Chloramphenicol d. Cefuroxime

_________54. The most common malignant neoplasm in children is

a. Hodgkin’s disease c. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
b. Neuroblastoma d. Wilms’ tumor

_________55. Acute epiglotittis is a life threatening infection in children. This is generally associated
with
a. Hemophilus influenza c. Streptococcal pneumonia
b. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Staph. aureus

_________56. Hemorrhagic disease of the newborn is a deficiency seen more in breastfed infant
because of
a. lower vitamin C in human milk c. lower minerals in human milk
b. lower Vitamin K in human milk d. none of the above

_________57. The rash of unmodified measles appear first

a. at the chest and back
b. at the hairline, forehead and behind the ear lobe
c. in the interdigital area
d. on the dorsum of the hands and feet

_________58. A subdural effusion most commonly accompanies meningitis cause by

a. Streptococcus pneumonia c. E. coli
b. Hemophilus influenzae d. Neisseria meningilidis

_________59. Of the anthropometric indicators of nutritional status, measurement of the following is

a better criterion because it is independent on excess fluid or fat
a. Head circumference c. Triceps skin fold thickness
b. Height d. Weight

_________60. Congestive heart failure is ready observed in

a. Tetralogy of Fallot c. TGA
b. VSD d. PDA

_________61. Drug of choice for Leptospirosis is

a. Penicillin c. Sulfisoxazole
b. Chloramphenicol d. Tetracycline

_________62. The passage of feces into inappropriate places after bowel control has been established
is known as
a. Constipation c. Enuresis
b. Encopresis d. Obstipation
_________63. A child who discharges urine involuntarily after the age at which bladder control should
have been established is known as
a. Polyuria c. Enuresis
b. Dysuria d. Polydypsia

_________64. A newborn infant who fails to pass meconium within 48 hrs. and later presents with
abdominal distention and dilatation of proximal colon is probably
a. Hirschsprung’s disease c. Meconium ileus
b. Jejunal atresia d. Malrotation

_________65. The prevention of extrapulmonary tuberculosis is administered by the use of the BCG
vaccine. This vaccine is best administered by
a. Subcutaneous c. Intramuscular
b. Intradermal d. Oral

_________66. The best measure for prevention of infection among neonates in a nursery is
a. Use of Alcohol c. Discard used blankets
b. Use of Betadine d. Enforce correct hand to elbow washing

_________67. This viral infection may cause congenital heart disease., microcephaly, cataracts and
deafness, if acquired in the first trimester of pregnancy.
a. Epstein Barr c. Varicella
b. Rubella d. Parvovirus B19

_________68. The following findings is Abnormal in a normal newborn

a. liver edge 1-2cm below costal margin
b. Barrel-shaped chest
c. Umbilical cord with one artery 2 veins
d. Spleen tip barely palpable

_________69. At what age can a child identify his gender ?

a. When the child is already attracted to the opposite sex
b. At 1 ½ y/o
c. At 4 y/o
d. At 3 y/o

_________70. The first permanent tooth to erupt is

a. central incisors c. molar
b. cuspids d. premolars

_________71. An HIV patient can be given

a. DPT c. both
b. MMR d. none

_________72. Normal newborn Except:

a. HC 28 cm c. wt. of 3 kg
b. CC 38cm d. birth length of 48cm

_________73. Draws a man with 2 parts, goes to toilet alone, tells a story, role playing
a. 2y/o c. 4 y/o
b. 3 y/o d. 5 y/o

_________74. First sign of Puberty in males

a. Testicular enlargement c. Axillary hair
b. Penile enlargement d. facial hair
 _________75. Vitamin deficiency found in the developing countries especially in the Philippines.
a. Thiamine deficiency c. Vitamin C deficiency
b. Vitamin A deficiency d. Vitamin B12

_________76. First sign of Puberty in Females

a. Thelarche c. appearance of pubic hair
b. Menarche d. growth spurt

_________77. Human colostrum has

a. more carbohydrates c. less mineral
b. more fats d. more protein

_________78. The murmur of a 2 year old is continuous or machinery type heard in left upper sternal
border. The diagnosis most likely is:
a. Tetralogy of Fallot c. Patent Ductus Arterious
b. Atrial Septal Defect d. Ventricular Septal defect

_________79. A 2 year old child developed fever, headache, vomiting and nuchal rigidity following a
bout of lower respiratory infection of the possible causes of bacterial meningitis, the following
is more likely:
a. N. meningitidis c. Salmonella
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Staphylococcus aureus

_________80. A 2 months old infant comes in with jaundice since 1 week old, highly colored urine,
acholic stools. Liver edge is palpated below Rt. Subcostal margin. The most likely diagnosis is
a. Biliary Atresia c. Viral Hepatitis
b. Hepatoblastoma d. Inspissated bile syndrome

_________81. A cephalhematoma is best differentiated from caput succedaneum by:

a. a normal neurologic examination
b. absence of history of prolonged labor
c. swelling does not cross suture line
d. all of the above

_________82. Status epilepticus is continuous clinical seizure which lasts more than
a. 3 hrs c. 30 minutes
b. 15 minutes d. 60 minutes

_________83. Nutritional deprivation particularly during the first 3 years of life may have serious and
irreversible effect on growth and development of:
a. Bone c. kidney and lung
b. Brain d. muscular and subcutaneous

_________84. A deficiency of fatty acid causes failure of growth and the production of dry, thick scaly
skin with desquamation and intertrigo:
a. Linoleic acid c. Palmitin
b. caproic acid d. Butyric acid

_________85. The single most important cause of preventable brain damage and mental retardation is
the deficiency of the following nutrient:
a. Zinc c. Iodine
b. Iron d. Vitamin A

_________86. The drug of choice for the treatment of cholera

a. Ampicillin c. Tetracycline
b. Oxacillin d. Amoxicillin
_________87. A child who can skip with alternating feet, stand on one foot for 10 seconds, and tie his
own shoelaces has reached the developmental motor level of
a. 2 years c. 6 years
b. 4 years d. 8 years

_________88. This is the most common congenital viral infection

a. Varicella c. CMV
b. Rubella d. Parvovirus

_________89. Fever is remittent if:

a. daily temperature elevation return to normal
b. daily temperature return to baseline but above the normal temperature
c. The fluctuation of temperature elevation is <30C
d. None of the above

_________90. Diagnosis of URTI can be made if the urine culture yielded gram (-) enteric rods of:
a. 100 col/ml of urine by suprapubic aspiration
b. 10,000 col/ml of urine obtained by catheterization
c. 100,000 col/ml of clean catched urine
d. All of the above

_________91. The most common cause of Viral Pneumonia in infancy is

a. Parainfluenza c. RSV
b. Influenza d. Adenovirus

_________92. The most common bacterial pathogen for osteomyelitis is

a. H. influenzae c. S. pneumonia
b. S. aureus d. S. pyogenes

_________93. The combination of hematuria and proteinuria usually indicates

a. nephrolithiasis c. glomerulonephritis
b. renal tumor d. urinary tract infection

_________94. At one year old, how many times should a baby’s weight have increased?
a. 4 c. 2
b. 3 d. 5

_________95. A baby with diarrhea should not be given

a. artificial milk c. fresh fruit juices
b. rice gruel d. breastmilk

_________96. The head circumference and chest circumference approximate at

a. 4 months c. 24 months
b. 18 months d. 12 months

_________97. Majority of term infants will have passed their first meconium:
a. within a few minutes of life c. by 24 hrs. of life
b. during the process of birth d. by 6-12 hrs. of life

_________98. Hemophilia A is the most frequent type of hemophilia disorders and is characterized by
deficiency of
a. Factor VIII c. Factor VII
b. Factor VI d. Factor X

_________99. An 8y/o comes to the ER and diagnosed as Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis with a

blood pressure of 160/110. Your first drug of choice to give is
a. Nifedipine sublingual c. hydralazine
b. Furosemide d. Spironolactone
_________100. An extrapulmonary tuberculosis infection in children affecting the superficial lymph
node is
a. Cervical lymphadenitis c. Regional Lymphadenitis
b. BCG induced adenitis d. Scrofula

END
 1. The specific treatment of Respiratory Distress Syndrome is
a. Oxygen c. Antibiotics
b. Surfactant d. Continuous Positive Airway Pressure

2. The following factors predispose a neonate to develop hyaline membrane disease

Except
a. Maternal Diabetes c. Asphyxia Neonatorum
b. Post Maturity d. Caesarian section delivery

3. The most commonly fractured bone in the newborn in difficult deliveries is the
a. Cranial bones c. Tibia
b. Femur d. Clavicle

4. A scaphoid abdomen in the Newborn suggests

a. Emphysema c. Diaphragmatic hernia
b. Hyaline membrane disease d. Malrotation of the intestine

5. The most serious complication of hyperbilirubinemia in Newborn is

a. Heart failure c. Kernicterus
b. Severe anemia d. Sepsis

6. The usual source of Tetanus Neonatorum is

a. Circumcision wound c. Vaccination
b. Umbilical stump d. All of the above

ENDOCRINE & METABOLIC CONDITION

1. Hypopituitarism Except
a. Cherubic face c. Small penis
b. Short neck and webbing d. Delayed dental development

2. Characteristics Diabetes Insipidus Except:

a. Urine specific gravity 1.001-1.005 c. Dehydration is not frequent
b. Maybe due to encephalitis d. None of the above

3. True of Anterior Pituitary Gland Except:

a. Secretes ACTH responsible for hyperpigmentation
b. Responsible for the stimulation of the nipple to breastfeed
c. Secretes oxytocin responsible for milk-letdown reflex
d. Regulation of hormone secretion is caused by negative feedback mechanism

4. Characterized SIADH
a. Polydipsia c. Polyuria
b. Water intoxication d. Extreme thirst

5. Congenital Hypothyroidism Except

a. Prolonged Jaundice c. Due to post hypothyroidectomy
b. Due to thyroid dyshormogenesis d. Constipation

6. Signs and symptoms of Congenital Hypothyroidism

a. Constipation c. Poor feeding
b. Hypernatremia d. A&C

7. Drug of choice for Congenital Hypothyroidism

a. PTU c. Na Levothyroxine
b. Methimazole d. Tapazole
CARDIOLOGY

______1. Cyanosis with clubbing of fingers and toes is seen in

a. Left to Right shunt c. Congestive heart failure
b. Right to Left shunt d. None of the above

______2. A history of stroke is more commonly seen in

a. Cyanotic heart disease c. Obstructive lesion
b. Acyanotic heart disease d. None of the above

______3. The most common cause Hypertension in children and adolescent

a. Cardiovascular in nature c. CNS in nature
b. Renovascular in nature d. Endocrine in nature

______4. Pharmacologic closure of the ductus has been reported in Premature if treated before 10 days
of age with
a. Furosemide c. Prostaglandin
b. Indomethacin d. Aspirin

______5. Chest x ray configuration of “egg on its side”

a. TGA c. TOF
b. TAPVR d. Coarctation of the Aorta

______6. As in most patients with Congenital heart disease,squatting is a frequent manifestation

a. PDA c. TOF
b. VSD d. Coarctation of the aorta

NEUROLOGY

______1. The absolute contraindication of a lumbar puncture is

a. Suspicion of CNS disease c. Increase intracranial pressure
b. Bleeding diathesis d. Presence of infection over the site of puncture

______2. Malignant tertian Malaria that causes CNS infection is

a. Plasmodium falciparum c. Plasmodium vivax
b. Plasmodium ovale d. Plasmodium malariae

______3. The following are all manifestations of poliomyelitis, Except

a. Ascending symmetrical paralysis c. Absent deep tendon reflexes
b. Motor paralysis d. Positive tripod sign

______4. Sudden, brief, shock-like contraction of muscles,or jacknife seizure

a. Petit mal c. Atonic seizure
b. Myoclonic seizure d. Tonic-clonic seizure

______5. Jake suddenly woke up crying at night pointing incoherently at the night lamp. His mother
lulled him back to sleep. He has no recall of the incident the next morning. What did he have?
a. Somnambulism c. Night terror
b. Nightmare d. Bed wetting

______6. A continous seizure more than 30 minutes without regaining consciousness

a. Status epilepticus c. Infantile seizure
b. Grand mal d. None of the above
GASTROINTESTINAL TRACT

______1. A 2 week old male infant was seen at the ER with projectile vomiting for 5 days, non
billous. You noted visible peristalsis, with palpable tumor in the midline. Your main
consideration is
a. Gastroesophageal Reflux
b. Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric stenosis
c. Tracheoesophageal Fistula
d. None of the above

______2. Causes of upper GI bleeding in infancy Except

a. Ingestion of red food dyes c. Infectious diarrhea
b. Gastritis d. Esophagitis

______3. Failure of passage of meconium during the 1st 24 hours of life should alert the physician to
the possibility of ____ Except
a. Hirschsprung’s disease c. Anorectal malformation
b. Atresia d. None of the above

______4. The best time for operation for cleft lip

a. 6 months-2 years c. 2-4 years old
b. 1-2 months d. At birth

______5. The most common cause of halithosis in children

a. Dental caries c. Bronchiectasis
b. Lung abscess d. TB

______6.Intermittent gastrointestinal bleeding without abdominal pain is the most common symptom
of
a. Meckel’s diverticulum c. Meconium plug syndrome
b. Hypoplastic left colon d. Hirschsprung disease

DEVELOPMENTAL AND GENETIC DISORDERS

_____1. Best known example of X-linked recessive inheritance

a. Fragile X c. Marfan’s syndrome
b. Albinism d. Hemophilia A and B

_____2. What is the most common cause of abnormalities in chromosome number?

a. Monosomies c. Aneuploidy
b. Trisomies d. Translocation

_____3. This is the most common cause of mental retardation

a. Down syndrome c. Edward syndrome
b. Trisomy 13 d. Cri-du-chat syndrome
c.

_____4. Classical features of short stature, webbed neck, cubitus valgus,and lack of secondary
Sex characteristics
a. Klinefelter syndrome c. Turner syndrome
b. Triple female d. Fragile X syndrome

_____5. These are examples of Multifactorial inheritance Except

a. Congenital heart disease c. Cleft palate
b. Clubfoot d. None of the above
_____6. These are Autosomal dominant trait Except
a. Night blindness c. Turner’s syndrome
b. Huntington’s chorea d. Marfan’s syndrome

_____7. This is the 2nd most common cause of mental retardation

a. Down syndrome c. Patau syndrome
b. Fragile X syndrome d. Cri-du-chat syndrome

_____8. XO chromosome is found in

a. Triple female c. Fragile X
b. Klinefelter syndrome d. Turner syndrome

RESPIRATORY

_____1. A 9 year old boy swallowed a coin. On antero-posterior chest film the coin is seen facing
you. Where is the coin lodge?
a. Esophagus c. Trachea
b. Larynx d. Right bronchus

_____2. This condition is confirmed when a no. 8 feeding catheter cannot pass through either nostrils
into the oropharynx
a. Tracheoesophageal fistula c. Pierre Robin syndrome
b. Diaphragmatic hernia d. Choanal atresia

_____3. Epiglottitis is a rapidly progressive disease that leads to respiratory failure and is caused by
a. Streptococcal bacteria c. E. coli
b. Staphylococcus aureus d. Haemophilus influenzae

_____4. Early cyanosis and respiratory distress, scaphoid abdomen, barrel-shaped chest and
dextrocardia suggest
a. Bronchiolitis
b. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
c. Sequestration of the lung
d. Congenital cystic adenomatous malformation

_____5. Atypical pneumonia is commonly caused by Except

a. Mycoplasma pneumoniae c. Legionella pneumophila
b. Chlamydia pneumoniae d. Grp B streptococcus

_____6. The following are the most common bacterial pathogens causing pneumonia in Newborn
Except
a. H. Influenzae c. Gram negative bacilli
b. Grp B streptococcus d. Chlamydia

ALLERGIC/ IMMUNOLOGIC CONDITIONS

______1. Triad of Bronchial asthma Except

a. Bronchodilation c. Mucoid edema
b. Smooth muscle spasms d. Plugging with tenacious mucus

______2. Dark circles under the eyes due to venous stasis resulting from blood flow obstruction
caused by edema of nasal mucous membranes
a. Rabbit Nose c. Allergic salute
b. Allergic shiners d. None of the above
 3. Drug of choice for early treatment of Atopic child
a. Ranitidine c. Cetirizine
b. Hydroxyzine d. Mequitazine

4. The following are events in Acute Asthma attack Except

a. Decrease FEV1 c. Hyper inflation of the lungs
b. Prolonged inspiratory time d. Increase work of breathing

5. Severe Acute Asthma that is unresponsive to the usual appropriate therapy

a. Acute Asthma Exacerbation c. Status Epilepticus
b. Status Asthmaticus d. Pulsus paradoxus

6. Atopic Dermatitis characterized by erythematous, prurituc, weeping dermatitis in the cheek,

w/ heavy scaling of the scalp
a. Childhood stage w/ AD c. Adult stage w/ AD
b. Infantile stage w/ AD d. All of the above

7. Food allergy is the most common clinical manifestation of

a. vomiting c. GI Bleeding
b. diarrhea d. abdominal pain

NUTRITIONAL PROBLEMS

1. True of Marasmus Except

a. Diet due to both low in protein & calories c. Pot belly
b. Apathetic d. Edematous

2. Signs of Kwashiorkor Except

a. “ flag sign “ c. Moon Face
b. “Winged scapulae” d. Flaky paint rash

3. Bitot’ spots is eye sign of

a. Vitamin D Deficiency c. Vitamin A Deficiency
b. Vitamin B Deficiency c. Vitamin E Deficiency

4. Cheilosis, glossitis, atrophic lingual papillae are signs of

a. Niacin deficiency c. Vitamin A deficiency
b. Thiamine deficiency d. Riboflavin deficiency

5. Irritability, depression, somnolence and seizures are signs of

a. Pyridoxine deficiency c. Riboflavin deficiency
b. Thiamine deficiency d. Niacin deficiency

BASIC CHILD CARE

1. Visual acuity of 20/20 is reached at age

a. 6 c. 8
b. 7 d. 5

2. The 1st sign of puberty in male is

a. Change in voice c. Appearance of axillary hair
b. Appearance of public hair d. Enlargement of testes

3. Which of the following is synthesized in the gastrointestinal tract?

 a. Vitamin A c. Vitamin D
b. Vitamin C d. Vitamin K

4. A child with Pica most likely has which deficiency?

a. Iodine c. Magnesium
b. Calcium d. Iron

5. A hepatitis B positive mother just gave birth. Which of the following will you administer to
the baby?
a. Hepatitis B vaccine c. Both A & B
b. Hepatitis B immunoglobulin d. Tetanus vaccine
6. Immunoglobulin that crosses the placenta
a. Ig A c. Ig D
b. Ig G d. Ig E

7. What is the sodium content of the WHO oral rehydration solution?

a. 25 mmol/L c. 50 mmol/L
b. 20 mmol/L d. 90 mmol/L

8. What is the age in month of a child who can roll over, reach for objects, sit on tripod
position, Bubbles when caretaker talks to her and has a good head control?
a. 3 c. 5
b. 4 d. 6

9. During a Newborn’s 1st week of life, how much weight loss is expected due to excretion of
excess extravascular fluid and poor intake?
a. 5% c. 15%
b. 10% d. 20%

10. It is considered as the most important cause of brain damage and mental retardation
a. Iron deficiency c. Vitamin A deficiency
b. Iodine deficiency d. Zinc deficiency

11. It is considered as the most common nutritional disorder in the world.

a. Iodine deficiency c. Vitamin A deficiency
b. Iron deficiency d. Zinc deficiency

12. A Filipino Newborn usually measures the following at birth

a. wt 3.5kg Lt . 50cm HC 20cm
b. wt 3kg Lt . 50cm HC 35cm
c. wt 2.5kg Lt . 45cm HC 33cm
d. wt 3kg Lt . 45cm HC 12.14cm

INFECTIOUS DISEASE

1. Pathognomonic exanthema of measles

a. Conjunctivitis c. Koplik spots
b. Coryza d. Cough

2. Purpuric skin lesions in Congenital Rubella is described as

a. “glove and stocking” c. “slapped cheek”
b. “Blueberry muffin” d. None of the above
 3. The occurrence of Congenital defects is as high as 85% if infection occurs during _____ of
gestation
a. 2nd month c. 1st month
rd
b. 3 month d. 4th month

4. The most common cause of diarrhea in infants and children between 4 and 24 month of age
a. Salmonella c. Cholera
b. Rotavirus d. Adenovirus

5. The most frequent cause of the common colds

a. Influenza B c. Rhinovirus
b. Para influenza d. Adenovirus

6. The most common cause of Bronchiolitis in infants

a. Respiratory Syncitial Virus c. Streptococcus pneumonia
b. Hemophilus influenzae d. Rhinoviruses

7. Cough in Pertussis lasts for 6 to 8 weeks, and the drug of choice is

a. Pen G c. Cloxacillin
b. Pen VK d. Erythromycin

HEMATOLOGIC-ONCOLOGIC

1. These are group of hereditary anemias with mutations that affect the synthesis of
hemoglobin
a. Hereditary Sperocytosis c. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Thalassemia d. none of the above

2. Megaloblastic Anemia is treated with

a. Iron c. Desferroxamine
b. Folic acid d. Corticorteroids

3. Aplastic Anemia refers to the failure of the marrow to produce all the marrow cells Except:
a. Blast cells c. Myeloid cells
b. Red cells d. Platelets

4. Physiologic Anemia in Term infants around this age

a. 1 month old c. 2 month old
b. 6 months old d. 1 year old

5. A 2 month old infant was brought to the ER due to seizure. History revealed that he was
delivered at home uncomplicated by a hilot. No Hx of fall nor fever was noted. PE revealed
pallor with bulging tense anterior fontanel and ptosis on the left. Your main considerations
would be
a. Acute head injury c. Seizure disorder
b. Bacterial Meningitis d. APCD

6. These are the Vitamin K dependent clotting factors Except:

a. V c. VII
b. II d. IX

MUSCULOSKELETAL

1. A positive Ortolani test means that the hip is

a. unstable c. normal
 b. dislocated d. none of the above

2. A “sunburst appearance” in the x-ray is characteristic of

a. Aneurysmal bone cyst c. Ewing’s sarcoma
b. Osteogenic sarcoma d. none of the above

3. This syndrome is characterized by joint hypermobility, skin extensibility, early bruising

and soft tissue calcification
a. Osteogenesis imperfecta c. Ehler-Danlos syndrome
b. Rickets d. None of the above

DERMATOLOGIC CONDITION

1. These are small, pinpoint to pinhead, milky, smooth papules on the forehead & cheeks of
newborn
a. Erythema toxicum c. Milia
b. Acne Neonatorum d. none of the above

2. There are linear lesions called “burrows” where the mites are formed, a characterisitic of
a. Pediculosis c. Cimicosis
b. Culicosis d. Scabies

3. This result from involvement of skin from underlying tuberculosis of lymph nodes, bones &
joints and Epididymis
a. Miliary TB of the Skin
b. Lupus vulgaris
c. Scrofuloderma
d. None of the above

4. This a hereditary or acquired progressive loss of melanin pigment due to failure of the
Tyrosinase system of melanocyte in the dermo-epidermal junction.
a.Albinism c. Nevus depigmentosus
b. Vitiligo d. Hypomelanosis of Ito

RENAL DISORDER

1. Causative agent for poststreptococcus AGN

a. Grp. B Streptococcus c. Grp. A beta-hemolytic streptococcus
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Staphyloccus aureus

2. This complement is decreased in PSAGN

a. C4 c. C5
b. CRP d. C3

3. The most common cause of hematuria in children

a. IgA Nephropathy c. HSP nephropathy
b. PSAGN d. None of the above

4. The Causative agent for HNS is

a. E.coli 0157:H7 c. Salmonella
b. Shigellosis d. None of the above

5. The most common malignant renal neoplasm in children and adolescents

a. Wilms’ tumor c. Pheochromocytoma
b. Neuroblastoma d. None of the above
 6. Which is the 1st line of treatment for Nephrotic Syndrome?
a. Prednisone c. Cyclophosphamide
b. Penicillin d. IV Immunoglobulin

PEDIATRIC EMERGENCIES

1. Accidental ingestion of corrosive agents showed be managed initially of

a. Gastric lavage c. Administer large amount of water or milk
b. Neutralize poison d. Induce emesis

2. A 3 y/o boy was bitten by a pet dog on the face. The dog has no rabies immunization, which
of the following should be done?
a. observe the dog for 10-14 days
b. give a rabies vaccine to the dog
c. give hyperimmune serum immediately, no vaccine as long as animal remains
normal
d. give hyperimmune serum immediately, followed by vaccine

3. A 2 y/o girl was rushed to the ER because of seizure described as Generalized Tonic
Clonic, w/ loss of consciousness lasting for 10 minutes. You immediately administer
a. Phenobarbital c. Diazepam
b. Phenytoin d. Oxygen

4. A 6 months old by infant was brought to the ER because of vomiting and LBM for 2 days
now. Upon PE, he was drowsy, with sunken eyes, depressed anterior fontanelle and cold
clammy extremities. You immediately administer IVF of
a. PLRS 30cc/kg for 1 hr c. D50.3NaCl 20cc/kg for 1 ½ hr
b. PLRS 10cc/kg for 1 hr d. D50.3 NaCl 10cc/kg for 1 hr

5. A 5 y/o boy was seen at the ER in moderate respiratory distress. History revealed that he
had colds and fever 1 day prior. Then few hour prior to consult, he was noted to be
coughing, PE revealed wheezes all over lung fields. You will do nebulization w/
a. Corticosteroids c. Beta 2 agonist
b. Cromolyn sodium d. All of the above