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Allen 2018 Leader Test Series Q Paper
Allen 2018 Leader Test Series Q Paper
Hindi
Important Instructions
(1) zero (2) (mn–1+mn)g sin (1) (2) (mn–1+mn)g sin
(mn 1 m n )g (mn 1 m n )g
(3) (mn–1–mn)g sin (4) (3) (mn–1–mn)g sin (4)
cos cos
4. The magnitudes of gravitational field at distance 4. R M r1
r1 and r2 from the centre of a uniform sphere of r2 F1 F2
radius R and mass M are F1 and F2 respectively. :-
Then :-
F1 r1
F1 r1 (1) r1 < R r2 < R
(1) if r1 < R and r2 < R F2 r2
F2 r2
F1 r1
F1 r1 (2) r1 > R r2 > R
(2) if r1 > R and r2 > R F2 r2
F2 r2
F r2 F1 r12
(3) 1 12 if r1 < R and r2 < R (3) r1 < R r2 < R
F2 r2 F2 r22
F1 r12 F1 r12
(4) if r1 > R and r2 > R (4) r1 > R r2 > R
F2 r22 F2 r22
5. A cart is moving with a velocity 20 m/s. Sand 5. 20 m/s.
is being dropped into the cart at the rate of 50 kg/min
50 kg/min. The force required to move the cart –
with constant velocity will be–
(1) 50N (2) 30.33N
(1) 50N (2) 30.33N
(3) 26.45N (4) 16.66N (3) 26.45N (4) 16.66N
6. A man can swim in still water with a speed 6. 2
2 times that of the river then at what angle with
downstream he must swim to cross the river
along shortest possible path :- :-
(1) 30º (2) 120º (3) 150º (4) 60º (1) 30º (2) 120º (3) 150º (4) 60º
7. Water is flowing through a tube of non-uniform 7.
cross-section ratio of the radius at entry and exit 3:2
end of the pipe is 3 : 2. Then the ratio of
velocities at entry and exit of liquid is :-
(1) 4 : 9 (2) 9 : 4 (1) 4 : 9 (2) 9 : 4
(3) 8 : 27 (4) 1 : 1 (3) 8 : 27 (4) 1 : 1
8. A uniform disc of radius R and mass M can 8. R (disc) M
rotate without friction on an axle passing (axle)
through its centre and perpendicular to its plane ( )
face. A cord is wound over the rim of the disc
and a uniform force F is applied on the cord
as shown in the adjoining figure. Then the F
tangential acceleration of a point on the rim of
the disc is proportional to:- :-
O R O R
F F
5 A D 5 A D
(2) h r (2) h r
2 E r 2 E r
h r h r
C C
3 3
(3) h r r (3) h r r
2 2
B B
5 5
(4) h r (4) h r
2 2
15. A disc is rolling on an inclined plane. What is 15.
the ratio of its rotational KE to the total KE - -
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 1 (1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1
16. A drop of liquid of density is floating half 16. ( > /2)
immersed inside a liquid of density ( > /2). T
If the surface tension of the drop is T, then its R :
radius R is :
(1) 3T / g( 2 ) (2) 3T / g(2 )
(1) 3T / g( 2 ) (2) 3T / g(2 )
(3) 3T / 2g( ) (4)
(3) 3T / 2g( ) (4) None of these
17. A block takes twice as much time to slide 17. 45º
down a 45º rough inclined plane as it takes
to slide down a similar smooth plane. The
:-
coefficient of friction is :
3 3
3 3
(1) (2) (1) (2)
4 2 4 2
1 1 1 1
(3) (4) (3) (4)
4 3 4 3
1 2 1 3 1 2 1 3
(1) v0t + bt (2) v0t + bt (1) v0t + bt (2) v0t + bt
3 3 3 3
1 3 1 2 1 3 1 2
(3) v0t + bt (4) v0t + bt (3) v0t + bt (4) v0t + bt
6 2 6 2
19. A circular disc X of radius R is made from an 19. X R t
iron plate of thickness t and another disc Y of 4R Y, t/4
radius 4R is made from an iron plate of thickness t/4.
Then the relation between the moment of inertia IX IY :-
IX and IY is :- (1) IY = 32 IX (2) IY = 16IX
(1) IY = 32 IX (2) IY = 16IX
(3) IY = IX (4) IY = 64 IX (3) IY = IX (4) IY = 64 IX
20. A body constrained to move in y-direction is 20. Y-
subjected to a force given by: :
F (2iˆ 15jˆ 6k)N.
ˆ F (2iˆ 15ˆj 6k)
ˆ N
4E 4E
(3) (4) 0 (3) (4) 0
M M
23. A rocket of mass M is launched vertically from the 23. M
surface of the earth with an initial speed V. Assuming V R
the radius of the earth to be R and negligible air
resistance, the maximum height attained by the :-
rocket above the surface of the earth is :-
gR gR
gR gR (1) R 2 1 (2) R 2 1
2V 2V
(1) R 2 1 (2) R 2 1
2V 2V
2gR 2gR 2gR 2gR
(3) R 2 1 (4) R 2 1 (3) R 2 1 (4) R 2 1
V V V V
24. A mass ‘m’ is supported by a massless string 24. R ‘m’
wound around a uniform hollow cylinder of 'm'
mass m and radius R. If the string does not slip
on the cylinder, with what acceleration will the
mass fall on release?
R
m
R
m
m
m
5g 2g g
5g 2g g (1) (2) g (3) (4)
(1) (2) g (3) (4) 6 3 2
6 3 2
Key Filling
25. If the road is unbanked and the coefficient of 25.
friction between the road and the tyres is 0.8, then 0.8
the maximum speed with which an automobile (without slipping) 84.5
can move around a curve of 84.5 m radius without
? (g = 10 / 2):-
slipping is : (Take g = 10 ms–2) :-
(1) 26 ms–1 (2) 67.7 ms–1 (1) 26 / (2) 67.7 /
(3) 13 ms –1
(4) 36.7 ms–1 (3) 13 / (4) 36.7 /
26. A wooden block, with a coin placed on its top, 26.
floats in water as shown in fig. the distance l l h
and h are shown. After some time the coin falls :
into the water. Then :
coin
flDdk
h
h
(1) l h
(1) l decreases and h increases
(2) l h
(2) l increases and h decreases
(3) Both l and h increase (3) l h
(4) Both l and h decrease (4) l h
27. An aeroplane moving horizontally with a speed of 27. 720
720 km/h drops a food pocket, while flying at a
height of 396.9 m. the time taken by a food pocket 396.9
to reach the ground and its horizontal range is
(Take g = 9.8 m/sec2) :- g = 9.8 2
:-
m/s
20
(Velocity m/s)
15 10
10 5
5 0
1 2 3 4
0
1 2 3 4
Time in second
(1) 60 (2) 55
(1) 60 m (2) 55 m (3) 25 m (4) 80 m (3) 25 (4) 80
30. A uniform rod AB of length and mass m is free 30. m A
to rotate about point A. The rod is released from
rest in the horizontal position. Given that the A
m2 m2
moment of inertia of the rod about A is , the initial
3 3
angular acceleration of the rod will be:- :-
A B A B
2g 3 3g 2g 3 3g
(1) (2) mg (3) g (4)
(1) (2) mg (3) g (4) 3 2 2 2
3 2 2 2
3v 2 3v 2 3v 2 3v 2
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2g 4g 2g 4g
v2 v2 v2 v2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
4g 2g 4g 2g
34. A mass of 5 kg is suspended by a rope of length 34. 5 2
2m from a ceiling. A force of 50N in the horizontal
direction is applied at the mid-point of the rope. 50N
The angle made by the rope with the vertical, in :-
equilibrium is :- (1) 50° (2) 60°
(1) 50° (2) 60° (3) 30° (4) 45° (3) 30° (4) 45°
35. A particle moves in the XY-plane under the 35. ,
influence of a force such that its linear
p(t) A[i cos(kt) – jsin(kt)]
momentum is,
XY A
p(t) A[i cos(kt) – jsin(kt)]
K :-
where A and k are constants. The angle
between the force and momentum is :- (1) 0° (2) 30°
(1) 0° (2) 30° (3) 45° (4) 90° (3) 45° (4) 90°
36. Two cars of masses m1 and m2 are moving in 36. m1 m2 r1 r2
circles of radii r 1 and r 2 respectively their
speeds are such that they make complete
t
circles in the same time t. The ratio of their
centripetal acceleration is :- :-
(1) 1 : 1 (2) m1r1 : m2r2 (1) 1 : 1 (2) m1r1 : m2r2
(3) m1 : m2 (4) r1 : r2 (3) m1 : m2 (4) r1 : r2
37. The least count of vernier callipers is 0.1 mm. 37. 0.1
The main scale reading before the zero the 10
vernier scale is 10 and the zeroth division of
the vernier scale coincides with any main scale
division is 1 mm, the measured value should 1 :-
expressed as:- (1) 0.01
(1) 0.01 cm
(2) 0.001
(2) 0.001 cm
(3) 0.1 cm (3) 0.1
(4) 1.00 cm (4) 1.00
38. A uniform T shaped object with dimensions 38. T
shown in the figure, is lying a smooth floor. A
'F' AB
force 'F' is applied at the point P parallel to P
AB, such that the object has only the C
translational motion without rotation. Find the P :-
location of P with respect to C:-
A B
A B
P
P F 2
F 2
C
C
4 4
(1) (2) (1) (2)
3 3
2 3 2 3
(3) (4) (3) (4)
3 2 3 2
39. Two satellites A and B, having ratio of masses 39. A B 3:1
3 : 1 are in circular orbits of radius r and 4r. r 4r
Calculate the ratio of total mechanical energy of
A B
A and B.
(1) 3 : 4 (2) 12 : 1 (1) 3 : 4 (2) 12 : 1
I11 I 2 2 I11 I 2 2
(2) I1 I 2 (2) I1 I 2
I11 I 2 2 I11 I 2 2
(3) (3)
1 2 1 2
I11 I 2 2 I11 I 2 2
(4) (4)
1 2 1 2
42. A satellite is moving near earth surface with a 42. v
velocity v. To make the satellite escape, the
minimum percentage increase in its velocity is :-
nearly:- (1) 62.1% (2) 41.4%
(1) 62.1% (2) 41.4% (3) 82.8% (4) 100% (3) 82.8% (4) 100%
43. A block slides down on an inclined surface of 43. 30°
inclination 30° with the horizontal. Starting from
rest it covers 8 meter in the first two seconds. 2 8
The coefficient of friction is (g = 10 ms–2) :- (g = 10 ms ) :-–2
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (1) (2)
5 3 2 3 5 3 2 3
1 3 1 3
(3) (4) (3) (4)
3 5 3 5
44. The potential energy of a particle oscillating 44. x-
along x-axis is given as U 20 (x 2)2 where U 20 (x 2)2 U x
U is in joules and x in meters. Total mechanical 36
energy of the particle is 36 J. Maximum kinetic
energy of the particle is :- :-
(1) 24 J (2) 36 J (1) 24 J (2) 36 J
(3) 16 J (4) 20 J (3) 16 J (4) 20 J
45. A car is moving in a circular horizontal track of 45. 10 10 /
radius 10 m with a constant speed of 10 m/sec. 1.00
A plumb bob is suspended from the roof of the car
by a light rigid rod of length 1.00m. The angle
made by the rod with the track is :- :-
(1) zero (2) 30° (3) 45° (4) 60° (1) (2) 30° (3) 45° (4) 60°
46. H2O2 can be obtained when following react 46. H2SO4 H2O2
with H2SO4 ? ?
(1) PbO2 (2) MnO2 (1) PbO2 (2) MnO2
(3) BaO (4) None (3) BaO (4)
47. Sodium carbonate is manufactured by Solvay 47.
process, the products that are recycled are
(1) CO 2 and NH3 (2) CO2 and NH4Cl (1) CO2 NH3 (2) CO2 NH4Cl
(3) NaCl and CaO (4) CaCl2 and CaO (3) NaCl CaO (4) CaCl2 CaO
48. Which of the following molecule does not exist. 48. :
(1) PH5 (2) NCl 3 (1) PH5 (2) NCl 3
(3) NOF3 (4) XeF5– (3) NOF3 (4) XeF5–
49. Upon hydrolysis of sodium carbonate, the 49. Na2CO3
reaction takes place between :- :-
(1) Na+ and water (2) Na+ and OH– (1) Na +
H2 O (2) Na+ OH–
(3) CO32– and water (4) CO32– and H+ (3) CO32– H 2O (4) CO32– H+
50. From the following bond energies : 50.
H–H bond energy : 431.37 kJ mol –1 :
H H H H H H H H
C = C + H –H H–C–C–H C = C + H –H H–C–C–H
H H H H H H H H
will be :-
(1) 1523.6 kJ (2) –243.6 kJ
(1) 1523.6 kJ (2) –243.6 kJ
(3) –120.0 kJ (4) 553.0 kJ (3) –120.0 kJ (4) 553.0 kJ
51. Select the correct option regarding 'ion 51. ' '
exchange resin' method. :-
(1) Cation exchanger give neutral H 2 O and (1)
Anion exchanger give Acidic H2O
(2) Cation exchanger give Acidic H 2 O and (2) H2O
Anion exchanger give Neutral H2O H2O
(3) Cation exchanger give Acidic H 2 O and (3) H2O
Anion exchanger give Alkaline H2O H2O
(4) Cation exchanger give Alkaline H2O and (4) H2O
Anion exchanger give Acidic H2O H2O
(2) BaC2O4 < BeC2O4 Solubility in water (2) BaC2O4 < BeC 2O4
(3) LiCl > NaCl Melting point order (3) LiCl > NaCl
(4) BeF2 > CaF2 Ionic character order (4) BeF2 > CaF2
Kw C 1 Kw C 1
(3) [OH–] = (4) pH = pK a (3) [OH–] = (4) pH = pK a
Ka 2 Ka 2
55. The percentage weight loss on heating 122.5 gm 55. 122.5 gm (Mw = 122.5 g/mol)
of pottasium chlorate (Mw = 122.5 g/mol) will ?
be :- (1) 39% (2) 30%
(1) 39% (2) 30% (3) 49% (4) 44% (3) 49% (4) 44%
56. Which of the following is e rich hydride :-
–
56. e– :-
(1) NH 3 (2) CH4 (1) NH 3 (2) CH4
(3) BH3 (4) CaH2 (3) BH3 (4) CaH2
57. Which is used in photoelectric effect ? 57.
(1) Li (2) Be
(3) Fe (4) Cs (1) Li (2) Be (3) Fe (4) Cs
58. Match list I with list II and select the correct 58. -I -II
answer: :
List I (species) List II (O-N-O angle) –I ( ) –II (O-N-O )
(P) NO +2 (1) 180° (P) NO +2 (1) 180°
(Q) NO 2 (2) 134° (Q) NO 2 (2) 134°
(R) NO2̄ (3) 120° (R) NO2̄ (3) 120°
(S) NO3̄ (4) 115°
(S) NO3̄ (4) 115°
(5) 109°
(5) 109°
:
P Q R S P Q R S
(1) 5 4 3 2 (1) 5 4 3 2
(2) 5 2 4 3 (2) 5 2 4 3
(3) 1 2 4 3 (3) 1 2 4 3
(4) 1 4 3 2 (4) 1 4 3 2
59. A 100 ml solution of 0.1 N HCl was titrated with 59. HCl 100 0.1 N
0.2 N NaOH solution. The titration was 0.2 N NaOH 30
discontinued after adding 30 ml of NaOH NaOH
solution. The remaining titration was completed 0.25 N KOH
by adding 0.25 N KOH solution. The volume of KOH
KOH required for completing the titration is :- :-
(1) 70 ml (2) 32 ml (1) 70 ml (2) 32 ml
(3) 35 ml (4) 16 ml (3) 35 ml (4) 16 ml
60. For reaction CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g) 60. CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g)
8500 8500
Kp is expressed as log K p 7.282 . The Kp log K p 7.282
T T
temperature (in degree celcius) to which the
vessel must be heated so that pressure of CO2 CO2 1 atm :-
is 1 atm at equilibrium, is :- (1) 850 (2) 1167
(1) 850 (2) 1167 (3) 894 (4) 8500 (3) 894 (4) 8500
61. Incorrect statement for the given configuration:- 61. :-
[Xe]4f75d 16s 2 [Xe]4f75d 16s 2
(1) It placed in d-block, IIIB group, 6th period (1) d- IIIB 6
+ + + +
(P) – + + – (1) p – d
(P) – + + – (1) p – d antibonding) – –
– –
+ + + + +
+
(2) d – d bonding) (Q) (2) d – d
(Q)
– – – – – –
+ +
+ +
(R) (3) p – d
(R) (3) p – d bonding) +
+
(S) (4) s – s
(S) (4) s – s antibonding)
:
Code :
P Q R S
P Q R S
(1) 2 1 3 4 (1) 2 1 3 4
(2) 4 3 1 2 (2) 4 3 1 2
(3) 2 3 1 4 (3) 2 3 1 4
(4) 4 1 3 2 (4) 4 1 3 2
69. In [Cr(O2) (NH3)4 H2O]Cl 2; oxidation number 69. [Cr(O2) (NH3)4 H2O]Cl2 Cr
of Cr is + 3, then oxygen will be in the form:- +3 :-
(1) oxide (2) Peroxide (1) (2)
(3) Superoxide (4) none (3) (4)
70. The exothermic formation of ClF 3 is 70. ClF3
represented by the equation
Cl2(g) + 3F2(g) 2ClF3(g) ; Hr = – 329 kJ Cl2(g) + 3F2(g) 2ClF3(g) ; Hr = – 329 kJ
Which of the following will increase the Cl2, F2 ClF3 ClF3
quantity of ClF3 in an equilibrium mixture of ?
Cl2, F2 and ClF3?
(1) Cl2
(1) Removing Cl2
(2)
(2) Increasing the temperature
(3) Adding inert gas at constant volume (3)
(4) Decreasing the volume of the container (4)
71. Match the column :- 71. :-
I II
Column I Column II
(A) (P) Na, Mg
(A) Natural transuranic (P) Na, Mg
element
(B) d-block element (Q) Be, Al (B) d- (Q) Be, Al
(2) O > S > S– > O– (I.P. order) (2) O > S > S– > O– (I.P. )
(3) (IP + EA)F > (IP + EA)Cl (3) (IP + EA)F > (IP + EA)Cl
(4) H2S > H2Se > H2Te (Acidic strength) (4) H2S > H2Se > H2Te ( )
77. C–C bond distance is the longest in: 77. C–C :
(1) C2H2 (2) C2H4 (1) C2H2 (2) C2H4
(3) C2H6 (4) C2H2F2 (3) C2H6 (4) C2H2F2
78. The number of possible lines of paschen series 78. H
when electron jumps from seventh excited state
to ground state (in hydrogen like atom sample)
is :-
(1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 3 (1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 3
79. An ideal gas is at pressure P and temperature 79. T P
T in a box, which is kept in vacuum within a
large insulated container. The wall of the box
is punctured. What happens as the gas occupies :
the entire container ? (1)
(1) It's temperature falls
(2)
(2) Its temperature rises
(3)
(3) Its temperature remains the same
(4) Unpredictable (4)
80. Which of the following conditions is favourable 80.
for liquefaction of gas ? ?
(1) T > TC ; P > PC (2) T < TC ; P > PC (1) T > TC ; P > PC (2) T < TC ; P > PC
(3) T = TC ; P = PC (4) T = TC ; P < PC (3) T = TC ; P = PC (4) T = TC ; P < PC
81. What is the correct order of ionisation energy :- 81. :-
(1) B > Tl > Ga > Al > In (1) B > Tl > Ga > Al > In
(2) B < Tl < Ga < Al < In (2) B < Tl < Ga < Al < In
(3) B > Ga > Tl > In > Al (3) B > Ga > Tl > In > Al
(4) None of these (4)
82. Correct order of bond length would be ? 82. S-O :-
SO3–2, SO2, SO3 SO3–2, SO2, SO3
(1) SO3–2 > SO2 > SO3 (2) SO2 > SO3–2 > SO3 (1) SO3–2 > SO2 > SO3 (2) SO2 > SO3–2 > SO3
(3) SO3 > SO2 > SO3–2 (4) SO3–2 = SO2 = SO3 (3) SO3 > SO2 > SO3–2 (4) SO3–2 = SO2 = SO3
83. Which of the following pairs of species are 83. :-
isoelectronic :-
(1) H2O, H2S (2) NO3–, CO3–2
(1) H2O, H2S (2) NO3–, CO3–2
(3) H3O+, K+ (4) HF, HCl (3) H3O+, K+ (4) HF, HCl
84. When one mole of an ideal gas is compressed 84.
to half of its initial volume and simultaneously
heated to twice its initial temperature, the
change in entropy of gas (S) is : :
(1) Cp,m ln 2 (1) Cp,m ln 2
(2) Cv, m ln 2 (2) Cv, m ln 2
(3) R ln 2 (3) R ln 2
(4) (Cv, m – R) ln 2 (4) (Cv, m – R) ln 2
85. How many grams of CH4 at NTP will occupy 85. NTP 8g SO3
the same volume that is occupied by 8g SO3 CH4
gas at NTP
(1) 8g (2) 1.6g
(1) 8g (2) 1.6g (3) 16g (4) 0.8g (3) 16g (4) 0.8g
86. In boron atom screening on outermost electron 86. e–
is due to :- :-
(1) electrons of K shell only (1) K e–
(2) all the electrons of K and L shell (2) K L e–
(3) two electrons of 1s and 2s each (3) 1s 2s 2e–
(4) only by electrons of L shell (4) L e–
87. In which of the following processes, the 87.
magnetic behaviour of the species is changed:- :-
(1) 2 CH3
C2 H 6
(1) 2 CH3
C2 H 6
(2) 2NO2
N2O4 (2) 2NO2
N2O4
(3) 2ClO3
Cl2O6 (3) 2ClO3
Cl2O6
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II, E-V (1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II, E-V
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-V, D-I, E-III (2) A-IV, B-II, C-V, D-I, E-III
(3) A-V, B-I, C-III, D-IV, E-II (3) A-V, B-I, C-III, D-IV, E-II
(4) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-II, E-III (4) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-II, E-III
95. Formation of primary xylem & primary phloem 95.
takes place by ............. .............
(1) Procambium (1)
(2) Interfascicular cambium (2)
(3) Intrafascicular cambium (3)
(4) Cork cambium (4)
96. Identify the given diagram :- 96. :-
A B A B
1 Anaphase Telophase 1
2 Telophase Interphase 2
3 Metaphase Anaphase 3
4 Telophase Anaphase 4
A A
B C B C
D D
Column-A Column-B -A -B
(1) i–a, ii–b, iii–c, iv–d (1) i–a, ii–b, iii–c, iv–d
(2) i–c, ii–a, iii–b, iv–d (2) i–c, ii–a, iii–b, iv–d
(3) i–c, ii–b, iii–d, iv–a (3) i–c, ii–b, iii–d, iv–a
(4) i–d, ii–c, iii–a, iv–b (4) i–d, ii–c, iii–a, iv–b
135. Answer the following questions (a,b,c) by using 135. (a,b,c)
the given diagram :- :-
a b c a b c
A B C D A B C D
(1) A-I, B-II, D-III (1) A-I, B-II, D-III
(2) A-I, B-III, C-II (2) A-I, B-III, C-II
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I (3) A-III, B-II, C-I
(4) A-III, B-I, D-II (4) A-III, B-I, D-II
144. Fill in the blanks with appropriate option :- 144. :-
(i) Xylem components which have perforations (i)
in their common walls are ......... .........
(ii) ......... have thickenings in cell wall which (ii) .........
vary in form.
(iii) ......... are specialized parenchymatous cells. (iii) .........
(iv) ......... is absent in most of monocots (iv) .........
Options : :
(1) (i) Trachieds (ii) Vessels (iii) Companion (1) (i) (ii) (iii)
cells (iv) Sieve tubes (iv)
(2) (i) Vessels (ii) Trachieds (iii) Sieve tubes (2) (i) (ii) (iii)
(iv) Companion cells (iv)
(3) (i) Vessels (ii) Trachieds (iii) Companion (3) (i) (ii) (iii)
cells (iv) Phloem parenchyma (iv)
(4) (i) Phloem parenchyma (ii) vessels (iii) (4) (i) (ii) (iii)
Trachieds (iv) Companion cells (iv)
145. Diagram is given below - 145. -
B B
A A
C C
Given the correct name of site A,B and C :- A,B C :-
A B C
A B C
1 Ribosome Rough Smooth
endoplasmic endoplasmic 1
reticulum reticulum
2 Ribosome Smooth Rough
endoplasmic endoplasmic 2
reticulum reticulum
3 Smooth Rough Ribosome
endoplasmic endoplasmic 3
reticulum reticulum
4 Rough Smooth Ribosome
4
endoplasmic endoplasmic
reticulum reticulum
146. Cell theory is given by :- 146. :-
(1) Matthias Schwann (German botanist) and (1) ( )
Theodore Schleiden (British zoologist) ( )
(2) Matthias Schwann (British zoologist) and (2) ( )
Theodore Schleiden (German botanist) ( )
(3) Theodore Schwann (German botanist) and (3) ( )
Matthias Schleiden (British zoologist) ( )
(4) Theodore Schwann (British zoologist) and (4) ( )
Matthias Schleiden (German botanist) ( )
H H
147. H2N–C–COOH is general formula of an amino 147. H2N–C–COOH
R R
acid, here R represents:- R
(1) An amino group (2) A carboxylic group (1) (2)
(3) A variable group (4) A hydroxyl group (3) (4)
148. If external solution balances the osmotic 148.
pressure of the cytoplasm it is said to be :- :-
(1) Isotonic (2) Hypotonic (1) (2)
(3) Hypertonic (4) Plasmolysis (3) (4)
149. 2H2A + CO2
Light
2A + CH2O + H2O 149. 2H2A + CO2 çdk'k
2A + CH2O + H2O
Above equation related with :- :-
(1) Joseph Preistley (2) Van Niel (1) (2)
(3) Jan Ingenhousz (4) T.W. Engelmann (3) (4) T.W.
X Y X Y
150. C C X Y +C C 150. C C X Y +C C
Above reaction calalysed by :- :-
(1) Hydrolases (2) Lyases (1) (2)
(3) Transferases (4) Ligases (3) (4)
151. Which of the following statement is incorrect 151.
for Algae :- :-
(1) Two, unequal lateral flagella are found in (1)
brown algae
(2) Chlorophyll-a is present in green, brown (2) a
and red algae
(3) The cellwall contain polysulphate esters in (3)
red algae
(4) Zoospores are found in red algae (4) (Zoospores)
152. Black rust of wheat is caused by :- 152. :-
(1) Puccinia (1)
(2) Albugo (2)
(3) Rhizopus (3)
(4) Claviceps (4)
153. Match the column-I with column-II. 153. -I -II
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
154. Conjoint type of vascular bundles are 154. :-
commonly found in :- (1) (2)
(1) Roots & stems (2) Stems & leaves
(3) Leaves & Roots (4) Only in stems (3) (4)
155. Which of the following pair is incorrect :- 155. ?
(1) Camillo Golgi - Golgi body (1) -
(2) Robert Hooke - Nucleus (2) -
(3) George Palade - Ribosome (3) -
(4) A.V. Leeuwenhoek - Animalcule (4) A.V. -
156. Choose the incorrect statement :- 156. :-
(1) M-phase is the most dramatic period of the
(1) M-
cell cycle.
(2) Chromosome condensation occurs during
prophase. (2)
(3) In G 1 phase, most of the organelles
duplicate. (3) G1
(4) G 1 phase marks the phase of DNA
(4) DNA G1
replication.
157. Which of the following amino acids is an 157.
aromatic amino acid ?
(1) Tyrosine (2) Lysine (1) (2)
(3) Methionine (4) Asparagine (3) (4)
158. Most of the water flow in the roots occurs via 158.
the :-
(1) Symplast (2) Apoplast (1) (2)
(3) Protoplast (4) Amyloplast (3) (4)
159. Cyclic photophosphorylation can occurs in :- 159. :-
(1) Grana lamellae only (1)
(2) Stroma lamellae only (2)
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) (1) (2)
(4) Stroma (4)
160. Increased vacuolation cell enlargement, and 160.
new cell-wall deposition are the characteristics :-
of :- (1) (2)
(1) Elongation phase (2) Maturation phase
(3) Meristamatic phase (4) Mitotic phase (3) (4)
161. Gemma cup can be observed in plant showing:- 161. :-
(1) Partially dependent sporophyte on (1)
gametophyte
(2)
(2) Elaters for spore dispersal
(3) Most advanced sporophyte (3)
(4) Protonema (4)
162. The fungal member causing white rust of 162.
mustard belongs to :- :-
(1) Basidiomycetes (2) Ascomycetes (1) (2)
(3) Phycomycetes (4) Deuteromycetes (3) (4)
163. Observe the following figures and correctly 163. A, B, C D
identify A, B, C and D respectively they are:-
A A
B B
C C
D D
Coconut ukfj;y
Mango vke
(1) Epicarp, Mesocarp, Seed, Endocarp (1) , , ,
(2) Epicarp, Mesocarp, Ovule, Endocarp (2) , , ,
(3) Epicarp, Mesocarp, Ovary, Endocarp (3) , , ,
(4) Epicarp, Mesocarp, Embryo, Endocarp (4) , , ,
164. Select characteristics of monocot roots from the 164. :-
followings :-
(1)
(1) Exarch xylem & inconspicous pith
(2) Polyarch xylem & inconspicous pith (2)
(3) Endarch, polyarch xylem, Large & well
(3)
developed pith
(4) Polyarch xylem, large & well developed pith (4)
165. Tonoplast present in :- 165. :-
(1) Mitochondria (2) Vacuole (1) (2)
(3) Plastid (4) Ribosome (3) (4)
166. Highest arm ratio occur in which chromosome :- 166. :-
(1) Submetacentric (2) Acrocentric (1) (2)
(3) Metacentric (4) Telocentric (3) (4)
167. In a 100 g living tissue, the amount of total 167. 100
proteins will be :-
(1) 10 - 20 g (2) 25 - 30 g (1) 10 - 20 g (2) 25 - 30 g
(3) 35 - 40 g (4) 75 - 90 g (3) 35 - 40 g (4) 75 - 90 g
168. Root pressure is :- 168. :-
(1) Positive pressure and active process (1)
(2) Positive pressure and passive process (2)
(3) Negative pressure and active process (3)
(4) Negative pressure and passive process (4)
169. NADP reductase enzyme is located :- 169. NADP reductase :-
(1) on the lumen side of thylakoid membrane (1) (Lumen)
(2) on the stroma side of the thylakoid membrane (2) (Stroma)
(3) in lumen (3)
(4) in stroma (4)
170. Environmental heterophylly present in :- 170. :-
(1) Cotton (2) Coriander (1) (2)
(3) Buttercup (4) Larkspur (3) (4)
171. Heterosporous, vascular, seed producing plant 171.
is :- :-
(1) Selaginella (2) Pinus (1) (2)
(3) Funaria (4) Ulothrix (3) (4)
172. Find out the mismatch with respect to fungi :- 172. :-
(1) Aquatic habitat-phycomycetes (1)
(2) 8 asexual ascospore-ascomycetes (2) 8
(3) Dolipore septa-basidiomycetes (3)
(4) No sexual spores-deuteromycetes (4)
173. Different types of phyllotaxies are shown in the 173.
following figures. Identify the type of (A, B C) ?
phyllotaxies (A, B and C) ?
A B C
A B C (1) A- , B- , C-
(1) A-Alternate, B-Opposite, C-Whorled
(2) A-Whorled, B-Opposite, C-Alternate (2) A- , B- , C-
C C
B B
A A
A B C
A B C
1
1 Central Interdoublet Central
microtubule bridge sheath
2
2 Interdoublet Central Central
bridge microtubule sheath
3 Central Interdoublet Central 3
sheath bridge microtubule
4 Interdoublet Central Central 4
bridge sheath microtubule
6 6
CH2OH CH2OH
5 O 5 O
HO H OH HO H OH
1 1
4
OH H H
4
OH H H
H 2 H 2
3 3
H OH H OH