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DATE : 17-05-14 CODE - A

VIBRANT ACADEMY
(India) Private Limited
A-14(A), Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota-324005 (Raj.)
Tel.:(0744) 2428664, 2428666, 2423406, 3205261, 3205262 Fax: 2423405
Email: admin@vibrantacademy.com Website : www.vibrantacademy.com

IRP H1- BATCH TEST–2 (COURSE-2014)


JEE Advance (Paper-2)
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 180
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 60 questions. The booklet has
36 pages.

2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and
on the back page (page no. 36) of this booklet.

3. The question paper contains 1 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets
will be provided for rough work.

4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.

5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and VA
Roll No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 36) of this booklet.

6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided


separately.

7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

8. Do not open the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.

B. Question paper format  Read the instructions printed on the back page

C. Marking scheme  (page no. 36) of this booklet.
Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the information filled
shall abide by them. in by the candidate.

.......................................................... ............................................................
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the invigilator

USEFUL DATA
Atomic weights: H = 1, He = 4, Li = 7, g = 10 m/s2 , B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Ne = 20, Na = 23,
Mg = 24, Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Ar = 40 , Ti = 48, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56,
Co = 59, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.5, Br = 80, Mo = 96, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, U = 238
PART I : MATHEMATICS
SECTION - I
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
1. Let A * B = A2B2 + B2A2, then which of the following is/are correct.
(A) If A and B are involutary then D = A * B is also involutary.
(B) If A and B are symmetric then D = A * B is also symmetric
(C) If A and B are skew-symmetric then D = A * B is also skew-symmetric
(D) A * B = B * A

2. If B is a skew-symmetric matrix of order n and A is a n × 1 column matrix, then for the matrix M = AT BA,
which of the following statement(s) is/are true :
(A) M is invertible (B) M is singular (C) M is non-singular (D) M is a null matrix

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MATHEMATICS
3. If  is a non real cube root of unity. Then the value of
1 . (2 – ) · (2 – 2) + 2 . (3 – ) (3 – ) + ........... + (n – 1) (n – ) (n – 2) is
2
n 2 (n  1)2  n(n  1) 
(A) real (B) –n+1 (C)   –n (D) non real
4  2 

sin2 x cos 2 x

 sin  t  dt +  cos 1 t  dt , then


1
4. Let f(x) =
0 0

       


(A) f   = (B) f    0 (C) f    (D) f   
 2 3 4 3 4 4 4

5. If (x – 2)2 + (y – 2)2 = 1, then which of the following is true.


(A) maximum value of x + y is 4  2 (B) maximum value of x – y is 2

94 2 x 4 7
(C) maximum value of xy is (D) maximum value of is
2 y 3

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MATHEMATICS
6. If all the roots of z3 + az2 + bz + c = 0 are of unit modulus , then

(A) |a|  3 (B) |b|  3 (C) |c| = 1 (D) None of these

7. If z1 = a + ib and z2 = c + id are two complex numbers where a, b, c, d  R and |z1| = |z2| = 1 and Im
(z1 z2 )  0 . If w1 = a + ic and w2 = b + id , then

 w1   w1 
(A) Im ( w 1 w 2 )  0 (B) Im ( w 1 w 2 )  0 (C) Im  w   0 (D) Re  0

 2  w2 

8. If the co-efficient of x2r is greater than half of the co-efficient of x2r + 1 in the expansion of (1 + x)15 ; than the
possible value of ‘r’ equals to
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION - II
Comprehension Type
This section contains 4 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice questions based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 9 to 10
The equations of the sides AB, BC and CA of a ABC are x + 2y = 0, x + py = q and x – y = 3 respectively.
Given, a fixed point P(2, 3).
9. P is the orthocenter of ABC then equation of side BC is :
(A) y + 5 = 0 (B) y – 5 = 0 (C) 5y + 1 = 0 (D) 5y – 1 = 0
10. If P is the circumcenter of ABC then the centroid of ABC is (x1, y1). The value of 15(x1 + y1) is
(A) 41 (B) 43 (C) 47 (D) 49
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MATHEMATICS
Paragraph for Question Nos. 11 to 12
Let y = f(x) = x2 – ax + b2 where a  N
11. If x axis touches the curve y = f(x) at x = 2 and the straight lines 4y = m1x + 7 and 4y = m2x + 7 (m1 < m2)
m1
are also tangents to y = f(x) then the value of m will be
2

1 1
(A) (B) 3 (C) (D) 7
3 7
12. If f(1 + x) = f(1 – x)  x  R and f(x)  8  x  R then smallest positive value of b is :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

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MATHEMATICS
Paragraph for Question Nos. 13 to 14
x 1 y2 z3
Let L be the line whose equations are   . Let P represent the point (1, 2, 3). L meets the
1 2 1
plane  given by the equation x + y + z = 10 at A. Produce PA to B such that PA = AB. Let C be the image of
B w.r.t . Let D be a point on the plane  such that ABDC is a parallelogram. Let L1 be the projection of L on .

13. Equation of L1 is
7  3x 3y 10 13  3z 7  3 x 3 y  10 13  3z
(A)   (B)  
1 2 1 2 2 1
7  3 x 3 y  10 13  3z 7  3 x 3 y  10 13  3z
(C)   (D)  
0 1 2 1 2 2

14. Equation of line CD is


3x 1 3 y  10 3 z  7 3x 1 3 y  10 3 y  7
(A)   (B)  
0 2 0 2 0 0
x y z 3x 1 3 y  10 3 z  7
(C)   (D)  
1 2 1 1 2 1

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MATHEMATICS
Paragraph for Question Nos. 15 to 16
Let z1 and z2 be complex numbers such what z12 – 4z2 = 16 + 20i. Also suppose the roots  and of

t2 + z1t + z2 + m = 0 for some complex number m satisfying |– | = 2 7 , then


15. The complex number 'm' lies on
(A) a square with side 7 and centre (4, 5) (B) a circle with radius 7 and centre (4, 5)
(C) a circle with radius 7 and centre (–4, 5) (D) a square with side 7 and centre (–4, 5)

16. The greatest value of |m| is


(A) 5 21 (B) 5 + 23 (C) 7 + 43 (D) 7 + 41

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION - III
Matching List Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching lists. The codes for
the lists have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
17. An acute angled triangle is formed by joining origin O to the points A and B which have position vectors
 
a and b respectively. The points P and Q with position vectors 3 î  ĵ  k̂ and 3 î  ĵ  k̂ respectively are
the foot of perpendiculars drawn from A and B on opposite sides. AP and BQ intersect at H.
List-I List-II
(P) The value of 9where is the area of OAB, is (1) 50
(Q) The value of 72 where is the area of AHB, is (2) 500
(R) The value of 40(OH) 2 is (3) 100
   
(S) The value of 9 (a  b)2 +9 (a  b )2 is (4) 250

Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 1 3 4 2
(D) 1 4 3 2

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MATHEMATICS
18. List- I List - II
n
–1 2 
(P) Let Sn =  cot
r 1
 – 2  , then the value of
 r 
(1)
4

lim  Sn – n  is equal to
n 2 

 3 x 3  2x 2 – x 2  x  
(Q) The value of xlim
   is (2)
  6

1
–1 3
(R) The value of  cos ( x 3  3 x ) dx is (3)
4
–1


1
(S)  (1  x
0
17
) (1  x 2 )
dx is equal to (4) 

Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 3 1 4 2

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MATHEMATICS
19. Five balls b1, b2, b3, b4,b5 are kept at random in five foxes B1, B2, B3, B4, B5, one in each box. Let P(r) be the
probability of r balls going to corresponding numbered boxes.
List-I List-II
1
(P) P(0) = (1)
12
3
(Q) P(1) = (2)
8
1
(R) P(2) = (3)
6
11
(S) P(3) = (4)
30
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 4 2 1 3
(D) 4 2 3 1

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MATHEMATICS
20. List-I List-II

(P) If the vectors V1  î  c ĵ  bk̂, V2  c î  ĵ  ak̂, and (1) 4

V3  b î  a ĵ  k̂ are in the same plane then the value of


a2 + b2 + c2 + 2abc is equal to

 x 5 12
 
0 1 x
(Q) Let A =  be a square matrix (2) 1
2 0 x 

The value of x  N for which A is singular, is equals to

(R) The number of solutions of the equation (3) 2

N
cos 15 = cos 3in [0, ] is N then =
4

  1  
(S) lim  (tan x )1/ x  (1  sin x ) x  3  sin x   , x > 0 is equal to (4) 3
x 0   tan x  
1

(where [.] denotes the greatest integer function)


Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 2 4 3 1
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PART II : PHYSICS
SECTION - I
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
21. Two springs P and Q have force constants k1 and k2 such that k1 > k2. The work done in stretching the two
springs is
(A) More for spring P than for spring Q when they are stretched by the same force
(B) More for spring P than for spring Q where they are stretched by the same amount
(C) More for spring P than for spring Q when they are stretched by the same amount but more for spring Q
when they are stretched by the same force
(D) More for spring Q than for spring P when they are stretched by the same amount but more for spring P
when they are stretched by the same force

22. The angle of deviation () vs angle of incidence (i) is plotted for a prism. Pick up the correct statements.
(A) The angle of prism is 60º 

(B) The refractive index of the prism is n = 3 65º


(C) For deviation to be 65º the angle of incidence i1 = 55º
60º
(D) The curve of ‘’ vs ‘i’ is parabolic
i1 60º 70º

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PHYSICS
23. A real image of a luminous object is formed by a convex lens at the bottom of an empty beaker.

The beaker is filled to a depth of 7 cm with a liquid of refractive index 1.4. Then in order to get the image again
at the bottom of the beaker, it should be shifted vertically. Which of the following is/are correct.
(A) Magnitude of shift is 2 cm (B) Magnitude of shift is 2.8 cm
(C) Shift should be downward (D) Shift should be upward

24. Two identical straight wires are stretched so as to produce 6 beats per second when vibrating simultaneously
in fundamental mode. On changing the tension slightly in one of them, the beat frequency remains unchanged.
Denoting by T1 and T2 the higher and the lower initial tension in the strings, then it could be said that while
making the above changes in tension
(A) T2 was decreased (B) T2 was increased (C) T1 was decreased (D) T1 was increased

25. In a comet-Sun system, the position of the comet closest to the Sun is called perihelion, and the position of
the comet farthest from the Sun is called aphelion. The quantities that have their highest values only when
the comet is in perihelion are
(A) the acceleration (B) the potential energy of the comet-Sun system
(C) the speed (D) the total energy of the comet-Sun system

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PHYSICS
26. In an x-ray tube, if the accelrating potential difference is increased then :
(A) the frequency of characteristic x-rays of a material will get changed
(B) number of electron reaching the anode will change
(C) number of characteristic x-ray lines may increase
(D) the difference between 0 (minimum wavelength) and k (wavelength of kx-ray) will get changed

27. Suppose a golf ball is hurled at a heavy bowling ball initially at rest and bounces elastically from the bowling
ball. After the collision.
(A) the golf ball has the greater momentum
(B) the bowling ball has the greater momentum
(C) the golf ball has smaller kinetic energy
(D) the bowling ball has smaller kinetic energy

dP P2
28. If for 2 moles of a diatomic ideal gas = . (symbols have usual meaning)
dV 2RT
Choose the correct option(s).
(A) Molar heat capacity for the process = 3R
(B) x = –1
(C) x = – 3

dP P2
(D)  if no. of moles of diatomic gas is 3
dV 3RT

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PHYSICS
SECTION - II
Comprehension Type
This section contains 4 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice questions based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 29 to 30
A thin spherical shell of radius R has charge Q distributed uniformly on its outer surface.

+z

–z
 
29. What is line integral of the electric field E. d  along z-axis from – to +?

Q Q
(A) (B) (C) zero (D) cannot be calculated
2 0 R 4 0 R

30. The sphere is now set in rotation with constant angular velocity  about z-axis. What is line integral of the
 
magnetic field B. d  along z-axis from – to +?

4Q0  2Q 0  Q 0  Q0 
(A) (B) (C) (D)
  4 2

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PHYSICS
Paragraph for Question Nos. 31 to 32
In the figure shown, the focal length of the two thin convex lenses is the same = f. They are separated by a
horizontal distance 3f and their optical axes are displaced by a vertical separation ‘d’ (d << f), as shown. Take
the origin of coordinates O at the center of the first lens.
y

O x

3f

31. The first lens, the x coordinate of the point where a parallel beam of rays coming from the left finally gets
focussed, is given by
(A) 5f (B) 6f (C) 4f (D) 2f

32. y coordinate of the point in above problem is


(A) d/2 (B) 2d (C) 4d (D) None of these

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PHYSICS
Paragraph for Question Nos. 33 to 34
Consider the figure that follows.
Switch S

R1

A Power supply 15 V

R2

The voltage of the power supply of the circuit shown above is 15 V. The switch is open and the voltmeter
reads 10 V and the ammeter reads 200 m A.
33. Choose the correct values of resistors
(A) R1 = 25 , R2 = 50  (B) R1 = 50 , R2 = 25 
(C) R1 = 50 , R2 = 100  (D) R1 = 100 , R2 = 50 
34. Now switch is closed, what are the readings of Ammeter and voltmeter respectively?

3 3 3
(A) A, 15 V (B) A, 7.5 V (C) A, 5 V (D) None of these
10 5 20

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PHYSICS
Paragraph for Question Nos. 35 to 36
Figure shows a lens with radius of curvature R lying on a plane glass plate and illuminated from above by light
having wavelength . Due to interference between the light reflected from the lower surface of the lens and
the upper surface of the glass plate, circular interference fringes (called Newton’s ring) appear, associated
with the variable thickness of the air film between the lens and the plate as one moves from O to P. For a
point Q distant r from O let us take the thickness of air film is t, then for bright rings, (for normal incidence of
light).
C C

Incident
light R R

Lens
d t

O P O Q
r
Plane glass plate

2t = (2n – 1) where n = 1, 2, 3, ...... and  is the refrective index of air which is equal to 1.
2


So, for bright rings 2t = (2n – 1)
2
For dark rings, 2t = n

From 2nd figure (R – t)2 + r2 = R2


 r2 = t(2R – t) or r2  2Rt ; (t << R)

as t << R, so r= 2Rt

(2n  1)R
So, radius for bright rings is given by r=
2

and radius for dark rings is given by r= nR


Based on above information answer the following questions :
35. If radii of nth and (n + 60)th dark rings are mesured and found to be 0.16 cm and 0.64 cm respectively for light
of wavelength 520 nm, then the radius of curvature of the lens is :
(A) 1.23 m (B) 1.64 m (C) 0.5 m (D) 0.1 m

36. In above experiment the diameter of 10th ring (bright) is changing from 1.5 to 1.25 cm when a liquid is
introduced between the lens and the plate. The refrective index of the liquid is
(A) 1.33 (B) 1.5 (C) 1.44 (D) 1.6

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PHYSICS
SECTION - III
Matching List Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching lists. The codes for
the lists have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
37. Case-I : Identical point charges of magnitude Q are kept at the corners of a regular hexagon of side a.
Case-II : One charge is now removed.
List-I List-II

1 6Q
(P) Electric field at centre of hexagon in case-I (1) 4 o a

(Q) Electric potential at centre of hexagon in case-I (2) Zero

1 Q
(R) Electric field at centre of hexagon in case-II (3) 4 o a 2

1 5Q
(S) Electric potential at centre of hexagon in case-II (4) 4 o a

Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 1 2 3 4

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PHYSICS
38. Four charged particles, (–q, m), (–3q, 4m), (+q, m) and (+3q, 4m) enter in uniform magnetic field (in inward
direction) with same kinetic energy as shown in figure. Inside the magnetic field, their paths are shown.

×x × × y×
× × × ×
×w × × z×

× × × ×

List-I List-II
(P) Particle (–q, m) (1) w
(Q) Particle (–3q, 4m) (2) x
(R) Particle (+q, m) (3) y
(S) Particle (+3q, 4m) (4) z
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 1 2 3 4

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PHYSICS
39. In the circuit shown, the reading of ammeter is (rms) 10 A and that of VC (rms) = 200 V.

VL VC

A B
L 100

~
1000 2 sint
List-I List-II
(P) Impedance (in ) (1) 100
(Q) XC(in ) (2) 20
(R) VL(in V) rms (3) 200
(S) Power factor × 150 (4) 150
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 1 4 3 2

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PHYSICS
40. Magnetic flux passing through a coil of resistance 2is as shown in figure.
(Wb)

t(s)
2
List-I List-II
(P) Induced emf produced (in V) (1) 4
(Q) Induced current (in A) (2) 1
(R) Charge flow in 3s (in C) (3) 3
(S) Heat generation in 2 s (in J) (4) 2
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 4 2 3 1
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 1 4 3 2

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PART III : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - I
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
41. Which of the following anion is uninegative bidentate ligand?
(A) Acetylacetonate ion (B) Oxalate ion (C) Dimethlyglyoximate ion (D) None of these

AlCl3 AlCl3
(>1 eq.); (catalyst),
42. Major product (X) Major product (Y)
then Br2 Br2
O
Which of the following are the correct option(s)

(A) (X) = (B) (Y) =


Br Br
O O
Br Br
(C) (X) = (D) (Y) =

O O

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CHEMISTRY
43. Select the correct statement(s)
(A) The solution of H2O and C2H5OH formed minimum boiling azeotrope
(B) Free energy as well as entropy of mixing is zero for ideal solution
(C) In freezing equilibrium exists between solid solute and liquid solution
(D) For the solution of CHCl3 and CH3COCH3, enthalpy of mixing is less than zero

44. Which of the following compounds is(are) likely to be aromatic.


CC

..
: C
(A) (B) (C) C C (D)
O:
..
C

45. Select the equation(s) having endothermic nature


(A) S–(g)  S2–(g) (B) Na+(g) + Cl–(g)  NaCl(s)

(C) N(g)  N (g) (D) Al2+(g)  Al3+(g)
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CHEMISTRY
46. A compound 'X' evolves CO2 when treated with NaHCO3 but gives negative test with tollen's reagent and
fehling's solution. On treatment with CHCl3, KOH, a foul smelling organic compound is formed. If 'X' do not
give positive iodoform test, which of the following satisfy the conditions to be 'X'

O
COOH NH2
NH2 O
NH2 OH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
COOH O
O NH2
47. Select correct statement(s)
(A) A NaCl type AB crystal lattice can be interpreted to be made up of two individual FCC type lattice of A+
and B– fused together in such a manner that the corner of one unit lattice become edge centre of the
other.
(B) In a face centred cubic unit cell, the body centre is octahedral void.
(C) In a simple cubic unit cell, there is no octahedral void
(D) In a body centred cubic unit cell, the body centre is body central void

48. Which of the following molecules can be synthesized in good yield using intramolecular aldol condensation
reaction ?

O O O
CH=O
CH3
CH3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
CH3

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - II
Comprehension Type
This section contains 4 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice questions based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 49 to 50
50 ml 0.1 M H2CO3 is titrated with 0.1 M NaOH. Volume of NaOH use for the titration is V ml.
Given : log2 = 0.3

K a1 (H2 CO 3 )  4  10 –6 ; K a2 (H 2CO 3 )  4  10 –10

Indicator pH range
Methyl Orange 3.1 – 4.4
Methyl Red 4.2 – 6.3
Phenol Red 6.8 – 8.4
Phenolphathlene 8.3 – 10
49. Which indicator is suitable for titration when V = 50 ml
(A) Methyl Red (B) Phenol Red (C) Phenolphathlene (D) Methyl Orange

50. Which indicator is suitable for titration when V = 75


(A) Methyl Red (B) Phenol Red (C) Phenolphathlene (D) Methyl Orange
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CHEMISTRY
Paragraph for Question Nos. 51 to 52

(S) (Black ppt)

CuSO4 Soln.

NaOH soln. Cl2 water


(P) (Q) + (R) (T)
Colourless  gas Colourless chloroform Violet
salt soln. layer layer

51. The compound (P) is :


(A) NH4I (B) PH4I (C) NH4Br (D) PH4Br

52. The black ppt (S) is :


(A) Cu3P2 (B) Cu(SCN)2 (C) CuS (D) CuO

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CHEMISTRY
Paragraph for Question Nos. 53 to 54
H2SO 4
(A) White substance   (B) Colourless gas + (C) Colourless solution
dil.

K Cr O
(B) 2 

 Green solution + (D) Coloured ppt
2 7

air (B) Anhydrous


(D) 
 (E) gas  (D) + Colourless liquid    Blue colour
burn reaction copper sulphate

addition of
(C)    (ppt.) Excess
   clear solution
NH3 or NaOH of NH3 or NaOH

53. Compound (B) is


(A) H2S (B) SO2 (C) SO3 (D) CO2

54. Compound (D) is


(A) ZnS (B) S (C) SO2 (D) CO
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CHEMISTRY
Paragraph for Question Nos. 55 to 56
Consider the reaction of butadiene with the diatomic molecule IN3.

IN3

I I N3 N3
N3 N3 I I
(I) (II) (III) (IV)

I I N3
N3

(V) (VI)

55. Which of the above products represents the major predicted kinetic product ?
(A) (I) (B) (II) (C) (V) (D) (VI)

56. Which of the above products represents the major predicted thermodynamic product ?
(A) (III) (B) (IV) (C) (V) (D) (VI)

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - III
Matching List Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching lists. The codes for
the lists have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
57. Column-I Column-II
(Metal) (Process involved in commercial extraction)
(P) Silver (1) Fused salt electrolysis
(Q) Lead (2) Complex formation followed by metal
displacement
(R) Iron (3) Carbon monoxide reduction
(S) Magnesium (4) Self reduction
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 2 4 3 1
(B) 1 4 3 2
(C) 4 2 3 1
(D) 1 2 3 4

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CHEMISTRY
58. Match the correct codes for substituents on the rate of BAC2 Saponification of Different Acetic esters.
O
O
C OH H3C – C
H3C OR k
O
List-I List-II
–R krelative
(P) –Et (1) 1.0
(Q) –iPr (2) 0.70
(R) tert-Butyl (3) 0.18
(S) –CEt3 (4) 0.031
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 1 2 3 4

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CHEMISTRY
o o o o
59. Given : EFe 2 | Fe  –0.44 V ; EFe 3 | Fe  2  0.77 V ; E Ag | Ag  0.8 V ; ECu  | Cu  0.53 V

EoCu  2 | Cu  0.34 V ; Ksp(AgCl) = 10–10 ; Kf(Ag(NH3)+2) = 108


List-I (Half cell reaction) List-II (EoOP)
(P) Fe(s)  Fe+3(aq) + 3e– (1) –0.209 V
(Q) Ag(s) + 2NH3(aq)  Ag(NH3)2+(aq) + e– (2) –0.15V
(R) Ag(s) + Cl–(aq)  AgCl(s) + e– (3) 0.0367 V
(S) Cu+(aq)  Cu2+ (aq) + e– (4) –0.3272 V
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 1 2 3 4

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CHEMISTRY
60. List-I List-II

Et
|
H2O
(P) C – Cl   (1) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
|
CH3

CH3

EtO / EtOH
(Q)    (2) Racemic mixture will be formed

Cl

NaI
(R)   (3) Only inverted product will obtain
acetone
Br

CH3

(S) H OH SOCl
2
  (4) Elimination reaction
Et

Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 1,2 4 1, 3 1
(B) 1,3 2,3 1,4 1,2,3
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 1,3 4 1,2 1

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DATE : 17-05-14 CODE - A
Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

B. Question paper format :


9. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics).
Each part has 3 sections.

10. Section I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which one or more is/are correct.

11. Section II contains 4 groups of questions. Each groups has 2 questions based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which only one of correct.

12. Section III contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching
lists. The codes for the lists have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.

C. Marking Scheme :
13. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the
bubble(s) corresponding to only the correct answer(s) and zero mark if no bubble is
darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (–1) mark will be
awarded.

14. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the
bubble corresponding to only the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is
darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (–1) mark will be
awarded.

15. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the
bubble corresponding to only the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is
darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (–1) mark will be
awarded.

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