1.

In India's constitutional framework, which of the

following can be considered as sovereign?
ANALYSE YOURSELF
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Only 1
2
(b) Only 3
(d) 1 and 2
(a) The Judiciary
(b) The Parliament
7. Right to Life and Liberty guaranteed by Article 21
has been expanded by the Supreme Court to include
(c) The Army
which of the following rights as well?
(d) The People of India
1. Right to Information 2. Right to Die
2. With regard to the territory of the nation, the 3. Right to Food 4. Right to Healthy
Constitution of India provides which of the following Environment
powers in specific articles? Select the correct answer using the codes given below
1. The power to change the name of a state. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
2. Power to incorporate new territories in the country. (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
3. Power to alter the boundaries of states.
4. Power or cede territory to a foreign country. 8. Freedom of speech can be curtailed by Indian
Constitution in which of the following cases?
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 1. In the interest of public order.
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these 2. In the interest of security of state.
3. In the interest of discipline of public servants.
3. Altering of the boundaries of states amends the First 4. In the interest of religious sentiments.
Schedule of the Constitution. Thus, a bill for such Select the correct answer using the codes given below
purpose requires to be passed by which of the following (a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 3
methods in the Parliament? (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
(a) Simple majority
(b) Two-third majority with majority of the total membership 9. The differences between the writs issued by the
(c) Two-third majority with half of the states also approving Supreme Court under Article 32 and the High Court
(d) None of the above under Article 226 are
1. the authority or person against whom the writs are
4. Which of the following is not a method of acquiring the issued must be present within the territorial
citizenship of India?
jurisdiction of the High Court.
(a) Being born within the territory of India
2. Supreme Court can issue writs for enforcement of
(b) Being ordinarily resident in India for 5 years, followed by
registration by a PIO only Fundamental Rights while High Court can issue
(c) Being ordinarily resident in India for 10 years by a foreigner even for ordinary rights.
(d) Being a child of Indian parents, but born outside the 3. Supreme Court can issue writs against both Union
territory of India and State Governments while High Court can issue
only against State Government.
5. The difference between Fundamental Rights and other Which of the statement (s) given above is/are correct?
Constitutional Rights is that (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(a) Fundamental Right cannot be amended while others (c) Only 2 (d) All of these
can be
(b) Fundamental Rights can be secured by directly 10. The Right of Minorities to establish educational
approaching Supreme Court under Article 32 while other institutions under Article 30, is subject to which of
rights don’t have such protection the following limitations?
(c) Fundamental Rights are available only to citizens while 1. State can apply regulations to unaided minority
others are available to everyone institutions to achieve excellence.
Practice Set 2

(d) Fundamental Rights are justiciable while others are not 2. Aided minority institutions should admit some non-
minority students.
6. According to the Constitution, the Right to Equality and
Prohibition of Discrimination (Article 15) can be 3. Fees charged by unaided minority institutions can be
overlooked to make special policies for regulated.
1. women. 4. Minority status is determined by reference to the state.
2. children. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
3. SCs or STCs. 4. old age persons.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
 196 Magbook ~ Indian Polity and Governance
11. Which of the following is true regarding Fundamental (b) Committee on the welfare of Scheduled Castes and
Duties (Article 51A)? Scheduled Tribes
(a) Not performing Fundamental Duties can lead to jail (c) Public Accounts committee
(d) Committee on subordinate legislation
(b) Not performing Fundamental Duties can lead to taking
away of Fundamental Rights for such individual 19. In which of the following cases, Supreme Court has
(c) They are a basic feature of the Constitution of India no adjudicatory jurisdiction?
(d) They are taken from the similar provisions in the (a) Inter state river water disputes (Article 262)
Constitution of erstwhile Soviet Union (b) Delimitation of constituencies (Article 329)
12. In the single transferable vote system which is adopted (c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
for elections to the Rajya Sabha, which of the following (d) Neither ‘a’ nor ‘b’
circumstances may lead to transfer of vote from one 20. Which of the following participate in the election of
contestant to another according to preferences the Vice-President of India?
expressed by each elector?
(a) Elected members of Legislative Assemblies of the
(a) When a candidate obtains more than the quota
states
(b) When a candidate obtains less than the quota
(b) Elected member of Legislative Councils of the states
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(c) Elected members of Legislative Assemblies of the
(d) Neither ‘a’ nor ‘b’
Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry
13. Judicial review being banned from the decisions related (d) None of the above
to disqualifications of members of legislature by the
21. Which of the following is an example of residuary
presiding officers for defection was struck down by the
powers in India?
Supreme Court while determining the legality of
Anti-Detection law. It is an example of 1. Disaster management 2. Prevention detention
(a) Doctrine of Severability 3. Service taxation 4. Labour taxes
(b) Doctrine of Harmonious Construction Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(c) Doctrine of Judicial Supremacy (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(d) None of the above (c) Only 1 (d) 1 and 3

14. State Legislative makes a law on planning. Parliament
also makes a law on same subject. State law is subject
to which of the following doctrines in this context?
(a) Doctrine of Harmonious Construction
(b) Doctrine of Eclipse
(c) Doctrine of Severability
(d) None of the above
22. The minimum number of judges who are to sit for
the purpose of deciding any case involving a
substantial question of law as to the interpretation
of the Constitution or for the purpose of hearing any
reference under Article 143 shall be
(a) 5 (b) 7
(c) 9 (d) 11

15. Doctrine of Harmonious Construction is not applied to 23. Under the Constitution of India, the system of
(a) Fundamental Rights and DPSP’s in their mutual relations proportional representation has been partially
(b) Federal relationship adopted for
(c) Parliament and judiciary 1. Lok Sabha 2. State Assemblies
(d) None of the above 3. Rajya Sabha 4. State Legislative Councils
16. Consider the following regarding the surcharge on Select the correct answer using the codes given below
certain taxes and duties for purposes of the union. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
1. It is imposed by the Parliament.
2. It is imposed shared with the states. 24. Which of the following are features of a true
3. Its uppermost limit as a percentage is 10% of the tax. democracy?
4. It cannot last for more than 3 years. 1. One man one vote principle
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 2. Territorial representation
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 3. Adult suffrage
(c) Only 1 (d) 1 and 4 4. Single transferable system of voting
17. Which of the following is the oldest financial committee Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Practice Set 2

of the Parliament? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3

(a) Public Accounts committee (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these
(b) Estimates committee
(c) Committee on public undertakings
25. Doctrine of Prospective Overruling is a concept
applied by the Supreme Court in which of the
(d) Business Advisory committee
following cases?
18. Which of the following is a constitutional committee of (a) Golak Nath case
the Parliament? (b) Kesavananda Bharati case
(a) Parliamentary committee on languages (c) Minerva Mills case
(d) None of the above
Magbook ~ Practice Set 2
26. Special leave petition of the Supreme Court does not
extend to which of the following judgement decrees?
(a) Interim order
(b) Any court or tribunal constituted by or under any law
relating to the armed forces
(c) Criminal cases
(d) All of the above
27. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the
constitutional provisions relating to the Election
commission?
(a) Salaries of Chief Election commission and other
Election Commissioners are charged on the
Consolidated Fund of India
(b) Election Commissioners are removed like Judges of
Supreme Court
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ (d) Neither ‘a’ nor ‘b’
28. Inferred rights are those that are read into which of the
following articles of the Constitution by the Supreme
Court?
(a) Article 19 (b) Article 21 (c) Article 31 (d) All of these
29. Consider the following statements about Zero Hour
1. It is the first hour of every sitting in both the Houses of
the Parliament.
2. It is mentioned in the Rules of Business of the Houses
of the Parliament.
3. During this time, matters are raised without any prior
notice.
4. It is the time immediately following the Question Hour
in both the Houses of the Parliament.
5. It is an Indian innovation in parliamentary procedure
since 1964-1965.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 5 (d) 2, 3 and 5
30. Which of the following Bills does not lapse on
dissolution of the Lok Sabha?
1. Bills introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
2. Bills originating in and passed by the Rajya Sabha and
returned to that house by the Lok Sabha with
amendments and still pending there on the date of
dissolution.
3. Bills passed by the Parliament and returned by the
President for repassage.
4. Bill passed by the Rajya Sabha and sent to the Lok
Sabha and are pending in the Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
31. All Constitution Amendment Bills (Article 368)
(a) can be introduced only by ministers
(b) have to be passed by half the State Legislatives
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) Neither ‘a’ nor ‘b’
32. Consider the following statements about adjournment
motion
1. It is an extraordinary procedure which sets aside the
normal business of the house.
197
2. Its main object is to draw the attention of the house to a
recent matter to urgent public importance.
3. The Rajya Sabha can make use of this procedure.
4. It must be supported by not less than 50 members for
introduction.
5. It involves an element of censure against government.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
33. Pensions of High Court Judge are charged on the
(a) Consolidated Fund of India
(b) Consolidated Fund of State
(c) Subject to decisions of Supreme Court
(d) None of the above
34. A Joint Session of the Parliament to resolve the
deadlock between two houses is presided over by the
Speaker of Lok Sabha and in his absence the Deputy
Speaker. If Deputy Speaker is also absent
(a) Chairman
(b) Deputy Chairman
(c) Most senior the member of the Lok Sabha
(d) Most seniormost member nominated by the President
35. Quorum is the minimum number of members whose
attendance is mandatory for the house proceeding to
start or continue proceeding of the house. One-tenth of
which of the following makes up the quorum for both
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha?
(a) Total membership of House
(b) Members present in the House
(c) Maximum strength of the House
(d) To be determined by the presiding officer
36. When passing a Constitution Amendment Bill, special
majority is required at which of the following stages?
(a) Introduction (b) Consideration
(c) Vote (d) All of these
37. A provision to move an adjournment motion for the
purpose of discussing a definite matter of urgent
importance is available and is admitted in the
following House
(a) Lok Sabha and fifty (b) Rajya Sabha and twenty
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ (d) Neither ‘a’ nor ‘b’
38. In the case of a casual vacancy in the seat of an
elected member to the Parliament, the term of office
of the member elected to fill that seat is the remainder
of the term of 5 years for Lok Sabha and 6 years for
Rajya Sabha. In the case of the nominated member to
the Rajya Sabha, which of the following is correct?
(a) Same as elected member (b) Full term
(c) Discretion of the Vice-President
Practice Set 2
(d) Discretion of the President
39. When the offices of both the Chairman and the Deputy
Chairman are vacant, the duties of the office of the
Chairman are performed by (in the Rajya Sabha)
(a) one of the panel of Vice-Chairman
(b) chairman protect appointed by the President
(c) seniormost member of the House
(d) Speaker
 198 Magbook ~ Indian Polity and Governance
40. The 73rd Amendment Act does not apply to the states 1. Amending the Second Schedule.
of 2. Amending the Seventh Schedule.
1. Nagaland 2. Mizoram 3. Creating a new assembly in a Union Territory.
3. Jammu and Kashmir 4. Meghalaya 4. Creating a new Legislative Council in a State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4

41. Consider the following statements about Financial Bill
Type II
1. Such a Bill may be introduced in either houses.
2. Rajya Sabha has full power to reject or amend it.
3. It cannot be introduced in either House of the Parliament
unless the President has recommended the Bill.
4. Special majority is required for its passage.
Which of the statement (s) given above is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) Only 3
42. Which of the following is true about implementation of
Directive Principles of State Policy?
1. They can be enforced by courts by issuing writs.
2. A law which violates them can be struck down by the
courts.
3. They first need a law to be made by the Parliament for
their enforcement.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3
(c) All of the above (d) None of these
43. Which of the following action policies or laws of the
government can be said to be implementing one of the
Directive Principles of State Policy?
1. Participation in UN peace-keeping forces
2. Land reforms
3. Nationalisation of banks 4. MGNREGA
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
44. Consider the following statements about unstarred
question
1. It is distinguished by an asterisk mark.
2. Answer to such a question is given orally.
3. Answer to such a question is not following by
supplementary questions.
4. It does not carry an asterisk mark.
5. Answer to such a question is given in a written form.
Which of the statements given above are incorrect?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Practice Set 2
46. Which of the following provisions require the assent
of half of all State Legislatures to be amended?
1. Manner of election of the President
2. Article 368 itself
3. Seventh Schedule
4. Increasing the strength of Supreme Court (number of
judges)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
47. What is the impact of emergency declared under
Article 356 on Fundamental Rights?
(a) Articles 14 and 19 are suspended
(b) Article 21 is suspended
(c) Articles 15 and 16 are suspended
(d) No effect
48. Under Article 335 to ensure constitutional
governance in a State, which of the following steps
can be taken by the Central Government?
1. Dispatching Central Police forces to the state.
2. Holding new elections in the State before the end of
life of the previous assembly.
3. Giving executive instructions to be compulsorily
implemented by the state.
4. Removing the Governor of the State who has violated
constitutional provisions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
49. During National Emergency Under Article 352 the
legislative powers of the Union get extended. What
is the effective position of the State list in the
Seventh Schedule under such circumstances?
(a) The State list items become part of Union list
(b) State list becomes the same as Concurrent list
(c) State list is considered as residuary power of the
Union
(d) No change
50. During a Proclamation of Emergency on grounds
of war of external aggression, the suspension of
rights under which of the following articles takes

place automatically?
45. Which of the following amendments do not require a (a) Article 20 (b) Article 21
special majority to be passed? (c) Article 14 (d) Article 19

Answers
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (d)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (d)
41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (d)